1.

Consider the following statement and select the correct

answer:
A. All the recommendations of the Justice Verma Committee are
incorporated in the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013
B. Some of the recommendations of the Justice Verma Committee
are incorporated in the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013
C. Most of the recommendations of Justice Verma Committee are
incorporated in the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013
D. None of the above.
Ans. D
2. Which of the following sections have been inserted in
the Indian Penal Code, 1860 by the Criminal Law
(Amendment) Act, 2013, namely:
A. Section 376A
B. Section 376B
C. Sections 166A, 166B, 354C
D. All of the above.
Ans. D
3. According to Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, the
right of private defence of the body extends to the
voluntary causing of death or of any other harm to the
assistant if the offence which occasions the exercise of the
right is the act of:
A. Stalking
B. Voyeurism
C. Acid Attack
D. All of the above.
Ans. C
4. Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid is an
offence punishable under Indian Penal Code, 1860, under:
A. Section 326A
B. Section 326B
C. Section 228A
D. Section 228.
Ans. B
5. A demand or request for sexual favour from a woman is
punishable offence under Indian Penal Code, 1860, under:
A. Section 354A
B. Section 354B
C. Section 354C
D. Section 354D.
Ans. A
6. A man shall be guilty of the offence of sexual
harassment under section 354A of Indian Penal Code,
1860, if he commits:
(i) Physical contact and advances involving unwelcome and explicit
sexual overtures.
(ii) A demand or request for sexual favours.
(iii) Showing pornography against the will of a woman.
(iv) Making sexually coloured remarks.
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iii)
C. (i), (ii) and (iii)
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
Ans. D
7. A man is said to commit “rape” if he penetrates his
penis, to any extent, into the ________ of a woman:
A. Vagina
B. Mouth
C. Urethra or Anus
D. All of the above.
Ans. D
8. When a man inserts, to any extent, any object or a part
of the body, not being the penis, into the vagina, the
urethra or anus of a woman or makes her to do so with
him or any other person, he commits:
A. Rape
B. Sexual Harassment
C. Sexual Assault
D. None of the above.
Ans. A
9. To establish section 34 of IPC:
A. common intention be proved but not overt act be proved
B. common intention and overt act both be proved
C. common intention need not be proved but overt act be proved
D. all the above.
Ans. A
10. Section 34 of IPC:
A. creates a substantive offence
B. is a rule of evidence
C. both (a) and (b)
D. neither (a) nor (b).
Ans. B
11. ‘X’ & ‘Y’ go to murder ‘Z’. ‘X’ stood on guard with a
spear in hand but did not hit ‘Z’ at all. Y killed ‘Z’:
A. only ‘Y’ is liable for murder of Z
B. ‘X’ & ‘Y’ both are liable for murder of ‘Z’
C. ‘X’ is not liable as he did not perform any overt act
D. both (a) & (c).
Ans. B
12. ‘Voluntarily’ has been defined as an effect caused by
means whereby a person intended to cause it or by means,
at the time of employing those means, know or had reason
to believe to be likely to cause it under:
A. section 39
B. section 38
C. section 37
D. section 40.
Ans. A
13. Under section 45 of IPC, life denotes:
A. life of a human being
B. life of an animal
C. life of human being and of an animal both
D. life of either human being or animal.
Ans. A
14. Under section 46 of IPC, death denotes:
A. death of a human being
B. death of an animal
C. death of a human being and of an animal both
D. death of either human being or an animal.
Ans. A
15. Illegal signifies:
A. everything which is an offence
B. everything which is prohibited by law
C. everything which furnishes ground for civil action
D. all the above.
Ans. D
16. Animal denotes:
A. any living creature including human being
B. any living creature other than a human being
C. any creature – live or dead
D. either (a) or (c).
Ans. B
17. How many types of punishments have been prescribed
under the Indian Penal Code:
A. three
B. six
C. five
D. four.
Ans. C
18. Under section 60 of IPC, in certain cases of
imprisonment, the sentence of imprisonment:
A. has to be wholly rigorous
B. has to be wholly simple
C. can be partly rigorous and partly simple
