Professional Documents
Culture Documents
SERIES
PREVENTIVE
AND
SOCIAL MEDICINE
BUSTER
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PG
SERIES
PREVENTIVE
AND SOCIAL RG
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MEDICINE BUSTER
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(In case of any difficulty students are advised to
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refer PARK and PARK, 17th Edition 2002)
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Compiled by
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Dharmendra Sharma
MBBS, MD
Consultant Cardiologist
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Life Line Heart Centre and Hospital
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Kamla Nagar, Bypass Road
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Agra
JAYPEE BROTHERS
MEDICAL PUBLISHERS (P) LTD
New Delhi
Published by
Jitendar P Vij
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Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers (P) Ltd
EMCA House, 23/23B Ansari Road, Daryaganj
New Delhi 110 002, India
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Phones: 23272143, 23272703, 23282021, 23245672, 23245683
Fax: 011-23276490 e-mail: jpmedpub@del2.vsnl.net.in
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Visit our website: http://www.jpbros.20m.com
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Branches
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PG Series—Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
© 2004, Dharmendra Sharma
All rights reserved. No part of this publication should be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system,
or transmitted in any form or by any means: electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording,
or otherwise, without the prior written permission of the editor and the publisher.
This book has been published in good faith that the material provided by editor is
original. Every effort is made to ensure accuracy of material, but the publisher, printer
and editor will not be held responsible for any inadvertent error(s). In case of any
dispute, all legal matters to be settled under Delhi jurisdiction only.
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The reasons you should buy this book
➣ Contains the question pagewise and chapterwise with the relevant text.
➣ Latest questions of different examinations are included.
➣ Excellent companion to revise PSM.
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➣ A must for students aspiring for PG Medical Entrance Examination.
➣ High-Yield facts given in the boxes
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Acknowledgements
The work will definitely demand a special note of acknowledgement to all of the staff of Life Line Heart Centre
and Hospital for their unconditional support and to my patients as it was their time which I have stolen for
the book work. Special thanks to Miss Ruby Sharma and Miss Shivani Sharma for formating the framework
on computer and finalizing the data as a consolidated book. A vote of thanks for Mr. Praveen Bedi for his
efforts in keeping technical work and computers always ready and fit for the job.
Thanks for support to my driver Shivpratap and staff members Rajesh Tyagi and Mr Dheeraj Dixit. The
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successful completion of the book has a lot to do with the help and support provided by Dr CL Verma who
has provided the inspiration.
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Above all, thanks to all my readers for their encouragement and good feedback for Medicine BUSTER.
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Tips to the Readers
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before the text appears in books, viz. Viagra.
• Don’t cram the answers; try to understand the basics of topic and see other topics in its surrounding.
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• Discussion will help you a lot in understanding the facts.
• At the last moment only revise the latest questions of previous 5 to 7 years.
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• Answers are right to our extent but for the possibility of computer and typographical error, we apologise
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in advance.
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• Any correction with references, new questions and suggestions are welcomed by our readers. They will
be duly acknowledged in our further editions and a special gift is offered to them.
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Preface
Put your best efforts and you will get the reward. No one can deny the fact that GOD helps those who help
themselves. But one can only help himself when he knows the way to help himself.
When the sand in the sand clock is continuously flowing how can you be able to flow in the same stream.
Choose the right way at right time to get the right rank. Preventive and social medicine is one of the subject
most frequently asked in every exam with bulk of question and fortunately we are lucky enough that we
need not have to wander here and there for sorting the answer. Special thanks to PARK & PARK for their
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efforts of consolidating such a wide subject in a handy form.
I am providing you the questions which have already been asked in various examinations for providing
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you the way to read. What to cram and what to leave. The book will help you from the very beginning you
enter your second professional course start your slow race from beginning and success will be yours like that
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of tortoise. In case of any difficulty students are advised to refer PARK and PARK, 17th Edition 2002.
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Time will not stand for you, you will have to stand, think and start your journey with a planning in favour
of victory.
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Best of luck.
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Dharmendra Sharma
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Contents
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B. Intestinal infections ............................................................................................................................... 34
C. Arthropod- Borne infections .................................................................................................................. 43
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D. Zoonoses .............................................................................................................................................. 48
E. Surface infections ................................................................................................................................. 54
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5. Epidemiology of Chronic Non-Communicable Diseases and Conditions ......................................... 59
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6. Health Programmes in India ................................................................................................................. 62
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7. Demography and Family Planning ....................................................................................................... 68
8. Preventive Medicine in Obstetrics, Paediatrics and Geriatrics ........................................................ 74
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9. Nutrition and Health ............................................................................................................................... 82
10. Social Sciences and Health .................................................................................................................. 93
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11. Environment and Health ........................................................................................................................ 95
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12. Occupational Health ............................................................................................................................. 108
13. Mental Health ........................................................................................................................................ 112
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14. Health Information and Basic Medical Statistics .............................................................................. 114
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15. Communication for Health Education ................................................................................................ 120
16. Health Planning and Management ..................................................................................................... 122
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17. Health Care of the Community ........................................................................................................... 124
18. International Health .............................................................................................................................. 128
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19. Self Assessment ..................................................................................................................................... 129
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MEDICAL PUBLISHERS (P) LTD
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Concepts of Health and Disease 1
4. Objectives of the health services include each of the following except: (PAR/16) (JIPMER 78, UPSC 86)
(a) Delivery of curative care only (b) Health promotion (c) Prevention control, or eradication of disease
(d) Treatment and rehabilitation
5. Infant mortality rate in Kerala is: (PAR/20)(UPSC/03)
(a) 38 (b) 30 (c) 26 (d) 16
1 C 2 B 3 A 4 A 5 D
2 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
Morbidity indicators—
a. Notification rates
b. Incidence and prevalence
c. Duration of stay in hospital
d. Spells of sickness or absence from work or school
e. Admission, readmission and discharge rates
f. Attendance rates at outpatient departments,health centres,etc.
7. Most important epidemiological tool used for assessing disability in children is: (PAR/22) (AI/03)
(a) Activities of daily living (ADL) scale (b) Wing’s handicaps, behaviour and skills (HBS) schedule
(c) Binet and Simon IQ tests (d) Physical quality of life index (PQLI)
Disability rates—
A. Event type indicators:
1. Number of days of restricted activity
2. Work loss days (or school loss days) within a specified period
3. Bed disability days
8. The measure used to express the global burden of disease, i.e., how a healthy life is affected by disease, is:
(PAR/22) (KARNAT 99)
(a) Disability-adjusted life year (b) Case fatality rate (c) Life expectancy (d) Age-specific incidence rate
9. Which one of the following is NOT a socio-economic indicator: (PAR/23)(UPSC/02)
(a) Literacy rate (b) Family size (c) Housing (d) Life expectancy at birth
6 B 7 A,B 8 A 9 D
Concepts of Health and Disease 3
HALE—(Health-adjusted life expectancy)—It is the another name given to disability-adjusted life
expectancy at birth (DALE) comprises life expectancy at birth plus time spent in poor health.
DALY (Disability-adjusted life year)—It is a measurement of burden of disease and achievement of
intervention one lost year of healthy life is equal to one DALY.
Health care delivery indicators:
a. Doctor-nurse ratio
b. Doctor-population ratio
c. Population per traditional birth attendant
d. Population per health /subcenter
e. Population bed ratio
Socio-economic indicators:
a. Level of unemployment
b. Dependency ratio
c. Rate of population increase
d. Per capita income
e. Family size
f. Literacy rates ,especially female literacy rates
g. Housing: The number of person per room
h. Per capita “calorie” availability
Primordial prevention
• Means prevention of risk-factors development in the groups in which they have not yet appeared
• Intervenation is through individual and mass education
Primary prevention
• For prevention of chronic diseases where the risk-factors are establised by population (mass)
strategy high-risk strategy.
Secondary prevention: By the measures which stops the progress of disease at its incipient stage
thus preventing the complications, e.g. screening tests and case finding programme.
Tertiary prevention: Stands for promoting measures to reduce or limit disabilities and impairments.
13. Keeping the frequency of illness within acceptable limits is best described as disease:
(PAR/34) (PGI 79, JIPMER 81)
(a) Control (b) Prevention (c) Eradication (d) Surveillance (e) Treatment
10 A 11 A 12 C 13 A
4 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
14. Pap smear is an example of: (PAR/34) (AI 88)
(a) Primary level of prevention (b) Secondary level of prevention (c) Tertiary level of prevention
(d) None of the above
15. Primordial prevention is applied when:(PAR/34) (AI/2000)
(a) Risk factors appear before disease (b) After risk factors appear (c) Prevalence of disease is low
(d) No disease and no risk factors
Sentinel Surveillance: Find out the missed cases thus supplementing the data. It is applied to the
entire population for calculating the disease prevalence in whole population.
Modes of intervention
(1) Health promotion
• Health education
• Environment modification
• Nutritional intervention
• Lifestyle and behavioural changes
(2) Specific protection
• As chemoprophylaxis, immunization protection against occupational hazard
• Protection against accidents
• Use of specific nutrients
• Avoidance of allergens
• Protection from carcinogens
• Control of consumer product, etc
(3) Early diagnosis and treatment—as of essential hypertension, breast cancer, cancer of cervix
tuberculosis and STD.
(4) Disease limitation
• Disabilities prevention
• Rehabilitation
26 B 27 A 28 B 29 B 30 A 31 C 32 D 33 A,B 34 B 35 C 36 A 37 A 38 C
39 A 40 B
6 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
Its represent the killing power of diseases and used for acute infectious diseases (as food
poisoning, cholera, measles)
• Time interval is not specified
1 B 2 A 3 C 4 D 5 A 6 D 7 A 8 C 9 A 10 A
Principles of Epidemiology and Epidemiologic Method 7
Observed deaths × 100
Standardized mortality ratio (SMR) =
Expected death
If the ratio had value greater than 100, the risk of mortality rises
• SMR permit adjustment for age and it is of value if the event of interest is occurrence of disease
rather than death.
• Other standardization techniques
• Life table
• Regression techniques
• Multivariate analysis
Incidence - number of new cases occurring in a define population during a specified time period
Number of new cases of specific diseases during a given time period × 100
16. True about prevalence are all except: (PAR/52) (AI 96)
(a) Rate (b) Specifically for old and new cases (c) P = L × D (d) Prevalence of two types
Prevalence: It is a ratio of total number of all individuals who have diseases at a particular
time (Or a particular period) divided the population at risk at that point of time or midway
through the period (multiplication factor is 100)
Prevalence = incidence × duration
Uses of prevalence
• Estimate the magnitude of health / disease problem in the community and high-risk group
• Useful for administrative and planning purpose
11 A 12 A 13 A 14 C 15 C 16 A
8 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
17. In a bulk of hundred children out of whom 28 are immunised 2 of them get measles simultaneously. Subsequently
14 get measles. Assume the efficacy of the vaccine to be 100%. What is the sec. attack rate?
(PAR/52)(AI/2001)
(a) 5% (b) 10% (c) 20% (d) 21.5%
18. A village has a total of 100 under-five children. The coverage with measles vaccine in this age group is 60%.
Following the occurrence of a measles case in a child after a visit outside, twenty-six children developed measles.
The secondary attack rate of measles is: (PAR/52)(UPSC/2K)
(a) 25% (b) 40% (c) 50% (d) 65%
19. In a community, increase in new cases denotes: (PAR/52)(AI/2001)
(a) Increase incidence rate (b) Increase prevalence rate (c) Decrease incidence rate (d) Decrease prevalence
rate
20. In a population of 5000 incidence of disease is 100 in 1 year duration of disease studied for 2 years calculate
prevalence: (PAR/53) (UP 96)
(a) 20/1000 (b) 40/1000 (c) 80/1000 (d) 400/1000
21. In a stable situation: (PAR/53) (UPSC 96)
(a) Incidence = Prevalence + Duration (b) Prevalence = Incidence × Duration (c) Incidence = Prevalence ×
Duration (d) Prevalence = Incidence + Duration
22. Prevalence is a: (PAR/53) (AIIMS 97)
(a) Rate (b) Ratio (c) Proportion (d) Mode
23. Prevalence of a disease: (PAR/53)(AIIMS/02)
(a) Is the best measure of disease frequency in etiological studies (b) Can only be determined by a cohort
study (c) Is the number of new cases in a defined population (d) Describes the balance between
incidence mortality and recovery
24. In a village of Rajasthan the incidence of trachoma is 3% while prevalence is 4% it indicates:
(PAR/53)(AIIMS 99)
(a) Previously transmission of disease was low (b) Previously transmission was high but now is under control
(c) There is no change in past and present (d) Previously transmission are under control but now is high
25. In a disease epidemological study the incidence in female is more than in male but the prevalence is equal in
both. It indicates: (PAR/53) (AIIMS 99)
(a) Case fatality is more in female (b) Mortality in male is more (c) Disease is of less duration in
male (d) Female harbour disease for long duration
26. Descriptive epidemiology is study in relation to: (PAR/54) (AMU 95)
(a) Time (b) Place (c) Person (d) All of the above
27. Study of time place and person distribution is: (PAR/54) (AI 99)
(a) Analytical epidemiology (b) Experimental epidemiology (c) Descriptive epidemiology
(d) Observation epidemiology
28. The three major types of epidemics would include all except: (PAR/55) (UPSC/ 98)
(a) Common source epidemics (b) Periodic epidemics (c) Propagated epidemics (d) Slow epidemics
29, Chernobyl tragedy is an example of: (PAR/56) (AI 91)
(a) Point source epidemic (b) Propagated epidemic (c) Modern epidemic (d) Continuous epidemic
30. The following statements are true for a propagated epidemic except: (PAR/56) (AI 89)
(a) It shows gradual rise over up a period of time (b) The speed of spread depends upon head immunity
(c) There are no secondary waves ( d) Most often transmission is person to person.
31. Bhopal gas tragedy is an example of: (PAR/56) (AI 90)
(a) Slow epidemic (b) Continuous epidemic (c) Point source epidemic (d) Propagated epidemic
Type of epidemic
A. Common source epidemic
1. Single exposure or point source—all cases develop in one incubation period; epidemic curve rises
falls rapidly; no secondary waves; clustering of cases within a narrow interval of time, e.g.
Bhopal gas tragedy in India and minamata disease in Japan.
17 C 18 D 19 A 20 B 21 B 22 B 23 D 24 B 25 A 26 D 27 C 28 B 29 A
30 C 31 C
Principles of Epidemiology and Epidemiologic Method 9
2. Continuous or multiple exposure epidemic—Time may not be same, e.g. prostitute serving a
source of infection; legionnaires disease outbreak in Philadelphia
B. Propagated epidemic
• Result from person to person transmission as epidemics of hepatitis and polio. Curve shows a
gradual rise and falls in a much longer period of time.
• Spreading speed depends upon herd immunity, opportunities for contact and secondary attack
rate.
C. Slow (modern) epidemic
Periodic fluctuation
(1) Seasonal trend
(2) Cyclic trend—occur due to variation in herd immunity. Usually occur due to antigenic variation.
Long-term or secular trends—Implies changes on the occurrence of disease (i.e. a progressive increase
or decrease over a long period of time), e.g. coronary heart disease, lung cancer and diabetes.
32. True about propagated epidemic are all except: (PAR/56) (AI/2000)
(a) Secondary peaks are seen (b) Herd immunity is present (c) Regular supply of susceptibles
(d) Epidemic curve has allow rising slope with rapid decline
33. False about point source epidemic is: (PAR/56) (AI/2000)
(a) Children are more affected (b) Rapid rise and fall (c) All cases occur in one incubation period
(d) No secondary waves
34. Sacular trends refers to: (PAR/57) (UP 97)
(a) Gradual change in a particular direction (b) Change of pattern over along period of time (c) Decrease
in prevalence of disease (d) Increase in prevalence
35. Residents of three villagers with three different types of water supply were asked to participate in a study to
identify cholera carriers. Because several cholera deaths had occurred in the recent past, virtually everyone
occurred in the time submitted to examination.The proportion of carriers was in each village who were carriers
was computed and compared. This study is a: (PAR/60) (AIIMS/02)
(a) Cross-sectional study (b) Case-control study (c) Concurrent cohort study (d) Non-concurrent
36. Study of a person who has already contracted the disease is called: (PAR/61) (TN 91)
(a) Case control (b) Cohort (c) Control cohort (d) None of the above
Cross-sectional studies
• Observational study or prevalence study
• Useful for chronic disease when interest is distribution of disease
• Less expensive / Less time required in establishing relationship.
Longitudinal studies
• Useful to study the natural history of disease and its future outcome.
• Identifies the risk factors of disease
• Finds out the incidence of disease but more expensive and more time consuming.
Matching variables—Discrete variables—As smoking and lung cancer; or exposure and disease
for discrete variables the test of significance usually adopted is the standard error of
difference between the two proportions or the Chi-square test.
Continuous variables as age or blood pressure, the test of significance used should be standard error
of difference between two means or ‘t’ test.
• p < 0.05 is statistically significant but statistical association (p value) does not imply causation
• Odd’s ratio: Measure of the strength of the association between risk factor and outcome; derived
from a case control study and used for rare diseases.
BIAS
(1) bias due to confounding
(2) memory or recall bias
(3) selection bias
(4) Berkesonian bias
(5) Interviewer’s bias
43. Incidence among exposed and nonexposed is called: (PAR/63) (AIIMS 93)
(a) Relative risk (b) Attributable risk (c) Odd’s ratio (d) Attack ratio
44. The following is discrete variables except: (PAR/63) (UP 96)
(a) Weight in body (b) Carcinoma of cervix (c) Ulcer on tonsil (d) Leg ulcer
45. All are morbidity indicators except: (PAR/63)(AI 91)
(a) Period of stay in hospital (b) Doctor population ratio (c) Attendance of outpatient department
(d) Notification rates
46. Discrete variability are all except: (PAR/63) (AI 91)
(a) Colour of skin (b) Boys in the classroom (c) Obesity weight (d) Leukocyte count
47. Relative risk can be obtained from: (PAR/63) (AI 90)
(a) Case study (b) Cohort study (c) Case control study (d) Experimental study
48. In a village of 1 lakh population, among 20,000 exposed to smoking, 200 developed cancer, and among 40,000
people unexposed, 40 developed cancer. The relative risk of smoking in the development of cancer is:
(a) 20 (b) 10 (c) 5 (d) 15 (PAR/63)(AIIMS/MAY/01)
49. Calculate the Odd's ratio: (PAR/64) (AIIMS/2000)
Diseased Undiseased
Positive 30 20
Negative 20 30
(a) 0.44 (b) 1.5 (c) 0.8 (d) 2.25
50. Berkesonian bias refers to: (PAR/64)(AIIMS/MAY/01)
(a) Different rates of admission to the hospital (b) Interviewers bias (c) Systemic sampling (d) Systematic
difference in characteristic cases and controls
51. Case control study is used for: (PAR/64) (AI 95)
(a) Finding a rare cause (b) Finding multiple risk factors (c) Finding incidence rate (d) Finding morbidity
rates
ADVANTAGES DISADVANTAGES
42 D 43 A 44 A 45 B 46 A 47 B 48 B 49 D 50 A 51 B
Principles of Epidemiology and Epidemiologic Method 11
52. When launching a study many respondents are invited some of whom fail to come. This is called:
(a) Response bias (b) Volunteer bias (c) Selection bias (d) Berkesonian bias (PAR/64) (AI 96, 98)
53. In case control study all are true except: (PAR/64) (UP 95)
(a) Can find multiple risk factor (b) Can find rare disease (c) Measure incidence (d) Few groups required
54. Case control study most characteristic is: (PAR/64) (AI 96, 98)
(a) Odd’s ratio estimation (b) Problem bias (c) Yields incidence rate (d) Expensive
55. All true about cohort studies except: (PAR/65) (AP 96)
(a) Prospective (b) Useful for rare diseases (c) Necessary for incidence (d) Costly
Advantages Disadvantages
- give incidence rates, relative - Larger subject, long follow-up ample funds
as well as attributable risk - In appropriate when the disease or exposure
under investigation is rare
- Information gained for more than one disease - Test formulated hypothesis
56. If you desire to study the incidence of diarrhoea in a community which study method would you like to opt for:
(PAR/65)(AIIMS 99)
(a) Cross-sectional study (b) Cohort study (c) Case control study (d) Double blind placebo study
57. Best method to calculate the incidence rate is: (PAR/65) (AIIMS/2K)
(a) Case control study (b) Sentinel surveillance (c) Cohort study (d) Cross sectional prevalence study
58. Relative risk could show an association between: (PAR/68) (JIPMER 93)
(a) Smoking and lung cancer (b) OCP and pregnancy (c) Efficacy of 2 drugs (d) Altitude and endemic
goitre
59. One a study it was established that the disease (carcinoma cervix was 5 times more common in those who had
multiple sexual partners than those with single partners. The attributable risk of exposure in the former group
is: (PAR/68) (AIIMS/NOV/01)
(a) 20% (b) 40% (c) 80% (d) 5%
60. As a community physician, treatment plan of action you should use: (PAR/68) (AIIMS 98)
(a) Relative risk (b) Attributable risk (c) Population attributable risk (d) Odd’s ratio
61. The ratio between the incidence of disease among exposed and non-exposed is called: (PAR/68) (UPSC/02)
(a) Causal risk (b) Relative risk (c) Attributable risk (d) Odd’s ratio
62. In an epidemiologic study the following data is observed. Calculate the relative risk of developing lung carcinoma
in smokers: (PAR/68) (AIIMS 99)
Developed Ca Not developed Ca Total No of People
Smokers 100 9,900 10,000
Non-smokers 5 4595 5000
(a) 1% (b) 10% (c) 13% (d) 25%
63. Best indicator to determine maximum benefit to the community through preventive intervention strategies is:
(a) Relative risk (b) Attributable risk (c) Absolute risk (d) Odd’s ratio (PAR/68) (UPSC/2001)
52 B 53 C 54 A 55 B 56 B 57 C 58 A 59 C 60 C 61 B 62 B 63 B
12 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
Attributable risk: Difference in incidence rates of disease between exposed and non-exposed
group it is rate
Incidence of disease among exposed – incidence of disease among non-exposed
AR = × 100
Incidence rate among exposed
It is used by community physicians to estimate the amount by which the disease could be reduced in
that population if the suspected factor was eliminated or modified
• It gives a better idea of success of preventive or public health programme in reducing the problem.
Crossover Study
• Used where patient serves as his own control. Not suitable—
• If the drug of interest cures the disease
• If the drug is effective only during a certain stages of the disease
• If the disease changes radically during the period of time required for the study
64 D 65 C 66 C 67 A 68 B 69 C 70 A 71 B 72 D 73 C 74 A 75 D
Principles of Epidemiology and Epidemiologic Method 13
76. The best criteria to judge association causes relationship is: (PAR/78) (AI 94)
(a) Strength of association (b) Consistency (c) Chronological sequence of event (d) Specificity
77. Study on lung carcinoma in non-smokers is: (PAR/78) (AI 96, 98)
(a) Unifactorial (b) Multifactorial (c) Passive smoking is also increased risk of cancer (d) Bidi smokers
carry higher lung cancer than cigarette
78. Temporal association between a risk factor and the disease relates to: (PAR/78) (UPSC/03)
(a) Does- response relationship (b) Duration-response relationship (c) One-to-one relationship
(d) Cause and effect relationship
79. Anthropozoonosis are all except: (PAR/82) (AI 95)
(a) Guinea worm infestation (b) Rabies (c) Plague (d) Hydatid cyst
80. Disease imported to a country not otherwise present: (PAR/-82) (ORRISA/01)
(a) Exotic (b) Enzootic (c) Epzootic (d) Endemic
81. Eradication is possible in all of the following diseases except: (PAR/83) (KERALA 94)
(a) Measles (b) Polio (c) Tuberculosis (d) Dracunculosis
82. Diseases which are imported into a country in which they do not otherwise occur is:
(a) Exotic (b) Epizootic (c) Endemic (d) None of the above (PAR/83) (JIPMER 81, PGI 84)
76 C 77 B 78 D 79 A 80 B 81 C 82 A 83 D 84 D 85 B
14 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
CARRIERS
Incubatory carriers: Measles, mumps, polio, pertussis, influenza, diphtheria and hepatitis B.
Convalescent carriers: Typhoid fever, dysentery (bacillary and amoebic), cholera, diphtheria and
whooping cough.
Healthy carriers: Poliomyelitis, cholera, Meningococcal meningitis, Salmonellosis and Diphtheria
Animal Reservoir - Rabies
- Yellow fever
- Influenza
Reservoir in non-living things - Tetanus
- Anthrax
- Coccidioidomycosis
- Mycetoma
Biological transmission
• Propagative—agent merely multiplies in vector but no change in from.
e.g. yellow fever, plague
• Cyclopropagative—agent changes in form and number .
e.g. Malaria parasite, cyclops in guinea worm
• Cyclodevelopmental—The disease agent under goes only development but no multiplication
e.g. microfilaria in mosquito
93. Type of biological transmission in case of malaria paracite in mosquito: (PAR/86) (BHU 88)
(a) Cyclodevelopmental (b) Developmental (c) Propagative (d) Cyclopropagative
94. Which is most difficult to block spread of: (PAR/86) (UP 94)
(a) Vector (b) Man to man (c) Airborne (d) Waterborne
95. When disease enters and first symptom appears is known as: (PAR/87) (PGI 81, AMC 87, 89)
(a) Serial interval (b) Incubation period (c) Quarantine (d) Period of infectivity
Incubation period—median incubation period defined as the time required for 50% of the
cases to occur following exposure:
Factors the determining the incubation period include .
• Generation time
• Infective dose
• Portal of entry
• Individual susceptibility
86 A 87 A 88 B 89 C 90 D 91 B 92 A 93 D 94 C 95 B
Principles of Epidemiology and Epidemiologic Method 15
Disease communicable during the incubation period are:
• Measles
• Chickenpox
• Whooping cough
• Hepatitis A
Use of incubation period:
• Tracing the source of infection and contacts
• Period of surveillance
• Immunization
• Identification of point source or propagated epidemic
• Prognosis
96. Secondary attack rate is calculated from: (PAR/88) (AIIMS 81, UPSC 84)
(a) Minimum incubation period (b) Maximum IP (c) Average IP (d) Any of the above
97. Serial interval means: (PAR/88) (AP 93)
(a) Difference between primary and secondary cases (b) Longest incubation period
(c) Shortest incubation period (d) Time in which the parasite develops in the vector
98. After entry of the organism to produce maximum infection known as: (PAR/88) (AIIMS 96, AI 98)
(a) Incubation period (b) Generation time (c) Serial interval lead (d) Lead time
Generation Time
• The interval of time between receipt of infection by a host and maximal infectivity of that host.
• Incubation period is used for infections that manifest disease whereas generation time refers to
transmission of infection whether clinical or subclinical.
When the primary case is infective over a long period of time, duration of exposure is an important
factor then
Number of contacts developing the disease
SAR = × 100
Number of person – weeks (months or year) of exposure
106. In the absence of a known incubation period for a disease, which of the following is an effective tool to assess
and manage an epidemic situation? (PAR/88) (UPSC/03)
(a) Period of infectivity (b) Serial interval (c) History of contact (d) Latent period
107. Disease in which herd immunity does not protect on individuals is: (PAR/90) (AI 95)
(a) Measles (b) Tetanus (c) Polio (d) Diphtheria
108. Herd immunity is not valuable in: (PAR/90) (AIIMS/2000)
(a) Tetanus (b) Measles (c) Rubella (d) Chickenpox
Herd immunity—contributed by
1. Occurrence of clinical and subclinical infection in the herd
2. Immunization of the herd
3. Herd structure
109. Percentages in the segments are indicated by: (PAR/90) (UP 93)
(a) Bar charts (b) Histogram (c) Pictogram (d) Pie charts
110. All are live vaccines except: (PAR/91) (JIPMER 88)
(a) Measles (b) BCG (c) OPV (d) Hepatitis B
111. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below in the lists:
(PAR/91) (UPSC/01)
List I List II
1. Tuberculosis i. Toxoids
2. Measles ii. Killed bacteria
3. Diphtheria iii. Live attenuated viruses
4. Whooping cough iv. Live attenuated bacteria
Codes:
(a) 1 (iv), 2 (iii), 3 (i), 4 (i) (b) 1 (iii), 2 (iv), 3 (ii), 4 (i) (c) 1 (iii), 2 (iv), 3 (i), 4 (ii) (d) 1 (iv), 2 (iii),
3 (ii), 4 (i)
112. Live vaccines are all except: (PAR/91) (UP 95)
(a) Typhoid oral (b) Measles (c) BCG (d) Pertussis
Live vaccine should not normally be given for 12 weeks after an infections of normal human
immunoglobin
113. Live attenuated vaccine used in man is: (PAR/91) (PGI 88)
(a) Influenza (b) BCG (c) Yellow fever (d) Japanese-B-encephalitis
126. In control of communicable diseases, the period of quarantine in respect of a disease is determined by:
(PAR/97) (KARNAT 96)
(a) Incubation period (b) Infectivity period (c) Duration of illness (d) Carrier state
127. Following diseases require isolation to break transmission except: (PAR/97) (AI 94)
(a) Measles (b) Mumps (c) Chickenpox (d) Tetanus
Quarantine
• Period not longer than longest usual incubation period of the disease for which contact with non-
exposed ones is prohibited.
• It is now being replaced by active surveillance.
114 C 115 A 116 C 117 A 118 D 119 C 120 B 121 B 122 B 123 E 124 D 125 B 126 A
127 D
18 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
128. Not included in expanded programme of immunization: (PAR/99) (JIPMER 80, DELHI 87)
(a) Influenza (b) Tetanus (c) Tuberculosis (d) Polio
129. MMR vaccination is given at: (PAR/99) (AIIMS 86, AI 88)
(a) Birth (b) 6th months (c) One year (d) 1½ years
130. Universal programme of immunisation includes A/E: (PAR/99) (PGI 87)
(a) BCG (b) Polio (c) DPT (d) MMR
Active immunization—Recommended
131. Which is true regarding universal programme of immunisation: (PAR/99) (TN 91)
(a) One dose BCG, 3 doses of DPT, 3 doses of OPV and 1 dose of MMR (b) Should be given on time
(c) Must be potent (d) All of the above
132. Vaccine which is given at earliest: (PAR/99) (AIIMS 81, PGI 90, AI 95)
(a) BCG (b) OPV (c) MMR (d) DPT (e) DT
133. The target by which primary immunization is to be completed under the Universal Immunization Programme
is:
(a) 1 year (b) 2 years (c) 3 years (d) 5 years (PAR/99) (AI 89)
134. A one-year-old unimmunised child, attends the immunization clinic. He should be advised: (PAR/99) (AI 89)
(a) BCG and measles to be followed by 6 weeks by the first dose of OPV and DPT and called after 1 month for
booster dose (b) BCG the first doses of OPV, DPT, and measles and called after 1 month for booster dose
of OPV and DPT (c) The first doses of OPV and DPT, mealses 1 week later and called after 1 month for a
booster dose of OP (d) The first dose of OPV and DPT measles 1 week later and called after 1 month for a
booster dose OPV (e) BG
135. Surveillance by WHO is not done for: (PAR/100) (AIIMS 91, UP 95)
(a) Polio (b) Malaria (c) Viral encephalitis (d) Relapsing fever
Chemoprophylaxis is indicated in
• Cholera
• Conjunctivitis
• Diphtheria
• Influenza
• Malaria
• Meningitis
• Plague
149. The first step for conducting an epidemic investigation is to: (PAR/104)(ORISSA 98)
(a) Determine the case count (b) Determine the population at risk (c) Calculate the incubation period
(d) Verify the diagnosis
136 C 137 D 138 B 139 C 140 C 141 C 142 C 143 B 144 D 145 C 146 C 147 B 148 B
149 D
20 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
• Lead time—the period between diagnosis by early detection and diagnosis by other means
2. Which is most economical and best screening: (PAR/110) (PGI 78, UPSC 88)
(a) Mass screening (b) High-risk screening (c) Multiphasic screening (d) Any of the above
Screening—finding the infections or disease in population who are not seeking health care, e.g.
Neonatal screening; screening for breast cancer
Uses of screening
1. Case detection
2. Control of disease
3. Research purpose
4. Educational opportunities
Types of screening
1. Mass-screening
2. High-risk or selective screening
3. Multiphasic screening
3. The criteria for validity of a screening test are: (PAR/110) (AIIMS 96)
(a) Accuracy (b) Predictability (c) Sensitivity and specifically (d) Cost effectiveness
Validity—Tests the accuracy of ‘test’ two main components sensitivity and specificity along
with predictive accuracy form the inherent properties of a screening test.
1 B,E 2 B 3 C 4 C
Screening for Disease 21
TN
Specificity = × 100
(means true negative) TP + FN
TP
Predictive value of positive test = × 100
TP + FP
TN
Predictive value of negative test = × 100
TN + FN
FN
Percentage of false negative = × 100
TP + FN
FP
Percentage of false positive = × 100
FP + TN
5. In a community with prevalence of HIV 5% if the sensitivity is 95% and specificity is 95% of ELISA. Find the
positive predictive value of the test: (PAR/111)(AIIMS 99)
(a) 100% (b) 50% (c) 25% (d) 0%
6. The parameters of sensitivity and specificity are used for assessing (PAR/111) (AI/03)
(a) Criterion validity (b) Construct validity (c) Discriminant validity (d) Content validity
7. Studying this formula carefully: (PAR/111) (AI/03)
True Positives
× 100
True Positives + False Positives
This denotes:
(a) Sensitivity (b) Specificity (c) Positive predictive value (d) Negative predictive value
8. For the calculation of positive predictive value of a screening test, the denominator is comprised of:
(PAR/111) (AI/03)
(a) True positives + False negatives (b) False positives + True negatives (c) True positives + False positives
(d) True positives + True negatives
9. True positives as a percentage of all positives is: (PAR/112) (JIPMER 91)
(a) Specificity (b) Predictive value (c) Sensitivity (d) All of the above
10. Most important in screening test for community is: (PAR/112) (AIIMS 98)
(a) Sensitivity (b) Specificity (c) Predictive value of +ve test (d) Detectability
11. The sensitivity of a diagnostic test means its ability to detect: (PAR/112) (AIIMS 88)
(a) Negative result in those who have disease (b) Positive result in those who have disease (c) Negative
result in those who have no disease (d) Positive result in those who have no disease
12. Sensitivity is: (PAR/112) (AIIMS 93, AI 97)
(a) True +ve (b) True –ve (c) False +ve (d) False –ve
13. A drug company is developing a new pregnancy-test kit for use on an out patient basis.The company used the
pregnancy test on100 women, 99 showed positive test. Upon using type same test on 100 non-pregnant women,
90 showed negative results. What is the sensitivity of the test: (PAR/112)(AIIMS/02)
(a) 90% (b) 99% (c) Average of 90 and 99% (d) Cannot be calculated from the given data
5 B 6 A 7 B 8 C 9 C 10 C 11 B 12 A 13 B
22 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
14 A 15 B 16 C 17 D 18 A 19 A 20 A
Epidemiology of Communicable Disease 23
4 Epidemiology of
Communicable Disease
A. Respiratory Infections
1. The national smallpox eradication programme (NSEP) was launched in India in:
(a) 1958 (b) 1959 (c) 1960 (d) 1962 (e) 1961 (PAR/115) (PGI 81, AIIMS 87)
2. The most common complication following smallpox vaccination is: (PAR/115) (AIIMS 86)
(a) Allergic rashes (b) Eczema vaccination (c) Encephalitis (d) Generalised vaccine
3. Last case of smallpox occurred in India during which one of the following years? (PAR/115) (UPSC/02)
(a) 1965 (b) 1975 (c) 1986 (d) 1995
4. The last case of smallpox was reported in the world: (PAR/115) (PGI 84)
(a) 1977 (b) 1978 (c) 1979 (d) 1982
5. Smallpox was eradicated because of the following factors except: (PAR/116)(AIIMS 86)
(a) Extra human reservoir control (b) Easy to recognize (c) Potent vaccine (d) Long incubation period
6. Which of the following is true of chickenpox: (PAR/117)(ALL INDIA/02)
(a) Virus not found in scab (b) Virus can be grown on the chick embryo (c) Caused by RNA virus
(d) Does not cross the placental barrier
7. Infectivity of chickenpox last: (PAR/117) (ALL INDIA/02)
(a) Till last scab fall offs (b) 3 days after appearance of rash (c) 6 days after appearance of rash
(d) As long as fever last
8. The most common complication of chickenpox in children is: (PAR/117) (PGI/2000)
(a) Pneumonia (b) Secondary bacterial infections (c) Otitis media (d) External otitis
Chickenpox
• Caused by human (alpha) herpes virus 3 with latent infection
• Virus can be grown on tissue culture
• Rash is vesicular characterised by dew drops on rose petal
• Virus can be readily isolated from the vesicular fluid during 1st three days of illness but scabs are
not infective
1 E 2 D 3 B 4 A 5 A 6 A 7 C 8 B
24 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
• Period of communicability—1-2 days before the appearance of rash and 4to5 days thereafter
• Secondary attack rate in household contacts is 70%
• Infections during pregnancy presents a risk for the foectus and the neonate (25%)
• Transmission is from person to person by droplet, there is no role of fomities
• I.period is 14-16 days
• Rash is symmetrical and centripetal in distribution
Complication
• Pneumonia
• Encephalitis
• Acute cerebellar ataxia
• Rey’s syndrome
Foetal wastage and birth defects
• Cutaneous scars
• Atrophied limbs
• Microcephaly and LBW baby
Vaccine- under trial - live attenuated OKA strain
15. Carriers are associated with transmision of disease in all except: (PAR/118) (ALL INDIA/02)
(a) Typhoid (b) Cholera (c) Measles (d) Diphtheria
16. Following is true for measles are A/E: (PAR/119) (UP 96)
(a) Caused by myxovirus (b) Incubation period is 18-21 days (c) Koplik’s spots are pathognomonic
(d) One attack gives lifelong immunity
17. Carriers are not seen in: (PAR/119) (AI 92)
(a) Cholera (b) Diphtheria (c) Typhoid (d) Measles
18. Koplik’s spots are seen in: (PAR/119) (AI 92)
(a) Rubella (b) Rubeola (c) Typhoid (d) Chickenpox
• Measles (Rubeola) caused by one serotype of RNA paramyxovirus, source of infection is only case,
carriers are not known to occur however subclinical infection do exist
• Period of communicability—4 days before and 5 days after the appearance of rash.
