Aviation Info Bank

Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Principles of Flight (ATPL/FOOL)
Principles of Flight
Chapter – 01 Overview and Definitions
1. An aircraft's mass is a result of:

a) Its weight
b) How big it is
c) How much matter it contains
d) Its volume
2. The unit of mass is the:

a) Joule
b) Watt
c) Newton
d) Kilogram
3. The definition of a force is:

a) That which causes a reaction to take place
b) Thrust and drag only
e) A push or a pull
d) The result of an applied input
4. The unit of force is the:

a) Mass-kilogram
b) Newton-metre
c) Joule
d) Newton
5. The unit of weight is the:

a) Kilogram
b) Newton
c) Watt
d) Kilowatt
6. Weight is the result of:

a) The force on mass due to gravity
b) The action of a falling mass
c) How much matter the object contains
d) The rate of mass per unit area
7. About which point does an aircraft rotate:

a) The wings
b) The main undercarriage
c) The centre of gravity
d) The rudder
8. If a force is applied to a mass and the mass does not move:

a) Work is done even though there is no movement of the mass
b) Work is done only if the mass moves a long way
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c) Power is exerted, but no work is done
d) No work is done
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9. The unit of work is called the:

a) Pascal
b) Joule
c) Watt
d) Kilogram
10. The unit of power is called the:

a) Joule
b) Newton-metre
c) Watt
d) Metre per second
11. If a force of 20 Newton's moves a mass 5 metres:

a) the work done is 4 Joules
b) the work done is 0.25 Joules
c) the work done is 100 Joules
d) none of the above
12. If a force of 50 Newton's is applied to a 10 kg mass and the mass moves 10 metres and a force
of 50 Newton's is applied to a 100 kg mass which moves 10 metres:
a) The work done is the same in both cases
b) Less work is done to the 10 kg mass
c) More work is done to the 10 kg mass
d) More work is done to the 100 kg mass
13. The definition of power is:

a) The rate of force applied
b) The rate of movement per second
c) The rate of doing work
d) The rate of applied force
14. If a force of 500 Newton's moves a mass 1000 metres in 2 mins, the power used is:
a) 4167 Watts
b) 250 Kilowatts
c) 1 Megawatt
d) 4 Watts
15. Kinetic energy is:

a) The energy a mass possesses due to its position in space
b) The energy a mass possesses when a force has been applied
c) The energy a mass possesses due to the force of gravity
d) The energy a mass possesses because of its motion
16. The unit of kinetic energy is the:

a) Joule
b) Metre per second
c) Watt
d) Newton-metre per second
17. When considering kinetic energy:

a) a moving mass can apply a force by being brought to rest
b) kinetic energy is the energy possessed by a body because of its motion
c) if a body's kinetic energy is increased, a force must have been applied
d) all of the above
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18. The property of inertia is said to be:

a) The energy possessed by a body because of its motion
b) The opposition which a body offers to a change in motion
c) That every action has an equal and opposite reaction
d) The quantity of motion possessed by a body
19. Considering Newton's first law of motion:

a) to move a stationary object or to make a moving object change its direction, a force
must be applied
b) body is said to have energy if it has the ability to do work
c) the amount of energy a body possesses is measured by the amount of work it can do
d) all of the above
20. Considering Newton's second law of motion:

a) every action has an equal and opposite reaction
b) both a and c
c) if two forces are applied to the same mass, the bigger the force the greater the
acceleration
21. Newton's third law of motion states:

a) The energy possessed by a mass is inversely proportional to its velocity
b) Every force has an equal and opposite inertia
c) For every force there is an action
d) Every action has an equal and opposite reaction
22. The definition of velocity is the:

a) Rate of change of acceleration
b) Rate of change of displacement
c) The quantity of motion possessed by a body
d) The acceleration of a body in direct proportion to its mass
23. When considering acceleration:

a) the units of acceleration are metres per second
b) the units of acceleration are kilogram-metres per second
c) acceleration is the rate of change of velocity
d) the units of acceleration are seconds per metre per metre
24. The definition of momentum is:

a) The quantity of mass possessed by a body
b) The quantity of inertia possessed by a body
c) The quantity of motion possessed by a body
d) The opposition which a body offers to a change in velocity
25. A force of 24 Newton's moves a 10 kg mass 60 metres in 1 minute, the power used is:
a) 240 Watts
b) 24 Watts
c) 2.4 Watts
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26. When considering momentum:

a) Momentum is the tendency of a body to continue in motion after being placed in
motion
b) A mass of 2000 kg moving at 55 m/s has 110,000 kg-m/s of momentum
c) both a and b
d) A large mass moving at 50 m/s will have less momentum than a small mass moving at
50 m/s

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Chapter – 02 The Atmosphere

l. When considering air:
a) Air has mass and Air is not compressible
b) Air is not compressible and Moving air has kinetic energy
c) Air has mass and The viscosity of air is very high
d) Air has mass and Moving air has kinetic energy
2. Why do the lower layers contain the greater proportion of the whole mass of the atmosphere:
a) Because air is very viscous
b) Because air is compressible
c) Because of greater levels of humidity at low altitude
d) Because air has very little mass
3. With increasing altitude, up to about 40,000 ft, the characteristics of air change:
a) Density decreases steadily with increasing altitude and Pressure falls steadily with
increasing altitude
b) Temperature decreases continuously with altitude and Density decreases steadily
with increasing altitude
c) Pressure falls steadily to an altitude of about 36,000 ft, where it then remains
constant
d) All of the above
4. When considering static pressure:

a) In aviation, static pressure can be measured in hectopascal's
b) Static pressure is the product of the mass of air pressing down on the air beneath
c) The lower the altitude, the greater the static pressure
d) All of the above
5. When considering air density:

a) As altitude increases, density will decrease
b) Density is measured in millibar's
c) Temperature decreases with increasing altitude, this will cause air density to increase
d) If temperature increases the density will increase
6. Air density is:

a) Mass per unit volume
b) Proportional to temperature and inversely proportional to pressure
c) Independent of both temperature and pressure
d) Dependent only on decreasing pressure with increasing altitude
7. When considering the ICAO International Standard Atmosphere and comparing it with the
actual atmosphere, which of the following statements is correct:
a) Temperature, pressure and density are constantly changing in any given layer of the
actual atmosphere
b) A requirement exists for a hypothetical `standard' atmosphere
c) The International Standard Atmosphere was designed for the calibration of pressure
instruments and the comparison of aircraft performance calculations
d) All of the above
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8. When considering the ICAO International Standard Atmosphere, which of the following
statements is correct:
a) The temperature lapse rate is assumed to be uniform at 2'C per 1,000 ft (1.98'C) up to
a height of 11,000 ft
b) Sea level static pressure is assumed to be 1.225 kg/m ;
c) Sea level density is assumed to be 1013.25 hPa
d) Sea level temperature is assumed to be 15°C
9. A moving mass of air possesses kinetic energy. An object placed in the path of such a moving
mass of air will be subject to which of the following:
a) Dynamic pressure
b) Static Pressure
c) Static pressure and dynamic pressure
d) Dynamic pressure minus static pressure
10. Dynamic pressure is:

a) The total pressure at a point where a moving airflow is brought completely to rest
b) The amount by which the pressure rises at a point where a moving airflow is brought
completely to rest
c) The pressure due to the mass of air pressing down on the air beneath
d) The pressure change caused by heating when a moving airflow is brought completely
to rest
11. Dynamic pressure is equal to:

a) Density times speed squared
b) Half the density times the indicated airspeed squared
c) Half the true airspeed times the density squared
d) Half the density times the true airspeed squared
12. A tube facing into an airflow will experience a pressure in the tube equal to:
a) Static pressure
b) Dynamic pressure
c) Static pressure plus dynamic pressure
d) The difference between total pressure and static pressure
13. A static pressure vent must be positioned:

a) On a part of the aircraft structure where the airflow is undisturbed, in a surface at right
angles to the airflow direction
b) On a part of the structure where the airflow is undisturbed, in a surface parallel to the
airflow direction
c) At the stagnation point
d) At the point on the surface where the airflow reaches the highest speed
14. The inputs to an Air Speed Indicator are from:

a) A static source
b) Pitot pressure
c) A pitot and a static source
d) Pitot, static and density
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15. The deflection of the pointer of the Air Speed Indicator is proportional to:
a) Dynamic pressure
b) Static pressure
c) The difference between static and dynamic pressure
d) Static pressure plus dynamic pressure
16. Calibration of the Air Speed Indicator is based upon the density:
a) At the altitude at which the aircraft is flying
b) At sea level ICAO International Standard Atmosphere temperature
c) At sea level
d) At sea level ICAO International Standard Atmosphere +15 °C temperature
17. When considering the relationship between different types of air speed:
Which of the following statements are true:
a) Indicated Air Speed is not a speed at all, it's a pressure
b) True Air Speed is the speed of the aircraft through the air
c) Both a and b
d) True Air Speed (TAS) is read directly from the Air Speed Indicator
18. When considering the relationship between different types of air speed:
a) Calibrated Air Speed is Indicated Air Speed corrected for position error
b) Equivalent Air Speed is Indicated Air Speed corrected for position error and
compressibility
c) Position error, which causes false Indicated Air Speed readings, is due to variations in
the pressures sensed at the pitot and static ports
d) All of the above
19. The speed of sound:

a) Is dependent upon the True Air Speed and the Mach number of the aircraft
b) Is inversely proportional to the absolute temperature
c) Is proportional to the square root of the absolute temperature of the air
d) Is directly proportional to the True Air Speed of the aircraft
20. Mach number is:

a) The aircraft True Air Speed divided by the local speed of sound
b) The speed of sound in the ambient conditions in which the aircraft is flying
c) The True Air Speed of the aircraft at which the relative airflow somewhere on the aircraft
first reaches the local speed of sound
d) The Indicated Air Speed divided by the local speed of sound sea level
21. An aircraft's critical Mach number is;

(a) The speed of the airflow when the aircraft first becomes supersonic
(b) The speed of the aircraft when the airflow somewhere reaches the speed of sound
(c) The Indicated Airspeed when the aircraft first becomes supersonic
(d) The aircraft's Mach number when airflow over it first reaches the local speed of sound
22. When humidity of the atmosphere increases, the lift of an aerofoil:

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
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23. The speed of sound in relation to height from the sea-level in the atmosphere
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
24. With the increase in height, the atmospheric pressure

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
25. When the density of the atmosphere increases, the lift of an aerofoil:
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same

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Chapter – 03 Basic Aerodynamic Theory

1. If the cross sectional area of an airflow is mechanically reduced:
a) The velocity of the airflow remains constant and the kinetic energy increases
b) The velocity of the airflow remains constant and the mass flow increases
c) The mass flow remains constant and the static pressure increases
d) The mass flow remains constant and the velocity of the airflow increases
2. The statement, "Pressure plus Kinetic energy is constant", refers to:

a) Bernoulli's theorem
b) The principle of continuity
c) Newton's second law of motion
d) The Magnus effect
3. If the velocity of an air mass is increased:

a) The dynamic pressure will decrease and the static pressure will increase
b) The static pressure will remain constant and the kinetic energy will increase
c) The kinetic energy will increase, the dynamic pressure will increase and the static
pressure will decrease
d) The mass flow will stay constant, the dynamic pressure will decrease and the static
pressure will increase
4. When considering a streamlined airflow, which of the following statements is correct:

a) A resultant decrease in static pressure is indicated by streamlines shown close together
b) An increase in velocity is indicated by streamlines shown close together
c) Accelerating airflow with a resultant decreasing static pressure is indicated by converging
streamlines
d) All of the above
5. If the pressure on one side of a surface is lower than on the other side:
a) A force per unit area will exist, acting in the direction of the lower pressure
b) No force will be generated, other than drag
c) A force will be generated, acting in the direction of the higher pressure
d) The pressure will leak around the sides of the surface, cancelling-out any pressure
differential
6. When considering a streamtube, which of the following statements is correct:

a) A streamtube is a concept to aid understanding of aerodynamic force generation
b) There is no flow into or out of the streamtube through the "walls", only flow along
the tube
c) Both a and b
d) Different sizes of streamtube are manufactured to match the wing span of the aircraft
to which they will be fitted
7. At flow speeds less than four tenths the speed of sound, the following will be insignificant:
a) Changes in static pressure due to temperature
b) Changes in density due to static pressure
c) Changes in density due to dynamic pressure
d) Changes in static pressure due to kinetic energy
8. In accordance with the principle of continuity:

a) Air accelerates when the cross-sectional area of a streamline flow is reduced
b) Air decelerates when the cross-sectional area of a streamline flow is increased
c) Changes in cross-sectional area of a streamline flow will affect the air velocity
d) All of the above
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9. In accordance with Bernoulli's theorem:

a) If a streamline flow of air decelerates, its kinetic energy will decrease and the static
b) If a streamline flow of air is decelerated, its dynamic pressure will decrease and the static
c) Both a and b
d) If a streamline flow of air is accelerated, the dynamic pressure will increase and the static
10. The statement, "Energy and mass can neither be created nor destroyed, only changed from one
form to another", refers to:
a) Bernoulli's theorem
b) The equation of kinetic energy
c) The principle of continuity
d) Bernoulli's principle of continuity
11. When the velocity of air passes over an aerofoil, the pressure at the point of maximum velocity is
a) The highest
b) The lowest
c) Has no effect
12. Which of the following is applicable to describe the production of lift on an aerofoil:
a) Bernoulli’s Equation
b) Newton’s Law of Motion
c) Pascal’s theorem
d) both a & b are correct
13. The relative air velocity is maximum at

a) Leading edge of an aerofoil
b) Trailing edge of an aerofoil
c) Maximum thickness point of an aerofoil
d) Minimum thickness point of an aerofoil
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Chapter – 04 Subsonic Airflow

1. With reference to aerofoil section terminology, which of the following statements is true:
a) The angle between the chord line and the relative airflow is called the aerodynamic
incidence or angle of attack.
b) The thickness/chord ratio is the maximum thickness of the aerofoil as a percentage of the
chord; the location of maximum thickness is measured as a percentage of the chord aft of
the leading edge.
c) Both a and b
d) The chord line is a line joining the centre of curvature of the leading edge to the centre of
the trailing edge, equidistant from the top and bottom surface of the aerofoil.
2. The definition of lift is:

a) the aerodynamic force which acts perpendicular to the chord line of the aerofoil
b) the aerodynamic force that results from the pressure differentials about an aerofoil
c) the aerodynamic force which acts perpendicular to the upper surface of the aerofoil
d) the aerodynamic force which acts at 90° to the relative airflow
3. An aerofoil section is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the:

a) negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the surface.
b) vacuum below the surface and greater air pressure above the surface.
c) higher air pressure below the surface and lower air pressure above the surface.
d) higher air pressure at the leading edge than at the trailing edge.
4. On an aerofoil section, the force of lift acts perpendicular to, and the force of drag acts parallel to
the:
a) flight path.
b) longitudinal axis.
c) chord line.
d) aerofoil section upper surface.
5. When the angle of attack of a symmetrical aerofoil is increased, the centre of pressure will:
a) have very limited movement.
b) move aft along the aerofoil surface.
c) remain unaffected.
d) move forward to the leading edge.
6. Why does increasing speed also increase lift?

a) The increased impact of the relative wind on an aerofoil's lower surface creates a greater
amount of air being deflected downward.
b) The increased speed of the air passing over an aerofoil's upper surface decreases the static
pressure, thus creating a greater pressure differential between the upper and lower
surface.
c) The increased velocity of the relative wind overcomes the increased drag.
d) Increasing speed decreases drag.
7. The point on an aerofoil section through which lift acts is the:

a) midpoint of the chord.
b) centre of gravity.
c) centre of pressure.
d) aerodynamic centre.
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8. The angle between the chord line of the aerofoil section and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft is
known as:
a) the angle of attack.
b) the angle of incidence.
c) dihedral.
d) sweep back.
9. The angle between the chord line of an aerofoil section and the relative wind is known as the angle
of:
a) incidence.
b) lift.
c) attack.
d) sweepback
10. A line drawn from the leading edge to the trailing edge of an aerofoil section and equidistant at
all points from the upper and lower contours is called the:
a) chord line.
b) camber.
c) mean camber line.
d) longitudinal axis.
11. At zero angle of attack, the pressure along the upper surface of a symmetrical aerofoil section
would be:
a) greater than atmospheric pressure.
b) equal to atmospheric pressure.
c) less than atmospheric pressure.
d) non existent.
12. The angle of attack of an aerofoil section directly controls:

a) amount of airflow above and below the section.
b) angle of incidence of the section.
c) distribution of positive and negative pressure acting on the section.
d) the angle relative to the horizontal datum
13. When the angle of attack of a positively cambered aerofoil is increased, the centre of pressure
will:
a) have very little movement.
b) move forward along the chord line.
c) remain unaffected.
d) move back along the chord
14. The term "angle of attack" is defined as the angle:

'a) formed by the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane and the chord line of the section.
b) between the section chord line and the relative wind.
c) between the aeroplane's climb angle and the horizon.
d) formed by the leading edge of the section and the relative airflow.
15. Which of the following statements is true:

a) Relative airflow, free stream flow, relative wind and aircraft flight path are parallel.
b) Aircraft flight path, relative airflow, relative wind and free stream flow are parallel,
but the aircraft flight path is opposite in direction.
c) The pressure, temperature and relative velocity of the free stream flow are unaffected
by the presence of the aircraft.
d) All of the above
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16. Which of the following statements is correct:

a) Maximum camber is the maximum distance between the top and bottom surface of an
aerofoil section.
b) Both a and c
c) It is easier for air to flow over a well rounded leading edge radius than a sharp
leading edge.
d) None of the above
17. When considering an aerofoil section at a constant angle of attack, which of the following
statements is true:
a) If the static pressure on one side is reduced more than on the other side, a pressure
differential will exist.
b) If dynamic pressure is increased, the pressure differential will decrease.
c) The pressure differential will increase if the dynamic pressure is decreased
d) Dynamic pressure and pressure differential are not related.
18. Considering an aerofoil section subject to a constant dynamic pressure, which of the following
statements is correct:
a) If the angle of attack is increased from 4° to 14° the pressure differential will not change
but lift will be greater due to increased dynamic pressure acting on the lower surface.
b) Up to about 16°, increasing the angle of attack will increase the pressure differential
between the top and bottom surface of the aerofoil.
c) Changing the angle of attack does not affect the pressure differential, only changes in
dynamic pressure affect the pressure differential.
d) Up to about 16°, increasing the angle of attack decreases the pressure differential between
the top and bottom surface of the aerofoil section.
19. When considering the effect of changing angle of attack on the pitching moment of an aerofoil,
which of the following statements is correct:
a) The pitching moment about the aerodynamic centre (AC) is constant at `normal' angles
of attack.
b) The aerodynamic centre (AC) is located approximately at the 25% chord point.
c) The moment about the aerodynamic centre (AC) is a product of the distance between the
aerodynamic centre (AC) and the centre of pressure (CP) and the magnitude of the lift
force.
d) All of the above
20. Ice contamination of the leading portion of the aerofoil has which of the following consequences:
a) The profile of the leading portion of the surface can be changed, preventing normal
acceleration of the airflow and substantially reducing the magnitude of the lift force.
b) Form (pressure) drag will be increased because of the increased frontal area of the
aerofoil section.
c) Loss of lift will have a greater effect than an increase in form (pressure) drag.
d) All of the above
21. When the angle of attack increases:

a) The lift increases but the drag decreases
b) The lift increases but the drag remains constant
c) The lift decreases but the drag increases rapidly
d) The lift and the drag increase
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Chapter – 05 Lift
1. To maintain altitude, what must be done as Indicated Air Speed (IAS) is reduced:
a) Decrease angle of attack to reduce the drag.
b) Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force.
c) Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag.
d) Reduce thrust.
2. If more lift force is required because of greater operating weight, what must be done to fly at
the angle of attack which corresponds to C L MAX:
a) Increase the angle of attack.
b) Nothing, the angle of attack for CL MIX is constant.
c) It is impossible to fly at the angle of attack that corresponds to CL MAX*
d) Increase the Indicated Air Speed (IAS).
3. Which of the following statements is correct:

a) To generate a constant lift force, any adjustment in IAS must be accompanied by a
change in angle of attack.
b) For a constant lift force, each IAS requires a specific angle of attack.
c) Minimum IAS is determined by CL MAX'
d) All of the above
4. What effect does landing at high altitude airports have on ground speed with comparable
conditions relative to temperature, wind, and aeroplane weight:
a) Higher than at low altitude.
b) The same as at low altitude.
c) Lower than at low altitude.
d) Dynamic pressure will be the same at any altitude.
5. What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect:
a) A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack.
b) An increase in induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack.
c) An increase in dynamic stability.
d) A decrease in induced drag requiring a smaller angle of attack.
6. What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain
constant and airspeed is doubled. Lift will be:
a) Two times greater.
b) Four times greater.
c) The same.
d) One quarter.
7. What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as
altitude is increased:
a) A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack.
b) The same true airspeed and angle of attack.
c) A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack.
d) A constant angle of attack and true air speed.
8. How can an aeroplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect:
a) A lower angle of attack.
b) A higher angle of attack.
c) The same angle of attack.
d) The same angle of attack, but a lower IAS.
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9. By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane's:
a) Lift and airspeed, but not drag.
b) Lift, gross weight, and drag.
c) Lift, airspeed, and drag.
d) Lift and drag, but not airspeed.
10. Which flight conditions of a large jet aeroplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating
wingtip vortices of the greatest strength:
a) Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up.
b) Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down.
c) Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down.
d) Weight, gear and flaps make no difference.
11. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when
that aircraft is:
a) Using high power settings.
b) Operating at high airspeeds.
c) Developing lift.
d) Operating at high altitude.
12. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to:

a) Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude.
b) Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence.
c) Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began.
d) Dissipate very slowly when the surface wind is strong.
13. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip, when viewed from the
rear:
a) Inward, upward, and around the wingtip.
b) Counterclockwise.
c) Outward, upward, and around the wingtip.
d) Outward, downward and around the wingtip.
14. Which statement is true concerning the wake turbulence produced by a large transport
aircraft:
a) Wake turbulence behind a propeller-driven aircraft is negligible because jet engine
thrust is a necessary factor in the formation of vortices.
b) Vortices can be avoided by flying 300 feet below and behind the flightpath of the
generating aircraft.
c) The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps
or changing the speed.
d) Vortices can be avoided by flying downwind of, and below the flight path of the
generating aircraft.
15. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large
aeroplane that has just taken off:
a) The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind
vortex.
b) A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices.
c) A crosswind will move both vortices clear of the runway.
d) The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind
vortex.
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16. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet aeroplane during takeoff, the pilot should:
a) Remain below the flightpath of the jet aeroplane.
b) Climb above and stay upwind of the jet aeroplane's flightpath.
c) Lift off at a point well past the jet aeroplane's flightpath.
d) Remain below and downwind of the jet aeroplane's flightpath.
17. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the
longest period of time:
a) Light quartering headwind.
b) Light quartering tailwind.
c) Direct tailwind.
d) Strong, direct crosswind.
18. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off:
a) Prior to the point where the jet touched down.
b) At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway.
c) Before the point where the jet touched down and on the downwind edge of the
runway.
d) Beyond the point where the jet touched down.
19. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics
include decreased lift and:
a) Increased thrust.
b) A decreased stall speed.
c) An increased stall speed.
d) An aircraft will always stall at the same indicated airspeed.
20. Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the:

a) Differential pressure acting perpendicular to the chord of the wing.
b) Force acting perpendicular to the relative wind.
c) Reduced pressure resulting from a laminar flow over the upper camber of an aerofoil,
which acts perpendicular to the mean camber.
d) Force acting parallel with the relative wind and in the opposite direction.
21. Which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack:

a) A decrease in angle of attack will increase pressure below the wing, and decrease
drag.
b) An increase in angle of attack will decrease pressure below the wing, and increase
drag.
c) An increase in angle of attack will increase drag.
d) An increase in angle of attack will decrease the lift coefficient.
22. The angle of attack of a wing directly controls the:

a) Angle of incidence of the wing.
b) Distribution of pressures acting on the wing.
c) Amount of airflow above and below the wing.
d) Dynamic pressure acting in the airflow.
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23. In theory, if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and the airspeed is doubled,
the lift produced at the higher speed will be:
a) The same as at the lower speed.
b) Two times greater than at the lower speed.
c) Four times greater than at the lower speed.
d) One quarter as much.
24. An aircraft wing is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the:
a) Negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the wing's surface.
b) Vacuum below the wing's surface and greater air pressure above the wing's surface.
c) Higher air pressure below the wing's surface and lower air pressure above the wing's
surface.
d) Higher pressure at the leading edge than at the trailing edge.
25. On a wing, the force of lift acts perpendicular to, and the force of drag acts parallel to the:
a) Camber line.
b) Longitudinal axis.
c) Chord line.
d) Flightpath.
26. Which statement is true, regarding the opposing forces acting on an aeroplane in steady-state
level flight:
a) Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal.
b) These forces are equal.
c) Thrust is greater than drag and lift is greater than weight.
d) Thrust is slightly greater than Lift, but the drag and weight are equal.
27. At higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed:
a) Will be unchanged, but ground speed will be faster.
b) Will be higher, but ground speed will be unchanged.
c) Should be increased to compensate for the thinner air.
d) Should be higher to obtain a higher landing speed.
28. An aeroplane leaving ground effect will:

a) Experience a reduction in ground friction and require a slight power reduction.
b) Require a lower angle of attack to maintain the same lift coefficient.
c) Experience a reduction in induced drag and require a smaller angle of attack
d) Experience an increase in induced drag and require more thrust.
29. If the same angle of attack is maintained in ground effect as when out of ground effect, lift will:
a) Increase, and induced drag will increase.
b) Increase, and induced drag will decrease.
c) Decrease, and induced drag will increase.
d) Decrease and induced drag will decrease.
30. Which is true regarding the force of lift in steady, unaccelerated flight:
a) There is a corresponding indicated airspeed required for every angle of att ack to
generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude.
b) An aerofoil will always stall at the same indicated airspeed; therefore, an increase in
weight will require an increase in speed to generate sufficient lift to maintain
altitude.
c) At lower airspeeds the angle of attack must be less to generate sufficient lift to
maintain altitude.
d) The lift force must be exactly equal to the drag force.
17
31. At a given Indicated Air Speed, what effect will an increase in air density have on lift and
drag:
a) Lift will increase but drag will decrease.
b) Lift and drag will increase.
c) Lift and drag will decrease.
d) Lift and drag will remain the same.
32. If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer
produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the aircraft:
a) Unless the airspeed is greater than the normal stall speed.
b) Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude.
c) Unless the pitch attitude is on or below the natural horizon.
d) In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately.
33. GIVEN THAT: Aircraft A.

Wingspan-51 m, Average wing chord-4 m
Aircraft B.
Wingspan-48 m, Average wing chord-3.5 m
Determine the correct aspect ratio and wing area.
a) Aircraft A has an aspect ratio of 13.7, and has a larger wing area than aircraft B.
b) Aircraft B has an aspect ratio of 13.7, and has a smaller wing area than aircraft A.
c) Aircraft B has an aspect ratio of 12.75, and has a smaller wing area than aircraft A.
d) Aircraft A has an aspect ratio of 12.75, and has a smaller wing area than aircraft B.
34. Aspect ratio of the wing is defined as the ratio of the:

a) Wingspan to the wing root.
b) Square of the chord to the wing span.
c) Wing span to the average chord.
d) Square of the wing area to the span.
35. What changes to aircraft control must be made to maintain altitude while the airspeed is being
decreased:
a) Increase the angle of attack to compensate for the decreasing dynamic pressure.
b) Maintain a constant angle of attack until the desired airspeed is reached, then increase
the angle of attack.
c) Increase angle of attack to produce more lift than weight.
d) Decrease the angle of attack to compensate for the decrease in drag.
36. Take-off from an airfield with a low density altitude will result in:
a) a longer take-off run.
b) a higher than standard IAS before lift off.
c) a higher TAS for the same lift off IAS.
d) a shorter take off run because of the lower TAS required for the same IAS.
18
Chapter – 06 Drag
1. What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that
speed for maximum L/D?
a) Drag increases because of increased induced drag.
b) Drag decreases because of lower induced drag.
c) Drag increases because of increased parasite drag.
d) Drag decreases because of lower parasite drag.
2. By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's:
a) lift and airspeed, but not drag.
b) lift, gross weight, and drag.
c) lift, airspeed, and drag.
d) lift and drag, but not airspeed.
3. What is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased?
a) Parasite drag increases more than induced drag.
b) Induced drag increases more than parasite drag.
c) Both parasite and induced drag are equally increased.
d) Both parasite and induced drag are equally decreased.
4. In theory, if the airspeed of an airplane is doubled while in level flight, parasite drag will become:
a) twice as great.
b) half as great.
c) four times greater.
d) one quarter as much.
5. As airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum lift/drag ratio, total drag of an
aeroplane:
a) decreases because of lower parasite drag.
b) increases because of increased parasite drag.
c) increases because of increased induced drag.
d) decreases because of lower induced drag.
6. At the airspeed represented by point B, in steady flight, the airplane will (Refer to annex À'):
a) have its maximum L/D ratio.
b) have its minimum L/D ratio.
c) be developing its maximum coefficient of lift.
d) be developing its minimum coefficient of drag
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7. Which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack?

a) A decrease in angle of attack will increase pressure below the wing, and decrease drag.
b) An increase in angle of attack will decrease pressure below the wing, and increase drag.
c) An increase in angle of attack will increase drag.
d) A decrease in angle of attack will decrease pressure below the wing and increase drag.
8. On a wing, the force of lift acts perpendicular to, and the force of drag acts parallel to the:
a) flightpath.
b) longitudinal axis.
c) chord line.
d) longitudinal datum
9. That portion of the aircraft's total drag created by the production of lift is called:
a) induced drag, and is greatly affected by changes in airspeed.
b) induced drag, and is not affected by changes in airspeed.
c) parasite drag, and is greatly affected by changes in airspeed.
d) parasite drag, which is inversely proportional to the square of the airspeed
10. The best L/D ratio of an aircraft occurs when parasite drag is:
a) a minimum.
b) less than induced drag.
c) greater than induced drag.
d) equal to induced drag.
11. An aircraft has a L/D ratio of 15:1 at 50 kts in calm air. What would the L/D ratio be with a direct
headwind of 25 kts?
a) 30 : 1
b) 15 : 1
c) 25 : 1
d) 7.5 : 1
12. Which is true regarding aerodynamic drag?

a) Induced drag is a by-product of lift and is greatly affected by changes in airspeed.
b) All aerodynamic drag is created entirely by the production of lift.
c) Induced drag is created entirely by air resistance.
d) Parasite drag is a by-product of lift.
13. At a given True Air Speed, what effect will increased air density have on the lift and drag of an
aircraft?
a) Lift will increase but drag will decrease.
b) Lift and drag will increase.
c) Lift and drag will decrease.
d) Lift and drag will remain the same.
14. If the Indicated Air Speed of an aircraft is increased from 50 kts to 100 kts, parasite drag will be:
a) four times greater.
b) six times greater.
c) two times greater.
15. If the Indicated Air Speed of an aircraft is decreased from 100 kts to 50 kts, induced drag will be:
a) two times greater.
b) four times greater.
c) half as much.
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16. The best L/D ratio of an aircraft in a given configuration is a value that:
a) varies with Indicated Air Speed.
b) varies depending upon the weight being carried.
c) varies with air density.
d) remains constant regardless of Indicated Air Speed changes.
17. The tendency of an aircraft to develop forces which restore it to its original condition, when
disturbed from a condition of steady flight, is known as:
a) manoeuverability.
b) controllability.
c) stability.
d) instability.
18. As Indicated Air Speed increases in level flight, the total drag of an aircraft becomes greater than
the total drag produced at the maximum lift/drag speed because of the:
a) decrease in induced drag only.
b) increase in induced drag.
c) increase in parasite drag.
d) decrease in parasite drag only.
19. The resistance, or skin friction, due to the viscosity of the air as it passes along the surface of a
wing is a type of:
a) induced drag.
b) form drag.
c) parasite drag.
d) interference drag.
20. Which relationship is correct when comparing drag and airspeed?
a) Parasite drag varies inversely as the square of the airspeed.
b) Induced drag increases as the square of the airspeed.
c) Parasite drag increases as the square of the lift coefficient divided by the aspect ratio.
d) Induced drag varies inversely as the square of the airspeed.
21. If the same angle of attack is maintained in ground effect as when out of ground effect, lift will:
a) decrease, and parasite drag will decrease.
b) increase, and induced drag will decrease.
c) decrease, and parasite drag will increase.
d) increase and induced drag will increase.
22. Which statement is true regarding aeroplane flight at L/Dmax?

a) Any angle of attack other than that for L/Dmax increases parasite drag.
b) Any angle of attack other than that for L/Dmax increases the lift/drag ratio.
c) Any angle of attack other than that for L/Dmax increases total drag for a given
aeroplane's lift.
d) Any angle of attack other than that for L/Dmax increases the lift and reduces the drag.
23. Aspect ratio of a wing is defined as the ratio of the:

a) square of the chord to the wingspan.
b) wingspan to the wing root.
c) area squared to the chord.
d) wingspan to the mean chord.
24. A wing with a very high aspect ratio (in comparison with a low aspect ratio wing) will have:
a) poor control qualities at low airspeeds.
b) increased drag at high angles of attack.
c) a low stall speed.
d) reduced bending moment on its attachment points.
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25. At a constant velocity in airflow, a high aspect ratio wing will have (in comparison with a low
aspect ratio wing):
a) increased drag, especially at a low angle of attack.
b) decreased drag, especially at a high angle of attack.
c) increased drag, especially at a high angle of attack.
d) decreased drag, especially at low angles of attack.
26. Which aircraft has the highest aspect ratio (Refer to annex `B')?
a) 3.
b) 4.
c) 2.
d) 1.
27. Which aircraft has the lowest aspect ratio (Refer to annex `B')?
a) 4.
b) 2.
c) 3.
d) 1.
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28. Consider only aspect ratio (other factors remain constant). Which aircraft will generate greatest
lift (Refer to annex `B')?
a) 1.
b) 2.
c) 3.
d) 4.
29. Consider only aspect ratio (other factors remain constant). Which aircraft will generate greatest
drag (Refer to annex `B')?
a) 1.
b) 4.
c) 3.
d) 2.
30. What happens to total drag when accelerating from CLmax to maximum speed?
a) Increases.
b) Increases then decreases.
c) Decreases.
d) Decreases then increases.
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31. The whole aircraft CL against CD polar. Point `B' represents (Refer to annex `C'),:
a) The critical angle of attack.
b) Best Lift/Drag ratio.
c) Recommended approach speed.
d) Never exceed speed (V NE ).
32. If the Indicated Air Speed of an aircraft in level flight is increased from 100 kt to 200 kt, what
change will occur in (i) TAS (ii) Cdi (iii) Di ?
(i) (ii) (iii)

a) 2 1/4 1/16
b) 0 4 16
c) 4 1/16 1/4
d) 2 1/16 1/4
33. Minimum drag speed is that speed where

a) Profile drag is greater than induced drag
b) Profile drag is equals to induced drag
c) Profile drag is less than induced drag
34. Drag will be less and lift higher for a wing with a
a) High aspect ratio
b) Low aspect ratio
c) Long chord
d) Short chord
35. Which of the following device increases drag?

a) Flaps
b) Slats
c) Speed brake
24
Chapter – 07 Stalling
1. An aeroplane will stall at the same:
a) angle of attack and attitude with relation to the horizon
b) airspeed regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon
c) angle of attack regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon
d) indicated airspeed regardless of altitude, bank angle and load factor
2. A typical stalling angle of attack for a wing without sweepback is:

a) 4°
b) 16°
c) 30°
d) 45°
3. If the aircraft weight is increased without change of C of G position, the stalling angle of attack
will:
a) remain the same.
b) decrease.
c) increase.
d) the position of the CG does not affect the stall speed.
4. If the angle of attack is increased above the stalling angle:

a) lift and drag will both decrease.
b) lift will decrease and drag will increase.
c) lift will increase and drag will decrease.
d) lift and drag will both increase.
5. The angle of attack at which an aeroplane stalls:

a) will occur at smaller angles of attack flying downwind than when flying upwind
b) is dependent upon the speed of the airflow over the wing
c) is a function of speed and density altitude
d) will remain constant regardless of gross weight
6. Deleted.
7. For an aircraft with a 1g stalling speed of 60 kt IAS, the stalling speed in a steady 60° bank turn
would be:
a) 43 kt
b) 60 kt
c) 84 kt
d) 120 kt
8. For an aircraft in a steady turn the stalling speed would be:

a) the same as in level flight
b) at a lower speed than in level flight
c) at a higher speed than in level flight, and a lower angle of attack.
d) at a higher speed than in level flight and at the same angle of attack.
9. Formation of ice on the wing leading edge will:

a) not affect the stalling speed.
b) cause the aircraft to stall at a higher speed and a higher angle of attack.
c) cause the aircraft to stall at a higher speed and a lower angle of attack.
d) cause the aircraft to stall at a lower speed.
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10. Dividing lift by weight gives:

a) wing loading
b) lift/drag ratio
c) aspect ratio
d) load factor
11. The stalling speed of an aeroplane is most affected by:

a) changes in air density
b) variations in aeroplane loading
c) variations in flight altitude
d) changes in pitch attitude
12. Stalling may be delayed to a higher angle of attack by:

a) increasing the adverse pressure gradient
b) increasing the surface roughness of the wing top surface
c) distortion of the leading edge by ice build-up
d) increasing the kinetic energy of the boundary layer
13. A stall inducer strip will:

a) cause the wing to stall first at the root
b) cause the wing to stall at the tip first
c) delay wing root stall
d) re-energise the boundary layer at the wing root
14. On a highly tapered wing without wing twist the stall will commence:
a) simultaneously across the whole span.
b) at the centre of the span.
c) at the root.
d) at the tip.
15. Sweepback on a wing will:

a) reduce induced drag at low speed.
b) increase the tendency to tip stall.
c) reduce the tendency to tip stall.
d) cause the stall to occur at a lower angle of attack.
16. The purpose of a boundary layer fence on a swept wing is:

a) to re-energise the boundary layer and prevent separation.
b) to control span wise flow and delay tip stall.
c) to generate a vortex over the upper surface of the wing.
d) to maintain a laminar boundary layer.
17. A wing with washout would have:

a) the tip chord less than the root chord.
b) the tip incidence less than the root incidence.
c) the tip incidence greater than the root incidence.
d) the tip camber less than the root camber.
18. On an untapered wing without twist the downwash:

a) increases from root to tip.
b) increases from tip to root.
c) is constant across the span.
d) is greatest at centre span, less at root and tip.
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19. A wing of constant thickness which is not swept back:

a) will stall at the tip first due to the increase in spanwise flow.
b) could drop a wing at the stall due to the lack of any particular stall inducing
characteristics.
c) will pitch nose down approaching the stall due to the forward movement of the centre of
pressure.
d) will stall evenly across the span.
20. Slots increase the stalling angle of attack by:

a) Increasing leading edge camber.
b) delaying separation.
c) Reducing the effective angle of attack.
d) Reducing span-wise flow.
21. A rectangular wing, when compared to other wing planforms, has a tendency to stall first at the:
a) wing root providing adequate stall warning
b) wingtip providing inadequate stall warning
c) wingtip providing adequate stall warning
d) leading edge, where the wing root joins the fuselage
22. Vortex generators are used:

a) to reduce induced drag
b) to reduce boundary layer separation
c) to induce a root stall
d) to counteract the effect of the wing-tip vortices.
23. A stick shaker is:

a) an overspeed warning device that operates at high Mach numbers.
b) an artificial stability device.
c) a device to vibrate the control column to give a stall warning.
d) a device to prevent a stall by giving a pitch down.
24. A stall warning device must be set to operate:

a) at the stalling speed.
b) at a speed just below the stalling speed.
c) at a speed about 5% to 10% above the stalling speed.
d) at a speed about 20% above the stalling speed.
25. Just before the stall the wing leading edge stagnation point is positioned:
a) above the stall warning vane
b) below the stall warning vane
c) on top of the stall warning vane
d) on top of the leading edge because of the extremely high angle of attack
26. A wing mounted stall warning detector vane would be situated:

a) on the upper surface at about mid chord.
b) on the lower surface at about mid chord.
c) at the leading edge on the lower surface.
d) at the leading edge on the upper surface.
27. The input data to a stall warning device (e.g. stick shaker) system is:
a) angle of attack only.
b) angle of attack, and in some systems rate of change of angle of attack.
c) airspeed only.
d) airspeed and sometimes rate of change of airspeed.
27
28. A stick pusher is:

a) a device to prevent an aircraft from stalling.
b) a type of trim system.
c) a device to assist the pilot to move the controls at high speed.
d) a device which automatically compensates for pitch changes at high speed.
29. In a developed spin:

a) the angle of attack of both wings will be positive
b) the angle of attack of both wings will be negative
c) the angle of attack of one wing will be positive and the other will be negative
d) the down going wing will be stalled and the up going wing will not be stalled
30. To recover from a spin, the elevators should be:

a) moved up to increase the angle of attack
b) moved down to reduce the angle of attack
c) set to neutral
d) allowed to float
31. High speed buffet (shock stall) is caused by:

a) the boundary layer separating in front of a shockwave at high angles of attack
b) the boundary layer separating immediately behind the shock wave
c) the shock wave striking the tail of the aircraft
d) the shock wave striking the fuselage
32. In a 30° bank level turn, the stall speed will be increased by:
a) 7%
b) 30%
c) 1.07%
d) 15%
33. Heavy rain can increase the stall speed of an aircraft for which of the following reasons?
a) Water increases the viscosity of air
b) Heavy rain can block the pitot tube, giving false airspeed indications
c) The extra weight and distortion of the aerodynamic surfaces by the film of water
d) The impact of heavy rain will slow the aircraft
34. If the tailplane is supplying a download and stalls due to contamination by ice:
a) the wing will stall and the aircraft will pitch-up due to the weight of the ice behind the
aircraft CG
b) the increased weight on the tailplane due to the ice formation will pitch the aircraft nose
up, which will stall the wing
c) because it was supplying a download the aircraft will pitch nose up
d) the aircraft will pitch nose down
35. Indications of an icing-induced stall can be:

1. An artificial stall warning device
2. Airspeed close to the normal stall speed
3. Violent roll oscillations
4. Airframe buffet
5. Violent wing drop
6. Extremely high rate of descent while in a `normal' flight attitude
a) Airspeed close to the normal stall speed

b) Extremely high rate of descent while in a `normal' flight attitude
c) Violent roll oscillations and wing drop
d) none
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36. If a light single engine propeller aircraft is stalled, power-on, in a climbing turn to the left, which
of the following is the preferred recovery action?
a) elevator stick forward, ailerons stick neutral, rudder to prevent wing drop.
b) elevator stick neutral, rudder neutral, ailerons to prevent wing drop, power to idle.
c) elevator stick forward, ailerons and rudder to prevent wing drop.
d) elevator stick neutral, rudder neutral, ailerons stick neutral, power to idle.
37. If the stick shaker activates on a swept wing jet transport aircraft immediately after take-off while
turning, which of the following statements contains the preferred course of action?
a) Decrease the angle of attack
b) Increase thrust
c) Monitor the instruments to ensure it is not a spurious warning
d) Decrease the bank angle
38. For most of the aerofoils, stalling angle is about

a) 12
b) 15
c) 18
d) 20°
39. The indications of a stall may be provided by:

a) Unresponsive flight control
b) Nose down pitching moment
c) Buffeting
d) All of the above are correct
40. Stalling characteristics of an wing can be improved by using:

a) Washing
b) Roll control spoilers
c) Vortex generator

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Chapter – 08 High Lift Devices

1. With the flaps lowered, the stalling speed will:
a) increase.
b) decrease.
c) increase, but occur at a higher angle of attack.
d) remain the same.
2. When flaps are lowered the stalling angle of attack of the wing:
a) remains the same, but C Lmax increases.
b) increases and C Lm, increases.
c) decreases, but C Lmax increases.
d) decreases, but C I ma, remains the same.
3. With full flap, the maximum Lift/drag ratio:

a) increases and the stalling angle increases
b) decreases and the stalling speed decreases
c) remains the same and the stalling angle remains the same
d) remains the same and the stalling angle decreases
4. When a leading edge slot is opened, the stalling speed will:

a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain the same but will occur at a higher angle of attack.
d) remain the same but will occur at a lower angle of attack.
5. The purpose of a leading edge droop is:

a) to give a more cambered section for high speed flight.
b) to increase the wing area for take-off and landing.
c) to increase wing camber, and delay separation of the airflow when trailing edge flaps are
lowered.
d) to decrease the lift during the landing run.
6. Lowering flaps sometimes produces a pitch moment change due to:

a) decrease of the angle of incidence.
b) movement of the centre of pressure.
c) movement of the centre of gravity.
d) increased angle of attack of the tailplane.
7. Which type of flap would give the greatest change in pitching moment?
a) Split
b) Plain
c) Fowler
d) Plain slotted
8. A split flap is:

a) a flap divided into sections which open to form slots through the flap.
b) a flap manufactured in several sections to allow for wing flexing.
c) a flap which can move up or down from the neutral position.
d) a flap where the upper surface contour of the wing trailing edge is fixed and only the
lower surface contour is altered when the flaps are lowered
30
9. If the flaps are lowered in flight, with the airspeed kept constant, to maintain level flight the angle
of attack:
a) must be reduced.
b) must be increased.
c) must be kept constant but power must be increased.
d) must be kept constant and power required will be constant.
10. If flaps are lowered during the take-off run:

a) the lift would not change until the aircraft is airborne.
b) the lift would increase when the flaps are lowered.
c) the lift would decrease.
d) the acceleration would increase.
11. When flaps are lowered the spanwise flow on the upper surface of the wing:
a) does not change.
b) increase towards the tip.
c) increases towards the root.
d) increases in speed but has no change of direction.
12. If a landing is to be made without flaps the landing speed must be:
a) reduced.
b) increased.
c) the same as for a landing with flaps.
d) the same as for a landing with flaps but with a steeper approach.
13. Lowering the flaps during a landing approach:

a) increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed
b) decreases the angle of descent without increasing power
c) eliminates floating
d) permits approaches at a higher indicated airspeed
14. With reference to Annex A , the type of flap illustrated is a:

a) Slotted Krueger flap
b) Slotted Variable camber flap
c) Slotted Slat
d) Slotted Fowler flap
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15. With reference to Annex F , the type of flap illustrated is a:

a) Slat
b) Fowler flap
c) Krueger flap
d) Variable camber flap

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Chapter – 09 Airframe Contamination

1. After an aircraft has been exposed to severe weather:
a) snow should be removed but smooth ice may be left.
b) all snow and ice should be removed.
c) loose snow may be left but ice must be removed.
d) providing the contamination is not too thick, it may be left in place.
2. Icing conditions may be encountered in the atmosphere when:

a) relative humidity is low and temperature rises.
b) pressure is high and humidity falls.
c) relative humidity is high and temperature is low.
d) relative pressure is high and temperature is high.
3. Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an aeroplane?

a) Increased angle of attack for stalls.
b) Increased stall speed.
c) Increased pitch down tendencies.
d) Decreased speed for stalling
4. Frost covering the upper surface of an aircraft wing will usually cause:
a) the aircraft to stall at an angle of attack that is lower than normal
b) no problems to pilots
c) drag factors so large that sufficient speed cannot be obtained for take-off
d) the aircraft to stall at an angle of attack that is higher than normal
5. If it is suspected that ice may have formed on the tailplane and longitudinal control difficulties
are experienced following flap selection, the prudent action to take would be:
a) immediately decrease the flap setting
b) allow the speed to increase
c) select a greater flap deflection because this will increase C L max
d) reduce the angle of attack
6. When considering in-flight airframe contamination with frost or ice, which of the following
statements is correct?
a) Build-up can be identified by the ice detection equipment fitted to the aircraft.
b) The pilot can visually identify build-up on the wings, tailplane or flight controls by
looking through the flight deck windows; at night by using the ice detection lights.
c) Visual evidence of the accumulation of airframe icing may not exist.
d) Due to the high speed of modern aircraft, significant airframe contamination with frost,
ice or snow will not occur.
7. In the event of an icing-induced wing stall, which of the following indications will reliably be
available to the flight crew?
a) Activation of the stall warning device (horn or stick shaker) and Airframe buffet.
b) The aircraft pitching nose down and Loss of elevator effectiveness.
c) Activation of the stall warning device (horn or stick shaker) and Airframe buffet.
d) A roll control problem (increasing roll oscillation or violent wing drop) and A high rate
of descent.
33
Chap ter – 10 Stab ility and Co ntro l
1. An aer oplane which is inherently stable will:

a) r eq uire less effo rt to co ntro l.
b) b e d ifficult to stall.
c) no t sp in.
d) have a b uilt -in tendency to return to its o riginal state fo llo wing the
r emo val o f any d isturbing force.
2. After a disturb ance in pitc h an aircraft o scillates in p itch with increasing

amp litud e. It is:
a) statically and d ynamically unstab le.
b) statically stab le b ut d ynamically unstab le.
c) statically unstable b ut dyna mically stab le.
d) statically and d ynamically stable.
3. Lo ngitudinal stab ility is given b y:

a) the fin.
b) the wing dihed ral.
c) the hor izo ntal tailp lane.
d) the ailero ns.
4. An aircr aft is co nstr ucted with d ihedral to pro vide:

a) lateral stab ility abo ut the lo ngitudinal axis.
b) lo ngitudinal stab ility abo ut the lateral a xis.
c) lateral stab ility abo ut the normal axis.
d) d ir ectio nal stab ility about the normal axis.
5. Later al stab ility is r ed uced b y increasing:

a) Anhed ral.
b) Dihedr al.
c) S weepback.
d) Fuselage and fin area.
6. I f the wing AC ( aerod ynamic center/CP) is forward o f the CG:

a) changes in lift pr od uce a wing p itching mo ment which acts to red uce the
change o f lift.
b) changes in lift pr od uce a wing p itching mo ment which acts to increase
the change o f lift.
c) changes in lift give no change in wing p itchin g mo ment.
d) when the aircraft sid eslip s the CG causes the no se to turn into the
sideslip thus app lying a resto ring mo ment.
7. T he lo ngitud inal static stability o f an aircraft:

a) is r ed uced b y the effects o f wing do wn was h.
b) is incr eased b y the effects o f wing do wn was h.
c) is no t affected b y wing d o wn wash.
d) is r ed uced for no se up d isp lacements, b ut increased fo r no se do wn
d isp lacements b y the effects o f wing do wn wash.
8. To ensure so me d egr ee of lo ngitud inal stab ility in flight, the po sitio n o f the CG :
a) must alwa ys coincide with the AC.
b) must b e for war d o f the Neutral Po int.
c) must b e aft o f the Neutral Po int.
d) must no t be for war d o f the aft CG limit.
34
9. W hen the CG is clo se to the forward limit:

a) ver y small for ces are required o n the co ntro l co lumn to prod uce p itch.
b) lo ngitudinal stab ility is red uced.
c) ver y high stick forces are req uired to p itch because the aircraft is very
stab le.
d) stick forces are the same as for an aft CG.
10 . T he static mar gin is eq ual to the d istance between:

a) the CG and the AC.
b) the AC and the neutral po int.
c) the CG and the neutral po int.
d) the CG and the CG datum p o int.
11 . I f a distur bing fo rce causes the aircraft to roll:

a) wi ng d ihedral will cause a rolling mo ment which red uces the sideslip.
b) the fin will cause a ro lling mo ment which red uces the sideslip.
c) d ihedral will cause a yawi ng mo ment which red uces the sideslip.
d) d ihedral will cause a no se up pitching mo ment.
12 . W ith flaps lo wer ed, lateral stability:

a) will b e increased because o f the effective increase o f dihedral.
b) will b e increased because o f increased lift.
c) will b e r ed uced because the centre o f lift o f each semi -sp an is clo ser to
the wing roo t.
d) will no t b e affected.
13 . Dihedr al gives a stabilising ro lling mo ment b y causin g an increase in lift:

a) o n the up go ing wing wh en the aircraft ro lls.
b) o n the d o wn go ing wing when the aircraft rolls.
c) o n the lo wer wing if the aircraft is sideslip ping.
d) o n the lo wer wing whenever the aircraft is in a banked attitude.
14 . A high wing co nfiguratio n with no d ihed ral, co mp ared to a lo w wing

co nfigur atio n with no d ihedral, will pro vid e:
a) gr eater lo ngitud inal stability.
b) the same d egr ee o f lo ngitud inal stability as any other co nfiguratio n
b ecause dihedr al gives lo ngitud inal stabil ity.
c) less lateral stability than a lo w wing co nfiguration.
d) gr eater lateral stab ility due to the airflo w p attern aro und the fuselage
when the aircraft is sid eslip ping increasing the effective angle o f attack
o f the lo wer wing.
15 . At a co nstant I AS, what affect will increasing altitude have o n damp ing in ro ll:
a) r emains the same.
b) increases b ecause the TAS increases.
c) d ecr eases b ecause the ailero ns are less effective.
d) d ecr eases b ecause the d ensity d ecreases.
16 . S weepback o f the wings will:

a) no t affect lateral stability.
b) d ecr ease lateral stab ility.
c) increases lateral stability at high speed s o nly.
d) increases lateral stability at all sp eed s.
35
17 . At lo w fo r war d sp eed :
a) increased do wn wash from the wing will cause the elevators to be more
r espo nsive.
b) d ue to the increased angle o f attack o f the wing the air will flo w faster
o ver the wing giving imp ro ved ailero n co ntrol.
c) a lar ge sideslip angle could cause the fin to stall.
d) a swep t b ack wing will give an increased d egree o f lo ngitudinal stab ility.
18 . Fo llo wing a lateral disturb ance, an aircraft with Dutch ro ll instability wil l:
a) go into a spir al d ive.
b) d evelop simultaneo us o scillatio ns in ro ll and yaw.
c) d evelop o scillatio ns in pitch.
d) d evelop an unchecked roll.
19 . To corr ect d utch ro ll o n an aircraft with no automatic protectio n system:

a) use ro ll inp uts
b) use yaw inp uts
c) mo ve the CG
d) r ed uce sp eed b elo w MMo
20 . A ya w d amp er:
a) increases r udder effectiveness.
b) must b e disengaged before making a turn.
c) augments stab ility.
d) increases the r ate o f yaw.
21 . A wing which is inclined do wn ward s fro m roo t to tip is said to have:

a) wash o ut.
b) tap er.
c) s weep.
d) anhed ral.
22 . T he lateral axis o f an aircraft is a line which:

a) p asses thr o ugh the wing ti p s.
b) p asses thr o ugh the centre o f pressure, at right angles to the directio n o f
the air flo w.
c) p asses thr o ugh the q uarter chord po int o f the win g roo t, at right angles to
the lo ngitud inal axis.
d) p asses thr o ugh the centre o f gravity, parallel to a lin e thro ugh the wing
tip s.
23 . Lo ad ing an aircraft so that the CG exceeds the aft limits co uld result in:
a) lo ss o f lo ngitudinal stab ility, and the no se to p itch up at slo w sp eed s
b) excessive up war d force o n the tail, and the no se to p itch do wn
c) excessi ve load factor in turns
d) high stick for ces
24 T he tendency o f an aircraft to suffer fro m d utch ro ll instab ility can be reduced :

a) b y sweep ing the wings
b) b y giving the wings anhedral
c) b y red ucing the size o f the fin
d) b y lo ngitud inal d ihed ral
36
25 . W hat deter mines the lo ngitudinal static stability o f an aerop lane?

a) T he relatio nship o f thrust and lift to weight and drag
b) T he effectiveness o f the ho rizo ntal stab ilizer, rudd er, and rud der trim tab
c) T he lo catio n o f the CG with resp ect to the AC
d) the size o f the p itching mo ment which can be generated b y the elevato r
26 . Dihedr al angle is:

a) the angle b etween the main plane and the lo ngitud inal axis
b) the angle measured between the main p lane and the no rmal axis
c) the angle b etween the q uarte r cho rd line and the ho rizo ntal d atum
d) the up war d and o utward inclinatio n o f the main planes to the horizo ntal
d atum
27 . Stab ility aro und the normal axis:

a) is incr eased if the keel surface behind the CG is increased
b) is given b y the lateral d ihedra l
c) d epend s o n the lo ngitud inal dihed ral
d) is gr eater if the wing has no sweepback
28 . T he Centr e o f Gravity o f an aircraft is fo und to be within limits for take -o ff::

a) the C o f G will be within limits for land ing
b) the C o f G fo r land ing must b e che cked, allo wing for fuel co nsumed
c) the C o f G will no t change d uring the flight
d) the flight cr ew can adj ust the CG d uring flight to keep it within
accep tab le limits for land ing
29 . T he ailero ns ar e d ep lo yed and returned to neutral when the aircraft has attained
a small angle o f b ank. I f the aircraft then returns to a wings -level attitud e
witho ut fur ther co ntro l mo vement it is:
a) neutrally stab le
b) statically and d ynamically stable
c) statically stab le, d yna mically neutral
d) statically stab le
30 . T he prop er ty which tends to decreases rate o f disp lacement abo ut any axis, b ut
o nly while disp lacement is taking place, is kno wn as:
a) stab ility
b) co ntro llab ility
c) aero d ynamic d amp ing
d) mano euverab ility
31 . I f an air craft is lo ad ed such that the stic k force req uired to change the speed is
zero
a) the CG is o n the neutral po int
b) the CG is behind the neutral point
c) the CG is o n the mano uevre p oint
d) the CG is o n the fo rward CG limit
32 . T he ad vantage o f d ihed ral wing o ver anhed ral is that it gives

a) Later al stab ility
b) Directio nal stab ility
c) Lo ngitudinal stab ility
d) All ar e corr ect
37
33. The aircraft can be said to be directionally stable if

a) C.G. is forward to C.P.
b) C.P. is forward to C.G.
c) C.P. is over the C.G.
d) Both a & c are correct
34. If an aircraft is stable about the lateral axis, the aircraft is said to have
a) Lateral stability
b) Longitudinal stability
c) Directional stability
d) Inherent stability
35. To bank an aeroplane to the right, the aileron on the right wing moves
a) Upwards
b) Downwards
c) Spanwise
36. Directional stability is achieved by

a) Horizontal stabilizer
b) Vertical stabilizer
c) Rudder
d) Aileron
38
Chap ter – 11 Co ntr ols
1. An elevon is:
a) an all moving tailplane that has no elevator
b) the correct name for a V - tail
c) a surface that extends into the airflow from the upper surface of the wing to reduce the
lift
d) a combined aileron and elevator fitted to an aircraft that does not have conventional
horizontal stabiliser (tailplane)
2. When rolling at a steady rate the:

a) up going wing experiences an increase in effective angle of attack
b) rate of roll depends only on aileron deflection
c) down going wing experiences an increase in effective angle of attack
d) effective angle of attack of the up going and down going wings are equal
3. The control surface which gives longitudinal control is:

a) the rudder.
b) the ailerons.
c) the elevators.
d) the flaps.
4. Ailerons give:
a) lateral control about the lateral axis.
b) longitudinal control about the lateral axis.
c) lateral control about the longitudinal axis.
d) directional control about the normal axis.
5. Aileron reversal would be most likely to occur:

a) with a rigid wing at high speed.
b) with a flexible wing at high speed.
c) with a rigid wing at low
d) with a flexible wing at low speed.
6. If the ailerons are deflected to 10°, compared to 5°, this will cause:
a) an increased angle of bank.
b) an increased rate of roll.
c) no change to either bank angle or roll rate.
d) a reduction in the adverse yawing moment.
7. Yawing is a rotation around:

a) the normal axis obtained by elevator.
b) the lateral axis obtained by rudder.
c) the longitudinal axis obtained by ailerons.
d) the normal axis obtained by rudder.
8. If the control column is moved forward and to the left:

a) the left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator moves up.
b) the left aileron moves down, right aileron moves up, elevator moves down.
c) the left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator down.
d) the left aileron moves down, right aileron moves up, elevator moves up.
39
9. The secondary effect of yawing to port is to:

a) roll to starboard
b) pitch nose up
c) roll first to starboard and then to port
d) roll to port
10. Due to the AC of the fin being above the longitudinal axis, if the rudder is moved to the right, the
force acting on the fin will give:
a) a yawing moment to the left but no rolling moment.
b) a rolling moment to the left.
c) a rolling moment to the right.
d) a yawing moment to the right but no rolling moment.
11. What should be the feel on a 'full and free' check of the controls:
a) a gradual stiffening of the controls.
b) rebound on reaching the stops.
c) a solid stop.
d) controls should not be moved to the stops.
12. The purpose of control locks on a flying control system is:

a) to enable any free movement in the control system to be detected.
b) to prevent structural damage to the controls in gusty conditions when the aircraft is on the
ground.
c) to keep the control surface rigid to permit ground handling.
d) as a security measure.
13. An irreversible control:

a) may be moved by operating the cockpit control but not by the aerodynamic loads acting
on the control surface.
b) has less movement in one direction than the other.
c) may be moved either by the cockpit control or by a load on the control surface.
d) is when the control locks are engaged.
14. Ailerons may be rigged slightly down (drooped):

a) to increase the feel in the control circuit
b) to correct for adverse aileron yaw
c) to allow for up-float in flight to bring the aileron into the streamlined position
d) to give a higher CL for take-off
15. The tailplane shown has inverted camber. To cause the aircraft to pitch nose up the control column
must be:
a) the control column must be pushed forward
b) the control column must be pulled backwards
c) the control wheel must be rotated
d) the incidence of the tailplane must be decreased because the negative camber will make it
effective in the reverse sense
16. If an aileron is moved downward:

a) the stalling angle of that wing is increased
b) the stalling angle of that wing is decreased
c) the stalling angle is not affected but the stalling speed is decreased
40
17. When rudder is used to give a coordinated turn to the left:

a) the left pedal is moved forward, and the rudder moves right
b) the right pedal is moved forward and the rudder moves left
c) the left pedal is moved forward and the rudder moves left
18. The higher speed of the upper wing in a steady banked turn causes it to have more lift than the
lower wing. This may be compensated for by:
a) use of the rudder control
b) operating the ailerons slightly in the opposite sense once the correct angle of bank has
been reached
c) increasing the nose up pitch by using the elevators
d) all above are correct.
19. The purpose of a differential aileron control is to:

a) give a yawing moment which opposes the turn
b) reduce the yawing moment which opposes the turn
c) give a pitching moment to prevent the nose from dropping in the turn
d) improve the rate of roll
20. When displacing the ailerons from the neutral position:

a) the up going aileron causes an increase in induced drag.
b) the down going aileron causes an increase in induced drag.
c) both cause an increase in induced drag.
d) induced drag remains the same, the up going aileron causes a smaller increase in profile
drag than the down going aileron.
21. The purpose of aerodynamic balance on a flying control is:

a) to get the aircraft into balance.
b) to prevent flutter of the flying control.
c) to reduce the control load to zero.
d) to make the control easier to move.
22. A horn balance on a control surface is:

a) an arm projecting upward from the control surface to which the control cables are
attached.
b) a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of the hinge line.
c) a rod projecting forward from the control surface with a weight on the end.
d) a projection of the leading edge of the control surface below the wing undersurface.
23. An aileron could be balanced aerodynamically by:

a) making the up aileron move through a larger angle than the down aileron.
b) attaching a weight to the control surface forward of the hinge.
c) having the control hinge set back behind the control surface leading edge.
d) having springs in the control circuit to assist movement.
24. Control overbalance results in:

a) a sudden increase in stick force
b) a sudden reduction then reversal of stick force
c) a sudden loss of effectiveness of the controls
d) a gradual increase in stick force with increasing IAS
41
25. A control surface is mass balanced by:

a) fitting a balance tab.
b) attaching a weight acting forward of the hinge line.
c) attaching a weight acting on the hinge line.
d) attaching a weight acting behind the hinge line.
26. If the control wheel is turned to the right, a balance tab on the port aileron should:
a) move up relative to the aileron
b) move down relative to the aileron
c) not move unless the aileron trim wheel is turned.
d) move to the neutral position
27. The purpose of an anti-balance tab is to:

a) trim the aircraft
b) reduce the load required to move the controls at all speeds
c) reduce the load required to move the controls at high speeds only
d) give more feel to the controls
28. When the control column is pushed forward a balance tab on the elevator:
a) will move up relative to the control surface.
b) will move down relative to the control surface.
c) will only move if the trim wheel is operated.
d) moves to the neutral position.
29. The purpose of a spring tab is:

a) to maintain a constant tension in the trim tab system.
b) to increase the feel in the control system.
c) to reduce the pilot's effort required to move the controls against high air loads.
d) to compensate for temperature changes in cable tension.
30. The purpose of a trim tab is:

a) to assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls.
b) to zero the load on the pilots controls in the flight attitude required.
c) to provide feel to the controls at high speed.
d) to increase the effectiveness of the controls.
31. To re-trim after failure of the right engine on a twin-engine aircraft:

a) the rudder trim tab will move right and the rudder left.
b) the trim tab will move left and the rudder right.
c) the trim tab will move left and the rudder remain neutral.
d) the trim tab will move right and the rudder remain neutral.
32. To trim an aircraft which tends to fly nose heavy with hands off, the top of the elevator trim wheel
should be:
a) moved forward to raise the nose and this would cause the elevator trim tab to move
down, and the elevator to move up.
b) moved backwards to raise the nose, and this would cause the elevator trim tab to move
down, and the elevator to move up.
c) moved backwards to raise the nose, and this would cause the elevator trim tab to move
up, and the elevator to move up.
d) be moved backwards to raise the nose, and this would cause the elevator trim tab to move
up and cause the nose to rise.
42
33. To achieve the same degree of longitudinal trim, the trim drag from a variable incidence trimming
tailplane would be:
a) greater than that from an elevator.
b) the same as that from an elevator.
c) less than that from an elevator.
34. Following re-trimming for straight and level flight because of forward CG movement:
a) nose up pitch authority will be reduced
b) nose down pitch authority will be reduced
c) longitudinal stability will be reduced
d) tailplane down load will be reduced
35. An aircraft has a tendency to fly right wing low with hands off. It is trimmed with a tab on the left
aileron. The trim tab will:
a) move up, causing the left aileron to move up and right aileron to move down.
b) move down, causing the left aileron to move up, right aileron remains neutral.
c) move down causing the left aileron to move up, and right aileron to move down.
d) move up causing the left wing to move down, ailerons remain neutral.
36. An aircraft takes off with the elevator control locks still in position. It is found to be nose heavy:
a) backward movement of the trim wheel would increase nose heaviness.
b) it would not be possible to move the trim wheel.
c) backward movement of the trim wheel would reduce nose heaviness.
d) operating the trim wheel would have no effect.
37. On a servo tab operated elevator, if the pilot's control column is pushed forward in flight:
a) the servo tab will move down causing the elevator to move up.
b) the elevator will move down causing the servo tab to move up.
c) the elevator will move up causing the servo tab to move down.
d) the servo tab will move up causing the elevator to move down.
38. If a cockpit control check is made on an aircraft with servo operated controls, and it is found that
the cockpit controls move fully and freely in all directions:
a) the control surfaces and servo tabs are free.
b) the control surfaces are free but there could be locks on the servo tabs.
c) there could be locks on the control surfaces and on the servo tabs.
d) the servo tabs are free but there could be locks on the control surfaces.
39. In a servo operated aileron control system, turning the cockpit control wheel to the right in flight
will cause the servo tab on the left aileron:
a) to move up and the left aileron to move down
b) to move down and the left aileron to move down
c) to move down and the left aileron to move up
d) to move up and the right aileron to move down
40. Spoilers on the upper surface of the wing may be used on landing:
a) to give a nose down pitching moment
b) to reduce the lift and so put more weight on the wheels, making the brakes more effective
c) to cause drag and increase the lift from the flaps
d) to reduce the touchdown speed
43
41. Wing mounted spoiler surfaces may be used as:

a) air brakes
b) lift dumpers
c) lateral control
d) all of the above
42. Spoilers, when used for roll control will:

a) reinforce the boundary layer
b) create turbulence at the wing root
c) increase the camber at the wing root
d) decrease lift on the upper wing surface when deployed asymmetrically
43. On an aircraft fitted with roll control spoilers, a roll to port is achieved by:
a) deflecting the port spoiler up and starboard down
b) deflecting the starboard spoiler down
c) deflecting the port spoiler up
d) deflecting the port spoiler down
44. In a fully power operated flying control system control feel is provided by:
a) the friction in the control cable system.
b) an artificial feel unit (Q - Feel) ,
c) the aerodynamic loads on the control surface.
d) the mass balance weights.
45. The function of the spoilers is to

a) Break the airflow and destroy lift
b) Create thrust
c) Create a smoother airflow
d) Create more lift
46. When the control column is pulled back, the elevator goes:
a) Upwards
b) Downwards
c) Horizontally backwards
d) both a & c are correct
47. Rudder is used for:

a) Longitudinal control
b) Lateral control
c) Directional control
48. Which of the following device is used for roll control?

a) Elevator
b) Rudder
c) Aileron
d) Flaps
49. Movement of control column forward and backwards moves

a) The aileron
b) Rudder
c) Elevator
d) Flaps
44
Chap ter – 12 Flight Mechanics
1. In straight and level powered flight the following principal forces act on an aircraft:
a) thrust, lift, weight.
b) thrust, lift, drag, weight.
c) thrust, lift, drag.
d) lift, drag, weight.
2. For an aircraft in level flight, if the wing CP is aft of the CG and there is no thrust/drag couple, the
tailplane load must be:
a) upward
b) downward
c) zero
d) forward
3. When considering the forces acting upon an aeroplane in straight-and-level flight at constant
airspeed, which statement is correct?
a) weight acts vertically toward the centre of the Earth
b) lift acts perpendicular to the chord line and must be greater than weight
c) thrust acts forward parallel to the relative wind and is greater than drag
d) lift acts in the opposite direction to the aircraft weight
4. The horizontal stabilizer usually provides a download in level flight because:

a) the main plane lift is always positive
b) the lift/weight and thrust/drag couples combine to give a nose down pitch
c) the lift produced is greater than required at high speed
d) this configuration gives less interference
5. The reason a light general aviation aircraft tends to nose down during power reduction is that the:
a) thrust line acts horizontally and above the force of drag
b) centre of gravity is located forward of the centre of pressure
c) centre of pressure is located forward of the centre of gravity
d) force of drag acts horizontally and above the thrust line
6. To give the best obstacle clearance on take off, take off should be made with:
a) flaps partially extended and at best rate of climb speed (Vy).
b) flaps partially extended and at best angle of climb speed (Vx).
c) flaps retracted and at best rate of climb speed (Vy).
d) flaps retracted and at best angle of climb speed (Vx).
7. The angle of climb is proportional to:

a) the amount by which the lift exceeds the weight.
b) the amount by which the thrust exceeds the drag.
c) the amount by which the thrust exceeds the weight.
d) the angle of attack of the wing.
8. In a climb at a steady speed, the thrust is:

a) equal to the aerodynamic drag.
b) greater than the aerodynamic drag.
c) less than the aerodynamic drag.
d) equal to the weight component along the flight path.
45
9. A constant rate of climb in an aeroplane is determined by:

a) wind speed
b) the aircraft weight
c) excess engine power
d) excess airspeed
10. Assume that after take-off a turn is made to a downwind heading. In regard to the ground, the
aeroplane will climb at:
a) a greater rate into the wind than downwind
b) a steeper angle downwind than into the wind
c) the same angle upwind or downwind
d) a steeper angle into the wind than downwind
11. What effect does high density altitude have on aircraft performance?
a) It increases takeoff performance
b) It increases engine performance
c) It reduces climb performance
d) all above are correct
12. During a steady climb the lift force is:

a) less than the weight.
b) exactly equal to the weight.
c) equal to the weight plus the drag.
d) greater than the weight.
13. In a steady climb the wing lift is:

a) equal to the weight
b) greater than the weight
c) equal to the weight component perpendicular to the flight path
d) equal to the vertical component of weight
14. During a glide the following forces act on an aircraft:

a) lift, weight, thrust.
b) lift, drag, weight.
c) drag, thrust, weight.
d) lift and weight only.
15. For a glider having a maximum L/D ratio of 20:1, the flattest glide angle that could be achieved in
still air would be:
a) 1 ft in 10 ft
b) 1 ft in 20 ft
c) 1 ftin40ft
d) 1 ft in 200 ft
16. To cover the greatest distance when gliding the gliding speed must be:
a) near to the stalling speed.
b) as high as possible within VNE limits.
c) about 30% faster than Vmd.
d) the one that gives the highest L/D ratio.
17. If the weight of an aircraft is increased the maximum gliding range:

a) decreases.
b) increases.
c) remains the same, and rate of descent is unchanged.
d) remains the same, but rate of descent increases.
46
18. When gliding into a headwind, the ground distance covered will be:
a) less than in still air.
b) the same as in still air but the glide angle will be steeper.
c) the same as in still air but the glide angle will be flatter.
d) greater than in still air.
19. During a 'power-on' glide the forces acting on an aircraft are:

a) lift, drag and weight.
b) lift, thrust and weight.
c) lift, drag, thrust and weight.
d) lift and weight only.
20. If airbrakes are extended during a glide, and speed maintained, the rate of descent will:
a) increase and glide angle will be steeper.
b) increase, but glide angle will remain the same.
c) decrease.
d) remain the same.
21. An aircraft has a L/D ratio of 16:1 at 50 kt in calm air. What would the approximate GLIDE
RATIO be with a direct headwind of 25 kt?
a) 32:1
b) 16:1
c) 8:1
d) 4:1
22. During a turn the lift force may be resolved into two forces, these are:
a) a force opposite to thrust and a force equal and opposite to weight.
b) centripetal force and a force equal and opposite drag.
c) centripetal force and a force equal and opposite weight.
d) centrifugal force and a force equal and opposite thrust.
23. In a turn at a constant IAS, compared to straight and level flight at the same IAS:
a) the same power is required because the IAS is the same.
b) more power is required because the drag is greater.
c) more power is required because some thrust is required to give the centripetal force.
d) less power is required because the lift required is less.
24. In a turn at a given TAS and bank angle:

a) only one radius of turn is possible.
b) the radius can be varied by varying the pitch.
c) the radius can be varied by varying the yaw.
d) two different radii are possible, one to the right and one to the left.
25. As bank angle is increased in a turn at a constant IAS, the load factor will:
a) increase in direct proportion to bank angle.
b) increase at an increasing rate.
c) decrease.
d) remain the same.
26. Skidding outward in a turn is caused by:

a) insufficient rate of yaw.
b) too much bank.
c) too much nose up pitch.
d) insufficient bank
47
27. For a turn at a constant IAS if the radius of turn is decreased the load factor will:
a) increase.
b) decrease but bank angle will increase.
c) decrease but bank angle will decrease.
d) remain the same.
28. An aircraft has a stalling speed in level flight of 70 kt IAS. In a 60° balanced turn the stalling
speed would be:
a) 76 kt.
b) 84 kt.
c) 99 kt.
d) 140 kt..
29. An increase in airspeed while maintaining a constant load factor during a level, coordinated turn
would result in:
a) an increase in centrifugal force
b) the same radius of turn
c) a decrease in the radius of turn
d) an increase in the radius of turn
30. How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time?
a) shallow the bank and increase airspeed
b) steepen the bank and increase airspeed
c) steepen the bank and decrease airspeed
31. If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 kg were subjected to a total load of 6,000 kg in flight,
the load factor would be:
a) 9 G's
b) 2 G's
c) 6 G's
d) 3 G's
32. Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude?
a) Compensate for increase in induced drag.
b) Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component.
c) Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift.
d) To stop the nose from dropping below the horizon and the airspeed increasing.
33. Two aircraft of different weight are in a steady turn at the same bank angle:
a) the heavier aircraft would have a higher "g" load
b) the lighter aircraft would have a higher "g" load
c) they would both have the same "g" load
34. For a multi-engined aircraft, VMcg is defined as the minimum control speed on the ground with
one engine inoperative. The aircraft must be able to:
a) abandon the take off.
b) continue the take off or abandon it.
c) continue the take off using primary controls only.
d) continue the take off using primary controls and nosewheel steering.
48
35. What criteria determines which engine is the "critical" engine of a twin-engine aeroplane?
a) the one with the centre of thrust farthest from the centerline of the fuselage
b) the one with the centre of thrust closest to the centerline of the fuselage
c) the one designated by the manufacturer which develops most usable thrust
d) the failure of which causes the least yawing moment
36. Following failure of the critical engine, what performance should the pilot of a light, twin-engine
aeroplane be able to maintain at V MCA?
a) Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min
b) Heading only
c) Heading and altitude
d) both a & c are correct
37. In straight and level flight, the forces acting on an aircraft are in a state of
a) Equilibrium
b) Instability
c) More thrust than drag
d) More lift than weight
49
Chap ter – 13 High Sp eed Flight
1. Identify which of the following is the correct formula for Mach number: TAS
a) a = constant M
b) M - AS a
c) TAS = M a
d) M = TAS x a
2. What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing
root of a sweptwing aircraft?
a) a severe nose-down pitching moment or "tuck under"
b) a high-speed stall and sudden pitch up
c) severe porpoising
d) pitch-up
3. Mach number is:

a) the ratio of the aircraft's TAS to the speed of sound at sea level.
b) the ratio of the aircraft's TAS to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions.
c) the ratio of the aircraft's IAS to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions.
d) the speed of sound.
4. For an aircraft climbing at a constant IAS the Mach number will:

a) increase.
b) decrease.
c) remain constant.
d) initially show an increase, then decrease.
5. The term 'transonic speed' for an aircraft means:

a) speeds where the airflow is completely subsonic.
b) speeds where the airflow is completely supersonic.
c) speeds where the airflow is partly subsonic and partly supersonic.
d) speeds between M 0.4 and M 1.0
6. At M 0.8 a wing has supersonic flow between 20% chord and 60% chord. There will be a
shockwave:
a) at 20% chord only.
b) at 20% chord and 60% chord.
c) at 60% chord only.
d) forward of 20% chord.
7. As air flows through a shockwave:

a) static pressure increases, density decreases, temperature increases.
b) static pressure increases, density increases, temperature increases.
c) static pressure decreases, density increases, temperature decreases.
d) static pressure decreases, density decreases, temperature decreases.
8. For a wing section of given thickness, the critical Mach number:

a) will decrease if angle of attack is increased.
b) will increase if angle of attack is increased.
c) will not change with changes of angle of attack.
d) is only influenced by changes in temperature.
50
9. At speeds just above the critical Mach number, the lift coefficient:
a) will start to increase.
b) will start to decrease.
c) will remain constant.
d) is directly proportional to the Mach number.
10. As air flows through a shockwave:

a) its speed increases.
b) its speed decreases.
c) its speed remains the same.
d) it changes direction to flow parallel with the Mach cone.
11. If an aeroplane accelerates above the Critical Mach number, the first high Mach number
characteristic it will usually experience is:
a) a nose up pitch or "Shock Stall".
b) a violent and sustained oscillation in pitch (porpoising).
c) Dutch roll and/or spiral instability.
d) a nose down pitching moment (Mach, or high speed tuck).
12. High speed buffet is caused by:

a) the shock waves striking the tail.
b) the high speed airflow striking the leading edge of the wing.
c) wing flutter caused by the interaction of the bottom and top surface shock waves.
d) the airflow being detached by the shock wave and the turbulent flow striking the tail.
13. The "area rule" applied to high speed aircraft requires:

a) that the cross sectional area shall be as small as possible.
b) that the variation of cross sectional area along the length of the aircraft follows a smooth
pattern.
c) that the maximum cross sectional area of the fuselage should occur at the wing root.
d) that the fuselage and the wing area be of a ratio of 3 : 1.
14. An all-moving tailplane is used in preference to elevators on high speed aircraft:

a) because the effect of the elevator is reversed above the critical Mach number.
b) because shock wave formation on the elevator causes excessive stick forces.
c) because shock wave formation ahead of the elevator causes separation and loss of
elevator effectiveness.
d) because it would be physically impossible for a pilot to control the aircraft in pitch with a
conventional tailplane and elevator configuration.
15. Mach Trim is a device which:

a) moves the centre of gravity to maintain stable lateral stick forces in the transonic region.
b) automatically compensates for pitch changes while flying in the transonic speed region.
c) prevents the aircraft from exceeding its critical Mach number.
d) switches out the trim control to prevent damage in the transonic region.
16. What is the movement of the centre of pressure when the wingtips of a sweptwing aeroplane are
shock-stalled first?
a) outward and forward
b) inward and aft
c) outward and aft
d) inward and forward
51
17. The airflow behind a normal shock wave will:

a) always be subsonic and in the same direction as the original airflow.
b) always be supersonic and in the same direction as the original airflow.
c) may be subsonic or supersonic.
d) always be subsonic and will be deflected from the direction of the original airflow.
18. As airflow passes through a normal shock wave, which of the following changes in static pressure
(i), density (ii), and Mach number (iii) will occur:
(i) (ii) (iii)
a) decrease increase < 1.0
b) increase decrease < 1.0
c) increase decrease > 1.0 or < 1.0
d) increase increase < 1.0
19. An aerofoil travelling at supersonic speed will:

a) have its centre of pressure at 50 % chord.
b) have its centre of pressure at 25% chord.
c) give a larger proportion of lift from the lower surface than from the upper surface, and
have its centre of pressure at 50 % chord.
d) give approximately equal lift from the upper and lower surfaces, and have its
aerodynamic centre at 50% chord.
20. A bow wave is:

a) a shock wave which forms on the nose of the aircraft at M crit
b) the shape formed when the shock waves on the upper and lower wing surface meet at the
trailing edge.
c) a shock wave that forms immediately ahead of an aircraft which is travelling faster than
the speed of sound.
d) the shape of a shock wave when viewed vertically.
21. When an aircraft is flying at supersonic speed, where will the area of influence of any pressure
disturbance due to the presence of the aircraft be located?
a) Within the Mach Cone.
b) In front of the Mach Cone.
c) In front of the bow wave.
d) In front of the Mach Cone only when the speed exceeds M 1.0
22. The temperature of the airflow as it passes through an expansion wave:

a) increases.
b) decreases.
c) is inversely proportional to the square root of the Mach number.
d) remains the same.
23. The influence of weight (wing loading) on the formation of shockwaves is:
a) a higher wing loading will increase M GRIT
b) low wing loading will give a higher M CRIT
c) wing loading does not influence M CRIT
d) wing loading and M CRIT are directly proportional
52
24. What influence does an oblique shock wave have on the streamline pattern (1), variation of
pressure (ii), temperature(iii), density (iv) and velocity (v)?
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

a) parallel to surface increase increase increase decrease
b) normal to wave decrease decrease decrease increase
c) parallel to wave decrease decrease decrease increase
d) parallel to chord increase decrease increase decrease
25. Wave drag is caused by:

a) shock waves interfering with the smooth airflow into the engine intakes.
b) flying faster than M Mo.
c) the conversion of mechanical energy into thermal energy by the shock wave.
d) flying faster than V mo
26. What is the effect of a shock wave on control surface efficiency?

