Section 1: IELTS Materials and Resources, Get IELTS Tips, Tricks & Practice Test

IELTS Materials and Resources, Get IELTS Tips, Tricks & Practice Test
IELTS READING PRACTICE TEST 39 WITH ANSWERS

Section 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.
The Rise and Fall of the British Textile Industry
Textile production in Britain can be said to have its roots as an industry at the beginning of the 18 th century, when Thomas Crotchet and
George Sorocold established what is thought to be the first factory built in Britain. It was a textile mill with a waterwheel as its source of
power, the latest machinery, and even accommodation for the workers. As well as possibly being the first sweatshop in the modern sense,
it was the beginning of the end for traditional textile production.
For hundreds of years the spinning and weaving of cloth had been done manually by men, women and children in their own homes.The
yarn would be combed and spun using a spindle, then woven on a hand loom, and what they produced would be mainly for local
consumption.Technology far more sophisticated than the spindle and hand-loom would change all that.
The demand for cotton textiles had been growing since the Middle Ages, fostered by the importation of high quality cotton fabrics from the
Middle East and India. So how were local producers to fight off the com petition? The imported fabrics were of course expensive, so
textile makers (not just in Britain but throughout Europe) produced mixed fabrics and cotton substitutes.They also had foreign textiles
banned. But the key to the increased productivity needed to meet the demand, was machine production. It would be faster, cheaper and the
finished products would be consistent in quality. Not least of the advantages was that it would allow manufacturers to market their goods
on a large, if not yet global, scale.
The story of the growth of the British textile industry from about 1733 and for the next two hundred years is one of constant technological
innovation and expansion. In 1733 John Kay invented the fly-shuttle, which made the hand-loom more efficient, and in 1764 James
Hargreaves came up with the spinning jenny, which among other things had the effect of raising productivity eightfold. The next great
innovator was Richard Arkwright, who in 1768 employed John Kay (of the fly-shuttle) to help him build more efficient machinery. He was
a man with a vision – to mechanise textile production – and by 1782 he had a network of mills across Britain. As the water-powered
machinery, though not yet fully mechanised, became more complex, Kay began to use steam engines for power. The first power-loom,
however, which was invented in 1785 by Dr Edmund Cartwright, really did mechanise the weaving stage of textile manufacture.
The pace of growth quickened with the expansion of Britain’s influence in the world and the acquisition of colonies from which cheap raw
materials could be imported. For example, in a single decade, from 1781 to 1791, imports of cotton into Britain quadrupled, going on to
reach 100 million pounds in weight in 1815 and 263 million in 1830.The increase in exports is equally impressive; in 1751 £46,000 worth
of cloth was exported and by the end of the century this had risen to £5.4 million. By the end of the 19 th century the figure had soared to
close on £50 million. Britain was now supplying cheaper and better quality clothing to a global market. Yet during the course of the
20th century Britain lost its position as a major textile manufacturer.
So what happened? There are a number of views on this question, not all of them conflicting, and where there is disagreement it is usually
about when the decline began. Whether it began before the First World War (1914-18), or during the inter-war years (1919—1939), or
after 1945, most economists would give roughly the same reasons. To start with, there was competition from abroad, especially from
developing countries in the Far East, notably Japan. It was thought by manufacturers that the best way to combat this increased
competition was to modernise. However, management and the labour unions were unable to agree on how to handle this situation.
Modernisation would mean people losing their jobs and possibly a change in labour practices. Such changes as were made served only to
slow down the industry’s decline rather than help regain its predominant position. Economically less developed countries, on the other
hand, had the advantage of being able to provide low wage competition, without the problem of powerful labour unions.
There are, of course, many other reasons for the textile industry’s decline, two of which became particularly noticeable in the late twentieth
century and are related. The first is outsourcing, when manufacturers establish factories in countries where there is cheap labour. This
obviously leads to less demand for locally-produced goods. Related to this, the textile and clothing industries have acquired a bad
reputation for exploiting workers, often illegal immigrants, in sweatshops where they are forced to work long hours and are paid far less
than the minimum wage.
We seem to be back with Crotchet and Sorocold and their first live-in factory. The globalising trend of out-sourcing, however, was a
rational response to the growing competition from overseas, which, it goes without saying, does not excuse the exploitation of workers.
The British industry itself, while no longer holding a key place in the global textile market has adapted itself and now concentrates more on
the world of fashion and design, where it seems to be doing quite well.
Questions 1-6
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Textile Manufacture
Early history
Begins as a cottage industry
Products hand-woven and made for 1___________________________________
Local producers face 2_________________________________ from overseas
Ways found to deal with situation
Imported fabrics 3______________________, mixed cottons produced
Early technology
Machine production needed to 4________________ for cotton fabrics
Improved technology (such as the fly-shuttle) more 5 and productive
Machinery begins to be powered by 6_________________
Questions 7-9
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
7 Which of the following innovations increased productivity by 800%?
A the power-loom
B the steam engine
C the spinning jenny
D the fly-shuttle
8 During which period was the British textile industry at its peak?
A 1733-1785
B 1781-1791
C 1791-1830
D 1830-1900
9 Which of the following was a major cause of the British textile industry’s decline?
A the expansion of foreign textile industries
B the loss of overseas markets
C there being no demand for products
D labour becoming too expensive
Questions 10-13
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
Write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
10 Foreign textiles were banned because of their inferior quality.
11 Richard Arkwright built the first fully-mechanised textile mill.
12 In less developed countries, the industry could rely on cheap labour.
13 Out-sourcing was one method used to compete with foreign manufacturers.
Section 2
What is an ASBO?
Ask somebody to make a list of crimes and they will probably come up with the usual suspects that you or I would: murder, robbery,
assault burglary and so on. They might even include acts which are merely’against the law’ like parking on a double yellow line.
But if you ask them to make a list of anti-social behaviours, you are getting into an area where there is going to be considerable
disagreement. This didn’t stop the UK government which introduced Anti-Social Behaviour Orders, or ASBOs, in 1998 as part of the
Crime and Disorder Act – legislation designed to deal with practically all aspects of criminal activity and disorderly behaviour.
A subjective definition of anti-social behaviour permits you to cast your net wide and include anything you find personally disagreeable;
the legal definition is also widely inclusive. To quote the Crime and Disorder Act it is behaviour which ’causes or is likely to cause
harassment alarm or distress to one or more people who are not in the same household as the perpetrator’.This includes, among many other
things, foul and abusive language, threatening behaviour, shouting, disorderly conduct, vandalism, intimidation, behaviour as the result of
drug or alcohol misuse, graffiti and noise which is excessive, particularly at night.
The idea is that ASBOs are sanctions designed to deal with issues that affect everyone in the community and as such are civil sanctions,
not criminal ones, and need the cooperation of the community to be effective. For example, a private individual cannot apply for an ASBO;
he or she must make a complaint to the police or local authority, who will then work together to gather more information and build up
evidence. This involves getting witnesses, among whom will no doubt be neighbours and acquaintances, to make statements to the
authorities. When the authorities are satisfied that they have enough evidence, the local council applies to the magistrates’court to have an
ASBO imposed.
We still haven’t decided what constitutes anti-social behaviour. It doesn’t have to be physical violence, of course, but is far easier to
identify and deal with if it is. What about threatening behaviour? We’re not talking here about direct threats such as ‘lf you come round
here again, I’ll beat you up!’, but situations perceived as threatening. Let’s say a pensioner or a person of timid disposition is on their way
home and they run into a group of young people who are shouting, swearing and kicking a ball about and who happen to make a few
unkind . remarks as the person passes. Let’s say the person is alarmed or feels threatened by the situation. Does it merit getting the ASBO
process going?
In fact, young people merely hanging out in public places, however boisterous their behaviour might seem to be to some people, are not
considered to be indulging in anti-social behaviour. However, there is a proviso. Such behaviour in its own right is not considered anti-
social unless it is thought it is being done with other, more serious, behavioural attitudes involved. This, of course, can be very subjective.
A person faced with an ASBO can argue in their defence that their behaviour was reasonable and unthreatening. This too is subjective, and
both sides’ claims are open to wide interpretation. Something else that has to be taken into account here is that ASBOs are made on an
individual basis even if that person is part of a group of people committing anti-social behaviour. If a case reaches the magistrates’court,
witnesses can be called to provide further evidence for or against the defendant. However, the magistrate, as well as considering the
complaints made against the defendant, will take into account his or her family situation, welfare issues, and whether or not he or she has
been victimised or discriminated against It is worth bearing in mind, though, that witnesses can be intimidated or otherwise persuaded not
to appear in court and give evidence.
When the Crime and Disorder Act came into force, ASBOs were generally intended to be a measure to deal with adult anti-social
behaviour, yet within the Act it states that an order can be applied for against any individual over the age often years old. It is a striking
fact that the majority of ASBOs imposed since the law was enacted have been handed out to young people and children.
The question is, have they been effective? The government, naturally, claims that they have brought about a real improvement in the
quality of life in communities around the country. Nay-sayers, such as civil rights campaigners, claim the measures are far too open to
abuse. Some say they go too far and some that they don’t go far enough and lack bite. However, a genuine impediment to their
effectiveness is that to impose an ASBO takes a lot of time and paperwork, involving the cooperation of community, police and local
council, and they are very expensive to implement- One estimate is that an ASBO can cost in excess of £20,000. What all this means is that
ASBOs are being used very rarely in many parts of the country. So the jury is still out as to how effective they really are.
Question 14-16
Choose THREE letters A-H.
NB Your answers may be given in any order.
Which THREE of the following statements are true of ASBOs, according to the text?
A They were introduced to deal with specific crimes.
B Parking on a double yellow line could get you served with an ASBO.
C Swearing is one of the offences referred to in the Crime and Disorder Act.
D As a private householder you can apply for an ASBO against a noisy neighbour.
E It is not illegal for young people to gather in groups in public places.
F An ASBO cannot be served on a group of people behaving in a disorderly manner. G A large proportion of those served with ASBOs are
over the age of 21.
H Most people agree that ASBOs have been effective all over the country.
Questions 17-19
17 The writer suggests that
A anti-social behaviour should be seen as a crime.
B few people agree on how to define a crime.
C anti social behaviour is difficult to define.
D the legal definition of crime is too exclusive.
18 What surprised the writer about the imposition of ASBOs?
A the number of ten-year-olds that had been given one
B that very few adults had been served with ASBOs
C that most of those served with ASBOs were youngsters
D how few ASBOs had been imposed since 1998
19 In the writers opinion, how effective have ASBOs been?
A There isn’t enough evidence to decide.
B They are too expensive to be effective.
C They are ineffective because they are not strict enough.
D Being open to abuse renders them ineffective.
Question 20-26
Complete the sentences.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
20 The official__________________________ says that anti social behaviour is behaviour which can cause alarm or distress.
21 Along with swearing and destruction of public or private property, making noise is considered anti-social behaviour.
22 ASBOs are considered to be part of__________________________ law rather than criminal law.
23 Citizens have to__________________________ to either the local council or the police before any action can be taken.
24 In their efforts to collect evidence the authorities may call on to get more information.
25 ASBOs are issued at a_________________________ .
26 ________________________ is the most straightforward form of anti social behaviour to determine.
Section 3
The Climate Changers
The romantic notion that early humans lived in harmony with their environment has taken quite a battering lately. Modem humans may
have started eliminating other species right from the start; our ancestors stand accused of wiping out mega fauna – from giant flightless
birds in Australia to mammoths in Asia and the ground sloth of North America – as they spread across the planet.
Even so, by around 6,000 years ago there were only about 12 million people on earth – less than a quarter of the current population of
Great Britain. That’s a far cry from today’s 6.6 billion, many of us guzzling fossil fuels, churning out greenhouse gases and messing with
our planet’s climate like there’s no tomorrow. So it may seem far-fetched to suggest that humans have been causing global warming ever
since our ancestors started burning and cutting forests to make way for fields at least 7,000 years ago.
Yet that’s the view of retired climate scientist William Ruddiman, formerly of the University of Virginia, Charlottesville. Ancient farmers
were pumping climate-warming carbon dioxide and methane into the atmosphere long before recorded history began, he says. Far from
causing catastrophe, however, early farmers halted the planet’s descent into another ice age and kept Earth warm and stable for thousands
of years.
Could a few primitive farmers really have changed the climate of the entire globe? If you find this hard to believe, you’re not the only one.
Ruddiman’s idea has been hugely controversial ever since he proposed it in 2003. ‘Most new ideas, especially controversial ones, die out
pretty fast. It doesn’t take science long to weed them out,’ he says. Yet five years on, his idea is still not dead. On the contrary, he says the
latest evidence strengthens his case. ‘It has become clear that natural explanations for the rise in greenhouse gases over the past few
thousand years are the ones that are not measuring up, and we can reject them,’he claims.
There is no doubt that the soaring levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases that we see in the atmosphere today – causing a 0.7°
C rise in average global temperature during the 20th century – are the result of human activities. In the late 1990s, however, Ruddiman
started to suspect that our contribution to the global greenhouse began to become significant long before the industrial age began. This was
when an ice core drilled at the Vostok station in Antarctica revealed how atmospheric C0 2 and methane levels have changed over the past
400,000 years. Bubbles trapped in the ice provide a record of the ancient atmosphere during the past three interglacials.
What we see is a regular pattern of rises and falls with a period of about 100,000 years, coinciding with the coming and going of ice ages.
There are good explanations for these cycles: periodic changes in the planet’s orbit and axis of rotation alter the amount of sunlight
reaching the Earth. We are now in one of the relatively brief, warm interglacial periods that follow an ice age.
Within this larger pattern there are regular peaks in methane every 22,000 years that coincide with the times when the Earth’s orbit makes
summers in the northern hemisphere warmest. This makes sense, because warm northern summers drive strong tropical monsoons in
southern Asia that both encourage the growth of vegetation and cause flooding, during which vegetation rotting in oxygen-poor water will
emit methane. Around the Arctic, hot summers thaw wetlands for longer, again promoting both vegetation growth and methane emission.
In recent times, however, this regular pattern has changed. The last methane peak occurred around 11,000 years ago, at about 700 parts per
billion (ppb), after which levels began to fall. But instead of continuing to fall to what Ruddiman says should have been a minimum of
about 450 ppb today, the atmospheric methane began to climb again 5,000 years ago.
Working with climate modellers Stephen Verves and John Kutzbach, Ruddiman has shown that if the levels of these gases had continued
to fall rather than rising when they did, ice sheets would now cover swathes of northern Canada and Siberia. The world would be heading
into another ice age.
So why did both methane and C02 rise over the past few thousand years? In other words, why has this interglacial period been different
from previous ones? Could humans be to blame?
Agriculture emerged around the eastern Mediterranean some 11,000 years ago, then shortly afterwards in China and several thousand years
later in the Americas. Farming can release greenhouse gases in various ways: clearing forests liberates lots of stored carbon as the wood
rots or is burned, for instance, while flooded rice paddies release methane just as wetlands do.
To find out more about early farming, Ruddiman began to dig around in studies of agricultural history.These revealed that there was a
sharp rise in rice cultivation in Asia around 5,000 years ago, with the practice spreading across China and south-east Asia. Here at least
was a possible source for the unexpected methane rise.
Questions 27-29
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D
27 One of the claims Ruddiman makes is that
A population growth is responsible for global warming.
B people have affected the climate for thousands of years.
C his ideas are not in the least bit controversial.
D so far scientists have been wrong about global warming.
28 What information did the research at Vostok reveal for the first time?
A that methane levels stabilised about 11,000 years ago
B that Antarctic ice contains methane bubbles
C that the methane levels increased about 5,000 years ago
D that we are now living in a warm interglacial period
29 The climate changers of the title are
A modern humans.
B climate modellers.
C primitive farmers.
D natural causes.
Questions 30-34
Complete the summary.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
To many people the controversial idea that our 30___________ were responsible for global warming appears 31___________ . Yet
Ruddiman believes that high levels of carbon dioxide and methane – both 32___________ , or greenhouse, gases – were being released
into the Earth’s atmosphere in times prior to 33___________ . However, Ruddiman claims that this
had a positive effect, as it may well have saved us from another 34__________ .
Questions 35-40
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3? Write
NOT GIVEN if the there is no information on this
35 Some mega fauna have been eliminated by humans in the past 100 years.
36 Agriculture is considered a primary cause of global warming today.
37 Ruddimans idea caused a great deal of argument among scientists.
38 New scientific evidence proves for certain that Ruddimans theory is correct.
39 The 20th century has seen the greatest ever increase in global temperatures.
40 Changes in the Earths orbit can affect global temperatures.
ANSWER KEY FOR IELTS READING PRACTICE TEST
1 local consumption
2 competition
3 banned
4 meet (the) demand
5 efficient
6 steam (engines)
7 C because it says in paragraph 4: ‘the spinning jenny, which among other things had the effect of raising productivity eightfold’
8 D because it says in paragraph 5: ‘By the end of the 19th century the figure had soared to close on £50 million.’
9 A because it says in paragraph 6: ‘it was competition from abroad’
10 FALSE because in paragraph 3 it describes the foreign fabrics as ‘high quality’.
11 NOT GIVEN
12 TRUE because it says in paragraph 6: ‘Economically less developed countries, on the other hand, had the advantage of being able to
provide low wage competition.’
13 TRUE because it says in paragraph ft: out sourcing was a rational response to the growing competition from overseas’.
14-15-16 (in any order)
C because it says in paragraph 2: ‘foul and abusive language*.
E because it says in paragraph 5: ‘young people merely hanging out in public places, however boisterous their behaviour might seem to be
to some people, are not considered to be indulging in anti-social behaviour!.
F because it says in paragraph 6: ‘ASBOs are made on an individual basis even if that person is part of a group!
17 C because it says in paragraph 1: ‘you are getting into an area where there is going to be considerable disagreement!
18 C because it says in paragraph 7: ‘It is a striking fact that the majority of ASBOs imposed since the law was enacted have been handed
to young people and children.’
19 A because it says in paragraph 8: ‘What all this means is that ASBOs are being used very rarely in many parts of the country. So the
jury is still out as to how effective they really are.’
20 definition
21 excessive
22 civil
23 make a complaint
24 witnesses/neighbours/acquaintances
25 magistrates court
26 Physical violence
27 B because it says in paragraph 2: ‘humans have been causing global warming ever since our ancestors started burning and cutting
forests to make way for fields at least 7,000 years ago* and in paragraph 3: ‘that’s the view of retired climate scientist William Ruddiman.
28 C because it says in paragraph 8: ‘the atmospheric methane began to climb again 5,000 years ago’.
29 C because Ruddimans view is that a few primitive farmers’ (paragraph 4) caused global warming when they ‘started burning and
cutting forests to make way for fields at least 7,000 years ago (paragraph 1).
30 ancestors
31 far-fetched
32 climate-warming
33 recorded history
34 ice age
35 FALSE because it says in paragraph 1: our ancestors stand accused of wiping out mega faunal
36 NOT GIVEN
37 TRUE because it says in paragraph 4: ‘Ruddimans idea has been hugely controversial*.
38 FALSE because it says in paragraph 4: ‘the latest evidence strengthens his case’ not proves it correct.
39 NOT GIVEN
40 TRUE because it says in paragraph 6: ‘periodic changes in the planet s orbit and axis of rotation alter the amount of sunlight reaching
the Earth*.
Exorbitant – Word Of The Day For IELTS

Posted: 14 Jan 2017 09:01 PM PST
Exorbitant – Word Of The Day For IELTS Speaking And Writing
Exorbitant – /ɪɡˈzɔːbətənt/ (Adjective)
Meaning:
an exorbitant price, amount of money etc is much higher than it should be
Synonyms:
Expensive, Astronomical, Costly, Pricey
Collocations:
 Noun: Fee, Price, Rent
Examples:
 The exorbitant fee caused an uproar in the land.
 A few farmers even managed to do very well out of the exorbitant prices charged to urban residents for a few mouthfuls of grain.
 When that failed they attempted an exorbitant rent so I intervened.
Exercises:
Try to use this word “exorbitant” in your speech
IELTS Speaking Part 2 Topic
Describe something you bought but you were not happy with. You should say:
 What this thing is?
 When did you buy it?
 Why were you not happy with it?
 How did you react?
Sample Answer:
Actually, in my life, I have performed many different transactions which give me both sense of satisfaction and discontent. However, if I
have to pick out one item that really let me down, I would name the birthday cake that I bought for my sister two years ago. Now with
reference to why I was not content with is, I suppose there was a combination of reasons here. One of them was its exorbitant price. On
my sister’s birthday, I had an emergency at work, and it took me almost all day till 11 pm to resolve it. Although it cost me an arm and a
leg to buy the cake, I still decided to take it since it was the only bakery shop stayed open that late. Everything would be fine if it tasted
good, but unfortunately, the cake was of terrible quality. It tasted way too sweet and was not appetising at all. Thus, I was kind of
regretful, choosing to purchase the cake instead of any other present for my sister. Actually, as I had to splash out on the cake and
received almost nothing back, I tended to be more careful to make really sensible buying decision from that on.
 Transaction (n): an instance of buying or selling something
 Discontent (n): dissatisfaction, lack of contentment
 Pick out (phrasal verb): to choose
 Let someone down (expression): fail to support or help someone as they expected
 With reference to (expression): about
 Content (a): in a taste of peaceful happiness,
 Cost an arm and a leg (idiom): be extremely expensive
 Appetising (a): delicious
 Splash out (phrasal verb): to spend a lot of money on something
 Sensible (a): in accordance with wisdom and prudence
Prohibitive – Word Of The Day For IELTS

Prohibitive – Word Of The Day For IELTS Speaking And Writing
Prohibitive /prəˈhɪbətɪv/ (Adjective)
Meaning:
 prohibitive costs are so high that they prevent people from buying or doing something
 a prohibitive rule prevents people from doing things

Synonyms:
Expensive, Exorbitant
Examples:
 The cost of land in Tokyo is prohibitive
 However, many companies find the cost of planning and implementation prohibitive.
 The cost of uniforms and books was becoming prohibitive and the gang scene was worsening at school
 Trade will reduce welfare when transport costs are sufficiently close to prohibitive and increase it when they are sufficiently low
Exercises:
Try to use this word “prohibitive” in your writing
IELTS Writing Task 2 Topic
It is neither possible nor useful for a country to provide university places for a high proportion of young people. To what extent do you
agree or disagree?
Sample Essay:
Furnishing the young generations with tertiary education play an indispensable part in the government’s policies. However, most policy
makers reckon that it is infeasible and inefficient to offer the vast majority of the youth higher education. From my perspective, I
completely agree with this statement for the following reasons.
It proves impossible for a country to provide entry to tertiary education for all young people. The first reason is the prohibitive tuition
fees and the inability to afford them of the majority of youths. College or university undergraduates are supposed to learn from
experiments, purchase costly materials during a term, let alone other field trips if one majors in practical fields of study like engineering or
medical. All of these plus the fact that many students from rural areas find it tough to meet only the annual tuition fees, especially
in poverty-stricken countries. This leads to the second reason in which I mean government have other priorities such as universal
education, health care system to invest in.
It also does not seem useful for the whole country once the state wish to accommodate the youth with higher education. This is primarily
because there is no guarantee that students will become successful and contribute to the well-being of their nation after finishing their
education. There are the cases when distinguished graduates fail to secure a decent job and thus become unemployed, exacerbating the
burden on society as a consequence. Even worse, some are likely to slack off with their studies or even drop out of school as they
either take higher education for granted or find no motivation in furthering their knowledge, given the thought that tertiary education
is subsidised or free of charge.
In conclusion, it’s my firm belief that not only it is neither possible nor useful for a country to provide university places for a high
proportion of young people
Play an indispensable part in (collocation) participate in something in a important way
Let alone: not to mention or think of someone or something
Major in (verb) specialise in something
Poverty-stricken (a) extremely poor
Accommodate sb with sth (verb) provide sb with sth
Contribute to (verb) to donate something to some cause
Well-being (noun) The state of being healthy, happy, or prosperous
Secure a decent job (collocation) obtain a good job
Exacerbate (verb) to make a problem become worse
Slack off (verb) to work less hard than is usual or necessary; become lazy
Take something/somebody for granted (idiom) to fail to appreciate someone/the value of something
Subsidise (verb) to pay some of the cost of goods or services so that they can be sold to other people at a lower price
Free of charge (phrase) without paying any money

2017 IELTS Speaking Part 1 Topic: Television & Sample Answers

In IELTS Speaking Part One of the Speaking Module, to answer IELTS
examiner’s questions in natural and fluent way, you should focus on one
idea only and then expand that idea into a long meaningful
sentence using grammar patterns and vocabulary, which can help
you get Band 8.0+ for IELTS Speaking.
The assessment criteria also mention fluency and pronunciation, which means that you need to deliver that long, meaningful sentence in a
fluent, nice-sounding stream of words.
Let’s practice this with some easy questions about a popular topic: Television
Here’s an answer by one of my students:
What’s your favorite TV program?
There are many documentaries on TV relating related to architecture. Because I’m an architect. And they always introduce some new
approaches to construct construction and the latest materials which can be used. I used to read book books. But now there are so many
good videos online. I think they are more interesting and better.
The answer is not too bad, but it’s confused and broken up, and contains some errors and logic problems
One Idea
 “Documentaries connected to my job in architecture.”
Vocabulary
 documentary / channel / pick up information / enhance knowledge / stream videos online
Grammar Patterns
 Parallel structures: not only … but also …
 Past tense: used to (v)
 Perfect continuous tense: have been (v) ing
 Clauses: … which …
So, let’s try to make the above answer a little better:

Being an architect, I used to not only read books but also watch TV documentaries in order to pick up information related to my field. My
favorite TV series is “Live or Die” which has been aired since 2012 and helps me broaden my horizon in architecture. But , recently,
because I found that the Internet is full of better material, I’ve been streaming videos, which is a much more efficient way to enhance my
knowledge.
Why do old people like to watch TV?
One idea
 Watching TV is an easy activity which can easily fill a lot of time.
Vocabulary
 kill time / indoor activity / soap operas /remote control / channel surfing
Grammar Patterns
 Coordinating conjunctions: Although … , …
 Clauses: … , which …
Now try to make your own answer:

Although ……. , ……., which ….
==> Sample Answer:
I reckon that TV plays an indispensable part in the elder people’ lives because indulging themselves in TV programs can help them kill
time when their children have a hectic life out there and can’t spend time on looking after them on a daily basis. Although nowadays TV
can furnish the elderly with a multitude of programs such as documentary and soap opera, they still need to being talked to and enjoy time
with their children, which made TV not able to substitute for the real conservation with their family members like sons or grandsons.

2017 IELTS Speaking Topic & Questions: Television & Sample Answers
Do you like watching TV?
How much time do you spend watching TV?
When do you usually watch TV?
What types of TV programs are popular in your country?
Did you watch much TV when you were a child?
What types of programs did you watch when you were a child?
Do you think TV has changed in the past few decades?
Has television changed your life in any way?

Sample Answers
1. Do you often watch TV?
I actually prefer watching TV to surfing the Internet due to its selectivity and accessibility. Because the audience can be children, teenagers
and families, the content of TV programs is examine carefully and suitable time frame is arranged in order to avoid having negative impacts
on them.
1. What’s your favourite TV programme?
Definitely music channels such as MTV or V-channel. These channels offer a wide variety of music everyday. In addition, they also
interact with their audience by allowing them to vote for the Top 20 songs of each week or to play the songs they requested.
1. What types of TV programme are popular in your country?
In my country these days reality shows and comedy shows are among the most popular TV programs. I guess it’s because its content is
suitable for audience of any age from children to the elderly. The fans of reality shows feel interactive and familiar with the competitors
while that of comedy shows generally want to be entertained with jokes and laughters.
1. Do you ever watch foreign programs or films?
I definitely did enjoy quite a lot of shows and programs, from music, movies, fashion, news and scientific documentaries since the foreign
are so good at visual editings and content management. Most of them are in in English because I’m more familiar with this language
compare to French or Japanese.
1. What (types of) programmes did you watch when you were a child?
Like other children, I watched a number of cartoons and music programs for children when I was a child. Tom and Jerry, Barbie, Disney
series are my favorite which still get me excited whenever I see them on TV now. My mom said I also was kinda attracted to music
programs for children that I focused on them completely while eating.
1. Do you think television has changed in the past few decades?/ (Possibly) Do you think television has changed since you were a child?
Televisions indeed have been changing remarkably for the past few years. The technology has become so innovative and competitive
to meet the customers’ high demand on entertainment. The variety of TV programs is no longer limited to national level but has reached
to a number of foreign countries; and is significantly diversifying in content for audience preference.
Vocabulary
To be innovative (adj): to be developed in technology
To meet one’s demand on Sth (v): to provide SO with Sth/to provide Sth for SO
To diversify (v): to vary, to have many choices available
1. Has television changed your life in any way?
I think watching TV has become a habit that I would hardly change. My family always watch news while having dinner together.
Personally, I’d love watching TV for relaxing after studying as well as keeping myself updated on showbiz, music, movies, landscape
discoveries and fields of science. Thus as long as I do not become a couch potato, TV has always played an important role in my life,
making my life more colorful and opening in front of my eyes the places I’ve never been to.
Vocabulary
Couch potato (phrase): a person who is addicted to watching TV
To play an important/key/crucial role in Sth (phrase): to be essential
IELTS Writing Recent Actual Test (Task 1 & 2) in Vietnam – January 2017 & Model Answers
The Writing Test can be reused in different countries; therefore, you
should practice all the past exams in other countries to be well-prepared
for the IELTS test.
Writing Task 1
Posted: 18 Jan 2017 01:15 AM PST
Section 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-14 which are based on Reading Passage 1.
The Grapes of Winter
If an artist must suffer to create great art, so does the winemaker when it comes to producing ice wine.
A Ice wine, or Eiswein as the Germans call it, is the product of frozen grapes. A small portion of the vineyard is left unpicked during the fall
harvest those grapes arc left on the vine until the mercury drops to at least -7°C. At this temperature, the sugar-rich juice begins to freeze. If
the grapes are picked in their frozen state and pressed while they are as hard as marbles, the small amount of juice recovered is intensely
sweet and high in acidity. The amber dessert wine made from this juice is an ambrosia fit for Dionysus 1 himself – very sweet, it combines
savours of peach and apricot.
B The discovery of ice wine, like most epicurean breakthroughs, was accidental. In 1794, wine producers in the German duchy of Franconia
made virtue of necessity by pressing juice from frozen grapes. They were amazed by an abnormally high concentration of sugars and acids
which, until then, had been achieved only by drying the grapes on straw mats before pressing or by the effects of Botrytis cinerea, a disease
known as ‘root rot’. Botrytis cinerea afflicts grapes in autumn, usually in regions where there is early morning fog and humid, sunny
afternoons. A mushroom-like fungus attaches itself to the berries, punctures their skins and allows the juice to evaporate. To many, the result
is sheer ambrosia. The world’s great dessert wines, such as Sauternes, Riesling and Tokay Aszu Essencia, are made from grapes afflicted by
this benign disease.
C It was not until the mid-19th century in the Rheingau region of northwestern Germany that winegrowers made conscious efforts to produce
ice wine on a regular basis. But they found they could not make it every year since the subzero cold spell must last several days to ensure that
the berries remain frozen solid during picking and the pressing process, which alone can take up to three days or longer. Grapes are 80
percent water; when this water is frozen and driven off under pressure and shards of ice, the resulting juice is wonderfully sweet. If the ice
melts during a sudden thaw, the sugar in each berry is diluted.
D Not all grapes are suitable for ice wine. Only the thick-skinned, late-maturing varieties such as Riesling and Vidal can resist such predators
as grey rot, powdery mildew, unseasonable warmth, wind, rain and the variety of fauna craving a sweet meal. Leaving grapes on the vine
once they have ripened is an enormous gamble. If birds and animals do not get them, mildew and rot or a sudden storm might. So growers
reserve only a small portion of their Vidal or Riesling grapes for ice wine, a couple of hectares of views at most.
E To ensure the right temperature is maintained, in Germany the pickers must be out well before dawn to harvest the grapes. A vineyard left
for ice wine is a sorry sight. The mesh-covered vines arc denuded of leaves and the grapes are brown and shrivelled, dangling like tiny bats
from the frozen canes. The stems of the grape clusters are dry and brittle. A strong wind or an ice storm could easily knock the fruit to the
ground. A twist of the wrist is all that is needed to pick them, but when the wind howls through the vineyard, driving the snow- before it and
the wind chill factor can make a temperature of -10° seem like -40°, harvesting ice wine grapes becomes a decidedly uncomfortable business.
Pickers fortified with tea and brandy, brave the elements for two hours at a time before rushing back to the winery to warm up.
F Once the tractor delivers the precious boxes of grapes to the winery, the really hard work begins. Since the berries must remain frozen, the
pressing is done either outdoors or inside the winery with the doors left open. The presses have to be worked slowly otherwise the bunches
will turn to a solid block of ice yielding nothing. Some producers throw rice husks into the press to pierce the skins of the grapes and create
channels for the juice to flow- through the mass of ice. Sometimes it takes two or three hours before the first drop of juice appears.
G A kilogram of unfrozen grapes normally produces sufficient juice to ferment into one bottle of wine. Depending on the degree of
dehydration caused by wind and winter sunshine, the juice from a kilogram of ice wine grapes produces one-fifth of that amount or less. The
longer the grapes hang on the vine, the less juice there is. So grapes harvested during a cold snap in December will yield more ice wine than if
they are picked in February. The oily juice, once extracted from the marble-hard berries, is allowed to settle for three or four days. It is then
clarified of dust and debris by ‘racking’ from one tank to another. A special yeast is added to activate fermentation in the stainless steel tanks
since the colourless liquid is too cold to ferment on its own. Because of the high sugar content, the fermentation can take several months. But
when the wine is finally bottled, it has the capacity to age for a decade or more.
While Germany may be recognised as the home of ice wine, its winemakers cannot produce it every year. Canadian winemakers can and are
slowly becoming known for this expensive rarity as the home-grown product garners medals at international wine competitions. Klaus Reif of
the Reif Winery at Niagara-on-the-Lake has produced ice wine in both countries. While studying oenology, the science of winemaking, he
worked at a government winery in Neustadt in the West German state of Rheinland-Pfalz. In 1983 he made his first Canadian ice wine from
Riesling grapes. Four years later he made ice wine from Vidal grapes grown in his uncle’s vineyard at Niagara-on-the-Lake. “The juice
comes out like honey here” says Reif, “but in Germany it has the consistency of ordinary wine”.
Question 1-7
Reading Passage 1 has seven paragraphs A-G
From the list of headings below, choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph.
Write the appropriate numbers i-x in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet
List of Headings
i International comparisons
ii Unique grapes withstand various attacks
iii Production of initial juice
iv Warm temperatures reduce sweetness
v Cold temperatures bring a sweet taste
vi From grape to wine
vii More grapes produce less wine
viii Temperature vital to production
ix Infection bring benefits
x Obstacles to picking
xi The juice flows quickly
Example Answer
Paragraph A V

1 Paragraph B
2 Paragraph C
3 Paragraph D
4 Paragraph E
5 Paragraph F
6 Paragraph G
7 Paragraph H
Question 8 -10
Choose the correct letter. A, B, C or D
Write your answers in boxes 8-10 on your answer sheet.
8 Growers set aside only a small area for ice wine grapes because
A not all grapes are suitable.
B nature attacks them in various ways.
C not many grapes are needed.
D the area set aside makes the vineyard look extremely untidy.
9 Rice husks are used because they
A stop the grapes from becoming ice blocks.
B help the berries to remain frozen.
C create holes in the grapes.
D help producers create different tastes.
10 According to Klaus Reif, Canadian ice wine
A flows more slowly than German wine.
B tastes a lot like German ice wine.
C is better than German ice wine.
D is sweeter than German ice wine.
Question 11-14
Complete each of the following statements (questions 11-14) with the best ending A-G from the box below.
Write the appropriate letters A-G in boxes 11-14 on your answer sheet.
11 Franconia ice wine makers
12 Famous dessert winemakers
13 Ice wine grape pickers in Germany
14 Canadian ice wine makers
A use diseased grapes to produce their wine.
B enjoy working in cool climates.
C can produce ice wine every year.
were surprised by the high sugar content in
D
frozen grapes.
E made a conscious effort to produce ice wine.
F drink tea and brandy during their work.
Section 2
Islands That Float
Islands are not known for their mobility but, occasionally it occurs.Natural floating islands have been recorded in many parts of the world
(Burns et al 1985). Longevity studies in lakes have been carried out by I lesser, and in rivers and the open sea by Boughey (Smithsonian
Institute 1970). They can form in two common ways: landslides of (usually vegetated) peaty soils into lakes or seawater or as a flotation of
peat soils (usually hound by roots of woody vegetation) after storm surges, river floods or lake level risings.
The capacity of the living part of a floating island to maintain its equilibrium in the face of destructive forces, such as fire, wave attack or
hogging and sagging while riding sea or swell waves is a major obstacle. In general, ocean-going floating islands are most likely to be short-
lived; wave wash-over gradually eliminates enough of the island’s store of fresh water to deplete soil air and kill vegetation around the edges
which, in turn, causes erosion and diminishes buoyancy and horizontal mobility.
The forces acting on a floating island determine the speed and direction of movement and are very similar to those which act on floating
mobile ice chunks during the partially open-water season (Peterson 1965). In contrast to such ice rafts, many floating islands carry vegetation,
perhaps including trees which act as sails. In addition, Burns et al examined the forces acting and concluded that comparatively low wind
velocities are required to establish free-floating islands with vegetation standing two meters or more tall.
The sighting of floating islands at sea is a rare event; such a thing is unscheduled, short-lived and usually undocumented. On July 4th, 1969-
an island some 15 meters in diameter with 10-15 trees 10-12 meters tall was included in the daily notice to mariners as posing a shipping
navigation hazard between Cuba and Haiti. McWhirter described the island as looking “…as though it were held together by a mangrove-type
matting; there was some earth on it but it looked kind of bushy around the bottom, like there was dead foliage, grass-like material or
something on the island itself. The trees were coming up out of that. It looked like the trees came right out of the surface brown layer. No
roots were visible”. By the 14th of July the island had apparently broken up and the parts had partially submerged so that only the upper tree
trunks were above the water. By July 19th, no trace of the island was found after an intensive six hour search.
Another example albeit freshwater, can be found in Victoria, Australia – the floating islands of Pirron Yallock. Accounts of how the floating
islands wrere formed have been given by local residents. These accounts have not been disputed in scientific literature. Prior to 1938, the lake
was an intermittent swamp which usually dried out in summer. A drainage channel had been excavated at the lowest point of the swamp at
the northern part of its perimeter. This is likely to have encouraged the development or enlargement of a peat mat on the floor of the
depression. Potatoes were grown in the centre of the depression where the peat rose to a slight mound. The peat was ignited by a fire in 1938
which burned from the dry edges towards a central damp section. A track was laid through the swamp last century and pavement work was
carried out in 1929-30. This causeway restricted flow between the depression and its former southern arm. These roadworks, plus collapse
and partial infilling of the northern drainage channel, created drainage conditions conducive to a transition from swamp to permanent lake.
The transformation from swamp to lake was dramatic, occurring over the winter of 1952 when rainfall of around 250nun was well above
average. Peat is very buoyant and the central raised section which had been isolated by the fire, broke away from the rocky, basalt floor as the
water level rose in winter. The main island then broke up into several smaller islands which drifted slowly for up to 200 meters within the
confines of the lake and ranged in size from 2 to 30 meters in diameter. The years immediately following experienced average or above
average rainfall and the water level was maintained. Re-alignment of the highway in 1963 completely blocked the former south-east outlet of
the depression, further enhancing its ability to retain water. The road surface also provided an additional source of runoff to the depression.
Anecdotal evidence indicates that the islands floated uninterrupted for 30 years following their formation. They generally moved between the
NW and NE sides of the lake in response to the prevailing winds. In 1980, the Rural Water Commission issued a nearby motel a domestic
licence to remove water from the lake and occasionally water is taken for the purpose of firefighting. The most significant amount taken for
firefighting was during severe fires in February 1983. Since then, the Pirron Yallock islands have ceased to float, and this is thought to be
related to a drop in the water level of approximately 600 nun over the past 10-15 years. The islands have either run aground on the bed or the
lagoon or vegetation has attached them to the bed.
Floating islands have attracted attention because they are uncommon and their behaviour has provided not only explanations for events in
myth and legend but also great scope for discussion and speculation amongst scientific and other observers.
(1) Peat = a dark brown substance that is formed by plants dying and becoming buried.
Question 15-19
In boxes 15-19 on your answer sheet write
15 Natural floating islands occur mostly in lakes.
16 Floating Islands occur after a heavy storm or landslide.
17 The details of the floating island at sea near Cuba and Haiti were one of many sea-going islands in that area.
18 Floating islands at sea sink because the plants on them eventually die.
19 Scientists and local residents agree on how the Pirron Yallock Islands were formed.
Question 20-23
Look at the following people (questions 20-23) and the list of statements below.
Match each person to the correct statement.
Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet.
20 Burns
21 Peterson
22 McWhirter
23 Hesser
A compared floating islands to floating blocks of ice
B documented the breakup of a sea-going island
C examined floating islands in a confined area
D studied the effect of rivers on floating islands
E like floating islands, floating mobile ice chunks carry vegetation
F even comparatively light winds can create a floating island
G recorded the appearance of a sea-going floating island
H tall trees increase floating island mobility
Question 24-27
Complete the labels on Diagram B below.
Write the correct letter A-H in boxes 24-27 on your answer sheet.
A 5 meters
B 30 meters
C basalt
D 200 meters
E 250 meters
F causeway
G highway
H drainage channel
Section 3
Ocean Plant life in decline
A Scientists have discovered plant life covering the surface of the world’s oceans is disappearing at a dangerous rate. This plant life called
phytoplankton is a vital resource that helps absorb the worst of the ‘greenhouse gases’ involved in global warming. Satellites and ships at sea
have confirmed the diminishing productivity of the microscopic plants, which oceanographers say is most striking in the waters of the North
Pacific – ranging as far up as the high Arctic. “Whether the lost productivity of the phytoplankton is directly due to increased ocean
temperatures that have been recorded for at least the past 20 years remains part of an extremely complex puzzle”, says Watson W. Gregg, a
NASA biologist at the Goddard Space Flight Center in the USA, but it surely offers a fresh clue to the controversy over climate change.
According to Gregg, the greatest loss of phytoplankton has occurred where ocean temperatures have risen most significantly between the
early 1980s and the late 1990s. In the North Atlantic summertime, sea surface temperatures rose about 1.3 degrees Fahrenheit during that
period, while in the North Pacific the ocean’s surface temperatures rose about 0.7 of a degree.
B While the link between ocean temperatures and the productivity of plankton is striking, other factors can also affect the health of the plants.
They need iron as nourishment, for example, and much of it reaches them via powerful winds that sweep iron-containing dust across the
oceans from continental deserts. When those winds diminish or fail, plankton can suffer. According to Gregg and his colleagues, there have
been small but measurable decreases in the amount of iron deposited over the oceans in recent years.
C The significant decline in plankton productivity has a direct effect on the world s carbon cycle. Normally, the ocean plants take up about
half of all the carbon dioxide in the world’s environment because they use the carbon, along with sunlight, for growth, and release oxygen
into the atmosphere in a process known as photosynthesis. Primary production of plankton in the North Pacific has decreased by more than 9
percent during the past 20 years, and by nearly 7 percent in the North Atlantic, Gregg and his colleagues determined from their satellite
observations and shipboard surveys. Studies combining all the major ocean basins of the world has revealed the decline in plankton
productivity to be more than 6 percent.
D The plankton of the seas are a major way in which the extra carbon dioxide emitted in the combustion of fossil fuels is eliminated. Whether
caused by currently rising global temperatures or not, the loss of natural plankton productivity in the oceans also means the loss of an
important factor in removing much of the principal greenhouse gas that has caused the world’s climate to warm for the past century or more.
“Our combined research shows that ocean primary productivity is declining, and it may be the result of climate changes such as increased
temperatures and decreased iron deposits into parts of the oceans. This has major implications for the global carbon cycle” said Gregg.
E At the same time, Stanford University scientists using two other NASA satellites and one flown by the Defense Department have observed
dramatic new changes in the vast ice sheets along the west coast of Antarctica. These changes, in turn, are having a major impact on
phytoplankton there. They report that a monster chunk of the Ross Ice Shelf – an iceberg almost 20 miles wide and 124 miles long – has
broken off the west face of the shelf and is burying a vast ocean area of phytoplankton that is the base of the food web in an area
exceptionally rich in plant and animal marine life.
F Although sea surface temperatures around Western Antarctica are remaining stable, the loss of plankton is proving catastrophic to all the
higher life forms that depend on the plant masses, say Stanford biological oceanographers Arrigo and van Dijken. Icebergs in Antarctica are
designated by letters and numbers for aerial surveys across millions of square miles of the southern ocean, and this berg is known as C-19.
“We estimate from satellite observations that C-19 in the Ross Sea has covered 90 percent of all the phytoplankton there” said Arrigo.
G Huge as it is, the C-19 iceberg is only the second-largest recorded in the Ross Sea region. An even larger one, dubbed B-15, broke off, or
‘calved’ in 2001. Although it also blotted out a large area of floating phytoplankton on the sea surface, it only wiped out about 40 percent of
the microscopic plants. Approximately 25 percent of the world’s populations of emperor penguins and 30 percent of the Adelie penguins nest
in colonies in this area. This amounts to hundreds of thousands of Adelie and emperor penguins all endangered by the huge iceberg, which
has been stuck against the coast ever since it broke off from the Ross Ice Shelf last year. Whales, seals and the millions of shrimp-like sea
creatures called krill are also threatened by the loss of many square miles of phytoplankton.
Question 28-32
The passage has seven paragraphs labelled A-G.
Which paragraph contains the following information?
28 the role of plankton in dealing with carbon dioxide from vehicles
29 the effect on land and marine creatures when icebergs break off
30 the impact of higher temperatures upon the ocean
31 the system used in naming icebergs
32 the importance of phytoplankton in the food chain
Question 33-36
Complete the sentences below with words taken from Reading Passage 3. Use NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. Write
your answers in boxes 33-36 on your answer sheet.
33 Much needed iron for plant life is transported to the ocean by______________
34 An increase in greenhouse gases is due to a decrease in______________
35 Phytoplankton forms the___________________ of the food web.
36 I he technical term used when a piece of ice detached from the main block is___________
Question 37-40
Complete the summary of paragraphs A-C below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer. Write your
answers in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet.
A decline in the plant life located in the world’s oceans has been validated by 37_________________ . The most obvious decline in plant life
has been in the North Pacific. A rise in ocean temperatures in the early 1980s and late 1990s led to a decline in
38____________________________ . In addition to higher ocean temperatures, deficiencies in 39______________ can also lead to a decline
in plankton numbers. This, in turn, impacts upon the world’s 40____________________ .
1 IX
read each paragraph and note the main ideas (main ideas usually have a lot of information written about them)
read the words in the question (in the box) and find a match with your main ideas
notice paragraph B mentions ‘an abnormally high concentration of sugars and acids achieved by Botrytis cinerea’; ‘The result (of the disease)
is highly desirable…’; ‘The world’s great wines are made from grapes afflicted with this disease’.
once you are quite sure you have the right paragraph, read in depth to confirm your choice
2 viii
notice paragraph C mentions that’… the subzero cold spell must last several days to ensure the berries remain frozen solid during picking… ‘
and, ‘If the ice melts during a sudden thaw, the sugar in each berry is diluted’
again, read in depth to confirm your choice
3 ii
notice paragraph D mentions that ‘not all grapes are suitable… only the thick- skinned, late-maturing varieties such as Riesling and Vidal (a
unique or special grape type) can resist… predators…’ (a list of predators/attackers are listed)
again, read in depth to confirm your choice
4 x
notice paragraph E states, ‘A strong wind or an ice storm could easily knock the fruit to the ground’; ‘howling (strong) wind’; ‘a wind chill
factor… of -10°C’ – all these are obstacles that can (negatively) affect picking’
read in depth to confirm your choice
5 iii
notice paragraph F states, ‘The presses (the things used for production) have to be worked slowly otherwise the bunches will… yield
nothing’, ‘sometimes it takes 2-3 hours before the first drop of juice’ – this is the initial
6 vi
notice paragraph G mentions ‘… grapes are harvested… The oily juice once extracted… is allowed to settle… it is then clarified… a special
yeast is added… the wine is finally bottled…” – all these steps show the process from the harvesting of the grape to the production of the ice
wine
7 i
notice paragraph H mentions ‘Germany may be recognised as the ice wine home… it’s winemakers cannot be produce it every year… but
‘Canadian winemakers can produce it every year’; ‘The juice comes out like honey (in Canada) in Germany it flows like ordinary wine’ –
these are international comparisons
8 B
scan the text looking for ways nature attacks the grapes
Paragraph D lists many ways that nature attacks the grapes
Various ways nature attacks (‘…birds, mildew and rot… a sudden storm’) are mentioned
9 C
scan the text looking for the key words ‘rice husks’
Answer is located in paragraph F
rice husks are used to “… pierce the skins… (so the) juice flow(s)
10 A
Scan for the surname Reif once located, read in depth for his view on Canadian ice wine
Answer is located in paragraph H
The juice from grapes in Canada “… comes out like honey… ” whereas in Germany “… it flows like ordinary wine.”
The context is that Canadian ice wine flows more slowly than ordinary wine
11 D
Answer is located in paragraph B
“They were amazed by an abnormally high concentration of sugar… ”
12 A
Answer is located in paragraph B
“… great dessert wines… are made from grapes afflicted by this… disease”
13 F
Answer is located in paragraph E
“… pickers fortified with tea and brandy… ”
‘fortified’ is a difficult word but reading it carefully in context, we can work out that it has something to do with using (drinking) to give
strength/energy and/or keep warm.
14 C
Answer is located in paragraph H
“… winemakers cannot produce (wine) every year (but) Canadian winemakers can… ”
15 NG
There is nothing in the passage about this!
16 T
locate key words in the question and scan for them
key words are heavy storm and landslide
read in detail to find out about these terms
locate the words, “… in two common ways: landslides… or… after storm surges…”
17 F
locate the key words in the question
key words are Cuba and Haiti scan for them
read in detail to find out if there have been many floating islands
locate the words, “… sighting of floating islands is rare… unscheduled, short-lived and usually undocumented”
18 NG
19 T
key words are scientists and local residents
read in detail to ‘Accounts of how the floating islands were formed have been given by local residents. These accounts have not been
disputed in scientific literature. “
20 F
scan for the name ‘Burns’.
once located, read carefully what is written before and after
locate the words “… comparatively low wind… establish(es) free-floating islands with vegetation… two meters… tall”
21 A
scan for the name ‘Peterson’
locate the words “… floating islands… are analogous to floating mobile ice chunks…”
22 G
scan for the name ‘McWhirter*
a long description of the floating island in Cuban waters begins with the words “McWhirter described the island…11
23 C
scan for the name “Hesser’
locate the words “… Longevity studies in lakes have been carried out by Hesser”. In other words, how long islands last in a closed area (a
lake). Therefore the answer is “C”
24 F
study the two diagrams carefully
locate the section of the reading passage which deals with the Pirron Yallock Islands
notice that the 5th paragraph states, “This causeway restricted flow between the depression and its former southern arm.”
the section of the diagram is clearly positioned in the south therefore, the causeway must be the answer
25 B
notice that the 6th paragraph states, “The main island then broke up into several smaller islands which… range in size from 2 to 30 meters in
diameter.”
the section of the diagram is clearly positioned over the largest island so it must be the maximum size mentioned – 30 meters.
26 D
notice that the 6th paragraph states, “The main island then broke up… drift(ing) slowly for up to 200 meters within the confines of the lake.”
the section of the diagram clearly relates to the total length of the lake and the maximum distance given is 200 meters so this is the answer.
27 C
notice that the 6th paragraph states, ’Peat… had been isolated by the fire (and) broke away from the rocky, basalt floor.’
the section of the diagram is clearly pointing to the floor or base of the lake therefore, it must be the basalt floor
28 D
Read the information in the questions carefully and determine the key words
the key words in this question are ‘plankton, carbon dioxide, vehicles”
skim the passage looking for those key words and/or their synonyms
the answer is paragraph D.
29 G
the key words in this question are “animals affected, ice bergs, break off1
the answer is located in the latter part of paragraph G.
30 A
the key words in this question are “impact, higher temperatures’
the answer is in the middle part of paragraph A.
31 F
the key words in this question are ‘naming icebergs’
the answer is paragraph F.
32 E
the key words in this question are “importance phytoplankton, food chain*
the answer is paragraph E.
33 (powerful) wind(s)
Read the questions carefully selecting key words.
The key words are “iron, transported to ocean”.
Scan the passage for those key words and locate the area that addresses the gist of the passage.
Paragraph B makes mention of powerful winds that sweep iron-containing dust across the oceans…”
Make sure you use the word(s) directly from the passage.
34 plankton (productivity)
Read the questions carefully selecting key words.
The key words are “increase in greenhouse gasses, decrease in.”
Scan the passage for those key words and locate the area that addresses the gist of the passage.
Paragraph D states that, “The loss of plankton productivity in the oceans also means the loss of an important factor in removing much of the
principal greenhouse gas that has been a primary cause of the world’s climate to warm for the past century or more.’
35 base
Read the questions carefully selecting key words
The key words are “phytoplankton, food web.”
scan the passage for those key words and locate the area that addresses the gist of the passage
paragraph E makes mention of”… a vast ocean area of phytoplankton that is the base of the food web…”
36 calved
Read the questions carefully selecting key words
the key words are “piece, detached ice, main block”
scan the passage for those key words and locate the area that addresses the gist of the passage
paragraph G states. “Huge as it is, the C-19 iceberg is only the second-largest recorded in the Ross Sea region. An even larger one, dubbed B-
15, broke off, or ‘calved’in 2001.”
37 satellites and ships
Identify the key words in the summary sentences.
In the first sentence “decline, plant life and validated” are the key words.
Scan the paragraphs A-C for the key words or synonyms of those key words.
Read the sentence(s) which relate to the key words. In paragraph A it states that the diminishing (or declining) productivity of microscopic
plants is being confirmed (validated) by satellites and ships.
38 phytoplankton
In the third sentence “… rise in ocean temperatures, 1980s, 1990s… ” are the key words.
Scan paragraphs A-C for the key words or synonyms of those key words.
Read the sentence(s) which relate to the key words. In paragraph A it states that “… the greatest loss of phytoplankton has occurred where
ocean temperatures have risen most significantly between the early 1980s and the late 1990s.”
39 iron
In the fourth sentence ‘higher temperatures, deficiencies, decline in plankton” are the key words.
Scan the paragraphs A-C for the key words or synonyms of those key words.
Read the sentenced) which relate to the key words. In paragraph B it states, “… winds sweep iron-containing dust across the oceans from
continental deserts. When those winds diminish or fail, plankton can suffer.’
40 carbon cycle
Identify the key words in the summary’ sentences.
In the fifth sentence “impacts upon, world’s” are the key words.
Scan the paragraphs A-C for the key words or synonyms of those key words and the relationship with the previous sentence in the summary.
Read the sentence(s) which relate to the key words. In paragraph C it states, “The significant decline in plankton productivity has a direct
effect on the world’s carbon cycle.”
Cash-flow Problem – Idiom Of The Day For IELTS

