Professional Documents
Culture Documents
During preflight procedure the trim air switch is left in the OFF position and only one pack is
selected ON for air conditioning. What is the consequence?
• ! Since the trim air is off both packs will average the temperature that satisfies the zone
which requires the most cooling
• ! During single pack operation the zone temperature is controlled the same as during two
pack operation.
• ! With the TRIM AIR selected OFF, the pack attempts to produce an air temperature to
satisfy the average temperature demands of all three zones.
• ! If a passenger cabin zone trim air, or all trim air is lost, the forward and aft zone
temperature demands will be averaged for control of the left pack.
When pressing Master Caution Recall the CONT CAB amber ZONE TEMP light illuminates. What
is correct?
• ! This indicates a failure of both the primary and standby temperature control systems.
• ! Due to failure of the primary flight deck temperature control, automatic switching to the
backup system has occurred.
• ! This indicates one PACK has overheated and has to be reset by pushing the trip reset
button.
• ! This indicates that both temperature controllers will regulate the temperature to a preset
value.
Due to a malfunction you are required to return to the airport of departure. To avoid the OFF
SCHED DESCENT warning you reset the FLT ALT. What can you expect?
• ! The system will be recalculating the pressurization for the departure airport
• ! The pressurization will increase its ventilation and possibly pressurization will be lost
• ! The automatic abort capability for the departure airport is lost
• ! Nothing will happen and you will still get the OFF SCHED DESCENT warning.
From where does the Cabin Auto Controller get its inputs.
• ! From the static ports
• ! From the Captain’s CDU
• ! From the ADIRU’s
• ! From the EFIS control panel
The wing-body overheat light comes on. What is the related master caution warning?
• ! OVHT /DET
• ! AIR COND
• ! OVERHEAD
• ! As the light is in the proximity of the pilot’s perception there is no master caution for this
condition.
Cruising at FL 370. The motorized Overboard Exhaust valve will open if:
• ! Either pack switches are in HIGH and recirculation fan is OFF.
• ! Both pack switches are in AUTO and recirculation fan is OFF.
• ! Both pack switches are in HIGH and recirculation fan is ON.
• ! Both pack switches are in AUTO and recirculation fan is ON.
The amber OFF SCHEDULE DESCENT light illuminates. What does it indicates?
• ! The main pressurization controller is unable to maintain pressurization and has to be
manually shift to manual
• ! The pressurization standby controller has failed and will automatically shift to STANDBY.
• ! The aircraft has descended before reaching the planned cruise altitude set in the altitude
window.
• ! The pressurisation controller has failed and will automatically shift to manual.
In MANUAL pressurization mode the outflow is driven by?
• ! A motor supplied from DC bus 2.
• ! A motor supplied from DC standby bus.
• ! A motor supplied from DC bus 1.
• ! Requires AC power from transfer bus 1.
Given the scenario that the expected cruise level of FL310 was selected into the FLT ALT selector
during preflight, but subsequently the A/C climbed to FL390, would you expect:
• ! A differential pressure of 7.45 psi maintained by the negative pressure relief valve;
• ! A differential pressure of 9.1 psi maintained by the positive pressure relief valve;
• ! A differential pressure of 8.35 psi maintained by the forward outflow valve;
The cabin will automatically pressurize to 0.125 PSID on the ground when:
• ! Engine thrust is increased towards takeoff thrust.
• ! When the PSEU is activated.
• ! When the aircraft goes into the ground mode of the air/ground sensor.
Where do the AUTO mode controllers receive their barometric information from?
• ! The captain's pitot/static system.
• ! The FO's pitot/static system.
• ! The ADIRUs.
Loss of airflow due to failure of an equipment cooling fan results in illumination of the related
equipment cooling OFF light. Selecting the alternate fan should restore airflow and extinguish the
OFF light within approximately _____.
• ! 5 seconds
• ! 30 seconds
• ! 1 minute
• ! 3 minutes
If a flight is aborted, and a return to the field of departure is made, the crew:
• ! Should reset the LAND ALT selector to field ELEV.
• ! Should reset the FLT ALT selector to current aircraft altitude.
• ! Should do nothing to the pressurization panel, as the system will automatically return to the
field of departure.
What is the flight level limitation for DISPATCH with one pack INOP?
• ! FL410.
• ! FL250.
• ! FL180.
• ! FL100.
Takeoff is allowed with Pack switches in HIGH, but landing is not permitted:
• ! True.
• ! False.
On hearing the Altitude Warning Horn the pilot\'s first action should be to:
• ! Analyse the situation and decide on corrective action.
• ! To don oxygen masks.
• ! Initiate an emergency descent.
• ! Cancel the Altitude Warning Horn and call for the appropriate QRH checklist.
An amber AUTOFAIL indication will illuminate if one or more of the followingconditions occur:
• ! A single controller failure when \'ALTN\' light is also illuminated.
• ! Loss of AC power for more than 15 seconds; Main Outflow valve DC motor fails or if the
cabin altitude exceeds 13,875 ft.
• ! Cabin Altitude exceeds 13,875 ft; pressurisation differential exceeds 8.65psi or with the
loss of AC power.
• ! Cabin Altitude exceeds 10,000 ft.
A flight deck ZONE TEMP light which remains illuminated after the master caution system is reset
indicates:
• ! A flight deck duct overheat.
• ! A failure of the standby or primary flight deck zone controller.
• ! Both above statements are correct.
• ! Insufficient trim air available from the cooling packs.
A ZONE TEMP light may be reset by the trip reset switch on the Bleed Panel.
• ! True.
• ! False. This reset switch is only for PACK and BLEED TRIP OFF resets.
• ! False. This reset is only for resetting a PACK trip.
• ! False. This reset switch is for BLEED TRIP OFF only.
Deflector doors are installed forward of the ram air inlet doors to prevent slush ingestion prior to
liftoff and after touchdown. Deflector doors extend when activated:
• ! Electrically by the air-ground safety sensor
• ! Hydraulically when extended the main landing gear
• ! Electrically (same switch as the recirculation fans).
If all zone controls and primary pack controls fail, the standby pack controlscommand the packs to
produce air temperatures which will satisfy the averagetemperature demand of the two cabin zones.
The trim air modulating valves will:
• ! Open.
• ! Close.
If all Temperature Selectors are positioned OFF, the pack controls will cause the Left pack to
maintain a fixed temperature of ____ and the Right pack to maintain ____ as measured at the pack
temperature sensor.
• ! 20°C (68°F) and 18°C (65°F)
• ! 24°C (75°F) and 18°C (65°F)
• ! 18°C (65°F) and 22°C (72°F)
The recirculation fan system circulates air from the passenger cabin around thelining of the forward
cargo compartment. When the overboard exhaust valve isclosed, exhaust air from the equipment
cooling system is also diffused to the lining of the aft cargo compartment for additional inflight
heating.
• ! True
• ! False
Forward cargo compartment only!
The cabin pressure controller controls cabin pressure in the following modes: AUTO (automatic) -
ALT (alternate) - MAN (manual).
• ! All three modes use DC motor.
• ! Automatic mode uses AC motor while the two other modes use DC motor.
• ! Automatic and alternate modes use AC motor while the manual mode use DC motor.
Cabin altitude is normally rate-controlled by the cabin pressure controller up to a cabin altitude of
____ feet at the airplane maximum certified ceiling of ____feet.
• ! 10 000 ft and 41 000 ft.
• ! 8 000 ft and 41 000 ft.
• ! 12 000 ft and 41 000 ft.
• ! 7 500 ft and 41 000 ft.
The air data inertial reference units (ADIRUs) provides ambient static pressure,baro corrected
altitude, non corrected altitude and calibrated airspeed to bothautomatic controllers. The ADIRUs
receive barometric corrections from theCaptain\'s and First Officer\'s BARO reference selectors.The
automatic controllers also receive:
• ! Throttle position from both stall management computers.
• ! Throttle position from both stall management computers and signals from the air/ground
sensors.
• ! Throttle position from both stall management computers and signals from the IRS.
Cabin air outflow is controlled by the outflow valve and the overboard exhaustvalve. A small
amount is also exhausted through toilet and galley vents,miscellaneous fixed vents, and by seal
leakage.
• ! True
• ! False
If both the primary and the standby pack controls fail for the same pack, thePACK, MASTER
CAUTION, and AIR COND System Annunciator lightsilluminate.
• ! The pack will continue to operate without control unless excessive
• ! The affected pack is controlled by the \'main\' standby pack control
• ! The pack will be inoperative
Manual Mode Operation: a separate DC motor, powered by the DC standby system, drives the
outflow valve at a slower rate than the automatic modes. Outflow valve full range of motion takes
up to 2 minutes.
• ! True
• ! False
Fortunately Outflow valve full range of motion takes up to 20 seconds only.
Illumination of the amber BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates what valve has automatically closed?
• ! Modulating and Shutoff valve.
• ! Engine Bleed Air valve.
• ! Isolation valve.
• ! 5th valve of the compressor section.
What is the position of the isolation valve when the ISOLATION VALVE switch is in AUTO?
• ! The isolation valve is always open
• ! The isolation valve is always closed.
• ! The isolation valve automatically modulates between open & closed, depending on
pneumatic load.
• ! Open when any Engine Bleed Air switch or Air Conditioning pack switch is positioned
OFF.
What happens when the WING BODY OVHT TEST switch is pressed?
• ! The amber WING-BODY OVERHEAT Lights illuminate.
• ! The amber PACK TRIP OFF Lights illuminate.
• ! The amber BLEED TRIP OFF Lights illuminate
• ! All of the above.
In the PACK TRIP OFF Non Normal Check-List, the crew selects a warmer temperature in order to:
• ! Reduce cabin airflow.
• ! Reduce the workload on the other pack.
• ! Reduce the workload on the affected air conditioning pack
• ! Reduce the air flow through the air mix valves.
The amber DUAL BLEED Light is illuminated before starting engines. What should you do?
• ! Nothing. This is normal condition before engine start.
• ! Do not start the engines, call Maintenance.
• ! Do not start the engines, check MEL.
• ! Shut down the APU and use a pneumatic ground cart for engine start.
The amber DUAL BLEED light indicates apossible APU back pressure condition and thrust must
be limited to IDLE.
• ! True.
• ! False.
What happens to engine fan air that is used to cool engine bleed air?
• ! It is ducted into the pneumatic manifold.
• ! It is ducted into the crossbleed manifold.
• ! It is discharged overboard.
• ! It is ducted into the 5th stage compressor section.
What causes the amber PACK TRIP OFF Light to illuminate?
• ! Main distribution duct temperature has exceeded limits.
• ! Compressor outlet duct temperature has exceeded limits
• ! Turbine inlet duct temperature has exceeded limits.
• ! All of the above.
If any individual zone is switched OFF, the Temperature Selector setting will be ignored by the
temperature control system.
• ! True
• ! False
The Equipment Cooling Supply or Exhaust OFF light illuminated indicates a loss of airflow from
the selected cooling fan. You position the EQUIPMENT COOLING SUPPLY/EXHAUST switch
on ALTERNATE
• ! No further action is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does not
extinguish.
• ! Diversion is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does not extinguish.
• ! Descending below FL250 is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does not
extinguish.
• ! Descending below FL200 is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does not
extinguish.
See QRH Air Systems - EQUIPMENT COOLING OFF
On the Bleed Air Duct pressure indicator the L pressure indicates 40psi, the R pressure indicates
50psi:
• ! As long as there is sufficient air for cabin pressurization, this is normal.
• ! Select L pack to HIGH until pressure indications equalize.
• ! Set both packs to high for 2 minutes.
• ! Set R RECIRC FAN to OFF
APU
Moving the battery switch to OFF automatically shuts down the APU.
• ! On the ground only
• ! In the air only
• ! On the ground or in the air
• ! Never.
Because of power loss to the Electronic Control Unit (ECU)
It is recommennded to operate the APU for _____ before using it as a bleed air source.
• ! 20 seconds
• ! 30 seconds
• ! 45 seconds.
• ! 1 full minute
This one minute stabilization is recommended to extend the service life of the APU.
During the APU start cycle, the APU EGT indication may fluctuate from 0º to 1100º C prior to
normal EGT rise and the LOW OIL PRESSURE light may cycle on and off several times. These
indications have no adverse effect on starting the APU. It is not necessary to monitor EGT during
start.
• ! True
• ! False.
The APU switch OFF position has an automatic shutdown delay of:
• ! 30 seconds
• ! 60 seconds
• ! 120 seconds
• ! 135 seconds
The APU is capable of supplying bleed air for both air conditioning packs:
• ! On the ground only
• ! In the air only
• ! On the ground or in the air
• ! Never.
The APU may be used as an electrical and pneumatic source simultaneously up to:
• ! 10 000 feet
• ! 17 000 feet
• ! 25 000 feet
• ! 30 000 feet
When the APU is started using battery power only, there is a normal indication on the electrical
metering panel that the APU generator has come on line and is ready to be selected.
• ! True
• ! False.
When the APU is started using battery power only, there is a NO indication on the electrical
metering panel that the APU generator has come on line and is ready to be selected. Both the
frequency and voltage readings are zero until the APU generator is placed on line.
If the APU GEN OFF BUS light fails to illuminate by the end of the start cycle:
• ! The FAULT light illuminates
• ! The MAINT light illuminates
• ! The APU failed a self test and the OVERSPEED light will illuminate
• ! There is no light associated wih this malfunction.
In flight, if the APU is the only source of electrical power, all galley busses are automatically shed.
If electrical load still exceeds design limits, both main busses automatically shed until the load is
within design limits. On the ground, the APU attempts to carry a full electrical load. If an overload
condition is sensed, the APU sheds galley busses first, and then both main busses until the load is
within limits.
• ! True
• ! False.
Of the four lights located on the APU control panel, which light will NOT cause an automatic
shutdown of the APU when it illuminates?
• ! LOW OIL PRESSURE
• ! FAULT
• ! OVERSPEED
• ! MAINT
The APU starts, operates and can supply electrical power alone up to:
• ! 41,000 feet
• ! 17,000 feet
• ! 25,000 feet
• ! 37,000 feet
When the APU is started using battery power only, there is no indication on the electrical metering
panel that the APU generator has come on line and is ready to be selected. Both the frequency and
voltage readings are zero until the APU generator is placed on line.
