ĐỀ 03

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. meal. B. bean. C. head. D. team.
Question 2. A. attracts. B. delays. C. believes. D. begins.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. intend. B. follow. C. decide. D. install.
Question 4. A. equipment. B. sympathy. C. poverty. D. character.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5. Today the number of start-ups in Vietnam is mounting as the government has created favourable
conditions for them to develop their business.
A. peaking. B. decreasing. C. varying. D. rising.
Question 6. With price increases on most necessities, many people have to tighten their belt for fear of getting into
financial difficulties.
A. spend money freely. B. save on daily expenses.
C. dress in loose clothes. D. put on tighter belts.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7. Thanks to highly sophisticated technology, scientists have made many important discoveries in
different fields.
A. confusing. B. accessible. C. effective. D. advanced.
Question 8. It is firmly believed that books are a primary means for disseminating knowledge and information.
A. inventing. B. distributing. C. classifying. D. adapting.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 9. The patients with the new drug showed better signs of recovery than those receiving
conventional medicine.
A. treating. B. having treated. C. who treated. D. treated.
Question 10. It to reason that Jason passed the exam with flying colours on account of his
working hard during the term.
A. lays. B. comes. C. gets. D. stands.
Question 11. Candidates are advised to dress formally to make a good on job interviewers.
A. impressive. B. impression. C. impress. D. impressively.
Question 12. You shouldn’t lose heart; success often comes to those who are not by failure.s
A. put off. B. turned on. C. left out. D. switched off.
Question 13. Mary rarely uses social networks, ?
A. isn’t she. B. does she. C. doesn’t she. D. is she.
Question 14. The presenter started his speech with a few jokes to build rapport with the
audience.
 A. kind-hearted. B. soft-hearted. C. light-hearted. D. whole-hearted.
Question 15. If Martin were here now, he us to solve this difficult problem.
A. would help. B. will help. C. has helped. D. helps.
Question 16. There is no excuse for your late submission! You the report by last Friday.
A. must have finished. B. needn’t have finished.
C. should have finished. D. mightn’t have finished.
Question 17. Only after she from a severe illness did she realise the importance of good health.
A. would recover. B. had recovered. C. has recovered. D. was recovering.
Question 18. Our father suggested to Da Nang for this summer holiday.
A. go. B. going. C. to going. D. to go.
Question 19. Several measures have been proposed to the problem of unemployment among
university graduates.
A. create. B. address. C. pose. D. admit.
Question 20. It is advisable that the apprentice should be to learn the ins and outs of the new
job.
A. observant. B. acceptable. C. noticeable. D. permissive.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 21. Silas is talking to his roommate, Salah, about the Olympic Games.
- Silas: “Do you think our country can host the Olympic Games some day in the future?”
- Salah: “ . We can’t afford such a big event.”
A. No, I don’t think so. B. You can say that again.
C. I can’t agree with your more. D. Yes, you’re right.
Question 22. Laura is telling Bob about her exam results.
- Laura: “ ”
- Bob: “That’s great. Congratulations!”
A. I’ve passed the exam with an A. B. I’ll get the exam results tomorrow.
C. I hope I’ll pass the exam tomorrow. D. I didn’t do well in the exam.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct wordor
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
Urban development is having a direct impact on the weather in many cities worldwide. It has been noticed that
the difference (23) temperature is usually greater at night and the phenomenon
occurs in both winner and summer. Experts agree that this is due to urban development, when open green spaces
are replaced with asphalt roads and tall brick or concrete buildings. These materials retain heatgenerated by
the Sun and release it through the night. In Atlanta, in the US, this has even led to thunderstorms (24) occur in the
morning rather than, as is more common, in the afternoon.
Large cities around the world are adopting strategies to combat this issue (25) it is not
uncommon to find plants growing on top of roofs or down the walls or large buildings. In Singapore, the
government has (26) to transform it into a “city within a garden” and, in 2006, they held an
international competition calling for entries to develop a master plan to help bring this about. One outcome was
the creation of 18 “Supertrees” – metal constructions resembling very tall trees. Each one is a vertical freestanding
garden and is (27) to exotic plants and ferns. They also contain solar panels used to light the trees
at night and also containers to collect rainwater, making them truly self- sufficient.

Question 23. A. with. B. in. C. on. D. out.

 Question 24. A. where. B. which. C. what. D. when.
Question 25. A. but. B. for. C. or. D. and.
Question 26. A. committed. B. pledged. C. confessed. D. required.
Question 27. A. land. B. house. C. place. D. home.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
A letter of application is a sales letter in which you are both salesperson and product, for the purpose of an
application is to attract an employer’s attention and persuade him or her to grant you an interview. To do this, the
letter presents what you can offer the employer, rather than what you want from the job.
Like a resume, the letter of application is a sample of your work and an opportunity to demonstrate your skills and
personality. If it is written with flair and understanding and prepared with prefessional care, it is likely to be very
effective. While the resume must be factual, objective, and brief, the letter is your chance to interpret and expand. It
should state explicitly how your background relates to the specific job, and it should emphasise your strongest and
most relevant characteristics. The letter should demonstrate that you know both yourself and the company.
The letter of application must communicate your ambition and enthusiasm. Yet it must be modest. It should be
neither aggressive nor compliant: neither pat yourself on the back nor ask for sympathy. It should never express
dissatisfaction with the present or former job or employer. And you should avoid discussing your reasons for
leaving your last job.
Finally, it is best that you not broach the subject on salary. Indeed, even if a job advertisement requires that you
mention your salary requirements, it is advisable simply to call them “negotiable.” However, when you go on an
interview, you should be prepared to mention a salary range. For this reason, you should investigate both your
field and, if possible, the particular company. You don’t want to ask for less than you deserve or more than is
reasonable.

Question 28. What is the passage mainly about?

A. Things to avoid during a job interview.
B. Advice on how to find a good job.
C. Tips for writing an effective letter of application.
D. Differences between a resume and a letter of application.