Cash-flow Problem – Idiom Of The Day For IELTS Speaking.
Definition:
to have no available cash even though one has assets or money invested. This can be a polite way to refer to financial problem
Example:
“I’m having a little cash-flow problem. So, could I get an extension on this bill?”
“My real estate business has a temporary cash-flow problem.”
“Due to his cash-flow problem,he was unable to pay his employees that month.“
Exercise:
1. Choose the suitable idiom to complete the sentence below.
“Jack are in his difficult time. He is losing his investment in stock market . At the moment, he is having _____________________ “
A. the prime of life
B. throwing money down the drain
C. my home away from home
D. a cash-flow problem
2. Describe a time that you ran out of money. Try to use this idiom in your speech. You should say:
– When it happened
– Why you was in this situation
– What did you do to overcome this difficulty
And explain how did you feel about this time
Commemorate – Word Of The Day For IELTS

Commemorate – Word Of The Day For IELTS Speaking And Writing
Commemorate /kəˈmeməreɪt/ (Verb)
Meaning:
to do something to show that you remember and respect someone important or an important event in the past
Synonyms:
Memorialize, Remember, Celebrate
Collocations:
 With noun: Anniversary, Day, Death, Event, Plaque, Victory
Examples:
 The idea of making a special flower picture to commemorate a particular wedding anniversary works very well.
 It was a scream which one day they will commemorate with a plaque, and people will walk past it and remember.
 A lurid tattoo on his thigh commemorated his victory.
Exercise:
Try to use this word “commemorate” in your speech
Describe a historical event in your country
You should say
 What it was & When it happened
 What happened
 Who the most important people involved were

 Why it is important to the history of your country
Sample Answer:
Vietnam has over 4000 years of history so I guess it’s fair to say that we’ve witnessed numerous historical events over the years. But I would
like to tell you about an event that is arguably the most historically significant in my country – The Independence Day. It happened on 2 Sept
1945. Today, we call it the Nation Day, which is a national holiday, observed on 2 Sept every year.
On the Independence Day, at Ba Dinh Square Hanoi, Ho Chi Minh, the then leader of our political party, delivered the Vietnam Proclamation
of Independence in front of thousands of Vietnamese citizens, declaring our independence from Japan and France, announcing the birth of the
Democratic Republic of Vietnam, and celebrating our nationhood.
This event is particularly meaningful not only because it was an important milestone marking a major turning point of Vietnam – the
beginning of a period with full sovereignty, but also because, for the first time, Vietnamese knew about human rights, equality and liberty.
Today, to commemorate the historical value of the event, Vietnamese have a day off from work and the country is filled with a joyous
atmosphere. There are several events such as marching, fireworks in major cities in the country as well.
 fully sovereignty: complete freedom and power to govern

Section 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13 which are based on Reading Passage 1
Running Dry
The problems of water shortages have always been with us. Worldwide consumption of water is doubling every 20 years, a solution is
desperately needed.
A Government water commission maps in Mexico show 96 overexploited aquifers 1. Seawater has polluted 17 others because of too much
pumping, while toxic seepage is spreading fast. According to the World Health Organisation (WHO), Mexican children are contracting
digestive diseases due to poor water storage. Mexico City, built eight centuries ago atop vast lagoons, cannot adequately supply water for its
22 million inhabitants, bike many cities in the world, less than half of the city’s waste is treated. The rest sinks into underground lakes or
flows toward the Gulf of Mexico, turning rivers into sewers. This presents an extremely difficult prospect for Mexico’s future. The Mexican
National Water Commission lists some 35 cities that must shrink dramatically unless more water can be found. A forced exodus from parched
cities seems far-fetched, and no one suggests it will happen next week but it is a spectre haunting Mexico’s future.
B Much of the water that Mexico depends upon is the same water that is badly needed in California, Arizona, New Mexico and Texas. One
forecast is that Corpus Christi, Texas (population: 277,454), will run out of water around 2018. In the meantime the problem is getting worse.
Deputy director of the Mexican National Water Commission Cantu Suarez reports, “In Oaxaca, south of Mexico City, women line up at dawn
to fill a few plastic containers from a passing water truck. In Alamos, far to the north, ancient aquifers are pumped at five times the
sustainable rate.”
C Mexico is only one example of desperation in a world running short of water. Parts of the earth are dying, with fields poisoned by salt and
village wells running dry. And there are legal battles looming. The Colorado River, drained by 10 U.S. states with their own water crises, is a
muddy trickle by the time it reaches the rich farmland of Baja California. Under complex water agreements with the United States, Mexico
can take water from the Rio Grande but must pay it back. President Vicante Fox has promised to pay the debt, which amounts to enough to
put the state of Delaware under a flood of water. But with Mexico already so short of water, it is not realistic to think it can happen.
D Canada with its thousands of lakes and rivers would be viewed by most people as having an inexhaustible water supply. In comparison to
Africa and other dry- places, most of Canada’s waters are pristine. But the cumulative effect of mistreatment over the years has taken an
evident toll. The cities of Victoria on the west coast and Halifax on the east still dump billions of litres of raw sewage into their oceans. The
world’s biggest freshwater basin, the Great Lakes, are described as a chemical soup not fit to drink from or swim in. Some concerned experts
view them as loaded with toxic chemicals, heavy metals, pesticides and sewage. Far too many rivers and streams in Canada have been badly
contaminated by industrial activity.
E Humans can live about a month without food but only a few days without water. Because 70 percent of the human body is water, weight
loss in some quick diets is dramatic due to water loss. Of all the water in the world, only about 2.5 percent is fresh and two thirds of this is
locked up in glaciers and ice caps. Nobody knows how much water is underground or in permafrost 2. All life on earth is sustained by a
fraction of one percent of the world’s water. If a five- litre jug (about 1.3 gallon) represented the world’s water, the available fresh water
would not quite fill a teaspoon.
F Overall, in most parts of the planet there is enough water to supply human needs. The huge problem however, is the rapidly increasing
populations in places that lack adequate water resources, as well as mismanagement of available resources. Canada, with only 0.5 percent of
the world’s population, has 5.6 percent of its usable fresh water supply. China, with 22 percent of the population on earth, has only 5.7
percent of usable fresh water. We cannot just move fresh water to where it is most needed – like in the Sahara, Ethiopia, Somalia or India.
G In January 2000, the Newfoundland government identified a dozen of its communities with high levels of potentially dangerous THMs
(trihalomethanes) in water supplies. In an attempt to solve this issue the main solution put forward by scientists is sterilisation of the water.
However, this approach can also be the cause of problems. Drinking such water over a long period can cause bladder and colon cancers, but
health experts maintain the benefits far outweigh these risks. As a result, the bottled water business is booming. In just one decade, sales have
surged from $2.6 billion to $7.7 billion in the United States of America alone. This represents a 10 percent growth rate for the past 10 years.
But is it safe? Canadian standards for testing bottled water are lower than those for municipal supplies, so there are no assurances that bottled
water is any better than tap water.
H At the start of the 20th century, there were 1.65 billion people; 100 years later there are more than 6 billion, and the United Nations
estimates there will be nearly 9 billion by 2050. But the annual supply of renewable fresh water will remain the same, so the amount of water
available to each person decreases and the population grows, raising the possibility of water shortages. The supply of water to the future is a
major issue that will confront tomorrow’s leaders.
(1) aquifers: underground bed yielding ground water for wells and springs
(2) 2 ground that is permanently frozens
Question 1-4
Reading Passage 1 has eight paragraphs A-H.
1 where most fresh water is located in the world
2 a way Mexican women obtain water
3 the effect of waste upon Mexican rivers
4 Mexico’s financial commitment for its water
Question 5-8
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 1 ?
YES if the statement reflects the claims of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
5 Unhealthy water is causing illness amongst Mexican children.
6 Mexicans are moving to other cities because of water shortages.
7 Mexican food crops will fail without water from America.
8 Drinking water in Canada has been polluted by industry.
Question 9-13
Complete the summary of paragraphs F-H below.
Chose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each
answer.
Write your answer in boxes 9-13 on your answer sheet.
The main issue that confronts cities with poor water supplies is their growing 9____________ . Canada, which contains 10_______________
of the world’s fresh water, has dealt with water pollution in some cities through a process of 11_________________ . Although treated for
dangerous pollution, some health experts believe city water to be a cause of 12_____________ . Not all people are content to drink town
water and this has added to a demand for 13_____________
Section 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26 which are based on Reading passage 2
How to Reduce Employee Turnover
A The chief executive of a large hotel became aware that his company was experiencing annual employee turnover of about 60 percent, at an
annual cost estimated between $10 to $15 million. This large amount of money was calculated based on three factors: the money spent hiring
and training replacements; the cost to the business in lower productivity due to employees becoming familiar with the requirements of their
new job; and reduced occupancy rates, due to poor guest satisfaction levels.
B The Chief Executive knew that in order to save his company, he had to reduce the high turnover costs. Making up for the lost income due
to turnover is not an easy task and many companies have not declared war on unwanted employee turnover because they have not taken the
time to work out the costs of lost revenues and productivity. But the hotel boss decided to tackle the issue head-on by implementing a 4 point
plan, the hotel first took the time to calculate their turnover costs; secondly to evaluate the main causes for the staff turnover and; thirdly to
discuss some of the solutions to the problems and lastly to prioritise actions and evaluate future returns following implemented changes.
C Within a two-year period, the results were significant. The annual employee turnover was reduced by 78 percent and this impacted upon
down time due to training and guest satisfaction. The result was a $10 million savings for the company.
D Because most do not know the root causes of employee turnover and costs have often not been accurately estimated, causes are usually not
known. As an result, solutions are commonly not targeted at a company’s individual, specific causes. The following is an examination of
what the Chief Executive did to turn the hotel around.
E Two factors were considered in relation to the calculation of costs: those departments who had the highest rates of turnover and those
whose turnover had the greatest potential effect on profit. After some investigation it was shown that some of the positions with the highest
turnover rates such as cleaners and gardeners did not carry with them high associated costs. In fact, what was revealed was that only’ 6
percent of employees accounted for 43 percent of the turnover. Positions that involved a substantial amount of time in training were the ones
that attracted the highest costing. Analysis revealed that those positions within the hotel which had the greatest impact on profit were people
like the front office receptionists and those working in accounts.
F As unusual as it may sound, it is now a common understanding that offering employees more money is not necessarily a good solution to
high employee turnover – often they leave because they simply dislike the work. Therefore, it was important to tackle the analysis from the
perspective of what were the chief causes for staff leaving. A holistic approach was undertaken and several key findings emerged. The hotel
found that fundamentally they adopted poor recruiting and selection practices. For example, it was shown that almost 35 percent of the
cleaning staff left after the first week and a further 25 during the first month. Candidates were being over-sold the job by recruiters and left
soon after they encountered unrealistic job expectations.
G Devising solutions to these issues was the other half of the equation. As far a recruiting was concerned, they changed their approach by
getting personnel from the hotel to handle it. Once this change was made, the attrition rates decreased substantially. To add to employee
motivation, new staff were made aware of the mission and goals of the organisation and how they would be paid above industry standard for
striving to attain to hotel values. New staff were shown where the hotel was heading and how they would have a guaranteed, stable
employment situation with a major force in the hotel industry’ – it was even suggested that after a period of employment, new staff might be
given the opportunity to contribute to organisational goal setting. They had been losing many of their employees during the first month or two
of employment, so they made new staff aware that bonuses would be offered to newly-hired employees at the end of their first three months
which greatly assisted in goal setting. Staff luncheons and the in-house volleyball and basketball competitions remained an effective part of
staff unity and development and a support program was also introduced to help all staff with any job-related issues which gave employees a
heightened sense of being cared for by the establishment.
H Another area of change which proved successful was the introduction of the Valuable Employee Program (VEP). When a person was
employed in the past they were assigned a senior member of staff who assisted them with getting used to their new job. Due to the limitations
of the senior member’s position however, they were often not in a position to explain any details regarding future advancement. Now, when
staff are employed, they are clearly told what is expected in the job and where it might lead for the right candidate. Hotel surveys revealed
that over 30 percent of employees were not satisfied with the career opportunities in their current jobs so the articulation of the definite and
realistic opportunity for advancement through the VEP led to a major decrease in employee attrition.
I Once the ship had been righted and the relative returns on human resource investments had been calculated, setting priorities became a
formality. Although at first a daunting task, the enormous cost of employee turnover offered an excellent opportunity for the hotel to improve
profitability.
Question 14-18
Complete the summary below of paragraphs A-D of Reading Passage 2. Choose ONE or TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Training new employees; down time as new employees get used to their new job; and unfavourable guest satisfaction levels all led to a large
14____________ for a large hotel. It was determined that the solution to these problems, was in the reduction of the company’s
15___________ . The hotel addressed these issues in 4 ways through the implementation of a 16_______________ . The efforts of the hotel
chief executive decreased down time and reduced employee turnover which, in turn resulted in improvements in 17________________ The
company position was improved by $10 million. It is not common for big companies to experience such 18____________
Question 19-21
Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 2?
19 It was surprising that positions with the highest turnover were not connected to high costs.
20 There was a clear connection between high costs and length of training.
21 New employees were given an incorrect description of their job.
Question 22-26
Reading Passage 2 gives FIVE effective changes that the hotel introduced for staff
Choose these changes from the list A-K below.
Write the appropriate letters A-K in boxes 22-26 on your answer sheet.
CHANGES
A discussed future plans
B introduced regular staff luncheons
C started a regular sports program
D clearly defined job expectations
E did their own staff recruiting
F built new sporting facilities
G involved new staff in goal setting H offered bonuses to proven, committed new staff I began meeting regularly with new staff J
implemented a support program
K began recruiting through an employment service
Section 3
A Political and family values within society have impacted upon the modern family structure. Traditionally, it has been the man’s role to be
the breadwinner for the family – providing the funds to pay for food and shelter. However, due to the many new and unique responsibilities
placed upon families, in numerous cases both men and women – fathers and mothers – have had to enter the workforce. Generally, the
reasons for both being involved in the workforce revolve around the need to add to the family’s current financial base. To a lesser extent, the
need to interact with ‘adults’ in a stimulating work environment is another popular reason. Whatever their reasons, for many families, the
decision for father and mother to go out of the home and join the labour force has led to a number of side effects within the home which, in
turn, impact upon their performance as employees.
B Many researchers agree that attitudes towards work are carried over into family life. This spillover can be positive or negative. Positive
spillover refers to the spread of satisfaction and positive stimulation at work resulting in high levels of energy and satisfaction at home. If the
amount of research is to be taken as an indication, it would seem that positive spillover is not a dominant occurrence in the workplace with
most research focussing on the effects of negative spillover. Often pointing out the incompatible nature of work and family life, the research
focuses on problems and conflict at work which has the effect of draining and preoccupying the individual, making it difficult for him or her
to participate fully in family life.
C Social scientists have devised a number of theories in an attempt to explain the work-family dynamic. Compensation theory is one which
has been widely used. It assumes that the relationship between work and family is negative by pointing out that high involvement in one
sphere – invariably the work sphere – leads to low involvement in the other. As an individual advances within a career, demands typically
fluctuate from moderate to more demanding and if the advancing worker has younger children, this shift in work responsibilities will usually
manifest itself in the form of less time spent with the family. Researchers subscribing to this theory point out that the drain on family time is
significantly related to work-family conflict with an escalation in conflict as the number of family members increase.
D The human state is one of change. In exploring the work-family dynamic it can be clearly seen that as the pattern of adult development for
men and women differs and as family and career demands fluctuate, individuals may link work and family roles differently at different stages
of their life. Hence, the relationship between work and family is constantly changing over a person’s life. The developmental approach
therefore adopts a psychological- developmental framework to explore the dynamics of the relationship between individual, family, and
career developments in the life-span of a worker.
E Interpersonal ‘climates’ influence motivation of family and work-related activities. Within the family, the feeling of being valued by one’s
partner directly affects a person’s self-determination, while at the same time within the workplace, the feeling of being ‘autonomy-supported’
by one’s employer has been shown to have a positive effect on one’s self-determined motivation towards w fork-related activities. Studies
built on the theory of self-determination therefore point out that if people have abundant levels of self-determination, participation in those
areas will most often result in desirable outcomes.
F Segmentation theory proposes that work and family are actually two entirely separate domains and individuals are able to maintain a clear
demarcation between the two. Theorists subscribing to this view maintain that emotions, attitudes and behaviours enlisted in the two different
environments are separate and will not have any impact upon work or family. While this theory is certainly applicable for some, apparently
not all men and women are able to neatly divide the two experiences. Winthrope points out that, “Even though a woman may enter the
workforce, research has shown that within the context of the family, the care of her husband and children as well as the living quarters is still
heavily the woman’s domain.” This kind of idea is tied up in the old adage; a woman’s place is in the home. She is seen as the one who takes
care of all domestic duties whereas, stereorypically, it is the man who brings home the food for the family. The degree to which this is felt is
certainly based upon societal expectations and behavioural norms. Despite this, there has been no positive link shown that one sex
experiences greater difficulty in managing work-family conflicts over another.
G Perhaps the most positive relation that could be established between work and family conflict was in regard to irregular work hours.
Factors such as having to work on weekends, having to work longer than nine hours per day or having to work during vacation periods all
added to the conflict dynamic. Additionally, rank or position and thus expectations of workers and time demands all showed a negative
impact upon family and work relations. Many have conducted empirical research in relation to work-family conflict and job satisfaction with
significantly varying results. However, one generally recognised outcome about which few researchers disagree is that when work-family
conflict arises, job satisfaction decreases.
Question 27-30
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.
27 The main reason fathers and mothers join the workforce is
A they want to escape the boring environment of home.
B they want to be able to retire comfortably.
C they need extra money.
D they need the mature interaction that goes on between adults.
28 ‘Spillover’ is
A mostly positive when it comes to the workplace.
B a term researchers use to describe work life.
C a dominant area of scientific research.
D a term which relates to how work life affects family life.
29 I he significance of Winth rope’s comment is that working women
A should not do the work of men.
B are heavily relied upon to do household duties.
C should not work outside of the home.
D leave household work for their husbands to do.
30 Regarding work and family the writer concludes that
A work itself plays an important role in job satisfaction.
B more empirically-based theories are yet to be offered by researchers.
C family relationships have a significant effect upon job satisfaction.
D work and family are best kept separate from each other.
Question 31-34
Look at the following list of theories (Questions 31-34) and the list of definitions below.
Match each theory with its related idea.
31 Segmentation
32 Self-determination
33 Compensation
34 Developmental
A family and career remain essentially changeless
B work and family are totally unrelated
C the relationship between work and family is constantly changing
D negative working environments hurt work performance
E high levels lead to positive work and family outcomes
F family duties tend to dominate work duties
G determined people tend to have successful families
H high work involvement results in family neglect
Question 35-39
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage 3?
35 Lack of money is the main reason both fathers and mothers enter the workforce.
36 Conflict between work and family increases according to the size of the family.
37 High income earners balance work and family life better than low income earners.
38 Men handle work stresses better than women.
39 Work-family conflict is due largely to constant changes in work hours.
Question 40
Write your answer in box 40 on your answer sheet.
What is the best title for Reading Passage 3?
A Family relationships and job promotion.
B The psychological effects of work.
C Theories on family and work.
D Work-family conflict and job satisfaction.

1 E
Read the information in the questions carefully and determine the key words.
The key words are “most fresh water, located”
Scan the passage looking for those key words or synonyms of them.
Paragraph E states, ‘Of all the water in the world, only about 2.5 percent is fresh and two thirds of this is locked up in glaciers and ice caps.”
Double check your answer by comparing the overall point of the paragraph with the question
2 B
The key words are ‘Mexican women, obtain water”
Paragraph B states, “In Oaxaca, south of Mexico City, women line up at dawn to fill a few plastic containers from a passing water truck.”
3 A
The key words are “effect of waste, Mexican rivers”
Paragraph A states, “Like many cities in the world, less than half of the city’s waste is treated. The rest sinks into underground lakes or flows
toward the Gulf of Mexico, turning rivers into sewers.”
4 C
The key words are “Mexico, financial commitment, water”
Paragraph C states, “Under complex water agreements with the United States,
Mexico can take water from the Rio Grande but must pay it back. President Vicante Fox has promised to pay the debt…”
5 Y
locate the key word(s) in the question
key words are illness and children – scan for them (or synonyms of them read in detail to “… children are contracting digestive diseases due
to poor water storage.”
6 N
key words are Mexicans, moving and water shortages – scan for them or synonyms of them
read in detail to ‘A forced exodus from parched cities… no one suggests it will happen next week…”
7 NG
8 Y
key words are drinking water, Canada, polluted, industry – scan for them or synonyms of them
read in detail to ’… too many rivers have been contaminated by industrial activity’
9 population(s)
Identify the key words and summary sentences.
In the first sentence “main issue, cities, poor water” are the key words.
Scan the paragraphs for the key words or synonyms of those key words.
Read the sentenced) which relate to the key words. In paragraph F, the passage states that “The huge problem (main issue) however, is the
rapidly increasing populations in places that lack adequate water resources (their water is poor)… “
10 5.6 percent
In the first half of the second sentence “Canada, world’s fresh water” are the key words.
Read the sentence(s) which relate to the key words. In paragraph F, the passage states that “Canada, with only 0.5 percent of the world’s
population, has 6 percent of its usable fresh water supply.”
11 sterilisation
In the second half of the second sentence ‘dealt with water pollution, process” are the key words.
Read the sentence(s) which relate to the key words. In paragraph G, the passage states that “In an attempt to solve this issue the main solution
put forward by scientists is sterilisation of the water.”
12 cancer(s)
In the third sentence “dangerous pollution, health experts, cause” are the key words.
Read the sentence(s) which relate to the key words. In paragraph G, the passage states that “Drinking such (treated/sterilised) water over a
long period can cause bladder and colon cancers.”
13 bottled water
In the fourth sentence ‘not all people, drink town water, added, demand for (an increase or a demand for something)” are the key words.
Read the sentence^) which relate to the key words. In paragraph F, the passage states, “As a result (of the town water being sterilised), the
bottled water business is booming.”
14 annual costs
Identify the key words in the summary sentences
In the first sentence “training, down time, guest satisfaction” are the key words.
Scan the paragraphs A-D for the key words or synonyms of those key words.
Read the sentence(s) which relate to the key words. In paragraph A, the passage states,”… annual cost… large… was based on… money
spent hiring and training replacements; the cost to the business in lower productivity due to (employees new jobs); and… poor guest
satisfaction levels.’
15 turnover costs
In the second sentence “solution to problems, reduction in (something)” are the key words.
Read the sentence(s) which relate to the key words. In paragraph B, the passage states,” The Chief Executive knew that in order to save his
company (synonym: solve problems), he had to reduce the high turnover costs.”
16 plan
In the third sentence “hotel, addressed issues, 4 ways, through implementation of (something)” are the key words.
Read the sentence(s) which relate to the key words. In paragraph B, the passage states, “But the hotel boss decided to tackle the issue head-on
by implementing a 4 point plan.”
17 guest satisfaction
In the fourth sentence “chief executive, decreased down time, reduced employee turnover, resulted in improvements’ are the keywords.
Read the sentence(s) which relate to the key words. In paragraph C, the passage states, ‘The annual employee turnover was reduced by 78
percent and this impacted upon down time due to training and guest satis”
18 savings
In the last sentence ‘not common, big companies experience (something), difficulty determining why” are the key words.
Read the sentence(s) which relate to the key words. In paragraphs C & D, it is stated that, “The result was a $10 million savings for the
company. Because most do not know the root causes of employee turnover and costs have often not been accurately estimated, causes are
usually not known…”
19 NC
there is no mention of how people responded to the results
20 Y
key words are high costs and length of training
locate the words, “Positions that involved a substantial amount of time in training… attracted the highest costing…”
21 Y
key words are new employees and incorrect description
locate the words, “… candidates (new employees) were being over-sold (incorrect description) the job… ‘
22 A
determine the key word(s) from the statements written in the box
in this question the key words are “discussed future plans”
scan quickly to see if you can find any of the key words from the question in the reading passage
Notice paragraph G states,”… new staff were made aware of the mission and goals of the organisation…” and ’New staff were shown where
the hotel was heading… \ This directly relates future plans for the new staff.
23 D
in this question the key words are “clearly defined job expectations”
Notice paragraph H states,when staff are employed, they are clearly told what is expected in the job.’
Once you are quite sure you have the right paragraph, read in depth to confirm your choice
24 E
in this question the key words are “own staff recruiting”
Notice paragraph C states, “As far a recruiting was concerned, they changed their approach by getting personnel from the hotel to handle it.”
25 H
in this question the key words are “bonuses, committed new staff’
Notice paragraph C states, “… they made new staff aware that bonuses would be offered to newly-hired employees at the end of their first
three months…”
26 j
in this question the key words are “implemented support program”
Notice paragraph G states, “… and a support program was also introduced to help all staff… *
27 C
Remember that multiple choice questions follow the order of the passage.
Locate the key words in the question: ‘fathers, mothers, join, workforce”.
Search for these key words and/or synonyms.
Locate “… the reasons for both being involved in the workforce revolve around the need to add to the family’s current financial base.”
28 D
Locate the key word, “spillover”.
Find in paragraph B that spillover refers to how “… attitudes toward work are carried over into family life.”
29 B
Locate the key word, ’Winthrope”.
Find in paragraph F that Winthrope said, “Even though a woman may enter the workforce… the care of her husband and children and living
quarters (home) is… (her) domain”
30 C
Locate the key word concludes. This means the answer will probably be in the final paragraph
Locate the words “Work-family conflict has a significantly negative impact upon job satisfaction*
31 B
Scan for the key words, “segmentation theory” – once located, read in detail for the meaning.
Regarding segmentation theory’ paragraph F states, “Segmentation theory proposes that work and family are actually two entirely separate
domains…’
32 E
Scan for the key words, “self-determination theory” – once located, read in detail for the meaning.
Regarding self-determination theory paragraph E states, “Studies built on the theory of self-determination therefore point out that if people
have abundant levels of self- determination, participation in those areas will most often result in desirable outcomes.”
33 H
Scan for the key words, ‘compensation theory’ – once located, read in detail for the meaning.
Regarding compensation theory paragraph C states, “Compensation theory… assumes that the relationship between work and family is
negative by pointing out that high involvement in one sphere… leads to low involvement in the other…”
34 C
Scan for the key words, ‘developmental theory” – once located, read in detail for the meaning.
Regarding developmental theory paragraph D states, ‘the relationship between work and family is constantly changing over a person’s life.
The developmental approach therefore… exploréis) the dynamics of the relationship between individual, family, and career developments in
the life-span of a worker…”
35 T
key words are lack of money, father, mother, enter workforce
once located, read in detail to determine if it is a main reason’
locate the words,’… the reasons for both (father and mother) being involved in the workforce revolve around the need to add to the family’s
current financial base”
36 T
locate the key words in the question and scan for them
key words are conflict, increases, size, family
once located, read in detail to find,”… drain on family time is significantly related to work-family conflict with an escalation in conflict as the
number of family members increase.
37 NC
38 F
key words are men, handle better, stresses, women
once located, read in detail to find,”… Despite this, there has been no positive link shown that one sex experiences greater difficult)’ in
managing work-family conflicts over another.
39 T
key words are irregular work hours, main reason, family conflict
Locate the words, ‘Perhaps the most positive relation that could be established between work and conflict was in regard to irregular work
hours.”
40 D
This question is testing your overall comprehension of the passage.
You should have taken notice as you read of the key ideas (by circling key words and making notes in the margin of key ideas).
All the ideas presented relate to work, family, conflict and job satisfaction.
The only answer which includes all these elements is ‘D’

Section 1
Running Dry
The problems of water shortages have always been with us. Worldwide consumption of water is doubling every 20 years, a solution is
desperately needed.
A Government water commission maps in Mexico show 96 overexploited aquifers1. Seawater has polluted 17 others because of too much
pumping, while toxic seepage is spreading fast. According to the World Health Organisation (WHO), Mexican children are contracting
digestive diseases due to poor water storage. Mexico City, built eight centuries ago atop vast lagoons, cannot adequately supply water for its
22 million inhabitants, bike many cities in the world, less than half of the city’s waste is treated. The rest sinks into underground lakes or
flows toward the Gulf of Mexico, turning rivers into sewers. This presents an extremely difficult prospect for Mexico’s future. The Mexican
National Water Commission lists some 35 cities that must shrink dramatically unless more water can be found. A forced exodus from
parched cities seems far-fetched, and no one suggests it will happen next week but it is a spectre haunting Mexico’s future.
B Much of the water that Mexico depends upon is the same water that is badly needed in California, Arizona, New Mexico and Texas. One
forecast is that Corpus Christi, Texas (population: 277,454), will run out of water around 2018. In the meantime the problem is getting worse.
Deputy director of the Mexican National Water Commission Cantu Suarez reports, “In Oaxaca, south of Mexico City, women line up at
dawn to fill a few plastic containers from a passing water truck. In Alamos, far to the north, ancient aquifers are pumped at five times the
sustainable rate.”
C Mexico is only one example of desperation in a world running short of water. Parts of the earth are dying, with fields poisoned by salt and
village wells running dry. And there are legal battles looming. The Colorado River, drained by 10 U.S. states with their own water crises, is a
muddy trickle by the time it reaches the rich farmland of Baja California. Under complex water agreements with the United States, Mexico
can take water from the Rio Grande but must pay it back. President Vicante Fox has promised to pay the debt, which amounts to enough to
put the state of Delaware under a flood of water. But with Mexico already so short of water, it is not realistic to think it can happen.
D Canada with its thousands of lakes and rivers would be viewed by most people as having an inexhaustible water supply. In comparison to
Africa and other dry- places, most of Canada’s waters are pristine. But the cumulative effect of mistreatment over the years has taken an
evident toll. The cities of Victoria on the west coast and Halifax on the east still dump billions of litres of raw sewage into their oceans. The
world’s biggest freshwater basin, the Great Lakes, are described as a chemical soup not fit to drink from or swim in. Some concerned experts
view them as loaded with toxic chemicals, heavy metals, pesticides and sewage. Far too many rivers and streams in Canada have been badly
contaminated by industrial activity.
E Humans can live about a month without food but only a few days without water. Because 70 percent of the human body is water, weight
loss in some quick diets is dramatic due to water loss. Of all the water in the world, only about 2.5 percent is fresh and two thirds of this is
locked up in glaciers and ice caps. Nobody knows how much water is underground or in permafrost 2. All life on earth is sustained by a
fraction of one percent of the world’s water. If a five- litre jug (about 1.3 gallon) represented the world’s water, the available fresh water
would not quite fill a teaspoon.
F Overall, in most parts of the planet there is enough water to supply human needs. The huge problem however, is the rapidly increasing
populations in places that lack adequate water resources, as well as mismanagement of available resources. Canada, with only 0.5 percent of
the world’s population, has 5.6 percent of its usable fresh water supply. China, with 22 percent of the population on earth, has only 5.7
percent of usable fresh water. We cannot just move fresh water to where it is most needed – like in the Sahara, Ethiopia, Somalia or India.
G In January 2000, the Newfoundland government identified a dozen of its communities with high levels of potentially dangerous THMs
(trihalomethanes) in water supplies. In an attempt to solve this issue the main solution put forward by scientists is sterilisation of the water.
However, this approach can also be the cause of problems. Drinking such water over a long period can cause bladder and colon cancers, but
health experts maintain the benefits far outweigh these risks. As a result, the bottled water business is booming. In just one decade, sales have
surged from $2.6 billion to $7.7 billion in the United States of America alone. This represents a 10 percent growth rate for the past 10 years.
But is it safe? Canadian standards for testing bottled water are lower than those for municipal supplies, so there are no assurances that bottled
water is any better than tap water.
H At the start of the 20th century, there were 1.65 billion people; 100 years later there are more than 6 billion, and the United Nations
estimates there will be nearly 9 billion by 2050. But the annual supply of renewable fresh water will remain the same, so the amount of water
available to each person decreases and the population grows, raising the possibility of water shortages. The supply of water to the future is a
major issue that will confront tomorrow’s leaders.
(1) aquifers: underground bed yielding ground water for wells and springs
(2) 2 ground that is permanently frozens
Question 1-4
Reading Passage 1 has eight paragraphs A-H.
1 where most fresh water is located in the world
2 a way Mexican women obtain water
3 the effect of waste upon Mexican rivers
4 Mexico’s financial commitment for its water
Question 5-8
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 1 ?
5 Unhealthy water is causing illness amongst Mexican children.
6 Mexicans are moving to other cities because of water shortages.
7 Mexican food crops will fail without water from America.
8 Drinking water in Canada has been polluted by industry.
Question 9-13
Complete the summary of paragraphs F-H below.
Chose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each
answer.
The main issue that confronts cities with poor water supplies is their growing 9____________ . Canada, which contains 10_______________
of the world’s fresh water, has dealt with water pollution in some cities through a process of 11_________________ . Although treated for
dangerous pollution, some health experts believe city water to be a cause of 12_____________ . Not all people are content to drink town
water and this has added to a demand for 13_____________
Section 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26 which are based on Reading passage 2
How to Reduce Employee Turnover
A The chief executive of a large hotel became aware that his company was experiencing annual employee turnover of about 60 percent, at an
annual cost estimated between $10 to $15 million. This large amount of money was calculated based on three factors: the money spent hiring
and training replacements; the cost to the business in lower productivity due to employees becoming familiar with the requirements of their
new job; and reduced occupancy rates, due to poor guest satisfaction levels.
B The Chief Executive knew that in order to save his company, he had to reduce the high turnover costs. Making up for the lost income due
to turnover is not an easy task and many companies have not declared war on unwanted employee turnover because they have not taken the
time to work out the costs of lost revenues and productivity. But the hotel boss decided to tackle the issue head-on by implementing a 4 point
plan, the hotel first took the time to calculate their turnover costs; secondly to evaluate the main causes for the staff turnover and; thirdly to
discuss some of the solutions to the problems and lastly to prioritise actions and evaluate future returns following implemented changes.
C Within a two-year period, the results were significant. The annual employee turnover was reduced by 78 percent and this impacted upon
down time due to training and guest satisfaction. The result was a $10 million savings for the company.
D Because most do not know the root causes of employee turnover and costs have often not been accurately estimated, causes are usually not
known. As an result, solutions are commonly not targeted at a company’s individual, specific causes. The following is an examination of
what the Chief Executive did to turn the hotel around.
E Two factors were considered in relation to the calculation of costs: those departments who had the highest rates of turnover and those
whose turnover had the greatest potential effect on profit. After some investigation it was shown that some of the positions with the highest
turnover rates such as cleaners and gardeners did not carry with them high associated costs. In fact, what was revealed was that only’ 6
percent of employees accounted for 43 percent of the turnover. Positions that involved a substantial amount of time in training were the ones
that attracted the highest costing. Analysis revealed that those positions within the hotel which had the greatest impact on profit were people
like the front office receptionists and those working in accounts.
F As unusual as it may sound, it is now a common understanding that offering employees more money is not necessarily a good solution to
high employee turnover – often they leave because they simply dislike the work. Therefore, it was important to tackle the analysis from the
perspective of what were the chief causes for staff leaving. A holistic approach was undertaken and several key findings emerged. The hotel
found that fundamentally they adopted poor recruiting and selection practices. For example, it was shown that almost 35 percent of the
cleaning staff left after the first week and a further 25 during the first month. Candidates were being over-sold the job by recruiters and left
soon after they encountered unrealistic job expectations.
G Devising solutions to these issues was the other half of the equation. As far a recruiting was concerned, they changed their approach by
getting personnel from the hotel to handle it. Once this change was made, the attrition rates decreased substantially. To add to employee
motivation, new staff were made aware of the mission and goals of the organisation and how they would be paid above industry standard for
striving to attain to hotel values. New staff were shown where the hotel was heading and how they would have a guaranteed, stable
employment situation with a major force in the hotel industry’ – it was even suggested that after a period of employment, new staff might be
given the opportunity to contribute to organisational goal setting. They had been losing many of their employees during the first month or
two of employment, so they made new staff aware that bonuses would be offered to newly-hired employees at the end of their first three
months which greatly assisted in goal setting. Staff luncheons and the in-house volleyball and basketball competitions remained an effective
part of staff unity and development and a support program was also introduced to help all staff with any job-related issues which gave
employees a heightened sense of being cared for by the establishment.
H Another area of change which proved successful was the introduction of the Valuable Employee Program (VEP). When a person was
employed in the past they were assigned a senior member of staff who assisted them with getting used to their new job. Due to the limitations
of the senior member’s position however, they were often not in a position to explain any details regarding future advancement. Now, when
staff are employed, they are clearly told what is expected in the job and where it might lead for the right candidate. Hotel surveys revealed
that over 30 percent of employees were not satisfied with the career opportunities in their current jobs so the articulation of the definite and
realistic opportunity for advancement through the VEP led to a major decrease in employee attrition.
I Once the ship had been righted and the relative returns on human resource investments had been calculated, setting priorities became a
formality. Although at first a daunting task, the enormous cost of employee turnover offered an excellent opportunity for the hotel to improve
profitability.
Question 14-18
Complete the summary below of paragraphs A-D of Reading Passage 2. Choose ONE or TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Training new employees; down time as new employees get used to their new job; and unfavourable guest satisfaction levels all led to a large
14____________ for a large hotel. It was determined that the solution to these problems, was in the reduction of the company’s
15___________ . The hotel addressed these issues in 4 ways through the implementation of a 16_______________ . The efforts of the hotel
chief executive decreased down time and reduced employee turnover which, in turn resulted in improvements in 17________________ The
company position was improved by $10 million. It is not common for big companies to experience such 18____________
Question 19-21
19 It was surprising that positions with the highest turnover were not connected to high costs.
20 There was a clear connection between high costs and length of training.
21 New employees were given an incorrect description of their job.
Question 22-26
Reading Passage 2 gives FIVE effective changes that the hotel introduced for staff
Choose these changes from the list A-K below.
Write the appropriate letters A-K in boxes 22-26 on your answer sheet.
CHANGES
A discussed future plans
B introduced regular staff luncheons
C started a regular sports program
D clearly defined job expectations
E did their own staff recruiting
F built new sporting facilities
G involved new staff in goal setting H offered bonuses to proven, committed new staff I began meeting regularly with new staff J
implemented a support program
K began recruiting through an employment service
Section 3
A Political and family values within society have impacted upon the modern family structure. Traditionally, it has been the man’s role to be
the breadwinner for the family – providing the funds to pay for food and shelter. However, due to the many new and unique responsibilities
placed upon families, in numerous cases both men and women – fathers and mothers – have had to enter the workforce. Generally, the
reasons for both being involved in the workforce revolve around the need to add to the family’s current financial base. To a lesser extent, the
need to interact with ‘adults’ in a stimulating work environment is another popular reason. Whatever their reasons, for many families, the
decision for father and mother to go out of the home and join the labour force has led to a number of side effects within the home which, in
turn, impact upon their performance as employees.
B Many researchers agree that attitudes towards work are carried over into family life. This spillover can be positive or negative. Positive
spillover refers to the spread of satisfaction and positive stimulation at work resulting in high levels of energy and satisfaction at home. If the
amount of research is to be taken as an indication, it would seem that positive spillover is not a dominant occurrence in the workplace with
most research focussing on the effects of negative spillover. Often pointing out the incompatible nature of work and family life, the research
focuses on problems and conflict at work which has the effect of draining and preoccupying the individual, making it difficult for him or her
to participate fully in family life.
C Social scientists have devised a number of theories in an attempt to explain the work-family dynamic. Compensation theory is one which
has been widely used. It assumes that the relationship between work and family is negative by pointing out that high involvement in one
sphere – invariably the work sphere – leads to low involvement in the other. As an individual advances within a career, demands typically
fluctuate from moderate to more demanding and if the advancing worker has younger children, this shift in work responsibilities will usually
manifest itself in the form of less time spent with the family. Researchers subscribing to this theory point out that the drain on family time is
significantly related to work-family conflict with an escalation in conflict as the number of family members increase.
D The human state is one of change. In exploring the work-family dynamic it can be clearly seen that as the pattern of adult development for
men and women differs and as family and career demands fluctuate, individuals may link work and family roles differently at different stages
of their life. Hence, the relationship between work and family is constantly changing over a person’s life. The developmental approach
therefore adopts a psychological- developmental framework to explore the dynamics of the relationship between individual, family, and
career developments in the life-span of a worker.
E Interpersonal ‘climates’ influence motivation of family and work-related activities. Within the family, the feeling of being valued by one’s
partner directly affects a person’s self-determination, while at the same time within the workplace, the feeling of being ‘autonomy-supported’
by one’s employer has been shown to have a positive effect on one’s self-determined motivation towards w fork-related activities. Studies
built on the theory of self-determination therefore point out that if people have abundant levels of self-determination, participation in those
areas will most often result in desirable outcomes.
F Segmentation theory proposes that work and family are actually two entirely separate domains and individuals are able to maintain a clear
demarcation between the two. Theorists subscribing to this view maintain that emotions, attitudes and behaviours enlisted in the two different
environments are separate and will not have any impact upon work or family. While this theory is certainly applicable for some, apparently
not all men and women are able to neatly divide the two experiences. Winthrope points out that, “Even though a woman may enter the
workforce, research has shown that within the context of the family, the care of her husband and children as well as the living quarters is still
heavily the woman’s domain.” This kind of idea is tied up in the old adage; a woman’s place is in the home. She is seen as the one who takes
care of all domestic duties whereas, stereorypically, it is the man who brings home the food for the family. The degree to which this is felt is
certainly based upon societal expectations and behavioural norms. Despite this, there has been no positive link shown that one sex
experiences greater difficulty in managing work-family conflicts over another.
G Perhaps the most positive relation that could be established between work and family conflict was in regard to irregular work hours.
Factors such as having to work on weekends, having to work longer than nine hours per day or having to work during vacation periods all
added to the conflict dynamic. Additionally, rank or position and thus expectations of workers and time demands all showed a negative
impact upon family and work relations. Many have conducted empirical research in relation to work-family conflict and job satisfaction with
significantly varying results. However, one generally recognised outcome about which few researchers disagree is that when work-family
conflict arises, job satisfaction decreases.
Question 27-30
27 The main reason fathers and mothers join the workforce is
A they want to escape the boring environment of home.
B they want to be able to retire comfortably.
C they need extra money.
D they need the mature interaction that goes on between adults.
28 ‘Spillover’ is
A mostly positive when it comes to the workplace.
B a term researchers use to describe work life.
C a dominant area of scientific research.
D a term which relates to how work life affects family life.
29 I he significance of Winth rope’s comment is that working women
A should not do the work of men.
B are heavily relied upon to do household duties.
C should not work outside of the home.
D leave household work for their husbands to do.
30 Regarding work and family the writer concludes that
A work itself plays an important role in job satisfaction.
B more empirically-based theories are yet to be offered by researchers.
C family relationships have a significant effect upon job satisfaction.
D work and family are best kept separate from each other.
Question 31-34
Look at the following list of theories (Questions 31-34) and the list of definitions below.
Match each theory with its related idea.
31 Segmentation
32 Self-determination
33 Compensation
34 Developmental
A family and career remain essentially changeless
B work and family are totally unrelated
C the relationship between work and family is constantly changing
D negative working environments hurt work performance
E high levels lead to positive work and family outcomes
F family duties tend to dominate work duties
G determined people tend to have successful families
H high work involvement results in family neglect
Question 35-39
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage 3?
35 Lack of money is the main reason both fathers and mothers enter the workforce.
36 Conflict between work and family increases according to the size of the family.
37 High income earners balance work and family life better than low income earners.
38 Men handle work stresses better than women.
39 Work-family conflict is due largely to constant changes in work hours.
Question 40
Write your answer in box 40 on your answer sheet.
What is the best title for Reading Passage 3?
A Family relationships and job promotion.
B The psychological effects of work.
C Theories on family and work.
D Work-family conflict and job satisfaction.
1 E
The key words are “most fresh water, located”
Paragraph E states, ‘Of all the water in the world, only about 2.5 percent is fresh and two thirds of this is locked up in glaciers and ice caps.”
2 B
The key words are ‘Mexican women, obtain water”
Paragraph B states, “In Oaxaca, south of Mexico City, women line up at dawn to fill a few plastic containers from a passing water truck.”
3 A
The key words are “effect of waste, Mexican rivers”
Paragraph A states, “Like many cities in the world, less than half of the city’s waste is treated. The rest sinks into underground lakes or flows
toward the Gulf of Mexico, turning rivers into sewers.”
4 C
The key words are “Mexico, financial commitment, water”
Paragraph C states, “Under complex water agreements with the United States,
Mexico can take water from the Rio Grande but must pay it back. President Vicante Fox has promised to pay the debt…”
5 Y
key words are illness and children – scan for them (or synonyms of them read in detail to “… children are contracting digestive diseases due
to poor water storage.”
6 N
key words are Mexicans, moving and water shortages – scan for them or synonyms of them
read in detail to ‘A forced exodus from parched cities… no one suggests it will happen next week…”
7 NG
8 Y
key words are drinking water, Canada, polluted, industry – scan for them or synonyms of them
read in detail to ’… too many rivers have been contaminated by industrial activity’
9 population(s)
In the first sentence “main issue, cities, poor water” are the key words.
Read the sentenced) which relate to the key words. In paragraph F, the passage states that “The huge problem (main issue) however, is the
rapidly increasing populations in places that lack adequate water resources (their water is poor)… “
10 5.6 percent
In the first half of the second sentence “Canada, world’s fresh water” are the key words.
Read the sentence(s) which relate to the key words. In paragraph F, the passage states that “Canada, with only 0.5 percent of the world’s
population, has 6 percent of its usable fresh water supply.”
11 sterilisation
In the second half of the second sentence ‘dealt with water pollution, process” are the key words.
Read the sentence(s) which relate to the key words. In paragraph G, the passage states that “In an attempt to solve this issue the main solution
put forward by scientists is sterilisation of the water.”
12 cancer(s)
In the third sentence “dangerous pollution, health experts, cause” are the key words.
Read the sentence(s) which relate to the key words. In paragraph G, the passage states that “Drinking such (treated/sterilised) water over a
long period can cause bladder and colon cancers.”
13 bottled water
In the fourth sentence ‘not all people, drink town water, added, demand for (an increase or a demand for something)” are the key words.
Read the sentence^) which relate to the key words. In paragraph F, the passage states, “As a result (of the town water being sterilised), the
bottled water business is booming.”
14 annual costs
In the first sentence “training, down time, guest satisfaction” are the key words.
Read the sentence(s) which relate to the key words. In paragraph A, the passage states,”… annual cost… large… was based on… money
spent hiring and training replacements; the cost to the business in lower productivity due to (employees new jobs); and… poor guest
satisfaction levels.’
15 turnover costs
In the second sentence “solution to problems, reduction in (something)” are the key words.
Read the sentence(s) which relate to the key words. In paragraph B, the passage states,” The Chief Executive knew that in order to save his
company (synonym: solve problems), he had to reduce the high turnover costs.”
16 plan
In the third sentence “hotel, addressed issues, 4 ways, through implementation of (something)” are the key words.
Read the sentence(s) which relate to the key words. In paragraph B, the passage states, “But the hotel boss decided to tackle the issue head-
on by implementing a 4 point plan.”
17 guest satisfaction
In the fourth sentence “chief executive, decreased down time, reduced employee turnover, resulted in improvements’ are the keywords.
Read the sentence(s) which relate to the key words. In paragraph C, the passage states, ‘The annual employee turnover was reduced by 78
percent and this impacted upon down time due to training and guest satis”
18 savings
In the last sentence ‘not common, big companies experience (something), difficulty determining why” are the key words.
Read the sentence(s) which relate to the key words. In paragraphs C & D, it is stated that, “The result was a $10 million savings for the
company. Because most do not know the root causes of employee turnover and costs have often not been accurately estimated, causes are
usually not known…”
19 NC
there is no mention of how people responded to the results
20 Y
key words are high costs and length of training
locate the words, “Positions that involved a substantial amount of time in training… attracted the highest costing…”
21 Y
key words are new employees and incorrect description
locate the words, “… candidates (new employees) were being over-sold (incorrect description) the job… ‘
22 A
in this question the key words are “discussed future plans”
Notice paragraph G states,”… new staff were made aware of the mission and goals of the organisation…” and ’New staff were shown where
the hotel was heading… \ This directly relates future plans for the new staff.
23 D
in this question the key words are “clearly defined job expectations”
Notice paragraph H states,when staff are employed, they are clearly told what is expected in the job.’
Once you are quite sure you have the right paragraph, read in depth to confirm your choice
24 E
in this question the key words are “own staff recruiting”
Notice paragraph C states, “As far a recruiting was concerned, they changed their approach by getting personnel from the hotel to handle it.”
25 H
in this question the key words are “bonuses, committed new staff’
Notice paragraph C states, “… they made new staff aware that bonuses would be offered to newly-hired employees at the end of their first
three months…”
26 j
in this question the key words are “implemented support program”
Notice paragraph G states, “… and a support program was also introduced to help all staff… *
27 C
Locate the key words in the question: ‘fathers, mothers, join, workforce”.
Search for these key words and/or synonyms.
Locate “… the reasons for both being involved in the workforce revolve around the need to add to the family’s current financial base.”
28 D
Locate the key word, “spillover”.
Find in paragraph B that spillover refers to how “… attitudes toward work are carried over into family life.”
29 B
Locate the key word, ’Winthrope”.
Find in paragraph F that Winthrope said, “Even though a woman may enter the workforce… the care of her husband and children and living
quarters (home) is… (her) domain”
30 C
Locate the key word concludes. This means the answer will probably be in the final paragraph
Locate the words “Work-family conflict has a significantly negative impact upon job satisfaction*
31 B
Scan for the key words, “segmentation theory” – once located, read in detail for the meaning.
Regarding segmentation theory’ paragraph F states, “Segmentation theory proposes that work and family are actually two entirely separate
domains…’
32 E
Scan for the key words, “self-determination theory” – once located, read in detail for the meaning.
Regarding self-determination theory paragraph E states, “Studies built on the theory of self-determination therefore point out that if people
have abundant levels of self- determination, participation in those areas will most often result in desirable outcomes.”
33 H
Scan for the key words, ‘compensation theory’ – once located, read in detail for the meaning.
Regarding compensation theory paragraph C states, “Compensation theory… assumes that the relationship between work and family is
negative by pointing out that high involvement in one sphere… leads to low involvement in the other…”
34 C
Scan for the key words, ‘developmental theory” – once located, read in detail for the meaning.
Regarding developmental theory paragraph D states, ‘the relationship between work and family is constantly changing over a person’s life.
The developmental approach therefore… exploréis) the dynamics of the relationship between individual, family, and career developments in
the life-span of a worker…”
35 T
key words are lack of money, father, mother, enter workforce
once located, read in detail to determine if it is a main reason’
locate the words,’… the reasons for both (father and mother) being involved in the workforce revolve around the need to add to the family’s
current financial base”
36 T
key words are conflict, increases, size, family
once located, read in detail to find,”… drain on family time is significantly related to work-family conflict with an escalation in conflict as
the number of family members increase.
37 NC
38 F
key words are men, handle better, stresses, women
once located, read in detail to find,”… Despite this, there has been no positive link shown that one sex experiences greater difficult)’ in
managing work-family conflicts over another.
39 T
key words are irregular work hours, main reason, family conflict
Locate the words, ‘Perhaps the most positive relation that could be established between work and conflict was in regard to irregular work
hours.”
40 D
This question is testing your overall comprehension of the passage.
You should have taken notice as you read of the key ideas (by circling key words and making notes in the margin of key ideas).
All the ideas presented relate to work, family, conflict and job satisfaction.
The only answer which includes all these elements is ‘D’
Intractable – Word Of The Day For IELTS

