KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGTHAN, AHMEDABAD REGION

STUDY MATERIAL FOR THE SESSION 2020-21

SUBJECT: - SOCIAL SCIENCE
CLASS X
MULTIPLE CHOICE AND DESCRIPTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
POLITICAL SCIENCE
CHAPTER: - POWER SHARING
Multiple Choice and Descriptive Question
Q1. Which of the following is an example of horizontal sharing of power?
(a) Power sharing between different states.
(b) Power sharing between different organs of the government.
(c) Power sharing between different levels of the government.
(d) Power sharing between different political parties.
Answer: (b) Power sharing between different organs of the
government.
Q2. Who elects the community government in Belgium? [CBSE 2011]
(a) People belonging to one language community only.
(b) By the leader of Belgium.
(c) The citizens of the whole country.
(d) The community leaders of Belgium.
Answer: (a) People belonging to one language community only.
Q3. The Community Government signifies:
(a) The powers of government regarding community development.
(b) The powers of the government regarding law making for the community.
(c) The powers of the government regarding cultural, educational
and language related issues.
(d) The government enjoys privileges to safeguard the interest of a
particular community.
Answer: (c) The powers of the government regarding cultural,
educational and language related issues.
Q4. The word ‗ethnic‘ signifies:
(a) Different religions.
(b) Social division on shared culture.
(c) A violent conflict between opposite groups.
(d) A careful calculation of gains and losses.
Answer: (b) Social division on shared culture.
Q5. Power sharing is:
(a) The very spirit of democracy
(b) Separation of powers at different levels.
(c) System of checks and balances.
(d) A type of balancing powers.
Answer: (a) The very spirit of democracy

Q6. Choose the correct option:

Power sharing is desirable because it helps:
(a) To increase pressure on government.
(b) To reduce possibilities of conflicts.
(c) To generate awareness among people.
(d) To increase percentage of voters.
Answer: (b) To reduce possibilities of conflicts.
Q7. System of ‗checks and balances‘ means:
(a) Horizontal distribution of powers.
(b) Separation of powers.
(c) Put a check on the exercise of unlimited powers of the organs of
government by maintaining a balance of power among various
institutions.
(d) Federal division of powers
Answer: (c) Put a check on the exercise of unlimited powers of the
organs of government by maintaining a balance of power among
various institutions.
Q8. Which of the following features are common to Indian and Belgian form
of power-sharing arrangements?
A. Power is shared among governments at different levels.
B. Power is shared among different organs of government.
C. Power is shared among different social groups.
D. Power is shared among different parties and takes the form of
competition.
(a) A, B, C, D
(b) B, C and D
(c) A and C
(d) A, C and D
Answer: (b) B, C and D
Q9. In dealing with power sharing, which one of the following statements is
NOT correct about democracy?
(a) People are the source of all political power.
(b) In a democracy, people rule themselves j through institutions of self-
governance.
(c) In a democracy, due respect is given to diverse groups and views that
exist in a society.
(d) In a democracy, if the power to decide is dispersed, it is not
possible to take quick decisions and enforce them.
Answer: (d) In a democracy, if the power to decide is dispersed, it is
not possible to take quick decisions and enforce them.
Q10. A belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country
in whichever way it wants, by disregarding the wishes and needs of the
minority is:
(a) Power Sharing
(b) Central Government
(c) Majoritarianism
(d) Community Government
Answer: (c) Majoritarianism
Q11. A system of ‗checks and balances‘ is another name for which one of the
following power-sharing arrangements:
(a) Power sharing among different social groups.
(b) Vertical division of power or power shared among different levels of
government.
(c) Horizontal division of power or power shared among different
organs of the government.
(d) Power sharing in the form of political parties, pressure groups and
governments.
Answer: (c) Horizontal division of power or power shared among
different organs of the government.
Q12. Which one of the following statements about power-sharing
arrangements is correct?
(a) Power sharing is necessary only in societies which have religious,
linguistic or ethnic divisions.
(b) Power sharing is suitable only for big countries that have regional
divisions.
(c) Every society needs some form of power sharing even if it is
small or does not have social divisions.
(d) Power-sharing is not necessary at all.
Answer: (c) Every society needs some form of power sharing even if
it is small or does not have social divisions.
Q13. Consider the following statements about the ethnic composition of Sri
Lanka:
A. Major social groups are the Sinhala- speaking (74%) and Tamil-speaking
(18%)?
B. Among the Tamils, there are two sub-groups, Sri Lankan Tamils and
Indian Tamils.
C. There are about 7% Christians, who are both Tamil and Sinhala.
D. Most of the Sinhala-speaking are Hindus or Muslims and most of the
Tamil-speaking are Buddhists.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) A, B, C
(b) A, B, D
(c) B, C, D
(d) A, B, C, D
Answer: (a) A, B, C
Q14. Prudential reasons of power sharing stress on the facts that:
A. It ensures the stability of political order.
B. It reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups.
C. It gives a fair share to minority.
D. It is the very spirit of democracy.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) A, B
(b) A, C and D
(c) All are correct
(d) A, B & C
Answer: (d) A, B & C
Q15. Sinhala was recognized as the only official language by the
______________ .
Answer: Explanation: Act of 1956
Q16. A government for the entire country is usually called ______________
Answer: Explanation: Federal Government
Q17. A belief that the maj ority community should be able to rule country in
whichever way they want, by disregarding the wishes and needs of minority
is known as ______________ .
Answer: Explanation: Majoritarianism
Q18. ______________ is referred to as social division based on culture and
language.
Answer: Explanation: Ethnic group
Q19. Community government is a very specific type of government in
______________ .
Answer: Explanation: Belgium
Q20. ______________ was amended four times between 1970 and 1993.
Answer: Explanation: Belgium Constitution

Q21. Power sharing is the distribution of powers at only one level of

government. (True/False)
Answer: Explanation: False
Q22. Power sharing arrangement among the different organs of the
government is known as horizontal sharing. (True/False)
Answer: Explanation: True
Q23. Belgium successfully solved its problem by Community Government.
(True/False)
Answer: Explanation: True
24. Two languages spoken in Sri Lanka are English and Sinhalese.
(True/False)
Answer: Explanation: False
25. Match the columns
Column A Column B
(a) Coalition Government (i) Each organ of the government checks
the other
(b) Civil War (ii) Government of more than two political
parties
(c) Check and Balance (iii) Power may also be shared among different
social groups
(d) Community Government (iv) A violent conflict between opposing groups
Answer:
Explanation:
(a) (v)
(b) (iv)
(c) (i)
(d) (iii)
Q26. In which continent is Belgium?
Answer: Explanation: Europe
Q27. Name the countries with which Belgium shares its boundaries.
Answer:
Explanation:
Belgium shares its boundaries with France, Netherlands, Germany
and Luxembourg.
Q28. Where does the majority of population of Belgium live?
Answer:
Explanation:
The majority of population of Belgium lives in the Flemish region.
Q29. Which two languages are generally spoken in Belgium? [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
Explanation:
French and Dutch are the two languages spoken in Belgium.
Q30. Which language is spoken by the majority of population in Brussels, the
capital city of Belgium?
Answer:
Explanation: French language
Q31. Mention the minority community that was relatively rich and powerful
in Belgium.
Answer: Explanation: French community
Q32. Which social group constituted the largest share in population of Sri
Lanka?
Answer: Explanation: Sinhala-speakers
Q33. Name the two subgroups of Tamils in Sri Lanka. [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
Explanation: Sri Lankan Tamils and Indian Tamils
Q34. After independence, Sri Lanka witnessed the supremacy of which
community? [CBSE 2014, 2016]
Answer:
Explanation:
In Sri Lanka, the policies of the government under the Act of 1956
sought to ensure the dominance of Sinhala speaking.
Q35. What is the official religion of Sri Lanka? [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
Explanation:
Buddhism is the religion of Sri Lanka.
Q36. Which factors are responsible for increasing the feeling of alienation
among Sri Lankan Tamils?
Answer:
Explanation:
Sinhala was recognized as the only official language in Sri Lanka and
the government formulated a policy that favoured Sinhala applicants
for university and government jobs.
Q37. What was Tamil Eelam?
Answer:
Explanation:
It was to be an independent state as demanded by Srilankan Tamils.

