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1.

A proposal to revise the constitution can be done by Congress upon


a vote of (a) ¾ of all its members (b) ¾ of Senate (c) ¾ of the House of
Representatives (d) people’s initiative.

2.A proposal to amend the constitution can also be done by (a) ¾ vote
of congress voting separately (b) a constitutional convention (c)
people’s initiative of at least 15% of the registered voters (d) all of the
above (e) none of the above.
3.Any amendment or revision of the constitution must be ratified by
(a) the people (b)majority of the votes cast in a referendum (c)
majority of the votes cast in a plebiscite (d) 2/3 votes of Congress (e)
none of the above
__________4.Before a justice of the Supreme Court can be charged in
Court for a criminal offense, (a) he must first be disbarred (b) he must
be impeached by Congress (c) he must be first investigated by the
Ombudsman (d) none of the above (e) all of the above
__________5. Public officers and employees must, at all times, be (a)
accountable to the people, (b) serve them with utmost responsibility,
integrity, loyalty, and efficiency (c) act with patriotism and justice, (d)
lead modest lives (e) all of the above.
`________6. Which of the following is not an impeachable official? (a)
associate justice of the Supreme Court (b) Ombudsman for Mindanao
(c) Vice-President of the Philippines (d) Comelec Commissioner (e)
none of the above.
_______7.Which of the following is not a constitutional commission?
(a) Civil Service Commission (b) Commission on Election (c)
Commission on Audit (d) Commission on Human Rights (e) all of the
above.
_______8.Which of the commissioners must posses that “proven
capacity for capacity for public administration (a) CSC (b) COA (c)
Comelec (d) CHR (e) Ombudsman
_______9. Appointments in the civil service shall be made only by
competitive examination except to positions which are (a) policy-
determining (b) primarily confidential (c) highly technical (d) none of
the above (e) all of the above.
_______10. Which of the following is not considered as double
compensation ? (a) per diem (b) incentive (c) gratuity (d) allowances
(e) all of the above
_______11. Which of the following is exempted from nepotism (a)
confidential employee (b) teachers (c) physicians (d) navy (e) all of the
above
_______12. A recently elected mayor promoted his wife as Municipal
Health officer. She has been in the service for 10 years even before
her husband got elected as mayor. Which of the following is true? (a)
he can do it since it is not covered by nepotism (b) it is not prohibited
by law since it is a promotional appointment anyway (c) it cannot be
legal since it is a nepotic appointment (d) it is within the power of the
mayor since he is the appointing authority (e) it can be validated since
the wife is qualified.
________13. Which of the following statements is false concerning
the Ombudsman of the Philippines? (a) he can be impeached (b) he is
under the control of the Supreme Court (c) investigate a justice of the
supreme court (d) suspends a treasurer of the province (e) dismisses
a governor from office.
________14. It is required that majority of its membership should be
lawyers (a) Comelec (b) COA (c) CSC (d) Sandiganbayan (e)
Ombudsman
________15.When the Comelec sits in en banc it is because (a) it has
to promulgate a decision (b) it makes its internal rules (c) it decides
an election protest (d) it cites a person in contempt (e) it enforces
election laws
________16. Unless otherwise fixed by the Commission in special
cases, the election period shall commence (a) 90 (b) 120 (c) 45 (d) 30
(e) 160 days before the day of election.
_________17. What kind of party system shall be allowed in this
country? (a) Open (b) free (c) multipartisan (d) open and free (e) free
choice of the people
_________18. On 27 June 1997, Quirino Congressman Junie Cua filed a complaint
before the Office of the Ombudsman against Governor Castillo-Co and Provincial
Engineer Virgilio Ringor. Congressman Cua alleged that in the course of its
investigation in aid of legislation, the House of Representative Committee on
Good Government chaired by him uncovered irregularities in the purchase of
heavy equipment by the Governor and the Provincial Engineer. Congressman
Cua charged that the equipment purchased was "reconditioned" instead of
"brand new" as required by resolutions of the province's Sanggunian authorizing
such purchase. In an Order 4 dated 4 July 1997, that is, a week after the complaint
was filed, Governor Castillo-Co and Provincial Engineer Ringor were placed
under preventive suspension for a period of six (6) months. Said order was
signed by Emilio A. Gonzales, III, Director, and approved by Jesus Guerrero,
Deputy Ombudsman for Luzon.
Which of the following is correct? (a) The deputy Ombudsman has no
power to suspend Co (b) It is only the Ombudsman of the Phil. Which has the
power to suspend (c) the duration of the suspension is excessive (d) The law
does not require that only the Ombudsman himself may sign the order
suspension (e) she was denied due process because she was not afforded the
opportunity to controvert the evidence against her before the order of preventive
suspension was issued.
____________19. Which of the following is not a condition required to sustain the
preventive suspension of a government employee? (a) the evidence of guilt is
strong (b) the charge involves grave misconduct (c) the charge warrant the
payment of a fine (d) the continued stay in office may prejudice the case (e) all of
the above.
____________20. On January 27, 1999, an Information was filed with the
Sandiganbayan charging petitioner Ricardo S. Inding, a member of the
Sangguniang Panlungsod of Dapitan City, with violation of Section 3(e) of
Republic Act No. 3019.The case was docketed as Criminal Case No. 25116 and
raffled to the Second Division of the Sandiganbayan.On June 2, 1999, the
petitioner filed an Omnibus Motion for the dismissal of the case for lack of
jurisdiction over the officers charged or, in the alternative, for the referral of the
case either to the Regional Trial Court or the Municipal Trial Court for appropriate
proceedings. The petitioner alleged therein that under Administrative Order No.
270 which prescribes the Rules and Regulations Implementing the Local
Government Code of 1991, he is a member of the Sangguniang Panlungsod of
Dapitan City with Salary Grade (SG) 25.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT ? (a) the Sandiganbayan
does not have jurisdiction since his salary grade is only 25 (b) the jurisdiction of
the Sandiganbayan as a trial court was made to depend not on the penalty
imposed by law on the crimes and offenses within its jurisdiction but on the rank
and salary grade of accused government officials and employees (c) The
Sandiganbayan has no jurisdiction since he is just a lowly city councilor and not
a mayor (d) The Sandiganbayan (e) members of the sangguniang panlungsod are
specifically included as among those falling within the exclusive original
jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan.