D. either (a) or (b).
Ans. C
19. Sentence of imprisonment for non-payment of fine
under section 64 of IPC:
A. shall be in excess of any other imprisonment to which an
offender has been sentenced
B. shall be concurrent of any other imprisonment
C. shall not be in excess of any other imprisonment
D. both (b) & (c).
Ans. A
20. Under section 65 of IPC sentence of imprisonment for
non-payment of fine shall be limited to:
A. one-third of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the
offence
B. one-fourth of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the
offence
C. one-half of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the
offence
D. equal to the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the
offence.
Ans. B
21. In case of an offence punishable with fine only,
imprisonment for non-payment of fine:
A. has to be rigorous
B. has to be simple
C. can be rigorous or simple
D. can be partly rigorous and partly simple.
Ans. B
22. Under section 498A of IPC cruelty includes:
A. harassment of the woman
B. physical cruelty only
C. mental cruelty only
D. cruelty by wife.
Ans. A
23. In case of an offence punishable with fine only, an
offender who is sentenced to pay a fine of not exceeding
Rs. 100 but exceeding Rs. 50, the imprisonment in default
of payment of fine shall not exceed:
A. two months
B. three months
C. four months
D. six months.
Ans. C
24. In case of an offence punishable with fine only, an
offender who is sentenced to pay a fine exceeding Rs. 100,
the imprisonment in default of payment of fine shall not
exceed:
A. one year
B. six months
C. four months
D. two months.
Ans. B
25. Section 64 of IPC provides for:
A. nature & maximum limit of imprisonment for non-payment of
fine
B. nature & minimum limit of imprisonment for non-payment of
fine
C. nature but does not prescribe any limit of imprisonment for non-
payment of fine
D. limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine but does not
prescribe the nature of imprisonment.
Ans. C
26. Imprisonment for non-payment of fine shall
terminate:
A. on payment of fine
B. on expiry of the term of imprisonment for non-payment
C. both (a) & (b)
D. neither (a) nor (b).
Ans. C
27. In case of imprisonment for non-payment of fine, if a
part of the fine is paid, such sentence:
A. shall be reduced proportionately
B. shall not be reduced in direct proportion to the fine paid
C. shall be reduced but subject to the discretion of the court as to
the quantum of reduction
D. all of the above.
Ans. A
28. Section 73 of IPC provides for the maximum limit of
solitary confinement to be:
A. one year
B. two years
C. three months
D. six months.
Ans. C
29. If an offender has been sentenced to imprisonment not
exceeding six months, the solitary confinement:
A. shall not exceed 15 days
B. shall not exceed one month
C. shall not exceed two months
D. shall not exceed forty-five days.
Ans. B
30. If an offender is sentenced to imprisonment for a term
exceeding six months but not exceeding one year, the term
of solitary confinement:
A. shall not exceed one month
B. shall not exceed forty-five days
C. shall not exceed two months
D. shall not exceed three months.
Ans. C
31. If an offender is sentenced to imprisonment for a term
exceeding one year, the term of solitary confinement shall
not exceed:
A. one month
B. two months
C. three months
D. six months.
Ans. C
32. Nothing is said to be done or believed to be done in
goodfaith which is done or believed without due care &
intention – is the definition of goodfaith contained in:
A. section 29 of IPC
B. section 29A of IPC
C. section 52 of IPC
D. section 52A of IPC.
Ans. C
33. General exceptions are contained in:
A. chapter III of IPC
B. chapter IV of IPC
C. chapter V of IPC
D. chapter VI of IPC.
Ans. B
34. Section 76 provides that nothing is an offence which is
done by a person who is or who by reason of:
A. mistake of fact in good faith believes himself to be bound by law
to do it
B. mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be bound by law
to do it
C. mistake of fact believes himself to be bound by morals to do it
D. all the above.
Ans. A
35. Under section 79, nothing is an offence which is done
by a person who is justified by law or who by reason of
mistake of fact in goodfaith believes himself to be:
A. bound by law to do it
B. justified by law to do it