Q38. How many times did Belgium amend its constitution regarding power
sharing?
Answer:
Explanation:
Belgium amended its constitution four times between 1970 and
1993.
Q39. Name the third level government of Belgium.
Answer:
Explanation: Community Government
Q40. Differentiate between community government in Belgium and
majoritarian government in Sri Lanka. [CBSE 2018 (C)]
Answer:
Explanation:
In Belgium, all the benefits of economic development and education
were given to Dutch speaking communities as well as French
Minority community while in Sri Lanka, the government adopted a
series of majoritarian measures to establish Sinhala supremacy on
Tamils.
Q41. Which city was chosen as the headquarters of the European Union?
Answer:
Explanation: Brussels
Q42. What is power sharing?
Answer:
Explanation:
Power sharing means sharing of responsibilities and powers by the
different organs of the government.
Q43. Why power sharing is essential for democracy?
Explanation:
Power sharing helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between
social groups.
Q44. What is the difference between prudential and moral reasons for power
sharing?
Explanation: Prudential reason: Power sharing in democracy reduces
the possibility of conflicts between different social groups. Moral
reason: In a democracy, citizens have the right to be consulted on
how they are to be governed.
Q45. What is separation of power?
Answer:
Explanation: The separation of power is the power sharing among
the different organs of government with their specific jurisdiction.
Q46. The system of ‗checks and balances‘ comes under which form of power
sharing? [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
Explanation:
Horizontal distribution of power sharing arrangement is known as a
system of checks and balances.
Q47. In which form of power sharing, power is shared at different levels of
government?
Answer:
Explanation:
Power is shared at different levels of government in vertical form of
power sharing.
Q48. What does the federal division of power imply? [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
Explanation:
The term federal division implies power sharing at different levels of
government.
Q49. The community government in Belgium is a good example of which
form of power sharing? [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
Explanation: Social group sharing
Q50. What is the proportion of Tamils in Sri Lanka‘s total population?
Answer/Explanation
51. What do you mean by checks and balances?
Answer:
Explanation:
Checks and Balances is a system in which each organ of the
government keeps a check on the others which results in a balance
of power among various institutions. It ensures that none of the
organs can exercise unlimited power.
Q52. Define coalition government.
Answer:
Explanation:
The Coalition Government implies a government of two or more
parties. When the alliance of two or more parties gets elected and
forms a government it is known as the coalition government. This is
another form of power sharing.
Q53. Fill in the Blanks
1. When European countries came together to form the European Union
(EU), ………. was chosen as the headquarters.
2. The ………. distribution of power is also called a system of checks and
balances.
3. The religion followed by Sinhala-speaking people in Sri Lanka is ……….
4. ………. division of power means power to be shared among the
government at different levels.
5. In ………. leaders realised that unity of the country is possible by
respecting the interests of different communities.
6. In the year ………. an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the official
language.
Answers
1. Brussels
2. Horizontal
3. Buddhism
4. Federal
5. Belgium
6. 1956
Q54. Tamil natives of Sri Lanka are called the
(a) Indian Tamils
(b) Muslim Tamils
(c) Sri Lankan Tamils
(d) Christian Tamils
Answer: (c) Sri Lankan Tamils
Q55. The term Eelam stands for
(a) Government
(b) State
(c) Country
(d) Political party
Answer: (b) state
Q56. Division of powers between higher and lower levels of government is
called
(a) Horizontal division
(b) Parallel division
(c) Vertical division
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) vertical division
Q57. Which two languages are generally spoken in Belgium?
(a) French and English
(b) Dutch and Sinhala
(c) French and Sinhala
(d) Dutch and French.
Answer: (d) Dutch and French.
Q58. Brussels is the capital of
(a) Belgium (b) The Netherland
(c) Sri Lanka (d) West Indies
Answer: (a) Belgium
Q59. A system of ‗checks and balances‘ is another name for which one of the
following power-sharing arrangements:
(a) Power sharing among different social groups.
(b) Vertical division of power or power shared among different levels of
government.
(c) Horizontal division of power or power shared among different
organs of the government.
(d) Power sharing in the form of political parties, pressure groups and
governments.
Answer: (c) Horizontal division of power or power shared among
different organs of the government.
Q60. In dealing with power sharing, which one of the following statements is
NOT correct about democracy?
(a) People are the source of all political power. !
(b) In a democracy, people rule themselves j through institutions of self-
governance.
(c) In a democracy, due respect is given to diverse groups and views that
exist in a society.
(d) In a democracy, if the power to decide is dispersed, it is not
possible to take quick decisions and enforce them.
Answer: (d) In a democracy, if the power to decide is dispersed, it is
not possible to take quick decisions and enforce them.
Q61. System of ‗checks and balances‘ means:
(a) Horizontal distribution of powers.
(b) Separation of powers.
(c) Put a check on the exercise of unlimited powers of the organs of
government by maintaining a balance of power among various
institutions.
(d) Federal division of powers
Answer: (c) Put a check on the exercise of unlimited powers of the
organs of government by maintaining a balance of power among
various institutions.
Q62. Power sharing is:
(a) The very spirit of democracy
(b) Separation of powers at different levels.
(c) System of checks and balances.
(d) A type of balancing powers.
Answer: (a) the very spirit of democracy
Q63. Who elects the community government in Belgium?
(a) People belonging to one language community only.
(b) By the leader of Belgium.
(c) The citizens of the whole country.
(d) The community leaders of Belgium.
Answer: (a) People belonging to one language community only.
Q64. In which year Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country?
(a) 1947 (b) 1948 (c) 1949 (d) 1950
Answer: (b) 1948
Explanation:
Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The leaders of the
Sinhala community sought to secure dominance over government by virtue
of their majority.
Q65. Which is the state religion of Sri Lanka?
(a) Buddhism
(b) Hinduism
(c) Islam
(d) Christianity
Answer: Buddhism
Explanation: In 1956, an Act was passed to recognize Sinhala as the only
official language, thus disregarding Tamil. A new constitution stipulated that
the state shall protect and foster Buddhism.
Q66. Which major social group constituted the largest share in population of
Sri Lanka?
(a) Sinhalas
(b) Sri Lankan Tamils
(c) Indian Tamils
(d) Muslims
Answer: (a) Sinhalas
Explanation: The major social groups in Sri Lanka are the Sinhala-speakers
(74 per cent) and the Tamil-speakers (18 per cent)
Q67. Which language is spoken by the majority of Belgians?
(a) German
(b) French
(c) Dutch
(d) English
Answer: (c) Dutch
Explanation:
Of the Belgian‘s total population, 59 per cent lives in the Flemish region and
speaks Dutch language.
Q68. Which religion is followed by Sinhala speaking people?
(a) Hindus
(b) Muslims
(c) Buddhists
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) Buddhists
Explanation: Most of the Sinhala speaking people are Buddhists, while most
of the Tamils are Hindus or Muslims.
Q69. Which language was declared as the only official language of Sri Lanka
by an Act passed in 1956?
(a) Tamil
(b) Sinhala
(c) Hindi
(d) English
Answer: (b) Sinhala
Explanation: In 1956, an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only
official language, thus disregarding Tamil.
Q70. Which of the following is not one of the three organs of government
powers are shared?
(a) Legislature
(b) Bureaucracy
(c) Executive
(d) Judiciary
Answer: (b) Bureaucracy
Explanation: Power is shared among different organs of government, such as
the legislature, executive and judiciary.
Q71. Which of the following is not one of the aspects of federal division of
powers?
(a) Sharing of powers among central provincial and local governments
(b) Division of powers involving higher and lower levels of government
(c) The Constitution clearly lays down powers of different levels of
government
(d) There is no vertical division of powers
Answer: (d) There is no vertical division of powers
Explanation:
The aspects of federal division of powers are sharing of powers among
central provincial and local governments, Division of powers involving higher
and lower levels of government.
Q72. What led to non-sharing of power?
(a) Peace among all the communities
(b) The tyranny of the majority and oppression of minority
(c) Negation of the very spirit of democracy
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer: (d) Both (b) and (c)
Explanation: Non-sharing of power led to tyranny of the majority and
oppression of minority and negation of the very spirit of democracy.
Q73. How many times was the Constitution of Belgium amended between
1970 and 1993?
(a) Two times
(b) Three times
(c) Five times
(d) Four times
Answer: (d) Four times
Very Short Answer Questions (VSA) 1 Mark