______________21. Gloria G. Lastimosa is First Assistant Provincial Prosecutor
of Cebu. Because she and the Provincial Prosecutor refused, or at any rate failed,
to file a criminal charge against a municipal mayor as ordered by the
Ombudsman, an administrative complaint for grave misconduct, insubordination,
gross neglect of duty and maliciously refraining from prosecuting crime was filed
against her and the Provincial Prosecutor and a charge for indirect contempt was
brought against them, both in the Office of the Ombudsman.
Which of the following is Not true? (a) the Ombudsman cannot suspend her
as she is under the Secretary of Justice (b) she cannot be compelled to file a
criminal case since she is convinced that there is no probable cause (c) she can
be placed under preventive suspension by the Ombudsman (d) Office of the
Ombudsman has no jurisdiction over the case against the mayor because the
crime involved (rape) was not committed in relation to a public office. For this
reason it is argued that the Office of the Ombudsman has no authority to place
her and Provincial Prosecutor Kintanar under preventive suspension for refusing
to follow his orders and to cite them for indirect contempt for such refusal (e) The
Prosecutor can be designated or deputized to assist the Ombudsman and shall
then be under his supervision and control.
_____________22. Which of the following statements is correct concerning
impeachment proceedings? (a) That a fiscal or other prosecuting officer should
forthwith and motu proprio dismiss any charges brought against an impeachable
official (b) The remedy of a person with a legitimate grievance against the
President is to file impeachment proceedings (c) A Member of the Supreme Court
must first be removed from office via the constitutional route of impeachment
(d) Judgment in cases of impeachment shall not extend further than removal from
office and disqualification to hold any office under the Republic of the
Philippines(e) all of the above
_______________23. On November 18, 2002 an administrative complaint for
Misconduct and Neglect of Duty5 was filed by the employees of the Provincial
Government of Tawi-Tawi against respondent Laja, in his capacity as Provincial
Treasurer, in connection with the non-remittance of their contributions to the
Government Service Insurance System (GSIS) for the years 1998 to 2001 which
resulted in the denial of their loan applications. Thereafter, on November 29, 2002,
a similar administrative complaint 6 for Dishonesty, Oppression and Violation of
Republic Act (R.A.) No. 6713, otherwise known as Code of Conduct and Ethical
Standards for Public Officials and Employees, was filed by former employees of
the Provincial Government of Tawi-Tawi against said respondent in connection
with the non-remittance of their GSIS contributions which resulted in the
deduction of the corresponding amounts from their retirement benefits.These two
cases were subsequently consolidated and submitted for resolution.The Office of
the Ombudsman for Mindanao proceeded to hear both cases and in a Joint
Decision dated April 15, 2004 dismissed him from service.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT? (a) respondent does not
have a vested right to hold public office and that decisions imposing
administrative sanctions in administrative disciplinary cases are ‘executory’
pending appeal (b) petitioner’s authority and jurisdiction to order his dismissal is
merely ‘recommendatory’ under the Constitution. (c) decisions of the Office of the
Ombudsman in administrative cases imposing the penalty of dismissal shall be
final and unappealable hence, immediately executory (d) The OMB has the power
to directly impose the penalty of removal, suspension, demotion, fine, censure, or
prosecution of a public officer or employee found to be at fault, (e) An appeal
timely filed will not stay the immediate implementation of the decision of
dismissal
_____________24. The Office of the Ombudsman shall have
disciplinary authority over all elective and appointive officials of the
Government and its subdivisions, instrumentalities and agencies
EXCEPT (a) members of the cabinet (b) head of government owned
corporations (c) justice of the court of appeals (d) members of
Congress (e) Deputy Ombudsman
_____________25. In its Minute Resolution No. 96-3076 of 29 October
1996, the Commission on Elections (COMELEC) resolved to file an
information for violation of Section 261(i) of the Omnibus
Election Code against private respondents Diosdada Amor, a public
school principal, and Esbel Chua and Ruben Magluyoan, both public
school teachers, for having engaged in partisan political activities.The
penalty for said offenses is less than six years.
Which of the following is true? (a) the cases shall be filed before
the Comelec Manila since they are election related offenses (b) it
should be filed before the Regional Trial Court of said province (c) it
should be filed before the Municipal Trial Court (d) it is only the
COMELEC en banc which has jurisdiction (e) it should be first filed
before the Prosecutors office for preliminary investigation
____________26. Mr. x and y are candidates for a Barangay captain
position. Mr. X won by a margin of 3 votes only. Mr. Y comes to you
for advice. Which advice is correct? (a) He can file an election protest
before the Regional Trial Court on the ground of electoral fraud (b) he
can filed the protest only before the Municipal Trial Court (c) the
protest can also be filed before the Comelec itself (d) any of his loyal
supporter can file an election protest against Mr. x (e) his wife can
also file an election protest proceeding questioning the citizenship of
Mr x.
___________27. This petition originated from a case filed by private respondent
on March 21, 2001 for the disqualification of petitioner Nestor Magno as
mayoralty candidate of San Isidro, Nueva Ecija during the May 14, 2001 elections
on the ground that petitioner was previously convicted by the Sandiganbayan of
four counts of direct bribery penalized under Article 210 of the Revised Penal
Code. It appears that on July 25, 1995, petitioner was sentenced to suffer the
indeterminate penalty of 3 months and 11 days of arresto mayor as minimum to 1
year 8 months and 21 days of prision correccional as maximum, for each of the
four counts of direct bribery. Thereafter, petitioner applied for probation and was
discharged on March 5, 1998 upon order of the Regional Trial Court of Gapan,
Nueva Ecija.
Which of the following statement is legally correct? (a) the (COMELEC)
correctly disqualified him from running for the position of mayor (b) Petitioner
argues that direct bribery is not a crime involving moral turpitude (c) Petitioner
already served his sentence as of March 5, 1998 when he was discharged from
probation. Such being the case, the two-year disqualification period imposed by
Section 40 of the Local Government Code expired on March 5, 2000. Thus,
petitioner was qualified to run in the 2001 elections. (d) There appears to be a
glaring incompatibility between the five-year disqualification period provided in
Section 12 of the Omnibus Election Code and the two-year disqualification period
in Section 40 of the Local Government Code.(e) The intent of the legislature to
reduce the disqualification period of candidates for local positions from five to
two years is not evident.
