SAMPLE MCQ

Department of Accountancy

TYBCOM SEM VI REGULAR 2019-20

FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING

1. In case of amalgamation of companies the Profit on Realisation is_______

(a) is transferred to the credit side of Equity Shareholders account
(b) Is transferred to Debentureholders account on Debit side
(c) is transferred to the Debit side of Equity Shareholders account
(d) is transferred to the Credit side of Preference Shareholders account

2. If the Assets of A ltd having Book Value of Rs 10,00,000 are taken over at Rs
12,00,000 and Liabilities having a book value of Rs 5,00,000 are taken over at
Rs 4,00,000 than Purchase Consideration payable would be
(a) Rs 5,00,000
(b) Rs 8,00,000
(c) Rs 6,00,000
(d) Rs 7,00,000

3. If an exsisting company goes into voluntary liquidation and a new company is

formed to take over the assets and liabilities of that company it tantamounts
to_____
(a) external reconstruction
(b) Internal Reconstruction
(c) Absorption
(d) Amalgamation

4. If two or more company come together and form anew company which takes
over the assets and liabilities of the vendor companies it is called as
(a) external reconstruction
(b) Internal Reconstruction
(c) Absorption
(d) Amalgamation

5. Remuneration to investigator upon investigation of the affairs of company is

treated as
(a) Secured creditor
(b) Over-riding preferential creditor
(c) Preferential creditor
(d) Unsecured creditor
6. Amount of Govt. dues that arose within 12 months before the date of winding
up is treated as
(a) Secured creditor
(b) Over-riding preferential creditor
(c) Preferential creditor
(d) Unsecured creditor
7. Secured creditors are shown in the statement of affairs under :
(a) List A
(b) List B
(c) List C
(d) List D

8. Amount of Retirement benefits of employees exceeding ` 20,000 per

employee is treated as
(a) Secured creditor
(b) Over-riding preferential creditor
(c) Preferential creditor
(d) Unsecured creditor

9. If broker find subscribers, he gets

(a) Commission
(b) Interest
(c) Brokerage
(d) Subscription

10. underwriting may be done by many underwriters in an agreed ratio,is known

as_______
(a) Sub underwriting
(b) Joint Underwriting
(c) Partial Underwriting
(d) Firm Underwriting

11. Applications which do not bear the stamp of the underwriter are known as
(a) Marker applications
(b) Unmarkerd Applications
(c) Firm Applications
(d) Subscriptions

12. Applications which have the stamp of the underwriter are known as
(a) Marker applications
(b) Unmarkerd Applications
(c) Firm Applications
(d) Subscriptions

13. Which appplication do not carry any preferance while allotement of securities
(a) Joint Applications
 (b) Marked Applications
(c) Unmarked applications
(d) Subscribed applications

14. If the whole issue of shares or debentures is underwritten, it is said to be

(a) Complete Underwritting
(b) Partial Underwriting
(c) Joint Underwriting
(d) Subscription

15. A foreign currency transaction should be recorded, on initial recognition

(a) in the reporting currency, by applying to the foreign currency the exchange
rate between the
reporting currency and the foreign currency at the date of balance sheet
(b) in the Indian Rupees, by using the exchange rate between the Indian
Rupee and the U.S.
Dollars at the date of the transaction
(c) in the reporting currency, by applying to the foreign currency amount the
exchange rate
between the reporting currency and the foreign currency at the date of the
transaction

(d) in the reporting currency, by applying to the foreign currency amount the
average exchange rate between the reporting currency and the foreign
currency during the financial year

16. Which of the following statements is not as per AS 11 ?

(a) AS 11 should be applied in accounting for transactions in foreign
currencies
(b) AS 11 deals with accounting for foreign currency transactions
(c) AS 11 specifies the currency in which an enterprise should present its
financial statements
(d) The main issues in accounting for foreign currency transactions are to
decide which
exchange rate to use and how to account for them in the financial statements

17. Following is not an example of a monetary item.

(a) Cash
(b) Receivables
(c) Payables
(d) Fixed assets
18. A ________ partnership is a special form of partnership in which all partners
are limited partner
(a) Limited
(b) Limited Liability
(c)Licenced
(d) Special

19. Partners liability in LLP is _____

Limited
Unlimited
Limitless
Special

20. Partners liability in partnership is _____

Limited
Unlimited
Limitless
Special

Financial Accounting & Auditing X – Cost Accounting

1. Break-Even Point decreases, When Fixed cost____________

a) remains the same
b) Increase
c) Decreases
d) Cannot be determined
2. Find Contribution, if Sales is Rs. 8,00,000; Profit Volume ratio is 20%, Fixed
cost is Rs. 80,000.
a) Rs. 1,60,000
b) Rs. 4,50,000
c) Rs. 50,000
d) Rs. 1,50,000
3. Calculate Work certified if, Cash received is Rs. 11,70,000, Rate of cash
received to work certified is 90%
a) Rs. 8,50,500
b) Rs. 10,53,000
c) Rs. 13,00,000
 d) Rs. 9,00,000
4. Calculate Cost Per Unit of Normal Output when Total cost of process is Rs.
3,99,000; Normal loss realization is Rs. 9,000; Input Raw Material is 20,000
kgs; Normal loss @ 2.5% of input Raw Material.
a) Rs. 26
b) Rs. 27
c) Rs. 20
d) Rs. 24
5. Value of work certified Rs. 6,50,000; Cost of work to date Rs. 5,00,000; Cost of
work not yet certified Rs. 50,000, Calculate notional profit ________
a) Rs. 2,00,000
b) Rs. 1,00,000
c) Rs. 1,50,000
d) Rs. Nil
6. Standard for 10 units is 5 hours; Standard rate per hour is Rs. 15; Standard rate
per unit Rs. 30; Actual hours worked 85,000 Hours; Actual rate per hour is Rs.
14.60; Actual Production 1,60,000 units. Calculate Labour Cost Variance.
a) Rs. 41,000 (A)
b) Rs. 41,000 (F)
c) Rs. 1,07,000 (A)
d) Rs. 1,07,000 (F)

