Dispensing Blue Pacop Answer Key

Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy
DISPENSING
1. Upon dispensing the pharmacist what is the vital information can the pharmacist give when a patient buys calcium
supplement.
A. Calcium's absorption is enhance with Vitamin D
B. Calcium's absorption is enhance with Vitamin E
C. Calcium's absorption is deterred with Vitamin D
D. Calcium's absorption is deterred with Vitamin E
2. What would be the appropriate auxillary label one can use in dispensing system
A. For external use only C. Shake the bottle before using
B. Store in a cool dry place D. Both B and C
3. A patient asks what constitutes Combivent. Combivent is a combination of
I. Ipratropium Br II. Albuterol SO4 III. Metaproterenol
A. I only C. II and III only
B. I and II only D. All of the above
4. If the dispensing order requires the insulin that has the shortest duration of action and the fastest onset of
action, then the insulin to be given is _________.
A. Humulin R C. Humaloq
B. Lantus D. Novoloq
5. The strength of folic acid in OTC vitamins should not exceed
A. 1 mg C. 0.4 mg
B. 10 mg D. 10 mcg
6. The medication requires Sumatriptan which is mainly indicated for treatment of:
A. Cancer therapy induced nausea and vomiting
B. Migraine
C. Depression
D. Seizure
7. Which of the following anti HPN helps in the treatment of diabetes?
A. Verapramil C. HCTZ
B. Enalapril D. Amiloride
8. A patient with antabuse for his treatment of alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following product(s) should not be
taken with antabuse?
I. Theophylline Na glycinate Elixir
II. Theophylline elixir
III. Theophylline tablet
B. I and II only D. All of the choices given

9. A patient under Ketorac treatment should avoid the following drugs except:
A. Meclizine C. Gold compound
B.Cefotetan D. Methotrexate
10. After initiation therapy, Mr. J.T suddenly suffers from spasm of the face and neck. Which of the following drug(s)
should not be given to alleviate the above symptoms?
I. Diazepam injection
II. Diphenhydramine
III. Benztropine
B. I and II only D. All of the above
11. When dispensing Ferrous sulfate vitamin to a patient, which precaution should Pharmacist give to the patient?
A. Avoid tea or coffee because it reduces iron absorption by as much 50%
B. Avoid vitamin A because it reduces iron absorption.
C. Avoid Tetracycline because it activates iron.
D. Avoid Aspirin because iron can cause elevated levels of aspirin in the blood.
12. Which is not a routine procedure for dispensing prescription?
A. Check the legal requirements C. Provide patient advice
B. Dispense the correct product D. Inaptness of the prescription
13. Which is the most appropriate cautionary and advisory label for Brufen?
A. Do not take anything containing aspirin while taking this medicine.
B. This medicine may color the urine.
C. Take with or after food.
D. Do not take indigestion remedies at the same time of day as this medicine.
14. Which of the following drugs should be avoided by patient with liver disease as this may increase risk of bone
marrow suppression?
A. Apomorphine C. Antacids
B. Chloramphenicol D. Carbamazepine
15. Pharmacist should counsel pregnant women not to take NSAID's drugs during the entire period of
pregnancy because:
A. With regular use closure of fetal ductus arteriosus in utero may occur.
B. Risk of neural tube defects may be increased.
C. Placental perfusion may be reduced.
D. Genital malformations and cardiac defects may be developed.
16. Which is the most appropriate cautionary and advisory label for Nalidixic?
A. Avoid alcoholic drink.
B. May cause drowsiness.
C. Avoid exposure of skin to direct sunlight or sun lamps.

D. Do not stop taking this medicine except on your doctor's advice.
17. Pharmacist should counsel pregnant women not to take Theophylline during the entire period of pregnancy
because:
A. Possibility of premature separation of placenta in first 18 weeks may occur.
B. Neonatal irritability and apnea may develop
C. Congenital anomalies may develop.
D. Neonatal respiration may be depressed.
18. In evaluating the appropriateness of the prescription and medication order, the pharmacist should check the
following, except:
A. The patient’s disease or condition requiring treatment.
B. The prescribed route of administration.
C. The biological action of the prescribed product.
D. The auxillary and cautionary labels
19. In selection of the proper package or container, the pharmacists choose the container that:
A. Ensure the product stability
B. Comply with legal requirements
C. Promote patient compliance
D. All of the choices given
20. In order to ensure proper medication use, storage and compliance with applicable statutes, what should be
affixed on the label of the drug?
A. expiration date of the mediation
B. Auxiliary and/or cautionary labels
C. Quantity of medication dispensed
D. Product strength
21. It is a part of patient profile which is necessary to assess the appropriateness of the dose:
A. Birth date and weight
B. Clinical condition
C. Direction for use
D. Medication strength
22. In performing therapeutic intervention, the following information should be communicated to the prescriber,
except:
A. Brief description of the problem
B. Reference source that documents the problem
C. Description of the clinical significance of the problem
D. Possible physical and chemical incompatibility
23. Detection of drug-related problems requires an assessment of the need for a change in drug therapy. Possible
problem includes the following, except:
A.Inappropriate compliance C. Wrong drug
B. Dose too low D. Undiagnosed condition
24. In dispensing antifungal medication for skin, the patient should be instructed to:
A. Exposure to air whenever possible
B. Use caution with Povidone-iodine in anyone with allergies
C. Keep area covered at all times with cream and sterile dressing
D. Avoid combination of cholinergic medications
25. In dispensing Accutane for acne, which is the most appropriate instruction that should be given to the patient?
A. Avoid multivitamins that contain Vitamin A
B. Keep area covered at all times with cream and sterile dressing
C. Avoid prolong use
D. Discontinue and seek medical aid if irritation occurs
26. What is the most appropriate patient education for those undergoing ulcer therapies?
A. Avoid Cigarette smoking, this seems to decrease the effectiveness of medicine in the healing of duodenal
ulcers
B. Adequate fluid intake and bland diet.
C. Aboid self medication for longer than 48 hours
D. Regular exercise to develop muscle tone.
27. It is an example of eutectic substance
A. Aspirin C. Citirc acid
B. Camphor D. Color formation
28. Which is not a manifestation of chemical incompatibility?
A. Evolution of gas C. Precipitation
B. Immiscibility D. Color formation
29. The term applied to reaction of organic compounds with water resulting in fragmentation into its component
molecule is:
A. Ionic hydrolysis C. Simple hydrolysis
B. Molecular hydrolysis D. None of the above
30. It is classified as one of the human errors in dispensing, which are always physical in nature and are defined as
unintended actions rather than as error in judgment.
A. Slips C. Mistakes
B. Lapses D. None of the above
31. It is classified an error in dispensing which is usually either due to inattention or over attention
A. Knowledged-basesd error C. Medication-based error
B. Rule-based error D. Skill-based error
32. Which is not an example of slips of human error?
A. Fatigue C. Boredom
B. Forgetfulness D. Frustration
33. It is classified as one of the human ewrrors in dispensing, which largely refer to failures in memory
B. Lapses D. Rule-based error
34. Before dispensing Theophylline prescription, Pharmacist must advise the patient to:
A. Avoid acid foods like orange juice and tomato
B. Take food rich in lipids.
C. Take on an empty stomach with a glass of water
D. Take with foods but avoid foods rich in protein and cabbages.
35. It is classified as an error in dispensing which are usually due to either the misapplication of good rules/
procedures, or application of bad rules/ procedures.
A. Knowledgedd-based error C.Rule-based error
B. Medication-based error D. Skill-based error
36. It is an error in judgment, and in most situations, it is made as either a failure of expertise or lack of experience.
B. Lapses D. Skill-based error
37. The following drugs should be taken on an empty and with a glass full of water, except:
A. Tetracycline .C. Rifampicin
B. Metronidazole D. Lincomycin
38. It is the most complex error type which is made within the realm of problem solving and judgment.
A. Knowledged-based error C.Rule-based error
B.Medication-based error D. Skill based error
39. Situation(s) in which Pharmacists are more likely to make mistakes in dispensing.
A. Excessive reliance on memory and lack of standardization
B. Inadequate availability of information
C. A only
D. Both A and B
40. The benefits of electronic prescribing and dispensing are the following, except:
A. Rapid information exchange
B. Better clarity and communication of prescription information
C. Amplify fraud risks present in the paper – based process
D. Improved confidentiality and security of health information
41. Common errors in dispensing can result from:
A. Unfamiliarity with drug names C. Newly available products
B. Similar packaging or labeling D. All of the choices given
42. In the management of chronic conditions, Pharmacist can help by:

A. Demonstrating the value of pharmacy
B. Helping in developing local “shared care” protocols
C. Training for other professionals and careers
D. Developing drugs
43. Computerized patient medication records allow Pharmacist to:
A. Counsel the patient on the appropriate use of medicines
B. Monitor patient compliance
C. Provide health promotion information
D. All of the above
44. The medication dispensing area should be designed to prevent errors by:
A. Providing staffing and other resources appropriate to the workloads
B. Taking action when adverse reactions occur
C. Storing requirements of the medication
D. Providing accurate and usable drug information.
45. Duty of Pharmacy assistants in dispensing process, except:
A. Record and file the prescription
B.Get the payment for the product
C. Deliver the drug product
D. Give the price of the product
46. In order for the Pharmacist to adhere to the standard dispensing procedures, he/she must not:
A. Verify doubtful prescriptions from the paitent
B. Checked dose limits
C. Checked the potential interaction between any medicine currenlty taken and the drug on the prescription
D. Advise the patient on the proper use of the medications.
47. In the dispensing of outpaitent medication, the pharmacist mus not do the following, except:
A. review all appropriate information regarding prescription refills
B. Be personally present for supervision
C. None of the above
D. All of the above
48. Which of the following conditions is/ are a consequence of wrongly dispensing Fentanyl with Sufentanil or vice
versa?
A. Episodes of respiratory arrest due to potency difference betwwen the two drugs
B. Severe toxicity and death
C. Decline in mental status
D. Cardiovascular complications
49. Which of the following conditions is/are a consequence of wrongly dispensing Cisplatin with Carboplatin or vice
versa?
A. Episodes of respiratory arrest due to potency difference between the two drugs
50. Which of the following conditions is/are a consequence of wrongly dispensing Celebrex with Cerebryx or vice
versa?
A. Episodes of respiratory arrest due to potency difference betwwen the two drugs
51. According to the FDA, pharmacist can help in fixing the problem of drug name confusion through the following
means, except:
A. Verifying with the doctor information that is not clear before filling a prescription
B. Keeping look-alike, sound-alike products separated from one another on pharmacy shelves
C. Avoiding stocking the multiple product sizes together
D. Separate the products of the same packaging
52. Dose designation(s) that sholud be avoided to prevent misinterpreatations:
A. Trailing zero after decinmal point
B. Naked decimal point
C. Large doses without properly placed commas
D. All of the choices given
53. What is the most common cause of medication errors?
A. Miscommunication between physicians, pharmacist and nurses
B. Incomplete pateint medication information
C. Misunderstood abbreviations
D. Illegible doctor’s writing on the prescriptions
54. It is defined as any preventable event occuring in the medication-use process, including prescribibg,
trnascribing, dipensing, using and monitoring, which results in inappropraite medication use or paitent harm.
A. Prescribing error C. Dispensing error
B. Medication error D. Knowledged-based error
55. An error which ooccurs when a patient is given a medication other than the one intended by the prescriber.
A. Prescribing error C. Dispensing error
B. Medication error D. Knowledged-based error
56. A physical incompatibility wherin 2 or more liquids fail to dissolve or mix with one another.
A. Insolubility C. Precipitation
B. Immiscibility D. Liquefaction
57. Forms of liquefaction where ther is lowering of metling point of the substances lower than their individual melting
point.
A. Eutexia C. Deliquescence
B. Hygoscopy D. All of the above
58. A type of drug action which is vanishing and disappearing gradually.
A. Evanescent C. Cumulative
B. Steady D. All of the above
59. Bulk-forming laxatives are the choice for older adults or laxative-dependent patients. Patients who are using this
laxative should be strictly instructed by the pharmacist to
A. Avoid its use longer than one week without medical supervision
B. Discontinue if any signs of diarrhea or abdominal pain occurs.
C. Dissolve the laxative in one full glass of water and followed by another glass of fluid to prevent
obstruction
D. Avoid exposure to sunlight
60. The following are instructions necessary to patients who are taking decongestant, except:
A. To be used only for few days to avoid rebound congestion.
B. To be avoided when cardiac and thyroid conditions are present
C. To discontinue when its side effects set in, such as nervousness, tremor, headache, etc.
D. To avoid all estrogen and progestin products.
61. Celeberex is contraindicated for those individuals allergic to which of the following drugs?
A. Penicillin C. Sulfa Drugs
B. Aspirin D. Quinolones
62. The follwoing are the common causes of medication errors, except:
A. Failed comminication C.Lack of the patient education
B. Dose miscalculations D. All of the choices given
63. A type of incompatibility which occurs when norepinephrine is added to sodium carbonate.
A. Physical incompatibility C. Therapeutic incompatibility
B. Chemical incompatibility D. All of the choices given
64. Incompatibility problems are common in mixtures containing;
A. Mannitol C. Nutritional solutions
C. Bicarbonate D. All of the choices given
65. Which of the following drugs must be protected from light during administration to maintain their stability?
A. Na nitroprusside and Amphotericin B
B. Gentamicin and Heparin
C. Penicillin and Chloramphenicol
D. Erythromycin and Penicillin