• Secondary attack rate - is over 80%
• One attack gives life-long immunity I.P is 10- 14 days
19. All are true about measles except: (PAR/119) (PGI 81, AIIMS 92)
(a) IP = 10-14 days (b) Sec attack rate 30% (c) More severe in malnourished (d) Subclinical infection
can occur
9 B 10 A 11 A 12 B 13 A 14 D 15 C 16 B 17 D 18 B 19 B
Epidemiology of Communicable Disease 25
20. Carriers are not an important source of transmission in: (PAR/119) (AI 89)
(a) Typhoid (b) Poliomyelitis (c) Diphtheria (d) Measles
21. All of following are true about measles except: (PAR/119) (AI 96)
(a) Maximum incidence in 6 to 36 months age group (b) Best age for immunization is 9-12 months
(c) Secondary attack rate is 30% (d) I.P. = 7–14 days
Clinical features of measles in prodromal stage
• Koplik’s spot appears on the buccal mucosa opposite the first and second upper molars.
• Macular rash begins behind the ears and are confluent and blotchy
• In post measles phase there may be growth retardation, diarrhoea, cancrum oris, pyogenic infections
candidiasis and reactivation of tuberculosis
• Complication of measles most common ones are: Diarrhoea, pneumonia, other respiratory
complication, otitis media
• Febrile convulsion, encephalitis and subacute sclerosing pancephalitis
• Acute deficiency of vitamin A leading to keratomalacia and blindness from corneal scarring.
22. In all carriers cause transmission except: (PAR/119) (AIIMS 98)
(a) Cholera (b) Typhoid (c) Measles (d) Poliomyelitis
23. Measles vaccine should be used within the following time after reconstitution: (PAR/120) (DELHI 96, AI 89)
(a) 1 hour (b) 2 hours (c) 3 hours (d) 1/2 hours
24. Measles vaccine given to a contact of measles case exerts protective effect within: (PAR/120) (DELHI 96)
(a) 1 day (b) 3 days (c) 7 days (d) 10 days
Vaccine
• All are tissue culture vaccine; HDC -Edmonston Zagreb strain vaccine may protect children from
4-6 months of age.
• Diluent to be used is distilled water and reconstituted vaccine should be kept on ice and used within
one hour
• Measles vaccine has recently been adopted for aerosol administration.
• Measles illness is a mild fever and rash developing 5-10 days after immunization
• Immunity develops 11-12 days after vaccination
• Pregnancy is a contraindication for vaccination other c/i are acute illness, deficient CMI
• Toxic shock syndrome result as adverse effect of vaccine because of contamination
• Live measles vaccine should be given 8-12 weeks after immunoglobulin.
25. All of the following are true for measles vaccine except: (PAR/120) (AI 96,98)
(a) Fever can occur 6-10 days after vaccination (b) Immunity develops 11-12 days after vaccination
(c) There is spread of virus from vaccine to contacts (d) Single dose of vaccine gives 95% protection
26. True about measles vaccines are A/E: (PAR/120) (AI 95)
(a) Given subcutaneous (b) High efficacy (c) Given below 1 year of age (d) Diluent does not require for
storage
27. SSPE can occur following infection with: (PAR/120) (PGI/2000)
(a) Measles (b) Rubella (c) Mumps (d) Chickenpox (e) Polio
28. Keratomalacia is associated with: (PAR/120) (PGI/2000)
(a) Measles (b) Mumps (c) Rubella (d) Diarrhoea (e) Chickenpox
29. Vaccine contraindicated during pregnancy is: (PAR/122) (UP/2000) (AIIMS 98)
(a) Rubella (b) OPV (c) Tetanus (d) Influenza
20 D 21 C 22 C 23 A 24 C 25 C 26 D 27 A 28 C 29 A
26 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
• I.P is 18 days
• There is no role of environmental factors in transmission
• Nearly 50-65 % cases are asymptomatic
• Postauricular and posterior cervical lymph nodes appear even 7 days before rash. Rash may be
absent in subclinical cases (25% cases)
Complications
• Arthralgia
• Encephalitis
• Thrombocytopenic purpura
Congenital Rubella—rubella virus affects cell division
• First trimester of pregnancy is the most dangerous time
• Classical triad is patent ductus arteriosus
• Cataract
• Deafness
• Infection in the second trimester may cause deafness but infection after 16 week cause no major
abnormality.
Rubella vaccine
• Live attenuated vaccine RA27/3 ( From human diploid fibroblast)
• This is the only vaccine preferred for young girls in their teens (1-14 years)
• In pregnancy it is contraindicated and recipients of the vaccine should be advised not to become
pregnant over the next three months
32. Which of the following diseases gives life-long immunity after an attack:
(a) Typhoid (b) Mumps (c) Tetanus (d) Diphtheria (PAR/123) (AIIMS 80, DELHI 93, UP 94)
33. Incubation period for mumps is: (PAR/123) (AI 89)
(a) 18 days (b) 14 days (c) 10 days (d) 5 days
34. Following statements is not true regarding mumps: (PAR/123) (UP 96)
(a) Caused by paramyxovirus (b) Incubation period is less than one week (c) About 31-40 % of infections
are clinically in apparent (d) Orchitis occurs in about one in 4 males 25%
Mumps- caused by one serotyped myxovirus having affinity for glandular and nervous tissue.
• Disease present with both clinical and subclinical cases (30-40%)
• Period of transmission 4-6 days before and 7 days after onset of symptoms.Infectivity is maximum
just before and at the onset of parotitis and subsides with disappearance of swelling
• Secondary attack rate is 86 percent
one attack gives life-long immunity
• I.P is 18 days
• C/F affects parotid, testes, pancreas CNS, ovaries prostate etc.
Complication
• Orchitis
• Ovaritis
• Pancreatitis
• Meaningo-encephalitis
• Myocarditis, nerve deafness, polyarthritis, hydrocephalus
• B/L orchitis is rare
30 D 31 D 32 B 33 A 34 B
Epidemiology of Communicable Disease 27
35. True about mumps is all except: (PAR/123) (UP 95)
(a) Incubation period 2-3 weeks (b) Aseptic meningitis may be present (c) Even after B/L orchitis’s sterility
is unusual (d) Hyperamylasia falls in pancreatitis
36. Which of the following vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy: (PAR/123) (ALL INDIA/02)
(a) Rubella (b) OPB (c) BCG (d) Hepatitis
37. All are features of influenza epidemic except: (PAR/124) (AIIMS 92)
(a) Large number of subclinical cases (b) Long lncubation period (c) Absence of cross immunity
(d) Sudden outburst
38 Regarding influenza all are true except: (PAR/124) (AIIMS 99)
(a) Antegenic drift occur in all three type (b) Antigenic shift occur due to genetic reassortment
(c) Influenza A is capable of antigenic shift (d) Influenza B is also capable of genetic reassortment
39. Which of the following diseases has incubation period less than one week: (PGI/2000)
(a) Kala azar (b) Tuberculosis (c) Leprosy (d) Influenza (e) Food poisoning
40. Live vaccine of influenza is given: (PAR/126) (PGI 80, AIIMS 86)
(a) S/C (b) I/M (c) Intranasally (d) Orally
Influenza vaccine
1. Killed vaccine
• S.C vaccine with immunity lasting for 3-6 months
• Revaccination annually
2. Live attenuated vaccine
Nose drops available
3. Bewer vaccine
Split virus vaccine
• Neuraminidase vaccine
• Recombinant vaccine
35 D 36 A 37 B 38 A 39 E 40 C
28 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
41. The infectivity of a patient with diphtheria is: (PAR/127) (AIIMS 91)
(a) Till cough subsides (b) Till patient is febrile (c) Life-long (d) For 15 days after infection
42. The most common age group for diphtheria is: (PAR/127) (PGI 86)
(a) 1-2 years (b) 2-5 years (c) 2-7 years (d) 2-9 years
43. Bull neck in diphtheria is due to: (PAR/127) (AI 96)
(a) Retropharyngeal abscess (b) Laryngeal oedema (c) Cellulitis (d) Lymphadenopathy
44. True about diphtheria are A/E: (PAR/127) (AI 96)
(a) Incubation period is 2-6 days (b) Carriers can be prevented by immunization (c) Shick test detect
susceptibility (d) Portal of entry through resp. tract
45. One of the following is used in DPT vaccine: (PAR/128) (AIIMS 98)
(a) Mg. sulphate (b) Aluminium phosphate (c) Aluminium sulphate (d) Mg. hydroxide
46. Which of the following statements is not true regarding carriers of diphtheria: (PAR/128) (AIIMS 96)
(a) Nasal carriers are most dangerous (b) They are responsible for most cases of infection
(c) Immunisation prevents carrier state (d) Treatment of contacts indicated
47. Which one of the following combinations is of DPT vaccine? (PAR/128) (UPSC/03)
(a) Toxoid, live and killed (b) Toxoid, killed and toxoid (c) Live, killed and toxoid (d) Killed, killed and toxoid
48. For which of the following diseases is the usual antibody source equine: (PAR/128) (AIIMS 81, PGI 80)
(a) Tetanus, Diphtheria (b) Infective hepatitis (c) Measles (d) None of the above
49. Management of nonimmunised diphtheria contacts includes all except: (PAR/128) (AIIMS 92)
(a) Prophylactic penicillin (b) Single dose of toxoid (c) Daily throat examinations (d) Throat swab culture
50. A herd immunity of over........is considered necessary to prevent epidemic spread of diphtheria:
(a) 50% (b) 55% (c) 60% (d) 70% (PAR/128) (PGI 80, AIIMS 77)
51. Treatment of choice for diphtheria carrier is: (PAR/128) (AIIMS 89)
(a) Erythromycin (b) Tetracycline (c) Penicillin (d) DPT
52. Management of unimmunised contacts of diphtheria is: (PAR/128) (AIIMS 89)
(a) Antitoxins (b) Immunoglobins and antitoxin (c) Erythromycin (d) Isolation
Control of diphtheria- By
• Early detection
• Isolation for at least 14 days
• Treatment of cases by antitoxin ( 10,000 to 80,000 units or more ) along with penicillin (2.5 lakh
units every 6 hrly or erythromycin (250 mg every 6 hrly ) for 5-6 days
• Treatments of carriers—erythromycin for 10 days
Prophylactic penicillin or erythromysin for non-immunized close contacts along with 1000-2000 units
of diphtheria antitoxin and active immunization
Bacteriological surveillance of close contacts for several weeks by repeated swabbing at weekly intervals
53. Which one of the following doses in lethal flocculent units of diphtheria toxoid is incorporated in DPT
vaccine? (PAR/128)UPSC/02
(a) 5 (b) 15 (c) 25 (d) 35
41 D 42 B 43 D 44 B 45 B 46 C 47 D 48 A 49 B 50 D 51 A 52 C 53 B
Epidemiology of Communicable Disease 29
54. If convulsions are present, which vaccine should not be given: (PAR/129) (JIPMER 80, 81, PGI 90)
(a) DPT (b) Oral polio (c) BCG (d) Tetanus toxoid (e) Measles
55. Excessive crying is seen after vaccination with: (PAR/129) (AIIMS 93)
(a) Polio (SALK) (b) DPT (c) BCG (d) Measles
56. All of the following statements are true about DPT vaccine except: (PAR/129)(AIIMS/02)
(a) It should be stored in deep freezer (b) Exposure to direct sunlight,when in use should be avoided (c) Store
stocks are needed for three months at PHC level (d) Half-used vials should not be put back in to the cold chain
after the session
57. Infective period of whooping cough lasts for weeks after onset of paroxysmal stage: (PAR/130) (AIIMS 91)
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 6
58. Incubation period of pertussis is: (PAR/130) (AIIMS 96)
(a) 7-14 days (b) Less than 2 weeks (c) 16-28 days (d) 6 weeks
59. 59-year-old sister of a neonate is suffering from pertussis, which has been documented by isolation and culture
of the organism. Most appropriate statement regarding this clinical situation is: (PAR/130) (MANIPAL/98)
(a) If mother received pertussis vaccine,the neonate is protected (b) Hyperimmune globulinis indicated for the
neonate (c) Erythromycin prophylaxis is indicated in the neonate (d) DPT vaccine is recommended for the
elder child before birth of child
60. True regarding pertussis is: (PAR/130) (ALL INDIA/02)
(a) 95% of vaccinated are protected (b) Erythromycin should be given to contacts (c) Booster is required
in cases of epilepsy (d) Leucocytosis is diagnostic
Whooping cough (Pertussis)—hundred day cough caused by B.pertussis and clinical disease is
associated with encapsulated phase 1 strains
• Source of infection is a case of pertussis, subclinical stage and chronic carrier state does not exist
• Pertussis is infectious 10 days before and after whoop and is most infectious during catarrhal stage.
• Secondary attack rate is 90 percent
• Mostly affects children below the age of 5 years with highest mortality among females less than
6 months as there is no protection from maternal antibody.
• Attack does not confer life-long immunity
• Role of fomites in the spread of infection is small
Complications of pertussis—Bronchitis, Bronchopneumonia and bronchiectasis
61. The absolute contraindication for administration of pertussis vaccine is: (PAR/131) (AI 90)
(a) Diarrhoea (b) Fever (c) Malnutrition (d) Convulsions
62. Contraindication of DPT vaccines are A/E: (PAR/131) (AI 95)
(a) Family history of epilepsy (b) Any febrile upset (c) Recent history of infectious disease (d) Children
age below 2 years of age
54 A 55 B 56 D 57 C 58 A 59 C 60 B 61 D 62 B
30 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
63. After DPT convulsion develop what is done: (PAR/131) (UP 94)
(a) DT instead of DPT (b) TT (c) Further dose DPT given (d) Rest and continue DPT
64. True about pertussis is all except: (PAR/131) (AIIMS/2000)
(a) Vaccine has 95% efficacy (b) Incidence of brain damage with vaccine is 1:50,000 (c) Erythromycin is
drug of choice for contacts (d) Raised leucocyte count corresponds to severity of cough
65. Not true about carrier state of N. gonorrhoeae is: (PAR/132) (AIIMS 88)
(a) Carrier state remains for several months (b) Organisms can be isolated from nasopharynx (c) Affect
5-30% of cases during epidemics (d) It is coccobacillus
66 In a hostel campus, a boy named Xevior developed meningococcal meningitis. 3 days later, a boy named Khiroth
developed fever and neck rigidity. On investigation, Xevior was found to be infected with meningococci group B
and Khiroth was found to be infected with meningococci group C virus: (PAR/132)(ALL INDIA/02)
(a) Prophylatic antibiotics to all contacts of Xevior and Khiroth (b) Vaccination to all student who came in
contact with Khiroth (d) Treat both with Ceftriaxone
67. Which of the following is true about meningococcal meningitis: (PAR/132) (AI 91)
(a) Case fatality less than 10% in untreated cases (b) Cases are the main source of infection (c) Rifampicin
is the drug of choice (d) Treatment in the first 2 days can save the life of 95% cases
68 Average incubation period for meningococcal meningitis is: (PAR/132) (AIIMS 81, PGI 81)
(a) 90 days (b) 25 days (c) 10 days (d) 5 days (e) 60 days
69. Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy: (PAR/132) (AI 92)
(a) Cholera vaccine (b) Typhoid vaccine (c) Meningococcal vaccine (d) Polio vaccine
70 Vaccines are available against group....Meningococcus: (PAR/132) (AIIMS 86)
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) A and C
71. In meningococcal epidemic all of the following are useful for prophylaxis except: (PAR/132) (AIIMS 86)
(a) Rifampicin (b) Sulfas (c) Vaccine
72. The following diseases are under surveillance by WHO, except: (PAR/96) (AI 91)
(a) Relapsing fever (b) Plague (c) Malaria (d) Tuberculosis:Tetracycline
73 In meningococcal meningitis: (PAR/132) (AI 91)
(a) Fatality of typical untreated case is 10% (b) Rifampicin is the drug of choice in eradicating carrier state
(c) Cases are the most important source of infection (d) Cases start losing their infectiousness 3-4 days after
starting specific antimicrobial therapy
74 Meningococcal vaccine exists for all except following strains: (PAR / 132) (AIIMS 98)
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) W-135
75. Prevalence of RIID in children in India: (PAR/136)(BURDWAN 2K)
(a) 3/1000 (b) 6/1000 (c) 8/1000 (d) 10/1000
76. The drug used by health workers in the management of acute respiratory illness (PAR/137)(KARNAT 99)
(a) Cotrimoxazole (b) Chloramphenicol (c) Benzyl penicillin (d) Gentamycin
77. The following statements are true for tuberculosis in India, except: (PAR/140) (AI 91)
(a) Average prevalence of infection is 30% (b) The annual incidence of new cases is 0.4% above the age of
10 years (c) Nonspecific sensitivity is prevalent (d) Estimated number of annual death is 500,000
63 A 64 B 65 D 66 B 67 D 68 D 69 C 70 D 71 C 72 D 73 B 74 B 75 B
76 A 77 B
Epidemiology of Communicable Disease 31
78. Assessment of magnitude of TB and its trend in community is by: (AI 2000) (PAR/140) (AIIMS 93)
(a) Tuberculin conversion index (b) Incidence rate (c) Prevalence rate (d) Fatality rate
79. Which is best indicator of evaluating TB and its trends in society: (PAR/140) (AI/2000)
(a) Tuberculosis conversion index (b) Mortality rate (c) Prevalence of infection (d) New cases
80. Infectious pool of tuberculosis is denoted by: (PAR/140) (UPSC 86,88 DELHI92)
(a) Prevalence of sputum +ve cases (b) Prevalence of X-ray +ve cases (c) Clinically +ve cases
(d) Any of the above
81. Estimated number of sputum +ve pulmonary tuberculosis in India: (PAR/140) (AIIMS 91, AP 91)
(a) 6 million (b) 10 million (c) 5 million (d) 2.5 million
Indian statistics
78 A 79 A 80 A 81 D 82 A 83 A 84 C 85 C 86 B
32 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
Smear negative tuberculosis: After three negative smears but tuberculosis suggestive symptoms and
X-ray abnormalities or positive culture.
New cases: Sputum positive tubercular case without any prior treatment or ATT for less than 4 weeks
Relapse: A patient who returns smear positive having previously been treated and declared cured after
completion of his treatment.
Failure case: A smear positive case who remainded or become smear positive again at five months
or later during the course of treatment.
Return after default: A patient who returns sputum smear positive after having treatment for at
least three months.
• The most common source of infection is the human case and effective antimicrobial treatment
reduces infectivity by 90 percent within 48 hours
• Tuberculosis is not trasmitted by fomities hence sterilization of articles is of little value.
87. HIV virus can be isolated from all except: (PAR/261) (AIIHPH/98)
(a) Semen (b) Saliva (c) Blood (d) Skin scraping
88. Prevalence of open TB in our country is: (PAR/141) (AIIMS 98)
(a) 0.1% (b) 0.4% (c) 1% (d) 4%
Prevalence of infection is the percent of individual who show a positive reaction to standard
tuberculin test.
• Every 1% annual risk of infection is said to correspond to 50 new cases of smear positive pulmonary
tuberculosis per year for 1,00,000 general population. This is tuberculin conversion index and is best
for evaluating the tuberculosis problem
• Case load or number of infective cases is estimated by prevalence of disease or case rate.
89. Under the revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme, a new case is one who has never had treatment
for tuberculosis or has taken anti-tubercular drugs for less than: (PAR/141)(UPSC/2001)
(a) 2 weeks (b) 4 weeks (c) 6 weeks (d) 8 weeks
90. ‘Annual infection rate’ in TB is the percentage of: (PAR/141) (UPSC/01)
(a) Persons converted from tuberculine negative to positive (b) New cases of tuberculosis (c) Sputum positive
cases (d) Radiological cases
91. Not true about tuberculin test: (PAR/142) (AI 95)
(a) INH converts positive negative (b) 10 mm suggest disease (c) Specific to TB (d) Absence of reaction
should be continuously interpreted
92. True about Mantoux test is: (PAR/142) (AI 96, 98)
(a) Test is read before 48 hrs (b) 6-9 mm induration have chances of Dev T.B. (c) New cases occur in tuberculin
negative person (d) Induration>10 mm is diagnostic
93. Tuberculin test is read after: (PAR/142) (UPSC 85)
(a) 48 hours (b) 72 hours (c) 96 hours (d) 24 hours
94. For Mantoux test, the standard dose of tuberculin used in India is: (PAR/142) (UPSC 96)
(a) 0.5 TU (b) 1.0 TU (c) 5.0 TU (d) 10.0 TU
95. In tuberculin testing induration of.....is considered positive: (PAR/142) (TN 88)
(a) 5 mm or more (b) 7 mm or more (c) 10 mm or more (d) 15 mm or more
96. Tuberculin test positivity depends on: (PAR/142) (AI 96)
(a) Erythema (b) Nodule formation (c) Induration (d) Ulcerative change
97. Person who is sputum+ve at 5 months or stops treatment between 1-5 months is: (PAR/142) (AIIMS 98)
(a) Treatment defaulter (b) Failure case (c) Chronic case (d) Cured case
98. True about tuberculin test: (PAR/142) (AI 98)
(a) Used for diagnosis of TB (b) Measure incidence of disease (c) More than 10 mm in 72 hr indicates positive
test (d) Measure immunity status
Control of TB: Control is said to be achieved when the prevalence of natural infection in the age group
0-14 years is of the order of 1 percent which is 40 percent in India.
Case finding tools
1. Sputum examination
2. Mass miniature radiography
3. Tuberculin test
87 D 88 B 89 B 90 A 91 C 92 D 93 B 94 B 95 C 96 C 97 A 98 C
Epidemiology of Communicable Disease 33
99. Diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis is best confirmed by: (PAR/143) (UPSC 85, 88, AI 88)
(a) Sputum examination (b) Mass miniature radiography (c) Tuberculin testing (d) History alone
100. The most frequently used combination of antituberculous drugs in India is: (PAR/144) (AIIMS 85)
(a) INH + Ethambutol (b) INH + Thiacetazone (c) INH + PAS (d) Streptomycin
101. Disadvantage of domiciliary treatment of tuberculosis is: (PAR/144) (AI 92)
(a) Increased side effects (b) Irregular treatment (c) More costlier (d) Exposure to household contacts
102. To prevent emergence of resistance in TB following are done except: (PAR/144)(AIIMS 98)
(a) Multidrug regimen used (b) Drug to which bacteria are sensitive is used (c) Defaulter action (d) Pre-
treatment regular culture sensitivity
103. Short-term antitubercular therapy is given to minimise: (PAR/145) (AIIMS 79, DELHI 89)
(a) Resistance (b) Toxicity (c) Relapse (d) Cost
104. ‘DOTS’ indicates (PAR/146)UPSC/02
(a) Long-term treatment under direct observation (b) Short-term treatment under direct observation (c) Short-
term treatment without observation (d) Domiciliary treatment without observation.
105. A person with tuberculosis on domiciliary treatment is expected to do all except: (PAR/147) (AIIMS 92)
(a) Dispose sputum safely (b) Use separate vessels (c) Collect drugs regularly
(d) Report to PHC if new symptoms arise
106. 0.1 ml of BCG contains...mg. moist weight: (PAR/147) (PGI 81, DNB 89)
(a) 0.050 (b) 0.025 (c) 0.075 (d) 0.100
107. A adult male patient presented in the OPD with complaints of cough and fever for 3 months and haemoptysis
off and on. His sputum was positive for AFB. On probing it was found that he had already received treatment
with RHZE for 3 weeks from a nearby hospital and discontinued. How will you categorize and manage the patient?
(PAR/148) (AIIMS/02)
(a) Catgory III, start 2 (RHZ)c (b) Catgory II, start 2 (RHZE)c. (c) Catgory I, start 2 (RHZE)c
(d) Catgory II, start 2 (RHZEs)c
110. The direct BCG vaccination in India is given up to age of: (PAR/149) (AIIMS 81, DNB 92)
(a) 10 years (b) 15 years (c) 20 years (d) 25 years
111. The vaccine administered by subcutaneous route is: (PAR/149) (AIIMS 95)
(a) BCG (b) OPV (c) Tetanus toxoid (d) Measles
112. In the administration of BCG vaccine, the diluent is: (PAR/149)
(a) Glycerine (b) Glycerol (c) Normal saline (d) Distilled water
113. BCG is not given to patients with: (PAR/149) (AIIMS 85)
(a) Generalised eczema (b) Infective dermatosis (c) Hypogammaglobulinaemia (d) All of the above
114. Diluent used for BCG vaccine is: (PAR/149) (AI 99)
(a) Distilled water (b) Saline water (c) Lime water (d) Any of the above
115. A positive Mantoux test indicates that the child: (PAR/150) (JIPMER 80,81, PGI 88)
(a) Is suffering from active TB (b) Has had BCG vaccination recently (c) Has had tuberculosis infection
(d)All of the above
116. Effectivity of BCG vaccine is: (PAR/150) (JIPMER 81, DELHI 85, 87)
(a) 80% (b) 60% (c) 40% (d) Less than 40%
117. A rural woman diagnosed as a case of pulmonary tuberculosis has just delivered a baby. She is advised the
following except: (PAR/150)(AI 89)
(a) Chemoprophylaxis for the child (b) Regular antitubercular therapy for 2 years (c) Collection and disposal
of her sputum daily (d) Withholding of breastfeeding
118. All are true of BCG innoculation, except: (PAR 150) (AIIMS 92)
(a) Papule in 7 days (b) Forms an ulcer (c) Heals spontaneously (d) Size of 4-8 mm in 5 weeks
119. AIDS was first detected in India in the year: (PAR/152)(KARNAT 99)
(a) 1975 (b) 1981 (c) 1986 (d) 1991
B. Intestinal Infections
120. Multiplication factor for estimating total cases of paralytic polio is: (PAR/154) (AI/2000)
(a ) 1.2 (b) 1.33 (c) 1.5 (d) 2
121. Number of subclinical cases for 1 paralytic polio is: (PAR/154) (AIIMS 89)
(a) 50 (b) 100 (c) 1,000 (d) 10,000
122 All true for a polio epidemic curve in a community except: (PAR/154) (AIIMS 92)
(a) All cases within 7-14 days (b) Orofecal mode of transmission (c) Herd immunity present (d) Epidemic
curve has a slow rising slope and decline
123. The most predominant type of polio virus during epidemics is: (PAR/155)(ORISSA 98)
(a) Type I (b) Type II (c) Type III (d) Combined infection of II and III
124. Wrong about polio patient who had paralysis: (PAR/155) (PGI 82, DELHI 88)
(a) Can transmit it by nasal discharge (b) Subclinical infection common (c) Can be given vaccine
(d) None of the above
125. Which of the following type of polio is most common: (PAR/155) (AIIMS 80, AMU 90)
(a) Inapparent (b) Abortive (c) Nonparalytic (d) Paralytic
126. The epidemiological trend of poliomyelitis are all except: (PAR/155) (JIPMER 92)
(a) Affects higher age groups (b) Increasing in tropics (c) Also cause upper limb paralysis
(d) Sporadic to epidemic
127. True about polio epidemic: (PAR/155) (UP 97)
(a) Curve rises and falls fastly (b) Transmission via percutaneous route (c) All college and school is closed
inform the public (d) All susceptible children should be immunised
128. In polio transmission easy block can be applied by acting on: (PAR/155) (UP 94)
(a) Reservoir (b) Susceptible host (c) Faecooral (d) Agent
129. Least likely to diagnosed Polio is: (PAR/155) (AIIMS/99)
(a) Fever, malaise for 2 days (b) Fever and signs of neck rigidity (c) Descending symmetrical paralysis with
preservation of reflexes and sensory system (d) Gradual recovery of muscle function in 6 months
110 C 111 D 112 C 113 D 114 B 115 D 116 D 117 D 118 A 119 C 120 B 121 C 122 D
123 C 124 A 125 A 126 A 127 D 128 B 129 C
Epidemiology of Communicable Disease 35
130 Pulse polio immunisation is done in India in Dec-Jan because of: (PAR/155(AMC/99)
(a) Administrative convenience (b) Easiness of maintaining cold chain (c) As a tradition (d) All of the
above (e) None of the above
131 Consider the following statements regarding poliomyelitis: (PAR/155) (UPSC/01)
1. It is primarily an infection of alimentary tract but may affect the central nervous system in some cases
2. It occurs mostly in the age group of 5 to 10 years
3. It occurs sporadically, endemically or in epidemic form
4. It can be prevented, controlled and even eradicated by a proper vaccination programme
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1,3 and 4 (d) 2,3 and 4
Polio vaccine
Oral (sabin) polio vaccine - The vaccine contains over
- 3,00,000 TCID 50 of type 1 polio virus
- 1,00,000 TCID 50 of type 2 polio virus
- 3,00,000 TCD 50 of type 3 virus per dose
4. Prevents paralysis, but does not Prevents not only paralysis, but also intestinal
prevent reinfections by wild polio reinfections
virus.
5. Not useful in controlling epidemics Can be effectively used in controlling epidemics. Even
elicits substantial immunity a single dose (except in tropical countries)
6. More difficult to manufacture Easy to manufacture
7. The virus content is 10,000 Cheaper
times more than OPV hence costlier
8. Does not require stringent Requires to be stored and trasported at subzero
temperatures, unless stabilized condition during
storage and transportation has a longer self-life
The efficiency of cold chain system for oral polio vaccine as monitored by vaccine vial
141. All of following are AFP under the polio eradication programme, except: (PAR/159) (AIIMS/2K)
(a) Wild strain isolated from feces (b) Residual paralysis at 30 days (c) Those dying before confirmation
of diagnosis
Hepatitis A
• Caused by type 72 enterovirus which is not affected by chlorine in doses usually employed for
chlorination.
• Virus is inactivated by ultraviolet rays /boiling for 5 minutes / autoclaving and formalin.
• Asymptomatic infections are especially common in children
• Period of infectivity is from two weeks before to 1 week after the onset of jaundice.
• One attack usually gives immunity for life.
Prevention
• 0.5% sodium hypochlorite to be used for disinfection of faces and fomites
• 1 mg/l of free residual chlorine can cause destruction of the virus in 30 minutes at pH 8.5 or less.
• Vaccine and immunoglobin are available for control of susceptible population.
143. The persistent carrier state in hepatitis B is defined once the HBsAg is present in blood for longer than:
(a) 2 months (b) 3 months (c) 4 months (d) 6 months (163) (AI 88)
144. True about viral hepatitis B is: (163)(AIIMS 86)
(a) Transmits by oral route (b) More incubation period than viral A (c) Different histopathologically from
viral A hepatitis (d) Can be cultured
145. Best method to protect newborn from HBs Ag + ve, mother is: (PAR/164) (AI 99)
(a) Isolation (b) Stopping breastfeeding (c) Hep B immunoglobulin (d) Hep B vaccine and immunoglobulin
Hepatitis B
• Characterized by long incubation period (6 weeks -6 months )
• Risk of an adult becoming a carrier after acute infection is 5-15% and in infants more than 50%
Prevention
• Hepatitis B vaccine
• Plasma derived
• RDNA -yeast drived
3 Doses of 1ml, first at an elected date, second 1 month later and third 6 month after first dose
- Hepatitis B Immunoglobulin (HBG)
Hepatitis C
• Caused by a single stranded RNA virus with low risk of sexual and metarnal (neonatal
transmission.
• RIBA (recombinant immunoblot assay) tests are used to confirm anti HCV positive cases
• Most RIBA positive ones are potentially infectious
• Interferon is the only drug found effective in the treatment of HCV infection
Hepatitis E
• Characterized by a fluminating form of acute disease, most commonly in pregnant women (20 %)
• Infection during pregnancy causes abortions, IUD and high perinatal morbidity and mortality.
Hepatitis G- usually associated with blood transfusion.
Cholera
• Caused by Vibrio cholerae (Classical or Eltor)
• Case fatality may be high as 30-40%
• Most of the cases are now caused by eltor biotype with serotype ogawa
• Most of the cases are subclinical
• The disease has an epidemic tendency with a higher infection to case ratio
• Cholera has long-term carriers
• Existence of the diminished but continous trasmission involving asymptomatic cases
• Persistence of the organism in a free living, perheps altered from in the enviorment
• V cholerae are killed by cresol bleaching powders (6 mg/lit) and heat at 56°C
• Infection is due to enterotoxin affecting cyclase CAMP system
• Only reservoir of infection is man and most of the cases are mild asymptomatic
• Carriers are usually temporary rarely chronic. Incubationary carriers are potential patients
153. Of the total deaths, diarrhoea induced deaths among children below 5 years of age in India are:
(a) 35% to 40 % (b) 25% to 30 % (c) 15% to 20 % (d) 5% to 10% (PAR/168) (UPSC/01)
154. Which one of the following is the longest carrier state found in the disease of cholera? (PAR/169) (UPSC/03)
(a) 2 to 3 weeks (b) 1 to 5 years (c) 5 to 10 years (d) Above 10 years
155. In a case control study of a suspected association between breast cancer and the contraceptive pill, all of the
following are true statements except: (PAR/169)(AIIMS/02)
(a) The control should come from a population that has the same potential for breast cancer as the cases
(b) The control should exclude women known to be taking the pill at the time of the survey (c) All the
control needs to be healthy (d) The attributable risk of breast cancer resulting from the pill may be
directly measured.