___________28.Which of the following statements about the CSC is NOT correct?
(a) Civil Service Commission has no power of appointment except over its own
personnel. (b) Neither does it have the authority to review the appointments made
by other offices except only to ascertain if the appointee possesses the required
qualifications.(c) The determination of who among aspirants with the minimum
statutory qualifications should be preferred belongs to the CSC (d) Appointment
is a highly discretionary act that even this Court cannot compel (e) While the act
of appointment may in proper cases be the subject of mandamus, the selection
itself of the appointee - taking into account the totality of his qualifications,
including those abstract qualities that define his personality - is the prerogative
of the appointing authority.
____________29. Atty. Augusto Toledo was appointed by then
Comelec Chairman Ramon Felipe as Manager of the Education and
Information Department of the Comelec, on May 21, 1986. At the time
of his appointment, petitioner, having been born on July 8, 1927 was
already more than fifty-seven (57) years old. It was the first time
petitioner joined the government service as he was then engaged in
active private practice prior to said appointment.
Which of the following is correct? (a) his appointment is valid since
he is a lawyer (b) he is not qualified since CSC regulation
particulary Section 5, Rule VI of those Revised Civil Service Rules
provided that:" No person shall be appointed or reinstated in the
service if he is already 57 years old (c) his appointment is valid since
the CSC regulation is unconstitutional (d) the appointment then of
Atty. Toledo was made in violation of law and pursuant to Section 7,
Rule III of the Civil Service Rules on Personnel Action, the
appointment was void from the beginning (e) his appointment must
be valid as age does not really matter.
__________30. An auditing team from the COA Regional Office No. VIII in
Candahug, Palo, Leyte, audited the accounts of the Catbalogan Water District
(“CWD”) in Catbalogan, Samar. The auditing team discovered that between May
to December 1997 and April to June 1998, members of CWD’s interim Board of
Directors (“Board”) granted themselves the following benefits: Representation
and Transportation Allowance (“RATA”), Rice Allowance, Productivity Incentive
Bonus, Anniversary Bonus, Year-End Bonus and cash gifts. These allowances
and bonuses were authorized under Resolution No. 313, series of 1995, of the
Local Water Utilities Administration (“LWUA”).
10. Police Officer John invited Tulio in connection with the death of
Sander and two other robbery cases reported in Lucena City.During
their conversation Tulio explicitly recounted what had transpired
regarding Sander’s death. Is the narration of Tulio admissible as
evidence against him?
A: The narration is inadmissible. The prohibition is reinforced in R.A.
7438 whichprotects the rights of persons under custodial
investigation … as including the practice of issuing an invitation to a
person who is investigated in connection with an offense he is
suspected to have committed (PP. V. Tan G.R. No. 117321, Feb. 11,
1998).
11.While in police custody, the accused verbally and spontaneously
admitted his guilt and pointed out the mastermind of the robbery. Is
his statement admissible as evidence?
ANSWER: Yes, because constitutional procedures on custodial
investigation do not apply to a spontaneous statement, not elicited
through questioning by the authorities, but given in an ordinary
manner whereby the accused orally admitted having committed the
crime—as in the case at bar. (Pp. v. Cabiles, G.R. No. 112035, Jan. 16,
1995).
12.While in the custody for violation of Dangerous DrugsAct, the
accused, unassisted by counsel, wrote his name on the rolled
marijuana cigarettes that had been seized from him. Are the marked
cigarettes admissible in evidence?
ANSWER: No. Accused’s act of writing his name on the cigarettes
amounted to an admission of his culpability without the assistance of
counsel. The cigarettes are inadmissible. (Pp. v. Enrique Jr. GR. No.
90738, Dec. 8, 1991).
_1.A proposal to revise the constitution can be done by Congress
upon a vote of (a) ¾ of all its members (b) ¾ of Senate (c) ¾ of the
House of Representatives (d) people’s initiative.
_________2.A proposal to amend the constitution can also be done by
(a) ¾ vote of congress voting separately (b) a constitutional
convention (c) people’s initiative of at least 15% of the registered
voters (d) all of the above (e) none of the above.
_________3.Any amendment or revision of the constitution must be
ratified by (a) the people (b)majority of the votes cast in a referendum
(c) majority of the votes cast in a plebiscite (d) 2/3 votes of Congress
(e) none of the above
__________4.Before a justice of the Supreme Court can be charged in
Court for a criminal offense, (a) he must first be disbarred (b) he must
be impeached by Congress (c) he must be first investigated by the
Ombudsman (d) none of the above (e) all of the above
__________5. Public officers and employees must, at all times, be (a)
accountable to the people, (b) serve them with utmost responsibility,
integrity, loyalty, and efficiency (c) act with patriotism and justice, (d)
lead modest lives (e) all of the above.
`________6. Which of the following is not an impeachable official? (a)
associate justice of the Supreme Court (b) Ombudsman for Mindanao
(c) Vice-President of the Philippines (d) Comelec Commissioner (e)
none of the above.
_______7.Which of the following is not a constitutional commission?
(a) Civil Service Commission (b) Commission on Election (c)
Commission on Audit (d) Commission on Human Rights (e) all of the
above.
_______8.Which of the commissioners must posses that “proven
capacity for capacity for public administration (a) CSC (b) COA (c)
Comelec (d) CHR (e) Ombudsman
_______9. Appointments in the civil service shall be made only by
competitive examination except to positions which are (a) policy-
determining (b) primarily confidential (c) highly technical (d) none of
the above (e) all of the above.
_______10. Which of the following is not considered as double
compensation ? (a) per diem (b) incentive (c) gratuity (d) allowances
(e) all of the above
_______11. Which of the following is exempted from nepotism (a)
confidential employee (b) teachers (c) physicians (d) navy (e) all of the
above
_______12. A recently elected mayor promoted his wife as Municipal
Health officer. She has been in the service for 10 years even before
her husband got elected as mayor. Which of the following is true? (a)
he can do it since it is not covered by nepotism (b) it is not prohibited
by law since it is a promotional appointment anyway (c) it cannot be
legal since it is a nepotic appointment (d) it is within the power of the
mayor since he is the appointing authority (e) it can be validated since
the wife is qualified.
________13. Which of the following statements is false concerning
the Ombudsman of the Philippines? (a) he can be impeached (b) he is
under the control of the Supreme Court (c) investigate a justice of the
supreme court (d) suspends a treasurer of the province (e) dismisses
a governor from office.
________14. It is required that majority of its membership should be
lawyers (a) Comelec (b) COA (c) CSC (d) Sandiganbayan (e)
Ombudsman
________15.When the Comelec sits in en banc it is because (a) it has
to promulgate a decision (b) it makes its internal rules (c) it decides
an election protest (d) it cites a person in contempt (e) it enforces
election laws
________16. Unless otherwise fixed by the Commission in special
cases, the election period shall commence (a) 90 (b) 120 (c) 45 (d) 30
(e) 160 days before the day of election.