7. In ABC Costing ‘A’ stands for ____________.

a) Achieve
b) Activity
c) Accurate
d) Analytical
8. ABC Ltd. Produces and sales a notebook @ Rs. 40 each. The marginal cost of
production is Rs. 24 each and fixed cost is Rs. 1,60,000 per annum. So,break
even sales would be _____ Units
a) 10,000
b) 15,000
c) 5,0000
d) 20,000
9. Standard for 10 units is 5 hours, Standard rate per unit is Rs. 15. What will be
standard rate for 1 Hour?
a) Rs. 30
b) Rs. 60
c) Rs. 45
d) Rs. 15
10. ABC Ltd. Produces and sales a notebook @ Rs. 10 each. The variable cost
of production is Rs. 6 each and fixed cost is Rs. 400 per annum. So Profit
Volume Ratio would be _____.
a) 40%
b) 20%
c) 25%
d) 33.33%
11. Net profit under cost control accounts Debited to __________ account.

a) Costing profit and loss account

b) General ledger adjustment account

c) Cost of sales

d) finished goods Stock

12. Following is the information related to Process ‘A’ for a chemical product. Basic
Raw Material 12,500 kgs introduced @ Rs. 10 per kg. Indirect material is Rs.
80,000; direct wages incurred is Rs. 60,000; Overheads absorbed Rs. 54,000;
Normal loss is estimated to be 2% of Input. Scrap rate is Rs. 2 per kg; Output
from this process is 12,000 Units. Calculate Total cost of the process.
a) Rs. 3,19,000
b) Rs. 3,18,750
c) Rs. 3,19,250
d) Rs. 3,20,150
13. Following is the information related to Process ‘A’. Basic Raw Material 12,500
Units introduced @ Rs. 10 per unit. Indirect material is Rs. 80,000; direct wages
incurred is Rs. 60,000; Overheads absorbed Rs. 54,000; Normal loss is
 estimated to be 2% of Input. Scrap rate is Rs. 2 per unit; Output from this
process is 12,000 Units. Calculate Abnormal _________units.
a) Loss 250
b) Gain 250
c) Loss 500
d) Gain 500
14. At Break Even Point, the contribution is equal to _______
a) Variable cost
b) Administrative cost
c) Sales revenue
d) Fixed cost
15. Which of the following cost is also known as overhead cost or on cost?
a) Cost of direct labour
b) Cost of indirect labour
c) Direct expenses
d) Indirect expenses
16. Danger level= Normal consumption X ___________.
a) Reorder period
b) Maximum Reorder period
c) Maximum Reorder period in emergency
d) Minimum Reorder period
17. Basic aim of Cost Accounting is to ____________.
a) Profit Analysis
b) Cost Ascertainment
c) Financial audit
d) Tax compliances
18. Godown rent is an example of _____________.
a) Factory Overheads
b) Administrative Overheads
c) Selling & Distribution Overheads
d) Research & Development Costs
19. Following is the information related to Process ‘Crushing’. Basic Raw Material
50,000 Units introduced @ Rs. 10 per unit. Cost of process is Rs.2,50,000;
Normal loss is estimated to be 7.5% of Input. Scrap rate is Rs. 8 per unit; Output
 from this process is 48,000 Units. Calculate Scrap Value of Normal loss for the
Process.
a. Rs. 37,500
b. Rs. 30,000
c. Rs. 3,750
d. Rs. 18,750
20. Notional Profit on incomplete contract is Rs.2,40,000; Work Certified valued at
Rs.2,60,000; Contract Price is Rs.5,60,000; Cash received is 90% of the work
certified. Calculate amount to be kept in Reserve.
a. 1,44,000
b. 1,68,000
c. 72,000
d. 96,000

DIRECT AND INDIRECT TAX PAPER II

Goods and Service Tax
1. Integrated Goods and Service Tax is applicable when –

a) Sold in Union territory

b) b) Sold from one GST dealer to another GST dealer

c) Sold within a state

d) there is interstate supply

2. Goods which get input tax credit without being liable to collect output tax is called
a) Exempt goods

b) b) White goods

c) c) Sin goods d

d) ) Zero rate goods

3.GST can be collected by

a) Any registered dealer

b) Any GST dealer
c) Any service provider
 d) Any dealer

4. M/s Deepak Enterprises of Mumbai Supplies Goods to M/s Jyoti Associates

Rajasthan this will classify as ____.

a) Export Supply
b) Import Supply
c) Intra state supply
d) Interstate supply

5. A supply of a package consisting of canned foods, sweets, chocolates, cakes,

and dry fruit aerated drinks and fruit juices when supplied for a single price is

a) Common supply
b) Composite supply
c) Mixed supply
d) Continuous supply

6.Supply of goods or services which constitutes the predominant element of a

composite supply is called

a) Common supply
b) Principal supply
c) Mixed supply
d) Continuous supply

7. Integrated GST is applicable on goods or services

a) Import
b) Interstate Sale
c) Exported from India
d) Imports and interstate sales

8. The rate of IGST is equal to the rate of

a) CGST
b) SGST
c) CGST plus the rate of SGST
d) SGST plus UTGST

9. Mr A an architect, agrees to design and construct a building for Mr B for a sum

of Rs. 1 Core. The construction completed and the amount received by Mr A. This
is supply to

a) Goods
b) Services
c) Both goods and services
d) No supply

10. A DTH company supplies a dish, set-top box, 3 year repairing and subscription
of 500 channels for face year services as a package to the customers for Rs.25,
000. This is a____
a. Mixed supply
b. b) Composite supply
c. c) Joint Supply
d. d) Not supply

11. Place of supply of goods exported from India shall be

a) The location outside India

b) the location of the exporter
c) State in which exported goods reaches first
d) Place of supply not applicable.

