CAT 2019 SOLVED PAPER (SLOT-2)
Section I: VRC
Question Numbers (1 to 5): The passage below is
accompanied by a set of five questions. Choose the
best answer to each question.
War, natural disasters and climate change are
destroying some of the world's most precious cultural
sites. Google is trying to help preserve these
archaeological wonders by allowing users access to
3D images of these treasures through its site.
But the project is raising questions about Google's
motivations and about who should own the digital
copyrights. Some critics call it a form of "digital
colonialism."
When it comes to archaeological treasures, the losses
have been mounting. ISIS blew up parts of the ancient
city of Palmyra in Syria and an earthquake hit Bagan,
an ancient city in Myanmar, damaging dozens of
temples, in 2016. In the past, all archaeologists and
historians had for restoration and research were photos,
drawings, remnants and intuition.
But that's changing. Before the earthquake at Bagan,
many of the temples on the site were scanned.…
[These] scans … are on Google's Arts & Culture site.
The digital renditions allow viewers to virtually wander
the halls of the temple, look up-close at paintings and
turn the building over, to look up at its chambers. . . .
[Google Arts & Culture] works with museums and other
nonprofits . . . to put high-quality images online.
The images of the temples in Bagan are part of a
collaboration with CyArk, a nonprofit that creates the
3D scanning of historic sites.… Google … says [it]
doesn't make money off this website, but it fits in with
Google's mission to make the world's information
available and useful.
Critics say the collaboration could be an attempt by a
large corporation to wrap itself in the sheen of culture.
Ethan Watrall, an archaeologist, professor at Michigan
State University and a member of the Society for
American Archaeology, says he's not comfortable with
the arrangement between CyArk and Google.… Watrall
says this project is just a way for Google to promote
Google. "They want to make this material accessible
so people will browse it and be filled with wonder by it,"
he says. "But at its core, it's all about advertisements
and driving traffic." Watrall says these images belong
on the site of a museum or educational institution, where
there is serious scholarship and a very different
mission. …
[There's] another issue for some archaeologists and art
historians. CyArk owns the copyrights of the scans —
not the countries where these sites are located. That
means the countries need CyArk's permission to use
these images for commercial purposes.
Erin Thompson, a professor of art crime at John Jay
College of Criminal Justice in New York City, says it's
the latest example of a Western nation appropriating a
foreign culture, a centuries-long battle. . . . CyArk says
it copyrights the scans so no one can use them in an
inappropriate way. The company says it works closely
with authorities during the process, even training local
people to help. But critics like Thompson are not
persuaded. . . . She would prefer the scans to be owned
by the countries and people where these sites are
located.
1. Of the following arguments, which one is LEAST
likely to be used by the companies that digitally scan
cultural sites?
(1) It enables people who cannot physically visit
these sites to experience them.
(2) It helps preserve precious images in case the
sites are damaged or destroyed.
(3) It provides images free of cost to all users.
(4) It allows a large corporation to project itself as a
protector of culture.
2. Based on his views mentioned in the passage, one
could best characterise Dr. Watrall as being:
(1) critical about the links between a non-profit and
a commercial tech platform for distributing
archaeological images.
(2) opposed to the use of digital technology in
archaeological and cultural sites in developing
countries.
(3) uneasy about the marketing of archaeological
images for commercial use by firms such as
Google and CyArk.
(4) dismissive of laypeople’s access to specialist
images of archaeological and cultural sites.
2 CAT 2019 Solved Paper
3. In Dr. Thompson’s view, CyArk owning the copyright
of its digital scans of archaeological sites is akin to:
(1) digital platforms capturing users’ data for market
research.
(2) the illegal downloading of content from the internet.
(3) the seizing of ancient Egyptian artefacts by a
Western museum.
(4) tourists uploading photos of monuments onto
social media.
4. Which of the following, if true, would most strongly
invalidate Dr. Watrall’s objections?
(1) Google takes down advertisements on its
website hosting CyArk’s scanned images.
(2) There is a ban on CyArk scanning archeological
sites located in other countries.
(3) CyArk uploads its scanned images of
archaeological sites onto museum websites only.
(4) CyArk does not own the copyright on scanned
images of archaeological sites.
5. By “digital colonialism”, critics of the CyArk–Google
project are referring to the fact that:
(1) countries where the scanned sites are located
do not own the scan copyrights.
(2) the scanning process can damage delicate
frescos and statues at the sites.
(3) CyArk and Google have not shared the details of
digitisation with the host countries.
(4) CyArk and Google have been scanning images
without copyright permission from host countries.
Question Numbers (6 to 10): The passage below is
accompanied by a set of five questions. Choose the
best answer to each question.
Around the world, capital cities are disgorging
bureaucrats. In the post-colonial fervour of the 20th
century, coastal capitals picked by trade-focused
empires were spurned for “regionally neutral” new ones
. . . . But decamping wholesale is costly and unpopular;
governments these days prefer piecemeal dispersal. The
trend reflects how the world has changed. In past eras,
when information travelled at a snail’s pace, civil servants
had to cluster together. But now desk-workers can ping
emails and video-chat around the world. Travel for face-
to-face meetings may be unavoidable, but transport links,
too, have improved. . . .
Proponents of moving civil servants around promise
countless benefits. It disperses the risk that a terrorist
attack or natural disaster will cripple an entire
government. Wonks in the sticks will be inspired by
new ideas that walled-off capitals cannot conjure up.
Autonomous regulators perform best far from the
pressure and lobbying of the big city. Some even hail a
cure for ascendant cynicism and populism. The unloved
bureaucrats of faraway capitals will become as popular
as firefighters once they mix with regular folk.
Beyond these sunny visions, dispersing central-
government functions usually has three specific aims:
to improve the lives of both civil servants and those living
in clogged capitals; to save money; and to redress
regional imbalances. The trouble is that these goals are
not always realised.
The first aim—improving living conditions—has a long
pedigree. After the second world war Britain moved
thousands of civil servants to “agreeable English country
towns” as London was rebuilt. But swapping the capital
for somewhere smaller is not always agreeable. Attrition
rates can exceed 80%. . . . The second reason to pack
bureaucrats off is to save money. Office space costs far
more in capitals. . . . Agencies that are moved elsewhere
can often recruit better workers on lower salaries than
in capitals, where well-paying multinationals mop up
talent.
The third reason to shift is to rebalance regional
inequality. . . . Norway treats federal jobs as a resource
every region deserves to enjoy, like profits from oil. Where
government jobs go, private ones follow. . . . Sometimes
the aim is to fulfil the potential of a country’s second-
tier cities. Unlike poor, remote places, bigger cities can
make the most of relocated government agencies, linking
them to local universities and businesses and supplying
a better-educated workforce. The decision in 1946 to
set up America’s Centres for Disease Control in Atlanta
rather than Washington, D.C., has transformed the city
into a hub for health-sector research and business.
The dilemma is obvious. Pick small, poor towns, and
areas of high unemployment get new jobs, but it is hard
to attract the most qualified workers; opt for larger cities
with infrastructure and better-qualified residents, and the
country’s most deprived areas see little benefit. . . .
Others contend that decentralisation begets corruption
by making government agencies less accountable. . . .
A study in America found that state-government
corruption is worse when the state capital is isolated—
journalists, who tend to live in the bigger cities, become
less watchful of those in power.
6. The “long pedigree” of the aim to shift civil servants
to improve their living standards implies that this
move:
(1) has become common practice in several
countries worldwide.
(2) is not a new idea and has been tried in the past.
(3) takes a long time to achieve its intended
outcomes.
(4) is supported by politicians and the ruling elites.
CAT 2019 Solved Paper
7. People who support decentralising central government
functions are LEAST likely to cite which of the
following reasons for their view?
(1) It could weaken the nexus between bureaucrats
and media in the capital.
(2) Policy makers may benefit from fresh thinking in
a new environment.
(3) More independence could be enjoyed by
regulatory bodies located away from political
centres.
(4) It reduces expenses as infrastructure costs and
salaries are lower in smaller cities.
8. According to the passage, colonial powers located
their capitals:
(1) based on political expediency.
(2) to showcase their power and prestige.
(3) to promote their trading interests.
(4) where they had the densest populations.
9. The “dilemma” mentioned in the passage refers to:
(1) encouraging private enterprises to relocate to
smaller towns or not incentivising them in order
to keep government costs in those towns low.
(2) concentrating on decongesting large cities or
focusing on boosting employment in relatively
larger cities.
(3) keeping government agencies in the largest city
with good infrastructure or moving them to a
remote area with few amenities.
(4) relocating government agencies to boost growth
in remote areas with poor amenities or to relatively
larger cities with good amenities.
10. According to the author, relocating government
agencies has not always been a success for all of
the following reasons EXCEPT:
(1) the difficulty of attracting talented, well-skilled
people in more remote areas.
(2) a rise in pollution levels and congestion in the
new locations.
(3) increased avenues of corruption away from the
capital city.
(4) high staff losses, as people may not be prepared
to move to smaller towns.
Question Numbers (11 to 14): The passage below is
accompanied by a set of four questions. Choose the
best answer to each question.
For two years, I tracked down dozens of . . . Chinese in
Upper Egypt [who were] selling lingerie. In a deeply
conservative region, where Egyptian families rarely allow
women to work or own businesses, the Chinese
flourished because of their status as outsiders. They
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didn’t gossip, and they kept their opinions to themselves.
In a New Yorker article entitled “Learning to Speak
Lingerie,” I described the Chinese use of Arabic as
another non-threatening characteristic. I wrote, “Unlike
Mandarin, Arabic is inflected for gender, and Chinese
dealers, who learn the language strictly by ear, often
pick up speech patterns from female customers. I’ve
come to think of it as the lingerie dialect, and there’s
something disarming about these Chinese men speaking
in the feminine voice.” . . .
When I wrote about the Chinese in the New Yorker,
most readers seemed to appreciate the unusual
perspective. But as I often find with topics that involve
the Middle East, some people had trouble getting past
the black-and-white quality of a byline. “This piece is so
orientalist I don’t know what to do,” Aisha Gani, a reporter
who worked at The Guardian, tweeted. Another colleague
at the British paper, Iman Amrani, agreed: “I wouldn’t
have minded an article on the subject written by an
Egyptian woman—probably would have had better
insight.” . . .
As an MOL (man of language), I also take issue with
this kind of essentialism. Empathy and understanding
are not inherited traits, and they are not strictly tied to
gender and race. An individual who wrestles with a difficult
language can learn to be more sympathetic to outsiders
and open to different experiences of the world. This
learning process—the embarrassments, the frustrations,
the gradual sense of understanding and connection—is
invariably transformative. In Upper Egypt, the Chinese
experience of struggling to learn Arabic and local culture
had made them much more thoughtful. In the same way,
I was interested in their lives not because of some kind
of voyeurism, but because I had also experienced Egypt
and Arabic as an outsider. And both the Chinese and
the Egyptians welcomed me because I spoke their
languages. My identity as a white male was far less
important than my ability to communicate.
And that easily lobbed word—“Orientalist”—hardly
captures the complexity of our interactions. What exactly
is the dynamic when a man from Missouri observes a
Zhejiang native selling lingerie to an Upper Egyptian
woman? . . . If all of us now stand beside the same river,
speaking in ways we all understand, who’s looking east
and who’s looking west? Which way is Oriental?
For all of our current interest in identity politics, there’s
no corresponding sense of identity linguistics. You are
what you speak—the words that run throughout your
mind are at least as fundamental to your selfhood as is
your ethnicity or your gender. And sometimes it’s healthy
to consider human characteristics that are not inborn,
rigid, and outwardly defined. After all, you can always
learn another language and change who you are.
4 CAT 2019 Solved Paper
11. According to the passage, which of the following is
not responsible for language’s ability to change us?
(1) The ups and downs involved in the course of
learning a language.
(2) The twists and turns in the evolution of language
over time.
(3) Language’s intrinsic connection to our notions of
self and identity.
(4) Language’s ability to mediate the impact of
identity markers one is born with.
12. Which of the following can be inferred from the
author’s claim, “Which way is Oriental?”
(1) Globalisation has mitigated cultural hierarchies
and barriers.
(2) Learning another language can mitigate cultural
hierarchies and barriers.
(3) Orientalism is a discourse of the past, from
colonial times, rarely visible today.
(4) Goodwill alone mitigates cultural hierarchies and
barriers.
13. A French ethnographer decides to study the culture
of a Nigerian tribe. Which of the following is most
likely to be the view of the author of the passage?
(1) The author would encourage the ethnographer
and recommend him/her to hire a good translator
for the purpose of holding interviews.
(2) The author would encourage the ethnographer,
but ask him/her to first learn the language of the
Nigerian tribe s/he wishes to study.
(3) The author would discourage the ethnographer
f rom conducting the study as Nigerian
ethnographers can better understand the tribe.
(4) The author would encourage the ethnographer,
but ask him/her to be mindful of his/her racial
and gender identity in the process.
14. The author’s critics would argue that:
(1) Language is insufficient to bridge cultural barriers.
(2) Linguistic politics can be erased.
(3) Orientalism cannot be practiced by Egyptians.
(4) Empathy can overcome identity politics.
Question Numbers (15 to 19): The passage below is
accompanied by a set of five questions. Choose the
best answer to each question.
British colonial policy . . . went through two policy
phases, or at least there were two strategies between
which its policies actually oscillated, sometimes to its
great advantage. At first, the new colonial apparatus
exercised caution, and occupied India by a mix of
military power and subtle diplomacy, the high ground in
the middle of the circle of circles. This, however, pushed
them into contradictions. For, whatever their sense of
the strangeness of the country and the thinness of
colonial presence, the British colonial state represented
the great conquering discourse of Enlightenment
rationalism, entering India precisely at the moment of
its greatest unchecked arrogance. As inheritors and
representatives of this discourse, which carried everything
before it, this colonial state could hardly adopt for long
such a self-denying attitude. It had restructured
everything in Europe—the productive system, the
political regimes, the moral and cognitive orders—and
would do the same in India, particularly as some
empirically inclined theorists of that generation
considered the colonies a massive laboratory of utilitarian
or other theoretical experiments. Consequently, the
colonial state could not settle simply for eminence at
the cost of its marginality; it began to take initiatives to
introduce the logic of modernity into Indian society. But
this modernity did not enter a passive society.
Sometimes, its initiatives were resisted by pre-existing
structural forms. At times, there was a more direct form
of collective resistance. Therefore the map of continuity
and discontinuity that this state left behind at the time
of independence was rather complex and has to be
traced with care.
Most significantly, of course, initiatives for . . . modernity
came to assume an external character. The acceptance
of modernity came to be connected, ineradicably, with
subjection. This again points to two different problems,
one theoretical, the other political. Theoretically, because
modernity was externally introduced, it is explanatorily
unhelpful to apply the logical format of the ‘transition
process’ to this pattern of change. Such a logical format
would be wrong on two counts. First, however subtly, it
would imply that what was proposed to be built was
something like European capitalism. (And, in any case,
historians have forcefully argued that what it was to
replace was not like feudalism, with or without
modificatory adjectives.) But, more fundamentally, the
logical structure of endogenous change does not apply
here. Here transformation agendas attack as an external
force. This externality is not something that can be