157. The required amount of bleaching powder necessary to disinfect choleric stools is: (PAR/170)(AI 91)
(a) 25 gm/litre (b) 50 gm/litre (c) 75 gm/litre (d) 100 gm/litre
158. Which is not essential in case of cholera epidemic: (PAR/171) (AI 92, 98)
(a) Weekly chlorination (b) Notification (c) Vaccination of individuals
(d) Treatment with ORS and tetracycline
Ingredient Quantity
Glucose 20.0 g
Sodium chloride 3.5 g
Potassium chloride 1.5 g
Potable water 1 litre
Trisodium citrate dehydrate 2.9 g
159. Oral rehydration fluid does not contain: (PAR/171) (PGI 86)
(a) Sodium chloride (b) Calcium lactate (c) Bicarbonate (d) Glucose
160. The WHO formula for ORS provides in mEq/L: (PAR/171) (AI 90)
(a) 70 of sodium (b) 20 of potassium (c) 30 of chloride (d) 80 of sodabicarb
161. Oral rehydration therapy consists of the following except: (PAR/171) (AIIMS 88)
(a) Sodium chloride (b) Potassim chloride (c) Magnesium sulphate (d) Glucose
162. Citrate is added to conventional oral rehydration solution (ORS) in order to: (PAR/171) (UPSC 98)
(a)Improve sodium chloride absorption (b) Correct acidosis (c) Increase its shelf-life (d)Improve glucose
absorption
163. The best method to treat diarrhoea in a child is: (PAR/172) (PGI 86)
(a) IV fluids (b) ORS (c) Antibiotics (d) Bowel binders
164. Osmolality of WHO ORS is (mmol): (PAR/172)(AI 99)
(a) 240 (b) 270 (c) 800 (d) 330
165. The drug of choice in cholera is: (PAR/173) (KARN 94)
(a) Tetracycline (b) Sulphadiazine (c) Ampicillin (d) Streptomycin
166. Chemoprophylaxis for cholera is by administrating: (PAR/173) (AI 88)
(a) Doxycycline 300 mg. once (b) Metrogyl 400 mg. 3 tablets (c) Vancomycin 1 mg. stat
(d) Kannamycin 500 mg.stat
167. In a cholera epidemic, the information is to be given up to level of: (PAR/173) (DELHI 85, AMC 92)
(a) Health ministry (b) DGF AMS (c) Hospital (d) CMO and IMO
168. For controlling an outbreak of cholera, all of the following measures are recommended except:
PAR/173(AI/03)
(a) Mass chemoprophylaxis (b) Proper disposal of excreta (c) Chlorination of water (d) Early detection and
management of cases
169. Best prophylaxis of cholera is: (PAR/173) (AIIMS 88)
(a) Early case detection (b) Improved water sanitation (c) Chemoprophylaxis (d) Check spread of epidemic
170. As per the latest guidelines which of the following dehydration status requires ORS prescription:
(PAR/173) (KARN 95)
(a) Mild dehydration (b) Moderate dehydration (c) Some dehydration (d) Any dehydration
171. Regarding cholera vaccine all are correct except that: (PAR/174) (ASSAM 95)
(a) It is given at intervals of 6 months (b) Long-lasting immunity (c) Not useful in epidemics
(d) Not given orally
172. Certificate of cholera vaccination is valid after.......days: (PAR/174) (JIPMER 78, AIIMS 83)
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 10
173. Of the total deaths, diarrhoea-induced deaths among children below 5 years of age in India are:
(a) 35 to 40% (b) 25 to 30% (c) 15 to 20% (d) 5 to 10% (PAR/175)(UPSC/2001)
174. The common cause of diarrhoea in children is: (PAR/176) (PGI 86)
(a) Rota virus (b) Norwalk virus (c) Adenovirus (d) Giardiasis
175. Vomiting occurs in a group of children in the night who had a meal at noon. The causative agent for food poisoning
is most likely to be: (PAR/178) (KERALA 94)
(a) Salmonella (b) Botulism (c) Staphylococcus (d) Viral gastroenteritis
176. In salmonellosis isolation done till: (PAR/179) (UP 95)
(a) Fever subsides (b) Blood culture negative (c) Spleen subsides (d) Stool culture negative for three
times
177. Only human beings are the reservoirs for: (PAR/179) (DELHI 84, 88)
(a) Pox (b) Influenza (c) Salmonella (d) Rabies
178. In typhoid, a permanent carrier is one who excretes bacilli for more than: (PAR/179) (DELHI 96)
(a) 3 months (b) 6 months (c) 1 year (d) 3 years
Typhoid Fever
• Caused by S. typhi which is readily killed by drying, pasteurization and other common disinfectants.
• Man is the only reservoir in the form of cases or carriers
• Average carrier rate is 3% and faecal carriers are more frequent than urinary carriers
• Carrier rate is more in females.
• CMI plays an important role is controlling infection. Host factors contributing to resistance to
S.typhi are gastric acidity and local intestinal immunity.
• I P is 10-14 days
161 C 162 C 163 B 164 D 165 A 166 A 167 A 168 A 169 B 170 D 171 B 172 C 173 C
174 A 175 C 176 D 177 C 178 C
Epidemiology of Communicable Disease 41
179. Highest incidence of typhoid fever in the age group (years): (PAR/179) (PGI 80, DNB 90)
(a) 10-12 (b) 20-30 (c) 30-40 (d) 40-60
180. Case fatality rate of typhoid is: (PAR/179)(AI IHPH 2K)
(a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 30% (d) 40%
181. The time period is more than __________ for chronic carrier of typhoid: (PAR/179)(AI IHPH 2K)
(a) 3 months (b) 6 months (c) 9 months (d) 12 months
182. In typhoid carrier: (PAR/180) (AIIMS 94)
(a) Typhoid bacilli are excreted for 4 months only (b) Occurs more in females (c) Excreted more in faeces
than in urine (d) Sputum or milk may be the source
183. In salmonellosis, isolation is recommended till: (PAR/ 180) (AIIMS 98)
(a) 3 consecutive stool cultures are –ve (b) Fever subsides (c) Widal reaction is –ve (d) 72 hour after
chloramphenicol therapy
184. For a typhoid endemic country like india, the immunization of choice is: (PAR/180)(AIIMS/MAY/01)
(a) TAB Vaccine (b) Typhoral 21 A oral vaccine (c) Monovalent vaccine (d) Any of the above
185. Bivalent vaccine of typhoid contains: (PAR/181) (AIIMS 81, DELHI 83)
(a) S. typhi + S. paratyphi A (b) S. typhi + S. paratyphi B (c) S. paratyphi A + B
(d) S. paratyphi B + C
186. In acetone killed typhoid vaccine the immunity last for: (PAR/181) (PGI 91)
(a) 6 months (b) 1 year (c) 2 years (d) 3 years
187. A group of people suffer from abdominal cramps, diarrhoea and vomiting two hours after eaten barfi. The
suspected aetiological agent is: (PAR/182) (AI 89)
(a) Salmonella typhimurium (b) Staphylococcus aureus (c) Clostridium botulinum (d) Vibrio cholerae
188. A child has taken milk products but within 6 hrs, he starts vomiting,the likely organism is:
(PAR/182)(AI/2000)
(a) Staph aureus (b) Salmonella (c) Bacillus cereus (d) Clostridia
179 A 180 C 181 D 182 C 183 A 184 C 185 A 186 D 187 D 188 A
42 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
191 Chandler’s endemic index in used in: (PAR/186) (JIPMER 92 AMC 96)
(a) Typhoid (b) Hookworm infestation (c) Urban TB patients (d) Diabetics
192. The total number of hookworm cases in India is estimated to be: (PAR/186) (DELHI 96)
(a) 40 million (b) 200 million (c) 400 million (d) 100 million
193. Chandler index is: (PAR/186) (AIIMS 98)
(a) No. of hookworm larvas in 100 gm stool (b) No. of hookworm eggs in 10 gm stool (c) No. of hookworm
eggs in 10 gm soil (d) No. of hookworm eggs in 1 gm. of stool
194. Dracunculosis is highest in: (PAR/188) (AI 96)
(a) Rajasthan (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Punjab (d) Karnataka
195. In India disease to be eradicated in near future is: (PAR/188) (AIIMS 97)
(a) Tetanus (b) Measles (c) Dracunculosis (d) Leprosy
196. No. of cases infected with guinea worm, detected in year 1999 are: (PAR/188) (AIIMS/2000)
(a) One (b) Zero (c) Ten (d) Four
Dracunculiasis
• Caused by Dracunculus medinensis
• Vector-borne disease affecting by subcutaneous tissue
• Man acquires infection by drinking water containing infected cyclops
• Disease is amenable for eradication by-
1. Provision of safe drinking water
2. Control of cyclops
3. Health education of public matters relating to boiling or sieving drinking water through a double
thickness cotton cloth for personal protection and prevention of water contamination by infected
persons
197. Guinea worm eradication was achieved by: (PAR/189) (AI 88)
(a) Discontinuation of the use of step well (b) Chlorination of water (c) Boiling of water for drinking
(d) Chemotherapy
198 In guinea worm prophylaxis, all of the following are true except: (PAR/189) (AIIMS 94)
(a) Health education to people to use a seive for drinking water (b) Mass treatment with mebendazole
(c) Identification of carriers (d) Active search of new cases
189 A 190 C 191 B 192 B 193 D 194 B 195 C 196 B 197 A 198 B
Epidemiology of Communicable Disease 43
C. Arthropod-Borne Infections
Malaria
Roll back malaria
• Launched by WHO, UNICEF, UNDP and World Bank in 1998 with
• Strengthen health system to ensure better delivery of health care, especially at district and
community level.
• Ensure the proper and expanded use of insecticide treated mosquito nets.
• Ensure adequate access to basic health care and training of health care workers
• Encourage the development of simpler and more effecting means of administering medicine such
as training of village health workers and mothers on early and appropriate treatment of malaria
especially in children
• Encourage the development of more effective and new anti -malaria drugs and vaccines
205. The current global strategy for malaria control is called: (PAR/193) (KARN/01)
(a) Modified plan of operation (b) Malaria eradication programme (c) Malaria control programme
(d) Roll back malaria.
206. Urban malaria is spread by: (PAR/194) (AIIMS 97)
(a) Anopheles stephensi (b) Anopheles culiformis (c) Culex fatigans (d) Mansonides
Erythrocyte stage
P. falciparum 48 hrs
P. vivax 72 hrs
P. ovale 72 hrs
P. malariae 72 hrs
• Human reservoir is one who harbours gametocytes
• Children are more likely to be gametocyte carriers than adults hence they are epidemiology better
reservior than adults
Host Factor
• Newborns are resistant due to high HbF
• Patients with sickle cell trait have less severe infection with falciparum
• Patient with RBC ‘duffy negative’ are resistant to P.vivax infection.
• Pregnancy increase the risk of malaria with consequences of intrauterine death, premature labour
or abortion. Prima being at greatest risk
• Active immunity against malaria is species-specific i.e immunity against one strain does not protect
against another.
Diagnosis
Thin flim - For detection of species
Thick flim - for searching parasite
• Malaria fluorescent antibody test - does not indicate current infection.
207 A 208 B 209 D 210 D 211 C 212 C 213 C 214 B 215 D 216 C 217 A 218 B
Epidemiology of Communicable Disease 45
• Latest simple and rapid diagnostic technique is a clipstick (antigen capture ) assay for detection
of P. falciparum.
Measurement of malaria
Pre-eradication era -
a. Spleen rate - percentage of children b/w 2-10 years of age showing enlarged spleen.
Spleen rate is widely used for measuring the endemicity of malaria
b. Average enlarged spleen
c. Parasite rate - percentage of children between 2-10 years showing malaria parasites in there blood
films
d. Parasite density index
e. Infant parasite rate
• Most sensitive index of recent trasmission of malaria in a locality
• Absence of malaria trasmission is denoted if the infant parasite rate is zero for 3 consecutive
years
f. Proportional case rate - no. of cases diagnosed as clinical malaria for every 100 patient attending
the hospital and Dispensaries.
Current Incidence levels
a. Annual parasite incidence (API)
Confirmed causes during one year
= × 1000
Population under surveillance
b. Annual blood examination rate (ABER)
number of slides exaimed
= × 100
Population
Index of operational efficiency
c. Annual falciparum incidence
d. Slide positivity rate
e. Slide falciparum rate
219. A malarial survey is conducted in 50 villages having a population of one lakh. Out of 20,000 slides examined,
500 turned out to be malaria positive. The annual parasite index is: (PAR/198) (AIIMS/MAY/01)
(a) 20% (b) 5% (c) 0.5% (d) 0.4%
220. Under NMEP the radical treatment for P. falciparum is: (PAR/199) (AIIMS 93)
(a) Chloroquine 600 mg stat + Primaquine × 5 days (b) Primaquine 45 mg state + pyrimethamine 50 mg stat
(c) Chloroquine 600 mg stat + primaquine 45 mg stat (d) Chloroquine 600 mg BD × 1 day + Pyrimethamine
25 mg stat
221. First line drug for falciparum malaria is: (PAR/199) (DNB 92)
(a) Chloroquine (b) Primaquine (c) Quinine (d) Tetracycline
222. About, presumptive treatment of malaria true is: (PAR/199) (AIIMS 94)
(a) 600 mg chloroquine stat, 300 mg 6 hours later, then 300 mg (b) 300 mg chloroquine daily for 3 days
(c) 300 mg chloroquine + 15 mg primaquine daily for 3 day (d) Any of the above
225 B 226 D
Epidemiology of Communicable Disease 47
3. Mass drug administration in areas with API/ 1000 pop’’
4. Chemoprophylaxis should begin a week before arrival in malaria prone area and to be contiuned
for at last 4-6 week.
227 A person wants to visit a malaria endemic area of low level chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria. The best
chemoprophylaxis is: (PAR/ 200)(AIIMS/MAY/01)
(a) Chloroquine (b) Proguanil + Chloroquine (c) Sulfadoxine + Pyrimethamine (d) Mefloquine
228 The dose of chloroquine base to be given to children between the ages of 4-8 years under the National Malaria
Eradication Programme is: (PAR/200) (AI 88)
(a) 75 mgm (b) 150 mgm (c) 300 mgm (d) 450 mgm
229 Most common nematode in south India: (PAR/202) (JIPMER 91)
(a) Brugia timori (b) Brugia malayi (c) Onchocerca volvulus (d) Wuchereria bancrofti
230. Man is a definitive host for: (PAR/202) (KERALA 2K)
(a) Echinococclosis (b) Malaria (c) Filariasis (d) Rabies (e) Leishmaniasis
231. Development of filaria in mosquito is: (PAR/202) (AI/2000)
(a) Cyclopropagative (b) Propagative (c) Cylodevelopmental (d) Developmental
232. Bancroftian filariasis in India, commonly spreads by: (PAR/203) (AIIMS 89)
(a) Culex (b) Aedes (c) Anopheles (d) Mansoides
233. The organism most commonly causing genital filariasis in most parts of Bihar and Eastern U.P. is:
(PAR/203) (AI/03)
(a) Wuchereria bancrofti (b) Brugia malayi (c) Onchocerca volvulus (d) Dirofilaria
234. Maximum density of microfilaria in blood is reported to be between: (PAR/203) (PNB 92)
(a) 9 PM to 11 PM (b) 11 PM to 2 AM (c) 8 PM to 10 PM (d) 2 AM to 5 AM
235. Filariasis is endemic in all of the following States except: (PAR/203) (AI 89)
(a) Haryana (b) Bihar (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Gujarat
236. The following statements are true for W. bancrofti except: (PAR/203) (AI 90)
(a) These are thread like worms (b) The females are viviparous (c) They chiefly inhabit lymphatics
(d) Man and anopheles mosquitoes are the two hosts
237. All are true about filariasis except: (PAR/203) (AIIMS 93)
(a) It is usually unilateral (b) Man is the only host for filariasis (c) Immunity is humoral type (d) Morbidity
is increased with age in endemic areas
238. The number of persons crying microfilaria in their peripheral blood out of 100 examined in a sample population
is called: (PAR/204) (AIIMS 93)
(a) Microfilaria rate (b) Filarial disease rate (c) Filarial endemicity rate (d) None of the above
239. All are true statement about filaria except: (PAR/203) (AIIMS 97)
(a) Extrinsic incubation period is 10-14 days (b) Man is the intermediate host (c) Adults live in the
lymphatics of host (d) No multiplication in the mosquito
240 Filarial endemicity rate is: (PAR/204) (AI 91)
(a) % of persons examined showing microfilaria in blood or disease manifestation or both (b) % of persons
in the sample population showing microfilaria in their blood (c) Number of microfilaria per unit volume of
blood from individuals (d) Average number of microfilaria per positive slide
241 All of the following commonly used filarial indices except: (PAR/204) (AI 94)
(a) Microfilaria rate (b) Filarial disease rate (c) Filarial epidemicity rate (d) Mosquito infection rate
Filaria survey
1. - Mass blood survey
- Thick flim
- Membrane filter concentration (MFC) methods
- DEC provocation test
2. Clinical survey
3. Serological tests (Not differentiate b/w past and present infection)
4. Xenodiagnosis
5. Entomological survey
227 B 228 C 229 B 230 C 231 A 232 A 233 A 234 B 235 A 236 D 237 B 238 A 239 B
240 A 241 D
48 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
D. Zoonoses
245 In India, “Rabies free” zone is: (PAR/207) (AIIMS 79, DELHI 93)
(a) Goa (b) Lakshadeep (c) Sikkim (d) Nagaland
246 Following is not a zoonotic disease: (PAR/207) (AIIMS 88)
(a) Giardiasis (b) Brucellosis (c) Leptospirosis (d) Rabies
Zoonoses: Disease and infection which are naturally transmitted between vertebrate animal
and man
Four categories -
1. Direct zoonoses—Rabies, trichinosis and brucellosis
2. Cyclo-zoonoses—One vertebrate host but no invretebsate host in completing development cycl
of agent.
- Human taeniasis
- Pentastomid infections
- Echinococcosis
3. Meta zoonoses—Trasmitted biologically by invertebrate vectors
e.g. Plague, schistosomiasis, arbovirus infection
4. Sparo-zoonoses—Mycoses
247. The Negri bodies are seen in: (PAR/208) (AIIMS 81, AP 90)
(a) Viral hepatitis (b) Japanese encephalitis (c) Poliomyelitis (d) Rabies
248. Rabies can be transmitted by all routes except: (PAR/208) (AI 94)
(a) Aerosol (b) Bites (c) Ingestion (d) Licks
249. The incubation period of rabies is: (PAR/208) (UPSC/01)
(a) Two weeks (b) Two months (c) Two years (d) variable
Rabies
• It is one of the disease besides AIDS with 100 % mortality
• Cause is lyssavirus type 1
• There are two type of virus
• Street virus Fixed virus
• I.P 20-60 days - I.P 4-6 days
Passes serially from brain - used for anti-rabies vaccine
through brain in rabbit - does not form negri bodies
• I.P in man is commonly 3-8 weeks following exposure.
Vaccine
1. Nervous tissue vaccine (NTV)
a. Derived from adult animal nervous tissue (e.g sheep)
b. Derived from suckling mouse brain
2. Duck embryo vaccine (DEV)
3. Cell culture vaccine
a. Human deploid cell (HDC) vaccine
b. “Second generation’’ tissue culture
(animal cell vaccines)
Indications of antirabies treatment
• All bites by wild animals
• Unprovoked bites
• If the animal shows signs of rabies or dies within 10 days of observation
• Labtest positivity of the brain of the bitting animal
• If the bitting animal cannot be traced or identified
Recommendation
1. Touching or feeding of animals; licks or intact skin - None
2. Nibbing of uncovered skin minor scratches or abrasions - Vaccine immediately, stop if
without bleeding, licks on broken skin animal healthy after 10 days
3. Single or multiple transdermal bites or scratches - Rabies immunoglobin and
contamination of mucous membrane with saliva vaccine, stop if animal is healthy
after 10 days
258. Pre-exposure prophylaxis for rabies using the HDCV is: (PAR/214) (AI 95)
(a) 3 doses (b) 5 doses (c) 6 doses (d) 4 doses
259. Active immunization after exposure is given in: (PRR/214) (AI 99)
(a) Cholera (b) Plague (c) Rabies (d) Typhoid
260. The following measures are essential to control rabies in urban areas, except: (PAR/215) (AI 8)
(a) Early diagnosis and treatment of cases (b) Elimination of all stray dogs (c) Enforcing registration and
licensing of domestic dogs (d) Immunization of dogs
261. Not useful in prevention of rabies: (PAR/215) (AI 92)
(a) Vaccination of dogs (b) Licensing of all domestic dogs (c) Restraint of dogs in public places
(d) Early diagnosis and treatment
Classification of exposure
• Class 1 (Slight risk)
• Licks on healthy unbroken skin
• Consumption of unboiled milk
• Scratches without oozing of blood.
• Class 2 - (Moderate risk)
• Licks on fresh cuts
• Scratches with oozing of blood.
• All bites except those on head, neck, face, palms and fingers
• Minor wounds less than 5 in number
Class 3- (Severe risk) All bites or Scratches with oozing of blood.on head, neck, face, palms and fingers
• Lacerated wounds on any part of the body
• Bites from wild animals
• Multiple wounds 5 or more in number
Advise to patients on antirabic treatment-
• Abstain from alcohol during and a month after
• Avoid undue physical and mental strain
• Avoid corticosteroid and immunosuppressive agent
• Rabies may develop following inadequate immunization.
267. The following epidemiological features are true for Japanese B encephalitis except: (PAR/218) (AI 88, 97)
(a) The virus infects extra human hosts (b) Man is an incidental host (c) Infected pigs manifest symptoms
of encephalitis (d) Epidemics have been reported in Karnataka
268. Which of the following statements about Japanese encephalitis is false: (PAR/218) (AI 89)
(a) C. tritaeniouuynchus is the vector (b) Epidemic in Karnataka (c) Pigs are intermediate host
(d) Herons are primary hosts
269. Common vector in India for Japanese encephalitis: (PAR/218) (UP 97)
(a) Culex vishnui (b) Anopheles (c) Aedies (d) Flavivirus fibricus
Japanese encephalitis
• Caused by group b arbovirus (Flavivirus) and occur commonly in children less than 15 years of age.
• Man-to-man transmission has not so far been recorded
• Pigs are main vertebrate host but they do not manifest any overt symptom of illness
• Most common vector is culex tritaeniorhynchus which is zoophlic.
• I.P is 5-15 days and case fatilaty rate is 20-40%
• Average period between onset of illness and death is about 9 days
Control of JE
A. Vector control- By ultra low volume insecticides
B. Vaccination ; 2 doses of 1 ml s.c at interval of 7-14 days, given in inter-epidemic period to most
vulnerable and high risk groups.
270. All are true about Japanes B encephalitis Except: (PAR/218) (AI 96)
(a) Culex is vector (b) No man to man transmission (c) 90-100% mortality rate (d) Man is incidental
host
271. Following arbovirus prevalent in India are A/E: (PAR/218) (AI 97)
(a) Dengue (b) Westnile (c) Yellow fever (d) Chikungunya
272. Major determinant to eradication of Japanese encephalitis is: (PAR/218) (JIPMER 93)
(a) No effective vaccine (b) Breeding place of vector (c) Large no. of in apparent infections
(d) Numerous animal hosts
273. Pig plays a role in Japanese encephalitis as: (PAR/218)(PGI /2000)
(a) Reservoir host (b) Primary host (c) Amplifier host (d) Fender stratocaster host
274. When vaccine of J.E. is given immunity develops in: (PAR/219) (MP 98)
(a) 5 days (b) 15 days (c) 30 days (d) 90 days
275. In Japanese encephalitis, the average period between the onset of illness and death: (PAR/219) (AIIMS 97)
(a) 9 days (b) 15 days (c) 17 days (d) 25 days
276. All the following are strategies to prevent a KFD epidemic except: (PAR/-220) (AIIMS/NOV/01)
(a) Deforestation (b) Vaccinatoon (c) Personal protection (d) Preventing roaming of free cattle in the
forest
277. Vector of KFD is:
(a) Anopheles mosquito (b) Culex mosquito (c) Flea (d) Tick
278. Causative organism of bubonic plague is: (PAR/223) (AIIMS 90)
(a) Yersinia pestis (b) Rattus rattus (c) X-cheopis (d) X-astia
267 C 268 B 269 A 270 C 271 C 272 B 273 C 274 C 275 A 276 A 277 A 278 A
52 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
Plague
• Caused by Yersenia pestis, gram-negative, non-motile coccobacillus with bipolar staining
• Tetara indica (wild rat) is the main reservoir
• Source of infection is infected rodents and fleas and case of pneumonic plague with man-to-man
transmission
• Immunity after recovery is relative
• vector of plague is rat flea mostly X.cheopsis (both sexes)
• Blocked flea is more efficient in trasmitting the plague because it can live longer (Even for as
long as 4 years in burrow microclimate)
Flea Indices
(a) Total flea index (average no. of fleas of all species per rate)
(b) Cheopis index
(c) Specific percentage of fleas
(d) Burrow index
Incubation period
(a) Bubonic plague 2-7 days
(b) Septicaemic plague 2-7 days
(c) Pneumonic plague 1-3 days
• Bubonic plague cannot spread from person to person primary case of bubonic plague develop
secondary pneumonic plague
• Pneumonic plague spreads by droplets infection.
279. The following rodent is the natural reservoir of plague: (PAR/223) (KARNAT94)
(a) Mus muscles (b) Tatera indica (c) Rattus rattus (d) Rattus norvegicus
280. In an epidemic of plague, within 24-48 hours of application of insecticides by spraying the X cheopis index should fall
to: (PAR/224) (DELHI 96)
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) 5
281. Which is most dangerious for transmitting plague? (PAR/224) (ORRISA/01)
(a) Blocked flea (b) Partial blocked flea (c) both (d) Unblocked flea
282. True in plague: (PAR/226) (AI 97)
(a) Vaccine is not used in epidemic of pneumonic plague (b) Most important is rodent control
(c) Septicemic plague is highly infectious (d) Live attenuated vaccine used
283. The longest and shortest incubation period of plague is 7 days and 2 days respectively. The time necessary to
declare an area free of plaque is: (PAR/226) (AI 95)
(a) 2 days (b) 9 days (c) 14 days (d) 21 days
Prevention and Control
A. Control of case by
1. Early diagnosis
2. Notification
3. Isolation for twice the incubation period
4. Treatment with streptomycin or tetracycline
5. Disinfection
B. Control of fleas - (DDT and BHC to be used as dust or carbaryl 2% or malathion 5% spraying up
to radius of 5 miles around each infected locality.
• Within 48 hours of application the flea index should drop down to zero.
C. Control of rodents - by mass destruction
D. Vaccination - only for prevention ; not for control
Two doses of 0.5 and 1ml given s.c at interval of 7-14 days
Immunity starts 5-7 days after inoculation and last for about 6 months
E. Chemoprophylaxis by tetracycline
• For plague quarantine is ineffective and surveillance is parexcellence. Serological survey is done
for subclinical plague, of recovered untreated infections and of asymptomatic pharyngeal
infection in “carriers”.
Rickettsial Disease
284 A 285 D 286 C 287 B 288 C 289 A 290 C 291 A 292 D 293 C 294 D 295 A 296 A
297 D 298 A 299 D
54 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
E. Surface Infections
301. The mass treatment of trachoma is undertaken if the prevalence in community is: (PAR/237) (DELHI 96)
(a) 3% (b) 10% (c) 5% (d) 6%
302. Herd immunity is not important in: (PAR/239) (JIPMER 93)
(a) Polio (b) Diphtheria (c) Measles (d) Tetanus
303. Disease not transmitted during incubation period is: (PAR/239) (AIIMS/99)
(a) Diptheria (b) Pertussis (c) Measles (d) Tetanus
304. The exotoxin produced by Tetanus bacilli mainly affects the following areas of nervous system except:
( PAR/240)AIIMS 97)
(a) Parasympathetic nervous system (b) Spinal cord (c) Sympathetic nervous (d) Brain
300 A 301 C 302 D 303 D 304 A 305 D 306 C 307 A 308 B 309 A
Epidemiology of Communicable Disease 55
310. Following procedures prevent neonatal tetanus, advised by family welfare programme except:
(PAR/241)(BHU 88)
(a) Giving TT vaccine between age group 10-16 years girls (b) Immunise pregnant mothers during
16-36 weeks only (c) Trained dais conducting deliveries (d) Single dose of TT to mothers who already
received immunisation in previous pregnancy
311. A person has received tetanus full immunisation 10 years ago, now has clean wound without lacerations 2-5 hours
ago. Next step in management will be: (PAR/241)(AI/2001)
(a) Full course of tetanus toxoid (b) Single tetanus booster dose (c) Tet globulin (d) Tet glob and booster
dose
Immunity Treatment
310 A 311 B 312 A 313 B 314 A 315 A 316 B 317 B 318 A 319 A 320 B 321 A 322 B
323 C 324 B
56 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
325. Most sensitive index of transmission in leprosy is: (PAR/246) (AIIMS 92)
(a) Incidence (b) Detection rate (c) Disability rate (d) Prevalence
Leprosy
Bacterial Index - negative - no bacilli found in 100 fields
(+) One or less than one bacillus in each microscopic fields
(++) Bacilli found in all fields
(+++) many bacilli found in all fields
• Bacterial index is calculated by 7 sites of examination
• In paucibacillary leprosy the bacterial index is <2 and In multibacillary leprosy it is greater than 2
Case finding method
a. Contact survey: When prevalence is 1 case/1000 pop
b. Group survey: With prevalence of about 1 case/1000 pop
c. Mass survey: Prevalence of 10 or more per 1000 pop
326. The following statements are true for the bacteriological index (BI) in leprosy, except: (PAR/246) (AI 91)
(a) Skin smears are from 7 sites (b) A two plus smear grading indicates bacilli in 1-2 microscopic fields
(c) The BI is calculated by adding the smear gradings and taking an average (d) BI less than 2 indicates
paucibacillary leprosy
327. Mitsuda reaction in lepromin test is read after: (PAR/246) (AI 92)
(a) 48 hours (b) 24 hours (c) 4 weeks (d) 2 weeks
328. True about tuberculoid leprosy: (PAR/246) (UP 94)
(a) Leonine facies (b) Thickened vessels (c) Leramine + ve (d) Bacilli in lesion
329. Leprosy and tuberculosis are best prevented by: (PAR/247) (AI 92)
(a) Chemoprophylaxis (b) Early diagnosis and treatment (c) Health education (d) Immunoprophylaxis
330. All of the following tests are performed to detect the CMI in leprosy except: (PAR/247)(AI 92)
(a) FLA-ABS test (b) ELISA test (c) LTT test (d) Monoclonal antibody detection
331. In the management of laprosy, Lepromin test is most useful for: (PAR/247) (AI/03)
(a) Head immunity (b) Prognosis (c) Treatment (d) Epidemiological investigations
332. A family has a case of lepromatus leprosy. The following management is advised except: (PAR/248) (AI 89)
(a) Chemotherapy of the case (b) Contact survey of the family (c) Compulsory isolation of the case
333. Boarderline tuberculoid type of leprosy is best treated by: (PAR/249) (AI 92)
(a) Dapsone (b) Dapsone + Clofazimine (c) Clofazimine (d) Dapsone + Rifampicin
334. In paucibacillary leprosy, the follow-up examination after adequate treatment should be done yearly for:
(a) 3 years (b) 4 years (c) 5 years (d) 10 years (PAR/250) (DELHI 96)
335. Treatment of paucibacillary leprosy is ideally carried out for: (PAR/250) (JIPMER 95)
(a) 3 months (b) 6 months (c) 9 months (d) 18 months
336. A patient of paucibacillary tuberculoid leprosy completed 6 months of multidrug therapy. The response to therapy
is good, but the lesion has not healed completely. According to the WHO criteria, which of the following should
be done? PAR/250)(AIIMS/MAY/01)
(a) Stop treatment and watch (b) Continue the treatment for 6 more months (c) Continue dapsone for 2
more months (d) Test for drug resistance
325 A 326 B 327 C 328 C 329 B 330 C 331 B 332 C 333 D 334 C 335 B 336 A
Epidemiology of Communicable Disease 57
337. Which is the WHO regimen for paucibacillary leprosy: (PAR/250) (AIIMS 92)
(a) Dapsone od × 6 months (b) Dapsone od + Rifampicin once a month × 2 years (c) Dapsone od + Rifampicin
once a month × 6 months (d) Dapsone od + Rifampicin om + Clofazamine od × 2 years
338. Average duration of treatment in multibacillary leprosy: (PAR/250) (AIIMS 93)
(a) 2 yrs (b) 1 yr (c) 5 yrs (d) Life long
339. The standard regimen for satisfactory treatment of paucibacillary leprosy consists of: (PAR/250) (UPSC/01)
(a) Dapsone alone for 12 months (b) Dapsone and rifampicin for 6 months (c) Dapsone and clofazimine
for 6 months (d) Dapsone and ethionamide for 12 months
340. Borderline tuberculoid type of leprosy is treated by: (PAR/250) (AI 92)
(a) Dapsone only (b) Dapsone + Rifampicin (c) Dapsone + Clofazimine (d) Clofazimine only
341. As per the recommendation of the WHO, the multidrug regimen for paucibacillary case of leprosy is:
(PAR/250) (UPSC 98)
(a) Rifampicin 600 mg daily plus dapsone 300 mg daily for six months (b) Rifampicin 600 mg once a month
plus dapsone 300 mg once a month for six months (c) Rifampicin 600 mg once a month for six months and
dapsone 300 mg daily for six months (d) Rifampicin 600 mg once a month for six months and dapsone 100
mg daily for six month.
342. The standard regimen for satisfactory treatment of paucibacillary leprosy consists of: (PAR/250) (UPSC/2001)
(a) Dapsone alone for 12 months (b) Dapsone and rifampicin for 6 months (c) Dapsone and clofazimine
for 6 months (d) Dapsone and ethionamide for 12 months
343. The following agents are sexually transmitted except: (PAR/253) (AI 91)
(a) Group B Streptococcus (b) Giardia lamblia (c) Hepatitis virus A (d) Candida albicans (e) None
337 C 338 A 339 B 340 B 341 D 342 B 343 E 344 B 345 B 346 B 347 A
58 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
348. The maximum efficiency of transmission of AIDS by sexual route is: (ANA/259) (DELHI 96)
(a) 18% (b) 40% (c) 49% (d) 90%
349. Mortality for AIDS: (PAR/259) (ORRISA/01)
(a) 50% (b) 60% (c) 90% (d) 100%
350. Regarding HIV transmission to foetus, following are true except: (PAR 262) (AIIMS 98)
(a) > 50% risk of transmission to foetus (b) Can present as failure to thrive (c) Greatest risk of transmission
is in perinatal period (d) Cannot be defected using standard techniques
351. Which one of the following is AIDS defining illness ? (PAR/263) (UPSC 98)
(a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis meningitis (b) Cryptococcus neoformans meningitis (c) Cytomegalovirus
meningitis (d) Histoplasma capsulatum meningitis
Test Significance
HIV enzyme-linked Screening test for HIV infection
immunosorbent assay Sensitivity>99.9%; to avoid false positive
(ELSIA) result repeatedly reactive result be must be
confirmed with western blot.
