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Hcsa Ip
Hcsa Ip
For project cutover, backup or adjustment of configuration files are not required during VRP
upgrade, because lost files can be found in the recycle bin.
True
False
2. On an STP-enabled switch, TCN BPDUs are sent only when a port on the local switch is faulty.
True
False
True
False
4. DHCPv6 clients must obtain both IPv6 addresses and other configurations from the DHCPv6
server.
True
False
5. In IPv6, the flow label field, source address field, and destination address field specify a
forwarding path for a specific data flow.
True
False
6. You can run the “startup saved-configuration backup.cfg” command on the user interface of the
Versatile Routing Platform (VRP) to specify the “backup.cfg” file as the configuration file for next
startup.
True
False
7. The authentication, authorization and accounting schemes and HWTACACS or RADIUS server
templates created on AR routers take effect only after being applied to a domain.
True
False
8. SR encapsulates the segment list identifying a forwarding path into a data packet header for
transmission. After receiving the data packet, the receive end parses the segment list. If the top SID
of the segment list belongs to the local node, the top SID is popped out, and then further processing
is performed. If the top SID of the segment list does not belong to the local node, the data packet is
forwarded to the next node in equal cost multiple path (ECMP) mode.
True
False
True
False
10. In PPP, you can use the “ppp chap authentication” command to enable CHAP authentication.
True
False
11. Which field in the IPv6 packet header can be used for QoS?
A. Traffic Class
B. Next Header
C. Version
D. Payload Length
12. The LACP priority is shown in the figure. Switch A and switch B adopt link aggregation in
LACP mode, all interfaces are added to the link aggregation group (LAG), and the maximum
number of active ports is set to 3. Which port of switch A is not an active port?
A. G0/0/0
B. G0/0/1
C. G0/0/2
D. G0/0/3
13. An end system is unable to communicate with a DHCP server following the startup process.
Which IP address may be used by the client?
A. 0.0.0.0
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 169.254.2.33
D. 255.255.255.255
14. Which of the following commands can be used to view the routing table on the VRP?
A. display ip routing-table
B. display ip forwarding-table
C. display current-configuration
D. display ip interface brief
15. In the PPP frame format, the Protocol field is 0xC023. What is the protocol?
A. LCP
B. NCP
C. PAP
D. CHAP
16. How many bytes are there in the basic IPv6 header?
A. 32
B. 40
C. 48
D. 64
17. Which of the following authentication method is more secure for PPP?
A. CHAP
B. PAP
C. MD5
D. SSH
19. Which of the following statements about VLANIF interfaces is/are correct?
A. 0
B. 10
C. 20
D. 30
21. Which of the following packets is used by OSPF to describe its link state database (LSDB)?
A. HELLO
B. LSR
C. LSU
D. DD
22. After a switch receives a unicast data frame, it searches the MAC address table for the
destination MAC address. Which of the following statements is false?
A. If the MAC address cannot be found, the switch floods the frame.
B. If the MAC address is found and the port corresponding to the MAC address in the MAC address
table is not the port through which the switch receives the frame, the switch forwards the frame.
C. If the MAC address is found and the port corresponding to the MAC address in the MAC address
table is the port through which the switch receives the frame, the switch discards the frame.
D. If the MAC address cannot be found, the switch discards the frame.
23. When the values of the M and O flags in the RA packet that a DHCPv6 client receives from a
DHCPv6 server are ( ), the DHCPv6 client uses DHCPv6 stateful autoconfiguration to obtain an
IPv6 address and other configuration information.
A. 11
B. 10
C. 1
D. 0
24. On the network show in the figure, if all routers run OSPF, which router is elected as the BDR?
A. RTA
B. RTB
A. 2 bits
B. 4 bits
C. 8 bits
D. 16 bits
26.
0 GigabitEthernet0/0/1 DESI
FORWARDING NONE
0 GigabitEthernet0/0/2 DESI
FORWARDING NONE
0 GigabitEthernet0/0/13 DESI
FORWARDING NONE
0 GigabitEthernet0/0/21 DESI
FORWARDING NONE
0 GigabitEthernet0/0/22 DESI
FORWARDING NONE
0 GigabitEthernet0/0/23 DESI
FORWARDING NONE
The preceding information shows port states displayed on a switch running STP. According
to such information, which of the following statements is false?
27. During device startup the device selects a VRP version file depends on the configuration
saved in the storage medium.
A. Flash memory
B. SD Card
C. NVRAM
D. USB
28. As shown in the following figure, the IPsec tunnel mode is used. Which of the following
is the ESP encryption scope?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
29. The output of the “display ip interface Ethernet 0/0/0” command on router R1 is as
follows.
Directed-broadcast packets:
Request Packet: 13
Reply packet: 16
Unknown packet: 0
30. Refer to the graphic, which of the following statements is true about OSPF topology and
configuration?
31. What is the value of the protocol type field in IP packets indicating that the protocol is
GRE?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 47
D. 48
32. On VRP, the command lines are classified into four levels of increasing priority: Visit
level, Monitoring level, Configuration level, and Management level. At which level, the
operator is permitted to configure service but is not permitted to operate the file system?
A. Visit Level
B. Monitoring Level
C. Configuration Level
D. Management Level
33. On the network shown in the figure, the router receives a data packet with the destination
IP address 11.0.12.1 from host A. After the packet is forwarded by the router, which of the
following are the destination MAC address and destination IP address of the data packet?
A. MAC - B, 11.0.12.1
B. MAC - D, 11.0.12.1
C. MAC - C, 11.0.12.1
D. MAC - D, 10.0.12.2
34. A router has learned two routes from the same network with the same prefix. One route
has been learned via OSPF with a metric of 4882, while the other route has been learned via
RIPv2 with a metric of 4. Which route(s) will be found in the routing table?