casually mentioned and forgotten. It is inscribed on every
move, every object, every proposal, every legislative act,
each line of causality. It comes to be marked on the
epoch itself. This repetitive emphasis on externality
should not be seen as a nationalist initiative that is so
well rehearsed in Indian social science. . . .
Quite apart from the externality of the entire historical
proposal of modernity, some of its contents were
remarkable. . . . Economic reforms, or rather alterations
. . . did not foreshadow the construction of a classical
capitalist economy, with its necessary emphasis on
extractive and transport sectors. What happened was
CAT 2019 Solved Paper
the creation of a degenerate version of capitalism—what
early dependency theorists called the ‘development of
underdevelopment’.
15. All of the following statements, if true, could be seen
as supporting the arguments in the passage,
EXCEPT:
(1) throughout the history of colonial conquest,
natives have often been experimented on by the
colonisers.
(2) the introduction of capitalism in India was not
through the transformation of feudalism, as
happened in Europe.
(3) the change in British colonial policy was induced
by resistance to modernity in Indian society.
(4) modernity was imposed upon India by the British
and, therefore, led to underdevelopment.
16. Which of the following observations is a valid
conclusion to draw from the author’s statement that
“the logical structure of endogenous change does
not apply here. Here transformation agendas attack
as an external force”?
(1) The endogenous logic of colonialism can only
bring change if it attacks and transforms external
forces.
(2) Indian society is not endogamous; it is more
accurately characterised as aggressively
exogamous.
(3) The transformation of Indian society did not
happen organically, but was forced by colonial
agendas.
(4) Colonised societies cannot be changed through
logic; they need to be transformed with external
force.
17. “Consequently, the colonial state could not settle
simply for eminence at the cost of its marginality; it
began to take initiatives to introduce the logic of
modernity into Indian society.” Which of the following
best captures the sense of this statement?
(1) The colonial enterprise was a costly one; so to
justify the cost it began to take initiatives to
introduce the logic of modernity into Indian
society.
(2) The colonial state felt marginalised from Indian
society because of its own modernity; therefore,
it sought to address that marginalisation by
bringing its modernity to change Indian society.
(3) The colonial state’s eminence was unsettled by
its marginal position; therefore, it developed Indian
society by modernising it.
(4) The cost of the colonial state’s eminence was
not settled; therefore, it took the initiative of
introducing modernity into Indian society.
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18. Which one of the following 5-word sequences best
captures the flow of the arguments in the passage?
(1) Military power—arrogance—laboratory—
modernity—capitalism.
(2) Military power—colonialism—restructuring—
feudalism—capitalism.
(3) Colonial policy—Enlightenment—external
modernity—subjection—underdevelopment.
(4) Colonial policy—arrogant rationality—resistance
—independence—development.
19. All of the following statements about British
colonialism can be inferred from the first paragraph,
EXCEPT that it:
(1) allowed the treatment of colonies as experimental
sites.
(2) faced resistance from existing structural forms
of Indian modernity.
(3) was at least partly an outcome of Enlightenment
rationalism.
(4) was at least partly shaped by the project of
European modernity.
Question Numbers (20 to 24): The passage below is
accompanied by a set of five questions. Choose the
best answer to each question.
The magic of squatter cities is that they are improved
steadily and gradually by their residents. To a planner’s
eye, these cities look chaotic. I trained as a biologist
and to my eye, they look organic. Squatter cities are
also unexpectedly green. They have maximum
density—1 million people per square mile in some areas
of Mumbai—and have minimum energy and material use.
People get around by foot, bicycle, rickshaw, or the
universal shared taxi.
Not everything is efficient in the slums, though. In the
Brazilian favelas where electricity is stolen and therefore
free, people leave their lights on all day. But in most
slums recycling is literally a way of life. The Dharavi
slum in Mumbai has 400 recycling units and 30,000
ragpickers. Six thousand tons of rubbish are sorted every
day. In 2007, the Economist reported that in Vietnam
and Mozambique, “Waves of gleaners sift the sweepings
of Hanoi’s streets, just as Mozambiquan children pick
over the rubbish of Maputo’s main tip. Every city in Asia
and Latin America has an industry based on gathering
up old cardboard boxes.” . . .
In his 1985 article, Calthorpe made a statement that
still jars with most people: “The city is the most
environmentally benign form of human settlement. Each
city dweller consumes less land, less energy, less
water, and produces less pollution than his counterpart
in settlements of lower densities.” “Green Manhattan”
was the inflammatory title of a 2004 New Yorker article
6 CAT 2019 Solved Paper
by David Owen. “By the most significant measures,” he
wrote, “New York is the greenest community in the
United States, and one of the greenest cities in the world
. . . The key to New York’s relative environmental
benignity is its extreme compactness. . . . Placing one
and a half million people on a twenty-three-square-mile
island sharply reduces their opportunities to be wasteful.”
He went on to note that this very compactness forces
people to live in the world’s most energy-efficient
apartment buildings. . . .
Urban density allows half of humanity to live on 2.8 per
cent of the land. . . . Consider just the infrastructure
efficiencies. According to a 2004 UN report: “The
concentration of population and enterprises in urban
areas greatly reduces the unit cost of piped water,
sewers, drains, roads, electricity, garbage collection,
transport, health care, and schools.” . . .
[T]he nationally subsidised city of Manaus in northern
Brazil “answers the question” of how to stop
deforestation: give people decent jobs. Then they can
afford houses, and gain security. One hundred thousand
people who would otherwise be deforesting the jungle
around Manaus are now prospering in town making such
things as mobile phones and televisions. . . .
Of course, fast-growing cities are far from an unmitigated
good. They concentrate crime, pollution, disease and
injustice as much as business, innovation, education
and entertainment. . . . But if they are overall a net good
for those who move there, it is because cities offer more
than just jobs. They are transformative: in the slums, as
well as the office towers and leafy suburbs, the progress
is from hick to metropolitan to cosmopolitan . . .
20. According to the passage, squatter cities are
environment-friendly for all of the following reasons
EXCEPT:
(1) their transportation is energy efficient.
(2) their streets are kept clean.
(3) they recycle material.
(4) they sort out garbage.
21. Which one of the following statements would
undermine the author’s stand regarding the greenness
of cities?
(1) The high density of cities leads to an increase in
carbon dioxide and global warming.
(2) The compactness of big cities in the West
increases the incidence of violent crime.
(3) Sorting through rubbish contributes to the rapid
spread of diseases in the slums.
(4) Over the last decade the cost of utilities has been
increasing for city dwellers.
22. In the context of the passage, the author refers to
Manaus in order to:
(1) explain where cities source their labour for
factories.
(2) promote cities as employment hubs for people.
(3) describe the infrastructure efficiencies of living in
a city.
(4) explain how urban areas help the environment.
23. From the passage it can be inferred that cities are
good places to live in for all of the following reasons
EXCEPT that they:
(1) offer employment opportunities.
(2) have suburban areas as well as office areas.
(3) help prevent destruction of the environment.
(4) contribute to the cultural transformation of
residents.
24. We can infer that Calthorpe’s statement “still jars”
with most people because most people:
(1) regard cities as places of disease and crime.
(2) do not regard cities as good places to live in.
(3) consider cities to be very crowded and polluted.
(4) do not consider cities to be eco-friendly places.
25. Five sentences related to a topic are given below in
a jumbled order. Four of them form a coherent and
unified paragraph. Identify the odd sentence that does
not go with the four. Key in the number of the option
that you choose.
(1) Socrates told us that ‘the unexamined life is not
worth living’ and that to ‘know thyself’ is the path
to true wisdom
(2) It suggests that you should adopt an ancient
rhetorical method favored by the likes of Julius
Caesar and known as ‘illeism’ – or speaking about
yourself in the third person.
(3) Research has shown that people who are prone
to rumination also often suffer from impaired
decision making under pressure and are at a
substantially increased risk of depression.
(4) Simple rumination – the process of churning your
concerns around in your head – is not the way to
achieve self-realization.
(5) The idea is that this small change in perspective
can clear your emotional fog, allowing you to see
past your biases.
CAT 2019 Solved Paper
26. The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4) given below,
when properly sequenced would yield a coherent
paragraph. Decide on the proper sequence of the
order of the sentences and key in the sequence of
the four numbers as your answer.
(1) Such a belief in the harmony of nature requires a
purpose presumably imposed by the goodness
and wisdom of a deity.
(2) These parts, all fit together into an integrated,
well-ordered system that was created by design.
(3) Historically, the notion of a balance of nature is
part observational, part metaphysical, and not
scientific in any way.
(4) It is an example of an ancient belief system called
teleology, the notion that what we call nature has
a predetermined destiny associated with its
component parts.
27. Five sentences related to a topic are given below.
Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful
and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one
out. Choose its number as your answer and key it
in.
(1) A particularly interesting example of inference
occurs in many single panel comics.
(2) It’s the creator’s participation and imagination that
makes the single-panel comic so engaging and
so rewarding.
(3) Often, the humor requires you to imagine what
happened in the instant immediately before or
immediately after the panel you’re being shown.
(4) To get the joke, you actually have to figure out
what some of these missing panels must be.
(5) It is as though the cartoonist devised a series of
panels to tell the story and has chosen to show
you only one – and typically not even the funniest.
28. The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4) given below,
when properly sequenced would yield a coherent
paragraph. Decide on the proper sequence of the
order of the sentences and key in the sequence of
the four numbers as your answer.
(1) To the uninitiated listener, atonal music can sound
like chaotic, random noise.
(2) Atonality is a condition of music in which the
constructs of the music do not ‘live’ within the
confines of a particular key signature, scale, or
mode.
(3) After you realize the amount of knowledge, skill,
and technical expertise required to compose or
perform it, your tune may change, so to speak.
(4) However, atonality is one of the most important
movements in 20th century music.
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29. Five sentences related to a topic are given below.
Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful
and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one
out. Choose its number as your answer and key it
in.
(1) Ocean plastic is problematic for a number of
reasons, but primarily because marine animals
eat it.
(2) The largest numerical proportion of ocean plastic
falls in small size fractions.
(3) Aside from clogging up the digestive tracts of
marine life, plastic also tends to adsorb pollutants
from the water column.
(4) Plastic in the oceans is arguably one of the most
important and pervasive environmental problems
today.
(5) Eating plastic has a number of negative
consequences such as the retention of plastic
particles in the gut for longer periods than normal
food particles.
30. The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4) given below,
when properly sequenced would yield a coherent
paragraph. Decide on the proper sequence of the
order of the sentences and key in the sequence of
the four numbers as your answer.
(1) Living things—animals and plants—typically
exhibit correlational structure.
(2) Adaptive behaviour depends on cognitive
economy, treating objects as equivalent.
(3) The information we receive from our senses, from
the world, typically has structure and order, and
is not arbitrary.
(4) To categorize an object means to consider it
equivalent to other things in that category, and
different—along some salient dimension—from
things that are not.
31. The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4) given below,
when properly sequenced would yield a coherent
paragraph. Decide on the proper sequence of the
order of the sentences and key in the sequence of
the four numbers as your answer.
(1) Conceptualisations of ‘women’s time’ as contrary
to clock-time and clock-time as synonymous with
economic rationalism are two of the deleterious
results of this representation.
(2) While dichotomies of ‘men’s time’, ‘women’s
time’, clock-time, and caring time can be
analytically useful, this article argues that
everyday caring practices incorporate a
multiplicity of times; and both men and women
can engage in these multiple-times
8 CAT 2019 Solved Paper
(3) When the everyday practices of working sole
fathers and working sole mothers are carefully
examined to explore conceptualisations of
gendered time, it is found that caring time is often
more focused on the clock than generally
theorised.
(4) Clock-time has been consistently represented
in feminist literature as a masculine artefact
representative of a ‘time is money’ perspective.
32. The passage given below is followed by four alternate
summaries. Choose the option that best captures
the essence of the passage.
Language is an autapomorphy found only in our
lineage, and not shared with other branches of our
group such as primates. We also have no definitive
evidence that any species other than Homo sapiens
34. The passage given below is followed by four alternate
ever had language. However, it must be noted
straightaway that ‘language’ is not a monolithic entity,
but rather a complex bundle of traits that must have
evolved over a significant time frame…. Moreover,
language crucially draws on aspects of cognition that
are long established in the primate lineage, such as
memory: the language faculty as a whole comprises
more than just the uniquely linguistic features.
(1) Language is a distinctively human feature as there
is no evidence of the existence of language in
any other species.
(2) Language, a derived trait found only in humans,
has evolved over time and involves memory.
(3) Language evolved with linguistic features building
on features of cognition such as memory.
(4) Language is not a single, uniform entity but the
end result of a long and complex process of
linguistic evolution.
33. The passage given below is followed by four alternate
summaries. Choose the option that best captures
the essence of the passage.
Privacy-challenged office workers may find it hard to
believe, but open-plan offices and cubicles were
invented by architects and designers who thought
that to break down the social walls that divide people,
you had to break down the real walls, too. Modernist
architects saw walls and rooms as downright fascist.
The spaciousness and flexibility of an open plan would
liberate homeowners and office dwellers from the
confines of boxes. But companies took up their idea
less out of a democratic ideology than a desire to
pack in as many workers as they could. The typical
open-plan office of the first half of the 20th century
was a white-collar assembly line. Cubicles were
interior designers’ attempt to put some soul back in.
(1) Wall-free office spaces did not quite work out the
way their utopian inventors intended, as they
became tools for exploitation of labor.
(2) Wall-free office spaces did not quite work out as
desired and therefore cubicles came into being.
(3) Wall-free office spaces did not quite work out as
companies don’t believe in democratic ideology.
(4) Wall-free office spaces could have worked out
the way their utopian inventors intended had
companies cared for workers' satisfaction.
summaries. Choose the option that best captures
the essence of the passage.
Social movement organizations often struggle to
mobilize supporters from allied movements in their
efforts to achieve critical mass. Organizations with
hybrid identities—those whose organizational
identities span the boundaries of two or more social
movements, issues, or identities—are vital to
mobilizing these constituencies. Studies of the post-
9/11 U.S. antiwar movement show that individuals
with past involvement in non-anti-war movements are
more likely to join hybrid organizations than are
individuals without involvement in non-anti-war
movements. In addition, they show that organizations
with hybrid identities occupy relatively more central
positions in inter-organizational contact networks
within the antiwar movement and thus recruit
significantly more participants in demonstrations than
do nonhybrid organizations.
(1) Hybrid organizations attract individuals that are
deeply involved in anti-war movements.
(2) Movements that work towards social change
often find it difficult to mobilize a critical mass of
supporters.
(3) Organizations with hybrid identities are able to
mobilize individuals with different points of view.
(4) Post 9/11 studies show that people who are
involved in non anti-war movements are likely to
join hybrid organizations.
CAT 2019 Solved Paper 9