12. The managers of ITC Ltd., Kolkata (GST registered) are given one week
training in Manner, by Infosys Ltd., Bangalore, for a sum of Rs. 10 Lakhs.
Payment given at Mumbai The place of supply of services is

a) Mumbai
b) Kolkata
c) Manner
d) Bangalore
13. IGST Collected belong to

a) Central Government
b) To the State in which supply occurs
c) To the state to which supply occurs
d) the Centre and state to which supply occurs

14. A registered person making zero rated supply shall be

a) Eligible to claim refund

b) Not eligible for refund
c) Subject to reverse charge
d) None of the

15.IGST is payable when the supply is ----

a) Interstate

b) c) Intra- state

c) Intra – UT

d) d) All of the above

16. Goods and services Tax is tax levied on goods and services of each point of _

a) Cash Sale
b) Demand
c) Supply
d) manufacturing

17. Liability to pay tax on goods shall arise at the

a) Dis patch of goods

b) Time of supply
c) Removal of goods
d) Delivery of goods

18.Work Contract is a supply of

a) Goods
b) Services
c) Both
d) None

19. Input tax Credit be allowed only against

a) Any Tax payable

b) Output Tax
c) Composite Tax
d) Refund

20. Mr. Ujwal has an outward tax liability under IGST of Rs.40,000 The unutilized
input Tax Credit available under CGST is Rs.10,000/- and under SGST is
Rs.10,000/- the net liability payable would be

a) Rs.20, 000
b) Rs.40, 000
c) Rs. 60,000
d) Rs. 10000
 Page 1 of 8

VPM’s JOSHI-BEDEKAR COLLEGE, THANE

TYBCom Semester-VI

Financial Management (Business Management Group)

Sample Questions

-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

1. Long term decisions are called as ____.

a. Working capital decisions
b. Future decisions
c. Capital budgeting decisions
d. Pricing decisions

2. LMN Ltd. is planning to purchase a machine. Purchase price is Rs. 4,00,000. Estimated
cash flow is Rs. 1,50,000 p.a. Useful life of the machine is 5 years. The payback period
is ____.
a. 2 years, 6 months
b. 3 years, 3 months
c. 2 years, 8 months
d. 5 years

3. Discounting of cash flows involves ____.

a. Converting future value into present value
b. Converting present value into future value
c. Subtracting discounts allowable
d. Adding discounts receivable

Sample MCQs TYBCom Sem-VI Financial Management (BM)

 Page 2 of 8

4. An entity is planning an investment of Rs. 60,000. The cash inflow for 3 years is Rs.
30,000 p.a. If cost of capital is 10%, NPV is ____.
a. 8,360
b. 10.800
c. 14,610
d. 30,000

5. From available alternatives, the project with ____ should be accepted.

a. Highest Payback Period
b. Highest NPV
c. Highest Discounted Payback Period
d. Highest cash flows

6. In Payback Period method, decision of accepting or rejecting an investment proposal

is taken on the basis of ____.
a. Tenure of the proposal
b. Estimated net profit
c. Projected revenue
d. Time required for investment recovery

7. Accounting Rate of Return method considers ____ for decision making.

a. Accounting profit
b. NPV
c. EPS for shareholders
d. Cash outlay

8. A project involves an initial investment of Rs. 10,00,000 and yearly expenses of Rs.
20,000 for 5 years. Assuming the cumulative discounting factor at 10% for 5 years to
be 3.790, the present value of cash outflows is ____.

Sample MCQs TYBCom Sem-VI Financial Management (BM)

 Page 3 of 8

a. Rs. 10,20,000
b. Rs. 10,75,800
c. Rs. 22,16,000
d. Rs. 38,65,800

9. Working capital is equal to ____.

a. Fixed assets – current assets
b. Current assets – current liabilities
c. Current liabilities – current assets
d. Fixed assets – share capital

10. ____ relates to the flow of value caused by different operational activities during a
given period of time.
a. Working capital
b. Operating cycle
c. Inventory storage period
d. Debtors collection period

11. Gross working capital = ____.

a. Current assets
b. Current assets – current liabilities
c. Net worth
d. Current liabilities

12. ____ is a source of working capital finance.

a. Term loan
b. Overdraft
c. Debentures
d. External commercial borrowings

Sample MCQs TYBCom Sem-VI Financial Management (BM)

 Page 4 of 8

13. Working capital is said to be ____ when current liabilities exceed current assets.
a. Negative
b. Positive
c. Sufficient
d. Neutral

14. If a firm experiences 8 operating cycles in a year, its operating cycle period must be of
____ days, assuming the number of days in a year to be 360.
a. 8
b. 45
c. 36
d. 90

15. For calculating operating cycle period, period for which the finished goods remain in
stock before getting dispatched for sale, is ____.
a. Added
b. Subtracted
c. Ignored
d. Considered twice

16. ‘Cash terms’ means ____.

a. Sale on cash basis
b. Sale on credit basis
c. Sale on approval basis
d. Consignment

17. Decrease in accounts receivable ____.

Sample MCQs TYBCom Sem-VI Financial Management (BM)

 Page 5 of 8

a. Increases working capital

b. Decreases working capital
c. Increases fixed capital
d. Decreases fixed capital

18. Receivables management is a function within ____.

a. Capital structure decision
b. Dividend policy
c. Financial management
d. Marketing management

19. Trade discount is offered to ____.

a. Encourage prompt payments
b. Encourage bulk orders
c. Encourage positive feedback
d. Encourage extension of contract

20. If total sales is Rs. 8,00,000 and credit period allowed to customers is 3 months,
investment in receivables will be equal to ____.
a. Rs. 24,00,000
b. Rs. 2,00,000
c. Rs. 2,66,667
d. Rs. 8,00,000

21. Non-cash expenses are ____ while preparing a cash budget.

a. Added to receipts
b. Added to payments
c. Subtracted from payments
d. Ignored

Sample MCQs TYBCom Sem-VI Financial Management (BM)

 Page 6 of 8

22. If a marketable security yielding 6% p.a. is bought for Rs. 1,20,000 and held for 54
days, then interest earned thereon will be Rs. ____, assuming one year to be of 360
days.
a. 7,200
b. 1,080
c. 1,065
d. 2,700