• ! True
• ! False
AUTOFLIGHT
With VNAV engaged, the AFDS (Autopilot Flight Director System) pitch and A/T modes are
commanded by the:
• ! MCP
• ! FMC
• ! FCC.
Normally, N1 limits and target N1 values are provided to the A/T by the:
• ! A/T computer
• ! FMC
• ! IRUs
Moving the autopilot Stabilizer Trim Cutout Switch to the CUTOUT position will disengage the
autopilot.
• ! True
• ! False.
If the autopilot ALT HOLD mode is manually overriden with control column pressure, which of the
following occurs?
• ! The autopilot disengages
• ! LNAV disengages
• ! The autopilot changes to CWS P and returns to ALT HLD if control pressure released
within 250 ft of selected altitude.
• ! LEVEL CHANGE automatically engages.
If pitch is manually overridden while in ALT HOLD and control force is released within 250 feet of
selected altitude, A/P pitch mode engages in ALT ACQ and returns to selected altitude in ALT
HOLD mode.
The Control wheel force required to override the A/P COMMAND mode is:
• ! Less than normal CWS force
• ! Greater than normal CWS force
• ! The same as normal CWS force.
When performing an autopilot ILS approach, the glide slope can be captured from above or below:
• ! True
• ! False
When control wheel pressure is released during CWS roll operation, the airplane will roll wings
level when the bank angle is:
• ! 5 degrees or less
• ! 6 degrees or less
• ! 10 degrees or less
• ! 15 degrees or less.
How many independent Flight Control Computers (FCCs) are there in the AFDS?
• ! One
• ! Two
• ! Three
• ! Fours (two for each channel)
The AUTOLAND warning light is armed during dual ILS A/P approach below ____ feet.
• ! 2500 feet
• ! 800 feet
• ! 500 feet
• ! 200 feet
What pitch mode is annunciated after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged in CMD?
• ! CWS P
• ! MCP SPD
• ! VNAV
• ! V/S
The autopilot cannot be engaged while force is applied to the control wheel.
• ! True
• ! False.
In the 'ARM' autothrottle mode, the thrust lever autothrottle servos maintain thrust at the selected
N1 limit displayed on the thrust mode display.
• ! True
• ! False.
ARM mode = No autothrottle mode engaged. The thrust lever autothrottle servos are inhibited. The
pilot can set thrust levers manually.
Minimum speed reversion is also available when the A/T is OFF and the AFDS is in ALT HOLD or
after G/S capture.
• ! True
• ! False.
Minimum speed reversion is NOT available in that case.
Which A/T modes permit manual thrust change without A/T interference?
• ! GA & ARM
• ! N1 & ARM
• ! THR HLD & ARM
• ! Only THR HLD
What is the minimum altitude (AGL) for selecting 'CMD' on the second autopilot during an ILS
approach?
• ! 2000 feet
• ! 1500 feet
• ! 800 feet
• ! 500 feet.
Which of the following occurs when a TO/GA switch is pressed below 2000 feet RA for a flight
director go-around from a single autopilot ILS approach?
• ! The autopilot disengages
• ! GA mode of the Flight Director engages
• ! The autothrottle advances thrust levers to reduced go-around N1
• ! All the above are correct.
The airplane can be flown in the CWS mode even through the autopilot is engaged in CMD:
• ! True
• ! False.
If an engine failure occurs during takeoff, the pitch command target speed is:
• ! V2, if airspeed is below V2
• ! Existing speed, if airspeed is between V2 & V2+20
• ! V2+20, if airspeed is above V2+20
• ! All of the above
Engaging LVL CHG or VNAV climb modes automatically engages the A/T N1 mode:
• ! True
• ! False.
The airplane is in level flight at the selected altitude with ALT HOLD engaged. Changing the MCP
altitude by at least 100 feet, arms the V/S mode.
• ! True
• ! False
Trimming the stabilizer with the electrical trim switch on the control wheel disengages the
autopilot.
• ! True
• ! False.
Which mode must be armed before the second autopilot can be selected?
• ! VNAV
• ! VOR LOC
• ! APP
• ! LNAV
During takeoff with F/D ON, the AFDS commands pitch attitude ____ degrees after ____ IAS.
• ! 10 degrees nose up & 60 kt IAS.
• ! 15 degrees nose up & 60 kt IAS
• ! 10 degrees nose up & 84 kt IAS.
• ! 15 degrees nose up & 84 kt IAS.
Dual channel A/P operation is possible ONLY when two generators are powering the busses.
• ! True
• ! False.
Pushing a CWS engage switch engages the A/P pitch and roll axes in the CWS mode and displays
CWS P & CWS R on the FMAs. The A/P maneuvers the airplane in response to control pressures
applied by either pilot. The control pressure is similar to that required for manual flight. If aileron
pressure is released with 6 degrees or less bank, the A/P rolls the wings level and holds existing
heading. The heading hold feature with bank less than 6 degrees is inhibited when:
• ! Below 1500 feet RA with the landing gear down or after F/D VOR capture with TAS 250
knots or less or after F/D LOC capture in the APP mode.
• ! Below 2500 feet RA with the landing gear down or after F/D VOR capture with TAS 200
knots or less or after F/D LOC capture in the APP mode.
• ! Below 1500 feet RA with the landing gear down or after F/D VOR capture with TAS 200
knots or less or after F/D LOC capture in the APP mode.
• ! Below 2500 feet RA with the landing gear down or after F/D VOR capture with TAS 250
knots or less or after F/D LOC capture in the APP mode.
If engaged the autothrottle will disengaged ____ after landing touchdown.
• ! 2 seconds
• ! 5 seconds
• ! 8 seconds
• ! 10 seconds
If thrust levers become separated more than 10 degrees during a dual channel approach (before
FLARE armed is annunciated), the autothrottle is then disengaged.
• ! True
• ! False.
this is true but after FLARE armed is annunciated...
The autopilot flare maneuver starts at approximately ____ feet RA and is completed at touchdown.
• ! 27 feet
• ! 35 feet
• ! 50 feet
• ! 100 feet.
During a single engine F/D go-around, F/D pitch commands ____ degrees nose up. As climb rate
increases, F/D pitch commands maintain a target speed.
• ! 8 degrees
• ! 10 degrees
• ! 13 degrees
• ! 15 degrees.
If windshear is encountered during F/D takeoff or go-around, the F/D pitch command bar provides
commands to maintain V2+20 kts until vertical speed decreases to approximately :
• ! 600 fpm
• ! 800 fpm
• ! 1000 fpm
• ! 1200 fpm
If windshear is encountered during an ILS approach, both the F/D and A/P attempt to hold the
airplane on altitude, or on glideslope after glideslope capture, without regard to angle of attack or
stick shaker limitations.
• ! True
• ! False.
Airspeed could decrease below stick shaker and into a stall if the pilot does not intervene by
pushing the TO/GA switch or disconnecting the A/P and flying manually.
The following annunciation provide the flight crew with autoland system mode and status:
• ! LAND 3 means two autopilots, two inertial sources at least and the associated sensors are
operating normally for an automatic landing
• ! LAND 3 means two autopilots, three inertial sources at least and the associated sensors are
operating normally for an automatic landing
• ! LAND 3 means two autopilots, three inertial sources and the associated sensors are
operating normally for an automatic landing and rollout.
• ! LAND 3 means two autopilots, three inertial sources, the associated sensors are operating
normally for an automatic landing and rollout and at least one FMS is operative.
The Autopilot Disengage Light is illuminated steady red when:1- Stabilizer out of trim below 800
feet RA on dual channel approach.2- ALT ACQ mode inhibited during A/P go-around if stabilizer
not trimmed for single A/P operation.3- Disengage light test switch held in position 2.4- Automatic
ground test system fail.
• ! True.
• ! False.
After localizer & glideslope capture, CWS cannot be engaged by manually overriding pitch and
roll. Manual override of autopilots causes autopilot disengagement.
• ! True
• ! False.
Two independent radio altimeters provide radio altitude to the respective FCCs. With a radio
altimeter inoperative, the autopilot will disconnect ____ after LOC and GS capture.
• ! Immediately.
• ! 2 seconds.
• ! Between 2 and 5 seconds depending on the altitude.
• ! 4 seconds.
When a conflict occurs between the VNAV profile and the MCP altitude, the airplane levels and the
pitch flight mode annunciation becomes:
• ! VNAV SPD.
• ! VNAV PTH.
• ! VNAV ACQ.
• ! VNAV ALT.
VNAV ALT maintains altitude.
What happens with the IAS/MACH display on the MCP if SPD INTV is pushed during VNAV
operations?
• ! IAS/MACH displays opens up and shows 250 kts.
• ! IAS/MACH displays opens up and shows FMC target speed..
• ! IAS/MACH displays opens up and shows slashes.
• ! IAS/MACH displays opens up and shows dashes.
At what altitude will both A/P's automatically disengage if FLARE is not armed during an ILS dual
channel approach?
• ! 350 feet RA.
• ! 500 feet RA
• ! 50 feet RA.
• ! Will not disengage.
Condition: After takeoff, A/P engaged before flaps up. (Thrust mode / Roll mode / Pitch mode)
Which is the correct mode on the FMA?
• ! ARM / HDG SEL / TO/GA
• ! N1 / LNAV / MCP SPD
• ! ARM / LNAV / FMC SPD
• ! N1 / HDG SEL / VNAV
As you push the TO/GA switch for an automatic Go-Around, what is the correct FMA
announcement? (Thrust mode / Roll mode / Pitch mode)
• ! N1 / VOR/LOC / TO/GA
• ! GA / LNAV / MCP SPD
• ! GA / - / TO/GA
• ! MCP SPD / - / GA
When flying on a geometrical path with VNAV engaged you push SPD INTV. What will happen?
• ! VNAV SPD will engage and MCP SPD will be annunciated in the FMA.
• ! VNAV PTH will remain engaged and MCP SPD will be annunciated in the FMA.
• ! VNAV PTH will remain engaged and FMC SPD will be annunciated in the FMA.
• ! VNAV SPD will engage and FMC SPD will be annunciated in the FMA.
When in ALT HOLD FL80 you change the barometric setting from STD to QNH 1030. What will
the aircraft do?
• ! The aircraft will climb 500 feet to the new pressure level
• ! The aircraft will descend 500 feet to the new pressure level
• ! You cannot change the altitude when in ALT HOLD
• ! The aircraft will continue at FL80, but the ALT readout will change.
On a normal ILS approach, when will the respective LLZ and G/S captures occur.
• ! LLZ 2 dots on the expanded scale, GS 5/8 dot on the expanded scale
• ! LLZ 1/2 dot on the normal scale, GS 5/2 dot below the glideslope
• ! LLZ not later than 1/2 dot deviation, GS 2/5 dot below glideslope.
• ! LLZ 5/8 dot deviation, GS 1/2 dot below the glideslope
You are established on the ILS at 3000´and inadvertently press TO/GA once. What will happen?
• ! The A/P will disengage but the A/C will remain in approach logic
• ! The A/P will stay connected but the FMS will change to G/A logic
• ! Nothing will happen since the A/C has not descended below 2000´
• ! The A/P will disconnect and A/T add thrust to reduced G/A, F/D pitch 15deg nose up
The white A/T LIM symbol appears on the upper display unit. What is correct?
• ! The A/T has reach the thrust limit for the selected assumed temperature
• ! The N1 has been manually set and not by the FMC, therefore the A/T LIM will be
illuminated
• ! The A/T is using the upgraded BLT performance information
• ! The FMC is not providing A/T with N1 limit values
COMMUNICATIONS
What is the purpose of the ALT-NORM switch on the Audio Control Panel?
• ! It selects an alternate radio.
• ! It selects a degraded mode of operation of the ACP.
• ! It swaps audio control panels with the observer.
The MASK-BOOM switch allows selection of the oxygen mask microphone orthe boom
microphone. The MASK-BOOM switch does not affect the operationof the hand microphone.
• ! True.
• ! False.
The call system is used as a means for various crewmembers to gain the attention of other
crewmembers and to indicate that interphone communication is desired. Attention is gained through
the use of lights and aural signals (chimes or horn). If the flight deck calls the cabin crew, the visual
signal at called position is:
• ! Blue.
• ! Pink.
• ! Green.
• ! Blue then becomes red after 5 seconds.
On the Audio Control panel (ACP) the Cabin call light comes ON. It will illuminate until:
• ! remains illuminated for 10 seconds.
• ! remains illuminated for 20 seconds.
• ! remains illuminated for 30 seconds.
• ! remains illuminated for 40 seconds.
The CVR uses four independent channels to record flight deck audio for maximum of:
• ! 30 minutes.
• ! 60 minutes.
• ! 90 minutes.
• ! 120 minutes.
Which radio does the First Officer use in the degraded mode?
• ! VHF-1
• ! VHF-2
• ! Both VHFs
In the degraded mode of operation, are the ACP transmitter selectors functional?
• ! Yes.
• ! No.
Audio warnings for altitude alert, GPWS, and windshear are not heard on an audio system operating
in the degraded mode.
• ! True
• ! False
When the ALT‐NORM switch on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) is set to ALT:
• ! The ACP at that station is inoperative and the crewmember cannot communicate on any
radios.
• ! The ACP at that station is inoperative but the crewmember can communicate on one radio.
• ! The ACP switches to an alternate ACP and all functions operate normally and the
crewmember can communicate on all radios.
• ! The ACP switches to standby ACP and all functions operate normally except PA and
interphone.
Flight Attendants may be called from the flight deck, the other attendant station, or from any
passenger seat or lavatory. Master call lights in the passenger cabin identify the source of incoming
calls to the attendants.
• ! True
• ! False
ELECTRIC
If the AC source powering a transfer bus fails, the transfer bus will remain unpowered.
• ! True.
• ! False.
A high oil temperature in the IDG would cause an automatic disconnect of the IDG.
• ! True
• ! False.
The TR3 cross bus tie relay automatically opens at glide slope capture to:
• ! Prevent a single bus failure from affecting both navigation receivers and Flight Control
Computers (FCCs)
• ! Provide more power to the AC STANDBY Bus
• ! Ensure that the STANDBY DC is powered.
