THPTQG 2017 - de Tham Khao

BỘ 13 ĐỀ
SỞ GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THAM KHẢO SỐ 1

TỈNH BÌNH DƯƠNG KỲ THI THPTQG – Năm học 2016-2017
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. energy B. gain C. gesture D. village
Question 2: A. population B. nation C. question D. station
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. compete B. finish C. expect D. invent
Question 4: A. develop B. endanger C. advertise D. derive
Question 5: A. community B. certificate C. authority D. mathematics
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer that best completes
each unfinished sentence.
Question 6: We are going to _________.
A. get our house being redecorated B. have our house be redecorated
C. have our house to be redecorated D. have our house redecorated
Question 7: So little _________ about mathematics that the lecture was completely beyond me.
A. I have known B. I knew C. do I know D. did I know
Question 8: His letter is full of mistakes. He _________ the mistakes carefully before sending it.
A. must have checked B. should have checked
C. can have checked D. could have checked
Question 9: The girls and flowers _________ he painted were vivid.
A. whom B. that C. which D. who
Question 10:Would John be angry if I _________ his bicycle without asking?
A. had taken B. take C. took D. would take
Question 11: Although he was _________, he agreed to play tennis with me.
A. exhaustive B. exhausting C. exhausted D. exhaustion
Question 12: I really regret _________ your feeling when I asked you such a silly question.
A. to hurt B. hurt C. hurts D. hurting
Question 13: Don’t worry. We’ll have to wait a little longer because I’m sure he will _________.
A. turn down B. turn up C. turn in D. turn into
Question 14: He is very worried _________ his new job because he is not quite prepared _________
working.
A. about / for B. in / at C. to / off D. on / over
Question 15: The salesman left a good _________ on his customers.
A. expression B. idea C. impression D. belief
Question 16: Women’s employment rate is getting _________.
A. high and high B. higher and higher C. high and higher D. higher and the highest
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 17: Laura: “What a lovely house you have!” – Mary: “_________”
A. Thank you. Hope you will drop in. B. No problem
C. Of course not, it’s not costly D. Thanks. I think so
Question 18: Maria: “I’m taking my end-of-term examination tomorrow.” - Sarah: “_________”
A. Good luck B. Good chance C. Good day D. Good time
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
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Question 19: Mrs Stevens, along with her cousins from New Mexico, are planning to attend the festivities
A B C D
Question 20: The Smiths are very proud of that their son always gets high marks in his courses.
A B C D
Question 21: Hardly did he enter the room when all the lights went out.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: We’d better hurry up if we want to get there in time.
A. lie down B. slow down C. speed up D. turn down
Question 23: We have lived there for years and grown fond of the surroundings. That is why we do not
want to leave.
A. possessed by the surroundings C. haunted by the surroundings
B. planted many trees in the surroundings D. loved the surroundings
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
Question 24: My parents always disapproved of my smoking. They even told me once it would stop me
growing taller.
A. objected to B. supported C. denied D. refused
Question 25: There is growing concern about the way man has destroyed the environment.
A. ease B. attraction C. consideration D. speculation
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 26: I often share my secrets with my sister.
A. It was my sister whom I often share secrets with.
B. It is my sister that I often share secrets.
C. It is my sister I often share secrets with.
D. It is my sister with whom I often share secrets.
Question 27: My mother is very busy at work but she takes good care of her children.
A. In spite of being busy at work, my mother takes good care of her children.
B. My mother takes good care of her children but she is very busy at work.
C. Though my mother was very busy at work my mother took good care of her children.
D. Although my mother was very busy at work she did not take good care of her children.
Question 28: “You’d better think carefully before applying for that job,” she said to me.
A. She suggested thinking carefully before applying for the job.
B. She wants me to think carefully before applying for the job.
C. She asks me to think carefully before applying for the job.
D. She advised me to think carefully before applying for the job.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: Sue lives in this house. The house is opposite my house.
A. Sue lives in this house, which is opposite mine.
B. Sue lives in this house which is opposite mine.
C. Sue lives in this house, that is opposite mine.
D. Sue lives in this house, who is opposite mine.
Question 30: Anne started studying non-verbal forms of communication three years ago. She’s still
learning now.
A. Anne is studying non-verbal forms of communication in three years’ time.
B. It’s three years since Anne studied non-verbal forms of communication.
C. Anne has been studied non-verbal forms of communication for three years.
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D. Anne has studied non-verbal forms of communication for some time.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
In the 1960s the women’s liberation movement (31) _____ suddenly into the public consciousness
and quickly grew into (32) _____ largest social movement in the history of the United States. Women’s
liberation movement was a continuation of the 19 th century women’s rights movement. The movement’s
major achievement has included not only legal, economic, and political gains (33) _____ also has
changed the ways in which people live, dress, dream of their future, and make a living. About health, for
example, many male physicians and hospital have made major improvements in the treatment of women;
more and more women have become doctors and succeeded (34) _____ their medical research; and
diseases such as breast cancer, which affects many women, now receive better funding and treatment,
thanks to women’s efforts. Feminists have insisted that violence against women become a political issue.
The women’s liberation movement has also made changes in education: curricula and textbooks have
been written to promote equal opportunity for girls and women; more and more female students are
admitted to universities and professional schools.
The women’s liberation movement brought about a radical change in society (35) _____ it took a
decade for the movement to reach women’s awareness.
Question 31: A. dated B. originated C. introduced D. burst

Question 32: A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
Question 33: A. with B. either C. and D. but
Question 34: A. in B. to C. for D. with
Question 35: A. because B. if only C. as D. although
correct answer to each of the questions.
Psychologists have debated a long time about whether a child’s upbringing can give it the ability
to do outstandingly well. Some think that it is impossible to develop genius and say that it is simply
something a person is born with. Others, however, argue that the potential for great achievement can be
developed. The truth lies somewhere between these two extremes.
It seems very obvious that being born with the right qualities from gifted parents will increase a
child’s ability to do well. However, this ability will be fully realized only with the right upbringing and
opportunities. As one psychologist says, “To have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel.”
Scientists have recently assessed intelligence, achievement, and ability in 50 sets of identical twins that
were separated shortly after birth and brought up by different parents. They found that achievement was
based on intelligence, and later influenced by the child’s environment.
One case involving very intelligent twins was quoted. One of the twins received a normal upbringing, and
performed well. The other twin, however, was brought up by extremely supportive parents and given
every possible opportunity to develop its abilities. That twin, though starting out with the same degree of
intelligence as the other, performed even better.
This case reflects the general principle of intelligence and ability. The more favorable the environment,
the more a child’s intelligence and ability are developed. However, there is no link between intelligence
and the socioeconomic level of a child’s family. In other words, it does not matter how poor or how rich a
family is, as this does not affect intelligence.
Gifted people cannot be created by supportive parents, but they can be developed by them. One professor
of music said that outstanding musicians usually started two or three years earlier than ordinary
performers, often because their parents had recognized their ability. These musicians then needed at least
ten years’ hard work and training in order to reach the level they were capable of attaining.
People who want to have very gifted children are given the following advice:
 Marry an intelligent person.
 Allow children to follow their own interests rather than the interests of the parents.
 Start a child’s education early but avoid pushing the child too hard.
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 Encourage children to play; for example, playing with musical instruments is essential for a child
who wants to become an outstanding musician.
Question 36: The upbringing of highly intelligent children requires ______.

A. an expensive education B. good musical instruments
C. parental support and encouragement D. wealthy and loving parents
Question 37: The word “others” in the first paragraph refers to ______.
A. parents B. psychologists C. children D. geniuses
Question 38: When scientists studied intelligence and ability in twins, they found that ______.
A. ability depends mainly on intelligence and achievement
B. intelligence and development are irrelevant to ability
C. ability depends both on intelligence and on environment
D. different twins generally have different levels of ability.
Question 39: Scientists chose twins for their study because ______.
A. each twin has the same environment as his/her twin
B. they are born into the same family, hence the same upbringing
C. they have the same economic background and hence the same opportunities
D. they have the same genetic background, usually with similar intelligence
Question 40: How were great musicians different from ordinary musicians in their development?
A. Their ability was realized at an early stage and then nurtured.
B. They practice playing their instruments for many years.
C. They concentrated on music to the exclusion of other areas.
D. They were exceptionally intelligent and artistic.
Question 41: The writer advises that gifted children should be allowed to follow ______.
A. their own interests B. their parent’s interests
C. their interests in musical instruments D. only their interests in computer games
Question 42: When encouraging their gifted children, parents should avoid ______.
A. pushing their children too hard.
B. letting them play their own way
C. permitting them to follow their own interests
D. starting their education at an early age
Question 43: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT ______.
A. educational development depends completely on economic well-being
B. a child’s intelligence is influenced by that of his/ her parents
C. to become successful, a child needs both intelligence and development
D. studying different twins is a useful scientific procedure
In the world today, particular in the two most industrialized areas, North America and Europe,
recycling is the big news. People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new ways to be
sensitive to the environment. Recycling means finding ways to use products a second time. The motto of
the recycling movement is “Reduce, Reuse, Recycle”.
The first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in blister packs, boxes
and expensive plastic wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food restaurant comes in lots of packaging:
usually paper, a box and a bag. All that packaging is wasted resources. People should try to buy things
that are wrapped simply, and to reuse cups and utensils. Another way to reduce waste is to buy high-
quality products. When low-quality appliances break, many customers throw them away and buy new
ones - a loss of more resources and more energy. For example, if a customer buys a high-quality
appliance that can be easily repaired, the manufacturer receives an important message. In the same way,
if a customer chooses a product with less packaging, that customer sends an important message to the
manufacturers. To reduce garbage, the throw-away must stop.
The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable bottles. After
customers empty the bottles, they return them to the stores. The manufacturers of the drinks collect
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bottles, wash them, and then fill them again. The energy that is necessary to make new bottles is saved. In
some parts of the world, returning bottles for money is a common practice. In those places, the garbage
dumps have relatively little glass and plastic from throw-away bottles.
The third step being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be cleaned and
used again. Aluminum cans are expensive to make. It takes the same amount of energy to make one
aluminum can as it does to run a color TV set for three hours. When people collect and recycle aluminum
(for new cans), they help save one of the world’s precious resources.
Question 44: Which area is considered one of the most industrialized?

A. South America B. Middle East C. Europe D. Asia
Question 45: What does the word “sensitive” means?
A. cautious B. logical C. responding D. friendly
Question 46: It is a waste when customers buy low-quality products because _______.
A. they have to be repaired many times. B. they will soon throw them away
C. customers always change their idea D. they are very cheap.
Question 47: What is the topic of the passage?
A. How to live sensitively to the environment
B. How to reduce garbage disposal
C. What is involved in the recycling movement
D. What people understand the term “recycle”
Question 48: People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT _______.
A. buy high-quality products B. buy simply-wrapped things
C. reuse cups and utensils D. buy more hamburgers
Question 49: What best describe the process of reuse?
A. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed.
B. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again.
C. The bottles are washed, returned filled again and collected.
D. The bottles are collected, returned, filled again and washed.
Question 50: What are the two things mentioned as examples of recycling?
A. TV sets and aluminum cans. B. Hamburger wrappings and spent motor oil.
C. Aluminum cans and plastic wrappings. D. Aluminum cans and spent motor oil.

Question 1: A. capture B. ensure C. pleasure D. picture
Question 2: A. maintenance B. optimist C. contribution D. heritage
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions
Question 3: A. primary B. typist C. physics D. system
Question 4: A. naked B. cooked C. announced D. booked
each unfinished sentence
Question 5: “I would rather you ________ in this departure lounge.”
A. don’t smoke B. didn’t smoke C. not to smoke D. not smoke
Question 6: It was reported that neither the passengers nor the driver ________ in the vehicle accident.
A. have been injured B. was injured C. were injured D. are injured
Question 7: Anna is holding her shopping bag with one hand and turning the door handle with
________.
A. the other B. another C. others D. other
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Question 8: ________ more carefully, he wouldn’t have had the accident yesterday.
A. If Peter driven B. If had Peter driven C. Had Peter driven D. Unless Peter had driven
Question 9: “________ I be here by 6 o’clock?” –“No, you ________”
A. Shall / mightn’t B. Might / won’t C. Will / mayn’t D. Must / needn’t
Question 10: The preparations ________ by the time the guests ________.
A. had been finished / arrived B. have finished / arrived
C. had finished / were arriving D. have been finished / were arrived
Question 11: It is a ________.
A. blue polyester sleeping bag B. polyester sleeping blue bag
C. blue sleeping polyester bag D. sleeping blue polyester bag
Question 12: The woman asked ________ get lunch at school.
A. can the children B. whether the children could
C. if the children can D. could the children
Question 13: The government was finally_________ by a minor scandal
A. taken down B. brought down C. put back D. pull down
Question 14: The teacher asked a difficult question, but finally Thomas _________ a good answer.
A. keep pace with B. put up with C. came up with D. made way for
Question 15: A/an _________ is an official document stating that you have passed an examination,
completed a course, or achieved some necessary qualifications.
A. certificate B. requirement C. education D. test
Question 16: As Mrs. Anderson gets older, she wants to travel less.
A. Older Mrs. Anderson gets, less she wants to travel.
B. The older Mrs. Anderson gets, she wants to travel less.
C. The older Mrs. Anderson gets, the less she wants to travel.
D. Mrs. Anderson gets older, the less she wants to travel.
Question 17: People are not allowed to take photos of the interior of the museum.
A. No one has ever taken a photo inside the museum.
B. Taking photographs inside the museum is strictly forbidden.
C. Taking pictures inside the museum is internally allowed.
D. Taking photos of the exterior of the museum is not allowed.
Question 18: Because the evidence was withheld, the prisoner was found guilty.
A. Had the evidence been presented, the prisoner wouldn’t have been found guilty.
B. If the evidence was presented, the prisoner wouldn’t be found guilty.
C. The prisoner was found guilty due to the evidence.
D. Because he withheld the evidence, the prisoner was found guilty.
Question 19: Her husband died. When she heard the news, she fainted.
A. On hearing the news of her dead husband, she fainted.
B. When hearing the news from her dead husband, she fainted.
C. On hearing the news of her husband’s death, she fainted.
D. When she heard the deadly news of her husband, she fainted.
Question 20: Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye.
A. I disturbed the meeting because I said goodbye.
B. I would rather disturb the meeting than leave without saying goodbye.
C. The meeting was disturbed as I left saying goodbye.
D. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting.
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Question 21: A: “How’s life?” – B: “_________.”
A. Sure B. Not too bad, but very busy
C. Very well, thank you D. Pleased to meet you
Question 22: A: “Thank you for the lovely present.” – B: “_________.”
A. Go ahead B. Not at all
C. Come on D. I’m pleased you like it
Question 23: A: “Congratulations! You did great.” – B: “_________.
A. It’s nice of you to say so. B. It’s my pleasure.
C. You’re welcome. D. That’s okay.
Question 24: Professor Berg was very interested in the diversity of cultures all over the world.
A. variety B. changes C. conservation D. number
Question 25: Children normally feel a lot of anxiety about their first day at school.
A. agitation B. tranquility C. composure D. contentment
Question 26: My cousin tends to look on the bright side in any circumstance.
A. be optimistic B. be pessimistic C. be confident D. be smart
Question 27: It was apparent from her face that she was really upset.
A. obvious B. indistinct C. transparent D. evident
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correcting
in order for each of the following sentences to be correct.
Question 28: It would have been better if you wouldn’t have argued with him last night.
A B C D
Question 29: The last payment shouldn’t make until all the work has been completed and checked.
A B C D
Question 30: They climbed up to the top of a large rock, from that they got a good view.
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
answer to each of the following questions.
Since the world has become industrialized, there has been an increase in the number of animal
species that have either become extinct or have neared extinction. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once
roamed the jungles in vast numbers, now number only about 2300 and by the year 2025, their population
is estimated to be down to zero. What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction
will have been caused almost entirely by poachers who, according to some sources, are not interested in
material gain but in personal gratification. This is an example of the callousness that is part of what is
causing the problem of extinction. Animals like the Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered species, are
a valuable part of the world’s ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals must be enacted to
ensure their survival, and the survival of our planet.
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some countries,
in order to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal reserves. They, then
charge admission to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and they often must also depend on
world organizations for support. With the money they get, they can invest equipment and patrols to
protect the animals. Another solution that is an attempt to stem the tide of animal extinction is an
international boycott of products made from endangered species. This seems fairly effective, but will not
by itself, prevent animals from being hunted and killed.
Question 31: What is the main topic of the passage?
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A. problems with industrialization B. international boycotts
C. the Bengal tiger D. endangered species
Question 32: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “alarming” in the first
paragraph?
A. distressing B. gripping C. serious D. dangerous
Question 33: The above passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast _______.
A. a comparison and a contrast B. a statement and an illustration
C. a problem and a solution D. a specific and general information
Question 34: What does the word “This” in the first paragraph refer to?
A. poachers who seek personal gratification B. sources that may not be accurate
C. Bengal tigers that are decreasing D. endangered species that are increasing
Question 35: The word “defray” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the
following?
A. raise B. lower
C. make an investment toward D. make a payment on
Question 36: The author uses the phrase “stem the tide” in the second paragraph to mean _______.
A. stop B. save C. tax D. touch
Question 37: Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude?
A. vindictive B. forgiving C. concerned D. surprised
Foot racing is a popular activity in the United States. Foot racing is seen not only as a competitive
sport but also as a way to exercise, to enjoy the camaraderie of like-minded people, and to donate
money to a good cause. Through serious runners may spend months training to compete, other runners
and walkers might not train at all. Those not competing to win might run in an effort to beat their own
time or simply to enjoy the fun and exercise. People of all ages, from those of less than one year (who
may be pushed in strollers) to those in their eighties, enter into this sport. The races are held on city
streets, on college campuses, through parks, and in suburban areas, and they are commonly 5 to 10
kilometers in length.
The largest foot race in the world is the 12-kilometer Bay to Breakers race that is held in San
Francisco every spring. This race begins on the east side of the city near San Francisco Bay and ends on
the west side at the Pacific Ocean. There may be 80,000 or more people running in this race through the
streets and hills of San Francisco. In the front are the serious runners who compete to win and who might
finish in as little as 34 minutes. Behind them are the thousands who take several hours to finish. In the
back of the race are those who dress in costumes and come just for fun. One year there was a group of
men who dressed like Elvis Presley, and another group consisted of firefighters who were tied together in
a long line and who were carrying a fire hose. There was even a bridal party, in which the bride was
dressed in a long white gown and the groom wore a tuxedo. The bride and groom threw flowers to
bystanders, and they were actually married at some point along the route.
Question 38: The main purpose of this passage is to _______.