23. ____ is a money market instrument.

a. Preference shares
b. Equity shares
c. Debentures
d. Treasury bills

24. In a Cost Sheet, stock of finished goods is adjusted after ____.

a. Prime cost
b. Factory cost
c. Cost of production
d. Cost of sales

25. In cost accounting, closing stock is valued at ____.

a. Market price
b. Realizable value
c. Factory cost
d. Cost of production

Sample MCQs TYBCom Sem-VI Financial Management (BM)

 Page 7 of 8

26. On the basis of ____, overheads are classified as factory, administrative and selling
overheads.
a. Behaviour
b. Functions
c. Controllability
d. Time

27. Machine repairs are treated as ____ in the Cost Sheet.

a. Office overheads
b. Factory overheads
c. Direct expenses
d. Selling and distribution overheads

28. Above breakeven point, an entity will derive ____.

a. Profit
b. Loss
c. No profit no loss
d. Sometimes profit, sometimes loss

29. If sales are Rs. 10,00,000, total variable cost is Rs. 4,50,000 and profit is 15% on sales,
then total fixed cost will be Rs. ____.
a. 1,50,000
b. 4,00,000
c. 4,50,000
d. 8,50,000

30. If selling price, materials cost, labour cost and sales commission is Rs. 24, 10, 6 and 2
per unit respectively, contribution per unit will be Rs. ____.
a. 8

Sample MCQs TYBCom Sem-VI Financial Management (BM)

 Page 8 of 8

b. 6
c. 14
d. 22

---------------------

Sample MCQs TYBCom Sem-VI Financial Management (BM)

 Sample Questions for ATKT September 2020

Paper Name: Business Law II Paper Code 404

Q.1 Who can act as an expert in preparation of Memorandum and Articles of

Association?
a) Director
b) Promoter
c) Chartered Accountant
d) Special Director
प्र.१ संघटनेचा मसद
ु ा व ननयमावली तयार करण्यासाठी कोण तज्ञ म्हणन
ू काम पाहू शकतो?

अ) संचालक

ब) प्रवततक

क) सनदी लेखापाल

ड) ववशेष संचालक

Q.2 Meeting held once in a year is called as

a) Statutory Meeting
b) Extra-ordinary General Meeting
c) Class Meeting
d) Annual General Meeting
प्र. २ वषाततन
ू एकदा होणाऱ्या सभेस म्हणतात

अ) कायदे शीर सभा

ब) ववशेष सवतसाधारण सभा

क) वर्त सभा

ड) वावषतक सवतसाधारण सभा

Q. 3 Meeting held to transact urgent matter is known as

a) Extra-ordinary General Meeting
b) Board Meeting
c) Annual General Meeting
d) Class Meeting

1
प्र. ३ तातडीच्या कामासाठी घेतल्या जाणाऱ्या सभेस म्हणतात

अ) ववशेष सवतसाधारण सभा

ब) संचालक सभा

क) वावषतक सवतसाधारण सभा

ड) वर्त सभा

Q.4 A sleeping partner is also called as

a) Active partner
b) Dormant partner
c) Nominal partner
d) Partner in profits only
प्र. ४ अप्रत्यक्ष भार्ीदारास म्हणतात

अ सक्रीय भार्ीदार

ब सुप्त भार्ीदार

क नाममात्र भार्ीदार

ड फायदयासाठीचा भार्ीदार

Q.5 Which of the following is disadvantage of LLP?

a) Perpetual succession
b) Easy wind up procedure
c) Can’t raise funds from public
d) No limitation of maximum number of partners
प्र.५ मयातददत भार्ीदारीचा तोटा कोणता आहे?

अ शाश्वत चचरं तनता

ब सोपी समापन प्रक्रक्रया

क जनतेकडून भांडवल र्ोळा करता न येणे

ड भार्ीदाराच्या जास्तीत जास्त संख्येवर मयातदा नसणे

Q.6 Complaint can be filed with National Commission where the value of goods
and services exceeds
a) Rs. 1 Crore
b) Rs. 20 Lakhs

2
 c) Rs. 10 Lakhs
d) Rs. 5 Lakhs
प्र. ६ मालाची अथवा सेवेची क्रकं मत क्रकतीने जास्त असेल तेव्हा राष्ट्रीय आयोर्ाकडे तक्रार करता येते?

अ) १ करोड रु.

ब) २० लाख रु.

क) १० लाख रु.

ड) ५ लाख रु.

Q.7 Which of the following is not an advantage of Competition?

a) Leads to create monopoly
b) More foreign investment
c) Lowering of price
d) Improves service quality
प्र. ७ खालीलपैकी कोणता स्पधेचा फायदा नाही?

अ एकाचधकारशाहीकडे वाटचाल

ब जास्त ववदे शी र्त

ु ंवणक
ू

क क्रकंमत कमी होणे

ड सेवेचा दजात सुधारणे

Q.8 Which of the following right is related with an invention?

a) Trademark
b) Copyright
c) Patent
d) Industrial Designs
प्र. ८ खालीलपैकी कोणता अचधकार शोधाशी संबचं धत आहे?

अ व्यापारी चचन्ह

ब लेखाचधकार

क पेटंट

ड औद्योचर्क आराखडा

Q.9 Which of the following purpose is not a fair use of copyright?

a) Research

3
 b) Commercial purpose
c) Criticism
d) Reporting current events
प्र. ९ खालीलपैकी कोणते कारण लेखाचधकाराचा योग्य वापर नाही?

अ संशोधन

ब आचथतक लाभ

क टीका

ड चालू घडामोडींचे वाताांकन

Q.10) Promoters stand in which relation with the company

a) Legal

b) Fiduciary

c) Authentic

d) Separate

प्र.१० प्रवततकाचे कंपनीशी कोणते नाते असते ?