35. Which of the following storage devices is used to store the startup configuration files in a
router?
A. SDRAM
B. NVRAM
C. Flash
D. BootROM
36. Which of the following statements is true about the OSPF backbone area?
37. Which of the following addresses cannot be used as the IPv4 address of a host?
A. Class A address
B. Class B address
C. Class C address
D. Class D address
A. FE80::2E0:FCFF:FEEF:FEC
B. FF02::2E0:FCFF:FEEF:FEC
C. 2000::2E0:FCFF:FEEF:FEC
D. FC00::2E0:FCFF:FEEF:FEC
39. Which of the following ACLs cannot match network layer information?
A. Basic ACL
B. Advanced ACL
C. Layer 2 ACL
D. User ACL
40. During STP calculation, the port cost is associated with port bandwidth. Which of the
following statements about the relation between port cost and port bandwidth is true?
41. On the network shown in the figure, the switch configuration information is as follows.
Which of the following statements are true?
Interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1
Port hybrid pvid vlan 20
Port hybrid untagged vlan 10 20
#
Interface GigabitEthernet0/0/2
Port hybrid pvid vlan 10
Port hybrid untagged vlan 10 20
A. A user should enter “Y” when wishing to clear the saved configuration file.
B. The saved-configuration file that the device starts with can be erased.
C. The saved-configuration will be deleted after typing N.
D. The saved-configuration file will be replaced with the current configuration
43. Which of the following protocols or routes can contribute to an IPv6 routing table?
A. RIPng
B. OSPFv2
C. OSPFv3
D. Static routes
44. As shown in the following figure, the switch configuration is as follows. Which of the
following statements about the network and configuration is/are true?
Router B
Interface Serial1/0/0
Link-protocol ppp
#
Ospf1 router-id 10.0.21.1
45. Which of the following statements regarding Designated Routers in OSPF are correct?
A. Direct routing
B. OSPF
C. OSPFv3
D. Static Routing
48. With what kind of routers does a DRother router exchange link state information and
route information?
A. DR
B. BDR
C. DRother
D. All OSPF neighbors
49. As shown in the figure, STP is enabled the switches. After the network is stable, which of
the following statements are true?
50. Which of the following statements are true about the static MAC address table?
A. After device is reset, an interface card is hot swapped, or an interface card is reset, the
saved entries on the device or interface card are not lost.
B. After an interface is statistically bound to a MAC address, other interfaces discarded a
packet whose source address is the bound MAC address
C. Each static MAC address entry can be bound only to one outbound interface
D. You can check whether data is forwarded between two connected devices by checking
the static MAC address entries
51. Which of the following statements about IPv6 RA and RS packet are true?
52. Which of the following command line views exist on the Versatile Routing Platform
(VRP)?
A. User View
B. System View
C. Protocol View
D. Interface View
53. If an Ethernet interface on a router needs to forward a 1600B packet, which of the
following statements are true?
54. Refer to the graphic. An administrator has configured OSPF on the two routers, following
which he then implements the command silent interface s0/0/1 on RTA. What effect will this
command have on the network?
A. The link information advertised by RTB will be maintained in the Link State Database of
RTA
B. The OSPF neighbor relationship will fail between two routers
C. The configuration will not affect the OSPF neighbor relationship between the two
routers.
D. The link information advertised by RTB will no longer be maintained in the Link
State Database of RTA.
55. Which of the following protocols are used by the PPP protocol?
A. LCP
B. NCP
C. Authentication protocol
D. PPPoE
56. Which of the following statements about IPv6 address configuration are true?
A. IPv6 addresses can only be manually configured
B. IPv6 addresses support stateless autoconfiguration
C. DHCPv6 assignment is supported for IPv6 addresses
D. Ipv6 addresses can be automatically configured in multiple modes.
57. On the network shown in the figure, all routers run OSPF. Which of the following
devices can function as the ABR?
A. Router A
A. Destination/Mask
B. Protocol
C. Cost
D. Next-hop address
E. Interface
59. Which of the following network types are supported by the OSPF?
A. Broadcast
B. Point-to-Point (P2P)
C. NBMA
D. Point-to-multipoint (P2MP)
A. Reduce the time taken for establishing the OSPF adjacency relationship.
B. Reduce the number of OSPF neighbors
C. Reduce the number of times link state information is exchanged.
D. Reduce the types of OSPF packets
61. If Proto of a route displayed in the routing table of OSPF, the preference of the route must
be 10.
True
False
A. Manage routers
B. Generate a routing table
C. Generate an IP address
D. Control the status of router interfaces.
True
False
A. The administrator wished to configure different preference values for the primary
static route and floating static route.
B. The administrator is only required to configure two static routes.
C. The administrator is required to configure different route tags for the primary static
route and floating static route.
D. The administrator is required to configure a different cost metric for the primary static
route and floating static route.
65. Which of the following data packets are the OSPF protocol packets encapsulated into?
A. IP Packet
B. TCP Packet
C. UDP packet
D. HTTP packet
66. On the network shown in the figure, which router is elected as the BDR?
A. Router A
B. Router B
C. Router C
D. No BDR
A. The three data packets indicate the TCP three way handshake process
B. The IP address of the Telnet server is 10.0.12.1 and the IP address of the Teknet client
is 10.0.12.2
C. The three data packets do not contain application layer data
D. The telnet client uses port 50190 to establish a connection with the server.
68. Which of the following statements is the function of OSPFv3 LSUs during adjacency
establishment?