66. A patient is carrying prescription of Ampicillin, which of the following advises can the Pharmacist give to the
patients upon dispensing?
A. Take with food
B. Do not take with food
C. Avoid foods rich in proteins
D. Taken on an empty stomach with a glass of water and avoid acid foods
67. Factors commonly associated with chemical incompatibility for I.V. admixtures except:
A. Drug concenbtration C. Color change
B. pH of the solution D. Temperature and light
68. The incompatibility which occurs between Chloramphenicol and Penicillin.
A. Chloramphenicol potentiates the effect of Penicillin
B. Chloramphenicol antagonizes the Penicillin’s antibacterial action
C. Penicillin inhibits Chloramphenicol antibacterial action
D. Synergistic effect of Penicillin with Chloramphenicol
69. The following factors can affect the compatibility of an I.V. drug or solution, except:
A. Light C. Contact time
B. Pressure D. Temperature
70. Incompatibbility which occurs when Heparin solution is mixed with an intermittent Aminoglycosides infusion is
manifested with the following, except:
A. Precipitation C. Gas bubbles
B. Color change D. Cloudiness
71. An incompatibility observed when Amiodarone HCl 12.5 mg /mL is mixed with Clavulanic acid 10 mg/mL.
A. Immediate lactescence (milky appearance)
B. Immediate yellow coloring
C. Initial heavy orange turbidity becoming red-orange liquid with red precipitate
D. Immediate Opalescence
72. An incompatibility observed when Rifampicin 6mg/mL is mixed with Tramadol 8.33 mg/mL
73. An incompatibility observed when Pantopropazole 8mg/mL is mixed with Midazolam 0.1 mg/mL
74. All of the following instruction must be given by the pharmacist to the patients who are going to take digitalis,
except:
A. Avoid abrupt withdrawal after prolonged use; must be reduced gradually under physician supervision.
B. Avoid all OTC medications, especially antacids and cold remedies.
C. Avoid changing with other brand or dosage form for it may act differently
D. Rise slowly from reclining position
75. Patient education for inhaled corticosteroid treatment would include all of the following except:
A. Rinse equipment after use C. Expect dry mouth
B. Use of bronchodilator D. Rinse mouth after
76. Patients who are going to take antihistamines must be advised by the Pharmacist to avoid its use for a longer
period of time because:
A. It can increase bronchial or nasal congestion and dry cough.
B. It can cause nervousness, tremors, dizziness and conclusion
C. It can increase blood pressure
D. It can increase blood sugar
77. The following are effects of food on drugs, except:
A. Change drugs absorption C. Interact with drugs
B. Neutralize drug effects D. Influence their absorption
78. Patients who are using oral contraceptives should be informed by the Pharamcist that its frequent use can result
in a deficiency of which vitamin B?
A. Vitamin B5 C. Vitamin B6
B. Vitamin B1 D. Vitamin B12
79. Which of the following advises can you give to the patients on Griseofulvin therapy?
A. Take with foods rich in lipids
B. Avoid food rich in proteins and cabbages
C. Avoid foods rich in vitamin K
D. Avoid acid foods
80. Vitamins are considered drugs if/when;
A. They are prescribed
B. They are recommended
C. They are used for pharmacological effects
D. Vitmains are not drugs, they are nutrients
81. Large intake of this vitamin can cause CNS malformations, cleft palate and other severe fetal defects. Which of
the following vitamins should not be taken by pregnant women due to its severe fetal defects?
A. Vitamin A C. Vitamin E
B. Vitamin B D. Vitamin D
82. Zinc taken during pregnancy can cause:

A. Premature deliveries C. Liver damage
B. Stillbirths D. Both A and B
83. Benefits derived from good physician-patient interaction, except;
A. Patient’s compliance with therapy
B. Patient’s have more trust in their caregiver
C. reduced resistance to therapy and management
D. Increase patient’s self-medication
84. Whent the pharmacist is faced with a prescription they are not familiar with, they may read it as something they
are familiar with and this called
A. Drug confusion C. Lapses
B. Confirmation bias D. Wrong dispensing
85. Medication errors due to failed communication, except;
A. Poor handwriting
B. Mispronounciation of a medication is not the same.
C. Doses normally used with the medication are not the same.
D. hastily written prescription
86. The following are the benefits of electronic dispensing, except:
A. Boost fraud risks present in the paper-based process.
B. Improved confidentiality and security of helath information
C. Better clarity and communication of prescription information
D. More time for consumers with health professionals due to less paperwork.
87. Based on 2005 survey, the most frequent error(s) in dispensing inappropriate dose is /are:
A. No actual problem C. Poor communication
B. Lack of knowledge of the drug D. All of the above
88. Most common types of medication error in community setting, except:
A. Incorrect dose C. Substitution
C. Quantity not specified D. Dose not specified
89. An error committed when a person begins to lose focus.
A. Skill-based error C. Rule-based error
B. Knowledge-based error D. Lapses
90. the most appropriate cautionary and advisory label for Diclofenac sodium.
A. Taken with or after food
B. Taken an hour before food or an empty stomach
C. Dissolved under the tongue
D. This medicine may color the urine.
91. Pregnant woman should be advised not to take ACE inhibitors due to its adverse effect(s) which include(s):
A. Possible skull defects C. Both A and B
B. Oligohydramnios D. Impaired platelet function
92. Reconstituted Acyclovir sodium has a pH of 11, this can destabilize drugs such as ______ which oxidize rapidly
at high pH. Which among the drugs can be destabilized when mixed with Acyclovir?
A. Epinephrine and Norepinephrine C. Acetycholine and Norepinephrine
B. Epinephrine and Dopamine D. Acetycholine and Dopamine
93. Acyclovir when mixed with HCl salts of amine containing drugs, like Diltiazem HCl, Meperidine HCl, etc., will
show an incompatibility will be produced?
A. Color change C. Insolubility
B. Evolution of gas D. Precipitation
94. The following are drugs which should not be mixed with drug containing surfactants because it may produce
precipitation and cloudiness, except:
A. Benzyl alcohol C. Gentamicin
B. Ciprofloxacin D. Penicillin
95. Which of the following advises can the Pharmacist give to patients on Hydrochlorothiazide therapy?
A. Take with or without food, but always on the same condition.
B. Avoid foods rich in Vitamin K.
C. Not take after 18 o’ clock so that it doesn’t interfere with the sleep.
D. Take wiith food rich in lipids.
96. Beta-lactam anitbiotics Penicillin and Ampicillin show accelerated hydrolysis when mixed with drugs like:
A. Dopamine C. Streptomycin
B. Erythromycin D. Carbenicillin
97. Degradation of Gentamicin may occur when:
A. There is a decrease in pH C. Diluted of surfactants
B. Diluted of antioxidants D. Diluted of salts
98. According to ASHP, the stability of unpreserved parenteral is:
A.Within 1 week if refrigerated
B.Within 1 month if frozen
C. 28 hours from preparation if stored at room temperature.
D. All of the above
99. Patients who are using Naproxen sodium should be advised by the Pharmacist to:
A. Take the medicine with food and stay erect during 15 to 30 minutes.
B. Take the medicine on an empty stomach and stay erect during 15 to 30 minutes
C. Take 20 minutes before meals
D. Avoid acid foods.
100. Patients on Tetracycline therapy should be advised by the pharmacist to:
A. Take on empty stomach and with a glass of water

B. Stay erect during 15 to 30 minutes
C. Avoid drinking milk
D. All of the above
101. The following drugs shold be taken 20 minutes before meals, except:
A. Verapramil C. Prednisone
B. Meyoclopramide D. Furosemide
102. Before dispensing ferrous sulfate vitamin to patients, the Pharmacist must counsel the patient with the following
advises, except:
A. Do not take together with milk
B. Avoid foods rich in proteins
C. Take with food it causes gastric disturbance
D. Swllow the drug wothout chewing
103. Acid produces ulcer and patients with ulcers should not be given with _______ drug because it is acid-
producing
A. Antihistamine C. Diuretic
B. Antibacterial D. Antidepressant
104. General factors to be considered injudging the safety of a prescribed dose except;
A. Physiological states of the patient C. Frquency of administration
B. Pathologic condition of the patient D. Site of absorption of the drug
105. When the combined effects of 2 drugs are equal to the sum of their individual effect, it is known as:
A. Potentiation C. Summation
B. Synergism D. Additive
106. If the combined effects are equal to those expected for drugs acting by the same mechanisms.
A. Potentiation C. Summation
B. Synergism D. Additive
107. Kwell, used to treat lice infestations, is contraindicated in all of the following conditions, except:
A. Infancy C. Pregnancy
B. Obesity D. Older fault
108. The following precautions must be instructed to the patients with the use antacids, except:
A. Blurred vision C. Electrolyte imbalance
C. Constipation D. Osteoporosis
109. Reduction of gastric juices by antiulcer agents on a regular basis for extended periods can deplete an intrinsic
factor, which is necessary for the absorption of which vitamin B?
A. Vitamin B1 C. Vitamin B12
B. Vitamin B2 D. Vitamin B6
110. Patients on Isoniazid therapy should be strictly advised by the Pharmacist not to take ______ because of
increase possibility of liver toxicity
A. Phenytoin C. Alcohol
B. Corticosteroid D. Warfarin
111. The pharmacist should advise patient to avoid sunlight when she or he is on:
I. HCTZ
II. Thioridazine
III. Tetracycline
B. I and II only D. All of the choice given
112. All of the following are adverse effects of gold compounds except:
A. Diarrhea C. Stomatitis
B. Abdominal pain D. Lipoatropy
113. Which of the following antihistamine(s) is/are nonsedative histamines?
I. Cetirizine
II. Terfenadine
III. Astemizole
114. The minimum weighable quantity for class A prescription balance is:
A. 100 mg C. 60 mg
B. 80 mg D. 120 mg
115. Mr. Edward Cullen is taking Verapramil SR 240 mg for the treatment of his BP. The pharmacist may tell him
that he must be careful using the following drugs except:
A. Atenolol C. Disopyramide
B, Digoxin D. Indomethacin
116. Which of the following drugs should not be used for more than 10 days for allergic conjunctivitis?
A. Ketorolac C. Azelastine
B. Loteprednol D. Tetrahydrazoline
117. The deficiency of which of the following may increase the chances of bleeding?
A. RBC C. T lymphocytes
B. WBC D. Thrombocytes
118. Trimethobenzamide should be avoided in patients who are suffering from:
A. Ulcers C. HPN
B. Reye’s syndrome D. Depression
119. If a patient seek additional information of her state – Multiple sclerosis: a pharmacist may emphasized that the
part that is damage in the brain is the ______.
A. Nephron C. Parietal cells