A. clarify the popularity of foot races B. describe a popular activity
C. make fun of runners in costume D. encourage people to exercise
Question 39: The word “camaraderie” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by which of the
following?
A. games B. jokes C. views D. companionship
Question 40: The phrase “to a good cause” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by which of the
following?
A. for a good purpose B. to protect a wise investment
C. for an award D. to reward the winner
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT implied by the author?
A. Entering a race is a way to give supports to an organization.
B. Walkers can compete for prizes.
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C. Running is a good way to strengthen the heart.
D. Foot races appeal to a variety of people.
Question 42: In what sentence(s) does the author give reasons for why people enter foot races?
A. Behind them … a fire hose B. The largest … 34 minutes
C. Foot racing … and exercise D. People of all ages … in length
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in this passage?
A. Some runner was ready to put out a fire.
B. Some runners were participating in a wedding.
C. Some runners were serious about winning.
D. Some runners looked like Elvis Presley.
Question 44: A “bystander” in the second paragraph refers to which of the following?
A. a walker B. a spectator C. a judge D. a participant
Question 45: Which of the following best describes the organization of this passage?
A. statement and example B. cause and result
C. specific to general D. chronological order
Wind, water, air, ice and heat all work to cause erosion. As the wind blows over the land, it often
(46) _______ small grains of sand. When these grains of sand strike against solid rocks, the rocks are
slowly worn away. In this way, even very hard rocks are worn away by the wind.
When particles of rocks or soil became loosened in any way, running water carries them down the
(47) _______. Some rocks and soil particles are carried into streams and then into the sea.
Land that is covered with trees, grass and other plants wear away very slowly, and so loses very
(48) _______ of its soil. The roots of plants help to hold the rocks and soil in place. Water that falls on
grasslands runs away more slowly than water that falls on bare ground. Thus, forests and grasslands (49)
_______ to slow down erosion.
Even where the land is thickly covered with plants, some erosion goes on. In the spring, the (50)
_______ snow turns into a large quantity of water that then runs downhill in streams. As a stream carries
away some of the soil, the stream bed gets deeper and deeper. After thousands of years of such erosion,
wide valleys are often formed.
Question 46: A. clean out B. picks up C. carries out D. holds out

Question 47: A. borders B. topside C. backside D. hillsides
Question 48: A. much B. few C. little D. large
Question 49: A. aid B. facilitate C. assist D. help
Question 50: A. building B. formed C. melted D. melting

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 1: A. experienced B. worked C. watched D. arrived
Question 2: A. passive B. missing C. business D. mission
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
Question 3: A. practice B. entice C. comment D. surface
Question 4: A. psychological B. economical C. unbelievable D. characteristic
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: It is in this house_______ for ten years.
A. that I lived B. in which I lived C. where I lived D. when I lived
Question 6: Someone _______ here recently because these ashes are still warm.
A. should be B. had to be C. must have been D. might have been
Question 7: Personally speaking, I don’t think this salary is enough for you to get _______ next year.
A. up B. by C. in D. on
Question 8: Is it necessary that I _______ here tomorrow?
A. be B. will be C. would be D. am being
Question 9: I must go to the dentist and _______.
A. get my teeth to take care of C. take care of my teeth
B. my teeth be taken care of D. get my teeth taken care of
Question 10: She _______ down completely on hearing of her father’s death.
A. broke B. turned C. put D. fell
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Question 11: Only when you grow up _______ how to organize things more neatly.
A. do you know B. you will know C. you know D. will you know
Question 12: Your fare, accommodation and meals are all _______ in the price of this holiday.
A. included B. collected C. enclosed D. composed
Question 13: .The more you practise your English, _______.
A. the faster you will learn B. the faster will you learn
C. you will learn faster D. faster you will learn
Question 14: Would it be possible to make an early _______ to have my car serviced tomorrow?
A. appoint B. appointing C. appointed D. appointment
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Question 15: Scientists and engineers have invented devices to remove _______ from industrial
wastes.
A. pollutions B. pollute C. polluting D. pollutants
Question 16: In many western societies, good eye _______ is often highly appreciated.
A. attention B. contact C. watching D. looking
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
Question 17: Hung and Derek are classmates. They are talking about their sports hobby.
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Hung: Don’t you like watching football? – Derek: _______.
A. Yes, I don’t B. No, I like it a lot C. It’s nice D. Yes, I love it
Question 18: Marta and Patrice is a couple. They are going to a friend’s party.
Marta: Do I still have to change my clothes? – Patrice: _______.
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A. Sure, take your time B. Let’s discuss that sometime
C. Don’t change your mind, please D. The party begins at 2pm
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: When you are in a restaurant, you can raise your hand slightly to show that you need
assistance.
A. bill B. menu C. help D. food
Question 20: Before the interview, you have to send a letter of application and your résumé to the
company.
A. recommendation B. reference C. curriculum vitae D. photograph
Question 21: The Red Cross is an international humanitarian agency dedicated to reducing the sufferings
of wounded soldiers, civilians and prisoners of war.
A. loss B. happiness C. worry and sadness D. pain and sorrow
Question 22: Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the same
region.
A. remain unstable B. restrain C. fluctuate D. stay unchanged
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 23: The explorers were too tired that they found a site to camp overnight.
A B C D
Question 24: What we know about certain diseases are still not sufficient to prevent them from spreading
A B C
easily among the population.
D
Question 25: One of the primary cause of road accidents is driving after drinking.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in
Question 26: It’s no use asking her for help.
A. It’s not worth asking her for help.
B. There’s no point in asking her for help.
C. It’s no good to ask her for help.
D. We have no trouble asking her for help.
Question 27: We lost the game because of my mistake.
A. It was because of my mistake that we didn’t win the game.
B. If I had made a mistake, the game would have been lost.
C. The game was lost, which was a mistake.
D. My mistake was to lose the game.
Question 28: Nam was not at home either. Perhaps he went out with his girlfriend.
A. Nam must go out with his girlfriend.
B. Nam would go out with his girlfriend.
C. Nam might have gone out with his girlfriend.
D. It is sure that Nam went out with his girlfriend.
Question 29: Alice would be happier if she won the first prize.
A. Alice doesn’t win the first prize.
B. Alice is trying win the first prize.
C. Alice is dreaming about winning the first prize.
D. Alice won the first prize.
Question 30: They delayed going on holiday until they had finished the project.
A. It was not until they had finished the project did they go on holiday.
B. They didn’t go on holiday after they had finished the project.
C. Only after they had finished the project did they go on holiday.
D. After having finished the project, they delayed going on a holiday.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
option for each of the blanks.
Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in danger. Many species of
animals are threatened, and could easily become (31)_______if we do not make an effort to protect them.
There are many reasons for this. In some cases, animals are (32)_______ for their fur or for other valuable
parts of their bodies. Some birds, such as parrots, are caught alive, and sold as pets. For many animals and
birds, the problem is that their habitats – the places where they live – are (33)_______. More land is used
for farms, for houses and industry, and there are fewer open spaces than there once were. Farmers use
powerful chemicals to help them grow better (34)_______, but these chemicals pollute the environment
and harm wildlife. The most successful animals on Earth, human beings, will soon be the only ones to
(35)_______ unless we can solve this problem.
Question 31: A. disappeared B. vanished C. empty D. extinct

Question 32: A. hunted B. chased C. game D. extinct
Question 33: A. exhausting B. departing C. escaping D. disappearing
Question 34: A. products B. fields C. herbs D. crops
Question 35: A. leave B. surrender C. maintain D. survive
When the first white men came to America, they found vast amounts of natural resources of
tremendous value. Forests covered a large part of the nation; later gas, oil and minerals were found in
unbelievable amounts. There was a great abundance of very fertile soil. Forests, prairies, streams and
rivers abounded with wildlife. So vast were these resources that it seemed that they could never be used
up. So forests were destroyed to make way for farmland. Grasslands and prairies were ploughed and
harrowed. Minerals and oil were used in great quantities to supply a young industrial nation. Almost every
river became the scene of factories, mills and power companies. Mammals and birds were slaughtered for
food and sport.
Within a short time, the results were obvious. Floods caused millions of dollars worth of damage
yearly. The very fertile soil washed away of blew up in great clouds. The seemingly inexhaustible oil and
minerals showed signs of depletion. Rivers were filled with silt from eroding farms and wastes from
factories. Many of the rivers were made unfit for fish. Several species of birds disappeared, and some
mammals seemed on the verge of extinction. Future timber shortages were predicted. In short, Americans
soon became to realize that some sort of conservation program must be set up, if future as well as present
Americans were to share in the resources that are the heritage of every American.
Question 36: The title that best expresses the main theme or subject of this passage is________
A. What the first white men found in America.
B. The loss of topsoil.
C. The cause of timber shortage
D. The story of America’s natural resources
Question 37: It seemed to the early American settlers that________
A. fertile soil was scarce B. the natural resources were inexhaustible
C. forests should not be cut D. there was a shortage of minerals.
Question 38: Much of the fertile soil of America has________
A. sunk deep into the earth B. been covered by lakes
C. been eroded by wind and water D. become the scene of factories
Question 39: According to the passage, all the following are true EXCEPT________
A. The early American settlers used a lot of minerals and oil.
B. They killed animals for food and sport.
C. They grew different kinds of plants in prairies.
D. They plowed and harrowed grasslands and prairies.
Question 40: The word “abounded with” could best replaced by________
A. were abundant in B. were rich with C. were plentiful of D. were a lot of
Question 41: One reason why many of the rivers are no longer suitable living places for fish is that
________.
A. too many fish have been caught B. a conservation program has been set up
C. floods have caused much damage D. factories have dumped waste into the rivers
Question 42: Americans soon came to realize that ________.
A. They should stop killing animals for food.
B. They must give up exploiting minerals
C. They shouldn’t reclaim the land
D. They must establish a conservation program
Let children learn to judge their own work. A child learning to talk does not learn by being
corrected all the time. If corrected too much, he will stop talking. He notices a thousand times a day the
difference between the language he uses and the language those around him use. Bit by bit, he makes the
necessary changes to make his language like other people’s. In the same way, children learn all the other
things they learn to do without being taught – to talk, run, climb, whistle, ride a bicycle – compare their
own performances with those of more skilled people, and slowly make the needed changes. But in school
we never give a child a chance to find out his mistakes for himself, let alone correct them. We do it all for
him. We act as if we thought that he would never notice a mistake unless it was pointed out to him, or
correct it unless he was made to. Soon he becomes dependent on the teacher. Let him do it himself. Let
him work out, with the help of other children if he wants it, what this word says, what the answer is to that
problem, whether this is a good way of saying or doing this or not
If it is a matter of right answers, as it may be in mathematics or science, give him the answer book.
Let him correct his own papers. Why should we teachers waste time on such routine work? Our job should
be to help the child when he tells us that he can’t find the way to get the right answer. Let’s end all this
nonsense of grades, exams, and marks. Let us throw them all out, and let the children learn what all
educated persons must someday learn, how to measure their own understanding, how to know what they
know or do not know.
Let them get on with this job in the way that seems most sensible to them, with our help as school
teachers if they ask for it. The idea that there is a body of knowledge to be learnt at school and used for the
rest of one’s life is nonsense in a world as complicated and rapidly changing as ours. Anxious parents and
teachers say, “But suppose they fail to learn something essential, something they will need to get on in the
world?” Don’t worry! If it is essential, they will go out into the world and learn it.
Question 43: What does the author think is the best way for children to learn things?
A. By listening to explanations from skilled people
B. By making mistakes and having them corrected
C. By asking a great many questions
D. By copying what other people do
Question 44: The passage suggests that learning to speak and learning to ride a bicycle are _______.
A. basically the same as learning other skills B. more important than other skills
C. basically different from learning adult skills D. not really important skills
Question 45: What does the author think teachers do which they should not do?
A. They encourage children to copy from one another
B. They point out children’s mistakes to them
C. They allow children to mark their own work
D. They give children correct answers
Question 46: The word “those” in the first paragraph refers to _______.
A. skills B. things C. performances D. changes
Question 47: According to the first paragraph, what basic skills do children learn to do without
being taught?
A. Talking, climbing and whistling B. Reading, talking and hearing
C. Running, walking and playing D. Talking, running and skiing
Question 48: Exams, grades and marks should be abolished because children’s progress should only be
estimated by .
A. parents B. the children themselves
C. teachers D. educated persons
Question 49: The word “complicated” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to .
A. comfortable B. competitive C. complex D. compliment
Question 50: The author fears that children will grow up into adults who are .
A. unable to think for themselves B. too independent of others
C. unable to use basic skills D. too critical of themselves

Question 1: A. compose B. opponent C. wholesale D. colony
Question 2: A. church B. cheese C. changeable D. machine
Question 3: A. primary B. employee C. difference D. recognize
Question 4: A. patient B. predict C. police D. attract
Question 5: He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at the annual
meeting in May.
A. politeness B. measurement C. rudeness D. encouragement
Question 6: Names of people in the book were changed to preserve anonymity.
A. conserve B. cover C. reveal D. presume
Question 7: The world’s busiest airport was Hartsfield Jackson Atlanta International, with more than 100
million passengers in 2015.
A. most successful B. best run C. most spacious D. most active
Question 8: It is much easier to talk about social change than it is to make it happen.
A. acknowledge it B. predict it C. bring it about D. put up with it
Question 9: Reminding not to miss the 15:20 train, the manager set out for the station in a hurry.
A B C D
Question 10: Dogs that are trained to lead the blind must be loyalty, intelligent and calm.
A B C D
Question 11: I had my motorbike repair yesterday but now it still doesn’t work.
A B C D
Question 12: “It’s about time you _______ your homework, Mary.”
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A. must do B. did C. do D. will do
Question 13: I would be very rich now _______ working long ago.
A. if I gave up B. if I wouldn’t give up
C. were I to give up D. had I not given up
Question 14: Last night’s concert did not _______ our expectations.
A. catch up with B. stand in for C. come up to D. look up to
Question 15: A college is a public institution _______ higher education to young men and women.
A. provided to B. which provide C. to provide to D. providing
Question 16: _______ migrate long distances is well documented.
A. That it is birds B. That birds C. Birds that D. It is that birds
Question 17: There are about 50 _______ for each vacancy.
A. competitors B. attendants C. applicants D. interviewers
Question 18: _______ with her boyfriend yesterday, she doesn’t want to answer his phone call.
A. Having quarreled B. Because having quarreled
C. Because of she quarreled D. Had quarreled
Question 19: The company fell deeper and deeper into the _______ and then went bankrupt.
A. black B. green C. red D. yellow
Question 20: Tim: Do you work full time at the supermarket?
Mary: No, only _______ when they need extra staff.
A. by and by B. in and out C. on and off D. up and down
Question 21: When I walked past his house, I didn’t see him. He _______.
A. can be away B. may be out
C. might have been away D. must be absent
Question 22: _______ he got top marks at high school, he never went to university.
A. Despite B. Nevertheless C. Meanwhile D. Although
Question 23: When Jack _______ me, I _______ a letter.
A. phoned / has been writing B. has phoned / was writing
C. phoned / was writing D. was phoning / wrote
Question 24: Two friends Peter and David are talking about David’s badminton game.
Peter: I didn’t know you could play badminton so well, David.
David: Thank you. _______. I wish I could play half as well as you.
A. That’s a nice compliment B. That is not your fault
C. You’re welcome D. I certainly play very excellent
Question 25: Peter is talking to Janet.
Peter: “Janet, make us some tea, will you?”
Janet: “_______”
A. No, I won’t, I’m afraid. B. Sorry, I don’t.
C. Don’t worry. Go ahead. D. I’m afraid I can’t.
Question 26: He was sentenced to six months in prison for his part in the robbery.
A. He received a six months in prison for his part in the robbery.
B. He received a six-month sentence for his part in the robbery.
C. For his participation in the robbery, he had been in prison for six months.
D. For his participation in the robbery, a prison had been given to him for six months.
Question 27: “Why don’t you get your hair cut, Gavin?” said Adam.
A. Adam advised Gavin to cut his hair.
B. Gavin was suggested to have a haircut.
C. It was suggestible that Adam get Gavin’s haircut.
D. Adam suggested that Gavin should have his haircut.
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Question 28: People believed he won a lot of money on the lottery.
A. He is believed that he won a lot of money on the lottery.
B. He won a lot of money on the lottery, it is believed.
C. He is believed to have won a lot of money on the lottery.
D. He was believed to win a lot of money on the lottery.
Question 29: The girl just said hello. She is Tom’s youngest sister.
A. The girl who just said hello is Tom’s youngest sister.
B. The girl saying hello is Tom’s youngest sister.
C. The girl just said hello is Tom’s youngest sister.
D. The girl, who just said hello, is Tom’s youngest sister.
Question 30: Jill hasn’t seen this movie before. Neither have her parents.
A. Either Jill or her parents have seen this movie before.
B. Both Jill and her parents have seen this movie before.
C. Neither Jill nor her parents have seen this movie before.
D. Not only Jill but her parents have seen this movie before.
ROBOTS
Ever since it was first possible to make a real robot, people have been hoping for the invention of
a machine that would do all the necessary jobs around the house. If boring and repetitive factory work
could be (31)______ by robots, why not boring and repetitive household chores too?
A factory robot (32)______ one task endlessly until it is reprogrammed to do something else. It
doesn’t run the whole factory. A housework robot, on the other hand, has to do several different types of
cleaning and carrying jobs and also has to cope with all the different shapes and positions of rooms,
furniture, ornaments, cats and dogs. (33)______, there have been some developments recently. Sensors
are available to (34)_______ the robot locate objects and avoid obstacles. We have the technology to
produce the hardware and the software – the programs that will (35)______ the machine.
Question 31: A. managed B. succeeded C. made D. given