• ! Provide more power to DC bus 1
In flight, if the APU is supplying both AC Transfer busses, positioning the BUS TRANS switch to
OFF will:
• ! Cause AC Transfer bus No.1 to lose power
• ! Cause AC Transfer bus No.2 to lose power
• ! Cause both AC Transfer busses to lose power
• ! Not cause either AC Transfer bus to fail.
After the loss of all generators, a fully charged battery can furnish power to the STANDBY Bus
equipment for a minimum of:
• ! 20 minutes
• ! 30 minutes
• ! 60 minutes
• ! 90 minutes
One basic principle of operation for the B737 electrical system is:
• ! All generator bus sources can be automatically connected by the Standby Power System.
• ! There is no paralleling of the AC power sources.
• ! There is no paralleling of any power source.
• ! An AC power source may be used in parallel with a DC power source..
Because engine generators power the transfer busses directly, and transfer busses are connected by a
bus tie system, the loss of an engine driven generator will not necessarily result in the loss of any
bus(ses).
• ! True
• ! False.
The modified DC system architecture resulted in the TR3 disconnect relay found in the B737-300
thru 500 being replaced with a cross bus tie relay. The cross bus tie relay opens automatically under
the same circumstances as did the TR3 disconnect relay.
• ! True
• ! False.
The SOURCE OFF light will illuminate:
• ! When the source selected to power the transfer bus has failed and the automatic bus
transfer function has closed the BTBs to power the transfer bus from another source.
• ! When the source selected to power the Transfer bus and the automatic transfer function
have both failed resulting in the transfer bus being. unpowered
• ! When the TRANSFER BUS OFF light is illuminated.
• ! All of the above.
In the event that the airplane battery is depleted, the APU can be started using DC external power.
• ! True
• ! False.
It is possible to power one transfer bus with external power and the other transfer bus with the APU.
• ! True.
• ! False.
The crew fails to properly accomplish normal procedures and takes off with the APU powering both
Transfer busses (SELECT THE INCORRECT STATEMENT)
• ! One Transfer bus will disconnect automatically after lift-off.
• ! During climb, the galleys may become inoperative.
• ! Both Main busses may become inoperative above 400 feet RA or after 12 sec. from lift-off.
• ! The generators will come on line automatically if the APU is either shut down or fails.
AC amperage can be observed on the AC ammeter for the source selected by the AC meter selector.
• ! True
• ! False.
During cruise, one engine driven generator drops off-line. Indications that the crew should see
include:
• ! A TRANSFER BUS OFF light and a GEN OFF BUS light
• ! A SOURCE OFF light and a GEN OFF BUS light
• ! Illumination of the fuel pump, probe heat, respective hydraulic pumps powered by the
associated Transfer bus
• ! All of the above.
On the ground, with the battery switch OFF and STANBY POWER Switch in AUTO, the Battery
Bus is:
• ! Not powered.
• ! Powered by TR3.
• ! Powered by the Hot Battery Bus.
• ! Powered by the Battery.
With the STANDBY switch in the AUTO position, the loss of all engine or APU electrical power
results in the automatic switching from the normal power source to the alternate source for standby
power:
• ! Inflight only.
• ! On the ground only.
• ! Either inflight or on the ground.
• ! Will not occur.
With the STANDBY POWER switch in AUTO (guarded position). In flight, or on the ground, loss
of all AC power. AC Standby bus is powered by battery through static inverter & DC Standby bus is
powered by battery.
• ! True.
• ! False.
DC voltage and amperage may be read on the DC voltmeter and ammeter for the battery and each
of the 3 TRs. The Standby power and battery bus displays only Dc voltage. Normal indication is :
______ volts
• ! 24 +/- 4
• ! 26 +/- 6
• ! 24 +/-2
• ! 26 +/-4
The purpose of the static inverter is to convert 24 volt DC power from the battery to 115V AC
power to supply the AC standby bus during the loss of normal electrical power.
• ! True.
• ! False.
The power supply to the inverter is controlled by the standby power switch and the battery switch
on the overhead panel.
The two nickel-cadmium batteries can provide standby power for a minimum of _____ minutes (if
fully charged).
• ! 30
• ! 45
• ! 60
• ! 75
DC busses powered from the battery following a loss of both generators are:
• ! Battery bus, DC Standby bus, Hot battery bus.
• ! DC standby Bus, Hot Battery Bus & Switched hot battery bus.
• ! Battery bus, DC Standby bus, Hot battery bus & Switched hot battery bus (even when the
battery switch is OFF).
• ! Battery bus, DC Standby bus, Hot battery bus & Switched hot battery bus.
Switched hot battery bus is powered whenever the battery switch is ON.
If the TR UNIT light is illuminates in flight, it indicates that one or more TR\'s have failed and you
are supposed not to use the AFDS approach mode.
• ! True.
• ! False.
An illuminated TR UNIT light while on the ground indicates that at least two TRs have failed.
• ! True
• ! False
Either generator or the APU can power both transfer buses. In the event a power source fails, what
is required for that transfer bus to be powered by the opposite transfer bus power source?
• ! The generator switch must be OFF.
• ! The battery switch must be ON.
• ! The BUS TRANS switch must be in the AUTO position.
Normal AC voltmeter indication for the APU generator with the AC busses loaded:
• ! 100 to 125 volts.
• ! 110 to 125 volts.
• ! 110 to 135 volts.
• ! 115 to 125 volts.
DC voltage and amperage may be read on the DC voltmeter and ammeter for the battery and each
of the three TRs. The standby power and battery bus displays only DC voltage. Normal indication
is:
• ! 12 +/- 4 volts.
• ! 24 +/- 10 volts.
• ! 26 +/- 4 volts.
During primary charge cycle operation battery voltage can be as high as 30 +/- 3 volts
Both On the ground and in flight a amber ELEC light comes on to indicate that a fault exists in DC
power system or standby power system.
• ! True.
• ! False.
The ELEC light is inhibited in flight.
On the ground, with the BATTERY switch OFF and STANDBY POWER Switch in BAT, the
switched hot battery bus is:
• ! Not powered
• ! Powered by TR 3
• ! Powered by the Hot Battery Bus
• ! Powered by the Battery
The electrical system incorporates an automatic load shedding feature. What is the first bus that is
shed?
• ! Galleys on transfer bus 1 are shed first.
• ! Galleys on transfer bus 2 are shed first.
• ! The AC standby bus is shed first.
• ! None of above.
The electrical system incorporates an automatic load shedding feature. What is the second bus that
is shed?
• ! Galleys on transfer bus 1
• ! Galleys on transfer bus 2
• ! The AC ground service bus.
• ! The AC standby bus
After an overload situation has been resolved, how do you recover the galley buses?
• ! It happens automatically.
• ! Move the galley power switch to OFF then ON.
• ! A ground engineer should reselect the appropriate switch in the E/E
Reverse thrust can be selected with the forward thrust levers in what position?
• ! Maximum thrust position
• ! Forward thrust position
• ! Idle thrust position
• ! Any position
Each engine has two igniter plugs. The EEC arms the igniter plug(s) selected by the ignition select
switch. The Left igniter plug receives power from the DC Standby bus while the Right igniter plug
receives power from the AC standby bus.
• ! True
• ! False
The Left igniter receives power from the associated transfer bus.
An auto-relight capability is provided for flame-out protection. Whenever the EEC detects an
engine flameout, both igiters are activated. A flameout is detected when:
• ! An uncommanded rapid decrease in N1 occurs
• ! An uncommanded rapid decrease in N1 occurs or N2 is below idle RPM
• ! An uncommanded rapid decrease in N2 occurs or N2 is below idle RPM
• ! An uncommanded rapid decrease in N1 occurs or N2 is below idle RPM or EGT is below
200°C
At low N2 values, the oil scavenge pump may not provide enough pressure to return oil to the tank,
causing a low quantity indication. Normal oil quantity should be indicated after start.
• ! True
• ! False.
If a wet start is detected, the EEC will automatically turn off ignition & shut off fuel to the engine:
• ! 15 seconds after the start valve opens during ground starts
• ! 15 seconds after the start lever is moved to idle during ground starts
• ! 10 seconds on the ground or 30 seconds in flight after the start lever is moved to idle
• ! No automatic shutdown is provided for a wet start.
A wet start occurs if the EGT does not rise after the start lever is moved to IDLE.
The amber DUAL BLEED light is illuminated before starting engines. What should you do?
• ! Nothing, this is normal condition
• ! Do not start the engines
• ! Shut down the APU
• ! Use a pneumatic ground cart for starting engines
The EEC automatically selects ground minimum idle, flight minimum idle and approach idle.
Approach idle is selected in flight:
• ! Below approximately 12000 ft
• ! If flaps are greater than 1 or engine & wing anti-ice are ON
• ! If flaps are in landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine
• ! Below 1500 ft, f flaps are greater than 1 or engine anti-ice is ON
This higher % RPM improves engine acceleration time in the event of a go-around.
In flight, if a fault prevents the EEC from receiving flap or anti-ice signals, approach idle schedule
begins:
• ! Below 20 000 feet MSL
• ! Below 15 000 feet MSL
• ! Below 10 000 feet MSL
• ! Below 5 000 feet MSL.
The EGT display, both box & dial, turn red and the EEC automatically turns off ignition and shut
off fuel to the engine if:
• ! An impending hot start is detected during ground starts
• ! An impending hot start is detected during ground starts or in flight starts
• ! The EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground starts
• ! The EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground or in flight starts.
What are the indications that the engine starter has disengaged?
• ! The fuel LOW PRESSURE lights extinguish with N1 RPM 56%
• ! The start switch automatically returns to OFF, and the START VALVE OPEN light
extinguishes
• ! An immediate increase in the N1 indication due to closure of the compressor bleed valves
• ! Start switch rotates to OFF and N2 RPM is stabilized (FUEL LOW PRESSURE
extinguishes)
Engine oil pressure is in the yellow band at idle power. Which of the following is true?
• ! Acceptable, no action is necessary
• ! Normal, but requires continuous monitoring of the oil temperature
• ! Undesirable, and permitted obly for the completion of the flight, preferably at reduced
thrust setting
• ! Unsafe and requires that the engine be shut down as soon as possible.
EEC alternate mode thrust is always equal to or greater than normal mode thrust for the same thrust
lever position.
• ! True
• ! False.
Of the four lights located on the APU control panel, which light will NOT cause an automatic
shutdown of the APU when it illuminates?
• ! LOW OIL PRESSURE
• ! LOW OIL QUANTITY / MAINT
• ! HIGH OIL TEMP / FAULT
• ! OVERSPEED
The REVERSER light, located on the aft overhead panel, illuminates when the thrust reverser is
commanded to stow and extinguishes 10 seconds later when the isolation valve closes.
• ! True
• ! False
Any time the REVERSER light illuminates for more than 12 seconds, a malfunction has occured
and the MASTER CAUTION and ENG system annunciator lights illuminate.
The first action during an 'ABORTED ENGINE START' (before starter cutout) is:
• ! ENGINE START SWITCH .........OFF
• ! ENGINE START SWITCH......... GROUND
• ! ENGINE START LEVER ..........CUT OFF
Continue to monitor the engine for 60 seconds (clears fuel and cools engine components) and then
ENGINE START SWITCH OFF.
In case of LOSS OF THRUST ON BOTH ENGINES, you are supposed to wait for successful
engine start(s) before starting APU.
• ! True.
• ! False.
DO NOT wait for successful engine start(s) prior to starting APU. The APU has demonstrated the
capability to provide electrical power up to 20 000 feet. APU may be placed on either or both
busses.
After a LOSS THRUST ON BOTH ENGINES, in moderate to heavy rain, it may take up to ______
to accelerate to idle.
• ! 30 seconds
• ! 60 seconds
• ! 2 minutes
• ! 3 minutes
The loss of one DEU results in activation of the EEC´s alternate mode. What is correct?
• ! The EEC´s automatically switch into hard mode and the engines might overboost
• ! The soft alternate mode is entered first, using last valid flight conditions to define engine
parameters
• ! If the thrust levers are reduced the hard mode is entered and last valid flight conditions will
be used for the engine parameters.
• ! You can only enter the hard mode by manually selecting it on the engine control panel.
FIRE
17. If the OVHT DET switch is positioned to A or B, the system operates as a singleloop
system. The non-selected loop is not monitored.
◦ ! True.
◦ ! False.
18.
19. During cargo fire TEST, Individual detector faults can only be detected by a manually
initiated test. The MASTER CAUTION light does not illuminate.
◦ ! True.
◦ ! False.
20.
21. Cargo Compartment Fire Extinguishing: a dual fire extinguisher bottle is installed in the air
conditioning mix bay on the forward wing spar. Detection of fire in either the forward or aft
compartment will cause the FWD or AFT cargo fire warning light to illuminate. The
extinguisher is armed by pushing the appropriate cargo fire ARMED switch.
◦ ! True
◦ ! False.
22.
23. In case of Cargo Fire, the Cargo Fire (FWD / AFT) Warning Lights are illuminated red.
◦ ! At least one detector in each loop detects smoke (with power failed in one loop, at
least one detector on the remaining loop detects smoke)
◦ ! At least one detector in each loop detects smoke.
◦ ! At least one detector in each loop detects smoke or fire condition.
24.
25. If the DETECTOR FAULT light is illuminated (amber), a minimum of one loop in one or
both cargo compartments have failed.
◦ ! True. IT IS TRUE
◦ ! False.
26. BOTH loops in one or both cargo compartments have failed.
27. Main wheel well fire protection consists of fire detection powered by the:
◦ ! Battery bus.
◦ ! No.1 AC Transfer bus.
◦ ! Switched hot battery bus.
28.
29. A dual fire detector loop is installed in the main wheel well.
◦ ! True.
◦ ! False.
30. A single fire detector loop is installed in the main wheel well. As the temperature of the
detector increases to a predetermined limit, the detector senses a fire condition. The
WHEEL WELL fire warning remains illuminated until the temperature of the detector has
decreased below the onset temperature.
35. After a wheel well fire, if the landing gear must be retracted for airplane performance, leave
the landing gear extended for ___ minutes after the WHEEL WELL fire warning light has
extinguished.
◦ ! 10 minutes.
◦ ! 15 minutes.
◦ ! 20 minutes.
◦ ! 30 minutes.