_________17. What kind of party system shall be allowed in this
country? (a) Open (b) free (c) multipartisan (d) open and free (e) free
choice of the people
_________18. On 27 June 1997, Quirino Congressman Junie Cua filed a complaint
before the Office of the Ombudsman against Governor Castillo-Co and Provincial
Engineer Virgilio Ringor. Congressman Cua alleged that in the course of its
investigation in aid of legislation, the House of Representative Committee on
Good Government chaired by him uncovered irregularities in the purchase of
heavy equipment by the Governor and the Provincial Engineer. Congressman
Cua charged that the equipment purchased was "reconditioned" instead of
"brand new" as required by resolutions of the province's Sanggunian authorizing
such purchase. In an Order 4 dated 4 July 1997, that is, a week after the complaint
was filed, Governor Castillo-Co and Provincial Engineer Ringor were placed
under preventive suspension for a period of six (6) months. Said order was
signed by Emilio A. Gonzales, III, Director, and approved by Jesus Guerrero,
Deputy Ombudsman for Luzon.
Which of the following is correct? (a) The deputy Ombudsman has no
power to suspend Co (b) It is only the Ombudsman of the Phil. Which has the
power to suspend (c) the duration of the suspension is excessive (d) The law
does not require that only the Ombudsman himself may sign the order
suspension (e) she was denied due process because she was not afforded the
opportunity to controvert the evidence against her before the order of preventive
suspension was issued.
____________19. Which of the following is not a condition required to sustain the
preventive suspension of a government employee? (a) the evidence of guilt is
strong (b) the charge involves grave misconduct (c) the charge warrant the
payment of a fine (d) the continued stay in office may prejudice the case (e) all of
the above.
____________20. On January 27, 1999, an Information was filed with the
Sandiganbayan charging petitioner Ricardo S. Inding, a member of the
Sangguniang Panlungsod of Dapitan City, with violation of Section 3(e) of
Republic Act No. 3019.The case was docketed as Criminal Case No. 25116 and
raffled to the Second Division of the Sandiganbayan.On June 2, 1999, the
petitioner filed an Omnibus Motion for the dismissal of the case for lack of
jurisdiction over the officers charged or, in the alternative, for the referral of the
case either to the Regional Trial Court or the Municipal Trial Court for appropriate
proceedings. The petitioner alleged therein that under Administrative Order No.
270 which prescribes the Rules and Regulations Implementing the Local
Government Code of 1991, he is a member of the Sangguniang Panlungsod of
Dapitan City with Salary Grade (SG) 25.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT ? (a) the Sandiganbayan
does not have jurisdiction since his salary grade is only 25 (b) the jurisdiction of
the Sandiganbayan as a trial court was made to depend not on the penalty
imposed by law on the crimes and offenses within its jurisdiction but on the rank
and salary grade of accused government officials and employees (c) The
Sandiganbayan has no jurisdiction since he is just a lowly city councilor and not
a mayor (d) The Sandiganbayan (e) members of the sangguniang panlungsod are
specifically included as among those falling within the exclusive original
jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan.
______________21. Gloria G. Lastimosa is First Assistant Provincial Prosecutor
of Cebu. Because she and the Provincial Prosecutor refused, or at any rate failed,
to file a criminal charge against a municipal mayor as ordered by the
Ombudsman, an administrative complaint for grave misconduct, insubordination,
gross neglect of duty and maliciously refraining from prosecuting crime was filed
against her and the Provincial Prosecutor and a charge for indirect contempt was
brought against them, both in the Office of the Ombudsman.
Which of the following is Not true? (a) the Ombudsman cannot suspend her
as she is under the Secretary of Justice (b) she cannot be compelled to file a
criminal case since she is convinced that there is no probable cause (c) she can
be placed under preventive suspension by the Ombudsman (d) Office of the
Ombudsman has no jurisdiction over the case against the mayor because the
crime involved (rape) was not committed in relation to a public office. For this
reason it is argued that the Office of the Ombudsman has no authority to place
her and Provincial Prosecutor Kintanar under preventive suspension for refusing
to follow his orders and to cite them for indirect contempt for such refusal (e) The
Prosecutor can be designated or deputized to assist the Ombudsman and shall
then be under his supervision and control.
_____________22. Which of the following statements is correct concerning
impeachment proceedings? (a) That a fiscal or other prosecuting officer should
forthwith and motu proprio dismiss any charges brought against an impeachable
official (b) The remedy of a person with a legitimate grievance against the
President is to file impeachment proceedings (c) A Member of the Supreme Court
must first be removed from office via the constitutional route of impeachment
(d) Judgment in cases of impeachment shall not extend further than removal from
office and disqualification to hold any office under the Republic of the
Philippines(e) all of the above
_______________23. On November 18, 2002 an administrative complaint for
Misconduct and Neglect of Duty5 was filed by the employees of the Provincial
Government of Tawi-Tawi against respondent Laja, in his capacity as Provincial
Treasurer, in connection with the non-remittance of their contributions to the
Government Service Insurance System (GSIS) for the years 1998 to 2001 which
resulted in the denial of their loan applications. Thereafter, on November 29, 2002,
a similar administrative complaint 6 for Dishonesty, Oppression and Violation of
Republic Act (R.A.) No. 6713, otherwise known as Code of Conduct and Ethical
Standards for Public Officials and Employees, was filed by former employees of
the Provincial Government of Tawi-Tawi against said respondent in connection
with the non-remittance of their GSIS contributions which resulted in the
deduction of the corresponding amounts from their retirement benefits.These two
cases were subsequently consolidated and submitted for resolution.The Office of
the Ombudsman for Mindanao proceeded to hear both cases and in a Joint
Decision dated April 15, 2004 dismissed him from service.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT? (a) respondent does not
have a vested right to hold public office and that decisions imposing
administrative sanctions in administrative disciplinary cases are ‘executory’
pending appeal (b) petitioner’s authority and jurisdiction to order his dismissal is
merely ‘recommendatory’ under the Constitution. (c) decisions of the Office of the
Ombudsman in administrative cases imposing the penalty of dismissal shall be
final and unappealable hence, immediately executory (d) The OMB has the power
to directly impose the penalty of removal, suspension, demotion, fine, censure, or
prosecution of a public officer or employee found to be at fault, (e) An appeal
timely filed will not stay the immediate implementation of the decision of
dismissal
_____________24. The Office of the Ombudsman shall have
disciplinary authority over all elective and appointive officials of the
Government and its subdivisions, instrumentalities and agencies
EXCEPT (a) members of the cabinet (b) head of government owned
corporations (c) justice of the court of appeals (d) members of
Congress (e) Deputy Ombudsman
_____________25. In its Minute Resolution No. 96-3076 of 29 October
1996, the Commission on Elections (COMELEC) resolved to file an
information for violation of Section 261(i) of
the Omnibus Election Code against private respondents Diosdada
Amor, a public school principal, and Esbel Chua and Ruben
Magluyoan, both public school teachers, for having engaged in
partisan political activities.The penalty for said offenses is less than
six years.