Epidemiology of Chronic
5 Non-communicable Diseases
and Conditions
1. Country with highest accident rate is: (PAR/304) (PGI 79, UPSC 98)
(a) Pakistan (b) India (c) Japan (d) USA
2. All of the following are the well-established modifiable risk factors of coronary heart diseases except:
(PAR/274) (UPSC 98)
(a) Cigarette smoking (b) Drinking beverages (c) High blood pressure (d) Elevated serum cholesterol
3. Consider the following: (PAR/274)(UPSC/03)
1. Proportional mortality ratio
2. Incidence rate
3. Age-specific death rate
4. Sex specific death rate
Which of these is/are used in measuring the extent of the problem of coronary artery disease?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
4. Which is the least common cause of heart disease in India: (PAR/275) (AMC 87)
(a) Rheumatic (b) Hypertensive (c) Ischaemic (d) Congenital
5. All are true regarding coronary heart disease in India except: (PAR/275) (AI 99)
(a) It has arrived a decade later in western country (b) Diabetes is a leading cause (c) Smoking increases
the risk (d) “A” type classes increases the risk
1 B 2 B 3 D 4 D 5 A
60 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
6 A 7 B 8 A 9 D 10 D 11 B 12 A 13 A 14 A 15 C 16 C 17 A
18 B 19 B 20 A 21 C
Epidemiology of Chronic Non-communicable Diseases and Conditions 61
OBESITY INDICES
1. Quetlet index Weight (kg)
(body mass index) Height (m)2
2. Ponderal index Height (cm)
Cube of body Weight (kg)3
3. Broca index Height minus 100=weight
4. Lorentz’s formula (ht (cm)-150
Ht (cm)-100 2 (women)or 4(men)
5. Corpulence index Actual wt <1.2
Desirable wt
22. In one single visit, a 9 months old, un-immunised child can be given the following vaccination:
(PAR/299)(AI/03)
(a) Only BCG (b) BCG, DPT-1,OPV-1 (c) DPT-1,OPV-1, Measles (d) BCG,DPT-1,OPV-1, Measles
23. Under the National Programme for Control of Blindness, the visual acuity should be less than:
(a) 3/60 (b) 6/60 (c) 1/60 (d) 6/24 (PAR/300)(UPSC/02)
24. Blindness as described by WHO is: (PAR/300) (AI/2000)
(a) < 3/60 with visual correction in better eye (b) < 6/60 with visual correction in better eye (c) PL
(d) PR
25. Prevalence of blindness in India is: (PAR/301 (AIIMS 91)
(a) 0.2% (b) 0.5% (c) 1% (d).1%
22 B 23 C 24 A 25 C 26 D 27 A
62 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
6 Health Programmes
in India
1. Under NMEP for areas with API more than 2 and vector refractory to DDT, the recommendation is:
(PAR/308) (AI 92)
(a) Malathion-3 rounds/year (b) HCH-1 round/year (c) HCH-2 rounds/year (d) HCH-3 rounds/year
2. Under the National Malaria Eradication Programme, radical treatment for P.vivax malaria is given for:
(a) 1 day (b) 5 days (c) 7 days (d) 14 days (PAR/308) (AI 90)
3. Under NMEP, for areas with API more than 2 the vector is refractory to DDT, the new recommendation is:
(PAR/308) (AI 93)
(a) HCH-1 round/year (b) HCH-2 rounds/year (c) HCH-3 rounds/year (d) Malathione-2 rounds/year
4. All of the following statements about National Malaria Control Programme are true except:
(PAR/308) (UPSC 98)
(a) Number of slides examined should amount to atleast 10% of the population under surveillance in a year
(b) Annual parasite incidence based on active and passive surveillance and cases confirmed by blood examination
(c) Annual blood examination rate is calculated from the number of slides examined per 100 cases of fever
(d) The slide positivity rate provides information on the trend of malaria transmission
5. Under NMEP, the function of fever depot treatment is: (PAR/309) (AI 94)
(a) Diagnosis of cases + spraying (b) Collection of slides + treatment of fever (c) Treatment fever cases
only (d) Treatment + slide collection + spraying
6. Under NMEP the minimum annual blood examination rate should be: (PAR/309) (AI 94)
(a) 10% (b) 12% (c) 14% (d) 18%
7 The expected reduction in API by 2000 AD in India is: (PAR/309) (KARNAT 96)
(a) 1/10 (b) 1/100 (c) 1/1000 (d) 0.5/1000
8. Which is not true of malaria eradication programme (MEP): (PAR/309) (AI 93)
(a) Started in 1953 (b) Modified plan started in 1970 (c) Incidence was 2 million cases in 1958
(d) Incidence decreased to 50,000 in 1961
9. In NMEP, the recommendation for area API-2 are A/E: (PAR/309) (AI 95)
(a) Presumptive treatment (b) DDT spraying for twice in a year (c) Epidemiological investigation of all cases
(d) Follow-up every case for one year and monthly blood smears
10. Modified programme for National Malaria Eradication Programme is based on: (PAR/309) (AIIMS 89)
(a) API (b) ABER (c) Infant parasite rate (d) Spleen rate
1 D 2 B 3 C 4 C 5 B 6 A 7 C 8 B 9 C 10 A
Health Programmes in India 63
2. Entomological assessment
3. Surveillance—active and passive
4. Treatment of cases
Areas with API<2
• Focal spraying
• Active and passive surveillance
• Radical treatment for detected cases
• Follow-up blood smear at completion of radical treatment and thereafter at monthly intervals for
12 months
• Epidermological investigation
National antimalaria programme is a name given to National Malaria Eradication Programme in
1999
• Enhanced malaria control project with world bank support was launched on 30 September
1997.Selection criterias for PHC under project are
• Annual parasite incidence (API) of more than 2 for last 3years
• P. falciparum cases being more than 30 percent of total malaria cases
• Twenty-five percent or more population of PHC being tribal
• Reported deaths due to malaria from PHC
Components strengthened under the project
• Early case detection and treatment
• Selective vector control and personal protection methods including insecticide treated mosquito nets
• Epidemic planning and Rapid response
• Intersectoral coordination, institutional and management capabilities, strengthening
11. Under NMEP the minimum annual blood examination rate should be: (PAR/309) (AI 94)
(a) 10% (b) 12% (c) 14% (d) 18%
12 The objective of minimum needs programme does not include: (PAR/309) (AI 93)
(a) One PHC for 30,000 population (b) Link mid-day meal programme to sanitation (c) Integration of health,
water and sanitation (d) Urban area given priority
13. National programmes are now organised for the following in India except: (PAR/309) (DNB 89)
(a) Filariasis (b) Leprosy (c) Smallpox (d) Trachoma
14. Which of the following is not monitored in malaria surveillance now: (PAR / 309)(JIPMER/2K)
(a) ABER (b) Infant parasite rate (c) Annual parasite incidence (d) Side positivity rate
15. In the national leprosy eradication programme (NLEP), mass surgery are done if the prevalence is:
(a) 1/1000 (b) 2/20000 (c) 6/1000 (d) 10/10000 (PAR/311) (AIIMS 88)
16. Longest incubation period, among the following is of: (PAR/311) (BIHAR 89, DELHI 92)
(a) Malaria (b) Hepatitis (c) Leprosy (d) Filaria
Modified leprosy elimination campaign (MLEC) April 1997 by giving short-term orientation
training
In leprosy to health staff including medical officer, health workers and volunteers. Increase public
awareness about leprosy ; and house to house search has been conducted to detect new leprosy cases
throughout the country by 5.83 lakh searchers for a period of six days.
17. The screening method of choice in prevalence of leprosy is 1 in 1000 is: (PAR/311) (AI 95)
(a) Contact survey (b) Group survey (c) Mass survey (d) Any of the above
11 A 12 D 13 C 14 B 15 D 16 C 17 B
64 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
18. In leprosy control programme, indicator of efficacy of early diagnosis cases is: (PAR/311)(AIIMS 98)
(a) Disability rate among newly used (b) Lepromin +ve% among used (c) Ratio of, multi/pauci bacillary
cases (d) All of the above
19. The multidrug regimen under the national leprosy eradication programme (NLEP) for the treatment of all multi-
bacillary leprosy would include: (PAR/311) (UPSC 97)
(a) Clofazimine thiacetazone and dapsone (b) Clofazimine, rifampicin and dapsone (c) Ethionamide,
rifampicin and dapsone (d) Propionamide, rifampicin and dapsone
20. Strategies in national leprosy control programme (NLCP): (PAR/311) (AIIMS 79, PGI 90)
(a) Early detection of cases (b) Short-course multidrug therapy (c) Rehabilitation (d) Chemoprophylaxis
with dapsone (e) All of the above
21. SET centre is set up if prevalence of leprosy: (PAR/311) (PGI 81, UPSC 88)
(a) Below 0.1% (b) Less than 5% (c) Above 1% (d) Above 5%
22. Which of the following is/are used as operational indicators in antileprosy activity?(PAR/311)(UPSC/02)
(a) Incidence (b) Incidence and prevalence (c) Relapse rate and case detection ratio (d) Incidence and case
detection ratio
23. High prevalence zone for leprosy has cases per 1,000 population as: (PAR/311) (AIIMS 86)
(a) 1-2 (b) 2-5 (c) 5-10 (d) 10-20
24. India has entered which phase of demographic cycle: (PAR/311) (AIIMS 88)
(a) High stationary (b) Low stationary (c) Early expanding (d) Late expanding
25. Under the National Leprosy Eradication Programme, mass surveys are undertaken when the prevalence of
leprosy is: (PAR/311)AI89
(a) 1/1000 (b) 3/1000 (c) 5/1000 (d) 10/1000
NATIONAL LEPROSY ERADICATION PROGRAMME
• The aim is to reduce case load to 1 or less than 1 per 10,000 population.
• The programme is implemented through the establishment of leprosy control units; Survey,
education and treatment centres. The leprosy control units has one medical officer, 2 non-medical
supervisors and 20 paramedical workers (PMW) each covering a population of 4.5 lakhs. The staff
appointed at SET centre comprise 1PMW for 20 to 25 thousand population, and one non-medical
supervisor for every 5 PMWs.One urban leprosy centre is established for every 50,000 population
26. The screening method of choice in prevalence of leprosy is 1 in 1000 is: (PAR/311) (AI 95)
(a) Contact survey (b) Group survey (c) Mass survey (d) Any of the above
27. SET centres established if prevalence % leprosy is: (PAR/311) (MANIPAL/98)
(a) 0.5-1/1000 (b) 1-5 (c) 5-10 (d) 1
28. District TB control programme is mainly concerned with: (PAR/312) (UPSC 86, 88, AMC 87)
(a) Finding out new cases (b) Finding out resistant cases (c) Detecting cases and treatment
(d) All of the above
District tuberculosis programme (DTP)—Consist of one district tuberculosis centre (DTC) and
on an average 50 peripheral health institution—The team posted at each DTC
1 District tuberculosis officers (DTO)
1 Second medical officer
2 Laboratory technicians
2 Treatment organiser /health visitor
1 X-ray technicians
1 Non-medical team leader
1 Statistical assistant
1 Pharmacist
29. Under the revised national tuberculosis control program a new case is one who has never had treatment for
tuberculosis or has taken anti-tubercular drugs for less than: (PAR/312) (UPSC/01)
(a) 2 weeks (b) 4 weeks (c) 6 weeks (d) 8 weeks
18 A 19 B 20 E 21 B 22 D 23 D 24 D 25 D 26 B 27 B 28 C 29 B
Health Programmes in India 65
30. Assertion (A):Radiological examination of the chest is the best method for detection of cases under the National
TB Control Programme. Reason (R): Radiological examination of the chest is the most reliable:
(PAR/312) (AI 88)
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R not the
correct explanation of A (c) A is true and R is false (d) Both A and R are false
31. False about DOTS is: (PAR/312)(AI/2001)
(a) Continuation phase drugs are given in a multi-blister pack (b) Medication is to be taken in presence of
a health worker (c) Biweekly dosage and DOT as time (d) Improves compliance
32. Goal of national tuberculosis control programme (NTCP) is: (PAR/313) (KERALA 96)
(a) To eradicate TB (b) To decrease the transmission of TB (c) To treat all sputum +ve patients
(d) To decrease the incidence of TB to such a low level that it is no longer a major public health problem
(e) BCG vaccination of all infants
Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme—The salient features of this strategy are:
1. Achievement of at least 85 percent cure rate of infectious cases through supervised short course
health functionaries
2. Augmentation of case finding through quality sputum microscopy to detect at least 70% cases;
3. Involvement of NGOs; Information education and improved operational reaserch
• DOTS is a community based tuberculosis treatment and care strategy with three components:
appropriate medical treatment supervision and motivation by a health or non-health workers and
monitoring of disease status by health services. DOTS will be given by peripheral health staff such
as MPWs, or through workers such as teacher, anganwadi workers, dais, ex- patient, social workers
etc. they will be known as DOT agent and will be paid incentive/honorarium of as 150 per patient
completing the treatment.
30 D 31 C 32 D 33 C 34 C 35 B 36 B 37 D 38 A 39 A
66 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
40. In the National Goiter Control Programme, iodine is supplied: (PAR/318) (AI 89)
(a) In drinking water (b) In salt as iodide (c) In salt as iodate (d) As IM injection of iodised oil
41. Target for EPI to be achieved by 1990 was: (PAR/31 8) (AI 92)
(a) 60% coverage (b) 80% coverage (c) 90% coverage (d) 100% coverage
42. How will you assess of iodine deficiency control programme earliest by: (PAR/318) (AIIMS 96)
(a) Goiter prevalence (b) Neonatal hypothyroidism (c) Iodine content in soil (d) Iodine content in water
43. In the expanded programme of immunisation it is proposed to achieve target of.....immunisation of children by
1990: (PAR/319) (JIPMER 88)
(a) 80% (b) 90% (c) 95% (d) 100%
44. All are included in CSSM programme except: (PAR/319) (AI 99)
(a) Universal immunization (b) Supplementary nutrition (c) Essential care (d) Prevention of URTI
45. Under reproductive and Child Health Programme, following two indicators are used: (PAR/319)(AI 99)
(a) Life expectancy at age 1 and MMR (b) Crude birth rate and IMR (c) Crude death rate and IMR
(d) CDR and CBR
46. In the reproductive and child health (RCH) programme the main addition over and above the child survival and
safe motherhood programme is: (PAR/319)(UPSC/2001)
(a) Care of reproductive tract infections (b) Essential newborn care (c) First referral unit (d) At-risk
approach
47. The “safe motherhood schemes” (CSSM) major thrust area is: (PAR/320) (KARNAT 95)
(a) Promotion of reproductive health (b) Elimination of maternal morbidity (c) Fertility regulation
(d) To provide essential prenatal, natal and postnatal services
48. The Task Force for Child Survival has identified the following targets by the year 2000 AD, except:
(PAR/320) (AI 90)
(a) Global eradication of polio (b) 25% reduction in under five deaths due to acute respiratory infection
(c) 70% fewer under five deaths due to be reduced by 25% in all countries (d) Infant and child mortality
rates to be reduced by 25% in all countries
40 B 41 D 42 B 43 D 44 B 45 A 46 A 47 D 48 A
Health Programmes in India 67
49. In community Needs Assessments approach as part of the Reproductive and Child Health Programme, the target
for various health activities are set at the level of: ( PAR/320)(AIIMS 02)
(a) Community (b) Sub-centre (c) Primary health centre (d) District
50. The National Diabetes Control Programme in India includes all the following activities, except:
(PAR 322)(UPSC/2K)
(a) Primary prevention of diabetes through genetic testing and genetic counselling (b) Identification of high-
risk subjects at an early stage, with appropriate health education (c) Early diagnosis and management of cases
(d) Prevention, arrest or slowing of metabolic and cardiovascular complications of the disease
51. Cancer control programme was launched in: (PAR/322) (ORRISA/01)
(a) 1976 (b) 1986 (c) 1970 (d) 1992
National AIDS prevention and control policy—the objectives include reduction of the impact
of epidemic and to bring about a zero transmission rate of AIDS by year 2007 through:
• Blood safety programme
• HIV testing
• STD control programme
• Condom promotion—as almost 65% HIV infection occur due to unprotected and multipartner
sexual contacts
• HIV Surveillance—Surveillance are:
(a) HIV sentienal surveillance
(b) HIVsero surveillance
(c) AIDS case surveillance
(d) STD surveillance
• Integration with other disease like tuberculosis etc.
• Family health awarness campaign
• Prevention of HIV transmission from mother to child
• Post exposure prophylaxis for health care workers—The antiretroviral drugs in combination of 2-3
drug have been shown to be prophylactic when given within 2 hours exposure
• National AIDS telephone helpline
52. The false statement regarding National Water Supply Programme is: (PAR/323) (AI 93)
(a) 47% of rural population have safe water (b) 80% of urban population have safe water
(c) In problem villages source of water is 1.6 km (d) Target for coverage by 1990—60%
53. Problem village is all except: (PAR/323) (JIPMER 9898)
(a) Where no water source in a distance of 1.6 km from community (b) Water is more than depth of 15 m
(c) There is excess on Na+, K+, F+ salts (d) Risk of guinea worm infection
49 D 50 A 51 A 52 D 53 C
68 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
7 Demography and
Family Planning
1. In what stage of demographic cycle is India today: (PAR/325) (AIIMS 87, JIPMER 86)
(a) Low stationary (b) High stationary (c) Early expanding (d) Late expanding
2. Zero population growth rate is seen in: (PAR/325) (JIPMER 80, 81)
(a) Sweden and GDR (b) USA and USSR (c) France and Japan (d) No country in the world so far
3. In the demographic study of population, a country with low birth rate and a low death rate is in following phase:
(a) 1st phase (b) 2nd phase (c) 3rd phase (d) 4th phase (PAR/325) (DELHI 96)
4. Declining death rate and more declining birth rate the stage is: (PAR/325) (AI 89)
(a) Late expanding (b) Early expanding (c) High stationary (d) Declining
5. A country with population of 1000 million, birth rate 23, death rate 6, is in which phase?
(a) Early expanding (b) Late expanding (c) Plateau (d) Declining (PAR/325)(AI/2001)
6. The demographic gap is the difference between: (PAR/325) (AI 90)
(a) Birth and death rates (b) General and total fertility rates (c) Gross reproduction and net reproduction
rates (d) Age specific birth and crude death rates
7. Copper T acts by all except: (PAR/325) (PGI 97)
(a) Chronic endometrial inflammation (b) Anovulation (c) Tubal motility alteration (d) Endometrial
atrophy
8. A country is having birth rate on 23 and death rate of 6, it is running in which phase: (PAR/325) (AIIMS/99)
(a) Early expanding (b) Late expanding (c) High stationary (d) Low stationary
9. In demographic cycle late expanding stage indicates: (PAR/325) (AI 94, 97)
(a) High birth and death rates (b) Decrease DR and stationary BR (c) Decreasing BR and decreasing DR
(d) Low DR and BR
10. The growth pattern of a population having annual growth rate of 1.5 to 2.0%: (PAR/325) (AI 95)
(a) Slow stationary (b) High stationary (c) Early expanding (d) Late expanding
11. Which is not true of annual growth rate in India? (PAR/326) (AIIMS 92)
(a) Prior to 1921 growth rate was low (b) Net gain in births over death lead to increase (c) Current rate
is 2.9% (d) Annual growth rate of 1.2% is to be achieved by 2000 AD
1 D 2 A 3 D 4 A 5 B 6 A 7 B 8 B 9 C 10 D 11 C
Demography and Family Planning 69
12. Annual growth rate is: (PAR/327) (AI 97) (AIIMS 92)
(a) Crude birth rate – crude death rates (b) Crude death rate – crude birth rates (c) Crude birth rate –
crude death rate × 100 / crude birth rate (d) Crude birth rate – crude death rate × 100 / mid-year population
13. In the 1991 census the population greater than 60 year is: (PAR/328) (AIIMS 93)
(a) 6% (b) 9% (c) 18% (d) 23%
14. The percentage of women in the reproductive age group to the total population in India is: (PAR/328)(AI 88)
(a) 16 (b) 22 (c) 28 (d) 34
15. The proportion of school age children in India’s population is approximately: (PAR/329) (KARNAT 96)
(a) 1% (b) 25% (c) 40% (d) 50%
16. Family size is related to: (PAR/329) (AIIMS 96)
(a) Total number of female born (b) Total number of male born (c) Total number of family member
(d) Total number of children born
17. Male to female ratio is: (PAR/329) (AP 96)
(a) Males for 1000 population (b) Females for 1000 males (c) Males for 1000 females (d) None of the above
18. Sex composition can be demonstrated in which of the following: (PAR/329) (JIPMER 89)
(a) Pie chart (b) Component bar chart (c) Multiple bar chart (d) Age pyramid
19. In latest Indian census, population density is......per sq.km: (PAR/329) (UPSC 87, DELHI 92)
(a) 152 (b) 204 (c) 267 (d) 315
20. In calculating dependancy ratio,the numerator is expressed as: (PAR/329) (AIIMS/02)
(a) Population under 10 years and 60 and above (b) Population under 15 years and 60 and above (c) Population
under 10 years and 65 and above (d) Population under 15 years and 65 and above
12 A 13 A 14 B 15 B 16 D 17 B 18 B 19 C 20 D
70 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
21. The following are included when taking an occupational medical history, except: (PAR/329) (AI 90)
(a) A chronological list of all jobs (b) A list of known hazard in the work place (c) A list of childhood
immunizations (d) A description of a temporal relationship between work place exposure and illness
22. Goals by 2000 AD are A/E: (PAR/329) (UP 93)
(a) Perinatal mortality rate 30-35 (b) Immunization coverage 100% (c) Maternal mortality rate <3%
(d) Family size 2.3
21 C 22 C 23 A 24 C 25 C 26 C 27 A 28 D 29 A 30 B 31 A 32 B 33 C
Demography and Family Planning 71
34. All are true fertility index (1995) except: (PAR/333) (DELHI 97)
(a) General fertility rate 151 (b) Gross reproduction rate 2.20 (c) Total fertility rate 4.51
(d) Child women ratio 605
35. Total fertility rate refers to: (PAR/333) (AIIMS 92)
(a) Number of women between 15-44 years (b) Number of births/1000 women (c) Approximate completed
family size (d) Number of female children / women
36. Number of live births/1000 married women in reproductive age group is: (PAR/333) (AIIMS 88)
(a) General fertility rate (b) Net reproductive rate (c) General marital fertility rate (d) Crude birth rate
37. The denominator in general fertility rate: (PAR/333) (AI 92)
(a) Female between 15-45 years (b) Married female between 15-45 years (c) All females above 15 years
(d) Unmarried female between 15-45 years
38. Total fertility rate is: (PAR/333) (AI 96, 98)
(a) Completed family size (b) Woman of total unmarried (c) Women of between 15-45 years (d) Only
female children born
39. True about child woman ratio is: (PAR/333) (AI 96)
(a) 0-4 years of children and 15-45 years of age of married women (b) 0-4 years of children and 15-49 years
of age of married women (c) 0-4 years of children and 15-44 years of all women (d) 0-4 years of children
and 20-30 years of married women
40. Denominator in general fertility rate is: (PAR/333) (AIIMS 97)
(a) Total population of 15-45 years female (b) Married + 15-45 years (c) Mid-year population (d) Number
of live births
41. Death rate as reported in 1990: (PAR/334) (TN 92)
(a) 12.5 (b) 10.9 (c) 6.5 (d) 1.60
42. In the calculation of crude birth rate, denominator considered is: (PAR334) (AIIMS/2K)
(a) Pregnant women in 15-45 years group (b) Estimated mid-year population (c) All live births under 1
year (d) Arithmetical inverse of crude death rate
43. Scope of family planning services include all of the following except: (PAR/334)
(a) Screening for cervical cancer (b) Providing services for unmarried mothers (c) Screening for HIV infection
(d) Providing adoption services
44. The expected growth rate by 2000 AD is: (PAR/335) (AI 89)
(a) 0.8 (b) 1.2 (c) 2.0 (d) 2.3
45. The incorrect statement regarding couple protection rate is: (PAR/336) (AI 93)
(a) 50-60 of births per year are birth order 3 or more (b) To achieve NRR of 1 CPR should be 60%
(c) CPR was 37% in 1987 (d) CPR 60% is equivalent to 3 children per couple
46. The number of condoms needed for protection for one year is: (PAR/336) (UPSC 86)
(a) 50 (b) 72 (c) 100 (d) 175 (e) 200
47. If an eligible couple on an average has 3 children, then the birth rate will be: (PAR/336) (AI 88)
(a) 21/1000 (b) 25/1000 (c) 28/1000 (d) 30/10000
48. According to 7th plan-target for couple protection: (PAR/336) (AIIMS 93)
(a) 42% (b) 50% (c) 56% (d) 60%
49. Which of the following is false: (PAR/336) (AIIMS 93)
(a) Every year 1 million eligible couple is added to population (b) 20% eligible couples are in 15-24 years age
group (c) 150/1000 population will eligible couples (d) Women between 15-45 years are about 22%
50. CPR=1 when reach this goal by: (PAR/336) (AI 97)
(a) Condome 72/year (b) IUCD (c) Vasectomy (d) Oral pills
51. The percentage of eligible couples practising family planning in India is: (PAR/336) (UPSC 98)
(a) 15 (b) 30 (c) 45 (d) 55
52. Family welfare programme’s goal is to reach couple protection rate of: (PAR/337) (PGI 79, KERALA 88)
(a) 20% (b) 40% (c) 50% (d) 60%
53. The national population Policy 2001 aims to achieve NET reproduction rate of 1 by the year:
(a) 2005 (b) 2010 (c) 2015 (d) 2050 (PAR/337)(AIIMS/02)
54. To achieve net reproduction rate in India the eligible couple protection rate shoud be: (PAR/338) (UPSC/01)
(a) 30% (b) 40% (c) 50% (d) 60%
34 A 35 C 36 C 37 A 38 A 39 C 40 A 41 B 42 B 43 C 44 B 45 D 46 B
47 B 48 A 49 A 50 C 51 C 52 D 53 B 54 D
72 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
55. The thread attached to the Lippes loop offers the following advantage except: (PAR/338) (Manipal/95)
(a) It has anti-inflammatory properties (b) It permits the easy removal of the loop (c) It gives the shape
to the loop (d) It reassures the user of the continued presence of the loop
56. Intrauterine contraceptive devices are contraindicated in all of the following situations except:
(PAR/338) (Manipal/96)
(a) A history of pelvic inflammatory disease 5 years previously (b) Immunosuppressive therapy (c) A previous
ectopic pregnancy (d) HIV positivity
57. Multiload device contains: (PAR/340) (AIIMS 85)
(a) Zinc (b) Copper (c) Progesterone (d) Silver
58. Multiload device refers to: (PAR/340) (PGI 91)
(a) First generation IUCD (b) Second generation IUCD (c) Oral contraceptive pills (d) Barrier
contraceptives
59. Best method for spacing is: (PAR/340) (PG I80, DELHI 87)
(a) Condom (b) Pessary (c) IUCD (d) Tubectomy
60. IUCD acts by: (PAR/340) (JIPMER 91)
(A) Killing spermatozoa (b) Aseptic inflammation of endometrium (c) Increasing cervical mucus
(d) Preventing the fertilization of ova
62. At PHC level a woman who complains of spotting following IUCD insertion should be advised:
(PAR/341) (AIIMS 92)
(a) Removal of IUCD (b) Iron supplements and observation (c) Antibiotics and observation
(d) Analgesics and observation
63. Which of the following is not used for contraception? (PAR/343)(UPSC/2001)
(a) OCP’s (combined) (b) Progestin pills (c) Danazol (d) IUCD
64. DMPA is an injectible contraceptive given every: (PAR 343) (UPSC/2K)
(a) Three weeks (b) Two months (c) Three months (d) Two years
65. Mala-N contains: (PAR/344) (AIIMS 92)
(a) Ethynyl estradiol 30 mcg (b) Norgesterol 50 mcg (c) Ethynyl estradiol 50 mcg (d) Progesterone
10 mg
66. Side effect of OCs are: (PAR/345) (AI/2000)
(a) Hepatocellular CA (b) Hepatic adenoma (c) Hemangioma (d) Fibrous dysplasia
67. Oral contraceptive use among women over age 35 who smoke is associated with: (PAR/345)(AI 90)
(a) Cervical cancer (b) Breast cancer (c) Coronary heart disease (d) Ovarian cancer
68. Which one of the following is a rare complication of use of hormonal contraceptives? (PAR/345)(KERALA 2K)
(a) Contraceptive failure (b) Cardiovascular effects (c) Carcinogenesis (d) Metabolic effects (e) Liver
disorders
69. On prescription of oral pills to the user, the health worker will ask about the following except:
(PAR/345)(AIIMS/MAY/01)
(a) Number of live children (b) Calf tenderness (c) Headache (d) Swelling of the feet
70. All are side effects of OCPs except: (PAR/345) (AIIMS 98)
(a) Break through bleeding (b) Dysmenorrhoea (c) Acne (d) Chloasma
55 C 56 A 57 B 58 B 59 C 60 B 61 C 62 B 63 C 64 C 65 A 66 B 67 C
68 A 69 A 70 B
Demography and Family Planning 73
71. Regarding oral contraceptive pills untrue is: (PAR 345) (AIIMS 98)
(a) Risk of fibroadenosis (b) Risk of epithelial Ca (c) Hepatic cell hematoma (d) Hepatic cell adenoma
72. The questionnaire carried by a health worker prescribing OCs contains following except:(PAR 345) (AIIMS 98)
(a) History of headache (b) History of pain in calf (c) History of convulsions (d) Number of living children
73. Side effect of DMPA is: (PAR/346) (AI/2000)
(a) Irregular bleeding (b) Cardiovascular disease (c) Endomatrial CA (d) Cholasma
74. Which one of the following is NOT used for contraception? (PAR/346) (UPSC/01)
(a) Oestrogen-progesterone combined pills (b) Progestin pills (c) Danazol (d) Intrauterine contraceptive
device
75. The highest calories is in: (JIPMER 92)
(a) Animal meat (b) Egg (c) Sweet potato (d) Milk
76. As per the MTP Act,1971, medical termination of pregnancy can be done up to a maximum of:
(PAR/348) (UPSC/01)
(a) 12 weeks of pregnancy (b) 16 weeks of pregnancy (c) 20 weeks of pregnancy (d) 24 weeks of pregnancy
77. Consent from 2 doctors is necessary for MTP in pregnancy beyond.........weeks: (PAR/348) (AI 93)
(a) 12 (b) 20 (c) 28 (d) 36
78. MTP act 1971 maximum up to: (PAR/348) (AIIMS 97)
(a) 12 weeks (b) 20 weeks (c) 24 weeks (d) 10 weeks
79. The numerator for calculating failure rate for contraceptive methods: (PAR/351) (AI 93)
(a) Number of woman using contraception (b) Number of live births (c) Number of conceptions
(d) Number of abortions
80. “Pearl index” is a measure of: (PAR/351) (UPSC 98)
(a) Malnutrition in under five children (b) The level of mosquito larvae in household containers
(c) The effectiveness of a contraceptive method (d) Risk factor in coronary heart disease
81. True about National Family Welfare Programme is: (PAR/354 (AIIMS 97)
(a) 100% sponsored by state (b) 100% sponsored by centre (c) 50% state, 50% centre (d) Planning and
management by state, sponsored by center
82. The Family Planning Programme started in: (PAR/355) (AIIMS 79, PGI 83)
(a) 1947 (b) 1950 (c) 1952 (d) 1960
71 A 72 D 73 A 74 C 75 B 76 C 77 A 78 B 79 C 80 C 81 B 82 C
74 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
Preventive Medicine in
8 Obstetrics, Paediatrics
and Geriatrics
1. Requirement of extra calories for a lactating mother during first six months is: (PAR/363) (AI 92)
(a) 300 kcal/day (b) 450 kcal/day (c) 550 kcal/day (d) 650 kcal/day
2. High risk babies is A/E: (PAR/370) (AI 97)
(a) Working mother (b) History of abortion (c) Death of two sibling deaths within two months
(d) Weight between 70-80% of reference
At risk infants—
1. Birth weight less than 2.5 kg
2. Twins
3. Birth order 5 and more
4. Artificial feeding
5. Weight below 75 percent of the expected weight and 3 degrees of malnutrition
6. Failure to gain weight during three succesive months
7. Children with PEM, diarrhoea
8. Working mother/one parent
3. National goals of Heath for all by 2000 AD A/E: (PAR/368) (UP 97)
(a) Infant mortalily rate 60 (b) Crude death rate 9 (c) Crude birth rate 21 (d) Life expectancy at
birth 70 years
1 C 2 D 3 D
Preventive Medicine in Obstetrics, Paediatrics and Geriatrics 75
4. By 2000 AD India has to reduce the birth of infants weighing below 2.5 kg to:
(a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 30% (d) 40% (PAR/371) (PGI 80, AMC 86, 92)
5. Small for date in comparison to premature birth has: (PAR/371) (AIIMS 80, UPSC 92)
(a) Low birth weight (b) More congenital anomalies (c) More chance of mental retardation
(d) Less survival chances
6. Low birth weight means a weight of less than: (PAR/371) (KARN 91)
(a) 2.8 kg (b) 2.7 kg (c) 2.5 kg (d) 2.3 kg
7. Small-for-date babies are prevented by: (PAR/372) (PGI 86)
(a) Spacing of baby (b) Antenatal care (c) Nutritional supplement (d) Immunisations
4 A 5 A 6 C 7 A 8 A 9 C 10 B 11 C 12 A 13 A 14 B 15 B 16 B
17 C 18 A
76 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
19 D 20 B 21 C 22 C 23 D 24 D 25 B 26 A 27 A 28 B 29 C 30 C 31 B
32 B 33 A
Preventive Medicine in Obstetrics, Paediatrics and Geriatrics 77
Causes of maternal deaths in India
Haemorrhage 29%
Anemia 19%
Sepsis 16%
Obstructed labour 10%
Abortion 9%