B. Myelin sheath D. Bowman’s capsule
120. Furosemide is available in:
I. Tablet II. Oral solution III. Injection
121. Which of the following NSAID’s is a prodrug?
A. Diclofenac C. Diflunisal
B. Ibuprofen D. Indomethacin
122. A patient has “High cholesterol” if his total serum cholesterol value greater than
A. 120 mg/dL C. 180 mg /dL
B. 360 mg/dL D. 240 mg/dL
123. The patient is allergic to Amitriptyline. Which of the following seizure drug(s) should be avoided because of
allergy problem?
I. Carbamazepine
II. Cyclobenzapine
III. Valproic acid
B I and II only D. All of the choice given
124. Upon dispensing Phenytoin a pharmacist may advise the patient that is major Adverse drug action is/are:
I. Gingival hyperplasia
II. Lupus erythematosus
III. Ataxia
125. Hydrochlorothiazide causes all of the following except:
A. Hypokalemia C. Hyperuricemia
B. Hypercalcemia D. Hyperglycemia
126. A deficiency of which of the following may lead to goiter?
A. Magnesium C. Iodine
B. Aluminum D. Fluorine
127. Which of the following anti – fungal agent(s) is/are useful in the treatment of oral candidiasis?
I. Itraconazole
II. Clotrimazole
III. Nystatin

128. Patient allergic to Cyclosporine need to avoid:
I. Sandimmune
II. Gengraf
III. Remeron
129. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about anorexia nervosa?
A. It is a genetic disease characterize by weight loss
B. It is common adult females
C. May because by excessive use of laxative.
D. Fluoxetine is indicated for the treatment
130. Mrs. Bella comes into the pharmacy to find drugs use in Philippines. Pharmacist may suggest all of the
following reference materials except
A. Martindale Extra Pharmacopeia C. USP adopted name
B. Index nominum D. All of the above
131. The pharamacist may provide information on the patient who orders Insulin Lispro that its onset of action is:
A. 5-15 mins C. 8 – 16 hours
B. 30 – 60 mins D. 1- 2 hours
132. Which of the following histamine is specially used in the treatment of vertigo?
A. Loratidine C. Cetirizine
B. Clemastine D. Meclizine
133. A patients asks on what vitamins is needed for Night blindness.
A. Vitamin C C. Vitamin D
B. Vitamin A D. Vitamin E
134. When one dispenses which benzodiazepine has a prolonged duration of action?
A. Alprazolam C. Flurazepam
B. Triazolam D. Oxazepam
135. In the drugstore saquinavir should be stored in the refrigerator, however, once brought to room temperature it
can be used out within.
A. 1 day C. 3 months
B. 1 week D. 1 hour
136. Which of the following is NOT a side effect of vasodilators?
A. Hypotension C. Edema
B. Tachycardia D. Weight loss
137. Which drug would you advise the patient not to take together with Cimetidine?
I. Maalox
II. Ketoconazole
III. Theophylline
138. Hepatic toxicity is more common with:
I. Iproniazid
II. Phenelzine
III. Tranylcypromine
139. Methylphenidate SR is generally indicated for the treatment of
A. Parkinson’s disease C. Attention Deficit Syndrome
B. Weight reduction D. Pain reliever
140. Which of the following should be carefully dispensed with Selegiline
I. Meperidine
II. Fluoxetine
III. Tyramine
141. Calcium Acetate is indicated for the treatment of:
A. Hypocalcemia C. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypophosphatemia D. Hyperphosphatemia
142. Which of the following is a short acting barbiturate?
A. Phenobarbital C. Butarbital
B. Amorbarbital D. Pentobarbital
143. Administration of which of the following drugs requires caution when using Fenofibrate?
A. Erythromycin C. Risperidone
B. Warfarin D. Levofloxacin
144. The major side effect of Doxorubicin is
I.Cardiac failure
II. Liver failure
III. Renal failure
145. Which of the following drug is indicated for the treatment of Cisplatin toxicity?
A. Acetycysteine C. Amifostine
B. Aniplatin D. Naltrexone
146. If a patient asks for active ingredient if Actiq. The pharmacist should give
A. Filgrastim C. Interferon – alfa
B. Fentanyl D. Foscarnet
147. Toxic substance used as anti – knock in fuel additive, and in the manufacture of electric cable, hose and pipes:
A. Magnesium C. Lead
B. Iron D. Cobalt
148 Cimetidine is used commonly as
A. Anti – histaminic C. Antacid
B. Histamine 2 antagonist D. Antihistamine
149. An anti – viral agent
A. Amantadine C. Cytarabine
B. Vinblastine D. Dapsone
150. One advice the pharmacist may explain upon dispensing Ferrous Sulfate supplement is that it may discolor the
stool
A. Black C. Red
B. Orange D. Cream
151. Adverse effects associated with Guanethidine include
I. Orthostatic hypotnesion
II. Enhanced sensitivity to sympathomimetics
III. Diarrhea
IV. Sedation
A. I, II, and III D. IV only
B. I and III E. All of the choices given
C. II and IV
152. Adverse effects associated with Hydralazine include:
I. Reflex tachycardia
II. Hypertichosis
III. Lupus syndrome
IV. Orthostatic hypotension
C. II and IV
153. Factors associated with increased risk toxicity during Captopril therapy include:
I. Bilateral renal artery stenosis

