RecavitMenT OF Enforc&ment OFFic Ek/Accouns OFFIC \W EmpeoyEes Promewr Funan 0eganssption CEP Fo DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO T.B.C. : GRS-A-TNS Test Booklet Series Serial No. TEST BOOKLET GENERAL ABILITY TEST Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 100 INSTRUCTIONS 1, IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions) in two Parts : PART—A and PART—B. Each item in PART—B is printed both in Hindi and English. Bach item comprises four responses {answers}. You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 2. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY THE CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) Ifa candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iil) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO vam @ : otal a fel wan ga gferar & fod ys K oT eIPART—A 1. Which one of the following is the synonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence, “The FUNDAMENTAL character of an individual defines his entire life”? (a) Productive (b) Essential (co) Successful (a) Effective 2. Which one of the following is the synonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence, “She has the habit of using HACKNEYED and redundant examples from her past even while dealing with the future generation”? (a) Indifferent (6) Imaginative () Clichéd (4) Impressive GRS-A-TNS/68-A Which one of the following is the synonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence, “She is an IMMACULATE soul whose presence makes all the difference”? (a) Spotiess (b) Excited (c) Extraordinary (4) Unparalleled Which one of the following is the antonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence, “There is a great deal of ENMITY”? (a) Amity (b) Cooperation (©) Dispute (4) Hostility5. Which one of the following is the antonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence, “She was RELUCTANT to sell her car"? fa) Anxious (bo) Happy (co) Eager (4) Unwilting Which one of the following is the antonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence, “I cannot comply with the QUEER regulations of your land”? (a) Strange (b) Nimble () Everyday (a) Customary 7. Which one of the following parts of the sentence, “As you know that the ignorant are easily duped”, has an error? (a) As you know (b) that the ignorant () are easily duped (d) No error GRS-A~TNS/68-A 8. Which one of the following parts of the sentence, “After a lot of argument I brought him forward to my point of view”, has an error? (a) After a lot of argument (b) 1 brought him forward () to my point of view (a) No error 9. Which one of the following parts of the sentence, “Don't ask him how he is because if he starts talking about his health you'll never get off from him”, has an error? (a) Don’t ask him how he is because (b) ithe starts talking about his health you'll never (c) get off from him (a) No error 10. Which one of the following words can be used as a substitute for the phrase, “A nursery where children of working parents are cared for while their parents are at work”? (a) Sculler (6) Créche {) Dormitory (a) Refectory [P.7.0.11. Which one of the following words can be used as a substitute for the phrase, “That which cannot be taken by force”? (@) Impossible (b) Improbable fo) impeccable (a) Impregnable 12. Which one of the following is the appropriate question tag in the sentence, “Take a seat, ___"? (a) shall you? (®) can’t you? (©) won't you? (@) would you? 13. Which one of the following is the appropriate question tag in the sentence, “Anyone can make mistakes, 9 (@) isn't it? () shall they? (c) can’t they? (@) is it? GRS-A-TNS/68-A 14, Which one of the following phrasal verbs may be used in the blank space in the sentence, “He is fond of art and seems (suited) to be an artist”? (@) fit out (b) bring out () cut out (@) suit out 15. Which one of the following phrasal verbs may be used in the blank space in the sentence, “We were happy in the beginning, but now all the troubles have (appeared)”? (a) cropped up (b) come about (ce) come out (@) rushed in 16. Which one of the following phrasal verbs may be used in the blank space