Q1. Which language was recognized as the only official language of Sri
Lanka in 1956?
Answer: Sinhala
Q2. Apart from the Central and the State governments, which is the third
type of government practiced in Belgium? (2012)
Answer: Community government
Q3. Define majoritarianism. (2013)
Answer: Majoritarianism is rule by majority community by disregarding the
needs and wishes of the minority community.
Q4. What measure was adopted by the democratically elected government
of Sri Lanka to establish Sinhala Supremacy? (2014)
Answer: In 1956, an Act was passed to make Sinhala the official language.
The government followed preferential policies favoring Sinhala applicants for
University positions and government jobs.
Q5.What is the language spoken by the people residing in the Wallonia
region of Belgium? (2014)
Answer: People residing in Wallonia region of Belgium speak French.
Q6. What is meant by the system of ‗checks and balances‘? (2015)
Answer:
The horizontal distribution of power ensures that power is shared among
different organs of government—the legislature, executive and judiciary. It
allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise
different powers. The horizontal distribution of power is also called a system
of checks and balances. This system ensures that none of these organs can
exercise unlimited power. Each organ checks the other.
Q7. After independence, Sri Lanka witnessed the supremacy of which
community? (2015)
Answer: Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948 and the
democratically elected government adopted a series of measures to establish
Sinhala supremacy.
Q8. Define the term ‗Ethnic‘.
Answer:
Ethnic means a social division based on shared culture and common descent.
People belonging to an ethnic group need not have the same religion or
nationality.
Q9. What is vertical division of power?
Answer: When power is shared among governments at different levels, i.e.,
the Union or the Central Government, the State Government and the
Municipality and Panchayat at the lower level. This division of power
involving higher and lower levels of government is called the vertical division
of power.
 FEDERALISM

Q1. Which among the following are examples of ‗Coming together

federations‘?
(a) India, Spain and Belgium
(b) India, USA and Spain
(c) USA, Switzerland and Australia
(d) Belgium and Sri Lanka
Answer: (c) USA, Switzerland and Australia
Q2. The Union List includes subjects such as:
(a) Education, forests, trade unions, marriages, adoption and succession.
(b) Police, trade, commerce, agriculture and irrigation.
(c) Residuary subjects like computer software.
(d) Defense, foreign affairs, banking, currency, communications.
Answer: (d) Defense, foreign affairs, banking, currency,
communications.
Q3. The system of Panchayati Raj involves:
(a) Village, State and Union levels
(b) Village, District and State levels
(c) Village and State levels
(d) Village, Block and District levels
Answer: (d) Village, Block and District levels
Q4. Which one of the following States in India has its own Constitution?
(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) J & K
(d) Nagaland
Answer: (c) J & K
Q5. Which of the following countries is an example of ―coming together
federation‖?
(a) U.S.A
(b) India
(c) Spain
(d) Belgium
Answer: (a) U.S.A
Q6. Here are three reactions to the language policy followed in India. Which
of the following holds true in the case of India?
(a) The policy of accommodation has strengthened national unity.
(b) Language based states have divided us by making everyone conscious of
their language.
(c) The language policy has only helped to consolidate the dominance of
English over all other languages.
Answer: (a) The policy of accommodation has strengthened national
unity
Q7. Consider the following statements on the practice of federalism in India.
Identify those which hold true for decentralisation after 1992.
A. Local governments did not have any power or resources of their own.
B. It became constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to local
government bodies.
C. The state governments are required to share some powers and revenue
with local government bodies.
D. No seats are reserved in the elected bodies for scheduled castes,
scheduled tribes and other backward classes.
(a) B and C
(b) A and C
(c) A and D
(d) B and D
Answer: (a) B and C
Q8. In a ‗Holding together federation‘:
A. A large country divides its power between constituent states and the
national government.
B. The Central government tends to be more powerful vis-a-vis the States.
C. All the constituent states usually have equal powers.
D. Constituent states have unequal powers.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) A, B, C and D
(b) A and D
(c) B and C
(d) A, B and D
Answer: (d) A, B and D
Q9. Fill in the Blanks
1. The ………… Government alone can make laws relating to the subjects
mentioned in the Union List
2. The Union Government has the power to legislate on ………… subjects
which do not fall in any of the three lists.
3. The ………… plays an important role in overseeing the implementation of
constitutional provisions and procedures.
4. If there is a conflict in the laws made in the concurrent list, the law made
by the ………… Government will prevail.
5. A third tier of government is called ………… government.
6. When power is taken away from Central and State governments and
given to local government, it is called …………
7. ………… are the local governing bodies in the villages and ………… in urban
areas.
8. The political head of a Municipal Corporation is called the ………… .
Answers
1. Union
2. Residuary
3. Judiciary
4. Union
5. Local
6. Decentralization
7. (i) Panchayats, (ii) Municipalities 8. Mayor

Choose the correct option:

Q10. The number of seats reserved for women in the panchayats and
municipalities is
(a) one-fourth
(b) one-third
(c) Half
(d) one-fifth
Answer: (b) one-third
Q11. ‗Holding together federations are not found in
(a) India
(b) Spain
(c) Belgium
(d) Australia
Answer: (d) Australia
Q12. Subjects like computer software comes in the
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) Residuary List
Answer: (d) Residuary List
Q13. Which of the following states has been given a special status?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Tripura
(c) Bihar
(d) Haryana
Answer: (a) Jammu and Kashmir
Q14. The number of Scheduled Languages in India is
(a) 21
(b) 22
(c) 23
(d) 25
Answer: (b) 22
Q15. Which one of the following States in India has its own Constitution?
(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) J & K
(d) Nagaland
Answer: (c) J & K
Q16. Which among the following are examples of ‗Coming together
federations‘?
(a) India, Spain and Belgium
(b) India, USA and Spain
(c) USA, Switzerland and Australia
(d) Belgium and Sri Lanka
Answer: (c) USA, Switzerland and Australia
Q17. In India‘s federal system, the state governments have the power to
legislate on all those subjects which are included in the:
(a) Union list
(b) State list
(c) Concurrent list
(d) Residuary subjects
Answer: (b) State list
Q18. The Constitution of India
(a) Divided powers between center and states in three lists.
(b) Divided powers between center and states in two lists.
(c) Listed the powers of the states and left the undefined powers to the
state.
(d) Specified the powers of the states and left the residuary powers with the
center.
Answer: (a) divided powers between center and states in three lists.
Q19. In case of a clash between the laws made by the center and a state on
a subject in the concurrent list:
(a) The state law prevails.
(b) The central law prevails.
(c) Both the laws prevail within their respective jurisdictions.
(d) The Supreme Court has to intervene to decide.
Answer: (b) the central law prevails.
Q20. What is the third tier of government known as?
(a) Village Panchayats
(b) State government
(c) Local self-government
(d) Zila Parishad
Answer: (c) Local self-government
Explanation:
The third tier of government known as the local self-government. Local
government is the best way to realize one important principle of democracy,
namely local self-government.
Q21. What is true regarding sources of revenue in a federal system?
(a) States have no financial powers or independent sources of revenue.
(b) States are dependent on revenue or funds on the central government.
(c) Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly
specified to ensure its financial autonomy.
(d) States have no financial autonomy.
Answer: (c) Sources of revenue for each level of government are
clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy.
Explanation:
Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to
ensure its financial autonomy.
Q22. Which of the following is incorrect regarding a unitary government?
(a) There is either only one level of government or the sub-units are
subordinate to the central government.
(b) The central government can pass on orders to the provincial
government.
(c) A state government is conservable to central government.
(d) The powers of state governments are guaranteed by the
Constitution.
Answer: (d) The powers of state governments are guaranteed by the
Constitution.
Explanation:
Under the unitary system, either there is only one level of government or
the sub-units are subordinate to the central government. The central
government can pass on orders to the provincial or the local government
and state government is conservable to central government.
Q23. What are the kinds of routes through which federations have been
formed?
(a) One route involves independent states coming together on their own to
form a bigger unit
(b) The second route is where a large country decides to divide its powers
between the states and the national government
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) Both a and b
Q24. Which period saw the rise of regional political parties in many states of
the country?
(a) Period after 1990
(b) Period after 2000
(c) Period after 1980
(d) Period after 1970
Answer: (a) Period after 1990
Q25. Which language is recognized as the national language by the
Constitution of India?
(a) Hindi
(b) English
(c) Tamil
(d) None of these
Answer: (d) None of these
Q26. Which state of India enjoys a special status and has its own
Constitution?
(a) Bihar
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Kerala
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer: (d) Jammu and Kashmir
Explanation:
Jammu and Kashmir has its own Constitution. Many provisions of the Indian
Constitution are not applicable to this State. Indians who are not permanent
residents of this State cannot buy land or house here.
Q27. Which of the following subjects is not included in the Union list?
(a) Defence
(b) Foreign affairs
(c) Police
(d) Banking
Answer: (c) Police
Explanation:
Union List includes subjects of national importance such as defence of the
country, foreign affairs, banking, communications and currency.
Q28. Which of the following is not an example of ‗holding together‘
federations?
(a) India
(b) Spain
(c) Belgium
(d) Switzerland
Answer: (d) Switzerland
Explanation:
A large country decides to divide its power between the constituent States
and the national government. India, Spain and Belgium are examples of this
kind of ‗holding together‘ federations.
Q29. Which level of government in India has the power to legislate on the
‗residuary‘ subjects?
(a) Union government
(b) State government
(c) Local self-government
(d) Both a and b
Answer: (a) Union government
Q30. The System of Panchayati Raj involves
(a) The village blocks and district levels
(b) The village, and state levels
(c) The village district and state levels
(d) The village, state and Union levels
Answer: (a) The village blocks and district levels
Q31. Which of the following subjects is not included in the state list?
(a) Law and order
(b) National defense
(c) Education
(d) Agriculture
Answer: (b) National defense
Q32. Which of the following government has two or more levels?
(a) Community Government
(b) Coalition Government
(c) Federal Government
(d) Unitary Government
Answer: (c) Federal Government
Q33. Match the following:
Column A Column B
(A) Union Territory (i) Decision-making body for the entire village
(B) Local self (ii) An alliance of more than government two parties
(C) Coalition (iii) Representatives‘ government body at the district
level
(D) Zila Parishad (iv) Area which is run by the Union / Central
government
(a) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv) and D – (i)
(b) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (iii) and D – (ii)
(c) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (ii) and D – (iii)
(d) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii) and D – (i)
Answer: (c) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (ii) and D – (iii)
Q34. The system of government in which there is only one level of
government is known as _____________ .
Answer: Explanation: Unitary Government
Q35. Banking and Defense are the subjects of _____________ .
Answer:
Explanation: Union list
Q36. In 1947 the boundaries of several old states were changed on the basis
of _____________ .
Answer: Explanation: language
Q37. The highest institution of Panchayati Raj in rural areas is
_____________ .
Answer:
Explanation: Zila Parishad
Q37. The chairperson of the municipal corporation is known as the
_____________ .
Answer:
Explanation: Mayor
Q38. Local self-government exists only in urban areas. (True/False)
Answer:
Explanation: False
Q39. The popular name of rural government is Panchayati Raj. (True/False)
Answer:
Explanation: True
Q40. The chairperson of the municipal corporation is known as the
Sarpanch. (True/False)
Answer:
Explanation: False
Q41. Union Territories are the areas run by both the Union and the State
Government. (True/False)
Answer:
Explanation: False
Q42. Match the columns.
Column A Column B
(a) National Defence (i) rural areas
(b) Education (ii) District
(c) Local self- government (iii) urban areas
(d) Municipal Corporation (iv) State list
(e) Zila Parishad (v) Union list
Answer/Explanation
(a) (v)
(b) (iv)
(c) (i)
(d) (iii)
(e) (ii)
Q43. Name the government having two or more levels of government.
Answer:
Explanation:
Federal government has two or more levels of government.
Q44. Define ‗jurisdiction‘?
Answer:
Explanation:
It is an area of functioning over which someone has legal authority
to perform.
Q45. What are the two main objectives of a federal system?
Answer:
Explanation:
- To safeguard and promote unity of the country
- To accommodate regional diversity
Q46. What does the ‗coming together‘ involve?
Answer:
Explanation:
The‘coming together’ involves independent states come together on
their own to form bigger unit where the constituent states have
equal powers.
Q47. What is meant by ‗holding together federation‘?
Answer:
Explanation:
It is a federation in which a large country decides to divide its power
between the constituent states and the central government. The
central government tends to be more powerful.
Q48. Name the countries having ‗coming together‘ federation and ‗holding
together‘ federation. [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
Explanation:
- Countries having ‘coming together’ federation are – USA,
Switzerland, Australia.
- Countries having ‘holding together’ federation are – India,
Spain, Belgium.
Q49. What does the third tier of federalism include?
Answer: Explanation:
It includes local body governments like Panchayats at village levels
and Municipalities in towns and cities.
Q50. Define Union List.
Answer:
Explanation:
It includes the subjects of national importance such as defence,
foreign affairs, banking, communications etc. The Union government
alone can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in this list.
Q51. Why have the subjects like defence, foreign affairs, banking, etc. been
included in the Union List?
Answer:
Explanation:
These subjects are of national importance and require a uniform
policy for execution.
Q52. Define State List.
Answer:
Explanation:
It contains subjects of state and local importance such as police,
trade, commerce etc. The state government alone can make laws
relating to the subjects mentioned in the list.
Q53. Define Concurrent List.
Answer:
Explanation:
It includes subjects of common interest to both the union
government as well as the state government, such as education,
forest, trade unions etc. Both the union and as well as the state
governments can make Lawson these subjects
Q54. What are Residuary Powers? [CBSE 2014]
Explanation:
Residuary powers mean that the Parliament has the right to make
laws with respect to the matters that are not mentioned in any of
the lists Union List, State List and Concurrent List.
Q55. In India‘s federal system, which level of government has the power to
legislate on residuary subjects? [CBSE 2013]
Or
Which level of government in India legislates on the residuary subjects?
[CBSE 2016]
Answer:
Explanation: Union government
Q56. Name an Indian state which enjoys special status. [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
Explanation: Jammu and Kashmir
Q57. What are Union Territories?
Answer:
Explanation:
The areas that are too small to be made an independent state and
are so diverse that could not be merged with any of the existing
states are called Union Territories.
Q58. Name any two Union Territories of India.
Answer:
Explanation: Chandigarh and Puducherry
Q59. How can the fundamental provisions of the Indian constitution be
changed?
Answer:
Explanation:
The fundamental provisions of the Indian constitution can be
changed in a bilateral way wherein the consent of both the levels of
government is required.
Q60. What is the role of judiciary in a federal government?
Answer:
Explanation:
The judiciary plays an important role in overseeing the
implementation of constitutional provisions and procedures.
Q61. What ideals are shared through democratic politics in India?
Answer:
Explanation:
The spirit of federalism, respect for diversity and desire for living
together, (any two)
Q62. Why were the boundaries of several old states of India changed?
Answer:
Explanation:
The boundaries of several old states of India were changed to
ensure that people speaking same language lived in the same state.
Q63. What are the two main basis on which new states of India have been
created?
Answer:
Explanation: Language and regional ethnicity
Q64. What has been the experience of creation of linguistic states?
Answer:
Explanation:
The experience of creation of linguistic states has proved that India
has become more united.
Q65. What is a coalition government?
Answer:
Explanation:
A government by the coming together of two or more political
parties is called coalition government.
Q66. Which judgment of the Supreme Court made Indian federal power
sharing more effective?
Answer:
Explanation:
Supreme Court declared that Central government cannot dismiss the
state government in an arbitrary manner.
Q67. What does the concept of decentralization signify?
Answer:
Explanation:The concept of decentralization signifies – power taken
away from central and state government and given to local
government at both the urban and rural levels.
Q68. What was the basic idea behind decentralization?
Answer:
Explanation:Problems and issues can be best settled at the local level
as people know better about their problems and can manage them at
their initial levels.
Q69. For whom, seats are reserved in the local government bodies?
Answer:
Explanation:Seats are reserved for the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled
Tribes and Other Backward Classes. One-third of all are positions are
reserved for women.
Q70. What is a Gram Panchayat?
Answer:
Explanation:
It is a council consisting of several ward members, often called
panch, and a president or sarpanch. It is the decision-making body
for the entire village.
Q71. How are the members of a Panchayat elected?
Answer:
Explanation:
They are directly elected by all the adult population living in that
ward or village.
Q72. What is Panchayat Samiti? [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
Explanation:
They are directly elected by all the adult population living in that ward or
village.
Q73. What constitutes the Zila Parishad?
Answer:
Explanation:
All panchayat samities and mandals in a district together constitute
the zila parishad.
Q74. Who are the political heads of the municipality and gram panchayat?
Answer:
Explanation:
Mayor and Sarpanch are the political heads of the municipality and
gram panchayat respectively.
Q75. Which government is responsible for the entire country?
Answer:
Explanation:
The Central Government is responsible for the entire country. It is
also called Union Government.
Q76. Name the lowest level of government in rural area.
Answer:
Explanation:
Gram Panchayat is the lowest level of Government in rural area.
Q77. What is decentralization of power?
Answer:
Explanation:
Decentralization of power means taking away some power from the
central and state governments and giving them to local government.
It simply means sharing of power at different levels of government
to ensure balance in power.
 POLITICAL PARTIES

