1. An 'orphan drug' is: C.

High plasma protein binding

A. A very cheap drug D. High tissue binding
B. A drug which has no therapeutic use
C. A drug needed for treatment or prevention of a rare 9. Weakly acidic drugs:
disease A. Are bound primarily to α- acid glycoprotein in
D. A drug which acts on Orphanin receptors plasma
B. Are excreted faster in alkaline urine
2. Drug administered through the following route is C. Are highly ionized in the gastric juice
most likely to be subjected to first-pass D. Do not cross blood-brain barrier
metabolism:
A. Oral 10. The plasma protein bound fraction of a drug:
B. Sublingual A. Contributes to the response at the given moment
C. Subcutaneous B. Remains constant irrespective of the total drug
D. Rectal concentration
C. Remains constant irrespective of the disease state
3. Alkalinization of urine hastens the excretion of: D. Is not available for metabolism unless actively
A. Weakly basic drugs extracted by the liver
B. Weakly acidic drugs
C. Strong electrolytes 11. Biotransformation of drugs is primarily directed to:
D. Nonpolar drugs A. Activate the drug
B. Inactivate the drug
4. The most important factor which governs diffusion C. Convert lipid soluble drugs into nonlipid soluble
of drugs across biological membrane is: metabolites
A. Blood flow through the capillary D. Convert nonlipid soluble drugs into lipid soluble
B. Lipid solubility of the drug Metabolites
C. pKa value of the drug
D. pH of the medium 12. A prodrug is:
A. The prototype member of a class of drugs
5. Active transport of a substance across biological B. The oldest member of a class of drugs
membranes has the following characteristics C. An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to
except: an active metabolite
A. It is specific D. A drug that is stored in body tissues and is then
B. It is pH dependent gradually released in the circulation
C. It is saturable
D. It requires metabolic energy 13. Most common cytochrome P450 isoenzymes
involved in the metabolism of drugs in human
6. Bioavailability of drug refers to: beings
A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches A. CYP 3A4
systemic circulation in the unchanged form B. CYP 2C9
B. Ratio of oral to parenteral dose C. CYP 2E1
C. Ratio of orally administered drug to that excreted in D. CYP 1A2
the faeces
D. Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that 14. The most commonly occurring conjugation reaction
excreted as metabolites for drugs and their metabolites is:
7. If the total amount of a drug present in the body at A. Glucuronidation
a given moment is 2.0 g and its plasma B. Acetylation
concentration is 25 µg/ml, its volume of C. Methylation
distribution is: D. Glutathione conjugation
A. 100 L
B. 80 L 15. Drugs which undergo high degree of first-pass
C. 60 L metabolism in liver:
D. 50 L A. Have low oral bioavailability
B. Are excreted primarily in bile
8. The following attribute of a drug tends to reduce C. Are contraindicated in liver disease
its volume of distribution: D. Exhibit zero order kinetics of elimination
A. High lipid solubility
B. Low ionisation at physiological pH values
16. If a drug is excreted in urine at the rate of 10 mg/hr
at a steady-state plasma concentration of 5 mg/L,
then its renal clearance is:
A. 0.5 L/hr
B. 2.0 L/hr
C. 5.0 L/hr
D. 20 L/hr
17. If a drug is eliminated by first order kinetics:
A. A constant amount of the drug will be eliminated
per unit time
B. Its clearance value will remain constant
C. Its elimination half life will increase with dose
D. It will be completely eliminated from the body in 2 ×
half life period
18. When the same dose of a drug is repeated at half
life intervals, the steady-state (plateau) plasma
drug concentration is reached after:
A. 2–3 half lives
B. 4–5 half lives
C. 6–7 half lives
D. 8–10 half lives
19. The loading dose of a drug is governed by its:
A. Renal clearance
B. Plasma half life
C. Volume of distribution
D. Elimination rate constant
20. What is true in relation to drug receptors:
A. All drugs act through specific receptors
B. All drug receptors are located on the surface of
the target cells
C. Agonists induce a conformational change in
the receptor
D. Partial agonists have low affinity for the receptor
21. A partial agonist can antagonise the effects of a
full agonist because it has:
A. High affinity but low intrinsic activity
B. Low affinity but high intrinsic activity
C. No affinity and low intrinsic activity
D. High affinity but no intrinsic activity
22. Receptor agonists possess:
A. Affinity but no intrinsic activity
B. Intrinsic activity but no affinity
C. Affinity and intrinsic activity with a + sign
D. Affinity and intrinsic activity with a – sign
23. The following receptor has an intrinsic ion channel:
A. Histamine H1 receptor
B. Histamine H2 receptor
C. Adrenergic alfa receptor
D. Nicotinic cholinergic receptor
24. A receptor which itself has enzymatic property is:
A. Insulin receptor
B. Progesterone receptor
C. Thyroxine receptor
D. Glucagon receptor
25. All of the following subserve as intracellular second
messengers in receptor mediated signal
transduction except:
A. Cyclic AMP
B. Inositol trisphosphate
C. Diacyl glycerols
D. G proteins
26. The receptor transduction mechanism with the
fastest time-course of response effectuation is:
A. Adenylyl cyclase-cyclic AMP pathway
B. Phospholipase C-IP3: DAG pathway
C. Intrinsic ion channel operation
D. Protein synthesis modulation
27. The following statement is not true of log dose-
response curve:
A. It is almost linear except at the ends
B. It is a rectangular hyperbola
C. It facilitates comparison of different agonists
D. It can help in discriminating between competitive
and noncompetitive antagonists
28. When therapeutic effects decline both below and
above a narrow range of doses, a drug is said to
exhibit:
A. Ceiling effect
B. Desensitization
C. Therapeutic window phenomenon
D. Nonreceptor mediated action
29. The following statement is not true of ‘potency’ of
a drug:
A. Refers to the dose of the drug needed to produce a
certain degree of response
B. Can be related to that of its congeners by the
relative position of its dose-response curve on
the dose axis
C. It is often not a major consideration in the
choice of a drug
D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce
a drastic response
30. ‘Drug efficacy’ refers to:
A. The range of diseases in which the drug is
beneficial
B. The maximal intensity of response that can
be produced by the drug
C. The dose of the drug needed to produce half
maximal effect
D. The drug dose needed to produce therapeutic effect