Section II: DI & LR

Question Numbers (35 to 38): Answer the questions Question Numbers (39 to 42): Answer the questions
on the basis of the information given below. on the basis of the information given below.
The first year students in a business school are split Ten players, as listed in the table below, participated in
into six sections. In 2019 the Business Statistics course a rifle shooting competition comprising of 10 rounds.
was taught in these six sections by Annie, Beti, Chetan, Each round had 6 participants. Players numbered 1
Dave, Esha, and Fakir. All six sections had a common through 6 participated in Round 1, players 2 through 7 in
midterm (MT) and a common endterm (ET) worth Round 2,..., players 5 through 10 in Round 5, players 6
100 marks each. ET contained more questions than MT. through 10 and 1 in Round 6, players 7 through 10, 1
Questions for MT and ET were prepared collectively by and 2 in Round 7 and so on.
the six faculty members. Considering MT and ET The top three performances in each round were awarded
together, each faculty member prepared the same 7, 3 and 1 points respectively. There were no ties in any
number of questions. of the 10 rounds. The table below gives the total number
Each of MT and ET had at least four questions that were of points obtained by the 10 players after Round 6 and
worth 5 marks, at least three questions that were worth Round 10.
10 marks, and at least two questions that were worth 15
marks. In both MT and ET, all the 5-mark questions Player Player Points after Points after
preceded the 10-mark questions, and all the 15-mark No. Name Round 6 Round 10
questions followed the 10-mark questions. 1 Amita 8 18
The following additional facts are known. 2 Bala 2 5
i. Annie prepared the fifth question for both MT and ET. 3 Chen 3 6
For MT, this question carried 5 marks.
4 David 6 6
ii. Annie prepared one question for MT. Every other 5 Eric 3 10
faculty member prepared more than one questions
6 Fatima 10 10
for MT.
7 Gordon 17 17
iii. All questions prepared by a faculty member appeared
8 Hansa 1 4
consecutively in MT as well as ET.
9 Ikea 2 17
iv. Chetan prepared the third question in both MT and
ET; and Esha prepared the eighth question in both. 10 Joshin 14 17
v. Fakir prepared the first question of MT and the last The following information is known about Rounds 1
one in ET. Dave prepared the last question of MT through 6:
and the first one in ET.
1. Gordon did not score consecutively in any two
35. The second question in ET was prepared by: rounds.
(1) Chetan (2) Dave 2. Eric and Fatima both scored in a round.
(3) Beti (4) Esha The following information is known about Rounds 7
36. How many 5-mark questions were there in MT and through 10:
ET combined? 1. Only two players scored in three consecutive rounds.
(1) 12 (2) 10 One of them was Chen. No other player scored in
(3) 13 (4) Cannot be determined any two consecutive rounds.
37. Who prepared 15-mark questions for MT and ET? 2. Joshin scored in Round 7, while Amita scored in
(1) Only Dave, Esha and Fakir Round 10.
(2) Only Dave and Fakir 3. No player scored in all the four rounds.
(3) Only Esha and Fakir 39. What were the scores of Chen, David, and Eric
(4) Only Beti, Dave, Esha and Fakir respectively after Round 3?
38. Which of the following questions did Beti prepare in (1) 3, 3, 3 (2) 3, 3, 0
ET? (3) 3, 6, 3 (4) 3, 0, 3
(1) Tenth question (2) Seventh question
(3) Fourth question (4) Ninth question
10 CAT 2019 Solved Paper

40. Which three players were in the last three positions 42. Which players scored points in the last round?
after Round 4? (1) Amita, Bala, Chen (2) Amita, Eric, Joshin
(1) Bala, Hansa, Ikea (2) Bala, Chen, Gordon (3) Amita, Chen, Eric (4) Amita, Chen, David
(3) Bala, Ikea, Joshin (4) Hansa, Ikea, Joshin
41. Which player scored points in maximum number of
rounds?
(1) Chen (2) Joshin
(3) Amita (4) Ikea

Question Numbers (43 to 46): Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
To compare the rainfall data, India Meteorological Department (IMD) calculated the Long Period Average (LPA) of
rainfall during period June-August for each of the 16 states. The figure given below shows the actual rainfall (measured
in mm) during June-August, 2019 and the percentage deviations from LPA of respective states in 2018. Each state
along with its actual rainfall is presented in the figure.