Question 29. According to paragraph 1, in a letter of application, the applicant tries to .

A. advertise a product to attract more customers.
B. present what he/she wants from the job.
C. persuade the employer to grant him/her an interview.
D. get further information about the company.
Question 30. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to .
A. the resume. B. an opportunity.
C. the letter of application. D. your work.
Question 31. The word “explicitly” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. clearly. B. slightly. C. quickly. D. shortly.
Question 32. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about a letter of application?
A. It should be written very briefly, but in a formal style.
B. It should refer to the applicant’s reasons for leaving his/her previous job.
C. It should expand upon the information contained in the applicant’s resume.
D. It should express the applicant’s dissatisfaction with his/her former employer.
Question 33. The word “broach” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to .
A. investigate. B. understand. C. introduce. D. avoid.
Question 34. According to paragraph 4, in a job interview, the applicant should be ready to .
A. mention their expected salary range. B. talk about the company’s budget.
C. negotiate working conditions. D. accept and salary offered.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Henry is the undisputed star of Dronfield School near Sheffield. Whatever the achievements of other members of
the comprehensive school, it is Henry, with his soulful eyes and glossy hair, who has hogged the limelight,
appearing on television in Britain and abroad. Yet despite all the public adulation, Henry stirs up no envy or
resentment among the 2000 students – in fact, they all adore him. The dog, who first arrived six months ago, is a
super dog, who has improved students’ behaviour and encouraged more students to focus on their academic
achievement.
Andrew Wainwright, a student at Dronfield School, says there is something magical and calming about being able
to interact with Henry during his time at the school’s catch-up classes, and that if he falls behind, that opportunity
will be denied. Even doubting staff have finally been won round. Perhaps that is because Henry, who lies on the
floor during staff meetings, has also had a calming effect on them.
It was Andrew’s teacher, Wendy Brown and the school counsellor, Julie Smart, who first proposed buying a school
dog. “Julie and I were talking one day about how looking after dogs can positively affect children’s conduct,” says
Brown. “We did some research and discovered that the presence of pets has been shown to be therapeutic. A
number of studies have shown that animals improve recovery after surgery or illness and have a calming influence
on people in a lot of settings. Some of my kids can be a handful and some of the children Julie counsels have
terrible problems.”
Could the school dog become a craze? Other schools such as the Mulberry Bush, a primary school for children with
behavioural problems, have stepped forward to point out they already have one. Rosie Johnston, a Mulberry staff
member has been bringing her golden retriever, Muskoka, into school for three years. Apart from being a calming
influence, Muskoka even plays his part in literacy lessons. Children at the school can be too shy to read to adults
so they read to Muskoka. “Their anxiety about mispronouncing something or getting the words in the wrong order
is reduced when they read to him,” says Johnston.
Psychologist Dr Deborah Wells from Queen's University Belfast specialises in animal-human interaction. She
believes that the underlying key to the Henry effect is that dogs offer unconditional love and that cheers up adults
and children and helps with self-esteem. But traditionalist Chris Woodhead, the former chief inspector of schools
says, “I don’t see why a teacher cannot create a positive learning environment through the subject they teach and
their personality. Dogs strike me as a bit of a publicity stunt. It’s the kind of sentimental story journalists love.”
Despite this sentiment, Henry remains as popular as ever.
Question 35. Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. School Dogs: Useful Classroom Assistants.
B. Having School Dogs: Pros and Cons.
C. Henry – a Super Dog in Dronfield School.
D. Keeping School Dogs – a Prevalent Trend.
Question 36. The word “adulation” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .
A. unrealistic expectation. B. deserved attention.
C. considerable controversy. D. excessive admiration.
Question 37. The phrase “a handful” in paragraph 3 is probably descriptive of a child who is .
A. difficult to control. B. inclined to disagree.
 C. reluctant to explore. D. impossible to understand.
Question 38. Which of the following is mentioned in paragraph 3 as a potential impact of keeping a pet?
A. A stronger tendency to misbehave. B. A greater desire to influence others.
C. Long-term chances in conduct. D. Better recovery from illness.
Question 39. The word “one” in paragraph 4 refers to .
A. a craze B. a Mulberry staff member
C. a primary school D. a school dog
Question 40. According to paragraph 4, which of the following is one of the roles played by Muskoka at the
Mulberry Bush?
A. Encouraging a more proactive approach to teaching literacy
B. Minimising the number of words mispronounced by its students
C. Relieving its teaching staff of unnecessary workload
D. Helping its students to reduce their fear of making mistakes
Question 41. Which of the following best summarises Chris Woodhead's viewpoint in paragraph 5?
A. Teachers underestimate the role of dogs in literacy lessons.
B. Students and dogs are inseparable companions in the classroom setting
C. Schools have dogs just to attract media attention.
D. Dogs are capable of enlivening classroom atmosphere.
Question 42. Which of the following is implied in the passage?
A. Rosie Johnston is more experienced than Wendy Brown in working with animals.
B. Wendy Brown and Julie Smart are dedicated animal rights activists who wish to get their message across to
young people.
C. Interaction with Henry is used to boost students’ learning motivation at Dronfield School.
D. Administrators at Dronfield School are sceptical as to whether Henry's companion will benefit their students.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 43. “Would you like to go to the show with me?” Anna said to Bella.
A. Anna reminded Bella to go to the show with her.
B. Anna persuaded Bella to go to the show with her.
C. Anna invited Bella to go to the show with her.
D. Anna encouraged Bella to go to the show with her.
Question 44. I find it useful to join the sports club.
A. I never like joining the sports club.
B. I used to join the sports club.
C. Joining the sports club is not useful for me.
D. It is useful for me to join the sports club.
Question 45. It is believed that modem farming methods have greatly improved farmers’ lives.
A. People believe that there is little improvement in farmers’ lives thanks to modem farming methods.
B. Modem farming methods were believed to have greatly improved farmers’ lives.
C. Modem farming methods are believed to have had negative effects on farmers’ lives.
D. Farmers are believed to have enjoyed a much better life thanks to modem farming methods.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 46. It is the ASEAN Para Games that disabled athletes have an opportunity to have their talents
 A B C
and efforts recognised.
D
Question 47. It concerns many socialogists that inadequate parents skills may lead to an increase in the
A B
number of incidents of juvenile delinquency.
C D
Question 48. Teenagers is greatly influenced by not only their parents but also their peers.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Kate completed her higher education. She then decided to travel the world before getting a job.
A. Kate had scarcely travelled the world before getting a job when she completed her higher education.
B. Without completing her higher education, Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job.
C. Having completed her higher education, Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job.
D. Given that Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job, she completed her higher education.
Question 50. Mary left home to start an independent life. She realised how much her family meant to her.
A. Mary left home to start an independent life with a view to realising how much her family meant to her.
B. To realise how much her family meant to her, Mary decided to leave home to start an independent life.
C. Not until Mary had left home to start an independent life did she realise how much her family meant to her.
D. Only when Mary realised how much her family meant to her did she leave home to start an independent life.
 ĐỀ 04
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question.
Question 1: Your drink cost $40, you gave me a $50 note and here is your .
A. change B. supply C. cash D. cost
Question 2: People can become very when they are stuck in traffic for a long time.
A. single-minded B. bad-tempered C. even-tempered D. even-handed
Question 3: Jasmine, , grows only in warm places.
A. is a vine plant with fragrant flowers B. a vine plant with fragrant flowers
C. that is a vine plant with fragrant flowers D. a vine plant with fragrant flowers it is
Question 4: Our car because it’s not where it’s normally parked in the parking lot.
A. should have been stolen B. would have been stolen
C. must have been stolen D. need have been stolen
Question 5: Though we were after hard-working days, we tried to help our parents redecorate the
house to welcome Tet.
A. exhaustion B. exhausted C. exhausting D. exhaustive
Question 6: At the 2015 Women in the World Summit, Hillary Clinton asserted that “ cultural
codes, religious beliefs and structural biases have to be changed”.
A. deep-seated B. deep-seating C. seated-deep D. seating -deep
Question 7: It’s important that we this message to young people.
A. go /over B. get/down C. get/over D. go/for
Question 8: Miss Diligent did nine hour’s studying a day for her exam.
A. heavy B. solid C. powerful D. big
Question 9: “At the start of the 19th century, the highest- newspaper in the United Kingdom
was The Morning Post, which sold around 4,000 copies per day.”
A. distribution B. coverage C. circulation D. sales
Question 10: Marketing this new product will be expensive, but it will be worth the money we
spend on it.
A. at long last B. down the years C. in the event D. in the long run
Question 11: Laura starts a conversation with Maya- Jane’s sister. Laura:
“You must be Jane's sister. Glad to meet you.”
Maya: “ ”
A. I am, either. B. So I am. I'm glad. C. What do you do? D. Me too.
Question 12: The boys that they had broken the window, but I’m sure they did.
A. refused B. denied C. objected D. reject
Question 13: Lien was walking her dogs in the park, she met Lan accidentally. Lan:
“How lovely your pets are!”
Lien: “ .”
A. Thank you, it's nice of you to say so B. Really? They are
C. Can you say that again D. I love them, too