in the sentence, “No one knows how it all_ (happened)” (a) came across (b) came about () came into (@) came forward17. Which one of the following phrasal verbs may be used in the blank space in the (finish) this work before I leave tomorrow morning”? sentence, “I have to (a) clear up () clean up (finish up (a) do away with 18. Which one of the following prepositions may be used in the blank space in the sentence, “He lived a hand mouth existence, surviving on just a few rupees a week”? (@ in () to (0) for (d) inside GRS-A-TNS/68-A. 19. Which one of the following can be used as a substitute for the words written in capital letters in the sentence, “There is no meaning to CRY OVER THE SPILT MILK since the matter is over”? ()_ No use of worrying about (6) No use of spilling now (©) No use of celebration (d) No use of asking for 20. Which one of the following can be used as a substitute for the words written in capital letters in the sentence, “Serving the sufferers is true YEOMAN’S. SERVICE”? (a) A risky job fe) An amusing job () An excellent work (@) An unwanted job [P.7.0.PART—B 21. Who is the author of the work, The Evolution of Provincial Finance in British India : A Study in the Provincial Decentralization. of Imperial Finance? (a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (MN. Roy (@) Jawaharlal Nehru 22. In the context of international affairs, which one of the following is correct about Lord Curzon? (a) He advocated a pacifist policy. (o) He wanted to establish a British sphere of influence over the Persian Gulf and Seistan. () He wanted England and Russia to become friends against China. (a) He wanted to lead a flag-waving mission to the USA. 23. Which one of the following is correct about Assam in British India? (a) It was a part of the North-East Frontier Agency. (0) It was made a province in 1865. () It was separated from Bengal in 1874, and along with Sylhet made into a Chief Commissioner's province. (a) It was a Princely State ruled by Ahom kings, GRS-A~TNS/68-A 24, What were the peasant associations set up in Kerala in the 1930s called? (a) () () @ Kisan Sabha Kirti Kisan Karshaka Sangam Kisan Morcha 25. Why did the Congress declare 9th May to be Ethiopia Day’? (a) (h) © (a) 26. Who Because the Ethiopians declared their support for the cause of Indian independence from British rule. Recanse —Rthiopia.—heeame independent from Britain on that day. Because Ethiopia was attacked by Italy in early 1936 and their resistance was considered freedom struggle. Because Ethiopian _ leaders denounced Mussolini. set up the Bharat Stree Mahamandal which firet met in Allahabad in 1910? (a) (b) () (a) Annie Besant Meherbai Tata Saraladevi Chaudhurani Tarabai ShindeawI—B 2a. edteugrr orf sire orga er fafeer iar: or vet gr @ sifaerer iT seater seta % Sears eB (a) wave AeA (b) Sto He ome onaisae (c) We We ta (a) SATE RTE Few 22, singe amet & del 4, oid asia at F ‘Frafetad #8 stam TH we a? (a) 38 wierd ft an vee fem (o) 7 ora A ar sin aie & fae wra-da eenfte eeT ATE aT () We a % faz, wae ok ea A Pa ‘aR Tee eT (@ 7 usa % fq eH ea cea fie (en-Afn fire) ar gee aN sea am 23. fafen gen ara % aa % at 4 Pefefiad 8 aaa UH UE 8? (@) ein ania amr (aif eer ah) re fee aT (b) 1865 4 38 aia ar cat fear aT) fo) 1874 9 9 eB orem Feet ae ah foes A gas wre fea Be TET ‘aia et fear ae arm Tansit err enfea WH aah THT au @) GRS-A-TNS/68A 24. 1930 3 cae 8 Set A cenit gue ew FAT HET HAT aT? (q) fram eT (o) te Pea (oy whee aim (a) Fra Frat 25. 9 58% fa aw sila 3 ‘erin faa’ eit sifia fran? (a) Fife ePrtfarnfel > fea ae a anda wadan & va 8 at anda Fr arson At ath (&) ii eReion za Rea Ba a ori gon a (o) if 1936 & sta 4 geeh 4 efeeiften 7 sae fet a sik a fda = vada & fara dent wen eT aT (a) Wife weber % Sa a AeA A Fra AA 26. 4na a Henisc, Pref vec ax 1910 4 wore 4 aon gf, A an fee A an? (q) wh ate (b) Pane ere (co) Rae Sheet (a) arverg fare [P.7.0.27. Which one of the following is not a feature of the — Non-Cooperation Movement? (a) Economic boycott was intense and successful. (b) The middle class participated in very large numbers in the movement. () It was marked by uneven geographical spread and regional variations. (4) Along with Non-Cooperation, other Gandhian social reform movements like the anti-liquor campaign achieved some success. 