36.
37. During 'SMOKE / FUMES REMOVAL' procedure, First Officer's window should be opened
if packs are off and smoke / fumes source is confirmed to be in the flight deck.
◦ ! True.
◦ ! False.
38. CAUTION : - Establish normal holding airspeed (high airspeed may prevent opening the
window)- Window should not be opened unless the source is confirmed to be originating in
the flight deck.
39. If smoke / fumes are uncontrollable, the crew is supposed to descent to the lowest safe
altitude and at 14000 or below, the PRESSURIZATION MODE SELECTOR should be
positioned to MAN while the OUTFLOW VALVE switch should be opened. What is the
main cause of the OUTFLOW VALVE operation?
◦ ! To depressurize the cabin.
◦ ! To provide maximum cabin ventilation.
◦ ! To provide smoke/fumes contamination of/from other compartments.
◦ ! This causes the cabin airflow to carry smoke/fumes aft.
40. The outflow valve can take up to 20 seconds to open.
FLIGHT CONTROLS
In the event of hydraulic Systems A & B fail, ailerons, elevators, and rudder can be operated with
the Standby system.
• ! True
• ! False
During a normal landing, flight spoilers & ground spoilers will always extend simultaneously.
• ! True
• ! False.
Elevator Feel provides simulated aero forces using airspeed from elevator pitot & stabilizer
position.
• ! True
• ! False
The feel is transmitted to the control columns by the elevator feel & centering unit.
Mach Trim system corrects for Mach tuck by moving stabilizer up.
• ! True
• ! False.
It moves elevators up (not the stabilizer)
Concerning Mach Trim operation, FCCs use Mach information from the ADC / ADIRU, to compute
a Mach trim actuator position whih repositions the elevator feel & centering unit, which adjusts the
control column neutral position (column will not move).
• ! True
• ! False.
Of course the column will move !
In addition to Hydraulic System A & B, the rudder can also be powered by the Standby Hydraulic
System through the:
• ! System A Standby Rudder Power Control Unit
• ! System B Standby Rudder Power Control Unit
• ! Standby Rudder Power Control Unit
• ! Main Rudder Power Control Unit
The Power Transfer Unit provides an alternate source of power for the Autoslat System if:
• ! A loss of Hydraulic System A pressure is sensed
• ! Hydraulic System A engine driven pump is inoperative
• ! The Alternate Flaps Position Switch is momentarily held down
• ! A loss of pressure from the Hydraulic System B engine pump is sensed.
The trailing edge flaps are at 15 units. The correct indication on the aft overhead panel for the
leading edge devices is:
• ! All amber TRANSIT lights illuminated
• ! All LE devices FULL EXT lights illuminated
• ! All LE devices EXT lights illuminated
• ! LE slats EXT lights and LE flaps FULL EXT lights illuminated.
Loss of Hydraulic System B pressure does not cause illumination of the amber YAW DAMPER
light or yaw damper disengagement.
• ! True
• ! False.
When the Standby Yaw Damper is active, rudder movements are indicated on the yaw damper
indicator.
• ! True
• ! False.
The trailing edge flaps devices consist of double slotted flaps inboard outboard of each engine.
• ! True
• ! False.
Main electric trim has 2 speed modes : high & low speed.
• ! True
• ! False.
During descent from altitude you need to decrease your aispeed by using your speed brakes. What
is the correct position of the SPEED BRAKE LEVER.
• ! ARMED
• ! FLIGHT DETENT
• ! UP
• ! Any intermediate position.
If wheel spinup is not detected on landing with the speed brake armed the flight spoilers will deploy
automatically :
• ! Only when the RIGHT main landing gear strut compresses
• ! When the air/ground system senses the ground mode (any strut compresses)
• ! When the ground spoilers deploy
• ! Flight spoilers do not deploy on landing, only ground spoilers deploy.
Dual AILERON trim switches, located on the aft electronic panel, must be pushed simultaneously
to command trim changes. The trim electrically repositions the aileron feel and centering unit,
which causes the control wheel to rotate and redefines the aileron neutral position.
• ! True
• ! False.
The flight control computers use Mach Information from the _____ to compute a Mach trim
actuator position.
• ! Airspeed Indicator
• ! ADIRU
• ! Mach/Airspeed Indicator & thrust levers position
What do the MACH TRIM FAIL, SPEED TRIM FAIL & AUTO SLAT FAIL lights have in
common?
• ! Will illuminate if both system computers fail
• ! Will illuminate during Master Caution Recall if only one computer has failed
• ! Also illuminates the Master Caution & FLT CONT annunciator Lights.
• ! All of the above.
Extending the flaps to flaps 15 using ALTERNATE FLAPS takes approximately _______
• ! 30 seconds
• ! 1 minute
• ! 2 minutes
• ! 4 minutes.
The speedbrake lever will move forward and all spoilers will retract if either thrust lever is
advanced after landing.
• ! True
• ! False.
The SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light indicates that the speedbrake is not usable.
• ! True
• ! False.
The flight spoilers rise on the wing with up aileron and remain faired on the wing with down
aileron. When the control wheel is displaced more than approximately ____ degrees, spoiler
deflection is initiated.
• ! 6,5
• !8
• ! 10
• ! 12.
At what flap setting(s) should the leading edge slats be in the FULL EXTEND position?
• !1
• ! 1 to 5
• ! Greater than 5
• ! 5 to 40.
With a loss of both system A & B, the elevator FEEL DIFF PRESS light will illuminate:
• ! True
• ! False.
During the 'ALTERNATE FLAPS OPERATION' procedure, you have to plan a Flaps 15 landing.
After arming the ALTERNATE FLAPS MASTER SWITCH (230 kt max), you set the flaps to
desired flap position & extend flaps on maneuvering speed schedule. The LE FLAPS TRANSIT
light will remain illuminates until the flaps approach the:
• ! Flaps 1 position
• ! Flaps 5 position
• ! Flaps 10 position
• ! Flaps 15 position.
You have to perform a 'Runway Stabilizer' recall items. What bare your chronological actions?
• ! 1) Hold firmly the Control column 2) Disengage the autopilot 3) if runaway continues,
cutout the stabilizer cutout switches (if runaway continues you'll have to grasp & hold trim
wheel)
• ! You immediately grasp & hold trim wheel while declaring an emergency
• ! You disengage autopilot and cutout immediately cutout switches
• ! You disengage autopilot and cutout the both A & B FLT CONTROL switches
See QRH.
The Speed Trim System (STS) is a speed stability augmentation system designed to improve flight
characteristics during operation with a low gross weight, aft center of gravity and high thrust when
the autopilot is not engaged.
• ! True
• ! False.
The STS monitors inputs of stabilizer position, thrust lever position, airspeed and vertical speed and
then trims the stabilizer using the autopilot stabilizer trim.Remember that the SPEED TRIM FAIL
amber light is often illuminated when you arrive at the aircraft. It is only due to the Inertial Vertical
Speed Indicator which is not powered by the ADIRUs (IRS selectors OFF): the STS receives
invalid inputs.
The Speed Trim System (STS) operates most frequently during takeoffs & go-arounds. Conditions
for speed trim operation are:
• ! Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.68, 10 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds following
release of trim switches, N1 above 60%, autopilot not engaged, sensing of trim requirement
• ! Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.68, 10 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds following
release of trim switches, N1 above 40%, sensing of trim requirement
• ! Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.68, 15 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds following
release of trim switches, N1 above 60%, sensing of trim requirement
• ! Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.68, 10 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds following
release of trim switches, N1 above 40%, autopilot not engaged, sensing of trim requirement
During a steady right-handed turn on the ground, correct indications of the YawDamper indicator
would be?
• ! Steady full scale left deflection.
• ! Steady full scale right deflection
• ! Steady in the center position.
Landing flap 40 selected and in position. An IAS of 178kts is flown due to a highwind gust. Would
you expect:
• ! Flaps to retract to 30.
• ! Flaps to retract to 25.
• ! Flaps to remain in the current configuration.
When the flaps are set at 40, the TE flaps:- retract to 30 if airspeed exceeds 163 knots- re-extend
when airspeed is reduced below 158 knots.When the flaps are set at 30, the TE flaps:- retract to 25 if
the airspeed exceeds 176 knots- re-extend when airspeed is reduced below 171 knots.
With the MACH TRIM FAIL light illuminated (indicating failure of the Mach trim system), you
must:
• ! Limit airspeed to 280 kt / .82 Mach
• ! Limit aispeed to 270 kt
• ! Limit airspeed to 280 kt and altitude to 20,000 ft
See QRH (Flight Controls / Mach Trim Fail).
If you activate the FLT CONTROL switch Overhead panel) to STBY RUD, you activate:
• ! standby hydraulic systemp pump.
• ! standby hydraulic system pump and close flight control shutoff valve, isolating ailerons
and elevators.
• ! activates standby hydraulic system pump and opens standby rudder shutoff valve to
pressurize standby rudder power control unit.
21. Wing anti-ice should not be used when the Total Air Temperature is above +10 degrees C.
◦ ! True
◦ ! False.
22.
23. What can cause a WINDOW HEAT ON light to be extinguished?
◦ ! The window heat switch is OFF.
◦ ! An overheat has occurred.
◦ ! There has been a system failure.
◦ ! All of the above.
24.
25. Refer to the Thermal Anti-Ice (TAI) CDS indication. TAI shown at the top Left side of each
indicator indicates :
◦ ! If amber, an overtemperature condition exists in the duct downstream of the engine
cowl anti-ice valve.
◦ ! If green; the cowl anti-ice valve is closed and the related engine anti-ice switch is
OFF.
◦ ! If green, the cowl anti-ice valve is open and the related engine anti-ice switch is
ON.
◦ ! All of the above.
26.
27. What is the maximum airspeed limit when WINDOW HEAT is inoperative?
◦ ! 250 KIAS.
◦ ! 280 KIAS.
◦ ! 250 KIAS below 10 000 feet.
◦ ! 280 KIAS below 10 000 feet.
28.
29. Dual angle-airflow sensors (alpha vanes) provide angle-of-attack information to the stall
warning system, autothrottle, autopilot and autoslats and are anti iced:
◦ ! By actuating the LEFT or RIGHT FWD window heat switch.
◦ ! Whenever wing anti-ice is being used.
◦ ! Whenever the alternate static ports are heated.
◦ ! By independent 115V AC heating elements, controlled by the Probe Heat switches.
30.
31. Which pitot probes and static ports are not heated?
◦ ! Elevator pitot probes.
◦ ! Alternate static ports.
◦ ! No.1 Aux pitot probe and static port.
◦ ! No.2 Aux pitot probe and static port.
32.
33. The R ELEV PITOT light is illuminated. What does this indicate?
◦ ! The Right elevator pitot is blocked.
◦ ! System B hydraulic pressure is low.
◦ ! The Right elevator pitot is not heated.
◦ ! All of the above are correct.
34.
35. Which window(s) are heated with the LEFT FWD WINDOW HEAT Switch ON?
◦ ! L2, L3, L4, L5.
◦ ! L1, L2, L3.
◦ ! L2, L4, L5.
◦ ! L1 only.
36.
37. What happens when the WING ANTI-ICE switch is placed ON while in flight?
◦ ! Both Control valves open
◦ ! Stick shaker logic is biased for icing conditions
◦ ! FMC displayed Vref is not adjusted
◦ ! All of the above
38.
39. The Engine Anti-Ice should be turned on:
◦ ! When there is any visible moisture.
◦ ! If the temperature is 10 degrees C or less and there is visible moisture
◦ ! Before takeoff if icing is forecast to occur when you enter the clouds.
◦ ! If the temperature is 10 degrees C or less.
40.
41. When operating on standby power, only the captain's pitot probe is heated, however, the
CAPT PITOT light does not illuminate for a failure.
◦ ! True.
◦ ! False.
42.
43. Temperature controllers maintain the correct temperature on windows No. 1 and 2. In the
event of an overheat, power is automatically removed.
◦ ! True.
◦ ! False.
44.
45. Positioning the WING ANTI-ICE switch to ON in flight:
◦ ! Sets stick shaker logic for icing conditions only when WING ANTI-ICE switch is
ON.
◦ ! Sets stick shaker logic for icing conditions for the remainder of the flight.
◦ ! Adjusts FMC displayed VREF automatically when WING ANTI-ICE switch is ON.
◦ ! Have no influence on stick shaker logic.
46.
47. With the WING ANTI-ICE switch ON and the aircraft on the ground, the WING ANTI-ICE
switch remains ON regardless of the control valve position.
◦ ! True.
◦ ! False.
48.
49. The aircraft is on the ground. You place the WING ANTI-ICE switch to ON. Which
conditions will allow the wing anti-ice valve to open?
◦ ! Thrust on both engines is above the setting for takeoff thrust or the temperature
inside both wing distribution ducts is above the thermal switch activation
temperature.
◦ ! Thrust on both engines is above the setting for takeoff thrust and the temperature
inside both wing distribution ducts is below the thermal switch activation
temperature.
◦ ! Thrust on both engines is below the setting for takeoff thrust and the temperature
inside both wing distribution ducts is below the thermal switch activation
temperature.
◦ ! Thrust on both engines is below the setting for takeoff thrust or the temperature
inside both wing distribution ducts is above the thermal switch activation
temperature.
50.
51. The cowl anti-ice valve is _________ controlled and _______ operated.
◦ ! Electrically – Electrically
◦ ! Pneumatically – Mechanically
◦ ! Electrically – Mechanically
◦ ! Electrically - Pneumatically
52.
53. You select the engine anti-ice valve to the ON position. The COWL VALVE OPEN light is
illuminated blue and the TAI indication illuminates on the CDS. What happened?
◦ ! This is a normal indication.
◦ ! There is excessive pressure in the duct leading from the cowl anti-ice valve to the
cowl lip.
◦ ! There is excessive heat applied to the cowl lip.
◦ ! The cowl anti-ice valve fails to move to the position commanded by the ENG
ANTI-ICE switch.
54.
55. Which portion of the wings does the wing anti-ice system heat?
◦ ! Leading flaps.
◦ ! Outboard leading edge slats
◦ ! Three inboard leading edge slats
◦ ! All of the above
56.
57. If operating on standby power, probe heat lights do not indicate system status
◦ ! True
◦ ! False
58.
