Sample English Exit Diagnostic Test

Exite Teste Diagnóstico de Proficienca Geral em Inglês

This Test is given at the beginning of each semester to all UCP students to
measure their proficiency in English. If a student scores above 60% correct, it
is assumed s/he has intermediate level English – B2, and is exempted from the
English studies requirement. If not, students should enroll in the UCP English
Program (or elsewhere) in order to prepare themselves during the semester
for the English Exit Diagnostic Test at the end of the semester for registered
students only and/or the Cambridge-Michigan Certificate Exams (optional):
ECCE (B2) and ECPE (C2) - offered at UCP-CRP twice a year (May and
December).

SECTION I – LISTENING COMPREHENSION (approximately 30 minutes)

INSTRUCTIONS: The first section of the examination tests your understanding

of spoken English. The Listening Section has three (3) parts. There are fifty (50)
questions. Mark all your answers on the separate answer sheet If you change your
mind about an answer, erase your first answer completely.

LISTENING PART I – In this part, you will hear short conversations ONLY
ONCE. From the answer choices, select the answer which means about the same
thing as what you hear, or is true based upon what you hear.

For example: (listen)

a. They will stay home.

b. They will go to a game.
c. They don’t like football.

The correct answer is “b.” For problems 1 – 15, mark your answers on the separate
answer sheet. No problems can be repeated. Please listen carefully. Do you have
any questions?

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 DO NOT WRITE ON THE EXAM.

We will begin now with question #1.

1. a. His sister is waiting for him.

b. His sister was upset because he forgot.
c. His sister wasn’t able to go.

2. a. She likes being with her family all the time.

b. She never gets together with her family.
c. She doesn’t always like being around her family.

3. a. Jim lost his job.

b. Jim was ashamed
c. Jim has gotten angry before.

4. a. She thinks the film is funny.

b. She’ll watch the movie today.
c. She’ll try to buy a ticket later.

5. a. They think John can do the job.

b. They think John can’t do the job.
c. John was not worried about doing the job.

6. a. They got home after noon.

b. They got home before noon.
c. They got home at noon.

7. a. He thinks her topic is too limited.

b. He thinks her topic is too general.
c. He thinks she should find a new topic.

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8. a. They got caught in a storm.
b. Her parents liked him.
c. They didn’t get along well.

9. a. He hasn’t been to the theme park.

b. He and his brother have been to the theme park.
c. She has been to the theme park.

10. a. He wants a job with more responsibility.

b. He’s not sure when the job starts.
c. He’s been offered a new job.

11. a. She doesn’t want him to remove the plants.

b. She thinks he might get too many plants.
c. She’s willing to help him with the plants.

12. a. She’ll give him her manual.

b. He’ll try to figure it out himself.
c. He’s going to look for the manual.

13. a. The ship was out at sea when the storm hit.
b. The ship is now at the port.
c. The ship was in the port when the storm hit.

14. a. He isn’t happy with his cards.

b. He’s satisfied with his cards.
c. She thinks he should return the cards.

15. a. They think Bill can easily get the job.

b. They think Bill did too much.
c. They think Bill didn’t do enough.
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LISTENING PART II – In this part, you will hear a question ONLY ONCE.
From the three answer choices given, choose the one which best answers the
question. For example, listen to the question:

EXAMPLE: (listen)

a. The wedding’s next Saturday.

b. Yes, she’s married.
c. Two weeks ago.

The correct answer is “a”.

For problems 16 through 35, MARK YOUR ANSWERS ON THE SEPARATE

ANSWER SHEEET. No problems can be repeated. Please listen carefully. Do you
have any questions?

16. a. Actually, he got pretty mad.

b. He probably won’t care.
c. Yeah, he’s dealing with it.

17. a. No, I didn’t think they’d tell us.

b. No, I’m not going to get it.
c. No, I couldn’t hear it either.

18. a. That would probably be best.

b. It didn´t come up.
c. There’s no trouble.

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19. a. Yes, it was really sad.
b. Yes, it did seem confusing.
c. Yes, it was so long.

20. a. In the mail.

b. Sure, I’ll come too.
c. I’m almost finished.

21. a. Actually, I already did.

b. Sure, I’ll keep it for you.
c. Ok, if you can.