Which of the following is true? (a) the cases shall be filed before
the Comelec Manila since they are election related offenses (b) it
should be filed before the Regional Trial Court of said province (c) it
should be filed before the Municipal Trial Court (d) it is only the
COMELEC en banc which has jurisdiction (e) it should be first filed
before the Prosecutors office for preliminary investigation
____________26. Mr. x and y are candidates for a Barangay captain
position. Mr. X won by a margin of 3 votes only. Mr. Y comes to you
for advice. Which advice is correct? (a) He can file an election protest
before the Regional Trial Court on the ground of electoral fraud (b) he
can filed the protest only before the Municipal Trial Court (c) the
protest can also be filed before the Comelec itself (d) any of his loyal
supporter can file an election protest against Mr. x (e) his wife can
also file an election protest proceeding questioning the citizenship of
Mr x.
___________27. This petition originated from a case filed by private respondent
on March 21, 2001 for the disqualification of petitioner Nestor Magno as
mayoralty candidate of San Isidro, Nueva Ecija during the May 14, 2001 elections
on the ground that petitioner was previously convicted by the Sandiganbayan of
four counts of direct bribery penalized under Article 210 of the Revised Penal
Code. It appears that on July 25, 1995, petitioner was sentenced to suffer the
indeterminate penalty of 3 months and 11 days of arresto mayor as minimum to 1
year 8 months and 21 days of prision correccional as maximum, for each of the
four counts of direct bribery. Thereafter, petitioner applied for probation and was
discharged on March 5, 1998 upon order of the Regional Trial Court of Gapan,
Nueva Ecija.
Which of the following statement is legally correct? (a) the (COMELEC)
correctly disqualified him from running for the position of mayor (b) Petitioner
argues that direct bribery is not a crime involving moral turpitude (c) Petitioner
already served his sentence as of March 5, 1998 when he was discharged
from probation. Such being the case, the two-year disqualification period
imposed by Section 40 of the Local Government Code expired on March 5, 2000.
Thus, petitioner was qualified to run in the 2001 elections. (d) There appears to be
a glaring incompatibility between the five-year disqualification period provided in
Section 12 of the Omnibus Election Code and the two-year disqualification period
in Section 40 of the Local Government Code.(e) The intent of the legislature to
reduce the disqualification period of candidates for local positions from five to
two years is not evident.
___________28.Which of the following statements about the CSC is NOT correct?
(a) Civil Service Commission has no power of appointment except over its own
personnel. (b) Neither does it have the authority to review the appointments made
by other offices except only to ascertain if the appointee possesses the required
qualifications.(c) The determination of who among aspirants with the minimum
statutory qualifications should be preferred belongs to the CSC (d) Appointment
is a highly discretionary act that even this Court cannot compel (e) While the act
of appointment may in proper cases be the subject of mandamus, the selection
itself of the appointee - taking into account the totality of his qualifications,
including those abstract qualities that define his personality - is the prerogative
of the appointing authority.
____________29. Atty. Augusto Toledo was appointed by then
Comelec Chairman Ramon Felipe as Manager of the Education and
Information Department of the Comelec, on May 21, 1986. At the time
of his appointment, petitioner, having been born on July 8, 1927 was
already more than fifty-seven (57) years old. It was the first time
petitioner joined the government service as he was then engaged in
active private practice prior to said appointment.
Which of the following is correct? (a) his appointment is valid since
he is a lawyer (b) he is not qualified since CSC regulation
particulary Section 5, Rule VI of those Revised Civil Service Rules
provided that:" No person shall be appointed or reinstated in the
service if he is already 57 years old (c) his appointment is valid since
the CSC regulation is unconstitutional (d) the appointment then of
Atty. Toledo was made in violation of law and pursuant to Section 7,
Rule III of the Civil Service Rules on Personnel Action, the
appointment was void from the beginning (e) his appointment must
be valid as age does not really matter.
__________30. An auditing team from the COA Regional Office No. VIII in
Candahug, Palo, Leyte, audited the accounts of the Catbalogan Water District
(“CWD”) in Catbalogan, Samar. The auditing team discovered that between May
to December 1997 and April to June 1998, members of CWD’s interim Board of
Directors (“Board”) granted themselves the following benefits: Representation
and Transportation Allowance (“RATA”), Rice Allowance, Productivity Incentive
Bonus, Anniversary Bonus, Year-End Bonus and cash gifts. These allowances
and bonuses were authorized under Resolution No. 313, series of 1995, of the
Local Water Utilities Administration (“LWUA”).
Which of the following is correct? (a) The allowances are valid because the CWD
is not a government owned corporation(b) the COA usurped the functions of the
LWUA in construing PD 198 and disallowing payment of the additional
allowances and bonuses(c) The allowances and bonuses are illegal on the
ground that they run counter to Section 13 of Presidential Decree No. 198 (d) The
allowances which are illegally received must be returned (e) it is the Department
of Budget and Management (“DBM”), not the COA, that has the power to
administer the compensation and classification system of the government
service and to revise it as necessary.
_________31. Which of the following does not enjoy fiscal autonomy? (a) COA (b) CSC
(c) CHR (d) SC (e) COMELEC
_________32.Which of the following does NOT have jurisdiction over inclusion
proceedings? (a) MTC (b)MCTC (c) Metropolitan Trial Courts (d) Regional Trial
Court (e) City Courts
_______`33.. Which of the following is not a ground for impeachment? (a)
Violation of the constitution (b) graft (c) bribery (c) treason (d) corruption (e) all of
the above.