II. Congestive Heart Failure
III. Systemic Lupus erythematosus
IV. Female
C. II and IV
154. Diazoxide, a drug used for treatment of hypertensive crisis, is most closely related to:
A. Nitrofurantoin D. Thiazide diuretics
B. Sulfonamides E. Nitrates
C. Dopamine agonists
155. Which of the following drugs is (are) known to include hyperuricemia and occasionally to bring about an acute
gouty attack?
A. Salicylates (6g/day) D. Thiazide diuretics
B. Chlorthiazide E. All of the above
C. Phenytoin
156. Undesirable side effects of Reserpine include:
A. Bradycardia C. Diarrhea
B. Postural hypotension D. All of the above
157. Propranolol may cause all of the following except:
A. Bradycardia C. Hyperglycemia
B. Bronchiolar constriction D. Reduced myocardial contractility
158. Alpha methyldopa has been used successfully in the control of hypertension. It side effects include all of the
following except:
A. Positive direct Coomb’s test D. Fever
B. Diarrhea E. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Hemolytic anemia
159. A 48 – year olod salesman with known hypertension complains of a decreasing annual income, a loss of
“drive”, and a depressed outlook on life. His blood pressure is normal on medication. The antihypertensive drug
most likely to be the cause of his new complaint is:
A. Hydralazine D. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Alpha methyldopa E. Guanathedine
C. Reserpine
160. Side effects of medication are often responsible for a patient not complying with the prescribed drug regimen.
An agent which has somnolence as a primary side effect is
A. Methyldopa C. Guanethedine
B. Hydralazine D. Captopril
161. One of the mechanisms for “resistance” to an antihypertensive drug regimen is retention of salt and water and
an increase in extracellular fluid volume. Agents which have been shown to cause retention of salt and water
include
A. Methyldopa C. Guanethedine
B. Clonidine D. All of the above
162. What advice regarding Midazolam as an adjunct to anesthesia can you provide as drug information to patient?
A. Provides analgesia
B. Provides adequate skeletal muscle relaxation alone
C. Useful for ameliorating seizure activity
D. Produces cardiovascular stimulation
E. Containdicated in patients with asthma COPD
163. Which of the following statements is not true regarding bupivacaine, a local anesthetic with a molecular
structure that includes an amide linkage?
A. Undergoes hepatic metabolism
B. Rapidly hydrolized by plasma esterase enzymes
C. Contraindicated in a patient with a history of allergy to lidocaine
D. Higher dose necessary to induce epidural anesthesia than spinal anesthesia
E. Higher risk of systemic side effects when used for epidural anethesia compared to spinal anesthesia
164. Which of the following statement is not true regarding local anesthetics?
A. Produce effects by inhibiting voltage gated sodium channels
B. Inhibition of sodium channels enhanced by repetitive depolarizations
C. Small nerve fibers more susceptible than large nerve fibers
D. All sensory functions of a nerve affected equally at onset of anethesia
E. Vasoconstriction prolongs duration of action
165. The pharamcist must always be aware of possible drug interactions. Aluminum hydroxide antacids tend to
interfere with the gastrointestinal absorption of
A. Cephalexin D. Chloramphenicol
B. Penicllin G E. Tetracyline
C. Erythromycin
166. All of the following are progestin components of oral birth control pills EXCEPT
A. Norgestrel D. Mestranol
B. Norethidrone acetate E. Levonorgestrel
C. Ethynodiol diacetate
167. Side effects of thiourea anti-thyroid medications (Propylthiouracil and Methimazole) include
A. Hyperthyroidism D. SIADH
B. Priapism E. Iodism
C. Agranulocytosis
168. Flutamide is an anti-androgen. Possible therapeutic uses of anti-androgens include
A. Male contraception
B. Hirsutism and virilization in women
C. Acne and baldness in both sexes
D. Prostatic cancer
E. All of the above
169. Dermatologic side effects of corticosteroid therapy include
A. Acne D. Ecchymosis
B. Striae, thinning of the skin E. All of the above
C. Telangiectasia
170. Agents which may be useful for treating hyperthyroidism include all of the following except:
A. Propylthiouracil D. Propranolol
B. Coricosteroids E. Bromocriptine
C. Lugol’s solution of Potassium iodide
171. Potential side effects of therapy with chlorpropamide include all of the following except
A. Syndrome of inappropriate diuretic ADH secretion (SIADH)
B. Antabuse reaction
C. Skin rash
D. Lactic acidosis
E. Hypoglycemia
172. Statements which explain the mechanism of action of oral sulfonylurea agent include all of hte following except:
A. Decreased hepatic glucose production
B. Increased tissue sensitivity to insulin
C. Increased insulin binding to insulin receptor
D. Correct of post receptor defects which contribute to insulin
E. Regenerate beta cells of the pancreas
173. Hyponatremia has been associated with carbamazepine and certain oral hypoglycemic agents. Oral
hypoglycemic agents which have been associated with SIADH include
A. Glipizide D. Chlorpropamide
B. Acetazolamide E. Acetohexamide
C. Tolazamide
174. Potential side effects associated with amiodarone therapy include
I. Pneumonitis
II. Pseudocyanosis
III. Photosensitivity
IV. Parotiditis
A. I, II, III D. IV only

B. I, III E. All of the choices given
C. II, IV
175. Adverse effects associated with Disopyramide therapy include
I. Urinary retention
II. Constipation
III. Blurred vision
IV. Lupus syndrome
C. II, IV
176. Bronchiolar constriction is a rare but potentially dangerous side effect of
A. Quinidine D. Phenytoin
B. Lidocaine E. Propranolol
C. Procainamide
177. All of the following are common side effects of Quinidine administration except:
A. Diarrhea D. Tinnitus
B. Nausea and vomiting E. Headache
C. Dry mouth
178. Impaired vision is an adverse effect of:
A. Carbenicillin D. Colistin
B. Ethambutol E. Cycloserine
C. Rifampin
179. Various drugs may induce vitamin deficient states as an undesirable side effect. Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)
deficiency may be related to taking
A. Estrogen containing oral contraceptives
B. Colchicine
C. Isoniazid
D. All of hte choices given
180. Most adults who are at high risk of developing pulmonary tuberculosis should be treated with
A. Isoniazid 100mg/day for 6 months
B. Isoniazid 300mg/day for 12 month
C. Ethambutol 400mg/day for 12 months
D. Rifampin 600mg/day for 24 months
E. no treatment is necessary
181. An antitubercular agent which is associated with the development of ocular toxicity is
A.Rifampin D. Streptomycin
B. Ethambutol E. Para-aminosalicylic acid
C. Isoniazid
182. Which of the following antitubercular agents is associated with the development of toxicity?
A.Rifampin D. Streptomycin
B. Ethambutol E. Para-aminosalicylic acid
C. Isoniazid
183. Which of the following antibiotics is most closely associated with the development of ocular toxicity?
A.Kanamycin D. Isoniazid
B. Penicillin G E. Ethambutol
C. Tetracycline
184. Which of the following antibiotics is most closely associated with the development of hepatitis?
C. Tetracycline
185. Which of the following antibioitcs is most closely associated with the development of renal and ototoxicity?
C. Tetracycline
186. Which of the following agents used in the treatment of pulmonary tuberculosis has the side effect of loss of
perception of the color green?
A. Isoniazid D. Streptomycin
B. Rifampin E. Para-aminosalicylic acid
C. Ethambutol
187. Which of the following agents used in the treatment of pulmonary tuberculosis has a toxicity of producing a
lupus-like syndrome?
A. Isoniazid D. Streptomycin
B. Rifampin E. Para-aminosalicylic acid
C. Ethambutol
188. Isoniazid – induced liver damage
A. Occurs primarily in patients under 30 years of age
B. Occurs with increased frequency in patients receiving concomitant ethambutol therapy
C. Probably due to the formation of a toxic hydrazine metabolite that binds to liver protein
D. Frequently associatd with allergic manifestations such as eosinophilia, fever and rash
E. All of the choices given
189. Doxorubicin is asociated with:

I. Cardiac disease
II. Myelosuppression
III. Gastrointestinal toxicity
IV. Nephrotoxicity
C. II and IV
190. Allopurinol is potentially dangerous if used in combination with mercaptopurine because of:
I. Inhibition of hypoxanthine – guanine phosphoribosyl – transferases
II. Inhibition of Xanthine oxidase
III. Inhibition of guanylate kinase
IV. Accumulation of the chemotherapeutic drug
C. II and IV
191. Cyclophosphamide, Busulfan, and Carmustine all have in common the classification of:
A. Antimetabolite D. Natural product
B. Antibiotic E. All of the choices given
C. Alkylating agent
192. Agent used to counter motion sickness which is more effective than Cyclizine and Meclizine
I. Dimehydramine
II. Promethazine
III. Scopolamine
IV. Betanechol
C. II and IV
193. Manifestation of overdose with Dimenhydramine may include
A. Blurred vision D. Sinus tachycardia
B. Dry mouth E. All of the choices given
C. Hallucinations
194. Which of the following combinations of Tricyclic antidepressant and metabolite is correct?
A. Amitriptylline – desipramine D. Imiprmaine – desipramine
B. Imipramine – nortriptyline E. Fluoxetine – protriptyline
C. imipramine – trimipramine
195. A recognized side effect of treatment with Lithium carbonate is

A. Hypermagnesemia D. Hypochloremia
B. polyuria and polydipsia E. Proximal tubular degenration
C. Transient fall in BUN and serum
Creatinine
196. Endocrine effects of Chlorpromazine include all of the following except:
A. Decrease in adrenocorticotropins D. Increase in prolactin secretion
B. Decrease in gonadotropins E. Decrease in thyroid hormone production
C. Decrease in release of pituitary
Growth hormone
197. Cholestasis is the principle derangement observed in hepatoxicity associated with
A. Phenothiazines D. Carbon tetracholride
B. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors C. All of the choices given
C. Para – aminosalicylic acid
198. Phenelzine can result in a hypertensive crisis when co – administered wiht all of the following except:
A. Pickled erring (Tyramine) D. Diazepam
B. Amphetamines E. Ephedrine
C. Phenylpropanolamine
199. Pharmacist may advise the patient during dispensing that Gingival hyperplasia is a common side effect of
A. Procainamide D. Indomethacin
B. Phenytoin E. Guanethidine
C. Digitalis
200. Which of the following drug(s) is/are classified a List B?
I. Tiopental
II, Chlorambucil
III. Phenytoin
A. I, II, III C. I, III
B. II, III D. III only
201. Prohibited drugs includes all of the following, except:
A. Methotrexate C. Demerol
B. Morphine sulfate D. Innovar
202. Which among the following brand names refers to Amoxicillin trihydrate?
A. Penbritin (Is a Ampicillin) C. Himox
B. Amoxil D. Penbiosyn
203. Capsules are prepared extemporaneous by:
A. Alligation method C. Punch method
B. Geometric dilution D. Fusion method

204. Which magnesium salt is used in the preparation of magnesium citrate solution?
A. Magnesium chloride C. Magnesium sulfate
B, Magnesium carbonate D. Magnesium hydroxide
205. The amount os suspending agent to be added in a suspension depends on the:
A. Voulme of the prescription C. Volume of the solvent used
B. Amount to be suspended D. All of the above
206. If a pharmacist compounds an emulsion following the 4:2:1 ratio, how many mL of water should be added if the
oil amounts to 30 mL?
A. 10 mL C. 5 mL
B. 15 mL D. 7.5 mL
207. Drug belonging to List A are:
I. Regulated drugs
II. Prohibited drugs
III. Drug requiring strict precautions in their use
A. I only D. I, II, III
B. II only E. I, II
C. III only
208 A prescription with 10 or more ingredients of the same therapeutic use is:
A. Simple C. Magistral
B. Yellow D. Polypharmaceutical
209. When the generic name is preceded by the brand name, the prescription is:
A. Erroneous prescription C. Impossible prescription
B. Violative prescription D. Correct prescription
210. The following are true regarding incompatibilities except:
A. Problems arising during compounding, dispensing and drug administration
B. Easier to correct than prevent
C. May be intentional
D. Must be recognized by the pharmacist
211. Incompatibilities means _________ in prescription:
I. Conflict
II. Disagreement
III. Differences
A. I,II, III C. II, III
B. I, III D. I only
212. The following are manifestations of chemical incompatibility except:

A. Immiscibility C. Evolution of gas
B. Photolysis D. Color formation
213. The precipitation of an organic substance from a saturated solution when a highly soluble salt is added is
known as:
A. Polymorphism C. Eutexia
B. Salting out D, Salting in
214. Dosage error is an example of:
A. Physical incompatibility C. Therapeutic incompatibility
B. Chemica incompatibility D. The error is not classified as an incompatibility
215. Acacia will produce color with some compound because:
A. It has an enzyme ( It contains peroxidase enzymes)
B. It is acidic
C. It deomposes with strong acids
D. It decomposes with strong bases
216. Careful monitoring should be done when dispensing as it depresses the bone marrow protein synthesis:
A. bacitracin C. Penicillin
B. Chloramphenicol D. All of the choices given
217. Iodine is known to be insoluble in water. To remedy this, _____ is added to make an aqueous solution
A. Citric acid C. Caffeine
B. Ammoinium citrate D. Potassium iodide
218. The prescription requires the combination of sodium bicarbonate, Sodium Salicylate and water. The pharmacist
fully understands that sodium carbonate and sodium salicylate will lead to the oxidation of the latter forming brown
quinoid derivative. This incompatibility can be remedied by:
I. Adding color diluents
II. Adding antioxidants
III. Removal of water
B. II, III D. I, II
219. This incompatibility involves the degradation of the drug or excipient through reaction with the solvents present
in the formulaiton:
A. Solvolysis C. Photolysis
B. Oxidation D. Polymerization
220. Degradation of drugs or Excipient molecules brought by light, either room light or sunlight is known as:
A. Solvolysis C. Photolysis
B. Oxidation D. Polymerization
221. The hydrolytic product of Aspirin is:
A. Salicylic acid + ascorbic acid C. Acetic acid + Salicylic acid

B Salicylic acid + citirc acid D. Sodium acetate + Acetic acid
222. A prescription implies the combination of Silver nitrate, water, made isotonic with sodium chloride. If the
incompatibility is not recognized it will lead to:
A. Change in the color of hte solution C. Formation of white prcipitate
B. Evolution of carbon dioxide gas D. Formation of a gel – like substance
223. Which of the following can lead to overdose?
I. Excessive amounts taken at one time
II. Doses repeated at too frequent intervals
III. Dose dumping from modified release formulation
A. I, III D. I only
B. II, III E. I, II, III
C. I, II
224. Which of the following will not lead to therapeutic incompatibility?
A. Errors in pricing C. Prescripiton
B. Dosage forms errors D. Errors in storage
225. Penicillin and ASA are contraindicated to:
A. Hypertensives C. Asthmatics
B. Patients with ulcer D. Anemics
226. Anemics should refrain from the use of:
A. Nasal decongestants C. Chloramphenicol
B.NSAID’s D. ASA
227. Cough and cold remedies with decongestants are not recommended to patient experiencing:
A. Loww RBC count C. High blood pressure
B. GI ulcer D. Airway obstruction
228. Steroidal and Non – steroidal drugs will exacerbate:
A. Asthma C. Arryhthmia
B. Anemia D. GI ulcer
229. This type of ADR that is usually dose dependent and predictable:
A. Type A C. Type C
B. Typer B D. Type D
230. Type B ADRs includes all of the following except:
A. Extension effects of drug’s pharmacological action
B. Idiosyncratic reactions
C. Allergic reactions
D. Steven Johnson syndrome