59. Windshield wiper selector has ______ position
◦ !2
◦ !3
◦ !4
◦ !5
60. PARK / INT / LOW / HIGH
When the IRSs are operating in the normal navigation mode they provide:
• ! Attitude and true + magnetic heading
• ! Acceleration, vertical speed & ground speed
• ! Track, present position & wind data
• ! All of the above.
During the preliminary cockpit preparation the pilot accidentally moves the IRS Mode Selector
switch from OFF to ATT instead from OFF to NAV. How can normal IRS operation be regained?
• ! Switch to OFF, wait for ALIGN lights to extinguish, then perform full alignment
procedures
• ! Switch directly to NAV from the ATT position
• ! Switch to the ALIGN position then to NAV
• ! Switch to the OFF position
With correct takeoff parameters, the FMC commands the selected takeoff thrust when the TO/GA
switch is pushed. During the takeoff roll, the autothrottle commands the thrust & the FMC
commands acceleration to between V2+15 & V2+25 knots.
• ! True
• ! False.
For LNAV to be engaged on the ground, the departure runway must be selected and the course, to
the first waypoint, must be within ___ degrees of the runway heading.
• !5
• ! 10
• ! 12
• ! 20
To climb to FL280 in the shortest distance, MAX ANGLE should be selected on this page:
• ! CLB or CRZ
• ! PROG
• ! CLB
• ! CLB or PERF
If the FAULT light on the IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates, it indicates:
• ! A failure of a Symbol Generator or a system fault affective NAV Mode of the ADIRU.
• ! An entry of an invalid present position.
• ! A system fault affecting the respective IRS ATT and/or NAV Mode.
• ! That DC power for the respective IRS is not normal.
On the FMC TAKEOFF REF Page, the SEL temperature entry may be made in either degrees
Celsius or Farenheit:
• ! True
• ! False.
After completing the FMC CDU preflight actions, you look at the POS INIT page again. The SET
IRS POS line is missing. What is required?
• ! Nothing. This is a normal indication once both IRS's have entered the NAV mode.
• ! Re-enter PPOS LAT/LONG into the FMC.
• ! The alignment was not performed. Cycle the IRS's to OFF and start a new alignment, then
re-enter PPOS LAT/LONG
• ! Return to ALIGN, then NAV, and enter the PPOS LAT/LONG into the Left or Right IRS
unit.
During PATH DESCENT and below the Speed Restriction Altitude, the FMC Alertting Message
'OVERSPEED DICONNECT' means:
• ! VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Speed Restriction by more
than 15 knots
• ! The FMC has disengaged the autothrottles due to excessive Speed.
• ! VNAV has disengaged at VMO minus 5 knots.
• ! VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Target Speed by more than 10
knots
Using a Reduced Takeoff thrust setting may result in Automatic FMC of Reduced Climb Thrust.
• ! True
• ! False.
The purpose of the FMC LEGS page is to display the lateral and vertical flight path details for each
waypoint and to make route modifications involving a portion of a route segment:
• ! True
• ! False.
Selection of an ILS approach from a DEP/ARR page will automatically remove a previously
selected approach:
• ! True
• ! False.
With the CONTROL PANEL select switch on the DISPLAYS Source Panel in the BOTH ON 2
position:
• ! The First Officer's EFIS Control Panel is supplying identical inputs to the captain's & First
Officer's displays
• ! Both pilots displays are using the No.2 symbol generator.
• ! DEU 2 controls all six display units.
• ! ADIRU inputs for both the L & R ADIRU are being received from the First Officer's pitot
probe.
Holding patterns appear as scaled representation if the airplane is within 3 minutes of the holding
fix with the range scale set at 80 NM:
• ! True.
• ! False.
If the FMC Alert Light of the LEFT / RIGHT FORWARD PANEL is illuminated. It means:
• ! The FAIL light on CDU(s) is illuminated.
• ! The FAIL light on CDU(s) is illuminated or an alerting message exists for both CDUs.
• ! The FAIL light on CDU(s) is illuminated or an alerting message exists for both CDUs or
test switch is in position 1 or 2
• ! The FAIL light on CDU(s) is illuminated or test switch is in position 1 or 2
Two GPS receivers receive GPS satellite positioning signals. The LEFT & RIGHT GPS receivers
are independent and ech provides an accurate airplane geographical position to the FMC & other
aircraft systems. GPS operation is automatic.
• ! True
• ! False.
When the IRS Mode Selector is turned OFF, the IRS remain powered for approximately ________.
• ! 10 seconds.
• ! 30 seconds.
• ! 60 seconds.
• ! 90 seconds.
The ALIGN light illuminates until the system is completely shut down
During IRS alignment, If the Latitude / Longitude is not within ___ NM of the origin airport, the
CDU scratchpad message VEIFY POSITION is displayed.
• ! 1,2
• ! 2,5
• !4
• !5
If the entered Latitude/Longitude position does not pass the internal comparison tests, the
scratchpad message ENTER IRS POSITION is displayed
During an IRS alignment a flashing white ALIGN light indicates alignment cannot be completed
due to IRS detection of:
• ! A significant difference between previous & entered position
• ! An unreasonable present position
• ! A related IRS operating in the ALIGN mode
• ! Both first & second statements are correct.
The display selector of the ISDU (IRS Display Unit) is moved to position 'HDG/STS' during
alignment. What is shown in the right window?
• ! Right window displays ground speed.
• ! Right window displays wind speed.
• ! Right window displays minutes remaining until alignment is complete.
• ! Right window displays true track.
If the airplane is moved during alignment or fast realignment, the IRS automatically begins the full
alignment process:
• ! True
• ! False.
Fuel onboard is automatically displayed as received from the airplane fuel summation unit and:
• ! A valid fuel entry is xxx.xx
• ! Airplane zero fuel weight is not a required entry
• ! When FMC is not receiving the required fuel data, displayed dashes and manual fuel
weight entry is not possible
• ! Normally the ZFW is entered from the airplane dispatch papers and the FMC calculates the
airplane gross weight.
An acceptable required time of arrival entry found on ACT RTA PROGRESS page 2/3 is:
• ! 10/30/45
• ! 10304
• ! 10/30.5
• ! 103045B
Which data is available by line selecting the RTE DATA prompt on the ACT RTE LEGS page?
• ! FMC calculated speed & altitude data for each waypoint
• ! Manually entered speed & altitude restrictions for each waypoint
• ! ETA & forecast wind data for cruising points
• ! All of the above are correct.
When an active data base expires in flight, the expired database continues to be used until the active
data is changed after landing.
• ! True
• ! False.
When aligning the IRS between 78 degrees 15 minutes North or South latitude:
• ! Rotate the IRS switch from OFF to ALIGN
• ! Alignment time will vary from 5 minutes to 17 minutes depending on airplane latitude
• ! The alignment process begins when the ON DC light illuminates & the ALIGN light
extinguishes
• ! Airplane present position is not a required entry.
The FMC supplies a default required navigation performance (RNP) value that:
• ! Should not exceed actual navigation performance
• ! With RNP exceeded, the message FMC appears on the scratch pad
• ! Is shown on the POS SCHIFT page 3/3 only
• ! Is used for takeoff, enroute, oceanic, terminal and approach phases
What does the DES NOW prompt on the PATH DES page provide?
• ! Provides a DES NOW display in ACT or MOD mode
• ! Execution allows early initiation of a SPD descent at 1000 FPM until intercepting the
computing path
• ! Execution allows early initiation of a PATH descent at 1000 FPM until intercepting the
computed path
• ! Arms the DES NOW function& extinguishes the EXEC light
On the FMC RTE page, the origin airport will still have to be entered if the company route is
entered.
• ! True
• ! False.
Pushing the ACTIVATE key arms the route for execution as the active route.
• ! True
• ! False.
Arrivals can be selected on the FMC for either the origin or destination airport.
• ! True
• ! False.
On the FIX page, radial/distance from the fix, displays the radial and distance from the fix to the
airplane. This information is continually updated as the airplane position changes.
• ! True
• ! False.
The SELECT DESIRED WPT page is automatically displayed when the FMC encounters more
than one location for the same waypoint name after a waypoint entry.
• ! True
• ! False.
On the FMC CDU, how is the MOD CRZ CLB page automatically displayed?
• ! Entering a higher CRZ ALT on line 1L of the CRZ page
• ! Pressing the CLB Mode Key during cruise
• ! Entering a higher cruising altitude in the STEP TO line on the CRZ page
• ! All of the above are correct.
In the FMC a lateral offset may be specified up to 99.9 miles. Some legs are invalid for offset. One
of these is:
• ! Beginning of a flight plan waypoint
• ! Discontinuity
• ! PPOS holding pattern
• ! Course change greater than 90 degrees.
The FMC Advisory Message 'DRAG REQUIRED' indicates the airplane is ___ knots or more
above the FMC target speed or within ___ knots of VMO/MMO
• ! 10 & 8
• ! 5 & 10
• !5&8
• ! 10 & 5
Speed restriction (SPD REST) displays the most restrictive of the following speeds:
• ! Destination airport speed minus 5 knots
• ! Waypoint speed restriction if greater than 200 knots
• ! Minimum flaps up maneuvering speed
• ! Minimum flap restriction speed.
Vertical Path Parameters (FPA, V/B, V/S) display which of the following parameters related to the
present vertical path:
• ! FPA-actual flight path angle based on flight plan ground speed & vertical spped
• ! V/B vertical bearing direct from present position of the WPT/ALT line
• ! V/S-the required vertical speed to fly the displayed FPA
• ! Blank if there is no entry on the FPA/VS line
FMC position updates from navigation sensor positions are used in the following priority order:-
GPS- Two or more DME stations- One VOR with a collocated DME- One localizer & collocated
DME- One localizer
• ! True
• ! false
FMC logic selects the GPS position as the primary update to the FMC position. If all GPS data
becomes unavailable, the FMC reverts to radio or IRS updating.
When airplane gross weight is not available from the FMC, the Approach Ref page will be:
• ! Flashing
• ! Blank
• ! Box prompts
• ! 'INVALID'
An entry of .79 for descent into the TGT SPD line on the FMC ECON PATH DES will:
• ! Change the descent mode to a M.79 SPD DES
• ! Change the page title to display M.79 PATH DES
• ! Result in VNAV & LNAV disengagement
• ! Result in VNAV disengagement
Below 2500 feet RA, go around is engaged when a TO/GA switch is pushed.
• ! True
• ! False
Below 2000 ft RA...
Upon initiation of TO/GA, a new cruise altitude will be automatically assigned & will appear on the
FMC pages. The new cruise altitude will be...
• ! The higest restriction in the missed approach routing
• ! Default value of 1500 feet above airport elevation
Two fixed climb thrust derates can be selected on the N1 LIMIT page.CLB-1 provides a climb limit
reduced by ___ % N1CLB-2 provides a climb limit reduced by ___ % N1
• ! 3% N1 (approximately 10% thrust) & 6% N1 (approximately 20% thrust)
• ! 5% N1 (approximately 10% thrust) & 10% N1 (approximately 20% thrust)
• ! 7 % N1 (approximately 10% thrust) & 13 % N1 (approximately 20% thrust)
• ! 10 % N1 & 20% N1
Use of derated climb thrust reduces engine maintenance costs, and decreases also total trip fuel
• ! True
• ! False
Use of derated climb thrust reduces engine maintenance costs, and increases total trip fuel
If a CLB1 or CLB2 derate is selected, the derate is maintained for the initial part of the climb.
Thrust eventually increases to maximum climb thrust by:
• ! 10 000 feet
• ! 12 000 feet
• ! 15 000 feet
• ! 18 000 feet
If the FMC fails, the FMC alert light will illuminate, the FMC/CDU FAIL light will appear on both
CDUs, and both CDUs will display failure modes. VTK will appear on both navigation displays.
LNAV & VNAV will disengage. After 25 to 30 seconds, both navigation displays will display
failure information.
• ! True
• ! False
During an FMC software restart, the navigation display map track may rapidly slew to a few
degrees, then to the correct value.
'INSUFFICIENT FUEL' FMC alerting message appears in CDU. What does it mean?
• ! A change in conditions or flight plan route causes predicted fuel at destination to be 400
kg / 900 lbs or less
• ! A change in conditions or flight plan route causes predicted fuel at destination to be 500
kg / 1100 lbs or less
• ! A change in conditions or flight plan route causes predicted fuel at destination to be 900
kg / 2000 lbs or less
• ! A change in conditions or flight plan route causes predicted fuel at destination to be 1200
kg / 2700 lbs or less
'RESET MCP ALTITUDE' FMC alerting message appears in CDU. What does it mean?
• ! You are within 1 NM of the top-of-descent point without selecting a lower altitude on the
AFDS MCP
• ! You are within 3 NM of the top-of-descent point without selecting a lower altitude on the
AFDS MCP
• ! You are within 5 NM of the top-of-descent point without selecting a lower altitude on the
AFDS MCP
• ! You are within 10 NM of the top-of-descent point without selecting a lower altitude on the
AFDS MCP
'DRAG REQUIRED' FMC Advisory message appears in CDU. What does it mean?
• ! Airspeed is 10 knots or more above FMC target speed or within 10 knots of VMO/MMO
• ! Airspeed is 5 knots or more above FMC target speed or within 10 knots of VMO/MMO
• ! Airspeed is 5 knots or more above FMC target speed or within 5 knots of VMO/MMO
• ! Airspeed is 10 knots or more above FMC target speed or within 5 knots of VMO/MMO
Use speedbrakes, trim or reduce thrust, as required, to bring the airplane within 5 knots of FMC
target speed.
If you have a look in your Descent Page (DES), 'V/B' indication means:
• ! Actual flight path angle based on present ground speed & vertical speed (Vertical Bearing
or Total Vertical Speed)
• ! Vertical bearing direct from present position on the WPT/ALT line(the flight path angle
required if flying direct to the waypoint & altitude on the WPT/ALT line)
• ! The required vertical speed (in degrees) based on ground speed
• ! The required vertical speed (in fpm, based on present ground speed) to fly the dispmayed
V/B
The IRSs can operate on either AC or DC power. The Left IRS is normally powered from the AC
transfer bus 2, and the Right IRS from the AC Standby bus.