_________34.Which of the following is exempt from competitive examinations? (a) city
legal officer (b) highly technical position (c) primarily confidential (d) policy
determining (e) all of the above
__________35.Which has jurisdiction to the election contest concerning a Barangay
kagawad? (a) DILG (b) courts of limited jurisdiction (c) courts of general jurisdiction (d)
COMELEC (e) none of the above
__________36.Election cases shall be heard by (a) Comelec En banc (b) Comelec in
division (c) Electoral Tribunals (d) all of the above (e) none of the above.
__________37.Election contests decided by the Municipal Trial Courts shall be
appealable to the (a) Regional Trial Court (b) Comelec en banc (c) Comelec in a
division (d) Supreme Court on certiorari (e) Court of Appeals
__________38. Which vote in the House of Representatives is enough to constitute the
Articles of Impeachment? (a) majority (b) one-third (c) two-third (d) three-fourth (e) none
of the above
__________39. A proposal to amend the Constitution by modifying
Sections 1-7 of Article VI (Legislative Department) and Sections
1-4 of Article VII (Executive Department) cannot be done through
(a) constituent assembly (b) constitutional convention  (c) people’s
initiative (d) ¾ vote of Congress (e) all of the above.
________40.Which of the following is NOT correct? (a) Congress
or a constitutional convention can propose both amendments and
revisions to the Constitution (b) the initiative must be “directly
proposed by the people through initiative upon a petition (c) The
Constitution entrusts to the people the power to directly propose
amendments to the Constitution (d) An initiative that gathers
signatures from the people without first showing to the people the
full text of the proposed amendments is most likely a
deception (e)Article XVII of the Constitution speaks of two modes
of amending the Constitution.
________41.Which of the following is CORRECT? (a) The
framers intended, and wrote, that only Congress or a
constitutional convention may propose revisions to the
Constitution (b) The framers intended, and wrote, that a people’s
initiative may propose only amendments to the Constitution  (c) the
people cannot propose revisions even as they are empowered to
propose amendments (d) a revision of the Constitution may be accomplished
only through ratification by the people of a revised constitution proposed by a
convention called for that purpose (e) all of the above
___________42. Which of the following is NOT correct? (a)  Revision
broadly
implies a change that alters a basic principle in the constitution (b)
altering the principle of separation of powers or the system of
checks-and-balances is a form of revision (c) amendment
generally affects only the specific provision being amended (d)
Revision generally affects several provisions of the
constitution (e) A shift from the present Bicameral-Presidential
system to a Unicameral-Parliamentary system is an amendment
of the Constitution.
_________43.Which of the following is CORRECT? (A)  It has been a
settled rule that it is mandatory for the Sandigabayan to place under preventive
suspension a public officer accused before it (B) The imposition of suspension is not
automatic or self-operative since the accused is given adequate opportunity to
challenge the validity or regularity of the criminal proceedings against him (C) once
proper determination of the validity of the Information has been made, it becomes the
ministerial duty of the court to forthwith issue the order of preventive suspension (D)
after upholding the validity of the Informations against the accused the Sandiganbayan
can order their preventive suspension for a period of ninety (90) days (E) all of the
above.
____________44. Respondents were employed at the Office of the Southern Cultural
Communities (OSCC), Davao del Sur, Provincial Office, Digos, Davao del Sur with
salaries below grade 27. They were charged with 11 counts of malversation through
falsification, based on alleged purchases of medicine and food assistance for cultural
community members, and one count of violation of R.A. No. 3019, §3(e), in connection
with the purchases of supplies for the OSCC without bidding/canvass. As none of the
respondents has the “rank” required under R.A. No. 8249 to be tried for the said crimes
in the Sandiganbayan, the informations were filed by the Ombudsman in the Regional
Trial Court of Digos, Davao del Sur.
Which of the following is NOT correct? (a) the Ombudsman has no authority to
prosecute graft cases falling within the jurisdiction of regular courts (b) the Office of the
Ombudsman is authorized to investigate and prosecute all cases involving public
officials and employees, without distinction as to their rank and the nature of their act or
omission (c) the Ombudsman has powers to prosecute not only graft cases within the
jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan but also those cognizable by the regular courts (d)
The power to investigate and to prosecute granted by law to the Ombudsman is plenary
and unqualified (e) that the powers granted by the legislature to the Ombudsman are
very broad and encompass all kinds of malfeasance, misfeasance and non-feasance
committed by public officers and employees during their tenure of office.
________45. Petitioner was proclaimed Mayor of Gloria, Oriental Mindoro during the
May 8, 1995 elections.In the same elections, private respondent was proclaimed Vice-
Mayor of the same municipality.On May 19, 1995, petitioner’s rival candidate, the late
Nicolas M. Jamilla, filed an election protest before the Regional Trial Court of
Pinamalayan, Oriental Mindoro.During the pendency of said contest, Jamilla died.
Which of the following is not Correct? (a) the election protest is personal in nature
hence the death of the protestant extinguishes the case itself (b) An election contest
involves not merely conflicting private aspirations but is imbued with paramount public
interests (c) the petitioner’s cessation in office is not a ground for the dismissal of the
contest nor detract the Courts jurisdiction to decide the case (d) public policy demands
that an election contest, duly commenced, be not abated by the death of the petitioner
(e) Vice Mayor elect has the status of a real party in interest in the continuation of the
proceedings and is entitled to intervene therein
__________46.Which of the following is correct? (a) impeachment proceedings are
outside the scope of judicial review (b) impeachment is a political action which cannot
assume a judicial character (c) the Senate’s “sole power to try” impeachment cases (1)
entirely excludes the application of judicial review over it (d) none of the above (e) all of
the above
__________47.Which of the following is considered as a limitation on the power
to impeach? (a) the manner of filing (b) required vote to impeach (c) one year bar on
the impeachment of one and the same official. (d) none of the above (e) all of the above
__________48.Which of the following is considered as a limitation of the power of
judicial review? (a) an actual case or controversy calling for the exercise of judicial
power; (b) the person challenging the act must have a personal and substantial interest
in the case such that he has sustained, or will sustain, direct injury as a result of its
enforcement; (c) the question of constitutionality must be raised at the earliest possible
opportunity; and (d) the issue of constitutionality must be the very lis mota of the
case (e) all of the above
___________49.Which of the following cannot be considered as a legal standing of a
taxpayer? (a) where there is a claim that public funds are illegally disbursed (b) that
public money is being deflected to any improper purpose (c) that there is a wastage of
public funds through the enforcement of an invalid or unconstitutional law (d) that he
has sufficient interest in preventing the illegal expenditure of money raised by
taxation (e) that he has a general interest common to all members of the public.