a) Increase in efficiency, due to increased velocity.
b) Increase in efficiency, due to the extra leverage caused by the shock wave.
c) Decrease in efficiency, due to the bow wave.
d) loss of efficiency, due to control deflection no longer modifying the total flow over the
wing.
27. At what speed does an oblique shock wave move over the earth surface?
a) Aircraft ground speed
b) The TAS of the aircraft plus the wind speed
c) The TAS of the aircraft less the wind speed
d) The TAS relative to the speed of sound at sea level
28. Transonic range lies between:

a) .8 M to 1.0 M
b) .8 M to 1.2 M
c) 1.0 M to 1.2 M
d) 1.1 M to 1.3 M
29. Shock waves normally form first:

a) On the maximum thickness of an aerofoil
b) At all places on an aerofoil simultaneously
c) Only at the trailing edge
d) Only at the leading edge
30. An expansion wave forms when:

a) Air flows into a corner
b) Supersonic air flows around a corner
c) Supersonic air flows into the restricted portion of a venture tube
d) Subsonic air flows around a corner
31. Which of the following is the problems of transonic flight?

a) Loss of control surfaces
b) Pitching and buffeting
c) Sudden increase in lift and decrease in drag causing shock stall
d) All above are correct
53
Chap ter – 14 Limitatio ns
1. If an aircraft is flown at its design manoeuvring speed Va

a) it is possible to subject the aircraft to a load greater than its limit load during high `g'
manoeuvres.
b) it is only possible to subject the aircraft to a load greater than its limit load during violent
increases in incidence, i.e. when using excessive stick force to pull-out of a dive.
c) it is not possible to exceed the limit load.
d) it is possible to subject the aircraft to a load greater than its limit load at high TAS. 2.
2. The speed VNE is:

a) the airspeed which must not be exceeded except in a dive
b) the maximum airspeed at which manoeuvres approaching the stall may be carried out
c) the maximum airspeed at which an aircraft may be flown
d) the maximum speed, above which flaps should not be extended
3. Maximum structural cruising speed VNO is the maximum speed at which an aeroplane can be
operated during:
a) normal operations.
b) abrupt manoeuvres.
c) flight in smooth air.
d) flight in rough air.
4. The maximum allowable airspeed with flaps extended (VFE ) is lower than cruising speed
because:
a) they are used only when preparing to land
b) the additional lift and drag created would overload the wing and flap structure at higher
speeds
c) flaps will stall if they are deployed at too high an airspeed
d) too much drag is induced
5. Why is VLE greater than VLo on the majority of large jet transport aircraft?
a) Vlo is used when the aircraft is taking off and landing when the IAS is low.
b) extending the gear at too high an airspeed would cause excessive parasite drag.
c) flying at too high an airspeed with the gear down would prevent retraction of the forward
retracting nose gear.
d) Vlo is a lower IAS because the undercarriage doors are vulnerable to aerodynamic loads
when the gear is in transit, up or down.
6. The phenomenon of flutter is described as:

a) rapid oscillatory motion involving only rotation of the control surfaces, associated with
the shock waves produced around the control surfaces.
b) oscillatory motion of part or parts of the aircraft relative to the remainder of the structure.
c) rapid movement of the airframe caused by vibration from the engines.
d) reversal of the ailerons caused by wing torsional flexibility.
7. What is the purpose of fitting the engines to an aircraft using wing mounted pylons?
a) They give increased ground clearance in roll.
b) They give improved longitudinal mass distribution.
c) The wing structure can be lighter because the engine acts as a mass balance and also
relieves wing bending stress.
d) They enable a longer undercarriage to be used which gives an optimum pitch attitude for
take-off and landing.
54
8. Aileron reversal at high dynamic pressures is caused by:

a) the down-going aileron increasing the semi-span angle of attack beyond the critical.
b) flow separation ahead of the aileron leading edge.
c) uneven shock wave formation on the top and bottom surface of the aileron, with the
attendant movement in control surface CP, causing the resultant force to act in the
opposite direction from that intended.
d) dynamic pressure acting on the aileron twisting the wing in the opposite direction,
possibly causing the aircraft to bank in a direction opposite to that intended.
9. Controls are mass balanced in order to:

a) eliminate control flutter.
b) aerodynamically assist the pilot in moving the controls.
c) provide equal control forces on all three controls.
d) return the control surface to neutral when the controls are released.
10. If an aircraft weight is reduced by 15%, VA will:

a) Not change.
b) Increase by 15%.
c) Increase by 7.5%.
d) Decrease by 7.5%.
11. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) It is a design requirement that control reversal speeds must be higher than any speed to be
achieved in flight.
b) An aircraft is not a rigid structure.
c) Both a and b
12. VLo is defined as:

a) maximum landing gear operating speed.
b) maximum landing gear extended speed.
c) maximum leading edge flaps extended speed.
d) maximum flap speed.
13. If flutter is experienced during flight, the preferable action would be:
a) immediately increase speed beyond V mo / M mo, by sacrificing altitude if necessary.
b) immediately close the throttles, deploy the speed brakes and bank the aircraft.
c) rapidly pitch-up to slow the aircraft as quickly as possible.
d) reduce speed immediately by closing the throttles, but avoid rapid changes in attitude
and/or configuration.
55
Chap ter – 15 W ind shear
1. Take-off EPR is being delivered by all engines and the take-off is proceeding normally, the
undercarriage has just retracted. Which initial indications may be observed when a headwind
shears to a downdraught?
a) Indicated Air Speed: constant. Vertical Speed: decreases. Pitch Attitude: decreases.
b) Indicated Air Speed: increases. Vertical Speed: decreases. Pitch Attitude: constant.
c) Indicated Air Speed: decreases. Vertical Speed: constant. Pitch Attitude: constant.
d) Indicated Air Speed: decreases. Vertical Speed: decreases. Pitch Attitude: decreases.
2. Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as

a) 6,000 ft/min.
b) 7,000 ft/min.
c) 8,000 ft/min.
d) 10,000 ft/min.
3. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear
across the micro burst of
a) 80 knots.
b) 40 knots.
c) 90 knots.
d) 45 knots.
4. What is the expected duration of an individual micro burst?

a) Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately I minute.
b) Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until
dissipation.
c) One micro burst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours.
d) For as long as 1 hour.
5. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed?

a) Decreasing headwind or tailwind.
b) Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.
c) Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind.
d) Increasing headwind or tailwind.
6. Which performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a

tailwind shear that increases in intensity?
a) Loss of, or diminished climb ability.
b) Increased climb performance immediately after takeoff.
c) Decreased takeoff distance.
d) Improved ability to climb.
7. Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the
sink rate to decrease?
a) Tailwind which suddenly increases in velocity.
b) Sudden decrease in a headwind component.
c) Sudden increase in a headwind component.
d) Calm wind which suddenly shears to a tailwind.
8. Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shears to
a calm wind?
a) Altitude increases; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease.
b) Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase.
c) Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease.
d) Altitude decreases; pitch and indicated airspeed increase.
56
9. What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind
shear?
a) Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed
indications.
b) Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed.
c) Avoid overstressing the aircraft, pitch to stick shaker, and apply maximum power.
d) Accelerate the aircraft to prevent a stall by sacrificing altitude.
10. Which of the following would be acceptable techniques to minimise the effects of a windshear
encounter''
a) To prevent damage to the engines, avoid the use of maximum available thrust and
maintain a constant airspeed.
b) Keep to noise abatement procedures and Wait until the situation resolves itself before
taking any action.
c) Increase the pitch angle until the stick shaker activates, then decrease back pressure to
maintain that angle of pitch and Keep to noise abatement procedures.
d) Increase the pitch angle until the stick shaker activates, then decrease back pressure to
maintain that angle of pitch and Use maximum power available as soon as possible.
11. Which of the following statements about windshear is true?

a) Windshear can subject your aircraft to sudden up-draughts, down draughts, or extreme
horizontal wind components.
b) Windshear can strike suddenly and with devastating effect which has been beyond the
recovery powers of experienced pilots flying modern and powerful aircraft.
c) Both a and b
12. A microburst is one of the most dangerous sources of windshear associated with thunderstorms.
They are:
a) small-scale intense up-draughts, which suck warm moist air into the cumulonimbus
cloud.
b) small-scale shafts of violent rain, which can cause severe problems to gas turbine
engines.
c) large-scale, violent air, associated with air descending from the ànvil' of a thunder cloud.
d) small-scale (typically less than 1 mile in diameter) intense down-draughts which, on
reaching the surface, spread outward in all directions from the down-draught centre.
13. Thrust is being managed to maintain desired indicated airspeed and the glide slope is being flown.
Which of the following is the recommended procedure when you observe a 30 kt loss of airspeed
and the descent rate increases from 750 ft/min to 2,000 ft/min?
a) Increase power to regain lost airspeed and pitch-up to regain the glide slope - continue
the approach and continue to monitor your flight instruments.
b) Decrease the pitch attitude to regain airspeed and then fly-up to regain the glide slope.
c) Apply full power and execute a go-around; report windshear to ATC as soon as
practicable.
d) Wait until the airspeed stabilises and the rate of descent decreases, because microbursts
are quite small and you will soon fly out of it.
14. Which of the following statements are correct?

a) A rapid increase in headwind is an ènergy gain'.
b) A shear from a tailwind to calm is an ènergy gain'.
c) A rapid loss of tailwind is an ènergy gain'.
d) All of the above
57
15. Which of the following statements are correct?

a) A downdraught is an ènergy gain' and A rapid loss of tailwind is an ènergy loss'.
b) A shear from a tailwind to calm is an ènergy loss' and A shear from calm to a headwind
is an ènergy gain'.
c) A rapid loss of tailwind is an ènergy loss' and A shear from calm to a headwind is an
ènergy gain'.
d) A shear from calm to a headwind is an ènergy gain' and A downdraught is an ènergy
loss'.
16. Which of the following sequences might be encountered when flying into a microburst?
a) Increased headwind, followed by down-draught, followed by increased tailwind on the
approach, or following take-off.
b) Increased headwind, followed by down-draught, followed by increased tailwind on the
approach. Increased tailwind, followed by down-draught, followed by increased
headwind following take-off.
c) Increased headwind, followed by down-draught, followed by increased tailwind on
takeoff. Increased tailwind, followed by down-draught, followed by increased headwind
on the approach.
d) Increased tailwind, followed by down-draught, followed by increased headwind on
takeoff. Increased headwind, followed by down-draught, followed by increased tailwind
on the approach.
17. Which of the following statements is correct when considering windshear?

a) Avoid windshear by delaying departure or by diverting if airborne.
b) Prepare for the inadvertent encounter by a speed `margin' if ènergy loss' windshear is
suspected.
c) Know the techniques for recovery recommended for your aircraft and use them without
any hesitation if windshear is encountered.
d) All of the above
58
Chap ter – 16 Pro peller
1. As a result of gyroscopic precession, it can be said that:

a) any pitching around the longitudinal axis results in a yawing moment
b) any yawing around the normal axis results in a pitching moment
c) any pitching around the lateral axis results in a rolling moment
d) any rolling around the longitudinal axis results in a pitching moment
2. A propeller rotating clockwise as seen from the rear, creates a spiralling slipstream that tends to
rotate the aeroplane to the:
a) right around the normal axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis
b) right around the normal axis, and to the right around the longitudinal axis
c) left around the normal axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis
d) left around the normal axis, and to the right around the longitudinal axis
3. The reason for variations in geometric pitch (twisting) along a propeller blade is that it:
a) prevents the portion of the blade near the hub from stalling during cruising flight.
b) permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight.
c) permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight.
d) minimises the gyroscopic effect.
4. The Geometric Pitch of a propeller is:

a) the distance it would move forward in one revolution if there were no slip.
b) the angle the propeller shaft makes to the plane of rotation.
c) the distance the propeller actually moves forward in one revolution.
d) the angle the propeller chord makes to the relative airflow.
5. Propeller `slip' is:

a) the air stream in the wake of the propeller.
b) the amount by which the distance covered in one revolution falls short of the geometric
pitch.
c) the increase in rpm which occurs during take-off.
d) the change of blade angle from root to tip.
6. The distance a propeller actually advances in one revolution is:

a) twisting.
b) effective pitch.
c) geometric pitch.
d) blade pitch.
7. Blade angle of a propeller is defined as the angle between the:

a) angle of attack and chord line.
b) angle of attack and line of thrust.
c) chord line and plane of rotation.
d) thrust line and propeller torque.
8. Propeller efficiency is the:

a) actual distance a propeller advances in one revolution.
b) ratio of thrust horsepower to shaft horsepower.
c) ratio of geometric pitch to effective pitch.
d) ratio of TAS to rpm.
59
9. A fixed-pitch propeller is designed for best efficiency only at a given combination of:
a) airspeed and RPM.
b) airspeed and altitude.
c) altitude and RPM.
d) torque and blade angle.
10. Which statement is true regarding propeller efficiency? Propeller efficiency is the:
a) difference between the geometric pitch of the propeller and its effective pitch.
b) actual distance a propeller advances in one revolution.
c) ratio of thrust horsepower to shaft horsepower.
d) ratio between the rpm and number of blade elements.
11. Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller?
a) As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the
propeller blades to remain unchanged.
b) The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM.
c) A high blade angle, or increased pitch, reduces the propeller drag and allows more engine
power for takeoffs.
d) As the propeller control setting is changed by the pilot, the RPM of the engines remains
constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes.
12. When does asymmetric blade effect cause the aeroplane to yaw to the left?
a) When at high angles of attack.
b) When at high airspeeds.
c) When at low angles of attack.
d) In the cruise at low altitude.
13. The left turning tendency of an aeroplane caused by asymmetric blade effect is the result of the:
a) gyroscopic forces applied to the rotating propeller blades acting 90° in advance of the
point the force was applied.
b) clockwise rotation of the engine and the propeller turning the aeroplane
counterclockwise.
c) propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade
on the left.
d) the rotation of the slipstream striking the tail on the left.
14. With regard to gyroscopic precession, when a force is applied at a point on the rim of a spinning
disc, the resultant force acts in which direction and at what point?
a) In the same direction as the applied force, 90° ahead in the plane of rotation.
b) In the opposite direction of the applied force, 90° ahead in the plane of rotation.
c) In the opposite direction of the applied force, at the point of the applied force.
d) In the same direction as the applied force, 90' ahead of the plane of rotation when the
propeller rotates clockwise, 90' retarded when the propeller rotates counter-clockwise.
15. The angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller:

a) depends on forward speed only.
b) depends on forward speed and engine rotational speed.
c) depends on engine rotational speed only.
d) is constant for a fixed pitch propeller.
16. Counter-rotating propellers are:

a) propellers which rotate counter clockwise.
b) propellers which are geared to rotate in the opposite direction to the engine.
c) two propellers driven by separate engines , rotating in opposite directions.
d) two propellers driven by the same engine, rotating in opposite directions.
60
17. If engine rpm is to remain constant on an engine fitted with a variable pitch propeller, an increase
in engine power requires:
a) a decrease in blade angle.
b) a constant angle of attack to be maintained to stop the engine from overspeeding.
c) an increase in blade angle.
d) the prop control lever to be advanced.
61
Chap ter – 17 Sp ecimen Questio ns
SPECIMEN QUESTIONS
1. A unit of measurement of pressure is:

a. kg/square dm
b. kg/cubic metre
c. Newtons
d. psi
2 Which of the following are the correct Sl units ?

a. Density is kilogram's per cubic metre, Force is Newtons
b. Density is Newton's per cubic metre, Force is kilogram's
c. Density is kilogram's per Newton, Force is Newton-metre squared
d. Density is kilogram's per square metre, Force is kilogram's
3. What is the SI unit of density?

a. m V squared
b. kg/square cm
c. kg - metres
d. kg/cubic metre
4 What is the SI unit which results from multiplying kg and m/s squared?
a. Newton
b. psi
c. Joule
d. Watt
5 Which of the following expressions is correct:

a. A=FxM
b. F=MxA
c. M=FxA
d. A=M/F
6 Which of the following is the equation for power?

a. N/m
b. Nm/s
c. Pa/s squared
d. Kg/m/s squared
7 At a constant CAS when flying below sea level an aircraft will have:
a. a higher TAS than at sea level
b. a lower TAS than at sea level at ISA conditions
c. the same TAS as at sea level
d. the same TAS, but an increased IAS
8 Static pressure acts:

a. parallel to airflow
b. parallel to dynamic pressure
c. in all directions
d. downwards
62
9 TAS is:
a. higher than speed of the undisturbed airstream around the aircraft
b. lower than speed of the undisturbed airstream around the aircraft
c. lower than IAS at ISA altitudes below sea level
d. equal to IAS, multiplied by air density at sea level
10 The difference between IAS and TAS will:

a. increase with decreasing temperature
b. increase with increasing density
c. remain constant at all times
d. decrease with decreasing altitude
11 As a smooth flow of subsonic air at a velocity less than M0.4 flows through a divergent duct: (1)
static pressure (ii) velocity
(i) (ii)
a. increases decreases
b. increases increases
c. decreases decreases
d. decreases increases
12 As subsonic air flows through a convergent duct: (1) static pressure (ii) velocity
(i) (ii)
a. increases decreases
b. increases increases
c. decreases decreases
d. decreases increases
13 Bernoulli's Theorem states:

a. dynamic pressure increase and static pressure increase
b. dynamic pressure increase and static pressure decrease
c. dynamic pressure is maximum at stagnation point
d. zero pressure at zero dynamic pressure
14 Consider a uniform flow of air at velocity V in a Streamtube. If the temperature of the air in the
tube is raised:
a. the mass flow remains constant and velocity V decreases
b. the mass flow will increase and velocity V remain constant
c. the mass flow will decrease and velocity V will remain constant
d. the mass flow remains constant and the velocity V will increase
15 In a subsonic flow venturi, the relationship between the total pressure, static pressure and dynamic
pressure of undisturbed air and air in the throat will be:
(i) Dynamic pressure will be constant, static pressure will decrease.

(ii) Total pressure will be constant, dynamic pressure will increase.
a. both (i) and (ii) are correct

b. (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect
c. (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct
d. both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
63
16 In accordance with Bernoulli's Theorem, where PT = Total Pressure, PS = Static pressure and q =
Dynamic pressure:
a. PT +PS=q
b. PT =PS-q
c. PT -PS=q
d. PS +PT=q
17 The Principle of Continuity states that in a Streamtube of decreasing crosssectional area, the speed
of a subsonic and incompressible airflow will:
a. remain the same
b. decrease
c. increase
d. sonic
18 The Principle of Continuity states that in a tube of increasing cross-sectional area, the speed of a
subsonic and incompressible airflow will:
a. remain the same
b. decrease
c. sonic
d. increase
19 What are the units for wing loading and dynamic pressure?
a. N/square metre and N/square metre
b. Nm and Nm
c. N and N/square metre
d. N/square metre and joules
20 When considering the Principle of Continuity for incompressible subsonic flow, what happens in a
Streamtube with a change in cross-sectional area?
a. The density at the throat will be the same as the density at the mouth
b. The density at the throat will be the less than the density at the mouth
c. he density at the throat will be greater than the density at the mouth
d. Cannot say without knowing the change in cross-sectional area of the Streamtube
21 When considering the Principle of Continuity for subsonic flow, what happens in a streamtube for
a change in cross-sectional area?
a. RHO 1 = RHO 2
b. RHO 1 > RHO 2
c. RHO 2 > RHO 1
d. Cannot say without knowing the change in cross-sectional area of the streamtube.
22 Which of the following creates Lift?

a. An accelerated air mass.
b. A retarded air mass.
c. A change in direction of mass flow.
d. A symmetrical aerofoil at zero angle of attack in a high speed flow.
23 Which of the following statements about a venturi in a subsonic air flow is correct?
(i) The dynamic pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are equal.
(ii) The total pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are equal.
a. (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.

b. (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct.
c. (i) and (ii) are correct.
d. (i) and (ii) are incorrect.
64
24 A line from the centre of curvature of the leading edge to the trailing edge, equidistant from the
top and bottom wing surface is the:
a. camber line
b. upper camber line
c. mean chord
d. mean aerodynamic chord
25 A symmetrical aerofoil section at CL = 0 will produce?

a. A negative (nose down) pitching moment
b. A positive (nose up) pitching moment
c. Zero pitching moment
d. No aerodynamic force
26 Angle of attack is the angle between:

a. undisturbed airflow and chord line
b. undisturbed airflow and mean camber line
c. local airflow and chord line
d. local airflow and mean camber line
27 How is the thickness of an aerofoil section measured?

a. As the ratio of wing angle
b. Related to camber
c. As the percentage of chord
d. In metres
28 Lift and drag respectively are normal and parallel to:

a. the chord line
b. the longitudinal axis
c. the horizon
d. the relative airflow
29 The angle between the aeroplane longitudinal axis and the chord line is:
a. angle of incidence.
b. glide path angle.
c. angle of attack.
d. climb path angle.
30 The term angle of attack is defined as:

a. the angle between the relative airflow and the horizontal axis
b. the angle between the wing chord line and the relative wind
c. the angle that determines the magnitude of the lift force
d. the angle between the wing and tailplane incidence
31 What is the angle of attack (Aerodynamic angle of incidence)?

a. Angle of the chord line to the relative free stream flow
b. Angle of the chord line to the fuselage datum
c. Angle of the tailplane chord to the wing chord
d. Angle of the tailplane chord to the fuselage datum
32 When considering the coefficient of lift and angle of attack of aerofoil sections:
a. a symmetrical section at zero angle of attack will produce a small positive coefficient of
lift
b. an asymmetrical section at zero angle of attack will produce zero coefficient of lift
c. a symmetrical section at zero angle of attack will produce zero coefficient of lift
d. aerofoil section symmetry has no effect on lift coefficient
65
33 When considering the Lift and Drag forces on an aerofoil section:

a. they are only Normal to each other at one angle of attack
b. they both depend on the pressure distribution on the aerofoil section
c. hey vary linearly
d. Lift is proportional to Drag
34 Where does the lift act on the wing?

a. Suction
b. Always forward of the CG
c. Centre of Gravity
d. Centre of Pressure
35 Which of the following creates lift'?

a. A slightly cambered aerofoil
b. An aerofoil in a high speed flow
c. Air accelerated upwards
d. Air accelerated downwards
36 Which of the following is the greatest factor causing lift?

a. suction above the wing
b. increased pressure below wing
c. increased airflow velocity below the wing
d. decreased airflow velocity above the wing
37 Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Lift acts perpendicular to the horizontal and drag parallel in a rearwards direction
b. Drag acts parallel to the chord and opposite to the direction of motion of the aircraft and
lift acts perpendicular to the chord
c. Lift acts at right angles to the top surface of the wing and drag acts at right angles to lift
d. Drag acts in the same direction as the relative wind and lift perpendicular to the relative
wind.
38. Deleted.
39 If IAS is doubled, by which of the following factors should the original CL be multiplied to
maintain level flight?
a. 0-25
b. 0.5
c. 2.0
d. 4.0
40 On entering ground effect:

a. more power is required
b. less power is required
c. ground effect has no effect on power required
d. lift decreases
41 On the approach to land, ground effect will begin to be felt at:

a. twice the wingspan above the ground
b. half the wingspan above the ground
c. when the angle of attack is increased
d. upon elevator deflection
66
42 The formula for lift is:

a. L=W
b. L = 2 rho V squared S CL
c. L = 1/2 rho V squared S CL
d. L = rho V S CL
43 The influence of ground affect on landing distance will:

a. increase landing distance
b. decrease landing distance
c. have no affect on landing distance
d. depend on flap position
44 Two identical aircraft of the same weight fly at different altitudes. All other important factors
remaining constant, assuming no compressibility and ISA conditions, what is the TAS of each
aircraft?
a. The same
b. Greater in the higher aircraft
c. Greater in the lower aircraft
d. Less in the higher aircraft
45 What do `S' and `q' represent in the lift equation?

a. Static pressure and chord
b. Wing span and dynamic pressure
c. Wing area and dynamic pressure
d. Wing area and static pressure
46 What effect on induced drag does entering ground effect have?

a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Remain the same
d. Induced drag will increase, but profile drag will decrease
47 What is the CL and CD ratio at normal angles of attack

a. CL higher
b. CD higher
c. the same
d. CL much higher
48 What is the MAC of a wing?

a. Area of wing divided by the span
b. The same as the mean chord of a rectangular wing of the same span
c. The mean chord of the whole aeroplane
d. The 25% chord of a swept wing
49 When an aircraft enters ground effect:

a. the lift vector is inclined rearwards which increases the thrust required
b. the lift vector is inclined forwards which reduces the thrust required
c. the lift vector is unaffected, the cushion of air increases
d. the lift vector is inclined forward which increases the thrust required
50 When an aircraft enters ground effect:

a. the induced angle of attack increases
b. lift decreases and drag increases
c. lift increases and drag decreases
d. the aircraft will be partially supported on a cushion of air
67
51 When considering an angle of attack versus coefficient of lift graph for a cambered aerofoil, where
does the lift curve intersect the vertical CL axis?
a. above the origin
b. below the origin
c. at the point of origin
d. to the left of the origin
52 When in level flight at 1.3 VS, what is the CL as a percentage of CL MAX?
a. 59%
b. 77%
c. 130%
d. 169%
53 Which of the following is the cause of wing tip vortices?

a. Air spilling from the top surface to the bottom surface at the wing tip
b. Air spilling from the bottom surface to the top surface at the wing tip
c. Air spilling from the bottom surface to the top surface at the left wing tip and from the `
top surface to the bottom surface at the right wing tip
d. Spanwise flow vector from the tip to the root on the bottom surface of the wing
54 Which of the following is the correct definition of aspect ratio?

a. Span divided by tip chord
b. Chord divided by span
c. Span divided by mean chord
d. Chord divided by span, measured at the 25% chord position
55 Which of the following most accurately describes the airflow which causes wing tip vortices?
a. From the root to the tip on the top surface and from the tip to the root on the bottom
surface over the wing tip
b. From the root to the tip on the top surface and from the tip to the root on the bottom
surface over the trailing edge
c. From the tip to the root on the top surface and from the root to the tip on the bottom
surface over the trailing edge
d. From the tip to the root on the top surface and from the root to the tip on the bottom
surface over the wing tip
56. Deleted.
57 Wing tip vortices are caused by unequal pressure distribution on the wing which results in airflow
from:
a. bottom to top round the trailing edge
b. top to bottom round the trailing edge
c. bottom to top round wingtip
d. top to bottom round wingtip
58 With flaps deployed, at a constant IAS in straight and level flight, the magnitude of tip vortices:
a. increases or decreases depending upon the initial angle of attack
b. increases
c. decreases
d. remains the same
59 A high aspect ratio wing:

a. increases induced drag
b. decreases induced drag
c. is structurally stiffer than a low aspect ratio
d. has a higher stall angle than a low aspect ratio
68
60 An aircraft flying straight and level; if density halves, aerodynamic drag will:
a. increase by a factor of four
b. increase by a factor of two
c. decrease by a factor of two
d. decrease by a factor of four
61 At a constant IAS, induced drag is affected by:

a. aircraft weight
b. changes in thrust
c. angle between chord line and longitudinal axis
d. wing location
62 CDI is proportional to which of the following?

a. CLmax
b. CL squared
c. the square root of the CL
d. CL
63 Considering the lift to drag ratio, in straight and level flight which of the following is correct?
a. L/D is maximum at the speed for minimum total drag
b. L/D maximum decreases with increasing lift
c. L/D is maximum when lift equals weight
d. L/D is maximum when lift equals zero
64 High aspect ratio:

a. reduces parasite drag
b. reduces induced drag
c. increases stalling speed
d. increases manoeuverability
65 How does aerodynamic drag vary when airspeed is doubled?

a. 4
b. 16
c. 1
d. 2
66 If dynamic (kinetic) pressure increases, what is the effect on total drag (if all important factors
remain constant)?
a. Drag decreases
b. Drag increases
c. It has no effect on drag
d. Drag only changes with changing ground speed
67. Deleted.
68 If pressure increases, with OAT and TAS constant, what happens to drag?
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Remain constant
d. none of the above
69
69 If the frontal area of an object in an airstream is increased by a factor of three, by what factor does
drag increase?
a. 9
b. 3
c. 6
d. 1.5
70 If the IAS is increased by a factor of 4, by what factor would the drag increase?
a. 4
b. 8
c. 12
d. 16
71 In a stream tube, if density is halved, drag will be reduced by a factor of:

a. 3
b. 4
c. 6
d. 2
72 In straight and level flight, which of the following would cause induced drag to vary linearly if
weight is constant?
a. 1/V
b. V
c. 1/V squared
d. V squared
73 In subsonic flight, which is correct for VMD?

a. Parasite drag greater than induced drag
b. CL and CD are minimum
c. Parasite and Induced Drag are equal
d. Induced Drag is greater than Parasite Drag
74 Induced drag can be reduced by:

a. increased taper ratio
b. decreased aspect ratio
c. use of a wing tip with a thinner aerofoil section
d. increased aspect ratio
75. Deleted.
76 The advantage of a turbulent boundary layer over a laminar boundary layer is:
a. decreases energy
b. thinner
c. increased skin friction
d. less tendency to separate
77 The effect of Winglets is:

a. elliptical pressure distribution increases
b. reduction in induced drag
c. decrease in stall speed
d. longitudinal static stability increases
70
78 What does parasite drag vary with?

a. Square of the speed
b. CLmax
c. Speed
d. Surface area
79 What effect does aspect ratio have on induced drag?

a. Increased aspect ratio increases induced drag
b. Increased aspect ratio reduces induced drag
c. Changing aspect ratio has no effect
d. Induced drag will equal 1-3 x aspect ratio/chord ratio
80 What happens to total drag when accelerating from CL MAX to maximum speed?
a. Increases
b. Increases then decreases
c. Decreases
d. Decreases then increases
81 What is interference drag?

a. Airflow retardation over the aircraft structure due to surface irregularities
b. Drag caused by high total pressure at the leading edges when compared to the lower
pressure present at the trailing edge
c. Drag caused by the generation of lift
d. Drag due to the interaction of individual boundary layers at the junction of aircraft major
components
82 What is the cause of induced angle of attack?

a. Downwash from trailing edge in the vicinity of the wing tips
b. Change in flow from effective angle of attack
c. The upward inclination of the free stream flow around the wing tips
d. Wing downwash altering the angle at which the airflow meets the tailplane
83 What is the ratio of CDi ?

a. (CL) squared to S
b. (CL) squared to AR
c. 1/2 rho V squared
d. 1/2 rho V squared S
84 What phenomena causes induced drag?

a. Wing tip vortices
b. Wing tanks
c. The increased pressure at the leading edge
d. The spanwise flow, inward below the wing and outward above
85 When compared to a laminar boundary layer:

a. a turbulent boundary layer has more kinetic energy
b. a turbulent boundary layer is thinner
c. less skin friction is generated by a turbulent layer
d. a turbulent boundary layer is more likely to separate
86 When considering the aerodynamic forces acting on an aerofoil section:

a. lift and drag increase linearly with an increase in angle of attack
b. lift and drag act normal to each other only at one angle of attack
c. lift and drag increase exponentially with an increase in angle of attack
d. lift increases linearly and drag increases exponentially with an increase in angle of attack
71
87 When considering the properties of a laminar and turbulent boundary layer, which of the following
a. Friction drag is the same
b. Friction drag higher in laminar Friction
c. drag higher in turbulent
d. Separation point is most forward with a turbulent layer
88 When the undercarriage is lowered in flight:

a. form drag will increase and the aircraft's nose down pitching moment will be unchanged
b. induced drag will increase and the aircraft's nose down pitching moment will increase
c. form drag will increase and the aircraft's nose down pitching moment will increase
d. induced drag will decrease and the aircraft's nose down pitching moment will increase
89 Which of the following decreases induced drag?

a. Wing fences
b. Anhedral
c. Winglets
d. Low aspect ratio plan form
90 Which of the following is a characteristic of laminar flow boundary layer?

a. Constant velocity
b. Constant temperature
c. No flow normal to the surface
d. No vortices
91 Which of the following is the correct formula for drag?
a. 1/2 rho V squared CL S

b. 1/2 rho V (CL)squared S
c. 1/2 rho V squared AR CD S
d. 1/2 rho V squaredCD S
92 Which statement about induced drag and tip vortices is correct?

a. Vortex generators diminish tip vortices
b. Flow on upper and lower wing surfaces is towards the tip
c. They both decrease at high angle of attack
d. On the upper surface there is a component of flow towards the root, whilst on the lower
surface it is towards the tip
93. Deleted.
94 A jet aircraft flying at high altitude encounters severe turbulence without encountering high speed
buffet. If the aircraft decelerates, what type of stall could occur first?
a. Low speed stall
b. Accelerated stall
c. Deep stall
d. Shock stall
95 A swept wing aircraft stalls and the wake contacts the horizontal tail. What would be the stall
behaviour?
a. nose down
b. nose up and/or elevator ineffectiveness
c. tendency to increase speed after stall
d. nose up
72
96. Deleted.
97 An aircraft at low subsonic speed will never stall:

a. as long as the CAS is kept above the power-on stall speed
b. as long as the IAS is kept above the power-on stall speed
c. as long as the maximum angle of attack is not exceeded
d. as long as the pitch angle is negative
98 At high angle of attack, where does airflow separation begin?

a. Upper surface, towards the leading edge
b. Lower surface, towards the trailing edge
c. Upper surface, towards the trailing edge
d. Lower surface, towards the leading edge
99 At the point of stall:

a. lift decreases, drag decreases
b. lift constant, drag increases
c. lift decreases, drag increases
d. lift decreases, drag constant
100 During erect spin recovery the correct recovery actions are:
a. control stick pulled aft
b. ailerons held neutral
c. control stick sideways against bank
d. control stick sideways towards bank
101 Force on the tail and its effect on VS due to CG movement:

a. if rearward movement of the CG gives a reduced down-force on the tail, VS will be
higher
b. if forward movement of the CG gives a reduced down-force on the tail, VS will be higher
c. if rearward movement of the CG gives a reduced down-force on the tail, VS will be
reduced
d. if rearward movement of the CG gives an increased down-force on the tail, VS will be
reduced
102 How do vortex generators work?
a. Re-direct spanwise flow
b. Take energy from free stream and introduce it into the boundary layer
c. Reduce kinetic energy to delay separation
d. Reduce the adverse pressure gradient
103 If a jet aircraft is at 60 degrees bank angle during a constant altitude turn, the stall speed will be:
a. 1 . 60 greater
b. 1 . 19 greater
c. 1 . 41 greater
d. 2- 00 greater
104 If the stalling speed in a 15 degree bank turn is 60 kt, what would the stall speed be in a 45 degree
bank?
a. 83 kt
b. 70 kt
c. 85 kt
d. 60 kt
73
105 If the straight and level stall speed is 100 kt, what will be the stall speed in a 1.5g turn?
a. 122 kt
b. 150 kt
c. 81 kt
d. 100 kt
106 If Vs is 100 kt in straight and level flight, during a 45 bank turn Vs will be:
a. 100 kt
b. 140 kt
c. 80 kt
d. 119 kt
107 In level flight at 1.4 Vs what is the approximate bank angle at which stall will occur?
a. 44 degrees
b. 30 degrees
c. 60 degrees
d. 32 degrees
108 In recovery from a spin:

a. ailerons should be kept neutral
b. airspeed increases
c. ailerons used to stop the spin
d. rudder and ailerons used against the direction of spin rotation
109 Stall speed in a turn is proportional to:

a. Lift
b. Weight
c. the square root of the load factor
d. TAS squared
110 Stalling speed increases when:

a. recovering from a steep dive
b. the aircraft is subjected to minor altitude changes, i.e. 0 to 10,000 ft
c. the aircraft weight decreases
d. flaps are deployed
111 The angle of attack at the stall:

a. increases with forward CG
b. increases with aft CG
c. decreases with decrease in weight
d. is not affected by changes in weight
112 The CP on a swept wing aircraft will move forward due to:
a. boundary layer fences and spanwise flow
b. tip stall of the wing
c. flow separation at the root due to spanwise flow
d. change in wing angle of incidence
113 The effect of tropical rain on drag and stall speed would be to:
a. increase drag and increase stall speed
b. increase drag and decrease stall speed
c. decrease drag and increase stall speed
d. decrease drag and decrease stall speed
74
114 The IAS of a stall:

a. increases with high altitude; more flaps; slats
b. may increase with increasing altitude, especially high altitude; forward CG and icing
c. decreases with forward CG and increasing altitude
d. altitude never affects stall speed IAS
115 Vortex generators:

a. take energy from the laminar flow to induce boundary layer separation
b. use free stream flow to induce laminar flow
c. prevent spanwise flow
d. use free stream flow to increase energy in the turbulent boundary layer
116. Deleted.
117 What are the effects of tropical rain on: (i) CLMAX (ii) Drag
(i) (ii)
a. increase decrease
b. decrease increase
c. increase increase
d. decrease decrease
118 What causes a swept wing aircraft to pitch-up at the stall:

a. Negative camber at the root
b. Separated airflow at the root
c. Spanwise flow
d. Rearward movement of the CP
119 What causes deep stall in a swept back wing?