C. bound by morality to do it
D. all the above.
Ans. B
36. The maximum ‘ignorantia juris non excusat’ means:
A. ignorance of law is no excuse
B. ignorance of fact is no excuse
C. ignorance of law is an excuse
D. ignorance of fact is an excuse.
Ans. A
37. Section 76 & section 79 of IPC provide the general
exception of:
A. mistake of law
B. mistake of fact
C. both mistake of law and fact
D. either mistake of law or of fact.
Ans. B
38. Accident as an exception has been dealt with in:
A. section 77
B. section 78
C. section 80
D. section 82.
Ans. C
39. Under section 80, the exception of accident is available
when an offence is committed while:
A. doing a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means
B. doing a lawful act in any manner by any means
C. doing a lawful act in a lawful manner by any means
D. all the above.
Ans. A
40. The principle as to the way in which a man should
behave when he has to make a choice between two evils is
illustrated in:
A. section 80 of IPC
B. section 81 of IPC
C. section 82 of IPC
D. section 78 of IPC.
Ans. B
41. Who was the President of the drafting committee of the
Indian Penal Code?
A. Lord William Bentinck
B. Lord Curzon
C. Lord Macaulay
D. Lord Irwin
Ans. C
42. Assault or use of criminal force on a woman with
intent to outrage her modesty is dealt under-
A. Section 354 of IPC
B. Section 355 of IPC
C. Section 356 of IPC
D. Section 357 of IPC
Ans. A
43. Under which name the Indian Penal Code came into
application in Jammu and Kashmir?
A. Indian Legislative Act
B. Ranbir Penal Code
C. Indian Penal Act
D. Mahomedan Act
Ans. B
44. Assault or use of criminal force in an attempt to
wrongfully confine a person is dealt under-
A. Section 357 of IPC
B. Section 358 of IPC
C. Section 359 of IPC
D. Section 360 of IPC
Ans. A
45. Which of the following is the principle applied in
construing a penal Act?
A. If, in any construing the relevant provisions, “there appears any
doubt of ambiguity,” it will be resolved against the person who
would be liable to the penalty.
B. If, in any construing the relevant provisions, “there appears any
doubt of ambiguity,” it will be resolved in the favour of the person
who would be liable to the penalty.
C. If, in any construing the relevant provisions, “there appears any
doubt of ambiguity,” it will attract life imprisonment.
D. If, in any construing the relevant provisions, “there appears any
doubt of ambiguity,” it will attract capital punishment.
Ans. B
46. Which of the following matches is incorrect relative to
the use of the English law?
A. Sections 96 to 106 of the Code – can be interpreted on the basis
of principles governing self defence under the English law
B. Reliance on case decided under the English law – misleading
C. In defamation cases the court must with reference – Section 499
D. Indian Penal Code is based on – English Common Law in respect
to the major offences which are universally applicable
Ans. A
47. Putting or attempting to put a person in fear of death
or grievous hurt in order to commit extortion is dealt
under-
A. Section 385 of IPC
B. Section 386 of IPC
C. Section 387 of IPC
D. Section 388 of IPC
Ans. C
48. actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea means?
A. a deed, a material result of human conduct
B. the intent and act must both concur to constitute the crime
C. putting to death
D. uncommended manner
Ans. B
49. X added potassium cyanide into Y’s drink intending to
kill him. However, Z also happened to sip from Y’s glass.
They both died. The medical report claimed that Y actually
died of a cardiac arrest, as the poisonous substance
administered was insufficient to cause his death. In
addition, Z died due to the effect of the poison. So:
A. X is liable for the death of Y and not for the death of Z
B. X is not liable for the death neither of Y nor of Z
C. X is liable for the death of both Y and Z
D. X is liable for the death of Z only
Ans. B
50. Cheating and thereby dishonesty inducing delivery of
property, or the making alteration or destruction of a
valuable security is dealt under-
A. Section 417 of IPC
B. Section 418 of IPC
C. Section 419 of IPC
D. Section 420 of IPC
Ans. D
51. Literally, mens rea means:
A. guilty mind
B. a guilty or a wrongful purpose
C. a criminal intent, a guilty knowledge and wilfulness
D. All of the above
Ans. D
52. The appellant stabbed the deceased in the abdomen.