Question 32: A. carries over B. carries out C. carries off D. carries away
Question 33: A. However B. Therefore C. Besides D. Moreover
Question 34: A. enable B. help C. assist D. allow
Question 35: A. practice B. perform C. order D. operate
Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care.
View a career as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing
the time and effort to thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding a
stimulating and rewarding career and move from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right
one. Work influences virtually every aspect of your life, from your choice of friends to where you live.
Here are just a few of the factors to consider.
Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to
begin by assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and
surroundings that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would you like to travel?
Do you want to work with children? Are you more suited to solitary or cooperative work?” There are no
right or wrong answers; only you know what is important to you.
Determine which job features you require, which ones you would prefer, and which ones you
cannot accept. Then rank them in order of importance to you. The setting of the job is one factor to take
into account. You may not want to sit at a desk all day. If not, there are diversity occupation – building
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inspector, supervisor, real estate agent – that involve a great deal of time away from the office.
Geographical location may be a concern, and employment in some fields is concentrated in certain
regions. Advertising job can generally be found only in large cities. On the other hand, many industries
such as hospitality, law education, and retail sales are found in all regions of the country. If a high salary
is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as insurance sales, offers
relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with your experience,
additional training, promotions and commission.
Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke positive or
negative associations. The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber
does not. Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have merits or
demerits that are less obvious. Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleeps, whereas
plumbers can be as highly paid as some doctors. Another point to consider is that as you get mature, you
will likely to develop new interests and skills that may point the way to new opportunities. The choice
you make today need not be your final one.
Question 36: The author states that “There are no right or wrong answers” in order to _______.
A. emphasize that each person’s answers will be different.
B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process.
C. indicate that the answers are not really important.
D. indicate that each person’s answers may change over time.
Question 37: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to _________.
A. questions B. answers C. features D. jobs
Question 38: According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person who
does not want to live in a big city?
A. plumbing B. law C. retail sales D. advertising
Question 39: The word “that” in paragraph 4 refers to
A. occupation B. the traveling life C. a flight attendant D. commission
Question 40: It can be inferred from the paragraph 3 that ________.
A. jobs in insurance sales are generally not well-paid.
B. a starting salary should be an important consideration in choosing a career.
C. people should constantly work toward the next promotion.
D. insurance sales people can earn high salary later in their career.
Question 41: Why does the author mention “long, grueling hours without sleeps” in paragraph 4?
A. To emphasize the difficulty of working as a plumber.
B. To contrast the reality of a flight attendant’s job with most people’s perception.
C. To show that people must work hard for the career they have chosen.
D. To discourage readers from choosing a career as a flight attendant.
Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following is true?
A. To make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary.
B. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs.
C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight attendant
D. Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate.
In the West, cartoons are used chiefly to make people laugh. The important feature of all these
cartoons is the joke and the element of surprise which is contained. Even though it is very funny, a good
cartoon is always based on close observation of a particular feature of life and usually has a serious
purpose.
Cartoons in the West have been associated with political and social matters for many years. In
wartime, for example, they proved to be an excellent way of spreading propaganda. Nowadays cartoons
are often used to make short, sharp comments on politics and governments as well as on a variety of
social matters. In this way, the modern cartoon has become a very powerful force in influencing people in
Europe and the United States.
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Unlike most American and European cartoons, however, many Chinese cartoon drawings in the
past have also attempted to educate people, especially those who could not read and write. Such cartoons
about the lives and sayings of great men in China have proved extremely useful in bringing education to
illiterate and semi-literate people throughout China. Confucius, Mencius and Laozi have all appeared in
very interesting stories presented in the form of cartoons. The cartoons themselves have thus served to
illustrate the teachings of the Chinese sages in a very attractive way.
In this sense, many Chinese cartoons are different from Western cartoons in so far as they do not
depend chiefly on telling jokes. Often, there is nothing to laugh at when you see Chinese cartoons. This is
not their primary aim. In addition to commenting on serious political and social matters, Chinese cartoons
have aimed at spreading the traditional Chinese thoughts and culture as widely as possible among the
people.
Today, however, Chinese cartoons have an added part to play in spreading knowledge. They offer
a very attractive and useful way of reaching people throughout the world, regardless of the particular
country in which they live. Thus, through cartoons, the thoughts and teachings of the old Chinese
philosophers and sages can now reach people who live in such countries as Britain, France, America,
Japan, Malaysia or Australia and who are unfamiliar with the Chinese culture.
Until recently, the transfer of knowledge and culture has been overwhelmingly from the West to
the East and not vice versa. By means of cartoons, however, publishing companies in Taiwan, Hong
Kong and Singapore are now having success in correcting this imbalance between the East and the West.
Cartoons can overcome language barriers in all foreign countries. The vast increase in the
popularity of these cartoons serves to illustrate the truth of Confucius’s famous saying “One picture is
worth a thousand words.”
Question 43: Which of the following clearly characterizes Western cartoons?

A. Enjoyment, liveliness, and carefulness.
B. Seriousness, propaganda, and attractiveness.
C. Humour, unexpectedness, and criticism.
D. Originality, freshness, and astonishment.
Question 44: Chinese cartoons have been useful as an important means of _________.
A. educating ordinary people B. spreading Western ideas
C. amusing people all the time D. political propaganda in wartime
Question 45: The pronoun “this” in paragraph 4 mostly refers to_________. .
A. a piece of art B. an educational purpose
C. a funny element D. a propaganda campaign
Question 46: The passage is intended to present_________. .
A. a contrast between Western cartoons and Chinese cartoons
B. a description of cartoons of all kinds the world over
C. an outline of Western cartoons and Chinese cartoons
D. an opinion about how cartoons entertain people
Question 47: In general, Chinese cartoons are now aiming at _________. .
A. bringing education to illiterate and semi-literate people in the world
B. disseminating traditional practices in China and throughout the world
C. illustrating the truth of Chinese great men’s famous sayings
D. spreading the Chinese ideas and cultural values throughout the world
Question 48: The word “imbalance” in paragraph 6 refers to _________. .
A. the mismatch between the East cartoons and the West cartoons
B. the dominant cultural influence of the West over the East
C. the influence of the East cartoons over the West cartoons
D. the discrimination between the West culture and the East culture
Question 49: Which of the following is most likely the traditional subject of Chinese cartoons?
A. Jokes and other kinds of humour in political and social matters.
B. The philosophies and sayings of ancient Chinese thinkers.
C. The illiterate and semi-literate people throughout China.
D. The stories and features of the lives of great men the world over.
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Question 50: According to the passage, which of the following is true?
A. Western cartoons always have a serious purpose.
B. Language barriers restricted cartoons.
C. Cartoons will replace other forms of writing.
D. Cartoons can serve various purposes.

Question 1: A. cartoon B. answer C. open D. paper
Question 2: A. appropriate B. secretary C. accuracy D. ambulance
Question 3: A. punctual B. rubbish C. thunder D. furious
Question 4: A. form B. work C. force D. stork
Question 5: Children normally feel a lot of anxiety about their first day at school.
A. agitation B. tranquility C. composure D. contentment
Question 6: I take my hat off to all those people who worked hard to get the contract.
A. encourage B. congratulate C. respect D. welcome
Question 7: It was apparent from her face that she was really upset.
A. obvious B. indistinct C. transparent D. evident
Question 8: My cousin tends to look on the bright side in any circumstance.
A. be optimistic B. be pessimistic C. be confident D. be smart
Question 9: This is the floppy disk which I have been looking for it all this morning.
A B C D
Question 10: Shortly before the Allied invasion of Normandy, Ernest Hemingway has gone to London as
a
A B C
war correspondent for Colliers.
D
Question 11: Not until I was on my way to the airport that I realized I had left my passport at home.
A B C D
Question 12: People _________ outlook on life is optimistic are usually happy people.
A. whose B. which C. that D. whom
Question 13: Fax machine _________ send or receive letter quickly.
A. is used to B. is used for C. used to D. used for
Question 14: Joe, who is one of my elder sister’s sons, is my beloved _________.
A. grandson B. uncle C. niece D. nephew
Question 15: Dalat city is a popular _________ for art lovers.
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A. visitation B. department C. destination D. arrival
Question 16: _________ did it take you to get used to wearing glasses?
A. How far B. How often C. How much D. How long
Question 17: Jogging every day will _________ you good.
A. do B. keep C. help D. make
Question 18: But for their help, he _________.
A. wouldn’t have failed B. has not failed
C. has failed D. would have failed
Question 19: Most of the computers in the laboratory are _________ now.
A. out of function B. out of work C. out of order D. out of working
Question 20: Thomas Edison _________ many new appliances using electricity during his long career.
A. invents B. invented C. who invented D. inventing
Question 21: I haven’t seen Michelle _________ Christmas.
A. from B. since C. for D. during
Question 22: I haven’t got a passport, _________ means I can’t leave the country.
A. which B. that C. this D. it
Question 23: The area was ___________by the storm, wasn’t it?
A. attacked B. struck C. beaten D. infected
Question 24: Theodore: “How lovely your pets are!” – Rose: “_________.”
A. I love them, too B. Really? They are
C. Can you say that again D. Thank you, it’s nice of you to say so
Question 25: Jam: “Would you like something else?” – Jelly: “_________.”
A. Yes, I like everything B. Two, please.
C. That’s all. Thank you D. No, I wouldn’t.
In the last 100 years, technology has completely (26)________ the way we live. At the touch of a
button, we can look up almost anything we need to know on the Internet. We have electricity, aeroplanes,
television, and we have been to the moon. So what sort of inventions will there be in the 21st century?
Indeed, is there anything important still left to invent? It seems that there is, scientists all over the world
are looking into nanotechnology with a (27)________ of interest. This is the science of building small
machines – and when we say small, we mean very small. To give you an idea of the size scientists are
(28)________ about, these machines would be about a million billion times smaller than the smallest bit
of dust. Nanotechnology will (29)________ enormous changes. Doctors, for example, will be able to cure
any illness. The environment will be improved because it will be possible to take the polluted air we
breathe and make it clean again. But perhaps the most exciting thought of all is (30)________ we won’t
have to wait a thousand years for nanotechnology – many people believe there is a good chance it will
come in our lifetime.
Question 26: A. changed B. made C. done D. gone
Question 27: A. plenty of B. great deal C. amount of D. number of
Question 28: A. mentioning B. speaking C. talking D. saying
Question 29: A. bring about B. set out C. take off D. run out
Question 30: A. which B. what C. that D. where
Question 31: I could not get the job because I did not speak English well.
A. I would have spoken English well if I could get that job.
B. I failed to get the job because of my poor English.
C. I wish I had got the job so that I could speak English well.
D. Despite my poor English, I was successful in the job.
Question 32: “Would you like to come to my birthday, Sarah?” asked John.
A. John invited Sarah to come to his birthday party.
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B. John asked if Sarah was able to come to his birthday party.
C. John asked Sarah if she liked his birthday party or not.
D. John reminded Sarah of his coming birthday party.
Question 33: He last had his eyes tested ten months ago.
A. He had tested his eyes ten months before.
B. He had not tested his eyes for ten months then.
C. He hasn’t had his eyes tested for ten months.
D. He didn’t have any test on his eyes in ten months.
Mark the letters A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of the sentences in the following questions.
Question 34: I did not arrive in time. I was not able to see her off.
A. She had fainted because I was not on time.
B. I did not go there, so I could not set her free.
C. I was not early enough to say goodbye to her.
D. I arrived very late to rescue her.
Question 35: She tried very hard to pass the driving test. She could hardly pass it.
A. Although she did not try hard to pass the driving test, she could pass it.
B. Despite being able to pass the driving test, she didn’t pass it.
C. No matter how hard she tried, she could barely pass the driving test.
D. She tried very hard, so she could pass the driving test.
An air pollution is defined as a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the
atmosphere in such quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials adversely. Air
pollution requires a very flexible definition that permits continuous changes. When the first air pollution
laws were established in England in the fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that
could be seen or smelled – a far cry from the extensive list of harmful substances known today. As
technology has developed and knowledge of health aspects of various chemicals has increased, the list of
air pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even water vapor might be considered an air pollutant under
certain conditions.
Many of more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxides and nitrogen
oxides are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentration of these pollutants was altered by
various chemical reactions; they became components in biogeochemical cycles. These serve as an air
purification scheme by allowing the compounds to move from the air to the water or soil. On a global
basis, nature’s output of these compounds dwarfs that resulting from human activities.
However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In such region,
human output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural purification scheme of the
cycles. The result is an concentration of noxious chemicals in the air. The concentrations at which the
adverse effects appear will be greater than the concentrations that the pollutants would have in the
absence of human activities. The actual concentration need not be large for a substance to be a pollutant;
in fact, the numerical value tells us little until we know how much of an increase this represents over the
concentration that would occur naturally in the area. For example, sulfur dioxide has detectable health
effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is about 400 times its natural level. Carbon monoxide,
however has a natural level of 0.1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about 15 ppm.
Question 36: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that ________.
A. the definition of air pollution will continue to change.
B. water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas.
C. most pollutants today can be seen or smelled.
D. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities.
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Question 37: For which of the following reasons can natural pollutants play an important role in
controlling air pollution?
A. They have existed since the Earth developed.
B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants.
C. They’re less harmful to living beings than other pollutants.
D. They function as part of a purification process.
Question 38: The word “adversely” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. considerably B. quickly C. negatively. D. admittedly
Question 39: The word “localized” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. specified B. widespread C. encircled D. surrounded.
Question 40: The word “detectable” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. special B. separable C. beneficial D. measurable
Question 41: Which of the following is best supported by the passage?
A. Scientists should be consulted in order to establish uniform limits for all air pollutants.
B. Human activities have been effective in reducing air pollution.
C. One of the most important steps in preserving natural lands is to better enforce air pollution
laws.
D. To effectively control pollution, local government should regularly review their air pollution
laws.
Question 42: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere
B. The economic impact of air pollution.
C. What constitutes an air pollutant
D. How much harm air pollutants can cause.
It is commonly believed that school is where people go to get an education. Nevertheless, it has been
said that today children interrupt their education to go to school. The difference between schooling and
education implied by this remark is important.
Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no limits. It
can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in the kitchen or on a tractor. It
includes both the formal learning that takes place in school and the whole universe of informal learning.
The agent (doer) of education can vary from respected grandparents to the people arguing about politics
on the radio, from a child to a famous scientist. Whereas schooling has a certain predictability, education
quite often produces surprises. A chance conversation with a stranger may lead a person to discover
how little is known of other religions. People receive education from infancy on. Education, then, is a
very broad, inclusive term; it is a lifelong process, a process that starts long before the start of school, and
one that should be a necessary part of one’s entire life.
Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern varies little from
one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at about the same time, take the
assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take exams, and so on. The
pieces of reality that are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an understanding of the workings
of governments, have been limited by the subjects being taught. For example, high school students know
that they are not likely to find out in their classes the truth about political problems in their society or
what the newest filmmakers are experimenting with. There are clear and undoubted conditions
surrounding the formalized process of schooling.
Question 43: This passage is mainly aimed at ________.