अ) कायदे शीर

ब) ववश्वस्त

क) अस्सल

ड) स्वतंत्र

4
 VPM’S K.G.JOSHI COLLEGE OF ARTS AND N.G. BEDEKAR COLLEGE OF
COMMERCE, THANE (W)

T.Y. B.COM. –SEM VI

EXPORT MARKETING-II

SAMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Product design plays an important role in gaining customer …………………….

a. acceptance b. satisfaction c. rejection d. dissatisfaction
2. Marketing research needs to be conducted to identify ……………. Preferences.
a. marketers’ b. dealers c. customers d. distributors
3. Product packaging depends upon ……………….. of the product.
a. distribution b. nature c. color d. brand
4. Product pricing depends upon ………………….. of the firm.
a. objectives b. loss c. profit d. place
5. ………………….. pricing strategy is adopted to gain large market share.
a. skimming b. penetration c. trial d. standard
6. …………………. Costs vary with increase in production.
a. fixed b. variable c. semi variable d. FOB
7. Before entering into export market …………….. policy is very important decision to
take.
a. Product design b. production c. marketing d. product
8. ………………………… is the responsibility of manufacturer for repair.
a. Warrantee b. guarantee c. maintenance d. service
9. A brand has …………………
a. variations b. dimensions c. aspects d. designs
10. ……………… is pre-measured & pre-weighed.
a. labeling b. handling c. packaging d. containment
11. Label is a ………………… matter.
a. written b. printed c. embossed d. crucial
12. Branding & packaging are important considerations of ………………….
a. Trade credit b. product planning c. shipping formalities d. demand
13. FOB quotation includes ……………
a. Ex-factory cost b. insurance c. marine freight d. administration
cost
14. ……………… helps in obtaining leads of prospective buyers.
a. distribution b. personal selling c. advertising d. publicity
15. ……………………….. risk takes place on account of insolvency of the buyer.
a. political b. legal c. economic d. commercial
16. ……………………….. refers to the amount of space available for storing material on
ship or plane.
a. logistics b. port c. stowage d. storage
17. A ……………………. Warehouse keeps the products for a relatively long period of
time.
a. storage b. bonded c. trade d. distribution
18. ………………………. Refers to the quality of service which a firm provides to
customers.
a. customer research b. customer order processing c. customer feedback
d. customer service standards
19. One star export house has to achieve export performance of FOB worth ….… US $
million during current year & previous 2 years.
a. 3 b. 25 c. 100 d. 50
20. Under ……………. Marketing, the manufacturer makes own arrangements to
distribute the goods.
a. direct b. rural c. regional d. indirect
21. …………………. Characteristics influence the choice of distribution channels in
export marketing.
a. global b. personal c. customer d. employee morale
22. In indirect exporting, manufacturer has to bear only …………….. Overheads.
a. distribution b. promotion c. production d. general
23. Exporters may fetch ………………. Prices due to intermediaries’ margin.
a. higher b. same c. lower d. exorbitant
24. ………… exporting is more suitable & feasible for large scale operators.
a. direct b. international c. indirect d. integrated
25. ……………….. risk involves risk due to war & civil disturbances.
a. political b. economic c. commercial d. legal
26. The amount of credit is ……………………. than packing credit in pre shipment
finance.
a. Lower b. Higher c. Uniform d. Similar
27. The main objective of EXIM bank is ……………………………….
a. Negotiations of bill b. discounting of bill c. To promote foreign trade of India
d. Overdraft against bills
28. EXIM bank came into existence in ………………….
a. 1952 b. 1982 c. 1822 d. 1972
29. Post shipment finance is ……………………..
a. need based b. fund based c. non fund based d. quality based
30. ………………………. Investment insurance is a financial guarantee from ECGC.
a. Overseas b. Euro c. Joint venture d. foreign
31. Commercial banks give …………….. to foreign lending institutions.
a. guarantee b. loan c. warranty d. credit
32. EXIM bank offers …………………. Services.
a. administrative b. quality c. advisory d. trading
33. Packing credit is required …………………… the shipment.
a. after b. before c. during d. at the time of

34. ………………………….. was established to provide medium & long term finance to
exporters in India.
a. RBI b. DGFT c. EXIM bank d. ECGC
35. ……………………… is a commercial risk covered by ECGC.
a. Insolvency of buyer b. war c. civil disturbances d. cyclone
36. ……………………… finance is also referred to as packing credit.
a. pre shipment b. post shipment c. long term d. seed
37. Post shipment finance is generally available for a period of ………………..
a. 180 b. 360 c. 90 d. 45
38. Rejection note is issued by ………………
a. preventive officer of customs b. EIA c. Shipping company d. CHA
39. …………………… is prepared in five copies.
a. Bill of lading b. packing list c. shipping bill d. loan agreement
40. ……………………… gives permission to load cargo into the ship,
a. Invoice b. Bill of lading c. Let ship order d. Let export order
41. Only registered exporters can furnish ………………….
a. Letter of undertaking b. GST return c. Promissory note d. Bond
42. …………………… is a document of title to the goods.
a. Bill of lading b. Airway bill c. Consular invoice d. Commercial
invoice
43. …………………….. is used in land transport.
a. Shipping bill b. Bill of export c. Bill of exchange d. Bill of lading
44. Consular invoice is prepared in ………………. Copies.
a. 3 b. 2 c. 5 d. 4
45. …………………. Certifies the consular invoice.
a. IIP b. Consulate c. custom d. commodity
board
46. ……………………. Issues the registration cum membership certificate.
a. DGFT b. EPC c. EXIM bank d. chamber of commerce
47. ………………….. states that the goods which are exported are from a specific
country.
a. Certificate of origin b. Letter of credit c. Bill of lading d. Shipping bill
48. In ICC, I stands for…………….
a. International b. Indian c. Industrial d. Importer
49. In DGFT, D stands for…………….
a. Directorate b. Development c. Dealers d. Director
50. Dutiable shipping bill is printed on ……………… paper.
a. yellow b. white c. red d. orange
 VPM’S K.G.JOSHI COLLEGE OF ARTS AND N.G. BEDEKAR COLLEGE OF
COMMERCE, THANE (W)