28. Which one of the following publications was started by Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan in 1928? (a) Pakhtun (b) Khudat Khidmatgar (6) Young India (a) India Awakens 29. Who among the following was the founder of the Arya Mahila Samaj in the early 1880s? (a) Swami Dayananda Saraswati (b) Swami Vivekananda (c) Pandita Ramabai (2) Ramabai Ranade 30. Who among the following is considered to be the first Indian to go to jail in performance of his duty as a journalist? (2) Mahatma Gandhi () Rabindranath Tagore () Lokmanya Tilak (@) Surendranath Banerjee GRS-A~TNS/68-A 31. Which of the following was/were the reason/reasons for the lack of economic development in India in the 19th century? 1, Officially the British Government was committed to a policy of laissez-faire, but it was actually a policy of discriminatory inter- vention. 2, European entrepreneurs had connections to banks and agency houses, while Indians had to rely on kin, family and caste men. 3. When plantations were transferred to individual capitalist ownership, native investors were deliberately ignored. Select the correct answer using the code given below, (a) 1 only () 2 and 3 only () 1 and 3 only (@) 1,2 and 3 82, Which social reformer’s autobiography, entitled Looking Back, describes his experiences in setting up schools for women in Poona in the 1890s? (a) Dhondo Keshav Karve () K. 7. Telang () Jyotirao Phule (da) Dr. B. R. Ambedkara7. Frafafaa 4 a aa we fatten sae aiden FH) wat RP (a) sifis afer da a are aT) () 7 sider 4 ag a8 en A em a 3 mr a1 fo) strate vies Pree ote Bae Tafel, seh) qtea FA AL (a) seein side aM a sridiardt ween gure satdteri, $8 AI fad after, FA ge aren fief 28. UR He WER EH wT 4 1928 fafatad 38 ea-a TH we sty far 7H a? (a) TERT (bo) Gag Recnrm (yan xfer (a) sien sare 29, 1880 % ara % arta HF ord afger war A waren 34 @ fara ara At oh fh? (a) art ware aa (o) anh Rear (o) fen rene (a) Caren TAS 30. 38 8 fed den ween erecta ara om %, fre we wa Fey oe eed Fe We ae aT agi? (a) eI miei (b) lexan Bik (co) Gramrer fees (@) Seana ash GRS-A-TNS/68A. 31, 194 ad 4, una Foals fara A anh fae Rafa 4 8 ae-a/8 ae tan n/a? 1, safteans te we BR we orETET Aaa @ saa of, firg aE Hae vo Patera Beaty A aA A 2. aida safe 3 cen Sat oft wah ad % wa a, sai anda a) ean, vane @ Sif 3 aot we ke cea wee al 3, a GMT ar sien eather taf varies 4 fen an, wa eefta Fart A SragaR Stent A 7A a8 Ram a wT aR A TT TAT (a) *aa 1 (b) ¥aa 2 AK () Fa 1 a3 @ 1,233 32. fra war gure A sneer, Pima iis afr a %, 1890 % aa A EMF Hikers & fry Rene A waren ae see ayaa % ant Haar 2? (a) Sid) ara ea (b) %o Go Fen (ce) Sitferca yet (a) Zo Fo FR BraISA [P. 7.0.33. Who was the first Director General of the 36. Which one of the following statements Archaeological Survey of India? regarding an Overseas Citizen of India (OC) is not correct? (@) John Marshall (a) An OCI is a citizen of another country. (2) Biesenider Cuaningtad, (b) An OCI possesses multiple-entry long-term visa for visiting India. () An OCI is at par with NRIs in all matters, (c) Mortimer Wheeler (4) Francis Buchanan (@) An OCI is not entitled to the fundamental right to equality of opportunity in public employment. 34, Which of the following works was not contributed by the famous social 37. Which one of the following is not a reformer Begum Rokeya? feature of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and other (a) Ardhangi Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016? (&) Griha (a) Only citizens of India are entitled for enrolment under this Act (c) Mother India (b) Both demographic and biometric information is to be submitted for (a) Sultana’s Dream enrolment. (o) The Unique Identification Authority of India is responsible for 85. Which one of the following is not a enrolment sand, -enthenteatan characteristic of the Mughal chronicles? sisipabinstt ag” (d) tis the responsibility of the Unique i Whey present 5 cote Identification Authority to ensure chronological record of events. the security of identity of individuals. () They were a repository of factual information about the Mughals. 