• ! True
• ! False
The Left IRS is normally powered from the AC Standby bus, and the Right IRS from the AC
transfer bus 2.If AC power is not normal, either or both systems automatically switch to backup DC
power from the switched hot battery bus. Backup DC power to the Right IRS is automatically
terminated if AC power is not restored within 5 minutes.
Decceleration points show on the MAP as green open circles with the label DECEL. Deceleration
points show prior to:
• ! Airspeed constrained waypoints
• ! Holding patterns
• ! Approach flap extension
• ! All of the above.
The supplemental navigation database is accessed by typing SUPP in the scratchpad while on the
INIT/REF index page, then selecting the NAV DATA prompt. Access is available either in flight or
on ground.
• ! True
• ! False.
Access is ONLY available on the ground.
Data may be deleted from the supplemental database (SUPP) by 2 methods. Deletion may be
accomplished one item at a time on the display pages, or the entire database may be deleted by
selecting this prompt. The prompt is only available before entry of an origin airport.
• ! True.
• ! False.
The STEP POINT displays the computed ETA at, and distance to, the first possible step climb point
based on gross weight. The STEP button (1R) is then used to enter step climb or step descent
altitudes for crew evaluation. It is blank when within ___ NM of top of descent or when RTA mode
is active.
• ! 100
• ! 50
• ! 30
• ! 10
Let's have a look in the cruise page (CRZ)...The actual wind displays computed or manually entered
true wind for present altitude.
• ! True
• ! False.
FUEL
Each fuel tank uses two AC powered fuel pumps which are cooled and lubricated by fuel passing
through the pump.
• ! True
• ! False.
Inflight, two fuel pumps LOW PRESSURE lights for the No.1 tank illuminate. What happens to the
No.1 engine?
• ! It receives fuel from the No.2 tank automatically
• ! It will shut down due to fuel starvation
• ! It receives fuel from the No.1 tank through the fuel pump bypass valve
• ! It continues to operate using fuel though the center tank bypass valve.
Center fuel tank fuel is used before main tank fuel because:
• ! Center tank check valves open at a lower differential pressure than main tank check valves.
• ! Center tank check valves open at a higher differential pressure than main tank check
valves.
• ! Center tank fuel pumps produce higher pressure than main tank pumps.
• ! Main tank pumps cannot produce pressure until the center tank LOW PRESSURE lights
illuminate and center tank pumps are turned OFF.
The center tank scavenge jet pump transfers remaining fuel from the center tank at a rate of
approximately ____.
• ! 80 kg/hr (177 lbs/hr) depending upon altitude.
• ! 80 kg/hr (177 lbs/hr) depending upon speed.
• ! 80 kg/hr (177 lbs/hr) depending upon weight.
• ! 80 kg/hr (177 lbs/hr) depending upon temperature.
The capacity of the center fuel tank is greater than the capacity of the two main fuel tanks
combined.
• ! True
• ! False
During cruise, both center tank fuel pumps have failed. You still have 320 kg (700 lbs) of fuel in the
center tank and both main tanks are full. The Upper Display Unit will show:
• ! A LOW indication
• ! A CONFIG indication
• ! A pump LOW PRESSURE indication
• ! None of the above.
You have 2500 kg (5500 lbs) of fuel in the No.1 main tank and 3060 kg (6750 lbs) of fuel in the
No2 main tank. You will see:
• ! A LOW indication below main tank No.1 accompanied by a Master Caution light and
system annunciation for fuel
• ! An IMBAL indication below main tank No.1 accompanied by a Master Caution light and
system annunciation for fuel
• ! An IMBAL indication below main tank No.1 with no Master Caution light and no system
annunciation for fuel
• ! The fuel quantity arc and digits on main tank No.2 turn amber.
Which valve connects the fuel engine manifold to the fueling manifold?
• ! The fueling valve.
• ! The crossfeed valve.
• ! The Manual Defuelling valve
For landing, what is the maximum fuel imbalance between No.1 and No.2 main tanks?
• ! 453 kg (1000 lbs)
• ! 500 kg (1100 lbs)
• ! 590 kg (1300 lbs)
• ! There is no maximum fuel imbalance.
What does an illuminated main tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE light indicate?
• ! Low fuel pressure in the affected tank
• ! Low pressure in the fuel manifold
• ! Low fuel pump output pressure
• ! The first two statements are correct.
What is the condition of the VALVE OPEN light when the crossfeed selector is positioned OPEN
and the crossfeed valve is closed?
• ! Illuminated dim blue.
• ! Illuminated bright blue.
• ! Illuminated amber.
• ! Extinguished.
What is the source of electrical power for the engine fuel shutoff valves?
• ! The Hot Battery Bus.
• ! The Battery Bus.
• ! The DC Standby Bus.
• ! The AC Standby Bus.
What is the source of electrical power for the spar fuel shutoff valves?
• ! The DC Standby Bus.
• ! The Battery Bus.
• ! The Hot Battery Bus.
• ! The Transfer Bus No.2.
Once the fuel scavenging process begins, it continues for the remainder of the flight.
• ! True.
• ! False.
The fuel measuring stick allows comparison of fuel quantity or weight as determined from
measuring stick reading and fuel weight indicated by fuel quantity indicators. Reading is obtained
by withdrawing measuring stick from tank and latching it magnetically to an internal float. Fuel
depth is read where stick passes through wing skin.
• ! True.
• ! False.
How many fuel measuring sticks are installed in each main tank?
• ! Two.
• ! Three.
• ! Four.
• ! Six.
Four are also installed in center tank.
The engine fuel manifolds are interconnected by use of the crossfeed valve. The valve is ___ motor
operated from the ___.
• ! AC & Transfer Bus No.1
• ! DC & Battery bus
• ! AC & Transfer Bus No.2
• ! DC & DC Standby Bus.
What is the main purpose of the FUEL DOOR SWITCH BYPASS located in the Right Wing
fueling panel?
• ! It energizes fueling panel if refueling power control relay fails.
• ! It checks operation of fuel quantity indicators.
• ! It de-energizes fueling panel if necessary (in case of thunderstorm for example).
The engine fuel manifolds are interconnected by use of the crossfeed valve. The valve is ____
operated from the ____:
• ! AC motor & Transfer bus 1.
• ! DC motor & Hot battery bus.
• ! AC motor & Transfer bus 2.
• ! DC motor & Battery bus.
The FUEL TEMP indicator located on the fuel control panel displays fuel temperature. A sensor in
main tank No. 1 allows monitoring of fuel temperature.The temperature indicating system uses:
• ! DC power.
• ! AC power.
The Fueling Valve Position Lights on the External Fueling Panel illuminate blue when:
• ! The respective fueling valve is OPEN.
• ! The respective fueling valve is OPEN and fuel is being transferred into the tank
• ! The respective fuelling valve is in transit.
• ! The respective fueling valve is inoperative.
A Crossfeed selector inoperative is mainly indicated by a crossfeed VALVE OPEN light remaining
blue. It indicates the crossfeed valve valve position disagrees with the crossfeed selector position. If
the valve is suspected closed:
• ! Maintain fuel balance with selective use of fuel pumps.
• ! Land as soon as possible.
• ! Flight conditions permitting, vary thrust to maintain fuel balance. If unable to maintain
acceptable balance, land as soon as possible.
See B737NG QRH (CROSSFEED SELECTOR INOPERATIVE).
A fuel FILTER BYPASS light illuminated indicated impending fuel filter bypass due to a
contaminated filter. Erratic engine operation and flameout may occur due to fuel contamination.
• ! True.
• ! False.
With FUEL TEMP LOW amber message displayed, fuel is approaching minimum. Boeing QRH
asks to increase speed, change altitude and/or deviate to a warmer air mass to achieve a TAT equal
to or higher than the fuel temperature limit (3°C / 5°F above the fuel freeze point or -43°C / -45°F
whichever is higher).
• ! TAT will increase approximately 0.5 degrees C for each .05 Mach increase in speed.
• ! TAT will increase approximately 0.5 to 0.7 degrees C for each .01 Mach increase in speed.
• ! TAT will increase approximately 1 degree C for each .05 Mach increase in speed.
• ! TAT will increase approximately 1 degree C for each .05 to .07 Mach increase in speed.
In extreme conditions, it maybe necessary to descend as low as FL250.
The fuel LOW indication may be caused by an engine fuel leak. For indication(s) of an engine fuel
leak, check:
• ! Total fuel remaining compared to planned fuel remaining.
• ! Individual tank quantities.
• ! Fuel Flow indications for an engine with excessive fuel flow.
• ! The first two statements are correct.
Check \'LOW Fuel\' NNC in the B737NG QRH.
When the APU is inoperative and no external power is available, refueling can be accomplished as
follows:
• ! Battery switch ON - Standby Power switch to BAT = the entire fuel system operate
normally.
• ! Battery switch ON - Standby Power switch to BAT = the entire fuel system operate
normally. except the fuel shut-off system.
• ! Battery switch OFF - Standby Power switch to BAT = the entire fuel system operate
normally.
Lateral imbalance between main tanks 1 and 2 must be scheduled to be zero. Random fuel
imbalance must not exceed 453 kgs (1000 lbs):
• ! For takeoff, flight or landing but not for takeoff
• ! For taxi, takeoff, flight or landing.
• ! In flight only
Main tanks 1 and 2 must be full if center tank contains more than 453 kgs (1000 lbs)
• ! True
• ! False.
When main tank fuel pump pressure is low, each engine can draw fuel from is corresponding main
tank through a suction feed line that bypasses the pumps.
• ! True
• ! False
Total fuel weight is displayed on the fuel quantity gauges and on the ______ pages of the CDU.
• ! PERF INIT and HOLDING
• ! PERF INIT and LEGS
• ! LEGS and PROGRESS
• ! PROGRESS and PERF INIT
Is there any fuel quantity measuring sticks installed in the Center tank?
• ! Yes
• ! No.
There are 4 measuring sticks in the Center tank.
For refuelling, which tank(s) have an automatic shutoff valve that closes when the tank is full?
• ! Left and right wing tanks
• ! Left and right wing tanks and center tank.
A float switch removes power to the fuel valve solenoid when the tank is full
Maximum tank fuel temperature is:
• ! 42°C
• ! 45°C
• ! 49°C
• ! 55°C
Center fuel pump switches must be positioned OFF at the first indication of low pressure.
• ! True.
• ! False.
Fuel Measuring Stick allows comparison of fuel quantity or weight as determined from measuring
stick reading and fuel weight indicated by fuel quantity indicators.
• ! Reading is obtained by withdrawing measuring stick from tank and latching it magnetically
to an internal float.
• ! Reading is obtained by withdrawing measuring stick from tank and latching it electrically
to an internal float.
• ! Reading is obtained by withdrawing measuring stick from tank and latching it
pneumatically to an internal float.
• ! Reading is obtained by withdrawing measuring stick from tank and latching it
automatically to an internal float.
Fuel depth is read where stick passes through wing skin.
An amber fuel IMBAL alert will remain displayed until the imbalance is reduced to:
• ! 91kgs
• ! 363kgs
• ! 453kgs
• ! 726kgs
Fuel Imbalance (IMBAL) alert is inhibited when airplane is on ground.
• ! True
• ! False
HYDRAULIC
Refer to the refill indication (RF) to the Right of the hydraulic system quantity indication.
Indication is displayed:
• ! Automatically when the hydraulic quantity is below 88% in either system A or B
• ! At all times
• ! When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A and/or B and the airplane is on
the ground with both engines shutdown or after landing with flaps up during taxi-in
• ! Only during MASTER CAUTION system recall.
Valid only when the airplane is on the ground with both engines shutdown or after landing with
flaps up during taxi-in.
If a leak develops in either pump, line or component of system B, the quantity decreases until it
indicates approximately zero and system B pressure is lost. The system B reservoir has one
standpipe which supplies fluid to both the engine–driven pump and the electric motor–driven pump.
However, with fluid level at the top of the standpipe, fluid remaining in the system B reservoir is
sufficient for power transfer unit operation.
• ! True
• ! False.
If a leak occurs in the Standby Hydraulic System, the standby reservoir quantity decreases to zero.
What is the effect on System B reservoir quantity?
• ! No effect
• ! Decreases to zero.
• ! Decreases to 20% full.
• ! Decreases to approximately 72% full.
Either A or B hydraulic system can power all flight controls with no decrease in airplane
controllability.
• ! True
• ! False
The Power Transfer Unit (PTU) provides a backup source of hydraulic pressure to operate the:
• ! Trailing edge flaps.
• ! Landing gear.
• ! Autoslats and leading edge flaps and slats.
• ! Outboard spoilers.
The purpose of the PTU is to supply the additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate the
autoslats and leading edge flaps and slats at the normal rate when system A engine-driven hydraulic
pump volume is lost. The PTU uses system B pressure to power a hydraulic motor-driven pump,
which pressurizes system A hydraulic fluid.
• ! True
• ! False
The purpose of the PTU is to supply the additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate the
autoslats and leading edge flaps and slats at the normal rate when system B engine-driven hydraulic
pump volume is lost. The PTU uses system A pressure to power a hydraulic motor-driven pump,
which pressurizes system B hydraulic fluid.
The autoslat system:
• ! Is normally powered by Hydraulic System B.
• ! Uses Hydraulic System A pressure.
• ! Uses Hydraulic System A fluid.
• ! Uses standby hydraulic system fluid.
Pulling the No.2 engine fire warning switch shuts off hydraulic fluid to the:
• ! Electric pump in System B
• ! Engine driven pump in System B
• ! Electric pump in System A
• ! Engine driven pump in System A
The amber LOW PRESSURE lights for the No.1 Engine Driven Hydraulic Pump illuminates. What
should you do?
• ! Position the hydraulic pump switch to off.
• ! Pull the No.1 engine fire warning switch.
• ! Disconnect the No.1 CSD.
• ! Monitor System A and B pressures.
What is the minimum fuel quantity limitation in the main fuel tanks for ground operation of the
electric hydraulic pumps?
• ! 453 kg (1000 lbs) in the related main tanks.
• ! 726 kg (1600 lbs) in both main tanks.
• ! 760 kgs (1676 lbs) in the related main tanks.
• ! 760 kg (1676 lbs) in the center tank.