22. a. No we didn’t.
b. That’s what I’m expecting.
c. Okay, we should plan it.

23. a. He thinks it takes too long.

b. He thinks it’s working.
c. He thinks we’re almost there.

24. a. No, I did it myself.

b. No, I planned it last week.
c. No, I’ll plan it next week.

25. a. Let’s do that.

b. Yeah, I’d be glad to.
c. It could use some improvements.

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26. a. Wherever you want.
b. The end of the day yesterday.
c. I said it last week.

27. a. It stopped
b. At the department store.
c. It’s going to rain.

28. a. Yes, they get it more easily.

b. Yes, they get over it sooner.
c. Yes, they are affected by it.

29. a. No, I don’t think you should read them.

b. Okay, but only if you put them back.
c. Let me look at them first.

30. a. It didn’t bother me.

b. Oh, I thought I did.
c. There’s room on the top shelf.

31. a. It should be delivered by them.

b. They can’t possibly do it.
c. They’ll probably like it.

32. a. Well, he really wants to get a promotion.

b. That’s the third time he’s lost his job.
c. Right now he has too much happening.

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33. a. You’re right. I could use a smaller one.
b. Actually, I’d just like something basic.
c. Yes, my old was a little expensive.

34. a. Can’t say I have.

b. Yes, we’ll see them.
c. Sure, you can borrow them.

35. a. I’m sorry. I’ll try to keep it down.

b. Yeah, it’s definitely louder.
c. Sure, I can whisper.

End of Listening Part II. Continue to Listening Part III

LISTENING PART III - In this part, you will hear ONLY ONCE three
short segments from a radio program.. The program is called “Learning
from the Experts”. You will hear what three different radio guests have to
say about three different topics. Each report lasts about four minutes. As
you listen, you may want to take some notes to help you remember
information given in the report. Write your notes, if you like, on a
separate piece of paper the supervisor will provide. After each report, you
will be asked some questions about what was said. From the three answer
choices given, you should choose the one that best answers the question
according to the information you heard.

No problems can be repeated. For problems 36 through 50, mark all your
answers on the separate answer sheet. Do you have any questions?

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LISTENING PART III - Segment 1

36. a. Whether or not the oil rigs actually attract fish.

b. Whether or not the oil rigs should be removed.
c. Whether or not drilling in the ocean should be allowed.

37. a. Offshore drilling equipment extracted more oil.

b. Environmentalists were opposed to drilling on land.
c. Land- based sources were running low.

38. a. The platforms were not productive.

b. The rigs were endangering the environment.
c. They had promised local officials that they would.

39. a. It is difficult to conduct research in these locations.

b. It leads to increased levels of contamination.
c. There are fewer fish and coral in these areas.

40. a. Research is needed to see if they’ll attract fish.

b. The fish are not at any risk now.
c. The structures serve as an artificial reef.

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LISTENING PART III - Segment 2

41. a. It’s bendable.

b. It’s reinforced.
c. It changes size.

42. a. a U.S study was conducted on reinforced concrete.

b. the invention of ECC.
c. fiber-reinforced concrete first came into use.

43. a. It’s initially more expensive than regular concrete.

b. It has a shorter life expectancy than regular concrete.
c. It needs more repairs than regular concrete.

44. a. Workers need training to make it.

b. The cost is very high
c. It cracks more easily.

45. a. ECC will last longer than regular concrete.

b. ECC will be used more in the U.S.
c. ECC will cost less in the future.

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LISTENING PART III - Segment 3

46. a. a protein molecule.

b. a type of cell.
c. a virus.

47. a. Kinesin breaks down cell walls.

b. Kinesin destroys some viruses.
c. Viruses use Kinesin to spread.

48. a. inside cells.

b. on cell walls.
c. in between cells.

49. a. Mental processing declines with less Kinesin.

b. Mental processing improves with less Kinesin.
c. Mental processing is not affected by Kinesin level.

50. a. They altered levels of Kinesin in mice.

b. They administered Kinesin to people with Alzheimer’s disease.
c. They attached viruses to Kinesin.