88. Forced labour or beggar is a violation of which one of the following Articles of the (c) They allow us to understand how Constitution of India? imperial ideologies were created (@) Article 16 and disseminated. (b) Article 17 (d) They contain brief biographies of (c) Article 19 the authors of the chronicles. (@ Article 23 GRS-A-TNS/68-A 1033. aida quara waar & yam were wa A? 36. frafefiad 4 8 aaa am eH var safe arte (OCH % ait 4 wel ae 2? (a, SER (a) OCI Fra eet Ber aT AMC een A fo) aes aT () WH OCI ae sme aT & frm ca waa ddanfers dtr (q) wire atten earth (c) OCI WH AAG FNRI are eat (ay siftre gener a (@) @ ocl date tam 4 sa A wana % here afte a een FEF 34, Frafafar 4 a aaah ef afte was gare a am den A wat 8? fa) ster 37. Rafafaa 4 a ae wm fete omer (Aria sik area caer, anil wen Gari ar () 7 ‘afta fram) afte, 2016 a are 8? (o) ee seer (q) Fae ana as a ge aPaRaH | TRA AT GARR Z) (@) Beare () aie % fem saith wd shaft, Shit gear BH eh RI (co) 34 stab cea THT ee wafer een a 8 Packer sea te gee feo stage aia a ar @ FA wears a we am anges (@) afr A wear A gen eta ser safrcber weg Pa a Fahne were sewer ar aiRiea BI fo) Art 3 ak A cea ara & ae i ae 38, arg mH staat Am, a % faa frraftiten 4 & aaa sigede a oiftarm 87 () Fa wwe wa Te PH anne a framed fie ace @ seer of vate Pee gai (o) aye 17 (a) GA aah & deat A ahem taht @ sgerg ah el (@) AIR 23 GRS-A-TNS/68A. 1 [P.7.0.39. Which one of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly of India is not correct? (a) The Constituent Assembly was composed of members who had been elected indirectly by the Members of the Provincial Legislative Assembly. (b) The Constituent Assembly held its first sitting on 9th December, 1946. (c) The seats in each province were distributed among the three main communities—Muslim, Sikh and General, in proportion to their respective populations. (a) The method of selection in the case of representatives of Indian States was to be determined by the Governor-General of India. 40. Which one of the following is not a constitutional body? (a) The Election Commission of India (b) The Finance Commission (c) The Official Languages Commission (@) The National Women Commission for 41. Which one of the following is not a feature of monopolistic competition? (a) Large number of buyers and sellers in the market (®) Differentiated products constitute the market (e) Product in homogeneous the market is (a) Selling costs are used for sale promotion GRS-A-TNS/68-A 12 42. Social cost is higher than economic cost because (@) society is bigger than economy (%) society includes _ polity, economy does not include it while (©) cost borne by bystanders is positive (@ society includes both consumers and producers 43. Cess on coal at ® 100 per ton is a type of (a) carbon tax (b) carbon subsidy (6) carbon incentive for technology (d) carbon incentive for selling carbon permit Core intlation is different from headline inflation because the former (a) ignores articles of volatile nature in the price index (4) considers articles of volatile nature in the price index () is not based on commodity price index (d) considers only core items of consumption in the price index 45, Who among the following is the author of the book, Choice of Techniques? (a) A. K, Sen (b) KN, Raj () V.K.R.V. Rao (@) Sukhamoy Chakravarty39, ana A dae an & dee A frafatad a a aia UH wert ae el 8? (q) War wn aA Ae 8 ae eT oT, 3) sia far aa wee err ara Ralf ge a) @) afer aa A uech aan 9 feren, 1946 A sreaifra A =A eft (9 wets sia AE Ae ger aE afm, Rea aft ama i, aah ore ah oar 3 saga HATE a (a) ea Tat & ata ae Hse A AR ae 3 arse aro Praia Bart A 40, frafefaa 43 shan we aifienhs fra at a (a) ane a Palas ari (o) faa air (o) ware TAT (a) eR sften sre 41. fafafaa 4 8 aaah ww fen waar wal Hh at 8? (a) sen A ater att asta A ah ven (oy PRR sea 8 ara aT (co) ara H sere wea Sta B (a) Pam dats & fae fA ae ‘fen sim & GRS-A~TNS/68A, 13 sas cera A ee A ae eae after ‘Beh 8) ee Hr ae ef (a) wa, sora a sei & (o) was A usr after 8, sah adore 4 ag aftitira ae & () wisi (arsed) ar ae At rh arr eric A & @ we A spite ok sree, ai afefera gta & 43, Sat KF 100 sia a ar aaa Freafefad 7 A feet srepia cara 87 (a) *rea-aR (b) area afeE (c) Sehr 3 fer, ards rarer (a) ara wee Et faoht & fag ala sieerea 44. Wm (BR) BEAM, waa (Rees) TEAK B fie 8, eit Saar fq) Fem quate Foie eT A aes A stan a Bh 8 (0) Bra asin % sin ereT A ESI a afin ax ach 8 (Fara Bran aes ve renter Et 8 @Q Fra aaa 4 sein A tact Feat weal a a aititera ach 8 45. Fa a aige oie onan Ge HI SH e (a) we ho or (b) %o Go Ws (o) Mo Fo smo Ho 7a (aq) qara aad ([eato;46. Which one of the following bodies has formulated the ‘National Student Startup Policy’, launched by the President of India in November 2016? (a) uGc (») NCERT (9 alu (a) AICTE 47. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Working Group for determining the methodology for construction of Producer Price Index (PPI) in India (2014)? (a) Saumitra Chaudhury (b) D. V. Subbarao (6) Abhijit Sen (@) B.N. Goldar 48. Which one of the following schemes is aimed at all-round development of adolescent girls in the age group of 11-18 years and making them self- reliant? (a) RGSEAG (b) IGMSY () NMEW (@) RMK GRS-A~TNS/68-A. 14 49. Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 permits self governance of natural resources by (a) Gram Sabha (b) Gram Panchayat () the Chairman of Gram Panchayat (d) forest dwellers of a village situated in the areas mentioned in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India 80. Which one of the following countries is not a member of WTO? (@) Japan (b) China (o) Iran (@) Russia 51. A StandUp enterprise can be established in 1, farming sector 2. manufacturing sector 3, service sector 4. trading sector Select the carrect answer using the code given below. (@ (b) (c) 1,2 and3 (a 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 2,3 and 446. frites fami $8 fea wea ews eee 49, daa (aga Sat mT em) afhfiem, eardary aif” dae Hi 8, PA are cySR 1996 4 wef de & w-aftere AY eo ara 2016 H es far ae? igata faa at wh 87 (a ucc ee (o) aH Far (o) NCERT fo) wer sarera #1 Ht fo) Alu (a) wa ter A uted oH A (a) AICTE ‘sfeftaa act 4 fer fret aia avant i so. frafefad 4a aa-a1 ta WTO wm Beer Tet 47. vied A sere EI ETH (PPI) (2014) GaK ar wa & for fearrait Rutt ae are erica ar snag Ga ate om? (a) 30 (a) a shut teed (o) So Ae gan gna (= (cq) afta 8a (ad) Ao Go TheEK 51. wh Seay gem sel wanfta Pear on aa 87 1. #ftaa 2. fatima aa 48. frafatad 4 a fea er wr ae 11-18 af 3. aaa saguaf At Peete ar echitgeh Rare ar are sacar 8? anne a faq 1g ae ar we a BT ST TL (a) RGSEAG (q) 1, 2384 (o) IGMSY By ieisiahele (c) NMEW 1,233 (a) RMK (a) 2,334 GRS-A-TNS/68A. 15 [P.7.0.52. Who among the following were conferred with Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award for the year 2016? 1. Jitu Rai 2. Dipa Karmakar 3. P. V. Sindhu 4. Sakshi Malik Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (1 and 4 only (@) 1, 2,3 and 4 53. ISRO in August 2016 successfully test launched Supersonic Combustion Ramjet (Scramjet) Engine, Which of the following statements with regard to Scramjet Engine is/are correct? 1. It can efficiently operate both in subsonic and supersonic combustor modes. 2, India is the first country to demonstrate the flight testing of a Scramjet Engine. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only () Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 GRS-A-TNS/68-A 16 54, Startup Hubs are agreed to be set up in IITs 2. IISERs 3. NITs 4. Central Universities Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1,2 and 3 (e) 1 and 4 only () 3 and 4 only @) 1,3 and4 55. StandUp India Programme envisages each bank branch to give loan between ¥ 10 lakh to & 100 lakh 1, to at least one SC/ST borrower 2. to at least one woman borrower 3. to at least one rural unemployed youth borrower Select the correct answer using the code given below. (@) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 () land 3 (a) 1 and 252. af 2016 % fax usta Tie Ga wi Re FH 2 fi fexenfsat 1 wem fare ae a? 1. sie 2. aerate 3. Ho do fey 4. rele AS Re me ae a we ae aE Se BPI (a) Fa 2 ak 3 (b) FH 2, 3 4 () Fae sia (@ 1,2, 334 53. ISRO 9 sera 2016 F wurahin ce WE (aa) Baw aseTade vet fen aT) ame GAS du a fetid ¥ a Ba -aT/S we ae e/a? 1, seahe (saat) sik wate (gras) at weds veld i guerargges verter Pear 31 wa tI 2. ona faa eerste gor & Ser det a ‘veftfa eaten ee BH Z) oa faq ag a wn an BA oT ge (@) a1 (b) Fa 2 fo) 1 ote 2 eat @ ati ster GRS-A-TNS/68A 17 84. exon va A oat eat aa ide aT areata ge 1. ITs 2, IISERs 3. NITs 4. Fete Raftery Ae ume ee wr we ae aA oe GAA @ 1,23%3 (o) Fra tea () Fae 3 shea @ 1,33R4 55. Seoq ita area, wee Se ea ant 10 aa a F100 we a A aT Fraferfiar 4 a faa fq a x free ac a 1, wae GH Sc/sT ah 2. aa-S-aH we afte ae 3. BHR epr we ano Ate gar aot fa faq ay qe wr i aR BE TR AT) (@) Fat 1 (b) 233 fo) 13%K3 (a) 132 [P.7.0.56. In case of gold, revenue is recognized in 61. From the information given below, the accounting period in which the gold calculate the sum insurable : o Date of fire—01.03.2016 (a) delivered Tumover from 01.03.2015 to (b) ‘sold 29.02.2016— 88,00,000 te ‘ould. Agreed GP ratio—20% (d) identified to be mined Special circumstances clause provided for the increase of 57. As per the traditional approach, the creer bi 1058, expense to be matched with revenue is eased Gi (a) © 19,36,000 (a) original cost ais (b) opportunity cost (b) © 48,40,000 (6) replacement cost io) © (@) cash cost (e) © 10,32,000 (@) © 24,20,000 58. Preliminary expenses are the examples of (@) capital expenditure (b) capital gain 62. Income and Expenditure Account is (co) deterred revenue expenditure (a) revenue expenditure /expense (a) Real Account 59. Depreciation of fixed assets is an (Pt Personal Acsourl example of Nominal Account (a) deferred revenue expenditure Le aia auc (b) capital expenditure (@) Capital Account (c) capital gain (a) revenue expenditure/expense 63. Legacies are generally 60. In the context of accounting, the term IFRS stands for (2) capitalized and taken to Balance (a) International Financial Reporting sheet Standards () Indian Financial _—_Reporting NO)! esate ma, sicoins) oes (o) treated as expenditure (@) Indian Financial Reporting System (@) International Financial Reporting (@) capitalized and taken to Suspense System Account GRS-A~TNS/68-A, 1856. 87. 58. 59. wide i wdere satus 61 awh ger a dre Awa: Paces re sam em ar fei —01.03.2016 (q ei gen a are ; ‘feiF 01.03.2015 % 29.02.2016 TH Fa fa sonata fish #8,00,000 (o) each oat a ax frm oT FEAT GP SIGATI—20% (a) Gr foe eel Al ea A ch are B santana 10% a aft fire oe ates gon & agar, wore & wa ad a la it foah aren a galera Pear ara 8? (a) ® 19,36,000 (@) Fa oo (®) © 48,40,000 fo) Rear ae (© 10,32,000 (a) RMA (@ © 24,20,000 wre a Free serge 87 fq Yair oe 62, sm tk aaa Sen aa ei #7 (b) eer a , mul (@ Wit een (a) Ta aes (&) afte en ‘eapht serrated a prea fara sere 8? (e) Basra Aer fa) sre a (@ rasa (b) “sire oa (teem ara a we saad 88s saa a ‘Aearaen & dal B, ve ERS Peas se 87 fp eaeanot Granger teat & (a) Gecherrer rere fetea eel (o) ara ea A TH oT () eer wren fetfén eae (co) $a weirs Peter Rew (@) eer weirs fenfen freer (a) Sige ah @ oer saa Sen A A aT e (c) aH aH ae or GRS-A-TNS/68A, 19 [P.7.0,64. The abnormal loss on consignment is 67. Branch Account under Debtors System is credited to (a) Real Account (a) Profit and Loss Account @ (&) Consignee’s Account (b) Personal Account () Consignment Account () Nominal Account {a) Income and tsxpendsture Account (a) Liability Account 65. When goods are purchased for the Joint Venture, the amount is debited to 68. The cost of electric power should be apportioned over different departments (a) Purchase Account according to ite eee ae (a) horsepower of motors (c) Venturer’s Capital Account (b) number of light points (a) Profit and Loss Account (c) horsepower multiplied by machine hours 66. Consider the following information (4) machine hours Rate of gross profit—25% on cost of goods sold Sales— 20,00,000 69. Under which Schedule of the Companies Which one of the following is the Act, 2013, the formats of financial amount of gross profit? statements are prescribed? (a) Schedule 1 (a) ®5,00,000 ») ©6,25,000 (6) Schedule II () %3,75,000 () Schedule M1 (a) ® 4,00,000 (d) Schedule IV GRS-A-TNS/68-A, 2064, Hom (88 Be Ta) Te Sra a fra Ba 67. FO soreh % sient wrrat eea & fee oA arch 8? Gg) aH tea aa fey seseea (o) Rie a Be (o) afr Sea (oy Wear ae (co) 379-214 Bea (a) sre wet wa era ai Sarita 65. va age som % faq aegl wd aad 8, a ‘UR Poa Ba Hak ah 8? 