Choose the correct option:

Q1. Which one of the following facilities is offered by the Election

Commission to a recognized political party?
(a) Party name
(b) Election funds
(c) Election symbol
(d) Manifesto
Answer: (c) Election symbol
Q2. Which one of the following is a ‗National Political Party‘?
(a) Samajwadi Party
(b) Rashtriya Janata Dal
(c) Rashtriya Lok Dal
(d) Bahujan Samaj Party
Answer: (d) Bahujan Samaj Party
Q3. Who among the following recognizes political parties in India?
(a) Election Commission
(b) President of India
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Supreme Court
Answer: (a) Election Commission
Q4. Which one of the following countries has one party system?
(a) China
(b) Indo-China
(c) Japan
(d) Germany
Answer: (a) China
Q5. In which of the following states does Shiv Sena exist as a regional
political party?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Karnataka
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer: (c) Maharashtra
Q6. Name the political party that emerged out of mass movement?
(a) DMK
(b) Janata Dal
(c) Forward Bloc
(d) Bahujan Sam
Answer: (b) Janata Dal
Q7. A recognized political party is
(a) A party that is present in only one of the federal units.
(b) A party that is present in several and all units of the federation.
(c) A party that is based on regional and communal diversities.
(d) A party recognized by the ‘Election Commission’ with all the
privileges and facilities.
Answer: (d) a party recognized by the ‘Election Commission’ with all
the privileges and facilities.
Q8.An example of a country having the multi party system is
(a) China
(b) USA
(c) India
(d) United Kingdom
Answer: (c) India
Q9. How many parties are needed in any democratic system to compete in
elections and provide a fair chance for the competing parties ; to come to
power?
(a) Less than two
(b) At least two parties
(c) More than two parties
(d) At least three parties
Answer: (b) At least two parties
Q10. The number of political parties registered with the Election Commission
of India is
(a) 750 parties
(b) More than 750 parties
(c) Less than 750 parties
(d) 705 parties
Answer: (b) more than 750 parties
Q11. What is a signed document submitted to an officer regarding her
personal information?
(a) Affidavit
(b) Declaration
(c) Agreement
(d) Appeal
Answer: (a) Affidavit
Explanation: An affidavit is a signed document submitted to an officer,
where a person makes a sworn statement regarding her personal
information.
Q12. Which of these statements is incorrect about CPI (M)?
(a) Supports socialism, secularism and democracy
(b) Opposes imperialism and communalism
(c) Wants to secure socio-economic justice in India
(d) None of the above
Answer: (d) None of the above
Explanation: CPI (M) supports socialism, secularism and democracy and
opposes imperialism and communalism. Accepts democratic elections as a
useful and helpful means for securing the objective of socio- economic
justice in India
Q13. Who chooses the candidates for contesting elections in India?
(a) Members and supporters of the party
(b) Top party leadership
(c) The existing government
(d) None of these
Answer: (b) Top party leadership
Explanation: In other countries like India, top party leaders choose
candidates for contesting elections.
Q14. When and under whose leadership was Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP)
formed?
(a) 1982, Mayawati
(b) 1984, Kanshi Ram
(c) 1985, Mulayam Singh Yadav
(d) 1986, Bhajanlal
Answer: (b) 1984, Kanshi Ram
Explanation: Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was formed in 1984 under the
leadership of Kanshi Ram.
Q15. When was the BJP founded?
(a) 1960
(b) 1970
(c) 1980
(d) 1990
Answer: (c) 1980
Explanation: Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) was founded in 1980 by reviving
the erstwhile Bharatiya Jana Sangh.
Q16. How many recognized national parties were there in 2006?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
Answer: (b) 6
Explanation: According to the classification, there were six national
recognized parties in the country in 2006
Q17. What are the parties which are given the special privilege of ‗election
symbol‘ and other facilities?
(a) ‗Identified‘ by the Election Commission
(b) ‘Recognized’ by the Election Commission
(c) ‗Patronized‘ by the Election Commission
(d) ‗Attached‘ by the Election Commission
Answer: (b) ‘Recognized’ by the Election Commission
Explanation: Parties that get this privilege and some other special facilities
are ‗recognized‘ by the Election Commission for this purpose. That‘s why
these parties are called, ‗recognized political parties‘.
Q18. Which of these alliances were there in 2004 parliamentary elections in
India?
(a) National Democratic Alliance
(b) The United Progressive Alliance
(c) Left Front
(d) All the above
Answer: (d) All the above
Explanation:
In India there were three such major alliances in 2004 parliamentary
elections– the National Democratic Alliance, the United Progressive Alliance
and the Left Front.
Q19. Which of these is not a good option for a democratic state?
(a) One-party system
(b) Two-party system
(c) Multi-party system
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) one-party system
Picture-based Questions:
Q1.Study at the following photographs from NCERT textbook page 75 and
answer the question that follows:

(i) Activists of BJP Mahila Morcha demonstrate against hike in prices of

onions and LPG in Vishakhapatnam.
(ii) Minister distributes Rs One lakh cheque to the families of hooch victims
at their houses.
(iii) Activists of CPI (M), CPI, OGP and JD (S) take out a rally in
Bhubaneswar to protest against POSCO, the Korean steel company for being
permitted by the State Government to export iron ore from Orissa to feed
steel plants in China and Korea.

Answer:
i) Role of opposition
ii) Parties provide people access to government machinery and welfare
schemes.
iii) Parties shape public opinion.
Q20. Now categories these photographs by the functions of political parties
they illustrate. Find one photograph or news clipping from your own area for
each of the functions listed above.
Look at the following cartoon from NCERT textbook page 83,84 & 85 and
answer the question that follows:

Can you identify which of the challenges described in this section are being
highlighted in these cartoons? What are the ways to curb the misuse of
money and muscle power in politics?
Answer:
- The challenges highlighted here are about the growing role of money and
muscle power in parties, especially during elections.
Some of the ways to curb the misuse of money and muscle power in politics
are:
There should be state funding of elections. The government should give
parties money to support their election expenses.
Public participation should be increased.
The Supreme Court order to reduce the influence of money and muscle
power should be made strict.
Q21. Give the meaning of ‗Alliance‘.
(a) Two parties together form the government.
(b) Leftist and Rightist together form the government.
(c) When state and national parties together form the government.
(d) When several parties in a multiparty system join for the purpose
of contesting elections and winning power.
Ans: (d) When several parties in a multiparty system join for the
purpose of contesting elections and winning power.
Q22. The political party which believes in Marxism-Leninism is [AI2011]
(a) Nationalist Congress Party.
(b) Communist Party of India.
(c) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK)
(d) Bahujan Samaj Party
Answer: (b) Communist Party of India.

Q23. Which one of the following is considered the best form of government?
(a) Democracy
(b) Dictatorship
(c) Monarchy
(d) Military Rule
Answer: (a) Democracy
Q24. Select the statement related to the advantages
of multiparty system
(a) Multi-party system provides limited choice to voters.
(b) There is a chance of conflict.
(c) Provides choice to the voters.
(d) In Multi-party system regional parties get the representation.
Answer: (c) Provides choice to the voters
Q25. Political parties are allotted symbols by [CBSE 2012]
(a) The government of India
(b) The constitution of India
(c) The party leaders
(d) The Election Commission
Answer: (d) The Election Commission