***********END OF LISTENING COMPREHENSION********

Continue to Section II – Structure & Written Expression

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SECTION II – STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION (40 minutes)

INSTRUCTIONS: This section of the exam is designed to measure your ability to

recognize language that is appropriate for standard written English.

There are two (2) types of questions in this section, with special instructions for
each type.

Part I Instructions: Questions 1 – 15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each

sentence you will see four words or phrases, marked A, B, C, and D. Choose the
one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet,
find the number of the question and fill in the space completely that corresponds to
the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Example Part I:

______ are found in virtually every country in the world.

a. Swamps and marshes which

b. When swamps and marshes
c. Swamps and marshes
d. Now that swamps and marshes

The sentence should read, “Swamps and marshes are found in virtually every
country in the world.” Therefore, you should choose answer c.

Now begin work on Part I of this section and then continue and read the
instructions for Part II that begins with question 16.

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1. President Eisenhower in 1957 _____ about the military or scientific value
of satellite development.
a. doubtfully
b. was doubtful
c. to doubt
d. doubts were

2. Performer Annie Oakley rode horses in Buffalo Bill’s Wild West Show
_____ seventeen years.
a. for
b. from
c. so
d. while

3. Methane is formed when plants decay in places _____ very little air.
a. there is
b. where there is
c. where is there
d. there are where

4. Management information systems are computer systems _____ the

executives who run businesses, government agencies, and other
organizations.
a. design aid
b. designed aided
c. design with aid
d. designed to aid

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5. Founded in 1885, Banff National Park _____ .
a. Being the oldest national park in Canada
b. Is the oldest national park in Canada
c. Having been the oldest Canadian national park there
d. That is the oldest Canadian national park

6. The author of Uncle Tom’s Cabin, _____ a product of the intellectual

aristocracy of New England.
a. Harriet Stowe was
b. being Harriet Snow
c. Harriet Stowe
d. who was Harriet Stowe

7. The first tooth usually emerges_____ about six months old.

a. when an infant
b. an infant
c. an infant that
d. when an infant is

8. Some solids, such as charcoal, _____ liquids or gas easily.

a. are absorbed
b. to absorb
c. absorb
d. absorbing

9. Red phosphorous, _____ more stable form than white, can be obtained by
heating white phosphorous to 250º in a closed vessel.
a. it is a
b. a
c. that a
d. is it a
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10. _____ outcome of the Battle of Gettysburg that forecast the Confederate
defeat in the U.S. Civil War.
a. Because of the
b. The
c. That the
d. It was the

11. When a person speaks into a telephone, sound waves _____ by the
person’s voice enter the mouthpiece.
a. to produce
b. are producing
c. produced
d. which produced

12. During the great periods of architecture, _____ has been subject to
various cannons or rules.
a. What constitutes perfect proportions
b. The most perfect proportions are
c. While perfectly proportioning
d. There are some perfect proportions

13. The swamp maple tree grows well in _____ soil.

a. kinds of virtually all
b. virtually all kinds of
c. all kinds of virtually
d. of virtually all kinds

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 14. Benjamin Franklin’s contributions to the patriot’s cause during the
American Revolution, and to the government _____ , place him among
the country’s greatest leaders.
a. follows
b. followed
c. that followed
d. having it to follow

15. According to researchers Katharine Payne and Linda Smith, _____ long,
complex songs of the humpback whale contain sounds that appear to be
similar to rhymes.
a. their
b. whose
c. the
d. that

*****End of Part 1- Structure & Written Expression*****

Part 2 - Structure & Written Expression

Part 2 Instructions: In questions 16 – 40 each sentence has four underlined words

or phrases. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked a, b, c, d. Identify
the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to
be grammatically correct. Mark your answers on the separate answer sheet.

Example:

(a) When overall exports exceed (b) imports, a (c) country said to have a (d)
trade surplus.

The sentence should read, “(a) When overall exports exceed (b) imports, a (c)
country is said to have a (d) trade surplus.” Therefore, you should choose answer c.

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 Now begin work on Part 2 of the Structure
& Written Expression Section with
question 16.

16. The universe (a) contains a myriad (b) of stars, (c) many them not (d)
unlike our Sun.

17. Histologists (a) examine cells to (b) be determined their (c) nature and (d)
function.

18. A metaphor is an (a) expression (b) taken from one field of experience
used (c) saying something in (d) a different field.