A. OSPFv3 LSUs are used to send the required LSAs to the peer router.
B. OSPFv3 LSUs are used to request the LSAs that are not included in the local LSDR.
C. OSPFv3 LSUs are used to describe the local LSDB.
D. OSPFv3 LSUs are used to discover and maintain neighbor relationships
69. According to the following configurations, how many IPv6 addresses have been allocated
by the DHCPv6 server? Display dhcpv6 pool
DHCPv6 pool: test
Address prefix: 3000:/64
Lifetime valid 172800 seconds, preferred 86400 seconds
1 in use, 0 conflicts
Excluded-address 3000::1
1 excluded addresses
Information refresh time:86400
DNS Server Address: 2000::1
Domain name: huawei
Domain name: huawei.com
Conflict-address expire time: 172800
Active normal clients: 1
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
70. Which of the following states indicates that the OSPF neighbor relationship has been
established?
A. Down
B. 2-Way
C. Full
D. Attempt
71. Which of the following statements is true about an STP-enabled port in Forwarding state?
A. The port forwards user traffic and processes BPDUs
B. The port only receives and processes BPDUs and does not forward user traffic
C. The port does not process BPDUs or forward user traffic
D. The port creates MAC address entries based on the received user traffic but does not
forward user traffic.
72. Which of the following statements regarding link-state database and routing-table of a
“single” OSPF area are correct?
73. Which of the following parameters are used for STP calculation on a switching network
running STP?
A. Bridge ID
B. Port ID
C. Root Path cost
D. Forward Delay
74. An ACL rule is as follows. Which of the following IP addresses can be matched by the
permit rule? Rule 5 IP source 10.0.20.0.0.0254.255
A. 10.0.2.1
B. 10.0.4.5
C. 10.0.5.6
D. 10.0.6.7
75. As shown in the figure, all hosts can communicate with each other. Which of the
following statements are true?
A. G0/0/3 of SWA learns three MAC addresses
B. G0/0/3 of SWB learns two MAC addresses
C. G0/0/3 of SWA learns two MAC addresses.
D. G0/0/3 of SWA learns one MAC address.
76. Which of the following are the features of the default VLAN setting in a switch
configuration?
77. For the link aggregation technology, which of the following parameters can an Eth-Trunk
interface use to implement traffic load balancing?
78. Which of the Following IPv6 addresses is/are permanent multicast address(es)?
A. FF02::1
B. FF02:2
C. FF12:1
D. FF12:2
79. Which of the following parameters must be considered during root port selection in STP?
80. A network administrator uses the ping to command to check for points of failure in the
network. Which protocols will be used during this process
A. ICMP
B. TCP
C. ARP
D. UDP
81. The multicast address FF02::1 indicates all nodes within the link-local scope
True
False
82. After the keepalive function is enabled for a GRE tunnel, the local end of the GRE tunnel
sends a keepalive packet to the remote end every 10s
True
False
83. If a device running STP receives an RSTP configuration BPDU, it discards the BPDU.
True
False
84. If the packet matches the deny rule in an ACL, the packet is discarded
True
False
85. In Huawei Devices, when NAPT uses a dynamic address pool, addresses in the pool can
be used repeatedly. That is, one IP address can be mapped to multiple IP addresses.
True
False
True
False
87. #
Ip pool pool 1
Network 10.10.10.0 mask 255.255.255.0
Gateway list: 10.10.10.1
#
Refer to the configuration output. The administrative wishes to configure the DHCP server
pool in order to assign an IP address to the customer’s terminal device. Which command
should be included in the configuration to provide the minimal lease period for IP
addresses?
88. Which of the following data packets are the OPSF protocol packets encapsulated into?
A. IP packet
B. TCP packet
C. UDP packet
D. HTTP packet
A. ECE0-AAFF-FEBB-CD7B
B. CCED-AAFF-FEBB-CD7B
C. EEEF-AAFF-FEBB-CD7B
D. CCE0-AABB-FFEE-CD7B
90. Which of the following is the default port number of the Telnet Server?
A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. 24
91. Which of the following can be displayed on the Versatile Routing Platform (VRP) to
indicate the GE port 2 on subcard 0.
92. To establish multiple PPP point-to-point connection in the Ethernet network, a PPPoE
server establishes connections with multiple PPP clients on one Ethernet port. How does
PPPoE differentiate between each connection?
A. MAC address
B. IP address and MAC address
C. MAC address and PPP-ID
D. MAC Address and Session-ID
93. Which of the following MAC Addresses are not aged out?
94. Which of the following packet types are DHCPv6 packet types?
A. Solicit
B. Advertise
C. Discover
D. Offer
95. One of the reasons that segment routing (SR) is introduced is that traditional RSVP has
some restrictions. Which of the following statements about RSVP restrictions are true?
96. A router that runs OSPF can enter the Full state only after link state database (LSDB)
Synchronization is completed
True
False
97. The rules in an ACL may overlap. If packets match the rules with loose conditions, the later
ACL rules are not processed. In this case, packets cannot match the rules with strict conditions.
Therefore, the rules with strict conditions must be arranged in front lines and those with loose
conditions must be arranged towards the end.
True
False
99. The MPLS architecture consists of the control plane and forwarding plane. The forwarding
plane switches labels and forward packets.
True
False
100. On an STP-enabled switch, a port in Learning state can transition to the Forwarding state
only after the Forward Delay timer expires.
True
False
101. For STP, the Message Age in the configuration BPDUs sent by the root bridge is 0.
True
False
102. IPv6 interfaces do not forward received data packets whose “Hop Limit” field is set to 1.
True
False
103. If Proto of a route displayed in the routing table is OSPF, the preference of the route must
be 10.
True
False
104. In a broadcast address, all host bits are set to 1 and a broadcast address can be used as a
host address.