231. The adverse effect that may be experienced when taking cough and cold remedies containing
Phenylpropanolamine is:
A. GI disturbances C. Increase in BP
B. Serum sickness D. Decrease in BP
232. Mrs. Romano experienced skin rash that are charcteristically large, deep red in color which becomes darker at
the center. The said rashes appeared red in color which becomes darker at the center. The said rashes appeared
after taking Amoxicillin for 3 days. The ADR is suspected to be:
A. Photosensitivity reactions C. Erythema multiforme
B. Toxic epidermal necrolysis D. Serum sickness
233. Phocomelia is a teratogenic effect associated with the use of:
A. Tretinoin C. Phenytoin
B. Thalidomide D. Phenothiazines
234. NSAID’s induced ADR is:
A. Pigmentary retinopathy C. Hepatic necrosis
B. Steven Johnson’s syndrome D. GI ulcer
235. Otoxicity is an ADR commonly associated with the use of:
A. Penicillin C. Aminoglycosides
B. Phenothiazine D. Acetaminophen
236. In a drug interaction, the drug whose action is effected by the combination with other drugs, food, or chemicals
is called:
A. Object drug C. Interactant drug
B. Precipitant drug D. Action drug
237. The principle combining Sulfathiazole and Trimethoprim in a formulation is die to:
A. Antagonism C. Aletration of active transport
B. Synergism D. Inhibition of drug metabolism
238. Which of the following interactions is beneficial?
A. Oral contraceptives - antibiotics C. Anthistamine – alcohol
B. Tetracycline - antacid D. Penicillin – Probenecid
239. The intermittent administration of a second solution, like antibiotics, through a Y – tube in an existing IV line is
known as:
A. IV push C. IV piggyback
B. IV bolus D. IV infusion
240. Which of the following is not a component of parenteral Hyperalimentation?
A. Vitamins and minerals C. Sugars
B. Electrolytes D. Antibiotics
241. When two (2) interacting drugs results to alteration of ADME, it is classified as:
A. Pharmacokinetic interaction C. Pharmaceutic interaction

B. Pharmacodynamic interaction D. Therapeutic interaction
242. When drugs are inappropriately mixed in syringes or infusion prior to administration, it will giver rise to:
A. Pharmacokinetic interaction C. Pharmaceutical interaction
B. Pharmacodynamic interaction D. Beneficial interaction
243. Warfarin – Vitmain K rich food combination is an interaction characterized by:
A. Decrease absorption D. Increase liver damage
B. Increase bioavailability E. Synergistic / Additive combination
C. Antagonistic combination
244. Smoking increases the activity of drug metabolizing enzymes resulting to:
I. Rapid metabolism of drugs
II. Decrease effects of drugs
III. Increase effects of drugs
A. I, II D. III only
B. I, III E. I, II, III
C. I only
245. Mr. Ligtas is asthmatic. Which of the following agents is contraindicated to him?
I. Salbutamol
II. Aspirin
III. Penicillin
B. II, III D. II only
246. Probenecid and penicillin exhibits this type of interaction:
A. Enzyme induction C. Alteration gastric emptying
B. Enzyme inhibition D. Competition of tubular secretion
247. Glibenclamide – Thiazide diuretics exhibits this type of interaction:
A. Increase potassium level C. Alteration in gastric emptying
B. Decrease oral hypoglycemic effect D. Sodium depletion
248. Risk factors of ADR’s include:
I. Age of the patient
II. Associated diseases
III. Number of concurrent medications being taken
A. I only D. II, III
B. III only E. I, II, III
C. I, II
249. Decreased in body clearance of a usual dose benzodiazepine causes extension sedation. This ADR is
classified as:
A. Type A D. Type D
B. Type B E. Type E
C. Type C
250. ADR’s may also be classified based on their onset of reaction. Which of the following classifications appears
two or more days after drug exposure?
A. Acute C. Latent
B. Subacute D. Mild
251. Severity of the condition is another basis for classifying ADR’s. Which class requires active treatment of
adverse reaction, or further testing or evaluation for assessment?
A. Mild C. Severe
B. Moderate D. Significant
252. Patients on Aspirin anticoagulant therapy, prefer(s) _____ as an analgesic
I. Mefenamic acid
II. Acetaminophen
III. Ibuprofen
A. I, II, III D. I only
B. II only E. III only
C. II, III
253. This anti – TB drug will cause peripheral neuritis especially in patients that are slow acetylators
A. Isoniazid C. Pyrazinamide
B. Ethambutol D. Rifampin
254. Bisacodyl interacts with milk through what mechanisms?
A. Alteration of pH D. Alteration of motility rate
B. Complexation E. Alteration of metabolism
C. Adsorption
255. SALAD means:
A. Slow acting and lipophilic drugs
B. Green vegeatables with dressing
C. Small and Large Molecular weight drugs
D. Sound alike and look alike drugs
256. Which of the following brand names corresponds to Allopurinol?
I. Zyloprim
II. Xanor
III. Llanol
A. I, II, II D. I only
B. I, II E. III only
C. I, III
257. The generic name of Mucosolvan is:
A. Guaifenesin C. Bromhexine
B. Carbocisteine D. Ambroxol
258. DPI means
A. Dose per inhalation C. Dry powder for inhalation
B. Drug Prescription inventory D. Drug for peritoneal injection
259. Tenormin is a brand name of:
A. Albuterol C. Pindolol
B. Esmolol D. Atenolol
260. Which of the following prodoucts is an iron preparatiion?
I. Iberet
II. Circulan
III. Feldene
A. I, II, III D. I only
B. II only E. I, III
C. II only
261. The drug doxylamine is a/an:
I. OTC sleeping aid
II. Antihistamine
III. Commercially available as Unisom
A. I, III C. I, II
B. II, III D. I, II, III
262. Lamotrigine (Lamictal) is a/an:
A. Pain reliever C. Antiepileptic
B. Antiparkisonian drug D. DMARDs
263. Which of the following drug is not a cephalosporin?
A. Ceftriaxone C. Ceftazidime
B. Cefuroxime D. Chlorhexidine
264. Reye’s syndrome has been associated with the use of which analgesic drug?
A. Naproxen C. Aspirin
B. Celecoxib D. Paracetamol
265. When tretinoin is prescribed, it is co – administered with a contraceptive agent because the former is/can:
A. Increase the risk of pregnancy
B. A known teratogen
C. Cause bleeding in women

D. Increase susceptibility to vaginal Candidiasis
266. Which of the following factors may contribute to the occurence of a drug interaction?
I. Multiple pharmacological effects
II. Drug abuse
III. Multiple prescribers
A. I, III D. I, II, III
B. I, II E. I only
C. II, III
267. Energy beverages contain high content of:
A. Protein C. Caffeine
B. Fat D. Enzyme
268. Miglitol and Acarbose are:
A. Antihypertensive agents C. Antibacterial agents
B. Antiasthma agents D. Oral hypoglycemic agents
269. Levodopa – carbidopa combination has the popular brand name of:
A. Tagamet C. Sinemet
B. Stalevo D. Dilantin
270. Concurrent administration of Trihexylphenidyl, Amitriptyline, and Chlorpromazine would result to:
A. Additive hypotensive effects C. Additive anticholinergic activity
B. Antagonistic effect D. Additive hypoglycemic property
271. Abbreviations considered to be problem – prone of “dangerous abbreviations” include:
A. mcg D. QOD
B. QID E. All of hte choices given
C. u
272. Practical strategies to reduce errors resulting from sound-alike medications and verbals orders include:
I. Read back verbal orders
II. Prohibit the use of all verbal orders
III. Establish policies on who can receive verbal orders
A. I, II D. III only
C. I, III
273. JCAHO patient safety goals encourage hospitals to remove ______ from floor stock
A. Lidocaine D. All of the choices given
B. Esmolol E. A and B only
C. Concentrated electrolytes
274. High Alert Medications (HAM ) include:

I. Digoxin
II. Lidocaine
III. Neuromuscular blocking agents
A. I, II, III D. I, III
B. I, II E. III only
C. II, III
275. Hypertensive episodes might result with concomitant use of:
A. Aloe vera – Thiazide C. Ma huang – Pseudoephedrine
B. Gingko biloba – ASA D. Herbal ectasy – alcohol
276. Too rapid infusion of TPN may lead to:
A. Sepsis C. Anemia
B. Hyperglycemia D. Hyperammonemia
277. Long term use of Phenytoin may lead to this ADR:
A. Pigmentary retinopathy C. Steven Johnson’s Syndrome
B. Hirsutism D. All of the above
278. Phenytoin precipitates and falls to the bottom of the IV bag as an insoluble salt when it is added to the solution
of
A. D10W D. NSS
B. D5W E. KCl
C. D50W
279. Saw palmetto is indicated for the treatment of:
A. Micturation difficulty D. Convalescence
B. Cirrhosis E. Insomia
C. Fatigue
280. Newborns that are exposed repeatedly to benzyl alcohol (an Injectable product preservative may lead to a
potentially fatal condition known as:
A. Cushing syndrome C Steven Johnson’s Syndrome
B. Gasping syndrome D. Reye’s syndrome
281. The Generic name of Antivert is:
A. Scopolamine C. Promethazine
B. Meclizine D. Hyoscyamine
282. The Generic name of Dalmane is:
A. Alprazolam D. Oxazepam
B. Flurazepam E. Triazolam
C. Chlordiazepoxide
283. Miltown is the brand name of:

A. Triazolam D. Meprobamate
B. Carisopodol E. Methocarbamol
C. Cimetidine
284. Drugs that increase caffeine levels by inhibiting its metabolism include all of the following except:
A. Ciprofloxacin C. Oral contraceptives and Prednisone
B. Cimetidine. D. Theophylline
285. Ampicillin will produce a false – positive reaction when testing for the presence of glucose in urine the folloing
except:
A. Clinistix® C. Benedict’s solution
B. Clinitest® D. Fehling’s solution
286. Concurrent use of alcohol with sedatives and other depressant drugs result to:
I. Hyperexcitability
II. Hallucinations
III. Coma
A. I, II, III C. II, III
B. I, II D. III only
287. Milk and other dairy products ________ the absorption of tetracycline and Fluoroquinolones.
A. Increase C. Does not affect
B. Decrease D. All of the above
288. A STAT order means the drug should be administered:
A. As needed by the patient C. Immediately
B. At the hour of sleeps D. Before surgery
289. Grapefruit juice increases the blood levels of drugs concurrently taken with it by:
A. Increasing the activity of drug metabolizing enzymes
B. Inhibting the cytochrome P450 enzymes
C. Increasing the absorption of drugs
D. Blocking the urinary excretion of drugs
290. Vitamins A is compatible with:
A. Plastic container C. Both A and B
B. Soda glass container D. Neither A nor B
291. Which of the following is an idiosyncratic reaction?
A. Anaphylaxis from peniciliin
B. Malignant hyperthermia from antipsychotic drugs
C. Flushing and hypotension from vancomycin
D. Hypoglycemia from oral sulfonylureas
292. In an extemporaneous prescription, the chief or active constituent is referred to as the:

A. Basis C. Vehicle
B. Corrective D. Adjuvant
293. Based on USP guidelines the stability of extemporaneously compounded aqueous liquids (reconstituted
formulation) is
A. A beyond use date of not later than 25% of the time remaining until the product’s expiration date or 6
months, whichever is earlier
B. No t later than 14 days when stored at cold temperatures
C. Not less than the intended duration of therapy or 30 days, whichever is earlier
D. maximum beyond use date is 6 months or 25% of the remaining time between the compounding date and
the shortest expiration date of the ingredients, whichever is earlier
294. Administrative / Professional function of the pharmacist that include training and supervising interns and
externs during their required work experiences is
A. Supervisory C. Managerial
B. Community service D. Receptor
295. Which of the following not a consulting service provided by the pharmacist in community setting?
A. Screening for cholesterol C. Regulation and compliance
B. Staff education and in services D. Patient profile monitoring
296. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Freshly boiled and cooled purified water must be used when making suspensions
B. All suspensions will attract a 4 – week discard date
C. All suspensions need a direction to shake the bottle
D. Suspensions containing a suspending agent do not need a direction to shake the bottle
297. Which of the following salts of soium is not soluble in water?
I. NaCl
II. NaHCO3
III. NaNO3
A. I only D. I, II, III
B. II only E. II, III
C. III only
298. Incompatibilities of acacia include:
` I. Precipitated by alcohol
II. Can liberate carbon dioxide from bicarbonates
II. Swell in water
A. I only D. III only
C. I, II
299. Which of hte following vehicles can precipitate Sodium Phenobarbital?
A. Simple syrup C. Syrup of orange
B. Purified water D. All of the choices given
300. Acacia will form colored product with
A. Bezoic acid C. Alcohol
B. Resorcinol D. Water

Dispensing Blue Pacop Answer Key

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Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

A. Calcium's absorption is enhance with Vitamin D

B. Calcium's absorption is enhance with Vitamin E

C. Calcium's absorption is deterred with Vitamin D

D. Calcium's absorption is deterred with Vitamin E

A. For external use only C. Shake the bottle before using

B. Store in a cool dry place D. Both B and C

3. A patient asks what constitutes Combivent. Combivent is a combination of

I. Ipratropium Br II. Albuterol SO4 III. Metaproterenol

A. I only C. II and III only

B. I and II only D. All of the above

5. The strength of folic acid in OTC vitamins should not exceed

A. Cancer therapy induced nausea and vomiting

7. Which of the following anti HPN helps in the treatment of diabetes?

I. Theophylline Na glycinate Elixir

II. Theophylline elixir

III. Theophylline tablet

A. I only C. II and III only

B. I and II only D. All of the choices given

A. Meclizine C. Gold compound

A. I only C. II and III only

B. I and II only D. All of the above

A. Avoid tea or coffee because it reduces iron absorption by as much 50%

B. Avoid vitamin A because it reduces iron absorption.

C. Avoid Tetracycline because it activates iron.

12. Which is not a routine procedure for dispensing prescription?

A. Check the legal requirements C. Provide patient advice

B. Dispense the correct product D. Inaptness of the prescription

A. Do not take anything containing aspirin while taking this medicine.

B. This medicine may color the urine.

C. Take with or after food.

B. Risk of neural tube defects may be increased.

C. Placental perfusion may be reduced.

D. Genital malformations and cardiac defects may be developed.

A. Avoid alcoholic drink.

B. May cause drowsiness.

C. Avoid exposure of skin to direct sunlight or sun lamps.

A. Possibility of premature separation of placenta in first 18 weeks may occur.

B. Neonatal irritability and apnea may develop

C. Congenital anomalies may develop.

D. Neonatal respiration may be depressed.

A. The patient’s disease or condition requiring treatment.

B. The prescribed route of administration.

C. The biological action of the prescribed product.

D. The auxillary and cautionary labels

A. Ensure the product stability

B. Comply with legal requirements

C. Promote patient compliance

D. All of the choices given

A. expiration date of the mediation

B. Auxiliary and/or cautionary labels

C. Quantity of medication dispensed

A. Birth date and weight

C. Direction for use

A. Brief description of the problem

B. Reference source that documents the problem

C. Description of the clinical significance of the problem

D. Possible physical and chemical incompatibility

B. Dose too low D. Undiagnosed condition

A. Exposure to air whenever possible

B. Use caution with Povidone-iodine in anyone with allergies

D. Avoid combination of cholinergic medications

A. Avoid multivitamins that contain Vitamin A