19. Georgia O’Keeffe was an (a) artist who (b) found inspiration (c) in
nature for most (d) at her paintings.

20. Our (a) understanding of the past is (b) based on written records, oral
traditions, and (c) physically evidence, all of which (d) must be
interpreted.

21. (a) Advances in elevator (b) technology, air conditioning, and electric
illumination (c) having all had profound effects in the field of (d) modern
architecture.

22. The framers of the United States Constitution considered (a) itself the (b)
heirs of the British (c) political (d) tradition.

23. Most household (a) appliances emit electromagnetic (b) fields that are
basically (c) equivalence to those emitted by higher-voltage (d) lines.

24. Glass ceramics are (a) strong materials (b) that made by heating glass (c)
to rearrange its atoms into regular patterns (d) called crystals.

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25. The boneless, muscular trunk of an elephant is (a) actual a greatly (b)
elongated upper lip and nose used to convey (c) grasses, leaves, and
water to (d) the mouth.

26. (a) As a protostar (b) slowly contracts, (c) their pressure and temperature
(d) increase.

27. Collecting antiques may seem to be a (a) relatively modern phenomenon,

but (b) document prove that beautiful (c) old objects have always been
(d) appreciated.

28. Great (a) changes have enveloped California (b) as it has evolved (c) to a
rural to (d) an urban culture.

29. (a) Above 40 million pounds (b) of dried licorice root (c) are imported
(d) into the European Union each year.

30. The (a) relationship of Latin American music (b) to Black music in the
United States is most evident in the offbeat accents (c) that are (d)
commonly to both.

31. The Great Salty Lake is all that is (a) leaving of a great freshwater lake
that (b) extended throughout northwestern Utah (c) centuries (d) ago.

32. (a) In the northern Template Zone, the first (b) frosty (c) generally (d)
occurs in October.

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 33. Compact discs, (a) which
appeared on the market in the early 1980’s,
(b) produce sound of (c) best quality than that of the old (d) standard
phonograph records.

34. A (a) treatment for nearsightedness, (b) eyeglass with concave lenses
adjusts images (c) falling incorrectly (d) in front of the retina.

35. As early (a) as A.D. 300, Native Americans in the Ohio and Mississippi
river (b) valleys (c) were building large pyramids, (d) presumable for
religious purposes.

36. Today (a) rapid communication methods have made (b) available much
of the literature of (c) every nation, (d) both the original language and in
translation.

37. Duke Ellington composed (a) quite a few (b) works specifically (c) for
feature the distinctive sounds of soloists (d) in his band.

38. (a) As the eye, a camera takes in rays of light reflected (b) from an object
and (c) focuses them (d) into an image.

39. In a career that spanned four decades, Ruth Draper (a) made the dramatic
monologue a (b) lively, personal artistic (c) performance that won (d)
herself international acclaim.

40. Large (a) quantity of lead in the atmosphere can (b) have a damaging
effect on (c) certain pollution-control (d) mechanisms.

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 END OF STRUCTURE & WRITTEN
EXPRESSION SECTION II

****Stop work on Part 2 of the Structure & Written Expression Section****

Continue to Section III – Vocabulary and Reading Comprehension

SECTION III – VOCABULARY & READING COMPREHENSION

(40 minutes)

INSTRUCTIONS: This section is designed to measure your comprehension of

standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section – Part 1
and Part 2, with special instructions for each type.

In questions 1 – 30 each sentence has an underlined word or phrase. Below each

sentence are four other words or phrases, marked a, b, c, and d. Choose the one
word or phrase that best keeps the meaning of the original sentence if it is
substituted for the underlined word or phrase. Then, mark your answer on the
separate answer sheet. Do not write on the Exam.

Example for Part 1 - Vocabulary:

Having served previously as counselor to President Bush, Anne Armstrong was

appointed ambassador to Great Britain in 2005.

a. loyally
b. ably
c. often
d. earlier

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 The best answer is d because “Having served
earlier as counselor to President Bush, Anne
Armstrong was appointed ambassador to Great Britain in 2005” is closest in
meaning to the original sentence. Now begin work on Part 1- Vocabulary with
questions 1-30.