True
False
106. Which of the following cannot be the length of an IPv4 packet header?
A. 20B
B. 32B
C. 60B
D. 64B
107. In which of the following states can an STP-enabled port transition to the Forwarding state
directly?
A. Blocking
B. Disabled
C. Listening
D. Learning
108. Which of the following options is the simples form of the IPv6 address
3001:0DB8:0000:0000:0346:ABCD:42BC:8D58?
A. 3001:DB8::346:ABCD:42BC:8D58
B. 3001:0DB8::0000:0346:ABCD:42BC:8D58
C. 3001:0DB8::0346:ABCD:42BC:8D58
D. 3001:DB8::0346:ABCD:42BC:8D58
109. If an IPv6 host hopes that a sent packet can be forwarded by at most 10 routers, which of
the following parameters in the IPv6 packet header needs to be modified?
A. Version
B. Traffic Class
C. Next Header
D. Hop Limit
111. In the case of Huawei router, what is the “-i” parameter in a Ping command issued on a
VRP operating system used to set?
A. Interface for sending an Echo Request packet.
B. Source IP address for sending an Echo Request packet.
C. Interface for receiving an Echo Reply packet.
D. Destination IP address for receiving an Echo Reply packet.
113. In STP, the bridge IDon the switching network is as following. With which of the following
bridge IDs is the switch selected as the root bridge?
A. 32768 00-01-02-03-04-CC
B. 4096 00-01-02-03-04-DD
C. 32768 00-01-02-03-04 AA
D. 32768 00-01-02-03-04-BB
114. What is the total length of the Flag field in RSTP BPDUs?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
115. Which of the following values if the flag field of an IPv6 multicast address indicates that the
multicast address is a temporary multicast address?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
116. (Additional) Which of the following values if the flag field of an IPv6 multicast address
indicates that the multicast address is a permanent multicast address?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
117. Refer to the grapic, which of the following statements is true about OSPF topology and
configuration?
118. If the configuration of a port on a switch is as follows, VLAN tags are carried when the port
transmits the data frames of some VLANs. Which of the following is/are among the VLANs?
#
Interface GigabitEthernet 0/0/1
Port hybrid tagged vlan 2 to 3 100
Port hybrid untagged vlan 4 6
#
A. 1,2,3,100
B. 2,3,100
C. 2,3,4,6,100
D. 1,2,3,4,6,100
119. If the value of the “Payload Length” field in an IPv6 packet header is 1400 bytes, how many
bytes does the valid payload of the packet occupy?
A. 1360 bytes
B. 1380 bytes
C. 1320 bytes
D. 1400 bytes
120. What is the total length of the VLAN frame defined by IEEE 802.1Q?
A. 1Byte
B. 2Byte
C. 3Byte
D. 4Byte
124. Which of the following parameters is not contained in STP configuration BPDUs?
A. Root ID
B. Bridge
C. Port ID
D. VLAN ID
126. Which of the following port numbers is used by the FTP control plane?
A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. 24
127. How many extra bits are there in an IPv6 address, compared with an IPv4 address?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 96
D. 128
128. Which of the following statements about a port on a switch is/are false?
Interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1
Port link-type trunk
Port trunk pvid vlan 200
Port trunk allow-pass vlan 100
#
A. The link type of the port is trunk
B. If the VLAN tag carried in a data frame is 100, the switch removes the VLAN tag and
sends the frame.
C. If the port receives data frames without VLAN tags, the switch needs to add VLAN tag 200.
D. The port cannot send data frames carrying VLAN tag 200.
129. Which of the following OSPF packets can be used to send LSAs to the peer router?
A. LSA
B. LSR
C. LSU
D. LSACK
130. To enable Router A to communicate with loopback 0 on Router B on the network shown in
the figure, which of the following commands needs to be run on Router A?
A. ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255 10.0.12.2
B. ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255 10.0.12.1
C. ip route-static 10.0.2.2 32 GigabitEthernet 0/0/0
D. ip route-static 10.0.2.2 0 GigabitEthernet 0/0/0
132. Which of the following statements is true about the OSPF DR?
A. The DR is elected in preemption mode.
B. The DR must be the device with the highest priority on the network.
C. If the priority of an interface is 0, the device where the interface resides cannot
become the DR.
D. A router with a larger router ID is elected as the DR.
133. Which of the following methods is not supported by the Versatile Routing Platform (VRP)
to configure a router?
A. Configure the router through FTP
B. Configure the router through the console port.
C. Configure the router through Telnet.
D. Configure the router through the mini USB port.
135. On the switching network shown in the figure, all switches run STP. After the topology is
stable, if the interval for sending configuration BPDUs is changed on the switch ( ), the interval
for SWD to send configuration BPDUs will be affected.
A. SWA
B. SWB
C. SWC
D. SWD
136. Which of the following port states are included in Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)?
A. Forwarding
B. Learning
C. Discarding
D. Listening
137. As shown in the figure, STP has been enabled on the two switches. Which of the following
statements are true?
138. Which of the following fields exist in both IPv6 and IPv4 packet headers?
A. Source Address
B. Destination Address
C. Version
D. Next Header
139. Which of the following IPv6 addresses is/are multicast address(es) within the link range?
A. FF02::1
B. FF02::2
C. FF12::1
D. FF12::2
140. Two routers are connected through the serial interfaces and support PPP encapsulation.
Which parameters must be negotiated to establish the PPP connection?