Page 1
Question 14: If our team U23Uzbekistan in the final match, we the champion now.
A. have defeated/ would be B. defeats/ will be
C. defeated/ would be D. had defeated/ would be
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 15: Transplanting organs such hearts and kidneys had proved easier than transplanting muscles.
A B C D
Question 16: On the floor of the Pacific Ocean is hundreds of flat-tipped mountains more than a mile
A B C
beneath sea level.
D
Question 17: Paint must bestirred and sometimes dilution before it is applied.
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the question from 18 to 25.
The principle of use and disuse states that those parts of organisms' bodies that are used grown larger. Those
parts that are not tend to wither away. It is an observed fact that when you exercise particular muscles, they grow.
Those that are never used dimish. By examining a man's body, we can tell which muscles he uses and which he
doesn't. We may even be able to guess his profession or his reaction. Enthusiasts of the "body- building" cult make
use of the principle of use and disuse to "build" their bodies, almost like a piece of sculpture, into whatever
unnatural shape is demanded by fashion in this peculiar minority culture. Muscles are not the only parts of the
body that respond to use in this kind of way. Walk barefoot and you acquire harder skin on your soles. It is easy to
tell a farmer from a bank teller by looking at their hands alone. The farmer's hands are horny, hardened by long
exposure to rough work. The teller’s hands are relatively soft.
The principle of use and disuse enables animals to become better at the job of surviving in their world,
progressively better during their lifetime as a result of living in that world. Humans, through direct exposure to
sunlight, or lack of it, develop a skin color which equips them better to survive in the particular local conditions.
Too much sunlight is dangerous. Enthusiastic sunbathers with very fair skins are susceptible to skin cancer.
Too little sunlight, on the other hand, leads to vitamin-D deficiency and rickets. The brown pigment melanin which
is synthesized under the influence of sunlight, makes a screen to protect the underlying tissues from the harmful
effects of further sunlight. If a suntanned person moves to a less sunny climate, the melanin disappears, and the
body is able to benefit from what little sun there is. This can be represented as an instance of the principle of use
and disuse: skin goes brown when it is "used", and fades to white when it is not.
Question 18: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How the principles of use and disuse change people’s concepts of themselves.
B. The changes that occur according to the principle of use and disuse.
C. The way in which people change themselves to conform to fashion.
D. The effects of the sun on the principle of use and disuse.
Question 19: The phrase “wither away” in bold is closest in meaning to .
A. split B. rot C. perish D. shrink
Question 20: The word “Those” in bold refers to .
 A. organisms B. bodies C. parts D. muscles
Question 21: According to the passage, men who body build .
A. appear like sculptures B. change their appearance
C. belong to strange cults D. are very fashionable
Question 22: From the passage, it can be inferred that author views body building .
A. with enthusiasm B. as an artistic from
C. with scientific interest D. of doubtful benefit
Question 23: It can be inferred from the passage that the principle of use and disuse enables organisms to
.
A. change their existence B. automatically benefit
C. survive in any condition D. improve their lifetime
Question 24: The author suggests that melanin .
A. is necessary for the production of vitamin D B. is beneficial in sunless climates
C. helps protect fair-skinned people D. is a synthetic product
Question 25: In the second paragraph, the author mentions sun tanning as an example of .
A. humans improving their local condition B. humans surviving in adverse conditions
C. humans using the principle of use and disuse D. humans running the risk of skin cancer
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part that differs from the
other three in the pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 26: A. expand B. stagnant C. vacancy D. applicant
Question 27: A. attained B. resolved C. disused D. decreased
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position ofprimary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 28: A. flourish B. season C. product D. today
Question 29: A. attitude B. infamously C. geneticist D. socialist
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
THE HISTORY OF WRITING
The development of writing (30) a huge difference to the world and might see it as the
beginning of the media. Pieces of pottery with marks on that are probably numbers have been discovered in China
(31) date from around 4000 BC. Hieroglyphics and other forms of "picture writing"
developed in the area around Mesopotamia (modern-day Iraq), where the ancient Sumerian civilization was based,
from around 3300 BC onwards. However, the first (32) alphabet was used by the
Phoenicians around 1050 BC. Their alphabet had 22 letters and it is estimated that it lasted for 1000 years. The first
two signs were called "aleph" and "beth", which in Greek became "alpha" and "beta", which gave us the modern
word "alphabet".
The modern European alphabet is based on the Greek and spread (33) other European
countries under the Romans. A number of changes took place as time passed. The Romans added the letter G, and
the letter J and V were unknown to people in Shakespeare's time.
If we (34) the history of punctuation, we also find some interesting facts. The Romans used
to write quaesto at the end of a sentence in order to show that it was a Question. They started to write Qo in place
of the whole word, and then put the Q above the o. In the end, that became the question mark "?"
Question 30: A. did B. had C. made D. took
Question 31: A. where B. that C. who D. when
Question 32: A. true B. accurate C. exact D. precise
Question 33: A. to B. in C. with D. for
Question 34: A. look into B. bring on C. make off D. hold up
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions.
ENGLISH SEVENTH MEETING “SAN ANDREAS FAULT”
The San Andreas Fault line is a fracture at the congruence of two major plates of the Earth’s crust, one of
which support most of the North American continent, and the other of which underlies the coast of California and
part of the ocean floor of the Pacific Ocean. The fault originates about six hundred miles south of the Gulf of
California, runs north in an irregular line along the western coast to San Francisco, and continues north for about
two hundred more miles before angling off into the ocean. In places, the trace of the fault is marked by a trench, or,
in geological terms, a rift, and a small ponds dot the landscape. Its western side always move north in relation to
its eastern side. The total net slip along the San Andreas Fault and the length of time it has been active are matters
of conjecture, but it has been estimated that, during the past fifteen million years, coastal California along the San
Andreas Fault has moved about 190 miles in a northwesterly direction with respect to the North American plate.