A. listing and discussing several educational problems
B. telling the difference in meaning between two related words
C. giving examples of different schools
D. telling a story about excellent teachers
Question 44: The word “all-inclusive” in the passage mostly means ________.
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A. including everything or everyone B. going in many directions
C. involving many school subjects D. allowing no exceptions
Question 45: According to the passage, the doers of education are ________.
A. only respected grandparents B. mainly politicians
C. mostly famous scientists D. almost all people
Question 46: What does the writer mean by saying “education quite often produces surprises”?
A. It’s surprising that we know little about other religions.
B. Educators often produce surprises.
C. Informal learning often brings about unexpected results.
D. Success of informal learning is predictable.
Question 47: Which of the following would the writer support?
A. Our education system needs to be changed as soon as possible.
B. Without formal education, people won’t be able to read and write.
C. Schooling is of no use because students do similar things every day.
D. Going to school is only part of how people become educated.
Question 48: The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to ________.
A. newest film makers B. high school students
C. working of governments D. political problems
Question 49: Because the general pattern of schooling varies little from one setting to the next, school
children throughout the country ________.
A. are taught by the same teachers B. have the same abilities
C. have similar study conditions D. do similar things
Question 50: From the passage, we can infer that a high school teacher ________.
A. is free to choose anything to teach B. is bound to teach programmed subjects
C. is not allowed to teach political issues D. has to teach social issues to all classes

1. A. species B. special C. specific D. specimen
2. A. humanitarian B. durability C. individual D. economical
3. A. designed B. advised C. arrived D. practiced
4. A. there B. thanks C. thought D. theory
5. In some nations coffee is the favorite beverage, while _________.
A. in others it is tea B. the other is tea C. it has caffeine D. tea has caffeine too
6. The sky was gray and cloudy. _________, they went to the beach.
A. In spite of B. Even though C. Nevertheless D. Consequently
7. Mr. Green hardly ever leaves the house, _________?
A. does he B. doesn’t he C. does he not D. does not he
8. Look! That man _________ a photo of you.
A. is doing B. is taking C. is having D. is to take
9. It’s time you _________ home, but I’d rather you _________ here.
A. go – stay B. went – stayed C. go – stayed D. went – stay
10. This is the first time I _________ a sports car.
A. had driven B. am driving C. drive D. have driven
11. Rita is not used _________ on her own.
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A. for living B. to live C. with living D. to living
12. He was the second man _________ in this way.
A. chose B. be chosen C. that be chosen D. to be chosen
13. Jack has decided to _________ the time he spends watching television.
A. run out of B. see to C. cut down on D. come up with
14. The hotel was terrible, but the wonderful beach _________ our disappointment.
A. made up for B. got over C. faced up to D. saw to
15. Having opened the bottle, _________ for everyone.
A. the drink was poured B. Mike poured the drink
C. Mike used to pour the drink D. the drink was being poured
16. The boy did his homework _________.
A. by himself B. by his own C. on himself D. in his own
17. Martha is in a shop. She is talking to the shop assistant to pay.
Shop assistant: “How do you like to pay?” – Martha: “_________.”
A. By cash B. $20 C. Later D. I want to pay now
18. Peter is in the hospital. He is talking to the nurse.
Peter: “What should I do if I want to call you?” – Nurse: “_________.”
A. Press the red button on the left B. Enjoy your stay
B. It depends on your situation D. I’d come every ten minutes
19. You would be well-advised to have the appropriate vaccinations before you go abroad.
A. healthy B. compulsory C. preventive D. suitable
20. The concert has been cancelled owing to lack of support.
A. put off B. called off C. given up D. made up
21. These schools are known to be vulnerable to vandalism.
A. strong B. weak C. easily hurt D. well-known
22. Remains of ancient people dating to 9000 B.C. have been found in the state of Ohio.
A. indigenous B. modern C. early D. conserved
23. Although strong objections from the public, the project to build the riverside hotel was carried out.
A B C D
24. The abilities to concentrate on the lessons, understand the instructions, and solving the problems
A B
will result in success in school work.
C D
25. I am writing the composition when the bell rang, so I had to hand in my paper unfinished.
A B C D
26. We were all surprised when she suddenly came back.
E. All of us found it surprising that she suddenly came back.
F. The fact that we were surprised made her come back.
G. All of us were amazing to see her come back.
H. She was surprised, coming back suddenly.
27. Conan said to me, “If I were you, I would read different types of books in different ways.”
E. Conan ordered me to read different types of books in different ways.
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F. I commanded Conan to read different types of books in different ways.
G. Conan advised me to read different types of books in different ways.
H. I read different types of books in different ways thanks to Conan’s suggestion.
28. He cannot practice scuba diving because he has a weak heart.
A. He has a weak heart but he continues to practice scuba diving.
B. Scuba diving makes him suffer from having a weak heart.
C. The fact that he has a weak heart cannot stop him practicing scuba diving.
D. The reason why he cannot practice scuba diving is that he has a weak heart.
Mark the letters A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of the sentences in the following questions.
29. The man is very old. He can’t take such a long trip.
A. The old man has refused to take such a long trip.
B. The trip is not too long for the man to take.
C. The man is young enough to take such a long trip.
D. The man is too old to take such a long trip.
E. She wrote the text. She selected the illustration as well.
A. She not only wrote the text but also selected the illustration.
B. The text she wrote was not as good as the illustration she selected.
C. In order to select the illustration, she had to write the text.
D. If she had written the text, she would have selected the illustration.
correct word for each of the numbered blanks.
Cartoon films have very few limits. If you can draw something, you can (31) _______ it move on
the cinema screen. The use of new ideas and advanced computer programs means that cartoons are
becoming exciting again for people of (32) _______ ages.
By the end of the 1970s, the cinema world had decided that cartoons were only for children. But
soon (33) _______, one or two directors had some original new ideas. They proved that it was possible to
make films in which both adults and children could share the fun.
However, not (34) _______ cartoon film was successful. The Black Cauldron, for example, failed,
mainly because it was too frightening for children and too childish for adults. Directors learnt from this
mistake, and the film companies began to make huge (35) _______ of money again.
31. A. get B. cause C. wish D. make
32. A. more B. other C. all D. these
33. A. afterwards B. later C. next D. then
34. A. every B. all C. any D. each
35. A. amounts B. plenty C. numbers D. billions
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
“The best age to start learning the violin is between three and six,” says Margaret Porter, a
violinist and music teacher. “It’s the time when you are learning about the world.” Margaret, who lives in
London, prefers to take pupils at three and four, although she has made lots of exceptions for keen five-
year-olds. When she started teaching the violin in 1972, her first class consisted of her children’s five-
year-old school friends.
Margaret’s pupils have group lessons. Each group has about a dozen pupils and each lesson lasts
an hour, once a fortnight. In addition, each pupil has one individual lesson a week with her. Parents also
have to attend the classes. It is important that the parents take an active interest in the lessons.
From the earliest lessons pupils learn to play by ear. They do not even try to read music until they
have been playing for several years, and for a long time there is a big difference between their playing
and reading of music. Margaret says that her method is not supposed to produce great violinists, and
always suggests that pupils who perform particularly well should leave and study the violin using more
traditional methods.
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36. What is the writer trying to do in the text?
A. explain why Margaret likes teaching the violin
B. describe a different way of learning the violin
C. give advice on how to find a music teacher
D. explain how Margaret has a lot of pupils
37. Who were Margaret’s first pupils?
A. her children B. three and four-year-olds
C. her own friends D. her children’s friends
38. The word ‘keen’ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. very interested B. very talented C. very intelligent D. very obedient
39. What does the writer think about Margaret’s method?
A. It is a traditional method. B. It is an unusual method.
C. It is the best method. D. It is the worst method.
40. Which of the following is TRUE about Margaret’s lessons?
A. Parents must be interested in the lessons.
B. Parents should play the violin with their children.
C. Parents are not allowed to attend the lessons.
D. Parents must give their children additional lessons at home.
41. According to Margaret’s method, children can be taught to play the violin by ear
A. as soon as they have learnt to read music.
B. after they are able to read music.
C. at the same time as being taught to read music.
D. before they learn to read music.
42. The phrase “once a fortnight” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. every month B. every two months C. every two weeks D. every two days
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
In the two decades between 1929 and 1949, sculpture in the United States sustained what was
probably the greatest expansion in sheer technique to occur in many centuries. There was, first of all, the
incorporation of welding into sculptural practice, with the result that it was possible to form a new kind of
metal object. For sculptors working with metal, earlier restricted to the dense solidity of the bronze cast,
it was possible to add a type of work assembled from paper-thin metal sheets or sinuously curved rods.
Sculpture could take the form of a linear, two-dimensional frame and still remain physically self-
supporting. Along with the innovation of welding came a correlative departure: freestanding sculpture
that was shockingly flat.
Yet another technical expansion of the options for sculpture appeared in the guise of motion. The
individual parts of a sculpture were no longer understood as necessarily fixed in relation to one another,
but could be made to change position within a work constructed as a moving object. Motorizing the
sculpture was only one of many possibilities taken up in the 1930s. Other strategies for getting the work
to move involved structuring it in such a way that external forces, like air movements or the touch of a
viewer, could initiate motion. Movement brought with it a new attitude toward the issue of sculptural
unity: a work might be made of widely diverse and even discordant elements; their formal unity would be
achieved through the arc of a particular motion completing itself through time.
Like the use of welding and movement, the third of these major technical expansions to develop
in the 1930s and 1940s addressed the issues of sculptural materials and sculptural unity. But its medium
for doing so was the found object, an item not intended for use in a piece of artwork, such as a newspaper
or metal pipe. To create a sculpture by assembling parts that had been fabricated originally for a quite
different context did not necessarily involve a new technology. But it did mean a change in sculptural
practice, for it raised the possibility that making sculpture might involve more a conceptual shift than a
physical transformation of the material from which it is composed.
43. It could be inferred that between 1929 and 1949 sculptors changed in what way?
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A. They depended less on patrons to finance their work.
B. They were less imaginative in their designs.
C. They exhibited sculpture more often outside than in galleries.
D. They used a wider variety of materials and techniques.
44. It can be inferred that which of the following happened when sculptors began to use welding as a
technique?
A. Some sculpture became lighter and thinner.
B. Sculpture became more expensive to create.
C. Sculptors took more time to complete their work.
D. Sculpture became more and more ornate.
45. The word “innovation” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. limitation B. important concept C. use D. new idea
46. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to
A. viewer B. movement C. attitude D. issue
47. The word “diverse” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. dissimilar B. unappealing C. unreliable D. distinctive
48. What is the main idea of the third paragraph?
A. Found objects make unattractive sculptures.
B. Sculptors looked for found objects in garbage cans.
C. The use of found objects changed the way sculpture is created.
D. Sculptors who used found objects enjoyed great success.
49. The word “fabricated” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. enlarged B. made C. ordered D. revealed
50. Which of the following was NOT a new technique developed during this period?
A. Creating sculptures that move B. Welding metal pieces together
C. Including found objects in sculpture D. Making a bronze cast
Question 1: A. sacred B. cooked C. announced D. booked
Question 2: A. cough B. tough C. rough D. weigh
Question 3: A. comparison B. interrupt C. continuous D. delivery
Question 4: A. economic B. elevation C. politician D. comparable
Question 5: Rice, which it still forms the staple diet of much of the world’s population, grows best
A B C
in hot, wet lands.
D
Question 6: According to most psychology studies, body language expresses a speaker’s emotions
A B
and attitudes, and it also tends to affect the emotions and attitudes of the listener.
C D
Question 7: The importance of environmental stimuli in the development of coordination
A
between sensory input and motor response varies in species to species.
B C D
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Question 8: The spaceship _______ the earth for seven days by the time it _______ to travel into space
for good.
A. will have been orbiting / begins B. will have been orbiting / will begin
C. will have orbited / begins D. would be orbiting / begins
Question 9: The workmen went to _______ church to repair the roof.
A. Ø B. the C. a D. an
Question 10: Don’t worry. He’ll do the job as _______ as possible.
A. economizing B. economic C. uneconomically D. economically
Question 11: “Would you like to go to the cinema with me tonight?” he said.
A. He invited me to go to the cinema with him that night.
B. He offered me to go to the cinema with him tonight.
C. He asked me if I’d like to go to the cinema with him tonight.
D. He would like me to go to the cinema with him this night.
Question 12: It was reported that neither the passengers nor the driver _______ in the vehicle accident.
A. injured B. was injured C. were injured D. get injured
Question 13: If you had taken my advice, you _______ in such difficulties now.
A. wouldn’t have been B. won’t be
C. wouldn’t be D. shan’t be
Question 14: After running up the stairs, the old lady was _______ breath.
A. away from B. no C. without D. out of
Question 15: The two countries have reached an agreement through dialogues described as _______.
A. productivity B. productive C. unproductive D. counterproductive
Question 16: The case against the corruption scandal was _______.
A. dismissed B. refused C. discarded D. eliminated
Question 17: The bank manager is a very _______ person because he can make other officials to follow
his advice.
A. deciding B. effective C. influential D. creative
Question 18: The teacher asked a difficult question, but finally Thomas _______ a good answer.
A. keep pace with B. put up with C. came up with D. made way for
Question 19: It was very good _______ you to give up so much of your time.
A. of B. for C. with D. to
Question 20: Harry: “Thanks for your help, Judy.” – Judy: “________.”
A. With all my heart B. Never remind me
C. It’s my pleasure D. Wish you
Question 21: Maria: “Why didn’t you pay the phone bill?” – Susan: “________.”
A. Thank you for what you’ve asked B. I did
D. Well, I’ve made a lot of money already C. Yes, it was true
Question 22: Bengal tigers, for instance, which once roamed the jungles in vast numbers, now number
only about 2300 and by the year 2025, their population is estimated to be down to zero.
A. slept B. climbed C. walked D. destroyed
Question 23: International laws protecting these animals must be enacted to ensure their survival, and the
survival of our planet.
A. ignored B. passed C. sacrificed D. focused on
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Question 24: In the 1850s, an American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing and
preserving milk.
A. saving B. conserving C. destroying D. regenerating
Question 25: Another solution to the problem of animal extinction is an international boycott of products
made from endangered species.
A. support B. disappearance C. prevention D. ban
Question 26: “Leave my house now or I’ll call the police!” shouted the lady to the man.
A. The lady threatened to call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.
B. The lady said that she would call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.
C. The lady told the man that she would call the police if he didn’t leave her house.
D. The lady informed the man that she would call the police if he didn’t leave her house.
Question 27: He last had his eyes tested ten months ago.
A. He had tested his eyes ten months before.
B. He had not tested his eyes for ten months then.
C. He hasn’t had his eyes tested for ten months.
D. He didn’t have any test on his eyes in ten months.
Question 28: Every student is required to write an essay on the topic.
A. Every student might write an essay on the topic.
B. Every student must write an essay on the topic.
C. They would rather every student wrote an essay on the topic.
D. Every student should write an essay on the topic.
Question 29: The children couldn’t go swimming because the sea was too rough.
A. The children were not calm enough to swim in the sea.
B. The sea was rough enough for the children to swim in.
C. The sea was too rough for the children to go swimming.
D. The sea was too rough to the children’s swimming.
Question 30: We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot.
A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes.
B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes.
C. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter.
D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter
When rainforests are cleared and (31)_______, millions of tons of carbon dioxide are released
into the atmosphere affecting climatic conditions and threatening us all (32)_______ severe flooding,
drought and crop failure.
The rainforests contain at least half of the earth’s species. At the current rate of devastation, an
estimated 50 species worldwide become extinct every day.
One in four purchases from our chemists is derived from the rainforests. Scientists are
(33)_______ caught in a race against time to find rainforest treatments for cancers, heart diseases and
AIDS before they are lost forever. Tribal people in the rainforests have been shot, poisoned and infected
with diseases to which they have no resistance to (34)_______ logging, mining and dams.
Almost everyone will have part of the rainforests in their home, as do-it-yourself stores still
supply and the construction industry still uses tropical hardwoods for doors, window (35)_______ and
even toilet seats.
Please help us save the tropical rainforests now, before it is too late.
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Question 31: A. seared B. fired C. burned D. scorched
Question 32: A. from B. for C. by D. with
Question 33: A. currently B. nowadays C. shortly D. instantly
Question 34: A. pay respect to B. make room for C. put up with D. stand up for
Question 35: A. contour B. border C. frames D. panes
Since the world has become industrialized, there has been an increase in the number of animal
species that have either become extinct or have neared extinction. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once
roamed the jungles in vast numbers, now number only about 2300 and by the year 2025, their population
is estimated to be down to zero. What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction
will have been caused almost entirely by poachers who, according to some sources, are not interested in
material gain but in personal gratification. This is an example of the callousness that is part of what is
causing the problem of extinction. Animals like the Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered species, are
a valuable part of the world’s ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals must be enacted to
ensure their survival, and the survival of our planet.
in order to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal reserves. They, then
charge admission to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and they often must also depend on
world organizations for support. With the money they get, they can invest equipment and patrols to
protect the animals. Another solution that is an attempt to stem the tide of animal extinction is an
international boycott of products made from endangered species. This seems fairly effective, but will not
by itself, prevent animals from being hunted and killed.
Question 36: which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “alarming” in the first paragraph?
A. distressing B. gripping C. serious D. dangerous
Question 37: What does the word “This” in the first paragraph refer to?
A. poachers who seek personal gratification B. sources that may not be accurate
C. Bengal tigers that are decreasing D. endangered species that are increasing
Question 38: Which of the following could best replace the word “allocated” in the second paragraph?
A. taken off B. set aside C. combined D. organized
Question 39: The author uses the phrase “stem the tide” in the second paragraph to mean _______.
A. stop B. save C. tax D. touch
Question 40: The above passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast _______.
A. a comparison and a contrast B. a statement and an illustration
C. a problem and a solution D. a specific and general information
Question 41: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. problems with industrialization B. international boycotts
C. the Bengal tiger D. endangered species
Question 42: Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude?
A. vindictive B. forgiving C. concerned D. surprised
Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season.
Drying, smoking and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat , like
that of fresh milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810 a French inventor
named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of canning. And in the 1850s an
American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing and preserving milk. Canned goods and
condensed milk became more common during the 1860s, but supplies remained low because cans had to
be made by hand. By 1880, however, inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines that
mass-produced cans from tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times
of the year.
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Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their daily
diets. Growing urban populations created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise
more produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great
distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890s, northern city dwellers could enjoy
southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for up
to six months of the year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. An
easy means of producing ice commercially had been invented in the 1870s, and by 1900 the nation had
more than two thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became
a fixture in most homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the 1920s and
1930s.
Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly foods that
were heavy in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless, many
families could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve
more varied fare.
Question 43: The phrase “in season” in the first paragraph refers to _______.
A. a particular time of year B. a method of flavoring food
C. a kind of weather D. an official schedule
Question 44: During the 1860s, canned food products were _______.
A. available in limited quantities B. unavailable in rural areas
C. shipped in refrigerator cars D. a staple part of the American diet
Question 45: It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use _______.
A. before 1860 B. before 1900 C. after 1900 D. after 1920
Question 46: The word “them” in the second paragraph refers to _______.
A. distances B. growers C. perishables D. refrigerator cars
Question 47: The word “fixture” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. mechanical device B. substance C. luxury item D. commonplace object
Question 48: Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. cold storage B. chemical additives C. canning D. drying
Question 49: Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A. People who lived in cities demanded home delivery of foods.
B. Most farmers in the United States raised only fruits and vegetables.
C. Tin cans and iceboxes helped to make many foods more widely available.
D. Commercial ice factories were developed by railroad owners.
Question 50: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Population movements in the nineteenth century
B. Causes of food spoilage
C. Commercial production of ice
D. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet

1. A. husband B. raise C. distinct D. reserve
2. A. chore B. technology C. much D. exchange
3. A. company B. atmosphere C. customer D. employment
4. A. overwhelming B. intellectual C. incredible D. optimistic
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5. The medical community continues to make progress in the fight against cancer.
A. get stuck B. expect more C. move forward D. treat better
6. This college emphasizes the primacy of teaching over research.
A. consider teaching the most private B. consider teaching the most important
C. consider research the most difficult D. consider research the most complicated
7. Ignoring the danger to himself, Freddie dived into the river to save the puppy.
A. Neglecting B. Overlooking C. Watching D. Noticing
8. “Don’t be such a pessimist. I’m sure you’ll soon get over it. Cheer up.”
A. activist B. feminist C. optimist D. Hobbyist
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correcting
in order for each of the following sentences to be correct.
9. Foreign students who are doing a decision about which school to attend may not know exactly where
A B C
the choices are located.
D
10. A fully grown male mountain lion may be eight long feet.
A B C D
11. A large amount of popular expressions in our language have interesting backgrounds.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
12. He has always looked _________ his elder brother.
A. up to B. back on C. into D. up and down
13. We bought some _________.
A. German lovely old glasses B. German old lovely glasses
C. lovely old German glasses D. old lovely German glasses
14. I should very much like to have gone to that party of theirs, but _________.
A. I’m not invited B. I will not be invited
C. I have not been invited D. I was not invited
15 .Not until the end of the 19th century _________ become a scientific discipline.
A. plant breeding has B. did plant breeding C. plant breeding had D. has plant breeding
16. When friends insist on _________ expensive gifts, it makes most people uncomfortable.
A. them to accept B. they accepting C. their accepting D. they accept
17. By the time Brown’s daughter graduates, _________ retired.
A. heB. he has C. he’ll being D. he’ll have
18. Look! The yard is wet. It _________ last night.
A. must rain B. couldn’t have rained
C. must have rained D. should have rained
19. James Cook, _________, also discovered the Hawaiian Islands.
A. by exploring the South Sea he reached Australia.
B. explored the South Sea and reaching Australia.
C. who explored the South Sea and reached Australia.
D. explored the South Sea then reached Australia.
20. “I understand you don’t like opera. _________, I go at least once a month.”
A. On contrast B. In contrast C. In the contrast D. On the contrast
21. UNESCO _________ United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.
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A. stands for B. brings about C. takes after D gets across
22. We are going to _________.
A. have our house redecorated B. have our house be decorated
C. get our house being redecorated D. have our house to be decorated
23. We took the map with us _________.
A. so that we would get lost B. so that we wouldn’t get lost
C. in order that we won’t get lost D. in order to get lost
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions or the correct question to each of the following answers.
24. Ellen: “_________?” – Tom: “He’s tall and thin with blue eyes.”
A. What does John look like B. Who does John look like
C. How is John doing D. What does John like
25. Customer: “Can I have a look at that pullover, please?” – Salesgirl: “_________.”
A. It’s much cheaper B. Which one? This one?
C. Sorry, it is out of stock. D. Can I help you?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
26. “I am sorry, Jean. I broke your bicycle, said John.
A. John apologized for breaking her bicycle.
B. John apologized for breaking Jean’s bicycle.
C. John apologized to Jean for having broken your bicycle.
D. John apologized to Jean for having broken her bicycle.
27. Eight years ago we started writing to each other.
A. We have rarely written to each other for eight years.
B. Eight years is a long time for us to write to each other.
C. We wrote to each other eight years ago.
D. We have been writing to each other for eight years.
28. These shoes are more expensive than those ones because their quality is better.
A. The better their quality is, the cheaper the shoes are.
B. Their quality is better, the shoes are more expensive.
C. The less expensive the shoes are, the better quality they have.
D. The more expensive the shoes are, the higher is their quality.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
29. Yesterday morning, I had to go to work, so I couldn’t watch that film on TV.
A. If I hadn’t gone to work yesterday morning, I could not watch that film on TV.
B. If I hadn’t gone to work yesterday morning, I’d have watched that film on TV.
C. If I didn’t go to work yesterday morning, I would have watched that film on TV.
D. If I had gone to work yesterday morning, I couldn’t have watch that film on TV.
30. The man is my uncle. He is talking to Mr Brown.
A. The man talking to Mr Brown is my uncle.
B. The man, who is talking to Mr Brown, is my uncle.
C. The man who talks to my uncle is Mr Brown.
D. The man talked to Mr Brown is my uncle.
Around 200 million people are employed in tourism worldwide, making it the largest industry in
the modern global economy. It is estimated that three-quarters of a billion people (31)________ on
holiday each year, and industry planners expect this figure to double by 2020. Some of the biggest
beneficiaries are less developed countries, where it is often their main source of income.
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(32)________, along with the economic benefits, this mass movement of people has resulted in
threats (33)________ the environment. People often forget the damage caused by carbon dioxide
emissions from aircraft, which contribute directly to global warming. Deforestation has cleared land in
order to build hotels, airport and roads, and this has destroyed wildlife. In some areas, water shortages are
now common because of the need to fill swimming pools and water golf courses for tourists. By pushing
up prices for goods and services, tourism can also be (34)________ to the people who live in tourist
destinations.
In response to these concerns, some travel operators now offer environmental friendly holidays.
Many of these aim to reduce the negative effect of tourism by promoting only hotels that have invested
equipment to recycle waste and use energy and water efficiently. Increasingly, tourists are also being
reminded to show respect for the customs of the people (35)________ countries they are going to visit,
and to support local businesses, such as restaurants and shops, which depend on tourism for their main
income.
31. A. go B. travel C. move D. leave
32. A. Therefore B. Although C. However D. Furthermore
33. A. at B. on C. for D. to
34. A. harmful B. destructive C. offensive D. dangerous
35. A. whose B. their C. that D. whom
Basic to any understanding of Canada in the 20 years after the Second World War is the country’s
impressive population growth. For every three Canadians in 1945, there were over five in 1966. In
September 1966, Canada’s population passed the 20 million mark. Most of this surging growth came
from natural increase. The depression of the 1930s and the war had held back marriages, and the
catching-up process began after 1945. The baby boom continued through the decade of the 1950s,
producing a population increase of nearly fifteen percent in the five years from 1951 to 1956. This rate of
increase had been exceeded only once before in Canada’s history, in the decade before 1911 when the
prairies were being settled. Undoubtedly, the good economic conditions of the 1950s supported a growth
in the population, but the expansion also derived from a trend toward earlier marriages and an increase in
the average size of families. In 1957 the Canadian birth rate stood at 28 per thousand, one of the highest
in the world.
After the peak year of 1957, the birth rate in Canada began to decline. It continued falling until in
1966 it stood at the lowest level in 25 years. Partly this decline reflected the low level of births during the
depression and the war, but it was also caused by changes in Canadian society. Young people were
staying at school longer; more women were working; young married couples were buying automobiles or
houses before starting families; rising living standards were cutting down the size of families.
It appeared that Canada was once more falling in step with the trend toward smaller families that
had occurred all through the Western world since the time of the Industrial Revolution. Although the
growth in Canada’s population had slowed down by 1966 (the increase in the first half of the 1960s was
only nine percent), another large population wave was coming over the horizon. It would be composed of
the children of the children who were born during the period of the high birth rate prior to 1957.
36. The word “five” in the first paragraph refers to_________.

A. decades B. marriages C. years D. Canadians
37. The word “surging” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. surprising B. new C. accelerating D. extra
38. According to the passage, when did Canada’s baby boom begin?
A. During the depression of the 1930s B. After 1945
C. In 1966 D. In the decade after 1911
39. The author mentions all of the following as causes of declines in population growth after 1957
EXCEPT _________.
A. couples buying houses B. people being better educated
C. people getting married earlier D. better standards of living
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40. The phrase “prior to” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. during B. behind C. before D. since
41. It can be inferred from the passage that before the Industrial Revolution _________.
A. population statistics were unreliable B. the population grew steadily
C. families were larger D. economic conditions were bad
42. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Educational changes in Canadian society B. Canada during the Second World War
C. Population trends in post war Canada D. Standards of living in Canada
May 7, 1840, was the birthday of one of the most famous Russian composers of the
nineteenth century Pyotr Ilyich Tchaikovsky. The son of a mining inspector, Tchaikovsky studied music
as a child and later studied composition at the St. Petersburg Conservatory. His greatest period of
productivity occurred between 1876 and 1890, during which time he enjoyed the patronage of
Madame von Meck, a woman he never met, who gave him a living stipend of about $1,000 a year.
Madame von Meck later terminated her friendship with Tchaikovsky, as well as his living allowance,
when she, herself, was facing financial difficulties. It was during the time of Madame von Meck’s
patronage, however, that Tchaikovsky created the music for which he is most famous, including the
music for the ballets of Swan Lake and The Sleeping Beauty.
Tchaikovsky’s music, well known for its rich melodic and sometimes melancholy
passages, was one of the first that brought serious dramatic music to dance. Before this, little attention
had been given to the music behind the dance. Tchaikovsky died on November 6, 1893, ostensibly of
cholera, though there are now some scholars who argue that he committed suicide.
43. With what topic is the passage primarily concerned?

A. the life and music of Tchaikovsky
B. development of Tchaikovsky’s music for ballets
C. Tchaikovsky’s relationship with Madame Von Meck
D. the cause of Tchaikovsky’s death
44. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “productivity” in the first paragraph?
A. fertility B. affinity C. creativity D. maturity
45. The phrase “enjoyed the patronage of” probably means _________.
A. liked the company of B. was mentally attached to
C. solicited the advice of D. was financially dependent upon
46. According to the passage, all of the following describe Madame von Meck EXCEPT _________.
A. She had economic troubles. B. She was generous.
C. She enjoyed Tchaikovsky’s music. D. She was never introduced to Tchaikovsky.
47. It is known that before Tchaikovsky, _________.
A. the music behind the dance had been taken seriously
B. serous dramatic music had been already brought to dance
C. the music behind the dance had been given very little attention.
D. music had been famous for its rich melodic passages
48. According to the passage, for what is Tchaikovsky’s music most well-known?
A. its repetitive and monotonous tones B. the ballet-like quality of the music
C. its lively, capricious melodies D. the richness and melodic drama of the music
49. According to the passage, “Swan Lake” and “The Sleeping Beauty” are _________.
A. ballets B. songs C. operas D. plays
50. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Tchaikovsky’s influence on ballet music B. Tchaikovsky’s unhappiness leading to suicide
C. the patronage of Madame von Meck D. Tchaikovsky’s productivity in composing

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Question 1: A. climber B. subtle C. debtor D. probable
Question 2: A. unity B. suite C. studious D. volume

Question 3: A. catalogue B. competitive C. experienced D. pedestrian
Question 4: A. conservative B. conference C. proficiency D. industrial

Question 5: Man has set foot on the Moon and he is now planning _______ to Venus and back.
A. travelling B. travel C. to have travelled D. to travel
Question 6: “Where’s that _______ dress that your boyfriend gave you?”
A. lovely long pink silk B. lovely pink long silk
C. long pink silk lovely D. pink long lovely silk
Question 7: I’ve seen that famous actor on television, but I’ve never seen him _______ person.
A. by B. on C. of D. in
Question 8: Jack _______ yet, otherwise he would have telephoned me.
A. can’t have arrived B. mustn’t have arrived
C. needn’t have arrived D. shouldn’t have arrived
Question 9: British and Australian people share the same language, but in other aspects they are as
different as _______.
A. cats and dogs B. chalk and cheese
C. salt and pepper D. here and there
Question 10: That book is written by a famous anthropologist. It’s about the people in Samoa _______
for two years.
A. that she lived B. that she lived among them
C. among whom she lived D. where she lived among them
Question 11: _______ is the price of the car.
A. We are interested B. That we are interested in
C. That interested us D. What we are interested in
Question 12: The purpose of a labor union is to improve the working condition, _______, and pay of its
members.
A. jobs are secure B. being secure C. secure D. job security
Question 13: Only when you become a parent _______ what true responsibility is.
A. you will understand B. don’t you understand
C. will you understand D. would you understand
Question 14: _______ home schooling is very successful, many people still believe in the benefits of
traditional schooling.
A. Even though B. Despite that C. Because D. In spite of
Question 15: - “Would you bother if I had a look at your paper?” – “_______”
A. You’re welcome B. Well, actually I’d rather you didn’t
C. That’s a good idea D. Oh, I didn’t realize that
Question 16: - Lisa: “Have you been able to reach Peter?” – Gina: “_______”
A. That’s no approval B. Yes, I’ve known him for years
C. No, the line is busy D. It’s much too high

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Question 17: The twentieth century saw a rapid rise in life expectancy due to improvement in public
health, nutrition and medicine.
A. anticipation B. expectation C. span D. prospect
Question 18: The tiny irrigation channels were everywhere and along some of them the water was
running.
A. flushing out with water B. supplying water
C. cleaning with water D. washing out with water
Question 19: About 95 percent of all animals are invertebrates which can live anywhere, but most, like
the starfish and crabs, live in the ocean.
A. with ribs B. without ribs C. without backbones D. with backbones
Question 20: Mr. Smith’s new neighbors appear to be very friendly.
A. amicable B. inapplicable C. hostile D. futile

Question 21: So extensive the lakes are (A) that they are viewed as (B) the largest (C) bodies of fresh
water (D) in the world.
Question 22: A basic (A) knowledge of social studies, such as history (B) and geography, are (C)
considered a basic part of the education of every child (D).
Question 23: Regardless of (A) your teaching method, the objective of any (B) conversation class should
be (C) for the students to practice speaking words (D).

BOOKCROSSING
If you (24)_______ to be walking in your local park tomorrow and you find an abandoned book
with a label inside saying “Read and Release me”, don’t just treat it as a (25)_______. You’ve probably
come (26)_______ an example of “bookcrossing”, a book-sharing movement started in 2001 by
American software developer Ron Hornbaker, whose stated aim is to “make the whole world a library”.
Bookcrossers “release” books either by passing them on to friends, or else by leaving them in
public places for others to pick up or “catch”, and then read before they in turn release them back “into
the wild”. Once a book has been “caught”, the person finding it is (27)_______ to record the event by
logging on to the bookcrossing website and entering the book’s ID number written on the label. That
way, both the original owner and subsequent readers of the book can keep track of its progress.
Over half a million people worldwide participate in bookcrossing, releasing books in a
(28)_______ range of locations including cafés, airports, bus stations, telephone boxes and even
underwater in public fountains.
Question 24: A. happen B. occur C. pass D. arise
Question 25: A. joke B. fun C. humor D. comedy
Question 26: A. away B. across C. aside D. along
Question 27: A. let B. suggested C. encouraged D. promoted
Question 28: A. deep B. wide C. high D. long
Carnegie Hall, the famous concert hall in New York City, has again undergone a restoration.
While this is not the first, it is certainly the most extensive in the building’s history. As a result of this
new restoration, Carnegie Hall once again has the quality of sound that it had when it was first built.
Carnegie Hall owes its existence to Andrew Carnegie, the wealthy owner of a steel company in
the late 1800s. The hall was finished in 1891 and quickly gained a reputation as an excellent performing
arts hall where accomplished musicians gained fame. Despite its reputation, however, the concert hall
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suffered from several detrimental renovations over the years. During the Great Depression, when fewer
people could afford to attend performances, the directors sold part of the building to commercial
businesses. As a result, a coffee shop was opened in one corner of the building, for which the builders
replaced the brick and terra cotta walls with windowpanes. A renovation in 1946 seriously damaged the
acoustical quality of the hall when the makers of the film Carnegie Hall cut a gaping hole in the dome of
the ceiling to allow for lights and air vents. The hole was later covered with short curtains and a fake
ceiling, but the hall never sounded the same afterwards.
In 1960, the violinist Isaac Stern became involved in restoring the hall after a group of real estate
developers’ unveiled plans to demolish Carnegie Hall and build a high-rise office building on the site.
This threat spurred Stern to rally public support for Carnegie Hall and encourage the City of New York to
buy the property. The movement was successful, and the concert hall is now owned by the city. In the
current restoration, builders tested each new material for it sound qualities, and they replaced the hole in
the ceiling with a dome. The builders also restored the outer walls to their original appearance and closed
the coffee shop. Carnegie has never sounded better, and its prospects for the future have never looked
more promising.
Question 29: Who was Andrew Carnegie?