Toxaemia 8%
Others 9%
34. All are common causes of maternal mortality in India except: (PAR/388) (UP 95)
(a) Anaemia (b) Haemorrhage (c) Toxaemia (d) Diabetes
35. The maternal mortality rate in India is: (PAR/388) (KERALA 94)
(a) 1 per 1,000 live births (b) 2 per 1,000 live births (c) 5 per 1,000 live births (d) 4 per 1,000 live
births
36. Most common indirect cause maternal mortality in India: (PAR/388) (AI 92)
(a) Infection (b) Anemia (c) Heart disease (d) Accidents
37. Most rare cause of maternal mortality is: (PAR/ 388) (AIIMS 98)
(a) Abortion (b) Anemia (c) Toxaemia (d) Hemorrhage
38. The commonest cause of maternal mortality in India is: (PAR/389)(AIIMS/02)
(a) Anaemia (b) Haemorrhage (c) Abortion (d) Sepsis
39. In the calculation of IMR which is the time period considered? (AIIMS/2K)
(a) 7 days (b) 28 days (c) Before 1 year (d) 1-5 years
40. Denominator of perinatal mortality is: (PAR/390) (TN 89)
(a) Live birth (b) Stillbirth (c) Live and stillbirth (d) Live birth minus stillbirth
41. Stillbirth rate includes babies dead after: (PAR/390) (AI 94)
(a) 20 weeks (b) 24 weeks (c) 28 weeks (d) 32 weeks
34 D 35 D 36 D 37 A 38 B 39 C 40 A 41 C 42 A 43 C
78 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
44. The numerator used to define neonatal death rate is: (PAR/391)(AI 90)
(a) All infants below one year of age (b) Infants between 1 to 12 months (c) Infant below 1 week of age
(d) Infants below 28 days of age
45. Neonatal mortality in proportion of IMR is: (PAR/391) (UP 94)
(a) 65-75% (b) 50-60% (c) 35-45% (d) 25-35%
46. Infantile deaths is taken only below: (PAR/392) (AIIMS 81, PGI 80)
(a) 7 days (b) 1 month (c) 1 year (d) 2 years
47. The most important indicator of the health and socioeconomical status of a community is:
(PAR/392) (UPSC 88)
(a) Neonatal mortality rate (b) Maternal mortality rates (c) Infant mortality rate (d) Total mortality
rate
48. Postnatal (early) death rate mainly depends upon: (PAR/392)(AIIMS 98)
(a) Environmental factors (b) Antinatal care (c) Events during birth (d) Events during early neonatal
period
49. Which state has the lowest infant mortality rate: (PAR/393) (UPSC 86)
(a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu (c) West Bengal (d) Madhya Pradesh
50. MC cause of IMR is: (PAR/393) (AI 99)
(a) Prematurity (b) Diarrhoea (c) Respiratory infection (d) Birth injury
51. According to ICMR the most common cause of infant death: (PAR/393) (AI 97)
(a) Prematurity (b) Diarrhoeal disease (c) Congenital anomaly (d) Acute respiratory infection
52. Commonest cause of neonatal mortality in India is: ( PAR/393) (AIIMS/02)
(a) Diarrheal diseases (b) Birth injuries (c) Low birth weight (d) Congenital anomalies
53. IMR up to: (PAR /393) (AIIMS 97)
(a) Less than 1 year (b) Equal to 1 year (c) Up to 1 year (d) More than 1 year
44 D 45 B 46 C 47 C 48 A 49 A 50 A 51 A 52 C 53 A
Preventive Medicine in Obstetrics, Paediatrics and Geriatrics 79
54. All are true of infant mortality rate except: (PAR/396) (AIIMS 89)
(a) 95 per 1000 live birth (b) Neonatal death is 50% (c) 90% of death is under 5 years (d) Has improved
with socioeconomic improvement
55. In a population with birth rate of 4000, population < 5 years is 15,000, infant deaths are 120, 1-4 years deaths
280, calculate the under 5 mortality rate: (PAR/397) (AIIMS/2000)
(a) 200 (b) 50 (c) 10 (d) 100
56. The School Health Programmes came into vogue in: (PAR/399) (AIIMS 81, PGI 83)
(a) 1946 (b) 1948 (c) 1950 (d) 1960
57. Which country had introduced school health services for the first time: (PAR/399) (KARN 94)
(a) France (b) Russia (c) United States of America (d) India
58. In school health services the most important functionary should be: (PAR/400) (PGI 79, AIIMS 86)
(a) School teacher (b) Health worker (c) Medical officer (d) Health assistant
59. Ideal desk recommended for a school child is: (PAR/400) (PGI 80, UPSC 93)
(a) Minus desk (b) Plus desk (c) Zero desk (d) Any of the above
60. With reference to school health, which one of the following statements is not correct? (PAR/400)(UPSC/02)
(a) Per capita space for students in class room should not be less than 10 square ft (b) Desks should be of plus
type (c) Class room should have sufficient natural light preferably from the left (d) There should be one urinal
for 60 students and one latrine for 100 students
61. Per capita space for students in a class room should not be less than.......sq. feet: (PAR/403) (PGI 80, AMU 92)
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 50
62. The approximate number of mentally retarded persons in India is around: (PAR/403) (JIPMER 79, AMU 86)
(a) 4-8 millions (b) 1-15 millions (c) 15-20 millions (d) 20-25 millions
63. Mental retardation is defined if IQ is below: (PAR/403) (PGI 81, AMC 92)
(a) 90 (b) 80 (c) 70 (d) 60
54 C 55 D 56 D 57 D 58 A 59 A 60 B 61 B 62 C 63 C
80 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
64. The following grading of intelligence quotient has been given by WHO for mild mental retardation:
(a) IQ 20-34 (b) IQ 35-49 (c) IQ 50-70 (d) IQ 60-80 (PAR/403) (PGI 80, AIIMS 86)
65. Presence of the following substance reveals the fact of postcontamination of water: (PAR/403) (KARN 94)
(a) Chlorides (b) Nitrates (c) Sulphates (d) Nitrites
66. A 14-year-old boy having lost his father a year ago, is caught shoplifting. The boy will be sent to:
(a) An orphanage (b) An anganwadi (c) A prison (d) A remand home (PAR/406)(UPSC/2001)
67. One of the following is not true of Child Guidance Clinic: (PAR/406) (KERALA 2K)
(a) First started in Chicago (b) It is team work job (c) It is basically meant for children who do not fully
adjust to their environment (d) Originally designed to deal with juvenile delinquency (e) It is intended for
service to the children in orphanages
68. When an abandoned child is legally accepted by a couple,it is called as: (PAR/406)(UPSC/02)
(a) Remand home placement and foster home placement (b) Remand home placement and Borstal placement
(c) Adoption and foster home placement (d) Adoption and remand home placement
69. ICDS scheme was started in the year: (PAR/407) (AIIMS 81, AMU 89)
(a) 1965 (b) 1970 (c) 1975 (d) 1985
64 C 65 B 66 D 67 E 68 C 69 C 70 A 71 A 72 D 73 D 74 C
Preventive Medicine in Obstetrics, Paediatrics and Geriatrics 81
Constituents Breast milk Cows milk gram
gram per litre per litre
PROTEINS 11 33
- Casein 4 28
Soluble proteins 7 5
Lactalbumin 3.5 1.5 to 1.8
Beta-lactoglobulin 0 3.7
Lactotrasferrin 1 to 2 0.2 to 0.5
Immunoglobulin 1 to 2 0.5
Lysozyme 0.5 Traces
NON-PROTEIN 0.32 0.32
Nitrogenous substances 35 35
Lipids
Linolenic acid 3.5 1
CARBOHYDRATES
Lactose 70 50
Nitrogenous 62 50
Oligosaccharides
MINERALS
Ca 2 8
P 0.33 1
Fe 0.4 to 1.5 mg 0.3 to 0.5 mg
VITAMINS
C 60 mg 20 mg
D 50 Ul 25 Ul
ENERGY 640-720 kcal 650 kcal
2670-3000 KJ 2717 KJ
82 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
1 A 2 A 3 C 4 A 5 A 6 C 7 D 8 A 9 D
Nutrition and Health 83
10. The rich source of essential fatty acid is: (PAR/415) (KARN 94)
(a) Ghee (b) Vanaspati (c) Butter (d) Vegetable oil
11. Highest vitamin A content is seen in: (PAR/416) (UPSC 88)
(a) Lemon (b) Green leafy vegetables (c) Tomato (d) Ragi
12. Which is the most potent vitamin A: (PAR/416) (PGI 85)
(a) Carotene (b) Vitamin A1 (c) Vitamin A2 (d) Beta-carotene
13. The highest concentrations of vitamin A is seen in: (PAR/416 (AMC 89)
(a) Polar bear liver (b) Cod liver oil (c) Shark liver oil (d) Papaya
14. Most immediate treatment of night blindness is: (PAR/416) (AIIMS 89)
(a) Topical vitamin A (b) Vitamin A orally (c) Vitamin A parenterally (d) Any of the above
15. Prevalence of vitamin A deficiency in a community is assessed as: (PAR/417) (AIIMS 92)
(a) Bitot’s spots—0.5% (b) Decreased serum-retinol level—0.05% (c) Corneal ulcer—0.01%
(d) Night blindness—10%
16. Oral vitamin A prophylaxis is given to children every: (PAR/417) (UPSC 86)
(a) 2 months (b) 6 months (c) 9 months (d) One year
17. Medium term strategy for prevention of vitamin A deficiency: (PAR/417) (AIIMS/2000)
(a) Food fortification against measles (b) Immunization against measles (c) Required dose of vitamin A
to preschool kids (d) Supple of food with green vegetable
18. Earliest feature of vitamin A deficiency is: (PAR/417) (AP 85)
(a) Conjunctival xerosis (b) Nyctalopia (c) Bitot’s spots (d) Keratomalacia
19. Vitamin A deficiency in the community would be diagnosed by: (PAR/417) (PGI/2000)
(a) Night blindness > 1% (b) Corneal ulcer > 1% (c) Bitot’s spots > 1% (d) People with hematomas on
their foreheads by bumping into light posts in the dark, > 1%
20. Vitamin A requirement for a child between 6-12 months is: (PAR/418) (AI 89, 92)
(a) 100 micrograms (b) 200 micrograms (c) 300 micrograms (d) 400 micrograms
21. The proportion of children in the age group of 0-6 years, who are the beneficiaries of integrated Child Development
Services Scheme, in the population is about: (PAR/418)(KARNAT 99)
(a) 6% (b) 13% (c) 20% (d) 27%
22. Dose of oral vitamin A given as prophylaxis is: (PAR/418) (UPSC 86)
(a) 66,000 IU (b) 10,000 IU (c) 1,60,000 IU (d) 2,00,000 IU
23. Vitamin A prophylaxis schedule of newborn is...mg at birth: (PAR/418) (AIIMS 79, PGI 81)
(a) 27.5 (b) 55 (c) 110 (d) 165
24. The recommended daily allowance (ICMR) of vitamin A for children between 6 to 12 months is:
(a) 150 mgm (b) 300 mgm (c) 500 mgm (d) 800 mgm (PAR/418) (AI 89)
25. Vitamin D is synthesized by the body by the action of ultraviolet radiation of the sun on: (PAR/418) (UPSC 98)
(a) Calciferol (b) Cholecalciferol (c) 7-dehydrocholesterol (d) Ergosterol
26. Vitamin D is not present in: (PAR 418) (AIIMS 98)
(a) Milk (b) Fish fat (c) Cod liver oil (d) Egg
27. Which milk is a rich source of vitamin K: (PAR/419) (PGI 79, AMC 86, 87)
(a) Human (b) Cow (c) Goat (d) Camel
28. The richest source of vitamin K is: (PAR/419) (PGI 78, UPSC 87)
(a) Egg yolk (b) Green vegetables (c) Fruits (d) Wheat
10 D 11 B 12 B 13 A 14 C 15 A 16 B 17 A 18 A 19 A 20 C 21 B 22 D
23 A 24 B 25 C 26 A 27 B 28 B
84 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
29. For every 100 calories, vitamin B, required is: (PAR/419) (AIIMS 81, AMC 87)
(a) 0.05 mg (b) 0.5 mg (c) 5.0 mg (d) 1.0 gm
30. The daily requirement of vitamin E in an adult is related to the intake of: (PAR/419) (UPSC/01)
(a) Essential amino acids (b) Total proteins (c) Essential fatty acids (d) Total fats
31. Vitamin E is absent in: (PAR/419) (AI 92)
(a) Wheat gram oil (b) Vegetable oil (c) Milk (d) Egg yolk
29 A 30 C 31 C 32 C 33 D 34 C 35 C 36 A 37 D 38 A 39 B 40 D 41 A
42 C 43 B 44 A 45 D
Nutrition and Health 85
46. The highest quantities of vitamin C is found in: (PAR/422) (AP 85, PGI 86)
(a) Orange (b) Lemon (c) Indian gooseberry (d) Grapes
47. The daily requirement of vitamin C is: (PAR/422) (AIIMS 85)
(a) 40 mg (b) 100 mg (c) 200 mg (d) 500 mg
48. One liter of cow’s milk provides.....mg of calcium: (PAR/422) (KERALA 91)
(a) 400 (b) 600 (c) 800 (d) 1000 (e) 1200
49. The recommended daily allowance of calcium for adults is: (PAR/422) (KARNAT 96)
(a) 100 mg (b) 200 mg (c) 300 mg (d) 400 mg
50. Calcium requirement above the normal during the first 6 months of lactation is: (PAR/422) (AI 92)
(a) 400 mg/day (b) 550 mg/day (c) 600 mg/day (d) 750 mg/day
51. Highest amount of iron is seen in: (PAR/423) (PGI 86)
(a) Milk (b) Meat (c) Spinach (d) Jaggery
52. The level of iodination of salt in India is: (PAR/424) (UPSC 87)
(a) 1 in 200 (b) 1 in 20,000 (c) 1 in 30,000 (d) 1 in 40,000
53. Recommended dose for iron during pregnancy is: (PAR/424) (AI 92)
(a) 24 mg/day (b) 32 mg/day (c) 40 mg/day (d) 60 mg/day
54. Iodine deficiency is associated with all except: (PAR/424) (AI 89)
(a) High infant mortality rate (b) Stillbirths (c) Mental retardation (d) Cataract
55. Normal iron requirement during pregnancy is: (PAR/ 424) (AIIMS 98)
(a) 2 mg (b) 40 mg (c) 80 mg (d) 100 mg
56. The haemoglobin cut-off level for determining prevalence of anemia among pregnant women is:
(KARNAT 99) (PAR /424)
(a) Less than 15 G per DL (b) Less than 13 G per DL (c) Less than 11 G per DL (d) Less than
9 G per DL
57. Double-edged sword is: (PAR/425) (AIIMS 81, PGI 84)
(a) Chlorine (b) Fluorine (c) Lead (d) Selenium
58. Normal Fluoride level in water is: (PAR/425) (AIIMS 91)
(a) 0.1mg/lit (b) 0.2 mg/lit (c) 0.5 mg/lit (d) 1mg/lit
59. Safe limit of fluorine in drinking water is....mg/lit: (PAR/425) (PGI 84, AP 85)
(a) 0.5 to 0.8 (b) 0.1 to 0.3 (c) 1 (d) 1.5
60. People living in goitre-endemic areas in India: (PAR 425) (AIIMS 98)
(a) 9 million (b) 40 million (c) 120 million (d) 200 million
61. Rice contains: (PAR/426) (KERALA 96)
(a) 20% protein (b) 12% of protein (c) 14% of protein (d) 0.6% protein (e) 6-8% of protein
62. Best quality proteins are found in highest quantities in: (PAR/426) (AIIMS 85)
(a) Rice (b) Wheat (c) Ragi (d) Bajra
63. Excessive of leucine can lead to: (PAR/ 427) (PGI 80, UPSC 85, 88)
(a) Beri-beri (b) Marasmus (c) Pellagra (d) Magenta tongue
64. Par boiling of paddy helps in retaining: (PAR/427) (KARN 94)
(a) Vitamin C (b) Vitamin A (c) Niacin (d) Thiamine
65. Pulses and cereals are given together in a balanced diet because: (PAR427)(ALL INDIA/02)
(a) Pulses lack lysine and cereals lack threonine (b) Pulses are rich in methionine and cereals lack methionine
(c) Pulses lack methionine and cereals lack lysine (d) Pulses have essential amino acids and cereals have non-
essential amino acids
66. What is known as Poorman’s meat: (PAR/427) (AMU 89)
(a) Milk (b) Pulses (c) Fish (d) Egg
67. Maize are deficient in: (PAR/427) (AI 97)
(a) Tryptophan (b) Threonine (c) Methionine (d) Leucine
68. Limiting amino acid in soya bean is: (PAR/428) (PGI 78, AIIMS 85)
(a) Threonine (b) Lysine (c) Methionine (d) Tryptophan
46 C 47 A 48 E 49 D 50 C 51 D 52 D 53 C 54 D 55 B 56 C 57 B 58 C
59 A 60 C 61 E 62 A 63 C 64 D 65 C 66 B 67 A 68 C
86 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
69. One ounce of fresh cows milk yields about: (PAR/429) (JIPMER 93)
(a) 20 kcal (b) 40 kcal (c) 67 kcal (d) 90 kcal
70. About soya bean all are true except: (PAR/428) (AIIMS 93)
(a) Digestability coefficient 75% (b) Minerals 8% (c) Protein 40% (d) Highest protein amongst
vegetarians foods
71. Percentage of protein in breast milk is: (PAR/429) (AIIMS 79, PGI 89)
(a) 1-2 gm%EST (b) 2-4 gm% (c) 4-5 gm% (d) 5-7 gm%
72. Highest biological value is seen in: (PAR/429) (AI 94)
(a)Eggs (b) Fish (c) Soya bean (d) Gram
73. Reference protein is: (PAR/429) (AIIMS 96)
(a) Milk protein (b) Egg protein (c) Red mutton protein (d) Fish protein
74. The ratio of casein to albumin in human milk is: (PAR/429) (AIIMS 84)
(a) 2:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 1:1 (d) 7:1
75. One egg yields about.....kcal of energy: (PAR/429) (JIPMER 86)
(a) 50 (b) 60 (c) 70 (d) 80
76. Egg has all vitamins except: (PAR/429) (AP 87)
(a) B1 (b) B6 (c) C (d) E
77. Highest biological value is for: (PAR/429) (PGI 84)
(a) Eggs (b) Milk (c) Soya bean (d) Meat
78. Best method to compare protein quality is: (PAR/432) (KERALA 94)
(a) Net protein utilization (b) Biological value (c) Specific dynamic action of protein (d) Presence or absence
of essential amino acids
79. For assessing the ability of protein utilisation the best index is: (PAR/432) (JIPMER 95)
(a) Urea (b) NPU (c) Blood ammonia (d) Urinary nitrogen content
80. In ICMR project during lactation supplies extra: (PAR/432) (AI 97)
(a) 300 calories (b) 550 calories (c) 700 calories (d) 900 calories
81. True about NPU is all except: (PAR/432)(AI/2000)
(a) NPU of Indian diet is 50-80% (b) Cow's milk has NPU of 81% (c) NPU is amount of wt. gain per amount
of protein consumed (d) Egg has maximum NPU
82. Which one of the following is the best indicator of protein quality for recommending the dietary protein
requirement: (PAR/432) (UPSC 98)
(a) Protein effeciency ratio (b) Biological value (c) Digestibility coeffecient (d) Net protein utilization
83. Which of the following is/are true regarding the nutritional requirement of a 50kg heavy working Indian women:
(PAR/432)PGI/2000)
(a) 2925 Calories/day (b) Calcium 400gms/day (c) Iron 40mg/day (d) Protein 40mg (e) Fat 30gms
84. Requirement of extra calories for a lactating mother during first 6 months is: (PAR/433) (UPSC 87, AI 93)
(a) 300 kcal/day (b) 400 kcal/day (c) 550 kcal/day (d) 800 kcal/day
85. A normal six-month-old child would require about how many calories per kilogram daily:
(a) 25 (b) 40 (c) 75 (d) 110 (PAR/433) (AIIMS 79, PGI 84)
86. The reference protein nutritional work is: (PAR/433) (AP 89)
(a) Cow’s milk (b) Hen’s egg (c) Meat (d) Fish
87. ICMR recommendation for protein intake for 13-15-year-old girl is: (PAR/433) (TN 86)
(a) 0.5 g/kg (b) 0.95 g/kg (c) 1.3 g/kg (d) 1.85 g/kg
88. Requirement of protein in a reference Indian male: (PAR /433) (AIIMS/2K)
(a) 50 gm (b) 60 gm (c) 40 gm (d) 100 gm
89. The daily requirement of fat is.....% of total energy: (PAR/434) (DNB 91)
(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 25 (e) 30
90. Normal iron requirement per day in pregnancy: (PAR/435) (AI 93)
(a) 1.5 mg (b) 1.8 mg (c) 2.8 mg (d) 3.5 mg
69 A 70 A 71 A 72 A 73 B 74 C 75 C 76 C 77 A 78 A 79 B 80 B 81 C
82 D 83 A 84 C 85 D 86 B 87 C 88 A 89 C 90 D
Nutrition and Health 87
91. Calcium requirement during pregnancy per day is: (PAR/435) (JIPMER 93)
(a) 0.5 gm (b) 1.5 gm (c) 2.2 gm (d) 3.3 gm
92. Which of the following vitamins is not needed in excess of normal daily requirements in pregnancy:
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B (c) Vitamin B12 (d) Vitamin C (PAR/435) (PGI 89)
93. Daily additional protein requirement in lactation: (PAR/435) (AIIMS 95)
(a) 25 g (b) 14 g (c) 45 g (d) 35 g
94. Essential diagnostic criteria of kwashiorkor: (PAR/436) (AIIMS 83, 85, ESI 89)
(a) Growth retardation, oedema psychomotor retardation (b) Hair change, oedema psychomotor retarding
(c) Hair changes, growth psychomotor retarding (d) Oedema, skin changes and psychomotor retarding
95. Flaky paint appearance of skin is seen in: (PAR/436) (AI 95)
(a) Pellagra (b) Psoriasis (c) Marasmus (d) Kwashiorkor
96. Important clinical diagnostic feature of kwashiorkor is: (PAR/436) (AIIMS 92)
(a) Flag sign (b) Weight loss (c) Edema (d) Neurologic dysfunction
Gomez Classification
Weight of the child
× 100 = Weight for age(%)
Weight of a normal child of same age
91 B 92 C 93 A 94 A 95 D 96 C
88 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
Interpretation of Indicators
Weight of the child
Weight /Height (%)= × 100
Weight of normal child at same height
97. The World Health Organization criterion for evidence of a Xerophthalmia problem in the community is:
(a) Night blindness prevalence of more than 1% in 6 months to 6 years age group (b) Prevalence of Bilot’s
spots more than 2% in 6 months to 6 years of age group (c) Serum retinol of less than 10 microgram/100 ml
in more than 3% in 6 months to 6 years of age (d) Corneal ulcers in more than 0.5% of population of 6 months
to 6 years of age group (PAR 438))(UPSC/2K)
98. The Vitamin A supplement administered in “Prevention of nutritional blindness in children programme
”contains": (PAR/438)(AI/03)
(a) 25,000 IU/ml (b) 1 lakh IU/ml (c) 3 lakh IU/ml (d) 5 lakh IU/ml
99. The dose of iron and folic acid given as a supplement is: (PAR/439) (AIIMS 86)
(a) 200 mg and 5 mg (b) 60 mg and 500 mg (c) 200 mg and 500 mg (d) 200 mg and 1 mg
100. According to the latest estimate the number of people living in the known iodine deficient areas is:
(a) 40 million (b) 120 million (c) 20 million (d) 80 million (PAR/439) (AIIMS 84)
101. Elemental iron and folic acid contents of pediatric iron-folic acid tablets supplied under RCH program are:
(PAR/439) (AI/03)
(a) 20 mg iron and 100 microgms of folic acid (b) 40 mg iron and 100 microgms of folic acid (c) 40 mg iron
and 50 microgms of folic acid (d) 60 mg iron and 100 microgms of folic acid
103. The defluoridation process of drinking water developed by the NEERI is popularly known as:
(PAR/440) (KARN 95) (DELHI 85)
(a) Activated sludge process (b) Recarbonation process (c) Nalgonda process (d) Double pot method
Endemic fluorosis
- Ocurs where drinking water contains fluorine in 3-5mg/l
- Dental fluorosis—At levels above 1.5 mg/2 intake
- Skeletal fluorosis—At levels 3.0 to 6.0 mg/l
Fluorosis can ensue crippling when conc is 10mg/l
Intervention—Changing the water source—With a lower fluoride content (0.5 to 0.8 mg/l)
- Chemical treatment, Nalgonda Technique for defluoridation of water
- Other measure—use of fluoride toothpaste in areas of endemic fluorosis is not recommended for
children upto 6 years age.
104. Iodized oil used in preventing goitre is: (PAR/440) (PGI 81, DNB 90)
(a) Croton oil (b) Castor oil (c) Almond oil (d) Poppy-seed oil
105. 1 ml of iodized oil gives protection for about: (PAR/440) (AIIMS 80, PGI 86)
(a) 6 months (b) 1 year (c) 4 years (d) 10 years
Goitre control—Four essential components of national goitre control programme are iodized salt or oil,
monitoring and man power training mass communication.
1. Iodized salt
- Iodization is not less than 30 ppm at the production point and not less than 15 ppm of iodine at
the consumer level
- Iodized oil—Intramuscular injection of iodized oil (mostly poppy seed oil) Dose of 1ml will provide
protection for adults four years
- Iodized oil oral—Sodium iodate tablets.
2. Iodine monitoring—Neonatal hypothyroidism is sensitivity pointer to environmental iodine deficiency
- The WHO regional stategy for the control of IDD has as its principal objective the production of
the prevalance of goitre in areas of endemicity to 10 percent or below by the year 2000
111. All of the following are used to assess the nutritional status of an individual, except: (PAR/445) (UP 97)
(a) Urinary nitrogen excretion (b) Midarm circumference (c) Serum immunoglobulins (d) Serum transferrin
112. To monitor malnutrition in < 5 years age group in a village,village health guide uses: (PAR/447)(AI/2000)
(a) Midarm circumference (b) Height for age (c) Weight for age (d) Skinfold thickness
113. Test done in milk pasteurization: (PAR/450) (UP 95)
(a) Phosphatase test (b) Turbidity test (c) Nitric acid test (d) Salwotch test
107 B 108 A 109 A 110 B 111 C 112 A 113 A
Nutrition and Health 91
114. Which one of the following is not used in testing for adequate pasteurization of milk? (PAR/450)(UPSC/02)
(a) Phosphatase test (b) Coliform count (c) Standard plate count (d) Methylene blue reduction test
115. All are indicators for the assessment of the nutritional program except: (PAR/447)(AIIMS/MAY/01)
(a) Weight and height of the preschool child (b) Prevalence of low birth weight less than 2.5 kg in community
(c) Nutritional assessment of the preschool child (d) Prevalence of pregnant mothers having Hb < 11.5 g% in
the 3rd trimester
116. Methylene blue reduction test is done for estimating: (PAR/450) (KARN 94)
(a) Fat content of milk (b) Sugar content of milk (c) Protein content of milk (d) Bacterial activity in
milk
117. Milk borne disease is: (PAR/450)(AIIMS 89)
(a) Q fever (b) Typhoid (c) Typhus (d) Relapsing fever
118. True about pasteurisation is: (PAR-450) (AI/2000)
(a) Reduces bacterial count by 95%(b) Kills all bacteria except thermoduric one (c) All bacteria are killed
(d) All bacteria and virus
119. Test not done on pasteurised milk: (PAR/450) (TN/99)
(a) Methylene blue test (b) Standard plate count (c) Phosphatase test (d) Coliform countspores are killed
120. Examples of food-borne disease are A/E: (PAR/452) (AI 92)
(a) Shigellosis (b) Giardiasis (c) Amoebiasis (d) Hydatidosis
121. Not a food intoxicants is: (PAR/452) (UP 96)
(a) Lathyrism (b) Wernieke's encephalopathy (c) Epidemic dropsy (d) Veno-occlusive disease
Food-borne intoxication
1. Due to naturally occuring toxins in some food
a. Lathyrism (beta oxalyl amino alanine)
b. Endemic ascites (Pyrolizidine alkaloids)
2. Due to toxin produced by certain bacteria
a. Botulism
b. Staphylococcus poisons
3. Due to toxins produced by some fungi
a. Aflatoxin
b. Ergot
c. Fusarium toxins
4. Food-borne chemical poisoning
a. Heavy metals, e.g. mercury (usually in fish) cadmium (in certain shelfish) and lead in canned
food
b. Oils petroleum derivatives and solvents (e.g. trycresyl phosphate or TCP)
c. Migrant chemicals from package materials
d. Asbestos
e. Pesticides residues (DDT, BHC)
Food-borne infections
Group example illness in each group
1. Bacteria typhoid fever, paratyphoid fever,
salmonellosis, staphylococcal
intoxication, Cl. perfringens illness,
botulism, B.cereus food poisoning
E. coli diarrhoea, non-cholera vibrio illness V.
parahaemolyticus infection, streptococcal
infection, Shigellosis, brucellosis.
2. Viral disease Viral hepatitis, gastroenteritis
3. Parasites Taeniasis, hydatidosis, trichinosis, ascariasis,
amoebiasis, oxyuriasis
122. Test for detecting argemone oil contamination does not include: (PAR/452) (AMC/99)
(a) Nitric acid test (b) Paper chromatography test (c) Aldehyde test (d) None
123. Match List I (Disease) with List II (Vector) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:
(PAR/452) UPSC/02
List I List II
A. Scabies 1. Soft tick
B. Fish tapeworm infestation 2. Cyclops
C. Relapsing fever 3. Sarcoptes
D. Kyasanur forest 4. Hard tick
Codes:
(a) A:3, B:2, C:1, D: 4 (b) A:4, B:1, C:2, D: 3 (c) A:3, B:1, C:2, D: 4 (d) A:4, B:2, C:1, D: 3
124. Which is first and commonest clinical manifestation of epidemic dropsy: (PAR/452)(ORISSA 99)
(a) Bilateral swelling of legs (b) Gastrointestinal upsets (c) Cardiac decompensation (d) Sarcoid
125. All are food fortification except: (PAR/453) (KERALA 94)
(a) Addition of colour to saccharin (b) Addition of vitamin A to food stuff (c) Addition of extranutrients
to food stuff (d) Iodisation of salt
126. Epidemic dropsy present with A/E: (PAR/453) (AIIMS 96, AI 98)
(a) Glaucoma (b) CHF (c) Diarrhoea (d) Convulsion
127. Sanguinarine is derived from: (PAR/453) (AI 97)
(a) Fusorium incamatum (b) Argemone oil (c) Jhunjhunia seeds (d) Khesari dal
128. Earliest manifestation of epidemic dropsy is: (PAR/453) (UP 94)
(a) B/L swelling of leg (b) Cardiac failure (c) GI disturbance (d) Paralysis
129. All of the following programmes are sponsored by Ministry of Social Welfare except:
(PAR/454) (PGI 79, DNB 91)
(a) Balwadi nutrition programme (b) Special nutrition programme (c) Mid-day meal programme (d) ICDS
130. In formulation mid-day meals for school children, the meal should supply of total energy requirement and the
protein requirement:
(a) 1/3 and 1/2 (b) 1/2 and 1/3 (c) 1/4 and 2/3 (d) 1/4 and 1/3 (PAR/455)
Programme Ministry
131. In ICDS scheme, the calories received by children under 5 years of age are: (PAR/455) (AIIMS/2000)
(a) 300 (b) 200 (c) 500 (d) 1000
132. Population usually covered by an Anganwadi area is: (PAR/455)UPSC/03
(a) 1000 (b) 2500 (c) 3000 (d) 5000
133. In an anganwadi, the proteins and calories given to a pregnant lady is: (PAR/455) (AIIMS/NOV/01)
(a) 300 kcal: 12 gm (b) 500 kcal: 20 gm (c) 500 kcal: 15 gm (d) 500 kg
122 C 123 A 124 A 125 A 126 D 127 B 128 A 129 C 130 A 131 A 132 A 133 B
Social Sciences and Health 93
10 Social Sciences
and Health
1. Water requirement per day per head is: (PAR/459) (DELHI 92)
(a) 150-200 litres (b) 100 litres (c) 250 litres (d) 300-500 litres
2. Society is defined as: (PAR/461) (AI 88)
(a) A conglomeration of people (b) A group of people bound by results (c) An association with regulated
membership (d) An association patterned on the norms of interaction
3. The behavioural science used extensively in PSM is: (PAR/461) (AI/2000)
(a) Economics (b) Anthropology (c) Politic (d) Law
4. Acculturation means: (PAR/462) (PGI 79, UPSC 86)
(a) Culture contact (b) Study of the various cultures (c) Cultural history of health and disease (d) None
of the above
5. Acculturation is: (PAR/462)(Kerala 97)
(a) Mingling with other culture and accepting good characters (b) Going abroad (c) Standardized for
regions (d) None of the above
6. Following are public health approaches except: (PAR/466) (Manipal/96)
(a) Education (b) Regulatory (c) Service (d) Incentive
7. All are true about intelligence quotient except: (PAR/469) (UPSC 84, DELHI 84)
(a) Calculated from mental and chronological age (b) Less than 70 indicates mental retardation
(c) Increases with age (d) None of the above
8. As per WHO classification, it is a case of severe mental retardation if the IQ is: (PAR/469) (UPSC/01)
(a) 50 to 70 (b) 35 to 49 (c) 20 to 34 (d) Below 20
Mental age
IQ= × 100
Chronological age
1 A 2 D 3 B 4 A 5 A 6 B 7 C 8 C
94 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
Occupational Classification
1. Professional Occupation
2. Intermediate Occupation
3. Nonmanual skilled Occupation
4. Partly skilled Occupation
5. Unskilled Occupation
11. Which one of the following sets of parameters are taken into account in Kuppuswamy’s Socio-economic Status
classification? (PAR/478)(UPSC/01)
(a) Housing, education and occupation (b) Housing, occupation and income (c) Education, occupation and
income (d) Housing and Income
12. All are water-borne diseases except: (PAR/494) (AIIMS 97)
(a) Leptosporosis (b) Fish tapeworm (c) Schistosomiasis (d) Brucellosis
9 B 10 B 11 C 12 D
Environment and Health 95
11 Environment
and Health
1. Consider the following statements regarding slow sand filter: (PAR/495) (UPSC/01)
I. Water is coagulated before it is admitted to the filter bed
II. The effective diameter of sand particles making up the top layer in the filter bed is 0.15 to 0.35 mm
III. 99.9% bacteriological purity is obtained after filtration
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) I,II and III (b) I and II (c) II and III (d) I and III
2. Following are properties of a slow sand filter except: (PAR/495) (KARN/01)
(a) Occupies large area (b) Pre treatment of raw water by coagulation is not required (c) Purification is
by biological process (d) Cleaning is by backwashing
3. A drinking water well must be.... feet away from a source of contamination: (PAR/496) (UPSC 85)
(a) 25 (b) 50 (c) 75 (d) 100 (e) 150
4. The size of sand particles in rapid filters is: (PAR/474) (PGI 84)
(a) 0.36-0.45 mm (b) 0.48-0.59 mm (c) 0.61-0.79 mm (d) 0.15-0.35 mm
5. Following statements are true for chlorination except: (PAR/497) (AIIMS 97)
(a) Disinfecting action of chlorine is due to hypochlorous acid (b) pH of water should be acidic (c) Chlorine
has effect on spores, protozoalcyst, and helminthic ova (d) Free residual chlorine provides margin of safety
against microbial contamination
6. Which of the following is used to destroy algae in water: (PAR 497)(JIPMER/2K)
(a) Copper sulphate (b) Potassium permanganate (c) Hypochlorite (d) Bleaching powder
7. Noise pollution presents clinically as all except: (PAR/498) (DELHI/92)
(a) Increase urinary output (b) Decrease sexual activity (c) Deafness (d) Insomnia
1 C 2 D 3 B 4 B 5 C 6 A 7 D
96 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
8. For disinfecting large bodies of water,the most efficient and cost-effective method of applying chlorine is:
(a) Bleaching powder (b) Chloramine (c) Chlorine gas (d) Perchloron (PAR/498) (Manipal/96)
9. Which of the following is an important disinfectant on account of effectively destroying gram-positive and gram-
negative bacteria, viruses and even spores at low pH levels: (PAR/498) (AIIMS 81, UPSC 82)
(a) Phenol (b) Alcohol (c) Chlorine (d) Hexachlorophene
10. Following are true regarding chlorination except: (PAR/498) (AI 93)
(a) Residual chlorine of 0.5 mg/lit (b) Contact period 30 minute (c) Water should not be turbid
(d) Chlorine demand should be estimated
11. Which of the following diseases is not susceptible by chlorination: (PAR/498) (AIIMS 78, PGI 87)
(a) Bacillary dysentery (b) Typhoid fever (c) Cholera (d) Giardiasis
Chlorination-
• Kills bacteria but no effect on viruses(polio and hepatitis) and on spores; protozoal cysts and
helminthic ova
• Disinfecting action is mainly due to hypochlorous acid
• Principles of chlorination-
(1) Water should be clear and free from turbidity.
(2) Chlorine demand should be estimated
(3) Contact period to be of 60 minutes
(4) Minimum recommended concentration of free chlorine is 0.5mg/l for 1hr.