Part 1 - Vocabulary

1. In 1991 astronomers at Kitt Peak National Observatory in Arizona

photographed a spiral sunspot, a type not observed before that time.
a. since
b. during
c. until
d. after

2. Although the first stock exchange in the United States was established in
1791, the concept of such an exchange can be traced back to the 12th
century.
a. idea
b. wealth
c. site
d. control

3. Gallup, New Mexico, a city that borders on a large Native-American Navajo

Indian reservation, is recognized as the American Indian capital of the
United States.
a. advertised
b. known
c. visible

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 d. registered

4. Gold and silver are rarely used in their pure forms.

a. hardly ever
b. no longer
c. industrially
d. extravagantly

5. It was long believed that the bed of the Pacific Ocean was like a great
sunken plain.
a. water
b. salt
c. furniture
d. bottom

6. Ernest Hemingway joined the Toronto Star in 1921 as an eager twenty-year-

old journalist whose name had not yet appeared in print.
a. criticized
b. began to work for
c. subscribed to
d. purchased

7. In his earliest works, choreographer Paul Taylor’s use of ordinary gestures

and postures puzzled some audiences.
a. bored
b. confused
c. offended
d. delighted

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 8. The telegraph was the fastest means of
long-distance communication during much of
the nineteenth century.
a. converter
b. result
c. development
d. method

9. A motto is a short phrase or sentence that states a guiding principle.

a. recalls
b. contradicts
c. expresses
d. clarifies

10. As part of their training, some artists reproduce famous paintings.

a. examine
b. copy
c. compare
d. rearrange

11. Employment opportunities in the transportation industry rose markedly

between 1960 and 1969.
a. significantly
b. gradually
c. irregularly

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 d. unexpectedly

12. The usefulness of silver in such different fields as photography and solar
energy makes it a practical as well as a precious metal.
a. an attractive
b. a flexible
c. a valuable
d. a glossy

13. Polar bears are well equipped for life in the perpetual ice and snow of the
far north.
a. empty
b. forgotten
c. permanent
d. freezing

14. Deficit spending, which occurs when a government spends more than it
takes in. is one of the causes of inflation.
a. receives
b. acknowledges
c. budgets
d. charges

15. When human beings first turned to farming, they became intensely
concerned with the phenomenon of rain.
a. deeply
b. necessarily
c. suddenly
d. unexpectedly

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 16. The growth of medical specialties has
resulted in seriously ill patients receiving
much more effective treatment than ever before.
a. intermittently
b. mildly
c. moderately
d. gravely

17. Willa Cather wrote about immigrant women who braved the arduous and
lonely life of the prairies.
a. foreign
b. reckless
c. solitary
d. hazardous

18. A fuel-injection system in an internal-combustion engine disperses fuel

more evenly for greater power.
a. discreetly
b. equally
c. slowly
d. efficiently

19. The colors of the sky are among the most accurate weather indicators.
a. common
b. controversial
c. reliable
d. obsolete

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 20. Scientists have detected a black hole
five million times as massive as our Sun at the center of the galaxy.
a. photographed
b. investigated
c. discovered
d. reported

21. Human exposure to lead comes primarily from house dust or yard soil
contaminated by tiny chips of lead paint.
a. compounds
b. fragments
c. fumes
d. layers

22. As more is learned about the incredibly large number of plants within the
plant kingdom, scientific classifications are revised.
a. repeated
b. incorporated
c. debated
d. changed

23. Controversy continues to exist over the issue of whether there are inherent
presidential powers that are not mentioned in the United States Constitution.
a. doubt
b. policy
c. dispute

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 d. publicity

24. Before young children acquire speech, they learn that continuous strings of
sounds can be broken up into discrete segments.
a. disguised
b. meaningful
c. separate
d. simple

25. Each organism in the universe is well suited to its niche in the ecological
community.
a. division
b. advantage
c. climate
d. place

26. The presence of small amounts of certain minerals such as copper or iron in
food can adversely affect the taste.
a. rapidly
b. lastingly
c. obviously
d. unfavorably

27. Although the use of aluminum compounds originated in antiquity, the metal
was not isolated until much later.
a. excavation
b. knowledge
c. measurement
d. employment