A. a violinist B. an architect C. a steel mill owner D. mayor of New York City
Question 30: What is the meaning of the word “detrimental” in paragraph 2?
A. dangerous B. significant C. extreme D. harmful
Question 31: Which of the following words could best replace the word “gaping” in paragraph 2?
A. small B. round C. vital D. wide
Question 32: What major change happened to the hall in 1946?
A. The acoustic dome was damaged.
B. Space in the building was sold to commercial businesses.
C. The walls were damaged in an earthquake.
D. The stage was renovated.
Question 33: What was Isaac Stern’s relationship to Carnegie Hall?
A. He made the movie “Carnegie Hall” in 1946.
B. He performed on opening night in 1891.
C. He tried to save the hall, beginning in 1960.
D. He opened a coffee shop in Carnegie Hall during the Depression.
Question 34: What was probably the most important aspect of the recent renovation?
A. restoring the outer wall B. expanding the lobby
C. restoring the plaster trim D. repairing the ceiling
Question 35: This passage is mainly about _______.
A. changes to Carnegie Hall B. Carnegie Hall’s history during the Great
Depression
C. the appearance of Carnegie Hall D. damage to the ceiling in Carnegie Hall
About 200 million years ago, as the Triassic Period came to a close, many species of animals
disappeared from the face of the Earth. Scientists previously believed that the series of extinctions
happened over a period of 15 to 20 million years. Recent discoveries in Nova Scotia suggest, however,
that the extinctions may have happened over a much shorter period of time, perhaps less than 850,000
years.
Evidence for a rapid extinction of species at the end of the Triassic Period is found in the McCoy
Brook Formation along the Bay of Fundy in Nova Scotia. Fossils found in this formation indicate a rapid
disappearance of species rather than a slow and gradual change over time. One explanation for a
relatively sudden extinction at the end of the Triassic may be that a large meteorite struck the earth at the
time and is responsible for a 70-kilometer hole nearby. If geologists and other researchers can find
evidence, such as shocked quartz in the rock formations, that a meteorite did strike the earth, it would
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give more credence to the theory of rapid Triassic extinctions. It is possible, however, that even if a rapid
extinction happened in and around Nova Scotia, it did not necessarily occur in the rest of the world.
Question 36: What is the main topic of this passage?

A. the disappearance of animal species at the end of the Triassic Period
B. evidence of a relatively sudden extinction of species
C. the possibility of an extinction happening simultaneously throughout the world
D. a meteorite hole in the Bay of Fundy in Nova Scotia
Question 37: The author uses the phrase “the face of the Earth” in order to _______.
A. emphasize the disappearance B. focus on one part of the Earth
C. focus on one period of time D. point out the reference to land, not water
Question 38: All of the following were mentioned in the passage EXCEPT _______.
A. the extinction of late Triassic animals
B. the duration of time for the extinction
C. a large meteorite hitting the Earth 10 million years ago
D. the use of types of rock in scientific research
Question 39: Where in the passage does the author give evidence for the argument?
A. At the beginning of paragraph 1 B. At the beginning of paragraph 2
C. At the end of paragraph 1 D. At the end of paragraph 2
Question 40: According to the passage, what would give evidence that a meteorite struck the earth?
A. a gradual change in species over time B. a change in the quartz
C. gold deposits in the veins of rocks D. a change in the waters of the Bay of Fundy
Question 41: Which of the following could best replace the word “struck” in paragraph 2?
A. affected B. discovered C. devastated D. hit
Question 42: Which of the following is most probably the meaning of “credence” in paragraph 2?
A. distrust B. question C. doubt D. belief
Question 43: In paragraph 2, “it” refers to _______.
A. evidence B. an extinction C. the Earth D. a meteorite
Question 44. He cannot practice scuba diving because he has a weak heart.
A. Scuba diving makes him suffer from having a weak heart.
B. He has a weak heart but he continues to practice scuba diving.
C. The reason why he cannot practice scuba diving is that he has a weak heart.
D. The fact that he has a weak heart cannot stop him practicing scuba diving.
Question 45. The test we did last time was more difficult than this one.
A. The test we have done this time is not difficult at all.
B. This time we have to do the most difficult test of all.
C. We did an easy test last time and a difficult one this time.
D. This test is not as difficult as the one we did last time.
Question 46. “No, it’s not true. I didn’t steal the money!” Jean said.
A. Jean denied having stolen the money. B. Jean admitted stealing the money.
C. Jean refused to steal the money. D. Jean did not intend to steal the money.
Question 47. Peter had very little money but managed to make ends meet.
A. Peter could hardly live on little money.
B. Having little money, Peter couldn’t make ends meet.
C. Peter found it hard to live on very little money.
D. Peter got by on very little money.
Question 48. There’s no point in persuading Jane to change her mind.
A. It’s possible for us to persuade Jane to change her mind.
B. Jane will change her mind though she doesn’t want to.
C. It’s useless to persuade Jane to change her mind.
D. No one wants Jane to change her mind because it’s pointless.
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Question 49. His academic record at high school was poor. He failed to apply for that job.
A. His academic record at high school was poor because he didn’t apply for that job.
B. His academic record at high school was poor as a result of his failure to apply for that job.
C. Failing to apply for that job, his academic record at high school was poor.
D. His academic record at high school was poor; as a result, he failed to apply for that job.
Question 50. Smoking is an extremely harmful habit. You should give it up immediately.
A. When you give up smoking immediately, you will affect your health with this harmful habit.
B. You should give up smoking immediately and you will fall into an extremely harmful habit.
C. Stop your smoking immediately so it will become one of your extremely harmful habits.
D. As smoking is an extremely harmful habit, you should give it up immediately.
Question 1. A. introduce B. promise C. bother D. popular
Question 2. A. arrange B. paper C. say D. stand
Question 3. A. understanding B. experience C. rapidity D. intensity
Question 4. A. appointment B. sentiment C. arrangement D. agreement
Question 5. ________ members of my family has a share in doing household chores
A. No B. Every C. All D. Each of the
Question 6. We haven’t found a cure yet – but we are ________ the right track.
A. in B. on C. under D. along
Question 7. We need to work ________ the total cost of the project.
A. in B. off C. on D. out
Question 8. We’ve applied ________ a charitable organization ________ a grant for the project.
A. Ø – for B. for – Ø C. to – for D. for – to
Question 9. Hurry up, there’s ________ time left.
A. a little B. a few C. little D. few
Question 10. Would you mind if I had you ________ Peter off at the airport tomorrow?
A. seen B. seeing C. see D. to see
Question 11. Jane ________ to the hospital yesterday but nobody took her there.
A. could go B. would go C. should have gone D. must have gone
Question 12. ________, which had been brought to Europe from China in the 15th century, helped seamen
to navigate.
A. Because the compass B. The compass
C. Thanks to the compass D. It is the compass
Question 13.They are excellent students ________ I have complete confidence.
A. whom B. in whom C. who D. that
Question 14. The issue is still ________ discussion.
A. on B. under C.in D. for
Question 15. ________ in the atmosphere is the temperature falling below freezing.
A. What produces frost B. What is frost produced
C. Frost is produced D. Frost produces
Question 16. Should we do this ________ we did it yesterday?
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A. the same way as B. as the same way C. the same way D. as the same way as
Question 17. “How often do the buses run?” – “________”.
A. From that bus stop over there. B. Much often
C. Every hour. D. Twice or three times.
Question 18. “Can you tell me the way to the shopping mall from your flat?” – “________”.
A. Yes, I can B. I know it. C. It’s easy. D. It’s round the corner.
Question 19. The lost hikers stayed alive by eating wild berries and drinking spring water.
A. revived B. survived C. surprised D. lively
Question 20. There have been significant changes in women’s lives since the women’s liberation
movement.
A. controlled B. important C. economic D. natural
Question 21. An international medical conference initiated by Davison resulted in the birth of the League
of Red Cross Societies in 1991.
A. started B. treated C. ended D. dedicated
Question 22. They decided to postpone their journey till the end of the month because of the epidemic.
A. turn round B. take up C. go ahead D. put off
Question 23: I had my motorbike repair yesterday but now it still doesn’t work.
A B C D
Question 24: A professor of economy and history at our university developed a new theory of the
A B
relationship between historical events and financial crises.
C D
Question 25: The first things a new international student must do include renting an apartment,
A B
registering for classes, and to get to know the city.
C D
Education is more important today than ever before. It helps people acquire the skills they need
for such everyday (26) ________ as reading a newspaper or managing their money. It also gives them the
specialized training they may need to prepare for a job or career. For example, a person must meet certain
educational requirements and obtain a certificate before he can practice law or medicine. Many fields,
like computer operation or police work, (27) ________ satisfactory completion of special training
courses.
Education is also important (28) ________ it helps people get more out of life. It increases their
knowledge and understanding of the world. It helps them acquire the skills that make life more interesting
and enjoyable, such as the skills needed to participate in a sport, paint a picture, or play a musical (29)
________. Such education becomes increasingly important as people gain more and more leisure time.
Education also helps people adjust to change. This habit has become necessary because social
changes today take place with increasing speed and (30) ________ the lives of more and more people.
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Education can help a person understand these changes and provide him with the skills for adjusting to
them.
Question 26. A. works B. jobs C. actions D. activities
Question 27. A. requires B. requiring C. require D. to require
Question 28. A. therefore B. despite C. although D. because
Question 29. A. appliance B. equipment C. instrument D. device
Question 30. A. effect B. affect C. affective D. effective
Most people can remember a phone number for up to thirty seconds. When this short amount of
time elapses, however, the numbers are erased from the memory. How did the information get there in
the first place? Information that makes its way to the short term memory (STM) does so via the sensory
storage area. The brain has a filter which only allows stimuli that is of immediate interest to pass on to the
STM, also known as the working memory.
There is much debate about the capacity and duration of the short term memory. The most
accepted theory comes from George A. Miller, a cognitive psychologist who suggested that humans can
remember approximately seven chunks of information. A chunk is defined as a meaningful unit of
information, such as a word or name rather than just a letter or number. Modern theorists suggest that one
can increase the capacity of the short term memory by chunking, or classifying similar information
together. By organizing information, one can optimize the STM, and improve the chances of a memory
being passed on to long term storage.
When making a conscious effort to memorize something, such as information for an exam, many
people engage in “rote rehearsal”. By repeating something over and over again, one is able to keep a
memory alive. Unfortunately, this type of memory maintenance only succeeds if there are no
interruptions. As soon as a person stops rehearsing the information, it has the tendency to disappear.
When a pen and paper are not handy, people often attempt to remember a phone number by repeating it
aloud. If the doorbell rings or the dog barks to come in before a person has the opportunity to make a
phone call, he will likely forget the number instantly. Therefore, rote rehearsal is not an efficient way to
pass information from the short term to long term memory. A better way is to practice “elaborate
rehearsal”. This involves assigning semantic meaning to a piece of information so that it can be filed
along with other pre-existing long term memories.
Encoding information semantically also makes it more retrievable. Retrieving information can be
done by recognition or recall. Humans can easily recall memories that are stored in the long term memory
and used often; however, if a memory seems to be forgotten, it may eventually be retrieved by prompting.
The more cues a person is given (such as pictures), the more likely a memory can be retrieved. This is
why multiple choice tests are often used for subjects that require a lot of memorization.
Question 31. The word “elapses” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. passes B. adds up C. appears D. continues
Question 32. According to the passage, how do memories get transferred to the STM?
A. They revert from the long term memory.
B. They are filtered from the sensory storage area.
C. They get chunked when they enter the brain.
D. They enter via the nervous system.
Question 33: All of the followings are mentioned as places in which memories are stored EXCEPT the
________.
A. short term memory B. long term memory
C. sensory storage area D. maintenance area
Question 34. Why does the author mention a dog’s bark?
A. To give an example of a type of memory
B. To provide a type of interruption
C. To prove that dogs have better memories than humans
D. To compare another sound that is loud like a doorbell
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Question 35. How do theorists believe a person can remember more information in a short time?
A. By organizing it B. By repeating it C. By drawing it D. By giving it a name
Question 36. The author believes that rote rehearsal is ________.
A. the best way to remember something B. more efficient than chunking
C. ineffective in the long run D. an unnecessary interruption
Question 37. The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to ________.
A. encoding B. STM C. semantics D. information
You can usually tell when your friends are happy or angry by the looks on their faces or by their
actions. This is useful because reading their emotional expressions helps you to know how to respond to
them. Emotions have evolved to help us respond to important situations and to convey our intentions to
others. But does raising the eyebrows and rounding the mouth say the same thing in Minneapolis as it
does in Madagascar? Much research on emotional expressions has centered on such questions.
According to Paul Ekman, the leading researcher in this area, people speak and understand
substantially the same “facial language”. Studies by Ekman’s group have demonstrated that humans share
a set of universal emotional expressions that testify to the common biological heritage of the human
species. Smiles, for example, signal happiness and frowns indicate sadness on the faces of people in such
far-flung places as Argentina, Japan, Spain, Hungary, Poland, Sumatra, the United States, Vietnam, the
jungles of New Guinea, and the Eskimo villages north of Artic Circle. Ekman and his colleagues claim
that people everywhere can recognize at least seven basic emotions: sadness, fear, anger, disgust,
contempt, happiness, and surprise. There are, however, huge differences across cultures in both the
context and intensity of emotional displays – the so called display rules. In many Asian cultures, for
example, children are taught to control emotional responses – especially negative ones – while many
American children are encouraged to express their feelings more openly. Regardless of culture, however,
emotions usually show themselves, to some degree, in people’s behavior. From their first days of life,
babies produce facial expressions that communicate their feelings.
The ability to read facial expressions develops early, too. Very young children pay close attention
to facial expressions, and by age five, they nearly equal adults in their skill at reading emotions on
people’s faces. This evidence all points to a biological underpinning for our abilities to express and
interpret a basic set of human emotions. Moreover, as Charles Darwin pointed out over a century ago,
some emotional expressions seem to appear across species boundaries. Cross-cultural psychologists tell
us that certain emotional responses carry different meanings in different cultures. For example, what
emotion do you suppose might be conveyed by sticking out your tongue? For Americans, this might
indicate disgust, while in China it can signify surprise. Likewise, a grin on an American face may
indicate joy, while on a Japanese face it may just as easily mean embarrassment. Clearly, culture
influences emotional expressions.
Question 38. The word “evolved” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. reduced B. increased C. simplified D. developed
Question 39. According to the passage, we respond to others by ________.
A. observing their looks B. watching their actions
C. observing their emotional expressions D. looking at their faces
Question 40. Many studies on emotional expressions try to answer the question whether ________.
A. different cultures have similar emotional expressions.
B. eyebrow raising means the same in Minneapolis and Madagascar.
C. raising the eyebrows has similar meaning to rounding the mouth.
D. rounding the mouth has the same meaning in Minneapolis and Madagascar.
Question 41. Paul Ekman is mentioned in the passage as an example of ________.
A. lacked many main ingredients
B. researchers on universal language
C. researchers who can speak and understand many languages
D. investigators on universal emotional expressions
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Question 42. Smiles and frowns ________.
A. are universal expressions across cultures
B. are not popular everywhere
C. do not convey the same emotions in various cultures
D. have different meanings in different cultures
Question 43. The biggest difference lies in ________.
A. how negative emotions are displayed B. how intensive emotions are expressed
C. how emotional responses are controlled D. how often positive emotions are shown
Question 44. Unlike American children, Asian children are encouraged to ________.
A. control their emotions C. display their emotions openly
B. conceal their positive emotions D. change their behaviour
Question 45. Young children ________.
A. spend a long time learning to read others’ emotions
B. are sensitive towards others’ emotions
C. make amazing progress in controlling their emotions
D. take time to control their facial expressions
Question 46. The boy was not allowed to have any friends, so he felt lonely.
A. Having no friends, the boy felt so lonely.
B. Not having friends, they made the boy feel lonely.
C. Having a lot of friends, the boy felt lonely.
D. Deprived of friends, the boy felt lonely.
Question 47. Is it essential to meet your aunt at the station?
A. Did your aunt have to be met at the station?
B. Does your aunt have to meet at the station?
C. Does your aunt have to be met at the station?
D. Was your aunt met at the station?
Question 48. She knows a lot more about it than I do.
A. I know as much about it as she does
B. I do not know as much about it as she does
C. She does not know so much about it as I do
D. I know much more about it than she does
Question 49. He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot.
A. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much.
B. I was almost not surprised by his strange behavior.
C. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved.
D. His behavior was a very strange thing, that surprised me most.
Question 50. He cannot lend me the book now. He has not finished reading it yet.
A. Having finished reading the book, he cannot lend it to me.
B. He cannot lend me the book until he has finished reading it.
C. Not having finished reading the book, he will lend it to me.
D. As long as he cannot finish reading the book, he will lend it to me.
Question 1. A. bats B. days C. dates D. speaks
Question 2. A. sugar B. supportive C. sacrifice D. secure
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Question 3. A. pressure B. crossbar C. decline D. product
Question 4. A. complement B. policeman C. substantial D. interpret
Question 5. If the world’s tropical forests continue to disappear at their present rate, many animal species
_______ extinct.
A. became B. ’d have become C. will become D. would become
Question 6. The mechanic says that he expects _______ the brakes on the car before we pick it up.
A. fixing B. being fixed C. to have fixed D. to have been fixed
Question 7. Knowing several _______ helpful if you work for an international corporation.
A. languages are B. languages is C. language is D. language are
Question 8. A newborn baby can neither walk nor crawl. A newborn antelope, _______, can run within
minutes of birth.
A. however B. nevertheless C. otherwise D. even though
Question 9. It was not until David stopped smoking _______ healthy again.
A. that he started to feel B. did he feel
C. did he start to feel D. then he felt
Question 10. With no _______ for his own safety, he jumped into the river to save the girl from
drowning.
A. thinking B. thoughtless C. thoughtfulness D. thought
Question 11. Many restaurants do not _______ their customers to bring pets into the premises.
A. require B. discourage C. permit D. insist
Question 12. Peter remained as _______ as a mouse throughout the whole lesson.
A. quiet B. idle C. frightened D. attentive
Question l3. The city centre is quite a_______ away from my house. It takes me nearly an hour to drive
there.
A. journey B. space C. length D. distance
Question 14. The bear ran away when it was _______ by the bees.
A. bitten B. stung C. pierced D. struck
Question 15. Tom had to _______ three forms and pay a fine before they allowed him to take his car
back.
A. give out B. turn up C. fill out D. put in
Question 16. The principal has _______ an urgent meeting with the teachers.
A. called for B. picked out C. turned on D. made up.
Question 17. Linh: “What have you been doing recently?” – Phuong: “_______”
A. Very tired after the exam. B. Mostly studying.
C. Really exciting. D. Keen on soccer and tennis.
Question 18. Mary: “How is your project going, Nhung?” – Nhung: “_______”
A. I’m working with John and Sally. B. What? Is it going to finish soon?
C. Great! Couldn’t be better. D. Do you really want to go?
Question 19. They searched the village but it was without any inhabitants. Everything was very quiet.
A. deserted B. remote C. barren D. isolated
Question 20. A recent survey reveals that the population density in the metropolis is decreasing.
A. proves B. displays C. imparts D. discloses
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Question 21. Using more natural resources without degrading the planet any further is this century’s
biggest challenge.
A. improving B. generating C. destroying D. preventing
Question 22. That house is occupied for three years now. It must be haunted since no one is renting or
buying it.
A. cleaned B. vacant C. taken D. absent
Question 23. Antarctic blue whales (A) can be 100 foot long (B) and weigh more than any (C) dinosaurs
that ever (D) lived.
Question 24. By the time (A) Michael arrived to help (B), we have already (C) finished moving (D)
everything.
Question 25. Psychologists are trained (A) to encourage their (B) patients to talk for (C) the things that
are causing (D) them difficulty.
The eye is a dedicate sense organ. Even the areas around our eyes get bruised easily. (26) ______
our eyes are sensitive organs, we should take extra care of them. Any type of injury to the eye can
become serious and should be (27) ______ without delay. Even if there appears to be no obvious damage
to the area, it is wise to have any eye injury evaluated by an ophthalmologist.
Eye injuries can be the (28) ______ of a laceration, a chemical burn, an embedded object in the
eye or a blow to the eye. Even a small foreign particle such as soap solution in the eye, if it is not
removed properly, can damage the eye.
Common signs and symptoms of a possible eye injury (29) ______ a visible bruise or cut, a pain
in or around the eye and sensitivity to light. The inability to keep the eye open, blurred or impaired (30)
______, constant tearing, rapid blinking and headache are also telltale signs of an injured eye.
Question 26. A. While B. Although C. Because D. Unless