Although the movement along the fault averages only a few inches a year, it is intermittent and variable. Some
segments of the fault do not have move at all for long periods of time, building up tremendous pressure that must
be released. For this reason, tremors are not unusual along the San Andreas Fault, some of which are classified as
major earthquakes. Also for this reason, small tremors are interpreted as safe, since they are understood to be
pressure that releases without causing much damage.
It is worth noting that the San Andreas Fault passes uncomfortably close to several major metropolitan areas,
including Los Angeles and San Francisco. In addition, the San Andreas Fault has created smaller fault systems,
many of which underlie the smaller towns and cities along the California coast. For this reason, Californians have
long anticipated the recurrence of what they refer to as “the Big One”, a chain reaction of destructive earthquakes
that would measure near 8 on the Richter scale, similar in intensity to those that occurred in 1857 and 1906. Such a
quake would wreak devastating effects on the life and property in the region. Unfortunately, as pressure continues
to build along the fault, the likelihood of such an earthquake increases substantially.
Question 35: What is the author’s main purpose in the passage?
A. To describe the San Andreas Fault.
B. To give a definition of a fault.
C. To explain the reason for tremors and earthquakes.
D. To classify different kinds of faults.
Question 36: How does the author define the San Andreas Fault?
A. A plate that underlies the North American continent.
B. A crack in the Earth’s crust between two plates.
C. Occasional tremors and earthquakes.
D. Intense pressure that builds up.
Question 37: The word originates in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by .
A. gets wider B. changes direction C. begins D. disappears
Question 38: In which direction does the western side of the fault move?
A. West B. East C. North D. South
Question 39: The word its in the paragraph 1 refers to .
A. San Francisco B. ocean C. coast D. fault
Question 40: Along the San Andreas Fault, tremors are .
A. small and insignificant B. rare, but disastrous
C. frequent events D. very unpredictable
Question 41: The phrase “the Big One” refers to which of the following?
A. A serious earthquake B. The San Andreas Fault
C. The river scale D. California
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 42: The Chernobyl disaster occurred on 26 April 1986 when the Chernobyl Nuclear Power Plant near
Pripyat, a town in northern Ukraine, went off.
A. demolished B. ran C. developed D. exploded
Question 43: Prior to its evacuation Chernobyl was inhabited by 16,000 people but is now populated only by Zone
administrative personnel and a number of residents who refused to leave their homes or subsequently returned.
A. after B. while C. when D. before
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 44: The Democratic Party now have 59.9% of the votes, so they’re home and dry.
A. returning home B. safe and successful C. disappointed D. at risk of losing
Question 45: Having served in the White House for 34 years and assisted 8 presidents, Eugene Allen experienced
crucial moments in American history during his time here.
A. unimportant B. special C. diverse D. complex
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 46: Many doctors and nurses on duty during holidays don’t have time to relax. They don’t have time to
meet up with their families.
A. Many doctors and nurses on duty during holidays have time neither to relax nor to meet up with their
families.
B. Many doctors and nurses on duty during holidays have time neither to relax or to meet up with their families.
C. Many doctors and nurses on duty during holidays have time either to relax or to meet up with their families.
D. Many doctors and nurses on duty during holidays have time not only to relax but also to meet up with their
families.
Question 47: The boy lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers. The doctors are operating on him.
A. The boy who lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers is being operating on.
B. The boy whom the doctors are operating on him lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers.
C. The boy was whom the doctors are operating on him lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers.
D. The doctors are operating on the boy who lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 48: Father said “Albert, if you break your promise, nobody will respect you.”
A. Father said that if Albert broke his promise, nobody would respect him.
B. Father warned Albert that if he broke his promise, nobody would respect him.
C. Father told that if Albert broke his promise, nobody would respect him.
D. Father said to Albert if he breaks his promise, nobody will respect him.
Question 49: People say that products are sold in this market at suitable prices.
A. Products are said to be selling in this market at suitable prices.
B. Products are said to have sold in this market at suitable prices.
C. This market is said to have sold products at suitable prices.
D. This market is said to sell products at suitable prices.
Question 50: We couldn’t have been able to go to the final match without the coach’s flexible strategies.
A. We could have been able to go to the final match with the coach’s flexible strategies.
B. If we could be able to go to the final match, the coach would have flexible strategies.
C. If we couldn’t have been able to go to the final match, we would have had the coach’s flexible strategies.
D. Had it not been for the coach’s flexible strategies, we couldn’t have been able to go to the final match.
 ĐỀ 05
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
If you want to prepare yourself for great achievement and have more to (1) to your
education or your work, try reading more books. Pick (2) some of the interestingly informative
books and search for well-researched materials that can help you grow.
We should encourage our children to read more books and spend less time watching TV. Some people have
commented that this is inconsistent. "Why is the written word a superior way to get information than television?"
That is an interesting point of view worth further (3) . Reading is a
skill that is in much greater demand than the demand for watching TV. There are no jobs (4)
require a person to be able to watch TV but reading is an integral part of many jobs. The written word is an
incredibly flexible and efficient way of communication. You can write something down and, in no time, it can be
communicated to many different people. Not only that, we can (5) vast amounts
of information through reading in a very short time. A good reader can acquire more information in reading for
two hours than someone watching TV can acquire in a full day. You are able to gain a lot of information quickly
because you are a fast reader with good comprehension skills. It will save you massive amounts of time and you
will be able to assimilate vast quantities of information.
Question 1: A. gain B. gather C. collect D. contribute
Question 2: A. on B. up C. over D. out
Question 3: A. explore B. exploration C. explorer D. explorative
Question 4: A. that B. who C. when D. whom
Question 5: A. digest B. inhale C. breathe D. eat