T.Y. BUSINESS MANGEMENT-PAPER-IV- SEM VI

MANAGEMENT AND ORGANISATIONAL DEVELOPMENT

SAMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1.____ initiates at the top level in the organisation and follows to the bottom through
the hierarchy.

a. Direction

b. Staffing

c. Leadership

d. Motivation

2. Language is related to _____ barriers.

a. Physiological

b. Psychological

c. Semantic

d. Environment

3. ______ can create a potential risk of disclosing confidential information.

a. Political media

b. Social media

c. Employees

d. Investors

4. The path-goal theory was basically influenced by the ______________theory of

motivation.

a. Great man

b. emotional

c. Expectancy

d. Transformational
5. The leader is like a ____ for the organisations as he has given direction to
everyone.

a. Employee

b. Labour

c. Dealer

d. Navigator

6. ____ leaders focus their leadership on motivating followers through a system of

rewards and punishments.

a. Transformational

b. Directive

c. Participative

d. Transactional

7. Through the strength of their vision and personality, ______ leaders are able to
inspire followers to change expectations and perceptions.

a. Charismatic

b. Situational

c. Transformational

d. Transactional

8. ____ is the integration of several parts into an orderly hole to achieve the purpose
of understanding.

a. Coordination

b. Planning

c. Organising

d. Staffing

8. The basic motto behind ____ is “each for all and all for each.’

a. Coordination

b. Cooperation

c. Conciliation
d. Control

9.____ is a process of persuading parties to each an agreement.

a. Coordination

b. Cooperation

c. Conciliation

d. Control

10. _____ brings employees closer to the organisation.

a. Motivation

b. Market

c. Theory X

d. Theory Y

11. Many of the organisations find a trusted advisor and ____ for carer guidance.

a. Guide

b. Mentor

c. Guru

d. Manager

12. _____ is that where the workers are paid depending on the quantity of products
made.

a. Going rate

b. Piece rate

c. Time rate

d. Deal rate

13. In ____ some businesses will pay a percentage of profits to employees.

a. Deal Share

b. Commission Share

c. Profit Share

d. Wage Share
14. Enlightened managers use _____ which produces better performance and
results and allows people to grow and develop.

a. Theory X

b. Theory Y

c. Theory Z

d. Theory M

15. Herzberg’s two factor theory is a _____ motivation.

a. Content Theory

b. Unhappy Theory

c. Unsatisfied Theory

d. Pleasant Theory

16. ___ finds out whether the deviations and their causes are removed.

a. Standards

b. Comparison

c. Follow up

d. Measurement

17. MBO is ____ goal setting.

a. individual

b. joint

c. virtual

d. departmental

18. _____ audit is scientific appraisal of the quality of management.

a. Internal

b. Financial

c. Management

d. External

19. Quality circle has only _____ items on the agenda.

a. One

b. Two

c. Three

d. Four

20. ABC analysis _____ different items of inventory.

a. overlooks

b. recognises

c. classifies

d. records

21. In _____ centre the performance of employees is judged by calculating return on

investment.

a. Cost

b. Profit

c. Investment

d. Production

22. _____ is a set of organised procedures which, when executed provide

information to support decision making.

a. MIS

b. ERP

c. Data

d. Network Analysis

23. MBO is formulated in 1954 by_____

a. F.W. Taylor

b. Peter Drucker

c. Henry Fayol

d. Kaoru Ishikawa

24. Organisational Development is basically a ______ term effort for change.

a. Very short
b. Short

c. Medium

d. Long

25. ______ is the internal cause for organisational change.

a. Technology

b. Legal Factors

c. Social Changes

d. Lack of funds

26. _____ is the scarcest resource available to an individual as well as an

organisation.

a. Finance

b. Machines

c. Time

d. Market

27. ____ is another tool for analysing one’s job and helps formulating task priorities.

a. Time log

b. Pareto Principle

c. ABC Technique

d. Planning and Budgeting

28. According to ____ the process of planned change consists of three stages,
unfreezing, changing and refreezing.

a. Kurt Lewin

b. George Terry

c. Koontz

d. Keith Davis

29. Inter personal conflict arise ______

a. Within individual

b. Between individuals
c. Within group

d. Between groups

30. _____ is the process of suppressing differences existing between conflicting

parties.

a. Smoothing

b. Problem Solving

c. Compromise

d. Confrontation
 Commerce VI
Semester 6
HRM

1. _____________ is a process of managing human resources to improve

individual, group and organisational effectiveness.
a. HRM
b. HRP
c. HRD
d. HR
2. _____________ means choosing the right candidate from those who have
applied for the post.
a. Selection
b. Appointment
c. Development
d. Training

3. _____________ gives details of the job to be performed.

a. Job Design
b. Job Description
c. Job Specification
d. Job Enrichment

4. Job enlargement is _____________ expansion of the job.

a. Vertical
b. Horizontal
c. Circular
d. Diagonal

5. Human resources are the most productive and _____________ resource.

a. complicated
b. simple
c. easy
d. perfect

6. _____________ results in increase in salary with every movement in the job.

a. Job Rotation
b. Campus recruitment
c. Promotion
d. Job analysis

7. _____________ precedes selection.

a. Recruitment
b. Transfer
c. Appointment
 d. Training

8. _____________ is the first step in the process of recruitment and selection.

a. Job Design
b. Job Analysis
c. Job Rotation
d. Job enrichment

9. _____________ is a plan or a sketch of the job to be done.

a. Job Design
b. Job Enrichment
c. Transfer
d. Training
10. Areas of Job title, job location, job summary, duties and responsibilities are
elements covered by _____________.
a. Job Description
b. Job Title
c. Job Rotation
d. Job enlargement
11. _____________ follows job description.
a. Job Specification
b. Work Load
c. Transfer
d. Promotion
12. HRM aims at developing _____________ among the workforce in every
organisational unit.
a. cordial relations
b. conflicts
c. disagreements
d. anarchy
13. Strategic HRM adopts _____________ selection procedures in selecting
employees.
a. Traditional
b. Scientific
c. International
d. Narrow
14. _____________ refers to online selection of employees.
a. P-Selection
b. L-Selection
c. E-Selection
d. A-Selection