Question 27. A. treated B. learned C. closed D. looked
Question 28. A. pressure B. answer C. target D. result
Question 29. A. include B. consist C. relate D. discover
Question 30. A. observation B. awareness C. disease D. vision
Early on the morning of 31 May 1928, at Oakland airfield near San Francisco, the four men
squeezed into the cramped cabin of Southern Cross. They waved goodbye to the crowd, took off and
headed westwards over the sea.
Today, an air journey of 12000 kilometres attracts very little attention. But in 1928, the first flight
across the Pacific was fraught with as much danger and risk as the first flight to the Moon 40 years later.
Instruments for navigation and communication were often unreliable, the range of aircraft was
severely limited and conditions for the crew were very uncomfortable. The crew of Southern Cross could
not even speak to each other because of the noise from the engines. They had to communicate with
scribbled notes! Morse code and a short and long wave radio transmitter were their only links with the
rest of the world. It took 27 hours for them to reach their first stop at Hawaii.
After refueling and a short rest they were airborne again, heading for Fiji, on the longest and most
dangerous section of the flight. Fiji was 5000 kilometres away and Southern Cross carried fuel for no
more than 5760 kilometres! There was little margin for navigating errors. For most of the distance there
were no weather forecasts available. No one had flown across the Pacific south of Honolulu before. It
took them 33 hours, much of the time through terrible weather.
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Ulm and Smithy took turns at the controls but Smithy did most of the flying and Ulm kept the log.
By the time they landed in Fiji - on a makeshift air field they were exhausted. They needed two days rest
before beginning the last section of their flight. It was to prove the most difficult of all. Wild storms
battered and tore at the Southern Cross. Most of the time poor visibility forced them to fly purely by
instruments. There was no other way of knowing whether the aircraft was flying straight and level,
climbing, or diving into the sea. And one of the compasses failed.
After 23 hours of anxious flying they were relieved to recognize the Australian coast south of
Ballina. Smithy turned north and landed at Brisbane’s Eagle Farm airport to the cheers of 25000 people.
Question 31. Why is Southern Cross written in italics in the passage?

A. It is the name of an air journey. B. It is the name of a plane.
C. It is the name of a navigator. D. It is the name of a flight.
Question 32. “Today, an air journey of 12000 kilometres attracts very little attention.”
What does this statement suggest about air journeys in the 1920s?
A. Air travel was not very interesting. B. The media did not usually take much notice.
C. Long distance flights were unusual. D. The crew could not contact the media.
Question 33. How long was their flight from Hawaii to Fiji?
A. 40 hours B. 33 hours C. 27 hours D. 23 hours
Question 34. “Southern Cross carried fuel for no more than 5760 kilometres!”
This means that _______.
A. they would run out of fuel if they strayed off course
B. they could not reach the destination with such fuel
C. the distance was too long and they needed refueling
D. they would have enough fuel for return when reaching Fiji
Question 35. Why did the pilots have to rely on their instruments after leaving Fiji?
A. They had no weather forecasts.
B. Their cabin was cramped and uncomfortable.
C. Their communication equipment was not reliable.
D. They could not see because of poor weather.
Question 36. What happened during the flight to show that navigation and communication equipment
was ‘unreliable’ in the 1920s?
A. One of the compasses stopped working.
B. The engines of the airplane were noisy.
C. They could only connect with the world by the radio
D. The aircraft needed refueling before heading for Fiji.
Question 37. Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The crew met a lot of difficulties during their first flight across the Pacific.
B. The weather was not good when they flew from Hawaii to Fiji.
C. They stopped twice to take on fuel during their flight across the Pacific.
D. They landed on a makeshift airfield on the Australian south coast.
The sculptural legacy that the new United States inherited from its colonial predecessors was far
from a rich one, and in fact, in 1776 sculpture as an art form was still in the hands of artisans and
craftspeople. Stone carvers engraved their motifs of skulls and crossbones and other religious icons of
death into the gray slabs that we still see standing today in old burial grounds. Some skilled craftspeople
made intricately carved wooden ornamentations for furniture or architectural decorations, while others
carved wooden shop signs and ships’ figureheads. Although they often achieved expression and formal
excellence in their generally primitive style, they remained artisans skilled in the craft of carving and
constituted a group distinct from what we normally think of as “sculptors” in today’s use of the word.
On the rare occasion when a fine piece of sculpture was desired, Americans turned to foreign
sculptors, as in the 1770s when the cities of New York and Charleston, South Carolina, commissioned the
Englishman Joseph Wilton to make marble statues of William Pitt. Wilton also made a lead equestrian
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image of King George III that was created in New York in 1770 and torn down by zealous patriots six
years later. A few marble memorials with carved busts, urns, or other decorations were produced in
England and brought to the colonies to be set in the walls of churches – as in King’s Chapel in Boston.
But sculpture as a high art, practiced by artists who knew both the artistic theory of their Renaissance-
Baroque-Rococo predecessors and the various technical procedures of modeling, casting, and carving
rich three-dimensional forms, was not known among Americans in 1776. Indeed, for many years
thereafter, the United States had two groups from which to choose – either the local craftspeople or the
imported talent of European sculptors.
The eighteenth century was not one in which powered sculptural conceptions were developed.
Add to this the timidity with which unschooled artisans – originally trained as stonemasons, carpenters,
or cabinetmakers – attacked the medium from which their sculptures were made in the United States in
the late eighteenth century.
Question 38. What is the main idea of the passage?

A. There was great demand for the work of eighteenth-century artisans.
B. Skilled sculptors did not exist in the United States in the 1770s.
C. Many foreign sculptors worked in the United States after 1776.
D. American sculptors were hampered by a lack of tools and materials.
Question 39. It is stated in the first paragraph that the sculptural legacy that the new United States had
from colonial times was _______.
A. not great B. very rich C. plentiful D. not countable
Question 40. The word “motifs” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. tools B. prints C. signatures D. designs
Question 41. The work of which of the following could be seen in burial grounds?
A. cabinetmakers B. carpenters C. stone carves D. European sculptors
Question 42. The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. skilled craftspeople B. wooden ornamentations
C. architectural decorations D. wooden shop signs
Question 43. Why does the author mention Joseph Wilton in paragraph 2?
A. He was an English sculptor who did work in the United States.
B. He was well known for his wood carvings.
C. He produced sculpture for churches.
D. He settled in the United States in 1776.
Question 44. What can be inferred about the importation of marble memorials from England?
A. Such sculpture was less expensive to produce locally than to import.
B. Such sculpture was not available in the United States.
C. Such sculpture was as prestigious as those made locally.
D. The materials found abroad were superior.
Question 45. How did the work of American carvers in 1776 differ from that of contemporary sculptors?
A. It was less time-consuming. B. It was more dangerous.
C. It was more expensive. D. It was less refined.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
Question 46. I will only work extra hours if I get paid at a higher rate.
A. I will not work extra hours even if I get paid at a higher rate.
B. Unless I get paid at a higher rate, I won’t work extra hours.
C. Working extra hours means I won’t get paid at a higher rate.
D. I get paid at a higher rate because I will work extra hours.
Question 47. Mr. Khan remembered to take everything except his front door key.
A. The only thing which Mr. Khan forgot was his front door key.
B. Mr. Khan remembered to take everything including his front door key.
C. The only thing that Mr. Khan remembered was his front door key.
D. Except his front door key, Mr. Khan forgot everything.
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Question 48. Mrs. Gibson expressed her thanks for all the help she’d received.
A. Mrs. Gibson stated that she was happy for all the help she’d received.
B. Mrs. Gibson expressed she was surprised at all the help she’d received.
C. Mrs. Gibson reported she was amused at all the help she’d received.
D. Mrs. Gibson said that she was grateful for all the help she’d received.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
Question 49. They finished one project. They started working on the next.
A. Had they finished one project, they would have started working on the next.
B. Only if they had finished one project did they start working on the next.
C. Hardly had they finished one project when they started working on the next.
D. Not until did they start working on the next project then they finished one.
Question 50. The proposal seemed like a good idea. The manager refused it.
A. The manager refused the proposal though it seemed like a good idea.
B. Since the proposal seemed like a good idea, the manager refused it.
C. The manager didn’t like to proposal because it didn’t seem a good idea.
D. The proposal didn’t seem like a good idea, so the manager didn’t accept it.
Question 1. A. fool B. move C. group D. book
Question 2. A. wholesales B. whom C. which D. heaven
Question 3. A. stomachache B. stationer C. typewriter D. adoration
Question 4. A. conference B. Canada C. magnitude D. Argentina
Question 5. Compact discs are (A) affected (B) neither by (C) scratching and (D) by dust.
Question 6. Soya beans (A) contain (B) not only vitamins and (C) also important (D) minerals.
Question 7. Symptoms of mild vitamin C deficiency may be weakness (A), irritability (B), losing weight
(C), and apathy (D).
Question 8. She went ________ a bad cold just before Christmas.
A. over B. down with C. through D. in for
Question 9. Mary was surprised when her guests ________ late for the party.
A. turned up B. came up C. looked up D. put up
Question 10. Jane ________ in such a trouble if she had been more careful.
A. will not be B. wouldn’t be C. would have been D. wouldn’t have been
Question 11. It’s high time you ________ to study seriously.
A. began B. would begin C. did begin D. begin
Question 12. Not for a moment ________ the truth of the case.
A. he doubted B. was he doubting C. he did doubt D. did he doubt
Question 13. “Get me some medicine from the aid kit, ________ you?”
A. don’t B. can C. do D. will
Question 14. He doesn’t seem to be successful ________ hard he works.
A. whatever B. although C. but D. however
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Question 15. The child was told to eat all his vegetables or ________ he would get no ice cream.
A. in case B. in fact C. instead D. else
Question 16. They received a ten-year sentence for ________ armed robbery.
A. committing B. practising C. doing D. making
Question 17. We are extremely ________ at the groundless remarks.
A. disgusting B. disgustingly C. disgusted D. disgustedly
Question 18. We would like to congratulate you ________ your winning the prize in the eloquence
contest last week.
A. in B. on C. for D. about
Question 19. When the police arrived, the building was empty. The thieves ________ and escaped
through an unlocked window.
A. will have entered B. had entered C. have entered D. entered
Question 20. “Do you mind if I open the window?” – “________”
A. Yes, it is, isn’t it? B. Yes, of course not. C. May I open it? D. I’d rather you didn’t.
Question 21. Hung: “________” – Hoa: “Thanks. I’m glad you like it. My sister gave it to me
yesterday.”
A. What a fashionable dress you are wearing!
B. Oh! I like your fashionable dress.
C. I think you have a fashionable dress.
D. Your fashionable dress must be expensive.
Question 22. The drought was finally over as the autumn brought in some welcome rain.
A. heat wave B. aridity C. harvest D. summer
Question 23. The strategy was not only to provide mass vaccinations but also to isolate patients from
active smallpox in order to constrain the spread of the disease.
A. restore B. separate C. attend D. locate
Question 24. The thieves hid their precious possessions in the well.
A. priceless B. worthless C. valuable D. invaluable
Question 25. The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years.
A. almost B. absolutely C. comparatively D. relevantly
Question 26. He hasn’t smoked a cigarette for a week.
A. It’s for a week that he hasn’t smoked a cigarette.
B. It’s a week since he hasn’t smoked a cigarette.
C. It’s a cigarette that he smoked a week ago.
D. It’s a week since he smoked a cigarette.
Question 27. No sooner had the teacher gone out than the students started making noise.
A. The students started making noise the moment the teacher went out.
B. The students started making noise because the teacher went out.
C. The students started making noise before the teacher went out.
D. The students started making noise as soon as the teachers went out.
Question 28. No matter what happens, don’t forget to write to me.
A. Don’t forget to write to me no matter what happened.
B. Don’t forget to write to me regardless of what happens.
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C. Don’t forget to write to me as soon as that happens.
D. Don’t forget to write to me about what happened.
Question 29. He tried hard. He was not successful.
A. He tried hard and he was not successful B. However hard he tried, he was not successful.
C. He tried hard, so he was not successful D. However he tried hard, he was not successful.
Question 30. He went to school late. This was annoying
A. He went to school late which was annoying
B. He went to school late, which was annoying
C. He went to school late, that was annoying
D. He went to school late that was annoying
Speech is one of the most important ways of communicating. It consists of far more than just
making noises. To talk and also to (31) ________ by other people, we have to speak a language, that is,
we have to use combinations of (32) ________ that everyone agrees to stand for a particular object or
idea. Communication would be impossible if everyone made up their own language. Learning a language
properly is very important. The basic (33) ________ of English is not very large, and not only about
2,000 words are needed to speak it quite well. But the more idea you can (34) ________, the more precise
you can be about their exact meaning. Words are the main thing we use in communicating what we want
to say. The way we (35) ________ the words is also very important. Our tone of voice can express many
emotions and (36) ________ whether we are pleased or angry, for instance.
Question 31. A. be spoken B. be examined C. be understood D. be talked

Question 32. A. systems B. sounds C. languages D. talks
Question 33. A. grammar B. word C. vocabulary D. structure
Question 34. A. need B. grow C. express D. pass
Question 35. A. talk B. say C. pass D. send
Question 36. A. show B. ask C. understand D. know
FORECASTS THAT SAVE LIVES
Being able to forecast the weather isn’t just to do with informing people about whether or not they
can go to the beach or have a picnic. When there are going to be severe weather conditions, the ability to
prepare for them can be a matter of life or death. In America, being able to see approaching hurricanes
with satellite technology and warning citizens about them is something that saves lives.
Hurricanes are very severe tropical storms which exist in several different parts of the world.
They can be found in the southern Atlantic Ocean, the Caribbean Sea, the Gulf of Mexico or in the
eastern Pacific Ocean. In the western Pacific they are called “typhoons” and in the Indian Ocean they are
called “cyclones”. A hurricane needs certain weather conditions to start forming: warm tropical oceans
with moisture and heat above them. If these conditions last long enough, then a hurricane can start to
form, producing violent winds, incredible waves, very heavy rain and floods.
Hurricanes spin in an anti-clockwise direction and they have winds of at least 120 kilometres per
hour. The centre of the hurricane is very calm and it is called the “eye”, but the most violent activity takes
place in the area immediately around the eye which is called the “eyewall”. In the Atlantic Ocean, there
are approximately six hurricanes every year and about two of these hit the coast of the USA.
When hurricanes move onto the land from the sea, the heavy rain, strong winds and huge waves
can cause unbelievable damage to buildings and trees, and cars can be picked up and thrown like
matchboxes. The greatest danger, however, is in the rise in the sea level as it hits the land. This is called
Page 58 of 64
the ‘storm surge’ and can be catastrophic. In the year 1900 in the south of the USA, the storm surge killed
6,000 people.
To measure how powerful an approaching hurricane is, meteorologists use something called the
Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Scale. This means that a hurricane coming towards the land is given a number
from 1 to 5 depending on how fast its winds are. The calmest hurricane is given the number 1 on the
scale. It is called “minimal” and it has winds from 119 - 153 kilometres per hour. Some damage will be
caused to trees and bushes and some road signs but buildings are safe. A scale 5 hurricane is called
catastrophic and has winds of 249 kilometres per hour or more. This will destroy the roofs of homes and
most buildings and cause severe damage to doors and windows, while all trees, bushes and road signs
will be blown down.
As technology has developed and we can now forecast the weather, it has meant that the advance
warnings given have greatly reduced the number of deaths caused by hurricanes. However, the damage to
property, which cannot be avoided, still costs billions of dollars to repair.
Question 37. What does ‘them’ in paragraph 1 refer to?