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 28. The Mayflower Compact signed by the
Pilgrims in the harbor of Cape Cod was the
first document providing for self-government to be drafted in the American
colonies.
a. needed
b. approved
c. written
d. printed

29. The dog sled is predominantly used by Arctic peoples for long-distance
transportation.
a. probably
b. typically
c. habitually
d. chiefly

30. Archaeology uses systematic fieldwork, augmented by historical records,

to survey and record artifacts.
a. indicated
b. exposed
c. confirmed
d. supplemented

***End of Part 1 – Vocabulary***

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 ***Continue to Part 2 – Reading
Comprehension***

Part 2 – Reading Comprehension

Instructions: In this section you will read three (3) reading passages. Each one is
followed by several questions about it. For questions 31 – 50, you are to choose the
one best answer a, b, c, or d to each question. Answer all questions following a
passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage. Mark your
answers on the separate answer sheet.

Reading Passage 1 (Questions 31 – 37)

In 1903 appeared The Land of Little Rain, a collection of sketches and

stories of unusual distinction in which a new writer, Mary Austin, related her
impressions of a California desert region near the Sierra Mountains. The desert was
the only world in which Mary Austin felt at home. There, walking or on horseback
(5) every day, she picked up stories from the wilderness people and made friends
with lonely shepherds guarding their flocks.

This was the country, enchanted for her, that appeared in Mary Austin’s
books The Land of Little Rain, Lost Borders, and The Flock, three singularly happy
books, both deeply felt and picturesque, though perhaps a little too cunningly or
(10) too consciously wrought. They were full of strange characters whom she had

28
 met in her desert life. They were the shy hairy
shepherds, taciturn, given to seeing visions.
Mary Austin knew them well. She had shared haunches of venison with them,
stuck full of garlic corns and roasted in the coals. She had boiled her own kettle in
the brush under the large, pulsating desert stars wheeling to their stations (15) in
the sky.

This was in tune with the state of mind that certain types acquired in the
solitude and silence of the desert, under the stars, the result of a kind of
concentration that narcotized the outer being and evoked both hallucinations and
genuine powers. The religion of the Native Americans made much of this, and
(20) Mary Austin saw much of them. She sometimes felt that she was one of them.

She absorbed their medical lore, their ritual, their dances, and a knowledge that
appeared in her writing. She could never establish a real relation with the world
beyond the desert, and her writing was always abortive when she left the world of
(24) the desert.

31. What is the main topic of the passage?

a. The effect of the desert on American literature
b. Mary Austin’s experiences in the desert
c. Customs of Native American Indians
d. Cultural differences among Native American Indians

32. The author of the passage states that Austin felt the desert was
a. picturesque
b. strange
c. lonely
d. enchanted

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 33. As an example of the strange
characters Austin met in the desert, the author
mentions
a. cowboys
b. farmers
c. shepherds
d. homesteaders

34. The word “tune” in line 16 could best be replaced by which of the
following?
a. Melody
b. Harmony
c. Song
d. Tempo

35. The author mentions all of the following areas of Native American Indian
culture that Austin studied EXCEPT
a. Medicine
b. Rituals
c. Stories
d. Dances

36. The word “them” in line 20 refers to

a. Types
b. Hallucinations
c. Powers
d. Native Americans

37. Where in the passage does the author describe the effect the desert has on
some people?
a. Lines 1-4
b. Lines 10-15

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 c. Lines 16-19
d. Lines 22-24

Reading Passage 2 (Questions 38 – 43)

The federal government of the United States, as it developed under the

Constitution to be a single unit of power, was completely sovereign. Although it
was to be supreme in the exercise of the powers granted to it, the national
government was given a limited sphere in which to operate while many residual
(5) powers were left to the states. As if the specifications in the original draft of the
Constitution were not clear enough, the Tenth Amendment was added to declare
that any powers that were not specifically delegated to the federal government by
the Constitution or specifically denied to the states by the Constitution were
reserved for the states or for citizens.

(10) Despite the federal government having made many encroachments into the
powers of state governments in the course of more than 200 years, the powers held
by the states were originally and still are intended to be of the highest importance.
The line dividing the authority of the states from the federal government has not
always, of course, been a sharp one. And the history of the Supreme Court has
(15) largely been the history of repeated attempts to define this very line.