68. fiqanfe A ai fafa fumi a fa ‘iene sagan sone ah safe? &) a qeamea (a) Aredia kieran (c) Sifearh Sora Sean (o) rome Fargatt A zen (a) ams atk a ae fo) eee a Ap (a aR 66, Prater aa we PaR fa: wea on Ha a aga A ATK 25% 69, sexi aftfian, 2013 A fra saga % sila fassi—F 20,00,000 ‘fares feet & waa Futter fg sre €? aaa amy A ath Patera Ha aa 8? (a) sR (a) * 5,00,000 () aR (2) ® 6,25,000 fo) ® 3,75,000 () aa (a) ¥ 4,00,000 (@ aaRhiv GRS-A-TNS/68A 21 [?. 2 @.70. In the absence of any provision in the partnership agreement, profits losses are shared by the partners @) and in the ratio of the capital of partners (b) (c) in the ratio of loans given by them to the partnership firm equally (a) in the ratio of the initial capital introduced by the partners 71. Works Committee, Safety Committee and Canteen Management Committee are the examples of workers’ management @ participation in 0) (c) workers’ cooperatives @ workers’ education schemes workers’ suggestion schemes 72. Which one of the following is not part of the aims and purposes of the ILO as per Philadelphia Declaration? (a) Labour is not a commodity. (b) Freedom of expression and of association are essential to sustained progress. ) Poverty anywhere constitutes danger to prosperity everywhere. (d) The war against want requires to be carried on with unrelenting vigour within each nation and is solely the responsibility of the government. GRS-A-TNS/68-A 22 is an 73. Which one of the following exception from the five functional types of unionism identified by Robert Hoxie? (2) Business Unionism () Predatory Unionism () Revolutionary Unionism (a) Evolutionary Unionism 74, Which one of the following is the process in which representatives of workmen and employer involved in an industrial dispute are brought together before a third person or group of persons who facilitates /facilitate through mediation to reach a mutually satisfactory agreement? (a) Arbitration (b) Adjudication (c) Conciliation () Collective negotiation 75. Questions relating to the application or interpretation of a standing order certified under the —_Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 may be referred to (q) Industrial Tribunal (b) Labour Commissioner () Labour Court (d) Industrial Employment Court70, waa a A ag wae 4 aA A fee F wren arr ore otk eihtat ata sah & (a) wreert A oh agar 7 (b) FTAR-STER (co) SR ar arated we a Re ae aT agra (a) wider gra caret eh write Yeh agra & 71. Friant aft, arate oft See wee ‘afta Paras saree 8? (a) vei 8 saree seh (oy sort =A Ren se Co) earn Bh armed aA (ay srt A gare star 72, frenéfera ton a agen, frafataa 4 a 4-81 UF ILO % weit otk seat ar wea? (a) ara wm ay TE () siete A errant aS eT aa fara 8g siPiard #1 () Prd tear Koni, eT weraal & fora ama 21 (ay atte % Rares 1% fore ae sr & fe rls Uy sie ea Fen oe a we om, ot ff owe a wa afara 1 GRS-A-TNS/68A 23 73. tad tat am fafea dea & ota erie vert 4a Reafetaa 43 staan ww sae nd (a) aR aaa (b) taveafers waar (o) wrifeemrtt wre (ay Prepreera deren 74, Prafefiad 4 8 ae aha-ch we vie 8, frat feet stetfies fare Femi am wd fer 3 sited a ww det cafe a mated & aye wa TH Te STAT aT & oh sat wae & ga TEN dae -aeata a agat 8 (a) TRA, fb) ae (o) Were (ay arate ara 75. drifire Pets (ear sen) afafrem, 1946 sie went Peet earch rea 3 sed a Petar 8 daft wedi a fared fee Aor SH Bar 8? (a) areas safer (b) AH AEB (o) 7H area (a) stirs Petsa sree [P.T.0,76. A union whose membership may cover workers employed in many industries, employment and crafts is known as (@) industrial union (b) general union craft union to) (@) region-cum-industry level union 77. Which one of the following perspectives of industrial relations is based on the assumption that both the parties strive (and have opportunity) to exercise economic (wages and benefits) as well as political (control) power? @ (b) () @ Pluralistic perspective Unitary perspective Radical perspective ‘Trusteeship perspective 78. The provision of workers’ participation in management of industries is provided under (a) Article 39A of the Constitution of India (8) Axticle 134 of the Constitution of India (c) Article 42 of the Constitution of India (@) Article 43B of the Constitution of India GRS-A-TNS/68-A, 24 79. 