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 6: In The Sociology of Science, a classic, Robert Merton discusses cultural, economic and
social forces that contributed to the development of modern science.
A. now considering B. now considered C. which considers D. which considered
Question 7: Why are you so late? You here two hours ago.
A. must have been B. would have been C. should have been D. need have been
Question 8: The child can hardly understand what they are discussing, ?
A. can he B. can’t he C. are they D. aren’t they
Question 9: I accidentally my ex and his girlfriend when I was walking along a street yesterday.
A. lost touch with B. kept an eye on C. paid attention to D. caught sight of
Question 10: Jane and Mary are going out.
Jane: “It’s going to rain”.
Mary: “ .”
A. I hope not so B. I hope not C. I don’t hope so D. I don’t hope either
Question 11: appear, they are really much larger than the Earth.
A. Small as the stars B. The stars as small

Page 1
 C. As the small stars D. Despite of the small stars
Question 12: The patient could not be saved unless there a suitable organ donor.
A. had been B. would be C. were D. is
Question 13: He said it was an accident but I know he did it on .
A. aim B. purpose C. goal D. reason
Question 14: His brother refuses to even listen to anyone else’s point of view. He is very .
A. narrow-minded B. kind-hearted C. open-minded D. absent-minded
Question 15: $507, $707. Let’s the difference and say $607.
A. avoid B. split C. agree D. decrease
Question 16: When a European, we should stick to the last name unless he suggests that we use his
first name.
A. speaking B. discussing C. talking D. addressing
Question 17: Jordan and Jim are in a pub.
- Jordan: “ ”
- Jim: “No, thanks.”
A. Would you want another drink? B. Would you care for another drink?
C. Can you help me with this? D. Come in, please!
Question 18: By the year 2021, 6% of all US jobs by robots, report says.
A. will eliminate B. will have been eliminated
C. will be eliminating D. will have eliminated
Question 19: We are big fans of Rafael Nadal and Roger Federer, so not a match of theirs .
A. we had missed B. did we miss C. we didn’t miss D. we missed