12. The residual chlorine content of drinking water should be: (PAR/498) (UPSC 86)
(a) 0.5 ppm (b) 0.6 ppm (c) 0.8 ppm (d) 1.2 ppm
13. Contact period for chlorination of water is: (PAR/498) (PGI 86)
(a) 15 minutes (b) ½ hour (c) 1 hour (d) 2 hours
14. The free chlorine in chlorinated water should be: (PAR/498) (PGI 84)
(a) 0.2 ppm (b) 2 ppm (c) 3 ppm (d) 5 ppm
15. In orthotoludine tests all are correct except: (PAR/498) (AIIMS 89)
(a) Free chlorine is estimated (b) 0.1 ml of reagent is used for 1ml of water (c) Yellow colour
(d) Read in 10 seconds
16. Difference in breast milk of a mother delivering preterm baby and mother delivering term baby has less
quantity of: (PAR/498)(AIIMS 88)
(a) Lactose (b) Calcium (c) Calories (d) Proteins
17. In chlorination all are true except: (PAR/498) (AI 98, 96)
(a) Chlorine is a stable compound (b) Available chlorine is 33% (c) Rapid and brief action
(d) Minimum recommended concentration of free chlorine is 0.5% mg/1 hour
18. Which statement is not true about chlorination of well: (PAR/498) (AI 92,98)
(a) Chlorine demand has to be estimated (b) Volume of water has to be determined (c) Bleaching powder
solution has to be added immediately (d) A contact period of 1 hour is allowed
19. A chloride level of...........is acceptable by WHO: (PAR/501) (JIPMER 93)
(a) 0.1mcg/l (b) 0.5mg/l (c) 10mg/l (d) 200mg/l
8 A 9 A 10 B 11 D 12 A 13 C 14 A 15 A 16 D 17 A 18 C 19 D
Environment and Health 97
20. The prescribed chloride content of drinking water should be below: (PAR/501) (AIIMS 93)
(a) 100 mg/l (b) 200 mg/l (c) 300 mg/l (d) 500 mg/l
21. Water quality criteria acceptance are: (PAR/501) (AIIMS 97)
(a) No coliform organism (b) 3 consecutive sample of 100 ml does not contain coli (c) One sample should
not contain 3 coli (d) In a year not more than 5% of sample should contain coliform
22. Chemical criteria for water quality is A/E: (PAR/501) (AI 97)
(a) Dissolving O2 is 5 mg/l (b) Nitrates is 1 mg/l (c) Nitrates is 1-2 mg/l (d)Free and saline NH3 is
0.05 mg/l
23. Water is considered potable if there is: (PAR/502) (PGI 81, AMC 85, 88)
(a) No Esch. coli per 100 ml of water (b) One Esch. coli per 100 ml water (c) Ten Esch. coli per 100 ml
water (d) Esch. coli per 100 ml water
Inorganic-
Chloride 200mg/l maximum 600 mg/l
Hardness 100-300 mg/l
Ammorics 1.5 mg/l
pH 6.5- 8.5
Nitrate 50 mg/l
H2S 0.05 mg/l
Nitrite 3 mg/l
Total dissolved 1000 mg/l
solids
Fluoride 1.5 mg/l
Microbiological Aspects: Primary indicator coliform-(E. coli) along with faecal streptococci and sulfite
reducing clostridia.
24. WHO standard for safe drinking water is: (PAR/502) (UP 96)
(a) Less than 3 coliforms/100 ml (b) 10 coliforms/100 ml (c) Less than 20 coliforms/100 ml (d) Less
than 100 coliform/100 ml
25. The following organism because of its easy culture methods is widely used as bacteriological indicator of water
pollution: (PAR/503)(KARNAT 96)
(a) Faecal streptococci (b) Escherichia coli (c) Clostridium perfringens (d) Salmonella typhi
26. The organism which is NOT an indicator of fecal pollution is (PAR/503) (UPSC/02)
(a) Staphylococcus (b) Streptococcus (c) E. coli (d) Clostridium perfringens
27. True about purity of deep well water is all except: (PAR/504) (BIHAR 92, UPSC 93)
(a) Chloride—200 mEq/1 (b) Ammonia—0.05 mEq/1 (c) Nitrites—0.01 mEq/1 (d) Albuminoid ammonia
28. Nitrate level in water would not be more than—mg/l: (PAR/504) (JIPMER 81, AMC 92)
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.0 (d) 4.0
29. Nitrate level in water would not be more than—mg/l: (PAR/504) (JIPMER 81, AMC 92)
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.0 (d) 4.0
30. Primary health care as a principle of WHO was founded at: (PAR/504) (DELHI 85, AMC 87)
(a) Geneva (b) New York (c) Alma Ata (d) Austria
31. Old pollution of water is indicated by: (PAR/504)(AI 99)
(a) Nitrates (b) Nitrites (c) Free and saline NH3 (d) Chlorides
32. UNDP is an international agency which works for: (PAR/507) (UPSC 96)
(a) Development of children (b) Development of human and natural resources in a country
(c) Economic development of the country (d) Research and technological development of the country
20 B 21 A 22 C 23 A 24 A 25 B 26 B 27 C 28 B 29 B 30 C 31 A 32 B
98 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
33. Presumptive count includes: (PAR/507) (PGI 81, UPSC 91, 92)
(a) No E. coli (b) Coliform but not only E. coli (c) Gram-negative bacilli (d) Any bacteria
34. Organism not indicative of faecal pollution is: (PAR/507) (JIPMER 93)
(a) E. coli (b) Streptococcus (c) Cl. perfringens (d) Staphylococcus
35. Sodium permutit is used for: (PAR/508) (JIPMER 90)
(a) Disinfection of water (b) Sterilisation of water (c) Removal of hardness of water (d) Testing residual
chlorine
36. A water sample is said to be moderately hard when hardness-producing ion is about: (PAR/508)
(a) 50 ppm (b) 50-150 ppm (c) 150-300 ppm (d) 300 ppm (e) None of the above (AIIMS 83)
37. Permanent hardness of water is not due to: (PAR/508) (AIIMS 88)
(a) Calcium bicarbonate (b) Calcium sulphate (c) Magnesium sulphate (d) Nitrates
38. Temporary and permanent hardness of water is removed by: (PAR/508)(AI IHPH 2K)
(a) Boiling (b) Addition of lime (c) Permutit method (d) All
39. The cause of discomfort in an overcrowded, poorly ventilated room are all except: (PAR/511) (UPSC 93)
(a) Increase in temperature (b) Increase in humidity (c) Increase in CO2 (d) Decrease in air change
40. Corrected effective temperature is labelled as comfortable if it is (in degree F): (PAR/512) (UPSC 96)
(a) Between 70 and 76 (b) Between 77 and 80 (c) Between 81 and 82 (d) Above 83
41. The acceptable level for physical comfort is: (PAR/512) (KARNAT 95)
(a) Ambient temperature of 30°F (b) Corrected effective temperature up to 80°F (c) Effective temperature
up to 120°F (d) Ambient temperature of 40°F
Indices of thermal comfort-
1. Air temp
2. Air temp and humidity
3. Cooling Power -(Air temp. humidity and air movement)measured by katathermometer
4. Effective Temp -30°C
5. Corrected effective temp (Air temp+velocity+humidity+mean radiant heat)
• At present effective Temp and CET are widely used as indices of thermol comfort.
• MCARDLE’S maximum allowable sweat rate -Predicted four hrs sweat P4 SR value of 3 as
upper limit
33 B 34 D 35 C 36 B 37 A 38 C 39 C 40 B 41 B
Environment and Health 99
42. Not a primary air pollutant: (PAR/513) (PGI 96)
(a) Smoke and dust (b) SO2 (c) NO2 (d) Ozone
43. Indicators of air pollution are all except: (PAR/514) (AIIMS 88)
(a) Soiling index (b) Concentration of SO2 (c) Concentration of formaldehyde (d) Soot, dust and suspended
particles
44. Soiling index is an indicator of: (PAR/514) (PGI 81, AIIMS 92)
(a) Water pollution (b) Air pollution (c) Sand pollution (d) Excreta pollution
45. The best indicator(s) for monitoring of air pollution is/are: (PAR/514)(UPSC/02)
(a) Sulphur dioxide and suspended particles (b) Sulphur dioxide (c) Oxides of nitrogen and polyaromatic
hydrocarbons (d) Carbon monoxide
46. The following are indicators of the general level of air pollution except: (PAR/514) (AI 90, UP 97)
(a) Sulfur dioxide concentration (b) Soiling index (c) Formaldehyde concentration
(d) Total suspended particles
47. Quality standards proposed by the ‘Indian Central Pollution Control Board’ are based on limits of concentrations
of: (PAR/ 514) (UPSC/01)
(a) Suspended particulate matter and sulphur dioxide (b) Suspended particulate matter, sulphur dioxide
and oxides of nitrogen (c) Suspended particulate matter, sulphur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen and oxidants
(d) Suspended particulate matter, suphur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen and carbon monoxide
48. Air pollution may cause: (PAR/515) (KERALA 90)
(a) Dermatitis (b) Carcinoma bronchus (c) Bronchiectasis (d) Pneumonia
49. To facilitate cross ventilation in educational institutions, the recommended combined space for doors and
windows as a percentage of floor space is: (PAR/516) (UPSC/03)
(a) 10% (b) 15% (c) 25% (d) 35%
50. Recommended reflection factors include each of the following, except: (PAR/517) (AIIMS 81, AMC 83)
(a) Ceiling 80% (b) Roofs 40% (c) Walls 50 to 60% (d) Furniture 30 to 40%
51. For satisfactory vision the minimum illumination accepted is: (PAR/518) (AIIMS 80, AMC 84)
(a) 15 to 200 foot-candles (b) 30 to 40 foot-candles (c) 40 to 50 foot-candles (d) 70 to 90 foot-candles
52. It is recommended that in living rooms, the daylight factor should be at least....:
(a) 1% (b) 2% (c) 3% (d) 4% (e) 8% (PAR/518) (PGI 80, AMC 88)
53. All of the following true for occupational lead poisoning except: (PAR/518) ( AIIMS/02)
(a) Inhalation is the most common mode of absorption (b) Lead in blood and urine provide quantitative
indicators of exposure (c) Average blood level is more important than number of subjects with blood levels above
threshold (d) Basophilic stippling is a sensitive parameter of hematological response
42 C 43 C 44 B 45 A 46 C 47 C 48 B 49 A 50 B 51 A 52 E 53 C
100 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
Recommended illumination
55. Exposure to noises above causes permanent hearing loss: (PAR/520) (JIPMER 93)
(a) 90 dB (b) 100 dB (c) 125 dB (d) 160 dB
56. Auditory fatigue occurs at.........Hz: (PAR/520) (AIIMS 80, DNB 91)
(a) 2000 (b) 3000 (c) 4000 (d) 8000
57. A rupture of ear drum may actually occur at a decibel level above: (PAR/520) (AIIMS 80, UPSC 87)
(a) 40 (b) 80 (c) 120 (d) 160
58. Kata thermometer is used to measure: (PAR/524) (AIIMS 85)
(a) Maximum temperature (b) Minimum temperature (c) Radiant heat (d) Cooling power of air
59. Overcrowding is: (PAR/528) (UP 96)
(a) 90-100 Sq++ for 1½ person (b) 2 rooms for 3 persons (c) 110 Sq++ for 3 person (d)70-90 Sq ++ One
person
54 B 55 D 56 C 57 D 58 D 59 C 60 B 61 A 62 D 63 C
Environment and Health 101
Methods of disposal
The principal methods of refuse disposal are -
a. Dumping
b. Controlled tipping and sanitary land-fill
c. Incineration
d. Composting -
1. Banglore method (Anaerobic)
2. Mechanical method (Aerobic)
e. Manure pits
f. Burial
64. Soakage pit is used for hygenic disposal of: (PAR/531)(KARNAT 99)
(a) Garbage (b) Rubbish (c) Sewage (d) Sullage
65. Barrier sanitation implies: (PAR/532) (AI 93)
(a) Sagregation of faeces (b) Personal hygiene (c) Elimination of flies (d) Water purification
66. Sanitation barrier is: (PAR/532) (AI 99)
(a) Segregation of faeces (b) Control of flies (c) Excreta disposal (d) Proper water supply
67. Pit latrine has depth of..........feet: (PAR/533) (UPSC 87, AMC 97
(a) 2-4 (b) 4-6 (c) 6-10 (d) 10-12
68. Which is the latrine of choice for camps: (PAR/533) (AIIMS 89)
(a) Aqua privy (b) Trench hole (c) Pit-latrine (d) Chemical
69. Accepted depth of water in water-seal latrine should not be more than........cm.(PAR/534) (AIIMS 79, AMC 92)
(a) 2.5 (b) 4.0 (c) 5.0 (d) 7.5
70. Which of the following is not a sanitary latrine? (PAR/535) (Manipal/96)
(a) Aqua privy (b) Bore hole (c) RCA type (d) Service latrine
71. Septic tank decomposition is by: (PAR/535) (AIIHPH/98)
(a) Anaerobic (b) Aerobic (c) Both (d) None
Septic tank—The minimum capicity of a septic tank should be at least 500 gallons
Length—Length is usually twice the breadth
Depth—Liquid depth is only 1.2m
Air space—There should be minimum space of 30 cm
Septic tank are designed in this coutry allows a retention period of 24 hrs.
64 C 65 A 66 A 67 D 68 D 69 D 70 A 71 A
102 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
77. Biological oxygen demand denotes contamination with: (PAR/538) (ALL INDIA/02)
(a) Bacteria (Coliforms) (b) Organic matter (c) Nitrates (d) Algae
78. The heart of the activated sludge process is: (PAR/539) (KARNAT 96)
(a) Primary sedimentation tank (b) Sludge digester (c) Aeration tank (d) Final setting tank
79. Trickling filter is used in: (PAR/539)(UP/2000) (AIIMS 97)
(a) Primary treatment of sewage (b) Secondary treatment of sewage (c) Sewage effluent treatment
(d) Sewage farming treatment
80. True about septic tank is: (PAR/539) (AI 92)
(a) Disinfacts should be used periodically (b) Anaerobic digestion takes place inside and aerobic digestion takes
place out side (c) Minimum capacity of the tank is 100 gallons (d) A retention period of 24 hour is insufficient
81. Aerobic digestion of sludge takes place in: (UPSC/2K) (PAR16th/539)
(a) Trickling filter (b) Broad irrigation (c) Activated sludge (d) Septic tank
82. An inexpensive and efficient method of sewage disposal for a small community is: (PAR/540) (UPSC 96)
(a) River outfall (b) Oxidation pond (c) Trickling filter (d) Activated sludge
Oxidation Pond
• Shallow pool of 1 to 1.5m depth with algae and certain types of bacteria which feed on
decaying organic matter and sun light.
83. For proper functioning, an oxidation pond requires: (PAR/540) (UPSC 98)
(a) Algae, sunlight and ferns (b) Algae, scavenging bacteria and sunlight (c) Algae, saprophytic bacteria
and sunlight (d) Algae, human pathogenic bacteria and sunlight
Disposal of effluent-
a. Disposal by dilution
72 C 73 B 74 A 75 A 76 B 77 B 78 C 79 B 80 B 81 C 82 B 83 C
Environment and Health 103
• An effluent of sewage treatment plant should not have more than 30mg/l of suspended solids
and the five days BOD including the suspended matter should not exceed 20mg/l water into which
the effluent passed would provide an 8:1 dilution
b. Disposal on land
84. Which one of the following rickettsial diseases is transmitted by louse? (PAR/542t) (UPSC 95)
(a) Murine typhus (b) Rocky mountain spotted fever (c) Q-fever (d) Epidemic typhus
85. Hard tick transmits: (PAR/542t) (AIIMS 91)
(a) Oroyo fever (b) Oriental sore (c) Leishmanials (d) Tick typhus
86. Diseases transmitted by sandfly are all except: (PAR/542t) (JIPMER 93)
(a) Relapsing fever (b) Kala azar (c) Oriental sore (d) Oraya fever
Arthropod-borne disease
84 D 85 D 86 A 87 B 88 D 89 D 90 B 91 B 92 A 93 C 94 B
104 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
Residual Sprays
Toxicants suitable against malaria vectors as residual spray applications
Toxicant Dosage in g/m2 Average duration of effectiveness
(months)
DDT 1 to 2 6 to 12
Lindane 0.5 3
OMS-33 2 3
Malathion 2 3
95 D 96 B 97 D 98 A
Environment and Health 105
Space sprays
1. Pyrethrum extract: Pyrethrum is sprayed at a dosage of 1 oz of the spray solution per 1,000 C ft
of space. Windows are kept closed for half an hour
2. Residual insecticides: The most extensively used insecticides are malathion and fenitrothion for
ULV fogging.
Genetic Control: Control of mosquitoes by genetic method such as sterile male technique, cytoplasmic
chromosomal translocation.
99 A 100 C 101 A 102 C 103 C 104 C 105 D 106 C 107 A 108 A 109 B 110 D 111 D
112 A 113 C
106 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
Insecticide
Contact Stomach Poisons Fumigants
Natural Synthetic Paris green
Sodium Fluoride Hydrogen cyanide
Methyle bromide
Pyrethrum Sulphur dioxide
Rotenone Carbon disulphate
Derris
Nicotine
A- Organo-chlorine B- Organo-phosphorus C-Carbamates
compounds Insecticides
DDT Chlorthion Carbaryl
Methoxychior Diazinon Dimetilan
HCH(BHC) Dioxathion Pyrolan
Lindane Demethoate propoxur (OMS-33)
Chlordane E P N
Heptachlor Malathion(OMS-1)
Dieldrin Fenthion(OMS-2)
Aldrin Methyle parathion Synthetic - Pyrethroids
Toxaphene Parathion
Keppone Ronnel Resmethrin
Mirex Trichlorfon Bioresmethrin
Dichlorvos Pothrin
Abate(OMS-786)
Naled
Repellants Gardona
Meta-diethyltoluamide Chlorpyrifos
Benzyl benzoate Fenitrothion(OMS-43)
Indalone Dicapthon(OMS-214)
114. The following are organophosphorus insecticides except: (PAR/557) (UPSC 86, DELHI 93)
(a) Fenthion (b) Parathion (c) Chlorpyriphos (d) Pyrethrum
115. Which is an insecticide of vegetable origin? (PAR/557) (JIPMER 81, AP 90)
(a) Abate (b) BHC (c) Propoxur (d) Pyrethrum
116. Which of the following is contact organophosphorus: (PAR/557) (UP 96)
(a) BHC (b) Abate (c) Pyrethrum (d) Paris green
117. All are organophosphorus compounds except: (PAR/557) (AIIMS 97)
(a) Malathion (b) Propoxur (c) Abdate (d) Fenethion
118. Residual effect of malathion is for: (PAR/558) (JIPMER 80, DELHI 87)
(a) 3 months (b) 6 months (c) 9 months (d) 12 months
Malathion
• Malathion has the least toxicity of all organophosphorous compounds. Malathion is used in doses
of 100-200 mg sqaure foot,every three months
• Pyrethrum has no residual action
It is extracted from the flowers of chrysanthemum
Pyrethrum and DDT
• The standard reference aerosol recommended by the WHO consists of Pyrethrum extract 1.6 % and
DDT technical 3% to be dispersed at the rate of 10 gm per 1,000 cu space in the treatment of
aircraft.
Paris green
Paris green contains over 50% of arsenious oxide used in control of anopheline larvae by spraying as
2 percent dust over breeding places once week
119. Which one of the following insecticides is commonly used for ultra low-volume fogging ?(PAR/558) (UPSC 98)
(a) Abate (b) DDT (c) Paris green (d) Malathion
120. Abate is: (PAR/558) (JIPMER 91)
(a) Cyanide cpd (b) Organophosphorus cpd (c) Organochlorine cpd (d) None of the above
121. Effect of Pyrethrum on mosquitoes is described as (PAR/558)(UPSC/02)
(A) Residual (b) repellent (c) Known down (d) Contact
122. Least toxic organophosphorus compound is: (PAR/558) (JIPMER 81, UPSC 86)
(a) Paris green (b) Malathion (c) Parathion (d) DDT
123. Paris green is larvicidal for: (PAR/558) (JIPMER 95)
(a)Anopheles (b) Culex (c) Aedes (d) None of the above
124. The essential ingredient in the space sprays for vector control is: (PAR/558) (KARN 95)
(a) Malathion (b) Phenothion (c) Pyrethrum (d) BHC
125. The following are found resistant to DDT except: (PAR/559) (AIIMS 79, AMC 92)
(a) Phlebotomus (b) Culex fatigans (c) Anopheles stephensi (d) Musca domestic
12 Occupational Health
1. The size of respirable dust is: (PAR/575) (AI 93)
(a) 5-10 microgram (b) 15 microgram (c) 20 microgram (d) 5-15 microgram
2. Pneumoconiosis is caused by all except: (PAR/576) (ALL INDIA/02)
(a) Silica (b) Coal dust (c) SO2 (d) Tobacco
1 A 2 D 3 A 4 A 5 D 6 A 7 B
Occupational Health 109
LEAD POISONING
Clinical feature loss of appetite, intestinal colic, persistent headache, weakness, constipation, joint and
muscle pain, blue line on gums, anemia.
Laboratory test
a. Coproporphrin in urine
b. Aminolevulinic acid is urine ALAU if >5mg/l
c. Lead in urine and blood of over 0.8 mg/l in urine and a blood level 70 μg /100ml is associated with
clinical symptoms
- PREVENTIVE MEASURE
- Lead conc. in the working atmp.should be kept below 2.0 mg per 10 cu meter
Management
The use of d-penicillamine has been reported to be effective. Like Ca-EDTA.
17. A man working in ‘’Dye industry’’ the man should watch for: (PAR/579) (UP 95)
(a) Kidney bladder disease (b) Pulmonary disease (c) Hepatic disease (d) Eye disease
18. Beta naphthylaminas are associated with cancer of: (PAR/579) (AIIMS 81, AMC 92)
(a) Stomach (b) Liver (c) Bladder (d) Mouth
19. The highest accident rate is seen in: (PAR/580) (DELHI 92)
(a) Docks (b) Mines (c) Railways (d) Factories
8 D 9 C 10 D 11 B 12 A 13 D 14 B 15 C 16 C 17 A 18 C 19 B
110 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
20. Sickness absenteeism is a useful index in industry to assess: (PAR/580) (AIIMS 79, UPSC 87)
(a) State of health of workers (b) Worker management relationship (c) Working environment
(d) Sincerity of the workers
21. All are standard laid by factories Act (1976) except: (PAR/ 584) (UP 96)
(a) Minimum 500 cubic feet space per worker (b) Maximum working hour per week-60 (c) Periodic occupation
health survey (d) Prohibition of employment of children below 14
22. In ESI programme central, state govt. employee contribute to the fund, Employer’s contribution is:
(a) 5.57% (b) 4.75% (c) 3.75% (d) 2.75% (PAR/585) (ORRISA/01)
23. Minimum floor area for a worker in Indian Factories Act is: (PAR/585) (UPSC 82, 83, AMC 85)
(a) 350 cuft (b) 400 cuft (c) 500 cuft (d) 1000 cuft
24. Provisions of 1875 ESI Act will not apply to: (PAR/585) (JIPMER 91)
(a) Sugar factories (b) Cinema theatre (c) Hotels (d) Newspaper establishments
25. The maximum permitted hours of work/week person under Factories Act is: (PAR/585) (JIPMER 92)
(a) 42 (b) 48 (c) 56 (d) 60
26. Not included in ESI is: (PAR/585) (AI/2000)
(a) Educational institute (b) Factories with 10-19 persons with power (c) Factories with no power and greater
than 20 persons (d) Newspaper establishments
27 Benefits under the Employees State Insurance Scheme include all the following, except: (PAR/585)(UPSC/2001)
(a) Dependents’ benefit (b) Funeral benefit (c) Dearness allowance (d) Rehabilitation allowance
28. The minimum air space per worker prescribed by Indian factory (Amendment) Act, 1987 is:
(PAR/585) (UPSC/02)
(a) 200cu ft. (b) 300 cu ft. (c) 500 cu ft (d) 700 cu ft
20 A 21 B 22 B 23 C 24 A 25 B 26 A 27 C 28 C
Occupational Health 111
29. The ESI provides for: (PAR/587) (JIPMER 87)
(a) Medical benefit (b) Sickness benefit (c) Maternity benefit (d) Funeral benefit (e) All of the above
30. In ESI scheme, extended medical benefit is given when a patient has: (PAR/587) (AIIMS 81, UPSC 91)
(a) Diabetes mellitus (b) Chronic CHF (c) Filariasis (d) Syphilis
31. Duration of maternal benefit under ESI Act is: (PAR/587) (JIPMER 91)
(a) 4 weeks (b) 8 weeks (c) 12 weeks (d) 24 weeks
32. Under ESI scheme, sickness benefits is given for: (PAR/587) (AI 99)
(a) 30 days (b) 46 days (c) 56 days (d) 86 days
29 E 30 B 31 C 32 C
112 Preventing and Social Medicine Buster
13 Mental Health
1. Which one of the following is an example of minor mental illness? (PAR/598)(UPSC/2001)
(a) Schizophrenia (b) Paranoia (c) Manic depressive illness (d) Psychoneurosis
2. The incidence of mental illness is the maximum if the casual factors affect a particular period of life. The
vulnerable period is: (PAR/ 599) (UPSC 98)
(a) Perinatal period (b) First five years of life (c) School age (d) Adolescence
1 B 2 B
Mental Health 113
• Recessive sex linked traits Agammaglobulinemia, Burton’s type
Colour blindness
Duchenne type of muscular dystrophy
G6PD deficiency
Haemophilia type A and B
Hydrocephalus
Retinitis pigmentosa
• Dominant X-linked traits Blood group Xg
Familial hypophosphatemia
Vitamin D resistant rickets
114 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
1 B 2 A 3 A 4 B 5 A 6 C 7 C 8 A 9 C 10 B 11 C 12 A 13 C
14 B 15 C
Health Information and Basic Medical Statistics 115
16. Consider the following measures: ( PAR/609)(UPSC/01)
(I) Prospective genetic counselling (II) Prevention of consanguinous marriages
(III) Avoidance of teratogenic drugs (IV) Avoiding late marriage
The measures which fit in with the primary level prevention of genetic disorders include:
(a) I and IV only (b) II and IV only (c) I,II and IV (d) I,II and III
17. In a community the correlation between infant mortality rate and socioeconomic status is:
(a) r = +1 (strong positive correlation) (b) r = 1 (strong negative correlation) (PAR/617) (AIIMS/NOV/01)
(c) r = 0.8 (moderately negative correlation) (d) r = 2.2 ( strong positive correlation)
18. Best graph for demonstration of relationship between ages and weight: (PAR/-609) (ALL INDIA/02)
(a) Bar Diagram (b) Histogram (c) Scatter (d) Primordial protection
19. Age and Sex distribution is best represented by: (PAR/609) (DNB 2001)
(a) Histogram (b) Pie chart (c) Bar diagram (d) Sketch of photos
20. Quantitative data can be best represented by: (PAR/610) (PGI 80, AMC 83, 87)
(a) Pie chart (b) Pictogram (c) Histogram (d) Bar diagram
21. Percentage of data can be shown in: (PAR/610) (PGI 79, DELHI 87)
(a) Graph presentation (b) Pie chart (c) Bar diagram (d) Histogram
22. The average birth weights in a hospital are to be demonstrated by statistical representation. This is best done
by: (PAR/610)(AIIMS/95)
(a) Histogram (b) Bar diagram (c) Pie chart (d) Frequency chart
23. In a random sample taken for a population the median is higher: (PAR/611) (AI 97)
(a) 25 (b) 50 (c) 67 (d) 100
Scatter Diagram- Represents the relation between to variables by dots along a straight line. When
there is clustering along.
• The straight line it depicts the linear relationship between the variables.
Statistical Averages
• Arithmetic mean—Calculated by adding the values and dividing the sum by the number of values.
• It is the most useful of the statistical averages.
• Median—It is more representative than the mean but does not depend upon the total number of items.
Data is first to be arranged in ascending or descending order and average is taken of two middle values.
• Mode—Most commonly recurring value in any observation is made.
24. Determination of which statistical parameter requires quantities to be arranged in an ascending or descending
order is:
(a) Mean (b) Median (c) Mode (d) SD (PAR/611) (AIIMS )
25. In a population of 100 females in the age group 15-45 the mean systolic BP was found to be 120. In a normal
curve distribution. The number of people who would be havenge a BP above 120 would be:
(a) 25 (b) 50 (c) 75 (d) 100 (PAR/611) (AIIMS/NOV/01)
26. The two important values necessary for describing the frequency distribution of a series of observations are:
(PAR/611)(UPSC/2001)
(a) Mean and standard deviation (b) Mean and range (c) Median and range (d) Median and standard
deviation
27. Arrangement of values in a serial order is to determine: (PAR/611) (AIIMS 94)
(a) Mean (b) Mode (c) Median (d) Range
16 C 17 C 18 A 19 A 20 C 21 B 22 A 23 B 24 B 25 B 26 A 27 C
116 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
28 B 29 B 30 A 31 C 32 B 33 B 34 C 35 A 36 A 37 C 38 A 39 C 40 C
41 D 42 B 43 C 44 B 45 C 46 A 47 A 48 A 49 A
Health Information and Basic Medical Statistics 117
50. Which is false about normal distribution curve: (PAR/613) (AI/2000)
(a) In a normal curve 95% of values is within 1 SD (b) Mean, mode and median coincide (c) Median is
midvalue (d) Mode is commonest occurring value
51. Shape of a normal curve is: (PAR/613) (ASSAM 95)
(a) Symmetrical (b) Curvilinear (c) Linear (d) Parabolic
52. The area under a normal distribution curve for S.D. of 2 is: (PAR/613) (AI 93)
(a) 68% (b) 95% (c) 97.5% (d) 100%
53. In a standard normal curve the area between one standard deviation on either side will be:
(a) 68% (b) 85% (c) 99.7% (d) None of the above (PAR/613) (AIIMS 92)
54. Normal distribution curve depends on: (PAR/613) (AI 90)
(a) Mean and sample (b) Mean and median (c) Median and standard deviation (d) Mean and standard deviation
55. True about Normal distribution curve is: (PAR/613) (AIIMS/99)
(a) Mean zero, stand deviation 1 (b) Mean one, stand deviation zero (c) Left skew deviation (d) Rt.skew
deviation
56. In skewed distribution central tendency is most disturbed: (PAR/613) (UP 94)
(a) Mode (b) Median (c) Standard deviation (d) 97.5% limit
STANDARD NORMAL CURVE - A Perfectly symmetrical smooth bell shaped curve whose mean
is zero and standard deviation is 1. In this curve all three values of mean, mode and median
57. Which is false about normal distribution curve: (PAR/613) (AI/2000)
(a) In a normal curve 95% of values is within 1 SD (b) Mean, mode and median coincide (c) Median is
midvalue (d) Mode is commonest occurring value
58. A normal distribution curve is determined by: (PAR/613) (AI 90)
(a) Mean and sample size (b) Range and sample size (c) Mean and standard deviation (d) Mean and
range
59. Right sided skewed deviation causes: (PAR/613)(II-NMS) (AI 98)
(a) Median is more than mean (b) S.D. more than variance (c) “Tail” to the left (d) Not affected at all
60. In a normal distribution curve, the true statement is: (PAR/613)(AIIMS/MAY/01)
(a) Mean = SD (b) Median = SD (c) Mean = 2 Median (d) Mean = Mode
61. If the mean is 230 and the standard error is 10, the 95% confidence limits would be: (PAR/614) (AI 89)
(a) 210 to 250 (b) 220 to 240 (c) 225-235 (d) 230 + or -2/10
62. Significant P value is: (PAR/614) (JIPMER 91)
(a) 0.005 (b) 0.05 (c) 0.01 (d) 0.1
63. The number of degree of freedom in a table of (4 × 4) is: (PAR/614) (AI 95)
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 16
64. “Confidence limits” are: (PAR/614t) (AI 97)
(a) Mean + Standard error (b) Median standard error (c) Mean + Range (d) Mean standard deviations
65. Standard error is a measure of: (PAR/614) (JIPMER 93)
(a) Instrumental error (b) Sampling error (c) Observer error (d) Conceptual error
66. In a village study it divides in 5 lines and then atrandoms choose some group. The type of study is:
(PAR/614) (AIIMS 96, AI 98)
(a) Simple stratified (b) Simple random (c) Cluster sampling (d) Systemic random
67. Sum of all squares of deviation from the mean is called: (PAR/614) (AIIMS 93)
(a) Mean (b) Mode (c) Variance (d) Std. error
68. Simple randomization is: (PAR/614)(AIIMS/MAY/01)
(a) Every person has an equal and known chance of selection (b) Less number of samples are obtained
(c) Also called as systematic randomisation (d) Groups are not equally distributed.