___________50.Which of the following DOES NOT describe a “political question? (a)
connotes, in legal parlance, what it means in ordinary parlance, namely, a question of
policy (b) it refers to “those questions which, under the Constitution, are to be decided
by the people in their sovereign capacity (c) in regard to which full discretionary
authority has been delegated to the Legislature or executive branch of the Government
(d) It is concerned with issues dependent upon the wisdom, of a particular measure (e)
it is concerned with the legality of the law itself.
9. The jurisdiction of the ICC is “ ratione temporis”. This means that (a) its
jurisdiction is temporary or optional (b) its jurisdiction attaches only with
respect to crimes committed after becoming a state party (c) jurisdiction
attaches even to non-member states (d) that a state may accept jurisdiction
and waive immunity (e) that the Court has jurisdiction only with respect to
crimes committed after the entry of force of the Rome Statute.
10.Articel 20 of the Rome statute speaks about “Ne Bis in Idem”. This
means that (a) no person shall be tried before the Court with respect to
conduct which formed the basis of crimes for which the person has been
convicted or acquitted by the Court (b) No person shall be tried by another
court for a crime for which that person has already been convicted or
acquitted by the Court(c) no person shall be put twice in jeopardy for the
same offence (d) all of the above (e) none of the above.
11.The International Criminal Court shall use what applicable law? (a) the
Rome Statute (b) treaties (b) international law of armed conflict (c) national
laws of states (d) apply principles and rules of law as interpreted in its
previous decisions (e) all of the above.
12. Under the Rome Statute, the principle of nullum crimen sine lege is
defined. Which of the following is not a definition of said principle? (a) A
person shall not be criminally responsible under this Statute unless the
conduct in question constitutes, at the time it takes place, a crime within
the jurisdiction of the Court (b) A person shall be criminally responsible
under this Statute unless the conduct in question constitutes, at the time it
takes place, a crime within the jurisdiction of its national law (c) The
definition of a crime shall be strictly construed and shall not be extended
by analogy. (d) In case of ambiguity, the definition shall be interpreted in
favor of the person being investigated, prosecuted or convicted (e)A
person convicted by the Court may be punished only in accordance with
this Statute.

13.Which principle states that “In the event of a change in the law
applicable to a given case prior to a final judgement, the law more
favourable to the person being investigated, prosecuted or convicted shall
apply” ? (a) Nulla poena sine lege (b) Nullum crimen sine lege (c) Non-
retroactivity ratione personae (d) Individual criminal responsibility (e)
ratione temporis
14. Under the ICC, the principle is that “The Court shall have jurisdiction
over natural persons pursuant to this Statute”. Which of the following
principles support this tenet? (a) Nulla poena sine lege (b) Nullum crimen
sine lege (c)Non-retroactivity ratione personae (d) Individual criminal
responsibility (e) ratione temporis.
15. Which of the following best describes as to what “SOFT LAW” is? (a)
non-binding norm (b) it can influence state behavior (c) the UN Declaration
of Human Rights (d) none of the above (e) all of the above.
16. The Philippines adopts the generally accepted principles of
international law as part of the law of the land. Which statement is NOT
correct? (a) this is a statement of the doctrine of transformation (b) the
doctrine of Incorporation is illustrated (c) we are bound by the treaty (d) we
adopt pacta sunt servanda (e) we support the UN Charter.
17.Under public international law, what statement below is correct with
respect to the right to bail? (a) in quarantine cases bail is not available (b)
bail can be granted in extradition cases (c) bail can be granted in
deportation cases where the accused is detained (d) none of the above (e)
all of the above.
18.Which statement is correct with respect to an extradition case? The
standard of proof in extradition cases (i.e. whether to grant it or not) is (a)
proof beyond reasonable doubt (b) preponderance of evidence (c) clear
and convincing evidence (d) substantial evidence (e) none of the above
since extradition proceeding is sui generis.
19. Which statement is NOT correct with respect to extradition? (a) it is
created by a treaty (b) it demands the surrender of one accused of a
crime (c) it is a punishment for a crime (d) it is a trial not to determine the
guilt of the accused (e) it is merely basically administrative in character.
20. Which of the following is not a peremptory norm ? (a) jus cogen (b)
compelling law (c) an international law principle (d) customary law (e)
treaty
21. Which of the following is an example of jus cogens? (a) non-
refoulement (b) extraterritoriality (c) anti-slavery norms (d) none of the
above (e) all of the above.
22. It is defined as under international law as "a well-marked indentation
whose penetration is in such proportion to the width of its mouth as to
contain land-locked waters and constitute more than a mere curvature of
the coast ---- (a) territorial sea (b) contiguous zone (c) exclusive economic
zone (d) bay (e) continental shelf.
23. Which describes correctly our internal waters? (a) Waters landward of
the baseline (b) the state has completed jurisdiction (c) archipelagic waters
(d) none of the above (e) all of the above.
24. Which is correct about our territorial sea? (a) 12 km (b) 12 nautical
miles (c) 44 km (d) 12 miles (e) 200 nautical miles -- from the baseline.
25. It is defined as a band of water extending from the outer edge of the
territorial sea to up to twenty four nautical miles (44 km; 28 mi) from the
baseline, within which a state can exert limited control for the purpose of
preventing or punishing "infringement of its customs, fiscal, immigration or
sanitary laws and regulations within its territory or territorial sea".---- (a)
Territorial sea (b) internal waters (c) contiguous zone (d) exclusive
economic zone (e) continental shelf.
26. Which is NOT correct concerning the exclusive economic zone? (a) it
extends to a maximum of 200 km from the territorial sea baseline (b) it
includes the contiguous zone (c) all economic resources are controlled by
a state within this zone (d) it is a coastal nation’s territorial waters (e) all of
the above.
27. It extends out to the outer edge but at least 200 nautical miles (370 km;
230 mi) from the baselines of the territorial sea if the continental margin
does not stretch that far. It does not stretch beyond 350 nautical miles (650
km; 400 mi) of the baseline, or beyond 100 nautical miles (190 km; 120 mi)
from the 2,500 metres (8,200 ft) isobath, which is a line connecting the
depths of the seabed at 2,500 meters. (a) Territorial sea (b) internal waters
(c) contiguous zone (d) exclusive economic zone (e) continental shelf.
28. On a more positive note, also after World War II, both international
organizations and states gave recognition and importance to human rights.