Intractable – Word Of The Day For IELTS Speaking And Writing
Intractable – /ɪnˈtræktəbəl/ (Adjective)
Meaning:
(formal) be very difficult to deal with or solve
Synonyms:
Unresolved, Insoluble
Collocations:
 With adverb: More, Most, Seemingly
 With noun: Problem
Examples:
 It has been and remains the most intractable problem of world diplomacy.
 It was a breathtakingly audacious solution to an intractable problem, and the results were to be breathtaking as well.
 Even more seemingly intractable problems will be posed by attempts to store virtual reality.
 Economic disparities grow ever greater and more intractable.
Exercises:
Try to use this word “intractable” to your writing
IELTS Writing Task 2 Topic
It is suggested that everyone wants to have a car, a television and a fridge. Do disadvantages of this development for society
outweigh advantages?
Sample Essay:
It is true that almost everyone wants a car, a TV and a fridge as some of the basic essentials of a good lifestyle. Despite the benefits, I
believe that on a long-term view these are outweighed by the disadvantages.
On the one hand, the growing consumption of cars, televisions and fridges has several benefits. At its simplest, the rise of the consumer
society stimulates economic growth. The increasing sales figures of cars and household equipment are often associated with more jobs and
wealth being created for society. Another advantage is that people can have a higher standard of living than before. Travelling on the road
is no longer tedious because individuals can sit in a car, listening to music and enjoying the comfort of air conditioning. In the same way,
people may watch television to relax or to gain knowledge, and fridges help them preserve food longer without being stale.
On the other hand, I believe that the above benefits are outweighed by potential problems. Primarily, the use of cars is often held
responsible for environmental pollution. Exhaust emissions from automobiles impair the air quality and consequently affect people’s
health. For example, in many big cities in the world, urban citizens are suffering from chronic respiratory problems due to the poor air
quality. Using fridges and televisions also places a pressure on electricity supply in the world. The growing use of these devices in the
home merely compounds the problem of insufficient electricity that has become intractable in many parts of the world.
In conclusion, taking a long-term perspective, I would argue that the drawbacks of this trend outweigh the advantages.
Throw Money Down The Drain – Idiom Of The Day For IELTS
Throw Money Down The Drain – Idiom Of The Day For IELTS Speaking.
Definition:
to spend money and get nothing in return
Example:
“If you don’t pass your college classes, we are throwing money down the drain.“
“You are just throwing money down the drain on that car. It constantly breaks down.”
“Don’t buy any more of that low-quality merchandise. That’s just throwing money down the drain.“
Exercise:
” What a waste! Buying that old car is just ________________________. “
B. throwing money down the drain
D. a fair-weather friend
2. Describe a thing that you have bought but you don’t like. Try to use this idiom in your speech. You should say:
– What it was
– When you bought it
– Where you bought it
And explain why you don’t like it

Section 1
HOW TO HANDLE THE SUN
The medical world appears to be divided on the effects of the sun upon the human body. From statements like, “There is no known
relationship between a tan and health” to “perhaps sun-tanned skin absorbs the ultraviolet rays and converts them into helpful energy”,
there are some things which are still the topic of research. Doctors agree on one of the benefits of the sun – vitamin D. It is well known
that vitamin D is acquired from the direct rays of the sun – an entirely separate miracle from sun tanning. The sun’s ultraviolet rays
penetrate only a tiny amount into the human skin, but in the process they irradiate an element in the skin called ergosterol, winch is the
substance that stores up reserves of vitamin D received from the sun. This is both healthful and beneficial for human skin.
All around the Western World, people have developed an obsession with the sun. In many western countries, a sun tan has become the
trade-mark of a healthy, active, outdoor person. The basic reddish hue just beneath the surface of our skin is the outward reflection of
the millions of red corpuscles flowing through tiny blood vessels. This is most noticeable in the pure skin of a baby which can change
in a moment from porcelain white (with anger or a switch in temperature) to crimson. In Caucasians, this colouring is somewhat hidden
by an acquired layer of sun-made pigment, which varies in tone according to the complexion and occupation of the individual.
Locale plays a big part in the effectiveness of the sun tan. Mountain tops and beaches are nonpareil sun spas because they receive far
purer sunlight than the rest of the land. Urban areas with their smoke and smog act as a filter removing all the healthful properties of
the sun. Perhaps the seashore is best of all, with its air estimated to have at least a fifth of a percent more oxygen than inland ether –
free of city and inland dust, tars, pollen and allergens.
The sun has long been called nature’s greatest health giver and healer and has played a chief role at health resorts ever since August
Rollicr, the Swiss father of heliotherapy, opened his first high-Alps sanatorium in 1903. Dr. W. W. Coblentz suggests that the sun cure
is a major factor in the treatment of at least 23 skin diseases, ranging from acne and eczema to ulcers and wounds. Another specialist,
Dr. Richard Kovacs writes, “Sun treatment is often helpful to persons suffering from general debility – repeated colds, respiratory
diseases, influenza and the like”. After a long winter, the return to the sun writes Dr. Leonard Dodds, the British sunlight scholar, “is a
general stimulus to the body, more potent if applied after a period when it has been lacking which gradually loses its effect if exposure
is over prolonged, even when not excessive”.
Over many years of study dermatologists have proven that excessive exposure to sunlight over a period of years is responsible for a
large proportion of skin cancer amongst the population. Those with the greatest chance of doing permanent damage to their skin are the
year-round outdoor workers – 90% of which occurs on the heavily exposed hands and face. The first line of defence against permanent
sun damage is the skins’ own natural fatty matter and sweat, which combine to form an oily acid surface shield against the ultra violet
rays. At the beach, the salt water washes away this natural oily coat, the hot sun overworks the sweat glands so that the excess becomes
ineffective and the dry wind and hot sun combine to dehydrate the skin itself. Over the years, women have shown far greater wisdom in
the care of their skin than men. Since the ladies of ancient Egypt first began to apply the fat of the so-called sacred temple cats to their
faces, women have been tireless in waging this battle against damage to the skin from the sun. Both sexes now contribute annually to a
multi-million dollar global sun screen business.
Other pans of the human body which tend to suffer from exposure to the sun are the eyes and hair. Many years ago, optometrists
undertook studies in America to examine the influence of the sun upon the eyes by studying Atlantic City lifeguards and found that
even a few hours in the bright sun without sunglasses could cause a significant loss of vision – a loss that might take several weeks
from which to recover. So gradual was the change that the lifeguards were unaware that their sight had been affected. The solution to
this problem was to introduce sunglasses as a standard part of the lifeguard uniform. These were dark enough to absorb the sun’s
harmful UV rays and most of its infrared and ultraviolet rays.
Of a lesser impact is the effect of the sun upon hair. The penalty of the sun’s parching is a brittle dryness. Hair care professionals
recommend a nutritional cream treatment with a substance containing lanolin to bring your hair back its natural softness, these usually
come in the form of leave-in conditioners, and should be applied frequently, just as you would a sunscreen for the skin. Or, easier still,
wear a hat. Wearing a hat has a dual effect: it protects the hair and helps to prevent the most dangerous of outdoor afflictions:
sunstroke.
Question 1-4
Look at the following people (Questions 1-4) and the list of statements below.
Match each person with the correct statement.
1 Richard Kovacs
2 August Rollier
3 W. Coblentz
4 Leonard Dodds
A believes that the benefits of the sun are not scientifically provable
B claims to have discovered the vitamin released in the skin by the sun
C suggests that the sun is an excellent healer
D invented the first sun screen
E suggests that the sun assists with common illnesses
F thinks that initially the sun is of benefit to the body
G is unsure about the benefits of the sun
H thinks location is very important in maximizing benefit from the sun
Question 5-9
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1 ?
5 Most doctors are in agreement when it comes to the health benefits of the sun.
6 Beaches are best for a sun tan because the air has far less pollution.
7 Women applied fat to their skin for protection from the sun.
8 Extended exposure of the eyes to the sun can lead to blindness.
9 The human eye cannot heal itself when it is damaged by the sun.
Question 10-14
Complete the summary using the words from the box. Write your answers in boxes 10-14 on your answer sheet.
HANDLING THE SUN
Many doctors agree that skin cancer can be caused by excessive exposure to the sun. As tar as the human body is concerned, it is
primarily the face and hands that are 10_____________. When human skin is exposed to the sun, the body has a defence: a
11________________ of the skin’s natural oils and acids. For some time, women have been more effective than men in
12________________ for their skin. Eyes are a significant part of the body which are negatively affected by the sun. The damage often
goes undetected because it happens quite 13_____________ . On the other hand, hair becomes quite dry and brittle when exposed to
the sun for an extended period. A lanolin-based conditioner is recommended by hair care professionals to 14_____________ this
problem. Perhaps a simple hat may be the best solution for hair.
overcome maintaining located slowly triumph
mixed quickly extended caring minding
prolonged blend arrangement surprisingly affected
succeed combined
Section 2
New Directions – Map Making
A “A map may lie, but it never jokes” wrote poet Howard McCordin. When it comes to getting to our destinations on time, there are
few things more important than an uncluttered and accurate map. By definition, maps show the features of the earth graphically, to
scale, on a two-dimensional surface. They may be thematic – showing vegetation, wildlife, geology; navigational – showing
hydrographic, aeronautical or automotive routes; topographic – showing the natural and man-made features of the land or any other of a
number of variations. Their creation is a work of art and science involving a merger between creativity and precision.
B One of the biggest influences upon map creation or cartography was World War n. In the war zone, maps of targets and terrain
played a huge part and so topographers’ and members of the air force alike were engaged in the production of them. The need to
accurately measure distances using air photos gave birth to the process of photogrammetry. Great cartographic and mathematical skill
was required in a process that was initially limited by a lack of photographic coverage. Planes flying at a constant altitude flew in grid
patterns with cameras mounted on them, facing straight down. When the weather was good, this process provided photos in the
perpendicular axis – the preferred optical axis for mapping. In order to include both sides of the horizon, some cameras were specially
designed to take three pictures at once – one vertical and two side-looking obliques. It was a difficult task to keep the plane running
smoothly but the latest refinements of map-making techniques were put to immediate use.
C Using a novel combination of optics and the overlapping of air photos to create three-dimensional pictures of terrain, the stereoscope
was the next refinement in map making which was of limited value. Shortly thereafter, the photogrammetric stereoplotter improved
upon the technology used by the stereoscope allowing cartographers to precisely measure the elevation of features in air photos and
then transfer them to paper. After World War II had ended, this new technology led to an increased interest in cartography. Mappers
began to use newly invented devices such as tellurometers, air profile recorders, magnetometers and scintillation counters. From these
precision instruments came maps packed with information.
D In 1957, the Soviet satellite Sputnik 1 joined the moon in orbit around the earth. Although it only operated for 21 days, it began the
‘space race’ and shortly after a number of American and other Russian rockets were put into orbit progressing cartography into an even
more sophisticated realm. Only a few years later in 1959 the first space photograph of earth was received. Pageos 1, launched by the
United States in 1966, was the first satellite with an instrument package on board specifically designed for surveying the earth. Two
years later, the American Satnav system was launched utilising six carefully positioned Transit satellites which fed back information
for mapping based upon the Doppler effect. The Landsat 1 satellite launched in 1972 was the first satellite to collect data specifically on
the earth’s surface and natural resources. More than 20 other equally spaced satellites now orbit the earth every 12 hours at an altitude
of 20,000 kilometres. Navstar, the US military’s global-positioning system can determine geodesic positioning accurate within
millimetres anywhere on earth. What took months to plot and record in the past can now be easily done in an hour.
E In addition to all the advances in aerial satellite technology, some very advanced computer hardware has been designed to aide
cartographers in map production. Storing trillions of bits of information and working with a Geographic Information System (GIS), the
system uses geographic position as a common thread. Although it became popular in the 1990s, GISs were developed in the early
1960s. Programmed with topographic information – lakes, roads, rivers and place names – taken from existing sheets and updated from
new’ surveys, a GIS was the next gigantic leap forward for cartographers. Maps, air photos, municipal plans and a host of other things
can be scanned and entered and later on, updated and revised in an infinite number of ways on a computer terminal to create a virtually
custom-made map every time. The distinction between map producer and map user becomes blurred with a GIS. A map of an urban
neighbourhood may be brought up on the screen and by zooming in or out, streets, buildings, fields, lakes, street lamps, bus stops, even
sewers can be displayed. But it goes even further: an associated database enables the operator to ascertain the number of people who
live in the household, even property values can be listed. There is basically an unlimited amount of information which can be
superimposed on a map using this system.
F A brief history of cartography shows that map types have changed to reflect the needs of the time. Thus, early maps depicted
concrete, tangible features such as coastlines, rivers, mountains, roads and towns. Later, the focus moved to the spatial distribution of
environmental phenomena – vegetation, soils, geology, and climate. Societal issues such as population and disease have also been
closely examined. Most recently, attention has shifted to short-lived phenomena such as tornados, air pollution and floods, and to
visualization of the results of conceptual modelling of environmental phenomena such as groundwater contamination. The trend has
been one of shifting from simply mapping obvious features to discovering relationships and implications between different levels and
layers of geographic information. It is clear today that cartography is closely associated with the broader field of scientific
visualization. This technique takes the map-reader beyond the printed page and shows them terrain as if they were flying in a
helicopter.
Topographer: The physical appearance of the natural features of an area of land
Doppler effect:The apparent change in radio waves as the source moves toward or away from the observer
Geodesic: Related to the geometry of curved surfaces
Question 15-19
Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs A-F.
Choose the correct heading for sections B-F from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers i-x in boxes 15-19 on your
answer sheet.
List of Headings
i transferring air photos to paper maps
ii computers make map production easy
iii maps for seeing into the future
iv the role of weather in map-making photography
v interest grows in map-making
vi map-making responsible for space programs
vii new process enables calculation of distance
viii the future of cartography rests with helicopters
ix the impact of satellites on map-making
x defining map making
Example
Section A x
15 Section B
16 Section C
17 Section D
18 Section E
19 Section F
Question 20-23
Classify the following as first occurring
A between 1955 and 1960
B between 1960 and 1965
C between 1965 and 1970
D after 1970
Write the correct letter A, B, C or D in boxes 20-23 on your answer sheet.
20 The first images of the earth are taken in space.
21 Parts of the earth are mapped through use of radio waves.
22 A satellite is launched in search of forests, lakes and rivers.
23 Work began on what would be the most advanced map-making system in the future.
Question 24-26
The list below gives possible factors that contributed to improvements cartography.
Which THREE of these factors are mentioned in the text?
Write the appropriate letters A-F in boxes 24-26 on your answer sheet.
A magnetometers
B Sputnik I
C World War II
D stereoplotters
E aeroplanes and helicopters
F stereoscopes
Section 3
READING PASSAGE 3
How Children Learn
The way in which children learn is an ever-growing area of study. It is obvious that children differ from adults in many ways, but
what is interesting is that there arc quite a number of commonalities across learners of all ages. A study of young children fulfils two
purposes: it helps to highlight the strengths and weaknesses of the learners who populate a nation’s schools, and it offers a window
into the development of learning that cannot be seen if one considers only well-established learning patterns and expertise. When an
observer studies the development of children over time, a dynamic picture of learning unfolds. An understanding of infant thinking
mental processes or cognition and how young children from 2 to 5 years old add information to their knowledge ‘data base’ helps
child psychologists to better equip students for their transition into formal school settings.
For much of the 20th century, most psychologists accepted the traditional thesis that a newborn’s mind is a tabula rasa or blank slate
upon which the record of experience is gradually impressed. It was further thought that verbal communication was a prerequisite for
abstract thought and so, in its absence, a baby could not have comprehension. Since babies are born with a limited range of
behaviours and spend most of their early months asleep, they certainly appear passive and unknowing. Therefore, it was commonly
thought that infants lack the ability to form complex ideas. Until recently, there was no obvious way for them to demonstrate
anything to the contrary to researchers.
In time however, challenges to this view arose. It became clear that with carefully designed scientific procedures, psychologists could
find ways to pose rather complex questions about how much infants and young children know and what they are capable of doing.
Psychologists began to employ new methodologies and began to gather a substantial amount of data about the remarkable abilities
that young children possess. Their research stood in great contrast to the older emphases which focussed almost entirely on what
children lacked. The mind of young children came to life through this research, it became clear that very young children are both
competent and active when it comes to their conceptual development.
A major move away from the earlier tabula rasa view of the infant mind w-as taken by the Swiss psychologist Jean Piaget.
Beginning in the 1920s, Piaget argued that the young human mind could best be described in terms of complex cognitive or
‘thinking’ structures. From close observations of infants and careful questioning of children, he concluded that the development of
the mind proceeds through certain stages, each involving radically different thinking processes. Piaget observed that infants actually
seek stimulation from their surroundings thus promoting their intellectual development. He showed that their initial representations of
such things as space and time as well as awareness of objects and self are constructed only gradually during the first 2 years. He
concluded that understanding in young infants is built up through the gradual coordination of sight, sound and touch.
After Piaget, perceptual learning theorists studied how newborns begin to integrate sight and sound and explore their surroundings.
They saw that learning in infants proceeded rapidly when they were given the opportunity to explore the objects and events they
encountered. Theories were developed which attempted to describe how the brain processes information. It was around this time that
the metaphor of the mind as computer came into wide usage.
In order to study what babies know and can learn about readily, researchers needed to develop techniques of ‘asking’ infants what
they know. Because infants are so limited physically and verbally, experimenters interested in finding out how babies think had to
find methods suitable to an infant’s motor capabilities. New ways were developed for measuring what infants prefer to look at and
detecting changes in events to which they are sensitive. Three such methods that were used were sucking, habituation, and visual
expectation.
Although theories put forward during this time differed in many ways, they shared an emphasis on considering children as active
learners, those who actually assemble and organise information. Therefore, primarily cognitive development involves the acquisition
of organised knowledge such as, an early understanding of basic physics, some biological concepts and early number sense. In
addition, cognitive development involves gradually learning strategies for solving problems, understanding and remembering.
The active role of learners was also emphasized by Vygotsky, who focused on the role of social support in learning. According to
Vygotsky, all cognitive skills and patterns of thinking are not primarily determined by the skills people are born with; they are the
products of the activities practiced in the social environment in which the individual grows up. From Vygotsky’s research into the
role of the social environment in the development of thinking came what he called a zone of proximal development. This zone which
refers to tasks learners can do with the assistance of others, had a big impact upon developmental psychology. This line of work has
drawn attention to the roles of parents, and teachers in challenging and extending children’s efforts to understand. It has also
contributed to an understanding of the relationship between formal and informal teaching as well as learning situations and cognition.
Question 27-30
Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS for each answer.
27 What did early research into child capabilities focus on?
28 Who thought infants needed to communicate verbally in order to show advanced omprehension?
29 In what period of their growth do infants develop an awareness of time?
30 What TWO things is the infant mind compared to?
Question 31-35
In boxes 31 -35 on your answer sheet write
31 In many ways, children learn the same way adults learn.
32 20th century psychologists thought infants were unintelligent because they were usually asleep.
33 The focus of early research methods in child development have been similar to those conducted more recently.
34 Piaget showed that each new stage of learning builds upon the previous one.
35 Vygotsky’s research has had a positive impact upon many primary school teachers.
Question 36-40
Complete the sentences below with words taken from Reading Passage 3. Use NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 36-40.
36 When it comes to learning new concepts, recent research has shown that children are both competent and__________________ .
37 Not only are young children capable of assembling information they are also able to __________________ .
38 One of the ways scientists measured infant preference was through __________________
39 An indicator of cognitive development is that knowledge must be__________________
40 Vygotsky believed that the key to learning lay in the individual’s__________________
1 E
scan for the name Kovacs
once located, read in detail was is written in connection with Kovacs
locate the words,”… sun treatment is often helpful to persons suffering from general debility – repeated colds, respiratory diseases,
influenza and the like”
2 H
scan for the name Rollier
once located, read in detail was is written in connection with Rollier
Locate the words, ‘August Rollier… opened his first high-Alps sanatorium in 1903″
3 C
scan for the name Coblentz
once located, read in detail was is written in connection with Coblentz
Locate the words,”… the sun cure is a major factor in the treatment of at least 23 skin diseases, ranging from acne and eczema to ulcers and
wounds’
4 F
scan for the name Dodds
once located, read in detail was is written in connection with Dodds
locate the words, “(the sun) is a general stimulus to the body, more potent if applied after a period when it has been lacking which gradually
loses its effect if exposure is over prolonged…”
5 F
key words are doctors, agree, benefits, sun – scan for them
read in detail to find out if the doctors agree
locate the words, “The medical world appears to be divided on the effects of the sun… Doctors agree on one..’
6 T
key words are beach, best, suntan, less fX)llution – scan for these words
note that the third paragraph is talking about sun tans
locate the words, “… seashore (beach) is best of all, with its air estimated to have at least a fifth of a percent more oxygen than inland
ether… *
7 T
key words are women, applied, fat – scan for these words
locate the words, “… ladies of ancient Egypt first began to apply the fat… waging this battle against damage to skin… contribute… to a
multi-million dollar global sun screen business.”
8 NG
9 F
key words are eye, cannot heal, sun damage – scan for these words
locate the words,”… a few hours in the bright sun without sunglasses could cause a significant loss of vision – a loss that might take several
weeks from which to recover.’ This shouts one can recover from eye sun damage.
10 affected
in the second sentence “primarily, face and hands” are the key words – the damage that the sun can cause to face and hands
scan the passage, looking for those key words or synonyms of them
damage affects someone/something so the answer to question 10 is ‘affected’
remember that your summary’ should accurately reflect the main ideas expressed in the reading passage
11 blend
in the third sentence “human skin, exposed to sun, defence, oils, acids’ are the key words
The fifth paragraph states, ‘The first line of defence against permanent sun damage is the skins’ own natural fatty matter and sweat, which
combine to form an oily acid surface shield against the ultra violet rays
a synonym of ‘combine’ which fits into the passage is ‘blend’
remember that your summary should accurately reflect the main ideas expressed in the reading passage
12 caring
in the fourth sentence ‘women, more effective than men, caring skin” are the key words.
The 5th paragraph states, “Over the years, women have shown far greater wisdom in the care of their skin than men.’
13 slowly
in the fifth and sixth sentences, “eyes, negatively affected, damage, undetected’ are the key words
The 6th paragraph states, “So gradual was the change (ie. the loss of vision/sight) that the lifeguards were unaware that their sight had been
affected.”
14 overcome
in the seventh and eighth sentences, “hair, dry, brittle, lanolin,” are the key words – the damage that the sun can cause to face and hands
I he last paragraph states, “Hair care professionals recommend a nutritional cream treatment with a substance containing lanolin to bring
your hair back its natural softness…”
15 vii
Section B talks about The need to accurately measure distances using air photos gave birth to the process of photogrammetry”
Once you are quite sure you have the right paragraph, read in depth to confirm your choice.
16 v
Section C mentions, ‘After World War II had ended, this new technology led to an increased interest in cartography.”
Once you are quite sure you have the right section, read in depth to confirm your choice.
17 ix
Section D talks about ‘Soviet satellite Sputnik 1… Pageos 1, The Landsat 1 satellite… More than 20 other… satellites orbit the earth…
What took months to plot… can now be easily done in one hour.’ This paragraph clearly shows the impact of satellites on map-making.
once you are quite sure you have the right paragraph, read in depth to confirm your choice.
18 ii
Section E talks about “… some very advanced computer hardware has been designed to aide cartographers in map production… There is
basically an unlimited amount of information which can be superimposed on a map using this (computer) system”
19 iii
Section F talks about “Most recently, attention has shifted to short-lived phenomena such as tornados, air pollution and floods, and to
visualization of the results of conceptual modelling… It is clear today that cartography is closely associated with the broader field of
scientific visualization.”
20 A
Note the key words in each question.
The key words are “first images, earth, taken in space”.
Locate the area of the passage by scanning for those key words.
Once located, determine the time frame for those events.
Locate the words in section D, “… in 1959 the first space photograph of earth was received.”
21 C
The key words are “parts, mapped, radio waves”.
Locate the words in section D, “Two years later (i.e 1968), the American Satnav system was launched utilising six carefully positioned
Transit satellites which fed back information for mapping based upon the Doppler effect (radio waves).”
22 D
The key words are “satellite launched, forests, lakes, rivers”.
Locate the words in section D, “The Landsat 1 satellite launched in 1972 was the first satellite to collect data specifically on the earth’s
surface and natural resources.”
23 B
The key words are “work began, most advanced system, future”.
Locate the words in section E, “… some very advanced computer hardware… working with a… (CIS) the system uses geographic position
as a common thread. Although it became popular in the 1990s, GISs were developed in the early 1960s.”
24 A
Scan for the word “magnetometers”
It is located in section C
Notice the words, “… magnetometers…” From these precision instruments came maps packed with information.”
25 C
Scan for the words ’World War 11″
It is located in section B
Notice the words, “One of the biggest influences upon map creation or cartography was World War II.”
26 D
Scan for the word “stereoplotters’
It is located in section C
Notice the words, “… the photogram metric stereoplotter improved upon the technology used by the stereoscope allowing cartographers to
precisely measure the elevation of features in air photos and then transfer them to paper.”
27 what children lacked
Locate the key words in the question.
The key words are “early research, child capabilities, focus” – scan for these words and/or their synonyms
Notice the 3″‘‘ paragraph deals with children’s capabilities; locate the words, “…focussed almost entirely on what children lacked’.
28 20th century’ psychologists
The key words are “infants, communicate verbally, advanced comprehension” – scan for these and/or their synonyms
Locate the words, “It was further thought that verbal communication was a prerequisite for abstract thought… ‘; Who thought this about
abstract or advanced
comprehension 20th century psychologists.
29 the first 2 years
key words are period, growth, infants, awareness of time – scan for these and/or their synonyms
locate the words, ‘He (Piaget) showed that their initial representations of such things as space and time… are constructed only gradually
during the first 2 years.1
30 ‘blank slate’ (tabula rasa)/ computer
The key words are TWO things, human mind, compared – scan for these and/or their synonyms.
You are looking for comparisons. Locate the words, “a newborn’s mind is a tabula rasa or blank slate…” and “… the metaphor of the mind
as computer…”
31 T
The key words are children learn, similar, adults learn – scan for them and/or their synonyms
Locate the words,’… there are quite a number of commonalities across learners of all ages.’
32 T
The key words are “20th century, psychologists, infants unintelligent, asleep” – scan for them or their synonyms
Locate the words, “Since babies… spend most of their early months asleep, they certainly appear passive and unknowing.”
33 F
The key words are “early research methods, similar, more recently” – scan for them or their synonyms.
Locate the words, “Their research stood in great contrast to the older emphases which focussed almost entirely on…”
34 F
The key words are Piaget, learning, builds, previous one – scan for them and/or their synonyms.
Locate the words, “… he (Piaget) concluded that… development of the mind proceeds through certain stages, each involving radically
different thinking processes.*
35 T
key words are Vygotsky’s research, positive impact, primary’ school teachers – scan for them and/or their synonyms
Locate the words, “It (i.e. Vygotsky’s research) has also contributed… the relationship between (children’s) formal and informal teaching.”
36 active
Read the question carefully selecting the key words.
The key words are “learning new concepts, recent research, children, competent”.
Scan the passage for those key words.
Notice the 3rd paragraph states, “… young children are both competent and active when it comes to their conceptual development”.
Make sure you use and copy the word from the passage correctly.
Remember: incorrect spelling and/or grammar will be marked wrong!
37 organise it OR organise information
The key words are “young children, capable, assembling information”.
Scan the passage for those key words.’Notice the 6th paragraph states, ‘… theories… shared an emphasis on considering children as active
learners, those who actually assemble and organise information.
38 sucking OR habituation OR visual expectation
The key words are ‘one way, scientists measured infant preference”.
Notice the 6°’ paragraph states, “New ways were developed for measuring what infants prefer to look at and detecting changes in events to
which they are sensitive. Three such methods that were used were sucking, habituation, and visual expectation/
39 organised
The key words are “indicator, cognitive development, knowledge must*.
Notice the 6th paragraph states, “… cognitive development involves the acquisition of organised knowledge… ‘
40 social environment
The key words are ‘Vygotsky, key to learning, individual’s”.
Notice the last paragraph states, “Vygotsky (believed) all cognitive skills and patterns of thinking are not primarily determined by the skills
people are born with; they are the products of the activities practiced in the social environment in which the individual grows up.”
Squander – Word Of The Day For IELTS

Squander – Word Of The Day For IELTS For Speaking And Writing
Squander /skwɑːndər/ (Verb)
Meaning:
to carelessly waste money, time, opportunities etc
Synonyms:
Spend, Waste, Splash out.
Collocations:
 With noun: Chance, Money, Time, Opportunity
Examples:
 The home team squandered a number of chances in the first half.
 They squandered the profits on expensive cars.
 England squandered a golden opportunity to score, seconds before the final whistle.
 His family felt he had squandered his musical talent.
Exercise:
Try to use this word “squander” in your writing
IELTS Writing Actual Test in June, 2016
Some people think it is more important for government to spend public money on promoting healthy lifestyle in order to
prevent illness than to spend it on the treatment of people who are already ill. To what extent do you agree or disagree?
Sample Essay:
It is undeniable that the government plays a crucial role in healthcare services. However, people have different viewpoints
towards whether the government should invest into raising citizens’ awareness of healthy living or allocate health funds for the the
unwell. From my perspective, I strongly agree that the government should devote their money and time to promoting healthy
lifestyles rather than squander money on those who are suffering from terminal illness.
To lead people to live a healthy lifestyle is a huge challenge for many primary care practices. In the rural areas, many people fall
prey to easily avoidable diseases mainly because they are not aware of how to prevent them. Therefore, enlightening people about a
healthy lifestyle can remove the existence of many diseases from the roots. For example, ‘polio vaccine campaign’ has been
conducted extensively, with the help of mainstream media as well. As a result, as of today, India is a completely polio-free country. If
the clinicians of medical centres are encouraged to use educational tools to emphasise personal fitness levels and to promote fitness as
the “treatment of choice” for all patients, the proportion of the sick people can be greatly reduced.
There is no doubt that there will always be a certain number of people who are ill and in need of treatment simply because they cannot
afford it. The governments do have a certain fund for the fulfilment of this need, but practically speaking it shall put an unnecessary
deficit in the money that could be used elsewhere. This is because the cost of treating any disease will always be more than the money
spent on preventing it. Moreover, logically, the government can be accountable for the state of health of its citizens, but it cannot
be held accountable for the diseases sustained by its people.
In conclusion, I’d agree more with the idea of the government spending a part of nation budget on promoting a healthy lifestyle.
IELTS Materials and Resources, Get IELTS Tips, Tricks &

Practice Test
Woes – Word Of The Day For IELTS
Woes – Word Of The Day For IELTS Speaking And Writing
Woes – /woʊs/ (Noun)
Meaning:
(formal) the problems and troubles affecting someone
Synonyms:
Problem, Issue
Collocations:
 With adjective: economic, financial
Examples:
 To win again in 1996 the Clintons must address the country’s economic woes first.
 The threat of at least one multi-million-dollar fine facing Koons and Sonnabend compounds their financial woes at this moment.
 His arrival and the Raiders’ existing financial woes have had an impact on various areas of the organisation.
 He said first he had to deal with the provincial government’s financial woes and an economic downturn.
Exercises:
Try to use this word “woes” in your speech
Question 1: Are people concerned about environmental problems in your country?
Sample Answer:
Well, it’s hard to say for sure. I think some people are concerned but probably not enough of them. There are people who
take environmental woes seriously enough to actually recycle their rubbish appropriately but I don’t think there are enough people
who concern themselves with resource depletion which I consider to be a pressing issue. So many people are using energy and
buying products without any thought to the impact of their actions. We all know that the world’s resources are being used at an
alarming rate but no one seems to actually feel it’s their responsibility to change the way they live. So, I guess, although there are
some people who are concerned, it’s not enough and more people in my country need to change the way they live.
Question 2: Do you believe climate change is a serious problem?
Sample Answer:
Yes, I do. The woes of climate change have been growing over the past few decades and we are now witnessing serious changes in
global weather patterns. While some countries are suffering heat waves, other countries are suffering from terrible snow storms.
But that isn’t the worst of the problem. The changes in the climate are also causing extreme weather such as typhoons, earthquakes
and tsunamis, which are devastating many countries. On top of that, there are also concerns about rising sea levels, which although
not a problem now, will be a serious concern to any low-lying country in the future. So, I feel that climate change is something
which needs to be taken very seriously.