40
Maharashtra, 1000
30
Gujarat, 600
20
Karnataka, 600 Sikkim, 1350
Rajasthan, 300
Deviation from LPA (%)

10 Goa, 2700
MP, 600 Mizoram, 1100
0
0 200 400 600 800 1000 1200 1400 1600 1800 2000 2200 2400 2600 2800 3000
–10
Assam, 600 Arunachal, 1000 Kerala, 1500 Meghalaya, 1750
–20

WB, 600
–30
Jharkhand, 400
–40
Delhi, 300
–50

–60
Manipur, 400
–70

Actual Rainfall from June to August, 2019 (in mm)

43. If a ‘Heavy Monsoon State’ is defined as a state with 45. What is the average rainfall of all states that have
actual rainfall from June-August, 2019 of 900 mm or actual rainfall of 600 mm or less in 2019 and have a
more, then approximately what percentage of ‘Heavy negative deviation from LPA?
Monsoon States’ have a negative deviation from (1) 460 mm (2) 367 mm
respective LPAs in 2019?
(3) 500 mm (4) 450 mm
(1) 14.29 (2) 42.86
46. The LPA of a state for a year is defined as the average
(3) 75.00 (4) 57.14 rainfall in the preceding 10 years considering the
44. If a ‘Low Monsoon State’ is defined as a state with period of June-August. For example, LPA in 2018 is
actual rainfall from June-August, 2019 of 750 mm or the average rainfall during 2009-2018 and LPA in 2019
less, then what is the median ‘deviation from LPA’ is the average rainfall during 2010-2019. It is also
(as defined in the Y-axis of the figure) of ‘Low Monsoon observed that the actual rainfall in Gujarat in 2019 is
States’? 20% more than the rainfall in 2009. The LPA of Gujarat
(1) –30% (2) –20% in 2019 is closest to
(3) 10% (4) –10% (1) 525 mm (2) 505 mm
(3) 490 mm (4) 475 mm
CAT 2019 Solved Paper 11
Question Numbers (47 to 50): Answer the questions 3. There was no profit from the Electronics department
on the basis of the information given below. in 2017.
A large store has only three departments, Clothing, 4. In 2018, the revenue from the Clothing department
Produce, and Electronics. The following figure shows was the same as the cost incurred in the Produce
the percentages of revenue and cost from the three department.
departments for the years 2016, 2017 and 2018. The 47. What was the percentage profit of the store in 2018?
dotted lines depict percentage levels. So for example, in
48. What was the ratio of revenue generated from the
2016, 50% of store's revenue came from its Electronics
Produce department in 2017 to that in 2018?
department while 40% of its costs were incurred in the
Produce department. (1) 4 : 3 (2) 8 : 5
(3) 9 : 16 (4) 16 : 9
Clothing
49. What percentage of the total profits for the store in
2016 was from the Electronics department?
50. What was the approximate difference in profit
percentages of the store in 2017 and 2018?
(1) 25.0 (2) 8.3
(3) 33.3 (4) 15.5
Question Numbers (51 to 54): Answer the questions
on the basis of the information given below.
10% column 1 column 2 column 3

row 1

Electronics 50% Produce

2016 2017 2018 row 2

Revenue
Clothing
row 3

Column 1 Column 2 Column 3

Row 1 (2, 4) (6, 8) (1, 3)
Row 2 (3, 5) (1, 1) (6, 20)
Row 3 (1, 2) (1, 2) (2, 5)
10% Three pouches (each represented by a filled circle) are
kept in each of the nine slots in a 3 × 3 grid, as shown in
the figure. Every pouch has a certain number of one-
rupee coins. The minimum and maximum amounts of
Electronics 50% money (in rupees) among the three pouches in each of
Produce
the nine slots are given in the table. For example, we
2016 2017 2018 know that among the three pouches kept in the second
column of the first row, the minimum amount in a pouch
Cost
is Rs. 6 and the maximum amount is Rs. 8.
In this setup, Profit is computed as (Revenue – Cost)
There are nine pouches in any of the three columns, as
and Percentage Profit as Profit/Cost × 100%.
well as in any of the three rows. It is known that the
It is known that average amount of money (in rupees) kept in the nine
1. The percentage profit for the store in 2016 was 100%. pouches in any column or in any row is an integer. It is
2. The store’s revenue doubled from 2016 to 2017, and also known that the total amount of money kept in the
its cost doubled from 2016 to 2018. three pouches in the first column of the third row is
Rs. 4.
12
51. What is the total amount of money (in rupees) in the
three pouches kept in the first column of the second
row?
52. How many pouches contain exactly one coin?
53. What is the number of slots for which the average
amount (in rupees) of its three pouches is an integer?
54. The number of slots for which the total amount in its
three pouches strictly exceeds Rs. 10 is
Question Numbers (55 to 58): Answer the questions
on the basis of the information given below.
In the table below the check marks indicate all languages
spoken by five people: Paula, Quentin, Robert, Sally
and Terence. For example, Paula speaks only Chinese
and English.
Arabic Basque Chinese Dutch English French
Paula  
Quentin  
Robert  
Sally  
Terence  
These five people form three teams, Team 1, Team 2
and Team 3. Each team has either 2 or 3 members. A
team is said to speak a particular language if at least
one of its members speak that language.
The following facts are known.
1. Each team speaks exactly four languages and has
the same number of members.
2. English and Chinese are spoken by all three teams,
Basque and French by exactly two teams and the
other languages by exactly one team.
3. None of the teams include both Quentin and Robert.
4. Paula and Sally are together in exactly two teams.
5. Robert is in Team 1 and Quentin is in Team 3.
55. Who among the following four is not a member of
Team 2?
(1) Paula (2) Terence
(3) Sally (4) Quentin
56. Who among the following four people is a part of
exactly two teams?
(1) Sally (2) Paula
(3) Quentin (4) Robert
57. Who among the five people is a member of all teams?
(1) Paula (2) No one
(3) Terence (4) Sally
CAT 2019 Solved Paper
58. Apart from Chinese and English, which languages
are spoken by Team 1?
(1) Arabic and French (2) Basque and French
(3) Arabic and Basque (4) Basque and Dutch
Question Numbers (59 to 62): Answer the questions
on the basis of the information given below.
Students in a college are discussing two proposals --
A: a proposal by the authorities to introduce dress code
on campus, and
B: a proposal by the students to allow multinational food
franchises to set up outlets on college campus.
A student does not necessarily support either of the two
proposals.
In an upcoming election for student union president, there
are two candidates in fray: Sunita and Ragini. Every
student prefers one of the two candidates.
A survey was conducted among the students by picking
a sample of 500 students. The following information was
noted from this survey.
1. 250 students supported proposal A and 250 students
supported proposal B.
2. Among the 200 students who preferred Sunita as
student union president, 80% supported proposal A.
3. Among those who preferred Ragini, 30% supported
proposal A.
4. 20% of those who supported proposal B preferred
Sunita.
5. 40% of those who did not support proposal B preferred
Ragini.
6. Every student who preferred Sunita and supported
proposal B also supported proposal A.
7. Among those who preferred Ragini, 20% did not
support any of the proposals.
59. Among the students surveyed who supported
proposal A, what percentage preferred Sunita for
student union president?
60. What percentage of the students surveyed who did
not support proposal A preferred Ragini as student
union president?
61. What percentage of the students surveyed who
supported both proposals A and B preferred Sunita
as student union president?
(1) 50 (2) 20
(3) 40 (4) 25
62. How many of the students surveyed supported
proposal B, did not support proposal A and preferred
Ragini as student union president?
(1) 40 (2) 200
(3) 150 (4) 210
CAT 2019 Solved Paper 13
Question Numbers (63 to 66): Answer the questions 63. What is the maximum number of patients that the
on the basis of the information given below. clinic can cater to on any single day?
Three doctors, Dr. Ben, Dr. Kane and Dr. Wayne visit a (1) 15 (2) 31
particular clinic Monday to Saturday to see patients. (3) 30 (4) 12
Dr. Ben sees each patient for 10 minutes and charges
64. The queue is never empty on one particular Saturday.
Rs. 100/-. Dr. Kane sees each patient for 15 minutes
Which of the three doctors would earn the maximum
and charges Rs. 200/-, while Dr. Wayne sees each patient
amount in consultation charges on that day?
for 25 minutes and charges Rs. 300/-.
(1) Dr. Wayne
The clinic has three rooms numbered 1, 2 and 3 which
are assigned to the three doctors as per the following (2) Both Dr. Wayne and Dr. Kane
table. (3) Dr. Ben
(4) Dr. Kane
Monday & Wednesday & Friday &
Room No. 65. Mr. Singh visited the clinic on Monday, Wednesday,
Tuesday Thursday Saturday
1 Ben Wayne Kane and Friday of a particular week, arriving at 8:50 a.m.
on each of the three days. His token number was 13
2 Kane Ben Wayne
on all three days. On which day was he at the clinic
3 Wayne Kane Ben for the maximum duration?
The clinic is open from 9 a.m. to 11.30 a.m. every Monday (1) Same duration on all three days
to Saturday.
(2) Monday
On arrival each patient is handed a numbered token
(3) Friday
indicating their position in the queue, starting with token
number 1 every day. As soon as any doctor becomes (4) Wednesday
free, the next patient in the queue enters that emptied 66. On a slow Thursday, only two patients are waiting at
room for consultation. If at any time, more than one room 9 a.m. After that two patients keep arriving at exact
is free then the waiting patient enters the room with the 15 minute intervals starting at 9:15 a.m. -- i.e. at
smallest number. For example, if the next two patients 9:15 a.m., 9:30 a.m., 9:45 a.m. etc. Then the total
in the queue have token numbers 7 and 8 and if rooms duration in minutes when all three doctors are
numbered 1 and 3 are free, then patient with token number simultaneously free is
7 enters room number 1 and patient with token number (1) 15 (2) 0
8 enters room number 3.
(3) 10 (4) 30

Section III: QA
67. In an examination, Rama's score was one-twelfth of (1) 6 2 (2) 5
the sum of the scores of Mohan and Anjali. After a
(3) 8 2 (4) 10
review, the score of each of them increased by 6.
2
The revised scores of Anjali, Mohan, and Rama were 70. The quadratic equation x + bx + c = 0 has two roots
in the ratio 11:10:3. Then Anjali's score exceeded 4a and 3a, where a is an integer. Which of the
Rama's score by following is a possible value of b2 + c?
(1) 24 (2) 26 (1) 361 (2) 549
(3) 35 (4) 32 (3) 427 (4) 3721
68. The base of a regular pyramid is a square and each 71. The strength of a salt solution is p% if 100 ml of the
of the other four sides is an equilateral triangle, length solution contains p grams of salt. Each of three
of each side being 20 cm. The vertical height of the vessels A, B, C contains 500 ml of salt solution of
pyramid, in cm, is strengths 10%, 22%, and 32%, respectively. Now,
100 ml of the solution in vessel A is transferred to
(1) 5 5 (2) 8 3 vessel B. Then, 100 ml of the solution in vessel B is
transferred to vessel C. Finally, 100 ml of the solution
(3) 12 (4) 10 2 in vessel C is transferred to vessel A. The strength,
69. Let ABC be a right-angled triangle with hypotenuse in percentage, of the resulting solution in vessel A is
BC of length 20 cm. If AP is perpendicular on BC, (1) 13 (2) 15
then the maximum possible length of AP, in cm, is (3) 14 (4) 12
14 CAT 2019 Solved Paper