The illuminated Standby Hydraulic LOW PRESSURE Light indicates output pressure of standby
pump is low. It is only armed when:
• ! Standby pump operation has been selected.
• ! Standby pump operation has been selected or automatic standby function is activated.
• ! Automatic standby function is activated.
• ! The associated FLIGHT CONTROL switch is positioned to STBY RUD.
SYSTEM \'A\' HYDRAULIC LEAK- If a leak develops in the engine driven pump or its related
lines, a standpipe in the reservoir prevents a total system fluid loss. With fluid level at the top of the
standpipe, the reservoir quantity displayed indicates approximately ___ full.
• ! 5%
• ! 10%
• ! 20%
• ! 30%
System A hydraulic pressure is maintained by the electric motor-driven pump.
A fluid leak develops in System A electric pump or its related lines, or components common to both
the engine and electric motor driven pumps, the quantity in the reservoir steadily decreases to zero
and all system pressure is lost.
• ! True
• ! False.
The Power Transfer Unit operates automatically when all of the following conditions exist:
• ! System B engine-driven pump hydraulic pressure drops below limits only when airborne
• ! System B engine-driven pump hydraulic pressure drops below limits only when airborne
and when flaps are less than 5 but not up
• ! System B engine-driven pump hydraulic pressure drops below limits only when airborne
and when flaps are less than 15 but not up
• ! System B engine-driven pump hydraulic pressure drops below limits only when airborne
and when flaps are less than 5 but not up whith landing gear positioned to UP.
The purpose of the landing gear transfer unit is to supply the volume of hydraulic fluid needed to
raise the landing gear at the normal rate when system B engine-driven pump volume is lost.
• ! True
• ! False.
When system A engine-driven pump volume is lost: The engine system B engine-driven pump
supplies the volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate the landing gear transfer unit when all of
the following conditions exist: - airborne - No.1 engine RPM drops below a limit value - landing
gear lever is positioned UP - either main landing gear is not UP and locked.
The standby hydraulic system is provided as a back-up if system A and/or B pressure is lost. The
standby system can be activated manually or automatically and uses a single electric motor-driven
pump to power:
• ! Thrust reversers, rudder and leading edge flaps & slats
• ! Thrust reversers, rudder, leading edge flaps & slats (extend only) and standby yaw damper
• ! Thrust reversers, rudder, leading edge flaps & slats (extend only) and yaw damper
• ! Rudder, leading edge flaps & slats (extend only) and yaw damper
Automatic operation of the Standby Hydraulic System is initiated when all the following conditions
exist:
• ! Loss of system A, flaps extended more than 1 and airborne
• ! Loss of system A or B, flaps extended more than 1 and airborne or wheel speed greater
than 60 kts
• ! Loss of system A or B, flaps extended more than 1 and airborne or wheel speed greater
than 20 kts
• ! Loss of system A or B, flaps extended and airborne or wheel speed greater than 60 kts and
FLT CONTROL switch A or B Hydraulic System ON
During normal operations, variations in hydraulic quantity indications occur when the system
becomes pressurized after engine start , when raising or lowering the landing gear or leading
devices or when cold soaking occurs during long periods of cruise.
• ! True
• ! False.
These variations have little effect on systems operation. If the hydraulic system is not properly
pressurized, foaming can occur at higher altitudes. Foaming can be recognized by pressure
fluctuations and the blinking of the related LOW PRESSURE lights. The MASTER CAUTION and
HYD annunciator lights may also illuminate momentarily.
With the loss of system A, you have to plan for alternate gear extension.
• ! True
• ! False.
What condition is NOT necessary for the landing gear transfer unit to operate?
• ! System A hydraulic pressure is low
• ! The landing gear lever is in the UP position
• ! One of the main gear is not in the fully up position
• ! The number 1 engine N2 is less than idle.
The hydraulic brake pressure indicator displays accumulator nitrogen pre-charge pressure of 1000
psi and:
• ! Brake pressure from hydraulic system B if it is greater than 1000 psi.
• ! Brake pressure from hydraulic system A if it is greater than 1000 psi
• ! Brake pressure from standby hydraulic system.
• ! Brake pressure from the PTU.
The STANDBY LOW QUANTITY light illuminates, what other indication(s) will you have?
• ! System A quantity between 3/4 and RF (Refill) indication.
• ! Both master caution lights and the flight control annunciator light will illuminate.
• ! Both system B pump overhead lights illuminated.
• ! Illumination of the low pressure standby hydraulic amber light.
An Engine Driven Hydraulic pump supplies approximately ____ times the volume of an electrical
hydraulic pump.
• ! 2 times.
• ! 4 times.
• ! 5 times.
• ! 6 times.
With the loss of the system B hydraulic fluid and the system B FLIGHT CONTROL switch to
STBY RUD, what allows the movement of trailing edge flaps?
• ! A system pressure.
• ! Standby hydraulic system pressure.
• ! Power Transfer Unit (PTU).
• ! Electrical motor.
Hydraulic system fluid quantity shown on the Lower Display Unit indicates percentage in the band:
• ! 0% - 100%
• ! 0% - 106%
• ! 10% - 100%
• ! 10% - 106%
If you lose hydraulic pressure in System B, the following systems will be affected:
• ! Yaw Damper, Alternate Brakes, Autopilot A, Trailing Edge Flaps
• ! Main Yaw Damper, Normal Brakes, Autopilot B, Trailing Edge Flaps
• ! Standby Yaw Damper, Normal Brakes, Autopilot A, Flight Spoilers
• ! Ground Spoilers, Normal Brakes, Autopilot B, Trailing Edge Flaps
To climb to FL280 in the shortest distance, MAX ANGLE should be selected on this page:
• ! CLB or CRZ
• ! PROG
• ! CLB
• ! CLB or PERF
If the FAULT light on the IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates; it indicates:
• ! A failure of a Symbol Generator or a system fault affective NAV Mode of the ADIRU
• ! An entry of an invalid present position
• ! A system fault affecting the respective IRS ATT and/or NAV Mode
• ! That DC power for the respective IRS is not normal.
On the FMC TAKEOFF REF Page, the SEL temperature entry may be made in either degrees
Celsius or Fahrenheit:
• ! True
• ! False.
During PATH DESCENT and below the Speed Restriction Altitude, the FMC Alerting Message
'OVERSPEED DICONNECT' means:
• ! VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Speed Restriction by more
than 15 knots
• ! The FMC has disengaged the autothrottles due to excessive Speed
• ! VNAV has disengaged at VMO minus 5 knots
• ! VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Target Speed by more than 10
knots
Using a Reduced Takeoff thrust setting may result in Automatic FMC of Reduced Climb Thrust.
• ! True
• ! False.
The purpose of the FMC LEGS page is to display the lateral and vertical flight path details for each
waypoint and to make route modifications involving a portion of a route segment:
• ! True
• ! False.
Selection of an ILS approach from a DEP/ARR page will automatically remove a previously
selected approach:
• ! True
• ! False.
With the CONTROL PANEL select switch on the DISPLAYS Source Panel in the BOTH ON 2
position:
• ! The First Officer's EFIS Control Panel is supplying identical inputs to the captain's & First
Officer's displays
• ! Both pilots displays are using the No.2 symbol generator
• ! DEU 2 controls all six display units
• ! ADIRU inputs for both the L & R ADIRU are being received from the First Officer's pitot
probe
The Slip/Skid indication of the Attitude Indicator will turn amber if bank angle is 35 degrees or
more.
• ! True
• ! False.
Amber if the slip/skid indicator is also at full scale deflection.
The rising runway is displayed when localizer pointer is in view and radio altitude is less than ____
feet.
• ! 2500
• ! 1500
• ! 500
• ! 200
The Glide Slope Pointer is not displayed when the track and the front course on the Mode Control
Panel differ by more than 90 degrees (backcourse)
• ! True
• ! False.
The standby radio magnetic indicator (RMI) displays magnetic heading & VOR/ADF bearing to the
station. The RMI is powered by:
• ! The AC transfer bus 2
• ! The AC standby bus
• ! The DC standby bus.
• ! The TR3.
The RMI is powered by the AC standby bus & remains powered after the loss of all normal AC
power as long as battery power is available.
The Altitude Disagree Alert (amber 'ALT DISAGREE') on the digital altimeter indicates the
Captain's & F/O's altitude indications disagree by more than:
• ! 50 feet
• ! 100 feet for more than 2 continuous seconds
• ! 200 feet for more than 5 continuous seconds
• ! 500 feet for more than 10 continuous seconds
If the Altitude Failure Flag (amber) appears, it means that the barometric altitude or barometric
correction has failed. All altimeter symbols are removed except the ALT ALERT annunciation and
the barometric setting.
• ! True
• ! False.
Concerning Navigation Display Information, Heading is supplied by Air Data Inertial Reference
System (ADIRS) & Track is supplied by the FMC during normal operation.
• ! True
• ! False
The message EXCESS DATA is displayed if the amount of information sent to the navigation
display exceeds the display capability. The message can be removed by:
• ! Reducing the amount of map information
• ! Reducing range
• ! Deselecting one or more of the EFIS control map switches (STA, WPT, ARPT, DATA,
POS)
• ! All of the above.
In the air, the flight recorder is not powered if both engines are shut down.
• ! True
• ! False.
In the air the flight recorder is powered even with both engine shut down as long as APU electrical
power is available.
The Mach digital counter indicates current Mach number & it is displayed when airspeed increases
above ___ Mach
• ! 0.30
• ! 0.40
• ! 0.50
• ! 0.60
It blanks when airspeed decreases below 0.38 Mach
The V2+15 white bug of the airspeed indicator is normally displayed for takeoff. It is removed:
• ! At first flap retraction or when VREF is entered
• ! When landing gear lever is placed UP
• ! When speed is more than 250 knots KIAS
• ! All of the above.
The Flaps Up Airspeed Bug (green) is displayed after Zero Fuel Weight is entered in the CDU and
takeoff gross weight is calculated or after takeoff gross weight is set with the speed reference
selector.
• ! True
• ! False.
It is not displayed above approximately 20,000 feet altitude.
The display SOURCE selector also allows the crew to manually select either DEU1 or DEU2 for all
6 display units. If the displays are automatically or manually switched to a single DEU source, a
'DSLPY SOURCE' annunciation illuminates above both pilot's altimeters.
• ! True
• ! False.
If the MAIN PANEL DUs switch is turned to Outboard Primary Flight Display (OUTBD PFD), the
compact EFIS format is displayed on the outboard display unit & the inboard display unit blanks.
• ! True
• ! False.
The Standby attitude indicator provides attitude information that is independent of the primary
attitude displays. The indicator is powered by:
• ! The Battery bus
• ! The Transfer bus 1
• ! The Transfer bus 2
• ! The TR2
The indicator is powered by the battery bus & remains powered after the loss of all normal AC
power as long as battery power is available. The gyro reaches operational speed approximately 60
seconds after power is applied.
What will occur if the aircraft pitch attitude reaches the Pitch Limit Indication ( PLI ) on the PFD
during slow speed maneuvering ?
• ! The aircraft stalls
• ! The aircraft will experience initial stall buffet
• ! The stick shaker warning activates
• ! The stick nudger pushes the control column forward.
During an ILS approach the Captain observes his BARO minimum reference/ altitude turns from
green to flashing amber for three second. What does it mean?
• ! Radio altitude data is unreliable
• ! The aircraft has descended below the Captain's selected minimum altitude (DA)
• ! A windshear has been encountered
• ! The aircraft has descended below 1000 feet
The aircraft is on the ground and the Flight Recorder Switch is in NORMAL:
• ! The Flight Recorder operates anytime electrical power is available
• ! The Flight Recorder operates when electrical power is available and either engine is
operating
• ! The Flight Recorder operates whenever the Battery Switch is ON
• ! The Flight Recorder operates anytime electrical power is available and start switch in
GROUND position
The First Officer observes the word PITCH displayed in amber in the lower portion of the PFD
during an ILS approach. What does it mean?
• ! The autopilot has defaulted to CWS pitch
• ! Glide slope is not being tracked
• ! The Captain's and First Officer's pitch displays differ by 5 degrees or more
• ! The First Officer's pitch display is more than 3 degrees in error
Speed Trend Vector: Tip of arrow indicates predicted airspeed in the next _____ based on the
current airspeed and acceleration.
• ! 5 seconds
• ! 7 seconds
• ! 2 seconds
• ! 10 seconds
The curved trend vector extending from the aircraft symbol on ND MAP and MAP CTR is divided
into three segments. With range greater than 20 NM´s the trend vector:
• ! Predicts position at the end of 10,20 and 30 second intervals
• ! Predicts position at the end of 20,40 and 60 second intervals
• ! Predicts position at the end of 30,60 and 90 second intervals
• ! Predicts position at the end of 60,90 and 120 second intervals
Predicts position at the end of 30, 60, and 90 second intervals. Each segment represents 30 seconds.
Based on bank angle and ground speed. Selected range determines the number of segments
displayed. For range:
With the CONTROL PANEL select switch on the Displays Source Panel in the BOTH ON 2
position:
• ! The First Officer's EFIS control panel is supplying identical inputs to the Captain's and
First Officer's displays
• ! Both pilots displays are using the No2 DEU
• ! DEU 2 controls all six display units
• ! ADIRU inputs for both the L and R ADIRU are being received from the First Officer's pitot
probe
The CONTROL PANEL select switch determines which EFIS control panel controls the pilots’
display functions. With the switch positioned to either BOTH ON 1 or BOTH ON 2, the selected
EFIS control panel provides inputs for both sets of pilot displays. When in the NORMAL position,
a 'DISPLAYS CONTROL PANEL' annunciation illuminates on the pilot’s altimeters and indicates a
failure of the associated EFIS control panel.
The Air Data Inertial Reference System (ADIRS) produces following flight data:
• ! Position and speed only
• ! Attitude and speed only
• ! Altitude and speed only
• ! Position, attitude, altitude and speed
The ADIRS produces flight data such as position, speed, altitude and attitude for the flight displays,
flight management computers, flight controls, engine controls and all other systems requiring
inertial and air data.