IELTS Reading Recent Actual Test 12 in 2017 with Answer Key

SECTION 1
Plant Scents
A Everyone is familiar with scented flowers, and many people have heard that floral odors help the plant attract pollinators.
This common notion is mostly correct, but it is surprising how little scientific proof of it exists. Of course, not all flowers are
pollinated by biological agents— for example, many grasses are wind- pollinated—but the flowers of the grasses may still emit
volatiles. In fact, plants emit organic molecules all the time, although they may not be obvious to the human nose. As for
flower scents that we can detect with our noses, bouquets that attract moths and butterflies generally smell “sweet,” and those
that attract certain flies seem “rotten” to us.
B The release of volatiles from vegetative parts of the plant is familiar, although until recently the physiological functions of
these chemicals were less clear and had received much less attention from scientists. When the trunk of a pine tree is injured-
for example, when a beetle tries to burrow into it- it exudes a very smelly resin. This resin consists mostly of terpenes—
hydrocarbons with a backbone of 10 ， 15 or 20 carbons that may also contain atoms of oxygen. The heavier C20 terpenes,
called diterpenes, are glue-like and can cover and immobilize insects as they plug the hole. This defense mechanism is as
ancient as it is effective: Many samples of fossilized resin, or amber, contain the remains of insects trapped inside. Many other
plants emit volatiles when injured, and in some cases the emitted signal helps defend the plant. For example,(Z)_3_ hexenyl
acetate, which is known as a “green leaf volatile” because it is emitted by many plants upon injury, deters females of the moth
Heliothis virescens from laying eggs on injured tobacco plants. Interestingly, the profile of emitted tobacco volatiles is
different at night than during the day, and it is the nocturnal blend, rich in several (Z)_3_hexen_i-olesters ， that is most
effective in repelling the night-active H. virescens moths.
C Herbivore induced volatiles often serve as indirect defenses. These bulwarks exist in a variety of plant species, including
corn, beans, and the model plant species Arabidopsis thaliana. Plants not only emit volatiles acutely, at the site where
caterpillars, mites, aphids or similar insects are eating them, but also generally from non-damaged parts of the plant. These
signals attract a variety of predatory insects that prey on the plant-eaters. For example, some parasitic wasps can detect the
volatile signature of a damaged plant and will lay their eggs inside the offending caterpillar; eventually the wasp eggs hatch,
and the emerging larvae feed on the caterpillar from the inside out. The growth of infected caterpillars is retarded considerably,
to the benefit of the plant. Similarly, volatiles released by plants in response to herbivore egg laying can attract parasites of the
eggs, thereby preventing them from hatching and avoiding the onslaught of hungry herbivores that would have emerged. Plant
volatiles can also be used as a kind of currency in some very indirect defensive schemes. In the rainforest understory tree
Leonardoxa africana, ants of the species Petalomyrmex phylax patrol young leaves and attack any herbivorous insects that they
encounter. The young leaves emit high levels of the volatile compound methyl salicylate, a compound that the ants use either
as a pheromone or as an antiseptic in their nests. It appears that methyl salicylate is both an attractant and a reward offered by
the tree to get the ants to perform this valuable deterrent role.
D Floral scent has a strong impact on the economic success of many agricultural crops that rely on insect pollinators, including
fruit trees such as the bee-pollinated cherry, apple, apricot and peach, as well as vegetables and tropical plants such as papaya.
Pollination not only affects crop yield, but also the quality and efficiency of crop production. Many crops require most, if not
all, ovules to be fertilized for optimum fruit size and shape. A decrease in fragrance emission reduces the ability of flowers to
attract pollinators and results in considerable losses for growers, particularly for introduced species that had a specialized
pollinator in their place of origin. This problem has been exacerbated by recent disease epidemics that have killed many
honeybees, the major insect pollinators in the United States.
E One means by which plant breeders circumvent the pollination problem is by breeding self-compatible, or apomictic,
varieties that do not require fertilization. Although this solution is adequate, its drawbacks include near genetic uniformity and
consequent susceptibility to pathogens. Some growers have attempted to enhance honeybee foraging by spraying scent
compounds on orchard trees, but this approach was costly, had to be repeated, had potentially toxic effects on the soil or local
biota, and, in the end, proved to be inefficient. The poor effectiveness of this strategy probably reflects inherent limitations of
the artificial, topically applied compounds, which clearly fail to convey the appropriate message to the bees. For example,
general spraying of the volatile mixture cannot tell the insects where exactly the blossoms are. Clearly, a more refined strategy
is needed. The ability to enhance existing floral scent, create scent de novo or change the characteristics of the scent, which
could all be accomplished by genetic engineering, would allow us to manipulate the types of insect pollinators and the
frequency of their visits. Moreover, the metabolic engineering of fragrance could increase crop protection against pathogens
and pests.
F Genetic manipulation of scent will also benefit the floriculture industry. Ornamentals, including cut flowers, foliage and
potted plants, play an important aesthetic role in human life. Unfortunately, traditional breeding has often produced cultivars
with improved vase life, shipping characteristics, color and shape while sacrificing desirable perfumes. The loss of scent
among ornamentals, which have a worldwide value of more than $30 billion, makes them important targets for the genetic
manipulation of flower fragrance. Some work has already begun in this area, as several groups have created petunia and
carnation plants that express the linalool synthase gene from C. Breweri. These experiments are still preliminary: For technical
reasons, the gene was expressed everywhere in the plant, and although the transgenic plants did create small amounts of
linalool, the level was below the threshold of detection for the human nose. Similar experiments in tobacco used genes for
other monoterpene synthases, such as the one that produces limonene, but gave similar results.
G The next generation of experiments, already in progress, includes sophisticated schemes that target the expression of scent
genes specifically to flowers or other organs—such as special glands that can store antimicrobial or herbivore- repellent
compounds.
Questions 1-4
The reading Passage has seven paragraphs A-G.
Write the correct letter A-G, in boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet.
1. Substance released to help plants themselves.
2. Scent helps plant’s pollination.
3. Practice on genetic experiment of fragrance.
4. Plant’s scent attracts herbivore’s enemy for protection.
Questions 5-8
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1? In boxes 5-8 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement is true
FALSE if the statement is false
if the information is not given in the
NOT GIVEN
passage
5. We have few evidence to support the idea that scent attracts pollinators.
6. Heliothis virescens won’t eat those tobacco leaves on which they laid eggs.
7. Certain ants are attracted by volatiles to guard plants in rainforest.
8. Pollination only affects fruit trees’ production rather than other crop trees.
Questions 9-13
Choose the correct letter, A, B，C or D.
9. How do wasps protect plants when they are attracted by scents according to the passage?
A plants induce wasps to prey herbivore.
B wasps lay eggs into caterpillars.
C wasps laid eggs on plants to expel herbivore.
D offending caterpillars and wasp eggs coexist well.
10. What reason caused number of honeybees decline m the United States.
A pollination process
B spread illness
C crop trees are poisonous
D grower’s overlook
11. Which of the following drawbacks about artificial fragrance is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A it’s very expensive
B it can’t tell correct information to pollinators.
C it needs massive manual labour
D it poisons local environment
12. The number of $30 billion quoted in the passage is to illustrate the fact that:
A favorable perfumes are made from ornamental flowers
B traditional floriculture industry needs reform.
C genetic operation on scent can make vast profit.
D Scent plays a significant role in Ornamental industry.
13. What is weakness of genetic experiments on fragrance?
A Linalool level is too low to be smelt by nose
B no progress made in linalool emission
C experiment on tobacco has a better result
D transgenic plants produce intense scent
SECTION 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26，which are based on Reading Passage 2 below.
The Development of Plastics
A When rubber was first commercially produced in Europe during the nineteenth century, it rapidly became a very
important commodity, particularly in the fields of transportation and electricity. However, during the twentieth century a number of
new synthetic materials, called plastics, superseded natural rubber in all but a few applications.
B Rubber is a polymer — a compound containing large molecules that are formed by the bonding of many smaller, simpler units,
repeated over and over again. The same bonding principle 一 polymerisation 一 underlies the creation of a huge range of plastics
by the chemical industry.
C The first plastic was developed as a result of a competition in the USA. In the 1860s, $10,000 was offered to anybody who could
replace ivory — supplies of which were declining — with something equally good as a material for making billiard balls. The prize
was won by John Wesley Hyatt with a material called celluloid. Celluloid was made by dissolving cellulose, a carbohydrate
derived from plants, in a solution of camphor dissolved in ethanol. This new material rapidly found uses in the manufacture of
products such as knife handles, detachable collars and cuffs, spectacle frames and photographic film. Without celluloid, the film
industry could never have got off the ground at the end of the 19th century.
D Celluloid can be repeatedly softened and reshaped by heat, and is known as a thermoplastic. In 1907 Leo Baekeland, a Belgian
chemist working in the USA ， invented a different kind of plastic by causing phenol and formaldehyde to react together.
Baekeland called the material Bakelite, and it was the first of the thermosets’ plastics that can be cast and moulded while hot, but
cannot be softened by heat and reshaped once they have set. Bakelite was a good insulator, and was resistant to water, acids and
moderate heat. With these properties it was soon being used in the manufacture of switches, household items, such as knife
handles, and electrical components for cars.
E Soon chemists began looking for other small molecules that could be strung together to make polymers. In the 1930s, British
chemists discovered that the gas ethylene would polymerise under heat and pressure to form a thermoplastic they called polythene.
Polypropylene followed in the 1950s. Both were used to make bottles, pipes and plastic bags. A small change in the starting
material 一 replacing a hydrogen atom in ethylene with a chlorine atom — produced PVC (polyvinyl chloride) ，a hard, fireproof
plastic suitable for drains and gutters. And by adding certain chemicals, a soft form of PVC could be produced, suitable as a
substitute for rubber in items such as waterproof clothing. A closely related plastic was Teflon, or PTFE (polytetrafluoroethylene).
This had a very low coefficient of friction, making it ideal for bearings, rollers, and non-stick frying pans. Polystyrene, developed
during the 1930s in Germany, was a clear, glass-like material, used in food containers, domestic appliances and toys. Expanded
polystyrene — a white, rigid foam — was widely used in packaging and insulation. Polyurethanes, also developed in Germany,
found uses as adhesives, coatings, and — in the form of rigid foams — as insulation materials. They are all produced from
chemicals derived from crude oil, which contains exactly the same elements ——carbon and hydrogen ——as many plastics.
F The first of the man-made fibres, nylon, was also created in the 1930s. Its inventor was a chemist called Wallace Carothers, who
worked for the Du Pont Company in the USA. He found that under the right conditions, two chemicals — hexamethylenediamine
and adipic acid would form a polymer that could be pumped out through holes and then stretched to form long glossy threads that
could be woven like silk. Its first use was to make parachutes for the US armed forces in World War II. In the post-war years nylon
completely replaced silk in the manufacture of stockings. Subsequently many other synthetic fibres joined nylon，including Orion,
Acrilan and Terylene. Today most garments are made of a blend of natural fibres, such as cotton and wool, and man-made fibres
that make fabrics easier to look after.
G The great strength of plastic is its indestructibility. However, this quality is also something of a drawback: beaches all over the
world, even on the remotest islands, are littered with plastic bottles that nothing can destroy. Nor is it very easy to recycle
plastics ， as different types of plastic are often used in the same items and call for different treatments. Plastics can be made
biodegradable by incorporating into their structure a material such as starch, which is attacked by bacteria and causes the plastic to
fall apart. Other materials can be incorporated that gradually decay in sunlight 一 although bottles made of such materials have to
be stored in the dark, to ensure that they do not disintegrate before they have been used.
Questions 14-20
Complete the table below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 14-20 on your answer
sheet.
Name of Date of Original
Property Common use
plastic invention region
Clothing
Celluloid 1860S US
and 14______
can be cast and moulded but 16 ______ ’household
15 ______ 1907 US
cannot be softened by heat items and car parts
Polythene 1930s 17 ______ bottles
Rigid PVC 18 ______ drains and gutters
transparent
Polystyrene 1930s Germany Food container domestic
and resembled to 19 ______
adhesives,coatings and
Polyurethanes Germany formation like 20 ______
insulation
Questions 21-26
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2? In boxes 21-26 on your answer sheet, write
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage
21. The chemical structure of plastic is very different from that of rubber.
22. John Wesley was a famous chemist.
23. Celluloid and Bakelite react to heat in the same way.
24. The mix of different varieties of plastic can make them less recyclable.
25. Adding starch into plastic does not necessarily make plastic more durable.
26. Some plastic containers have to be preserved in special conditions.
SECTION 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40，which are based on Reading Passage 3 below.
Global Warming in New Zealand
A For many environmentalists, the world seems to be getting warmer. As the nearest country of South Polar Region, New
Zealand has maintained an upward trend in its average temperature in the past few years. However, the temperature in New
Zealand will go up 4°C in the next century while the polar region will go up more than 6°C .The different pictures of
temperature stem from its surrounding ocean which acts like the air conditioner. Thus New Zealand is comparatively fortunate.
B Scientifically speaking, this temperature phenomenon in New Zealand originated from what researchers call ” SAM
(Southern Annular Mode), which refers to the wind belt that circles the Southern Oceans including New Zealand and
Antarctica. Yet recent work has revealed that changes in SAM in New Zealand have resulted in a weakening of moisture
during the summer, and more rainfall in other seasons. A bigger problem may turn out to be heavier droughts for agricultural
activities because of more water loss from soil, resulting in poorer harvest before winter when the rainfall arrive too late to
rescue.
C Among all the calamities posed by drought, moisture deficit ranks the first. Moisture deficit is the gap between the water
plants need during the growing season and the water the earth can offer. Measures of moisture deficit were at their highest
since the 1970s in New Zealand. Meanwhile, ecological analyses clearly show moisture deficit is imposed at different growth
stage of crops. If moisture deficit occurs around a crucial growth stage, it will cause about 22% reduction in grain yield as
opposed to moisture deficit at vegetative phase.
D Global warming is not only affecting agriculture production. When scientists say the country’s snow pack and glaciers are
melting at an alarming rate due to global warming, the climate is putting another strain on the local places. For example, when
the development of global warming is accompanied by the falling snow line， the local skiing industry comes into a crisis. The
snow line may move up as the temperature goes up, and then the snow at the bottom will melt earlier. Fortunately, it is going to
be favourable for the local skiing industry to tide over tough periods since the quantities of snowfall in some areas are more
likely to increase.
E What is the reaction of glacier region? The climate change can be reflected in the glacier region in southern New Zealand or
land covered by ice and snow. The reaction of a glacier to a climatic change involves a complex chain of processes, Over time
periods of years to several decades, cumulative changes in mass balance cause volume and thickness changes, which will affect
the flow of ice via altered internal deformation and basal sliding. This dynamic reaction finally leads to glacier length changes,
the advance or retreat of glacier tongues. Undoubtedly, glacier mass balance is a more direct signal of annual atmospheric
conditions.
F The latest research result of National Institute of Water and Atmospheric (NIWA) Research shows that glaciers line keeps
moving up because of the impacts of global warning. Further losses of ice can be reflected in Mt. Cook Region. By 1996，a 14
km long sector of the glacier had melted down forming a melt lake (Hooker Lake) with a volume. Melting of the glacier front
at a rate of 40 m/yr will cause the glacier to retreat at a rather uniform rate. Therefore,, the lake will continue to grow until it
reaches the glacier bed.
G A direct result of the melting glaciers is the change of high tides that serves the main factor for sea level rise. The trend of
sea level rise will bring a threat to the groundwater system for its hyper-saline groundwater and then pose a possibility to
decrease the agricultural production. Many experts believe that the best way to counter this trend is to give a longer-term view
of sea level change in New Zealand. Indeed, the coastal boundaries need to be upgraded and redefined.
H There is no doubt that global warming has affected New Zealand in many aspects. The emphasis on the global warming
should be based on the joints efforts of local people and experts who conquer the tough period. For instance, farmers are taking
a long term, multi-generational approach to adjust the breeds and species according to the temperature. Agriculturists also find
ways to tackle the problems that may bring to the soil. In broad terms, going forward, the systemic resilience that’s been going
on a long time in the ecosystem will continue.
I How about animals’ reaction? Experts have surprisingly realised that animals have unconventional adaptation to global
warming. A study has looked at sea turtles on a few northern beaches in New Zealand and it is very interesting to find that sea
turtles can become male of female according to the temperature. Further researches will try to find out how rising temperatures
would affect the ratio of sex reversal in their growth. Clearly, the temperature of the nest plays a vital role in the sexes of the
baby turtles.
J Tackling the problems of global warming is never easy in New Zealand, because records show the slow process of global
warming may have a different impact on various regions. For New Zealand, the emission of carbon dioxide only accounts for
0.5% of the world’s total, which has met the governmental standard. However, New Zealand’s effort counts only a tip of the
iceberg. So far, global warming has been a world issue that still hangs in an ambiguous future.
Questions 27-32
Write the correct letter in boxes 27-32 on your answer sheet.
27. What is the main idea of the first paragraph?
A The temperature in the polar region will increase less than that in New Zealand in the next century.
B The weather and climate of New Zealand is very important to its people because of its close location to the polar region.
C The air condition in New Zealand will maintain a high quality because of the ocean.
D The temperature of New Zealand will increase less than that of other regions in the next 100 years because it is surrounded by
sea.
28. What is one effect of the wind belt that circles the Southern Oceans?
A New Zealand will have more moisture in winds in summer.
B New Zealand needs to face droughts more often in hotter months in a year.
C Soil water will increase as a result of weakening moisture in the winds.
D Agricultural production will be reduced as a result of more rainfall in other seasons.
29. What does “moisture deficit”mean to the grain and crops?
A The growing condition will be very tough for crops.
B The growing season of some plants can hardly be determined.
C There will be a huge gap between the water plants needed and the water the earth can offer.
D The soil of grain and crops in New Zealand reached its lowest production since 1970s.
30. What changes will happen to skiing industry due to the global wanning phenomenon?
A The skiing station may lower the altitude of skiing.
B Part of the skiing station needs to move to the north.
C The snowfall may increase in part of the skiing station.
D The local skiing station may likely to make a profit because of the snowfall increase.
31. Cumulative changes over a long period of time in mass balance will lead to A alterations in the volume and thickness of
glaciers.
B faster changes in internal deformation and basal sliding.
C bigger length of glaciers.
D retreat of glacier tongues as a result of change in annual atmospheric conditions.
32 Why does the writer mention NIWA in the sixth paragraph?
A To use a particular example to explain the effects brought by glacier melting.
B To emphasize the severance of the further loss of ice in Mt. Cook Region.
C To alarm the reader of melting speed of glaciers at a uniform rate.
D To note the lake in the region will disappear when it reach the glacier bed.
Questions 33-35
Complete the summary below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 33-35 on your answer
sheet
Research data shows that sea level has a closely relation with the change of climate. The major reason for the increase in sea level
is connected with 33 ____________ , The increase in sea level is also said to have a threat to the underground water system, the
destruction of which caused by rise of sea level will lead to a high probability of reduction in 34_____________ . In the long run,
New Zealanders may have to improve the 35__________ if they want to diminish the effect change in sea levels.
Questions 36-40
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 3?
In boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet, write
YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer.
36. Farmers are less responsive to climate change than agriculturists.
37. Agricultural sector is too conservative and deal with climate change.
38. Turtle is vulnerable to climate change.
39. The global warming is going slowly, and it may have different effects on different areas in New Zealand
40. New Zealand must cut carbon dioxide emission if they want to solve the problem of global warming.
1 B 2 A 3 F
4 C 5 TRUE 6 NOT GIVEN
7 TRUE 8 FALSE 3 B
10 B 11 C 12 D
13 A
14 Photographic Film 15 Bakelite 16 (electric) Switches
17 Britain/UK 18 Fireproof 19 Glass
20 Rigid Foams 21 FALSE 22 NOT GIVEN
23 FALSE 24 TRUE 25 TRUE
26 TRUE
27 D 28 B 29 A
30 C 31 A 32 A
Agricultural
33 High tides 34 35 Coastal boundaries
production
36 NOT GIVEN 37 NOT GIVEN 38 NO
39 YES 40 NO
IELTS Materials and Resources, Get IELTS Tips,
Tricks & Practice Test
In The Prime Of Life – Idiom Of The Day For IELTS
In The Prime Of Life – Idiom Of The Day For IELTS Speaking.
Definition:
in the best years of one’s life, at the peak of one’s success or power
Example:
“That boy had so much to look forward to, but he was killed in the prime of life.“
“The good health of one’s youth can carry over into the prime of life.“
“He was struck down by a heart attack in the prime of life.“
Exercise:
“”I have everything I’ve always wanted, and I’m still in ____________________.“ “
B. the spitting image of me
D. a fair-weather friend
2. Describe a young person who inspires your motivation. Try to use this idiom in your speech. You should say:
– Who he or she is
– What does he or she do
– When you meet him or her
And explain how he or she inspires your motivation

SECTION 1
Grey Workers
A Given the speed at which their workers are growing greyer, employers know surprisingly little about how productive they are.
The general assumption is that the old are paid more in spite of, rather than because of, their extra productivity. That might partly
explain why, when employers are under pressure to cut costs, they persuade the 55-year-olds to take early retirement. Earlier this
year, Sun Life of Canada, an insurance company, announced that it was offering redundancy to all its British employees aged 50or
over “to bring in new blood”.
B In Japan, says Mariko Fujiwara, an industrial anthropologist who runs a think-tank for Hakuhodo, Japan’s second-largest
advertising agency, most companies are bringing down the retirement age from the traditional 57 to 50 or thereabouts – and in
some cases, such as Nissan, to 45. More than perhaps anywhere else, pay in Japan is linked to seniority. Given that the percentage
of workers who have spent more than 32 years with the same employer rose from 11% in 1980 to 42% by 1994 ， it is hardly
surprising that seniority-based wage costs have become the most intractable item on corporate profit-and-loss accounts.
C In Germany, Patrick Pohl, spokesman for Hoechst, expresses a widely held view: “The company is trying to lower the average
age of the workforce. Perhaps the main reason for replacing older workers is that it makes it easier to ‘defrost’ the corporate
culture. Older workers are less willing to try a new way of thinking. Younger workers are cheaper and more flexible.” Some
German firms are hampered from getting rid of older workers as quickly as they would like. At SGL Carbon, a graphite producer,
the average age of workers has been going up not down. The reason, says the company’s Ivo Lingnau, is not that SGL values older
workers more. It is collective bargaining: the union agreement puts strict limits on the proportion of workers that may retire early.
D Clearly, when older people do heavy physical work, their age may affect their productivity. But other skills may increase with
age, including many that are crucial for good management, such as an ability to handle people diplomatically, to run a meeting or
to spot a problem before it blows up. Peter Hicks, who co-ordinates OECD work on the policy implications of ageing, says that
plenty of research suggests older people are paid more because they are worth more.
E And the virtues of the young may be exaggerated. “The few companies that have kept on older workers find they have good
judgment and their productivity is good，” says Mr Peterson. “Besides, their education standards are much better than those of
today’s young high-school graduates.” Companies may say that older workers are not worth training, because they are reaching the
end of their working lives: in fact, young people tend to switch jobs so frequently that they offer the worst returns on training. “The
median age for employer-driven training is the late 40s and early 50s，” says Mr Hicks. “It goes mainly to managers.”
F Take away those seniority-based pay scales, and older workers may become a much more attractive employment proposition.
But most companies (and many workers) are uncomfortable with the idea of reducing someone’s pay in later life – although
workers on piece-rates often earn less over time. So retaining the services of older workers may mean employing them in new
ways.
G One innovation, described in Mr. Walker’s report on combating age barriers, was devised by IBM Belgium. Faced with the need
to cut staff costs, and having decided to concentrate cuts on 55-60-year-olds, IBM set up a separate company called Skill Team,
which re-employed any of the early retired who wanted to go on working up to the age of 60. An employee who joined Skill Team
at the age of 55 on a five-year contract would work for 58% of his time, over the full period, for 88% of his last IBM salary. The
company offered services to IBM, thus allowing it to retain access to some of the intellectual capital it would otherwise have lost.
H The best way to tempt the old to go on working may be to build on such “bridge” jobs: part-time or temporary employment that
creates a more gradual transition from full-time work to retirement. Mr Quinn, who has studied the phenomenon, finds that, in the
United States, nearly half of all men and women who had been in full-time jobs in middle age moved into such “bridge” jobs at the
end of their working lives. In general, it is the best-paid and worst-paid who carry on working: “There are”, he says, “two very
different types of bridge job-holders – those who continue working because they have to and those who continue working because
they want to, even though they could afford to retire.”
I If the hob market grows more flexible, the old may find more jobs that suit them. Often, they will be self-employed. Sometimes,
they may start their own businesses: a study by David Storey of Warwick University found that, in Britain, 70% of businesses
started by people over 55 survived, compared with an average of only 19%. To coax the old back into the job market, work will not
only have to pay. It will need to be more fun than touring the country in an Airstream trailer, or seeing the grandchildren, or
playing golf. Only then will there be many more Joe Clarks.
Questions 1-4

1. Insurance company Sun Life of Canada made decision that it would hire more Canadian employees rather than British ones in
order to get fresh staffs.
2. Unlike other places, employees in Japan get paid according to the years they are employed
3. Elder workers are laid off by some German companies which are refreshing corporate culture
4. According to Peter Hicks, companies pay older people more regardless of the contribution of they make.
Questions 5-6
Choose the correct letter, A, B，C，D，E.
According to the passage there are several advantages to hire elder people, please choose TWO from below：
A their productivity are more superior than the young.
B paid less compared with younger ones.
C run fast when there is a meeting
D have better inter-person relationship
E identify problems in an advanced time
Questions 7-8
Choose the correct letter, A, B，C，D，E.
According to Mr. Peterson, Compared with elder employees, young graduates have several weaknesses in workplace, please
choose TWO of them below：
A they are not worth training.
B their productivity is lower than counterparts.
C they change work more often
D their academic criteria is someway behind elders’
E they are normally high school graduates.
Questions 9-13
Choose the correct letter, A，B, C or D.
9. According to paragraph F, the firms and workers still hold the opinion that:
A Older workers are more likely to attract other staff
B people are not happy if pay gets lower in retiring age.
C Older people have more retaining motivation than young people
D young people often earn less for their piece-rates salary.
10. SkillTeam that has been founded by IBM conducted which of following movement:
A Ask all the old worker to continue their job on former working hours basis
B Carry on the action of cutting off the elder’s proportion of employment
C Ask employees to work more hours in order to get extra pay
D Re-hire old employees and kept the salary a bit lower
11. which of the followings is correct according to the research of Mr Quinn:
A About 50% of all employees in America switched into ‘Bridge’ jobs.
B Only the worst-paid continue to work.
C More men than women fell into the category of ’bridge’ work.
D Some old people keep working for their motive rather than economic incentive.
12. Which of the followings is correct according to David Storey:
A 70% business are successful if hire more older people.
B Average success of self-employed business is getting lower.
C Self-employed elder people are more likely to survive.
D Older people’s working hours are more flexible.
13. What is the main purpose of the author in writing this passage?
A there must be a successful retiring program for the old
B older people should be correctly valued in employment
C old people should offer more helping young employees grow.
D There are more jobs in the world that only employ older people
SECTION 2
The history of salt
A Salt is so simple and plentiful that we almost take it for granted. In chemical terms, salt is the combination “of a sodium ion with
a chloride on, making it one of the most basic molecules on earth. It is also one of the most plentiful: it has been estimated that salt
deposits under the state of Kansas alone could supply the entire world’s needs for the next 250,000 years.
B But salt is also an essential element. Without it, life itself would be impossible since the human body requires the mineral in
order to function properly. The concentration of sodium ions in the blood is directly related to the regulation of safe body fluid
levels. And while we are all familiar with its many uses in cooking, we may not be aware that this element is used in some 14,000
commercial applications. From manufacturing pulp and paper to setting dyes in textiles and fabric, from producing soaps and
detergents to making our roads safe in winter, salt plays an essential part in our daily lives.
C Salt has a long and influential role in world history. From the dawn of civilization, it has been a key factor in economic,
religious, social and political development In every comer of the world, it has been the subject of superstition, folklore, and
warfare, and has even been used as currency.
D As a precious and portable commodity, salt has long been a cornerstone of economies throughout history. In fact, researcher
M.R. Bloch conjectured that civilization began along the edges of the desert because of the natural surface deposits of salt found
there. Bloch also believed that the first war – likely fought near the ancient city of Essalt on the Jordan River – could have been
fought over the city’s precious supplies of the mineral.
E In 2200 BC, the Chinese emperor Hsia Yu levied one of the first known taxes. He taxed salt. In Tibet, Marco Polo noted that
tiny cakes of salt were pressed with images of the Grand Khan to be used as coins and to this day among the nomads of Ethiopia’s
Danakil Plains it is still used as money. Greek slave traders often bartered it for slaves, giving rise to the expression that someone
was “not worth his salt.” Roman legionnaires were paid in salt – a salarium, the Latin origin of the word “salary.”
F Merchants in 12th-century Timbuktu-the gateway to the Sahara Desert and the seat of scholars – valued this mineral as highly as
books and gold. In France, Charles of Anjou levied the “gabelle, a salt tax, in 1259 to finance his conquest of the Kingdom of
Naples. Outrage over the gabelle fueled the French Revolution. Though the revolutionaries eliminated the tax shortly after Louis
XVI，the Republic of France re-established the gabelle in the early 19th Century； only in 1946 was it removed from the books.
G The Erie Canal, an engineering marvel that connected the Great Lakes to New York’s Hudson River in 1825 ，was called “the
ditch that salt built.” Salt tax revenues paid for half the cost of construction of the canal. The British monarchy supported itself with
high salt taxes, leading to a bustling black market for the white crystal. In 1785 ，the earl of Dundonald wrote that every year in
England，10,000 people were arrested for salt smuggling. And protesting against British rule in 1930, Mahatma Gandhi led a 200-
mile march to the Arabian Ocean to collect untaxed salt for India’s poor.
H In religion and culture, salt long held an important place with Greek worshippers consecrating it in their rituals. Further, in
Buddhist tradition, salt repels evil spirits, which is why it is customary to throw it over your shoulder before entering your house
after a funeral: it scares off any evil spirits that may be clinging to your back. Shinto religion also uses it to purify an area. Before
sumo wrestlers enter the ring for a match – which is in reality an elaborate Shinto rite – a handful is thrown into the center to drive
off malevolent spirits
I In the Southwest of the United States, the Pueblo worship the Salt Mother. Other native tribes had significant restrictions on who
was permitted to eat salt Hopi legend holds that the angry Warrior Twins punished mankind by placing valuable salt deposits far
from civilization, requiring hard work and bravery to harvest the precious mineral. Today, a gift of salt endures in India as a potent
symbol of good luck and a reference to Mahatma Gandhi’s liberation of India.
J The effects of salt deficiency are highlighted in times of war, when human bodies and national economies are strained to their
limits. Thousands of Napoleon’s troops died during the French retreat from Moscow due to inadequate wound healing and lowered
resistance to disease – the results of salt deficiency.
Questions 14-16
NB Your answers may be given in any order.
Which THREE statements are true of salt?
A A number of cities take their name from the word salt.
B Salt contributed to the French Revolution.
C The uses of salt are countless.
D Salt has been produced in China for less than 2000 years.
E There are many commercial applications for salt F Salt deposits in the state of Kansas are vast.
G Salt has few industrial uses nowadays.
H Slaves used salt as a currency.
Questions 17-21
Complete the summary.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 17-21 on your answer
sheet.
Salt is such an 17________ that people would not be able to live without it. As well as its uses in cooking, this basic mineral has
thousands of business 18____________________ ranging from making paper to the manufacture of soap. Being a prized and
19__________________ it has played a major part in the economies of many countries. As such, salt has not only led to war, but
has also been used to raise 20_____________ by governments in many parts of the world. There are also many instances of its
place in religion and culture, being used as a means to get rid of evil 21________________
Questions 22-27
Do the following statements agree with the
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information information in Reading Passage 2? In boxes 22-
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information 27 on your answer sheet write
NOT GIVEN if there is no information about the statement 22. It has been suggested that salt was
responsible for the first war.
23. The first tax on salt was imposed by a Chinese emperor.
24. Salt is no longer used as a form of currency.
25. Most of the money for the construction of the Erie Canal came from salt taxes.
26. Hopi legend believes that salt deposits were placed far away from civilization to penalize mankind.
27. A lack of salt is connected with the deaths of some soldiers.
SECTION 3
Designed to Last
Could better design cure our throwaway culture?
A Jonathan Chapman, a senior lecture at the University of Brighton, UK, is one of a new breed of “sustainable designers’. Like
many of us, they are concerned about the huge waste associated with Western consumer culture and the damage this does to the
environment. Some, like Chapman, aim to create objects we will want to keep rather than discard. Others are working to create
more efficient or durable consumer goods, or goods designed with recycling in mind. The waste entailed in our fleeting
relationships with consumer durables is colossal
B Domestic power tools, such as electric drills, are a typical example of such waste. However much DIY the purchaser plans to do,
the truth is that these things are thrown away having been used, on average, for just ten minutes. Most will serve (conscience time,
gathering dust on a shelf in the garage; people are reluctant to admin that they have wasted their money. However, the end is
inevitable thousands of years in landfill waste sites. In its design, manufacture, packaging, transportation and disposal, a power tool
consumes many times its own weight in resources, all for a shorter active lifespan than that of the average small insect.
C To understand why we have become so wasteful, we should look to the underlying motivation (of consumers. ‘People own
things to give expression to who they are, and to show what group of people they feel they belong to ，’ Chapman says. In a
world of mass production, however, that symbolism has lost much of its potency. For most of human history, people had an
intimate relationship with objects they used or treasured. Often they made the objects themselves, or family members passed them
on. For more specialist objects, people relied on expert manufacturers living close by, whom they probably knew personally.
Chapman points out that all these factors gave objects a history – a narrative – and an emotional connection that today’s mass
production cannot match. Without these personal connections, consumerist culture instead idolizes novelty .We know we can’t buy
happiness, but the chance to remake ourselves with glossy, box-fresh products seems irresistible. When the novelty fades we
simply renew the excitement by buying more new stuff: what John Thackara of Doors of Perception, a network for sharing ideas
about the future of design, calls the “schlock of the new”.
D As a sustainable designer, Chapman’s solution is what he calls “emotionally durable design”. Think about your favorite old
jeans. They just don’t have the right feel until they have been worn and washed a hundred times, do they? It is like they are sharing
your life story. You can fake that look, but it isn’t the same. Chapman says the gradual unfolding of a relationship like this
transforms our interactions with objects into something richer than simple utility. Swiss industrial analyst Walter Stahel, visiting
professor at the University of Surrey, calls it the “teddy-bear factor”. No matter how ragged and worn a favorite teddy becomes, we
don’t rush out and buy another one. As adults, our teddy bear connects us to our childhoods, and this protects it from obsolescence
Stahel says this is what sustainable design needs to do.
E It is not simply about making durable items that people want to keep. Sustainable design is a matter of properly costing the
whole process of production, energy use and disposal. “It is about the design of systems, the design of culture.” says Tim Cooper
from the Centre for Sustainable Consumption at Sheffield Hallam University in Britain. He thinks sustainable design has been
“surprisingly slow to take off’ but says looming environmental crises and resource depletion are pushing it to the top of the agenda.
F Thackara agrees. For him, the roots of impending environmental collapse can be summarized in two words: weight and speed.
We are making more stuff than the planet can sustain and using vast amounts of energy moving more and more of it around ever
faster. The Information Age was supposed to lighten our economies and reduce our impact on the environment, but the reverse
seems to be happening. We have simply added information technology to the industrial era and hastened the developed world’s
metabolism, Thackara argues.
G Once you grasp that, the cure is hardly rocket science: minimize waste and energy use, stop moving stuff around so much and
use people more. EZIO MANZINI ， PROFESSOR of industrial design at Politecnico di Milano university, Italy, describes the
process of moving to a post-throwaway society as like “changing the engine of an aircraft in mid-flight’ Even so, he believes it can
be done, and he is not alone.
H Manzini says a crucial step would be to redesign our globalized world into what he calls the “multi-local society”. His vision is
that every resource, from food to electricity generation, should as far as possible be sourced and distributed locally. These local
hubs would then be connected to national and global networks to allow the most efficient use and flow of materials.
I So what will post-throwaway consumerism look like? For a start, we will increasingly buy sustainably designed products. This
might be as simple as installing energy-saving light bulbs, more efficient washing machines, or choosing locally produced
groceries with less packaging.
J We will spend less on material goods and more on services. Instead of buying a second car, for example, we might buy into a car-
sharing network. We will also buy less and rent a whole lot more: why own things that you hardly use， especially things that are
likely to be updated all the time? Consumer durables will be sold with plans already in place for their disposal. Electronic goods
will be designed to be recyclable, with the extra cost added to the retail price as prepayment. As consumers become increasingly
concerned about the environment, many big businesses are eagerly adopting sustainable design and brushing up their green
credentials to please their customers and stay one step ahead of the competition.
You should spend about 20 minutes on question 28-40，which are based on reading passage 3 on the following pages.
Questions 28-32
28. What does ‘conscience time’ imply in paragraph 2?
A People feel guilty when they throw things away easily.
B The shelf in the garage needs cleaning.
C The consumers are unaware of the waste problem.
D The power tool should be place in the right place after being used.
29. Prior to the mass production, people own things to show
A their quality
B their status
C their character
D their history
30. The word ‘narrative’ in paragraph 3 refers to
A the novelty culture pursued by the customers
B the motivation of buying new products
C object stories that relate personally and meaningfully to the owners
D the image created by the manufacturers
31. Without personal connection, people buy new stuff for
A sharing
B freshness
C collection
D family members
32. The writer quotes the old jeans and teddy bear to illustrate that
A products are used for simple utility.
B producers should create more special stuff to attract the consumers.
C Chapman led a poor childhood life.
D the emotional connections make us to keep the objects for longer.
Questions 33-36
Complete the summary using the list of words, A-H, below.
Write the correct letter A-H, in boxes 33-36 on your answer sheet.
Tim Cooper claims that although sustainable design proceeds 33……………………………… , the coming problems are pushing
the move. In accordance with Tim Cooper, Thackara believes that the origins of the looming environmental crises are weight and
34………………………………… The technology which was assumed to have a positive effect on our society actually accelerates
the world’s 35…………………………………To cure this, Manzini proposes a ‘multi-local society’ which means every resource
should be located and redeployed 36………………………..
A properly B energy C locally
D economy E slowly F speed
G quickly H metabolism
Questions 37-40
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage? In boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet, write
YES if the statement is true
NO if the statement is false
37. People often buy things that are seldom used and throw them away.
38. In a post-throwaway society, we will pay extra money after disposing the electronic goods.
39. Some businesses have jumped on the sustainability bandwagon.
40. Company will spend less on repairing in the future.
ANSWER KEYS
1 NOT GIVEN 2 TRUE 3 TRUE
4 FALSE 5 D 6 E
7 C 8 D 3 B
10 D 11 D 12 C
13 B
14 B 15 E 16 F
17 Essential element 18 Applications 19 Portable commodity
20 Taxes 21 Spirits 22 TRUE
23 NOT GIVEN 24 FALSE 25 FALSE
26 TRUE 27 TRUE
28 A 29 B 30 C
31 B 32 D 33 E
34 F 35 H 36 C
37 YES 38 NO 39 YES
40 NOT GIVEN
IELTS Cue Card Sample 75 – Topic: A Famous Person You Are Interested In
IELTS Speaking Part 2 Topic:
Describe a famous person that you admire/Describe a famous person that you are interested in
 Who is this person
 What is their specialty
 Why do you admire him
Sample Answers
In my to-meet list, there are so many well – respected celebrities whom I am desired to meet and spend time with. However, I
would like to share about Pele, who is nicknamed as the greatest soccer player around the Globe.
Initially, I really need to kick off with the point that Pele was just seventeen when he first played in World Cup in Sweden of
1958 for Brazil. Despite his very young age, he was selected for the national team participating one of the biggest sport
competition on the planet. Back then, he was not the star player but when his teammate was hurt, Pele went into the game. He
immediately scored goal and Brazil won the World Cup. By his amazing aptitudes and skills, Pele was feared by other teams.
The Brazilian government even named him as a national treasure. It is not doubtful to say that Pele is one of the biggest
factors making Brazil’s soccer so well – known. His last World Cup was in Mexico in 1970. Brazil scored 4 goals against Italy
to win the World Cup for the third time. Another point that I would like to share is that Pele owns an admirable career that
every soccer players crave for. Pele holds many soccer records such as having over 1000 goals in his career. He was
nominated athlete of the Century in 1980 and became a member of a soccer Hall of Fame in 1993.
Although he’s now retired from professional competition, Pele is still considered as a great inspiration for soccer players and
lovers.
Outline:
There are a multitude of well – respected celebrities whom I have a burning desire to have chance to talk to.
However, the public figure I want to share with you today is [………].
Main ideas:
 Who is he?:
– Lead vocalist – song composer – guitarist
– Born and grew up in….==> embark on his singing career in…..
 How did you know about him?

– 10 years ago when he joined a nation-wide singing competition ==> catch a glimpse of him on TV ==> hooked by his outstanding performance/ fall in
love with his voice/good-looking/personalities (gregariousness, sense of humor, creativeness in singing/composing ..)
 Why famous?
– The most known for his hits released in early 2000s ==> produce world-class songs and awarded international prizes
– Care for his fan –> free concert/show for fans
– Personalities ==> devote time/love/money/effort to helping the disabled/poor
 Why you liked him?

-Say no to scandals
– Remarkable albums/concerts
– Personalities ==> set a prime example for young people
Conclusion:
Adored by all people | A very decorated singer (many awards) | extraordinary human being
IELTS Materials and Resources, Get IELTS
Tips, Tricks & Practice Test
IELTS Reading Practice Test 45 with Answers
READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1 – 13, which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.
A
The climate of the Earth is always changing. In the past it has altered as a result of natural causes. Nowadays, however, the
term ‘climate change’ is generally used when referring to changes in our climate which have been identified since the early
part of the twentieth century. The changes we’ve seen over recent years and those which are predicted to occur over the
next 100 years are thought by many to be largely a result of human behavior rather than due to natural changes in the
atmosphere. And this is what is so significant about current climactic trends; never before has man played such a significant
role in determining long-term weather patterns – we are entering the unknown and there is no precedent for what might
happen next.
B
The greenhouse effect is very important when we talk about climate change as it relates to the gases which keep the Earth
warm. Although the greenhouse effect is a naturally occurring phenomenon, it is believed that the effect could be intensified
by human activity and the emission of gases into the atmosphere. It is the extra greenhouse gases which humans have
released which are thought to pose the strongest threat. Certain researchers, such as Dr Michael Crawley, argue: ‘even
though this natural phenomenon does exist it is without a doubt human activity that has worsened its effect; this is evident
when comparing data regarding the earth’s temperature in the last one hundred years with the one hundred years prior to
that.’ Some scientists, however, dispute this as Dr Ray Ellis suggests: ‘human activity may be contributing a small amount
to climate change but this increase in temperature is an unavoidable fact based on the research data we have compiled.
C
Scientists around the globe are looking at all the evidence surrounding climate change and using advanced technology have
come up with predictions for our future environment and weather. The next stage of that work, which is just as important, is
looking at the knock-on effects of potential changes. For example, are we likely to see an increase in precipitation and sea
levels? Does this mean there will be an increase in flooding and what can we do to protect ourselves from that? How will
our health be affected by climate change, how will agricultural practices change and how will wildlife cope? What will the
effects on coral be? Professor Max Leonard has suggested, ‘while it may be controversial some would argue that climate
change could bring with it positive effects as well as negative ones’.
D
There are many institutions around the world whose sole priority is to take action against these environmental problems.
Green Peace is the organisation that is probably the most well-known. It is an international organisation that campaigns in
favour of researching and promoting solutions to climate change, exposes the companies and governments that are blocking
action, lobbies to change national and international policy, and bears witness to the impacts of unnecessary destruction and
detrimental human activity.
E
The problem of climate change is without a doubt something that this generation and the generations to come need to deal
with. Fortunately, the use of renewable energy is becoming increasingly popular, which means that less energy is consumed
as renewable energy is generated from natural resources—such as sunlight, wind, rain, tides, and geothermal heat—which
can be naturally replenished. Another way to help the environment, in terms of climate change, is by travelling light.
Walking or riding a bike instead of driving a car uses fewer fossil fuels which release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.
In addition, using products that are made from recycled paper, glass, metal and plastic reduces carbon emissions because
they use less energy to manufacture than products made from completely new materials. Recycling paper also saves trees
and lets them continue to limit climate change naturally as they remain in the forest, where they remove carbon from the
atmosphere. Professor Mark Halton, who has completed various studies in this field, has stated: ‘with all this information
and the possible action that we can take, it isn’t too late to save our planet from over-heating and the even worse side-
effects of our own activity
Question 1 – 5
Reading Passage 1 has 5 paragraphs, A – E. Which paragraph contains the following information? Write the correct letter A
– E in the boxes below.
NB You may use any letter more than once.
1. A natural phenomenon that could also affect climate change.
2. Steps we can take to help reverse the situation.
3. An explanation of what climate change is.

4. Organisations that want to help.
5. Possible effects of climate change.
Question 6 -9
Look at the following people (Questions 6 -9) and the list of statements below. Match each person with the correct
statement, A – F.
1. Professor Max Leonard
2. Dr Michael Crawley
3. Professor Mark Halton
4. Dr Ray Ellis
A. We have the ability to change the situation

B. Climate Change is Inevitable
C. Humans have made the situation much worse
D. Climate Change might not be all bad
E. Human activity and natural weather phenomena
F. While we may not be too late to save our planet, there are bound to be some extreme side-effects of past human activity
one way or the other
Questions 10-13
Write the correct letter, A – F, in spaces 6-9.
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1? In spaces 10-13 below, write
YES if the statements agrees with the information
NO If the statements contradicts the information
1. Man is not entirely responsible for global warming.
2. Scientists have come up with new evidence about the negative effects of carbon-free sources of energy such as nuclear power
3. One of the purposes of Green Peace is to find out which companies and governments are doing things which don’t help the actions of
environmentalists.
4. Most people aren’t willing to start using renewable energy.
READING PASSAGE 2
PRIVATE SCHOOLS
Most countries’ education systems have had what you might call educational disasters, but, sadly, in many areas of certain
countries these ‘disasters’ are still evident today. The English education system is unique due to the fact that there are still
dozens of schools which are known as private schools and they perpetuate privilege and social division. Most countries
have some private schools for the children of the wealthy; England is able to more than triple the average number globally.
England has around 3,000 private schools and just under half a million children are educated at them whilst some nine
million children are educated at state schools. The overwhelming majority of students at private schools also come from
middle-class families.
The result of this system is evident and it has much English history embedded within it. The facts seem to speak for
themselves. In the private system almost half the students go on to University, whilst in the state system only about eight
per cent make it to further education. However, statistics such as these can be deceptive due to the fact that middle-class
children do better at examinations than working class ones, and most of them stay on at school after 16. Private schools
therefore have the advantage over state schools as they are entirely ‘middle class’, and this creates an environment of
success where students work harder and apply themselves more diligently to their school work.
Private schools are extortionately expensive, being as much as £18,000 a year at somewhere such as Harrow or Eton, where
Princes William and Harry attended, and at least £8,000 a year almost everywhere else. There are many parents who are not
wealthy or even comfortably off but are willing to sacrifice a great deal in the cause of their children’s schooling. It baffles
many people as to why they need to spend such vast amounts when there are perfectly acceptable state schools that don’t
cost a penny. One father gave his reasoning for sending his son to a private school, ‘If my son gets a five-percent-better
chance of going to University then that may be the difference between success and failure.” It would seem to the average
person that a £50,000 minimum total cost of second level education is a lot to pay for a five-percent-better chance. Most
children, given the choice, would take the money and spend it on more enjoyable things rather than shelling it out on a
school that is too posh for its own good
However, some say that the real reason that parents fork out the cash is prejudice: they don’t want their little kids mixing
with the “workers”, or picking up an undesirable accent. In addition to this, it wouldn’t do if at the next dinner party all the
guests were boasting about sending their kids to the same place where the son of the third cousin of Prince Charles is going,
and you say your kid is going to the state school down the road, even if you could pocket the money for yourself instead,
and, as a result, be able to serve the best Champagne with the smoked salmon and duck.
It is a fact, however, that at many of the best private schools, your money buys you something. One school, with 500 pupils,
has 11 science laboratories; another school with 800 pupils, has 30 music practice rooms; another has 16 squash courts, and
yet another has its own beach. Private schools spend £300 per pupil a year on investment in buildings and facilities; the
state system spends less than £50. On books, the ratio is 3 to 1.
One of the things that your money buys which is difficult to quantify is the appearance of the school, the way it looks. Most
private schools that you will find are set in beautiful, well-kept country houses, with extensive grounds and gardens. In
comparison with the state schools, they tend to look like castles, with the worst of the state schools looking like public
lavatories, perhaps even tiled or covered in graffiti. Many may even have an architectural design that is just about on the
level of an industrial shed
Question 14 – 20
1. The English educational system differs from the other ones because
A. it tries to make state and private equal.

B. more students are educated at private schools than state schools
C. it contributes to creating a class system within society.
D. it is more expensive to run
15. There are more private school children who go to university because
A. the lessons and teachers at the private schools are much better.
B. their parents often send their children to private schools
C. they have more teaching hours
D. the school create a successful environment.
16. A lot of parents often send their children to private schools
A.because they are not well-informed.
B. to show how much money they have to their friends
C. to increase their chances of succeeding in the university exams.
D. because of the better sports facilities.
17. It is suggested that some parents of children at private schools are
A. prejudiced and superficial.
B.more intelligent that those with children at state schools.
C.well-brought-up and cultivated.
D. overly protective.
18. Private school
A. always have their own beaches.
B. teach sports that state schools do not.
C. spend more money per student than stateschools.
D. spend more money on hiring good teachers.
19. writer thinks that private-school buildings
A. are very attractive and luxurious.
B.generally do not look very nice.
C. are too big for the amount of students who attend the school.
D. are not built to suit student’s needs.
20. In general, what do you think the writer’s opinion of private schools is?
A. It isn’t fair that those without money can’t attend them.
B. They divide social classes but they offer better facilities and a more creative environment.
C. There is little difference between private and state schools.
D. They have the best teachers.
Questions 21 – 26
Complete the sentences below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.
The fact that there are so many private schools in England, in comparison to other countries, makes the English educational
system 21__________Most students in these schools are from 22 __________ families. These students seem to do better at
exams although statistics can be 23__________One of the advantages of private schools is that they seem to provide
students with a better, more positive environment that encourages them to 24__________themselves to their school work
with more enthusiasm. A lot of not very well-off parents make huge sacrifices for their children’s 25__________ to help
them go to respectable universities. Unfortunately, many state school buildings sometimes have the appearance of an
industrial 26
READING PASSAGE 3
Martin Luther King
A
Martin Luther King was born on January 15, 1929, in Atlanta, Georgia. He was the son of the Reverend Martin Luther
King, Sr. and Alberta Williams King. He had an older sister, Willie Christine King, and a younger brother Alfred Daniel
Williams King. Growing up in Atlanta, King attended Booker T. Washington High School. He skipped ninth and twelfth
grade, and entered Morehouse College at age fifteen without formally graduating from high school. From the time that
Martin was born, he knew that black people and white people had different rights in certain parts of America. If a black
family wanted to eat at a restaurant, they had to sit in a separate section of the restaurant. They had to sit at the back of the
cinema, and even use separate toilets. Worse, and perhaps even more humiliating still, in many southern states, if a black
man was on a bus and all the seats were taken, he would have to endure the indignity of relinquishing his own seat to a
white man. King could never understand the terrible injustice of this.
In 1948, he graduated with a Bachelor of Arts degree in sociology. Later, King began doctoral studies in systematic
theology at Boston University and received his Doctor of Philosophy on June 5, 1955. King married Coretta Scott, on June
18, 1953 and they had four children.
B
Returning to the South to become pastor of a Baptist Church in Montgomery, Alabama, King first achieved national renown
when he helped mobilise the black boycott of the Montgomery bus system in 1955. This was organised after Rosa Parks, a
black woman, refused to give up her seat on the bus to a white man – in the segregated south, black people could only sit at
the back of the bus. The 382-day boycott led the bus company to change its regulations, and the Supreme Court declared
such segregation unconstitutional.
C
In 1957 King was active in the organisation of the Southern Leadership Christian Conference (SCLC), formed to co-
ordinate protests against discrimination. He advocated non-violent direct action based on the methods of Gandhi, who led
protests against British rule in India culminating in India’s independence in 1947. In 1963, King led mass protests against
discriminatory practices in Birmingham, Alabama, where the white population were violently resisting desegregation. The
city was dubbed ‘Bombingham’ as attacks against civil rights protesters increased, and King was arrested and jailed for his
part in the protests.
D
After his release, King participated in the enormous civil rights march, in Washington, in August 1963, and delivered his
famous ‘I have a dream’ speech, predicting a day when the promise of freedom and equality for all would become a reality
in America. In 1964 he was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize. In 1965, he led a campaign to register blacks to vote. The same
year the US Congress passed the Voting Rights Act outlawing the discriminatory practices that had barred blacks from
voting in the south.
E
As the civil rights movement became increasingly radicalised, King found that his message of peaceful protest was not
shared by many in the younger generation. King began to protest against the Vietnam War and poverty levels in the US. On
March 29, 1968, King went to Memphis, Tennessee, in support of the black sanitary public works employees who had been
on strike since March 12 for higher wages and better treatment. In one incident, black street repairmen had received pay for
two hours when they were sent home because of bad weather, but white employees had been paid for the full day. King
could not bear to stand by and let such patent acts of racism go unnoticed. He moved to unite his people, and all the peoples
of America on the receiving end of discriminatory practices, to protest for their rights, peacefully but steadfastly.
F
On his trip to Memphis, King was booked into room 306 at the Lorraine Motel, owned by Walter Bailey. King was shot at
6:01 p.m. April 4, 1968 while he was standing on the motel’s second-floor balcony. King was rushed to St. Joseph’s
Hospital, where doctors opened his chest and performed manual heart massage. He was pronounced dead at 7:05 p.m.
King’s autopsy revealed that although he was only 39 years old, he had the heart of a 60-year-old man.
Questions 27 – 31
1. From a young age Martin Luther King
A wanted to protest for the rights of black people.