A. severe weather conditions B. weather forecasts
C. picnics D. hurricanes
Question 38. Where do hurricanes take place?
A. in tropical areas B. in various areas of the world
C. only in the USA D. in cold countries
Question 39. Which is the least active part of a hurricane?
A. the eyewall B. the storm surge C. the eye D. the winds
Question 40. At which point is the hurricane most dangerous?
A. when it has an eye B. when it moves out to sea
C. when it knocks down trees D. when it moves onto the land.
Question 41. What does the Saffir-Simpson Scale measure?
A. how powerful a hurricane is B. how big the waves are
C. which way a hurricane is moving D. the number of hurricanes expected
Question 42. Being able to forecast hurricane has ________.
A. reduced damage to property B. reduced the number of people killed
C. saved governments money D. helped protect trees and bushes
The growth of cities, the construction of hundreds of new factories, and the spread of railroads in
the United States before 1850 had increased the need for better illumination. But the lighting in American
homes had improved very little over that of ancient times. Through the colonial period, homes were lit
with tallow candles or with a lamp of the kind used in ancient Rome – a dish of fish oil or other animal or
vegetable oil in which a twisted rag served as a wick. Some people used lard, but they had to heat
charcoal underneath to keep it soft and burnable. The sperm whale provided superior burning oil, but this
was expensive. In 1830 a new substance called “camphene” was patented, and it proved to remain
expensive, had an unpleasant odor, and also was dangerously explosive.
Between 1830 and 1850, it seemed that the only hope for cheaper illumination in the United
States was the wider use of gas. In the 1840s, American gas manufacturers adopted improved British
techniques for producing illuminating gas from coal. But the expense of piping gas to the consumer
remained so high that until the mid-nineteenth century gas lighting was feasible only in urban areas, and
only for public buildings for the wealthy. In 1854, a Canadian doctor, Abraham Gesner, patented a
process for distilling a pitch like mineral found in New Brunswick and Nova Scotia that produced
illuminating gas and an oil that he called “kerosene” (from “keros”, the Greek word for wax, and “ene”
because it resembled camphene). Kerosene, though cheaper than camphene, had an unpleasant odor, and
Gesner never made his fortune from it. But Gesner had aroused a new hope for making illuminating oil
from a product coming out of North American mines.
Page 59 of 64
Question 43. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason why better lighting had become
necessary by the mid-nineteenth century?
A. development of railroads B. demand for better medical facilities
C. growth of cities D. increases in the number of new factories
Question 44. The phrase “served as” in paragraph 1 is closest meaning to ________.
A. differed from B. functioned as C. rested upon D. reacted to
Question 45. The word “this” in paragraph 1 refers to ________.
A. lard B. charcoal C. wick D. oil
Question 46. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a disadvantage of camphene?
A. high cost B. bad smell C. potential to explode D. greasy texture
Question 47. What can be inferred about the illuminating gas described in paragraph 2?
A. It was first developed in the United States.
B. It was not allowed to be used in public buildings.
C. It was not widely available until the mid-nineteenth century.
D. It had an unpleasant smell.
Question 48. The word “resembled” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. was similar to B. cost the same as C. was made from D. sounded like
Question 49. According to the passage, what advantage did the kerosene patented by Gesner have over
camphene?
A. Kerosene had a more pleasant smell. B. Kerosene was less expensive.
C. Kerosene burned more brightly. D. Kerosene was safer to use.
Question 50. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. fortune B. odor C. camphene D. kerosene
Question 1. A. coughed B. ploughed C. laughed D. touched
Question 2. A. miner B. mineral C. determine D. famine
Question 3. A. comfortable B. necessary C. community D. memorable
Question 4. A. property B. newspaper C. politics D. understand
Question 5. When I came back (A) I realized (B) that my camera (C) had been disappeared (D).
Question 6. It was only when (A) Mr Hoan announced (B) the result did he know (C) that he was (D) the
winner of the contest.
Question 7. He has less (A) friends in his (B) class now than (C) he had last year (D).
Question 8. The larger the apartment, the ________ the rent is.
A. expensive B. more expensive C. expensively D. most expensive
Question 9. Nam wanted to know what time ________.
A. the movie began B. the movie begins
C. does the movie begin D. did the movie begin
Question 10. I have never forgotten that village ________ I was born and grew up.
A. which B. that C. where D. when
Question 11. ________ had she opened the door than the phone rang.
A. Hardly B. No sooner C. Scarcely D. Barely
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Question 12. That beautiful girl died of an ________ morphine.
A. overweight B. overheard C. overdone D. overdose
Question 13. We usually do go by train, even though the car ________ is a lot quicker.
A. travel B. journey C. cost D. voyage
Question 14. Do you ________ your new roommate, or do you two argue?
A. keep in touch with B. get along with
C. be on good terms with D.get used to
Question 15. After months of testing, the Russian space scientists ________ a space suit that works
better than any other in history.
A. came to B. came up with C. came up to D.came out with
Question 16. Not until ________ home ________ that he had taken someone else’s bike.
A. he got / did he realize B. he got / he realized
C. he got / he did realize D. did he get / he realized
Question 17. Marie Curie, ________, was awarded a Nobel Prize for her work.
A. was the scientist who discovered radium C. whose scientific discovery of radium
B. the scientist who discovered radium D. whose scientific discovery of radium
Question 18. He found ________ to answer all the questions within the time given.
A. that impossible B. that impossibly C. it impossibly D. it impossible
Question 19. Since Elizabeth Barrett Browning’s father never approved of ________ Robert Browning,
the couple eloped to Italy where they lived and wrote.
A. her to marry B. her marrying to
C. her getting married to D. her to getting married
Question 20. Peter: “Thanks a lot for your wonderful gift.” – Mary: “________”
A. You are welcome B. Thank you C. Cheers D. Have a good day
Question 21. “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” – “________”
A. Sorry, the seat is taken. C. No, thanks.
B. Yes, I am so glad D. Yes. You can’t sit here. Go away.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. The new laws to conserve wildlife in the area will come into force next month
A. protect B. eliminate C. pollute D. contaminate
Question 23. The farmers removed some underdeveloped trees to improve the growth of the rest.
A. eliminated B. fertilized C. planted D. transferred
Question 24. He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of the crime.
A. complain B. exchange C. explain D. arrange
Question 25. When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the interviewer is saying or
asking you.
A. be related to B. be interested in C. express interest to D. pay all attention to
Question 26. If it hadn’t been for his carelessness, we would have finished the work.
A. He was careless because he hadn’t finished the work.
B. If he weren’t careful, we would finish the work.
C. If he had been more careful, we would have completed the work.
D. Because he wasn’t careless, we didn’t finish the work.
Question 27. The hostess made every effort to see that her guests got the food and drinks they wanted.
Page 61 of 64
A. The hostess was reluctant to offer her guests food and drinks.
B. The hostess did her best to please her guests.
C. The guests refused the food and drinks prepared by the hostess.
D. Neither the guests nor the hostess had food or drinks.
Question 28. “If I were you, I would not choose to write about such a sensitive topic,” the teacher said.
A. The teacher advised me against writing about such a sensitive topic.
B. The teacher advised me on writing about such a sensitive topic.
C. I was ordered by the teacher not to write about such a sensitive topic.
D. I was blamed for writing about such a sensitive topic by the teacher.
Question 29. He felt very tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
A. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
B. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
C. As the result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
D. Tired as he might feel, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
Question 30. She heard the news of the death of her father. She fainted.
A. On hearing the news of her dead father, she fainted.
B. On hearing the news of her father’s death, she fainted.
C. She fainted so she heard the news of the death of her father.
D. She fainted and then she heard the news of the death of her father.
Wind, water, air, ice and heat all work to cause erosion. As the wind blows over the land, it often
(31)_______ small grains of sand. When these grains of sand strike against solid rocks, the rocks are
slowly worn away. In this way, (32)_______ very hard rocks are worn away by the wind.
When particles of rocks or soil became loosened in any way, running water carries them down the
hillsides. Some rocks and soil particles are carried into streams and then into the sea.
Land that is covered with trees, grass and other plants wear away very slowly, and so loses very
(33)_______ of its soil. The roots of plants help to hold the rocks and soil in place. Water that falls on
grasslands runs away more slowly than water that falls on bare ground. Thus, forests and grasslands help
to slow down erosion.
Even where the land is (34)_______ covered with plants, some erosion goes on. In the spring, the
melting snow turns into a large quantity of water that then runs downhill in streams. As a stream carries
away some of the soil, the stream bed gets deeper and deeper. (35)_______ thousands of years of such
erosion, wide valleys are often formed.
Question 31: A. clean out B. picks up C. carries out D. holds out
Question 32: A. though B. still C. such D. even
Question 33: A. much B. few C. little D. many
Question 34: A. thickly B. scarcely C. thinly D. strongly
Question 35: A. After B. During C. Among D. In
In this era of increased global warming and diminishing fossil fuel supplies, we must begin to put
a greater priority on harnessing alternative energy sources. Fortunately, there are a number of readily
available, renewable resources that are both cost-effective and earth-friendly. Two such resources are
solar power and geothermal power.
Solar energy, which reaches the earth through sunlight, is so abundant that it could meet the needs
of worldwide energy consumption 6,000 times over. And solar energy is easily harnessed through the use
of photovoltaic cells that convert sunlight to electricity. In the US alone, more than 100,000 homes are
Page 62 of 64
equipped with solar electric systems in the form of solar panels or solar roof tiles. And in other parts of
the world, including many developing countries, the use of solar system is growing steadily.
Another alternative energy source, which is abundant in specific geographical areas, is geothermal
power, which creates energy by tapping heat from below the surface of the earth. Hot water and steam
that are trapped in underground pools are pumped to the surface and used to run a generator, which is
produces electricity. Geothermal energy is 50,000 times more abundant than the entire known supply of
fossil fuel resources. And as with solar power, the technology needed to utilize geothermal energy is
fairly simple. A prime example of effective geothermal use in Iceland, a region of high geothermal
activity where over 80 percent of private homes are heated by geothermal power.
Solar and geothermal energy are just two of promising renewable alternatives to conventional
energy sources. The time is long overdue to invest in the development and use of alternative energy on
global scale.
Question 36. According to the passage, why should we consider using alternative energy sources?
A. Because fossil fuels are no longer available.
B. Because global warming has increased the amount of sunlight that reaches the earth.
C. Because they are free and available worldwide.
D. Because conventional energy resources are being depleted, and they cause environmental
damage.
Question 37. Which of the following words could best replace the word “harnessing”
A. capturing B. harassing C. depleting D. exporting
Question 38. According to the passage, what can be inferred about solar roof tiles?
A. They are being used in many undeveloped countries.
B. They can convert geothermal energy to electricity.
C. They are more expensive than solar panels.
D. They contain photovoltaic cells.
Question 39. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about solar power?
A. There is very little of it available in Iceland.
B. It is being used in 100, 000 private homes worldwide.
C. It is 6,000 times more powerful than energy from fossil fuels.
D. There is enough of it to exceed the energy needs of the world.
Question 40. What can be inferred about the use of geothermal energy in Iceland?
A. It is widely used form of energy for heating homes.
B. Twenty percent of the geothermal energy created is used to heat businesses.
C. It is not effective for use in private homes.
D. It is 80 times more effective than traditional forms of energy.
Question 41. What does the author imply about alternative energy sources?
A. Many different types of alternative energy sources exist.
B. Most alternative energy sources are too impractical for private use.
C. Alternative energy is too expensive for developing countries to produce.
D. Solar and geothermal energy are the effective forms of alternative power
Question 42. What best describes the author’s purpose in writing the passage?
A. To warn people about the hazards of fossil fuel use.
B. To describe the advantages and disadvantages of alternative energy use.
C. To convince people of the benefits of developing alternative energy sources.
D. To outline the problems and solutions connected with global warming.
Question 43. What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The benefits of solar and wind power over conventional energy sources.
B. How energy resources are tapped from nature.
C. Two types of alternative energy sources that should be further utilized.
D. Examples of the use of energy sources worldwide.
Page 63 of 64
Since the world became industrialized, the number of animal species that have either become
extinct or have neared extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once roamed the
jungles in vast numbers, now number only about 2,300. By the year 2025, it is estimated that they will
become extinct. What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been
caused almost entirely by poachers who, according to some sources, are not always interested in material
gain but in personal gratification. This is an example of the callousness that is contributing to the
problem of extinction. Animals, such as Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered species, are valuable
parts of the world’s ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals must be enacted to ensure
their survival and the survival of our planet.
in an effort to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal reserves. They
then charge admission prices to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and they often must also
depend on world organizations for support. This money enables them to invest in equipment and patrols
to protect the animals. Another response to the increase in animal extinction is an international boycott
of products made from endangered species. This has had some effect, but by itself it will not prevent
animals from being hunted and killed.
Question 44. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the world “alarming” in the first
paragraph?
A. dangerous B. serious C. gripping D. distressing
Question 45. What does the word “This” in the first paragraph refers to in the passage?
A. Bengal tigers B. Killing animals for personal satisfaction
C. Interest in material gain D. The decrease in the Bengal tiger population
Question 46. The word “defray” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the
following?
A. make an investment toward B. raise
C. make a payment on D. lower
Question 47. What does the term “international boycott” in the second paragraph refer to?
A. buying and selling of animal products overseas
B. a refusal to buy animal products worldwide
C. a global increase in animal survival
D. defraying the cost of maintaining national parks
Question 48. Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude?
A. indifferent B. forgiving C. concerned D. surprised
Question 49. The above passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to present ________.
A. a problem and a solution B. a statement and an illustration
C. a comparison and contrast D. specific and general information
Question 50. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. the Bengal tiger B. international boycott
C. endangered species D. problems with industrialization
Page 64 of 64

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BỘ 13 ĐỀ

SỞ GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THAM KHẢO SỐ 1

Question 31: A. dated B. originated C. introduced D. burst

Question 36: The upbringing of highly intelligent children requires ______.

Question 44: Which area is considered one of the most industrialized?

SỞ GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THAM KHẢO SỐ 2

Question 31: What is the main topic of the passage?

Question 38: The main purpose of this passage is to _______.

Question 46: A. clean out B. picks up C. carries out D. holds out

SỞ GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THAM KHẢO SỐ 3

Question 31: A. disappeared B. vanished C. empty D. extinct

SỞ GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THAM KHẢO SỐ 4

Question 31: A. managed B. succeeded C. made D. given

Question 43: Which of the following clearly characterizes Western cartoons?

SỞ GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THAM KHẢO SỐ 5

Question 43: This passage is mainly aimed at ________.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THAM KHẢO SỐ 6

SỞ GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THAM KHẢO SỐ 8

36. The word “five” in the first paragraph refers to_________.

43. With what topic is the passage primarily concerned?

SỞ GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THAM KHẢO SỐ 9

Question 29: Who was Andrew Carnegie?

Question 36: What is the main topic of this passage?

Question 31. The word “elapses” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.

Question 38. The word “evolved” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.

Question 26. A. While B. Although C. Because D. Unless

Question 31. Why is Southern Cross written in italics in the passage?

Question 38. What is the main idea of the passage?

Question 31. A. be spoken B. be examined C. be understood D. be talked

Question 37. What does ‘them’ in paragraph 1 refer to?

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