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.
Animals have an intuitive awareness of quantities. They know without analysis the difference between a
number of objects and a smaller number. In his book “The Natural History of Selboure” (1786), the naturalist Gilbert
White tells how he surreptitiously removed one egg a day from a plover’s nest, and how the mother laid another
egg each day to make up for the missing one. He noted that other species of birds ignore the absence of a single egg
but abandon their nests if more than one egg has been removed. It has also been noted by naturalists that a certain
type of wasp always provides five - never four, never six -caterpillars for each of their eggs so that their young
have something to eat when the eggs hatch. Research has also shown that both mice and pigeons can be taught to
distinguish between odd and even numbers of food pieces.
These and similar accounts have led some people to infer that creatures other than humans can actually
count. They also point to dogs that have been taught to respond to numerical questions with the correct number of
barks, or to horses that seem to solve arithmetic problems by stomping their hooves the proper number of times.
Animals respond to quantities only when they are connected to survival as a species - as in the case of the
eggs - or survival as individuals - as in the case of food. There is no transfer to other situations or from concrete
reality to the abstract notion of numbers. Animals can “count” only when the objects are present and only when the
numbers involved are small - not more than seven or eight. In lab experiments, animals trained to “count” one kind
of object were unable to count any other type. The objects, not the numbers, are what interest them. Animals’
admittedly remarkable achievements simply do not amount to
evidence of counting, nor do they reveal more than innate instincts, refined by the genes of successive generations,
or the results of clever, careful conditioning by trainers.
Question 20: The word “they” refer to .
A. numbers B. animals C. achievements D. genes
Question 21: According to information in the passage, which of the following is LEAST likely to occur as a result
of animals’ intuitive awareness of quantities?
A. When asked by its trainer how old it is, a money holds up five fingers.
B. A lion follows one antelope instead of the heard of antelopes because it is easier to hunt a single prey.
C. When one of its four kittens crawls away, a mother cat misses it and searches for the kitten.
D. A pigeon is more attracted by a box containing two pieces of food than by a box containing one piece.
Question 22: The word “surreptitiously” is closest in meaning to .
A. stubbornly B. secretly C. quickly D. occasionally
Question 23: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Of all animals, dogs and horses can count best.
B. Careful training is required to teach animals to perform tricks involving numbers.
C. Although animals may be aware of quantities, they cannot actually count.
D. Animals cannot “count” more than one kind of object.
Question 24: Where in the passage does the author mention research that supports his own view of animals’
inability to count?
A. Line 2-4 B. Line 8-9 C. Line 10-11 D. Line 17-18
Question 25: Why does the author refer to Gilbert White’s book in line 2?
A. To contradict the idea that animals can count.
B. To provide evidence that some birds are aware of quantities.
C. To show how attitudes have changed since 1786.
D. To indicate that more research is needed in this field.
Question 26: The author mentions that all of the following are aware of quantities in some ways EXCEPT .
A. caterpillars B. mice C. plovers D. wasps

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in the pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 27: A. heard B. early C. learn D. near
Question 28: A. theaters B. authors C. clothes D. shifts

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 29: A. component B. habitat C. contribute D. eternal
Question 30: A. museum B. location C. recommend D. commitment

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 31: Africa’s farmland is rapidly becoming barren and incapable of sustaining the continent’s already
hungry population, according to a report.
A. poor B. fruitful C. arid D. desert
Question 32: Recent archaeological studies have shown that the first inhabitants of Russel Caverns were Paleo
Indians, who used the most rudimentary tools and objects for their survival.
A. technical B. basic C. superior D. original

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 33: The Australian Open is a tennis tournament held annually over the last fortnight of January in
Melbourne, Australia.
A. two days B. four days C. two weeks D. two months
Question 34: One of the biggest issues that many victims of negligent behavior encounter is difficulty in determining
whether or not an option had foreseeable consequences.
A. predictable B. unpredictable C. ascertainable D. computable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 35: For thousands of years, man has used rocks as main materials for building houses, made
A B C
fences, pavements or even roofs for houses.
D
Question 36: I think I can reach your requirements so I am writing to apply for the position of
A B C D
English-speaking local guide.
Question 37: According to statistics, the number of young people who actively uses Instagram and
A B
Snapchat has increased sharply in recent years.
C D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.
recombined to form the beginnings of that truly A
Question 38: According to the passage, who introduced the early form of American music?
A. American natives. B. Harry Thacker Burleigh.
C. Slaves from Africa D. People from the South of the United States.
Question 39: Which type of music is often involved with piano accompaniment?
A. spirituals B. ragtime C. blues D. jazz
Question 40: What is NOT true when talking about blues?
A. They could be amusing and optimistic.
B. A well-known blues musician was Scott Joplin.
C. They gained popularity near the time ragtime became popular.
D. They were a more individual style of music than spirituals.
Question 41: When did jazz become the most popular American music?