Q26. A recognized political party is one that

(a) Is registered with the Election Commission of India.
(b) Is given a unique Election symbol
(c) Gets some other facilities recognized by the Election Commission
(d) All of these
Answer: (d) All of these
Q27. An Affidavit signifies (Legal);
(a) Signed document where a person makes a sworn statement
regarding his or her antecedents.
(b) A law to check the menace.
(c) Legal document to declare the academic qualification.
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a) Signed document where a person makes a sworn
statement regarding his or her antecedents.
Q28. What is an ideological one-party system?
(a) Party based on suppression of other parties.
(b) Party based on coercion.
(c) Party based on ideological reasons; coercion and suppression of
other parties.
(d) Party based on communist ideology.
Answer: (c) Party based on ideological reasons; coercion and
suppression of other parties.
Q29. Name the oldest political party of India.
(a) Bahujan Samaj Party
(b) Indian National Congress (Congress Party)
(c) The Communist Party
(d) Bharatiya Janata Party
Answer: (b) Indian National Congress (Congress Party)
Q30. Recognized political parties stand for:
(a) Parties recognized by the Election Commission with all the
privileges and facilities.
(b) Parties that is present in only one of the federal units.
(c) Parties that is present in several and all units of the federation.
(d) Communal parties based on regional diversities.
Answer: (a) Parties recognized by the Election Commission with all
the privileges and facilities.
Q31. Political parties are most visible institutions in a democracy because
(a) Even less educated citizens know about political parties.
(b) For ordinary citizens democracy is equal to political parties.
(c) Parties have become identified with social: and political divisions.
(d) Most people in a democracy are not critical of political parties.
Answer: (d) Most people in a democracy are not critical of political
parties.
Q32. An example of a country where two-party system exists
(a) India
(b) United Kingdom
(c) China
(d) Pakistan
Answer: (b) United Kingdom
Q33. An example of a country having the multi-party system is
(a) China
(b) USA
(c) India
(d) United Kingdom
Answer: (c) India
Q34. The term ‗partisan‘ means:
(a) A group of people who come together to promote common beliefs.
(b) Affair of the state or the science of governance.
(c) A person who is strongly committed to a party.
(d) The ruling party which runs the government.
Answer: (c) A person who is strongly committed to a party.
Q35. A recognized political party is
(a) A party that is present in only one of the federal units.
(b) A party that is present in several and all units of the federation.
(c) A party that is based on regional and communal diversities.
(d) A party recognized by the ‘Election Commission’ with all the
privileges and facilities.
Answer: (d) A party recognized by the ‘Election Commission’ with all
the privileges and facilities
Q36. A government is expected to base its policies on the line taken by the
____________.
Answer: Explanation: Ruling party
Q37. The UK and USA have ____________ party system.
Answer: Explanation: Two parties
Q38. The Constitution was amended to stop ____________ .
Answer:
Explanation: Defection
Q39. ____________ is the tendency to take a side and inability to take a
balanced view on an issue.
Answer/Explanation Explanation Partisan
Q40. One of the demerits, of multiparty, is that it often appears very messy
and leads to political ____________ .
Answer: Explanation: Instability
Q41. Communist Party of India is the oldest political party. (True/False)
Answer: Explanation: False
Q42. Opposition parties are known as political minority. (True/False)
Answer: Explanation: True
Q43. Trinomial congress is a regional party of Odisha. (True/False)
Answer: Explanation: False
Q44. Bahujan Samaj Party was founded by Kanshi Ram in 1984.
(True/False)
Answer: Explanation: True
Q45. The UK and USA have a Two Party system. (True/False)
Answer: Explanation: True
Q46. What is one of the most visible institutions in a democracy?
Answer: Explanation: Political parties.
Q47. What is democracy equal to for most common people?
Answer:
Explanation: For most common people democracy is equal to political
parties.
Q48. To what have the political parties been identified with?
Answer:
Explanation: In the recent decades, political parties have been
identified with social and political divisions.
Q49. Explain the meaning of ‗Political Party‘. [All India 2017 (C)]
Answer:
Explanation: A political party is a group of people who come together
to contest elections and hold power in the government. For e.g.
Indian National Congress, Bharatiya Janata Party
Q50. Define ‗Partisan‘.
Explanation:
A person strongly committed to a party, group or faction is called
partisan.
Q51. Name the three components of political parties.
Answer: Explanation:
The leaders, the active members and the followers
Q52. Mention the difference between the party system of USA and India.
Answer:
Explanation: In USA, members and supporters of a party choose its
candidates whereas in India, top party leaders choose candidates for
contesting elections.
Q53. What provides policy direction to be formulated by the government?
Answer:
Explanation: A large number of similar opinions grouped together.
Q54. In what way do political parties play the role of an opposition?
Answer:
Explanation:
By voicing different views and criticizing the government for its
failures or wrong policies.
Q55. Why do parties have to be responsive to people‘s needs and demands?
Answer:
Explanation:
Because the people can reject them are the next elections.
Q56. What led to the rise of political parties?
Answer:
Explanation: Emergence of representative democracy
Q57. What do you mean by two-party or bi-party system?
Answer:
Explanation: A political system where there are two major parties.
Q58. Define multiparty system.
Answer:
Explanation: A political system where more than two parties exist and
contest elections to come to power.
Q59. Can we have party less Democracy? Why/ Why not. [HOTS]
Answer:
Explanation: No it is not possible to have a party-less democracy
because political parties are necessary to conduct elections and to
make parliamentary system more systematic.
Q60. Why do we have a multiparty system in India? [Delhi 2015]
Answer:
Explanation:
Because of its social and geographical diversity that cannot be
absorbed by two or three parties.
Q61. On what basis does a country choose its party system?
Answer:
Explanation:
A country chooses its party system on the basis of the:
(a) Nature of society
(b) History of elections
(c) Social differences

Q62. Which two kinds of political parties do the democracies have all over
the world?
Answer:
Explanation:
(a) Parties that is present only in the federal units
(b) Parties that is present in several or all units of the federation
Q63. Why are some political parties called national parties?
Answer:
Explanation: Because all their units in the country follow the same
policies and programmes and strategies that are decided at the
national level.
Q64. Which organization does recognize ‗Political Parties‘ in India?
Answer:
Explanation: Election Commission
Q65. How many recognized national parties are there in India?
Answer:
Explanation:
There are seven recognized national parties in India.
Q66. Which party emerged as the fourth largest party in the 2014 Lok Sabha
elections?
Answer:
Explanation: The All India Trinamool Congress (AITC)
Q67. Which party played a dominant role in Indian politics at the national
and state level for several decades after India‘s Independence?
Answer:
Explanation: Indian National Congress
Q68. How was the Bharatiya Janta Party formed?
Answer:
Explanation: BJP was founded in 1980 by reviving the erstwhile
Bharatiya Jana Sangh, formed by Syama Prasad Mukherjee in 1951.
Q69. What is the main philosophy of Bharatiya Janta Party?
Answer:
Explanation: To build a strong and modem India by drawing
inspiration from India’s ancient culture and values.
Q70. Name the party that adopted the concept of Hindutva (cultural
nationalism) in India.
Answer:
Explanation: Bharatiya Janta Party
Q71. Which political party seeks to represent and secure power for dalits,
OBCs and adivasis?
Answer:
Explanation: The Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP)