69. Limits of confidence of a hypothesis is determined by: (PAR/614)(AIIMS 98)
(a) Power factor (b) Level of significance (c) 1-power factor (d) 1-level of significance
70. In simple random sampling: (PAR/614) (AIIMS 98)
(a) Each person has a known and equal chance of being selected (b) No consecutive members are selected
(c) Error most frequent (d) Adjacent samples should not be chosen
50 A 51 A 52 B 53 A 54 D 55 A 56 A 57 A 58 C 59 C 60 D 61 A 62 B
63 C 64 A 65 B 66 B 67 C 68 C 69 B 70 A
118 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
71. The cluster sampling technique used for evaluating Universal Immunisation Programme coverage is:
(PAR/614) (AIIMS 92)
(a) 30 clusters of 5 children (b) 20 clusters of 5 children (c) 30 clusters of 10 children
(d) 30 clusters of 7 children
72. Which is true of cluster sampling: (PAR/614) (AIIMS 92)
(a) Every month case is chosen for study (b) A natural group is taken as sampling unit (c) Stratification
of population (d) Involves use of random numbers
73. 95% confidence limit of a population study denotes: (PAR/614)(AIIMS 99)
(a) 95% values are within the confidence limit (b) 1.96 times (+/-) of standard error of means (c) Mean
is more than median (d) Population under study is small
74. In a community of 3000 people, 80% are Hindus, 10% Muslims, 5% Sikh, 4% Christians and 1% Jains. To select
a sample of 300 people to analyse food habits, ideal sample would be: (PAR/614) (MANIPAL/98)
(a) Sample random (b) Stratified random (c) Systematic random (d) Inverse sampling
75. Mean of 25 variables is 2, Std. deviation is 2, Std. error of mean is: (PAR /615) (AIIMS 92)
(a) 0.4 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.0 (d) 10
76. Square root of pq/n indicates: (PAR/615) (AI 93)
(a) Standard error of means (b) Standard error of difference in means (c) Standard error of proportions
(d) Standard error of difference in proportions
77. Cholesterol values are obtained in group of people after giving some drug. This is a type of:
(a) Paired t test (b) Unpaired t-test (c) Fiescher's test (d) Chi square test (PAR/615) (ALL INDIA/02)
78. Calculate the standard error for a population size of 25 persons suffering from fever of history of 8 days and with
standard deviation 2: (PAR/615)(AIIMS/2K)
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.5 (d) 1.6
79. In a population of 100 females the mean hemoglobin concentration was 10 and the standard deviation was I.
The standard error is: (PAR/615) (AIIMS/NOV/01)
(a) 0.01 (b) 0.1 (c) 0.001 (d) 10
80. In a group of 100 children, the weight of a child is 15 kg. The standard error is 1.5 kg. Which one of the following
is true: (PAR/615)(AIIMS/MAY/01)
(a) 95% of all children weight between 12 and 18 kg (b) 95% of all children weight between 13.5 and
16.5 kg (c) 99% of all children weight between 12 and 18 kg (d) 99% of all children weight between
13.5 and 16.5 kg
81. The following statistic is used to measure the linear association between two characteristics in the same
individuals: (PAR/616) (KARNAT 96)
(a) Coefficient of variation (b) Coefficient of correlation (c) Chi-square (d) Standard error
82. Which of the following tests of significance can be used to compare unrelated variables when values are all binary:
(PAR/616) (PGI/2000)
(a) t-test (b) Chi-square test (c) Proportion test (d) Correlation test (e) Regression test
71 D 72 D 73 A 74 B 75 A 76 C 77 A 78 A 79 B 80 A 81 B 82 A 83 B
84 C
Health Information and Basic Medical Statistics 119
85. Regarding paired t-test true is: (PAR 616) (AIIMS 98)
(a) Hypertension in a person before and after treatment can be studied (b) Continuous variable in a single
sample (c) Different variable in a single simple (d) All of the above
86. “Fixed virus” of rabies has following features except: (PAR/616) (AIIMS 97)
(a) Short incubation period (b) Neurotropic (c) Used for preparation of rabies vaccine (d) Pathogenic
87. Complete correlation between height and weight is best given by: (PAR /616) (AIIMS/2K)
(a) –1 (b) 0 (c) +1 (d) Infinity
88. Which of the following is a pre-requisite for the Chi-square test to compare: (PAR/616)(AIIMS/2K)
(a) Both samples should be mutually exclusive (b) Both samples need not be mutually exclusive (c) Normal
distribution (d) All of the above
89. The chi-square test is used to measure the degree of: (PAR/616) (AI/03)
(a) Causal relationship between exposure and effect (b) Association between two variables
(c) Correlation between two variables (d) Agreement between two observations
90. In a drug trial one group showed 40% response and the group with the test drug showed 60% response. The two
results can be statistically compared for significance by: (PAR/616)(AIIMS/NOV/01)
(a) Chi-square test (b) Paired t-test (c) t-test with different measure (d) Fleischer test
91. An Investigator was to study the association between maternal in take of iron supplements (yes or no) and birth
weights (in gms) of newborn babies. He collects relevant data from 100 pregnant woman and their newborns. what
statistical test of investigator in this situation? (PAR/616)(AIIMS/02)
(a) Chi-square test (b) Unpaired or independent t-test (c) Analysis of variance (d) Paired t-test
92. BP samples from two community are best compared by: (PAR/ 616)(AI/2001)
(a) Paired t-test (b) Student’s test (c) Chi-square test (d) Cohort study
93. Coefficient of variation between height and weight is 2.6, it signifies that: (PAR/617)(AI/2001)
(a) Relationship is present between two (b) There is no relation b/w the two (c) Coefficient has been calculated
in wrong way (d) None of the above
85 A 86 B 87 C 88 C 89 B 90 A 91 B 92 A 93 C
120 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
15 Communication for
Health Education
1. The type of discussion where a group of 6-8 qualified experts discuss a topic in front of an audience is called:
(a) Group discussion (b) Symposium (c) Workshop (d) Panel discussion (PAR/619) (AIIMS 96)
2. Which of the following is not a 2-way communication: (PAR/619) (AI 88)
(a) Lectures (b) Group discussion (c) Panel discussion (d) Symposium
3. To increase awareness of rural population towards small family norm, the best method is:
(PAR/619) (AIIMS 85, ESI 80, 88, 90)
(a) Film show (b) Charts exhibits, etc. (c) Role playing (d) Television
4. Which of the following is Socratic method of teaching? (PAR/620)(UPSC/2K)
(a) Lecture (b) Film (c) Exhibition (d) Panel discussion
5. Health education is: (PAR/621)(AI 96)
(a) Health promotion (b) Health distortion (c) Through public health (d) Does not prevent
to cancer
6. Health education of community the most important step is: (PAR/622) (AI 96, 98)
(a) Contact to Doctors (b) Community discussion (c) Announces to community by loudspeaker (d) Knowing
of local needs
7. Following are used in planning of health education except: (PAR/623) (AI 93)
(a) Cover felt needs (b) Using simple words (c) Catchy slogans (d) Ensuring participation
8. WHO constitution was made in: (PAR/624) (PGI 79, ESI 89, 90)
(a) 1947 (b) 1950 (c) 1952 (d) 1956
1 D 2 A 3 C 4 D 5 A 6 D 7 C 8 A 9 D 10 A 11 C
Communication for Health Education 121
12. In health education programme, a group of 10 people are speaking on a topic of common interest called as:
(a) Workshop (b) Panel discussion (c) Group discussion (d) Symposium (PAR/628) (UP 93)
13. The following statements are true for group discussion, except: (PAR/628) (AI 91)
(a) It is a two-way communication (b) An effective group is composed of 6-20 people (c) The leader initiates
and guides the discussion (d) Each member prepares a topic for a speech
14. Not a feature of mass media education: (PAR/629) (AI 98, 96)
(a) Deals with local problem of community (b) Easily understandable (c) Wide approachable (d) Rapid
and controlled
15. Examples of “Two-way” communication are A/E: (PAR/629) (UP/97)
(a) Life expectancy at birth to be 64 years (b) Preschool child mortality (1-5 years) to be 5 (c) Infant mortality
rate 60/1000 live births (d) Family size to be 2.3
12 C 13 D 14 A 15 B
122 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
1. Time taken for any project is estimated by: (PAR/634) (JIPMER 91)
(a) Work sampling (b) Input-output analysis (c) Network analysis (d) System analysis
2. In the critical path method of network analysis, the critical path is the: (PAR/634) (UPSC 98)
(a) Shortest (b) Longest (c) Cheapest (d) Costliest
3. Finding the most cost-effective way doing a project: (PAR/634) (DNB 2001)
(a) Network analysis (b) System analysis (c) Cost analysis (d) Field analysis
4. The government of India has announced the National Health Policy in which year? (PAR635) (KARN 94)
(a) 1951 (b) 1977 (c) 1982 (d) 1991
5. All of the following are the targets laid down in the National Health Policy except: (PAR/635)(AI 88)
(a) Life expectancy at birth to be 64 years (b) Preschool child mortality (1-5 years) to be 5 (c) Infant mortality
rate 60/1000 live births (d) Family size to be 2.3
6. Currently health sector looks after all except: (PAR/635) (AIIMS 98)
(a) Health education (b) Prevention of communicable diseases (c) Water supply and sanitation (d) Family
planning
7. National health policy is concerned with: (PAR/635) (AI 95)
(a) Immunization (b) Health education (c) Water supply (d) All of the above
8. Consider the following goals: (PAR/635) (UPSC/01)
i. Birth rate 21 per 1000 population ii. Death rate 9 per 1000 population iii. IMR 40 per 1000 live births
iv. Couple protection rate 50%. The goals set by National Health Policy to be achieved by AD 2005 include
(a) i and ii only (b) iii and iv only (c) i,ii and iv (d) i,iii and iv
9. The Bhore committee recommended setting up health centres for a population of: (PAR/636) (TN 89)
(a) 20,000 (b) 30,000 (c) 40,000 (d) 75,000
10. The Bhore committee was set up in: (PAR/636) (AP 94)
(a) 1943 (b) 1946 (c) 1947 (d) 1952
1 C 2 B 3 C 4 C 5 B 6 A 7 D 8 A 9 C 10 A
Health Planning and Management 123
11. PHC was introduced as a result of...report: (PAR/636) (JIPMER 90)
(a) Bhore committee (b) Kartar Singh (c) Mudaliar (d) Planning commission
12. All are true about Mudaliar committee except: (PAR/636) (AI 91)
(a) To improve the quality of health care (b) Strengthening of district hospital (c) Consolidation of advances
made in the first two five-year plan (d) Each primary centre covers a population 80,000
13. The following were recommended by the Mudaliar Committee except: (PAR/636) (AI 91)
(a) Strengthening of the district hospital with specialist services (b) Each primary health centre to serve 8000
population (c) Constitution of All India Health Services (d) Integration of medical and health services
14. Match List I (Health Planning Committees) with List II (Main Recommendations / Important Results) and select
the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: (PAR/636) (UPSC/02)
List I List II
A: Shrivastava Committee 1. Malaria workers to look after FP work also.
B: Chadah Committee 2. Integration of services from the highest to the lowest level.
C: Kartar Singh Committee 3. Led to creation of health guides.
D: Jungal Wallah Committee 4. Led to creation of multipurpose worker.
(a) A3, B4, C1, D2 (b) A3, B1, C4, D2 (c) A 2, B1, C4, D3 (d) A 2, B4, C1, D3
15. Recommendation of Shrivastava committee was: (PAR/637) (PGI 95)
(a) Abolition of private practice (b) Creation of multipurpose health workers (c) Creation of PHC (d) All of
the above
16. Panchayat Raj means: (PAR/641) (TN 95)
(a) Community health care centre (b) Local health care centre (c) Primary health care (d) Local self
rule government
17. The community development programme is meant: (PAR/642) (AIIMS 84)
(a) To bring about a special and economic change in village life through the effort of the villagers themselves
(b) To arrange welfare programmes for women and children (c) To improve agriculture product through better
manure and seeds (d) To plan development programme in a village high population of 60 and 80 thousand
11 A 12 D 13 B 14 A 15 B 16 D 17 A
124 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
1 C 2 C 3 D 4 C 5 C 6 A 7 C 8 C 9 A
Health Care of the Community 125
10. Goals for 2000 AD are all except: (PAR/651) (AIIMS 97)
(a) Perinatal mortality rate 30-35 (b) Crude death rate-9 (c) Crude birth rate-21 (d) Family size 4.3
11. Net reproduction rate by 2000 AD: (PAR/652)
(a) 1.0 to 1.2 (b) 1.5 to 2 (c) 2.5 to 3 (d) 3 to 5
12. The suggested norm of Doctor to Population is: (PAR655) (PAR/616)
(a) 1 per 3500 (b) 1 per 3000 (c) 1 per 4000 (d) 1 per 4500
13. Primary health care is a concept by: (PAR/656) (DELHI 85, UPSC 93)
(a) UNICEF and accepted by all countries (b) WHO and accepted by India (c) India and accepted by all
countries (d) World Health bodies and accepted by common wealth countries
14. The crude birth rate is to be brought down to...by 2000AD: (PAR/657) (AI 89)
(a) 20 (b) 21 (c) 22 (d) 25
15. A female multipurpose worker does not do: (PAR/659) (AI 89)
(a) Distribute condoms (b) Malaria surveillance (c) Birth death statistics (d) Immunisation
of mothers
10 D 11 A 12 A 13 B 14 B 15 B
126 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER Health Care of the Community 126
16. One subcentre should be for....Population: (PAR/657) (PAR/618) (UP 95)
(a) 3,000 (b) 4,000 (c) 5,000 (d) 10,000
17. The growth monitoring of a child at Anganwadi is meant for: (PAR/657) (KARN 95)
(a) Detection of healthy babies (b) Diagnosis of growth retardation (c) Providing appropriate nutritional
supplement (d) Estimation of nutritional problem
18. A trained dai caters for a population of: (PAR/657) (AIIMS 87) (PGI 83)
(a) 1000 (b) 2000 (c) 3000 (d) 4000
19. The community health guide performs all the following duties except: (PAR/657) (AI 90)
(a) Collects blood slides from fever cases (b) Provides ORS packets (c) Treats minor ailments
(d) Immunized children
20. About Anganwadi workers not true is: (PAR/657) (AI 92)
(a) Training for 4 months (b) Looks after 1000 households (c) Paid-200-250 Rs. per month
(d) Checkup health and woman 15-45 years of age
21. Subcentre in a hilly area caters to population of: (PAR/657)(AI/2001)
(a) 1000 (b) 2000 (c) 3000 (d) 5000
22. Female health workers do all thing except: (PAR/657) (AI 93)
(a) Registers births and deaths (b) Malaria survey (c) Registers pregnant female (d) Distribute
contraceptive
23. Which of the following sets of village level workers bridge the gap between the government agencies and the people
in health care delivery ? (PAR/657) (UPSC 98)
(a) Male health workers, female health workers (b) Village health guides, trained dais (c) Male health supervisor,
female health supervisor (d) Anganwadi workers, village agricultural workers
24. Anganwadi workers are under: (PAR/657) (PGI 80, AMC 90, 92)
(a) Ministry of health and family welfare (b) Ministry of labour (c) ICDS scheme (d) PHC
25. Which is not a duty of traditional birth attendants: (PAR/657) (AIIMS 91)
(a) Aseptic delivery (b) Health education (c) Injection of tetanus toxoid (d) Registration of births
26. A female multipurpose worker should be able to detect all of the following except: (PAR/657) (AIIMS 92)
(a) Anemia (b) Renal disease (c) Hydramnios (d) Malpresentation
27. All are gross root level workers except: (PAR/657)(AI 98)
(a) Anganwadi workers (b) Traditional birth attendants (c) Village health guides (d) Health assistants
28. National health policy, hilly and tribal area, subcentre for population: (PAR/657) (AIIMS 97)
(a) 3000 (b) 2000 (c) 5000 (d) 7000
29. Health guide is at level of: (PAR/657) (AI/2000)
(a) Village (b) Subcentre (c) PHC (d) CHC
30. Functions of Dai are all except: (PAR/657) (AIIHPH/98)
(a) TT injection (b) Delivery (c) Health education (d) Registration
31. In Hilly area, PHC control to population of: (PAR/658) (AI 99)
(a) 10,000 (b) 20,000 (c) 30,000 (d) 40,000
32. All of the following are function of a primary health center, except: (PAR/658) (UPSC/01)
(a) Reporting of births and deaths (b) Providing supplementary nutrition to children under 5 year of age (c) Training
local ‘DAIS’and Health Guides (d) Health education
33. A Community Health Centre: (PAR/658) (AI 89)
(a) Is controlled by the Panchayat (b) Covers a population of 1.20 lakhs (c) Has specialists on ophthalmology
and orthopaedics (d) Is responsible for training of community health volunteers
34. Community Health Centre: (PAR/658) (AI 91)
(a) Covers a population of approx. one lac (b) Has 60 beds and specialists in medicine, surgery, obst. gyane
and pediatrics (c) Has X-ray and laboratory facilities (d) Acts as a referral hospital for the community
development block
35. PHC can be differentiated from dispensory by: (PAR/658) (AI 99)
(a) Located in rural area (b) Headed by medical officer (c) Provides integrated health services (d) Provides
essential care
16 C 17 C 18 A 19 A 20 B 21 C 22 B 23 A 24 C 25 C 26 B 27 D 28 A
29 A 30 A 31 B 32 B 33 B 34 D 35 C
Health Care of the Community 127
36. Under the MCH programme, the female multipurpose worker perform, the following duties except:
(PAR/659) (AI 89)
(a) Makes at least 3 antenatal visits (b) Distributes tablets of iron and vitamin B12 (c) Gives two doses/
booster of Tetanus toxoid (d) Makes at least one postnatal visit
37. All of the following are duties of a female multipurpose worker except: (PAR/659) (AI 88)
(a) Registration of all pregnant women in her area (b) Distribution of conventional contraceptives
(c) Active surveillance for malaria (d) Maintain birth and death registers
38. Activities of TB Association of India include: (PAR/663) (PGI 80, AIIMS 85)
(a) Organising a TB seal campaign every year to raise funds (b) Training of doctors health visitors and social
workers (c) Promotion of health education (d) All of the above
39. One of the following is not a voluntary Health Agency: (PAR/663)(KERALA 2K)
(a) Family Planning Association of India (b) Indian Council for child welfare (c) Ford Foundation
(d) Rockfeller Foundation
36 C 37 C 38 D 39 C
128 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
18 International
Health
1. The WHO was set up in: (PAR/666) (AIIMS 81,PGI 84)
(a) 1929 (b) 1946 (c) 1948 (d) 1952
2. Alma Ata a conference was held in: (PAR/666) (KERALA 95)
(a) 1978 (b) 1956 (c) 1977 (d) 1948
3. World Health Organisation day is: (PAR/666) (UPSC 85,86)
(a) 7th April (b) 21st May (c) 2nd August (d) 31st December
4. Intermediate health agencies excluding WHO are: (PAR/668) (AMC 84, AIIMS 82)
(a) UNICEF (b) FOA (c) UNESCO (d) ILO
5. United Nations General Assembly established ‘UNICEF’ in the year: (PAR/668)(UPSC/03)
(a) 1946 (b) 1952 (c) 1958 (d) 1960
6. The headquarters of UNICEF is in: (PAR/669) (UPSC 87)
(a) Paris (b) Geneva (c) Rome (d) New York
7. The UNICEF was established in: (PAR/669) (AMC 84, 85, 89)
(a) 1929 (b) 1946 (c) 1948 (d) 1952
8. Headquarters of FAO is at: (PAR/669)(AI IHPH 2K)
(a) New York (b) Geneva (c) Rome (d) San Francisco
1 C 2 C 3 A 4 A 5 A 6 D 7 C 8 C
Self Assessment 129
19 Self Assessment
1 C 2 C 3 B 4 C 5 A 6 C 7 B 8 C 9 A 10 C 11 D 12 D 13 A
14 A
130 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
15 A 16 C 17 D 18 D 19 B 20 E 21 A 22 E 23 B 24 D 25 D 26 D 27 E
28 A 29 A 30 A 31 A 32 A 33 B 34 B 35 B 36 C
Self Assessment 131
37. Wrong about Mother and Child Health Programme is: (AIIMS 94)
(a) 100% immunization against six diseases by 2000 A.D. (b) Useful for children up to 12 years of age
(c) To decrease acute respiratory infections (d) To prevent against chronic diseases
38. Disease eradicated by 2000 A.D.: (AIIMS 94)
(a) Filaria (b) Malaria (c) Tetanus neonatorum (d) Typhoid
39. For studying the relation of hypertension as etiological agent of cardiovascular disease, study used is:
(a) Cohort (b) Longitudinal (c) Cross-section (d) Random sampling (AIIMS 94)
40. Low birth weight in hospital statistics is best shown by: (AIIMS 95)
(a) Histogram (b) Bar diagram (c) Pie chart (d) Frequency polygon
41. Smoking and lung cancer relationship in a case control study is determined by: (AIIMS 95)
(a) Odds ratio (b) Relative risk (c) Attributable risk (d) Risk reduction
42. Best case finding method in TB in a community is: (AIIMS 95)
(a) Sputum smear (b) CXR (c) Sputum culture (d) Mantoux test
43. Residual chlorine is detected by: (AIIMS 95)
(a) OT test (b) Horrock’s apparatus (c) Chorimetry (d) Chromatography
44. SC vaccine is: (AIIMS 95)
(a) Measles (b) BCG (c) DPT (d) Polio
45. Japanese emigrated to USA leading to increased incidence of CHD shows: (AIIMS 95)
(a) Adaptation of US lifestyle ↑ the risk (b) Adaptation of US lifestyle ↓ the risk (c) Genetic predisposition
(d) No relationship
46. Denominator in birth rate is: (AIIMS 95)
(a) Mid year population (b) Death rate (c) Women of child bearing age (d) Random population
47. Failure of contraceptive is determined by: (AIIMS 95)
(a) Pregnancy per 100 woman year (b) Live birth/100 woman year (c) Successful preg/100 woman year
(d) None of the above
48. Most common chemical in foams is: (AIIMS 95)
(a) Nonaxyol (b) Norestrol (c) Progesterone (d) Ethinstrol
49. All are indicators of faecal pollution except: (AIIMS 95)
(a) CI. botulinum (b) E. coli (c) CI. welchii (d) Str. faecalis
50. PQLI includes all except: (AI/2000)
(a) Life expectancy at age 1 (b) Literacy (c) Gross domestic product (d) IMR
51. Validity of screening test is determined by: (AIIMS 95)
(a) Predictive values of positive and negative tests (b) Sensitivity and specificity (c) Accuracy
(d) Replicitivity
52. If leprosy occurs in a virgin population incorrect is: (AIIMS 91)
(a) Children are involved (b) Mainly tuberculoid type (c) Spreads to every household (d) Rapid spread
53. True about Mantoux test is: (AI/2000)
(a) +ve test indicates both past and present infection (b) Indicates susceptibility (c) Active TB is +nt
(d) Immunized person
54. At 28 weeks gestation, weight of the fetus is: (ASSAM 95)
(a) 500 g (b) 1000 g (c) 1500 g (d) 2000 g
55. Which of the following is an organophosphate? (ASSAM 95)
(a) DDT (b) Aldrin (c) Dieldrin (d) Malathion
56. Which of the following organisms is not affected by normal chlorination: (ASSAM 95)
(a) E. histolytica trophozoite (b) Cysts of E. histolytica (c) Giardia (d) Shigella
57. The Malaria Eradication Programme of Govt. of India using insecticides aims to reduce the lifespan of mosquitoes
to less than: (DELHI 96)
(a) 1 day (b) 3 days (c) 6 days (d) 10 days
58. Infectious period for diphtheria is: (AIIMS 91)
(a) 7 days before infection and 7 days after infection (b) 7 days after infection (c) 2 weeks after infection
(d) 14-28 days from onset of disease
37 A 38 C 39 B 40 A 41 A 42 A 43 A 44 A 45 A 46 A 47 A 48 A 49 A
50 C 51 B 52 C 53 A 54 B 55 D 56 B 57 D 58 D
132 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
59 B 60 A 61 B 62 D 63 B 64 A 65 C 66 B 67 A 68 B 69 B 70 B 71 A
72 A 73 A 74 C 75 B 76 A 77 A 78 A
Self Assessment 133
79. Isolation is not needed for measles due to: (JIPMER 95)
(a) There are healthy carriers (b) Carriers are convalescents (c) The infectivity in diseased is low
(d) There are incubatory carriers
80. The best method of assessing the preventive measures in control of TB: (JIPMER 95)
(a) Presence of carriers (b) Presence of diseased persons (c) Presence of infection (d) Presence of suspect
cases
81. The infective agent of malarial parasite is: (KARN 94)
(a) Gametocyte (b) Schizonts (c) Irophozoites (d) Sporozoites
82. The machanism of multiplication of plague bacilli in rat flea is called: (KARN 94)
(a) Propagative (b) Cyclopropagative (c) Cyclodevelopmental (d) Only passive transmission
83. A baby fed on cow’s milk only, is likely to develop: (KARN 94)
(a) Beri Beri (b) Rickets (c) Night blindness (d) Scurvy
84. The risk of pregnancy in IUCD acceptors is highest in: (KARN 94)
(a) 1st year (b) 2nd year (c) 3rd year (d) 4th year
85. The most cost effective family planning method is: (KARN 94)
(a) Vasectomy (b) Tubectomy (c) Copper T (d) Oral pills
86. True regarding Chi-square Test is: (AIIMS/99)
(a) Null hypothesis is equal (b) Doesn't test the significance (c) Measures the significance of difference
between two proportion (d) Tests correlation and regression
87. Who can wear red cross emblem: (KERALA 94)
(a) Civilian doctors (b) Doctors in army medical service (c) Government doctors (d) Super specialists
88. A patient of tuberculosis was put on ATT for 5 months. Sputum examination is positive for AFB. The likely cause
is: (PAR/141) (AIIMS/99)
(a) Drug resistant (b) Drug default (c) Relapse of disease (d) Treatment failure
89. Screening test is not useful when: (KERALA 94)
(a) Incidence of the disease is high in the community (b) Incidence is low in the community (c) Early detection
leads to favourable outcome (d) The disease has a lead time
90. A woman diagnosed as an older cause of pulmonary, tuberculosis in breastfeeding 2 months of old child, she is
advised the following except: (AIIMS 86)
(a) Stop breastfeeding (b) Chemoprophylaxis of child (c) Continue chemotherapy (d) Dispose of the
sputum every day
91. A type II urban family welfare centre caters to population of: (AIIMS 86)
(a) 5,000-10,000 (b) 10,000-25,000 (c) 25,000-50,000 (d) 50,000 and above
92. The commonest cause of visual impairment and blindness is: (AIIMS 86)
(a) Trachoma (b) Malnutrition (c) Glaucoma (d) Cataract
93. The role of the community health guide in National Malaria Control Program is to: (AIIMS 86)
(a) Act as a passive agency (b) Provide only chloroquine to all fever cases (c) Act as an active surveillance
worker (d) Only report fever cases
94. The community health guide recognizes malnutrition in children using: (AI/2000) (AIIMS 86)
(a) Weight (b) Height (c) Mid arm circumference (d) Skin fold thickness
95. If a new drug is invented which prevents the mortality from a disease but does not affect a cure then which of
the following is true: (KERALA 94)
(a) Incidence will increase (b) Incidence will decrease (c) Prevalence will decrease (d) Prevalence will
increase
96. Iodine deficiency disorder have been reported from all union territories except: (AIIMS 86)
(a) Delhi (b) Chandigarh (c) Mizoram (d) Goa, Daman, Diu
97. In a country, socioeconomic progress is best indicated by: (JIPMER 81, DELHI 85)
(a) Gross net production (b) IMR (c) Annual per capita income of the family (d) Death rate
98. A prevalence rate for leprosy of 11-20/1000 population is in: (AIIMS 86)
(a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu + AP + Orissa (c) Karnataka (d) Maharashtra
99. The manner in which a disease behaves in a community is determined by: (AIIMS 80, AMU 86)
(a) Infectiousness of disease (b) Density of aggregation of population (c) Standard of hygiene (d) Size
of reservoir of infection (e) All of the above
79 D 80 C 81 D 82 A 83 D 84 A 85 A 86 C 87 B 88 D 89 B 90 A 91 C
92 D 93 C 94 C 95 D 96 D 97 C 98 B 99 E
134 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
100. Recommended adult prophylaxis for meningococcal infections is: (AIIMS 86)
(a) Rifampicin-600 mg twice daily for 2 days (b) Amoxycillin-4 g daily for 6 days (c) Oral penicillin-125
mg daily for 5 days (d) Chloramphenicol-2 g daily for 2 days
101. True about folic acid and vitamin B12 is all, except: (AIIMS/99)
(a) Both are required for DNA synthesis (b) Recommended daily allowances for Folic acid is 1000 mg
(c) Vegetarians have vitamin B12 deficit (d) Deficiency of both causes megaloblastic anaemia
102. Diazo reaction is useful for the diagnosis of: (ANA-277) (AIIMS 85)
(a) Typhoid fever between 5th to 14th days (b) Cholera (c) Typhoid fever in the 4th week (d) Meningococcal
meningitis (e) None of the above
103. True about propagated epidemics except: (AIIMS 98)
(a) Due to person to person transmission (b) Speed of spread depends upon herd immunity (c) No secondary
peaks (d) More the attack rate more peoples are affected
104. Serial interval is: (AIIMS/99)
(a) Gap between primary and secondary cases (b) Gap between maximum and minimum incubation period
(c) Difference between sensitivity and specificity (d) Indicates secondary attack rate
105. Following statement is true regarding antigenic drift in influenza viruses except: (ANA/471) (AIIMS 94)
(a) It occurs once in 12-20 years (b) It is responsible for major epidemics (c) It is seen in influenza type C viruses
(d) It is due to mutation of selection to the group of viruses existing in community
106. All are true regarding malaria, except: (AIIMS/99)
(a) Infant parasite rate is a poor indicator of malaria occurrence in a community (b) API is used for operational
approach (c) Spleen rate is an important indicator of transmission (d) Usually caused by Plasmodium vivex
107. Free medical service at Government expenditure is called: (JIPMER 81, UPSC 85, 86)
(a) Socialized medicine (b) Primary health care (c) Comprehensive health care (d) Preventive
medicine
108. In a normal distribution with mean 55 and standard deviation 10, the area to the right of the 55 is:
(a) 0.6 (b) 0.8 (c) 0.3 (d) 0.9 (AIIMS 94)
109. When the variables are non-measurable,which of the following is used to be represented? (AIIMS 94)
(a) Variation (b) Ratio (c) Nominal (d) Ordinal
110. Which of the following is not a coefficient of primary health care: (AIIMS 94) (UP/2K)
(a) Adequate nutrition (b) Adequate housing (c) Safe water supply (d) Provision of essential drugs
111. Which of the following is not included in ‘five cleans’ of Child Survival of Safe Motherhood Program:
(a) Clean cord (b) Clean tie (c) Clean room (d) Clean perinium (AIIMS 94)
112. Which one of the following is best indicator for health status of community: (AIIMS 94)
(a) Infant mortality rate (b) Stillbirth rate (c) Crude death rate (d) Birth rate
113. Which of the following indicator takes mortality in account: (AIIMS 94)
(a) Gross reproduction rate (b) Net reproduction rate (c) Total fertility rate (d) General fertility rate
114. Which one of the following is the principal problem in cohort: (AIIMS 94)
(a) Selection bias (b) Lack of follow up (c) Difficulty coming back to original study (d) None of the
above
115. Most common cancer reported in India is: (AIIMS 94)
(a) Ca cervix (b) Ca lung (c) Ca breast (d) Ca oral cavity
116. What percentage of Abate is used in Guinea worm eradication programme: (AIIMS 94)
(a) 1% (b) 2% (c) 4% (d) 6%
117. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for combined oral pills: (AIIMS 94)
(a) Diabetes mellitus (b) Hypertension (c) Previous history of thromboembolism (d) Heart disease
118. Which of the following doesn’t contain carotenes: (AIIMS 94) (AI/2000)
(a) Spinach (b) Pumpkin (c) Potato (d) Carrot
119. All are true regarding tetanus immunisation, except: (AIIMS/99)
(a) Five doses provide life long immunity (b) Three doses are given in primary immunisation (c) It prevents
the occurrence of tetanus (d) It is a killed vaccine
120. Which of the following disease is not liable for extended sickness benefit for 309 days: (AIIMS 94)
(a) Leprosy (b) Aplastic anaemia (c) Immature cataract with vision 6/60 or less (d) Diabetes
100 A 101 B 102 A 103 C 104 A 105 D 106 A 107 A 108 B 109 A 110 B 111 D 112 A
113 B 114 B 115 D 116 A 117 C 118 C 119 D 120 D
Self Assessment 135
121. A disease showing recurrence every 2-3 years shows: (AIIMS 91)
(a) Secular trend (b) Cyclical trend (c) Seasonal trend (d) None of above
122. The Applied Nutrition Programme is: (AIIMS 91)
(a) To promote production of utilization of protective food by education (b) Food intake (c) Food
supplementation (d) Food fortification
123. All of the following contain vitamin A except: (AIIMS 91)
(a) Coconut oil (b) Red palm oil (c) Sesame oil (d) Safflower oil
124. The WHO recommendation for folate in pregnancy is: (AIIMS 91)
(a) 500 μg (b) 300 μg (c) 100 μg (d) 50 μg
125. One of the following vaccine plays an important role in preventing childhood blindness: (AIIMS 98)
(a) Diphtheria (b) BCG (c) Measles (d) Rubella
126. Hepatis A virus is destroyed by all except: (AIIMS 91)
(a) Chlorine 1 ppm (b) Boiling at 1000 for 6 min (c) UV rays (d) Formalin 1:4000
127. Which is true about infectivity in whooping cough: (AIIMS 91)
(a) Patient is infectious 10 days before and after whoop (b) Patient is infectious for entire duration of illness
(c) Patient is infectious before onset of whoop (d) Patient is infectious 10 days before whoop
128. Which is true about infectivity in diphtheria: (AIIMS 91)
(a) Some patients are infectious for life long (b) Patients are infectious during 2-4 months of the illness
(c) Nasal carrier are most important (d) Has a long incubation period
129. The transmission chain in hydatid cyst involves all except: (AIIMS 91)
(a) Sheep (b) Dog (c) Cow (d) Swine
130. In India, death has to be registered within: (AI/99)
(a) 3 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 14 days
131. Most widely practised method of family planning by eligible couples in India is: (MANIPAL/98)
(a) IUCD (b) OC pill (c) Sterilization (d) Nirodh
132. Terms mild, moderate and severe are which type of variable: (AIIMS 91)
(a) Interval (b) Nominal (c) Ordinate (d) Ratio
133. The fact true about surveillance: (AIIMS 91)
(a) Carried out once (b) Carried out at repeated intervals (c) Help in assessment of community health
(d) Helps in modification of factors regarding desease
134. Which is not true of Anopheles mosquito: (AIIHPH/98)
(a) Eggs laid singly (b) Eggs are boat shaped (c) Larvae rest parallel to water surface (d) Larvae has
siphon tube
135. All are components of PQLI except: (AIIMS 91)
(a) MMR (b) IMR (c) Life expectancy at age one (d) Literacy
136 Incubation period of amoebiasis is: (AIIMS 80, DNB 91)
(a) 1-2 weeks (b) 2-3 weeks (c) 3-4 weeks (d) 4-6 weeks
137. Prevalence of blindness in India is: (AIIMS 91)
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.5 (c) 1.5 (d) 3.0
138. Wind velocity normally recorded at a height of: (AIIHPH/98)
(a) 1 mt (b) 10 mts (c) 15 mts (d) 20 mts
139. Following is a contact poison except: (AIIMS 90)
(a) BHC (b) Pyrethrum (c) Abate (d) Paris green
140. Incidence is 100/year duration of disease –2 years. In a population of 5000 what is the prevalence rate:
(a) 40/1000 (b) 20/1000 (c) 10/1000 (d) 80/1000 (AIIMS 90)
141. All are true about neurolathyrism except: (AIIMS 90)
(a) More in > 45 years (b) Toxin is BOAA (c) Caused by chronic ingestion of Lathyrus sativus
(d) Can be prevented by steeping method
142. All true about screening method except: (AIIMS 90)
(a) Cheap (b) Easy to do (c) Sensitive (d) Specific
143. Relative risk in a case study is: (AIIMS 90)
(a) a/a + b ÷ c/c + d (b) a/a + c + b/b + d (c) a/a + b + a/a + c (d) a + b + c + b
121 D 122 A 123 A 124 B 125 C 126 A 127 A 128 C 129 D 130 B 131 B 132 B 133 B
134 D 135 A 136 C 137 B 138 B 139 D 140 A 141 A 142 D 143 A
136 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
144. The disease which is known as “Father of public Health” is: (AMU 87)
(a) Smallpox (b) Rabies (c) Plague (d) Cholera
145. True about measles except: (AIIMS 90)
(a) Incubation period is 4-7 days (b) Live attenuated vaccine used (c) SAR is 80% (d) It is a RNA virus
146. Transplacental immunity is seen in all except: (AIIMS 90)
(a) Diphtheria (b) Pertussis (c) Polio (d) Measles
147. All are true except one for cohort study: (AIIMS 90)
(a) Both groups must be disease free (b) Similar except the factor under study (c) Both should be equally
susceptible to disease (d) The disease criteria can be defined later as the study progresses
148. In an epidemic of bacillary dysentery residual chlorine in ppm should be: (AIIMS 81, UPSC 90)
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.5 (c) 0.8 (d) 1.0
149. Organizations involved in world disease eradication: (DELHI 89, UPSC 87)
(a) UNICEF (b) NASCAR (c) WREP (d) FAO
150. Which one of the following sets of components of cigarette smoke is a casual agent of coronary artery
disease? (UPSC/99)
(a) Tar and nicotine (b) Nicotine and Carbon monoxide (c) Carbon monoxide and tar (d) Tar, nicotine
and carbon monoxide
151. If rubella occurs in 9-10 weeks of pregnancy what is the chance of transmission to the fetus- NH/1126:
(a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 30% (d) 50% (JIPMER/99)
152. Preventive diet for hypertension includes all except: (AIIMS 90)
(a) Cholesterol decreased by 20-30% (b) <50% calories from fat (c) Consumption of unsaturated fatty acids