a. CP moves aft
b. CP moves forward
c. Root stall
d. Spanwise flow from tip to root on wing upper surface
120 What does a stick pusher do?

a. Activate at a certain angle of attack and pull the control column backwards.
b. Activate at a certain angle of attack and push the stick forward.
c. Activate at a certain IAS and vibrate the stick.
d. Activate at a certain IAS and push the stick forward.
121 What effect on stall speed do the following have?

a. Increased anhedral increases stall speed
b. Fitting a `T' tail will reduce stall speed
c. Increasing sweepback decreases stall speed
d. Decreasing sweep angle decreases stall speed
122 What happens to the stall speed with flaps down, when compared to flaps up?
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Remain the same
75
123 What influence does the CG being on the forward limit have on Vs and the stall angle?
a. Vs increases, stall angle remains constant
b. Vs increases, stall angle increases
c. Vs decreases, stall angle remains constant
d. Vs decreases, stall angle decreases
124 What is a high speed stall?

a. Separation of the airflow due to shockwave formation
b. A stall caused by increasing the load factor (g) during a manoeuvre A stall due to
c. decreasing CLmax at speeds above M0.4
d. Excessive dynamic pressure causing airflow separation
125 What is load factor?

a. 1 / Bank Angle
b. Weight / Lift
c. Lift / Weight
d. Weight / Wing area
126 What is the percentage increase in stall speed in a 45 bank turn?

a. 45%
b. 41%
c. 19%
d. 10%
127 What is the standard stall recovery for a light aircraft?

a. Pitch down, stick neutral roll, correct for bank with rudder
b. Pitch down, stick neutral roll, correct for bank with aileron
c. Pitch down, stick neutral, wait for neutral tendency
d. Pitch down, stick neutral roll, do not correct for bank
128 What percentage increase in lift is required to maintain altitude while in a 45 degree bank turn?
a. 19%
b. 41%
c. 50%
d. 10%
129 When an aircraft wing stalls:

a. A swept back wing will stall from the root and the CP will move aft
b. A non-swept rectangular wing will stall from the root and the CP will move forwards
c. A non-swept rectangular wing will tend to stall from the tip and the CP will move
backwards
d. A swept back wing will stall from the tip and the CP will move forward
130 When entering a stall, the CP of a straight rectangular wing (i) and a strongly swept wing (ii) will:
(i) (ii)
a. move aft move forward
b. move aft move aft
c. move aft not move
d. not move not move
131 Which is the most critical phase regarding ice on a wing leading edge?
a. During the take off run
b. The last part of rotation
c. Climb with all engines operating
d. All phases are equally important
76
132 Which kind of stall occurs at the lowest angle of attack?

a. Deep stall.
b. Accelerated stall.
c. Low speed stall.
d. Shock stall.
133 Which of the following aircraft designs would be most prone to super stall?
a. `T' tail
b. swept forward wing
c. swept back wing
d. pod mounted engines beneath the wing
134 Which of the following combination of characteristics would be most likely make an aircraft
susceptible to deep stall?
a. Swept wing and wing mounted engines
b. Swept wing and `T' tail
c. Straight wing and wing mounted engines
d. Straight wing and `T' tail
135 Which of the following is the correct designation of stall speed in the landing configuration?
a. Vslg
b. Vsl
c. Vso
d. VsL
136 Which of the following is the most important result/problem caused by ice formation?
a. Increased drag
b. Increased weight
c. Blockage of the controls
d. Reduction in CLmax
137 Which of the following is the speed that would activate the stick shaker?
a. 1.5 VS
b. 1.15 VS
c. 1.2 VS
d. Above VS
138 Which of the following is used to activate a stall warning device?

a. Movement of the CP
b. Movement of the CG
c. Movement of the stagnation point
d. A reduction in dynamic pressure
139 Which of the following would indicate an impending stall?

a. Stall strip and stick shaker
b. Stall strip and angle of attack indicator
c. Airspeed indicator and stick shaker
d. Stick shaker and angle of attack indicator
140 Which stall has the greatest angle of attack?

a. Low speed stall
b. High speed stall (shock stall)
c. Deep stall
d. Accelerated stall
77
141 With a swept wing the nose up phenomena is caused by:

a. deploying lift augmentation devices
b. wing fences
c. wing sweep prevents the nose up phenomena
d. tip stall
142 When flying straight and level in lg flight, slightly below max' all up weight, a basic stall warning
system (flapper switch) activates at 75 kt IAS and the aircraft stalls at 68 kt IAS. Under the same
conditions at maximum all up weight the margin between stall warning and stall will:
a. increase because increasing weight increases the 1 g stall speed.

b. decrease because the l g stall speed is an IAS.
c. decrease because increasing weight increases the lg stall speed.
d. remain the same because increased weight increases the IAS that corresponds to a
particular angle of attack.
143 A slat on an aerofoil:

a. increases the energy of the boundary layer and decreases the critical angle of attack
b. increases the wing leading edge radius by rotating forward and down from its stowed
position on the bottom side of the wing leading edge
c. deploys automatically under the influence of increased stagnation pressure at high angles
of attack / low IAS
d. increases the energy of the boundary layer and increases the maximum angle of attack
144 After takeoff why are the slats (if installed) always retracted later than the trailing edge flaps?
a. Because VMCA with slats extended is more favourable compared to the flaps extended
position.
b. Because flaps extended gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.
c. Because slats extended provides a better view from the cockpit than flaps extended.
d. Because slats extended gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.
145 An aircraft has trailing edge flap positions of 0, 15, 30 and 45 degrees plus slats can be deployed.
What will have the greatest negative influence on CL / CD?
a. Deploying slats
b. 0 - 15 flaps
c. 15 - 30 flaps
d. 30 - 45 flaps
146 Extending the flaps while maintaining a constant angle of attack (all other factors constant):
a. the aircraft will sink suddenly
b. the aircraft will yaw
c. the aircraft will climb
d. the aircraft will roll
147 For an aircraft flying straight and level at constant IAS, when flaps are deployed the induced drag:
a. increases
b. decreases
c. increases or decreases depending on the aircraft
d. stays the same
78
148 How does a plain flap increase CL?

a. Increases camber
b. Increases angle of attack
c. Changes position of CP
d. Decreases the Aspect Ratio
149 How is the pitching moment affected if flaps are deployed in straight and level flight?
a. Pitch up
b. Pitch down
c. Depends on CG position
150 If flaps are extended in level flight

a. Lift and Drag increase
b. CL max increases
c. CL and Drag increase
d. CL increases
151 If the angle of attack is maintained constant, what happens to the coefficient of lift when flaps are
deployed?
a. Increased
b. Decreased
c. Changes with the square of IAS
d. Remains constant because angle of attack remains the same
152 In order to maintain straight and level flight when trailing edge flaps are retracted, the angle of
attack must:
a. be increased or decreased depending on type of flap
b. be decreased
c. be increased
d. stay the same because the lift requirement will be the same
153 On a highly swept back wing with leading edge flaps and leading edge slats, which device would
be fitted in the following possible locations?
a. Slats inboard, leading edge flaps outboard.
b. Slats outboard, leading edge flaps inboard.
c. Alternate leading edge flaps and slats along the wing leading edge
d. There is no preferred position for these two devices
154 On a swept back wing, in which of the following locations would Krueger Flaps be fitted?
a. Inboard leading edge
b. Outboard leading edge
c. The leading edge
d. The trailing edge
155 The effects of leading edge slats:

a. increase boundary layer energy, move suction peak on to slat and increase CLMAX angle
of attack
b. increase camber, increase suction peak on main wing, increase effective angle of attack
and move CLMAX to higher angle of attack
c. increase boundary layer energy, increase suction peak on main wing section, move
CLMAX to a higher angle of attack
d. decrease boundary layer energy, move suction peak onto slat, move CLMAX to a lower
angle of attack
79
156. Deleted.
157 The maximum angle of attack for the flaps down configuration, compared to flaps up is:
a. greater
b. smaller
c. unchanged
d. smaller or greater, depending on CG position
158 What is the effect of deploying leading edge flaps?

a. Decrease CLMAX
b. Decrease the critical angle of attack
c. Not affect the critical angle of attack
d. Increase the critical angle of attack
159 What is the effect of deploying trailing edge flaps?

a. Increased minimum glide angle
b. Decreased minimum glide angle
c. Increased glide range
d. Decreased sink rate
160 What is the purpose of a slat on the leading edge?

a. decelerate the air over the top surface
b. thicken the laminar boundary layer over the top surface
c. increase the camber of the wing
d. allow greater angle of attack
161 What is true regarding deployment of Slats / Krueger flaps?

a. Slats increase the critical angle of attack, Krueger flaps do not
b. Krueger flaps increase the critical angle of attack, Slats do not
c. Krueger flaps form a slot, Slats do not
d. Slats form a slot, Krueger flaps do not
162 What must happen to the CL when flaps are deployed while maintaining a constant IAS in straight
and level flight?
a. increase then decrease
b. remain constant
c. decrease
d. increase
163 What pitching moment will be generated when Fowler flaps are deployed on an aircraft with a
high mounted ('T' tail) tailplane?
a. An aircraft nose up pitching moment
b. An aircraft nose down pitching moment
c. The nose up pitching moment will be balanced by the nose down pitching moment
d. The resultant aircraft pitching moment will depend upon the relative position of the CP
and CG
164 When trailing edge flaps are deployed:

a. a higher angle of attack is required for maximum lift.
b. glide distance is degraded.
c. CLmax decreases.
d. Vs1g increases.
80
165 Which of the following increases the stall angle?

a. Slats
b. Flaps
c. Spoilers
d. Ailerons
166 A low wing jet aircraft is flaring to land. The greatest stick force will be experienced with:
a. flaps up and CG at the aft limit.
b. flaps fully down and Cg at the aft limit.
c. flaps fully down and CG at the forward limit.
d. flaps fully up and Cg at the forward limit.
167 Positive static lateral stability is the tendency of an aeroplane to:

a. roll to the right in the case of a positive sideslip angle (aeroplane nose to the right).
b. roll to the left in the case of a positive sideslip angle (aeroplane nose to the left).
c. roll to the left in a right turn.
d. roll to the right in a right turn.
168 Positive static longitudinal stability means:

a. nose down pitching moment when encountering an up gust.
b. nose up pitching moment with a speed change at a constant angle of attack.
c. nose down pitching moment with a speed change at a constant angle of attack.
d. nose up moment when encountering an up gust.
169 The CG of an aeroplane is in a fixed position forward of the neutral point. Speed changes cause a
departure from the trimmed position. Which of the following statements about the stick force
stability is correct?
a. An increase of 10 kt from the trimmed position at low speed has more affect on the stick
force than an increase in 10 kt from the trimmed position at high speed.
b. Increase of speed generates pull forces.
c. Aeroplane nose up trim decreases the stick force stability.
d. Stick force stability is not affected by trim.
170 Too much lateral static stability is undesirable because:

a. too much aileron needed in a cross-wind landing.
b. too much rudder needed in a cross-wind landing.
c. constant aileron in cruise in a cross-wind.
d. both a & b are correct
171 What is the effect of an aft shift of the CG on (i) static longitudinal stability and (ii) the required
control deflection for a given pitch change?
(i) (ii)
a. reduces, increases.
b. increases, increases.
c. increases, reduces.
d. reduces, reduces.
172 Which statement is correct?

a. The stick force per 'g' increases when the CG is moved aft.
b. The stick force per 'g' must have both upper and lower limits in order to assure acceptable
control characteristics.
c. If the slope of the fe-n line becomes negative, generally speaking this is not a problem for
control of an aeroplane.
d. The stick force per'g' can only be corrected by means of electronic devices (stability
augmentation) in the case of an unacceptable value.
81
173 What is pitch angle?

a. The angle between the chord line and the horizontal plane.
b. The angle between the longitudinal axis and the horizontal plane.
c. The angle between the chord line and the longitudinal axis.
d. The angle between the relative airflow and the longitudinal axis.
174 An aircraft of 50 tonnes mass, with two engines each of 60,000 Pound Thrust and with an L/D
ratio of 12:1 is in a straight steady climb. Taking 'g' to be 10 m/s/s, what is the climb gradient?
a. 12%
b. 24%
c. 15.7%
d. 3.7%
175 In a straight steady descent:

a. Lift is less than weight, load factor is equal to one
b. Lift is less than weight, load factor is less than one
c. Lift is equal to weight, load factor is equal to one
d. Lift is equal to weight, load factor is less than one
176 Two aircraft of the same weight and under identical atmospheric conditions are flying level 20
degree bank turns. Aircraft 'A' is at 130 kt, aircraft 'B' is at 200 kt.
a. The turn radius of'A' will be greater than 'B'.

b. The coefficient of lift of'A' will be less than 'B'.
c. The load factor of 'A' is greater than '13'.
d. Rate of turn of 'A' is greater than 'B'.
177 VMCL can be limited by: (i) engine failure during takeoff, (ii) maximum rudder deflection.
a. Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect.

c. (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.
d. Both (i) and (ii) are correct.
178 Assuming ISA conditions, which statement with respect to the climb is correct?
a. At constant TAS the Mach number decreases.
b. At constant Mach number the IAS increases.
c. At constant IAS the TAS decreases.
d. At constant IAS the Mach number increases.
179 The regime of flight from the critical Mach number (Mcrit) to approximately M 1.3 is called?
a. Transonic.
b. Hypersonic.
c. Subsonic.
d. Supersonic.
180 The speed range between high and low speed buffet:
a. decreases during a descent at a constant Mach number.
b. is always positive at Mach numbers below MMO.
c. increases during a descent at a constant IAS.
d. increases during climb.
181 When does the bow wave first appear?
a. At Mcrit.
b. At Mach 1.
c. Just above Mach 1.
d. Just below Mach 1,
82
182 What can happen to the aeroplane structure flying at a speed just exceeding VA?
a. It may suffer permanent deformation if the elevator is fully deflected upwards.
b. It may break if the elevator is fully deflected upwards.
c. It may suffer permanent deformation because the flight is performed at to large a
dynamic pressure.
d. It will collapse if a turn is made.
183 Which of the following can effect VA?

a. Mass and pressure altitude.
b. Mass only.
c. Pressure altitude only.
d. It remains a constant IAS.
184 With a vertical gust, what is the point called where the change in the vertical component of lift
acts?
a. Neutral point.
b. Aerodynamic Centre.
c. Centre of Gravity.
d. Centre of Thrust.
185 A single engine aircraft with a constant speed propeller is in a gliding descent with the engine
idling, what would be the effect of decreasing the propeller pitch?
a. Increased L/Dmax, increased rate of descent.
b. Decreased L/Dmax, increased rate of descent.
c. Increased L/Dmax, decreased rate of descent.
d. Decreased L/Dmax, decreased rate of descent.
186 The advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller is:
a. higher maximum thrust available
b. higher maximum efficiency
c. more blade surface area available
d. nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range
187 You are about to take-off in an aircraft with a variable pitch propeller. At brake release: (i) Blade
pitch and (ii) Propeller RPM lever:
a. (i) reduced, (ii) increase.
b. (i) reduced, (ii) decrease.
c. (i) increased, (ii) decrease.
d. (i) increased, (ii) increase.
188. Coefficient of lift depends on:

a. The cross sectional shape and angle of attack
b. Cross sectional shape and angle of incidence
c. Air speed and air density
189. The landing gears in modern aircraft are retracted into the structure to reduce:
a. Parasite drag
b. Induced drag
c. Weight
d. Speed
83
190. Lift is created on the upper surface of a wing because of

a. Low pressure
b. High speed of air and higher pressure
c. Higher speed of air and lower pressure
191. At a certain angle of attack, a greater lift-drag ratio shows that the aeroplane has
a. Greater lift
b. Greater drag
c. Greater weight
d. Greater thrust
192. For reducing the effect of wing tip vortices, the aspect ratio of the aerofoil should be
a. Increased
b. Decreased
c. Kept constant
193. During the climbing phase of an aeroplane the lift is:

a. Less than weight
b. More than the weight
c. Remains the same
d. Equal and opposite to the thrust
194. Upward deflection of Air flowing over the leading edge of an aerofoil is known as
a. Washout
b. Washin
c. Upwash
d. Downwash
195. At low speed and high angle of attack:

a. Increases parasite drag
b. Increases induced drag
c. Increases interference drag
d. Decreases form drag
196. When air passes through a convex corner:

a. Supersonic flow produces expansion wave
b. Subsonic flow creates turbulence
c. Subsonic flow creates expansion wave
d. Both (a) and (b) are correct
197. One of the following devices is used to divert the spanwise flow of air to chordwise over the top
surface of an aerofoil:
a. Vertex generator
b. Wing fences
c. Trailing edge flaps
d. both b & c are correct
198. When supersonic air flow through a venture reaches the restriction:
a. Pressure decreases
b. Velocity increases
c. Density increases
d. Density decreases
84
199. Descending with zero thrust is called

a. Diving
b. Gliding
c. Climbing
200. The Lift to Drag ratio is higher at an angle of attack within

a. 1 -2
b. 2 -4
c. 2 -8
d. 10 - 15
201. Downward flow of air passing out the edge of an aerofoil is known as:
a. Washout
b. Washin
c. Upwash
d. Downwash
202. During roll in the left, Left wing has

a. More lift than right wing
b. Less lift than right wing
c. Same lift that of right wing
203. With the increase in speed

a. Induced drag increases
b. Induced drag decreases
c. Total drag increases
d. Total drag decreases
204. When subsonic air passes through a concave corner:

a. Velocity increases and pressure decreases
b. Velocity decreases and pressure increases
c. Velocity and pressure decreases
d. Velocity and pressure increases
85
Supp lementar y Questio ns
1 What is the SI unit which results from multiplying kg and m/s squared?
a. Newton
b. Psi
c. Joule
d. Watt
2 TAS is:
a. higher than speed of the undisturbed airstream around the aircraft
b. lower than speed of the undisturbed airstream around the aircraft
c. lower than IAS at ISA altitudes below sea level
d. equal to IAS, multiplied by air density at sea level
3 Which of the following statements about a venturi in a subsonic air flow is correct?
(i) The dynamic pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are equal.
(ii) The total pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are equal.
a. (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.

b. (1) is incorrect and (ii) is correct.
c. (1) and (ii) are correct.
d. (i) and (ii) are incorrect.
4 The angle between the aeroplane longitudinal axis and the chord line is:
a. angle of incidence.
b. glide path angle.
c. angle of attack.
d. climb path angle.
5 What is the MAC of a wing?

a. Area of wing divided by the span
b. The same as the mean chord of a rectangular wing of the same span
c. The mean chord of the whole aeroplane
d. The 25% chord of a swept wing
6 With flaps deployed, at a constant IAS in straight and level flight, the magnitude of tip vortices:
a. increases or decreases depending upon the initial angle of attack
b. increases
c. decreases
d. remains the same
7 Which of the following is a characteristic of laminar flow boundary layer?

a. Constant velocity
b. Constant temperature
c. No flow normal to the surface
d. No vortices
8 Which of the following is the correct formula for drag?

a. % rho V squared CL S
b. 1/2 rho V (CL)squared S
c. 1/2 rho V squared AR CD S
d. 1/2 rho V squared CD S
86
9 Vs is 100 kt at n = 1, what will the stall speed be at n = 2?

a. 200 kt
b. 119 kt
c. 141 kt
d. 100 kt
10 When flying straight and level in lg flight, slightly below max' all up weight, a basic stall warning
system (flapper switch) activates at 75 kt IAS and the aircraft stalls at 68 kt IAS. Under the same
conditions at maximum all up weight the margin between stall warning and stall will:
a. increase because increasing weight increases the lg stall speed.
b. decrease because the 1 g stall speed is an IAS.
c. decrease because increasing weight increases the 1 g stall speed.
d. remain the same because increased weight increases the IAS that corresponds to a
particular angle of attack.
11 After takeoff why are the slats (if installed) always retracted later than the trailing edge flaps?
a. Because VMCA with slats extended is more favourable compared to the flaps extended
position.
b. Because flaps extended gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.
c. Because slats extended provides a better view from the cockpit than flaps
extended.
d. Because slats extended gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.
12. What must happen to the CL when flaps are deployed while maintaining a constant IAS in straight
and level flight?
a. increase then decrease
b. remain constant
c. decrease
d. increase
13 If an aircraft is longitudinally statically unstable, at the same time it will be:

a. dynamically unstable
b. dynamically neutral
c. dynamically stable
d. dynamically positively stable
14 Positive static lateral stability is the tendency of an aeroplane to:

a. roll to the right in the case of a positive sideslip angle (aeroplane nose to the
b. roll to the left in the case of a positive sideslip angle (aeroplane nose to the left).
c. roll to the left in a right turn.
d. roll to the right in a right turn.
15 To provide the required manoeuvre stability an aircraft in straight and level flight (n = 1) requires
a stick force of 150 lb/g. If n = 2.5 what is the increase in stick force required?
a. 225 lb
b. 375 lb
c. 150 lb
d. No increase
16 What effect does a positive swept wing have on static directional stability?
a. Destabilising dihedral effect
b. Stabilising
c. Negative dihedral effect
d. No effect
87
17 What type of wing arrangement decreases static lateral stability?

a. Anhedral
b. Dihedral
c. High wing
d. Large wingspan
18 When considering the relationship between lateral static stability and directional stability:
a. dominant lateral static stability gives an increased tendency for dutch roll
b. dominant lateral static stability gives an increased tendency for spiral instability
c. dominant directional static stability gives an increased tendency for dutch roll
d. no effect because they are mutually independent
19 Which statement is correct?

a. The stick force per'g' increases when the CG is moved aft.
b. The stick force per 'g' must have both upper and lower limits in order to assure acceptable
control characteristics.
c. If the slope of the fe-n line becomes negative, generally speaking this is not a problem for
control of an aeroplane.
d. The stick force per'g' can only be corrected by means of electronic devices (stability
augmentation) in the case of an unacceptable value.
20 At cruising speed an aircraft fitted with spoilers, inboard ailerons and outboard ailerons will use
which of the following combinations?
a. Inboard ailerons and spoilers.
b. Inboard and outboard ailerons.
c. Outboard ailerons only.
d. Spoilers and outboard ailerons.
21 How does the exterior view of an aircraft change when trim is adjusted to maintain straight and
level flight with speed decrease?
a. No change
b. Elevator up, trim tab down
c. Elevator down, trim tab up
d. Elevator changes due to horizontal stabiliser changing
22 What is pitch angle?

a. The angle between the chord line and the horizontal plane.
b. The angle between the longitudinal axis and the horizontal plane.
c. The angle between the chord line and the longitudinal axis.
d. The angle between the relative airflow and the longitudinal axis.
23 What is the location of mass balance weights?

a. Always on the hinge line, irrespective of the type of aerodynamic balance
b. On the hinge line if the control surface doe not have an inset hinge
c. On the hinge line if the control surface has an inset hinge
d. In front of the hinge line
24 Which of the following is the correct example of differential aileron deflection to initiate a left
turn?
a. Left aileron up 5 degrees, right aileron down 2 degrees
b. Right aileron up 5 degrees, left aileron down 2 degrees
c. Left aileron up 2 degrees, right aileron down 5 degrees
d. Right aileron up 2 degrees, left aileron down 5 degrees
88
25 Which statement in respect to trim settings of a stabiliser is correct?

a. With a nose heavy aeroplane, the stabiliser leading edge should be higher than for a tail
heavy aeroplane.
b. With a nose heavy aeroplane, the stabiliser leading edge should be lower than for a tail
heavy aeroplane.
c. With CG on the forward limit, the stabiliser should be fully adjusted nose down to obtain
maximum elevator deflection at rotation during take-off.
d. Since typical take-off speeds are independent of CG position, stabiliser settings are
dependent only on flap setting.
26 Why does a transport aircraft with powered controls use a horizontal stabiliser trim?
a. Pilot input is not subject to aerodynamic control forces
b. Trim tabs are not effective enough
c. Overly complex mechanism
d. Trim tabs would increased Mcrit
27 An aircraft of 50 tonnes mass, with two engines each of 60,000Pound Thrust and with an L/D ratio
of 12:1 is in a straight steady climb. Taking 'g' to be 10 m/s/s, what is the climb gradient?
a. 12%
b. 24%
c. 15.7%
d. 3.7%
28 If lift in straight and level flight is 50,000 N, the lift of an aircraft in a constant altitude 45 degree
bank would increase to?
a. 50,000 N
b. 60,000 N
c. 70,000 N
d. 80,000 N
29 In a straight steady descent:

a. Lift is less than weight, load factor is equal to one
b. Lift is less than weight, load factor is less than one
c. Lift is equal to weight, load factor is equal to one
d. Lift is equal to weight, load factor is less than one
30 Two aircraft of the same weight and under identical atmospheric conditions are flying level 20
degree bank turns. Aircraft 'A' is at 130 kt, aircraft 'B' is at 200 kt.
a. The turn radius of 'A' will be greater than'B'.
b. The coefficient of lift of 'A' will be less than 'B'.
c. The load factor of 'A' is greater than 'B'.
d. Rate of turn of 'A' is greater than 'B'.
31 VMCL can be limited by:

(i) engine failure during takeoff,
(ii) maximum rudder deflection.
a. Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect.

c. (1) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.
d. Both (i) and (ii) are correct.
89
32 As Mach number increases at transonic speed, tuck under is caused by the CP moving (i) and
downwash at the tail (ii):
(i) (ii)
a. aft, increasing
b. aft, decreasing
c. fwd, increasing
d. fwd, decreasing
33 The regime of flight from the critical Mach number (Mcrit) to approximately M 1.3 is called?
a. Transonic.
b. Hypersonic.
c. Subsonic.
d. Supersonic.
34 The speed range between high and low speed buffet:

a. decreases during a descent at a constant Mach number.
b. is always positive at Mach numbers below MMO.
c. increases during a descent at a constant IAS.
d. increases during climb.
35 What happens to the local speed of sound of air passing through an expansion wave'?
a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Remain the same.
d. Decrease up to a certain Mach number and then increase.
36. What happens to the Mach number of the airflow as it passes through an expansion wave?
a. Increase
b. Constant
c. Decrease
d. Decreases then above a certain Mach number it will increase
37 Which of the following is required so the flight crew can determine the effects of compressibility?
a. TAS
b. TAS
c. Mach number
d. EAS
38 An aircraft is descending at a constant Mach number, which of the following operational speed
limitations may be exceeded?
a. VMO
b. VNE
c. MMO
d. VD
39 An aircraft is in straight and level flight has a CL of 0.42 and a 1 degree increase in angle of attack
would increase the CL by 0.1. Following a gust which increases the angle of attack by 3 degrees,
what load factor would the aircraft be subject to?
a. 1.7
b. 0. 7
c. 1.4
d. 1.0
90
40 Which of the following can effect VA?

a. Mass and pressure altitude.
b. Mass only.
c. Pressure altitude only.
d. It remains a constant IAS.
idling, what would be the effect of increasing the propeller pitch?
a. Increased L/Dmax, increased rate of descent
b. Decreased L/Dmax, increased rate of descent
c. Increased L/Dmax, decreased rate of descent
d. Decreased L/Dmax, decreased rate of descent
idling, what would be the effect of decreasing the propeller pitch?
a. Increased L/Dmax, increased rate of descent.
b. Decreased L/Dmax, increased rate of descent.
c. Increased L/Dmax, decreased rate of descent.
d. Decreased L/Dmax, decreased rate of descent.
43 The advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller is:
a. higher maximum thrust available
b. higher maximum efficiency
c. more blade surface area available
d. nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range
44 With a clockwise rotating propeller (when viewed from the rear) at low forward speed, the
propeller asymmetric blade effect will cause:
a. roll to the left
b. yaw to the left
c. roll to the right
d. yaw to the right
91
Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (ATPL/FOOL)
METEOROLOGY
CHAPTER 1 – THE ATMOSPHERE
1. The international standard atmosphere assumes a lapse rate of:

a) 2°C/1000 ft
b) 1.5°C/1000 ft
c) 3°C/1000 ft
d) 1.98°C/1000 ft
2. The tropopause is:
a) The line where the temperature no longer decreases with increase of height.
b) The layer between the tropopause and the stratosphere.
c) The layer beyond which only Cl cloud occurs.
d) The line indicating clear air turbulence.
3. One of the most important characteristics of the atmosphere is:
a) Density is constant above 10 000 ft.
b) The air is a poor conductor of heat.
c) Temperature lapse rate is very frequently above 3°C per 1000 ft.
d) The air is a good conductor of heat.
4. Most of the vapour in the atmosphere is contained in the:

a) tropopause
b) stratosphere
c) troposphere
d) stratopause
5. The captain of an aircraft needs to know the height of the Tropopause because:
a) it normally represents the limit of weather
b) density starts to increase
c) there are no longer jet streams and CAT
d) it indicates the height of the thermal wind
6. The main Ozone layer is to be found in the:

a) thermosphere
b) troposphere
c) mesosphere
d) stratosphere
7. The level in the atmosphere where the air temperature ceases to fall with increase in height is known as:
a) The troposphere.
b) The Stratopause.
c) The Stratosphere.
d) The tropopause.
8. Which statement is correct when considering the lower layers of the atmosphere:
a) the majority of the weather is contained in the stratosphere and its upper boundary is the tropopause
b) the majority of the weather is contained in the troposphere and its upper boundary is the tropopause
c) the majority of the weather is contained in the tropopause and its upper boundary is the troposphere
d) the majority of the weather is contained in the troposphere and its upper boundary is the stratosphere
9. The atmosphere is a mixture of gasses of the following proportions:

a) oxygen 21% nitrogen 78% other gasses 1%
b) oxygen 21% hydrogen 78% other gasses 1%
c) nitrogen 78% argon 21 % oxygen 1
d) nitrogen 78% oxygen 21 % hydrogen 1
1
10. In the ISA the temperature is isothermal:

a) Up to 36 090 ft/11 kms
b) From 36 090 ft/11 kms to 65 617 ft/20 kms.
c) From 36 090 ft/11 kms to 104 987 ft/32 kms.
d) From 36 090 ft/11 kms to 45 090 ft/13.75 kms.
11. The International (ICAO) Standard Atmosphere assumes that the sea level atmospheric pressure is:
a) 1013.25 mbs and decreases with an increase in height
b) 1013.25 mbs and increases with an increase in height
c) 1013.25 mbs and falls to about half this value at 30000
d) 1013.25 mbs and decreases with an increase in height up to the tropopause. Above the tropopause it remains constant
12. At sea level the ISA density is stated to be:

a) 1225 grammes per cubic metre
b) 1252 grammes per cubic metre
c) 1013.2 mb (hp A)
d) 29.6 inches of mercury
13. Which of the following statements is most correct when describing ISA:
a) the MSL pressure is 1013.25 mbs and the temperature is + 15°C
b) the MSL pressure is 1013.25 mbs and the temperature is +15° C with a lapse rate of 1.98°C/1000 ft
c) the MSL pressure is 1013.25 mbs and the temperature is +15° C with a lapse rate of 1.98°C/1000ft up to 36090 ft
above which there is frequently an 'inversion
d) the MSL pressure is 1013.25 mbs and the temperature is +15° C with a lapse rate of 1.98°C/1000 ft up to 36090 ft
14. The following is true for the International Standard Atmosphere:

a) at mean sea level the following conditions prevail: temperature +15° C, pressure 1013.25 hpa, density 1125 gm/m
b) within the troposphere the temperature decreases by 6.5° C per km
c) the tropopause is at a height of 36090 AGL
d) the temperature at the tropopause is 226.5°K
15. Pressure will with increase of height and in the ISA pressure will be at 10 000 ft and at 30 000 ft:
a) Increase 800 mb 400 mb
b) Decrease 700 mb 300 mb
c) Increase 200 mb 800 mb
d) Decrease 500 mb 200
2
CHAPTER 2 – PRESSURE
Pressure Questions
1. The barometric Pressure at the airfield datum point is known as:
a) QNE
b) QNH
c) QFE
d) Standard Pressure
2. The instrument that gives a continuous printed reading and record of the atmospheric pressure is:
a) barometer
b) hygrometer
c) anemograph
d) barograph
3. The pressure of the atmosphere:

a) decreases at an increasing rate as height increases
b) decreases at a constant rate as height increases
c) decreases at a decreasing rate as height increases
d) decreases at a constant rate up to the tropopause and then remains constant
4. When considering the actual tropopause which statement is correct:

a) it is low over the poles and high over the equator
b) it is high over the poles and low over the equator
c) it is the same height of 36090 ft all over the world
d) It is at a constant altitude of 26000'
5. Atmospheric pressure may be defined as:

a) the weight of the atmosphere exerted on any surface with which it is in contact
b) the weight of the atmosphere at standard sea level
c) the force per unit area exerted by the atmosphere on any surface with which it is in contact
d) a pressure exerted by the atmosphere of 1013.2 mbs
6. The QFF is the atmospheric pressure:

a) at the place where the reading is taken
b) corrected for temperature difference from standard and adjusted to MSL assuming standard atmospheric conditions
exist
c) at a place where the reading is taken corrected to MSL taking into account the prevailing temperature conditions
d) as measured by a barometer at the aerodrome reference point.
7. With 1013.25 mb set on the altimeter sub scale with an aircraft stationary on the airfield the altimeter will read:
a) QNE
b) QNH
c) QFE
d) QFF
8. The aircraft altimeter will read zero at aerodrome level with which pressure setting set on the altimeter sub scale:
a) QFF
b) QNH
c) QNE
d) QFE
9. You are passed an altimeter setting of `29.53'. You would then set your altimeter subscale to:
a) QFF
b) 1013
c) 1000
d) QFE
10. The aerodrome QFE is:
a) the reading on the altimeter on an aerodrome when the aerodrome barometric pressure is set on the sub scale
b) the reading on the altimeter on touchdown at an aerodrome when 1013.2 is set on the sub scale
c) the reading on the altimeter on an aerodrome when the sea level barometric pressure is set on the sub scale
d) the aerodrome barometric pressure.
3
11. When an altimeter sub scale is set to the aerodrome QFE, the altimeter reads:
a) the elevation of the aerodrome at the aerodrome reference point
b) zero at the aerodrome reference point
c) the pressure altitude at the aerodrome reference point
d) the appropriate altitude of the aircraft
12. The aerodrome QNH is the aerodrome barometric pressure:

a) corrected to mean sea level assuming standard atmospheric conditions exist
b) corrected to mean sea level, assuming isothermal conditions exist
c) corrected for temperature and adjusted to MSL assuming standard atmosphere conditions exist
d) corrected to MSL using ambient temperature.
13. A line drawn on a chart joining places having the same barometric pressure at the same level and at the same time is
a) an isotherm
b) an isallobar
c) a contour
d) an isobar
14. An isobar on a meteorological chart joins all places having the same:
a) QFE
b) QFF
c) QNH
d) QNE
15. Pressure will------------with increase of height and will be about------------- at 10000 ft and --------- at 30000 ft.
a) Increase 800 mb 400 mb
b) Decrease 700 mb 300 mb
c) Increase 200 mb 800 mb
d) Decrease 500 mb 200 mb
16. An airfield in England is 100m above sea level, QFF is 1030hPa, temperature at the surface is -15°C. What is the value
of QNH?
a) Impossible to determine
b) Less than 1030hPa
c) Same as QFF
d) More than 1030hPa
4
CHAPTER 3 – DENSITY
1. Consider the following statements relative to Air Density and select the one which is correct:
a) Because air density increases with decrease of temperature, air density must increase with increase of height in the
International Standard Atmosphere (ISA).
b) At any given surface temperature the air density will be greater in anticyclone conditions than it will be when the
MSL pressure is lower.
c) Air density increases with increase of relative humidity.
d) The effect of change of temperature on the air density is much greater than the effect of change of atmospheric
pressure.
2. The tropopause in mid latitudes is:

a) Lower in summer with a lower temperature.
b) Lower in winter with a higher temperature.
c) Lower in summer with a higher temperature.
d) Lower in winter with a lower temperature.
3. Generally as altitude increases:

a) temperature decreases and density increases
b) temperature, pressure and density decreases
c) temperature and pressure increase and density decreases
d) temperature decreases and pressure density increases
4. In the troposphere:
a) over cold air, the pressure is higher at upper levels than at similar levels over warm air
b) over cold air, the pressure is lower at upper levels than at similar levels over warm air
c) over warm air, the pressure is lower at upper levels than at similar levels over warm air
d) the upper level pressure depends solely on the relative humidity below
5. Density at the surface will be low when:

a) Pressure is high and temperature is high.
b) Pressure is high and temperature is low.
c) Pressure is low and temperature is low.
d) Pressure is low and temperature is high.
5
CHAPTER 5 – PRESSURE SYSTEMS
1. A trough of low pressure is generally associated with:

a) convergence causing increased cloud and precipitation
b) divergence causing increased cloud and precipitation
c) subsidence causing increased cloud and precipitation
d) subsidence causing decreased cloud and precipitation
2. A ridge of high pressure is generally associated with:

a) convergence causing increased cloud and precipitation
b) divergence causing increased cloud and precipitation
c) divergence causing cloud to break up and more precipitation
d) divergence and subsidence causing clear skies and good weather
3. A small low established within the circulation of another low is called

a) a trough b) a col _ c) an anticyclone d) a secondary depression
4. An area of indeterminate pressure between two lows and two highs is called:
a) a trough
b) a ridge
c) a col
d) a saddle
5. A trough of low pressure is:

a) a small low established within the circulation of another low
b) an extension or elongation of a low pressure system along an axis on each side of which pressure increases
c) a centre of pressure surrounded on all sides by higher pressure
d) an area where the pressure is lower than anywhere else in the area
6. If in the southern hemisphere an aircraft in flight at 2000 ft is experiencing starboard drift, the aircraft is flying towards:
a) an area of high pressure
b) an area of low pressure
c) a warm front
d) a depression
7. In the Southern Hemisphere, the surface winds at B1; and C2 would be respectively:
a) clockwise across the isobars away from the centre: and anti-clockwise across the isobars towards the centre.
b) Anti-clockwise across the isobars towards the centre: and clockwise across the isobars away from the centre.
c) Anti-clockwise across the isobars away from the centre: and clockwise across the isobars towards the centre.
d) Clockwise across the isobars towards the centre: and Anti-clockwise across the isobars away from the centre.
6
8. Subsidence in an anticyclone produces:

a) saturated air and an inversion
b) dry air and an inversion
c) isothermal dry and stable air
d) increased pressure at the surface
9. With an anticyclone over the UK the expected weather is:

a) Thunderstorms in summer, fog in winter.
b) Stratus in summer with drizzle, CU and snow in winter.
c) Clear skies or fair weather CU in summer, fog in winter
d) Clear skies in summer with haze, cold frontal weather in winter.
10. The pressure systems at A2; B1; 132; 133; and C2 are respectively:
a) Depression; Anticyclone; Col; Ridge; and Trough.
b) Ridge; Anticyclone; Col; Trough; and Depression.
c) Trough; Depression; Col; Ridge; and Anticyclone.
d) Ridge; Depression; Col; Trough; and Anticyclone.
11. Two important weather factors at B2 will be:

a) Frontal weather in winter, fog in summer.
b) Clear conditions in summer, thunderstorms in winter.
c) Thunderstorms in summer, fog in winter.
d) Fog in summer, thunderstorms in winter.
7
12. Haze in summer and radiation fog in winter can be expected at:
a) C2
b) B3
c) BI
d) B2
13. In the non-frontal pressure system at B3, the expected weather

a) ST SC with drizzle or light precipitation.
b) Clear skies with moderate winds.
c) CU CB with showers.
d) Light winds and haze with an inversion.
8
CHAPTER 6 – ALTIMETRY
1. An aircraft is flying at 3000 feet indicated with the altimeter sub scale set to 1020 mb towards a mountain range with an
elevation of 1600 feet. If during the flight the QNH in the area falls to 989 mb and the altimeter sub scale is not reset, the
expected clearance over the mountain range will be: (assume 27 feet = 1 mb)
a) 1400 ft
b) 470 ft
c) 930 ft
d) 563 ft
2. When flying towards a depression at a constant indicated altitude, the true altitude will be:
a) Lower than indicated.
b) Higher than indicated.
c) The same as indicated.
d) Lower than indicated at first then the same as indicated later.
3. The name given to the lowest forecast mean sea level pressure in an area is:
a) QFE
b) Regional QNH
c) QFF
d) QNE
4. The Altimeter will always read

a) With 1013 set the altitude above MSL
b) With airfield QNH set the height above the airfield datum
c) The vertical distance above the pressure level set
d) the correct flight level with regional QFE set.
5. An aircraft at airfield P elevation 270 ft has the airfield QNH 1012 mbs correctly set. The altimeter setting is not
changed. Later on landing at airfield Q elevation 450 ft the aircraft altimeter reads 531 ft. What is the correct QNH at
airfield Q? (Assume 27 ft = 1 mb)
a) 1014.7 mbs
b) 1009.3 mbs
c) 1015 mbs
d) 1009 mbs
6. The altimeter subscale is set to 1030 mbs and the altimeter reads 4500'. QNH is 996 mbs. What is the altitude of the
aircraft ? (Assume 1 mb = 27')
a) 3480'
b) 3990'
c) 5418'
d) 3582'
7. An aircraft flies level with a mountain peak shown on a chart as 8000'ft above MSL. If the temperature of the air is ISA
+ 2, what will be indicated on the pressure altimeter?
a) 8064ft
b) 7936ft
c) 8000ft
d) 7968ft
8. An aircraft, flying at FL 100 at a constant RAS, flies from an area of warm air into an area of
cold air. The QNH is unchanged. How has the aircraft altitude and TAS changed? Altitude TAS
a) decreased increased
b) Increased increased
c) decreased decreased
d) Increased decreased
9. On a flight from Capetown (QNH 1005 hPa) to Dakar (QNH 1018 hPa) at FL 240 you notice a decrease in true altitude.
Why might this be the reason?
a) it is warmer in Dakar than in Capetown
b) it is colder in Capetown than in Dakar
c) the static vent is blocked
d) it is colder in Dakar than in Capetown
9
10. QNH at Johannesburg is 1025 hPa, elevation is 1600m amsl. What is the QFE. (Assume I mb = 8m)
a) 1000.8 hPa
b) 830.6 hPa
c) 1002 hPa
d) 825 hPa
11. When flying from Paris (QNH 1012) to London (QNH 1015) at FL 100. You neglect to reset your altimeter but why
does your true altitude remain the same throughout the flight.
a) Paris has a higher pressure than London
b) The air at London is warmer than Paris
c) London is at a lower altitude than Paris
d) The air at Paris is warmer than London
12. An airfield in Holland is 20m below sea level, QFF is 1020 hPa, temperature at the surface is +30°C. What is the value
of QNH.
a) Impossible to determine
b) Less than 1020 hPa
c) Same as QFF
d) More than 1020 hPa
10
CHAPTER 7 – TEMPERATURE
1. The measurement of surface temperature is made:

a) at ground level
b) at approximately 10 metres from ground level
c) at approximately 4 feet above ground level
d) at approximately 4 metres above ground level
2. The purpose of a "Stevenson Screen" is to:

a) maintain a moist atmosphere so that the wet bulb thermometer can function correctly
b) to prevent the mercury freezing in the low winter temperatures
c) protect the thermometer from wind, weather and from direct sunshine
d) keep the wet and dry bulb thermometers away from surface extremes of temperature
3. If temperature remains constant with an increase in altitude there is:

a) an inversion
b) an inversion aloft
c) uniform lapse rate
d) an isothermal layer
4. The surface of the earth is heated by:

a) convection
b) conduction
c) long wave solar radiation
d) short wave solar radiation
5. Cloud cover will reduce diurnal variation of temperature because:

a) incoming solar radiation is reflected back to space and outgoing terrestrial radiation is reflected back to earth
b) incoming solar radiation is re-radiated back to space and atmospheric heating by convection will stop at the level of
the cloud layer
c) the cloud stops the suns rays getting through to the earth and also reduces outgoing conduction
d) incoming solar radiation is reflected back to space and outgoing terrestrial radiation is re-radiated from the cloud layer
back to the surface
6. Diurnal variation of the surface temperature will:

a) be unaffected by a change of wind speed
b) decrease as wind speed increases
c) increase as wind speed increases
d) be at a minimum in calm conditions
7. Which of the following surfaces is likely to produce a higher than average diurnal variation of temperature:
a) rock or concrete
b) water
c) snow
d) vegetation
8. Most accurate temperatures above ground level are obtained by:

a) tephigram
b) aircraft reports
c) temperature probe
d) radio sonde
9. The method by which energy is transferred from one body to another by contact is called:
a) radiation b) convection
c) conduction d) latent heat
10. The diurnal variation of temperature is:

a) greater over the sea than overland
b) less over desert areas then over temperate grassland
c) reduced anywhere by the presence of cloud
d) increased anywhere as wind speed increases
11
11. The troposphere is heated largely by:

a) absorption of the sun's short wave radiation
b) radiation of heat from cloud tops and the earth's surface
c) absorption by ozone of the sun's short wave radiation
d) conduction from the surface, convection and the release of latent heat
12. An inversion is one in which:

a) there is no horizontal gradient of temperature
b) there is no change of temperature with height
c) there is an increase of temperature as height increases
d) there is a decrease of temperature as height increases
13. The sun gives out _____ amount of energy with_____ wavelengths.
The earth gives out relatively_____ amounts of energy with relatively______ wavelengths:
a) Large, large, small, small.
b) Small, small, large, large.
c) Large, large, small, large.
d) Large, small, small, large.
14. With a clear night sky, the temperature change with height by early morning is most likely to show:
a) A steady lapse rate averaging 2°C per 1000 ft.
b) A stable lapse rate of 1 °C per 1000 ft.
c) An inversion above the surface with an isothermal layer above.
d) An inversion from near the surface and a 2°C per 1000 ft lapse rate above.
15. Over continents and oceans, the relative temperature conditions are:
a) Warmer in winter over land, colder in summer over sea.
b) Colder in winter over land, warmer in winter over sea.
c) Cold in winter over land and sea.
d) Warmer in summer over land and sea.
12
CHAPTER 8 – HUMIDITY
1. Throughout the 24 hrs of a day the Relative Humidity can be expected to:
a) Increase during the day and decrease at night.
b) Stay reasonably constant throughout the 24 hours.
c) Reduce during the day and increase at night.
d) Only change with a change of airmass.
2. During a night with a clear sky, surface temperature will

RH will and Dewpoint will
a) Fall, Rise, Rise.
b) Rise, Rise, Fall.
c) Fall, Rise, Remain the same.
d) Fall, Fall, Remain the same
3. A change of state directly from a solid to a vapour or vice versa is:

a) insolation
b) condensation
c) evaporation
d) sublimation
4. The instrument used for measuring the humidity of air is a:

a) hydrometer
b) hygrometer
c) wet bulb thermometer
d) hygroscope
5. The process of change of state from a gas to a liquid is:

a) evaporation in which latent heat is absorbed
b) evaporation in which latent heat is released
c) condensation in which latent heat is absorbed
d) condensation in which latent heat is released
6. The process of change of state from a liquid to a gas is:

a) condensation in which latent heat is released
b) evaporation in which latent heat is released
c) condensation in which latent heat is absorbed
d) evaporation in which latent heat is absorbed
7. Air is classified as dry or saturated according to its relative humidity. If the relative humidity were 95% the air would be
classified as:
a) conditionally saturated
b) partially saturated
c) saturated
d) dry
8. On a wet bulb thermometer in an unsaturated atmosphere there will be a reduction of temperature below that of the dry
bulb thermometer because:
a) heat is absorbed during the process of condensation
b) heat is released during the process of condensation
c) heat is absorbed by the thermometer during the process of evaporation
d) heat is released from the thermometer during the process of evaporation
9. Relative humidity is:

a) air temperature over wet bulb temperature x 100
b) air temperature over dew point temperature x 100
c) the actual amount of water vapour in a sample of air over the maximum amount of water vapour that the sample can
contain x 100
d) the maximum amount of water vapour that a sample of air can contain over the actual amount of water vapour the
sample does contain x 100
13
10. Absolute humidity is:

a) the number of water droplets in a given quantity of air
b) the amount of water vapour that a given quantity of air holds
c) the maximum amount of water vapour that a given quantity of air can hold
d) the maximum number of water droplets that a given quantity of air can hold
11. Wet bulb temperature would normally be lower than the dry bulb temperature because:
a) condensation causes a release of latent heat
b) evaporation causes cooling
c) latent heat is absorbed by the bulb thermometer
d) of condensation on the muslin wick of the bulb
12. The wet bulb temperature:

a) is measured using a hydrometer
b) is the minimum temperature to which a thermometer bulb can be cooled by the evaporation of water
c) measures the dew point of the air
d) is the minimum temperature reached by the surface of the earth as measured by a thermometer placed 1.2 metres
above the ground
13. Which one of the following statements relating to atmospheric humidity is correct:
a) If the air temperature falls then the absolute humidity must increase.
b) The absolute humidity is the mass of water vapour contained in unit volume of air.
c) The diurnal variation of dewpoint temperature is greatest when skies are clear at night.
d) The dewpoint temperature is the temperature indicated by the wet bulb thermometer.
14. When condensation takes place, the higher the temperature, the…………..the amount of latent heat………
a) lesser; released.
b) greater; absorbed.
c) greater; released.
d) lesser; absorbed.
15. When water vapour changes to ice:

a) Latent heat is absorbed.
b) Specific heat is released.
c) Latent heat is released.
d) Specific heat is absorbed.
14
CHAPTER 9 – ADIABETICS & STABILITY
1. If the ELR is 0.65°C/ 1 00m

a) Atmosphere is conditionally stable
b) Atmosphere is stable
c) Atmosphere is unstable
d) Atmosphere is stable when dry
2. ELR is PC/100m
a) Neutral when dry
b) Absolute stability
c) Absolute instability
d) Conditional stability
3. Why does air cool as it rises?

a) It expands
b) It contracts
c) The air is colder at higher latitudes
d) The air is colder at higher altitudes
4. From which of the following can the stability of the atmosphere be determined?
a) surface pressure
b) surface temperature
c) DALR
d) ELR
5. When the upper part of a layer of warm air is advected:

a) Stability increases within the layer
b) Stability decreases within the layer
c) Wind speed will always decrease with increase in height in the Northern Hemisphere
d) Wind will back with increase in height in the Northern Hemisphere
6. The temperature at the surface is 15°C, the temperature at 1000ft is 13°C. Is the atmosphere
a) Unstable
b) Conditionally unstable
c) Stable
d) Cannot tell
7. Which of the following gives conditionally unstable conditions?

a) 1°C/100m
b) 0.65°C/100m
c) 0.49°C/100m
8. A mass of unsaturated air is forced to rise till just under the condensation level. It then settles back to its original position
a) Temp. is greater than before
b) Temp. stays the same
c) Temp. is less than before
d) It depends on QFE
9. What happens to the stability of the atmosphere in an inversion? (Temp increasing with height)
a) Absolutely stable
b) Unstable
c) Conditionally stable
d) Conditionally unstable
10. What happens to stability of the atmosphere in an isothermal layer? (Temp constant with height)
b) Unstable
15
11. What is the effect of a strong low level inversion?

a) Good visibility
b) Calm conditions
c) Turbulence
d) Unstable conditions
12. A layer of air can be

a) Conditional; unstable when unsaturated and stable when saturated
b) Conditional; unstable when saturated and stable when unsaturated
c) Neutrally stable when saturated and unstable when unsaturated
d) All of the above
13. What happens to the temperature of a saturated air mass when forced to descend?
a) it heats up more than dry because of expansion
b) it heats up less than dry because of evaporation
c) it heats up more than dry because of sublimation
d) it heats up less than dry because of latent heat released during condensation
14. In still air a lapse rate of 1.2°C/I00m refers to:

a) DALR
b) SALR
c) ELR
d) ALR
15. What happens to the temperature of a saturated air mass when descending?
c) it heats up more than dry because of compression
16. The DALR is

a) Variable with time
b) Fixed
c) Variable with latitude
d) Variable with temperature
17. A parcel of air cooling by more than 1°C/100m is said to be?

a) Conditionally stable
c) Unstable
d) Stable
16
CHAPTER 10 – TURBULENCE
1. Maximum turbulence associated with the standing waves is likely to be:

a) Two wavelengths down wind and just above the surface.
b) Approximately one wavelength down wind of, and approximately level with, the top of the ridge.
c) Just below the tropopause above the ridge.
d) Down the lee side of the ridge and along the surface.
2. For the formation of mountain waves, the wind above the level of the ridge should:
a) Decrease or even reverse direction.
b) Increase initially then decrease.
c) Increase with little change in direction.
d) Increase and then reverse in direction.
3. When flying in IMC in a region close to a range of hills 2000 ft. high, in stable air and with wind direction at right angles
to the axis of the range of hills, which of the following is probably the most dangerous practice:
a) Flying towards the hills, into the wind, at flight level 65 .
b) Flying parallel to the hills on the downwind side at flight level 40.
c) Flying towards the hills downwind at flight level 55.
d) Flying parallel to the hills on the upwind side at flight level 40.
4. Which of the following statements referring to Jet Streams is correct:

a) CAT associated with Jet Streams is probably associated with the rapid wind shear in the vicinity of the jet.
b) The maximum windspeed in a Jet Stream increases with increase of height up to the tropopause and remains constant
thereafter.
c) The core of a Jet Stream is usually located just below the tropopause in the colder air mass.
d) The rate of change of windspeed at any given level is usually greatest on the warmer side of the jet.
5. The wind at square A3 is likely to be:

a) 35 kt
b) 50 kt
c) 25 kt
d) light
17
6. The wind at ABC 4 is likely to be:
a) 50 kt
b) 40 kt
c) 35 kt
d) a jet stream
7. Flight conditions at B 1 are likely to be:

a) Smooth
b) Turbulent
c) Turbulent in breaking wave crests
d) Turbulent due to marked up and down currents
18
8. The most extreme turbulence can occur:

a) At B 1
b) At A2
c) At ABC 4
d) At B2, 3, 4 and at C2, 3, 4
9. The significance of lenticular cloud is:

a) There may be mountain waves present and there will be severe turbulence.
b) There are mountain waves present but they may not give severe turbulence.
c) A Fohn wind can be expected with no turbulence.
d) A Katabatic wind is present which may lead to fog in the valleys.
10. A mountain range is aligned in an East/West direction. Select the conditions from the table below that will give rise to
Standing Waves:
2000 ft 5000 ft 10 000 ft
a) 020/40 020/30 020/50
b) 170/20 190/40 210/60
c) 270/15 270/20 270/40
d) 090/20 090/40 090/60
11. For standing waves to form, the wind direction must be near perpendicular to a ridge or range of mountains and the
speed must:
a) Decrease with height within a stable layer above the hill.
b) Increase with height within an unstable layer above the hill.
c) Decrease with height within an unstable layer above the hill.
d) Increase with height within a stable layer above the hill.
12. A north/south mountain range, height 10,000 ft is producing marked mountain waves. The greatest potential danger
exists for an aircraft flying:
a) on the windward side of the ridge
b) at FL 350 over and parallel to the ridge
c) towards the ridge from the lee side at FL 140
d) above a line of clouds parallel to the ridge on the lee side at FL 25
13. Clear air turbulence, in association with a polar front jet stream in the Northern Hemisphere, is more severe:
a) Underneath the jet core

b) In the centre of the jet core
c) Looking downstream on the right hand side
d) Looking downstream on the left hand side
19
14. Mountain waves can occur:

a) Up to a maximum of 5000 ft above the mountains and 50 nm to 100 nm downwind.
b) Up to mountain height only and 50 nm to 100 nm downwind.
c) Above the mountain and downwind up to a maximum height at the tropopause and 50 nm to 100 nm downwind.
d) In the stratosphere.
15. CAT should be reported whenever it is experienced. What should be reported if crew and passengers feel a definite strain
against their seat or shoulder straps, food service and walking is difficult and loose objects become dislodged:
a) Light CAT
b) Extreme CAT
c) Severe CAT
d) Moderate CAT
20
CHAPTER 11 – WINDS
1. For a constant distance between the isobars the geostrophic wind will be greatest at a latitude of
a) 45°
b) 60°
c) 35°
d) 20°
2. A cyclone and an anticyclone have the same pressure gradient and the same 2000 ft wind speed. This can only happen
when:
a) They are at identical latitudes in opposite hemispheres.
b) They are in the same hemisphere but the cyclone is at a lower latitude.
c) They are in the same hemisphere but the anticyclone is at a lower latitude.
d) The cyclone is due north of the anticyclone in the northern hemisphere.
3. During the day the surface wind in western Australia is 270/30 kt. After dusk the wind is most likely to be:
a) 255/40
b) 260/20
c) 290/20
d) 290/40
4. On a day in summer with a slack pressure gradient, an airfield on the south coast of England has a surface W/V of
080/06 at dawn. The coast/line is in an East/West direction. The most probable W/V at noon would be:
a) 360/12
b) 080/18
c) 180/18
d) 080/06
5. A gust of wind often causes a veer in the surface wind (Northern Hemisphere) because:
a) It strengthens pressure gradient force.
b) It increases coriolis force.
c) It increases centrifugal force.
d) It lifts the air above the friction layer.
6. The surface wind direction in the Northern Hemisphere is backed from the 2000 ft wind by an average of 30° over land
due to:
a) Friction reducing the wind speed, thus reducing the coriolis force, allowing the pressure gradient force to pull the wind
across the isobars towards low pressure.
b) The frictional effect at the surface, causing the surface isobars to curve more than those at 2000 ft.
c) The geostrophic wind only flowing between straight and parallel isobars with an unchanging pressure gradient with
time, whereas the surface pressure gradient changes diurnally with surface heating.
d) The effect of the centrifugal force, which is strongest at the surface due to increased curvature.
7. When a Fohn wind occurs:

a) There are unstable conditions on the downwind side of the mountain.
b) Air is cooled mainly at the DALR on the upwind side of the mountain and is heated at the SALR on the downwind
side.
c) Windspeed must be at least 15 kt at the surface increasing with height and maintaining direction.
d) Air is cooled mainly at the SALR on the upwind side of the mountain and is heated mainly at the DALR on the
downwind side.
8. The geostrophic wind blows:

a) Parallel to curved isobars.
b) When pressure values are changing rapidly.
c) In a tropical revolving storm.
d) When the coriolis force and pressure gradient force are equal.
9. A Katabatic wind can result in:

a) An increase in temperature.
b) Fog in the valley at night.
c) Thunderstorms in summer.
d) Stratus cloud.
21
10. Surface wind 1500 ft wind

250/16 275/25
The information above shows the winds at the surface and at 1500 ft for mid-day at an airfield in central England. The
2000 ft wind was 290/30.
Assuming the 2000 ft wind remains the same, the most likely combination of the surface and 1500 ft winds at midnight
is:
Surface wind 1500 ft wind

a) 250/8 260/25
b) 240/8 290/30
c) 250/10 290/30
d) 240/10 275/30
11. A strong wind that rises suddenly, last for some minutes and dies comparatively suddenly away is called:
a) a gust
b) a squall
c) a gale
d) a blast
12. The force which causes the air to flow parallel to the curved isobars is called:
a) pressure force
b) centrifugal force
c) coriolis force
d) gradient force
13. The deflection of the surface wind direction from the geostrophic is, on average:
a) over the land by night - 35 ° in cloudy conditions
b) over the land by day - 35' in cloudy conditions
c) over the sea - 30°
d) over the sea - 10°, veered in the southern hemisphere
14. A ravine or valley wind:

a) Is a wind blowing at increased speed along a valley.
b) Is a wind blowing from a hill to a valley below.
c) Is a wind blowing up a hill from a valley.
d) Is a wind blowing at reduced speed along a valley.
15. In an anticyclone at 2000 ft, in the northern hemisphere, the wind was 060/20 kt. The likely surface w/v over land is:
a) 070/15 kt
b) 050/10 kt
c) 030/10 kt
d) 030/15 kt
22
CHAPTER 12 – UPPER WINDS
1. How do you recognise high level jet streams and associated CAT?
a) High pressure centre at high level
b) Streaks of Cirrus
c) High level dust
d) Lenticularis
2. What type of jet stream blows constantly through the northern hemisphere?
a) Arctic
b) Equatorial
c) Polar night
d) Sub tropical
3. In central Europe, where are the greatest wind speeds?

a) Tropopause level
b) 5500m
c) Where the air converges
d) Above the Alps
4. The Arctic Jet core is at:

a) 20,000ft
b) 30,000ft
c) 40,000ft
d) 50,000ft
5. FL 180, Northern Hemisphere with a wind from the left, what can you say about temperature with a heading of 360°?
a) Not possible to tell without a pressure
b) Increases from South to North
c) Increases from North to South
d) Nothing
6. When heading South in the Southern Hemisphere you experience Starboard drift:
a) You are flying towards a lower temperature
b) You are flying away from a lower temperature
c) You are flying towards a low pressure
d) You are flying out of a high
7. With a polar front jet stream (PFJ), the area with the highest probability of turbulence in the Southern Hemisphere is:
a) In the jet core
b) Above the jet core in the boundary of the warm and cold air
c) Looking downstream, on your left hand side
d) Looking downstream, on your right hand side
8. Contours on a weather chart indicate:

a) Heights of pressure levels
b) Distance between pressure levels
c) Thickness between pressure levels
d) Height of ground
9. If an Isohypse on a surface pressure chart of 500hPa shows a figure of 522, this indicates
a) Topography of 522m above MSL
b) Topography of 522 decametres above MSL
c) Pressure is 522mb
d) A low surface pressure
10. The polar front jet stream in summer compared to winter in the Northern Hemisphere moves
a) North and decreases in strength
b) North and increases in strength
c) South and decreases in strength
d) South and increases in strength
23
11. A jet stream with a wind speed of 350kts is

a) Impossible
b) Possible but very rare
c) Possible in polar areas
d) Common
12. If you fly at right angles to a jet stream in Europe with a decreasing outside air temperature, you will experience
a) Increasing headwind
b) Increasing tailwind
c) Wind from the left
d) Wind from the right
13. On a particular day the Pressure Gradient Force (PGF) runs north to south in the Northern Hemisphere.
a) The temperature gradient runs north to south below the jet core
b) The temperature gradient runs north to south above the jet core
c) The polar air is east of the jet above the core
d) The polar air is below the jet to the east
14. Flying 2500 ft below core of jet, with temperature increasing in the Southern Hemisphere, where does the wind come
from?
a) Head
b) Tail
c) Left
d) Right
15. When flying from south to north in the Southern Hemisphere, you cross over the Polar Front Jet. What happens to the
temperature?
a) it increases
b) it decreases
c) it remains the same
d) impossible to determine
16. The core of a jet stream is located

a) at the level where temperature change with altitude becomes little or nil and the pressure surface is at maximum slope
b) in the warm air where the pressure surface is horizontal
c) in the warm air and directly beneath at the surface d) in cold air
17. What is the ratio of height to width in a typical jet stream?

a) 1:10
b) 1:100
c) 1:1000
d) 1:10000
18. When and where does an Easterly jet stream occur?

a) All year through the Equator
b) In summer from SE Asia through S. India to Central Africa
c) In summer from the Middle East through N. Africa and the Mediterranean to S. Spain
d) In winter in Arctic Russia
19. From the pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000 ft whilst you are at FL270. You experience moderate
C.A.T. What would be the best course of action?
a) Stay level
b) Descend
c) Climb
d) Reduce speed
20. What is most different about the Equatorial Easterly jet stream?
a) Its height
b) Its length
c) Its direction
d) Its speed
24
21. Where are easterly and westerly jets found?

a) Northern hemisphere only
b) Southern hemisphere only
c) Northern and southern hemisphere
d) There are no easterly jets
22. Wind at altitude is usually given as .......... in ..........

a) True, m/s
b) Magnetic, m/s
c) True, Kts
d) Magnetic, Kts
23. Under which of the following circumstances is the most severe CAT likely to be experienced?
a) A westerly jet stream at low altitude in the summer
b) A curved jet stream near a deep trough
c) A straight jet stream near a low pressure area
d) A jet stream where there is a large spacing between the isotherms
25
CHAPTER 13 – CLOUDS
1. The size of raindrops from a cloud is greater if:

a) Air is stable and cloud is layer type.
b) Air is unstable and cloud is heap type.
c) Cloud type is AC or NS.
d) The relative humidity is high.
2. Which piece of equipment is used to measure cloud base:

a) barograph
b) hygrometer
c) alidade
d) barometer
3. In aerodrome reports and forecasts the height of the cloud base refers to:
a) the height above mean sea level
b) the height above aerodrome elevation
c) the pressure altitude of the cloud base
d) the height above the average ground level for the area
4. Cloud types are classified under three basic family headings, these are:
a) Cirriform, Stratiform, Cumuliform
b) Stratiform, Heap, Cirriform
c) Cirrus, Cumulus and layer
d) Cumulus, Layer and Heap
5. Low cloud in temperate climates, excluding heap are those existing from:
a) the surface to 6500 ft
b) 1000 ft to 6500 ft
c) the surface to 7500 ft
d) the surface to 7500 metres
6. Lumpy or heaped white cloud is:

a) altocirrus
b) cumulus
c) cumulonimbus
d) nimbostratus
7. In temperate latitudes which statement is correct:

a) Ci only occurs above 15000 ft
b) Ci only occurs above 16500 ft
c) Ci only occurs above 25000 ft
d) Ci only occurs above 30000 ft
8. Typical base heights in temperate latitudes, of altocumulus cloud are in the range of.
a) 6500 ft to 23000 ft
b) 5000 ft to 15000 ft
c) 8500 ft to 18000 ft
d) 1000 ft to 6500 ft
9. Continuous type precipitation is expected from layer clouds because:

a) The vertical extent of the cloud is small.
b) The upcurrents are not very strong.
c) The air is stable.
d) The cloud is large in horizontal extent.
10. The expected average height ranges for low, medium and high layer clouds in temperate latitudes are:
a) Low: Surface - 10 000': Medium 10 000'- 20 000': High 20 000'- 45 000'
b) Low: Surface - 6500': Medium 6500'- 23 000' High 23 000'- 45 000'
c) Low: Surface - 8000': Medium 6500'- 16 500' High 16 500'- 45 000'
d) Low: Surface - 6500': Medium 6500'- 23 000' High 16 500'- 45 000'
26
11. The turbulence associated with cumulus cloud is:

a) Moderate.
b) Slight to nil.
c) Nil.
d) Moderate possibly severe.
12. When the met observer reports the amount of cloud present at a station, it will be given as:
a) Clear, scattered, broken or overcast
b) The amount of cloud, in tenths of the sky covered , using the term oktas
c) The amount of cloud, in quarters of the sky covered, using the term oktas
d) The amount of cloud, in eighths of the sky covered, using the term oktas.
13. On weather charts, the station circle shows the height of the cloud base:
a) above ground level
b) above mean sea level
c) at a pressure altitude
d) in metres above surface level
14. Which of the following clouds is never a hazard to aviation:

a) Nimbostratus
b) Noctilucent cloud
c) Cumulonimbus cloud
d) Stratus cloud
27
CHAPTER 14 – CLOUD FORMATION & PRECIPITATION
1. After mixing and assuming the air remains dry, the surface temperature is likely to be:
a) 11.5°C b) 16°C c) 7°C d) 10°C
2. The temperature at 5000 ft is likely to be:

a) 0°C
b) -2°C
c) +2°C
d) +3°C
3. If you observe drizzle falling, the cloud above you is most likely to be:
a) AS
b) CU
c) ST
d) NS
4. Turbulence cloud is usually a sheet of Stratus, Strato Cumulus some 2000 ft thick with a flat top because:
a) The air is usually at low temperatures containing little water vapour.
b) Turbulence steepens the lapse rate producing an inversion above the friction layer.
c) Air is not allowed to remain in contact with the surface due to the strong wind thus maintaining cool surface air with
warm air above
d) The lapse rate becomes stable in the friction layer, due to turbulent mixing.
5. Clouds formed by convection will always:

a) Be layer clouds.
b) Be CU CB or NS.
c) Have a rising cloud base and may develop into CB as the day progresses.
d) Form only in Polar maritime air.
6. With reference to anticyclones affecting the UK, which of the following statements is correct:
a) The pressure gradient is greatest towards the centre of the anticyclone.
b) Anticyclones are more common in winter than they are in summer. This is why radiation fog is much more frequent in
the winter.
c) Apart from turbulence cloud, the formation of all other cloud types is unlikely in anticyclonic conditions.
d) Warm anticyclones are those which are caused by the extreme air density associated with warmer weather.
7. The type of cloud from which continuous moderate or heavy rain is likely to fall is:
a) large cumulus
b) altostratus
c) nimbostratus
d) cumulonimbus
8. The movement of cool moist air over a warmer surface is likely to cause:
a) cumulus or cumulonimbus cloud
b) advection fog
c) nimbostratus cloud
d) alto cumulus lenticular cloud
9. Over the British Isles, a polar maritime returning airmass would have:
a) stability
b) instability
c) potential instability
d) neutral stability
10. Intensity of precipitation is described as either:

a) intermittent, continuous or showery
b) drizzle, rain or snow
c) slight, moderate or heavy
d) intermittent, moderate or heavy
28
11. The term "shower" implies that:

a) precipitation is in the form of rain and is continuous
b) precipitation is from cumulonimbus cloud and lasts for short periods
c) precipitation is intermittent and is from strato form cloud
d) precipitation is continuous for long periods from cumuloform cloud
12. Precipitation in the form of snow will not reach the surface unless the surface temperature is:
a) less than +4°C
b) less than 0 ° C
c) less than 45°F
d) less than 30°F
13. The type of precipitation in which visibility is likely to be most reduced:

a) drizzle
b) snow
c) light rain
d) sleet
14. The type of precipitation usually associated with shallow stratocumulus is:
a) Mainly water droplets which can be supercooled if the temperature is low enough.
b) Ice crystals.
c) Supercooled water droplets only.
d) Large water droplets due to the strong up-currents associated with this type of cloud
15. If there are small cumulus in the morning in summer, it is reasonable to forecast later in the day:
a) Clear skies.
b) St and drizzle.
c) CB Cloud.
d) Haze.
29
CHAPTER 15 – THUNDERSTORMS
1. The conditions which must exist to allow thunderstorms to develop are:

a) a trigger action, a plentiful supply of moisture and a very stable atmosphere
b) a steep lapse rate, a stable atmosphere through a large vertical extent and a plentiful supply of moisture
c) a plentiful supply of moisture and a steep lapse rate through a large vertical extent and a trigger action
d) a steep lapse rate through a large vertical extent, a low relative humidity and a trigger action
2. When moist air moves across France in the ............ TS activity is common in southern UK in the...........
Complete the above statement correctly using one of the following:
a) winter/morning
b) summer/late afternoon or evening
c) winter/late afternoon or evening
d) summer/morning
3. Hazards of the mature stage of a TS cell include lightning, turbulence and:

a) microburst, windshear and anvil
b) icing, microburst and windshear
c) icing, drizzle and microburst
d) windshear, hail and fog
4. On a significant weather chart the thunderstorm symbol signifies:

a) moderate turbulence and moderate icing
b) severe turbulence and severe icing
c) moderate turbulence and severe icing
d) moderate/severe turbulence and/or moderate/severe icing
5. Thunderstorms require a trigger action to release the conditional instability. Which of the following would be the least
suitable as a trigger:
a) convergence in temperate latitudes
b) convergence in tropical latitudes
c) subsidence in tropical latitudes
d) convection in polar latitudes
6. During the ......... stage of a thunderstorm cell, the cloud contains ........ Complete the above statement correctly using one
of the following:
a) building/up currents and down currents
b) mature/up currents and down currents
c) dissipating/up currents and down currents
d) building/down currents only
7. The following is unlikely to be a hazard below a thunderstorm:

a) Severe turbulence.
b) Severe icing.
c) Windshear.
d) Large variations in pressure setting values.
8. Thunderstorms are likely if:

a) Air is unstable, there is sufficient water vapour and there is trigger action.
b) Air is completely stable, there is sufficient water vapour and there is lifting orographically.
c) There is a warm front.
d) There is a col in winter.
9. Hail grows by:

a) Freezing as it leaves the cloud.
b) By up and down progress in CU cloud.
c) By collision with supercooled water drops.
d) By collision with ice crystals.
30
10. How long approximately does a Cumulonimbus cell take to complete the full cycle from the Cumulus (building) to
dissipating stage:
a) 2-3 hours
b) 1-2 hours
c) 4-5 hours
d) About 1 hour
11. When approaching at flight level 300 a cumulonimbus cloud with an anvil top, pilots should aim to avoid the cloud by --
-- rims horizontally if avoiding visually, or by ---- rims horizontally if using cloud avoidance radar. Select the
appropriate respective ranges from those given below:
a) 10 20
b) 15 10
c) 10 15
d) 5 10
12. A microburst usually lasts for………and is about……….across.

a) 20 minutes 20 nm
b) 5 minutes 5 km
c) 30 minutes 10 nm
d) 45 minutes 5 nm
13. Thunderstorms caused by……….are most common in the summer and by……….in the………….
a) lapse rate air masses late spring
b) air masses frontal activity winter
c) cold fronts air masses autumn
d) air masses frontal activity summer
14. When flying through an active CB cloud, lightning strikes are most likely:
a) Above 5000' and underneath the anvil.
b) In the clear air below the cloud in rain.
c) In the temperature band between +10°C and -10°C.
d) At or about 10 000 ft AMSL.
15. Regarding thunderstorms, the most accurate statement amongst the following is:
a) There will always be windshear under the cloud.
b) The average movement is in accord with the wind at 10 000 ft.
c) If the cloud base has a temperature below 0°C then freezing rain will occur.
d) The number of lightning flashes is directly proportional to the degree of turbulence.
31
CHAPTER 16 – VISIBILITY
1. Which of the conditions given below will lead to the formation of radiation fog?
Wind speed Cloud Cover Temperature Dew Point
a) 7 kt 8/8 St 12°C 11 °C
b) 15 kt NIL 15°C 14°C
c) 3 kt 1/8 Ci 8°C 7°C
d) 2 kt NIL -2°C -3°C
2. When………..moist air passes over a surface which is………..than the dew point of the air,…………fog can form. This
occurs over………. . Examine the statement above; the line which contains the correct words in the correct order to
complete the statement is:
a) cool warmer radiation the sea
b) warm cooler radiation the land only
c) cool warmer frontal land
d) warm cooler advection land and sea
3. Radiation fog is most likely at an inland airfield in the UK with a relative humidity of 80% in the……
with……and a wind of….……..
a) Autumn clear skies 2-8 knots
b) Spring 6/8 ST& SC 2-10 knots
c) Winter clear skies 15/20 knots
d) Summer clear skies no wind
4. Advection fog is formed when……… air moves over a………….surface and is………… its dewpoint:.
a) humid cold kept above
b) Warm moist cooler cooled below
c) dry frozen well below
d) warm moist warmer kept above
5. On a night when radiation fog is forming over most of southern England, the aerodromes likely to be first to experience
the fog will be those situated:
a) Near the coast with a light onshore wind and clear skies.
b) At the bottom of the hill with a light katabatic wind blowing .
c) Near the coast with a land breeze and cloudy skies.
d) At the top of a hill with clear skies and no wind.
6. Radiation fog is most likely:

a) With a wind speed up to 15 kt, a clear sky and a high relative humidity.
b) With a wind of 2-8 kt, a high density and the summer season.
c) In an anticyclone in winter.
d) On a hill in autumn.
7. If a station equipped with International Runway Visual Range (IRVR) equipment reports RVR 1000, this means:
a) RVR at touchdown is 1000 metres.
b) RVR at touchdown is 1000 metres and at 'mid point' and 'stop end' the RVR is 800 metres or more.
c) RVR at touchdown is 1000 metres and 'mid point' and 'stop end' equipment is unserviceable.
d) RVR all along the runway is 1000 metres or more.
8. Changes of RVR are reported for increments of:

a) 25 m up to 250 m
b) 25 m up to 200 m
c) 50 m between 300 m and 800 m
d) 50 m between 500 m and 800 m
9. Frontal fog is most likely to:

a) form ahead of a vigorous fast moving cold front
b) form ahead of a warm front
c) form on a vigorous cold front and last for many hours
d) form to the rear of a warm front but only last for 1 to 2 hours
32
10. Fog may be defined as:

a) a reduction of visibility to less than 1000 metres due to the presence of water vapour in the atmosphere
b) a reduction of visibility to less than 1000 metres due to the presence of water droplets in suspension in the atmosphere
c) a reduction of visibility to less than 1500 metres due to the presence of water droplets in suspension in the atmosphere
d) a reduction of visibility to less than 1000 ft due to the presence of water vapour in suspension in the atmosphere
11. Several types of pressure distribution may be associated with radiation fog but all have one feature in common which is:
a) closely spaced isobars
b) a tight pressure gradient
c) a slack pressure gradient
d) a rapidly falling pressure
12. .............. forms when moist air .......... over a surface which is .......... than the dew point of the air. Fill in the missing 3
words from the list given below:
a) radiation fog passes warmer
b) advection fog settles cooler
c) advection fog passes cooler
d) radiation fog settles warmer
13. Advection fog:

a) Only occurs at night and early morning.
b) Is most likely with Polar Maritime air.
c) Will only clear by insolation.
d) Can sometimes last for 24 hours or more in winter.
14. In circumstances where there is a clear sky, calm wind and a high relative humidity in Autumn:
a) Radiation fog is likely over night.
b) Advection fog will form.
c) Radiation fog is likely at sunrise after previous mist.
d) Hill fog can be expected.
15. At a station equipped with International Runway Visual Range (IRVR), reports are given:
a) Every '/2hour.
b) When the normal visibility is 1500 m or less.
c) When there is mist.
d) When there is haze.
33
CHAPTER 17 – ICING
1. At temperatures of between 0°C and -10°C clouds will consist of:

a) entirely water droplets
b) entirely ice crystals
c) mostly water vapour
d) mostly supercooled water droplets and a few ice crystals
2. Turbulent clouds are most serious from the icing standpoint because:
a) strong vertical currents mean that a predominance of large supercooled water droplets will be present
b) strong vertical currents mean that a predominance of small supercooled water droplets will be present
c) turbulent clouds produce hail which sticks to the aircraft
d) turbulent clouds indicate a low freezing level
3. Hoar frost forms on an aircraft when:

a) the aircraft suddenly enters a cloud at below freezing temperature
b) the aircraft in sub zero clear air suddenly enters a colder region
c) the aircraft in sub zero clear air suddenly enters a warmer moist region
d) the aircraft suddenly enters a cloud which is at a higher temperature than the surrounding air.
4. Most cases of serious piston engine icing occur in cloud, fog, or precipitation with a temperature range between:
a) -10°C to +25°C
b) -18°C to +5°C
c) -10° C to 0°C
d) -20°C to +15°C
5. Stratus cloud of limited depth at a temperature of-5°C will most likely give:
a) moderate to heavy rime ice
b) moderate to heavy glaze ice
c) light to moderate rime ice
d) light to moderate glaze ice
6. Clear ice forms as a result of.