Thus, on December 10, 1948, the United Nations General Assembly
adopted the Universal Declaration of Human Rights in which the right to
life, liberty and all the other fundamental rights of every person were
proclaimed. Which of the following is NOT true concerning the UNIVERSAL
DECLARATION OF HUMAN RIGHTS? (A) it is a treaty signed by states (B)
the principles contained in the said Declaration are now recognized as
customarily binding upon the members of the international community (C)
it is a soft law (d) on December 10, 1948, the United Nations General
Assembly adopted it (e) it forms part of the law of our land.
29. Which is NOT true about the International Court of Justice? (a) Only
states can be parties to a suit before it (b) it can render advisory
opinions (c) it is bound by precedents (d) its jurisdiction is optional on the
part of the states (e) it uses customary law in deciding cases.
30. Which of the following are the so called trends in international law
which our country cannot ignore? (a) the growing importance of the
individual person in public international law who, in the 20th century, has
gradually attained global recognition; (b) the higher value now being given
to human rights in the international sphere; (c) the corresponding duty of
countries to observe these universal human rights in fulfilling their treaty
obligations; and (d) the duty of this Court to balance the rights of the
individual under our fundamental law, on one hand, and the law on
extradition, on the other (e) the acceptable subjects of international law are
still states and entities which are given international personalities.
31. Which of the following is NOT correct concerning the Warsaw
Convention? Plaintiff can bring an action for damages concerning airline
violations at his option in (a) the court of any place where the carrier is
operating (b) in the court of the domicile of the carrier (c) in the court where
the carrier has its principal place of business (d) the court where the carrier
has an establishment by which the contract has been made (e) the court of
the place of destination.
32. After the expiration in 1991 of the Agreement between the Philippines
and the United States of America concerning Military Bases, foreign
military bases, troops, or facilities shall not be allowed in the Philippines
except (a) under a treaty duly concurred in by the Senate (b) the treaty
must be ratified by a majority of the votes cast by the people in a national
referendum held for that purpose (c) the treaty must be recognized as a
treaty by the other contracting State (d) only a and b (e) all of the above.
33.Which of the following is not correct concerning the Visiting Forces
Agreement? (a) it was duly concurred in by the Philippine Senate and has
been recognized as a treaty by the United States as attested and certified
by the duly authorized representative of the United States government (b)
The fact that the VFA was not submitted for advice and consent of the
United States Senate detracts it from its status as a binding international
agreement or treaty recognized by the said State. (c) as an implementing
agreement of the RP-US Mutual Defense Treaty, it was not necessary to
submit the VFA to the US Senate for advice and consent, but merely to the
US Congress under the Case–Zablocki Act within 60 days of its ratification
(d) the US has certified that it recognizes the VFA as a binding international
agreement, i.e., a treaty, and this substantially complies with the
requirements of Art. XVIII, Sec. 25 of our Constitution (e) The provision of
Art. XVIII, Sec. 25 of the Constitution, is complied with by virtue of the fact
that the presence of the US Armed Forces through the VFA is a presence
"allowed under" the RP-US Mutual Defense Treaty.
34 Which of the following is a “sole executive agreement” within the
American system of treaties? (a) These are advised and consented to by
the US Senate in accordance with Art. II, Sec. 2 of the US Constitution (b)
These are joint agreements of the President and Congress and need not be
submitted to the Senate (c) These are agreements entered into by the
President which are submitted to Congress within sixty (60) days of
ratification under the provisions of the Case-Zablocki Act, after which they
are recognized by the Congress and may be implemented (d) all of the
above (e) none of the above.
35. Which word describes the holding that “ treaties entered into by the
United States are not automatically part of their domestic law unless these
treaties are self-executing or there is an implementing legislation to make
them enforceable”--- (a) Medellin (b) Zablocki (c) Martens (d) Kenney (e)
Roerich.
36. Which is NOT correct concerning the interpretation of treaties? (a) A
treaty shall be interpreted in good faith in accordance with the ordinary
meaning to be given to the terms of the treaty in their context and in the
light of its object and purpose (b) The state cannot take into account,
together with the context any subsequent agreement between the parties
regarding the interpretation of the treaty or the application of its
provisions (c)the state can take into account any instrument which was
made by one or more parties in connection with the conclusion of the
treaty and accepted by the other parties as an instrument related to the
party (d) all of the above (e) none of the above.
37.Which of the following statements is erroneous? (a) the fact that
international law has been made part of the law of the land does not by any
means imply the primacy of international law over national law in the
municipal sphere (b) From the perspective of public international law, a
treaty is favored over municipal law pursuant to the principle of pacta sunt
servanda (c) a party to a treaty is allowed to "invoke the provisions of its
internal law as justification for its failure to perform a treaty (d) the
provisions of a treaty are always subject to qualification or amendment by
a subsequent law, or that it is subject to the police power of the State (e)
Under the doctrine of incorporation as applied in most countries, rules of
international law are given a standing equal, not superior, to national
legislation.
38.The case of Gonzales v. Hechanova ruled that (a) Under the doctrine of
incorporation as applied in most countries, rules of international law are
given a standing equal, not superior, to national legislation(b) the fact that
international law has been made part of the law of the land does not by any
means imply the primacy of international law over national law in the
municipal sphere (c) From the perspective of public international law, a
treaty is favored over municipal law pursuant to the principle of pacta sunt
servanda (d) a party to a treaty is allowed to "invoke the provisions of its
internal law as justification for its failure to perform a treaty (e) our
Constitution authorizes the nullification of a treaty, not only when it
conflicts with the fundamental law, but, also, when it runs counter to an act
of Congress.
39. Which of the following may not be considered an en banc case of the
Supreme Court (a). Cases in which the constitutionality or validity of any
treaty, international or executive agreement, law, executive order, or
presidential decree, proclamation, order, instruction, ordinance, or
regulation is in question;(b) Criminal cases in which the appealed decision
imposes the death penalty;(c) Cases raising novel questions of law;(d).
Cases affecting ambassadors or other public ministers(e) cases affecting
consuls.
40. IT is defined as a record of a routine agreement that has many
similarities with the private law contract. The agreement consists two
documents, each of the parties being in the possession of the one signed
by the representative of the other. Under the usual procedure, the
accepting State repeats the text of the offering State to record its assent.
The signatories of the letters may be government Ministers, diplomats or
departmental heads. It is frequently resorted to, either because of its
speedy procedure, or, sometimes, to avoid the process of legislative
approval. ----(a) treaty (b) protocol (c) exchange of notes (d) bilateral treaty
(e) executive agreement.

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