B could not understand why black people were treated differently.
C was not allowed to go to the cinema or to restaurants.
D was aware that black people were being humiliated in many northern states.
28. What initially made Martin Luther King famous?
A the black boycott of the Montgomery bus system
B becoming a pastor at a Baptist Church
C when Rosa Parks refused to give up her seat on a bus
D when he persuaded Rosa Parks not to give up her bus seat to a white man
1. What influenced Martin Luther King regarding non-violence?
A India’s independence in 1947

B Christianity
C the Southern Leadership Christian Conference
D the methods of Gandhi
30. What did Martin Luther King fight for in 1965?
A the right of black people to vote
B the actions of the US Congress
C the right to win the Nobel Peace Prize
D the right of black people to travel abroad
31. How did Martin Luther King feel about the civil rights movement?
A It was helping the war in Vietnam.
B It brought the younger generation together.
C It had been exploited by politicians who wanted to get more votes.
D The protesters sometimes behaved too violently.
Questions 32 – 34
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3? In spaces 32 – 34 below, write
32. The black boycott of the Montgomery bus system was a success.
33. In 1963 the white people in Alabama wanted desegregation.
34. Martin Luther King achieved a lot in his protest against the Vietnam War.
Questions 35 – 40
Reading Passage 3 has 6 paragraphs.
Choose the correct heading for each paragraph A – F, from the list of headings. Write the correct number, i – viii, in spaces
35 – 40 below.
35. Paragraph A
36. Paragraph
37. Paragraph C
38. Paragraph D
39.Paragraph E
40. Paragraph F
I. the memorable speec
II. Unhappy about violence
III. A tragic incident
IV. Protests and action
V. The background of an iconic man

VI. Making his mark internationally
VII. Difficult childhood
VIII. Black street repairmen
ANSWER FOR IELTS READING PRACTICE TEST

Reading Passage 1
Justification of the Answers
1. B. “The greenhouse effect is very important when we talk about climate change… the greenhouse effect is a naturally
occurring phenomenon”.
2. E. The paragraph discusses use of renewable energy, using less fossil fuel and recycling as examples of actions that can
be taken.
3. A. The paragraph defines climate change as “changes in our climate which have been identified since the early part of the
twentieth century”.
4. D. “There are many institutions around the world whose sole priority is to take action against these environmental
problems”.
5. C. “looking at the knock-on effects of potential changes. For example, are we likely to see an increase in precipitation
and sea levels?”
6. D. Paragraph C. “Professor Max Leonard has suggested, ‘while it may be controversial some would argue that climate
change could bring with it positive effects as well as negative ones’”.
7. C. Paragraph B. “such as Dr Michael Crawley, argue: ‘even though this natural phenomenon does exist it is without a
doubt human activity that has worsened its effects…”.
8. A. Paragraph E. “with all this information and the possible action we can take. It isn’t too late to save our planet”.
9. B. Paragraph B. “Dr Ray Ellis suggests: ‘human activity may be contributing a small amount to climate change but this
increase in temperature is an unavoidable fact”.
10. Yes. Paragraph B. ’although the greenhouse effect is a nat¬urally occurring phenomenon, it is believed that the effect
could be intensified by human activity and the emission of gases into the atmosphere”.
11. Not Given. There is no mention about nuclear energy.
12. Yes. Paragraph D. “Green Peace is an organisation that … exposes the companies and governments that are blocking
action”.
13. No. Paragraph E. “Fortunately, the use of renewable energy is becoming increasingly popular”.
Reading Passage 2
14. C. Paragraph 1. “Dozens of schools which are known as private schools … perpetuate privilege and social division”.
15. D. Paragraph 2. “Private schools therefore have the advan¬tage._ as they are entirely ‘middle class’ and this creates an
environment of success”.
16. C. Paragraph 3. ‘If my son gets a five-percent-better chance of going to University then that may be the difference
between success and failure.”
17. A. Paragraph 4. “The real reason that parents fork out the cash is prejudice” and the desire to conform to dinner party
conventions.
18. C. Paragraph 6. “Private schools spend £300 per pupil a year on investment in buildings and facilities; the state system
spends less than £50”.
19. A. Paragraph 7. “Most private schools that you will find are set in beautiful, well-kept country houses, with extensive
grounds and gardens”.
20. B. Paragraph 1. Private schools ‘perpetuate social division’ and in Paragraph 5, the writer describes facilities such as
la¬boratories, music rooms, squash courts etc.
21. Paragraph 1 The English education system is unique due to the fact. „. as private schools’
22. Paragraph 1: ‘The overwhelming majority of students _ come from middle-class families.’
23. Paragraph 2: ‘However, statistics such as these can be deceptive…’
24. Paragraph 2: ‘apply themselves more diligently to their school work.’
25. Paragraph 3: ‘There are many parents _.. Children’s schooling.’
26. Paragraph 7: ‘Many may _. Is just about on the level of an industrial shed.’
Reading Passage 3
27. B. Paragraph 1. “If a black family wanted to eat at a res¬taurant, they had to sit in a separate section of the restaurant …
King could never understand this”.
28. A. Paragraph 2. “King first achieved national renown when he helped mobilise the black boycott of the Montgomery
bus system”.
29. D. Paragraph 3. “He advocated non-violent direct action based on the methods of Gandhi”.
30. A. Paragraph 4. “In 1965, he led a campaign to register blacks to vote”.
31. D. Paragraph 5. “King found that his message of peaceful protest was not shared by many in the younger generation”.
32. Yes. Paragraph 2. “The 382-day boycott led the bus com¬pany to change its regulations, and the Supreme Court
declared such segregation unconstitutional”.
33. No. Paragraph 3.1’… in Birmingham, Alabama, where the white population were violently resisting desegregation.1
34. Not Given. Paragraph 5. We only know he began to protest about the Vietnam War but there is no information about the
outcome of the protest.
35. v. Paragraph A. describes his birthplace, family and educa¬tion, comprising his background.
36. iv. Paragraph B. gives details about the protest and boycott of the Montgomery bus system.
37. ii. Paragraph C. “He advocated non-violent direct action”.
38. i. Paragraph D. “in August 1963, and delivered his famous ‘I have a dream’ speech”.
39. vi. Paragraph E. “King began to protest against the Vietnam War”.
40. iii. Paragraph F. “into room 306 at the Lorraine motel King was shot
IELTS Writing Practice Test 39 (Task 1 & 2) & Sample Answers

IELTS Writing Task 1 Topic:
IELTS Reading Practice Test 45 with Answers
READING PASSAGE 1
A
The climate of the Earth is always changing. In the past it has altered as a result of natural causes. Nowadays, however, the term
‘climate change’ is generally used when referring to changes in our climate which have been identified since the early part of the
twentieth century. The changes we’ve seen over recent years and those which are predicted to occur over the next 100 years are
thought by many to be largely a result of human behavior rather than due to natural changes in the atmosphere. And this is what is
so significant about current climactic trends; never before has man played such a significant role in determining long-term weather
patterns – we are entering the unknown and there is no precedent for what might happen next.
B
The greenhouse effect is very important when we talk about climate change as it relates to the gases which keep the Earth warm.
Although the greenhouse effect is a naturally occurring phenomenon, it is believed that the effect could be intensified by human
activity and the emission of gases into the atmosphere. It is the extra greenhouse gases which humans have released which are
thought to pose the strongest threat. Certain researchers, such as Dr Michael Crawley, argue: ‘even though this natural
phenomenon does exist it is without a doubt human activity that has worsened its effect; this is evident when comparing data
regarding the earth’s temperature in the last one hundred years with the one hundred years prior to that.’ Some scientists, however,
dispute this as Dr Ray Ellis suggests: ‘human activity may be contributing a small amount to climate change but this increase in
temperature is an unavoidable fact based on the research data we have compiled.
C
Scientists around the globe are looking at all the evidence surrounding climate change and using advanced technology have come
up with predictions for our future environment and weather. The next stage of that work, which is just as important, is looking at
the knock-on effects of potential changes. For example, are we likely to see an increase in precipitation and sea levels? Does this
mean there will be an increase in flooding and what can we do to protect ourselves from that? How will our health be affected by
climate change, how will agricultural practices change and how will wildlife cope? What will the effects on coral be? Professor
Max Leonard has suggested, ‘while it may be controversial some would argue that climate change could bring with it positive
effects as well as negative ones’.
D
There are many institutions around the world whose sole priority is to take action against these environmental problems. Green
Peace is the organisation that is probably the most well-known. It is an international organisation that campaigns in favour of
researching and promoting solutions to climate change, exposes the companies and governments that are blocking action, lobbies
to change national and international policy, and bears witness to the impacts of unnecessary destruction and detrimental human
activity.
E
The problem of climate change is without a doubt something that this generation and the generations to come need to deal with.
Fortunately, the use of renewable energy is becoming increasingly popular, which means that less energy is consumed as
renewable energy is generated from natural resources—such as sunlight, wind, rain, tides, and geothermal heat—which can be
naturally replenished. Another way to help the environment, in terms of climate change, is by travelling light. Walking or riding a
bike instead of driving a car uses fewer fossil fuels which release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. In addition, using products
that are made from recycled paper, glass, metal and plastic reduces carbon emissions because they use less energy to manufacture
than products made from completely new materials. Recycling paper also saves trees and lets them continue to limit climate
change naturally as they remain in the forest, where they remove carbon from the atmosphere. Professor Mark Halton, who has
completed various studies in this field, has stated: ‘with all this information and the possible action that we can take, it isn’t too
late to save our planet from over-heating and the even worse side-effects of our own activity
Question 1 – 5
Reading Passage 1 has 5 paragraphs, A – E. Which paragraph contains the following information? Write the correct letter A – E in
the boxes below.
1. A natural phenomenon that could also affect climate change.
2. Steps we can take to help reverse the situation.
3. An explanation of what climate change is.
4. Organisations that want to help.
5. Possible effects of climate change.
Question 6 -9
Look at the following people (Questions 6 -9) and the list of statements below. Match each person with the correct statement, A –
F.
1. Professor Max Leonard
2. Dr Michael Crawley
3. Professor Mark Halton
4. Dr Ray Ellis
A. We have the ability to change the situation

B. Climate Change is Inevitable
C. Humans have made the situation much worse
D. Climate Change might not be all bad
E. Human activity and natural weather phenomena
F. While we may not be too late to save our planet, there are bound to be some extreme side-effects of past human activity one
way or the other
Questions 10-13
Write the correct letter, A – F, in spaces 6-9.
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1? In spaces 10-13 below, write
1. Man is not entirely responsible for global warming.
2. Scientists have come up with new evidence about the negative effects of carbon-free sources of energy such as nuclear power
3. One of the purposes of Green Peace is to find out which companies and governments are doing things which don’t help the actions of
environmentalists.
4. Most people aren’t willing to start using renewable energy.
READING PASSAGE 2
PRIVATE SCHOOLS
Most countries’ education systems have had what you might call educational disasters, but, sadly, in many areas of certain
countries these ‘disasters’ are still evident today. The English education system is unique due to the fact that there are still dozens
of schools which are known as private schools and they perpetuate privilege and social division. Most countries have some private
schools for the children of the wealthy; England is able to more than triple the average number globally. England has around 3,000
private schools and just under half a million children are educated at them whilst some nine million children are educated at state
schools. The overwhelming majority of students at private schools also come from middle-class families.
The result of this system is evident and it has much English history embedded within it. The facts seem to speak for themselves. In
the private system almost half the students go on to University, whilst in the state system only about eight per cent make it to
further education. However, statistics such as these can be deceptive due to the fact that middle-class children do better at
examinations than working class ones, and most of them stay on at school after 16. Private schools therefore have the advantage
over state schools as they are entirely ‘middle class’, and this creates an environment of success where students work harder and
apply themselves more diligently to their school work.
Private schools are extortionately expensive, being as much as £18,000 a year at somewhere such as Harrow or Eton, where
Princes William and Harry attended, and at least £8,000 a year almost everywhere else. There are many parents who are not
wealthy or even comfortably off but are willing to sacrifice a great deal in the cause of their children’s schooling. It baffles many
people as to why they need to spend such vast amounts when there are perfectly acceptable state schools that don’t cost a penny.
One father gave his reasoning for sending his son to a private school, ‘If my son gets a five-percent-better chance of going to
University then that may be the difference between success and failure.” It would seem to the average person that a £50,000
minimum total cost of second level education is a lot to pay for a five-percent-better chance. Most children, given the choice,
would take the money and spend it on more enjoyable things rather than shelling it out on a school that is too posh for its own
good
However, some say that the real reason that parents fork out the cash is prejudice: they don’t want their little kids mixing with the
“workers”, or picking up an undesirable accent. In addition to this, it wouldn’t do if at the next din ner party all the guests were
boasting about sending their kids to the same place where the son of the third cousin of Prince Charles is going, and you say your
kid is going to the state school down the road, even if you could pocket the money for yourself instead, and, as a result, be able to
serve the best Champagne with the smoked salmon and duck.
It is a fact, however, that at many of the best private schools, your money buys you something. One school, with 500 pupils, has 11
science laboratories; another school with 800 pupils, has 30 music practice rooms; another has 16 squash courts, and yet another
has its own beach. Private schools spend £300 per pupil a year on investment in buildings and facilities; the state system spends
less than £50. On books, the ratio is 3 to 1.
One of the things that your money buys which is difficult to quantify is the appearance of the school, the way it looks. Most
private schools that you will find are set in beautiful, well-kept country houses, with extensive grounds and gardens. In comparison
with the state schools, they tend to look like castles, with the worst of the state schools looking like public lavatories, perhaps even
tiled or covered in graffiti. Many may even have an architectural design that is just about on the level of an industrial shed
Question 14 – 20
1. The English educational system differs from the other ones because
A. it tries to make state and private equal.

B. more students are educated at private schools than state schools
C. it contributes to creating a class system within society.
D. it is more expensive to run
15. There are more private school children who go to university because
A. the lessons and teachers at the private schools are much better.
B. their parents often send their children to private schools
C. they have more teaching hours
D. the school create a successful environment.
16. A lot of parents often send their children to private schools
A.because they are not well-informed.
B. to show how much money they have to their friends
C. to increase their chances of succeeding in the university exams.
D. because of the better sports facilities.
17. It is suggested that some parents of children at private schools are
A. prejudiced and superficial.
B.more intelligent that those with children at state schools.
C.well-brought-up and cultivated.
D. overly protective.
18. Private school
A. always have their own beaches.
B. teach sports that state schools do not.
C. spend more money per student than stateschools.
D. spend more money on hiring good teachers.
19. writer thinks that private-school buildings
A. are very attractive and luxurious.
B.generally do not look very nice.
C. are too big for the amount of students who attend the school.
D. are not built to suit student’s needs.
20. In general, what do you think the writer’s opinion of private schools is?
A. It isn’t fair that those without money can’t attend them.
B. They divide social classes but they offer better facilities and a more creative environment.
C. There is little difference between private and state schools.
D. They have the best teachers.
Questions 21 – 26
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.
The fact that there are so many private schools in England, in comparison to other countries, makes the English educational system
21__________Most students in these schools are from 22 __________ families. These students seem to do better at exams
although statistics can be 23__________One of the advantages of private schools is that they seem to provide students with a
better, more positive environment that encourages them to 24__________themselves to their school work with more enthusiasm.
A lot of not very well-off parents make huge sacrifices for their children’s 25__________ to help them go to respectable
universities. Unfortunately, many state school buildings sometimes have the appearance of an industrial 26
READING PASSAGE 3
Martin Luther King
A
Martin Luther King was born on January 15, 1929, in Atlanta, Georgia. He was the son of the Reverend Martin Luther King, Sr.
and Alberta Williams King. He had an older sister, Willie Christine King, and a younger brother Alfred Daniel Williams King.
Growing up in Atlanta, King attended Booker T. Washington High School. He skipped ninth and twelfth grade, and entered
Morehouse College at age fifteen without formally graduating from high school. From the time that Martin was born, he knew that
black people and white people had different rights in certain parts of America. If a black family wanted to eat at a restaurant, they
had to sit in a separate section of the restaurant. They had to sit at the back of the cinema, and even use separate toilets. Worse, and
perhaps even more humiliating still, in many southern states, if a black man was on a bus and all the seats were taken, he would
have to endure the indignity of relinquishing his own seat to a white man. King could never understand the terrible injustice of
this.
In 1948, he graduated with a Bachelor of Arts degree in sociology. Later, King began doctoral studies in systematic theology at
Boston University and received his Doctor of Philosophy on June 5, 1955. King married Coretta Scott, on June 18, 1953 and they
had four children.
B
Returning to the South to become pastor of a Baptist Church in Montgomery, Alabama, King first achieved national renown when
he helped mobilise the black boycott of the Montgomery bus system in 1955. This was organised after Rosa Parks, a black woman,
refused to give up her seat on the bus to a white man – in the segregated south, black people could only sit at the back of the bus.
The 382-day boycott led the bus company to change its regulations, and the Supreme Court declared such segregation
unconstitutional.
C
In 1957 King was active in the organisation of the Southern Leadership Christian Conference (SCLC), formed to co-ordinate
protests against discrimination. He advocated non-violent direct action based on the methods of Gandhi, who led protests against
British rule in India culminating in India’s independence in 1947. In 1963, King led mass protests against discriminatory practices
in Birmingham, Alabama, where the white population were violently resisting desegregation. The city was dubbed ‘Bombingham’
as attacks against civil rights protesters increased, and King was arrested and jailed for his part in the protests.
D
After his release, King participated in the enormous civil rights march, in Washington, in August 1963, and delivered his famous ‘I
have a dream’ speech, predicting a day when the promise of freedom and equality for all would become a reality in America. In
1964 he was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize. In 1965, he led a campaign to register blacks to vote. The same year the US Congress
passed the Voting Rights Act outlawing the discriminatory practices that had barred blacks from voting in the south.
E
As the civil rights movement became increasingly radicalised, King found that his message of peaceful protest was not shared by
many in the younger generation. King began to protest against the Vietnam War and poverty levels in the US. On March 29, 1968,
King went to Memphis, Tennessee, in support of the black sanitary public works employees who had been on strike since March
12 for higher wages and better treatment. In one incident, black street repairmen had received pay for two hours when they were
sent home because of bad weather, but white employees had been paid for the full day. King could not bear to stand by and let
such patent acts of racism go unnoticed. He moved to unite his people, and all the peoples of America on the receiving end of
discriminatory practices, to protest for their rights, peacefully but steadfastly.
F
On his trip to Memphis, King was booked into room 306 at the Lorraine Motel, owned by Walter Bailey. King was shot at 6:01
p.m. April 4, 1968 while he was standing on the motel’s second-floor balcony. King was rushed to St. Joseph’s Hospital, where
doctors opened his chest and performed manual heart massage. He was pronounced dead at 7:05 p.m. King’s autopsy revealed that
although he was only 39 years old, he had the heart of a 60-year-old man.
Questions 27 – 31
1. From a young age Martin Luther King
A wanted to protest for the rights of black people.

B could not understand why black people were treated differently.
C was not allowed to go to the cinema or to restaurants.
D was aware that black people were being humiliated in many northern states.
28. What initially made Martin Luther King famous?
A the black boycott of the Montgomery bus system
B becoming a pastor at a Baptist Church
C when Rosa Parks refused to give up her seat on a bus
D when he persuaded Rosa Parks not to give up her bus seat to a white man
1. What influenced Martin Luther King regarding non-violence?
A India’s independence in 1947

B Christianity
C the Southern Leadership Christian Conference
D the methods of Gandhi
30. What did Martin Luther King fight for in 1965?
A the right of black people to vote
B the actions of the US Congress
C the right to win the Nobel Peace Prize
D the right of black people to travel abroad
31. How did Martin Luther King feel about the civil rights movement?
A It was helping the war in Vietnam.
B It brought the younger generation together.
C It had been exploited by politicians who wanted to get more votes.
D The protesters sometimes behaved too violently.
Questions 32 – 34
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3? In spaces 32 – 34 below, write
32. The black boycott of the Montgomery bus system was a success.
33. In 1963 the white people in Alabama wanted desegregation.
34. Martin Luther King achieved a lot in his protest against the Vietnam War.
Questions 35 – 40
Reading Passage 3 has 6 paragraphs.
Choose the correct heading for each paragraph A – F, from the list of headings. Write the correct number, i – viii, in spaces 35 –
40 below.
35. Paragraph A
36. Paragraph
37. Paragraph C
38. Paragraph D
39.Paragraph E
40. Paragraph F
the memorable speec
Unhappy about violence
A tragic incident
Protests and action

The background of an iconic man
Making his mark internationally
Difficult childhood
Black street repairmen

Reading Passage 1
1. B. “The greenhouse effect is very important when we talk about climate change… the greenhouse effect is a naturally occurring
phenomenon”.
2. E. The paragraph discusses use of renewable energy, using less fossil fuel and recycling as examples of actions that can be
taken.
3. A. The paragraph defines climate change as “changes in our climate which have been identified since the early part of the
twentieth century”.
4. D. “There are many institutions around the world whose sole priority is to take action against these environmental problems”.
5. C. “looking at the knock-on effects of potential changes. For example, are we likely to see an increase in precipitation and sea
levels?”
6. D. Paragraph C. “Professor Max Leonard has suggested, ‘while it may be controversial some would argue that climate change
could bring with it positive effects as well as negative ones’”.
7. C. Paragraph B. “such as Dr Michael Crawley, argue: ‘even though this natural phenomenon does exist it is without a doubt
human activity that has worsened its effects…”.
8. A. Paragraph E. “with all this information and the possible action we can take. It isn’t too late to save our planet”.
9. B. Paragraph B. “Dr Ray Ellis suggests: ‘human activity may be contributing a small amount to climate change but this increase
in temperature is an unavoidable fact”.
10. Yes. Paragraph B. ’although the greenhouse effect is a nat¬urally occurring phenomenon, it is believed that the effect could be
intensified by human activity and the emission of gases into the atmosphere”.
11. Not Given. There is no mention about nuclear energy.
12. Yes. Paragraph D. “Green Peace is an organisation that … exposes the companies and governments that are blocking action”.
13. No. Paragraph E. “Fortunately, the use of renewable energy is becoming increasingly popular”.
Reading Passage 2
14. C. Paragraph 1. “Dozens of schools which are known as private schools … perpetuate privilege and social division”.
15. D. Paragraph 2. “Private schools therefore have the advan¬tage._ as they are entirely ‘middle class’ and this creates an
environment of success”.
16. C. Paragraph 3. ‘If my son gets a five-percent-better chance of going to University then that may be the difference between
success and failure.”
17. A. Paragraph 4. “The real reason that parents fork out the cash is prejudice” and the desire to conform to dinner party
conventions.
18. C. Paragraph 6. “Private schools spend £300 per pupil a year on investment in buildings and facilities; the state system spends
less than £50”.
19. A. Paragraph 7. “Most private schools that you will find are set in beautiful, well-kept country houses, with extensive grounds
and gardens”.
20. B. Paragraph 1. Private schools ‘perpetuate social division’ and in Paragraph 5, the writer describes facilities such as
la¬boratories, music rooms, squash courts etc.
21. Paragraph 1 The English education system is unique due to the fact. „. as private schools’
22. Paragraph 1: ‘The overwhelming majority of students _ come from middle-class families.’
23. Paragraph 2: ‘However, statistics such as these can be deceptive…’
24. Paragraph 2: ‘apply themselves more diligently to their school work.’
25. Paragraph 3: ‘There are many parents _.. Children’s schooling.’
26. Paragraph 7: ‘Many may _. Is just about on the level of an industrial shed.’
Reading Passage 3
27. B. Paragraph 1. “If a black family wanted to eat at a res¬taurant, they had to sit in a separate section of the restaurant … King
could never understand this”.
28. A. Paragraph 2. “King first achieved national renown when he helped mobilise the black boycott of the Montgomery bus
system”.
29. D. Paragraph 3. “He advocated non-violent direct action based on the methods of Gandhi”.
30. A. Paragraph 4. “In 1965, he led a campaign to register blacks to vote”.
31. D. Paragraph 5. “King found that his message of peaceful protest was not shared by many in the younger generation”.
32. Yes. Paragraph 2. “The 382-day boycott led the bus com¬pany to change its regulations, and the Supreme Court declared such
segregation unconstitutional”.
33. No. Paragraph 3.1’… in Birmingham, Alabama, where the white population were violently resisting desegregation.1
34. Not Given. Paragraph 5. We only know he began to protest about the Vietnam War but there is no information about the
outcome of the protest.
35. v. Paragraph A. describes his birthplace, family and educa¬tion, comprising his background.
36. iv. Paragraph B. gives details about the protest and boycott of the Montgomery bus system.
37. ii. Paragraph C. “He advocated non-violent direct action”.
38. i. Paragraph D. “in August 1963, and delivered his famous ‘I have a dream’ speech”.
39. vi. Paragraph E. “King began to protest against the Vietnam War”.
40. iii. Paragraph F. “into room 306 at the Lorraine motel King was shot

Sample
Answers
The table illustrates the data on the underground networks in six major cities in the world. Overall, the networks in London,
Paris and Tokyo are older, have longer routes and serve a larger number of passengers every year, compared with those in
Washington DC, Kyoto and Los Angeles.
Established in 1863, London underground is the oldest and has the longest line length of route amongst the six with
394km, twice as much as the second-longest system in Paris, and serves 775 million passengers per year. The underground
networks in Paris and Tokyo were opened in the first few decades of the 20th century and have 199 and 155 km of
route respectively, which are far less than the network in London. However, these two systems have far more customers than
that in London, with Tokyo underground being the busiest with 1927 million on a yearly basis.
The three less busy underground systems are those in Washington DC, Kyoto and Los Angeles, with the passengers per year
figures of 144, 45 and 50 million respectively, which are just fractions of the figures for London, Paris and Tokyo. The
newest system is in Los Angeles, which only began to operate at the turn of the new millennium, and has 28km of route. Both
of those in Washington DC and Kyoto started to serve customers in the late 20th century, but while Washington has a
relatively long underground route of 126km, the length of Kyoto underground is just 11km, the shortest amongst the six
networks.
In the past, building often reflected the culture of society but today all modern buildings look alike and cities through
the world are becoming more and more similar. Why is it the case? Is it good thing or bad thing?
IELTS Candidate’s Essay:
Nowadays, many aspects of culture are becoming increasingly similar all over the world. 21st century witnesses
the exponential rise in the construction of modern buildings like shopping complex, skyscrapers, high-rises, residential
towers which have the same style and design. The buildings haven’t reflected the culture of society like the past anymore.
From my point view, there are two important reasons leading to this change.
First, the improving of mass production technology forces to forms and materials of buildings. Same kind construction
machines which are used around world can only create a certain number of designed styles. Materials which are mass produced
are cheaper and easier finished than traditional or special ones. Resident needs also affect mass building technology to create
system which can build tower as fast as possible.
Second, group of the capitalist power has affected choice of people who living in developing countries. Marketing and
advertisement of construction group always orient awareness of people about modern, art, confidence of a building. As a result,
people choose the best for their own building like what they are marketed. Moreover, in the past, the capitalist had imposed
Western civilization and standard on colonists who had built their country basing on the denial of traditional values and toward
foreign.
It’s definitely a bad idea to build all cities in this world similar because of instant convenience and losing traditional culture.
Diversity of nature and culture has created this world. Against the difference fight to being of the world and narrow the human
freedom. It is necessary that governments should have some methods to preserve traditional cultural identity and improving the
diversity of buildings and cities.
Comment & Feedback from IELTS Examiner:
Overall- Band 7
Overall this was a good essay but there are some things you can do to improve in the future.
The main things you can do is to answer the question by doing what it asks you to do. In this question you have been asked to
‘Why is it the case? Is it good thing or bad thing?’ You have really only focused on answering the first question. You had a
separate paragraph for the second question (4th paragraph), but you need to make it really clear to the examiner why you think
it is a bad idea to have all the same building design throughout the world.
Your cohesion is pretty good, but remember that you don’t need to start every sentence with a linking word, one or two per
paragraph is enough.
You should:
1. Read books/blogs/magazines about the common IELTS Task 2 topics, such as Health, Crime, Culture, Education and
Technology. Note down any new words in a vocabulary notebook as I suggested above and then review this regularly. It will
take you a little while, but soon your vocabulary will really expand.
2. Find out what your common grammar mistakes are. Most people make the same grammar mistakes over and over again.
When you know what these are, you can review the grammar rules, practice online and fix them.
If you can improve the things above, I am confident that you can increase your band score.
Sample Answers
The table illustrates the data on the underground networks in six major cities in the world. Overall, the networks in London,
Paris and Tokyo are older, have longer routes and serve a larger number of passengers every year, compared with those in
Washington DC, Kyoto and Los Angeles.
Established in 1863, London underground is the oldest and has the longest line length of route amongst the six with
394km, twice as much as the second-longest system in Paris, and serves 775 million passengers per year. The underground
networks in Paris and Tokyo were opened in the first few decades of the 20th century and have 199 and 155 km of
route respectively, which are far less than the network in London. However, these two systems have far more customers
than that in London, with Tokyo underground being the busiest with 1927 million on a yearly basis.
The three less busy underground systems are those in Washington DC, Kyoto and Los Angeles, with the passengers per year
figures of 144, 45 and 50 million respectively, which are just fractions of the figures for London, Paris and Tokyo. The
newest system is in Los Angeles, which only began to operate at the turn of the new millennium, and has 28km of route.
Both of those in Washington DC and Kyoto started to serve customers in the late 20th century, but while Washington has a
relatively long underground route of 126km, the length of Kyoto underground is just 11km, the shortest amongst the six
networks.
In the past, building often reflected the culture of society but today all modern buildings look alike and cities through
the world are becoming more and more similar. Why is it the case? Is it good thing or bad thing?
IELTS Candidate’s Essay:
Nowadays, many aspects of culture are becoming increasingly similar all over the world. 21st century witnesses
the exponential rise in the construction of modern buildings like shopping complex, skyscrapers, high-rises, residential
towers which have the same style and design. The buildings haven’t reflected the culture of society like the past anymore.
From my point view, there are two important reasons leading to this change.
First, the improving of mass production technology forces to forms and materials of buildings. Same kind construction
machines which are used around world can only create a certain number of designed styles. Materials which are mass
produced are cheaper and easier finished than traditional or special ones. Resident needs also affect mass building technology
to create system which can build tower as fast as possible.
Second, group of the capitalist power has affected choice of people who living in developing countries. Marketing and
advertisement of construction group always orient awareness of people about modern, art, confidence of a building. As a
result, people choose the best for their own building like what they are marketed. Moreover, in the past, the capitalist had
imposed Western civilization and standard on colonists who had built their country basing on the denial of traditional values
and toward foreign.
It’s definitely a bad idea to build all cities in this world similar because of instant convenience and losing traditional culture.
Diversity of nature and culture has created this world. Against the difference fight to being of the world and narrow the
human freedom. It is necessary that governments should have some methods to preserve traditional cultural identity and
improving the diversity of buildings and cities.
Comment & Feedback from IELTS Examiner:
Overall- Band 7
Overall this was a good essay but there are some things you can do to improve in the future.
The main things you can do is to answer the question by doing what it asks you to do. In this question you have been asked
to ‘Why is it the case? Is it good thing or bad thing?’ You have really only focused on answering the first question. You
had a separate paragraph for the second question (4th paragraph), but you need to make it really clear to the examiner why
you think it is a bad idea to have all the same building design throughout the world.
Your cohesion is pretty good, but remember that you don’t need to start every sentence with a linking word, one or two per
paragraph is enough.
You should:
1. Read books/blogs/magazines about the common IELTS Task 2 topics, such as Health, Crime, Culture, Education and
Technology. Note down any new words in a vocabulary notebook as I suggested above and then review this regularly. It
will take you a little while, but soon your vocabulary will really expand.
2. Find out what your common grammar mistakes are. Most people make the same grammar mistakes over and over again.
When you know what these are, you can review the grammar rules, practice online and fix them.
If you can improve the things above, I am confident that you can increase your band score.

Keep One’s Nose To The Grindstone – Idiom Of The Day For IELTS
Keep One’s Nose To The Grindstone – Idiom Of The Day For IELTS
Speaking.
Definition:
to work especially hard and long on something, often applied to academic study
Example:
“In this program, they really keep your nose to the grindstone.“
“I have kept my nose to the grindstone for a week doing this report“
“Mary kept her nose to the grindstone while her friends were out enjoying themselves.“
Exercise:
” I’ve only got six weeks before my exams start so I’m trying to ___________________________.“
A. keep my nose to the grindstone
B. any port in a storm
C. crack the book
D. a hard nut to crack
2. Describe time you had to work or study very hard. Try to use this idiom in your speech. You should say:
– How hard you had to work or study
– Why you had to do that
And explain how did you feel about this moment
Academic IELTS Writing Task 2 Topic & Band 8.5 Advantage/Disadvantage Essay
In some countries young people are encouraged to work or travel for a year between finishing high school and starting
university studies. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages for young people who decided to do this.
Band 8.5 Sample Essay:

There is a growing trend towards taking a gap year prior to entering tertiary education among school leavers in certain
parts of the world. While it is true that such practice is not without its own disadvantages, I would argue that the benefits of
going to work or traveling before one embarks on college far outweighs these disadvantages.
On the one hand, people’s concerns about delaying university are largely justifiable. To begin with, if a person opts to
travel, there is the question of finance. Most high school graduates are unlikely to be able to fund their own travels, and as
a result must ask their parents to pay for all the expenses of the trip. This is obviously undesirable, especially for families
in developing nations, who have more urgent needs to address rather than traveling. Should they decide to go to work,
there is a high chance that they would just end up doing part-time work with meager pay. In addition, these jobs often
provide employees with little exposure to professional working styles and skills, so most fail to gain any substantive
benefits from them. For instance, my friend spent a summer working at a fast food establishment in Hanoi, which he said
was a complete waste of time because he could not acquire any new skills, nor could he procure any significant savings
from the salary.
On the other hand, notwithstanding the described issues, I believe abundant advantages accrue to taking a year off before
college. By going to work, youngsters can obtain valuable working experiences. The merit of this is they are able to put
their study into perspective when they take university courses later. For example, an accounting major can better imagine
how accounting theories and standards are applied in a corporate context if he has previous experiences reading financial
statements and handling transactions as a cashier. By travelling, one has the chance to acquire useful life skills by living
independently, especially if he journeys to a foreign country. I can personally vouch for this, as during my 3-year stay in
America, not only did I materially improve my English, I was also able to learn how to live on a tight budget and
manage personal finance.
In conclusion, it is my genuine belief that taking a gap year before enrolling in a university is a rewarding experience and
definitely an option worth contemplating for those who are about to graduate from high school.
Mr. Tung IELTS
IELTS Materials and Resources, Get IELTS Tips, Tricks & Practice Test <noreply+feedproxy@google.com>
Feb 2 at 2:26 AM
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englishman_74@yahoo.com
Message body

Crack The Books – Idiom Of The Day For IELTS
Posted: 01 Feb 2017 09:21 AM PST
Crack The Book – Idiom Of The Day For IELTS Speaking.
Definition:
to study or start studying
Example:
” You haven’t cracked the book all the weekend. Don’t you have homework?“
“I rarely cracked the books in high school, but somehow I graduated“
“She spent all week on shopping and now she has to crack the book if she doesn’t want to delay her graduation plan.“
Exercise:
“My children always be distracted from the video game. I don’t know how to make them to ________________.”
A. breathe my last
C. crack the book
2. Describe your favourite subject that you studied in your school or university. Try to use this idiom in your speech. You should say:
– What the subject was
– Where you studied the subject
– What you studied from the subject
And explain why you liked the subject
SECTION 1
The Innovation of Grocery Stores
A At the beginning of the 20th century, grocery stores in the United States were full-service. A customer would ask a clerk
behind the counter for specific items and the clerk would package the items, which were limited to dry goods. If they want to
save some time, they have to ask a delivery boy or by themselves to send the note of what they want to buy to the grocery
story first and then go to pay for the goods later. These grocery stores usually carried only one brand of each good. There
were early chain stores, such as the A&P Stores, but these were all entirely full-service and very time-consuming.
B In 1885，a Virginia boy named Clarence Saunders began working part-time as a clerk in a grocery store when he was 14
years old, and quit school when the shopkeeper offered him full time work with room and board. Later he worked in an
Alabama coke plant and in a Tennessee sawmill before he returned to the grocery business. By 1900，when he was nineteen
years old, he was earning $30 a month as a salesman for a wholesale grocer. During his years working in the grocery stores,
he found that it was very inconvenient and inefficient for people to buy things because more than a century ago, long before
there were computers, shopping was done quite differently than it is today. Entering a store, the customer would approach the
counter (or wait for a clerk to become available) and place an order, either verbally or, as was often the case for boys running
errands, in the form of a note or list. While the customer waited, the clerk would move behind the counter and throughout the
store，select the items on the list—some form shelves so high that long-handled grasping device had to be used—and bring
them back to the counter to be tallied and bagged or boxed. The process might be expedited by the customer calling or
sending in the order beforehand, or by the order being handled by a delivery boy on a bike, but otherwise it did not vary
greatly. Saunders, a flamboyant and innovative man, noticed that this method resulted in wasted time and expense, so he
came up with an unheard-of solution that would revolutionize the entire grocery industry: he developed a way for shoppers to
serve themselves.
C So in 1902 he moved to Memphis where he developed his concept to form a grocery wholesale cooperative and a full-
service grocery store. For his new “cafeteria grocery”, Saunders divided his grocery into three distinct areas: 1) A front
“lobby” forming an entrance and exit and checkouts at the front. 2) A sales department, which was specially designed to
allow customers to roam the aisles and select their own groceries. Removing unnecessary clerks, creating elaborate aisle
displays, and rearranging the store to force customers to view all of the merchandise and over the shelving and cabinets units
of sales department were “galleries” where supervisors were allowed to keep an eye on the customers while not disturbing
them. 3) And another section of his store is the room only allowed for the clerks which was called the “stockroom” or
“storage room” where large refrigerators were situated to keep fresh products from being perishable. The new format allowed
multiple customers to shop at the same time, and led to the previously unknown phenomenon of impulse shopping. Though
this format of grocery market was drastically different from its competitors, the style became the standard for the modem
grocery store and later supermarket.
D On September 6，1916，Saunders launched the self-service revolution in the USA by opening the first self-service Piggly
Wiggly store, at 79 Jefferson Street in Memphis, Tennessee, with its characteristic turnstile at the entrance. Customers paid
cash and selected their own goods from the shelves. It was unlike any other grocery store of that time. Inside a Piggly
Wiggly, shoppers were not at the mercy of shop clerks. They were free to roam the store, check out the merchandise and get
what they needed with their own two hands and feet. Prices on items at Piggly Wiggly were clearly marked. No one
pressured customers to buy milk or pickles. And the biggest benefit at the Piggly Wiggly was that shoppers saved money.
Self-service was a positive all around. “It’s good for both the consumer and retailer because it cuts costs ，” noted George
T. Haley, a professor at the University of New Haven and director of the Center for International Industry Competitiveness.
“If you looked at the way grocery stores were run previous to Piggly Wiggly and Alpha Beta, what you find is that there was
a tremendous amount of labor involved, and labor is a major expense/1 Piggly Wiggly cut the fat.
E Piggly Wiggly and the self-service concept took off, Saunders opened nine stores in the Memphis area within the first year
of business. Consumers embraced the efficiency ， the simplicity and most of all the lower food prices. Saunders soon
patented his self-service concept, and began franchising Piggly Wiggly stores. Thanks to the benefits of self-service and
franchising, Piggly Wiggly ballooned to nearly 1,300 stores by 1923. Piggly Wiggly sold $100 million — worth $1.3 billion
today — in groceries, making it the third-biggest grocery retailer in the nation. The company’s stock was even listed on the
New York Stock Exchange, doubling from late 1922 to March 1923. Saunders had his hands all over Piggly Wiggly. He the
design and layout of his stores. He even invented the turnstile.
F However Saunders was forced into bankruptcy in 1923 after a dramatic spat with the New York Stock Exchange and he
went on to create the sole-owner-of-my-name” chain, which went into bankruptcy.
G Until the time of his death in October 1953，Saunders was developing plans for another automatic store system called the
Food electric. But the store, which was to be located two blocks from the first Piggly Wiggly store, never opened. But his
name was well-remembered along with the name Piggly Wiggly.
Questions 1-5
The reading Passage has seven paragraphs A-G.
1. How Clarence Saunders，new idea had been carried out.
2. Introducing the modes and patterns of groceries before his age.
3. Clarence Saunders declared bankruptcy a few years later .
4. Descriptions of Clarence Saunders’ new conception.
5. The booming development of his business.
Questions 6-10
Answer the questions below.
Write ONLY ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each answer.
6. When Clarence Saunders was an adolescent, he took a job as a ……………………………. in a grocery store.
7. In the new innovation of grocery store, most of the clerks’ work before was done by………………………
8. In Saunders’ new grocery store，the section where customers finish the payment was called ………………….
9. Another area in his store which behind the public area was called the …………………., where only internal staff could
access.
10. At……………………….. where customers were under surveillance.
Questions 11-13
11. Why did Clarence Saunders want to propel the innovation of grocery stores at his age?
A Because he was an enthusiastic and creative man.
B Because his boss wanted to reform the grocery industry.
C Because he wanted to develop its efficiency and make great profit as well.
D Because he worried about the future competition from the industry.
12. What happened to Clarence Saunders’ first store of Piggly Wiggly?
A Customers complained about its impracticality and inconvenience.
B It enjoyed a great business and was updated in the first twelve months.
C It expanded to more than a thousand franchised stores during the first year.
D Saunders were required to have his new idea patented and open more stores.
13. What left to Clarence Saunders after his death in 1953?
A A fully automatic store system opened soon near his first store.
B The name of his store the Piggly Wiggly was very popular at that time.
C His name was usually connected with his famous shop the Piggly Wiggly in the following several years.
D His name was painted together with the name of his famous store.
SECTION 2
Stealth Forces in Weight loss
The field of weight loss is like the ancient fable about the blind men and the elephant Each man investigates a different part
of the animal and reports back, only to discover their findings are bafflingly incompatible.
A The various findings by public-health experts, physicians, psychologists, geneticists, molecular biologists, and nutritionists
are about as similar as an elephant’s tusk is to its tail Some say obesity is largely predetermined by our genes and biology;
others attribute it to an overabundance of fries, soda, and screen-sucking; still others think we’re fat because of viral
infection, insulin, or the metabolic conditions we encountered in the womb. “Everyone subscribes to their own little theory/’
says Robert Berkowitz, medical director of the Center for Weight and Eating Disorders at the University of Pennsylvania
School of Medicine. We’re programmed to hang onto the fat we have, and some people are predisposed to create and carry
more fat than others. Diet and exercise help, but in the end the solution will inevitably be more complicated than pushing
away the plate and going for a walk. “It’s not as simple as ‘You’re fat because you’re lazy:” says Nikhil Dhurandhar, an
associate professor at Pennington Biomedical Research Center in Baton Rouge. “Willpower is not a prerogative of thin
people. It’s distributed equally.”
B Science may still be years away from giving us a miracle formula for fat-loss. Hormone leptin is a crucial player in the
brain’s weight-management circuitry. Some people produce too little leptin; others become desensitized to it. And when
obese people lose weight, their leptin levels plummet along with their metabolism. The body becomes more efficient at using
fuel and conserving fat, which makes it tough to keep the weight off. Obese dieters’ bodies go into a state of chronic hunger,
a feeling Rudolph Leibel, an obesity researcher at Columbia University, compares to thirst. “Some people might be able to
tolerate chronic thirst, but the majority couldn’t stand it/’ says Leibel “Is that a behavioral problem—a lack of willpower? I
don’t think so.”
C The government has bng espoused moderate daily exercise—of the evening-walk or take-the-stairs variety – but that may
not do much to budge the needle on the scale. A 150-pound person burns only 150 calories on a half-hour walk, the
equivalent of two apples. It’s good for the heart, less so for the gut. “Radical changes are necessary/’ says Deirdre Barrett, a
psychologist at Harvard Medical School and author of Waistland.”People don’t bse weight by choosing the small fries or
taking a little walk every other day.” Barrett suggests taking a cue from the members of the National Weight Control
Registry (NWCR), a self-selected group of more than 5,000 successful weight-losers who have shed an average of 66 pounds
and kept it off 5.5 years. Some registry members lost weight using low-carb diets; some went low-fat others eliminated
refined foods. Some did it on their own; others relied on counseling. That said, not everyone can lose 66 pounds and not
everyone needs to. The goal shouldn’t be getting thin, but getting healthy. It’s enough to whittle your weight down the low
end of your set range, says Jeffrey Friedman, a geneticist at Rockefeller University. Losing even 10 pounds vastly decreases
your risk of diabetes, heart disease, and high blood pressure. The point is to not give up just because you don’t look like a
swimsuit model
D The negotiation between your genes and the environment begins on day one. Your optimal weight, writ by genes, appears
to get edited early on by conditions even before birth, inside the womb. If a woman has high blood-sugar levels while she’s
pregnant, her children are more likely to be overweight or obese, according to a study of almost 10,000 mother-child pairs.
Maternal diabetes may influence a child’s obesity risk through a process called metabolic imprinting, says Teresa Hillier, an
endocrinologist with Kaiser Permanente’s Center for Health Research and the study’s lead author. The implication is clear:
Weight may be established very early on, and obesity largely passed from mother to child. Numerous studies in both animals
and humans have shown that a mother’s obesity directly increases her child’s risk for weight gain. The best advice for moms-
to-be: Get fit before you get pregnant. You’ll reduce your risk of complications during pregnancy and increase your chances
of having a normal-weight child
E It’s the $64,000 question：Which diets work? It got people wondering: Isn’t there a better way to diet? A study seemed to
offer an answer. The paper compared two groups of adults: those who, after eating, secreted high levels of insulin, a hormone
that sweeps blood sugar out of the bloodstream and promotes its storage as fat, and those who secreted less. Within each
group, half were put on a low-fat diet and half on a tow-glycemic-bad diet. On average, the tow-insulin-secreting group fared
the same on both diets, losing nearly 10 pounds in the first six months — but they gained about half of it back by the end of
the 18-month study. The high-insulin group didn’t do as well on the low-fat plan, losing about 4.5 pounds, and gaining back
more than half by the end But the most successful were the high- insulin-secretors on the low-glycemic-bad diet. They lost
nearly 13 pounds and kept it off.
F What if your fat is caused not by diet or genes, but by germs 一 say, a virus? It sounds like a sci-fi horror movie, but
research suggests some dimension of the obesity epidemic may be attributable to infection by common viruses, says
Dhurandhar. The idea of “infectobesity” came to him 20 years ago when he was a young doctor treating obesity in Bombay.
He discovered that a local avian virus, SMAM-1, caused chickens to die, sickened with organ damage but also, strangely,
with lots of abdominal fat. In experiments, Dhurandhar found that SMAM-l-infected chickens became obese on the same diet
as uninfected ones, which stayed svelte.
G He later moved to the U.S. and onto a bona fide human virus, adenovirus 36 (AD-36). In the lab, every species of animal
Dhurandhar infected with the virus became obese_chickens got fat, mice got fat, even rhesus monkeys at the zoo that picked
up the virus from the environment suddenly gained 15 percent of their body weight upon exposure. In his latest studies,
Dhurandhar has isolated a gene that, when blocked from expressing itself, seems to turn off the virus’s fattening power. Stem
cells extracted from fat cells and then exposed to AD-36 reliably blossom into fat cells – but when stem cells are exposed to
an AD-36 virus with the key gene inhibited, the stems cells don*t differentiate. The gene appears to be necessary and
sufficient to trigger AD-36-related obesity, and the goal is to use the research to create a sort of obesity vaccine.
Researchers have discovered 10 microbes so far that trigger obesity – seven of them viruses. It may be a long shot, but for
people struggling desperately to be thin, even the possibility of an alternative cause of obesity offers some solace. “They feel
better knowing there may be something beyond them that could be responsible,” says Dhurandhar. “The thought that there
could be something besides what they’ve heard all their lives – that they are greedy and lazy – helps.”
Questions 14-18
Reading Passage 2 has five sections, A-G.
Which section contains the following information? Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.
14. evaluation on the effect of weight bss on different kind of diets
15. an example of research which include relatives of participants
16. Example of a group of people who never regain weight immediately after.
17. long term hunger may appear to be acceptable to most of the participants while losing weight
18. a continuous experiment may lead to a practical application besides diet or hereditary resort.
Questions 19-23
Look at the following researchers and the list of findings below. Match each researcher with the correct finding.
List of Researchers
A Robert Berkowitz
B Rudolph Leibel
C Nikhil Dhurandhar
D Deirdre Barrett
E Jeffrey Friedman
F Teresa Hillier
19. A person’s weight is predetermined to a set point by the DNA.
20. Pregnant mother who are overweight may risk their fetus
21. The aim of losing Wright should be keeping healthy rather than attractiveness
22. mall changes in lifestyle will not have great impact on reducing much weight
23. Researchers should be divided into different groups with their own point of view about weight loss.
Question 24 – 37
Complete the summery below.
Choose NO MORE THAN ONE WORD from the passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 24-27 on your
answer sheet.
In Bombay Clinic, a young doctor who came up with the concept ‘infect obesity1 believed that the obesity is caused by a kind
of virus, Years of experiment that he conducted on 24 ……………………… Later he moved to America and tested on a new
virus named 25……………………… which proved to be a significant breakthrough. Although there seems no way to
eliminate the virus, a kind of 26……………………… can be separated as to block the expressing power of the virus. The
doctor future is aiming at developing a new 27………………… to effectively combating the virus.
SECTION 3
Bright Children
A BY the time Laszlo Polgar’s first baby was born in 1969 he already had firm views on child-rearing. An eccentric citizen
of communist Hungary, he had written a book called “Bring up Genius!” and one of his favourite sayings was “Geniuses are
made, not bom”. An expert on the theory of chess, he proceeded to teach little Zsuzsa at home, spending up to ten hours a
day on the game. Two more daughters were similarly hot- housed. All three obliged their father by becoming world-class
players. The youngest, Judit, is currently ranked 13th in the world, and is by far the best female chess player of all time.
Would the experiment have succeeded with a different trio of children? If any child can be turned into a star, then a lot of
time and money are being wasted worldwide on trying to pick winners
B America has long held “talent searches”, using test results and teacher recommendations to select children for advanced
school courses, summer schools and other extra tuition. This provision is set to grow. In his state-of-the-union address in
2006, President George Bush announced the “American Competitiveness Initiative” which, among much else, would train
70,000 high-school teachers to lead advanced courses for selected pupils in mathematics and science. Just as the
superpowers’ space race made Congress put money into science education, the thought of China and India turning out
hundreds of thousands of engineers and scientists is scaring America into prodding its brightest to do their best.
C The philosophy behind this talent search is that ability is innate; that it can be diagnosed with considerable accuracy; and
that it is worth cultivating. In America, bright children are ranked as “moderately”, “highly”, “exceptionally” and
“profoundly” gifted. The only chance to influence innate ability is thought to be in the womb or the first couple of years of
life. Hence the fad for “teaching aids” such as videos and flashcards for newborns, and “whale sounds” on tape which a
pregnant mother can strap to her belly.
D In Britain, there is a broadly similar belief in the existence of innate talent, but also an egalitarian sentiment which makes
people queasy about the idea of investing resources in grooming intelligence. Teachers are often opposed to separate
provision for the best-performing children, saying any extra help should go to stragglers. In 2002, in a bid to help the able
while leaving intact the ban on most selection by ability in state schools, the government set up the National Academy for
Gifted and Talented Youth. This outfit runs summer schools and master classes for children nominated by their schools. To
date, though, only seven in ten secondary schools have nominated even a single child. Last year all schools were told they
must supply the names of their top 10%.
E Picking winners is also the order of the day in ex-communist states, a hangover from the times when talented individuals
were plucked from their homes and ruthlessly trained for the glory of the nation. But in many other countries, opposition to
the idea of singling out talent and grooming it runs deep. In Scandinavia, a belief in virtues like modesty and social solidarity
makes people flinch from the idea of treating brainy children differently.
F And in Japan there is a widespread belief that all children are born with the same innate abilities—and should therefore be
treated alike. All are taught together, covering the same syllabus at the same rate until they finish compulsory schooling.
Hiose who learn quickest are expected then to teach their classmates. In China, extra teaching is provided, but to a self-
selected bunch. “Children’s palaces” in big cities offer a huge range of after-school classes. Anyone can sign up; all that is
asked is excellent attendance.
G Statistics give little clue as to which system is best. The performance of the most able u is heavily affected by factors other
than state provision. Most state education in Britain is nominally non-selective, but middle-class parents try to live near the
best schools. Ambitious Japanese parents have made private, out-of-school tuition a thriving business. And Scandinavians
egalitarianism might work less well in places with more diverse populations and less competent teachers. For what ifs worth,
the data suggest that some countrieslike Japan and Finland, see tablecan eschew selection and still thrive. But that does not
mean that any country can ditch selection and do as well.
H Mr Polgar thought any child could be a prodigy given the right teaching, an early start and enough practice. At one point
he planned to prove it by adopting three baby boys from a poor country and trying his methods on them. (His wife vetoed the
scheme.) Some say the key to success is simply hard graft. Judit, the youngest of the Polgar sisters, was the most driven, and
the most successful; Zsofia, the middle one, was regarded as the most talented, but she was the only one who did not achieve
the status of grand master. “Everything came easiest to her,” said her older sister. “But she was lazy.
Questions 28-33
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3? In boxes 28-33 on your answer sheet,
write
YES if the statement is true
NO if the statement is false
if the information is not given in
NOT GIVEN
the passage
28. America has a long history of selecting talented students into different categories.
29. Teachers and schools in Britain held welcome attitude towards government’s selection of gifted students.
30. Some parents agree to move near reputable schools in Britain.
31. Middle-class parents participate in their children’s education.
32. Japan and Finland comply with selected student’s policy.
33. Avoiding-selection-policy only works in a specific environment.
Questions 34-35
34. What’s Laszlo Polgar’s point of view towards geniuses of children?
A Chess is the best way to train geniuses
B Genius tend to happen on first child
C Geniuses can be educated later on
D Geniuses are bom naturally
35. What is the purpose of citing Zsofia’s example in the last paragraph?
A Practice makes genius
B Girls are not good at chessing
C She was an adopted child
D Middle child is always the most talented
Questions 36-40
Use the information in the passage to match the countries (listed A-E) with correct
connection below. Write the appropriate letters A-E in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.
A Scandinavia
B Japan
C Britain
D China
E America
36. Less gifted children get help from other classmates
37. Attending extra teaching is open to anyone
38. People are reluctant to favor gifted children due to social characteristics
39. Both view of innate and egalitarian co-existed
40. Craze of audio and video teaching for pregnant women.
ANSWER KEYS
1 D 2 A 3 F
4 C 5 E 6 Clerk
Customers/
7 8 Lobby 3 Stockroom
shoppers
10 Galleries 11 C 12 B
13 C
14 E 15 D 16 C
17 B 18 G 19 C
20 F 21 E 22 D
23 A 24 Chickens 25 AD-36
26 Gene 27 vaccine
28 YES 29 NO 30 YES
31 NOT GIVEN 32 NO 33 YES
34 C 35 A 36 B
37 D 38 A 39 C

40 E
IELTS Cue Card Sample 76 – Topic: An Interesting Neighbor You Like

Posted: 01 Feb 2017 10:45 PM PST
Describe an interesting neighbor
You should say:
Who this person is
How you know this person
What this person likes to do
And explain why you think this neighbor is interesting.