Q72. Which two parties were formed after their split with the parent party?
Answer:
Explanation:
The two parties formed after their split with parent party are
(a) The Communist Party of India-Marxist (CPI-M) from Communist
Party of India (CPI) in 1964.
(b) The Nationalist Congress Party (NCP) from the Indian National
Congress (INC) in 1999.
Q73. Name the party that believes that high offices in government should be
confined to natural bom citizens of the country.
Answer:
Explanation: The Nationalist Congress Party
Q74. Give the meaning of state or regional party.
Answer:
Explanation: A party which is present in only one of the federal units
and is identified with that region only
Q75. Name any two State/Regional parties of Bengal.
Answer:
Explanation:
(a) Forward Block
(b) Trinamool Congress
Q76. If all the decisions of a political party are made by a single family and
all other members are neglected, then what challenge is being faced by that
party? [Delhi 2015]
Answer:
Explanation:
In this situation the party faces the challenge of dynastic succession.
Q77. Define defection.
Answer:
Explanation:
It means leaving a political party to join another for some personal
gains.
Q78. Define an ‗affidavit‘.
Answer:
Explanation:
It is a signed document submitted to offices, where a person makes
a sworn statement regarding his/her personal information.
Q79. Do political parties educate people?
Answer:
Explanation: Yes, political parties educate people through various
means like debates, discussions, etc.
Q80. How do political parties shape public opinion?
Answer:
Explanation: Political parties shape public opinion by raising and
highlighting public issues with the help of their activists and
members spread all over the country.
Q81. Define mono-party system.
Answer:
Explanation: The one-party or mono-party system is such a political
system in which only one party is allowed to control and run the
government, for example, Communist Party in China.
Q82. Name any one political party that has national level political
organization but is not recognized as the national political party.
Answer:
Explanation: Samajwadi Party, Samta Party and Rashtriya Janata Dal.
Q83. Why is one-party political system not considered a good option in
democratic system?
Explanation: One-party political system not considered a good option
in democratic system.
Q84. Fill in the Blanks
1. In some countries, such as …………, members and supporters of a party
choose its candidates.
2. A political party is a group of people who come together with a view to
promote …………. .
3. A government is expected to base its policies on the line taken by the
4. Formally, laws are debated and passed in the …………. .
5. The parties that lose in the elections play the role of …………. to the party
in power by criticising its failures.
6. Many of the …………. groups are extensions of political parties among
different sections of societies.
Answers
1. The USA
2. Collective good
3. Ruling party
4. Legislature
5. Opposition
6. Pressure
 OUTCOMES OF DEMOCRACY
Q1. Economic growth depends on which of the following?
(a) Size of the population of the country
(b) Territory or area of the country
(c) Global scenario
(d) Co-operation among various nations
Answer: (d) Co-operation among various nations
Q2. Social outcomes cover the areas like
(i) Dignity and freedom of citizens
(ii) Untouchability and discrimination
(iii) Gender equality
(iv) Ban on child labour
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (ii), (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i) only
Answer: (b) (ii), (i) and (iv)
Q3. The basic outcome of democracy is
(a) Political, social and economic outcome
(b) Military outcome
(c) Restricted and limited welfare policies.
(d) Elimination of poverty
Answer: (a) Political, social and economic outcome
Q4. If a government provides its citizens a right and means to examine the
process of decision, it is
(a) An accountable government
(b) A responsible government
(c) A transparent government
(d) A stable government
Answer: (a) An accountable government
Q5. What do democracies ensure regarding decision making?
(a) Process of transparency
(b) Decisions taken by the head of the country
(c) Decision by the Council of Ministers
(d) Restricted popular participation in decision making
Answer: (a) Process of transparency
Q6. Which of the following is not true about democracy?
(а) It always worries about majorities and public opinion.
(б) It improves the quality of decision making.
(c) Decision making is faster and quicker.
(d) It allows a room to correct mistakes.
Answer: (c) Decision making is faster and quicker.
Q7. Why is democracy considered as the better form of government than
dictatorship?
(a) Promotes equality and enhances dignity of the individual.
(b) Never allows room to correct mistakes.
(c) Majority community rule
(d) Provides methods to resolve conflicts
Answer: (a) Promotes equality and enhances dignity of the individual
Q8. Political outcome signifies:
(i) Accountable and responsible government.
(ii) Military rule
(iii) Legitimate government
(iv) Restricted popular participation
(a) (z), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (iii), (i) and (ii)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (i) and (iii)
Answer: (d) (i) and (iii)
Q9. A government that takes decision by following norms and a proper
procedure is:
(a) An accountable government
(b) A responsible government
(c) A transparent government
(d) A stable government
Answer: (c) A transparent government
Q10. A democratic government is:
(a) An accountable government
(b) A responsive government
(c) A legitimate government
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
Q11. When was democracy introduced in India?
(a) 1952
(b) 1950
(c) 1947
(d) 1949
Answer: (b) 1950
Q12. Among the following which country tops in inequality of income?
(a) Hungary
(b) Russia
(c) South Africa
(d) UK
Answer: (c) South Africa
Q13. Among the following regimes which tops the rate of economic growth?
(a) All democratic regimes
(b) All dictatorial regimes
(c) Poor countries under dictatorship
(d) Poor countries under democracy
Answer: (b) All dictatorial regimes
Q14. To measure democracies on the basis of expected outcomes, which of
the following practices and institutions would one look for?
(a) Regular, free and fair elections
(b) Open public debate on major policies
(c) Citizens‘ right to information about the government
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
Q15. The basic elements of democracy are:
A. Universal Adult Franchise
B. Fraternity and national unity
C. Liberty and equality
D. Dignity and freedom of an individual
(a) A, B & D
(b) A, C & D
(c) B, C & D
(d) A, B, C & D