a) large supercooled water droplets spreading as they freeze
b) ice pellets splattering on the aircraft
c) small supercooled water droplets splashing over the aircraft
d) water vapour freezing to the aircraft
7. Orographic uplift in stable conditions gives a strong vertical component to air movement thus supporting larger
supercooled droplets in orographically formed cloud. Consideration should also be given to the fact that in this cloud:
a) the 0°C isotherm will be higher
b) the 0°C isotherm will be lower
c) the lapse rate will be isothermal
d) an inversion can be anti-cyclonic
8. Which of the following conditions is most favourable for the formation of carburettor icing if the aircraft is descending
with glide power set:
Relative Humidity Ambient Temperature

a) 25% +25°C
b) 40% +20°C
c) 50% -10°C
d) 30% -5°C
9. Flying in large CU at a temperature of -200C, the amount of each cloud droplet that will freeze on impact with the
aircraft will be:
a) All the droplet.
b) ½ of the droplet.
c) ¼ of the droplet.
d) 20% of the droplet.
34
10. Carburettor icing is unlikely:

a) In cloud.
b) At temperatures between -10°C and -30°C.
c) In clear air.
d) When the RH is 40%.
11. Flying 50 nm ahead of a warm front out of cloud at 1000 ft in winter, with an ambient temperature of -8 ° C, there is a
strong risk of.
a) Hoar frost.
b) Rime icing and carburettor icing.
c) Structure damage caused by hail.
d) Clear ice in the form of rain ice.
12. In AS cloud at FL 170 and a temperature of -20°C the airframe icing most likely to be experienced is:
a) Moderate clear icing.
b) Light rime icing.
c) Hoar frost.
d) Severe clear icing.
13. Mixed (rime and clear) icing is most likely to be encountered:

a) in nimbostratus at a temperature of -10°C
b) in stratocumulus cloud at a temperature of-20°C
c) in fair weather cumulus at a temperature of -15 °C
d) in towering cumulus at a temperature of-10°C
14. When considering icing in cloud over high ground compared with icing in other clouds, the effect of orographic lifting is
to:
a) Cause the height of the freezing level to fall and increases the intensity of the icing.
b) Cause the height of the freezing level to rise and increases the severity of the icing.
c) Cause the free water content of the cloud to increase and the freezing level to rise so reducing the icing risk.
d) Increase the temperature inside the cloud due to the release of extra latent heat so reducing the icing risk.
15. Kinetic heating will:

a) Increase the risk of icing if it raises the airframe temperature to just below 0°C.
b) Increase the risk of icing if it raises the airframe temperature to just above 0°C.
c) Always increase the risk of airframe icing.
d) Always decrease the risk of airframe icing.
35
CHAPTER 18 – DOCUMENTATION
1. Frankfurt-Main EDDF : The W/V at 211000 is expected to be:

Frankfurt Main: EDDF
SA201720 03015KT 8000NE FEW045 SCT250 14/10 Q1016 NOSIG SA201650 03011KT 6000NE SCT042
BKN250 15/10 Q1015 NOSIG FC20150OZ 201601 04010KT CAVOK
FT20160OZ 210018 04015KT 3000HZ BKN030 BECMG 0709 06018G30KT CAVOK
a) 060/18G30KT
b) 040/15KT
c) 060/18KT
d) 040/10KT
2. Zurich LSZH : The reduction in visibility at 210100 is likely to be caused by:

Zurich: LSZH
SA201720 04005KT 7000 SCT016 OVC022 12/08 Q1013 NOSIG
SA201650 04008GI9KT 7000 SCTO16 SCT022 BKN040 12/08 Q1012 NOSIG FC20150OZ 201601 05005KT
6000 SCT013 OVC028 BECMG 2124 2500BR OVCO10 FT20160OZ 210018 05005KT 2500BR OVCO10
TEMPO 0008 1500 BR BECMG 0811 04010KT OVCO15 PROB30 TEMPO 1218 BKN020
a) low stratus.
b) fog.
c) mist.
d) showers.
3. Rome/LIRA : On the 21 st there could be CB cloud overhead:

Rome: LIRA
SA 201720 OOOOOKT 9999 FEWO15 SCT017CB BKN025 16/16 Q1006 SA 201650 OOOOOKT 9999 FEWO15
SCT017CB SCT025 17/16 Q1005 FC 20170OZ 201803 VRB05KT 9999 SCT020 SCT070
FT 20160OZ 210018 VRB05KT 9999 SCT025 SCT070 TEMPO 1218 SCT015CB
a) throughout the period.
b) after 1800.
c) gradually between 1200 and 1800.
d) between 1200 and 1800.
4. Milan/LIML : Minimum visibility forecast for 210500 is:

Milan: LIML
SA 201720 OOOOOKT CAVOK 16/14 Q1007 NOSIG SA 201650 OOOOOKT CAVOK 16/15 Q1007 NOSIG FC
20170OZ 201803 VRB05KT 8000 SCT025 TEMPO 3000 -RA
FT 20160OZ 210018 VRB05KT 5000 SCT030 TEMPO 0206 0900 PRFG BKNO08 BECMG 1218 +RA BKN020
a) 5000m in mist.
b) 5 km in haze.
c) 9000m in fog.
d) 900m in fog banks.
5. Zurich/LSZH : Visibility at 211600 is expected to be:

Zurich: LSZH
SA201720 04005KT 7000 SCT016 OVC022 12/08 Q1013 NOSIG
SA201650 04008GI9KT 7000 SCTO16 SCT022 BKN040 12/08 Q1012 NOSIG FC20150OZ 201601 05005KT
6000 SCT013 OVC028 BECMG 2124 2500BR OVCO10 FT20160OZ 210018 05005KT 2500BR OVCO10
TEMPO 0008 1500 BR BECMG 0811 04010KT OVCO15 PROB30 TEMPO 1218 BKN020
a) 7 KM
b) 7000m
c) 2500m
d) 6000m
36
6. Milan/LIML : The lowest cloud base expected at 201730 is:

Milan: LIML
a) 5,000 feet
b) unlimited (no cloud)
c) 2,500 feet.
d) 3,000 feet.
7. Frankfurt Maine/ EDDF : The lowest cloud present at 201720 was:

a) 1 to 2 oktas at 4,500 feet b) 1 to 4 oktas at 450 feet.
c) 5 to 7 oktas at 2,500 feet. d) 3 to 4 oktas at 250 feet.
8. Milan/LIML : The lowest visibility to be expected at 202 100 is:

Milan: LIML
a) more than 10 km.
b) 3000 m.
c) 5000 m.
d) 900 m.
9. Geneva/LSGG : The lowest visibility observed on the 20th is:

Geneva: LSGG
SA201720 06004KT 4000NE -RA SCT009 BKN040 OVC080 13/11 Q1012 NOSIG SA201650 05004KT 5000N -
RA SCT009 BKN040 14/12 Q1012 NOSIG FC20150OZ 201601 04008KT 7000 SCT020 BKN025
FT20160OZ 210018 03005KT 5000 OVC020 TEMPO 1118 BKN030
a) 5000 metres to the north east.
b) 5000 metres to the north.
c) 4000 metres to the north east.
d) 7000 metres to the south.
10. At which of these stations and at what time is the highest relative humidity to be found:
Rome: LIRA
SA 201720 OOOOOKT 9999 FEWO15 SCT017CB BKN025 16/16 Q1006 SA 201650 OOOOOKT 9999 FEWO15
SCT017CB SCT025 17/16 Q1005 FC 20170OZ 201803 VRB05KT 9999 SCT020 SCT070
FT 20160OZ 210018 VRB05KT 9999 SCT025 SCT070 TEMPO 1218 SCT015CB
Milan: LIML
Geneva: LSGG
SA201720 06004KT 4000NE -RA SCT009 BKN040 OVC080 13/11 Q1012 NOSIG SA201650 05004KT 5000N -
RA SCT009 BKN040 14/12 Q1012 NOSIG FC20150OZ 201601 04008KT 7000 SCT020 BKN025
FT20160OZ 210018 03005KT 5000 OVC020 TEMPO 1118 BKN030
a) EDDF at 1650. b) LIRA at 1720.

c) LIML at 1720. d) LSGG at 1650.
37
11. Milan/LIML : What is the visibility forecast to be at LIML at 201730:
Milan: LIML
a) 3000m.
b) 8000m.
c) 5000m.
d) l0km or more.
38
CHAPTER 20 – AIR MASS
1. An air mass that has travelled over an ocean is known as:

a) continental air and has a high humidity
b) continental air and has a low humidity
c) maritime air and has a high humidity
d) maritime air and has a low humidity
2. Characteristic weather associated with a Pm airmass transitting the British Isles in Summer would include:
a) widespread Cu and Cb activity overland during the day
b) clear quiet settled weather overland by day with good visibility
c) warm moist conditions with some Sc or Cu and moderate to poor visibility
d) extensive low stratus cloud giving drizzle to light rain overland by day
3. If air in transit is heated from below it tends to become more:

a) stable
b) neutrally stable
c) unstable
d) none of these
4. The weather associated with polar maritime air is:

a) overcast, moderate drizzle
b) overcast moderate intermittent rain
c) broken cloud, light, moderate or heavy rain
d) broken cloud, moderate continuous rain
5. Polar maritime air is ........... and can bring ........... in the UK in winter but ...... .... in summer.
Complete the above sentence correctly using one of the following:
a) very unstable heavy snow showers does not arrive

b) cold and stable advection fog rain showers
c) unstable intermittent or continuous snow cool dry weather
d) unstable heavy showers light rain showers
6. Tropical continental air normally brings to the UK:

a) hot dry cloudless weather with a thick haze
b) warm weather with broken Cu and showers on coasts, visibility very good except in showers
c) warm dry cloudless weather with very good visibility
d) hot dry cloudless weather on coasts but Cu building up inland with rain showers, visibility good except in showers
7. Referring to the area of the North Atlantic, the mean position of the polar front in January is:
a) from Florida to south west England
b) from Newfoundland to the north of Scotland
c) from Florida to the north of Scotland
d) from Newfoundland to south west England
8. When air from an air mass moves to a lower latitude, it can be expected that:
a) Surface layer air will become warmer, the RH will rise and the air will become unstable.
b) Surface layer air will become colder, the RH will rise and the air will become more stable.
c) Surface layer air will become warmer, the RH will fall and the air will become unstable.
d) Surface layer air will become warmer, the RH will fall and the air will become more stable.
9. In the N. hemisphere when flying in the troposphere above the surface friction layer in the polar maritime airmass
behind the cold front of a fully developed frontal depression:
a) The wind will tend to veer in direction and increase in speed with progressive increase of altitude.
b) The wind will tend to veer in direction with increase of altitude but the speed may remain constant in the lower layers
of the atmosphere.
c) The windspeed will reduce progressively with increase of altitude until at about 10 000 feet above mean sea level
where it will then tend to increase in speed from another direction.
d) The wind will tend to back in direction and increase in speed with progressive increase of altitude.
39
10. The average surface level winds at A3, B3 and C3 in Appendix 'A' are respectively:
a) Easterly, westerly, southwesterly.
b) Westerly, westerly, southwesterly.
c) Southwesterly, westerly, northwesterly.
d) Southwesterly, westerly, northerly.
11. The average upper winds at A 1, B 1 and C 1 in Appendix À' are respectively:
a) easterly, westerly, northwesterly
b) northwesterly, westerly, southwesterly
c) southwesterly, westerly, northwesterly
d) southwesterly, westerly, northerly
12. It can be expected that the depth of the Friction Layer over the UK will be:
a) Greater in Polar Maritime air due to the instability and moderate wind.
b) Greater in Tropical Maritime air due to the warm temperature.
c) Greater in Polar Continental air due to the very low temperatures.
d) Greater in Tropical Continental air due to the relatively high temperatures in winter.
13. The airmasses involved in the development of a Polar Front Depression are:
a) Polar Maritime and Polar Continental.
b) Tropical Maritime and Polar Continental.
c) Tropical Continental and Polar Maritime.
d) Polar Maritime and Tropical Maritime.
14. When a cold front passes a Station in the British Isles:

a) The wind veers and the dewpoint falls.
b) The wind backs and the dewpoint falls.
c) The wind veers and the dewpoint rises.
d) The wind backs and the dewpoint rises.
40
15. Refer to Appendix B

The airmasses indicated in the diagrams by the hand are respectively
a) Arctic, Tropical Continental, Polar Maritime, Arctic Maritime
b) Polar Continental, Tropical Maritime, Tropical Continental, Arctic
c) Polar Maritime, Tropical Maritime, Polar Continental, Arctic
d) Polar Continental, Polar Maritime, Tropical Maritime, Arctic
41
CHAPTER 21 – OCCLUSIONS
OCCLUDED FRONT QUESTIONS

1. The cloud in grid square M 11 is most likely to be:
a) Cirrus.
b) Nimbostratus.
c) Altocumulus.
d) Stratus fractus.
42
2. Precipitation will reach the ground mainly in the area:

a) L14-R14
b) Q14 -S14
c) 014 -T14
d) J14-014
3. In grid square M6 The worst cloud conditions for flying could be:
a) Altrocumulus
b) Cumulo nimbus embedded in nimbostratus
c) Cumulonimbus
d) Nimbostratus
43
4. Which of the conditions below would lead to the worst icing condition?:
Size of Drop Ambient Temp.
a) 2 mm -30°C
b) 1 mm -1 °C
c) 5 mm -4°C
d) 3 mm -12°C
5. Refer to Appendix `B'. In a warm occlusion flying at 20000' where will the most turbulence be found?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) A and C
44
6. Refer to Appendix `C'.

Which area will get the most rain at the surface?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
45
7. Refer to Appendix `D'. What type of cloud will be found at X?

a) CS
b) NS
c) SC
d) CB
46
8. Refer to Appendix `D'. What type of cloud is most likely at Z?

a) CU
b) CB
c) AS
d) NS
9. After passage of an occluded front in the Northern Hemisphere: Wind ……….. Temperature…………
Precipitation……………
a) backs stops falling continues
b) veers drops rapidly stops abruptly
c) veers drops or rises begins to dry up
d) backs rises quickly increases in strength
10. With a cold occlusion:

a) The air ahead of the warm front is colder than the air behind the cold front.
b) The warm sector remains on the surface.
c) The cloud type is predominately layer with a wide precipitation band.
d) There is a risk of CB embedded in NS.
47
11. The front at P 14 is:

a) Cold
b) Warm
c) Warm at an occlusion.
d) Cold at an occlusion.
48
12. The relative temperatures at A, B, and C could be respectively:

a) +6 +8 +10
b) +6 +10 +8
c) +8 +10 +8
d) +10 +6 +8
49
13. Precipitation at the surface underneath B is likely to be:

a) Light drizzle.
b) Continuous moderate.
c) Showers, heavy with the possibility of hail.
d) Nil.
50
14. Flight conditions at B are likely to be:

a) Smooth and clear.
b) Layer clouds with only light turbulence.
c) Some turbulence in NS with the possibility of embedded CB giving moderate/severe turbulence.
d) Flight in CU, CB with some turbulence.
15. When flying from west to east through a cold occlusion (below the warm air) over the north Atlantic you would expect
the wind to .......... and the temperature to ..............
a) veer decrease
b) back increase
c) back decrease
d) veer increase
16. A warm occlusion occurs when:

a) warm air is forcing cool air over cold air
b) cold air is forcing cool air over warm air
c) cool air is forcing warm air over cold air
d) cool air is forcing cold air aloft
51
CHAPTER 22 – OTHER DEPRESSIONS
OTHER (NON-FRONTAL) DEPRESSIONS QUESTIONS
1. A thermal depression is likely to form:

a) over the Iberian peninsular during the summer
b) in the lee of the Alps over Northern Italy in winter
c) in association with a marked trough of low pressure over the USA
d) on the trailing edge of a warm sector mid latitude depression
2. Tropical revolving storms usually:

a) form close to one side of the equator and while moving slowly in a westerly direction, cross over to the other
hemisphere
b) move in a westerly direction before recurving towards the equator
c) move in an easterly direction before recurving towards the nearest pole
d) do not form within 5 ° of the equator
3. With reference to tropical revolving storms, which of the following statements is correct:
a) typhoons are found in the South China sea in January
b) cyclones, occur in the Bay of Bengal in winter
c) hurricanes, in the South Atlantic sometimes affect the east coast of Brazil
d) hurricanes affect the south east of the USA in late summer
4. Which of the following statements accurately describes the "West African Tornado":
a) the West African Tornado is similar to the North American and European tornadoes
b) it is a line of thunderstorms producing a line squall aligned roughly north/south
c) it is another name for the cyclones that affect the West African coast in summer
d) it is the name given to a line of thunderstorms that lie along the ITCZ but some 200 miles to the south
5. Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated with a non-frontal thermal depression because of:
a) Surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread descent of air in the depression.
b) Surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread descent of air in the depression.
c) Surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread ascent of air in the depression.
d) Surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread ascent of air in the depression.
6. In comparison with a primary depression a secondary depression is:

a) Always more active.
b) Sometimes more active.
c) Never more active.
d) Unlikely to produce gale force winds.
7. A Secondary Depression would form in association with:

a) A Polar Depression.
b) A Col.
c) A Summer Thermal Depression over the Mediterranean or Caspian Sea.
d) A Polar Front Low.
8. Tropical Revolving Storms:

a) Are always given a male first name beginning with "A" for the first of the season and thereafter named in alphabetical
order of occurrence.
b) Have internal wind speeds of 10-20 knots rotating cyclonically round a subsiding clear air core known as the eye.
c) Usually have the most severe weather in the quadrant to the right of the track in a Hurricane.
d) Regenerate after crossing the coast from sea to land
9. Which of the following are Thermal Depressions:

a) Tropical revolving storms, polar air depressions, tornadoes.
b) The equatorial trough, monsoon lows, some depressions over the central and eastern Mediterranean sea in summer.
c) The equatorial trough, polar air depressions, monsoon lows, orographic lows.
d) The lows forming over flat land in summer, polar air depressions, tropical revolving storms, some of the lows which
form over inland seas in winter
52
10. A Secondary low pressure system rotates around a Primary low:

a) Cyclonically.
b) Anticyclonically.
c) Into the primary.
d) At a constant distance.
11. Flying conditions in a Secondary low pressure system are:

a) Always more severe than in a Primary low.
b) Sometimes more severe than in a Primary low.
c) Less severe than in a Primary low.
d) Relatively calm.
12. Tropical Revolving Storms:
a) Do not occur in the South Atlantic.

b) Generally move from east to west before turning towards the equator.
c) Intensify after crossing coasts.
d) Occur principally in spring and early summer.
53
CHAPTER 23 – GLOBAL CLIMATOLOGY
GLOBAL CLIMATOLOGY QUESTIONS
l. The Savannah climatic zone is:

a) approximately 20° - 30° of latitude and provides very dry desert conditions throughout the year.
b) approximately 10°- 20° of latitude and provides dry trade wind conditions in winter and a wet summer season.
c) approximately 10° - 20° of latitude and provides a wet winter season and a dry hot summer.
d) approximately 10° - 30° of latitude and has a period of long rains in spring and autumn, but is never dry.
2. The warm temperature climatic zone is:

a) approximately 20° - 35° of latitude and covers the high pressure desert regions of the world.
b) approximately 35° - 40° of latitude and is under the influence of polar front depressions throughout the year.
c) approximately 35° - 40° of latitude and provides a warm dry summer with a cool wet winter.
d) approximately 35° - 40° of latitude and provides a wet summer season and a dry cold winter.
3. Northern hemisphere summers tend to be:

a) warmer than the southern hemisphere and winters are warmer too.
b) colder than the southern hemisphere due to the smaller amount of solar radiation.
c) colder than the southern hemisphere because of the large land masses.
d) warmer than the southern hemisphere and the winters are colder.
4. The effect of mountain barriers on temperature is exemplified by the following:

a) European temperatures are low in winter because there is no barrier to prevent cold Atlantic air crossing the area.
b) the Rocky mountains of North America prevent cold Pacific air reaching inland, so summer temperatures to the east of
the mountains are high.
c) the Himalayas prevent warm dry air from Russia reaching India and Pakistan.
d) the UraI mountains of West Russia prevent most of the cold Siberian air reaching Europe in summer.
5. The Tropopause is:

a) more or less constant for any latitude.
b) is a boundary layer between the troposphere and the stratosphere.
c) normally the upper limit of weather.
d) the upper limit for jet streams and mountain waves.
6. Statistical pressure values tend to be:

a) on average parallel to the lines of latitude.
b) on average parallel to the lines of latitude in the southern hemisphere and much more variable in the northern
hemisphere.
c) much lower in winter in the northern hemisphere than in the southern hemisphere.
d) higher over the oceans in winter.
8. The average temperature around the equatorial regions:

a) is always above +40° C.
b) is higher over the sea areas.
c) varies on average from winter to summer by only some 5° C.
d) has a very high range of temperatures throughout the year.
9. Trade winds:
a) blow towards the sub tropical anticyclones.
b) are caused by lifting over the heat equator and the subsequent air movements from the sub tropical anticyclones.
c) only blow in the winter months.
d) blow from the equatorial low pressure systems throughout the year.
10. Trade winds in the southern hemisphere are:

a) southeasterly.
b) southeast at first becoming southwest.
c) in opposition to the monsoons.
d) usually from the northeast.
54
11. The Hadley cell is the name given to:

a) the CU cells which continue to form a CB.
b) an initial bubble of air which is lifted by convection.
c) the centre portion of a jet stream.
d) a cell formed by lifted air over the heat equator descending to the sub tropical highs.
12. The large change in the direction of trade winds is caused by:
a) local pressure differences.
b) an excess of air at height in association with the Hadley cells.
c) the change in geostrophic force when crossing the geographic equator.
d) the cyclostrophic force in the equatorial regions.
13. Monsoons are seasonal winds which:

a) develop due to the high pressure over continents in winter and the subsequent low pressure which develops over the
same areas in summer.
b) are never in combination with trade winds.
c) blow only in the southeast Asia region.
d) are from the southeasterly direction over the Indian sub continent in summer.
14. The outflow from the Siberian High:

a) is northwesterly over Japan, northerly and northeasterly over China and northerly over the whole of India.
b) is the source of Polar Maritime air.
c) is northwesterly over Japan, northeasterly over southeast Asia and easterly over Europe.
d) is evident throughout the year.
15. The upper winds tend to be westerly outside the tropics because:
a) the rotation of the earth is west to east.
b) the thermal winds are westerly on average.
c) surface winds are nearly always westerly.
d) jet streams are usually westerly.
16. Jet stream main locations are:
a) in the warm air some 400 nm ahead of a warm or cold front and near the subtropical highs.
b) in the warm air some 400 nm ahead of a warm front and some 200 nm behind a cold front and near the sub tropical
highs.
c) only in association with the polar front.
d) in association with the polar front and with mountain waves.
17. Jet streams:

a) only occur in the troposphere.
b) have a speed in excess of 80 kt.
c) are located above the tropopause.
d) are caused by a large difference in mean temperature in the horizontal.
18. Near the equator upper winds tend to be:

a) easterly.
b) westerly.
c) at speeds greater than 60 kt.
d) calm.
19. The Polar Front is:

a) the boundary surface between polar continental and tropical continental air.
b) near the poles.
c) only apparent over the Atlantic ocean.
d) the region where warm sector depressions develop.
20. The ITCZ is:

a) the region between the two trade wind systems centred on the heat equator.
b) the boundary region between the two monsoons.
c) the boundary between polar air and equatorial air.
d) a region of calm winds and layer type clouds with much haze.
55
21. Tropical Revolving Storms are:

a) a summer weather feature.
b) easily predictable.
c) can be very active well inland.
d) can travel at speeds of 100 kt.
22. The areas of greatest rainfall are:

a) those where there is much polar front depression activity.
b) in the equatorial regions.
c) in the polar regions.
d) in central North America in summer due to the large convective cloud formations.
23. Deleted.
24. Dust storms and haze are most common:

a) in association with the sub tropical anticyclones over land.
b) with the Haboobs in winter.
c) in unstable air with low pressure.
d) in temperate latitudes.
25. The most notorious advection fogs occur:

a) over southwest UK.
b) over the sea in the region of Newfoundland and the Kamchatka peninsula.
c) over Europe with high pressure to the north.
d) over central North America in autumn and winter.
26. The cloud to be expected along the front at A3 in Appendix A is:

a) CU CB
b) ST SC
c) ST NS
d) AS NS
27. The cloud to be expected at B2 between the fronts in Appendix A is:

a) AS
b) ST SC
c) NS
d) NIL
56
28. The cloud to be expected at C2 along the front in Appendix A is:

a) CU CB
b) AS NS
c) ST SC
d) AC
29. The cloud to be expected along the front at A2 in Appendix A is:

a) Cl
b) AS NS
c) ST
d) CU
57
30. The average surface level winds at A3, B3 and C3 in Appendix A are respectively:
a) easterly, westerly, southwesterly.
b) westerly, westerly, southwesterly.
c) southwesterly, westerly, northwesterly.
d) southwesterly, westerly, northerly.
31. The average upper winds at A1, B1 and C1 in Appendix A are respectively:
a) easterly, westerly, northwesterly.
b) northwesterly, westerly, southwesterly.
c) southwesterly, westerly, northwesterly.
d) southwesterly, westerly, northerly.
58
32. The names of the air masses indicated A, B, C and D at Appendix B are respectively:
a) Polar Maritime, Polar Continental, Tropical Maritime, Tropical Continental.
b) Returning Polar Maritime, Arctic, Tropical Continental, Tropical Maritime.
c) Polar Maritime, Arctic, Tropical Continental, Tropical Maritime.
d) Polar Maritime, Arctic, Polar Continental, Tropical Maritime.
59
60
33. The names of the air masses indicated E, F, G and H at Appendix B are respectively:
a) Tropical Maritime, Polar Continental, Tropical Continental, Arctic.
b) Polar Continental, Tropical Maritime, Tropical Continental, Arctic.
c) Polar Continental, Tropical Continental, Tropical Maritime, Arctic.
d) Tropical Maritime, Polar Maritime, Tropical Continental, Polar Maritime.
61
62
63
Additional Questions
1. MSA given as 12,000 ft, flying over mountains in temperatures +9°C, QNH set as 1023 (obtained from a nearby
airfield). What will the true altitude be when 12,000 ft is reached ?
a) 11,940
b) 11,148
c) 12,210
d) 12,864
2. In the Northern Hemisphere a man observes a low pressure system passing him to the south, from west to east. What
wind will he experience ?
a) Backs the Veers
b) Constantly Backs
c) Veers then Backs
d) Backs then steady
3. When would a rotor cloud be ahead of a Cb ?

a) Mature stage
b) Cumulus stage
c) Dissipating stage
d) Initial stage
4. What are the conditions under which advection fog will be formed ?
a) Warm moist air over cold surface
b) Cold dry air over warm surface
c) Warm dry air over cold surface
d) Cold moist air over warm surface
5. What cloud does hail fall from ?

a) Cb
b) Ns
c) Cu
d) Ci
6. What is a cold pool, in the northern hemisphere ?

a) Cold air found on the lee side of the Alps in winter in a cold north westerly air stream
b) Cold air brought down from the North behind frontal systems
c) Air from tropical continental origin
d) Air from Polar maritime origin only
7. What is Relative Humidity dependent upon?

a) Moisture content and temperature of the air
b) Temperature of the air
c) Temperature and pressure
d) Moisture content of the air
8. If the ELR is 0.65°C/100m

a) Atmosphere is conditionally stable
b) Atmosphere is stable
c) Atmosphere is unstable
d) Atmosphere is stable when dry
09. Where are you most likely to find moderate to severe icing ?
a) In upper levels of Cumulonimbus Capillatus
b) Nimbostratus
c) Stratus
d) Cirrus
64
10. Height of the tropopause at 50°N

a) 11 km
b) 16 km
c) 05 km
d) 20 km
11. What are the indications of a thunderstorms from a great distance ?

a) Thick Ci
b) Thick Cb's
c) Ns
d) Sc
12. A characteristic of a stable air mass

a) Lapse rate of 1oC / 100 m
b) Rising air slows down and dissipates
c) Lapse rate of 0.3°C/100m
d) Good visibility and shower
13. How do you recognize high level jet streams and associated CAT ?
a) High pressure centre at high level
b) Streaks of Cirrus
c) High level dust
d) Lenticularis
14. Which conditions lead to mountain waves ?

a) Unstable moist air, speeds <5 kts across the ridge
b) Stable air, speed, >20 kts across the ridge
c) Unstable air, speed >20 kts across the ridge
d) Stable air, speed >30kts, parallel to the ridge
15. Where is the coldest air in a cold occlusion?

a) Behind the cold front
b) At the junction of the occlusion
c) In front of the occlusion
d) Behind the warm front
16. What causes low level cloud in front of the warm front ?
a) Rain falling into the cold air
b) Rain falling into warm air
c) Warm air passing over cold surface
d) Cold air passing over warm surface
17. Where is the largest chance of squalls occurring ?

a) 1n front of an active cold front
b) Above the occlusion along the cold front
c) Behind the cold front
d) Above the occlusion along the warm front
18. ELR is 1°C/100 m

a) Neutral when dry
b) Absolute stability
c) Absolute instability
d) Conditional stability
19. Typical tornado diameter

a) Less than 100m
b) 100 - 150m
c) 2 -6 km
d) More than 10 km
65
20. In the areas of the ITCZ why are the heights of the tropopause not reported ?
a) Because it's too cold

b) Because it cannot be measured
c) Because it is likely to be above your FL
d) Because it is in the stratosphere
21. Flying conditions in Ci cloud and horizontal visibility

a) Less than 500m vis, light/mod clear icing
b) Greater than 1000m vis, light/mod rime ice
c) Less then 500m vis, no icing
d) Greater than 1000m vi s, no icing
22. Description of radiation fog

a) Marked increase in ground wind speed
b) Marked increase in wind speed close to the ground
c) Ground cooling due to radiation
d) Warm air over warm surface
23. Flying over an airfield, at the surface the temp. is -5°C, freezing level is at 3000ft, rain is falling from clouds with a base
of 4000ft caused by warm air rising above cold air. Where would you experience icing ?
a) Never
b) No icing because your not in cloud
c) Between 3000 - 4000ft
d) Below 3000ft
24. What is the composition of Ci cloud ?

a) Super cooled water droplets
b) Ice crystals
c) Water droplets
d) Smoke particles
25. What cloud types are classified as medium cloud ?

a) Ns + Sc
b) Ac + As
c) Cb + St
d) Ci+Cs
26. Isolated TS occur mostly due to

a) Warm frontal uplift
b) Cold front uplift
c) Insulation
d) Convection
27. What type of cloud is associated with drizzle ?

a) St
b) Cb
c) Ci
d) Ac
28. Fair weather cumulus gives an indication of

a) Poor visibility
b) Thunderstorms
c) Turbulence
d) Smooth flying below
29. What cloud type are you least likely to get icing from ?
a) Ci
b) Cu
c) St
d) Ns
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30. When flying from South to North in the Southern Hemisphere crossing over and above a polar frontal jet at FL 400, what
might happen to the OAT?
a) initially fall then rise

b) initially rise then fall
c) rise
d) fall
31. What type of jet stream blows constantly through the northern hemisphere ?
a) Arctic jet
b) Equatorial jet
c) Polar night jet
d) Sub tropical jet
32. Why is clear ice such a problem ?

a) Translucent and forms along leading edges
b) Not translucent and forms along leading edges
c) Very heavy and can affect aircraft controls and surfaces
d) Forms in clear air
33. A steep pressure gradient is characterized by

a) Isobars close together, strengthened wind
b) Isobars far apart, decreased wind
c) Isobars close together, temperature increasing
d) Isobars far apart, temperature decreasing
34. If you fly with left drift in the Northern Hemisphere, what is happening to your true altitude ?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Stays the same
d) Cannot tell
35. What type of icing requires immediate diversion ?

a) Light
b) Moderate
c) Severe
d) extreme
36. At a stationary front

a) Winds blow parallel to the isobars and front
b) Winds blow perpendicular to the isobars
c) Winds are always very strong
d) Winds are usually gusty and variable
37. Sublimation is :
a) Solid to vapour
b) Vapour to liquid
c) Liquid to vapour
d) Liquid to solid
38. Standing in the Northern Hemisphere, north of a polar frontal depression travelling west to east, the wind will
a) Continually veer
b) Continually back
c) Back then veer
d) Veer then back
39. What is the coldest time of the day ?

a) 1 hr before sunrise
b) 30 min before sunrise
c) at exact moment of sunrise
d) 30 min after sunrise
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40. Which of the following would lead to the formation of Advection fog :
a) warm moist air over cold surface, clear night and light winds
b) cold dry air over warm surface, clear night and light winds
c) cold moist air over warm surface, cloud night with strong winds
d) warm dry air over cold surface, cloudy night with moderate winds
41. Which of the following would lead to the formation of Steaming fog :
a) cold air over warm sea
b) warm air over cold sea
c) cold sea near coast
d) warm air over land
42. When is diurnal variation a maximum ?

a) Clear sky, still wind
b) Clear sky, strong wind
c) OVC, still
d) OVC, windy
43. In a polar front jet stream in the Northern Hemisphere, where is there likely to be the greatest probability of turbulence ?
a) above the jet core in the boundary between warm and cold air
b) looking downstream, to the right
c) in the core
d) looking downstream, to the left
44. Dew point is defined as:

a) The lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given pressure
b) The lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce the relative
humidity
c) The temperature below which the change of state for a given volume of air will result in
absorption of latent heat
d) The temperature to which moist air must be cooled to reach saturation
45. FL 180, Northern Hemisphere with a wind from the left, what can you say about temperature with a heading of 360° ?
a) Not possible to tell without a pressure
b) Increases from South to North
c) Increases from North to South
d) Nothing
46. From which of the following can the stability of the atmosphere be determined ?
a) surface pressure
b) surface temperature
c) DALR
d) ELR
47. How do you define convection ?

a) Horizontal movement of air
b) Vertical movement of air
c) Same as advection
d) Same as conduction
48. In a class A aircraft if you encounter freezing rain, do you:

a) Climb to the cooler air above
b) Climb to the warmer air above
c) Accelerate
d) Descend
49. When is the latest time radiation fog is most likely ?

a) Just after dawn
b) Late afternoon
c) Midday
d) Midnight
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50. What is the tropopause ?

a) The layer between the troposphere and mesosphere
b) The boundary between the troposphere and stratosphere
c) Where temperature increases with height
d) Upper boundary to C.A.T.
51. Where do you find the majority of the air within atmosphere ?
a) Troposphere
b) Stratosphere
c) Tropopause
d) Mesosphere
52. What are Lenticularis clouds a possible indication of ?

a) Mountain waves
b) Instability
c) Developing Cu and Cb
d) Horizontal wind shear in the upper atmosphere
53. What is the usual procedure when encountering CAT en-route ?

a) Request climb to get out of it
b) Turn around immediately
c) Descend immediately to clear it
d) Accelerate through it and stay level
54. When are cyclones most likely ?

a) Mid Winter
b) Late Autumn
c) Late Summer
d) Late Spring
55. At a certain position the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48°C. According to the chart the tropopause is at FL330.
The most likely temperature at FL350 is:
a) -54°C
b) -50°C
c) -56.5°C
d) 58°C
56. In what cloud is icing and turbulence most severe ?

a) Cb
b) Ns
c) Sc
d) Ci
57. What will snow most likely fall from ?

a) Ns
b) Ci
c) Cs
d) Ac
58. Rime ice is caused by:

a) Large Super cooled water droplets
b) Small Super cooled water droplets
c) Slow freezing of water droplets onto the wing
d) Rapid re-freezing of large water droplets
59. What is the most severe form of icing ?

a) Dry Ice
b) Hoar frost
c) Clear ice
d) Rime ice
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60. Cold occlusion is:

a) Cold air undercutting warm air
b) Warm air overriding cold air
c) Air ahead of the warm front undercutting the air behind the cold front
d) Air behind the cold front undercutting the air in front of the warm front
61. Warm occlusion is:

a) Warm air undercutting cold air
b) Warm air overriding cold air
c) Air ahead of the warm front over riding the air behind the cold front
d) Air behind the cold front over riding the air in front of the warm front
62. Duration of a microburst:

a) 5 mins, 5 km
b) 20 mins, 5 km
c) 15 mins, 25 km
d) 45 mins, 25 km
63. Where is the surface wind usually westerly in a Northern Hemisphere polar front depression?
a) In front of the warm front
b) In front of the cold front
c) Behind the cold front
d) To the north of centre of the depression
64. What causes the Geostrophic wind to be stronger than the gradient wind around a low ?
a) Centrifugal force adds to the gradient force
b) Centrifugal force opposes the gradient force
c) Coriolis force adds to the gradient force
d) Coriolis force opposes the centrifugal force
65. The subtropical high pressure belt is at which latitude ?

a) 25° - 35°
b) 10° - 15o
c) 55° - 75°
d) 40° - 55o
66. A METAR for Paris gave the surface wind at 260/20. Wind at 2000ft is most likely to be:
a) 260/15
b) 210/30
c) 290/40
d) 175/15
67. When the upper part of a layer of warm air is advected:

a) Stability increases within the layer
b) Stability decreases within the layer
c) Wind speed will always decrease with increase in height in the Northern Hemisphere.
d) Wind will back with increase in height in the Northern Hemisphere.
68. The QNH at an airfield 200m AMSL is 1009 hPa; air temperature is 10°C lower than standard. What is the QFF ?
a) Not possible to give a definite answer
b) Less than 1009
c) 1009
d) More than 1009
69. A plain in Western Europe at 500m (1600ft) AMSL is covered with a uniform alto - cumulus cloud during summer
months. At what height AGL is the base of the cloud expected ?
a) 100 - 1500ft
b) 15000 - 25000ft
c) 7000 - 15000ft
d) 1500 - 7000ft
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70. A pilot experiences severe turbulence and icing. A competent met. man would issue:
a) SPECI
b) METAR
c) TEMPO
d) SIGMET
71. Which of these would cause your true altitude to decrease with a constant indicated altitude ?
a) Cold/Low
b) Hot/Low
c) Cold/High
d) Hot/High
72. ITCZ weather is:

a) Thundery strong convergence
b) Clear Wx
c) Showers
d) Light winds
73. Where is the ITCZ during the year ?