The deceased was taken promptly to hospital and the
wound was stitched but few days later he died. The
evidence showed that at the time of death the wound had
healed. But due to terramycin injection being given in
excess lungs had become over logged and caused
pneumonia on the question of causation:
A. The appellant can be acquitted
B. The appellant cannot be acquitted
C. The appellant and the doctor both cannot be acquitted
D. The doctor must be acquitted
Ans. A
53. Habitually dealing in stolen property is dealt under-
A. Section 411 of IPC
B. Section 412 of IPC
C. Section 413 of IPC
D. Section 414 of IPC
Ans. C
54. Cheating is dealt under-
A. Section 417 of IPC
B. Section 418 of IPC
C. Section 419 of IPC
D. Section 420 of IPC
Ans. A
55. Fraudulent removal or concealment of property of
himself or any other person or assisting in the doing
thereof, or dishonesty releasing any demand or claim to
which he is entitled is dealt under-
A. Section 421 of IPC
B. Section 422 of IPC
C. Section 423 of IPC
D. Section 424 of IPC
Ans. D
56. Even though a man’s knowledge that a particular
consequence will probably result from his act is
sometimes an insufficient basis for saying that he intends
it, there are strong reasons for holding that as a legal
matter he can be held to intend something that he knows
for sure he is doing. This is called:
A. skewed intent
B. oblique intent
C. hypothetical intent
D. square intent
Ans. B
57. In which of the following cases mens rea is not an
essential ingredient for offences under-
A. Revenues Acts
B. Public nuisance
C. Criminal case which are in summary mode
D. All of these
Ans. D
58. House-trespass in order to the commission of an
offence punishable with imprisonment if the offence is
theft is dealt under-
A. Section 448 of IPC
B. Section 449 of IPC
C. Section 450 of IPC
D. Section 451 of IPC
Ans. D
59. During house trespass or house-breaking in order to
the commission of an offence punishable with
imprisonment and if the offence is theft is dealt under-
A. Section 169 of IPC
B. Section 170 of IPC
C. Section 171 of IPC
D. Section 454 of IPC
Ans. D
60. Defamation against the President or the Governor of a
State or Administrator of a Union Territory or Minister in
respect of his conduct in the discharge of his public
functions when instituted upon a complaint made by the
Public Prosecutor is dealt under-
A. Section 497 of IPC
B. Section 498 of IPC
C. Section 498A of IPC
D. Section 500 of IPC
Ans. D
61. A had an argument with B and asked her to go leave
him alone and go home. B refused and A struck her on the
head and rendered her unconscious. A dragged B to the
parking lot during which B’s head hit the pavement which
caused her death.
A. A is not responsible for her death as that was not the intent
B. A is only responsible for assaulting her
C. A is responsible for B’s death as the death was caused due A’s
negligence
D. None of them
Ans. C
62. Presumption of culpable mental state of a person as
per Section 10-C of the IPC includes:
I. Intention
II. Motive
III. Knowledge of fact
IV. Belief in or reason to believe a fact
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
Ans. D
63. Grievous hurt caused whilst committing lurking house
trespass or house breaking is dealt under-
A. Section 458 of IPC
B. Section 459 of IPC
C. Section 460 of IPC
D. Section 461 of IPC
Ans. B
64. Dishonesty breaking open or unfastening any closed
receptacle containing or supposed to contain property is
dealt under-
A. Section 458 of IPC
B. Section 459 of IPC
C. Section 460 of IPC
D. Section 461 of IPC
Ans. D
65. A President of a Pharmaceutical Company for
introducing into interstate commerce drugs that were
misbranded. The President pleaded lack of knowledge of
this fact?
A. The President must be convicted
B. The President must be acquitted
C. The President and the company must be convicted
D. none of them
Ans. A
66. False statement, rumour, etc, with intent to create
enmity, hatred or ill-will between different classes is dealt
under-
A. Section 169 of IPC
B. Section 505 of IPC
C. Section 171 of IPC
D. Section 172 of IPC
Ans. B
67. X an employee of Y was driving the vehicle which was
without insurance. Y was convicted for violation of Road
Traffic Act, 1988, who was not even driving the vehicle at
that time. Y appealed against it in the court.