Answer: (d) A, B, C & D

Q16. In a democracy, a citizen has the right and means to examine the
process of decision-making. This is known as
(a) Dictatorship
(b) Transparency
(c) Legitimacy
(d) Equality
Answer: (b) Transparency
Q17. Consider the following statements. Which of these do not hold true for
non-democratic regimes?
(a) These do not have to bother about public opinion.
(b) These take less time at arriving at a decision.
(c) Principle of individual dignity has legal force.
(d) These often suppress internal social differences.
Answer: (c) Principle of individual dignity has legal force
Q18. The most basic outcome of democracy is:
(a) It provides accountability to citizens.
(b) It addresses socio-economic and political problems.
(c) It produces good government.
(d) It accommodates religious differences.
Answer: (a) It provides accountability to citizens.
Q19. Democratic government is better than non-democratic because
(a) It is a legitimate form of government.
(b) Overwhelming support for the idea all over the world.
(c) It leads to a just distribution of goods and opportunities.
(d) It ensures faster economic growth.
Answer: (a) It is a legitimate form of government.
Q20. ‗Equal treatment of women‘ is a necessary ingredient of a democratic
society. This means that:
(a) Women are actually always treated with respect.
(b) It is now easier for women to legally wage struggle for their
rights.
(c) Most societies across the world are now increasingly women dominated.
(d) Women are now treated as equals in the political arena.
Answer: (b) It is now easier for women to legally wage struggle for
their rights.
Q21. Growth and development of the country in the way of providing better
facilities and services to the individual signifies _____________ .
Answer:
Explanation: economic development
Q22. Denial of opportunities to lead a long health, creative life and to enjoy
a decent standard of living is related to _____________ .
Answer:
Explanation: Poverty
Q23. Decisions taken through the correct procedure by involving the people
is known as _____________ .
Answer:
Explanation: Transparency
Q24. The government ruled by the monarch or king of the country is known
as _____________ .
Answer:
Explanation: Monarchy
Q25. Privileges and rights to be valuable and important for the functioning of
democratic society are called _____________ .
Answer:
Explanation: Civil liberties
Q26. A democratic government is an accountable government. (True/False)
Answer:
Explanation: True
Q27. Democracies have successfully eliminated conflicts among people.
(True/False)
Answer:
Explanation: False
Q28. The disadvantaged and discriminated castes have gained in strength
due to democracy. (True/False)
Answer:
Explanation: True
Q29. Political outcome signifies Military rule. (True/False)
Answer:
Explanation: False
Q30. Match the columns.
Column A Column B
(a) A democratic government is a (i) idea of political inequality
(b) A democracy is attentive to the needs of (ii) improves the quality of
decision making
(c) Democracies have successfully eliminated (iii) legitimate government
(d) Democracy is considered a better form (iv) all citizens of
government as it
Answer:
Explanation:
(a) (iii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (i)
(d) (ii)
Q31. What are the basic elements of democracy in practical sense?
Answer:
Explanation: The basic elements of democracy are formal
constitutions, regular, fair and free elections, political parties and
fundamental rights to citizens.
Q32. How are most democracies different from each other?
Answer:
Explanation: Most democracies are different from each after in terms
of their social systems, economic achievements and culture.
Q33. What should be the basic outcome of democracy?
Answer:
Explanation: The basic outcome of democracy should be that it
produces an accountable, responsive and legitimate government.
Q34. Why are non-democratic governments quick and efficient in decision-
making and implementation?
Answer:
Explanation: Non-democratic rulers do not bother about careful
discussion and public opinion.
Q35. Why are decisions delayed in democracy?
Answer:
Explanation: Because democratic governments are based on the idea
of deliberation and negotiation.
Q36. What do democracies ensure regarding decision-making?
Answer:
Explanation:Democracies ensure that decision-making is based on
norms and procedures.
Q37. What is meant by transparency? [All India 2015]
Answer:
Explanation: In a democracy, the term transparency signifies that
decisions are taken through the correct procedure.
Q38. In what aspects do the democracies have a greater success rate?
Answer:
Explanation: Democracies have a greater success rate in setting up
regular and free elections and providing conditions for an open
public debate.
Q39. The record of democracies is not impressive on two counts. What are
they?
Answer:
Explanation:
(a) They are not attentive enough to the needs and demands of the
people.
(b) The democracies are not free of corruption.
Q40. Why is there an overwhelming support for democracy all over the
world?
Answer:
Explanation:
Because a democratic government is people’s own government.
Q41. List any two factors on which economic development depends.
Answer:
Explanation:
Economic development depends on several factors as under:
(a) A country’s population size
(b) Global situation
(c) Cooperation from other countries
(d) Economic priorities (any two)
Q42. What is political equality?
Answer:
Explanation:
All individuals have equal weight in electing representatives.
Q43. How can you say that democracies are based on political equality?[All
India 2015]
Answer:
Explanation: As they ensure and promote universal adult franchise.
Q44. ‗Democracy cannot solve all economic and social problems but still it is
perceived.‘ Why?
Answer:
Explanation: ‘No form of government can fully solve all economic and
social problems. However, it is democracy that creates situations
that help citizens to solve their social and economic problems.
Q45. What is economic inequality?
Answer:
Explanation: Economic inequality prevails when a small number of
ultra-rich enjoy a highly disproportionate share of wealth and
income.
Q46. Which country is suffering from the adverse form of economic
inequality?
Answer: Explanation: Bangladesh
Q47. What is the unique plus point of democratic regions?
Answer:
Explanation: Ability to handle social differences, divisions and
conflicts.
Q48. How long can the democracy remain democracy?
Answer:
Explanation: As long as every citizen has a chance of being in majority
at some point of time.
Q49. In what aspects does democracy stand much superior to any other
from of government?
Answer:
Explanation: Democracy stands much superior in promoting dignity
and freedom of a person.
Q50. Trace any two provisions of Indian government to eradicate caste
inequalities.
Explanation: The following are the two provisions of Indian
government to eradicate caste inequalities.
(a) Legal and moral rights have been granted to fight for equal
status.
(b) The practice of untouchability has been banned.
Q51. List two valid points which promote dignity of women in a democratic
government.
Answer:
Explanation:
Two valid points which promote dignity of women in a democratic
government are as follows.
(a) Women empowerment through reservation and freedom
(b) Freedom to launch movements against social evils.
Q52. Which two sections of society get special emphasis in the Indian
Constitution regarding equal status and equal opportunities?
Explanation:
- Women, the disadvantaged and discriminated castes and
tribes.
Q53. Name any two basic constituents of democracy.
Answer:
Explanation:
The basic constituents or aspects of democracy are:
(a) Political: government by consent.
(b) Social: social and economic equality.
(c) Economic: equal opportunity, equal status and equal distribution
of income. (any two)
54. What is the dilemma regarding the practical aspect of democracy?
Answer:
Explanation: The main dilemma regarding the practical aspect of
democracy is that democracy is seen to be good in principle but felt
to be not so good in practice.
Q55. List the countries which strongly believe in democracy and people‘s
rule. Which country has least belief in the strength of people‘s vote?
Answer:
Explanation: India and USA strongly believe in democracy and
Pakistan has least belief in democracy.
Q56. Fill in the Blanks
1. Democracy is seen to be good in (i) …………… but not so good in its (ii)
…………… .
2. We prefer democracy over dictatorships due to …………… reasons.
3. Democracies are different from each other in terms of the (i) ……………
situations, their (ii) …………… achievements and their (iii) …………… .
4. The most basic outcome of democracy is that it produces a government
that is …………… to the citizens.
5. Non-democratic governments are …………… in decision-making and
implementation.
6. Democracy is based on the idea of …………… .
7. Democratic governments take …………… time to follow procedures before
arriving at a decision.
8. Democratic governments …………… a very good record when it comes to
sharing information with citizens.
9. Difference in the rate of economic development between less developed
countries with dictatorship and less developed countries with democracies is
…………… .
10. Democracies are mostly based on …………… equality.
Answers
1. (i) principle (ii) practice
2. Both moral and prudential
3. (i) social (ii) economic (iii) cultures
4. Accountable
5. Quick
6. Both deliberation and negotiation
7. More
8. Do not have
9. Negligible
10. Political
Q57. Which one of the following is an example of outcomes of a democracy
that produces an accountable government?
(a) Open to public debates on major policies and legislation
(b) Open in promoting economic development
(c) Open in reducing economic inequalities
(d) Open to rulers elected by the people
Answer: (a) Open to public debates on major policies and legislation
Q58. Which one of the following is the most popular form of government in
the contemporary world?
(a) Dictatorship
(b) Monarchy
(c) Military rule
(d) Democracy
Answer: (d) Democracy
Q59. Which one of the following features is common to most of the
democracies?
(a) They have formal Constitution
(b) They hold regular elections
(c) They have political parties
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
Q60. In which one of the following countries is democracy not preferred over
dictatorship?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Pakistan
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) India
Answer: (b) Pakistan
Q61. Which one of the following is not the way to resolve a conflict in a
democracy?
(a) Mass mobilization
(b) Using Parliament
(c) Doing justice
(d) Armed revolution
Answer: (d) Armed revolution
Q62.‗Equal treatment of women‘ is a necessary ingredient of a democratic
society. This means that:
(a) Women are actually always treated with respect.
(b) It is now easier for women to legally wage struggle for their
rights.
(c) Most societies across the world are now increasingly women dominated.
(d) Women are now treated as equals in the political arena.
Answer: (b) it is now easier for women to legally wage struggle for
their rights.
Q63. Democratic government is better than non-democratic because
(a) It is a legitimate form of government.
(b) Overwhelming support for the idea all over the world.
(c) It leads to a just distribution of goods and opportunities.
(d) It ensures faster economic growth.
Answer: (a) it is a legitimate form of government.
Q64. Consider the following statements. Which of these do not hold true for
non-democratic regimes?
(a) These do not have to bother about public opinion.
(b) These take less time at arriving at a decision.
(c) Principle of individual dignity has legal force.
(d) These often suppress internal social differences.
Answer: (c) Principle of individual dignity has legal force.
Q65. In a democracy, a citizen has the right and means to examine the
process of decision-making. This is known as
(a) Dictatorship
(b) Transparency
(c) Legitimacy
(d) Equality
Answer: (b) Transparency
Q66. To measure democracies on the basis of expected outcomes, which of
the following practices and institutions would one look for?
(a) Regular, free and fair elections
(b) Open public debate on major policies
(c) Citizens‘ right to information about the government
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
Q67. On which of the following practices and institutions can the
accountability of government and involvement of people in decision-making
process in a democracy be measured?
(a) Regular, free and fair elections
(b) Public debate on major policies and legislations
(c) Citizens‘ right to information about government and its functioning
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
Q68. Decisions taken by which type of government is likely to be more
acceptable to the people and more effective?
(a) Democratic government
(b) Non-democratic government
(c) Military dictatorship
(d) Theocracy
Answer: (a) Democratic government
Q69. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Democracies can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different
groups
(b) Dictatorships can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different
groups
(c) No regime can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among
different groups
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: (c) No regime can fully and permanently resolve conflicts
among different groups
Q70. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Most of the democracies have constitutions, they hold elections, have
parties and they guarantee rights to citizens
(b) Democracies are very much different from each other in terms of their
social, economic and cultural achievements
(c) All democracies are similar as far as social, economic and cultural
conditions are concerned
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q71. Why is there a delay in decision-making and implementation in a
democracy?
(a) The government don‘t want to take decisions
(b) The government is hesitant in taking decisions
(c) Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation
(d) A democratic government is not interested in taking quick decisions
Answer: (c) Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and
negotiation
Q72. In the context of democracies, what is successfully done by
Democracies?
(a) Eliminated conflicts among people
(b) Eliminated economic inequalities among people
(c) Eliminated differences of opinion about how marginalised sections are to
be treated
(d) Rejected the idea of political inequality
Answer: (d) Rejected the idea of political inequality
Q73. What is promoted much superiorly by democracy than any other form
of government?
(a) Economic growth
(b) Dignity and freedom of the individual
(c) Economic equality
(d) None of these
Answer: (b) Dignity and freedom of the individual
Q73. Which regimes often turn a blind eye to or suppress internal social
differences?
(a) Democratic regimes
(b) Non-democratic regimes
(c) Monarchy
(d) Oligarchy
Answer: (b) Non-democratic regimes
Q74. In which of these countries half of the population lives in poverty?
(a) India
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Pakistan
Answer: (c) Bangladesh
Q75. Which among the following has a higher rate of economic growth and
development?
(a) Democracies
(b) Dictatorships
(c) All non-democratic regimes
(d) Monarchies
Answer: (b) Dictatorships
Picture-based Questions:

Q1. Look at the given cartoons taken from NCERT Textbook pages 93-96
and 99.

The above cartoons tell us about the disparities between the rich and the
poor. Should the gains of economic growth be evenly distributed? How can
the poor get a voice for a better share in a nation? What can the poor
countries do to receive a greater share in the world‘s wealth?
Answer:
In democracy all over the world we find disparities between the rich and the
poor. The reason is that the gains of economic growth are not evenly
distributed among the people. A smaller number of ultra-rich enjoy a highly
disproportionate share of wealth and incomes. But those at the bottom of
the society have very little to depend upon. Their incomes have been
declining. Sometimes they find it difficult to meet their basic needs of life,
such as food, clothing, house, education and health.
To get a voice for a better share in a nation the poor need to come together
and draw government‘s attention towards their problems. If needed, they
should start protest movements to get coverage in media.

The poor countries should get united and raise their voice collectively to
draw the attention of the rich and powerful countries towards the problems
they are suffering from. They should point out how rich countries are
accountable to some of their problems and how they exploit natural
resources so carelessly. The poor countries should hold meetings and
discussions to pressurize the rich countries to stop doing injustices.