A. Sometime in the early 20th century.

B. When elements from other American music combined.
C. After the hit “Maple Leaf Rag” was written.
D. In the late 1800s.
Question 42: Scott Joplin and Bessie Smith were .
A. famous ragtime musicians
B. people who really began the American musical traditions
C. artists who inspired many musicians today
D. songwriters who wrote blues songs
Question 43: What is the closest meaning to the word “chorus” used in the passage?
A. A group of singers that sing together. B. The main part of a song.
C. An accompanying singer. D. None of the above.
Question 44: The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to .
A. today’s musicians
B. Scott Joplin and Bessie Smith
C. the musicians’ music
D. the names of the earliest African-American singers
Question 45: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Today’s style of American music is mostly influenced by African-rooted songs.
B. It is hard to exactly recognize the people who started the American musical tradition.
C. Spirituals, blues and ragtime are the major components that formed jazz.
D. American’s musical history was built by several famous musicians.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 46: Joe does a lot of exercise. He’s still very fat.
A. Despite the fact that doing a lot of exercise, Joe’s still very fat.
B. Joe does a lot of exercise, so he’s very fat.
C. Even though Joe does a lot of exercise, he’s very fat.
D. Joe’s very fat, but he does a lot of exercise.
Question 47: Canada does not require US citizens to obtain passports to enter the country. Mexico does not require
US citizens to do the same.
A. Canada does not require US citizens to obtain passports to enter the country, and Mexico does, either.
B. Canada does not require US citizens to obtain passports to enter the country, and Mexico does not, either.
C. Canada does not require US citizens to obtain passports to enter the country, and neither Mexico does.
D. Canada does not require US citizens to obtain passports to enter the country while Mexico does.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 48: “It can’t be Mike who leaked the document, it might be Tom” said our manager.
A. Our manager suspected Tom of having leaked the document, not Mike.
B. Our manager blamed Tom for having leaked the document instead of Mike.
C. Our manager showed his uncertainty about leaked the document: Mike or Tom.
D. Our manager made it clear that Tom was the one who leaked the document, not Mike.
Question 49: Their holiday plans fell through because there was a shooting at their school on Valentine’s Day.
A. They couldn’t go on holiday as planned as a result of a shooting at their school on Valentine’s Day.
B. They failed to go on the holiday like they had planned because a shooting took place at their school on
Valentine’s Day.
C. A shooting at their school on Valentine’s Day almost put a stop to their holiday plans.
D. Disappointingly, a shooting at their school on Valentine’s Day forced their holiday plans to nothing.
Question 50: She finished her driving lesson. Her father allowed her to use his car.
A. Having finished her driving lesson, her father allowed her to use his car.
B. Having finished her driving lesson, she was allowed to use her father’s car.
C. To be allowed to use her father’s car, she tried to finish her driving lesson.
D. Being allowed to use her father’s car, she tried to finish her driving lesson.
 ĐỀ 06
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question.
Question 1: “Remember to phone me when you arrive at the airport, ?”
A. won’t you B. will you C. do you D. don’t you
Question 2: We should participate in Tree-Planting Campaigns our city greener, fresher.
A. organizing to make B. organized making
C. organized to make D. which organize to make
Question 3: Certificates provide proof of your .
A. qualifications B. diplomas C. ambitions D. qualities
Question 4: She passed me on the street without speaking. She me.
A. mustn’t see B. can’t have seen C. can’t see D. mustn’t have seen
Question 5: Onion crisis is to arise in India. This demand-supply imbalance has resulted from the
government’s inability to preserve the crop for non-harvesting seasons.
A. reputed B. known C. foreseen D. bound
Question 6: interested in Curling, I would try to learn more about this sport.
A. Were I B. If I am C. Should I D. I was
Question 7: I’m not sure my brother will ever get married because he hates the feeling of being .
A. tied in B. tied down C. tied up D. tied in with
Question 8: I don’t understand what these results .
A. significant B. significance C. signify D. significantly
Question 9: What can be drawn from the experiment of two American physicists, Clinton
Davisson and Lester Germer?
A. conclusion B. attention C. contrast D. inference
Question 10: It seems that the thief took of the open window and got inside that way.
A. occasion B. chance C. opportunity D. advantage
Question 11: Emma is calling to Mrs. White’s home.
Emma: “Hello, may I speak to Mrs. White, please?” Call
receiver: “ .”
A. Of course, not B. Yes, please C. Hold on, please D. Wait here
Question 12: If you are an independent traveler, we can arrange a tour.
A. well-known B. tailor-made C. ready-made D. well-kept
Question 13: There has been a widespread about whether North Korea has successfully
miniaturized a nuclear weapon and whether it has a working H-bomb.
A. gossip B. challenge C. doubt D. rumour
Question 14: Lucia wants to borrow his friend’s bike.
Lucia: “Is it all right if I use your bike?”
Friend: “ .”
A. I don’t want to use your bike B. Sure, go ahead
C. Sorry, no, I won’t do it D. Please accept it with my best wishes

Page 1
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
ROBOTS
Ever since it was first possible to make a real robot, people have been hoping for the invention of a machine
(15) would do all the necessary jobs around the house. If boring and repetitive factory work
could be (16) by robots, why not boring and repetitive household chores too?
For a long time the only people who really gave the problem their attention were amateur inventors. And
they came up against a major difficulty. That is, housework is actually very complex. It has never been one job, it
has always been many. A factory robot (17) one task endlessly until it is
reprogrammed to do something else. It doesn’t run the whole factory. A housework robot, on the other
hand, has to do several different types of cleaning and carrying jobs and also has to cope (18) all
the different shapes and positions of rooms, furniture, ornaments, cats and dogs. (19) , there have
been some developments recently. Sensors are available to help the robot locate objects and avoid obstacles. We
have the technology to produce the hardware. All that is missing the software- the programs that will operate the
machine.
Question 15: A. that B. what C. when D. where
Question 16: A. succeeded B. managed C. made D. given
Question 17: A. carries over B. carries out C. carries off D. carries away
Question 18: A. from B. with C. by D. for Question
19: A. However B. Therefore C. Besides D. Moreover

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in the pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. candidates B. caves C. methods D. novels
Question 21: A. chemistry B. children C. schooling D. character

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 22: A. political B. furniture C. yesterday D. ambulance
Question 23: A. humorous B. educator C. organism D. contaminate

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the following questions.
According to airline industry statistics, almost 90 percent of airline accidents are survivable or partially
survivable. But passengers can increase their chances of survival by learning and following certain tips. Experts
says that you should read and listen to safety instruction before take-off and ask questions if you have
uncertainties. You should fasten your seat belt low on your hips and as tightly as possible. Of course, you should
also know how the release mechanism of your belt operates. During takeoffs and landings, you are advised to keep
your feet flat on the floor. Before take-off, you should locate the nearest exit and an alternative exit and count the
rows of seats between you and the exits so that you can reach them in the dark if necessary. In the event that you
are forewarned of a possible accident, you should put your hands on your ankles and keep your head down until
the plane comes to a complete stop. If smoke is present in the cabin, you should keep your head low and cover
your face with napkins, towels, or clothing. If possible, wet these fore added protection against smoke inhalation.
To evacuate as
quickly as possible, follow crew commands and do not take personal belongings with you. Do not jump on escape
slides before they are fully inflated, and when you jump, do so with your amrs and legs extended in front of you.
When you get to the ground, you should move away from the plane as quickly as possible, and smoke near the
wreckage.
Question 24: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Procedures for evacuation aircraft.
B. Guidelines for increasing aircraft passenger survival.
C. Airline industry accident statistics.
D. Safety instructions in air travel.
Question 25: Travelers are urged by expert to read and listen to safety instruction .
A. if smoke is in the cabin B. in an emergency
C. before locating the exits D. before take-off
Question 26: According to the passage, airline travelers should keep their feet flat on the floor .
A. especially during landings B. throughout the flight
C. only if an accident is possible D. during take-offs and landings
Question 27: According to te passage, which exits should an airline passenger locate before take-off?
A. The ones with counted rows of seats between them.
B. The nearest one.
C. The two closest to the passenger’s seat.
B. The ones that can be found in the dark.
Question 28: The word “them” in bold refers to .
A. seats B. rows C. exits D. feet
Question 29: It can be inferred from the passage that people are more likely survive fires in aircrafts if
they .
A. don’t smoke in or near a plane B. read airline safety statistics
C. wear a safety belt D. keep their heads low
Question 30: Airline passengers are advised to do all of the following EXCEPT .
A. ask questions about safety B. locate the nearest exit
C. fasten their seat belts before take-off D. carry personal belongings in an emergency
Question 31: The word “inflated” in bold is closest in meaning to .
A. expanded B. lifted C. assembled D. increased