72. In 2010, a library contained a total of 11500 books in 79. John jogs on track A at 6 kmph and Mary jogs on
two categories - fiction and non-fiction. In 2015, the track B at 7.5 kmph. The total length of tracks A and
library contained a total of 12760 books in these two B is 325 metres. While John makes 9 rounds of track
categories. During this period, there was 10% A, Mary makes 5 rounds of track B. In how many
increase in the fiction category while there was 12% seconds will Mary make one round of track A?
increase in the non-fiction category. How many fiction
books were in the library in 2015? 80. If (2n + 1) + (2n + 3) + (2n + 5) ... + (2n + 47)
= 5280, then what is the value of 1 + 2 + 3 + ... + n?
(1) 6000 (2) 6160
(3) 5500 (4) 6600
4x  x 2
73. Two ants A and B start from a point P on a circle at 81. If x is a real number, then loge is a real
3
the same time, with A moving clock-wise and B moving
anti-clockwise. They meet for the first time at 10:00 number if and only if
am when A has covered 60% of the track. If A returns (1) 1 x  3 (2) –1 x  3
to P at 10:12 am, then B returns to P at
(3) –3 x  3 (4) 1 x  2
(1) 10:18 am (2) 10:27 am
82. Let A and B be two regular polygons having a and b
(3) 10:25 am (4) 10:45 am
sides, respectively. If b = 2a and each interior angle
74. The number of common terms in the two sequences:
15, 19, 23, 27, . . . . , 415 and 14, 19, 24, 29, . . . , 3
of B is times each interior angle of A, then each
464 is 2
(1) 21 (2) 20 interior angle, in degrees, of a regular polygon with
(3) 18 (4) 19 a + b sides is
75. Two circles, each of radius 4 cm, touch externally. 83. How many pairs (m, n) of positive integers satisfy
Each of these two circles is touched externally by a the equation m2 + 105 = n2?
third circle. If these three circles have a common 84. The real root of the equation 26x + 23x + 2 – 21 = 0 is
tangent, then the radius of the third circle, in cm, is
(1) log29 (2) log227
(1) 1 (2) 2
log2 3 log2 7
(3) (4)
1  3 3
(3) (4)
2 3
85. A man makes complete use of 405 cc of iron,
76. Let A be a real number. Then the roots of the equation 783 cc of aluminium, and 351 cc of copper to make
x2 – 4x – log2A = 0 are real and distinct if and only if a number of solid right circular cylinders of each type
of metal. These cylinders have the same volume and
1 1
(1) A  (2) A  each of these has radius 3 cm. If the total number of
8 16
cylinders is to be kept at a minimum, then the total
1 1 surface area of all these cylinders, in sq cm, is
(3) A  (4) A 
8 16 (1) 928 (2) 1044(4 + 
77. In a triangle ABC, medians AD and BE are (3) 1026(1 + ) (4) 8464
perpendicular to each other, and have lengths x y
86. If 5 – 3 = 13438 and 5 x–1
+ 3y+1 = 9686, then x + y
12 cm and 9 cm, respectively. Then, the area of equals
triangle ABC, in sq cm, is
87. How many factors of 24 × 35 × 104 are perfect squares
(1) 78 (2) 80
which are greater than 1?
(3) 68 (4) 72
88. Let a1, a2, .... be integers such that
78. What is the largest positive integer n such that
a1 – a2 + a3 – a4 + ... + (–1)n–1 an = n, for all n  1.
2
n  7n  12 Then a51 + a52 + ... + a1023 equals
is also a positive integer?
n2  n  12 (1) 0 (2) 1
(1) 16 (2) 12 (3) –1 (4) 10
(3) 6 (4) 8
CAT 2019 Solved Paper
89. Let a, b, x, y be real numbers such that a2 + b2 = 25,
x2 + y2 = 169, and ax + by = 65. If k = ay – bx, then
5 5
(1) 0  k  (2) k 
13 13
5 96. The average of 30 integers is 5. Among these
(3) k = 0 (4) k 
13
90. Amal invests Rs 12000 at 8% interest, compounded
annually, and Rs 10000 at 6% interest, compounded
semi-annually, both investments being for one year.
Bimal invests his money at 7.5% simple interest for
one year. If Amal and Bimal get the same amount of
interest, then the amount, in Rupees, invested by
Bimal is
91. A cyclist leaves A at 10 am and reaches B at 11 am.
Starting from 10:01 am, every minute a motor cycle
leaves A and moves towards B. Forty-five such motor
cycles reach B by 11 am. All motor cycles have the
same speed. If the cyclist had doubled his speed,
how many motor cycles would have reached B by
the time the cyclist reached B?
(1) 23 (2) 20
(3) 15 (4) 22
92. In a six-digit number, the sixth, that is, the rightmost,
digit is the sum of the first three digits, the fifth digit
is the sum of first two digits, the third digit is equal
to the first digit, the second digit is twice the first
digit and the fourth digit is the sum of fifth and sixth
digits. Then, the largest possible value of the fourth
digit is
100. A shopkeeper sells two tables, each procured at cost
93. Anil alone can do a job in 20 days while Sunil alone
can do it in 40 days. Anil starts the job, and after 3
days, Sunil joins him. Again, after a few more days,
Bimal joins them and they together finish the job. If
Bimal has done 10% of the job, then in how many
days was the job done?
(1) 14 (2) 15
(3) 12 (4) 13
94. In an examination, the score of A was 10% less than
that of B, the score of B was 25% more than that of
C, and the score of C was 20% less than that of D.
If A scored 72, then the score of D was
15
95. John gets Rs 57 per hour of regular work and
Rs 114 per hour of overtime work. He works altogether
172 hours and his income from overtime hours is
15% of his income from regular hours. Then, for how
many hours did he work overtime?
30 integers, there are exactly 20 which do not exceed
5. What is the highest possible value of the average
of these 20 integers?
(1) 4.5 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 3.5
97. Mukesh purchased 10 bicycles in 2017, all at the
same price. He sold six of these at a profit of 25%
and the remaining four at a loss of 25%. If he made
a total profit of Rs. 2000, then his purchase price of
a bicycle, in Rupees, was
(1) 8000 (2) 2000
(3) 6000 (4) 4000
98. The salaries of Ramesh, Ganesh and Rajesh were
in the ratio 6:5:7 in 2010, and in the ratio 3:4:3 in
2015. If Ramesh’s salary increased by 25% during
2010-2015, then the percentage increase in Rajesh’s
salary during this period is closest to
(1) 10 (2) 8
(3) 7 (4) 9
99. Let f be a function such that f (mn) = f (m) f (n) for
every positive integers m and n. If f (1), f (2) and
f (3) are positive integers, f (1) < f (2), and
f (24) = 54, then f (18) equals
price p, to Amal and Asim at a profit of 20% and at a
loss of 20%, respectively. Amal sells his table to
Bimal at a profit of 30%, while Asim sells his table to
Barun at a loss of 30%. If the amounts paid by Bimal
and Barun are x and y, respectiv ely, then
(x – y)
equals
P
(1) 0.7 (2) 1
(3) 1.2 (4) 0.50
16 CAT 2019 Solved Paper

ANSWERS
1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (1) 8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (2)

11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (2)

21. (1) 22. (4) 23. (2) 24. (4) 25. (1) 26. (3421) 27. (2) 28. (2143) 29. (2) 30. (2431)

31. (4132) 32. (3) 33. (1) 34. (3) 35. (2) 36. (3) 37. (1) 38. (1) 39. (1) 40. (4)

41. (4) 42. (3) 43. (2) 44. (4) 45. (1) 46. (3) 47. (25) 48. (2) 49. (70) 50. (2)

51. (13) 52. (8) 53. (2) 54. (3) 55. (4) 56. (1) 57. (1) 58. (1) 59. (64) 60. (84)

61. (1) 62. (3) 63. (2) 64. (4) 65. (2) 66. (2) 67. (4) 68. (4) 69. (4) 70. (2)

71. (3) 72. (4) 73. (2) 74. (2) 75. (1) 76. (4) 77. (4) 78. (2) 79. (48) 80. (4851)

81. (1) 82. (150) 83. (4) 84. (3) 85. (3) 86. (13) 87. (44) 88. (2) 89. (3) 90. (20920)

91. (3) 92. (7) 93. (4) 94. (80) 95. (12) 96. (1) 97. (4) 98. (3) 99. (12) 100. (2)

EXPLANATIONS
1. Options 1 and 2 are categorically mentioned in
the first three paragraphs. Hence, they cannot be
the correct answers.
2. Ethan Watrall believes that Google’s collaboration
with CyArk is all about advertisements and driving
traffic. Refer to the sentence, “But at its core, it’s
all about advertisements and driving traffic.”
3. The answer can be found in the following sentences:
Erin Thompson, a professor of art crime at John
Jay College of Criminal Justice in New York City,
says it’s the latest example of a Western nation
appropriating a foreign culture, a centuries-long
battle … CyArk says it copyrights the scans so
no one can use them in an inappropriate way …
where these sites are located.” The other options
are out of scope.
4. Watrall believes that Google’s initiative is all about
advertisements and driving traffic. In other words,
profit motive is evident. However, if CyArk uploads
the images onto museum websites, Dr. Watrall’s
theory will be nullified. Uploading images onto
museum websites will ensure that profit motive is
absent. Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.
5. Refer to the sentences in the initial section of the
passage: “But the project is raising questions about
Google’s motivations and about who should own
the digital copyrights. Some critics call it a form of
‘digital colonialism.’” The other options cannot be
said to be interpretations of ‘digital colonialism.’
6. The phrase ‘’a long pedigree’’ is found in the first
line of the 4th paragraph. The use of the phrase
“long pedigree” in the given context indicates that
the effort to move the civil servants from capitals to
other places is not a new thing. So, option 2 is the
answer.
7. Options 2, 3 and 4 are found in the given passage.
Option 2 – Refer to the 3rd sentence of the 2nd
paragraph, “Wonks in the sticks will be inspired
by new ideas that walled-off capitals cannot
conjure up.”
Option 3 – Refer to the 4th sentence the 2nd
paragraph, “Autonomous regulators perform best
far from the pressure and lobbying of the big city.”
Option 4 – Refer to the 1st sentence of the 3rd
paragraph and sentences 5 and 6 of the 4th
paragraph respectively, “…to save money…” and
“The second reason to pack bureaucrats off is to
save money. Office space costs far more in
capitals. . . . Agencies that are moved elsewhere
can often recruit better workers on lower salaries
than in capitals…”
Option 1 is not mentioned in the passage.
Therefore, it is the answer.
8. Refer to the 2nd sentence of the 1st paragraph,
“…capitals picked by trade-focused empires…”
Here, the empires refer to the colonial powers and
it is clearly seen from the quoted line that these
colonial powers picked their capitals to promote
their trades.
9. Option 4 – Refer to the 6th paragraph, “The dilemma
is obvious. Pick small, poor towns, and areas of
high unemployment get new jobs, but it is hard to
attract the most qualified workers; opt for larger
cities with infrastructure and better-qualified
residents, and the country’s most deprived areas
see little benefit.” This part of the passage talks
about the dilemma. So, option 4 is the answer.
CAT 2019 Solved Paper
10. Options 1, 3 and 4 are found in the given passage.
Option 1 – Refer to the 2nd sentence of the 6th
paragraph, “Pick small, poor towns, and areas of
high unemployment get new jobs, but it is hard to
attract the most qualified workers…”
Option 3 - Refer to the 1st sentence of the 7th
paragraph “…decentralisation begets corruption by
making government agencies less accountable.”
Option 4 - Refer to the 3rd sentence of the 4th
paragraph, “But swapping the capital for somewhere
smaller is not always agreeable. Attrition rates can
exceed 80%.”
Option 2 is not mentioned in the given passage.
Thus, it is the answer.
11. Option 1 is mentioned in the third paragraph. The
aut hor m enti ons t he words ‘wrestle’ and
‘frustrations’ (third last paragraph) that indicate the
ups and downs in the process of learning a
language. Options 3 and 4 are mentioned in the
last paragraph.
12. Refer to the third last paragraph for the answer.
The author intends to say that familiarity with a
language can actually blur the cultural differences.
The other options are out of scope.
13. The author regards himself as a man of language.
He speaks both Chinese and Arabic. Equipped with
these languages, he studies Chinese cultural
contact with the Egyptians. Therefore, option 2 is
very likely to be his view.
14. The fact that the author speaks Arabic but still
considers the Arabic as outsiders would clearly
make the author’s critics argue that language is
insufficient to bridge the cultural barriers. So, option
1 is the answer.
15. Options 1, 2 and 4 support the argument as they
are mentioned in the passage. Option 1 is
mentioned in the first paragraph. Option 2 is
mentioned in the second paragraph. Option 4 is
mentioned towards the end concluding part of the
passage where it says that modernity was an
external thing that was imposed on the Indian
society which eventually led to underdevelopment.
Option 3 is the correct answer because it was not
the modernity that caused the change in the colonial
policy but the other way round.
16. ‘Here’ in the given context refers to India. This is
supported by the parts of the passage which
precede it. ‘Endogenous change’ means internal
change and according to the quoted lines such
change is not something which happens in India.
Rather it is forced upon the Indians by the colonial
policies. So, option 3 is the answer. Options 1 and
4 do not specifically talk about India.
17. Option 2 is the answer. Options 1, 3 and 4 do not
make sense according to the given passage. The
17
only reason why modernity was introduced to
change the Indian society was to address the
marginalization that the colonial state felt as it was
already modern and the Indian society was not at
that time.
18. The following sequence captures the flow of the
arguments in the given passage: 1st line of the 1st
paragraph, “British colonial policy…”, 3rd sentence
of the 1st paragraph, “…Enlightenment…”, 6th
sentence of the 1st paragraph, “…modernity…”, 2nd
sentence of the second paragraph, “…with
subjection.” and the last sentence of the last
paragraph. In other words, the colonial policy
included Enlightenment of the colonized people
and modernity was forced upon them only to
dom inat e them which ev ent ually led to
underdevelopment and dependency. So, option 3
is the answer.
19. Option 2 is directly mentioned in the given passage.
Refer to the sentences, “But this modernity did
not enter a passive society. Sometimes, its
initiatives were resisted by pre-existing structural
forms. At times, there was a more direct form of
collective resistance.”
20. Options 1, 3 and 4 are clearly mentioned in the
passage; however, option 2 is not mentioned in
the passage.
21. It is mentioned in the first paragraph that squatter
cities are also unexpectedly green and they have
minimum energy and material use as people get
around by foot, bicycle, rickshaw, or the universal
shared taxi. So, that makes the point that the
author is defending these cities are green. Thus,
option 1 would undermine his stand regarding the
greenness of cities.
22. Refer to the 5th paragraph of the given passage.
The reason why the city of Manus is mentioned in
the passage is to emphasize the f act that
subsidi sed city l ike Manaus could stop
deforestation and this serves as an example that
urban areas can help in protecting the environment.
So, option 4 is the answer.
23. Options 1 and 4 are mentioned in the last paragraph
and option 3 is mentioned in the fifth paragraph.
Option 2 cannot be inferred from the given passage.
24. ‘Jars’ in the phrase “still jars” is used as a verb; it
means ‘to bear unpleasant effect on’ or ‘annoy’.
Calthorpe’s statements: “The city is the most
environmentally benign form of human settlement.
Each city dweller consumes less land, less
energy, less water, and produces less pollution
than his counterpart in settlements of lower
densities.” still bear an unpleasant effect on the
people as his statements contradict what people
think about cities.
18 CAT 2019 Solved Paper