A. MRU.
B. Authentication Password.
C. Magic-Number.
D. Authentication Protocol.
141. Which of the following types of routes can be used by a router to establish a routing table?
A. Direct route
B. Dynamic route
C. Static route
D. Aggregated route
142. In which of the following scenarios does the Forward Delay timer exist?
A. The STP-enabled port transitions from Disabled to Blocking.
B. The STP-enabled port transitions from Blocking to Listening.
C. The STP-enabled port transitions from Listening to Learning.
D. The STP-enabled port transitions from Learning to Forwarding.
E. The STP-enabled port transitions from Forwarding to Disabled.
143. Refer to the graphic. In order to improve security, the two hosts use IPsec VPN to transi
data. Which IPsec mode and protocol can be used to hide the host’ s IP address?
A. AH.
B. Transport mode.
C. Tunnel mode.
D. ESP.
144. Which of the following IPv6 addresses can be obtained by the host if the DHCPv6 address
pool is configured as follows?
148. When configuring the PPP authentication method as PAP, which of the following
operations are necessary?
A. Add the user name and password of the authenticator party to the local user list.
B. Configure the encapsulation type of the interface connected to the peer as PPP.
C. Configure PPP authentication method as CHAP.
D. On the authenticated end, configure the user name and password that are send to
authenticator.
149. Segment routing (SR) can be used to define an explicit path. Nodes on a network only
need to maintain SR information to deal with the real-time and rapid development of services.
What are the characteristics of SR?
A. SR supports smooth evolution of the existing network by extending existing protocols
(such as IGPs).
B. SR supports both the controller’s centralized control mode and forwarders’ distributed
control mode, providing a balance between the two modes.
C. SR uses the source routing technology to support fast interaction between the
network layer and upper-layer applications.
D. SR uses IP forwarding, and routers do not need to maintain another label forwarding table.
150. As shown in the figure, router A has successfully telneted to router B using 10.0.12.2.
Which of the following operations will interrupt the Telnet session between router A and router
B?
A. Disable G0/0/1
B. Change the IP address of G0/0/1.
C. Enable OSPF on G0/0/1.
D. Configure a static route.
151. For the link aggregation technology, which of the following parameters can an Eth-Trunk
interface use to implement traffic load balancing?
A. Same source or destination IP address.
B. Same source or destination MAC address
C. Same protocol type
D. Same source or destination port number
152. The following shows the DHCP address pool configuration of a router. Which of the
following statements are true?
#
Ip pool test
Network 192.168.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0
Excluded-ip-address 192.168.1.200 192.168.1.254
lease day 0 hour 12 minute 0
#
A. The lease time of the IP address is 12 hours
B. The address pool has 55 available IP addresses
C. The address pool has 199 available IP addresses.
D. The DHCP client may obtain the IP address 192.168.1.2
153. Which of the following statements about gratuitous ARP packets are true?
A. A system can determine whether conflicting IP addresses are used by sending a
gratuitous ARP packet.
B. A gratuitous ARP packet uses the same format as an ARP request packet.
C. A gratuitous ARP packet can help to update an IP address.
D. A gratuitous ARP packet uses the same format as an ARP reply packet.
155. The configuration information of a router is as follows Which of the following statement is
correct? (Multiple Choice)
ISOM
authentication-scheme default.
authentication-scheme huawei
authentication-mode radius
authorization-scheme default
authorization-scheme huawei
accounting-scheme default
domain default
domain defaultadmin
domain huawei
authentication-scheme huawei
authorization-scheme huawei
local-user huawei password cipher 123456
local-user huawei@huawei password cipher 654321
156. A segment routing global block (SGRB) is a set of local labels reserved for global
segments. In MPLS and IPv6 and SRGB is a set of local labels reserved for global labels
True
False
157. Trunk interfaces can send both tagged and untagged frames
True
False
158. On Huawei switches, you can run the vlan batch command to create multiple VLANs in
batches
True
False
159. The IPv6 addresses prefixes on both ends of the link must be the same so that an OSPFv3
adjacency can be established.
True
False
160. As shown in the figure, host A and host B cannot communicate with each other.
True
False
161. The following configuration commands implement route backup on RTA for a route to the
same destination 10.1.1.0.
[RTA] ip route-static 10.1.1.0 24 12.1.1.1 permanent
[RTA] ip route-static 10.1.1.0 24 13.1.1.1
True
False
162. On an STP-enabled switch, a port in Learning state can transition to the Forwarding state
only after the Forward Delay timer expires.
True
False
163. Segment routing-traffic engineering (SR-TE) is a new TE tunneling technology that uses
SR as a control protocol. All nodes of an SR-TE tunnel, including the ingress and transit nodes,
must be aware of the tunnel and complete label distribution and forwarding.
True
False
164. The packets returned by the DHCP server to the DHCP client must be unicast packets.
True
False
165. The solicited-node multicast address consists of the prefix FF02::1:FF00:0/104 and the last
24 bits of the corresponding unicast address.
True
False
166. To provide the information about the IP addresses that a user packet traverses along the
path to the destination, which of the following does Tracert record in each expired ICMP TTL
packet?
A. Destination port
B. Source port
C. Destination IP address
D. Source IP address
167. Which of the following OSPF packets can be used to send LSAs to the peer router?
A. LSA
B. LSR
C. LSU
D. LSACK
168. Which of the following OSPF packets can be used to confirm the received Link State
Update (LSU) packets?
A. LSA
B. LSR
C. LSU
D. LSACK
169. The last option field (option) of an IPv4 packet is a length-variable and optional field. What
is the maximum length of this field?
A. 40B
B. 60B
C. 20B
D. 10B
170. What is the default interval for sending OSPF Hello packets on a broadcast network?
A. 10s
B. 20s
C. 30s
D. 40s
171. Which layer of the OSI reference model does a switch work at?
A. Network layer
B. Data link layer
C. Physical layer
D. Transport layer
173. To enable Router A to communicate with loopback 0 on Router B on the network shown in
the figure, which of the following commands needs to be run on Router A?
A. ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255 10.0.12.2
B. ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255 10.0.12.1
C. ip route-static 10.0.2.2 32 GigabitEthernet 0/0/0
D. ip route-static 10.0.2.2 0 GigabitEthernet 0/0/0
174. Which of the following commands can be used to permanently delete the old device
configuration file < config.zip > ?
A. delete /force config.zip
B. delete /unreserved config.zip
C. reset config.zip
D. clear config.zip
175. Assuming all STP enabled switches have the same bridge priority. The MAC address of
switch A is 00-e0-fc-00-00-40, the MAC address of switch B is 00-e0-fc-00-00-10, the MAC
address of switch C is 00-e0-fc-00-00-20, and the MAC address of switch D is 00-e0-fc-00-00-
80. Which switch will be elected as the root switch?
A. Switch A
B. Switch B
C. Switch C
D. Switch D
176. When both ends running PPP protocol detect that the physical link is active, the link state
will transit from dead to establish. Which of the following protocols is used to negotiate the link
parameters during this phase?
A. IP
B. DHCP
C. LCP
D. NCP
178. Refer to the graphic. The switch is operating using STP. All default parameters have been
maintained. Which port will be assigned a designated port role?
A. G0/0/1 of switch A
B. G0/0/2 of switch A
C. E0/0/1 of the hub
D. E0/0/2 of the hub
179. Which layer of the OSI reference model does the PPP protocol define?
A. Presentation layer
B. Data link layer
C. Network layer
D. Application layer
180. In the PPP protocol, which of the following algorithms is used by CHAP?
A. DES
B. MD5
C. AES
D. None
181. Which of the following advantages is/are inter-VLAN route interworking in one-arm routing
mode?
A. Reduced the number of links
B. Reduced the use of IP addresses
C. Reduced the number of devices
D. Reduced the number of entries in the routing table
182. In the case of Huawei router, what is the “-I” parameter in a Ping command issued on a
VRP operating system used to set?
A. Interface for sending an Echo Request packet.
B. Source IP address for sending an Echo Request packet.
C. Interface for receiving an Echo Reply packet.
D. Destination IP address for receiving an Echo Reply packet.
183. Which of the following port states is not included in Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)?
A. Forwarding
B. Learning
C. Discarding
D. Blocking
184. According to the following configurations, how many IPv6 addresses have been allocated
by the DHCPv6 server?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
185. If the configuration information of a router is as follows, which user name and password are
used by the peer router to perform PPP link authentication?
187. Refer to the graphic. Both switches are operating using STP. With exception to those
shown, all other default parameters have been maintained. Which port will be blocked?
190. What is the destination port number of the DHCPv6 Advertise packets sent by the DHCPv6
server?
A. 546
B. 547
C. 548
D. 549
191. Which of the following information is used by a VLANIF interface to determine whether to
perform Layer 2 forwarding or Layer 3 forwarding?
A. Source MAC address
B. Destination MAC address
C. Source IP address
D. Destination port
192. Refer to the graphic. Packet encapsulation in the IPsec architecture is performed as
shown. Which IPsec mode is being used to encapsulate the packet?
A. normal mode.
B. transport mode.
C. tunnel mode.
D. this encapsulation is wrong
196. As shown in the figure, router A has successfully telneted to router B using 10.0.12.2.
Which of the following operations will interrupt the Telnet session between router A and router
B?
A. Disable G0/0/1
B. Change the IP address of G0/0/1
C. Enable OSPF on G0/0/1
D. Configure a static route
197.Which of the following statements regarding the verification of IP connectivity are false?
A. The ping 127.0.0.1 command can be used to check whether the network cable is
correctly inserted into the Host’s ethernet port.
B. The ping command with the host IP address as the destination can be used to verify
that the TCP/IP protocol suite is functioning correctly.
C. The ping command can be used to verify connectivity between the host and the local
gateway.
D. The command “ipconfig /release” can be used to check connectivity problems
between the host and the local gateway
200. A DHCP Unique Identifier (DUID) in DHCPv6 can be configured in VRP using which
formats?
A. DUID-LL
B. DUID-LLT
C. DUID-LN
D. DUID-LLC
201. Which of the following protocols are used by the PPP protocol?
A. LCP
B. NCP
C. Authentication protocol
D. PPPoE
202. Which authorization mode(s) is/are supported by the AAA on Huawei AR G3 series
routers?
A. Non-authorization
B. Local authorization
C. HWTACACS authorization
D. RADIUS authorization after successful authentication
203. On Sx7 series switches, which of the following VLANs can be removed by using command
“undo”
A. vlan 1
B. vlan 2
C. vlan 1024
D. vlan 4094
204. Which of the following network parameters can be allocated using DHCP?
A. IP Address
B. Gateway Address
C. Address of the DNS server
D. Operating System
205. Which of the following statements are true about the protection function provided by
RSTP?**
A. BPDU protection enables a switching device to set the state of an edge port to Error-
Down if the edge received an RST BPDU in this case, the port remains the edge port, and
the switching device sends a notification to the NMS
B. Root protection takes effect only on designated ports.
C. Loop protection takes effect only on the root port and alternate ports
D. After TC-BPDU protection is enabled, frequent detection of MAC address entries can
be prevented
206. Which of the following are true about the Ethernet data frame with the “Length/Type” field
between 0x0806?
A. The data frame is an Ethernet II frame
B. The data frame is an IEEE 802.3 frame
C. The destination MAC address of the data frame must be FFFF-FFFF-FFFFF
D. The source MAC address of the data frame is definitely not FFFF-FFFF-FFFFF
207. Which of the following authentication methods are supported for Telnet users? (Choose
three)
A. Password authentication
B. AAA local authentication
C. MD5 authentication
D. No authentication
208. On Huawei AR G3 Series routers, which authentication modes does AAA support?
(Choose all that apply.)