A. the conviction should be upheld
B. the conviction must be set aside
C. both the X and Y must be convicted
D. only X must be convicted
Ans. B
68. The question whether a corporate body should or
should not be liable for criminal action resulting from the
acts of some individuals must depend on:
A. nature of the offense disclosed by the allegations in the complaint
or in the charge sheet
B. the relative position of the officer or agent vis-a-vis the corporate
body
C. other relevant facts and circumstances which could show the
corporate body as such meant or intended to commit that act
D. all of them
Ans. D
69. Automation in legal sense implies:
A. self-acting of performance or involuntary acts
B. without any knowledge of acting or action
C. with no consciousness of what is being done
D. all of them
Ans. D
70. Which of the following is false about the presumption
of innocence?
A. this holds good in all kinds of trials including criminal trials
B. in this case the crime must be brought to a prisoner
C. it can be easily rebutted
D. graver the crime, greater will be the degree of doubt that is
reasonable
Ans. C
71. Which of the following is pointed out by the Supreme
Court regarding the rejection of the prosecution case on
paltry ground?
A. The public are generally reluctant to come forward to depose
before the court hence it not correct to reject the prosecution
version on the ground that all witnesses to the occurrences have not
been examined.
B. Invariably the witnesses add embroidery to the prosecution story,
perhaps for the fear of disbelief, which is not a ground to throw the
case overboard.
C. It is not proper to reject the case for want of corroboration by the
independent witnesses if the case made out is otherwise true or
acceptable.
D. All of them
Ans. D
72. Enticing or taking away or detaining with a criminal
intent a married woman is dealt under-
A. Section 497 of IPC
B. Section 498 of IPC
C. Section 498A of IPC
D. Section 500 of IPC
Ans. B
73. Which of the following is not true of the absence of
explanation from the accused?
A. it is not sufficient to rebut so strong a presumption as that of
innocence
B. it is capable of being taken into account to corroborate other
evidence
C. proof of guilt can be inferred from the mere absence of
explanation
D. it is not material
Ans. C
74. Forgery is dealt under-
A. Section 464 of IPC
B. Section 465 of IPC
C. Section 466 of IPC
D. Section 467 of IPC
Ans. B
75. Having possession of a document, knowing it to be
forged, with intent to use it as genuine; if the document is
one of the description mentioned in section 466 of the
Indian Penal Code is dealt under-
A. Section 471 of IPC
B. Section 472 of IPC
C. Section 473 of IPC
D. Section 474 of IPC
Ans. D
76. In which of the following case the Supreme Court
pointed out this fact in relation to the above question?
A. State of Punjab v. Bhajan Singh (1975)
B. M.S. Sheriff v. State of Madras (1954)
C. Tika v. State of UP (1974)
D. None of them
Ans. B
77. Attempting to commit offences punishable with
imprisonment of life or imprisonment, and in such
attempt doing any act towards the commission of the
offence is dealt under-
A. Section 510 of IPC
B. Section 511 of IPC
C. Section 512 of IPC
D. Section 513 of IPC
Ans. B
78. Which of the following is the facet of audi alteram
partem?
A. notice of the case to be met
B. good faith
C. opportunity to explain
D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans. D
79. In respect to cases instituted otherwise than on Police
report, under which section charges are framed?
A. Section 240 Cr. PC.
B. Section 246 Cr. PC.
C. Section 256 Cr. P.C.
D. None of them
Ans. B
80. False statement rumour, etc., made in place of
worship etc, with intent to create enmity hatred or ill-will
is dealt under-
A. Section 128 of IPC
B. Section 201 of IPC
C. Section 505 of IPC
D. Section 302 of IPC
Ans. C
81. Under which section of the IPC a person irrespective of
his nationality can be held guilty and is liable to
punishment for any offence within India?
A. Section 2 of IPC
B. Section 5 of IPC
C. Section 7 of IPC
D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans. A
82. Mischief committed after preparation made for
causing death, or hurt, etc. is dealt under-
A. Section 438 of IPC
B. Section 439 of IPC
C. Section 440 of IPC
D. Section 441 of IPC
Ans. C