a) Doesn't move
b) Always north of the equator
c) Always south of the equator
d) Moves in accordance with the heat equator
74. Satellite images are used to:

a) locate fronts in areas with few ground stations
b) to achieve 14 day forecasts
c) locate precipitation zones
d) locate wind currents on the ground
75. A large pressure gradient is shown by:

a) Closely spaced isobars - low temperature
b) Distant spaced isobars - high temperature
c) Close spaced isobars - strong winds
d) Close spaced isobars - light winds
76. The degree of CAT experienced by an aircraft is proportional to:

a) Intensity of vertical and horizontal wind shear
b) Intensity of solar radiation
c) Stability of the air
d) Height of the aircraft
77. Squall lines are encountered:

a) In an air mass with cold air properties
b) Ahead of a cold front
c) Behind a stationary front
d) At an occluded front
78. Microbursts:
a) Only affect tropical areas
b) Average lifespan 30mins
c) Typical horizontal dimensions 1 - 3km
d) Always associated with CB clouds
79. Which of the following are described as precipitation ?

a) TS
b) SQ
c) SA
d) DZ
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80. Clouds classified as low level are considered to have a base height of:
a) 500 - 1000ft
b) 1000 - 2000ft
c) the surface - 6500ft
d) 100 - 200ft
81. What is the temperature decrease with height below 11 km ?

a) 1°C / 100m
b) 0.5°C / 100m
c) 0.65°C / 100m
d) 0.6°C / 100m
82. Contours on a weather chart indicate:

a) Heights of pressure levels
b) Distance between pressure levels
c) Thickness between pressure levels
d) Height of ground
83. Sub tropical highs are found:

a) 5°-15°
b) 25° – 35°
c) 40° - 60°
d) Between the Polar and Ferrell cells
84. Equatorial easterly jets
a) Northern Hemisphere in summer

b) Northern Hemisphere all year
c) Southern Hemisphere all year
d) Southern Hemisphere
85. What causes 'echoes' on airborne weather radar screens ?

a) Water vapour
b) All cloud
c) Fog
d) Hail
86. In a Tropical Downpour the visibility is sometimes reduced to:

a) 1000m
b) 500m
c) 200m
d) less than 100m
87. QNH is defined as:

a) The pressure at MSL obtained using the standard atmosphere
b) The pressure at MSL obtained using the actual conditions
c) QFE reduced to MSL using the actual conditions
d) QFE reduced to MSL using the standard atmosphere
88. Where would you expect to find the strongest wind on the ground in temperate latitudes ?
a) In an area of Low pressure
b) In an area of High pressure
c) In the warm air between two fronts
d) In a weak anticyclone
89. Landing at an airfield with QNH set the pressure altimeter reads:
a) Zero feet on landing only if ISA conditions prevail
b) Zero
c) The elevation of the airfield if ISA conditions prevail
d) The elevation of the airfield
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90. The fastest moving thunderstorms are:

a) Orographic
b) Thermal
c) Frontal
d) Lifting
91. Where are the fastest winds in a Tropical Revolving Storm ?

a) Near the eye
b) In the wall of cloud surrounding the eye
c) To the right of the track
d) To the right of the track in Hurricanes and Cyclones
92. What type of cloud is usually found at high level ?

a) St
b) Ac
c) Cc
d) Ns
93. The environmental lapse rate in the real atmosphere:

a) Has a fixed value of 2°C / 1000 ft
b) Has a fixed value of 0.65°C / 100 Mtrs
c) Varies with time
d) Has a fixed value of 1 °C / 100 Mtrs
94. Airfield is 69 metres below sea level, QFF is 1030 hPa, temperature is ISA -10°C. What is the QNH?
a) Impossible to tell
b) Less than 1030Hpa
c) 1030Hpa
d) More than 1030Hpa
95. The QNH is 1030Hpa and at the Transition Level you set the SPS. What happens to your indicated altitude?
a) Drops by 510ft
b) Rises by 510ft
c) Rises
d) Drops
96. What is the movement of air relating to a trough ?

a) Descending and diverging
b) Ascending and diverging
c) Descending and converging
d) Converging and ascending
97. What is the movement of air relating to a ridge?

d) Ascending and converging
98. At a coastal airfield, with the runway parallel to the coastline. You are downwind over the sea with the runway to your
right. On a warm summer afternoon, what would you expect the wind to be on finals?
a) crosswind from the right
b) Headwind
c) Tailwind
d) Crosswind from the left
99. The temperature at the surface is 15°C, the temperature at 1000ft is 13°C. Is the atmosphere
a) Unstable
c) Stable
d) Cannot tell
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100. Altostratus is
a) A low level cloud
b) A medium level cloud
c) A high level cloud
d) A heap type cloud
101. Which of the following would give you the worst airframe icing ?
a) GR
b) SN
c) FZFG
d) +FZRA
102. Small super cooled water droplets hit the aerofoil, will it
a) Freeze on impact giving clear ice
b) Partially freezing and running back giving clear ice
c) Freeze on impact giving rime ice
d) Partially freezing and running back giving a cloudy rime ice
103. In a METAR you see the coding R16/P1300. What does this imply ?
a) RVR assessed to be more than 1300 meters
b) RVR equipment is problematic
c) RVR is improving
d) RVR is varying
104. What causes wind ?

a) Difference in pressure
b) Rotation of the earth
c) Frontal systems
d) Difference in temperature
105. What is the approximate height of the 250hPa level ?

a) 30,000ft
b) 32,000ft
c) 39,000ft
d) 34,000ft
106. Several aircraft report clear air turbulence in a certain area en route
a) ATC should issue a storm warning
b) ATC should close the specified area
c) A competent ATC should issue a SPECI
d) A competent ATC should issue a SIGMET
107. Where are icing conditions on a runway specified ?

a) TAF
b) METAR
c) SIGMET
d) GAFFO
108. Where are icing conditions on route specified ?

a) TAF and METAR
b) METAR and SIGMET
c) SWC (sig. weather. chart) and SIGMET
d) SPECI and TREND
109. ICAO statement no diversion necessary, de-icing is not required or is effective; the icing in this case is
a) Light
b) Moderate
c) Severe
d) Extreme
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110. What is subsidence ?

a) Horizontal motion of air
b) Vertical down draught of air
c) Vertical up draught of air
d) Adiabatic cooling
111. If an Isohypse on a surface pressure chart of 500hPa shows a figure of 522, this indicates
a) Topography of 522m above MSL
b) Topography of 522 decametres above MSL
c) Pressure is 522mb
d) A low surface pressure
112. Moderate turbulence can be expected in

a) Alto-cumulus Lenticularis
b) Cirrocumulus
c) Nimbostratus
d) Stratus
113. RVR is
a) Measured using ceilometers along the runway
b) Displayed in TAF=s and METAR=s
c) Usually greater than met visibility
d) Given when the met visibility is below 2000m
114. Up and down going draughts in a thunderstorm occur in which stage ?

a) Cumulus stage
b) Mature stage
c) Dissipating stage
d) Precipitation stage
115. Relative humidity increases in

a) Warmer air compared to colder air
b) Warm air at a constant vapour pressure
c) Cold air at a constant vapour pressure
d) Colder air compared to warmer air
116. Super cooled water droplets are found in

a) Clouds only
b) Clouds, fog and precipitation
c) Precipitation and clouds
d) Precipitation
117. Which of the following METARs at 1850UTC will most likely give fog formation over the coming night?
a) 240/04 6000 -RA SCT012 OVC 3000 17/14 Q1002 NOSIG=
b) VRB002 9999 SCT150 17/M08 Q1012 NOSIG=
c) VRB001 8000 SCT280 11/10 Q1028 BECMG 3000
d) VRB002 8000 FEW 100 12/09 Q1025 BECMG 0800
118. What would be reflected to radar ?

a) Fog
b) Hail
c) Cloud
d) Mist
119. What is the relationship between the 5000ft wind and the surface wind in the southern hemisphere:-
a) Surface winds are veered from the 5000ft and have the same speed .
b) Surface winds are backed from the 5000ft and have a slower speed.
c) Surface winds are veered from the 5000ft and have a slower speed.
d) Surface winds are backed from the 5000ft and have a faster speed.
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120. Turbulence is worst in a Jet stream

a) In the core
b) Along the axis of the core to the right
c) Along the axis of the core to the left
d) Between the boundaries of the cold and warm air
121. Low level wind shear is likely to be greatest

a) At the condensation level when there is a strong surface friction
b) At the condensation level when there is no night radiation
c) At the top of the friction layer during strong solar radiation
d) At the top of a surface based inversion during strong night radiation
122. TEMPO TS indicates

a) TS that will last for the entire period indicated
b) TS that will last for a max of 1 hr in each instance
c) TS that will last for at least 30 mins
d) TS that will last for less than 30 mins
123. What is a microburst?

a) Air descending at high speed, the air is colder than the surrounding air
b) Air is descending at high speed; the air is warmer than the surrounding air
c) A small Tropical Revolving Storm
d) A small depression with high wind speeds
124. Clear ice is most likely to form

a) -10°C to -17°C
b) -30°C to -40°C
c) -20°C to -30°C
d) -40°C to -60°C
125. How do you calculate the lowest flight level ?

a) Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA
b) Lowest QNH and highest negative temperature below ISA
c) Highest QNH and highest temperature above ISA
d) Highest QNH and lowest temperature
126. Where do you get freezing rain ?

a) Rain hitting the ground and freezing on impact
b) Rain falling into warmer air
c) Rain falling from an inversion into an area below 0°C
d) Rain falling into colder air and freezing into pellets
127. Which of the following is worst for icing ?

a) -2°C to -15°C
b) -15°C to -20°C
c) -25°C to -30°C
d) Near freezing level
128. Which of the following will give the greatest difference between temperature and dew point ?
a) Dry air
b) Moist air
c) Cold air
d) Warm air
129. CB cloud in summer contains

a) Water droplets
b) Ice crystals
c) Water droplets, ice crystals and super cooled water droplets
d) Water droplets and ice crystals
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130. How are CBs that are not close to other CBs described on a SIGMET ?
a) Isolated
b) Embedded
c) Frequent
d) Occasional
131. In a METAR/TAF what is VV ?

a) RVR in metres
b) Vertical visibility
c) Horizontal visibility in metres
d) Vertical visibility in feet
132. In an METAR the cloud height is above

a) MSL
b) Aerodrome level
c) The measuring station
d) The highest point within SKm
133. Aerodrome at MSL, QNH is 1022. QFF is

a) Greater than 1022
b) Less than 1022
c) Same as QNH
d) Cannot tell without temperature information
134. Air temperature in the afternoon is +12°C with a dew point of +5°C. What temperature change must happen for
saturation to occur ?
a) cool to +5°C
b) cool by 5°C
c) cool to +6°C
d) cool to +7°C
135. What is the technical term for an increase in temperature with altitude ?
a) Inversion
b) Advection
c) Adiabatic
d) Subsidence
136. What units are used to measure vertical wind shear ?

a) m/sec
b) kts
c) kts/100ft
d) kms/100ft
137. You have to fly through a warm front. The freezing level in the warm air is at I0,000ft and the freezing layer in the cold
air is at 2,000ft. Where are you least likely to encounter freezing rain?
a) 12,000ft
b) 9,000ft
c) 5,000ft
d) 3,000ft
138. You are flying at FL 170. The pressure level which is closest to you is the
a) 300mb
a) 700mb
c) 500mb
d) 850mb
139. The average duration of a microburst

a) 1-5 mins
b) 10 mins
c) 15mins
d) less than 2 mins
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140. How is QFE determined from QNH ?

a) Using the temperature of the airfield and the elevation of the airfield
b) Using the temperature
c) Using the elevation
d) Using the temperature at MSL and the elevation of the airfield
141. Which cloud would produce showers ?

a) NS
b) AS
c) CS
d) CB
142. What clears radiation fog ?

a) Temperature drop
b) Wind speed decreases
c) Wind speed increases
d) Mixing
143. On a surface weather chart, isobars are lines of

a) QNH
b) QFE
c) QFF
d) QNE
144. What is the effect of a strong low level inversion ?

a) Good visibility
b) Calm conditions
c) Turbulence
d) Unstable conditions
145. Air temperature is 12°C, Dew point is 10°C and the sea temperature is 8°C. What might you expect if the air is blown
over the sea ?
a) Steaming fog
b) Radiation fog
c) Arctic smoke
d) Advection fog
146. A cold pool over land in summer would give rise to:
a) Clear skies
b) Low stratus with intermittent rain
c) A potentially very unstable atmosphere
d) Extensive industrial haze
147. Near industrial areas with lots of smoke what the worst situation is for met vis:
a) Low level inversion
b) Strong winds
c) Fast moving cold fronts
d) Cb's in the area
148. Upper level winds are forecast in significant weather charts as:
a) True/knots
b) Magnetic/knots
c) Magnetic/km/h
d) True/km/h2
149. METAR winds are meaned over the.............. period immediately preceding the time of observation.
a) 10 minute
b) 30 minute
c) 1 hour
d) 1 minute
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150. Main TAF's at large aerodromes are valid for approximately:

a) 1 hour
b) 2 hours
c) 6 hours
d) 24 hours
151. The most severe in-flight icing occurs in:

a) Cb
b) Cu
c) Ns
d) FZRA
152. Which of the following constituents in the atmosphere has the greatest effect on the weather?
a) Nitrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Hydrogen
d) Water Vapour
153. When would you mostly likely get fair weather Cu ?

a) 15:00
b) 12:00
c) 17:00
d) 07:00
154. RVR is defined as being

a) The maximum distance an observer on the runway can see marker boards by day and
runway lights by night
b) The maximum distance a pilot in the threshold area at 15ft above the runway can see
marker boards by day or runway lights by night, when looking in the direction of take-off
or landing.
c) The maximum distance in metres a pilot 15ft above the touchdown zone can see marker
boards by day and runway lights by night in the direction of take-off
d) The distance it would be possible to see an observer 15ft above the runway when
standing in the direction of take-off or landing.
155. What type of cloud extends into another level ?

a) As
b) Ace
c) Ns
d) Ci
156. Ceilometers measure

a) RVR
b) Cloud height
c) Met Vis
d) Turbulence
157. In a METAR, the pressure group represents

a) QFE rounded up to the nearest hectopascal
b) QFE rounded down to the nearest hectopascal
c) QNH rounded up to the nearest hectopascal
d) QNH rounded down to the nearest hectopascal
158. On a Station circle decode, the cloud cover is divided into

a) 8 parts
b) 6 parts
c) 4 parts
d) 10 parts
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159. Which of the following is true ? QNH is:

a) Always more than 1013.25 hPa
b) Always less than 1013.25 hPa
c) Never 1013.25 hPa
d) Can never be above or below 1013 hPa
160. Radiation fog extends from the surface to:

a) 5000ft
b) 2000ft
c) 10,000ft
d) 800ft
161. Low level inversions

a) Good vis at night
b) Good vis in the morning
c) Poor vis due to the lack of vertical moving air
d) Poor vis because of the lack of horizontal movement of air
162. What are the TRS off the coast of Madagascar called and when would you expect to find them?
a) Cyclones, in December and January
b) Hurricanes, in July and August
c) Typhoons, in May to November
d) Cyclones, in June and July
163. A forecast trend

a) Aerodrome and valid for 9 hours
b) Route and valid for 24 hours
c) SPECI and valid for 2 hours
d) Landing and valid for 2 hour
164. On rare occasions TS can be found along the warm front. What conditions could lead to this ?
a) The warm sector being stable
b) The warm sector being unstable
c) The cold air being stable
d) The cold air being unstable
165. QNH is 1030. Aerodrome is 200m AMSL. What is QFF ?

a) Higher than 1030
b) Lower than 1030
c) Same
d) Not enough info
166. Where are down draughts predominant in a thunderstorm ?

a) Mature
b) Dissipating
c) Initial
d) Cumulus
167. If an Aerodrome is 1500ft AMSL on QNH 1038, what will the actual height AGL to get to FL75 ?
a) 6670 ft
b) 8170 ft
c) 8330 ft
d) 2330 ft
168. What is FG VV 100 ?

a) RVR less than 100m
b) RVR less than 100ft
c) Vertical visibility is 100m
d) Vertical visibility is 100ft
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169. Where would an anemometer be placed ?

a) close to station, 2m above ground
b) on the roof of the station
c) 10 m above aerodrome elevation on a mast
d) next to the runway, 1 m above ground
170. Altimeter set to 1023 at aerodrome. On climb to altitude the SPS is set at transition altitude. What will indication on
altimeter do on resetting to QNH ?
a) Dependent on temperature
b) Decrease
c) Increase
d) Same
171. 90km/hr wind in kts is:

a) 70
b) 60
c) 50
d) 30
172. The ITCZ is best described as:
a) The area where trade winds from the Northern Hemisphere meets those from the Southern Hemisphere
b) Where west winds meet subtropical high pressure zone
c) Where Harmattan meets the N.E. Trade winds
d) Where cold fronts form in the tropics
173. An aircraft is stationary on the ground. With the passage of an active cold front its altimeter will show:
a) An increase then a decrease
b) Will fluctuate 50ft
c) A decrease then an increase
d) Remain constant
174. What is the average vertical extent of radiation fog ?

a) 2,000 ft
b) 500 ft
c) 5,000 ft
d) 10,000 ft
175. Where is clear ice most likely in a Cb ?

a) Near the freezing level
b) -2°C to -15°C
c) -20°C to -40°C
d) Below -40°C
176. Radiation fog extends to:

a) 8,000 ft
b) 4,000 ft
c) 2,000 ft
d) 500 ft
177. What is reported as precipitation ?

a) FZFG
b) FG
c) TS
d) SN
178. At FL60 what pressure chart would you use ?

a) 700 hPa
b) 850 hPa
c) 800 hPa
d) 900 hPa
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179. On a descent through cloud cover at high level you notice a white, cloudy or opaque, rough powder like substance on the
leading edge of the wing. This contamination is likely to be:
a) Frost
b) Clear ice
c) Mixed ice
d) Rime ice
180. In association with CB in temperate latitudes, at about what levels can hail be anticipated ?
a) Ground to FL 100
b) Ground to FL200
c) Cloud base to FL200
d) Ground to FL450
181. Moderate Turbulence

a) Changes in altitude and/or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at all
times.
b) Slight erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude
c) Large, abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude. Aircraft maybe momentarily out of
control.
d) Slight, rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness.
182. ATIS reports:

a) Aerodrome operational and meteorological information
b) Met only
c) Operational only
183. +TSRA come from what sort of cloud ?

a) Cb
b) Ns
c) Cc
d) Cu
184. Flying 2500 ft below core of jet, with temperature increasing in the Southern Hemisphere, where does the wind come
from ?
a) Head
b) Tail
c) Left
d) Right
185. Secondary depressions move

a) Around the primary in a cyclonic fashion
b) Around the primary in an anticyclonic fashion
c) Eastwards
d) Westwards
186. What temperature and pressure conditions would be safest to ensure that your flight level clears all the obstacles by the
greatest margin ?
a) Cold temp/low pressure
b) Warm temp/high pressure
c) Temp less than or equal to ISA and a QNH less than 1013
d) Temp more than or equal to ISA and a QNH greater than 1013
187. As an active cold front passes, the altimeter of an a/c parked on the apron
a) Increases then decreases
b) Fluctuates by 50 ft
c) Decreases then increases
d) Remains unchanged
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188. Where does a thunderstorms gain its energy from ?

a) Energy gained directly from the sun
b) Latent heat from water in oceans
c) The very fast winds
d) The very low pressures inside the storm
189. What is the height and temperature of Tropopause ?

a) 8km and -40°C at Equator
b) 16km and -75°C at Equator
c) 16km and -40°C at Pole
d) 8 km and -75°C at Pole
190. What is the Easterly wave ?
a) a wave of weather traveling east-west

b) a wave of weather traveling west-east
c) a wave of weather traveling north-south
d) a wave of weather traveling south-north
191. Where is icing worst ?

a) Near condensation level
b) Near freezing level
c) -2°C to -15 °C
d) -16°C to -30°C
192. The Geostrophic Wind blows at your flight level in Northern Hemisphere, true altitude and indicated altitude remain
constant, is the crosswind
a) From the left
b) From the right
c) No crosswind
d) Impossible to determine
193. What is the base of alto cumulus in summer ?

a) 0 - 1500'
b) 1500 - 7000'
c) 7000'- 15000'
d) 7000'- 16500'
194. What is the general height of radiation fog ?

a) 500'
b) 2000'
c) 3000'
d) 1500
195. Which air mass has the coldest temperature ?

a) AM
b) PM
c) PC
d) TM
196. What happens to an aircraft altimeter on the ground once a cold front has passed ?
a) increases
b) decreases
c) increases then decreases
d) remains the same
197. What happens to an aircrafts altimeter on the ground at the approach of a cold front?
a) increases then decreases
b) decreases then increases
c) remains the same
d) increases
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198. Even pressure system, no CB - what would you notice the altimeter in an aircraft on the ground to do during a 10 min
period
a) remains the same as any fluctuations are small
b) increases
c) rapidly fluctuates
d) impossible to tell
199. What cloud is between a warm and cold front ?

a) St with drizzle
b) Cs
c) Ns
d) St with showers
200. From which cloud do you get hail ?

a) Sc
b) Cb
c) Ns
d) Ts
201. To dissipate cloud

a) Subsidence
b) Decrease in temperature
c) Increase pressure
d) Convection
202. When would a SIGMET be issued for subsonic flights

a) Thunderstorms and fog
b) Severe Mountain Waves
c) Solar Flare activity
d) Moderate turbulence
203. Which of these statements about icing is correct ?

a) Ice will occur going through cirrus cloud
b) Large amounts of icing if temperature is way below -12°C
c) Icing increases if dry snow starts to fall from cloud
d) Icing will occur if super-cooled water and ice are present
204. Isolated TS in summer are because of

a) Convection
b) Cold fronts
c) Warm front occlusions
d) Cold front occlusions
205. Trade winds are most prominent or strongest

a) Upper troposphere over sea
b) Lower troposphere over ocean
c) Lower troposphere over land
d) Upper troposphere over land
d) all of the above
207. On a significant weather chart you notice a surface weather front with an arrow labelled with the no. 5 pointing outward
perpendicular from the front. This would indicate
a) Front speed is 5kts
b) Front movement is 5nm
c) Front thickness is 5km
d) front is 5000ft AMSL
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208. With all other things being equal with a high and a low having constantly spaced circular isobars. Where is the wind the
fastest.
a) Anticyclonec
b) Cyclonic
c) Where the isobars are closest together
d) Wherever the PGF is greatest.
209. Foehn winds are

a) Warm katabatic
b) Cold katabatic
c) Warm descending winds
d) Warm anabatic
210. The Gust Front is

a) Characterised by frequent lightning
b) Formed by the cold outflow from beneath TS
c) another name for a cold front
d) Directly below a TS
211. Cu is an indication of
a) vertical movement of air
b) stability
c) the approach of a warm front
d) the approach of a cold front
212. Which clouds are evidence of stable air ?

a) St, As
b) Cb, Cc
c) Cu, Ns
d) Cu, Cb
213. Lack of cloud at low level in a stationary high is due to:

a) instability
b) rising air
c) sinking air
d) divergence at high level
214. What is the ratio of height to width in a typical Jet stream:
a) 1:10
b) 1:100
c) 1:1000
d) 1:10000
215. An easterly wave is a:

a) wave in a trade wind belt, moving from east to west with severe convective activity in rear
of its trough
b) small scale wave disturbance in the tropics, moving from east to west with severe
convective activity ahead of its trough
c) wave-like disturbance in the monsoon regime of indices moving from east to west with
severe convective activity ahead of its trough
d) disturbance in the higher levels associated with the equatorial easterly jets, moving from
east to west, with severe convective activity in rear of its trough
216. What is the most common freezing precipitation ?

a) Freezing pellets
b) Freezing rain and freezing drizzle
c) Freezing graupel
d) Freezing hail and freezing snow
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217. Which of the following is an example of a Foehn wind ?

a) Bora
b) Harmattan
c) Chinook
d) Ghibli
218. From which of the following clouds are you least likely to get precipitation in summer ?
a) CS/NS
b) CS/AS
c) CB/CU
d) CU/ST
219. Where do you find information on ICING and CAT ?
a) 300mb chart
b) 700mb chart
c) Sig. WX chart
d) Analysis chart
220. Relative humidity:

a) Is not affected by temperature
b) Is not affected by air expanding and contracting
c) Does not change when water is added
d) changes when water is added, even if the temperature is the same
221. What happens to the temperature of a saturated air mass when forced to descend?
c) it heats up more than dry because of sublimation
222. When is pressure altitude equal to true altitude ?

a) In standard conditions
b) When surface pressure is 1013.25mb
c) When the temperature is standard
d) When the indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude
223. What is the relationship between QFE and QNH at an airport 50ft below MSL ?
a) QFE = QNH
b) QFE < QNH
c) QFE > QNH
d) There is no clear relationship
224. Where would a pilot find information about the presence of a jet stream ?
a) On an Upper Air chart

b) On a Significant Weather chart
c) On a Surface Analysis chart
d) On a Wind/Temperature chart
225. Up to FL180 ISA Deviation is ISA +10°C. What is the actual depth of the layer between FL60 and FL 120 ?
a) 6000ft
b) 6240ft
c) 5760ft
d) 5700ft
226. Thunderstorms will occur on a warm front:

a) When air is cold moist and cools quicker than SALR
b) When air is warm moist and cools quicker than SALR
c) When air is cold moist and cools slower than SALR
d) When air is warm moist and cools slower than DALR
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227. What is the effect of a mountain valley wind ?

a) it blows down a mountain to a valley at night
b) it blows down a mountain to a valley during the day
c) it blows from a valley up a mountain by day
d) it blows from a valley up a mountain at night
228. In still air a lapse rate of 1.2°C/100m refers to:

a) DALR
b) SALR
c) ELR
d) ALR
229. The DALR is

a) Variable with time
b) Fixed
c) Variable with latitude
d) Variable with temperature
230. Which frontal or occlusion system is the fastest moving ?

a) Warm front
b) Cold front
c) Cold occlusion
d) Warm occlusion
231. From the pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31000 ft whilst you are at FL270. You experience moderate
CAT, what would be the best course of action ?
a) Stay level
b) Descend
c) Climb
d) Reduce speed
232. On a significant weather chart you notice a symbol with the letter "H" and the number "400" inside. What does this
imply ?
a) The height of the significant weather chart
b) Tropopause "low"
c) Tropopause "high"
d) Tropopause "middle"
233. You are at 12,000 ft (FL 120) with an outside air temperature is -2°C. Where would you find the freezing level ?
a) FL 110
b) FL 100
c) FL 090
d) FL 140
234. What is true about the dew point temperature ?

a) Can be higher or lower than the air mass temperature
b) Can be higher than the temperature of the air mass only
c) Can be only lower than the temperature of the air mass
d) Can be equal to or lower than the temperature of the air mass
235. Wind is caused by ?

a) Mixing of fronts
b) Horizontal pressure difference
c) Earth rotation
d) Surface friction
236. What weather might you expect behind a fast moving cold front ?
a) 8 oktas of layered cloud
b) Scattered ST
c) Isolated CB's and showers
d) Continuous rain
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237. How would an unstable atmosphere likely reduce the visibility ?

a) By mist
b) By haze
c) By rain and or snow
d) Low stratus
238. What is a SPECI ?

a) A forecast valid for 3 hours
b) A report produced when significant changes have occurred
c) A forecast and valid for 6 hours
d) A landing forecast
239. A parcel of air cooling by more than 1°C/100m is said to be ?

a) Conditionally stable
c) Unstable
d) Stable
240. The wind in the Northern Hemisphere at the surface and above the friction layer at 2000 ft would be?
a) Veered at the surface, veered above the friction layer
b) Backed at the surface, veered above the friction layer
c) Veered at the surface, backed above the friction layer
d) Backed at the surface, backed above the friction layer
241. Where are easterly and westerly jets found ?

a) Northern hemisphere only
b) Southern hemisphere only
c) Northern and southern hemisphere
d) There are no easterly jets.
242. In a shallow pressure distribution you observe the aneroid altimeter of a parked aircraft for 10 minutes (no TS observed).
The reading of the instrument will -
a) not be influenced by the air pressure
b)increase greatly .
c)slow no appreciable change due to such a minor pressure fluctuation. .
d) experience great changes..
243. Thermal lows usually develop

a) Over the sea in summer.
b) Over the sea in winter.
c) Over the land in summer.
d) Over the land in winter.
244. TAF's are usually valid for

a) For the period indicated in the TAF itself
b) For 18 hours
c) For 24 hours.
d) For 8 hours.
245. Tornadoes are usually associated with which cloud type

a) Ns
b) Cu
c) Cb
d) Ts
246. Wind at altitude is usually given as ........ in ........

a) True m/s
b) Magnetic m/s
c) True KTs
d) Magnetic KTs
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247. The surface wind circulation found between the sub tropical highs and the equatorial lows are called?
a) The doldrums
b) The trade winds
c) The easterlies
d) The westerlies
248. An occlusion is mimicking a cold front, where would the coldest air be found ?
a) Behind the original cold front.
b) Behind the original warm front
c) In front of the occlusion.
d) In front of the original warm front.
249. In a high pressure systems

a) The winds tend to be stronger in the morning.
b) The angle between the isobars and the wind direction is greatest in the afternoon.
c) The winds tend to be stronger at night.
d) The winds tend to be stronger in early afternoon.
250. Over flat dry land what would cause cloud ?

a) Orographic uplift.
b) Convective uplift during the day.
c) Release of latent heat.
d) Advection.
251. Where does freezing rain come from ?

a) Cold hail falling into a warm layer.
b) Cold rain falling into a warmer layer.
c) Warmer rain falling into a colder layer.
d) Cold rain falling into cold layer.
252. The letters NC used at the end of a SIGMET, mean:

a) No cloud
b) No change
c) No cumulus
d) Not clear
253. On the route London to Bombay, which feature would you most likely encounter between 30E and 50E.
a) Polar front jet in excess of 90kts
b) Sub tropical jet in excess of 90kts
c) Variable winds less than 30kts
d) Easterly winds
254. When would the strongest convection occur ?

a) Land in summer
b) Land in winter
c) Sea in summer
d) Sea in winter
255. Which way does a depression move ?

a) Direction of the isobars in the warm sector
b) 90 degrees to the plane of the warm front
c) Towards the east
d) Direction of the isobars behind the cold front
256. Freezing rain is most likely from

a) Warm front in summer
b) Cold front in summer
c) Warm front in winter
d) cold front in winter
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257. With regard to RVR and Met vis

a) Met vis is usually less than RVR
b) Met vis is usually greater than RVR
c) RVR is usually less than met vis
d) Met vis and RVR are usually the same
258. When are thermal lows most likely

a) Land in summer
b) Land in winter
c) Sea in summer
d) Sea in winter
259. What is the validity of a significant weather chart

a) 3 hrs
b) 6 hrs
c) 9 hrs
d) 12 hrs
260. What is the main feature of the initial stage of a thunderstorm

a) Downdrafts
b) up currents
c) rain
d) rotor cloud
261. What is haze ?

a) poor visibility due to drizzle
b) poor visibility due to rain
c) poor visibility due to dust or sand
d) all of the above
262. What do the letters NO SIG mean at the end of a METAR ?

a) No significant change
b) No significant weather
c) No significant cloud
d) No signature on report
263. What is a trend forecast

a) An aerodrome forecast valid for 9 hours
b) A routine report
c) A landing forecast appended to a METAR/SPECI valid for 2 hours.
d) A route forecast, valid for 24 hours.
264. How does clear ice form ?

a) SWD's speading on impact
b) Ice pellets shattering on impact
c) Frost on the wing
d) Water vapour freezing on the aircraft surface.
265. Where is windshear the greatest?

a) Near a strong low level inversion and in the region of a thunderstorm
b) ear a valley with wind speeds greater than 35kts
c) On the windward side of a mountain
d) When the wind is greater than 35kts
266. Where do you find squall lines

a) Where there are thunderstorms
b) Ahead of a fast moving cold front
c) Foggy areas
d) Regions of snow
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267. A Fohn wind occurs

a) On the windward side caused by surface heating
b) On the leeward side, because the condensation level is higher
c) On the windward side, caused by surface cooling and wind flow reversal
d) On the leeward side, caused by precipitation
268. Icing is most likely

a) -20 to --35 C
b) +10 to 0 C
c) 0 to - 10C
d) below - 35 C
269. At what height is half the mass of the atmosphere

a) 5km
b) 11 km
c) 8km
d) 3km
270. How can you determine QNH from QFE

a) Temperature and elevation
b) Elevation
c) Pressure and temperature
d) Temperature
271. What is true about moderate to severe airframe icing

a) It will occur in clear sky conditions
b) Always occurs in AS cloud
c) May occur in the uppermost levels of CB capillatus formation
d) Most likely in NS
272. An aircraft flies into an area of supercooled rain with a temperature below zero, what kind of icing is most likely
a) Clear
b) Rime
c) Hoar frost
d) Granular frost
273. What causes convection in a low pressure system

a) Height
b) Latitude
c) Centripetal force
d) Friction
274. An unsaturated parcel of air is forced to rise through an isothermal layer. As long as it stays unsaturated the temperature
of the parcel will
a) Remain the same
b) Become equal to the temperature of the isothermal layer
c) Decrease at 1.0 deg C per 100m
d) Decrease at 0.65 deg C per 100m
275. 1n the Northern Hemisphere a man observes a low pressure system passing him to the south, from west to east. What
wind will he experience?
a) Backs then Veers
b) Constantly Backs
c) Veers then Backs
d) Backs then steady
276. What is Relative Humidity dependent upon ?

a) Moisture content and temperature of the air
b) Temperature of the air
c) Temperature and pressure
d) Moisture content of the air
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277. Which season is called transition period in Bangladesh.?

a) winter season
b) summer season
c) monsoon season
d) .post monsoon season
278. Which of these statements is true about Hurricanes?

a) They are 400-500m wide.
b) They pick up in force when they hit land .
c) The air inside is warmer than outside and can reach up to tropopause.
d) They are never found more than 25° latitude.
279. If you fly with left drift in the Northern Hemisphere, what is happening to your true altitude?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Stays the same
d) Cannot tell
280. Where is the ITCZ in July ?

a) 25 N over the Atlantic
b) 10 - 20 N over East Africa and the Arabian sea
c) 10 - 30 N over West Africa
d) 20 - 30 N over East Africa
281. In a shallow pressure distribution (widely spaced Isobars or low pressure gradients) you observe the aneroid altimeter of
a parked aircraft for 10 minutes (no thunderstorms observed). The reading of the instrument will...
a) Not be influenced by the air pressure
b) Increase greatly
c) Show no appreciable change due to such a minor pressure fluctuation
d) Experience great changes
282. When is diurnal variation a maximum ?

a) Clear sky, still wind
b) Clear sky, strong wind
c) OVC, still
d) OVC, windy
283. Above a stable layer in the lower troposphere in an old high pressure system is called:
a) radiation inversion
b) subsidence inversion
c) frontal inversion
d) terrestrial inversion
284. Why does air cool as it rises ?

a) It expands
b) It contracts
285. How does the level of the tropopause vary with latitude in the Northern Hemisphere ?
a) Decreases North - South
b) Decreases South - North
c) Constant
d) It varies with longitude not latitude
286. Which of the following gives conditionally unstable conditions?

a) 1°C/100m
b) 0.65°C/100m
c) 0.49°C/ 100m
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287. What affects how much water vapour the air can hold ?
a) RH
b) Temperature
c) Dew point
d) Pressure
288. The figures “9999” in a meteorological forecast or report means -

a) 8 km
b) 10 km or more
c) 5 km
d) 12 km
289. Where is the ozone layer ?

a) ionosphere
b) Stratosphere
c) Tropopause
d) Troposphere
290. Landing at an airfield with QNH set the pressure altimeter reads:
a) Zero feet on landing only if ISA conditions prevail
b) Zero
c) The elevation of the airfield if ISA conditions prevail
d) The elevation of the airfield
291. The geotropic wind blows at your flight level in the Northern Hemisphere, the true altitude and indicated altitude remain
constant, is the cross wind :-
a) From the left
b) From the right
c) No cross wind .
d) Impossible to determine.
292. What is the movement of air relating to a trough ?

d) Converging and ascending
293. The core of a jet stream located –

a)At the level where temperature change with altitude becomes little or nil and the pressure surface is at a maximum
slope .
b) In the warm air where the pressure surface is horizontal .
c) In the warm and directly beneath at the surface .
d) In cold air .
294. What happens to an aircrafts altimeters on the ground ones a cold front has passed ?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Increases then decreases
d) Remain the same
295. Relative humidity increases in

a) Warmer air compared to colder air
b) Warm air at a constant vapour pressure
c) Cold air at a constant vapour pressure
d) Colder air compared to warmer air
296. Which of the following will give the greatest difference between temperature and dew point ?
a) Dry air
b) Moist air
c) Cold air
d) Warm air
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297. In which part of the world are Tropical Revolving Storms most frequent ?
a) Caribbean
b) Madagascar, eastern Indian ocean .
c) North West Pacific – Japan , Korea, Southeast Asia .
d) Northern Indian Ocean around India, Srilanka.
298. An early morning fog over the sea lasts all day. As the land heats up, the sea fog -
a) May drift over the land
b) will always disperse
c) will always remain over the sea
d) will always remain over the land.

d) all of the above
300. When is pressure altitude equal to true altitude ?

a) In standard conditions
b) When surface pressure is 1013.25mb
c) When the temperature is standard
d) When the indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude
301. NOAA is a polar orbital Meteorological satellite which was launched by :

a) Russia
b) USA
c) Japan
d) ESA
302. Satellite Data Distribution System (SADIS) is a system for distribution of :-

a) Radar imageries
b) Meteorological data distribution system
c) Telecommunication system
d) Rainfall measurement system
303. Bangladesh Meteorological Department has :

a) 3 Radar
b) 4 Radar
c) 5 Radar
d) 2 Radar station
304. Radar is used for :-

a) Wind direction and speed
b) Sea surface temperature
c) Detection cyclone and cloud movement
d) Detection of soil moisture
305. Sigmet is issued by Meteorological watch office for every :

a) 3 hours interval
b) 4 hours interval
c) 2 hours interval
d) 5 hours interval
306. 5, 6 and 7 octas cloud is express as :

a) OVC
b) BKN
c) SCT
d) FEW
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307. Synoptic surface observation are generally taken every :

a) 2 hours interval
b) 3 hours interval
c) 4 hours interval
d) 6 hours interval
308. For a short range weather forecast which observation is more effective :
a) Satellite observation
b) Radar observation
c) Radio sonde observation
d) Ship observation
309. Which seasons is called transition period :-

a) NE monsoon
b) SW monsoon
c) Pre-monsoon
d) Retreating monsoon
310. Maximum frequency of Nor’wester in Dhaka during the month of :-

a) March
b) April
c) May
d) June
311. Which type of Nor’wester reaches upto Meghna estuary through Rajshahi Division :-
a) Type-A
b) Type-B
c) Type-C
d) Type-D
312. In the month of June tropical revolving storm in the Arabian sea may affect :-
a) Delhi
b) Dhaka
c) Karachi
d) Kolkata
313. In Horse latitude weather is :-

a)Cold
b) Clear and fresh
c) Rain and thunderstorm
d) Squally wind
314. After passing western disturbance the weather phenomena occurs :-

a) Tropical cyclone
b) Morning fog
c) Tornado
d) Heat wave
315. Most of the active western disturbance that comes towards Bangladesh are :-
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
316. Western disturbance do not precisely travel west to east but their normal track is slightly :-
a) N/NE-ward
b) South-SE ward
c) E/NE-wards
d) North to South ward
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317. On set date of SW monsoon in Bangladesh is :-

a) 1st week of July
b) 1st week of June
c) 1st week of October
d) 1st week of May
318. The winter rainfall in India-Pakistan and Bangladesh is mostly due to :-

a) South-west monsoon
b) Nor’wester
c) North-East monsoon
d) Western disturbance
319. Pre-monsoon season in Bangladesh is :-

a) June to September
b) March to May
c) December to February
d) October to November
320. Maximum frequency of tornadoes that occurs in Bangladesh during the month of :-
a) March
b) April
c) May
d) June
321. A mamatus sky often gives warning for the formation of :-

a)Cyclone
b) Tornado
c) Monsoon
d) Western disturbance
322. Tornado often travels in a :-

a) Straight way
b) Horizontal way
c) Erratic and skipping way
d) North to south way
323. The SW monsoon reach up to :-

a) Delhi
b) China
c) Persian gulf
d) Baluchistan.
324. Before issuing forecast a Meteorological officer follows :-

a) Only TAF
b) TAF and METAR
c) All charts, Satellite data, significant weather chart etc
325. For graphical record of air surface temperature the instrument used :-
a) Barograph
b) Thermometer
c) Thermograph
d) Hygrograph
326. Bangladesh is characterized by high pressure area during :-

a) Pre-monsoon season
b) NE monsoon season
c) SW monsoon season
d) Retreating monsoon season
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327 When would a SIGMET be issued be for subsonic flights.