(d) Cholesterol less than 75-100 gm/day
153. Regarding standard mortality rate: (AIIMS 90)
(a) Is observed deaths, expected deaths × 100 (b) Value>100 is favourable (c) Can be used for age specific
mortality (d) Any two populations may be compared
154. Most important (operational) index in malaria endemic areas is: (AIIMS 90)
(a) Spleen rate (b) API (c) Falciparum positivity rate (d) Mosquito density rate
155. True about diphtheria contacts A/E: (AIIMS 90)
(a) Give 1000 units of antitoxin (b) Keep isolation (c) Give 1000 units of antitoxin with active immunization
(d) Keep under observation
156. TAB vaccine is effective for: (AIIMS 89)
(a) 6 months (b) 1 year (c) 9 months (d) 3 years
157. To feel ‘comfortable and cool’ in a factory, the corrected effective temperature (in degree Farenheit) should be:
(UPSC/99)
(a) Less than 69 (b) Between 69 and 76 (c) Between 77 and 80 (d) Between 81 and 82
158. Incorrect statement about chlolera-vaccine is: (AIIMS 89)
(a) 50% effective (b) Not indicated in epidemics (c) Not indicated for contacts (d) Prevents cholera from
occurring
159. In School Health Committee, health examination is done every: (AIIMS 89)
(a) 6 months (b) 1 year (c) 2 years (d) 6 years (e) 4 years
160. The Pearl index indicates the number of accidental pregnancies per: (UPSC/99)
(a) 1000 population (b) 100 live births (c) 100 women in the age group of 15 to 44 years (d) 100 women
years
161. γ-globulins do not interact with immunity of: (AIIMS 89)
(a) Mumps (b) Measles (c) Rubella (d) Oral polio
162. Sperms immobility in cervical fluid is because of:
(a) Vaginal factor (b) Elevated progesterone levels (c) Abnormal sperms (d) None of the above
163. Control of reservoir for prevention of disease is done with: (AIIMS 89)
(a) Tetanus (b) Rabies (c) Influenza (d) Diphtheria
164. Mean incubation period of leprosy is calculated from: (AMC 86,87)
(a) Median (b) Harmonic mean (c) Mode (d) Geometric mean
165. Amenorrhoea and sterility may occur in woman as a result of occupational exposure to:
(a) Zinc (b) Mercury (c) Chromium (d) CO (e) Lead (JIPMER 80, AIIMS 83)
144 D 145 A 146 B 147 D 148 B 149 A 150 B 151 D 152 C 153 A 154 B 155 A 156 D
157 B 158 D 159 E 160 D 161 D 162 B 163 B 164 C 165 E
Self Assessment 137
166. Lowest incidence of trachoma is seen in: (JIPMER 86,UPSC 88)
(a) Punjab (b) Rajasthan (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Orissa
167. Commonly used vaccines include: (PGI 87)
(a) Human normal immunoglobulin (b) Antisnake venom (c) Antirabies vaccine (d) OPV
168. A total number of.... tablets of iron with folic acid is given a pregnant women by the health worker:
(a) 70 (b) 90 (c) 100 (d) 150 (e) 200 (AIIMS 86)
169. A person is obese if he is overweight by......% above the accepted standards (AIIMS84)
(a) 5% (b) 10% (c) 15% (d) 20%
170. Copper T is ideally inserted at....: (AIIMS 85)
(a) Just before menstruation (b) Menstruation (c) Just after menstruation (d) On the 14th day
171. Copper T 200 need to be replaced after: (AI 89)
(a) 1 year (b) 2 years (c) 3 years (d) 5 years
172. What is the definition of society: (AI 89)
(a) System of social relationship between individuals (b) Social relationship between families (c) Intervention
of individuals and people (d) Relationship of individual, family and the country
173. The percentage of women in the reproductive age group is: (AI 89)
(a) 15% (b) 22% (c) 30% (d) 40%
174. The most effective step in MCH is A/E: (AMC/99)
(a) Maternal health promotion (b) Child health promotion (c) School health promotion (d) Non-formal
education of the mother
175. Light requirement in which manufacturing company is: (AMC 85,86)
(a) 2000-3000 Lux (b) 5000-10000 Lux (c) 10000-20000 Lux (d) 50000 Lux
176 The best method of health instruction is: (AIIMS 84)
(a) Providing reading assignments (b) Giving lectures (c) Setting an example (d) Organising filmshow
177. The best teaching opportunity for a health worker is the community in while: (AIIMS 84)
(a) Giving health talk at home (b) Demonstrating to a group of mothers (c) Examining mothers and children
(d) Completing the records
178. Which vaccine need not be given to boys: (PGI 88)
(a) Mumps (b) German measles (c) Measles (d) Smallpox
179. The highest per capital income in India is in: (PGI 84)
(a) Kerala (b) Punjab (c) Haryana (d) Goa
180. The vitamin that is destroyed when mild is exposed to light: (KERALA 89)
(a) A (b) B2 (c) B6 (d) B12
181. The MTP Act was passed in: (DUT/184) (PGI 83)
(a) 1949 (b) 1962 (c) 1971 (d) 1974
182. A patient with headache, nausea, vomiting, fatigue, jaundice, hepatomegaly and oliguria, may have an occupa-
tional disease caused by: (PGI 80)
(a) H2S (b) Carbon tetrachloride (c) Benzol (d) Mercury (e) Lead
183. The Family Planning Programme started in: (AMU/91)
(a) 1947 (b) 1950 (c) 1952 (d) 1960
184. Low birth-weight babies are at a higher risk of dying in the first week of life due to: (UPSC/99)
(a) Congenital anomaly, birth injury and infections (b) Birth injury, convulsions and asphyxia (c) Convulsions,
congenital anomaly and hypothermia (d) Hypothermia, asphyxia and infections
185. As per nutritional surveys, the diet of an average Indian of lower socioeconomic strata is highly deficient in:
(a) Thiamin (b) Riboflavin (c) Nicotinic acid (d) Vitamin C (UPSC/99)
186. Which one of the following strategies is aimed at AIDS control in India? (UPSC/99)
(a) Detection and treatment of AIDS cases in the community (b) Detection and isolation of HIV infected persons
in the community (c) Immunoprophylaxis of the risk groups (d) Community education towards behavioural
change
187. The most common industrial disease of the employee population is: (AIIMS 84)
(a) Emphysema (b) Chronic bronchitis (c) Occupational dermatosis (d) Silicosis
166 D 167 D 168 C 169 B 170 C 171 C 172 A 173 B 174 C,D 175 A 176 C 177 B 178 B
179 C 180 B 181 C 182 B 183 C 184 A 185 A 186 D 187 B
138 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
188. A number of studies have shown that insecticide DDT when ingested by an animal, is more than likely to
concentrate in the: (PGI/89)
(a) Fatty tissue (b) Brain (c) Thyroid (d) Bones (e) Blood vessels and kidneys
189. A child is brought to the PHC with scabies which of the following is not advised: (KARN 93)
(a) Parenteral antibiotics (b) Treat other members of family (c) Child given bath and 3 applications of
Benzyl (d) Bed lines to be boiled
190. The peak period for social attachment in humans is of what age: (AIIMS 83)
(a) 7 months (b) 1 year (c) 18 months (d) 2 years (e) 3 years
191. The source of radiation that causes heat cataract is: (AIIMS 82)
(a) Ultraviolet radiation (b) Infrared radiation (c) Ionizing radiation (d) Radiofrequency waves
192. Elimination of reservoir is possible in: (TN/92)
(a) Measles (b) Rabies (c) Dracunculosis (d) Polio
193. In an area having annual parasite index of less than 2, the following is to be done: (JIPMER/97)
(a) Passive surveillance only (b) 2 rounds of DDT yearly (c) Entomological surveillance (d) All postitive
cases blood smear to be done monthly
194. Which one of the following represents ‘filaria endemicity rate’? (UPSC/99)
(a) Microfilaria rate (b) Filaria disease rate (c) Mosquito infestation rate (d) Combination of microfilaria
and disease rate
195. Health for all by 2000 AD is...: (PGI/89)
(a) Target (b) Objective (c) Goal (d) All of the above
196. Mini pill contains: (JIPMER 90)
(a) Only progesterone in small quantity (b) Progesterone and estrogen in small quantity (c) Estrogen in
small quantity and progestrone in large quantity (d) Neither progesterone nor estrogen
197. The MTP Act defines the following: (JIPMER 90)
(a) Who should do termination of pregnancy (b) Where it should be done (c) When it should be done
(d) All of the above
198. For International quarantine, India is important because of: (AIIMS 84)
(a) Cholera (b) Yellow fever (c) Plague (d) Relapsing fever
199. The headquarters of UNESCO is in: (UPSC/99)
(a) Geneva (b) Paris (c) New Delhi (d) New York
200. Most convalescing patients develop specific virus—neutralizing antibodies: (PGI 86)
(a) During 1st week of convalescence (b) In 2-4 weeks (c) After first month (d) Between 6-12 months
(d) Not at all
201. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not required in one of the following: (KERALA 91)
(a) Cardiac valve replacement (b) Rheumatic fever (c) Hip joint replacement (d) Endocardial pacemakers
202. The most effective vaccine is: (JIPMER 91)
(a) TT (b) OPV (c) BCC (d) MEASLES
203. A type of tertiary waste water treatment process is: (UPSC 83)
(a) Reverse osmosis (b) Sedimentation (c) Both (d) Neither
204. Number of doses of tetanus toxoid required to immunise all pregnant women in a population of 1000 with birth
rate of 30/1000 in one year is: (JIPMER 92)
(a) 40 (b) 60 (c) 270 (d) 300
205. Number of doses of measles vaccine required to immunise the target population in a town of 5000 with a birth
rate of 30/1000 and infant mortality rate of 100/1000 live birth assuming a wastage of 50% is: (JIPMER 92)
(a) 270 (b) 320 (c) 370 (d) 420
206. True statement regarding objectives of Sterilisation Beds Programme is: (AI 93)
(a) To have 2000 beds by 1987 (b) To provide Rs 1000/- per bed (c) To provide sterilisation facilities to hospitals
where they are not available (d) Voluntary agencies not included in the provision of facilities
207. The best method of teaching an urban slum about ORS is: (AI 93)
(a) Lecture (b) Role play (c) Demonstration (d) Flash cards
208. Blood transfusion is least likely to transmit: (UPSC 86, AIIMS 87)
(a) Toxoplasmosis (b) Syphilis (c) Non A non B hepatitis (d) Malignancy
188 A 189 A 190 A 191 B 192 B 193 D 194 D 195 C 196 A 197 D 198 A 199 A 200 B
201 C 202 A 203 A 204 B 205 A 206 C 207 C 208 D
Self Assessment 139
209. Main drawback of calculating incidence of disease using hospital records is: (JIPMER 93)
(a) Poor maintenance of records (b) Subclinical cases not admitted (c) Admission policy may differ
(d) Denominator not well-defined
210. Beatuex index is for: (ROTHAK/98)
(a) Aedes Aegyptii (b) Anopheles (c) Culex (d) Hookworm (e) Mansonoides
211. The total number of micro-organisms contained within of upon the surface of the item prior to it being disinjected
or sterilized is referred to as: (JIPMER 81, AIIMS 82)
(a) The bioload or bioburden (b) The microbiologic profile (c) Both (d) Neither
212. Ring vaccination in which is: (DELHI 93)
(a) Given by a ring shaped machine (b) Given to produced a ring shaped lesion (c) Given around 100 yards
of case detected (d) Given around a mile of a case detected
213. Two laboratory technicians from a district hospital were tested Australia antigen positive true about the further
steps is: (UPSC 93)
(a) Discard all the blood samples collected by them (b) Do not allow them to work in the laboratory
(c) Retest them for Australia antigen and antigen‘e’ after sometime (d) Nothing is required
214. CO2 content of air is measured by: (AIIMS 79, TN 93)
(a) Pattern Kopfer’s test (b) Horrock’s test (c) Both of these (d) None of these
215. MgO2 is added to polio vaccine because of the following: (UPSC 89, 92)
(a) Potentiates the vaccine (b) Vaccine can be kept at higher temperatures (c) Preservative (d) None
of the above
216. Following are both notifiable disease as well as disease under surveillance: (DNB 92)
(a) Epidemic typhus (b) Relapsing fever (c) Plague (d) Cholera
217. Government of India launched a National Plan of Action against avoidable Disablement known as “IMPACT
India” in: (AIIMS 80, UP 92)
(a) 1980 (b) 1983 (c) 1985 (d) 1987
218. Positive health indicators of nutritional status include except: (BHU 81, 85)
(a) Anthropometric measurements of preschool children (b) Height of school children at school entry
(c) Weight of antenatal mothers (d) Prevalence of low birth weight
219. Social mobility is: (UPSC 88, ESI 89)
(a) From rural to urban areas for work (b) Industrialization (c) Interaction between cultures (d) Movement
in socioeconomic strates
220. Malnutrition in India is mainly attributed to: (JIPMER 81, KERALA 90)
(a) Protein deficiency (b) Vitamin A deficiency (c) Iron deficiency (d) All of these
221. Rideal Walker coefficient or carbolic coefficient is used for: (PGI 87)
(a) Expressing efficiency of carbolic acid (b) Estimating the amount of carbolic acid required for disinfecting
faeces (c) Determining germicidal efficiency of a disinfectant in comparison to phenol (d) Estimating amount
of pure cresol in a crude phenol sample (e) None of the above
222. Best method of contraception in a commercial sex worker: (JIPMER 98)
(a) IUCD (b) OCP (c) Permanent sterilization (d) Barrier methods
223. Hardly-Weinberg law is related to: (JIPMER 98)
(a) Population genetics (b) Health economic (c) Social medicine (d) None of the above
224. World “No Tobacco” day is: (KERALA 97)
(a) May 31st (b) April 5th (c) December 11th (d) November 14th
225. Human suffering index in India is: (KERALA 97)
(a) 67 (b) 50 (c) 80 (d) 70
226. Active and passive immunity is given simultaneously for following except: (AIIMS 98)
(a) Hepatitis B (b) Tetanus (c) Measles (d) Rabies
227. DMF index relates to well being: (KERALA 97)
(a) Dental (b) Mental (c) Physical (d) None of the above
228. “No smoking day” is observed on: (KERALA 97)
(a) 7th April (b) 31st May (c) 23rd may (d) Jan 21st
209 D 210 A 211 A 212 C 213 C 214 A 215 B 216 D 217 B 218 C 219 D 220 D 221 C
222 D 223 A 224 A 225 D 226 C 227 B 228 B
140 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
229. Predictability of Mantoux test-4, Pre-test odds of a child=2. post test odds of Mantoux being positive:
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8 (AIIMS 98)
230. All are included in the nominal scale except: (MP 98)
(a) Colour of eye (b) Sex (c) Socioeconomic status (d) Occupation
231. Lung carcinoma and occupation true is all except: (AI 98)
(a) Increased risk (b) Takes long time to develop (c) It takes less time to develop as compare to general
population (d) It takes more time to develop as compare to general population
232. All are included in health sector policy in India except: (AI 98)
(a) Nutritional supplements (b) Medical education (c) Family welfare programme (d) Control of
communicable disease
233. In a case control study of “ZARDA PAN” associated with increase case of oral cancer, true is: (AIIMS 97)
(a) Zarda pan associated with increase incidence of oral cancer (b) Zarda pan causes oral cancer (c) Oral
cancer is cured if zarda pan is stopped (d) Association exists between oral carcinoma and zarda pan
234. An ineffective patient does not shed the infectious agent called: (AIIMS 97)
(a) Subclinical case (b) Latent infection (c) Convalescent carriers (d) Incubatory carriers
235. True about immunization is: (AI 99)
(a) BCG protects from HIV (b) Vaccination against diphtheria uses inactivated toxin (c) Vaccination against
polio uses inactivated toxin (d) Salk vaccine for polio is a live vaccine
236. In the context of epidemiology, a set of questions is constructed in such a manner that it takes into account all
the important epidemiological factors of a given disease. This is known as: (UPSC/99)
(a) Health model (b) Epidemiological triad (c) Epidemiological surveillance (d) Mathematical model
237. Retrospective analysis of data is known as: (AI 99)
(a) Professional screening (b) Medical audit (c) Medical evaluation (d) Performance evaluation
238. A young woman using SAHELI forgot to take the pills for 4 days. What next she should do: (AIIMS 99)
(a) Take 4 pills simultaneously (b) Start a new course (c) Take 2 pills just now and 2 pills after 12 hours
(d) Continue the course and her partner to use condom
239. In a clinical trial for antihypertensive drug, test used to analyse BP taken before and after drug:
(a) Paired t-test (b) Single t-test (c) f-test (d) Chi square test (AIIMS/2K)
240. First referral units in first district are: (AIIMS/2K)
(a) 1-3 (b) 4-6 (c) 7-9 (d) 10-12
241. The lack of linolenic acid may cause: (UPSC/2001)
(a) Loss of appetite (b) Loss of weight (c) Oedema (d) Raised serum cholesterol
242. According to WHO, all of the following diseases require surveillance except: (UPSC/2001)
(a) Chickenpox (b) Yellow fever (c) Malaria (d) Rabies
243. If in a community a high proportion of newborn babies suffers from methaemoglobinaemia, then which one of
the following inferences would be most relevant? (UPSC/2001)
(a) The community is exposed to industrial smoke (b) The local water supply is very rich in nitrites
(c) The babies are suffering from the effects of mercury poisoning (d) The haemoglobin of the babies’ blood
is in a very reduced state
244. The air-quality standards proposed by the ‘Indian Central Pollution Control Board’ are based on limits of
concentrations of: (PAR/2001)
(a) Suspended particulate matter and sulphur dioxide (b) Suspended particulate matter, sulphur dioxide and oxides
of nitrogen (c) Suspended particulate matter, sulphur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen and oxidants (d) Suspended
particulate matter, sulphur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen and carbon monoxide
245. Beer consumption is associated with: (AI IHPH 2K)
(a) Carcinoma cervix (b) Carcinoma liver (c) Carcinoma rectum (d) Carcinoma colon
246. Daily per capita water consumption is: (AI IHPH 2K)
(a) 50-100 litres (b) 100-150 litres (c) 150-200 litres (d) 200-250 litres
247. First 5-year-plan in India started at: (BURDWAN 2K)
(a) 1950 (b) 1951 (c) 1952 (d) 1953
248. The number of doses of vitamin A to be given to children aged 6 months to 6 years for prophylaxis against vitamin
A deficiency: (KARNAT 99)
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 9
229 B 230 C 231 D 232 A 233 D 234 B 235 B 236 C 237 A 238 D 239 A 240 A 241 C
242 A 243 B 244 C 245 C 246 C 247 B 248 B
Self Assessment 141
249. Screening in children has been proved cost-effective for all of the following conditions, except: (ORISSA 99)
(a) Tuberculosis (b) Vision impairment (c) Hypertension (d) Vitamin A deficiency
250. A non-symmetrical frequency distribution is known as: (ORISSA 99)
(a) Normal distribution (b) Skewed distribution (c) Cumulative frequency distribution (d) None of the
above
251. An important measure of the communicability of a disease is: (UPSC/2K)
(a) Case fatality rate (b) Disease specific mortality rate (c) Infection rate (d) Secondary attack rate
252. A total of 3500 patients with thyroid cancer are identified and surveyed by patient interviews with reference to
past exposure to radiation. The study design most appropriately illustrates: (UPSC/2K)
(a) Case series report (b) Case control study (c) Case report (d) Clinical trial
253. Bias is unlikely to invalidate cohort studies used to assess risk of exposure because: (UPSC/2K)
(a) Data collection is prospective (b) Large number of subjects is usually included (c) Exposure is usually
determined prior to disease occurrence (d) Actual relative risk can be determined
254. Classification of grades of protein energy malnutrition given by Indian Academy of Paediatrics has
adopted: (UPSC/2K)
(a) ICMR standards (b) Standards developed by National Institute of Nutrition, Hyderabad (c) Local
standards (d) NCHS standards
255. The peripheral workers in a primary health centre return one day late; after an immunisation session. The
primary health centre is locked. The vaccine carrier still contains a few unopened vials of DPT vaccine and
sufficient ice. The workers are to: (UPSC/2K)
(a) Return the vaccine vials to the refrigerator in the morning of the next day (b) Get the health centre opened
the same evening and keep the vaccine vials in the refrigerator (c) Discard the vaccine vials (d) Retain
the vaccine in the ice box
256. In a population of 10,000, beta carotene was given to 6000; not given to the remainder. 3 out of the first group
got lung cancer; 2 out of the other 4000 also got lung cancer; conclusion is that: (AI/2001)
(a) Beta carotene and lung cancer have no relation to one another (b) The P value is not significant
(c) The study is not designed properly (d) Beta carotene is associated with lung cancer
257. Of 11 births, 5 babies weighed over 2.5 kg and 4 weighed less than 2.5 kg. What value does 2.5 represent:
(a) Geometric average (b) Arithmetic average (c) Median average (d) Mode (PAR/611)
258. ELISA is performed on a population of low prevalence. What would be the result of performing double screening
ELISA tests? (AI/2001)
(a) Increased sensitivity and positive predictive value (b) Increased sensitivity and negative predictive value
(c) Increased specificity and positive predictive value (d) Increased specificity and negative predictive value
259. A man weighs 68 kg, consumes 325 gm carbohydrate, 65 gm protein, 35 gms fat: applicable statement
is: (AI/2001)
(a) His total calorie intake is 3000 (b) He has a equal proportion of fat/carbo/protein as with balanced diet
(c) He has a negative nitrogen balance (d) He is consuming 30% of diet as fat
260. Disease not to be screened for in workers to be employed in a dye industry in Gujarat? (AI/2001)
(a) Anemia (b) Bronchial asthma (c) Bladder cancer (d) Precancerous skin lesion
261. Value of P indicates: (GAN/694)
(a) Acceptability of null hypothesis (b) Rejection of null hypothesis (c) Probability, that the difference
b/w two means is due to chance variation (d) None of the above
262. Current level of sputum positive cases in the community per 1000 cases of pulmonary tuberculosis is:
(a) 20 (b) 50 (c) 60 (d) 110 (PAR/140) (AIIMS 2000)
263. In a correlation test the assiciation followed the equation a+ bx. This equation would most likely show:
(AIIMS/NOV/01)
(a) Linear association (b) Sigmoid association (c) Parabolic association (d) No association
264. In a test where cholesterol levels were compared between two groups of obese (n =20) and nonobese (n= 15)
subjects, the test which can best give the statistical significance of cholesterol association is: (AIIMS/NOV/01)
(a) Chi square test (b) Paired t test (c) t test with different measure (d) Fischer’s test
265. The denominator for calculation of crude birth rate for population is taken as is found on: (AIIMS/NOV/01)
(a) 1st March (b) 1st November (c) 1st July (d) 1st January
266. Post exposure prophylaxis is not given for: (AIIMS/NOV/01)
(a) Measles (b) Pertussis (c) Rabies (d) HBV
249 A 250 B 251 D 252 B 253 C 254 A 255 D 256 A 257 C 258 C 259 B 260 B 261 C
262 A 263 A 264 B 265 C 266 B
142 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
Directions: The following questions consist of two statements, one labelled the 'Assertion A' and the other
labelled the 'Reason R'.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the assertion A and the Reason R are
individually true and if so,whether the reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to
these items using the codes given below and mark your answer-sheet accordingly.
Codes:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A
c. A is true and R is false
d. A is false but R is true
267. A-Glucose is an important component of oral rehydration solution (WHO): (UPSC/01)
R- Glucose provides caslories for the child rendered weak by diarrhoea:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
268. A-Pulse polio immunization requires all children being administered OPV at the same time (UPSC/01)
R-It is easier to cover all the children at one point of time:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
269. A-Guinea worm disease has been eradicated from India: (UPSC/01)
R- Last case of Guinea worm diseae was reported from Rajasthan in July, 1996:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
270. A-Iron-deficiency anaemia is more common in prolonged cow’s milk fed babies: (UPSC/01)
R- Cow’s milk has high phyutates impairing absorption of iron:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
271. A-While breastfeeding her child, a mother requires 150 gm of green leafy vegetables per day: (UPSC/01)
R-Lactation requires 500 to 1000 calores extra per day as compared to a non-pregnant adult female
(a) (b) (c) (d)
272. A-Only the male offsprings of the haemophiliac father suffer from the disease: (UPSC/01)
R-Haemophilia is an X-linked dominant disease:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
273. A-Urine examination for sugar is not considered an appropriate tool for screening diabetes mellitus (UPSC/01)
R-Urine examination for sugar lacks sensitivity and there will be many false negatives:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
274. Match List I (diseases) with List II (Toxins) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
(UPSC/01)
List I List II
1. Epidemic dropsy: i. Aphlatoxins
2. Neurolathyrism: ii. Pyrrolizidine alkaloid
3. Hepatic carcinoma: iii. Sanguinarine
4. Endemic ascities iv. Beta-oxalyl-amino-alanine
(a) 1 (iii), 2(iv), 3(ii), 4(i) (b) 1(iii), 2(iv), 3(i), 4(ii) (c) 1(iv), 2(iii), 3(ii), 4 (i) (d) 1(iv), 2(iii), 3(i), 4(ii)
275. In the International Death Certificate one of the following is not true: (KERALA 2K)
(a) Part I of the certificate deals with the immediate cause only (b) Part I of the certificate deals with the
immediate cause and also the underlying cause (c) Part II records significantly associated diseases
(d) The certificate has been recommended by the the WHO for international news (e) In part I the underlying
cause of death is recorded on line c
276. ROME scheme was introduced consequent to the recommendation of: (KERALA 2K)
(a) Srivastava Committee (b) Chadah Committee (c) Mukherjee Committee (d) Kartar Singh Committee
(e) 20 Points programme
277. The “concurrent list “ of the constitution of India list the following functions except: (KARN/01)
(a) Prevention of extension of communicable disease (b) Administration of hospitals and health services
(c) Collection and compilation of vital statistics (d) Labour welfare
267 B 268 B 269 A 270 C 271 C 272 C 273 A 274 A 275 A 276 A 277 B
Self Assessment 143
278. A group of people with 60 kg weight having mean intake of protein=40 mg (+ 10%) with normal distribution with
standard deviation. Recommended protein intake for this group is: (ALL INDIA/02)
(a) 440 mg (b) 60 mg (c) 70 mg (d) 50 mg
279. In a group of 100 people with normal distribution of data, the mean age weight was 70 Kg. The person showing
weight less than 70 kg will be: (ALL INDIA/02)
(a) 25 (b) 50 (c) 75 (d) 100
280. Drug A is effective in 95 % children and adults. Drug B is effective in 47% of children and adult cost of drug A
is twice the cost of B. Dr. Lokesh gives drug A to both, children and adults. Dr.Manoj treated children with drug
A and adults with drug B. If patients are not cured with drug B, Dr. Manoj treated with Drug A. Ignoring the
cost of drug which of the following is false statement: (ALL INDIA/02)
(a) Treatment given by Dr. Manoj is cost effective (b) Treatment given by Dr. Lokesh is cost effective
(c) Patients of Dr. Manoj have higher chances of being cured earlier (d) None is correct
281. In a study conducted among ten thousand men, 6000 men were given carotene out of which 60 developed the
disease. Out of remaining 4000, who were not given carotene, 40 men developed the disease. Which of the following
statement is true about the study: (ALL INDIA/02)
(a) Carotene increases chances of carcinoma (b) Carotene does not increase chances of carcinoma
(d) Carotene decreases chance of carcinoma (d) Data is insufficient
282. Double ELISA test was performed on a population. This results in: (ALL INDIA/02)
(a) Increased Specificity and Positive Value (PPV) (b) Increased sensitivity and increased PPV (c) Increased
and Negative predictive Value (NPV) (d) Increased specificity and increased NPV
283. Which is not true of annual growth rate in India: (AIIMS 92)
(a) An annual growth rate of 1.2% is essential by 2000 AD (b) Current rate is 2.9% (c) Prior in 1921 growth
rate was low (d) Net gain in birth over death, lead to increase in the rate
284. The govt. of India has decided to provide potable water to the entire rural population by:
(a) 1990 (b) 1991 (c) 1995 (d) 2000 AD (JIPMER 78, ORISSA 91)
285. The most common cause of treatable blindness is: (AIIMS 86)
(a) Trachoma (b) Xerophthalmia (c) Glaucoma (d) Injuries
286. All are micronutrient except: (AIIMS 96)
(a) Vitamin A (b) Iron (c) Iodine (d) Vitamin C
287. All are examples of nominal scale except: (AI 96)
(a) Age (b) Sex (c) Iris colour (d) Socio-economic status
288. Thin film of malarial parasite formed because of: (UP 197)
(a) To differentiate species (b) All stages of parasite seen (c) Chromatin increase in Plasmodium malariae
(d) In P. vivax shows RBC are enlarged
289. "Ring vaccination" which is: (Delhi/93) (PGI/94)
(a) Given by a ring shaped machine (b) Given to produced a ring shaped lesion (c) Given around 100 yards
of a case detected (d) Given around a mile of a case detected
290. Common cause of IUGR among following: (DUT/480) (AIIMS 98)
(a) Idiopathic (b) PIH (c) Infection (d) Genetically determined
291. By what % would the dose of antirabies globulin be reduced if it were given subcutaneously at different sites:
(a) 50 (b) 70 (c) 30 (d) 10 (Kerala/98)
292. Skin biopsy in leprosy: (UP 95)
(a) Periappendegeal lymphocytosis (b) Perivascular lymphocytosis (c) Absence of the lepra bacilli
(d) Not diagnostic
293. Feasibility of a programme/project is determined by: (Kerala/98)
(a) Financial backup (b) Dedication of the staff (c) No. of the staff (d) Interest shown by the general
population (e) Competence
294. According to WHO the number of drugs with a PHC worker should be at least: (Delhi/93)
(a) 15-20 (b) 20-25 (c) 25-30 (d) 30-40
295. Richest source of cholesterol is: (AI 93)
(a) Eggs (b) Hydrogenated oil (c) Cheese (d) Butter
278 C 279 B 280 C 281 B 282 B 283 B 284 D 285 B 286 B 287 C 288 B 289 C 290 A
291 A 292 A 293 D 294 A 295 A
144 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
296 A 297 B 298 C 299 C 300 D 301 C 302 C 303 B 304 A 305 A 306 A 307 A 308 B
309 B 310 B 311 B 312 B
Self Assessment 145
313. The’P’value of a randomised controlled trial comparing operation A (new procedure) and operation B (gold
standard) is 0.04. From this, we conclude that:
(a) Type II error is small and we can accept the findings of the study (b) The probability of false negative
conclusion that operation A is better than operation B, when in the truth it is not, is 4% (c) The power of study
to detect a difference between the operation A and B is 96% (d) The probability of a false positive conclusion
that the operation A is better than operation B, when in truth it is not is 4%.
314. Thiamine deficiency is known to occur in all of the following except: (AI/03)
(a) Food faddist (b) Homocystinemia (c) Chronic alcoholic (d) Chronic heart failure patient on diuretics
315. For calculation of sample size for a prevalence study all of the following are necessary except: (AI/03)
(a) Prevalence of the disease in population (b) Power of study (c) Significance level (d) Desired precision
316. The response which is graded by an observer on an agree or disagree continuum is based on: (AI/03)
(a) Visual analog scale (b) Guttman scale (c) Likert scaleo (d) Adjectival scale
317. Among the following, the best indicator of health in a community is: (UPSC/02)
(a) Maternal mortality rate (b) Infant mortality rate (c) Life expectancy (d) Neonatal mortality rate
318. If a biochemical test gives the same reading for a sample on repeated testing. It is inferred that the measurement
is:
(a) Precise (b) Accurate (c) Specific (d) Sensitive (AIIMS/02)
319. A randomized trial comparing the efficacy of two drugs showed a difference between the two with a p value of
< 0.005. In reality, however the two drugs do not differ. Therefore it is an example of: (AIIMS/02)
(a) Type I error (alpha error) (b) Type II error (Beta error) (c) I-Alpha (d) I-Beta.
320. Screening is the most commonly used epidemiological tool in school health services. Which level of prevention
does it refer to? (UPSC/02)
(a) Primary (b) Secondary (c) Tertiary (d) Primary and secondary
321. The number of patient required in a clinical trial to treat a specify disease increases as: (AIIMS/02)
(a) The incidence of the disease decreases (b) The significance level increases. (c) The size of the expected
treatment effect increased (d) The drop out rate increases
322. A-46-year old female presented at the eye OPD in a hospital her vision in the right eye was 6/60 and in left eye
3/60. Under the National Programme for Control of blindness, she will be classified as: (PAR/300) (AIIMS 02)
(a) Socially blind (b) Low vision (c) Economical blind (d) Normal vision
323. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of non-communicable disease? (UPSC/02)
(a) Well-defined etiological agent (b) Multifactorial causation (c) Long latent period (d) Variable onset
324. The best indicator(s) for monitoring of air pollution is/are: (UPSC/02)
(a) Sulphur dioxide and suspended particles (b) Sulphur dioxide (c) Oxides of nitrogen and polyaromatic
hydrocarbons (d) Carbon monoxide
325. The organism which is not an indicator of fecal pollution is: (UPSC/02)
(a) Staphylococcus (b) Streptococcus (c) E. coli (d) Clostridium perfringens
326. The pattern of interrelations between in a society is called: (UPSC/02)
(a) Social stratification (b) Social structure (c) Caste system (d) Herd structure
327. The most effective method for motivating a couple for adopting family planning practices is: (UPSC/02)
(a) Printed material (b) Films and televisions (c) Group discussion (d) Inter-personal communication
328. Which one of the following is an environmental factor associated with mental illness? (UPSC/02)
(a) Emotional stress (b) Frustration (c) Broken home (d) Anxiety
329. The most dangerous mode of spread of infection in the hospital environment is by: (UPSC/03)
(a) Droplets (b) Droplet nuclei (b) Infected dust (d) None
330. ‘Strawberry tongue’ followed by raspberry tongue is characteristic of: (OR/341) (AIIMS 81, AP 87)
(a) Mumps (b) Measles (c) Scarlet fever (d) Smallpox (e) Chickenpox
331. A screening test applied to detect diabetes in population over 40 years of age should satisfy the following criteria,
except for: (UPSC/02)
(a) Validity (b) Reproducibility (c) Feasibility (d) Ingenuity
332. The objective of National Population Policy, 2000 is to bring the total Fertility Rate(TFR) to 2.1 by the year:
(a) 2005 (b) 2010 (c) 2015 (d) 2020 (UPSC/03)
313 D 314 B 315 C 316 C 317 B 318 A 319 A 320 A 321 D 322 B 323 A 324 A 325 B
326 B 327 D 328 C 329 A 330 C 331 B 332 A
146 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
333. Normally during a social research survey which one of the following dimensions is not addressed:
(a) Social psychology (b) Social structure (c) Social pathology (d) Social institutions (UPSC/03)
334. The entire communication process related to a health issue basically intends to change:
(a) Awareness levels (b) Sensitivity and receptivity thresholds (c) Behaviour (d) Practices (UPSC/03)
335. Number of doses of measles vaccine required to immunise target population in a village with a population in
a village with a population of 5000, where the birth rate is 30/1000 and IMR 100/1000 live births assuming
watage of 50%, is: (UPSC/03)
(a) 135 (b) 150 (c) 240 (d) 270
336. Prospective genetic counselling is the application of which level of prevention? (UPSC/03)
(a) Primordial (b) Primary (c) Secondary (d) Tertiary
337. Consider the following statements: Non-parametric tests can be used to compare two populations when: 1. Each
population is unimodal. 2. Both populations have equal numbers. 3. Each population is independent. 4. Each
population is bimodal: Which of these statements are correct? (UPSC/03)
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
338. Disease specific human immunoglobulin is not available for: (UPSC/03)
(a) Tetanus (b) Gas gangrene (c) Measles (d) Hepatitis B
339. The vector of Brugia malayi is: (UPSC/03)
(a) Aedes (b) Anopheles (c) Culex (d) Mansonia
340. The hormonal contraceptive of choice in lactational period in a female is: (AIIMS 86)
(a) Oestrogens in high doses (b) Combination pills (c) Medroxy progesterone acetate (d) Sequential pills