83. Being entrusted with any closed receptacle containing
or supposed to contain any property, and fraudulently
opening the same is dealt under-
A. Section 462 of IPC
B. Section 463 of IPC
C. Section 464 of IPC
D. Section 465 of IPC
Ans. A
84. Under which of the following a corporation is
indictable?
A. Vicarious liability
B. Personal liability for breach of statutory duty
C. Personal liability on the basis of attributing to the corporation the
conduct and state of mind of an individual
D. All of them
Ans. D
85. X participated in the child marriage of Y in another
country. Both X and Y were still Indian citizens at the time
the marriage took place.
A. Y is liable for punishment under Section 3
B. Y is not liable as the marriage took place on a foreign soil
C. Both X and Y are liable for punishment under Section 3
D. None of them
Ans. C
86. Running vessel ashore with intent to commit theft, etc.
dealt under-
A. Section 438 of IPC
B. Section 439 of IPC
C. Section 440 of IPC
D. Section 441 of IPC
Ans. B
87. Which of the following section makes all the offences
under the Code without exception to be extra territorial?
A. Section 2
B. Section 4
C. Section 5
D. Section 7
Ans. B
88. Kidnapping or abducting a woman to compel her
marriage or to cause her defilement etc. is dealt under-
A. Section 365 of IPC
B. Section 366 of IPC
C. Section 367 of IPC
D. Section 368 of IPC
Ans. B
89. Extradition is:
A. to surrender of one State to another of a person desired to be
dealt with crimes of which he has been accused or convicted and
which are justifiable in the Courts of the other countries
B. a political act done in pursuance of a treaty or an arrangement ad
hoc
C. it can be sought on either in terms of treaty or on reciprocal
arrangement
D. all of them
Ans. D
90. Knowingly selling goods marked with counterfeit
property mark is dealt under-
A. Section 485 of IPC
B. Section 486 of IPC
C. Section 487 of IPC
D. Section 488 of IPC
Ans. B
91. Over which of the following admiralty jurisdiction
extends?
A. Offences committed on Indian ships on the seas
B. Offences committed on foreign ships in Indian territorial waters
C. Piracy
D. All of them
Ans. D
92. Which of the following is true about special law?
A. relates to a particular subject
B. applies only to a particular part of the country
C. excise, opium and cattle trespass act
D. both (A) and (C)
Ans. D
93. On refusal to disclose the name and address of the
printer is dealt under-
A. Section 489 D of IPC
B. Section 489 E of IPC
C. Section 490 of IPC
D. Section 491 of IPC
Ans. C
94. Which of the following section of the IPC does not
affect the provisions of any Act for punishing mutiny and
desertion of officers, soldiers, sailors or airmen in the
service of the Government of India or the provisions of
any special or local law?
A. Section 3 of IPC
B. Section 4 of IPC
C. Section 5 of IPC
D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans. C
95. The law of contempt is exercised in case of:
A. contempt committed in facie curiae
B. contempt committed in generalia specialibus non derogrant
C. contempt committed in ultra vires
D. contempt committed in ad hoc
Ans. A
96. Robbery is dealt under-
A. Section 391 of IPC
B. Section 392 of IPC
C. Section 393 of IPC
D. Section 394 of IPC
Ans. B
Ans. B
97. False statement in connection with elections is dealt
under-
A. Section 170 G of IPC

B. Section 171 G of IPC

C. Section 172 G of IPC

D. Section 173 G of IPC

Ans. B
98. Promoting enmity between classes in place of worship,
etc. is dealt under-
A. Section 153A of IPC

B. Section 154A of IPC

C. Section 155A of IPC

D. Section 156A of IPC

Ans. A
99. A, surgeon, in good faith communicates to a patient
his opinion that he cannot live. The patient dies in
consequence of the shock.
A. A is guilty as he should have withheld the communication

B. A is not guilty as he rightly discharged his duties

C. A is not guilty as he did not give any false hopes

D. Both (B) and (C)

Ans. D
100. The defendant was set to watch his master’s
premises. He saw a man on the garden wall and hailed
him and then shot at him aiming at his legs. He missed
and shot the deceased whom he had not seen.
A. the defendant is justified in shooting the deceased

B. the defendant is guilty of manslaughter

C. the defendant is not guilty as his own life was danger

D. none of them

Ans. B