The Landing Altitude reference bar (Amber- 0-500ft, White- 500 –1000ft) indicates:
• ! Height above Minimum descent altitude
• ! Height above touchdown / Landing Altitude
• ! Radio Altitude
• ! Height above MSL
WXR selector on the EFIS Control Panel energizes the weather radar transmitter and displays
weather radar returns in:
• ! APP, VOR, MAP and PLN modes
• ! Map, centre Map, expanded VOR and expanded APP modes
• ! Only APP and Map modes
• ! Only expanded VOR and expanded APP modes
When Max range is selected on the EFIS Control Panel, weather radar returns are limited to:
• ! 80 NM
• ! 160 NM
• ! 320 NM
• ! 640 NM
With the weather radar in WX/TURB mode, turbulence will be shown within:
• ! 160 NM
• ! 120 NM
• ! 80 NM
• ! 40 NM
During an ILS Approach with the Localizer pointer in view, the rising runway symbol comes into
view:
• ! Below 2500ft RA and will rise toward the airplane symbol at 200ft RA
• ! Below 1500ft RA and will rise toward the airplane symbol at 50ft RA
• ! At glideslope capture and will rise toward the airplane symbol at 1500ft RA
• ! At glideslope capture and will rise toward the airplane symbol at 200ft RA
• displayed when localizer pointer is in view and radio altitude is less than 2500 feet • rises towards
airplane symbol when radio altitude is below 200 feet • is not displayed when the localizer signal is
unusable.
'WXR RANGE DISAGREE' indicates selected range on the EFIS control panel is different than the
WXR display range.
• ! True
• ! False
LANDING GEAR/BRAKES
77. The airplane has two main landing gear and a single nose gear. Each main gear is a
conventional two–wheel landing gear unit. The nose gear is a conventional steerable one–
wheel unit.
◦ ! True
◦ ! False
78. The nose gear is a conventional steerable two–wheel unit.
95. What system normally provides hydraulic pressure for Nose Wheel Steering?
◦ ! System A
◦ ! System B
◦ ! Standby system
◦ ! Nose wheel steering accumulator
96.
97. The lockout pin is installed in the sterring depressurization valve. What does this do?
◦ ! Bypasses system B pressure
◦ ! Depressurizes both system A & B pressure
◦ ! Allows airplane pushback or towing without depressurizing the hydraulic systems
◦ ! Both first & third statements are correct.
98.
99. Which of the following is not part of the braking system?
◦ ! Antiskid protection
◦ ! Parking brake
◦ ! Brake accumulator
◦ ! Nose wheel brakes
100.
101. Which of the following conditions must exit to arm the RTO mode prior to takeoff?
◦ ! AUTO BRAKE select switch positioned to ON
◦ ! Wheel speed greater than 60 knots
◦ ! Forward thrust levers positioned to IDLE
◦ ! Position ANTISKID switch to RTO
102.
103. The nose wheel doors remain open when the gear is down.
◦ ! True.
◦ ! False.
104.
105. What could cause the amber ANTISKID INOP light to illuminate?
◦ ! AUTO BRAKE select switch OFF
◦ ! A system fault has been detected by the antiskid monitoring system
◦ ! Brake accumulator pressure is in the red band
◦ ! System B pressure is low
106.
107. When the NOSE WHEEL STEERING switch is in ALT position:
◦ ! Hydraulic system B provides power for nose wheel steering.
◦ ! Hydraulic system A provides power for nose wheel steering.
◦ ! Standby hydraulic system provides power for nose wheel steering.
◦ ! The nose wheel steering tiller changes sensitivity for precision parking
108.
109. What could cause the amber ANTISKID INOP light to illuminate?
◦ ! AUTO BRAKE select switch OFF.
◦ ! A fault in the braking system.
◦ ! Brake accumulator pressure is in the red band.
◦ ! System B pressure is low.
110.
111. The landing gear warning horn is deactivated with all gear down and locked.
◦ ! True.
◦ ! False.
112.
113. What airspeed must be considered with a wheel well fire situation?
◦ ! Observe extend limit speed (280 KIAS/.72M)
◦ ! Retract landing gear speed of 245 knots maximum
◦ ! Maintain 235 knots maximum for 20 minutes
◦ ! Observe extend limit speed (270 knots/.82M)
114.
115. What happens if you reject a takeoff after reaching 90 knots with the autobrakes in RTO?
◦ ! Maximum braking when thrust levers are retarded to idle
◦ ! Automatic braking when reverse thrust selected
◦ ! Automatic speed brake deployment when thrust levers are retarded to idle
◦ ! AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate
116.
117. The brake pressure accumulator also provides pressure to maintain the parking brake when
hydraulic system A & B are depressurized.
◦ ! True
◦ ! False.
118.
119. Hydraulic pressure from System B will be used to raise the landing gear:
◦ ! When System A pressure is low and the landing lever is positioned up
◦ ! When the ALTERNATE NOSE WHEEL Switch is positioned ON
◦ ! When the No.1 engine RPM drops below a limit value with the landing gear still
down and the landing gear is positioned up
◦ ! After a failure of the No.1 engine hydraulic pump with the landing gear still down
and the landing gear is positioned up
120.
121. The parking brake can be set with either A or B hydraulic systems pressurized. If A & B
hydraulic systems are not pressurized, parking brake pressure is maintained by the brake
accumulator. Accumulator pressure is shown on the HYD BRAKE PRESS indicator.
◦ ! True
◦ ! False.
122.
123. Landing autobrake settings may be selected after touchdown prior to decelerating through
30 kts of ground speed. Braking initiates immediately if both forward thrust levers are
retarded to IDLE and the main wheels spin–up.
◦ ! True
◦ ! False
124.
125. Where is the main wheel gear viewing sight located?
◦ ! Two rows aft of the over-wing exits on the port side
◦ ! Two rows aft of the over-wing exits on the starboard side
◦ ! There is no viewing sight on the 737-NG
126.
127. Is autobrake available with alternate brakes?
◦ ! No.
◦ ! Yes for takeoff only.
◦ ! Yes for landing only.
◦ ! Yes for takeoff and landing.
128.
129. The parking brake will fail when:
◦ ! The hydraulic A system is depressurized.
◦ ! The hydraulic B system is depressurized.
◦ ! The hydraulic A and B systems are depressurized.
◦ ! None of the above as the parking brake pressure is maintained by the brake
accumulator.
130.
131. What is the maximum airspeed to retract the gear?
◦ ! 210 kt.
◦ ! 235 kt.
◦ ! 250 kt.
◦ ! 270 kt.
132.
133. What is the maximum Operating airspeed with the gear extended?
◦ ! 235 kt / .78M.
◦ ! 235 kt / .80M.
◦ ! 270 kt / .80M.
◦ ! 270 kt / .82M.
134.
135. A landing gear indicator light will illuminate red when:
◦ ! Landing gear is not down and locked (with either thrust lever retarded to idle, and
below 800 ft AGL.
◦ ! Related landing gear is in disagreement with landing gear lever position.
◦ ! Landing gear is up and locked with landing gear lever UP and OFF.
◦ ! Both first and second statements are correct.
136.
137. What is the minimum preflight pressure for the brake accumulator?
◦ ! 2500 psi.
◦ ! 2800 psi.
◦ ! 3000 psi.
◦ ! 3500 psi.
138.
139. If the landing gear cannot be raised after takeoff:
◦ ! Use the override trigger.
◦ ! Pull the landing gear lever out to the second detent then raise it to the up position.
◦ ! When at a safe altitude follow the QRH procedure.
◦ ! Land at the nearest suitable airfield.
140.
141. If the landing gear indicator lights are illuminated red:
◦ ! Landing gear is not down and locked (with either or both forward thrust levers
retarded to idle, and below 800 feet AGL).
◦ ! Related landing gear is in disagreement with LANDING GEAR lever POSITION
(in transit or unsafe)
◦ ! Both above statements are correct.
142.
143. Hydraulic pressure is removed from the landing gear system with the LANDING GEAR
lever in the UP position.
◦ ! True.
◦ ! False.
144. The hydraulic pressure is removed with the LANDING GEAR lever in the OFF position!
145. The parking brake can be set with only B hydraulic system pressurized.
◦ ! True
◦ ! False
146. The parking brake can be set with either A or B hydraulic systems pressurized. If A and B
hydraulic systems are not pressurized, parking brake pressure is maintained by the brake
accumulator. Accumulator pressure is shown on the HYD BRAKE PRESS indicator.
169. The landing gear indicator lights found on the center panel will illuminate red when:
◦ ! One of the 6 green lights are faulty.
◦ ! There are no red lights.
◦ ! All landing gear are UP and the gear handle is in OFF position
◦ ! All landing gear are DN and the gear handle is in OFF position
170.
171. You are using the manual gear extension lever to lower the gear. At what point do the gear
Uplocks all release?
◦ ! When the Manual Extension Access door is opened.
◦ ! When either gear extension handle is raised.
◦ ! When all gear extension handles have been pulled to their limits.
172.
173. Which controls operate the nose wheel steering system?
◦ ! The control wheel.
◦ ! The thrust levers.
◦ ! The control column.
◦ ! The steering wheel and the rudder pedals on the ground.
174.
175. Following a manual extension, can the landing gear be retracted?
◦ ! Yes.
◦ ! No.
176. Following a manual extension, the landing gear may be retracted normally by accomplishing
the following steps: 1. Close the manual extension access door. 2. Move the LANDING
GEAR lever to DOWN with hydraulic system A pressure available, and then 3. Position the
LANDING GEAR lever to UP.
215. After braking has started, the Autobrake system will disengage automatically when:
◦ ! Wheel speed falls below 20kts.
◦ ! The pilot moves the speed brake lever to UP position.
◦ ! A forward thrust lever is advanced after landing.
◦ ! Reverse thrust is deselected.
216. After braking has started, any of the following pilot actions disarm the system immediately
and illuminate the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light:
217. The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates for 2 seconds then extinguishes. Likely
cause is:
◦ ! Thrust levers advanced during first 3 seconds after touchdown.
◦ ! RTO mode selected on the ground.
◦ ! A malfunction has been detected in the automatic braking system.
◦ ! AUTO BRAKE select switch set to OFF.
218. The RTO mode can be selected only when on the ground. Upon selection, the AUTO
BRAKE DISARM light illuminates for one to two seconds and then extinguishes, indicating
that an automatic self–test has been successfully accomplished.
WARNING SYSTEMS
A steady warning horn alerts the crew when the landing gear is not down and locked and a landing
is attempted.
• ! True
• ! False
The takeoff configuration warning horn sounds when the stabilizer trim is not in the takeoff range.
• ! True
• ! False
Which of the following is an input into the Stall Management Yaw Damper computers?
• ! ADIRU data.
• ! Anti-ice controls.
• ! Anti-ice controls.
• ! All of the above.
Which of the following will cause activation of the takeoff configuration warning system?
• ! Leading edge flaps in the extend position and trailing edge flaps at flaps 5.
• ! Leading edge flpas in the full extend position and trailing edge flaps at 15.
• ! Spoilers partially extended.
• ! SPEED BRAKE lever in the DOWN position.
While performing the LANDING checklist the PSEU light illuminates on recall. This indicates:
• ! A normal condition
• ! A fault is detected in the landing gear locking system or the air/ground sensing systems
• ! The landing gear configuration warning horn will sound upon landing.
• ! A problem exists in the PSEU system because the light should be inhibited in flight
Illumination of the PSEU light on the aft overhead panel will activate the MASTER CAUTION
system.
• ! True
• ! False.
The landing gear configuration warning horn will activate anytime a gear is not down and locked
with the flaps set to 15, one thrust lever at idle and the other at a high power setting (above 34
degrees):
• ! True
• ! False.
The GPWS will provide a warning/alert of slow descents into unprepared terrain while in the
landing configuration.
• ! True
• ! False.
The windshear warning mode of the GPWS has priority over all other GPWS modes.
• ! True
• ! False.
While flying an ILS approach below 1,000 feet Radio Altitude, a BELOW G/S alert occurs. To
cancel the alert:
• ! Correct the flight path back to the glide slope.
• ! Press either pilot's BELOW G/S P-INHIBIT light
• ! The alert cannot be cancelled
• ! The first two statements are correct.
The GPWS provides a "BANK ANGLE" warning when the roll rate exceeds 25 degrees, 30
degrees, and 35 degrees.
• ! True
• ! False.
Which of the following is NOT a GPWS mode?
• ! Excessive descent rate.
• ! Excessive terrain closure.
• ! Unsafe terrain clearance when in the landing configuration.
• ! Windshear.
While flying an ILS approach below 1, 000 feet Radio Altitude, a BELOW G/S alert occurs. To
cancel the alert:
• ! Press RECALL.
• ! Press either pilot\'s BELOW G/S P-INHIBIT light, or correct the flight path back to the
glide slope.
• ! The alert cannot be cancelled.
• ! Select another mode on MCP.
The volume of the aural alert and the repetition rate increase as deviation increases.
In the event of an over rotation, which part of the tailskid structure contacts the runway?
• ! The skirt.
• ! The fairing.
• ! The shoe.
• ! The cartridge.
The terrain displayed in the Look-Ahead Terrain Alerting system is generated from:
• ! Weather Radar correlated with IRS position.
• ! GPWS nav data base correlated with IRS position.
• ! GPWS nav data base correlated with GPS position.
• ! FMC nav data base correlated with GPS position.
In what mode will the TCAS automatically show if a TA/RA occurs and the TFC switches are
selected OFF.
• ! In PLAN, MAP, VOR or APP modes
• ! In MAP, center MAP, PLAN or APP modes
• ! In center MAP, VOR or APP modes.
• ! In MAP, center MAP, VOR, or APP modes.
TCAS TEST is displayed on the navigation display during the test followed by TCAS TEST
PASSED or TCAS TEST FAILED. This test remains in view for _____ then blanks. An aural
annunciation sounds at the completion of the test.
• ! 3 seconds
• ! 5 seconds
• ! 8 seconds
• ! 10 seconds
The area(s) inside the red lines indicate(s) the pitch region(s) to avoid in order to resolve the traffic
conflict. The airplane symbol must be outside the TCAS pitch command area(s) to ensure traffic
avoidance.
• ! True
• ! False
When performance is limited, such as with an inoperative engine, to prevent receiving RAs beyond
the airplane’s capabilities:
• ! Select ALT OFF
• ! Select TCAS OFF
• ! Select TA/RA
• ! Select TA