15. Training facilitates reduction in employees_____________.

a. involvement
b. Motivation
c. Turnover
d. Morale
16. _____________ is one of the training methods.
 a. Selection
b. Job Rotation
c. Recruitment
d. HRP
17. Career planning and development facilitates _____________.
a. Human Resource Planning
b. Succession Planning
c. Strategic Planning
d. Setting Objectives
18. _____________ counselling is more suitable in case of personal conflicts,
harassment, behavioural changes etc.
a. Non Directive
b. Directive
c. Co-operative
d. indecisive
19. A_____________ is an individual who assists another person to grow through
intensive coaching, counselling and guidance.
a. Mentor
b. Doctor
c. Advocate
d. Consultant
20. Traditional HRM gives importance to _____________ of work.
a. Productivity
b. Quantity
c. Quality
d. Efficiency
21. _____________ is an exercise or a game in which participants enact other
characters.
a. Case Study
b. Role Playing
c. Management Games
d. Linear Programming
22. _____________ is off the job training method.
a. Understudy
b. Job rotation
c. Case Study Method
d. succession planning
23. ___________refers to strength of an individual’s preference for a particular
outcome or reward.
a. Indifference
b. Preference
c. Valence
d. Expectancy
24. Leadership involves guiding and ___________employees.
a. Criticising
b. Controlling
c. Supervising
d. Motivating
25. Abraham Maslow has identified ___________ sets of human wants.
a. five
b. three
c. ten
d. two
26. Theory Y puts emphasis on ___________leadership.
a. Situational
b. Autocratic
c. Bureaucratic
d. Light
27. Low wage rate, poor working conditions, unfair treatment are examples of
employees___________.
a. satisfaction
b. grievances
c. honour
d. acceptance
28. Grievance means ___________ of workers.
a. happiness
b. satisfaction
c. forgiveness
d. dissatisfaction
29. Transactional and Transformational Theories are theories of _____
a. Motivation
b. Leadership
c. Training
d. Planning

30. Human Resource Information System relates to the ___________ of human

resources employed in the organisation.
a. data validation
b. appraisal
c. estimation
d. counting
31. Daniel Pink states four main elements of autonomy – Time, Technology,
Team and____
a. Task
b. Television
c. Travelling
d. Total
32. ____refers to the knowledge and skills that enable effective performance of
an activity or a job.
a. Human Resource Management
b. Human Resource Planning
c. Human Resource Research
d. Competence
33. Most people prefer to work in ____ working conditions.
a. Good
b. Bad
c. Worst
d. Average
34. Employees gain knowledge and skills through_____.
a. MBO
b. 360degree
c. Role Analysis
d. Training and Development
35. Developing human relations is a ____activity.
a. Job
b. Role
c. Cost-benefit
d. continuous
36. Human relations approach places focus on____.
a. Selection
b. Recruitment
c. Induction
d. employee welfare
37. Transactional leaders place emphasis on contingent rewards and _____.
a. Punishment,
b. Perception
c. Aptitude
d. Interest
38. ____ maintains high level of ethics and integrity in the organization.
a) Work Culture
b) Work System
c) Work Ethics
d) Work Schedule
39. ______ helps to understands instructions and information provided.
a. Communication
b. Horn
c. Halo
d. Spillover
40. Employees gain knowledge and skills through_____.
a. HRP
b. 360degree
c. HRIS
d. Training and Development
41. When organization respects ethical values, there is generally, high level of
employee_____.
a. Disengagement
b. Engagement
c. Programmers
d. Disinterest
42. Innovative culture is the work ______ that managers encourage to nurture and
develop to generate innovative ideas.
a) Policy
b) Environment
c) Rules
 d) Ethics
43. __________ refers to planned elimination of positions or jobs.
a) Downsizing,
b) Upsizing
c) Termination
d) Retention

44. Competency __________is a process of identifying key competencies required

for undertaking organisational tasks.

a) Sapling
b) Mapping
c) Scaling
d) Tasking

45. Employee ___________ involves giving employees the autonomy to take right
decisions.

a) Involvement
b) Empowerment
c) Engagement
d) Education

46. Competence refers to a combination of knowledge, attributes and _____ which

are required to improve work performance.

a) Feelings
b) Skills
c) Opinions
d) Talents

47. __________ popularized the concept of learning organisation through his book
‘The Fifth Discipline.

a) Peter Drucker
b) Tom Peters
c) Peter Senge
d) Henry Fayol

48. Problem solving requires weighing _____ before a final decision is made

a. Alternatives
 b. Suggestions
c. Opinions
d. Ideas

49. Behavioral competencies are called ___________ skills.

a) soft
b) hard
c) liquid
d) strong
50. Innovation culture is needed for retention of ___________employees.
a) Lazy
b) Competent
c) Unskilled
d) Male
 TYBCOM –Business Economics (Sem-6) (2019-20)

According to Ricardo, the essence for international trade is _________

a. Absolute difference in Cost

b. Comparative difference in cost

c. Equal difference in cost

d. Constant cost

रयकाडोच्मा भते आंतययाष्ट्रीम व्माऩायातीर वाय म्शणजे _________

अ. ककं भतीत ऩरयऩूणण पयक

फ. ककं भतीत तर
ु नात्भक पयक

क. ककं भतीत वभान पयक

ड. वतत ककं भत

Gross barter terms of trade comprises of _______

a. All the items

b. Only goods

c. Trade items and unilateral payments

d. Only services

स्थूर लस्तूवलननभमव्माऩायाच्माअटींभध्मे _______ अवतात

अ. वलण लस्तू

फी. केलऱ भार

वी. व्माऩाय आमटभ आणण एकतपी दे म

डी. केलऱ वेला

The gains from international trade comprises of ________-

a) Fall in world production

 b) Fall in Consumption

c) Higher economic welfare

d) Constant World production

आंतययाष्ट्रीम व्माऩायातून मभऱनामाण पामद्मात ________ अंतबत

ूण आशे .