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 32: The mountain climbers proceeded forward on their long trek up the side of the mountain.
A B C D
Question 33: The nesets of most bird species are strategic placed to camouflage them against predators.
A B C D
Question 34: Rocks have forming, wearing away and re-forming ever since the Earth took shape.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 35: Today, Amur leopard, one of the world’s most endangered wild cats, is found only in the Amur River
basin of eastern Russia, having already gone extinct from China and the Korean Peninsula.
A. died for B. died from C. died of D. died out
Question 36: The students got high marks in the test but Mary stood out.
A. got very good marks B. got a lot of marks
C. got higher marks than someone D. got the most marks of all

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the following questions.
Fish that live on the sea bottom benefit by being flat and hugging the contours. There are two very different
types of flatfish and they have evolved in very separate ways. The skates and rays, relatives of the sharks, have
become flat in what might be called the obvious way. Their bodies have grown out sideways to form great
“wings”. They look as though they have been flattened but have remained symmetrical and “the right way up”.
Conversely, fish such as plaice, sole, and halibut have become flat in a different way. There are bony fish which
have a marked tendency to be flattened in a vertical direction; they are much “taller” then they are wide. They use
their whole, vertically flattened bodies as swimming surfaces, which undulate through the water as they move.
Therefore, when their ancestors migrated to the seabed, they lay on one side than on their bellies. However, this
raises the problem that one eye was always looking down into the sand and was effectively useless – In evolution
this problem was solved by the lower eye “moving” around the other side. We see this process of moving around
enacted in the development of every young bony flatfish. It starts life swimming near the surface, and is
symmetrical and vertically flattened, but then the skull starts to grow in a strange asymmetrical twisted fashion, so
that one eye, for instance the left, moves over the top of the head upwards, and old Picasso – like vision.
Incidentally, some species of 20 flatfish settle on the right side, others on the left, and others on either side.
Question 37: The passage is mainly concerned with .
A. symmetrical flatfish B. bony flatfish
C. evolution of flatfish D. different types of flatfish
Question 38: The author mentions skates and rays as examples of fish that .
A. become asymmetrical B. appear to fly
C. have spread horizontally D. resemble sharks
Question 39: According to the passage, fish such as plaice .
A. have difficulties in swimming B. live near the surface
C. have distorted heads D. have poor eyesight
Question 40: The word “conversely” is closest in meaning to .
A. similarly B. alternatively C. inversely D. contrafily
Question 41: The word “this” refers to .
A. the migration of the ancestors B. the practice of lying on one side
C. the problem of the one eye looking downwards D. the difficulty of the only one eye being useful
Question 42: According to the passage, the ability of a bony flatfish to move its eyes around is .
A. average B. weak C. excellent D. variable
Question 43: It can be inferred from the passage that the early life of a flatfish is .
A. often confusing B. pretty normal C. very difficult D. full of danger
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 44: We do not know precisely what caused the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah, the cities on the
Jordan River plain in the southern region of the land of Canaan.
A. casually B. flexibly C. wrongly D. informally
Question 45: South Korea carried out a simulated attack on North Korea’s nuclear test site in a huge show of force
response to Pyongyang’s detonation of what it claims is a hydrogen bomb.
A. put up B. put in C. put off D. put on

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 46: It was an interesting novel. I stayed up all night to finish it.
A. I stayed up all night to finish the novel so it was interesting.
B. Unless it were an interesting novel, I would not stay up all night to finish it.
C. Though it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it.
D. So interesting was the novel that I stayed up all night to finish it.
Question 47: The child gave some instructions. I don’t understand any of them.
A. The instructions the child gave are not understanding to me.
B. It was the instructions the child gave that confused me.
C. It hasn’t been clear to me about the instructions given by the child.
D. I’m finding it difficult to figure out what the child required according to his instructions.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 48: You should have made your children do housework as soon as they were able to do so.
A. It was essential to make your children do housework as soon as they were able to do so but you didn’t.
B. You didn’t make your children do housework as they were able to do so.
C. You should make your children do housework as soon as they are able to do so.
D. You made your children do housework but they weren’t able to do so.
Question 49: When the birth rate is high, the expectation of life is low.
A. The birth rate and the expectation of life are high and low respectively.
B. The higher the birth rate, the lower the expectation of life.
C. The birth rate is as high as the expectation of life.
D. The high rate of giving birth depends on the low rate of expectation of life.
Question 50: Richard said “Thanks, Bob. You were very kind to me yesterday”.
A. Richard thanked to Bob as he had been very kind to him yesterday.
B. Richard thanked to Bob as he had been very kind to him yesterday.
C. Richard thanked Bob for he had been very kind to him the day before.
D. Richard said thanks to Bob as he was very kind to him yesterday.