Suggested Answers:
Introduction
I’m currently living in a densely-populated area with a multitude of households. However, if you ask me to give you an
account of a neighbor who intrigues me most, I would not hesitant to talk about [………]
Main body
 Who is he?:
– Special man ==> have an innate talent for singing and composing ==> signed up for a well-known band ==> Lead vocalist – song composer
– Born and grew up in….==> embarked on his singing career in…..==> moved to live in close proximity to my house 2 year ago.
 How you know about him
– Got to know him almost 2 years ago when I was a senior –>undergo a nerve-racking time (can’t find work-life balance, no me-time, up to ears with
internship assignment, finals) –> let my hair down ==> went to a coffee shop near ==> met him by chance, singing my favorite song ==> talked to each
other ==> then realised that living in the same neighborhood ==> stroke up our friendship.
– It have been over 2 years since we met but we really hit it off.
 Why you like him?

– Outer appearance: well-built person with broad shoulders and wavy hair ==> handsome and attractive
– Personalities ==> kind (devote time/money/effort to helping the disabled/poor) + gregarious + humorous (play jokes on my bad side of character,
cheer my up) ==> set a prime example for me
– Identify with me ==> have a lot in common & well-matched in our interests (like singing, drawing, etc)
– Knowledgeable
Conclusion:
To be honest, he is adored by all people in the neighborhood. To me, he is the most awesome human being on earth. You
know, lots of things will change down the road, and all relationships have their ups and downs, but I have a firm belief that
we will not drift apart from each other and can maintain a good relationship/work at our friendship/cement our
friendship forever.

IELTS Reading Practice Test 46 with Answer Key

READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-11 which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.
THE WORLD IS OUR OYSTER
A
Independent travel is on the increase and while package holidays which offer an all-inclusive price for transport,
accommodation and often even food are financially attractive to many, according to tourism analyst Thomas Cooper, an
increasing number of people now prefer a less-tailored holiday and the freedom to make spur of the moment decisions and
changes to their intended plan.
B
Internet based information sites about backpacking destinations are prolific and publications aimed at independent travellers on
a budget exist for almost every destination imaginable. Some people, particularly first-time backpackers, may elect to travel
with a friend or acquaintance; however, a large percentage of backpackers travel alone, assured by the knowledge that they are
likely to meet, with ease, a number of like-minded individuals throughout their journey and staying in their backpacker
accommodation. Alan Park, who has travelled extensively through Europe, Australasia and several other parts of the globe,
says most accommodation establishments aimed at the backpacker market are designed with communal kitchens, dormitories
and entertainment areas which lend themselves to allowing residents to socialize with ease and quickly breakdown barriers
with strangers that may usually exist in day to day life.
C
Many backpackers of European origin are attracted to the Southern Hemisphere, Australia being a major destination of choice.
Cooper attributes this high level of interest to the possibilities of legal working holiday visas for many nationalities and
consequent short-term work opportunities making extended travel financially feasible, in addition to the attractive climate and
outback appeal. Australia also has the reputation of being a relatively safe destination, with a warm and jovial population and
its size and contrast between locations is alluring to many. University student Rebecca Thompson, who has just returned from a
twelve month overseas trip, says that the cosmopolitan and modern nature of Australian cities such as Sydney and Melbourne
contrasted with the rugged outback appeal of Western Australia and the Northern Territory, or the marine paradise of the Great
Barrier Reef offer sufficient variation to attract a wide base of visitors. Sydney based travel consultant Brad Connor advises
that it is also possible to obtain bargain deals on internal flights within this massive island when purchasing an international
ticket, highly recommended, he says, for those who do not have the luxury of a long length of time, in order to ensure that key
spots can be visited.
D
Equal in popularity to Australia, for the backpacking market is South East Asia and Rebecca Thompson says that, in her
experience, the majority of travellers on extended trips to Australasia also include a visit to one or more South East Asia
destinations in their itinerary. Thailand, in particular, has a long tourism history and well-established service industry. It is
often considered one of the more accessible Asian destinations for the novice European backpacker due to its reasonable
prices, large volume of Western visitors and well established backpacker trails. Brian Johnson, who is currently employed by
the British Consulate in Bangkok, believes that the welcoming nature and level of English spoken by Thais involved in the
tourism industry has also impacted positively on the destination’s overseas image. Thai food is delicious and now fairly
familiar to those outside the country and while precautions such as drinking bottled water and washing of fruit and vegetables
should be practiced, generally standards of accommodation and restaurants are high. Thomas Cooper says Thailand’s
attractions are wide ranging, encompassing idyllic beaches, an insight into Buddhist culture and impressive ancient temples,
mountain trekking, a vibrant nightlife and for bargain hunters bustling night markets and bazaars.
E
South East Asia neighbour, Vietnam, alongside its rapidly developing economy has also over recent years established a solid
tourism industry, the majority of visitors entering and exiting by plane via its urban centres Ho Chi Minh (formerly Saigon) in
the south and Hanoi in the north. Vietnam offers incredible vistas and contrasts of rugged mountain areas, lush green rice
paddies, crystal clear waters and dense forest areas. Alan Park, who spent a month travelling independently around the country,
says bus and rail networks allow visitors to travel from centre to centre relatively inexpensively, though he does not
recommend these forms of transport to visitors on a short time-frame as the pace is unhurried.
F
The list of potentially safe and enjoyable backpacking destinations is endless. Technology and transport developments over
recent time have resulted in more areas of the world becoming increasingly accessible, it is now possible to keep in regular
contact with friends and family back home via email or even mobile phone, providing added reassurance to those concerned
about travelling and their worried parents. Brian Johnson says friends, family and acquaintances who have previously travelled
to the destination of choice are a useful source of first-hand advice and information and Simon Hartwell of the Backpackers
Association adds travellers are advised to ensure that they are aware of visa requirements for their destination and are urged to
seek medical advice regarding any necessary vaccinations or medical precautions. It is always wise to be as well informed as
possible prior to embarking on a trip.
G
The youth of today are undoubtedly becoming more adventurous, which Hartwell ascribes to higher disposable income in the
developed world than were available to previous generations and also the fact that we can more easily familiarise ourselves
with the unknown via the internet and other communication methods. Many travellers, particularly experienced backpackers,
are keen to experience more obscure destinations well off the well-trodden backpacker trail.
Questions 1 – 4
Match each statement with the correct person.
Write the correct answer A-D in boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet.
1. Opportunities to fund expenses through casual work increase the volume of visitors to a particular destination.
2. Attitude to the tourism industry of the local people has had a positive impact on visitor numbers.
3. Diverse attractions mean a destination is able to appeal to a wider range of people.
4. Motivations for different approaches to travel by different generations.

List of People
A. Simon Hartwell
B. Brian Johnson
C. Thomas Cooper
D. Rebecca Thompson
Questions 5 – 8
Do the following statements agree with the views given in Reading Passage 1?
In boxes 5 – 8 on your answer sheet write
YES if the statement agrees with the views given
NO if the statement contradicts the views given
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say
1. Interaction with others is generally more difficult when travelling alone than in normal life situations.
2. Travelling by plane to other domestic destinations in Australia is cheaper than other forms of transport.
3. Train travel in Vietnam can be too time-consuming for short visits.
4. Experienced backpackers rarely travel to destinations such as Australia.
Questions 9 – 11
Complete the notes below.
 Vietnam – tourism industry growing as is its 9__________________.
 Thailand – certain 10_______________ are advisable – e.g. wash fruit.
 Australia – Great Barrier Reef can be described as a 11_________________.
READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 12 – 25 which are based on Reading Passage 2 below.
AN AVIATION WONDER AND ITS CREATOR
A
The Supermarine Spitfire was a single-seater fighter plane used by the British Royal Airforce and pilots from a number of the
country’s allies during the Second World War. The first flight of a Spitfire prototype was on 5 March 1936 and usage of the
plane continued until the 1950s. It was said to be one of the most effective fighter planes available during that period and was
produced by Vickers-Armstrongs, a British engineering corporation which was formed in 1927 as a result of the merger of
Vickers Limited and Sir W G Armstrong Whitworth & Company.
B
The Spitfire was designed by aeronautical engineer Reginald Joseph Mitchell. His career began when he joined a locomotives
engineering company in 1911 at the age of 16. However, in 1917 he moved from his hometown to join the Supermarine
Aviation works in Southampton and was promoted to Chief Designer within his first year of employment. By the time the
company was taken over by Vickers-Armstrongs in 1928, Mitchell had held the post of Technical Director for a year; and his
capabilities and contributions were deemed so significant Vickers-Armstrong made his continual employment for a five year
period a condition of the purchase of the company.
C
In the fifteen years prior to 1936 Mitchell designed 24 aircraft of differing categories including fighter planes, bombers and
seaplanes. The first predecessor of the Spitfire in the fighter plane category to gain him national acclaim was the Supermarine
S.B for which he won the Schneider Trophy (a cup and monetary award for technical advances in aviation which came to focus
mainly on speed) in 1931. Despite withdrawal of financial support from the British Government that year, the Supermarine
S.B. was able to compete for the Schneider Trophy as a result of a private donation of 100,000 pounds. Mitchell’s team won
outright on September 13th their aircraft achieving a new world speed record of 606 km/h; within days the Supermarine S.B.
went on to break its own newly achieved record when on the 29th of the same month it became the first aircraft ever to achieve
speeds of over 400 miles per hour (640 kilometres) when it reached 407.5 mph (640 kilometres per hour).
D
Reginald Joseph Mitchell was awarded a CBE in 1932 for his contributions to high speed flight. CBEs being awarded by the
British Monarch and reserved to recognise individuals who have ‘fulfilled a conspicuous leading role in regional affairs,
through achievement or service to the community, or making a highly distinguished, innovative contribution in his or her area
of activity’. Mitchell’s achievements with the Supermarine S.B. also prompted the Air Ministry to contract his company for
design of a new fighter aircraft, despite the organisation’s reputation being built predominantly on sea-plane and not fighter
plane manufacturing.
E
The first type, the 224, was to prove unsuccessful and it was eventually rejected by the Royal Air Force due to unsatisfactory
performance; however, private sponsorship enabled research, development and modifications which led to the creation of the
Type 300 which would eventually become the Spitfire. Soon after the first flight of the Spitfire prototype (trial version) and
prior to completion of all stages of its official trials, convinced by its potential, the British Royal Air Force ordered 310 models.
With its smooth lines, load-bearing metal shell, and heavy eight-machine gun armament, the Spitfire was considered
revolutionary. In 1938, the aircraft was first put into official service; however, Mitchell, who died from cancer in 1937 at the
age of 42, was not to witness this or the extensive impact and longevity of use the aircraft would have. In total 20,351 spitfires
of different versions were produced making it the most produced British aircraft of the Second World War. .
F
After Mitchell’s death, his former Chief Draughtsman Joe Smith took over the position of Technical Director and led the
subsequent development of the Spitfire which would keep it at the forefront of aircraft technology while many other designs
quickly became obsolete; 24 models of spitfire were designed along with many sub-variants containing different engine types
and possessing different wing configurations; the most widely used being the Spitfire Mark V, of which 6,479 were built. The
original version first used for active service in 1938 had a top speed of approximately 580 km per hour; while one of the last
models used in the later stages of the Second World War – the Spitfire XIV – had a top speed capability of 710 km per hour.
Spitfires were used continually by the Royal Air Force, later purely as surveillance planes (to monitor activity overhead though
carrying no armament), until 1954 when the last model was retired.
G
In his home town, Reginald Joseph Mitchell C.B.E. is today remembered in a number of ways. A combined theatre and
education centre ‘The Mitchell Memorial Theatre’ bears his name, and the city museum, at the entrance of which stands a
bronze statue of Mitchell, displays an authentic and complete Spitfire as part of its collection. In addition, a local high school is
named after him; as is a major roadway and he is locally recognised as one of the most significant historical sons of the town.
Questions 12 – 17
Complete the flowchart below.
Write your answers in boxes 12 and 17 on your answer sheet.
Questions 18 – 20
According to the
information in the
passage, classify the
following information as
relating to:
A. the Supermarine SB
B. the Spitfire
C. neither the Supermarine
SB or the Spitfire
D. both the Supermarine
SB and the Spitfire
Write the correct letter, A,
B, C or D in boxes 18-20
on your answer sheet.
1. Its development was
commissioned by the Air
Ministry
2. Mitchell was awarded the

CBE due to its development.
3. It was innovative for its time.
Questions 21 – 25
Reading Passage 2 has
seven paragraphs A-G.
Which paragraph contains
the following information?
Write the correct letter A-
G in boxes 21-25 on your
answer sheet.
1. where the Royal Air Force showed faith in Mitchell’s engineering capability without complete evidence
2. where Mitchell’s involvement influenced a business purchase
3. how Mitchell has been honoured since his death
4. details of specific differences between spitfire models
5. details of what differentiated the Spitfire from other alternatives
READING PASSAGE 3
NATURE’S MOST VIOLENT WIND
A
Tornados have been observed in every continent on the planet with the exception of Antarctica. Hurricanes differ from
tornadoes, in that the former develop in warm, tropical oceans whereas tornados develop on land and are more aggressive
and potentially destructive. The majority of tornados are initiated by thunderstorms. Tornados are relatively common
occurrences at differing magnitudes throughout the world. The geographical features of the U.S.A. lend themselves to high
incidence of tornado activity. In that country the highest proportion of tornados occur in the southern states in spring from
March to May and in the northern states from late spring extending into summer. Generally tornados travel from southwest
to northeast, though neither time of year nor direction they will take is completely predictable.
B
Several factors cause the U.S.A. to experience a high incidence of tornado formation. While the continent reaches from arctic
areas in the north to a tropical climate in the south there is no barrier protection from significant mountain ranges in the east
or west; however, the Rocky Mountains in the middle latitudes of the country obstruct atmospheric flow’ and moisture. In
addition, drier air from the southwest deserts and low level moisture from the Gulf of Mexico meet in the area, many
collisions of w-arm and cool air occur and optimum conditions for tornado formation are created. Tornados in this central
part of the U.SA. are so prolific that the area has been named Tornado Alley, the site of the highest number of powerful
tornados in the country and throughout the world. In the USA alone, in an average year 1200 tornados occur causing 70
fatalities and 1500 injuries and in addition extensive damage to property and natural vegetation.
C
Connected between a cloud base above (usually cumulonimbus) and the earth below, a tornado is a rapidly rotating column
of air; they can be as much as 20 kilometres in height. The majority are less than 75 metres in diameter reaching wind speeds
of less than 177kms per hour and travel less than 10 kilometres before dissipating; however, some of the larger and rarer of
this type of weather phenomenon may reach wind speeds of more than 480kms/hour traveling more than 100 kilometers
before cessation. The inside of a tornado is made up of descending air and this is surrounded by a spiraling upward current
which has the ability to carry with it and destroy even substantial obstacles such as tress, cars and houses in its path.
Scientific research and eyewitness accounts indicate that most tornados also possess a calm centre in their core, surrounded
by the layers of the downward and upward currents of air; this core has been likened to the peaceful central ‘eye’ at the
centre of a tropical cyclone or hurricane.
D
A tornado itself is not necessarily visible; though the intense low pressure it causes often results in condensation of water
vapour which forms into a noticeable condensation funnel. Colours of tornados are also dictated by the environment in which
they form. The force of the swirling air causes them to pick up din as they travel across the landscape; those with minimal
debris remaining grey or white turning darker blue the more they collect, while others in areas such the Great Plains in the
USA turn red in colour due to the red soil they collect and carry with them. Background lighting in which a tornado presents
itself also affects the naked eye’s ability to identify its form as it appears on the horizon. When viewing a tornado with the
sun behind it, it will appear to be dark in colour; however, when viewed without the sun in the background, the same tornado
appears to be grey or white. On the rare occasions that tornados occur after dark, they pose an increased level of danger as
darkness can make them invisible and only radar warnings or possibly sound can warn those in their path that a tornado is on
its way.
E
Tornados are classified into three levels of intensity; these being weak, strong and violent. 88% of tornados occurring in the
USA are classified into the first category making them the most common; they account for less than 5% of fatalities resulting
from tornado activity, generally reach wind speeds of less than 177kms/hour and have a duration of between 1 and 10
minutes before cessation. In contrast, ‘violent’ tornados exceed 330 kilometres per hour, can continue for over an hour and
while they account for only 1% of incidence of tornados they result in approximately 70% of resultant deaths. The greatest
devastation to date, inflicted on the USA by a violent tornado was on March 18th, 1925. The tornado was the longest, fastest
and widest tornado known to have formed in North America and resulted in 695 deaths, an additional 2279 being injured.
Now known as the Tri-state Tornado, it travelled over 350 kilometres affecting 13 counties in the three different states of
Missouri, Illinois and Indiana. Around 11% of tornados are classified as ‘strong’ tornados. These tornados account for
slightly more than 25% of tornado-related fatal accidents and reach mid-range speeds of between 177 and 330 kilometers per
hour with an average duration of around 20 minutes.
F
Today in the USA, early warning systems, which cannot necessarily protect property in the path of a tornado, can allow
people time to leave the area and therefore significantly reduce death tolls. However in countries such as Bangladesh,
fatalities caused by tornado impact remain extremely high. The rural, central region of the country also experiences a high
frequency of strong tornados and the danger is exacerbated due to its densely populated areas, lack of warning systems and
vulnerability of building structures. Between 1967 and 1996 the Bangladesh Observer and Pakistan Observer reported 5,373
tornado related deaths: an average of 179.1 per year. The Manikganj Tornado which occurred in 1989 is thought to have
caused as a many as 1300 deaths and is known as the deadliest tornado to have occurred anywhere in the world. Many
projects delivered by organizations such as the Asian Disaster Reduction Center (ADRC) have been established with the aim
of minimising devastation and death rates caused by tornados in such areas.
Questions 26 – 30
1. Hurricanes are described as
A. more hostile than tornados and occurring in the sea.

B. occurring on land and less harmful than tornados.
C. less damaging than tornados and occurring in marine environments.
D. only occurring in certain oceans with a fiercer effect than a tornado.
1. Tornados in the USA
A. occur only in spring and summer.

B. continually travel from southwest to northeast.
C. are less prevalent in winter.
D. are experienced exclusively by the southern and northern states.
1. Tornados are common in the USA because
A. the Rocky Mountains inhibit cold air from the north and warm air from the south making contact.
B. because warm, humid air which builds up meets cooler air without interference.
C. of the high incidence of thunderstorms which are experienced in central USA.
D. warm air from the tropics allows optimum conditions to develop.
1. Tornados may be very light in colour if
A. the observer stands with their back to the sun.

B. they occur at night.
C. they occur in the Great Plains of the USA.
D. they pick up substantial dirt on their journey.
1. Tornados in Bangladesh
A. are of greater intensity than in USA.

B. can now be
effectively predicted,
C. occur mainly in
urban areas.
D. cause extensive
damage due to
sociological factors.
Questions 31- 35
Label the diagram
below.
Choose NO MORE
THAN TWO
WORDS from the
passage for each
answer
Write your answers in
boxes 31-35 on your
answer sheet
Questions 36 – 40
Complete the table
below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER from the passage for each answer.

Classification Weak Strong Violent
make up about make up the smallest
make up 36____________
Incidence 37____________ of minority of tornados in
of tornados in the USA
tornados in the USA the USA
between 177 and 330
Wind speed less than 177kms/hr more than 830 kms/hr
kms/hr
can last for
Lifespan 1-10 minutes 20 minutes
38______________
cause just over
The most violent
cause less than 5% of 39______________ of
Impact example in the USA was
tornado related deaths tornado related
the 40_______________.
deaths
1. C
Paragraph C: ‘Cooper attributes this high level of interest to the possibilities of legal working holiday visas for many
nationalities and consequent short-term work opportunities making extended travel financially feasible’
1. B
Paragraph D: ‘Brian Johnson, who is currently employed by the British Consulate in Bangkok, believes that the welcoming
nature and level of English spoken by Thais involved in the tourism industry has also impacted positively on the
destination’s overseas image՛
1. D
Paragraph C: ‘Rebecca Thompson, who has just returned from a twelve month overseas trip, says that the cosmopolitan and
modern nature of Australian cities such as Sydney and Melbourne contrasted with the rugged outback appeal of Western
Australia and the Northern Territory, or the marine paradise of the Great Barrier Reef offer sufficient variation to attract a
wide base of visitors.’
1. A
Paragraph G: The youth of today are undoubtedly becoming more adventurous, which Hartwell ascribes to higher disposable
income in the developed world than were available to previous generations and also the fact that we can more easily
familiarise ourselves with the unknown via the internet and other communication methods’
1. NO
Paragraph B: ‘Alan Park, who has travelled extensively through Europe, Australasia and several other parts of the globe, says
most accommodation establishments aimed at the backpacker market are designed with communal kitchens, dormitories and
entertainment areas which lend themselves to allowing residents to socialize with ease and quickly breakdown barriers with
strangers that may usually exist in day to day life.’
1. NOT GIVEN
Paragraph C: ‘Brad Connor advises that it is also possible to obtain bargain deals on internal flights within this massive
island when purchasing an international ticket, highly recommended’ NO MENTION IS MADE OF WHETHER IT IS
CHEAPER THAN ANY OTHER FORM OF TRANSPORT
1. YES
Paragraph E: ‘…bus and rail networks allow visitors to travel from centre to centre relatively inexpensively, though he does
not recommend these forms of transport to visitors on a short time-frame as the pace is unhurried’
1. NOT GIVEN
Paragraph G: ‘Many travellers, particularly experienced backpackers, are keen to experience more obscure destinations well
off the well-trodden backpacker trail.’ DOES NOT ACTUALLY SAY THAT THEY DO NOT CO TO AUSTRALIA
1. economy
Paragraph E: Vietnam, alongside its rapidly developing economy has also over recent years established a solid tourism
industry’
1. precautions
Paragraph D: ‘…precautions such as drinking bottled water and washing of fruit and vegetables should be practiced
1. marine paradise
Paragraph C: ‘…cosmopolitan and modern nature of Australian cities such as Sydney and Melbourne contrasted with the
rugged outback appeal of Western Australia and the Northern Territory, or the marine paradise of the Great Barrier Reef’
1. Supermarine S.B.
Paragraph C: ‘The first predecessor of the Spitfire in the fighter plane category to gain him national acclaim was the
Supermarine S.B’
1. 224
Paragraph E: ‘The first type, the 224, was to prove unsuccessful and it was eventually rejected by the Royal Air Force due to
unsatisfactory performance’
1. private sponsorship
Paragraph E: ‘private sponsorship enabled research, development and modifications which led to the creation of the Type
300’
1. 1938
Paragraph E: ‘The British Royal Air Force ordered 310 models … In 1938, the aircraft was first put into official service’
1. 20,351 Spitfires (17 types).
Paragraph E: ‘In total 20,351 spitfires of different versions were produced making it the most produced British aircraft of the
Second World War.’
1. surveillance
Paragraph F: ‘Spitfires were used continually by the Royal Air Force, later purely as surveillance planes (to monitor activity
overhead though carrying no armament), until 1954’
1. C
In Paragraphs D and E, the Air Ministry sponsored development of an aircraft after the Supermarine SB and before the
Spitfire. They sponsored the 224, which was unsuccessful so the Spitfire was developed but with private sponsorship.
1. A
Paragraphs C and D: ‘…their aircraft achieving a new world speed record of 606 km/h; within days the Supermarine S.B.
went on to break its own newly achieved record when on the 29th of the same month it became the first aircraft ever to
achieve speeds of over 400 miles per hour (640 kilometres) when it reached 407.5 mph (640 kilometres per hour). …
Reginald Joseph Mitchell was awarded a CBE In 1932 for his contributions to high speed flight.’
1. D
Paragraphs C and E. The Supermarine SB: ‘…it became the first aircraft ever to achieve speeds of over 400 miles per hour1.
The Spitfire: the Spitfire was considered revolutionary’
1. E
‘prior to completion of all stages of its official trials, convinced by its potential, The British Royal Air Force ordered 310
models.’
1. B
‘and his capabilities and contributions were deemed so significant Vickers- Armstrong made his continual employment for a
five year period a condition of the purchase of the company.’
1. G
‘A combined theatre and education centre “The Mitchell Memorial Theatre’ bears his name; and the city museum, at the
entrance of which stands a bronze statue of Mitchell, displays an authentic and complete Spitfire as part of its collection. In
addition a local high school is named after him; as is a major roadway…’
1. F
‘24 models of spitfire were designed along with many sub-variants containing different engine types and possessing different
wing configurations’
1. E
‘With Its smooth lines, load-bearing metal shell, and heavy eight-machine gun armament, the Spitfire was considered
revolutionary’
1. C
Paragraph A: ‘In that the former develop in warm, tropical oceans whereas tornados develop on land and are more aggressive
and potentially destructive’
1. C
1. B
Paragraph B: ‘Several factors cause the U.S.A. to experience a high incidence of tornado formation. While the continent
reaches from arctic areas in the north to a tropical climate in the south there is no barrier protection from significant
mountain ranges in the east or west; however, the Rocky Mountains in the middle latitudes of the country obstruct
atmospheric flow and moisture. In addition, drier air from the southwest deserts and low level moisture from the Gulf of
Mexico meet in the area, many collisions of warm and cool air occur and optimum conditions for tornado formation are
created.’
1. A
Paragraph D: ‘When viewing a tornado with the sun behind it, it will appear to be dark in colour; however, when viewed
without the sun in the background, the same tornado appears to be grey or white.’
1. D
1. 75 metres
2. calmcentre
3. descending air
4. condensation funnel
5. 20 kms
1. 88%
2. 11%
3. over an hour
4. 25%
5. tri-state tornado
IELTS Speaking Part 1 Topic: Names & Sample Answers
Snug As A Bug In A Rug – Idiom Of The Day For IELTS
IELTS Speaking Part 1 Topic: Names & Sample Answers

Names
Who gave you your name ?
Do you think your name is special?
What’s the origin of your name? (or your surname)
Do you like your name?
What do your friends call you?
Did your family have a certain (nick) name that they called you when you were a child?
What names are popular to give to babies in your country?

Sample Answers
Who gave you your name ? / What’s the origin of your name?
My name is named after a famous figure who my parents really admire and they really hope that I can turn out to be exactly
like her in the future. So yeah, I guess both of them agreed upon the name.
Do you think your name is special?
Actually, the name [……] is fairly common in my country. You would be pretty surprised at how many girls here are named [….].
But, in a sense, this name is special to me because my parents gave it to me and it will stay with me for my whole life.
Do you like your name?
Definitely yes! It’s a simple, yet meaningful name to me. Say if you ask me whether I would like to change my name into another
one, my answer would be a big no.
What do your friends call you?
It really depends. Most of my close friends prefer to call me by my nickname, “Pup”. Meanwhile, others just use my first name.
Did your family have a certain (nick) name that they called you when you were a child?
When I was born, I had been crying for more than 2 hours. Therefore, my parents decided to call me Crocodile, which turned out
to be my nickname afterwards. It was such a funny name which still makes me embarrassed when my parents call my nickname in
front of my friends.

SECTION 1
Computer Games for Preschoolers:
Nintendo’s Research and Design Process
A Designing computer games for young children is a daunting task for game producers, who, for a long time, have concentrated on
more “hard core” game fans. This article chronicles the design process and research involved in creating Nintendo DS for
preschool gamers.
B After speaking with our producers who have a keen interest in designing for the DS, we finally agreed on three key goals for our
project. First, to understand the range of physical and cognitive abilities of preschoolers in the context of handheld system game
play; second, to understand how preschool gamers interact with the DS, specifically how they control the different forms of play
and game mechanics offered by the games presently on the market for this platform; third, to understand the expectations of
preschoolers, parents concerning the handheld systems as well as the purchase and play contexts within which game play occurs.
The team of the research decided that in-home ethnographies with preschoolers and their families would yield comprehensive
database with which to give our producers more information and insights, so we start by conducting 26 in-home ethnographies in
three markets across the United States: an East coast urban/suburban area, a West coast urban/suburban area, and a Midwest
suburban/rural area.
C The subjects in this study included 15 girls and 11 boys ranging from 3 years and 3 months old to 5 years and 11 months old.
Also, because previous research had shown the effects of older siblings on game play (demonstrated, for example, by more
advanced motor coordination when using a computer mouse), households were employed to have a combination of preschoolers
with and without elder peers. In order to understand both “experienced” and “new” preschool users of the platform, we divided the
sample so that 13 families owned at least one Nintendo DS and the others did not. For those households that did not own a DS, one
was brought to the interview for the kid to play. This allowed us to see both the instinctive and intuitive movements of the new
players (and of the more experienced players when playing new games), as well as the learned movements of the more
experienced players. Each of those interviews took about 60 to 120 minutes and included the preschooler, at least one parent, and
often siblings and another caregiver.
D Three kinds of information were collected after each interview. From any older siblings and the parents that were available, we
gathered data about ： the buying decisions surrounding game systems in the household, the family’s typical game play patterns，
levels of parental moderation with regard to computer gaming, and the most favorite games played by family members .We could
also understand the ideology of gaming in these homes because of these in-home interviews： what types of spaces were used for
game play， how the systems were installed, where the handheld play occurred in the house (as well as on-the-go play), and the
number and type of games and game systems owned. The most important is, we gathered the game-playing information for every
single kid.
E Before carrying out the interviews, the research team had closely discussed with the in-house game producers to create a list of
game mechanics and problems tied to preschoolers* motor and cognitive capabilities that were critical for them to understand prior
to writing the games. These ranged from general dexterity issues related to game controllers to the effectiveness of in-game
instructions to specific mechanics in current games that the producers were interested in implementing for future preschool titles.
During the interviews, the moderator gave specific guidance to the preschooler through a series of games, so that he or she could
observe the interaction and probe both the preschooler and his or her parents on feelings, attitudes, and frustrations that arose in
the different circumstances
F If the subject in the experiment had previous exposure to the DS system, he or she was first asked to play his or her favorite
game on that machine. This gave the researchers information about current of gaming skill related to the complexity of the chosen
one, allowing them to see the child playing a game with mechanics he or she was already familiar with. Across the 26
preschoolers, the Nintendo DS selections scope were very broad ，including New Super Mario Bros, Sonic Rush. Nintendo, and
Tony Hawk’s Proving Ground. The interviewer observed the child play ， noting preferences for game mechanics and motor
interactions with the device as well as the complexity level each game mechanic was for the tested subject The researchers asked
all of the preschoolers to play with a specific game in consultation with our producers, The Little Mermaid: Ariel’s Undersea
Adventure. The game was chosen for two major reasons. First, it was one of the few games on the market with characters that
appeal to this young age group. Second, it incorporated a large variety of mechanics that highlighted the uniqueness of the DS
platform, including using the microphone for blowing or singing.
G The findings from this initial experiment were extensive. After reviewing the outcomes and discussing the implications for the
game design with our internal game production team, we then outlined the designing needs and presented the findings to a firm
specialising in game design. We worked closely with those experts to set the game design for the two preschool-targeted DS
games under development on what we had gathered.
H As the two DS games went into the development process, a formative research course of action was set up. Whenever we
developed new game mechanics, we brought preschoolers into our in-house utility lab to test the mechanics and to evaluate both
their simplicity, and whether they were engaging. We tested either alpha or beta versions of different elements of the game, in
addition to looking at overarching game structure. Once a full version of the DS game was ready, we went back into the field test
with a dozen preschoolers and their parents to make sure that each of the game elements worked for the children, and that the
overall objective of the game was understandable and the process was enjoyable for players. We also collected parents’ feedback
on whether they thought the game is appropriate, engaging, and worth the purchase.
Questions 1-5
Choose ONE WORD ONLYfrom the passage for each answer. Write your answers in
boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet
Exploratory Research Project
Main Objectives:
Determine the relevant 1_________________ in the context
Observe how preschoolers manage playing
Investigate attitudes of 2______________________________ towards games
Subjects:
26 children from different US 3____________________
Age range: 3 years and 3 months to 5_years and 11 months
Some children have older 4__________________ in the house as playing peers.
Equal number of new and 5___________________________ players
Some households have Nintendo DS and some don’t
Length of Interview:
1-2 hours
Questions 6-9
Do following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1In boxes 6-9 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement aggress with the information
FALES if the statement contradicts the information
NOTGIVEN if there is no information a on this
6. One area of research is how far mothers and fathers controlled children’s playing after school.
7. Some researchers are allowed an access to the subjects’ houses.
8. The researchers regarded The Little Mermaid: Ariel’s Undersea Adventure as likely appeal to preschoolers.
9. The Little Mermaid: Ariel’s Undersea Adventure is entirely designed for preschool children.
Questions 10-13
Complete the flow-chart below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer Write your answers in boxes 10-13 on your answer
sheet.
Using the Results of the Study
Presentation of design requirements to a specialist 10_________
Testing the mechanics of two new games in the Nintendo lab (assess 11 _________ and interest)
A field test in 12__________________ trailed by twelve children
Collection of 13__________________ from parents
SECTION 2
The History of pencil
A The beginning of the story of pencils started with a lightning. Graphite, the main material for producing pencil, was discovered
in 1564 in Boirowdale in England when a lightning struck a local tree during a thunder. Local people found out that the black
substance spotted at the root of the unlucky tree was different from burning ash of wood. It was soft, thus left marks everywhere.
Chemistry was barely out of its infancy at the time, so people mistook it for lead, equally black but much heavier. It was soon put
to use by locals in marking their sheep for signs of ownership and calculation.
B Britain turns out to be the major country where mines of graphite can be detected and developed. Even so, the first pencil was
invented elsewhere. As graphite is soft, it requires some form of encasement. In Italy, graphite sticks were initially wrapped in
string or sheepskin for stability, becoming perhaps the very first pencil in the world. Then around 1560, an Italian couple made
what are likely the first blueprints for the modem, wood-encased carpentry pencil. Their version was a flat, oval, more compact
type of pencil. Their concept involved the hollowing out of a stick of juniper wood. Shortly thereafter in 1662 ， a superior
technique was discovered by German people: two wooden halves were carved, a graphite stick inserted, and the halves then glued
together – essentially the same method in use to this day. The news of usefulness of these early pencils spread far and wide,
attracting the attention of artists all over the known world.
C Although graphite core in pencils is still referred to as lead, modem pencils do not contain lead as the “lead “of the’ pencil is
actually a mix of finely ground graphite and clay powders. This mixture is important because the amount of clay content added to
the graphite depends on intended pencil hardness, and the amount of time spent on grinding the mixture determines the quality of
the lead. The more clay you put in, the higher hardness the core has. Many pencils across the world, and almost all in Europe, are
graded on the European system. This system of naming used B for black and H for hard; a pencil’s grade was described by a
sequence or successive Hs or Bs such as BB and BBB for successively softer leads, and HH and HHH for successively harder
ones. Then the standard writing pencil is graded HB.
D In England, pencils continued to be made from whole sawn graphite. But with the mass production of pencils, they are getting
drastically more popular in many countries with each passing decade. As demands rise, appetite for graphite soars. According to
the United States Geological Survey (USGS), world production of natural graphite in 2012 was 1,100,000 tonnes, of which the
following major exporters are: China, India, Brazil, North Korea and Canada.
When the value of graphite was realised, the mines were taken over by the government and guarded. One of its chief uses during
the reign of Elizabeth I in the second half of the 16th century was as moulds for the manufacture of camion balls. Graphite was
transported from Keswick to London in armed stagecoaches. In 1751 an Act of Parliament was passed making it an offence to
steal or receive “wad”. This crime was punishable by hard labour or transportation.
E That the United States did not use pencils in the outer space till they spent $1000 to make a pencil to use in zero gravity
conditions is in fact a fiction. It is widely known that astronauts in Russia used grease pencils, which don’t have breakage
problems. But it is also a fact that their counterparts in the United States used pencils in the outer space before real zero gravity
pencil was invented .They preferred mechanical pencils, which produced fine lines, much clearer than the smudgy lines left by the
grease pencils that Russians favoured. But the lead tips of these mechanical pencils broke often. That bit of graphite floating
around the space capsule could get into someone’s eye, or even find its way into machinery or electronics short or other problems.
But despite the fact that the Americans did invent zero gravity pencil later, they stuck to mechanical pencils for many years.
F Against the backcloth of a digitalized world, the prospect of pencils seems bleak. In reality, it does not. The application of
pencils has by now become so widespread that they can be seen everywhere, such as classrooms, meeting rooms and art rooms,
etc. A spectrum of users are likely to continue to use it into the future: students to do math works, artists to draw on sketch pads,
waiters or waitresses to mark on order boards, make-up professionals to apply to faces, and architects to produce blue prints. The
possibilities seem limitless
Questions 14-19
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer,
Write your answers in boxes 14-19 on your answer sheet
Graphite was found under a 14 __________ in Borrowdale
Ancient people used graphite to sign possession and number of 15 __________ .
The first pencil was graphite wrapped in 16 __________ or animal skin.
In the eighteenth century, the 17__________ value of graphite was realized.
During the reign of Elizabeth I，people was condemnable if they 18 __________ or receive the “wad”.
Russian astronauts preferred 19 __________ pencils to write in the outer space.
Questions 20-26
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Rending Passage 2? In boxes20-26 on your answer sheet write
20. Italy is probably the first country of the whole world to make pencils.
21. Germany used various kinds of wood to make pencils.
22. Graphite makes a pencil harder and sharper.
23. Pencils are not produced any more since the reign of Elizabeth
24. Pencil was used during the first American space expedition. ‘
25. American astronauts did not replace mechanical pencils immediately after the zero gravity pencils were invented.
26. Pencils are unlikely to be used in the fixture.
SECTION 3
Knowledge in Medicine
A What counts as knowledge? What do we mean when we say that we know something? What is the status of different kinds of
knowledge? In order to explore these questions we are going to focus on one particular area of knowledge——medicine.
B How do you know when you are ill? This may seem to be an absurd question. You know you are ill because you feel ill; your
body tells you that you are ill. You may know that you feel pain | or discomfort but knowing you are ill is a bit more complex. At
times, people experience the symptoms of illness, but in fact they are simply tired or over-worked or they may just have a ‘
hangover. At other times, people may be suffering from a disease and fail to be aware of the illness until it has reached a late stage
in its development. So how do we know we are ill, and what counts as knowledge?
C Think about this example. You feel unwell. You have a bad cough and always seem to be tired. Perhaps it could be stress at
work, or maybe you should give up smoking. You feel worse. You visit the doctor who listens to your chest and heart, takes your
temperature and blood pressure, and then finally prescribes antibiotics for your cough.
D Things do not improve but you struggle on thinking you should pull yourself together, perhaps things will ease off at work soon.
A return visit to your doctor shocks you. This time the doctor, drawing on years of training and experience, diagnoses pneumonia.
This means that you will need bed rest and a considerable time off work. The scenario is transformed. Although you still have the
same symptoms, you no longer think that these are caused by pressure at work. You now have proof that you are ill. This is the
result of the combination of your own subjective experience and the diagnosis of someone who has the status of a medical expert.
You have a medically authenticated diagnosis and it appears that you are seriously ill; you know you are ill and have evidence
upon which to base this knowledge.
E This scenario shows many different sources of knowledge. For example, you decide to consult the doctor in the first place
because you feel unwell—this is personal knowledge about your own body. However, the doctor’s expert diagnosis is based on
experience and training, with sources of knowledge as diverse as other experts, laboratory reports, medical textbooks and years of
experience.
F One source of knowledge is the experience of our own bodies; the personal knowledge we have of changes that might be
significant, as well as the subjective experience of pain and physical distress. These experiences are mediated by other forms of
knowledge such as the words we have available to describe our experience and the common sense of our families and friends as
well as that drawn from popular culture. Over the past decade, for example, Western culture has seen a significant emphasis on
stress-related illness in the media. Reference to being Stressed out 7 has become a common response in daily exchanges in the
workplace and has become part of popular common-sense knowledge. It is thus not surprising that we might seek such an
explanation of physical symptoms of discomfort.
G We might also rely on the observations of others who know us. Comments from friends and family such as 7you do look ill7 or
‘that’s a bad cough7 might be another source of knowledge. Complementary health practices, such as holistic medicine, produce
their own sets of knowledge upon which we might also draw in deciding the nature and degree of our ill health and about possible
treatments.
H Perhaps the most influential and authoritative source of knowledge is the medical knowledge provided by the general
practitioner. We expect the doctor to have access to expert knowledge. This is socially sanctioned. It would not be acceptable to
notify our employer that we simply felt too unwell to turn up for work or that our faith healer, astrologer, therapist or even our
priest thought it was not a good idea. We need an expert medical diagnosis in order to obtain the necessary certificate if we need to
be off work for more than the statutory self-certification period. The knowledge of the medical sciences is privileged in this
respect in contemporary Western culture. Medical practitioners are also seen as having the required expert knowledge that permits
them legally to prescribe drugs and treatment to which patients would not otherwise have access. However there is a range of
different knowledge upon which we draw when making decisions about our own state of health.
I However, there is more than existing knowledge in this little story; new knowledge is constructed within it. Given the doctor 7s
medical training and background, she may hypothesize ‘is this now pneumonia? and then proceed to look for evidence about it.
She will use observations and instruments to assess the evidence and—critically interpret it in the light of her training and
experience. This results in new knowledge and new experience both for you and for the doctor. This will then be added to the
doctor’s medical knowledge and may help in future diagnosis of pneumonia.
Questions 27-32
Complete the table.
Choose no more than three words from the passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 27-32 on your answer sheet
Source of
Examples
knowledge
Personal Symptoms of a (27)……………………… and tiredness
Doctor’s measurement by taking (28)………………….. and
temperature
experience Common judgment from (29)……………………… around
you

Medical knowledge from the general (30)
………………………
Scientific e.g. doctor’s medical(31)………………………………
evidence Examine the medical hypothesis with the previous drill and(32)
……………………………..