80. 81, Which one of the following is not a trade union security measure? (a) Closed shop system (b) Agency shop system () Open shop system (@) Union shop system Which one of the following is statutory machinery functioning at the central level? (@) Central Implementation —_ and Evaluation Committee (b) Central Board for Workers’ Education () Standing Labour Committee (d) Employee’s State ‘Insurance Corporation Which one of the following explains the ‘citizen concept’ of labour? (2) Labour is largely regarded by the employers as operating organizations in industry (b) Labour is affected by the law of demand and supply. () Labour has a right to be consulted in regard to the terms and conditions under which they are supposed to work. (@) Labour is a cog in the machine.76. 8 da ah en we aT 8 PoE Bee Hag 4 san, tan sit fever 4 ard we are cared a arfter fear sire 8? (a) Steins aa (b) WT (co) Prea Ha (@) da-ae-sa cata 77. ales det ar Frafotan 4 a a- TH aide wa ohecr omaia 2 f& eri a =a ons (nagt sik a) ik we Gare wert (dam) afte % faq ware at & (att SH oa stam Sat 8)? a) gael Rea (b) Carrer SAT (co) aye VRadrardt wither (a) =item vider 78, sari % wea Fare A wef a sada ‘feat arania fear a 8? (a) rea aie a gee BOA (b) ve 3 ate ar TBS 438 (co) Mita Bfaera ar sIGHse 42. (aq) wa tar aw se 438 GRS-A-TNS/68A 25 79, Prafafaa 1-8 Aamo, WAR we RET areas wet 8? (a) sa-aae sfaer were (o) Reape sheers sore fo) Sea after oA (a) Ba-aafia after ore so. ta eR Ko ar eA ae diffe da frraftifiea 3-8 ahaa 8? (@) 330 fereee ok yeas ah (b) ata afr Faran ae fo) eat ahem eh (ay iene Tea aha Foy 81. afte A ake deem fefafad Fa rae gra aftia arf 8? (a) sam 4 Fim wa ate se Gen: ‘aftare are % wa A eae sre 2 (b) Fin sik angi % feria 8 are wks tint (c) ars #2 me after @ fe fa Fae She wal 3% siecle SB aay aHeM 8, Te aay 8 sad cored fen ara) @) afi, natin Hee gat 81 ttetio;82. Who among the following can be appointed as the Chairman of the Central Advisory Board constituted by the Central Government under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948? (a) One of the independent members of the Board (b) One of the employers’ represen- tatives of the Board (c) One of the employees’ represen- tatives of the Board (a) A functionary of the Central Government nominated by the Government 83. Which one of the following comes under the ‘State List’ under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India? (@) Relief of the unemployable disabled and () Regulation of labour and safety in mines (c) Regulation and control. of manufacture, supply and distribution of salt (@) Social security and __ social insurance 84, The assumption that “man is selfish and self-centered, and always tries to achieve his own ends even at the cost of others” explains which theory of labour welfare? (a) Placating theory (b) Police theory (c) Religious theory (d) Philanthropic theory GRS-A~TNS/68-A 26 85. Dr. Aykroyd’s formula is associated with determination of (a) fair wage (b) minimum wage (©) living wage (d) real wage 86. “Everyone as a member of the socicty has the right to social security, and is entitled to realization through national efforts and international cooperation and in accordance with the organization and resources of each state of economic, social and cultural rights indispensable for his dignity and free development of his personality.” This statement which is emphasizing the importance of social security has been expressed in which of the following? (a) Universal Declaration of Human Rights (b) Philadelphia Declaration of the ILO (c) Report of the First National Commission on Labour (d) Directive Principles of State Policy of the Indian Constitution 87. For the first time in India, medical benefit as a non-cash benefit was provided under (a) the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948 (b) the Factories Act, 1948 () the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 (d) the Mines Act, 1952