25. Sentences 2 and 5 can be clubbed together.
Sentence 2 talks about speaking from the third
person’s point of view while sentence 5 mentions
a change in perspective. Sentences 3 and 4 can
be clubbed together as well because both explain
rumination. Therefore, sentence 1 is the odd
sentence.
26. Sentence 4 explains sentence 3. Hence, 3 and 4
can be defined as a mandatory pair. 2 and 1 also
form a mandatory pair because sentence 1 talks
about harmony of nature which is an explanation
of ‘integrated, well-ordered system’ mentioned in
sentence 2.
27. Except sentence 2, the other sentences talk about
single panel comics and the characteristic feature
of being interesting, humorous, funny and
possessing an element of joke. Thus, all the
sentences, except sentence 2, can be clubbed
together.
28. Sentence 2 mentions atonality and it is further
explained in sentence 1. Sentence 4 follows and
sentence 3 mentions how to compose or perform
atonal music. Hence, sentence 3 closes the
paragraph effectively.
29. Except sentence 2, the other sentences talk about
the problem of plastic pollution and how marine
animals eat plastic. Sentence 2 doesn’t talk about
the consumption of plastic. Hence, it is the odd
sentence.
30. 2 and 4 form a mandatory pair. In sentence 2, there
is the mention of ‘treating objects as equivalent.’
The same idea is explained further in sentence 4.
Sentence 3 talks about structure and order and
sentence 1 explains the word ‘structure’ further.’
31. Sentence 1 talks about a certain representation
and this representation is given in sentence 4.
Hence, 4 and 1 form a mandatory pair. Sentence 3
talks about caring practices and time that is further
elaborated in sentence 2.
32. The other options are narrow in scope. The passage
mentions memory and also, the gradual evolution
of languages. There is also the mention of aspects
or features of cognition that help a language to
develop. Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.
33. Option 1 is the most appropriate summary because
the mentions that open offices were originally
conceived to break social walls. Later, open offices
were preferred by employers because more
number of people could be accommodated. The
other options are narrow in scope.
34. Refer to the second sentence of the paragraph.
The second sentence forms the crux of the
passage. The other options are narrow in scope
and don’t encompass the entire passage.

For questions 35 to 38:

According to the given information, the table till now becomes–

MT ET
Question No. Prepared by Marks Question No. Prepared by Marks
1 Fakir 5 1 Dave 5
2 Fakir 5 2 5
3 Chetan 5 3 Chetan 5
4 Chetan 5 4 5
5 Annie 5 5 Annie
6 6
7 7
8 Esha 8 Esha
: :
: :
Last Last
Question Dave 15 Question Fakir 15

There would be definitely more than 18 questions in total considering MT and ET together as ET contained more
questions than MT i.e., total 24. Also, each faculty member prepared the same number of questions so that means
each faculty must have prepared 4 questions in MT and ET together.
CAT 2019 Solved Paper 19
There were atleast 4 questions worth 5 marks, atleast 3 questions worth 10 marks and atleast 2 questions worth 15
marks such that all 5 - mark questions preceded the 10 - mark questions and all the 15 - mark questions followed the
10 - mark questions.
From statement (ii) and (iii), we could say that the 2nd question and 4th question in MT were prepared by Fakir and
Chetan respectively.
From statement (ii), Annie prepared one question for MT, that means, she prepared three questions for ET. From the
above table, there are two possibilities now–
Case 1: Annie prepared 4th, 5th and 6th questions for ET.
Case 2: Annie prepared 5th, 6th and 7th questions for ET.
Case 1: If Annie prepared 4th, 5th and 6th questions for ET, then Chetan must have prepared 2nd and 3rd questions for
ET, which further implies that Dave prepared only 1 question for ET and 3 questions for MT.
From statement 5th, we could also say that the last three questions were prepared by Dave for MT, and as total 24
questions were there in total so maximum 11 questions could be prepared for MT. This means 9th, 10th and 11th
questions were prepared by Dave for MT. From statements 2nd and 4th, we could say 7th and 8th questions were
prepared by Esha, so only 6th question remained left in MT which would be definitely prepared by Beti. But Beti must
prepare more than 1 question for MT so this case is incorrect.
Case 2: If Annie prepared 5th, 6th and 7th questions for ET, then definitely the 4th question was prepared by Chetan
and 2nd question was prepared by Dave for ET (from statement iii).
So, Dave prepared 1st and 2nd questions for ET, therefore he must have prepared the last two questions for MT.
Esha prepared 8th question, so she must have prepared 9th also for MT. Hence, Beti prepared 6th and 7th for MT.
ET had more number of questions than MT so, MT had 11 and ET had 13 questions in all.
Now, Esha prepared 2 questions for MT so, she must have prepared 2 questions for ET. Therefore, Esha prepared 8th
and 9th for ET. Fakir prepared last two questions i.e., 12th and 13th, so Beti prepared 10th and 11th questions for ET.
So, the final table looks like.

MT ET
Question No. Prepared by Marks Question No. Prepared by Marks
1 Fakir 5 1 Dave 5
2 Fakir 5 2 Dave 5
3 Chetan 5 3 Chetan 5
4 Chetan 5 4 Chetan 5
5 Annie 5 5 Annie 5
6 Beti 10 6 Annie 5
7 Beti 10 7 Annie 5
8 Esha 10 8 Esha 5
9 Esha 15 9 Esha 10
10 Dave 15 10 Beti 10
11 Dave 15 11 Beti 10
12 Fakir 15
13 Fakir 15

35. Clearly, from the table, we can see that the second question in ET was prepared by Dave.
36. In MT, 5 questions were there worth 5 marks and in ET, 8 questions were there. So, in total 13 questions were
there in MT and ET combined.
37. Only Esha, Dave and Fakir prepared 15 - mark questions for MT and ET.
38. Beti prepared 10th question among the given options in ET.
20 CAT 2019 Solved Paper

For questions 39 to 42:

From the condition given in the statements, we can make the following table:

1 2 3 4 5 6 T1 7 8 9 10 T2
A X X X X 8 18
B X X X X 2 5
C X X X 3 X 6
D X X 6 X X 6
E X 3 X X X 10
F 10 X X X X 10
G X 17 X X X 17
H X X 1 X X 4
I X X X 2 X 17
J X X X X 14 17
Where T1 = Total points after Round 6
T2 = Total points after Round 10
The information known about Rounds 1 through 6:
1. Gordon (G) did not score consecutively in any two rounds.
2. Eric (E) and Fatima (F) both scored in a round.
By observing the table:
1. Jordan (J) scored 7 points in both the rounds 5th and 6th.
2. Amita (A) scored 1, 7 points then she scored 7 in the first round.
3. Bala (B) scored 1 point in both the rounds 1st and 2nd.
4. Ikea (I) scored 1 point in the round 4th and 5th.
5. Gordon (G- 7, 7, 3 ) did not score consecutively in any two rounds so it scored in 2nd, 4th and 6th rounds
respectively.
We can make the following table from the details given in the question.

1 2 3 4 5 6 T1 7 8 9 10 T2
A 7 X X X X 1 8 18
B 1 1 X X X X 2 5
C 3 0 0 X X X 3 X 6
D 0 3 0 3 X X 6 X X 6
E 0 0 3 0 0 X 3 X X X 10
F 0 0 7 0 3 0 10 X X X X 10
G X 7 0 7 0 3 17 X X X 17
H X X 1 0 0 0 1 X X 4
I X X X 1 1 0 2 X 17
J X X X X 7 7 14 17

1. Only two players scored in three consecutive rounds. One of them was Chen. So He scored 1 point in the
rounds 8th, 9th and 10th.
2. Ikea scored 15 points (1,7,7) in three rounds respectively.
3. Eric scored 7 in round 10.
4. Amita will score 3 in round 10, and 7 in round 7.
CAT 2019 Solved Paper 21
We can make the following table:

1 2 3 4 5 6 T1 7 8 9 10 T2
A 7 X X X X 1 8 7 0 0 3 18
B 1 1 X X X X 2 0 0 3 0 5
C 3 0 0 X X X 3 X 1 1 1 6
D 0 3 0 3 X X 6 X X 0 0 6
E 0 0 3 0 0 X 3 X X X 7 10
F 0 0 7 0 3 0 10 X X X X 10
G X 7 0 7 0 3 17 0 X X X 17
H X X 1 0 0 0 1 0 3 X X 4
I X X X 1 1 0 2 1 7 7 X 17
J X X X X 7 7 14 3 0 0 0 17

39. The scores of Chen, David and Eric after round 3 were 3, 3, 3 respectively.
40. Hansa, Ikea and Joshin were in the last three positions after round 4.
41. Ikea scored points in maximum number of rounds.
42. Amita, Chen, and Eric scored points in the last round.
43. Heavy monsoon states = 1000 + 1350 + 1100 + 2700 + 1000 + 1500 + 1750 = 10400
Those having negative deviation from respective LPAs = 1000 + 1500 + 1750 = 4250.
4250
 Required %   100 ~ 42.86%.
10400
44. There are 9 low monsoon states from the given figure and to find the median ‘deviation from LPA’, first we will
arrange them in increasing order.
So, their deviations in terms of percentage are–
–60, –40, –35, –30, –10, 10, 15, 20, 25.
The middle number of this sequence is the median i.e., –10%.
45. There are 5 states that have actual rainfall of 600mm or less in 2019 and have a negative deviation from LPA.
600  600  400  300  400 2300
 Average rainfall of these 5 states =   460mm.
5 5
46. The actual rainfall in Gujarat in 2019 = 600 mm
100
The actual rainfall in Gujarat in 2009 =  600 = 500 mm
120
% deviation from LPP of Gujarat in 2018 = 25%

125
 600 =  LPA in 2018  LPA ub 2018 = 480 mm
100
 Total sum of rainfall in Gujarat during 2009 – 18 = 480 × 10 = 4800 mm
Rainfall during 2010 – 18 = 4800 – 500 = 4300 mm
Total sum of rainfall during 2010 – 2019 = 4300 + 600 = 4900 mm
4900
 Average rainfall = = 490 mm
10
So, the LPA of Gujarat in 2019 is closest to 490 mm.
22 CAT 2019 Solved Paper

For questions 47 to 50:

We can make the following table from the figure given in the question:

Revenue Cost
Clothing Produce Electronics Clothing Produce Electronics
2016 20 30 50 30 40 30
2017 30 40 30 30 30 40
2018 40 40 20 20 50 30

If we consider the total cost in the year 2016 as 100, then according to statement 1, the total revenue in 2016 must be
200. The store’s revenue doubled from 2016 to 2017, thus the total revenue in the year 2017 = 400. We can find the
revenue for the individual department in the year 2017, from the table. There was no profit from the Electronics
department in 2017, thus, we can find the total cost in 2017= 300. Considering the statement 4, we can find the total
revenue in 2018 and tabulate the following table.