Question 33-40
The reading Passage has nine paragraphs A-I
Write the correct letter A-I, in boxes 33-40 on your answer sheet.
33. the contrast between the nature of personal judgment and the nature of doctor’s diagnosis
34. a reference of culture about pressure
35. sick leave will not be permitted without the professional diagnosis
36. how doctors, opinions are regarded in the society
37. the illness of patients can become part of new knowledge
38. a description of knowledge drawn from non-specialized sources other than personal knowledge
39. an example of collective judgment from personal experience and professional doctor
40. a reference that some people do not realize they are ill
ANSWER KEYS
1 Abilities 2 Parents 3 Markets
4 Siblings 5 Experienced 6 NOT GIVEN
7 TRUE 8 TRUE 3 FALSE
10 Firm 11 Simplicity 12 Full version
13 Feedback
14 Tree 15 Sheep 16 Strings
17 Government 18 Steal 19 Grease
20 TRUE 21 NOT GIVEN 22 FALSE
23 TRUE 24 NOT GIVEN 25 TRUE
26 FALSE

Families and
27 Bad cough 28 Blood pressure 29
friends
30 Practitioner 31 Dianosis 32 Background
33 E 34 F 35 H
36 H 37 I 38 G
39 D 40 B
Snug As A Bug In A Rug – Idiom Of The Day For IELTS

Snug As A Bug In A Rug – Idiom Of The Day For IELTS Speaking.
Definition:
Cosy, Comfortable or safe
Example:
“After his cold and wet walk home through the storm, Robert warmed himself by the fire and soon was as snug as a bug in a
rug.“
“Alan: Are you warm enough? Jane: Yes, I’m as snug as a bug in a rug.“
” During the blizzard, we had plenty of firewood and stayed in the cottage, snug as a bug in a rug ?“
Exercise:
“The bedroom in Aunt Jane’s house was cold, but after she wrapped me up in four or five quilts and put a stockingcap on
my head, I was ___________________ and ready to go to sleep.“
A. head over heels in love
B. a bleeding heart
C. hit the nail right on the head
D. snug as a bug in a rug
2. Describe a way to relax that you find effective. Try to use this idiom in your speech. You should say:You should say:
 what you do
 where & when you usually do this
 who you usually do it with

The maps
illustrate the
changes that
have taken
place in a health
care centre
since 2005.
Overall, the
main building
has been
expanded and
restructured.
While the
garden has been
reduced in size,
the car park has
been enlarged to
serve more
patients.
A new minor
operations room has been erected in the top left hand corner of the main building. All the three consulting rooms have been
narrowed and relocated to the bottom right hand corner of the building, and one more consulting room has been established.
The entrance has also been moved to the southwest of the building, next to the new location of the reception desk and in
close proximity to a new children’s play area. Whereas the office has been reduced in size, the main hall has been broadened
and more seats have been added around the hall. The physiotherapy room has remained unchanged since 2005.
The car parking area has been expanded to make room for 18 new parking slots. By contrast, the size of the garden has been
cut down by a half. The fences have been relocated in accordance with the new areas for the car park and the garden.
Some people believe the government should spend money on building train and subway lines to reduce traffic congestion.
Others think that building more and wider roads is the better way to reduce traffic congestion.
Discuss both views and give your opinion.
Band 8.5 Sample Essay:
The methods of mitigating traffic congestion have been a heated topic of controversy. Some people argue that the
construction of larger roads is the answer for the problem. However, I contend that such a solution is ineffective in the long
term, while the option to construct railways and subways is a far better measure.
There is a common fallacy that governmental spending on building larger roads could sustainably address the
problem of traffic congestion. An increase in road size could reduce the traffic intensity in the short term, but larger roads
also mean that the citizens are encouraged to purchase more individual vehicles. This leads to the fact that the
roads, albeit larger, would soon be filled with intense traffic again. For instance, traffic jams returned to Shanghai’s main
streets not long after they were expanded in the early 1990s. In brief, if this solution were implemented, traffic jams would
still persist in the long run.
Rail and subway systems, however, could ensure that traffic congestion is properly addressed. Unlike cars and buses, trains
are capable of transporting hundreds of people simultaneously and thus would meet the transport demand of a vast number
of passengers. Moreover, trains do not have to go through intersections and traffic lights, and dedicated lines ensure their
travel is hardly interrupted. In other words, trains are always on time regardless of the level of traffic. This level of
punctuality would encourage many people to choose railways and subways as their primary means of transport, and the
number of individual vehicles would decrease accordingly. As a result, traffic congestion could be tackled successfully.
The existing data provides a concrete foundation to conclude that building more and larger roads is an unsustainable
measure, while train and subway lines would be a much more effective solution for the problem of traffic congestion.
READING PASSAGE 1
THE ‘BEAUTIFUL’ GAME
A
Every nation has a sport to represent it. In the U.S., there is baseball; in New Zealand, rugby. In the UK, football is the
national sporting obsession. While many UK teams have gained international recognition, Manchester United is among
those most well-known on a global scale. Yet while most people, regardless of the sporting preference or nationality, have
some passing knowledge of Manchester United, fewer can claim knowledge of the origins of the team. Manchester United
came into being in 1902 as a result of bankruptcy of the team formerly known as Newton Heath. Newton Heath began life
as Newton Heath LYR (Lancashire and Yorkshire Railway) club and as the name suggests, the original team was
comprised of railway workers. Despite turning professional in 1885 and becoming the founding member of the Football
Lions in 1889, Newton Heath – nicknamed the ‘Heathens’ – was constantly troubled by financial difficulties.
B
Salvation came in the form of local brewer, John Henry Davis, who agreed to invest in the team on condition of being given
some interest in running it. After consideration of the alternatives titles of Manchester Central and Manchester Celtic, the
club was christened Manchester United in April 1902. United’s first manager, though officially titled Secretary, was Ernest
Mangnall, who was appointed in September 1903, but it was not until the season of 1905/1906, that United experienced its
first taste of success. His side reached the quarterfinals of the F.A, Cup and were runners up in the second division.
C
In 1907, United claimed the championship for the first time and won the first ever Charity Shield trophy in 1908. In the
following year, United claimed the F.A. Cup trophy after beating Bristol City. Manchester United moved to its new
stadium, Old Trafford, in early 1910. The move to the stadium, owned by the John Henry Davis brewery (a Manchester
beer-making company), was proven to be fortunate as on the 17th of February, 1910, two days before the team’s first
scheduled game, the previous stadium Banks Street was destroyed in a fire. The new stadium had a capacity for a crowd of
80,000 spectators and despite losing to their first visiting team Liverpool, Manchester United were once again league
champions at the end of the first full season playing from Old Trafford.
D
The following years were to be less of a success. From 1912 to the onset of the First World War, no significant victories
were achieved. During the war the football league was suspended and only regional competitions took place. 1919 saw the
return of Manchester United to league football with only two of the original members in the team.
E
Although Britain has a long and proud history of football adoration, contemporary football supporters from the UK have
gained a negative reputation for outbursts of violence against rival supporters, earning the label ‘football hooligan’. The
football hooliganism phenomenon has attracted the attention of a number of researchers and psychologists who have
offered theories relating to its causes. It is generally agreed that a combination of factors may initiate this type of anti-social
behaviour and that it is unrealistic to contend that all such behaviour stems from a particular psychological make-up or
belongs to a specific age or class. Experts do however believe that rampaging hooligan behaviour can instil a sense of
belonging and ‘community’ in participants who feel that they can strongly identify with their group, regardless of the fact
that the group’s behaviour is negative.
F
Analysts also argue that the motivations for outbursts of violence experienced in an international setting are even more
complex. Whilst alcohol and xenophobia no doubt play a part they say, some psychologists hold that policing tactics, to a
large degree, dictate the level of disturbance likely to occur. Evidence supports the view that confrontational policing is
much more likely to escalate than calm any incidences of trouble. The media’s actions have also been criticised due to the
belief by some that messages given in newspaper reporting may also exacerbate the existing problem of football
hooliganism.
G
Critics say that certain headlines used by tabloid newspapers may glorify acts of violence and at least, the prolific news
reports which are published in the UK about this issue cause perpetrators to receive undue attention and acknowledgement
for their actions. Whilst few disagree that football hooliganism is a significant social problem, many researchers hold that
sensationalist media reporting may also be creating undue panic since the problem is often presented as much more
widespread than is the reality. Extreme cases of hooliganism from British fans has reduced significantly over recent years,
and while it may take some considerable time for the negative reputation they have earned to subside, it is also true that a
large proportion of supporters have no involvement in violence and simply share a love of the game.
Questions 1 – 3
NB Your answers may be given in any order
Which THREE of the following statements are true of Newton Heath?
A. Newton Heath football club was established in 1902.
B. It was the only Lancashire-based club at the time.
C. It developed from a club with a similar name.
D. It ceased being an amateur team in 1885.
E. It was the most famous British football club of the period.
F. The club experienced economic hitches.
G. Its name changed one more time before becoming Manchester United.
Questions 4 -7
Complete the summary with the list of words A-K below.
Write the correct letter A-K in boxes 4-7 on your answer sheet.
According to expert opinion, there is little 4________________ that football hooliganism occurs as a result of a number of
issues and does not necessarily correlate with age, psychological profile or 5______________. External triggers such as
newspaper reports and antagonistic 6_____________ can be attributed to escalation of the problem in certain situations.
Some psychologists believe that such behaviour and membership of trouble-making groups can give certain individuals a
sense of 7________________ that may otherwise be missing in their lives.
A isolation B policing C anger D occupation
E belief F proof G class H intelligence
I excitement J unity K doubt
Questions 8 -12
Reading Passage 1 has 7 paragraphs A-G.
Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 8-12 on your answer sheet
NB Each paragraph may be used more than once
1. details about stipulations made to offer financial assistance to the club
2. reasons for disruption of national competitions

3. information about why the problem of violence at football matches may be perceived by the general public to be larger than it is.
4. deliberations about the Manchester United name
5. a reference to a new competition
READING PASSAGE 2
CAN WE BELIEVE OUR OWN EYES?
A. An optical illusion refers to a visually perceived image that is deceptive or misleading in that information transmitted
from the eye to the brain is processed in a way that the related assumption or deduction does not represent the true physical
reality. Our perceptions of what we think we see can be influenced by a number of external factors; ‘illusions’ can be
classified into two main categories these being ‘physiological illusions’ and ‘cognitive’ illusions, the latter category can
then be divided again into four sub-types.
B. Physiological illusions occur as a result of excessive stimulation of the eyes and brain which leads to a temporary state of
confusion and mixed messages. For example, after exposure to extremely vivid lights, the eyes may need time to adapt and
immediately after the stimulus, we may see things that would not be the norm. In the same way a contingent perceptual
after-effect may be experienced after staring at a particular colour and the receptors in the brain may process subsequent
colours inaccurately until overload has passed.
C. Cognitive illusions, on the other hand, are said to arise not as a result of neurone activity as with the aforementioned
category, but due to assumptions we may consciously make based on our knowledge and experience of the world. The four
categories of cognitive illusion are ‘ambiguous’ illusions, ‘distorting’ illusions ‘paradox’ illusions and ‘fictional’ illusions.
Inclusion of ‘fictional’ illusions into the cognitive group is somewhat misleading; however, as this type of illusion is unique
in that it is only seen by an individual in a given situation and exists in no tangible form. A fictional illusion is in reality a
hallucination which arises as a result of drug use or a brain condition such as schizophrenia.
D. Ambiguous illusions are pictures or objects which are structured in such a way that alternative perceptions of their
structure are possible. Different individuals may instantly perceive the object or picture in a different way than another and,
in fact, the same individual is often able to see and interpret the image or object in more than one form. A classic example
of an ambiguous illusion is the Necker cube. This cube is a standard line drawing which our visual senses generally
interpret as a three dimensional box. Wien the lines of the box cross, the picture intentionally does not define which is in
front and which is behind. However, when individuals view the box, it is the automatic response of the mind to interpret
what is seen. Generally our thought process patterns work in the way that we view objects from above; for this reason,
when most people look at the Necker Cube they will interpret the lower left face as being the front of the box, the base of
the front face being parallel to the floor as their thought processes convert the image to three dimensions. However, it is
also possible to interpret the image differently in that the front of the box could also be seen to be in a different position.
E. The Necker Cube made contributions to researchers’ understanding of the human visual system, providing evidence that
the brain is a neural network with two distinct and interchangeable states. It has also been used in epistemology – the study
of knowledge – as evidence to disprove the theory upheld by ‘direct realism’ that the way the human mind perceives the
world is the way the world actually is. To illustrate, with the՜ Necker cube we are generally able to see one or both versions
of a three dimensional cube, when in fact only a two dimensional drawing comprised of 12 lines exists.
F. Distorting illusions affect an individual’s ability to judge size, length, or curvature; the Muller-Lyer illusion which
consists of three lines with arrow-like endings is a prime example. In this illusion the middle arrow has both arrow ends
pointing out, while the line above it has arrow’ ends pointing in and the third and final line possesses one inward pointing
and one outward pointing arrow’ end. ¿Most respondents from certain backgrounds generally respond that the middle arrow
is the longest (though all are in fact the same). However, cultural backgrounds affect perceptions related to this illusion;
international research having shown that non-Western subjects, particularly those generally not exposed to rectangular
shaped buildings and door frames in their day to day life, are less likely to misinterpret the true length of the three
drawings.
G. Paradox illusions encourage the mind to believe that we are seeing something we know to be impossible. The Penrose
Stairs and the Penrose Triangle, developed by Lionel Penrose are examples of models created to illustrate this phenomenon.
Many naturally occurring optical illusions also exist. Throughout the world there a number of locations where objects can
be perceived to roll uphill; our cognitive and pre-learned knowledge inform us that this is impossible; however information
received by the visual senses of observers creates conflict. These areas are often known as ‘gravity hills or ‘magnetic’ hills
and are often popular with tourists; the mystical properties of the area often promoted vigorously to add mystique or
claimed to arise as a result of the special properties and magnetic influence of the area’s land.
H. The scientific explanation for such phenomenon is that such areas are set on slightly sloping ground without a visible
horizon against which to establish perspective. In addition, surrounding points of reference we would generally expect to be
perpendicular, such as trees, are in fact on a slope. The interpretation of what observers believe they are experiencing is
therefore confused, downward slopes may be perceived to be horizontal or tilting upwards and cars with hand brakes
released on such ground appear to roll upwards when in fact they a rolling, as gravity dictates, in a downhill direction.
While our innate sense of balance under normal situations helps us determine the inclination of the ground, interference
from the visual stimuli as outlined above and lack of reference from points on the horizon can override this ability in such
situations, especially if the gradient is gentle.
Questions 13 -15
Answer the questions below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
1. What type of illusion is a result of interference with neurone activity?
2. Which two factors influence the way we process information on a cognitive level?
3. Which theory holds that individuals see only the true reality of a situation?
Questions 16 – 20
According to the information in Reading Passage 2, classify the following as relating to
A. Fictional illusions
B. Paradox illusions
C. Distorting illusions
D. Ambiguous illusions
Write the correct letter A-D in boxes 16-20 on your answer sheet.
1. may be perceived differently by individuals of diverse ethnic origin
2. may override our natural ability to make rational judgement
3. may be interpreted differently even by the same subject
4. may result due to chemical stimulation
5. has been used to question the validity of arguments in a different field
Questions 21 – 25
1. Fictional illusions
A. may eventually lead to schizophrenia.

B. are the only type which are completely subjective.
C. are very similar to paradox illusions.
D. are typical of cognitive illusions.
1. According to ambiguous illusion theory, which face of the Necker Cube is interpreted to be the front of the box due to the general tendency
to view objects from above?
1. Which diagram
represents the Muller-Lyer
illusion?
24. The Penrose Stairs

are an example of a
model which
A can persuade the
viewer they are seeing
something infeasible.
B has disproven
established theories on
knowledge.
C is a naturally
occurring paradox
illusion.
D can be seen in a
number of international locations.
1. Occurrences on ‘gravity’ or ‘magnetic’ hills result due to
A the mineral content of soil in the area.

B factors currently unexplained from a scientific perspective.
C misleading natural points of reference.
D rising slopes being misinterpreted as on a decline.
READING PASSAGE 3
GRAVITY
A. Without forces of gravitation, Earth and other planets would be unable to stay in their orbits around the Sun. the Moon
would be unable to orbit the Earth, tidal waves would not occur and the rising of hot air or water convection would be
impossible. Gravitation is a phenomenon winch allows objects to attract other matter; the physics behind it have been
explained in The Theory of Relativity and Newton’s Law of Universal Gravitation; though attempts to explain gravity hail
back to ancient times. In 4th Century B.C. the Greek philosopher Aristotle developed the hypothesis that all objects were
drawn into their correct position by crystalline spheres and that a physical mass would fall towards the earth in direct
proportion to its weight.
B. In the late 16th century Galileo deduced that while gravitation propels all objects to the ground at the same rate, air
resistance resulted in heavier objects appearing to fall more quickly; his theories contradicting earlier belief systems put in
place by Aristotle and others; so paving the way for formulation of the modern theories of today. Though the two terms are
now used interchangeably in layman use, strictly by scientific definition, there are distinct differences between ‘gravitation’
and ‘gravity’. The first relates to the influence exerted by different objects which allow them to attract other objects,
whereas ‘gravity’ refers specifically to the force possessed by such objects which facilitates gravitation. Certain scientific
theories hold that gravitation may be initiated by a combination of factors and not simply the existence of gravity alone;
though doubts have been raised regarding some of these theories.
C. Gravity is directly proportional to mass; a smaller object possessing less gravity. To illustrate, the Moon is a quarter of the
Earth’s size and possesses only 1/6 of its gravity. The mass of the Earth itself is not spread out proportionally, being flatter
at the poles than the equator as a result of its rotation; gravity and gravitational pull in different locations throughout the
world also vary. In the 1960s, as a result of research into the worldwide gravity fields, it was discovered that inexplicably
areas around and including the Hudson Bay area of Canada appeared to possess significantly lower levels of gravity than
other parts of the globe; the reasons for this dissimilarity have since been extensively investigated resulting in two
explanations.
D. The original theory presented attributed this anomaly to activity which occurs 100-200 kilometres below the Earth’s
surface within the layer known as the ‘mantle’. The mantle is comprised of hot molten rock known as magma which flows
under the earth’s surface causing convection currents. These convection currents can result in the lowering of the
continental plates which make up the Earth’s surface, as a result when this occurs, the mass in that area and its gravity is
also reduced. Research findings indicated that such activity had occurred in the Hudson Bay region.
E. More recently a second conjecture suggested that, in fact, lower levels of gravity in the area are a result of occurrences
during the Ice Age. The Laurentidelcesheet, which covered most of Canada and the northern tip of the USA until it melted
10,000 years ago, is thought to have been 3.2 kms thick in most parts and 3.7 kms thick over two areas of Hudson Bay. The
sheer weight of the ice layer weighed down the surface of the earth below, leaving a deep indentation once it had melted,
having caused the area around Hudson Bay to become thinner as the earth’s surface was pushed to the edges of the icesheet.
F. Extensive investigation has since been carried out by the Harvard-Smithsonian Center for Astrophysics using data
collected by satellites during the Gravity Recovery and Climate Experiment (GRACE) between 2002 and 2006. The
satellites are placed 220kms apart and orbit 500kms above Earth. Being extremely sensitive to even minor differences in
gravitational pull of the areas of earth they pass over, as the first satellite enters an area with decreased gravity it moves
slightly away from the earth as the gravitational pull is reduced and also moves slightly further away from the sister satellite
that follows, such activity allowing scientists to create maps of gravitational fields. The GRACE findings also allowed
scientists to estimate the appearance of Hudson Bay over 10,000 years ago, prior to the great thaw. The areas possessing the
lowest gravity today correlate with the areas covered in the thickest layers of ice at that time.
G. Researchers now believe that both theories regarding reduced gravity levels in the Hudson Bay region are accurate and
that the area’s characteristics are a result of both magma activity and the impact of the Laurentidelcesheet. It has been
estimated that the former has resulted in 55-75% of gravity reduction and that pressure resulting from the latter accounts for
25-45%.
H. The effects of the Laurentidelcesheet are reversible due to the earth layer’s capability to ‘rebound’ in response to removal
of the weight which once restricted it. Return to the original position, however, is an extremely slow process; it is estimated
that the area around Hudson Bay will take a further 5,000 years to recover the altitude it once possessed prior to the
Laurentidelcesheet. The rebound activity in the area is also measurable through observation of sea levels; unlike the rest of
the world, sea levels are not rising in the area as a result of melting icecaps, but are dropping as the land recovers its
previous form
I. Research conducted into the Laurentidelcesheet has significant implications on a global scale. The increased knowledge of
how that particular area has changed over time and the long-term implications activity in the Ice Age had, pave the way to a
better understanding of how current changes elsewhere will manifest themselves over the long term.
Questions 26 – 31
Reading Passage 3 has nine paragraphs A-I.
Choose the correct heading for paragraphs B, C and E-H from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number i-x in boxes 26-31 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i. Return to previous form
ii. Substantiating a hypothesis
iii. Historic theories
iv. The general rule of gravity and an exception
v. The initial explanation
vi. How proximity to the poles affected Hudson Bay
vii. Scientific definition and contemporary views
viii. Relevance to our future
ix. An alternative view point
x. Consolidating theories

Example Answer
Paragraph D v
Paragraph I vii
1. Paragraph B
2. Paragraph C
3. Paragraph E
4. Paragraph F
5. Paragraph G
6. Paragraph H
Questions 32 – 36
1. Differentiation between gravity and gravitational pull is generally only made by academics in the field.
2. Gravity levels in areas around the equator are significantly higher than around the poles.
3. It was first believed that lower gravity levels in Hudson Bay could be attributed to its location between the poles and the equator.
4. Molten rock activity within the magma layer has had less of an impact on gravity levels in the Hudson Bay area than the Laurentidelcesheet.
5. The GRACE project’s main focus was areas of Canada and North America once thought to be covered by the Laurentidelcesheet.
Questions 37 – 40
Complete the sentences below with words from the box below.
Write the correct letter A-J in boxes 37- 40 on your answer sheet.
1. The impact of ___________________ on objects falling to the ground was not considered by Aristotle.
2. Investigations of ________________ first led to the discovery of the unusual levels in Hudson Bay.
3. The earth’s surface has been observed to sink as a direct result of ________________
4. The largest proportion of the Laurentideicesheet was _______________ in depth.
A. crystalline spheres B. mass

C. 3.2kms D. continental plates
E. gravity fields F. warming
G. 3.5kms H. mantle layers
I. convection currents J. air resistance
1. C
Paragraph A: ‘Newton Heath began life as Newton Heath LYR (Lancashire and Yorkshire Railway) dub’
1. D
Paragraph A: ‘Despite turning professional in 1885…’

1. F
Paragraph A: ‘was constantly troubled by financial difficulties’

1. K
Paragraph E: ‘It is generally agreed that a combination of factors may initiate this type of anti-social behaviour…’
THEREFORE LITTLE DOUBT
1. G
Paragraph E: ‘psychological makeup or belongs to a specific age or class’
1. B
Paragraph F: ‘Evidence supports the view that confrontational policing is much more likely to escalate than calm any
incidences of trouble’ THEREFORE ANTAGONISTIC POLICING
1. J
Paragraph E: ‘Experts do however believe that rampaging hooligan caninstil a sense of belonging and ‘community’ in
participants who feel that they can strongly identify with their group’ THEREFORE UNITY
1. B
‘John Henry Davis…agreed to invest in the team on condition of being given some interest in running it.’
1. D
‘During the war the football league was suspended and only regional competitions took place.’
1. G
‘sensationalist media reporting, may also be creating undue panic since the problem is often presented as much more
widespread than is the reality’
1. B
‘After consideration of the alternatives titles of Manchester Central and Manchester Celtic, the club was christened
Manchester United’
1. C
‘the first ever Charity Shield trophy’

1. physiological
Paragraph B: ‘Physiological illusions occur as a result of excessive stimulation of the eyes and brain which leads to a
temporary state of confusion and mixed messages.
Paragraph C:’ Cognitive illusions, on the other hand, are said to arise not as a result of neurone activity as with the
aforementioned category’
Therefore it is clear that the physiological illusions must arise from neurone activity, and paragraph B tells us that this is
interference.
1. knowledge and experience
Paragraph C: ‘due to assumptions we may consciously make based on our knowledge and experience of the world.’
1. direct realism
Paragraph E: ‘…’direct realism’ that the way the human mind perceives the world is the way the world actually is.՛
1. C
Paragraph F: ‘However, cultural backgrounds affect perceptions related to this illusion’

1. B
Paragraph G: ‘Paradox illusions encourage the mind to believe that we are seeing something we know to be impossible.’
1. D
Paragraph D: ‘In fact, the same individual is often able to see and interpret the Image or object in more than one form’
1. A
Paragraph C: ‘A fictional illusion is in reality a hallucination which arises as a result of drug use’
1. D
Paragraph E: ‘It has also been used in epistemology – the study of knowledge – as evidence to disprove the theory upheld by
‘direct realism’՛ (This refers to the Necker Cube, which is an example of an ambiguous illusion).
1. B
Paragraph C: “fictional’ ….illusion is unique in that it is only seen by an individual in a given situation and exists in no
tangible form. THEREFORE IT IS SUBJECTIVE
1. A
Paragraph D: ‘when most people look at the Necker Cube they will interpret the lower left face as being the front of the box,
the base of the front face being parallel to the floor՛
1. B
Paragraph F: ‘In this illusion the middle arrow has both arrow ends pointing out, while the line above it has arrow ends
pointing in and the third and final line possesses one inward pointing and one outward pointing arrow end.’
1. A
Paragraph C: ‘Paradox illusions encourage the mind to believe that we are seeing something we know to be impossible…The
Penrose Stairs and the Penrose Triangle …are examples of models created to illustrate this phenomenon.’
1. C
Paragraph H: ‘In addition, surrounding points of reference we would generally expect to be perpendicular, such as trees, are
in fact on a slope. The interpretation of what observers believe they are experiencing is therefore confused’
1. vii
Paragraph B talks about how Galileo introduced theories which were responsible for paving the way for formulation of the
modern theories of today’ and it contains information about definitions of gravity and gravitation.
1. iv
Paragraph C refers to the general rule that ‘gravity is directly proportional to mass’ (e.g. the moon and the earth). Hudson
Bay is the exception to the gravity rule.
1. ix
Paragraph E introduces a ‘second conjecture՛ (the Laurentideicesheet) contributing to low gravity in Hudson Bay. This
makes it an alternative viewpoint to the theory of the effect of molten rock presented in the previous paragraph.
1. ii
Paragraph F refers to the investigations carried out to prove (substantiate in the heading) the theory (hypothesis in the
heading) that the Laurentideicesheet has affected gravity levels in Hudson Bay.
1. x
Paragraph G talks about both the magma and Laurentideicesheet theories

1. i
Paragraph H talks about how the Hudson Bay area will eventually recover from the weight of the Laurentideicesheet.
1. TRUE
Paragraph B: Though the two terms are now used interchangeably in layman use, strictly by scientific definition, there are
distinct differences between ‘gravitation’ and ‘gravity’.՛
1. NOT GIVEN
Paragraph C: The mass of the Earth itself is not spread out proportionally, being much flatter at the poles than the equator as
a result of its rotation; gravity and gravitational pull in different locations throughout the world also vary.’ WE ARE TOLD
THAT GRAVITY AND GRAVITATIONAL PULL AROUND THE WORLD VARIES, BUT NOT THAT IT IS
SIGNIFICANT
1. FALSE
Paragraph D: It was first believed – The original theory presented attributed this anomaly to activity which occurs 100-200
kilometres below the Earth’s surface within the layer known as the ‘mantle’. NO REFERENCE IS MADE TO THE
EQUATOR OR THE POLES
1. FALSE
Paragraph G: The former (magma activity) has resulted in 55 – 75% of gravity reduction…the latter [Laurentideicesheet]
accounts for 25-45%’. THEREFORE IT IS CONTRADICTED THAT MOLTEN ROCK HAD LESS OF AN IMPACT
THAN THE LAURENTIDE ICESHEET.
1. NOT GIVEN
Paragraph F: ‘Extensive investigation has since been carried out by the Harvard-Smithsonian Center for Astrophysics using
data collected by satellites during the Gravity Recovery and Climate Experiment (GRACE) between 2002 and 2006.’
ALTHOUGH THE SECTION IN RED REFERS BACK TO HUDSON BAY, THIS DOES NOT TELL US IT WAS THE
MAIN FOCUS OF THE PROJECT.
1. J .
Paragraph B: ‘…gravitation propels all objects to the ground at the same rate, air resistance resulted in heavier objects
appearing to fall more quickly; his theories contradicting earlier belief systems put in place by Aristotle ‘
1. E
Paragraph C: ‘In the 1960s, as a result of research into the worldwide gravity fields, it was discovered that inexplicably areas
around and including the Hudson Bay area of Canada appeared to possess significantly lower levels of gravity than other
parts of the globe’
1. I
Paragraph D: ‘ These convection currents can result in the lowering of the continental plates which make up the Earth’s
surface՛
1. C
Paragraph E: ‘The Laurentideicesheet, which covered most of Canada and the northern tip of the USA until it melted 10,000
years ago, is thought to have been 3.2 kms thick in most parts’

Stir Up A Hornet’s Nest – Idiom Of The Day For IELTS
Stir Up A Hornet’s Nest – Idiom Of The Day For IELTS Speaking.
Definition:
To cause trouble
Example:
“When the entire family had gathered for Christmas, Uncle Henry came along and stirred up a hornet’s nest by quarrelling with
Grandfather about spending so much money.”
“If you say that to her, you will be stirring up a hornet’s nest.”
“There is no need to stir up a hornet’s nest.“
Exercise:
“His remarks about the lack of good women tennis players __________________________“
A. stirred up a hornet’s nest
B. a bleeding heart
C. hit the nail right on the head
D. snug as a bug in a rug
2. Describe a time when you were asked to give your opinion. Try to use this idiom in your speech. You should say:You should say:
 what the questionnaire/survey was about
 why you were asked to give your opinions
 what opinions you gave

READING PASSAGE 1
REFLECTING ON THE MIRROR
In all likelihood the first mirrors would have simply been pools of water that reflected the image of the one who looked into
it. Nature’s mirror, while cheap and readily accessible, must have also been quite frustrating with the slightest disturbance on
the surface of the water making it difficult to see clearly. It is not altogether clear when the first man-made mirrors were
produced but mirrors made of brass are mentioned in the Bible, and after that mirrors of bronze were in common use among
the ancient Egyptians, Romans and Greeks. In addition to bronze, the Greeks and Romans experimented with polished silver
to produce simple mirrors.
Crude forms of glass mirrors were first made in Venice in 1300. Small sheets of glass were cut from disks made by a
spinning process. When this glass was backed with a covering of tin or lead, a ‘mirror’ resulted. During the early periods of
their development, mirrors were rare and expensive. France had glass factories but only in Venice, Italy was the secret of
mirror foiling know n. The chemical process of coating a glass surface with metallic silver was discovered by German
chemist Justus von Liebig in 1835, and this advance inaugurated the modern techniques of mirror making.
By the end of the 17th century mirrors were made in Britain and the manufacture of mirrors developed subsequently into an
important industry in many other European countries. People wore them in their hats, or set them like jewels in their rings.
Society glittered and shone like the firmament. A little later on, America was gripped by the mirror craze, only this time they
wore interested in larger mirrors. In house after house in residential districts and eastern cities there could be found one long
mirror after another placed between two front parlour windows.
In the manufacture of mirrors today, plate glass is cut to size, and all blemishes are removed by polishing with rouge. The
glass is scrubbed and flushed with a reducing solution before silver is applied. The glass is then placed on a hollow, cast-iron
tabletop, covered with felt, and kept warm by steam. A solution of silver nitrate is poured on the glass and left undisturbed
for about 1 hour. The silver nitrate is reduced to a metallic silver and a lustrous deposit of silver gradually forms. The deposit
is dried, coated with shellac, and painted. Most present-day mirrors therefore, are made up of these layers. Glass is used on
top because it is smooth, clear, and protects the reflective surface. A mirror needs to be very smooth in order for the best
reflection to occur.
Mirrors may have plane or curved surfaces. A curved mirror is concave or convex depending on whether the reflecting
surface faces toward the centre of the curvature or away from it. Curved mirrors in ordinary usage have surfaces of varying
shapes. Perhaps the most common is spherical. Spherical mirrors produce images that are magnified or reduced –
exemplified, by mirrors for applying facial makeup and by rear-view mirrors for vehicles. Cylindrical mirrors are another
common type of shape. These focus a parallel beam ©flight to a linear focus. A paraboloidal mirror is one which is often
used to focus parallel rays to a sharp focus, as in a telescope mirror, or to produce a parallel beam from a source at its focus,
such as a searchlight. A less common but useful shape is the ellipsoidal. Such a mirror will reflect light from one of its two
focal points to the other.
While the mirror is the focus of the production, the frame plays an important albeit slightly lesser role as the anchor by which
the mirror is affixed to its proper place. From the late 17th century onward, mirrors and their frames played an increasingly
important part in the decoration of rooms. Complementing the shiny reflective mirror, the early frames were usually of ivory,
silver, ebony, or tortoiseshell or were veneered with walnut, olive, and laburnum. Needlework and bead frames were also to
be found. Craftsmen such as Grinling Gibbons often produced elaborately carved mirror frames to match a complete
decorative ensemble. The tradition soon became established of incorporating a mirror into the space over the mantelpiece;
many of the early versions of these mirrors, usually known as overmantels, were enclosed in glass frames. The architectural
structure of which these mirrors formed a part became progressively more elaborate. Focusing heavily on the effect created
by mirrors, 18th century designers such as the English brothers Robert and James Adam created fireplace units stretching
from the hearth to the ceiling. Oil the whole, mirror frames reflected the general taste of the time and were often changed to
accommodate alterations in taste – frames usually being cheaper and hence more easily replaced than the mirror itself.
By the end of the 18th century, painted decoration largely supplanted carving on mirrors, the frames being decorated with
floral patterns or classical ornaments. At the same time the French started producing circular mirrors. Usually surrounded by
a neoclassical gilt frame that sometimes supported candlesticks, these mirrors enjoyed great popularity well into the
19th Improved skill in mirror making also made possible die introduction of the cheval glass, a freestanding full-length
mirror, supported on a frame with four feet. These were mainly used for dressing purposes, though occasionally they had a
decorative function. New, cheaper techniques of mirror production in the 19th century led to a great proliferation in their use.
Not only were they regularly incorporated into pieces of furniture – such as wardrobes and sideboards – they were also used
in everything from high-powered telescopes to decorative schemes in public places. Their popularity continues today.
Through them, infants are able to develop an awareness of their individuality through ‘mirror games’. This type of emotional
reflection stimulates babies to move various parts of their body and even promotes verbal utterances.
Questions 1-5
TRUE if the statement agree with the information
1. The Creeks arid Egyptians used polished silver to make mirrors.
2. The first man-made mirrors were made of bronze.
3. Only the wealthy could afford the first mirrors.
4. The first mirrors in America were used for decoration.
5. Spherical mirrors are commonly used in cars.
Questions 6 – 9
Complete the labels on Diagram A below.
Write the correct letter A-J in boxes 6-9 on your answer sheet.
Diagram A: Magnified side-view of a mirror
A. rouge
B. cast iron
C. felt
D. steam
E. shellac
F. glass
G. metal
H. silver nitrate paint
I. reducing solution
Questions 10-13
Choose the correct letter A, B, C, or D.
10. The type of mirror used for looking at the stars is
A. paraboloidal.
B.spherical.
C. cylindrical.
D. ellipsoidal.
11. 17th century craftsmen
A. blended mirror frames well with other household furniture.
B. hung mirrors above fireplaces.
C. used mirror frames as a focus for home decoration.
D. established floral patterns as a standard for mirror frames.
A. designed furniture which highlighted the unique properties of mirrors.
B. experimented largely with mirror frames made of ebony and ivory.
C. built spherically-shaped minors.
D. experimented with ceiling mirrors around fireplaces.
A. used mirrors less than any previous time in history.
B. introduced mirrors as learning tools.
C. used mirrors extensively in bedroom furniture.
D. etched designs into mirrors.
READING PASSAGE 2
EFFORT AND SCIENCE TO WIN
Winning nowadays is not only a question of disciplined training: The triumph of victory today involves the collaboration of
several medical specialists who combine their particular knowledge in an effort to help each athlete to reach their potential.
A. In Mexico, the Medicine Direction and .Applied Sciences of the National Commission of Deporte analyses all aspects of
sports science from the role of the auditory system in sporting achievement to die power of the mind and its role in the ability
to win. Everything, it seems, is open to scrutiny. Recently, the focus has been evaluating the visual acuity of cyclists and
long distance runners but they also focus on the more traditional areas of sports research, among them psychology, nutrition,
anthropology, biochemistry and odontology1. From budding child athletes as young as 9 to the more mature-aged
sportsperson, the facility at Deporte has attracted some of Mexico’s most famous sporting and Olympic hopefuls.
B. “The study of elite athletes is now more scientific than ever” says doctor Francisco Javier Squares, “after each
competition, athletes are exposed to vigorous medical examinations and follow-up training in order to help US arrive at a
program that is tailor-made. “The modern athlete has become big business, no longer is there a one-size-fits-all approach. For
example, in the past two people both 1.70 meters tall and weighing 70 kilograms would have been given the same program
of athletic conditioning – now this idea is obsolete. It may be that the first individual has 35 kgs of muscle and 15 kgs of fat
and the other person, although the same height and weight may have 30 kgs of muscle and 20 kgs of fat. Through detailed
scientific evaluation here at our facility in Deporte,” says Squares, “… we are able to construct a very specific training
programme for each individual.”
C. Whereas many countries in die world focus on the elevation of the glorious champion, the Mexican Olympic team takes a
slightly different approach. Psychologically speaking an athlete must bring to his endeavour a healthy dose of humility. As
Squares said, “When an athlete wins for Mexico, it is always as a result of a combined team effort with many people
operating behind the scenes to realise the sporting achievement. When an athlete stands on the dais, it is because of great
effort on the part of many.”
D. As is often the case in some poorer countries, sportsmen and women are stifled in their development due to budgetary
constraints. However this has not been a factor for consideration with the team in Mexico. The Mexican government has
allocated a substantial sum of money for the provision of the latest equipment and laboratories for sports research. In fact, the
quality of Mexico’s facilities puts them on a par with countries like Italy and Germany in terms of access to resources. One
example of sophisticated equipment used at the Mexican facility is the hyperbaric chamber. This apparatus is used to
enhance oxygen recovery after a vigorous physical workout. Says Squares, “When you breathe the air while inside a
hyperbaric chamber the natural state of the oxygen does not change. Green plants produced the oxygen; modern technology
just increases the air pressure. This does not change the molecular composition of oxygen. Increased pressure just allows
oxygen to get into tissues better. Due to our purchase of the hyperbaric chamber, athletes are able to recover from an intense
workout in a much shorter space of time. We typically use the chamber for sessions of 45 to 60 minutes daffy or three times
per week.”
E. When pushed to the limit, the true indicator of fitness is not how hard the heart operates, but how quickly it can recover
after an extreme workout. Therefore, another focus area of study for the team in Mexico has been the endurance of the heart.
To measure this recovery rate, an electroencephalograph (EEG) is used. The EEG enables doctors to monitor the brainwave
activity from sensors placed on the scalp. Athletes exert intense effort for a sustained period after which they are given time
to rest and recover. During these periods between intense physical exertion and recovery, doctors are able to monitor any
weaknesses in the way the heart responds. The CCG has had a big impact upon our ability to measure the muscular
endurance of the heart.
F. In 1796, the life expectancy of a human being was between 25 and 36 years, in 1886 that number basically doubled to
between 45 and 50. In 1996, the life expectancy of an average Mexican stood at around 75 years. People are living longer
and this is due in large part to the advances of modern science. It is not all sophisticated medical equipment that is playing a
part; although lesser in impact, basic advances in engineering are also greatly assisting. Take for example, a professional
tennis player. In the past, most tennis players’ shoes were constructed with fabric and a solid rubber sole. These shoes were
of poor construction and resulted in hip and foot injuries. Today the technology of shoe construction has radically changed.
Now some shoes are injected with silicone and made of more comfortable, ergonomic 1 construction. This has helped not only
the elite but also the recreational sportsperson and thus, helps in the preservation of the human body.
1
objects designed to be better adapted to the shape of the human body

Questions 14 -17
The passage has eight paragraphs labelled A-F
Write the correct letter A-F in boxes 14-17 on your answer sheet.
1. the natural process of oxygen production
2. standard after-competition procedure
3. the areas of study undertaken to improve athletic performance
4. the Mexican viewpoint on winning
Questions 18 -20
Choose the correct letter A, B, C, or D.
1. The hyperbaric chamber
A. helps athletes to breathe more easily.

B. increases the level of oxygen an athlete breathes.
C. decreases the pressure of the oxygen for Mexican athletes.
D. speeds up recovery time for athletes.
1. The electroencephalograph (EEC)
A. measures how fast brainwaves move during exercise.

B. helps doctors to determine heart problems.
C. measures how hard the heart works during exercise.
D. strengthens the heart muscle in athletes.
1. The life-span of individuals in Mexico has increased due to
A. medical improvements.
B. more committed doctors.
C. better made sporting equipment.
D. advances in ergonomics.
Questions 21-26
In boxes 21 -26 on your answer sheet write
1. There are limits to the level of sporting enquiry.
2. Specific athletic programs differ mostly between men and women
3. Mexico and Germany have similar sporting resources.
4. Lack of money is what stops athletic improvement in some poor countries.

5. Wealthy countries enjoy greater athletic success.
6. Mexican athletes have the support of their government.
READING PASSAGE 3
FUELING THE FUTURE
The world’s 750 million motor vehicles emit well over 900 million metric tonnes of carbon dioxide each year. Traffic-related
air pollution has been responsible for 6% of deaths per year and is associated with certain forms of leukaemia, inflammatory
lung diseases, increased cardio-vascular disease, low birth-weight babies and male infertility. It stands to reason that tackling
traffic- related air pollution should be high on any government’s list of priorities. Thus, in an attempt to minimise this
situation many governments around the world have been looking at ways to implement alternative fuel sources. The most
widely accepted way of doing this is to replace the crude oil that our vehicles currently run on with renewable,
‘environmentally friendly’ One serious contender put forward as a solution to the pollution problem is ethanol.
Ethanol is a type of alcohol made by fermenting plant material. Water and organic matter from the plants including com,
sorghum, sugar cane and wood are mixed together and fermented to make ethanol. After fermentation there are three layers
remaining. The first is water and small particles of grain and alcohol. It takes on a syrup consistency. The second layer is the
remaining grain, which is 17 per cent dry matter. The third layer is the actual ethanol – a colourless, volatile, flammable
liquid. It is the only layer sold and accounts for exactly one-third of the total dry matter used for its production. There are
three primary ways that it is used as a fuel for transportation: as a blend of 10 per cent ethanol with 90% unleaded fuel (E10);
as a component of reformulated gasoline and; as a primary fuel with 85 parts of ethanol blended with 15 parts of unleaded
fuel (E-85). In the 1800s in the USA, it was first used as lamp fuel. Later on , due to skyrocketing oil prices in the 1970s, E10
was produced as a type of ‘fuel-extender’ for vehicles with E-85 being produced in the 1990s. Brazil has also used ethanol-
blended fuels. Like America, the high prices in the 1970s prompted a government mandate to produce vehicles which could
be fuelled by pure ethanol Today there are more than 4,2 million ethanol- powered vehicles in Brazil (40 per cent passenger
carrying) which consume 4 billion gallons of ethanol annually. Today, Brazil is the largest transportation ethanol fuel market
in the world.
Given that Ethanol is made from a variety of plant substances when it is used in fuel production, it increases the monetary
value of feed grains grown by farmers. In fact, in the USA, the largest ethanol consuming nation in the world, ethanol
production adds £4.5 billion to the farm economy every year. According to the United States Department of Agriculture,
ethanol production adds 30 cents to the value of a bushel of corn. Another of its benefits, according to Brian Keating, deputy
chief of Australia’s Commonwealth Scientific and Industrial Research Organisation (CSIRO) is that a 10% ethanol blend
(E10) would reduce greenhouse gas emissions by 2 to 5% over the full lifecycle of ethanol production and consumption. Said
Keating, “The precise benefits depend on specific factors in the production cycle. An important component of which is the
energy source used by the ethanol factory. If it’s being powered by coal or oil, there are obviously associated greenhouse gas
emissions.” In America, The Clean Air Act of 1990 and the National Energy Policy Act of 1992 have both created new
market opportunities for cleaner, more efficient fuels with many state governments in America’s Mid-west purchasing fleet
vehicles capable of running on E-85 fuels.
Although it makes a good fuel, some drawbacks have been documented. The economics of ethanol production are improving
as the technology improves but ethanol has two problems: It does not explode like gasoline, and it can absorb water, which
can cause oxidation, rust and corrosion. The claims of possible damage to vehicles from the use of ethanol blends above 10%
has therefore attracted considerable negative publicity. Compared to diesel – the standard fuel in the heavy moving industry
– ethanol is known to have a lower energy content so ethanol trucks require larger fuel tanks to achieve the same range as a
diesel-powered vehicle. In Australia, a government review’ into the impacts of a 20% ethanol blend on vehicles found the
information to be insufficient or conflicting, but did identify a number of problems such as the possible perishing and
swelling of elastomeric and plastic materials in fuel systems. Stakeholders in the motor vehicle industry have slated that
warranties on motor vehicles and pump dispensing equipment could be at risk with the use of blends above 10% ethanol.
Principle economist for the Australian Bureau of Agriculture Andrew Dickson points out that the money sugarcane growers
get for their cane is not determined by the domestic consumption or domestic demand for ethanol, it is entirely determined by
the world sugar market and the world trade in molasses He believes that the only way the sugar industry’ can benefit from
the existence of an ethanol industry is if they invest in the ethanol industry. “The sugar producer does not get any more
money for their molasses so what incentive do they have to produce any more?.” The cost of production also represents some
challenges. In Australia, fuel ethanol costs around 70 cents per litre compared with around 35 cents per litre for unleaded
petrol. In America, one report revealed that even with government assistance, ethanol is dose to 35 per cent more than the
price of diesel. Consequently, production of ethanol requires government assistance to be competitive. A recent study by the
Australian Bureau of Agricultural and Resource Economies found that without assistance, large-scale production of ethanol
would not be commercially viable in Australia.
Regardless of whether the Australian sugar industry will benefit from a mandated 10% ethanol mix, the expansion of ethanol
production would certainly lead to increased economic activity in farming areas. It is inevitable that some expansion would
be at the expense of existing industry. If ethanol becomes more popular, there will soon be more plants producing it. This
means there will be a need for workers for the plants. The American National Ethanol Vehicle Coalition (NBVC) projects
that employment will be boosted by 200,000 jobs and the balance of trade will be improved by over $2 The future of ethanol
looks promising, for better or worse ethanol looks to be a serious contender for tomorrow’s fuel.
Questions 27 -31
1. The need to control air pollution is why ethanol came into use.
2. Brazil uses more ethanol for transportation than America.
3. Select food crops become more expensive due to ethanol production
4. The Australian sugar industry will benefit from the production of ethanol.
5. Primary ethanol (E-85) has been extensively tested in Australia.
Questions 32 – 35
Look at the following list of descriptions (Questions 32-35) and the list of fuel types below.
Match each description to the fuel type.
Write the correct letter A-D in boxes 32-35 on your answer sheet.
32. costs about half the price of ethanol
33. reacts poorly with some metals
34. is the reason why trucks have been fitted with larger fuel tanks
35. commonly used in the trucking industry
A. regular gasoline
B. unleaded gasoline
C. ethanol
D. diesel
Question 36 – 40
Classify the following statements according to which country they apply to. Write the appropriate letters A-D in boxes 36-
40 on your answer sheet.
A. Australia only
B. America only
C. both Australia and America
D. neither Australia nor America
36. makes ethanol out of sugar cane
37. uses more ethanol than any other country in the world
38. receives government assistance for ethanol production
39. proved ethanol production is costly
40. their government bought ethanol-friendly cars

1. F
The key words are “Greeks, Egyptians, polished silver, make mirrors” – scan for them and/or their synonyms
Locate the words, “… Greeks and Romans experimented with polished silver to produce simple mirrors.”
1. F
The key words are “first mirrors, bronze” – scan for them and/or their synonyms.
Locate the words, “… first man-made mirrors were produced but mirrors made of brass are mentioned in the Bible”
1. T
The key words are ‘wealthy, afford, first mirrors” – scan for them and/or their synonyms.
Locate the words, ‘During the early periods of their development, mirrors were rare and expensive”.
1. NG

1. T
The key words are ’spherical mirrors, cars”.

Locate the words, “Spherical mirrors… (are used as) rear-view mirrors for vehicles.
1. H
Locate the section of the reading passage which discusses how a mirror is made (the 4th one).
Carefully scan for the key words mentioned in the question (box) and in the passage. Note the words, “A solution of silver
nitrate is poured on the glass and left undisturbed for about 1 hour”
1. E
Locate the section of the reacting passage which discusses how a mirror is made (the 4th one).
Carefully scan for the key words mentioned in the question (box) and in the passage. Note the words, “The deposit (the silver
nitrate) is dried, coated with shellac…”
1. I
Locate the section of the reading passage which discusses how a minor is made (the 4th one).
Carefully scan for the key words mentioned in the question (box) and in the passage. Note the words, “The deposit (the silver
nitrate) is dried, coated with shellac and painted.”
1. F
Locate the section of the reading passage which discusses how a mirror is made (the 4″‘ one).
Carefully scan for the key words mentioned in the question (box) and in the passage. Note the words, “Glass is used on
top because it is smooth, dear, and protects the reflective surface.”
1. A
The 5th paragraph discusses the uses of mirrors.

Notice the mention of telescopes these are used to look at stars.
Notice the words, “A paraboloidal mirror is one which is often used… in a telescope mirror”.
1. A
The answer is located in the second last paragraph.

Notice the words, “Craftsmen…often produced elaborately carved mirror frames to match a complete decorative ensemble.”
If something matches, it blends in well with something else.
1. A
The answer is located in the second last paragraph.

Notice the words, ‘Focusing heavily on the effect created by mirrors, 18th century designers…”
The uniqueness of mirror properties was therefore the focus.
1. C
The answer is located in the last paragraph.

Notice the words,”… they (craftsmen) regularly incorporated (mirrors) into pieces of furniture – such as wardrobes and
sideboards…”
This is very similar to saying that mirrors were used extensively in bedroom furniture.
1. D
The key words are “natural process, oxygen production”

Note in paragraph D, “Green plants produced the oxygen…”
1. B
Note in paragraph B,”… after each competition, athletes are exposed to vigorous medical examinations and follow-up
training…”
1. A
Note in paragraph A,”… analyses all aspects of sports science from the role of the auditory system in sporting achievement
to the power of the mind and its role in the ability to win. Everything, it seems, is open to scrutiny. Recently, the focus has
been evaluating the visual acuity of cyclists and long distance runners but they also focus on the more traditional areas of
sports research, among them psychology, nutrition, anthropology, biochemistry and odontology.
1. C
Note in paragraph C, “When an athlete wins for Mexico, it is always as a result of a combined team effort…”
1. D
Scan the text looking for they key words ‘hyperbaric chamber”
Paragraph D discusses this
Notice the words, “Due to our purchase of the hyperbaric chamber, athletes are able to recover from an intense workout in a
much shorter space of time.”
1. B
Scan the text looking for they key words “electroencephalograph (EEC)”.
Paragraph E discusses this
Notice the words, “doctors are able to monitor any weaknesses in the way the heart responds.”
1. A
Scan for the text looking for they key words “life-span, individuals, Mexico, increased”.
Paragraph F deals with these issues
Notice the words, “People are living longer and this Is due In large part to the advances of modern science.”
1. F
Locate the words.. “Everything (i.e. all sports enquiry), it seems, is open to scrutiny.’
1. NG

1. T
Locate the words, “tine quality of Mexico’s facilities puts them on a par with…Germany in terms of access to resources”
1. T
Locate the words, “poorer countries, sportsmen and women are stifled in their development due to budgetary constraints.”
1. NG

1. T
Locate the words, “The Mexican government has allocated a substantial sum of money for the provision of the latest
equipment…”
1. N
In the 2nd paragraph locate the words, “… it was first used as lamp fuel. Later on, due to skyrocketing oil prices in the 1970s,
E10 was produced…”
1. Y
In the 2nd paragraph locate the words, “Today, Brazil is the largest transportation ethanol fuel market in the world.”
1. Y
Locate the 3rd paragraph the words, it increases the monetary value of feed grains grown by farmers.”
1. N
Locate in the 4th paragraph the words, the money sugarcane growers get for their cane is not determined by the domestic
consumption or domestic demand for ethanol…”
1. NG

1. B
Locate the sentence in the 4th paragraph which states, “In Australia, fuel ethanol costs around 70 cents per litre compared
with around 35 cents per litre for unleaded petrol,”
The answer is unleaded gasoline.
1. C
Locate the sentence in the 4th paragraph which states, “… it (ethanol) can absorb water, which can cause oxidation, rust and
corrosion.”
The answer is ethanol.
1. C
Look for the sentence in the 4″‘ paragraph which states, “… ethanol trucks require larger fuel tanks to achieve the same
range as a diesel-powered vehicle
The answer is ethanol.
1. D
Locate the sentence in the 4th paragraph which states, “Compared to diesel – the standard fuel in the heavy moving
industry..,”
The answer is diesel.
1. A
Locate the words in the 4lh paragraph, “Australian Bureau of Agriculture… points out that the money sugarcane growers get
for their cane..,”
By scanning the passage for the key words, you should have noticed that other than Australia, there is no other incidence of
sugar cane being used for ethanol production.
1. B
Locate the words in the 3rd paragraph, “In fact, in the USA, the largest ethanol consuming nation in the world…”
Note: Brazil uses the most for transportation, but America uses the most overall.
1. B
Locate the words in the 4th paragraph, “In America, one report revealed that even with government assistance, ethanol is
close to 25 percent more than the price of diesel.”
1. C
Locate the words in the 4th paragraph, ‘The cost of production also represents some challenges. In Australia, fuel ethanol
costs around 70 cents per litre compared with around 35 cents per litre for unleaded petrol. In America, one report revealed
that even with government assistance, ethanol is close to 35 percent more than the price of diesel.”
The challenge is that it is costly to produce ethanol.
1. B
Locate the words in the 3rd paragraph, “… more efficient fuels with many state governments in America’s Mid-west
purchasing fleet vehicles capable of running on E-85 fuels.”