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 38. What is the passage mainly about?
a. The significance of the Supreme Court
b. The drafting of the United States Constitution
c. The distribution of power under the Constitution
d. Federal attempts to exercise political authority

39. The word “supreme” in line 3 is closest in meaning to which of the

following?
a. Paramount
b. Diligent
c. Vigorous
d. Restrained

40. The word “sphere” in line 4 refers to a

a. Government offices
b. Field of influence
c. Natural place
d. Group of buildings

41. Under the Constitution the powers of the individual states are
a. Specifically protected
b. Different for each state
c. Almost nonexistent
d. Parallel to federal ones

42. The passage supports which of the following generalizations?

a. The Constitution clearly established where authority lies.
b. The framers of the Constitution did not consider it important to establish
a division of governmental authority.
c. The federal government can now easily take over authority originally
given to the states.

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 d. The precise separation of
authority between state and federal
government is difficult to establish.

43. The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses the
a. Conditions that led to the writing of the Constitution
b. People who wrote the Constitution
c. Court decisions about state and federal powers
d. Eleventh Amendment to the Constitution.

Reading Passage 3 (Questions 44 – 50) Mark your answers on the

separate answer sheet.

The word “placebo” comes from the Latin verb meaning “I shall
please.” A placebo in the classical sense is an imitation medicine,
generally an innocuous milk-sugar tablet that resembles an authentic pill,
given more for the purpose of placating a patient than for meeting a
clearly diagnosed organic need. The placebo’s most frequent use in
(5) recent years, however, has been in the testing of new drugs. Effects
achieved by the preparation being tested are measured against those that
follow the administration of a “dummy drug”, or placebo.
For a long time, placebos were in general disrepute with a large part
of the medical profession. For many doctors, the term had connotations
(10) of “pseudo-medicaments.” There was also a feeling that placebos
were largely shortcuts for some practitioners who were unable to take the
time and trouble to get at the real source of a patient’s malaise.

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 Today, however, the once lowly
placebo is receiving serious attention from
researchers. Investigators have found substantial evidence that the (15)
placebo not only can be made to look like a powerful medication, but can
actually act like a medication. They regard it not just as a physician’s
psychological prop in the treatment of certain patients but as an authentic
therapeutic agent for altering body chemistry and for helping to mobilize
the body’s defenses in combating disease.
(20) While the way the placebo works inside the body is still not
completely understood, some placebo researchers theorize that it
activates the cerebral cortex, which in turn switches on the endocrine
system in general and the adrenal glands in particular. Whatever the
precise pathways through the mind and body, enough evidence already
(25) exists to indicate that placebos can be as potent as – and sometimes
more potent than- the active drugs they replace.

44. What does the passage mainly discuss?

a. Uses of experimental drugs in treating disease
b. The role of placebos in modern medicine
c. Misconceptions about placebos
d. The diagnosis of serious illnesses

45. According to the passage, the placebo’s original application was to

a. soothe a patient
b. test new drugs
c. meet a diagnosed need
d. lessen the amount of treatment necessary

46. The word “those” in line 6 refers to

a. effects
b. patients
c. placebos
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 d. tests

47. The term “connotations” in line 9 is closest in meaning to which of the

following?
a. Implications
b. Applications
c. Variations
d. Combinations

48. Placebos are worthy of investigation because they

a. often look like real medicine
b. help doctors in diagnosis
c. have changed greatly in recent years
d. sometimes have therapeutic effects

49. The passage supports which of the following generalizations?

a. Studies of experimental drugs no longer use placebos.
b. Patients who take placebos think they are taking real medicine.
c. Placebos are more valuable than active drugs when combating disease.
d. Researchers understand how placebos work to fight disease.

50. It can be inferred from the passage that some researchers

a. have found that placebos rarely work
b. have used placebos to determine the nature of a disease
c. consider placebos to be an important tool in treating patients
d. believe that placebos can be harmful.

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END OF SECTION III

VOCABULARY & READING COMPREHENSION

END OF EXIT TEST. STOP WORK NOW.

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