A. None
B. Local
C. Radius
D. 802.1X
209.
Refer to the configuration output. RTA has been configured using AAA as shown, and
associated with the "huawei" domain. For users in the huawei domain, which authentication-
scheme will be used?
A. au1
B. au2
C. au1 will be used. When au1 is deleted, users will use au2
D. au2 will be used. When au2 is deleted, users will use au1
1. As shown in the figure below, all switches enable the STP protocol and keep other
configurations in their default state. When the network is stable, which of the following
statements are correct? (Multiple Choice)
3. The IPv4 address assigned by the network administrator to a host in the network is
192.168.1.1/28. How many hosts can be added to the network where this host is located?
• 12
• 15
• 13
• 14
Question was not answered
• True
• False
Question was not answered
6. Which of the following statements about IPv6 multicast addresses are correct? (Multiple
Choice)
• Provide redundant functions for services
• Realize load sharing of services
• The packet whose destination address is a multicast address will be sent to the nearest
network interface in the sense of routing
• Multicast addresses and unicast addresses use the same address space
Question was not answered
9. In which of the following network types does the OSPF protocol need to elect DR and BDR?
(Multiple choice)
• Point to multipoint
• NBMAcorrect
• Point-to-point type
• Broadcast type
Question was not answered
10. By default, how long is the lease period of the IP address assigned by the DHCP server?
• 12h
• 1h
• 24h
• 18h
Question was not answered
11. When deploying ACL on Huawei devices, which of the following description is correct?
(Multiple choice)
• ACL can match the TCP/UDP port number of the message, and can specify the range of
port numbers
• The same ACL can be called under multiple interfaces
• When ACL defines rules, it can only proceed in the order of 10, 20, and 30
• ACL cannot be used to filter OSPF traffic, because OSPF traffic does not use UDP protocol
encapsulation
• When calling ACL under the interface, it can only be applied to the outbound direction
Question was not answered
12. In the network shown in the figure below, when the OSPF neighbor status is stable, what is
the neighbor status of Router B and Router C?
• Attempt
• 2-way
• Fu11
• Down
Question was not answered
13. Which parameter is used in the spanning tree protocol for root bridge election?
• Port ID
• Bridge priority
• Root path cost
• Bridge ID
Question was not answered
14. MIB (Management Information Base) is a virtual database that exists only in NMS.
• True
• False
Question was not answered
15. Now it is necessary to implement a Python automation script Te1net to the device to view the
device running configuration. Which of the following statements is wrong?
• Telnetlib can achieve this function.
• Use telnet.Telnet (host) to connect to the Telnet server.
• can use telnet.write(b"display current-configuration
") to input the command to view the current configuration of the device.
• telnet.c1ose() is used after a command entered every time, the function is that the user
waits for the switch to return information.
Question was not answered
16. The network administrator of a certain company wants to uniformly divide the users who
often access the company network from different switches into VLAN 10 when they frequently
change office locations. Which of the following methods should be used to divide VLANs?
• Divide VLAN based on protocol
• Divide VLAN based on MAC address
• Divide VLAN based on port
• Divide VLAN based on subnet
Question was not answered
17. The picture shows the display startup information of AR2200 router. Regarding these
information, which of the following statement is wrong?
• next system startup file system can use the command "startup system software <startup-
software-name>" to modify
• The running configuration file is not saved
• The system file used by the device this time is ar2220-v200r003c00spc00.cc
• The system file cannot be modified when the device is started next time
Question was not answered
18. The administrator plans to implement route backup by configuring static floating routes,
what is the correct way to achieve this?
• The administrator needs to configure different metric values for the main static route and the
standby static route
• The administrator needs to configure different TAGs for the main static route and the standby
static route
• The administrator only needs to configure two static routes
• The administrator needs to configure different protocol priority values for the main
static route and the standby static route
Question was not answered
19. There are hosts in a private network that need to access the Internet. In order to achieve this
requirement, which of the following configurations should the administrator do on the edge
router of the network? (Multiple Choice)
• Default route
• STP
• DHCP
• NAT
Question was not answered
20. Which of the following descriptions about Trunk port and Access port is correct?
• Trunk port can only send untagged frames
• Access port can only send untagged frames
• Access port can only send tagged frames
• Trunk port can only send tagged frames
Question was not answered
21. Which of the following statements about the division of OSPF protocol area is wrong?
• Area 0 is the backbone area, and other areas must be connected to this area
• The LSDBs in the routers in the same OSPF area are completely consistent
• Dividing OSPF areas can reduce the LSDB scale of some routers
• Only ABR can be used as ASBR
Question was not answered
22. NFV (Network Functional Virtualization), network function virtualization realizes the
deployment of network applications in a software-based way.
• True
• False
Question was not answered
23. UDP cannot guarantee the reliability of data transmission, and does not provide functions
such as message sequencing and flow control. It is suitable for flows with low transmission
reliability requirements but high transmission speed and delay requirements.
• True
• False
Question was not answered
24. The administrator cannot log in to the Huawei router through Telnett, but other
administrators can log in normally, so which of the following are the possible reasons? (Multiple
Choice)
• The authority level of the administrator user account has been modified to 0correct
• The administrator user account has been disabled
• The Te1net service of the AR2200 router has been disabled
• The administrator user account has been deleted
Question was not answered
25. VRP operating system commands are divided into 4 levels: access level, Monitoring level,
Configuration level, and Management level. Which level can run various business configuration
commands but cannot operate the file system?