SECTION 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Shading Passage 1 below.
Ants Could Teach Ants
A The ants are tiny and usually nest between rocks in the south coast of England. Transformed into research subjects at the
University of Bristol, they raced along a tabletop foraging for food – and then, remarkably, returned to guide others. Time and
again, followers trailed behind leaders, darting this way and that along the route, presumably to memorise landmarks. Once a
follower got its bearings, it tapped the leader with its antennae, prompting the lesson to literally proceed to the next step. The
ants were only looking for food, but the researchers said the careful way the leaders led followers 一 thereby turning them into
leaders in their own right -marked the Temnothorax albipennis ant as the very first example of a non-human animal exhibiting
teaching behaviour.
B “Tandem running is an example of teaching, to our knowledge the first in a non-human animal, that involves bidirectional
feedback between teacher and pupil” remarks Nigel Franks, professor of animal behaviour and ecology, whose paper on the ant
educators was published last week in the journal Nature.
C No sooner was the paper published, of course, than another educator questioned it. Marc Hauser, a psychologist and
biologist and one of the scientists who came up with the definition of teaching, said it was unclear whether the ants had learned
a new skill or merely acquired new information.
D Later, Franks took a further study and found that there were even races between leaders. With the guidance of leaders, ants
could find food faster. But the help comes at a cost for the leader, who normally would have reached the food about four times
faster if not hampered by a follower. This means the hypothesis that the leaders deliberately slowed down in order to pass the
skills on to the followers seems potentially valid. His ideas were advocated by the students who carried out the video project
with him.
E Opposing views still arose, however. Hauser noted that mere communication of information is commonplace in the animal
world. Consider a species, for example, that uses alarm calls to warn fellow members about the presence .Sounding the alarm
can be costly, because the animal may draw the attention of the predator to itself. But it allows others flee to safety. “Would
you call this teaching? “wrote Hauser. “The caller incurs a cost. The naive animals gain a benefit and new knowledge that
better enables them to learn about the predator’s location than if the caller had not called. This happens throughout the animal
kingdom, but we don’t call it teaching, even though it is clearly transfer of information.”
F Tim Caro, a zoologist, presented two cases of animal communication. He found that cheetah mothers that take their cubs
along on hunts gradually allow their cubs to do more of the hunting —going, for example, from killing a gazelle and allowing
young cubs to eat merely tripping the gazelle and letting the cubs finish it off. At one level, such behaviour might be called
teaching — except the mother was not really teaching the cubs to hunt but merely facilitating various stages of learning. In
another instance, birds watching other birds using a stick to locate food such as insects and so on, are observed to do the same
thing themselves while finding food later.
G Psychologists study animal behaviour in part to understand the evolutionary roots of human behaviour, Hauser said. The
challenge in understanding whether other animals truly teach one another, he added, is that human teaching involves a “theory
of mind” teachers are aware that students don’t know something. He questioned whether Franks’ leader ants really knew that
the follower ants were ignorant. Could they simply have been following an instinctive rule to proceed when the followers
tapped them on the legs or abdomen? And did leaders that led the way to food 一 only to find that it had been removed by the
experimenter – incur the wrath of followers? That, Hauser said, would suggest that the follower ant actually knew the leader
was more knowledgeable and not merely following an instinctive routine itself.
H The controversy went on, and for a good reason. The occurrence of teaching in ants, if proven to be true, indicates that
teaching can evolve in animals with tiny brains. It is probably the value of information in social animals that determines when
teaching will evolve, rather than the constraints of brain size.
I Bennett Galef Jr., a psychologist who studies animal behaviour and social learning at McMaster University in
Canada，maintained that ants were unlikely to have a “theory of mind” 一 meaning that leaders and followers may well have
been following instinctive routines that were not based on an understanding of what was happening in another ant’s brain. He
warned that scientists may be barking up the wrong tree when they look not only for examples of humanlike behaviour among
other animals but humanlike thinking that underlies such behaviour. Animals may behave in ways similar to humans without a
similar cognitive system, he said, so the behaviour is not necessarily a good guide into how humans came to think the way they
do.
Questions 1-5
Look at the following statements (Questions 1-5) and the list of people in the box below. Match each statement with the correct
person, A，B C orD.
Write the correct letter, A, B，C orD, in boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet
1. Animals could use objects to locate food.
2. Ants show two-way, interactive teaching behaviours.
3. It is risky to say ants can teach other ants like human beings do,
4. Ant leadership makes finding food faster.
5. Communication between ants is not entirely teaching.
List of people
A Nigel Granks
B Marc Hauser
C Tim Caro
D Bennet Galef Jr
Questions 6-9
Choose FOUR letters, A-H.
Which FOUR of the following behaviours of animals are mentioned in the passage?
A touch each other with antenna
B alert others when there is danger
C escape from predators
D protect the young
E hunt food for the young
F fight with each other
G use tools like twigs
H feed on a variety of foods
Questions 10-13
NOT GIVEN
passage
10. Ants,’ tandem running involves only one-way communication.
11. Franks’s theory got many supporters immediately after publicity.
12. Ants’ teaching behaviour is the same as that of human.
13. Cheetah share hunting gains to younger ones
SECTION 2
Wealth in a cold climate
A Dr William Masters was reading a book about mosquitoes when inspiration struck. “There was this anecdote about the great
yellow fever epidemic that hit Philadelphia in 1793,” Masters recalls. “This epidemic decimated the city until the first frost
came.” The inclement weather froze out the insects, allowing Philadelphia to recover
B If weather could be the key to a city’s fortunes, Masters thought, then why not to the historical fortunes of nations? And
could frost lie at the heart of one of the most enduring economic mysteries of all — why are almost all the wealthy,
industrialised nations to be found at latitudes above 40 degrees? After two years of research, he thinks that he has found a piece
of the puzzle. Masters, an agricultural economist from Purdue University in Indiana, and Margaret McMillan at Tufts
University, Boston, show that annual frosts are among the factors that distinguish rich nations from poor ones. Their study is
published this month in the Journal of Economic Growth. The pair speculates that cold snaps have two main benefits — they
freeze pests that would otherwise destroy crops, and also freeze organisms, such as mosquitoes, that carry disease. The result is
agricultural abundance a big workforce
C The academics took two sets of information. The first was average income for countries, the second climate data from the
University of East Anglia. They found a curious tally between the sets. Countries having five or more frosty days a month are
uniformly rich; those with fewer than five are impoverished. The authors speculate that the five-day figure is important; it
could be the minimum time needed to kill pests in the soil. Masters says: “For example, Finland is a small country that is
growing quickly, but Bolivia is a small country that isn’t growing at all. Perhaps climate has something to do with that.” In
fact, limited frosts bring huge benefits to farmers. The chills kill insects or render them inactive; cold weather slows the break-
up of plant and animal material in the soil, allowing it to become richer; and frosts ensure a build-up of moisture in the ground
for spring, reducing dependence on seasonal rains. There are exceptions to the “cold equals rich” argument. There are well-
heeled tropical countries such as Hong Kong and Singapore (both city-states, Masters notes), a result of their superior trading
positions. Likewise, not all European countries axe moneyed — in the former communist colonies, economic potential was
crushed by politics.
D Masters stresses that climate will never be the overriding factor 一 the wealth of nations is too complicated to be attributable
to just one factor. Climate, he feels, somehow combines with other factors — such as the presence of institutions, including
governments, and access to trading routes — to determine whether a country will do well. Traditionally, Masters says,
economists thought that institutions had the biggest effect on the economy, because they brought order to a country in the form
of, for example, laws and property rights. With order, so the thinking went, came affluence. “But there are some problems that
even countries with institutions have not been able to get around,” he says. “My feeling is that, as countries get richer, they get
better institutions. And the accumulation of wealth and improvement in governing institutions are both helped by a favourable
environment, including climate.
E This does not mean, he insists, that tropical countries are beyond economic help and destined to remain penniless. Instead,
richer countries should change the way in which foreign aid is given. Instead of aid being geared towards improving
governance, it should be spent on technology to improve agriculture and to combat disease. Masters cites one example: “There
are regions in India that have been provided with irrigation — agricultural productivity has gone up and there has been an
improvement in health.” Supplying vaccines against tropical diseases and developing crop varieties that can grow in the tropics
would break the poverty cycle.
F Other minds have applied themselves to the split between poor and rich nations, citing anthropological, climatic and
zoological reasons for why temperate nations are the most affluent. In 350BC, Aristotle observed that “those who live in a cold
climate . . . are full of spirit”. Jared Diamond, from the University of California at Los Angeles, pointed out in his book Guns,
Germs and Steel that Eurasia is broadly aligned east-west, while Africa and the Americas are aligned north-south. So, in
Europe, crops can spread quickly across latitudes because climates are similar. One of the first domesticated crops, einkorn
wheat, spread quickly from the Middle East into Europe; it took twice as long for corn to spread from Mexico to what is now
the eastern United States. This easy movement along similar latitudes in Eurasia would also have meant a faster dissemination
of other technologies such as the wheel and writing, Diamond speculates. The region also boasted domesticated livestock,
which could provide meat, wool and motive power in the fields. Blessed with such natural advantages, Eurasia was bound to
take off economically.
G John Gallup and Jeffrey Sachs, two US economists, have also pointed out striking correlations between the geographical
location of countries and their wealth. They note that tropical countries between 23.45 degrees north and south of the equator
are nearly all poor. In an article for the Harvard International Review, they concluded that “development surely seems to
favour the temperate-zone economies, especially those in the northern hemisphere, and those that have managed to
avoid both socialism and the ravages of war”. But Masters cautions against geographical determinism, the idea that tropical
countries are beyond hope: “Human health and agriculture can be made better through scientific and technological research,”
he says, “so we shouldn’t be writing off these countries. Take Singapore: without air conditioning, it wouldn’t be rich.”
Questions 14-20
The reading passage has seven paragraphs, A-G
Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-G from the list below.
Write the correct number, i-x, in boxes 14-20 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i. The positive correlation between climate and wealth
ii. Other factors besides climate that influence wealth
iii. Inspriation from reading a book
iv. Other researchers’ results do not rule out exceptional cases
v. different attributes between Eurasiaand Africa
vi. Low temperature benefits people and crops
vii. The importance of institution in traditional views.
viii. The spread of crops in Europe, Asia and other places
ix. The best way to use aid
x. confusions and exceptional
14. Paragraph A
15. Paragraph B
16. Paragraph C
17. Paragraph D
18. Paragraph E
19. Paragraph F
20. Paragraph G
Questions 21-26
Summary
Complete the following summary of the paragraphs of Reading Passage, using no more than two words from the Reading
Passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 21-26 on your answer sheet.
Dr William Master read a book saying that a(an) 21 ………………………….. which struck an American city of years ago was
terminated by a cold frost. And academics found that there is a connection between climate and country’s weathy as in the rich
but small country of 22……………………….; Yet besides excellent surroundings and climate ， one country still need
to improve both their 23…………………………….. to achieve long prosperity,
Thanks to resembling weather condition across latitude in the continent of 24………………….. ’crops such as
25 ………………….. is bound to spread faster than from South America to the North. Other researchers also noted that even
though geographical factors are important,tropical country such as 26………………………………. still became rich due to
scientific advancement.
SECTION 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-14 which are based on Reading Passage below.
Compliance or Noncompliance
for children
A Many Scientists believe that socialization takes a long process, while compliance is the outset of it. Accordingly, compliance
for education of children is the priority. Motivationally distinct forms of child compliance, mutually positive affect, and
maternal control, observed in 3 control contexts in 103 dyads of mothers and their 26-41-month-old children, were examined
as correlates of internalization, assessed using observations of children while alone with prohibited temptations and maternal
ratings. One form of compliance (committed compliance), when the child appeared committed wholeheartedly to the maternal
agenda and eager to endorse and accept it, was emphasized. Mother-child mutually positive affect was both a predictor and a
concomitant of committed compliance. Children who shared positive affect with their mothers showed a high level of
committed compliance and were also more internalized. Differences and similarities between children’s compliance to requests
and prohibitions (“Do 〃 vs. “Don’t” demand contexts) were also explored. Maternal “Dos” appeared more challenging to
toddlers than the “Don’ts.” Some individual coherence of behavior was also found across both demand contexts. The
implications of committed compliance for emerging internalized regulators of conduct are discussed.
B A number of parents were not easy to be aware of the compliance， some even overlooked their children’s noncompliance.
Despite good education, these children did not follow the words from their parents on several occasion ‘especially boys in
certain ages. Fortunately, this rate was acceptable; some parents could be patient with the noncompliance. .Someone held that
noncompliance is probably not a wrong thing. In order to determine the effects of different parental disciplinary techniques on
young children’s compliance and noncompliance, mothers were trained to observe emotional incidents involving their own
toddler-aged children. Reports of disciplinary encounters were analyzed in terms of the types of discipline used (reasoning,
verbal prohibition, physical coercion, love withdrawal, and combinations thereof) and children’s responses to that discipline
(compliance/ noncompliance and avoidance). The relation between compliance/ noncompliance and type of misdeed (harm to
persons, harm to property, and lapses of self-control) was also analyzed. Results indicated that love withdrawal combined with
other techniques was most effective in securing children’s compliance and that its effectiveness was not a function of the type
of technique with which it was combined. Avoidant responses and affective reunification with the parent were more likely to
follow love withdrawal than any other technique. Physical coercion was somewhat less effective than love withdrawal, while
reasoning and verbal prohibition were not at all effective except when both were combined with physical coercion.
C Noncompliant Children sometimes prefer to say no directly as they were younger, they are easy to deal with the relationship
with contemporaries. when they are growing up .During the period that children is getting elder, who may learn to use more
advanced approaches for their noncompliance. They are more skillful to negotiate or give reasons for refusal rather than show
their opposite idea to parents directly/’ Said Henry Porter, scholar working in Psychology Institute of UK. He indicated that
noncompliance means growth in some way, may have benefit for children. Many Experts held different viewpoints in recent
years, they tried drilling compliance into children. His collaborator Wallace Freisen believed that Organizing child’s daily
activities so that they occur in the same order each day as much as possible. This first strategy for defiant children is ultimately
the most important. Developing a routine helps a child to know what to expect and increases the chances that he or she will
comply with things such as chores, homework, and hygiene requests. When undesirable activities occur in the same order at
optimal times during the day, they become habits that are not questioned, but done without thought.
Chances are that you have developed some type of routine for yourself in terms of showering, cleaning your house, or doing
other types of work. You have an idea in your mind when you will do these things on a regular basis and this helps you to
know what to expect. In fact, you have probably already been using most of these compliance strategies for yourself without
realizing it. For children, without setting these expectations on a daily basis by making them part of a regular routine, they can
become very upset. Just like adults, children think about what they plan to do that day and expect to be able to do what they
want. So, when you come along and ask them to do something they weren’t already planning to do that day, this can result in
automatic refusals and other undesirable defiant behavior. However, by using this compliance strategy with defiant children,
these activities are done almost every day in the same general order and the child expects to already do them.
D Doctor Steven Walson addressed that organizing fun activities to occur after frequently refused activities. This strategy also
works as a positive reinforcer when the child complies with your requests. By arranging your day so that things often refused
occur right before highly preferred activities, you are able to eliminate defiant behavior and motivate your child’s behavior of
doing the undesirable activity. This is not to be presented in a way that the preferred activity is only allowed if a defiant child
does the non-preferred activity. However, you can word your request in a way so that your child assumes that you have to do
the non-preferred activity before moving on to the next preferred activity. For example, you do not want to say something such
as, “If you clean your room we can play a game.” Instead word your request like this,”As soon as you are done cleaning your
room we will be able to play that really fun game you wanted to play.”
E Psychologist Paul Edith insisted praise is the best way to make children to comply with. This is probably a common term
you are used to hearing by now. If you praise your child’s behavior, he or she will be more likely to do that behavior. So, it is
essential to use praise when working with defiant children. It also provides your child with positive attention. However, it is
important to know how to praise children in a way that encourages future automatic reinforcement for your child when doing a
similar behavior.
Questions 27-31
Write the correct letter in boxes 27-31 on your answer sheet,
27. The children, especially boys received good education may
A always comply with their parents, words
B be good at math
C have a high score at school
D disobey their parents’ order sometimes
28. to their children’s compliance and noncompliance，parents
A must be aware of the compliance
B ask for help from their teachers
C some of them may ignore their noncompliance
D pretend not to see
29. According to Henry Porter noncompliance for children
A are entirely harmful
B may have positive effects
C needs medicine assistance
D should be treated by expert doctor
30. When children are growing up. they
A always try to directly say no
B are more skillful to negotiate
C learn to cheat instead of noncompliance
D tend to keep silent
31. Which is the possible reaction the passage mentioned for elder children and younger ones if they don’t want to comply with
the order
A elder children prefer to refuse directly
B elder ones refuse to answer
C younger children may reject directly
D younger ones may save any words
Questions 32-35
Look at the following people and list of statements below.
32 Henry Porter
33 Wallace Freisen
34 Steven Walson
35 Paul Edith
List of statements
A children of all ages will indirectly show noncompliance
B elder children tend to negotiate rather than show noncompliance
C converse behavior means noncompliance
D organizing fun activities to occur after frequently refused activities
E organizing child’s daily activities in the same order as much as possible.
F use praise in order to make children compliant
G take the children to school at a early age
Questions 36-40
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage? In boxes 36-40 on your answer
sheet，write
NOT GIVEN
passage
36. Socialization takes a long process, while compliance is the beginning of it.
37. Many parents were difficult to be aware of the compliance or noncompliance.
38. Noncompliant Children are simple to deal with the relationship with the people in the same age when they are growing up.
39. Experts never tried drilling compliance into children.
40. Psychologist Paul Edith negated the importance that knowing how to praise children in a encouraged way.
ANSWER KEYS
1 C 2 A 3 D
4 A 5 B 6 A
7 B 8 E 3 G
10 NO 11 NOT GIVEN 12 NOT GIVEN
13 YES
14 iii 15 vi 16 i
17 ii 18 ix 19 v
20 iv 21 ( yellow – 22 Finland
fever)
epidemic
Governing
23 24 Europe 25 Einkorn Wheat
institutions
26 Singapore
27 D 28 C 29 B
30 B 31 C 32 B
33 E 34 D 35 F
36 NOT GIVEN 37 YES 38 YES
39 NO 40 NO

IELTS Cue Card Sample 77 – Topic: A Time You Need to Use Imagination
Describe a time you needed to use your imagination.
You should say:
What the situation was
Why you needed to use imagination
What the difficulties were
And explain how you felt about it.
Sample Answers
Honestly, I had to admit that I am quite a down-to-earth person and barely either spend time imagining or day dreaming.
However, every now and then in school life, imagination is life saver in remembering the knowledge imparted, especially in
the subject of History. Indeed, envisaging a chain of images and actions inside my head based on the story or series of events
in the book enabled me to acquire new things way more efficiently. For instance, in the time of learning about the history of
chocolate, by utilizing the technique of imagine and envisage the image, just like making a movie inside my head, I could
remember quickly a quite enormous knowledge and can still recall today. I can tell you that wild chocolate trees can grow
easily in the humid Amazon rainforest. Clusters of flowers from these trees turn to seeds. Approximately 20 to 60 cacao beans,
which are the ingredient needed to create sweet, soothing and delicious chocolate treats, can be found in the seeds. The
Mayan and Aztec cultures both thought that chocolate trees are brought from paradise by God. They used the bean from
this divine tree to create a special beverage with a very pleasant odor. Gradually, the treats and drinks made of these beans
become prominent and millions of people around the world adore it as the most delicious sweet ever. Making my own film
using the imagination in fact helps me to obtain knowledge like a piece of cake.

Other way to answer:
Outline:
a. What the situation was (Past tense)
 Joined a T-shirt Design Competition with the aim to incentivize people to protect the environment ==> think outside the box to come up with the best
ideas to have a outstanding design.
 However,
– Feel stressed out because: senior ==> undergo a nerve-racking period of time (in the middle of finals, internship) ==> always up to my neck in
tests & thesis
– design T-shirt -> challenging -> don’t have a knack for art and not major in fashion
==> easier if this is a Math competition, which is my forte

b. Why you needed to use imagination
– want to come up with something NOT run-of-the-mill
-> need to think outside the box
– competitive competition ==> make the best of my creativity to produce a brilliant design
c. What the difficulties were
I was met with a number of difficulties
+ finance/ budget -> limited (student – meager income)
+ ideas: resemble others
outdated -> the judges expect something up to the minute
+ time limited ==> work against the clock
d. How you felt

– a great sense of achievement (well-received by judges and ended up in 2nd place)
-> take lots of pride in my accomplishment


Sample Answers:
The diagram illustrates how smoked fish is produced in a small scope. There are eight main steps in the process of smoking
fish, beginning with collecting fish and ending with delivery of smoked fish to the customers.
The first step of the process is fish handling, the preliminary processing of raw fish, which means that fish will be washed,
removed loose scales and slime, then gutted and if required beheaded. This primary treatment process is followed by the
manufacture of fish product with the next seven stages. The second steps is to add salt to water in a container, where the fish
is soaked anywhere in 30 minutes. After brining, fish is heated in 5 minutes, followed by the suspension of them to dry.
At the fifth step shown on the diagram, fish are put in a vat, which precedes the use of wood and smudging during 30
minutes to cure the fish. Before putting it back in the container for storage and delivery to customers by truck, fish colored
yellow by injecting fluid in fish, using syringe.
Studies show that criminals get low level of education. Some people believe that the best way to reduce the crime is
educating people in prison so they can get a job after leaving prison.
To what extent do you agree or disagree?
Sample Essay:
Education for offenders during imprisonment as a method to reduce the rate of crime has evolved as major topic of concern
in today’s society. While I agree that such a solution is effective to reduce crime, I am convinced that it is far from being the
best method and there are many better ways of reducing crime.
I accept that education for prisoners may contribute to the reduction of the crime rate. The primary reason is that such a form
of education could provide offenders with the working skills that are essential when they return to the community. With
improved job prospects, prisoners may therefore earn a living after leaving the prison and are less likely to commit a
crime again. Another significant reason is that education could show the offenders that they are still valued by society. As a
consequence, they may feel an enhanced sense of humanity and community, and become better citizens after their prison
years. These people may then inspire many other people to live without crime.
However, I am firmly of the opinion that education for offenders is not the best solution to reduce crime. This form of
education is offered only to those who have committed a crime, and therefore has far less preventive value, compared to
other stronger solutions. For example, severe punishments such as longer imprisonment for criminals could deter
criminal acts by other members of the public who have the intention of carrying out a crime. There are also other
educational methods that may have a stronger and more long-lasting impact on the reduction of crime. An excellent
example of this is crime education at school, which helps equip students with the necessary knowledge about crime and
crime prevention. This measure is undeniably a more sustainable crime-fighting solution than education for criminals.
To conclude, I firmly believe that although educating prisoners is an effective way to reduce crime, it is not the best solution,
as there are more preventive and sustainable measures such as crime education at school and stricter punishments for
criminals.
Fall From Grace – Idiom Of The Day For IELTS

Fall From Grace – Idiom Of The Day For IELTS Speaking.
Definition:
done something that you can lose your reputation or made people in authority stop liking or admiring you
Example:
” After 12 years in power, the party has fallen from grace with voters.“
“His fall from grace began when FBI agents searched his home.“
“When a celebrity falls from grace, they can find it very difficult to get work in television.“
Exercise:
“The minister of education seems to have ___________. There are rumours that the president is planning to sack her next week.”
A. breathe my last
C. fallen from grace
2. Describe a problem you had to face. Try to use this idiom in your speech. You should say:
– What the problem was
– Who helped you solved it
And explain why you ran into the problem

READING PASSAGE 1
TEA TIMES
A. The chances are that you have already drunk a cup or glass of tea today. Perhaps, you are sipping one as you read this.
Tea, now an everyday beverage in many parts of the world, has over the centuries been an important part of the rituals of
hospitality both in the home and in trader society.
B. Tea originated in China, and in Eastern Asia tea making and drinking ceremonies have been popular for centuries. Tea
was first shipped to North Western Europe by English and Dutch maritime traders in the sixteenth century. At about the same
time, a land mule from the Ear East, via Moscow, to Europe was opened up. Tea also figured in America’s bid for
independence from British rule – the Boston Tea Party.
C. As, over the last four hundred years, tea-leaves became available throughout much of Asia and Europe, the ways in which
tea was drunk changed. The Chinese considered the quality of the leaves and the ways in which they w-ere cured all
important. People in other cultures added new ingredients besides tea-leaves and hot water. They drank tea with milk, sugar,
spices like cinnamon and cardamom, and herbs such as mint or sage. The variations are endless. For example, in Western
Sudan on the edge of the Sahara Desert, sesame oil is added to milky tea on cold mornings. In England tea, unlike coffee,
acquired a reputation as a therapeutic drink that promoted health. Indeed, in European and Arab countries as well as in Persia
and Russia, tea was praised for its restorative and health giving properties. One Dutch physician, Cornelius Blankaart,
advised that to maintain health a minimum of eight to ten cups a day should be drunk, and that up to 50 to 100 daily cups
could be consumed with safely.
D. While European coffee houses were frequented by men discussing politics and closing business deals, respectable middle-
class women stayed at home and held lea parties. When the price of tea fell in the nineteenth century poor people took up the
drink with enthusiasm. Different grades and blends of tea were sold to suit every pocket.
E. Throughout the world today, few religious groups object to tea drinking In Islamic cultures, where drinking of alcohol is
forbidden, tea and coffee consumption is an important part of social life. However, Seventh-Day Adventists, recognising the
beverage as a drug containing the stimulant caffeine, frown upon the drinking of tea.
F. Nomadic Bedouin are well known for traditions of hospitality in the desert. According to Middle Eastern tradition, guests
are served both tea and coffee from pots kept ready on the fires of guest tents where men of the family and male visitors
gather. Cups of ‘bitter’ cardamom coffee and glasses of sugared tea should be constantly refilled by the host.
G. For over a thousand years, Arab traders have been bringing Islamic culture, including tea drinking; to northern and
western Africa, Techniques of tea preparation and the ceremony involved have been adapted, in West African countries, such
as Senegal and The Gambia, it is fashionable for young men to gather in small groups to brew Chinese ‘gunpowder’ tea. The
tea is boiled with large amounts of sugar for a long time.
H. Tea drinking in India remains an important part of daily life. There, tea made entirely with milk is popular, ‘Chai’ is made
by boiling milk and adding tea, sugar and some spices. This form of tea making has crossed the Indian Ocean and is also
popular in East Africa, where tea is considered best when it is either very milky or made with water only. Curiously, this
‘milk or water’ formula has been carried over to the preparation of instant coffee, which is served in cafes as either black, or
sprinkled on a cup of hot milk.
I. In Britain, coffee drinking, particularly in the informal atmosphere of coffee shops, is currently in vogue. Yet, the
convention of afternoon tea lingers. At conferences, it remains common practice to serve coffee in the morning and tea in the
afternoon. Contemporary’ China, too, remains true to its long tradition. Delegates at conferences and seminars are served lea
in cups with lids to keep the infusion hot. The cups are topped up throughout the proceedings. There are as yet no signs of
coffee at such occasions.
Questions 1 – 8
Reading Passage 1 has nine paragraphs A-I.
From the list of headings below choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph.
Write the appropriate numbers i – xiii in boxes 1-8 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i. Diverse drinking methods
ii. Limited objections to drinking tea
iii. Today’s continuing tradition – in Britain and China
iv. Tea – a beverage of hospitality
v. An important addition – tea with milk
vi. Tea and alcohol
vii. The everyday beverage in all parts of the world
viii. Tea on the move
ix. African tea
x. The fall in the cost of tea
xi. The value of tea
xii. Tea-drinking in Africa
xiii. Hospitality among the Bedouin
Example Answer
Paragraph F xiii
1. Paragraph A
2. Paragraph B
3. Paragraph C
4. Paragraph D
5. Paragraph E
6. Paragraph G
7. Paragraph H
8. Paragraph I
Questions 9-13
Complete the sentences below with words taken from Reading Passage 1.
Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
1. For centuries, both at home and in society, tea has had an important role in…………… .
2. Falling tea prices in the nineteenth century meant that people could choose the……………………….of the tea they could afford.
3. Because it…………………..Seventh-Day Adventists do not approve of the drinking of tea.
4. In the desert, one group that is well known for its traditions of hospitality is the………………………..
5. In India,……………………, as well as tea, are added to boiling milk to make ‘chai’.
READING PASSAGE 2
Caveat Scriptor!
Let the would-be writer beware! Anyone foolhardy enough to embark on a career as a writer – whether it be an academic
treatise, a novel, or even an article – should first read this!
People think that writing as a profession is glamorous; that it is just about sitting down and churning out words on a page, or
more likely these days on a computer screen. If only it were! So what exactly does writing a book entail? Being a writer is
about managing a galaxy of contradictory feelings: elation, despair, hope, frustration, satisfaction and depression-and not all
separately! Of course, it also involves carrying out detailed research: first to establish whether there is a market for the
planned publication, and second what should be the content of the book. Sometimes, however, instinct takes the place of
market research and the contents are dictated not by plans and exhaustive research, but by experience and knowledge.
Once the publication has been embarked upon, there is a long period of turmoil as the text takes shape. A first draft is rarely
the final text of the book. Nearly all books are the result of countless hours of altering and re-ordering chunks of text and
deleting the superfluous bits. While some people might think that with new’ technology the checking and editing process is
sped up, the experienced writer would hardly agree. Unfortunately, advanced technology now allows the writer the luxury of
countless editing’s; a temptation many writers find hard to resist. So a passage, endlessly re-worked may end up nothing
remotely like the original, and completely out of place when compared with the rest of the text.
After the trauma of self-editing and looking for howlers, it is time to show the text to other people, friends perhaps, for
appraisal. At this stage, it is not wise to send it off to a literary agent or direct to publishers, as it may need further fine-tuning
of which the author is unaware. Once an agent has been approached and has rejected a draft publication, it is difficult to go
and ask for the re vamped text to be considered again. It also helps, at this stage, to offer a synopsis of the book, if it is a
novel, or an outline if it is a textbook. This acts as a guide for the author, and a general reference for friends and later for
agents.
Although it is tempting to send the draft to every possible agent at one time, it is probably unwise. Some agents may reject
the publication out of hand, but others may proffer some invaluable advice, for example about content or the direction to be
taken, information such as this may be of use in finally being given a contract by an agent or publisher.
The lucky few taken on by publishers or agents, then have their books subjected to a number of readers, whose job it is to vet
a book: deciding whether it is worth publishing and whether the text as it stands is acceptable or not. After a book has finally
been accepted by a publisher, one of the greatest difficulties for the warier lies in taking on board the publisher’s alterations
to the text. Whilst the overall story and thrust of the book may be acceptable, it will probably have to conform to an in-house
style, as regards language, spelling and punctuation. More seriously, the integrity of the text may be challenged, and this may
require radical re-drafting which is usually unpalatable to the author. A books creation period is complex and unnerving, but
the publisher’s reworkings and text amputations can also be a tortuous process.
For many writers, the most painful period comes when the text has been accepted, and the writer is wailing for it to be put
together for the printer. By this stage, it is not uncommon for the writer to be thoroughly sick of the text.
Abandon writing? Nonsense. Once smitten, it is not easy to escape the compulsion to create and write, despite the roller-
coaster ride of contradictory emotions.
Questions 14-21
Complete the summary below using words from the box.
People often associate writing with 14…………………… But being a writer involves managing conflicting emotions as
well as 15……………………… and instinct. Advanced technology, contrary to what might be thought, does not make
the 16……………………….faster. When a writer has a draft of the text ready, it is a good idea to have
a 17……………………. for friends and agents to look at. If an author is accepted by a publisher, the draft of the book is
given to 18……………………. for vetting. 19……………………… are then often made, which are not easy for the writer
to agree. However, 20…………………..compelling, even though there are 21……………………. .

editing a literary
beware first draft glamour
process agent
alterations profession publisher challenges writing
ups and
dictating research publishing summary
downs
roller-coaster readers
Questions 22 and 23
22. In the planning stages of a book,
A. instinct can replace market research.
B. market research can replace instinct.
C. market research is essential.
D. instinct frequently replaces market research.
23. The problem with the use of advanced technology in editing is that
A. it becomes different from the original.
B. it is unfortunate.
C. it is a luxury.
D. many writers cannot resist changing the text again and again.
Questions 24-27
Complete the sentences below with words taken from Reading Passage 2.
Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
1. Once a text is finished, the writer needs to get the………………..of other people.
2. Some agents may reject the draft of a book, while others may offer………………………..
3. Apart from the need for a draft to conform to an in-house style, a publisher’s changes to a text may include…………………..
4. The publisher’s alterations to a book are difficult for a writer, as is the………………….as the book grows.
READING PASSAGE 3
Pronunciation and physiognomy
Imagine the scene: you are sitting on the tube and on gets someone you instinctively feel is American. To make sure you ask
them the time, and arc fight, but how did you know?
When we say someone ‘looks American’, we take into consideration dress, mannerism and physical appearance. However,
since the Americans do not constitute one single race, what exactly is meant by ‘look’? In fact, one salient feature is a
pronounced widening around the jaw – a well-documented phenomenon.
Writer Arthur Koestler once remarked that friends of his, whom he had met thirty years after they’ emigrated to the United
States, had acquired an ‘American physiognomy’, i.e. a broadened jaw, an appearance which is also prevalent in the
indigenous population. An anthropologist friend of his attributed this to the increased use of the jaw musculature in
American enunciation. This ‘change of countenance’ in immigrants had already been observed by the historian M. Fishberg
in 1910.
To paraphrase the philosopher Emerson, certain national, social and religious groups, such as ageing actors, long-term
convicts and celibate priests, to give just a few examples, develop a distinguishing ‘look’, which is not easily defined, but
readily recognised. Their way of life affects their facial expression and physical features, giving the mistaken impression that
these traits are of hereditary or ‘racial’ origin. All the factors mentioned above contribute, as well as heredity. But the
question of appearance being affected by pronunciation – as in the case of American immigrant including those from other
English speaking countries over the course of many years – is of great interest, and calls for further study into the science of
voice production. This can only benefit those working in the field of speech therapy, elocution and the pronunciation of
foreign languages, and help the student from a purely physiological point of view. Naturally, the numerous psychological and
socio-linguistic factors that inhibit most adult learners of foreign languages from acquiring ‘good’ pronunciation constitute a
completely different and no less important issue that require separate investigation.
The pronunciation of the various forms of English around the world today is affected by the voice being ‘placed’ in different,
parts of the mouth. We use our Speech organs in certain ways to produce specific sounds, and these muscles have to practise
to learn new phonemes. Non-Americans should look in the mirror while repeating ‘1 really never heard of poor reward for
valour’ with full use of tile USA retroflex /r/ phoneme, and note what happens to their jawbones after three or four
repetitions. Imagine the effect of these movements on the jaw muscles after twenty years! This phoneme is one of the most
noticeable features of US English and one that non-Americans always exaggerate when mimicking the accent. Likewise,
standard British RP is often parodied, and its whine of superiority mocked to the point of turning the end of one’s nose up as
much as possible. Not only does this enhance the ‘performance’, but also begs the question of whether this look is the origin
of the expression ‘stuck up’?
Once on a Birmingham bus, a friend pointed to a fellow passenger and said, ‘That man’s Brummie accent is written all over
his face.’ This was from someone who would not normally make crass generalisations. The interesting thing would be to
establish whether thin lips and a tense, prominent chin are a result of the way Midlands English is spoken, or its cause, or a
mixture of both. Similarly, in the case of Liverpool one could ask whether the distinctive ‘Scouse accent was a reason for, or
the frequency of high cheekbones in the local population.
When one learns another accent, as in the theatre for example, voice coaches often resort to images to help their students
acquire the distinctive sound of the target pronunciation. With ‘Scouse’, the mental aid employed is pushing your
cheekbones up in a smile as high as they will go and you have got a very slack mouth full of cotton wool. The sound seems
to spring off die sides of your face-outwards and upwards. For a Belfast accent, one has to tighten the sides of the jaws until
there is maximum tension, and speak opening the lips as little as possible, This gives rise to the well-known ‘Ulster jaw’
phenomenon. Learning Australian involves imagining the ordeals of the first westerners transported to the other side of the
world. When exposed to the merciless glare and unremitting heat of the southern sun, we instinctively screw up our eyes and
grimace for protection.
Has this contributed to an Australian ‘look’, and affected the way ‘Aussies’ speak English, or vice versa? It is a curious
chicken and egg conundrum, but perhaps the answer is ultimately irrelevant Of course other factors affect the way people
look and sound, and it would certainly be inaccurate to suggest that all those who speak one form of a language or dialect
have a set physiognomy because of their pronunciation patterns. But a large enough number do, and that alone is worth
investigating. What is important, however, is establishing pronunciation as one of the factors that determine physiognomy,
and gaining a deeper insight into the origins and nature of the sounds of speech And of course, one wonders what ‘look’
one’s own group has!
Questions 28-30
Look at the following people (Questions 28-30) and the list of statements below.
28. Koestler
29. Fish berg
30. Emerson
A. Americans use their jaw more to enunciate
B. immigrants acquire physiognomical features common among the indigenous population
C. facial expression and physical features are hereditary
D. lifestyle affects physiognomy
E. Americans have a broadened jaw
F. His friends appearance had changed since they moved to the United States.
G. the change of countenance was unremarkable
Questions 31-36
YES if the statement agrees with the information in the passage
NO if the statement contradicts the information in the passage
NOT GIVEN if there is no information about the statement in the passage
1. Further study into the science of voice production will cost considerable sums of money.
2. The psychological and socio-linguistic factors that make it difficult for adult learners of foreign languages to gain ‘good’ pronunciation are not as
important as other factors.
3. Speech organs are muscles.
4. New phonemes are difficult to learn.
5. People often make fun of standard British RP.
6. Facial features contribute to the incomprehensibility of Midlands English.
Questions 37- 40
Complete each of the following statements (Questions 37-40) with the best ending A-I from the box below.
Write the appropriate letters A-I in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet
1. Voice coaches
2. The Scouse accent
3. Whether the way we look affects the way we speak or the other way round
4. It is important to prove that pronunciation
A can be achieved by using a mental aid.

B is irrelevant.
C is worth investigating.
D use images to assist students with the desired pronunciation.
E is a chicken and egg conundrum.
F get the target.
G can affect appearance.
H is not as easy as a Belfast one.
I makes you smile.
1. iv
The paragraph is about the link between tea and hospitality. The answer is not iii, because the paragraph is about the
continuing tradition of the past it b not limited to Britain and China. It is tempting to put vii as the answer, but, if you look at
the text, you will see that the information relating to this heading is between commas. It is additional information and can
easily be removed. You can compare it to a non-defining relative clause. So it is not central to the meaning of the whole
paragraph. Moreover, the passage states in many parts of the world, not in all.
1. viii
The heading here should be fairly obvious.

1. i
The paragraph deals with the various ways in which tea has been drunk. The answer is not v; see paragraph H, where the
whole paragraph deals with milk in relation to tea drinking. Compare the answer to Paragraph A for background/foreground
information.
1. x
The paragraph is about the cost of tea, in financial terms. The paragraph sets the scene, showing that tea is for the middle
classes, but when the price falls the poor stall drinking it. The answer is not xi, as value has a different meaning.
1. ii
The theme of the paragraph is the fact that most religious groups do not object to tea drinking, i.e. few do. The answer is not
vi, aï this does not reflect the theme of the paragraph. It is again subsidiary or background information. So it is important for
you to see how the pieces of information in a paragraph relate to each other. A plan of the paragraph is as follows:

Foreground Background
In Islamic cultures no objection
Few objections to tea drinking
Tea/coffee versus alcohol
Seventh-Day Adventists/caffeine frowned upon
Note how the points in italics give background information to the main point in the text. It is sometimes difficult for students
to make the distinction between these two types of information. The example of the Islamic cultures supports the point of
there being no objections. The second piece of background information develops this further comparing tea/coffee with
alcohol. The paragraph then comes back to the central issue of there being few objections, by giving the example of a group
who object to tea. You may use this mechanism to look at the other paragraphs here and elsewhere.
1. xii
This paragraph focuses on tea drinking in Africa. The answer is not ix, as the origin of the tea itself is not said to be African.
1. v
The paragraph is about the importance of the addition of milk to tea in many parts of the world. Compare paragraph C.
Heading xii would not be right here, as it describes only part of the paragraph.
1. iii
See the answer for Paragraph A.

1. rituals of hospitality OR hospitality
The answer is in paragraph A. The first phrase is probably the better of the two.
1. grade(s) and blend(s) OR different grades OR different blends
The answer is in the last sentence of paragraph D.

1. contains caffeine
The answer is in paragraph E. Because of the word limit and the grammar of the sentence in the exercise, the words the
stimulant cannot be included.
1. nomadic Bedouin(s) OR Bedouin(s)
The answer is in paragraph F.

1. sugar and spices
The answer is in paragraph H. Because of the word limit, the word some has to be excluded from the phrase.
1. glamour
The answer is in the first sentence of the second paragraph.

1. research
The answer is in the second paragraph towards the end.

1. editing process
The answer is in paragraph 3, the fourth sentence. The phrase first draft does not fit here, as the sentence would not then
reflect the meaning of the passage. Nor is the word writing correct for the same reason. And it would not fit the grammar of
the summary; the article the in the summary would have to be omitted, as the writer is talking about all writers not
specifically himself.
1. summary
The answer is at the end of the fourth paragraph. Note the word summary is a synonym for synopsis/outline.
1. readers
At the start of the sixth paragraph, it says that readers (not publishers) vet books.

1. Alterations
The answer is in the sixth paragraph.

1. Writing
The answer is in the last paragraph. The word publishing is not correct, because the writer is talking about writing throughout
the passage; publishing comes afterwards.
1. ups and downs
The answer is in the last paragraph. Note the word roller- coaster is not possible here. It does not make sense. The word does
not carry the meaning of the latter part of the last sentence on its own. Nor is it grammatically lot possible: the summary has
a plural verb and the word roller- coaster is singular.
1. A
The answer is a paraphrase of the last sentence of paragraph 2: Sometimes, instinct takes the place of market research…
B is the opposite. As for C, the text does not say whether it is essential. D is not correct, because the text says sometimes
– therefore, note the word can in A.
1. D
The answer is a paraphrase of the penultimate sentence of the third paragraph. A is not correct, because although e the text
says that a passage may end up nothing remotely like the original, the writer does not say that this is a problem. B is not
possible, because the writer does not say the use is unfortunate; he is expressing an opinion, when he says unfortunately. C is
in correct, because the problem is not a luxury.
1. appraisal
The answer is at the beginning of paragraph 4.

1. some invaluable advice OR invaluable advice OR some advice OR advice OR hints
The answer is in the fifth paragraph. Note you cannot give the examples here as there would be too many words. You can use
the word hints from the last sentence of the paragraph as it is a synonym, which summarises the advice and the examples.
1. radical redrafting OR redrafting OR reworkings OR text amputations
The answer is at the end of paragraph 6

1. creation period
The answer is in the last sentence of paragraph 6.

1. F
The answer is in the third paragraph in the first sentence. A is incorrect, because it was an anthropologist friend of Koestler
who said this. B is not correct, because Koestler was talking about his friends rather than immigrants in general; and E is not
stated as a general principle.
1. B
The answer is in paragraph 3, in the last sentence. F is incorrect, because Fishberg was talking about immigrants in general,
not his friends.
1. D
The answer can be found in the fourth paragraph, in the second sentence. C is incorrect, because Emerson says this is a
mistaken impression.
1. Not Given
The text does not mention anything about this statement.

1. No
The answer can be found in paragraph 4, in the last sentence: a completely different and no less important issue, which
means, in effect, equally important.
1. Yes
The answer is in the second sentence of paragraph 5. The word these refers back to speech organs.
1. Not Given
The answer is in the same place as question 33. The passage says that practice is needed to learn new phonemes, but does not
mention whether or not they are difficult to learn.
1. Yes
The answer is at the end of paragraph 5. The words parody and mock are synonyms of make fun of.
1. Not Given
The text does not mention anything about this statement.

1. D
The answer is in paragraph 7, and is a paraphrase of help their students acquire, the distinctive sound of the target
pronunciation. F is incorrect, as it is incomplete.
1. A
This answer can also be found in the seventh paragraph. A mental aid is said to be employed, i.e. used. I is incorrect, because
the cause and effect are the wrong way round. H is not correct, because there is no mention of which of the two accents is
easier.
1. E
The answer is in the first part of the last paragraph. B is incorrect, because it is the answer to the question that is said to be
irrelevant.
1. G
The answer is in the second part of the last paragraph. C is incorrect, because it is not pronunciation that is worth
investigating, but the link between pronunciation and physiognomy.
READING PASSAGE 1
THE CREATIVITY MYTH
A. It is a myth that creative people are born with their talents: gifts from God or nature. Creative genius is, in fact, latent
within many of us, without our realising. But how far do we need to travel to find the path to creativity? For many people, a
long way. In our everyday lives, we have to perform many acts out of habit to survive, like opening the door, shaving, getting
dressed, walking to work, and so on. If this were not the case, we would, in all probability, become mentally unhinged. So
strongly ingrained are our habits, though this varies from person to person, that sometimes, when a conscious effort is made
to be creative, automatic response takes over. We may try, for example, to walk to work following a different route, but end
up on our usual path. By then it is too late to go back and change our minds. Another day, perhaps. The same applies to all
other areas of our lives. When we are solving problems, for example, we may seek different answers, but, often as not. Find
ourselves walking along the same well-trodden paths.
B. So, for many people, their actions and behaviour are set in immovable blocks, their minds clogged with the cholesterol of
habitual actions, preventing them from operating freely, and thereby stifling creation. Unfortunately, mankind’s very struggle
for survival has become a tyranny – the obsessive desire to give order to the world is a case in point. Witness people’s attitude
to time, social customs and the panoply of rules and regulations by which the human mind is now circumscribed.
C. The groundwork for keeping creative ability in check begins at school. School, later university and then work, teach us to
regulate our lives, imposing a continuous process of restrictions which is increasing exponentially with the advancement of
technology. Is it surprising then that creative ability appears to be so rare? It is trapped in the prison that we have erected. Yet,
even here in this hostile environment, the foundations for creativity’ are being laid; because setting off on the creative path is
also partly about using rules and regulations. Such limitations are needed so that once they are learnt, they can be broken.
D. The truly creative mind is often seen as totally free and unfettered. But a better image is of a mind, which can be free when
it wants, and one that recognises that rules and regulations are parameters, or barriers, to be raised and dropped again at will.
An example of how the human mind
can be trained to be creative might help
here. People s minds are just like tense
muscles that need to be freed up and
the potential unlocked. One strategy is
to erect artificial barriers or hurdles in
solving a problem. As a form of
stimulation, the participants in the task
can be forbidden to use particular
solutions or to follow certain lines of
thought to solve a problem. In this way

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IELTS READING PRACTICE TEST 39 WITH ANSWERS

Exorbitant – Word Of The Day For IELTS

 When that failed they attempted an exorbitant rent so I intervened.

 When did you buy it?

 Why were you not happy with it?

 How did you react?

 Discontent (n): dissatisfaction, lack of contentment

 Pick out (phrasal verb): to choose

 With reference to (expression): about

 Content (a): in a taste of peaceful happiness,

 Cost an arm and a leg (idiom): be extremely expensive

 Appetising (a): delicious

 Splash out (phrasal verb): to spend a lot of money on something

 Sensible (a): in accordance with wisdom and prudence

Prohibitive – Word Of The Day For IELTS

 a prohibitive rule prevents people from doing things

 However, many companies find the cost of planning and implementation prohibitive.

2017 IELTS Speaking Part 1 Topic: Television & Sample Answers

 Past tense: used to (v)

 Perfect continuous tense: have been (v) ing

So, let’s try to make the above answer a little better:

Now try to make your own answer:

Cash-flow Problem – Idiom Of The Day For IELTS

Commemorate – Word Of The Day For IELTS

 A lurid tattoo on his thigh commemorated his victory.

 Who the most important people involved were

IELTS READING PRACTICE TEST 42 WITH ANSWERS

ANSWER KEY FOR IELTS READING PRACTICE TEST

IELTS READING PRACTICE TEST 42 WITH ANSWERS

Intractable – Word Of The Day For IELTS

 Even more seemingly intractable problems will be posed by attempts to store virtual reality.

 Economic disparities grow ever greater and more intractable.

IELTS READING PRACTICE TEST 43 WITH ANSWERS

Squander – Word Of The Day For IELTS

 They squandered the profits on expensive cars.

 England squandered a golden opportunity to score, seconds before the final whistle.

 His family felt he had squandered his musical talent.

IELTS Materials and Resources, Get IELTS Tips, Tricks &

IELTS Reading Recent Actual Test 12 in 2017 with Answer Key

IELTS Reading Recent Actual Test 13 in 2017 with Answer Key

 What is their specialty

 Why do you admire him

 How did you know about him?

 Why you liked him?

2. Steps we can take to help reverse the situation.

3. An explanation of what climate change is.

5. Possible effects of climate change.

3. Professor Mark Halton

A. We have the ability to change the situation

4. Most people aren’t willing to start using renewable energy.

A. it tries to make state and private equal.

A wanted to protest for the rights of black people.

A India’s independence in 1947

II. Unhappy about violence

III. A tragic incident

IV. Protests and action

V. The background of an iconic man

VII. Difficult childhood

VIII. Black street repairmen

ANSWER FOR IELTS READING PRACTICE TEST

IELTS Writing Practice Test 39 (Task 1 & 2) & Sample Answers

2. Steps we can take to help reverse the situation.