अ) जागनतक उत्ऩादनातीर घट

फ) उऩबोगतीर घट

क) उच्च आर्थणक कल्माण

ड) जागनतक वतत उत्ऩादन

__________________ is not the objective of commercial trade policy.

a) To determine interest rate

b) To preserve foreign exchange reserves

c) To maintain favorable balance of payments

d) To protect domestic industries from foreign competition

__________________ शे व्मालवानमक व्माऩाय धोयणाचे उद्दीष्ट्ट नाशी.

अ) व्माज दय ननश्चचत कयणे

फ) ऩयकीम चरन वाठा जतन कयणे

क) अनुकूर व्मलशाय ळेऴ याखणे

ड) ऩयदे ळी स्ऩधेऩावून दे ळांतगणत उद्मोगांचे वंयषण कयणे

_______________ refers to government’s policy in relation to a country’s international trade.

a) Commercial trade policy

b) Foreign exchange rate Policy

c) Monetary policy

d) Fiscal policy
 _______________ शे वयकायी धोयण शे दे ळाच्मा आंतययाष्ट्रीम व्माऩाया वंदबाणत अवते.

अ) व्मालवानमक व्माऩाय धोयण

फ) ऩयकीम चरन दय धोयण

क) भौद्रिक धोयण

ड) वलत्तीम धोयण

_____________ is the amount of money received by government as a result of tariff imposed.

a) Revenue effect

b) Terms of trade effect

c) Redistribution effect

d) Balance of Payments effect

_____________ रालण्मात आरेल्मा जकात ळुल्काच्मा भाध्मभातन

ू वयकायरा प्राप्त झारेरी यक्कभ अवते.

अ) भशवूर ऩरयणाभ

फ) व्माऩाय ऩरयणाभ अटी

क) ऩन
ु वलणतयण प्रबाल

ड) व्मलशाय ळेऴ ऩरयणाभ

______________ results in trade wars and are harmful to international trade.

a) Retaliatory tariffs

b) Maximum tariffs

c) Minimum tariffs

d) Preferential tariffs

______________ चा व्माऩाय मुद्धात ऩरयणाभ शोतो आणण ते आंतययाष्ट्रीम व्माऩायावाठी शाननकायक अवतात.

अ) प्रनतळोध जकात ळुल्क

फ) जास्तीत जास्त जकातदय

क) ककभान जकातदय

ड) प्राधान्म जकातदय

Balance of Payments includes………………………….

a) Exports of goods

b) Export of goods and services

c) Export of services

d) Export and import of goods and services

व्मलशाय ळेऴात ………………………… वभावलष्ट्ट आशे .

अ) भाराची ननमाणत

फ) लस्तू आणण वेलांची ननमाणत

क) वेलांची ननमाणत

ड) लस्तू ल वेलांची ननमाणत ल आमात

Trade Account Balance of Payments comprises of…………

a) Export of goods

b) Import of goods

c) Export of services

d) Both export and import of goods

व्मलशाय ळेऴाच्मा व्माऩाय खात्मात ............. चा वभालेळ अवतो.

अ) लस्तूंची ननमाणत

फ) लस्तूंची आमात

क) वेलांची ननमाणत
ड) लस्तूंची ननमाणत ल आमात दोन्शी

Devaluation to be successful the sum of total of export-import demand elasticity must be equal to
…………..

a) Zero

b) Greater than one

c) Less than one

d) One

अलभूल्मन मळस्ली शोण्मावाठी एकूण आमात आणण ननमाणत भागणीची रलर्चकता ………… फयोफय अवरी ऩाद्रशजे.

अ) ळून्म

फ) एकाऩेषा जास्त

क) एकाऩेषा कभी

Current account balance includes the following ………………

a) Visible and invisible items

b) Exports and imports of goods

c) Only Services

d) Foreign investments

चारू खात्मातीर मळल्रकभध्मे खारीर गोष्ट्टींचा वभालेळ आशे ………………

अ) दृचमभान आणण अदृचम लस्तू

फ) लस्तंच
ू ी ननमाणत आणण आमात

क) केलऱ वेला

ड) ऩयकीम गुंतलणूक

GATT was replaced by………….. In 1995.

a) World Trade Organization

b) United Nations Organization

c) World Bank

d) International Monetary Fund

गॅटची जागा 1995 भध्मे ………… .. ने घेतरी.

अ) जागनतक व्माऩाय वंघटना

फ) वंमक्
ु त याष्ट्र वंघटना

क) जागनतक फँक

ड) आंतययाष्ट्रीम नाणेननधी

________________refers to the rate at which a country’s currencies are exchanged for

currencies of other country

a. Exchange rate

b. Interest rate

c. Wage rate

d. Parity rate

दे ळाच्मा चरनांरा अन्म दे ळांच्मा चरनांळी ज्मा दयाने दे लाण-घेलाण केरी जाते त्मा दयारा ___________
म्शणतात .

a. वलननभम दय

b. व्माज दय

c. लेतन दय

d. वभता दय

Foreign exchange rate indicates the ___________value of a country‘s currency.

a. External

b. Internal

c. Regional

d. Local
 ऩयकीम वलननभम दय दे ळाच्मा चरनाचा ___________ भूल्म दळणवलतो.

a. फाह्म

b. अंतगणत

c. प्रादे मळक

d. स्थाननक

Supply of foreign exchange in a country comes from ___________.

a. Exports of Goods

b. Exports of Services

c. Unilateral Receipts

d. Purchase of domestic goods

दे ळात ऩयकीम चरन ऩयु लठा ___________ भऱ

ु े मेत.े

a. लस्तूंची ननमाणत

b. वेलांची ननमाणत

c. एकतपी ऩालती

d. घयगुती लस्तूंची खये दी

The supply of foreign exchange curve is ____________.

a. Upward slopping

b. Downward slopping

c. Vertical

d. Horizontal