Cost
Clothing Produce Electronics Total
2016 30% 30 40% 40 30% 30 100
2017 30% 90 30% 90 40% 120 300
2018 20% 40 50% 100 30% 60 200

Revenue
Clothing Produce Electronics Total
2016 20% 40 30% 60 50% 100 200
2017 30% 120 40% 160 30% 120 400
2018 40% 100 40% 100 20% 50 250

250  200
47. The percentage profit of the store in 2018   25%.
200
48. The ratio of revenue generated from the Produce department in 2017 to that in 2018 = 160 : 100
= 8 : 5.
49. Profit in 2016 = 200 – 100 = 100 Profit in the electronic department in 2016 = 100 – 30 = 70. So, the required
profit is 70%.

400  300
50. Profit percentage in 2017 = = 33.33%.
300

250  200
Profit percentage in 2018 = = 25%.
200
The approximate difference in profit percentages of the store in 2017 and 2018 = (33.33 – 25)% = 8.33%.
CAT 2019 Solved Paper 23
For questions 51 to 54: Thus {20,3,4} is the only solution possible.
We can make the following table from “the total amount
of money kept in the three pouches in the first column of Column 1 Column 2 Column 3
the third row is Rs. 4.” 10 20
Row 1
If the minimum and maximum values are 1, then the sum (2,4,4) (6,6,8)
of the three pouches in the middle will be Rs 3. 13 3 38
Row 2
(3,5,5) (1,1,1) (6,12,20)
Column 1 Column 2 Column 3 4 4
Row 3
Row 1 (1,1,2) (1,1,2)
3
Row 2 We can similarly make the following table for the last
(1,1,1)
column.
4
Row 3
(1,1,2) Column 1 Column 2 Column 3
10 20 6
If we calculate the maximum and minimum value possible Row 1
for each slot in column 1. For the slot, column 1 and row (2,4,4) (6,6,8) (1,2,3)
1, the maximum value possible is 10{2,4,4} while the 13 3 38
Row 2
minimum value possible is 8{2,2,4}. (3,5,5) (1,1,1) (6,12,20)
Similarly, for the slot, column 1 and row 2, the maximum 4 4 10
value possible is 13{3,5,5} while the minimum value Row 3
(1,1,2) (1,1,2) (2,3,5)
possible is 11{3,3,5}.
It is known that the average amount of money (in rupees) 51. The total amount of money (in rupees) in the three
kept in the nine pouches in any column or in any row is pouches kept in the first column of the second row
an integer. Thus the sum of coins in a row or column = 13.
must be a multiple of 9. 52. 8 pouches contain exactly one coin
So, we can iterate that 10,13,4 ...{27} is the only sum 53. For 2 slots, the average amount in three pouches
possible for the slots of column 1. is an integer.
We now know two elements of row 2, thus we can iterate 54. For 3 slots, the total amount in three pouches
from the maximum and the minimum value possible for exceeds Rs. 10.
the slot {column 3, row 2} that 38 is the only value possible For questions 55 to 58:
for the slot.
From statement 1 and 2,Each team speaks exactly four
We can make the following table: languages. English and Chinese are spoken by all three
teams, Basque and French by exactly two teams and
Column 1 Column 2 Column 3 the other languages by exactly one team, multiple options
are possible.
10
Row 1 In the following tables: A, B, C can be any team among
(2,4,4)
Team 1,Team 2,Team 3.
13 3 38
Row 2
(3,5,5) (1,1,1) (6,12,20) A B C
4 English English English
Row 3
(1,1,2)
Chinese Chinese Chinese
Similarly, we can find the amount for Column 2. Basque Basque Arabic
For the slot, column 2 and row 1, the maximum value French French Dutch
possible is 22{6,8,8} while the minimum value possible is
20{6,6,8}.
A B C
For the slot, column 2 and row 3, the maximum value
possible is 5{1,2,3} while the minimum value possible is English English English
4{1,1,2}. Chinese Chinese Chinese
Basque Basque Arabic
Dutch French French
24 CAT 2019 Solved Paper

The number of students who supported Ragini(R) = 300

A B C
Sunita (200) Ragini (300)
English English English
A B A B
Chinese Chinese Chinese
Basque Basque Dutch
Arabic French French

From the data given in the question, the person who

speaks Arabic also speaks French. Thus the only option According to statements 2 and 3, 160 students who
possible is ‘Table 2’. supported Sunita also supported the proposal A and 90
students who supported Ragini also supported proposal
A.
A B C
According to statements 4 and 6, we can make the
English English English following Venn diagram for Sunita.
Chinese Chinese Chinese
Sunita (200)
Basque Basque Arabic
A (160) B (150)
Dutch French French

According to statement 4, “Paula and Sally are together 110 50 0

in exactly two teams.” Sally knows Basque, thus, she
will be in group A and B, with Paula. According to 40
statement 5, Robert (Arabic) is in Team 1 and
Quentin(Dutch) is in Team 3. Thus, Group C is Team 1 According to statement 5 and 7, we can make the
and Group A is Team 3. following Venn diagram.

Team 3 Team 2 Team 1 Ragini (300)

Paula, A (90) B (200)
Paula,
English Sally, English English Paula
Sally
Quentin
Paula, Paula,
Chinese Paula Chinese Chinese 40 50 150
Terence Terence
Terence, 60
Basque Sally Basque Sally Arabic
Robert
Dutch Quentin French Terence French Robert 59. The number of students who preferred Sunita and
55. Quentin is not a member of team 2. 160
56. Sally is a part of exactly two teams. the proposal A = 160 = = 64%
250
57. Among the five people, Paula is the one who is a 60. The percentage of the students surveyed who did
member of all teams. not support proposal A preferred Ragini as student
58. Apart from Chinese and English, Arabic and French
210
are spoken by Team 1. union president = = 84%.
250
For questions 59 to 62:
61. According to the Venn diagram, the students
Total number of students surveyed = 500
surveyed who supported both proposals A and B
Every student prefers one of the two candidates. Ragini(R) preferred Sunita as student union president
and Sunita(S).
50
Thus, R + S = 500.   50%.
(50  50)
According to statement 2, “Among the 200 students who
preferred Sunita as student union president, 80% 62. From the venn diagram we can see that 150
supported proposal A.” students is the correct answer.
The number of students who support Sunita(S) = 200
CAT 2019 Solved Paper 25
63. If all the doctors served the patients one after the had to wait at the clinic for the maximum duration:
other, then in 2.5 hrs, Ben will serve 15 patients, till 10 : 15.
Kane will serve 10 patients and Wayne will serve 6 66. On Thursday, the preference order for the patients
patients. A total of 31 patients can be served on a is Wayne, Ben and Kane.
particular day.
The first two customers will be served by Wayne
64. If all the doctors served the patients one after the and Ben. While Kane will be empty for the first 15
other, then in 2.5 hrs, Ben will serve 15 patients, minutes. Then he and Ben will serve the next two
Kane will serve 10 patients and Wayne will serve 6 customers and Wayne will be empty for 5 minutes
patients. as shown in the figure below.
Ben will earn = 15 × 100 = Rs. 1500.
Kane will earn = 10 × 200 = Rs. 2000. 25 min
Wayne
Wayne will earn = 6 × 300 = Rs. 1800.
So, Kane will earn the maximum amount in 10 min
consultation charges on that day. Ben
65. Mr. Singh is 13th in the sequence on all the three 15 min
days. Kane
The following table will show the sequence for
Monday, Wednesday and Friday.
9:00 9:15 9:30 9:45 10:00 10:15
1 4 6 8 10 12
Ben
As we can see that the cycle will repeat after every
2 5 9 11 30 minutes. So, all three doctors are never
Kane simultaneously free.
13 67. Let the Rama’s score be ‘R’, Mohan’s score be ‘M’
3 7
Wayne and Anjali’s score be ‘A’
As per the question,

1
9:00 9:20 9:40 10:00 10:15 R M  A  ...(1)
2
and (A + 6) : (m + 6) : (R + 6) = 11 : 10 : 3 ...(2)
1 7 12
Wayne A  6 11

R6 3
2 4 6 8 10 13
Ben  3A = 11R + 48

3 5 9 11 M  6 10
Kane and 
R6 3
 3M = 10R + 42
From (1) 12R = M + A
9:00 9:20 9:40 10:00
36R = 3M + 3A
36R = 11R + 48 + 10R + 42
1 5 8 11
Kane 15R = 90

2 7 12 R6
Wayne
116   48
3 4 6 9 10 13  A  38
Ben 3

10 6  42
and M   36
3
9:00 9:20 9:40 10:00
 Anjali’s score exceeded Rama’s score by
He will stay the longest when the 13th guy is served (38 – 6) = 32.
by Doctor Wayne. From the table, on Monday he
26 CAT 2019 Solved Paper

O 70. The quadratic equation x2 + bx + c = 0 has two

68.
roots ‘3a’ and ‘4a’.
b
Sum of roots = 4a + 3a 
A B 1
c
Product of roots = (4a) (3a) 
1
M
7a = –b
D C 12a2 = c
In the figure, ABCD is a square and each of  OAB, Now, b2 + c = (–7a)2 + (12a2) = 49a2 + 12a2 = 61a2
AOD, ODC and BOC is an equilateral triangle.
Now, from options, the only possible value of
Let the height of pyramid = OM = h (b2 + c) is 549 where a is an integer i.e., a = 3.
Now, DC = BC = 20 cm ...given 71. The three vessels A, B and C contain 500 ml of salt
solution of strength 10%, 22% and 32% respectively
 BD  20 2
10
1 Vessel A contains  500 = 50 gm salt

 MD  20 2  10 2
2
 100

Now, In right angled triangle OMD, 22

Vessel B contains  500 = 110 gm salt
(OM)2 + (MD)2 = OD2 100

2 32

h2 = (20)2 – 10 2  Vessel C contains
100
 500 = 160 gm salt

In first step, 100 ml of solution from A is transferred

h  10 2
100
 The vertical height of the pyramid  10 2 cm. to B. Salt transferred   50 = 10 gm
500
69. B Therefore, after transfer, A has 40 gm salt in 400 ml
and vessel B has 120 gm salt in 600 ml.
20 cm In second step, similarly, 20 gm salt and 100 ml is
P transferred from B to C, result in 180 gm salt and
600 ml solution in vessel C.
In final step, 30 gm of salt and 100 ml is transferred
A C from C to A, resulting in 70 gm salt and 500 ml in
The length of AP will be maximum only when vessel A.
AB = AC
70
 In rt. BAC, Final strength in vessel A   100 = 14%.
500
(AB)2 + (AC)2 = (20)2
72. Let the number of fiction book be denoted by x and
2(AC)2 = 400
non-fiction book be denoted by y.
AC  10 2 x + y = 11500 ...(I)
Now, In APC 1.1x + 1.12y = 12760 ...(II)
(AP)2 + (PC)2 = AC2 x = 11500 – y
(Right angled triangle) from (I) 1.1 (11500 – y) + 1.12y = 12760
2  BC  12650 – 1.1y + 1.12y = 12760
 AP2  10 2  2
 10  PC  
2  y = 5500
AP2 = 100  x = 11500 – 5500
 AP = 10 cm. x = 6000
 Number of fiction books in 2015
= 1.1 × 6000 = 6600.
CAT 2019 Solved Paper 27
73. Two ants A and B meet for the first time at 10:00 A C3
am when A has covered 60% of the track. 75. l1
C P
P
B A
O B Q