• Configuration level
• Monitoring level
• Access level
• Management level
Question was not answered
27. In the VRP interface, use the command delete vrpcfg.zip to delete a file, which must be
emptied in the recycle bin to completely delete the file.
• True
• False
Question was not answered
28. In what state does the OSPF protocol determine the master-slave relationship of DD packets?
• ExStart
• Full
• 2-way
• Exchange
Question was not answered
29. The following two configuration commands can realize the router RTA to the same
destination 10.1.1.0 routing master and backup backup.
30. In the network shown in the figure below, the bridge ID of the switch has been marked. Enter
the command stp root secondary on the SWD switch, and which of the following switch will
become the root bridge of this network?
• SWC
• SWA
• SWB
• SWD
Question was not answered
31. If the Length/Type of an Ethernet data frame = 0x8100, which of the following statements is
correct?
• There must be an IP header in the upper layer of this data frame
• This data frame must carry VLAN TAG
• There must be a UDP header in the upper layer of this data frame
• There must be a TCP header in the upper layer of this data frame
Question was not answered
32. FAT AP can independently complete wireless user access, wireless user authentication, and
business data forwarding without AC.
• True
• False
Question was not answered
33. There is no channel overlap in the 14 available frame segments in the 185.2.4 GHz frame
segment.
• True
• False
Question was not answered
34. In the WLAN network architecture, what is terminal equipment that supports the 802.11
standard called?
• Client
• AC
• STA
• AP
Question was not answered
35. Which of the following characteristics does the OSPF protocol have? (Multiple Choice)
• Easy to produce routing loops
• Calculate the shortest path by number
• Support the division of areas
• Trigger an update
Question was not answered
36. Which of the following statement about static routing is wrong?
• Cannot automatically adapt to changes in network topology
• Manual configuration by the network administrator
• Low system performance requirements
• Routers need to exchange routing information
Question was not answered
37. In the network shown in the figure below, which of the following commands can be entered
on the router to enable host A to ping host B? (Multiple choice)
38. Which of the following IPv4 addresses can be used by a host to directly access the Internet?
• 192.168.1.1/24
• 172.32.1.1/24
• 172.16.255.254/24
• 10.255.255.254/24
Question was not answered
39. The switch becomes a logical switch after stacking and clustering, and Eth-Trunk across
physical devices can be deployed to improve network reliability.
• True
• False
Question was not answered
41. As shown in the figure below, assuming the other configurations of the switch are kept in the
default state, which port of the following switch will become the designated port? (Multiple
Choice)
• SWC's G0/0/1
• SWA's G0/0/3
• SWC's G0/0/2
• SWB's G0/0/1
Question was not answered
42. The management of users by NAS devices is based on domains. Each user belongs to a
domain, and a domain is a group of users who belong to the same domain.
• TRUE
• FALSE
Question was not answered
43. Which of the following fields does the MPLS header include? (Multiple choice)
• EXP
• TTL
• Label
• Tos
Question was not answered
44. Huawei ARG3 series routers have all SNMP versions (SNMPv1, SNMPv2c and SNMPv3) by
default.
• True
• False
Question was not answered
45. IPv6 address 2001: ABEF: 2240E: FFE2: BCC0: CD0: DDBE: 8D58 cannot be abbreviated.
• True
• False
Question was not answered
46. Which state does the OSPF protocol use to indicate that the adjacency relationship has been
established?
• Full
• 2-way
• Attempt
• Down
Question was not answered
47. The tracert diagnostic tool in Huawei routers is used to track the data forwarding path.
• TRUE
• False
Question was not answered
48. The routing table output information of a router is shown in the figure. Which of the
following statements is correct? (Multiple choice)
49. Which of the following OSPF protocol packets can ensure the reliability of LSA updates?
• LSACK
• DD
• LSU
• LSR
Question was not answered
50. The last option field of IPv4 is variable-length optional information. What is the maximum
length of this field?
• 10B
• 40B
• 60B
• 20B
Question was not answered
51. Which of the following advantages does router-on-a-stick achieve inter-VLAN routing
intercommunication?
• Reduce the number of equipment
• Reduce the use of IP addresses
• Reduce the number of link connections
• Reduce routing table entries
Question was not answered
52. If STP is not turned on for the network composed of switches, there must be a Layer 2 loop.
• TRUE
• False
Question was not answered
53. The switch receives a unicast data frame. If the destination MAC of the data frame can be
found in the MAC table, the data frame will be forwarded from the corresponding MAC port.
• TRUE
• False
Question was not answered
54. The output information of the link aggregation port of a certain switch is as follows. If you
want to delete Eth-Trunk 1, which of the following commands is correct?
55. Which information of the data frame does the VLANIF interface use to determine whether to
perform Layer 2 or Layer 3 forwarding?
• Destination MAC
• Source MAC
• Destination port
• Source IP
Question was not answered
56. If the value of the Type/Length field of an Ethernet data frame is 0 x 0800, the length of the
upper layer message header carried by this data frame is in the range of 20-60B.
• TRUE
• False
Question was not answered
57. When using FTP for file transfer, how many TCP connections will be established?
• 2
• 1
• 3
• 4
Question was not answered
58. What are the user authentication methods that can be deployed in wlan? (Multiple choice)
• Portal authentication
• MAC authentication
• Radius certification
• 802.1X authentication
Question was not answered
59. Which of the following IEEE 802.11 standards support operation in the 5GHz frequency band?
(Multiple choice)
• 802.11a
• 802.11n
• 802.11g
• 802.11a
Question was not answered
60. In order to join the wireless network STA needs to obtain wireless network information first.
Which of the following messages is used by the STA to actively obtain the SSID information?
• Probe
• Join
• Discovery
• Beacon