C1 C2
At The circles C1 and C2 are each of radius 4 cm.
10 : 00 am Circle C3 touches C1 and C2 such that line l1 is a
 At 10:00 am, B has covered 40% of the track. common tangent.
Let the total length of track be T km. Now, Let the radius of C3 be r.
Let the speed of ant A and B be SA km/min and OP = 4 + 4
SB km/min respectively. OC = 4 – r
Time taken by A to cover 60% of track = time taken CP = OB = 4
by B to cover 40% of track. In triangle OCP, which is right angled at C,
0.6T 0.4T OP2 = OC2 + CP2
 
SA SB  (4 + r)2 = (4 – r)2 + 42
(4 + r)2 – (4 – r)2 = 42
SA 3 8 × 2r = 16
 
SB 2 r = 1 cm.
A returns to P at 10:12 am 76. The roots of the equation x2 – 4x – log2 A = 0 are
real and distinct if b2 – 4 ac > 0
0.4T
  12
SA  ( 4)2  4(log2 A)  0
16 > 4 log2 A
0.4T
 SA  4 > log2 A
12
A < 24
0.6T A < 16
Now, Time in which B returns to P 
SB
1
i.e., A  .
0.6T 16
 = 27 min
2  0.4T  C
  77.
3 12

 B returns to P at 10:27 am. E

74. 15, 19, 23, 27, ........ 415 ...(1) 3 O 4D
19, 24, 29, 34, ........ 464 ...(2) 8 6
st
Common difference of 1 series =d1 = 4 A B
Common difference of 2nd series = d2 = 5 AD and BE are medians intersecting at point O
The common terms in both series (1) and (2) will which is the centroid.
form an A.P with common difference = LCM (d1, A centroid divides the median in the ratio of 2 : 1
d2) = LCM (4, 5) = 20
 AO = 8 cm, OD = 4 cm and BO = 6 cm and
 Number of common terms (n) can be calculated OE = 3cm.
by
415 = 19 + (n – 1) 20 1
Hence, are of AOB   8  6 = 24 cm2
n = 20.8 2
 20 terms are common in both series. In a triangle, all three medians meeting at centroid,
divides the area of the triangle into three equal parts
28 CAT 2019 Solved Paper

C Here, N is the number of terms in the series

(1 + 3 + 5 + .....47)
tN = a + (N – 1)d
1 O 1 47 = 1 + (N – 1) (2)
1 46
A B  N1
2
Hence, area of ABC = 3 × Area of AOB
N = 24
= 3 × 24 = 72 cm2.
N
n2 7n  12 n  4 n  3  n  4  SN 
2
2a  N  1 d
78.  
n  n  12 n  4 n  3  n  4
2
24
From the options,  2  23 2 = 576
2 
n  4 16  4 5  From (1)
(i) Put n = 16,  
n4 16  4 3 48n = 5280 – 576
n = 98
n  4 12  4
(ii) Put n = 12,   2  is a positive 98
n  4 12  4  1 + 2 + 3 + ......n  1  98  4851 .
integer. 2
 The largest positive integer, n = 12. 4x  x 2
79. A + B = 325 81. loge is a real number..
3
John jogs on track A at 6 km/hr
4x  x 2
5 5  loge 0
6  m / sec. 3
18 3
Mary jogs on track B at 7.5 km/hr 4x  x2
 e
3
5 25
 7.5   m / sec  4x – x2  3
18 12
x2 – 4x  3
9A 5 B  x2 – 4x – 3  0
As per question, 
5  25 (x – 3) (x – 1) 0
  12
3 x – 3 0 and x – 1 0 or (x – 3) 0 & (x – 1) 0
x 3 and x 1 or x 3 & x 1
27A 60B  1 x 3.

5 25
(a  2)180
4 82. Interior angle of polygon A of a sides 
A  B a
9
Given that,
 A + B = 325
b  2 3 a  2
4     180     180
b  2 a 
 B   B  325
9
 2ba – 4a = 3 ab – 6b
 B = 225 m 2(2a)a – 4a = 3a(2a) – 6(2a)
 A = 325 – 225 = 100 m. 4a2 – 4a = 6a2 – 12a
100  2a2 = 8a
Required time   48 sec .
a = 4
 25 
  Therefore, a = 4 and b = 8.
12
80. (2n + 1) + (2n + 3) + .......... (2n + 47) = 5280 For polygon of a + b sides, a +b = 12.
 (N × 2n) + (1 + 3 + 5 + .... 47) = 5280  12  2 
Interior angle     180 = 150°.
2Nn + (1 + 3 + 5 + .....47) = 5280 ...(1) 12 
CAT 2019 Solved Paper 29
83. m2 + 105 = n2 m, n > 0 On multiplying (ii) by 5,
2 2
m – n = 105 a + 15b = 48,430 ...(iii)
(m + n) (m – n) = 105 = 3 × 5 × 7  13438 + b + 15b = 48,430
Case I : (m – n) = 3 and (m + n) = 35 b = 2187 = 37
 m = 19, n = 16 a = 15625 = 56
Case II : (m – n) = 7 and (m + n) = 15 x=6y=7
 m = 11, n = 4 x + y = 13
Case III : m – n = 5 and m + n = 21 87. 24 × 35 × 104
 m =13, n = 8 24 × 35 × 24 × 54
Case IV : m – n = 1 and m + n = 105 28 × 35 × 54
 m = 53, n = 52 For the factor to be a perfect square, the factor
So, there are 4 pairs. should be even power of the number.
84. 26x + 23x + 2 – 21 = 0 In 28 , the factors which are perfect squares are
=5
(23x)2 + 23x . 22 – 21 = 0
Similarly, in 35, the factors which are perfect squares
(23x)2 + 2.23x . 2 + (2)2 – 25 = 0
are = 3
(23x + 2)2 = 25
In 54, the factors which are perfect squares are = 3
23x + 2 = 5
Number of perfect squares greater than
23x = 3
1 = 5 × 3 × 3 – 1 = 44.
Applying log to both side.
88. From the sequence given here,
3x log 2 = log 3
a1 = 1
1 a1 – a2 = 2  a2 = – 1
x log2 3
3 a1 – a2 + a3 = 3 a3 = 1
85. To completely use the metal and to make whole So, all odd numbered integers are +1
cylinders from the metal, the volume of one metal and even numbered integers are –1
must be the HCF of 405, 351 and 783.
Required sum = a51 + a52 + ...... + a1023
HCF of 405, 351 and 783 = 27
= 1 – 1 + 1 – 1 + 1 – 1 ....... + 1
 r2h = 27
= 1.
(3)2 h = 27
89. In the given set of equations, by hit and trial, the
3 following results can be obtained:
h 
 Case 1: a = 5 ; b = 0 ; x = 13; y = 0
Surface area of one cylinder = 2r (r + h) Case 2: a = 0 ; b = 5 ; x = 0; y = 13
In both the cases, ay – bx = 0 – 0 = 0
 3
 2  3  3   Therefore, k = 0
 
90. Interest earned by Amal
= 18(1 + )
1 2
 8   3 
405  351  783  12000 1   12,000  10000 1   1000
Number of cylinders  = 57  100   100 
27
= 960 + 609 = 1569.
Total surface area = 57 × 18 (1+ )
= 1026 (1 + ) P  7.5  1 7.5P
Interest earned by Bimal  
86. Let 5x = a and 3y = b. 100 100
Then, 7.5P
Now,  1569  P = 20,920.
a – b = 13438 ...(i) 100
a 91. Since 45 motor cycles reach point B and 11 pm,
 3b  9686 ...(ii) the last motorcycle must have left at 10 : 45 and
5
30 CAT 2019 Solved Paper

reached by 11 pm. So the whole journey takes 15 so that the average of 20 integers can be the
minutes to cover by motor cycle. highest.
If cyclist doubles his speed, he will reach point B So, Sum of 10 integers = 6 × 10 = 60.
in 30 minutes. Since motorcycle takes 15 minutes Sum of remaining 20 integers = 150 – 60 = 90
to cover the distance, the first motorcycle reaches
at 10 : 16 and in total 15 motor cycles would reach 90
 Required average   4.5 .
by when B reached. 20
92. As per the instruction, let the first digit be a. 97. Let the cost price of each bicycle be Rs x.
The second digit will be 2a Total cost price = 10x
Third digit will be a Selling price of 6 bicycles = 1.25x × 6 = 7.5x
Fourth digit will be (2a + 2b + a) = 7a Selling price of 4 bicycles = 0.75x × 4 = 3x
Fifth digit will be 3a Total selling price = 7.5x + 3x = 10.5x
Sixth digit will be 4a Profit = SP – CP = 10.5x – 10x = 0.5x
 Largest value of fourth digit can only be 7. Now, 0.5x = 2000  x = Rs 4000.
98. Let the salaries be 6a, 5a, and 7a in 2010 for
1
93. Work done by Anil in one day  Ramesh, Ganesh and Rajesh respectively and 3b,
20 4b and 3b in 2015 respectively.
1 Given that
Work done by Sunil in one day 
40 1.25 × 6a = 3b  7.5a = 3b  2.5 a = b
Let the days worked by Sunil be n.
Then salary of Rajesh in 2015 is 3 × 2.5a = 7.5a
3  1 1  1
Then, n    1. 0.5a
20  20 40  10  Percentage increase   100  7.14% .
7a
6  3n  4 99. Given, f(mn) = f(m)f(n)
 1
40 when m = n = 1, f(1) = f(1) × f(1)  f(1) = 1
 3n = 30  n = 10 when m = 1, n = 2, f(2) = f(1) × f(2)  f(1) = 1
Therefore total number of days taken when m = n = 2, f(4) = f(2) × f(2)  f(4) = [f(2)]2
= 10 + 3 = 13 days. Similarly f(8) = f(4) × f(2) = [f(2)]3
94. Score of A = 72. f(24) = 54
100 [f(2)]3 × f(3) = 33 × 2
Score of B = 72   80
90 On comparing LHS and RHS, we get
100 f(2) = 3 and f(3) = 2
Score of C = 80   64
125 Now we have to find the value of f(18)
100 f(18) = f(2) × [f(3)]2 = 3 × 4 = 12.
Score of D = 64   80
80 100. CP of the table at which the shopkeeper procured
So, the score of D was 80. each table = p
95. Let the numbers of hours worked in regular work It is given that shopkeeper sold the tables to Amal
be a and number of hours worked overtime be b. and Asim at a profit of 20% and at a loss of 20%,
respectively.
114b 15 2b 3
   The selling price of the tables = 1.2p and 0.8p to
57a 100 a 20
Amal and Asim respectively.
 40b = 3a
Amal sells his table to Bimal at a profit of 30%.
a + b = 172
So, CP of the table by Bimal (x) = 1.2p × 1.3
 3a + 3b = 516 = 1.56p.
43b = 516 Asim sells his table to Barun at a loss of 30%.
516 So, CP of the table by Barun (y) = 0.7 × 0.8p
 b  12.
43 = 0.56p
 John did 12 hours of overtime. (x  y) (1.56p  0.56p) p
96. Sum of the 30 integers = 30 × 5 = 150.    1.
p p p
For the 10 integers greater than 5, they must be 6,