a) Thunderstorms and fog.
b) Severe mountain waves .
c) Solar Flare activity.
d) Moderate turbulence .
328. The average eye of a tropical cyclone is :

a) 30-40 miles
b) 15-20 miles
c) 10-15 miles
d) 40-50 miles
329. Which of the following constituents in the atmosphere has the greatest effect on weather :-
a) Nitrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Water vapor
d) Hydrogen.
330. Ascent of balloon at night by observing :

a) A torch light
b) A lantern attached to the balloon
c) A charger light
d) A electric bulb
331. Which is likely to cause aquaplaning ?

a) +RA
b) SA
c) FG
d) DS
332. With the approach of a warm front ?

a) QNH/QFE decreases
b) QNH/QFE increase
c) QNH decrease and QFE increases
d) QNH increase and QFE decreases
333. Solar radiation heats the atmosphere by-

a) Heating the air directly
b) Heating the surface, this there heats the air in the atmosphere
c) Heating the water vapour in the atmosphere directly
d) Heating the water vapour directly unless there are clouds present.
334. For carburetor ice to form , the outside air must be -

a) Bellow freezing
b) Moist
c) Dry
d) Cold and moist
335. Air at the upper levels of the atmosphere is diverging, what would you expect at he surface ?
a) Rise in pressure with clouds dissipating
b) Rise in pressure with clouds dissipating
c) Fall in pressure with cloud dissipating
d) Fall in pressure with cloud forming.
336. What happens to the stability of the atmosphere in an inversion ?

b) Unstable
97
337. What happens to stability of the atmosphere in an isothermal layer ?

b) Unstable
338. What causes the formation of aircraft contrails at certain altitudes ?

a) Water vapour that condenses behind the engines
b) Spot particles from the engine exhaust
c) Water vapour that condenses in the wing tips due to pressure changes in the relative
warm air
d) Un burnt fuel
339. If ice forms over the static vent of an aeroplane and blocks it during the climb , the air speed indicator will read
a) Zero
b) Too fast
c) Too slow
d) Correctly
340. Flying into an area where the cloud base is lowering to within 1000ft of the terrain , ice starts to form on the wings your
of course of action is to -
a) climb, even though it means entering cloud.
b) Descend into warmer air, but continue on.
c) maintin track and level .
d) turn back
341. A man is flying East to West in the Northern Hemisphere. What is happening to the altitude ?
a) Flying into a head wind will decrease altitude
b) If the wind is from the south, he will gain altitude
c) If the wind is from the north, he will gain altitude
d) Tail wind will increase altitude
342. What type of cloud extends into another level ?

a) AS
b) AC
c) NS
d) CI
343. Weather formation for certain aerodromes is available in recorded form on the VOLMET service -
a) Through the post
b) By radio
c) Via the public telephone network.
d) From ATC prior to flight.
344. Where do you find squall lines ?

a) Where there is a thunderstorms
b) Ahead of a fast moving clod front
c) Foggy areas
d) Regions of snow
345. Why does air cooler it rises ?

a) It expands
b) It contracts
346. What is the technical term for an increase in temperature with altitude ?
a) Inversion
b) Advection
c) Adiabatic
d) Subsidence
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347. On a surface weather chart isobars are lines of

a) QNH
b) QFE
c) QFF
d) QNE
348. With the approach of a cold front, temp. will

a) Decrease
b) Remain the same
c) Increase
d) Decrease then increase
349. In association with CB in temperature latitude at about what levels can hail be anticipated
a) Ground to FL 100
b) Ground to FL 200
c) Cloud base FL 200
d) Ground to FL 450
350. A weather forecast is -----------

a) an observer
b) a prediction
c) a landing forecast
d) a trend forecast
99
Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures (ATPL/FOOL)
Operational Procedures
Chapter – 01
1. Decision Altitude (DA) or Decision Height (DH) is defined as a specified vertical displacement
in a approach procedure at which a must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue
the approach has not been established. Which of the following combinations correctly completes
the definition?
1. Non precision.
2. Precision.
3. Go around.
4. Missed Approach.
a. I and 3.
b. 2 and 4.
c. 2 and 3.
d. I and 4.
2. Minimum Descent Height (MDH) or Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) is defined as:
a. A specific height or altitude in a precision approach or circling approach below which
descent must not be made without the required visual reference.
b. The lowest height or altitude to which an approach may be flown using the autopilot.
c. A specific height or altitude in a non- precision approach or circling approach below
which descent must not be made without the required visual reference.
d. The lowest safe height or attitude for any type of approach including visual approaches.
3. ICAO Annex 6 is applicable to operators authorized to conduct:

a. Only Air Transport operations.
b. Only general aviation operations.
c. Scheduled and non-scheduled imitational commercial air transport operations.
d. Private and commercial operations.
4. Who has responsibility for operational control?

a. The Pilot-in-Command.
b. The Operator (or nominated representative).
c. The area operations staff including ATC.
d. The CAAB.
5. Operators are to ensure that all their employees:

a. Are CAAB qualified.
b. Comply with the law of the State of Registration.
c. Comply with ICAO SARPS and PANS.
d. Comply with the laws of the State in which operations are being conducted.
6. Pilots and members of flight crews are to be familiar with the laws, regulations and procedures
applicable to:
a. The aerodromes they are using in the line of duty.
b. The airspace of all states.
c. Customs, health and Immigration of all ICAO Conti-acting States.
d. The national civil aviation authority of the State of Registration.
1
7. Commanders of aircraft are to have on board essential information for the route to be flown
which covers:
a. Landing and navigation fees applicable.
b. Customs and Excise regulations for all destinations and diversion aerodromes.
c. Search and Rescue.
d. Agreements (multi-lateral or bi-lateral) relating to International Air Transport.
8. Who has the responsibility for the maintenance of Flight Safety and Accident Prevention
Programmes?
a. The Operator.
b. The Pilot-in-Command.
c. The Authority.
d. ICAO.
9. Which of the following statements correctly describes what an operator must demonstrate before
the issue of an Air Operators Certificate (AOC)"
1. Organisation, method of control and supervision of flight operations.
2. Training programs.
3. Maintenance arrangements.
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3
c. 1 and 2
d. 2 and 3
10. The carriage of dangerous goods in airplanes is the subject of specific rules and regulations.
Operators are specifically required to:
a. Inspect the content of any consignment to ensure that the consignee has correctly
labeled the contents.
b. Ensure that the relevant regulations are complied with.
c. Specify what materials constitute dangerous goods.
d. Specify the manner in which dangerous goods are to be labeled.
11. To taxi an airplane, the person at the controls must be:

a. A qualified ATPL holder.
b. A CAAB qualified engineer.
c. Checked out on the aircraft type.
d. Authorized by the operator.
12. A person qualified to taxi an airplane must have received instruction from a competent person
concerning which of the following:
1. Aerodrome layout.
2. Signs.
3. Markings.
4. ATC signals and instructions.
a. All of the above.

b. 2, 3 and 4 only.
c. I and 4 only.
d. 4 only.
2
13. If an operator specifies a minimum flight altitude for a route, it must be:
a. Equal to or lower than that specified by the State over which the flight is being flown.
b. Not below FL 100.
c. Not less than the flight altitudes specified by the State for the same route.
d. A flight level.
14. Who is responsible for approving methods of calculating minimum flight altitudes?
a. The CAAB.
b. The State of the Operator.
c. The Operator.
d. ICAO.
15. Which combination of the following correctly details the factors that should be considered by an
Operator when determining MFA?
1. Possible inaccuracies in charts for the route.
2. Characteristics of the terrain to be over-flown.
3. The composition of the flight crew.
4. The likelihood of encountering unfavorable weather.
5. Altimeter inaccuracies.
6. Airspace restrictions.
7. Navigation inaccuracies.
a. All the above.

b. All except I and 3.
c. All except 1, 3 and 5.
d. All except 3.
16. Who is responsible for establishing aerodrome operating minima (AOM)?

a. ATC at the aerodrome.
b. The Pilot-M-Command.
c. The State of the Operator.
d. The Operator.
17. Who is responsible for authorizing the method of calculation of aerodrome operating minima (AOM)?
a. ATC at the aerodrome.
d. The Operator.
18. Which of the following is not considered when establishing A aerodrome operating minima (AOM)?
a. The frequency of meteorological reports.
b. Adequacy and provision of ground aids.
c. Dimensions and characteristics of runways.
d. The competence and experience of flight crews.
19. In calculating AOM which of the following is/are taken into consideration?
a. The height of obstacles in the missed approach area.
b. Obstacles in the climb-out areas over 150m (495ft) AGL.
c. All obstacles within l5km of the threshold over 150m (495ft AMSL).
d. Obstacles 8km either side of track.
3
20. Who is responsible for ensuring that all passengers are briefed before take-of.
a. The Operator.
d. The Senior Flight Attendant.
21. When are passengers required to be briefed about the location and use of life jackets?
a. When required by the Operator.
b. When the Pilot-in-Command authorizes the use of life jackets.
c. If the carriage of life Jackets in the airplane is required.
d. Where flight over water (including lakes and rivers) is likely.
22. Passengers are to be secured in their seats by seat belts or harnesses during take-off and landing,
turbulence and an emergency. When also must they be secured?
a. During climb and descent.
b. During a practice emergency.
c. Whilst asleep with the seat fully reclined.
d. Whenever the precaution is considered necessary.
23. What instructions are to be given to passengers during an emergency in flight?

a. Instruction regarding the use of life Jackets.
b. Instructions concerning emergency actions that may be considered necessary.
c. Emergency evacuation instructions.
d. Instructions for the use of smoke hoods.
24. Before any flight is commenced, forms must be completed certifying, amongst other things, that
the aircraft is airworthy. Who must be satisfied that all the pre-flight requirements have been
complied with?
a. The Flight Dispatcher.
c. The Flight Operations Manager.
d. The Operator.
25. How long is the Operator to retain completed flight preparation forms for?
a. 48 hours.
b. I year.
c. 6 months.
d. 3 months.
26. Who should sign an Operational Flight Plan (OFP)?

a. The Pilot-in-Command and the Chief Engineer.
b. The Pilot-in-Command and the Operations Officer.
c. The Pilot-in-Command and the Operations Officer/Flight Dispatcher (if applicable).
d. Only the Pilot-in-Command.
27. If it is not possible to file a copy of the OFP with the Operator (or agent) it should be:
a. Posted to the Operator (a certificate of proof of posting is required).
b. Taken in a sealed envelope to the next aerodrome where the Operator or agent has a
representative.
c. Left with the aerodrome authorities.
d. Sent to the authority within 10 days.
4
28. The content of an OFP is detailed in which document?

a. FCOM.
b. The AIP of the State of Registration.
c. The Operations Manual.
d. ICAO Annex 6.
29. An Operational Flight Plan (OFP) must specify the take-off alternate (diversion) aerodrome for
use in the event of a flight emergency shortly after take-off when:
a. The RVR and cloud ceiling at the departure aerodrome is below minima.
b. The length of runway at the departure aerodrome is not long enough to allow the aircraft
to roll to a standstill if the brakes fall.
c. The aircraft is carrying dangerous goods and a full fuel load.
d. There is insufficient time to jettison fuel to landing weight to use the departure
aerodrome.
30. Which of the following are valid criteria for a take-off diversion aerodrome?
a. Not more than 2 hours flying distance for a twin-engined airplane.
b. Not less than 2 hours flying distance for 3-engined airplane with one engine out.
c. Not more than I hour flying distance for any airplane with one engine out.
d. 2 hours or less flying time at 'one engine out' cruise speed for a 4-engined airplane.
31. In deciding if an aerodrome is useable as a take-off alternate, which is correct'?

a. It must be capable of CATIIIA operations.
b. The OCH must not be less than that of the aerodrome of departure.
c. The RVR and cloud ceiling must be at or above the aerodrome minima at the expected
time of take-off.
d. For IFR flights the aerodrome minima must be greater than that approved by the operator
or the State of Registration and no approach is permitted to have a visual element (le 110
circling approaches).
32. A destination alternative (diversion) aerodrome must be specified for:

a. Any flight for public transport over 40km.
b. Any IFR flight unless there is reasonable certainty that at the ETA a visual approach and
landing can be made.
c A flight to a remote aerodrome where no local diversion exists.
d. Any flight where a take-off diversion has been planned.
33. A flight may be conducted under VFR only if-

a. VMC exists all along the route to be flown under VFR.
b. An IFR flight plan has previously been filed and the flight conditions are VNIC.
c. A VFR flight plan has been filed and a clearance received.
d. The maximum take-off mass does not exceed 470OK-s.
34. In order for a flight to be commenced under IFR:

a. IMC must be expected to exist all along the route.
b. It is expected that an instrument approach will be flown at the destination.
c. A met report must indicate that IMC exists somewhere along the route.
d. The met conditions must be equal to or better than the specified minima at the
destination or destination alternate.
5
35. For any flight a quantity of fuel must be carried to ensure that:
a. The flight can be safely completed with a reserve for contingencies.
b. The flight can be safely completed taking into account the weather, load, aerodrome
criteria, and flight characteristics of the airplane.
c. The airplane is not over landing mass at the destination.
d. In the event of an emergency, fuel does not have to be Jettisoned over land.
36. For a propeller driven airplane, sufficient fuel must be carried to cater for flight to:
a. The nominated destination and then to the most fuel consumption critical alternate and
then remain airborne for a further 15 minutes.
b. The nominated destination and then to the most fuel consumption critical alternate and
c. The nominated destination and then to the most fuel consumption critical alternate and
d. The nominated destination and then to the most fuel consumption critical alternate and
37. For a propeller driven airplane, sufficient fuel must be carried when a destination alternate is
not required (VMC situation), to allow flight to the destination and then remain airborne for a
minimum of:
a. 45 minutes.
b. hours.
C. 15% of the flight planned cruising time plus 45 minutes.
d. 15% of the flight planned cruising time plus 2 hours.
38. If a turbo-jet engined airplane has a nominated destination diversion aerodrome and the Pilot-
in-Command decides to attempt a landing at the nominated destination, the airplane must carry
sufficient fuel to fly to the destination alternate after:
a. Carrying out an instrument approach to DH/A and then climbing to the nominated
cruising level en-route to the diversion aerodrome.
b. Flying an approach and a missed approach.
c. Making a straight in approach to MDH/A, then one circling approach before diverting.
d. Flying an approved instrument approach procedure.
39. The Pilot-in-Command of a turbo-jet engined airplane, in deciding how much fuel to include
for diversion to a destination alternate, must include a quantity of fuel necessary:
a. To fly to the flight planned destination alternate and thereafter for 30 m1nutcs at holding
speed at 1,500ft.
b. To remain airborne above the nominated destination for 30 minutes at I 000ft above tile
aerodrome plus an amount for contingencies.
c. To fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at FL50 above the destination aerodrome.
d. To fly at holding speed at FL50 for 15% of the flight time planned to be spent at cruising
altitude.
40. If passengers are on board an airplane, or are embarking or disembarking, which of the
following is correct?
a. Refueling is not permitted under any circumstances.
b. Refueling is permitted provided qualified ground crew are in attendance.
c. Refueling is only permitted providing no communications equipment is used in the
vicinity of the airplane.
d. Refueling is permitted only if qualified cabin staff (able to direct an immediate
evacuation) are in attendance.
6
41. What is the maximum cabin altitude at which an airplane can be flown without provision of
oxygen for crew and passengers?
a. 620hPa (13 000 ft).
b. 700hPa (10 000 ft).
c. 376hPa (25 000 ft).
d. 500hPa (18 000 ft).
42. "If a flight is to be conducted where the atmospheric pressure is less than ……….. (1) hPa but the
airplane cannot descend within …………(2) minutes to 13 000ft, then not less than ………..(3)
minutes supply of oxygen is to be carried for all the occupants of the airplane." From the
following select the combination that correctly completes the statement.
(1) (2) (3)
a. 500 5 5
b. 500 5 10
c. 376 4 5
d. 376 4 10
43. When may the operating minima for an aerodrome be exceeded?

a. In an emergency.
b. When authorized by the Operator.
c. When authorized by the aerodrome ATCU.
d. When authorized by the Authority of the State in which the aerodrome is located.
44. If information indicates that at ETA a landing at the destination or one of the destination
alternates would not be possible within the established minima, then:
a. The flight may continue provided an en-route alternate (diversion) aerodrome will
remain open throughout the duration of the flight.
b. The flight may continue if the operator authorizes reduced minima.
c. The flight may not continue.
d. The flight may continue providing sufficient holding fuel (2 hours plus 15% of cruising
fuel) is carried as a contingency load.
45. When are all flight crew members required to be at their duty stations?
a. In an emergency.
b. In IMC.
c. During an instrument approach where the RVR is at minima.
d. For routine take-offs and landings.
46. During the en-route phase of a flight, all flight crew are to remain at their duty stations. Which
of the following are permitted exceptions from this rule?
1. To use the toilet facilities.
2. To assist the cabin staff to serve the food.
3. In the performance of crew duty.
4. During required rest periods.
5. When properly relieved by a replacement crew member.
b. All the above except 2.
C. 1, 3 and 4 only.
d. I and 3 only.
47. When flight crew members are at their duty stations they must:
a. Fully fasten the safety harness.
b. Wear a communications head set.
c. Fully raise the seat.
d. Keep the seat belts fastened.
7
48. During take off and landing, flight crew members occupying a pilot's seat Must have the seat
harness fully fastened. Other flight crew members may:
a. Dispense with the harness.
b. Dispense with the shoulder straps if they interfere with the performance of duty.
c. Sit on the floor if there are no spare seats.
d. Dispense with the harness in all cases except during an emergency.
49. Where the use of oxygen is prescribed, flight crew members are to:
a. Use oxygen continuously.
b. Use oxygen for 10% of the time.
c. Use oxygen at all times providing the equipment does not impair operational
performance.
d. Only use oxygen at night.
50. If, during a flight, the Pilot-in-Command wishes to change the profile of a cleared night plan, he
must:
a. Inform the Operator.
b. Inform ATC.
c. Do nothing until ATC clears the change.
d. Inform the Authority within 10 days.
51. Who is responsible for completing the journey log or the general declaration?
a. The Operator.
c. The Purser.
d. The Flight Engineer.
52. Who is responsible for notifying the nearest appropriate authority by the quickest means possible
of any accident involving an airplane resulting in serious injury or death of any person or
substantial damage to the airplane or property?
a. The Operator.
b. The ATCC in the State in or over which the airplane was being flown.
c. The Pilot-in-Command.
d. A CAAB approved person or a Police Officer.
53. A Flight Operations Officer (or Flight Dispatcher) when on duty, is responsible for:
a. Filing the ATS flight plan.
b. Preparing the route flight plan.
c. Compiling the Operational Flight Plan.
d. Loading the airplane.
54. The Flight Operations Officer is responsible to the Operator for initiating the procedures defined
in the operations manual in the event of an emergency, providing such action does not conflict
with procedures established by which of the following:
1. ATC.
2. The meteorological service.
3. The communications service.

b. None of the above.
c. I and 3 only.
d. I only.
8
55. Which of the following factors do not affect the performance of airplanes:
1. The aircraft category.

2. The take-off mass.
3. Outside air temperature.
4. The gradient of the runway.
5. Visibility.
a. All affect the performance.

b. 1 and 4 do not affect performance.
c. 4 and 5 do not affect performance.
d. 1 and 5 do not affect performance.
56. In order to comply with the mass limitations for take-off and en-route flying (including 'engine
out' situations) the mass of the airplane at engine start must not exceed:
a. Maximum take-off mass.
b. Maximum take-off mass plus an allowance for taxiing to the runway in use.
c. Maximum take-off mass plus any contingency fuel required by the operator.
d. Maximum take-off mass plus an allowance for the difference in temperature between
OAT and ISA.
57. The landing mass of an airplane must take which of the following into consideration:
a. Noise abatement procedures.

b. Aircraft wake turbulence category.
c. Maximum single wheel loading factor for the runway to be used.
d. Taxiing distance from the end of the duty runway to the unloading bay.
58. For an airplane with three engines or more, the take-off mass must be such that in the event of
two engines failing anywhere along the route:
a. The fuel jettison time to maximum landing mass must not exceed 10 minutes.
b. There must always be sufficient fuel remaining to continue to the planned destination.
c. There must be sufficient fuel to fly to the planned destination or an en-route alternate.
d. The fuel must allow the flight to continue to planned destination at the best 'two engine
out' height.
59. In order to comply with noise abatement requirements, the mass at take-off must not exceed the
stated relevant maximum unless:
a. The Operator has unauthorized non-compliance.
b. The use of a runway with no noise problem has been authorized.
c. In an emergency and the authority is informed within 10 days.
d. The Pilot-in-Command decides that compliance with noise abatement procedures will
endanger his aircraft and the passengers.
60. In the event of a critical power unit failing during the take-off run, the airplane shall be able to:
a. Stop on the runway always.
b. Stop on the runway if the failure occurs before V, providing the runway length is greater
than the Accelerate Stop Distance Available (ASDA).
c. Continue the flight without reduction in aircraft performance.
d. After V,, take-off and clear obstacles by an adequate margin until en-route flying
conditions can be maintained.
9
61. Which of the following is correct when calculating the length of the runway available?
a. The overall length less the slope factor (runway length x cos angle of slope).
b. The overall length plus the length of the overrun.
c. The overall length less any distance lost in lining tip.
d. The overall length plus the slope factor (runway length x cos angle of slope).
62. The Operator is responsible for the provision of an operating manual. It is to be relevant to:
a. Operations staff and flight crew, and specific to aircraft type.
b. All the operators' employees and all the operations conducted.
c. The type of general aviation operations undertaken under an AOC.
d. All aircraft types with a max take-off mass exceeding 5 700kg.
63. Which of the following are essential contents of an operations manual?
1. Fatigue and flight time limitations.

2. Operations administration and supervision.
3. Human performance.
4. Airplane performance.
5. Quality Assurance.

b. All except 5.
c All except 4.
d. All except 3 and 5.
64. Medical equipment is to be carried on aircraft usually in the form of first aid kits. On airplanes
certified to carry more than a specified number of passengers, a kit for use by medically qualified
personnel is to be carried. The specified number of passengers is:
a. 21
b. 51
c. 100
d. 250
65. Three first aid kits are required to be carried on an airplane which is:
a. Fitted with 180 passenger seats.
b. Authorized to carry 180 passengers.
c. Carrying 180 passengers.
d. Is carrying passengers.
66. It is recommended that first aid kits should be positioned:

a. Near exits.
b. Under seats.
c. In the galley area accessible to cabin staff only.
d. Out of sight to prevent pilfering.
67. Portable fire extinguishers fitted to airplanes must be of such a type that when discharged
within the confines of the airplane, the extinguishant:
a. Is not corrosive.
b. Is electrically inert.
c. Will not dangerously contaminate the air in the cabin.
d. Is not inflammable.
10
68. Fire extinguishers should be located in the pilot's compartment and:

a. The passenger cabin.
b. Each passenger compartment that is separate from the pilot's compartment and not
readily accessible to the flight crew.
c. The galley.
d. By each door.
69. An airplane shall carry:

a. The Operations Manual in total
b. The parts of the Operations manual that pertain to flight crew limitations.
c. The flight manual for the airplane if the Ops Manual does not contain performance
data.
d. World-wide chart coverage.
70. Which of the following is correct concerning the marking of 'break - in' areas?
a. Must be painted red on a white background with the comers more than I m apart.
b. Must be painted either red or white on a yellow background.
c. Must be painted either red or yellow, on a white background if necessary.
d. Intermediate lines are to be painted if the comer markings are more than 1m apart.
71. A type I Flight Data Recorder (FDR) is to:

a. Record parameters to determine flight path, speed, engine power and altitude.
b. Record the last 30 minutes of operation.
c. Be fitted to airplanes with a max take-off mass greater than 5 700kg.
d. Be fitted to airplanes with C of A first issued on or before I Jan 89.
72. A Type 2 FDR shall be capable of recording:

a. 32 parameters and the last 25 hours of operation.
b. 15 parameters and the last 25 hours of operation.
c. 32 parameters and the last 30 minutes of operation.
d. 15 parameters and the last 30 minutes of operation.
73. Which of the following correctly describes the construction and fitting of a FDR?
a. Painted red and fitted as far aft as possible.
b. Connected so as to record continuously powered from a battery busbar.
c. Painted a distinctive colour and powered from the essential busbar.
d. Fitted with a floatation device and an underwater location aid.
74. Which of the combinations of statements describes what a cockpit voice recorder records?
1. Radio communications transmitted from the aircraft.
2. Speech on the flight deck.
3. Interphone communications.
4. Navigation/Approach aid ident signals heard in headsets or speakers.
5. PA system communication in the aircraft.
a. All of the above. b. All except 4.
c. All except 2. d. 1, 2 and 3 only.
75. Which of the following correctly describes the operation of a cockpit voice recorder?
a. It shall not be switched off whilst the engines are running.
b. Must be on at all times when crew are on board the airplane.
c. Shall be switched off after an accident and not reactivated until recordings have been
transcribed.
d. Must be switched on and checked for correct operation during the pre-flight checks, then
switched to stand-by until the airplane is ready to taxi so that the ATC clearance and
read-back are recorded.
11
76. An airplane equipped to fly IFR at night is to be fitted with:

a. The same instruments and equipment as are required for VFR flight.
b. The same instruments and equipment as are required for IFR during the day.
c. Standard instruments and equipment regardless of max take-off mass.
d. The same instruments and equipment as are required for IFR during the day plus lights
and a torch for each crew member.
77. A life saving jacket (LSJ) or an individual floatation device is to be carried:
a. One for each crew member and each seat fitted.
b. One for each crew member and one for each passenger on board.
c. One for each person the C of A certifies to be carried.
d. One for each person that does not have a seat in a life raft.
78. For a land based aero plane, sea survival equipment is to be carried:
a. When flying over water more than 50 Km from the shore where the en-route 'engine out'
limitations apply.
b. When flying en-route over water beyond gliding distance from shore.
c. When taking off or landing at an aerodrome where, in the opinion of the Operator there
is a danger of the aero plane ditching due to the proximity of water.
d. In all aero planes.
79. If an aero plane is flying over water more than 120 minutes flying time or 400nm from land
suitable for a forced landing (whichever is the lesser) additional sea survival equipment is to be
carried. This must include:
a. Electronic locator beacons (ELBs).

b. Distress flares.
c. Multi seat life rafts with sufficient overload space for all the passengers and crew.
d. Immersion suits (quick don type).
80. The carriage of weather radar is:

a. Mandatory in aero planes with max take-off mass greater than 5 700kg.
b. Recommended for flight over areas where thunderstorms or other potentially hazardous
weather conditions are likely to exist.
c Required in all pressurized aero planes.
d. Advised if flying in IMC or at night through the ITCZ.
81. Aero planes being operated over a specified altitude are required to carry equipment that
continuously monitors the dose rate of cosmic radiation. The specified altitude is:
a. 15 000 ft.
b. 36 090 ft.
c. 49 000 ft.
d. 66 000 ft.
82. Mach meters are required to be carried in aero planes:

a. Where flight in excess of Mach 1.0 is permitted.
b. For flight above FL 100.
c Where speed limitations are expressed in Mach no.
d. Where GPS ground speed correlation is unreliable.
12
83. A Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is required to be carried in:

a. All aero planes with max take off mass greater than 15 000kgs authorized to carry more
than 30 passengers.
b. All aero planes with max take off mass greater than 5700kgs authorized to carry more
than 30 passengers.
c All turbine engine aero planes of max take off mass not exceeding 5 700kgs authorized
to carry more than 9 passengers.
d. All turbine engine aero planes of max take off mass greater than 5 700kgs authorized to
-carry more than 9 passengers.
84. For GPWS a specified number of warnings is to be given for hazardous conditions. The specified
number is:
a. 3
b. 5
c. 6
d. 8
85. Deleted.
86. The purpose of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is to enable the to determine
whether a flight may commence or continue from any intermediate stop, should ......................
become inoperative. Which of the following completes the statement:
a. Maintenance Supervisor any systems or equipment.
b. Chief Steward the galley equipment.
c. Operator any aircraft safety system.
d. Pilot-In-Command any instruments, systems or equipment.
87. The purpose of the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) is:
a. To permit the Authority to specify what equipment must be carried in an aircraft with
max take off mass greater than 5 700 kg.
b. To permit one MEL to exist for the operator's entire fleet of aero planes.
c. To pen-nit the operator to change the content of the MEL whilst keeping a master copy
in an un-amended state.
d. Provide information and instructions to enable an Operator to produce its own MEL.
88. Which of the following statements concerning the MEL is correct?

a. It permits safe operation of an aero plane with inoperative systems.
b. The MEL is required by ICAO and must be approved by the State of Registration.
c. The responsibility for acceptance of any un-serviceability within the MEL rests
ultimately with the Operator.
d. The MEL allows aero planes to be flown with un-serviceabilities which would otherwise
require immediate rectification.
89. Aero planes are to be equipped with Radio equipment capable of-
a. Receiving ATC communications.
b. Receiving meteorological information at any time during the flight.
c. Communications on the Aeronautical Distress/Emergency frequency (121.50OKliz).
d. Being tuned to all the aeronautical mobile stations along the route being flown.
90. Aircraft are to be fitted with navigation equipment which will enable it to proceed:
a. In accordance with the Operational Flight Plan.
b. Along the prescribed RNP routes.
c. Between two reporting points on an airway.
d. In accordance with any ATC clearance received.
13
91. Where minimum navigation performance (MNPS) is prescribed by a Regional Air Navigation
Agreement (RNAV) tile aero plane shall be fitted with equipment which:
a. Has been authorized by the State of the Operator.
b. Has been authorized by the Operator.
c. Has been authorized by the regional ATCU.
d. Performs within specified longitudinal accuracy.
92. In an area where vertical separation minima (VSM) of 300m (1000 ft) Is applied for flight above
FL290, equipment has to be fitted to the aero plane capable of warning the crew when deviation
from the selected flight level occurs. The warning threshold for deviation from selected level is:
a. 100ft.
b. 200ft.
c. 300ft.
d. 500ft.
93. The interaction of one electronic system with another (e.g. Doppler radar and inertial system)
requires that the installation of the system is such that:
a. The systems mutually fail-safe.
b. The failure of one system doesn't cause a failure of the other.
c. The systems mutually fall passive.
d. The systems mutually fall operational.
94. Before any flight is commenced, forms have to be completed certifying that the aero plane is
airworthy. Who has to be satisfied that the aero plane is airworthy?
a. The Pilot-in-Command.
b. The Operations Officer.
c. The Maintenance Supervisor.
d. A CAAB authorized person.
95. Which of the following is NOT required to be certified by the pilot before a flight commences:
a. The load is distributed and secured property.
b. A full fuel load is on board.
c. The mass and C of G are within limits.
d. A maintenance release has been issued for the aero plane.
96. Where is the number and composition of the flight crew specified?
a. In FCOM.
b. In TM.
c. On the C of A.
d. In Annex 6 part 2.
97. If a Flight Engineer's position is incorporated on the flight deck, is it mandatory for the flight
crew always to include a flight engineer'!
a. Yes.
b. No, providing the Flight Engineer's duty can be performed by another flight crew
member holding the appropriate licence without detriment to his/her primary duty.
c. No, if the planned flight duration (including flight time required to divert to the furthest
alternate) is less than 3 hours.
d. No, if the aero plane is certified to carry more than 31 passengers and less than 30 are on
board.
98. Deleted.
14
99. What requirements must be fulfilled before a pilot is appointed Pilot-in-Command by the
Operator'?
a. He/she must have flown a total of not less than 3 000 hours on type.
b. He/she must have made at least 3 take-offs and landings in the same type in the
preceding 90 days.
c. He/she must have held a First Officer's position on type for 13 months.
d. He/she must have flown a total of not less than 1000 hours on type and have held a First
Officer's position on type with the current Operator for 3 months.
100. One of the additional qualifications a pilot must have for the appointment as Pilot-in-Command
by an Operator is to be currently qualified to fly the route intended. Which combination of the
following correctly details the requirements that satisfy 'route knowledge'?
1. Knowledge of the terrain and minimum safe altitudes.
2. Knowledge of the Search and Rescue procedures.
3. Knowledge of seasonal meteorological conditions and Met communications.
4. Knowledge of ATC procedures and facilities.
5. Knowledge of long range navigational procedures.
6. Knowledge of 'route' aerodromes and facilities and procedures.
a. All the above.

b. All the above except 2.
c. All the above except 5 (Flight Navigator duty).
d. 1, 3, 4 and 6 only.
101. In order for a pilot to be appointed co-pilot at the controls of an aero plane for take-off and
landing he/she must have:
a. Served as First Officer on any type of aero plane flown by the Operator.
b. Passed a 'safety pilot' assessment in a current type simulator and be current on type.
c. Demonstrated competence to act as a co-pilot.
d. Served as Pilot-M-Command of an aero plane in the last 90 days.
102. The Operator is required to carry out checks of the proficiency of pilots. Which of the following is
not a discipline requiring checking?
a. Piloting technique.
b. Air Traffic Control procedures.
c. Execution of emergency procedures.
d. Compliance with IFR (where IFR operations are part of the pilot's duty).
103. Proficiency checks on Pilots are to be carried out by:

a. The Training Captain responsible for the training of Flight Crew on the type of aircraft
in use.
b. A Qualified Flying Instructor but not necessarily an employee of the Operator.
c. A representative of the Authority of the State of the Operator or a 'check pilot'.
d. Any suitably qualified pilot on the type of aircraft/simulator being used.
104. Proficiency checks are required to be carried out at what interval:

a. Annually.
b Twice within any period of one year.
c. Once every six months.
d. Twice within any period of a year providing both checks are not carried out within a 4-
month period.
15
105. It is recommended that the Journey Log Book should be retained:

a. To provide a continuous record of the last 6 months operations.
b. To provide a continuous record of the last 2 years operations.
c. For one month.
d. Only if required by the authority.
106. The operations department (Flight Dispatcher's department) is required to retain information
which is necessary in the event of a search and rescue operation being mounted. This information
relates to:
a. Personal details of the crew and passengers.
b. Technical performance details of the aero plane.
c. MEL Limitations affecting the aero plane at take-off.
d. Safety equipment carried on the aero plane.
107. If a door is fitted to the flight crew compartment:

a. It must be capable of being locked.
b. It is to be unlocked at all times during a flight.
c. It shall be locked after engine start and not unlocked until the aero plane has become
stationary again.
d. It must be lockable from inside the flight crew compartment only.
108. If an aero plane that is registered in State A is being operated by an Operator registered in State B
and flown over State C (all of which are ICAO contracting States), and is unlawfully interfered
with. the Pilot-in-Command is to report the occurrence:
a. Immediately to the Authority of State A.
b. As soon as possible to the Authority of State B.
c. Without delay to the Authority in State C.
d. Routinely to the ATCU currently controlling the flight.
16
Chapter – 02
01. Why are Operators required to establish a quality control system?
a. To give the travelling public reassurance that the operation is properly regulated.
b. So that they can display the EN ISO 9000 logo on their headed note paper.
c. To ensure safe operational practices and airworthy aeroplanes.
d. To ensure that CAAB requirements are complied with.
2. Which of the following does a quality system require?

a. A quality manager.
b. An operations manual.
c. Non-conformance monitoring.
d. To be in accordance with the model quality system detailed by the Authority.
3. With regard to additional crew members, what are Operators required to ensure?
a. They are trained in all safety aspects of the aeroplane.
b. They are trained to help cabin crew members with their duties.
c. They are trained in. and proficient to perform, their assigned duties.
d. They are trained in all the emergency evacuation procedures.
4. Passengers can be accommodated only in:

a. Areas of the aeroplane designed for the purpose.
b. Areas in which cargo is not carried.
c. Parts of the aeroplane in which dangerous cargo is not carried.
d. Areas in which access is not permitted on the ground.
5. No persons other than flight crew are normally allowed on the flight deck. Which of the
following correctly identifies permitted exceptions?
a. Invited passengers; Cabin crew members; CAAB approved persons.
b. Cabin crew members; CAAB approved persons; Personnel permitted by the Operations
Manual.
c. Cabin crew members; Police Officers; Personnel permitted by the operations manual.
d. Operators employees; Cabin crew members; CAAB approved persons.
6. What must the commander ensure that all those on the flight deck are familiar with"
a. Check lists.
b. Standard operating procedures (SOPs).
c. Contents of the Operations Manual.
d. Safety procedures.
7. Which of the following are not to be operated on board aeroplanes?

a. Mobile phones.
b. Electric razors.
c. Electronic calculators.
d. Hand-held electronic games.
8. Who is responsible for ensuring that no person acts recklessly or negligently, so as to endanger
an aeroplane or the persons on board, or to permit an aeroplane to endanger persons or property?
a. The Operator.
b. The Commander.
c. The Authority of the State of Registration.
d. The authority of the State of the Operator.
17
9. Which combination of the following list of documents correctly identifies those that must be
carried on each flight?
1 Certificate of Registration (C of R).

2. Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A).
3. Noise certificate.
4. Air Operators Certificate (AOC).
5. Aircraft radio licence.
6. Third party liability Insurance certificates.
7. Crew licences with appropriate ratings.
a. 1, 2, 5 and 7.
b. 1, 2 and 7.
C. 2, 5 and 7.
d. All of them.
10. Is it necessary to carry the entire Operations Manual on each flight?

a. Yes.
b. No - only the parts concerning crew duty.
c. No - only the parts required for the conduct of the flight.
d. No - only the parts required for the conduct of the flight and concerning crew duty.
11. Which of the following forms or information are required to be carried on all flights?
1. The Operational Flight Plan (OFP).
2. Mass and balance Documentation.
3. NOTAMs.
4. The Technical Log.
5. Current Maps and Charts.
6. Latest AICs.
a. All except 1.
b. All except 3.
C. All except 6.
d. All except 4.
12. Certain documents are to be retained by the Operator on the ground. If it is not possible to leave
the documents in safe custody such that in the event of their being required in the course of an
accident investigation or for any reason given by the authority, they may be:
a. Kept in the personal possession of the Commander.
b. Carried on the aeroplane and stored in a document case in the cargo/luggage bay.
c. Carried on the aeroplane providing they are stowed in a fireproof container.
d. Posted by registered mail to the Operator, or taken by bonded courier.
13. The operator is required to ensure that certain persons are to be permitted access to the flight deck
providing the Commander is satisfied that his aeroplane is not endangered. Who are the permitted
personnel?
a. CAB qualified engineers.
b. IATA Quality Assurance assessors.
c. Security Officers.
d. Persons authorlsed by the Authority.
18
14. The Operator and the Commander are required to produce documents and records relating to a
flight:
a. Within a reasonable period of time.
b. Within 10 days.
c. Within 7 days.
d. Within 48 hours.
15. Certain documents relating to the operation of aeroplanes are required by law to be kept for a
specified period of time. If an operator ceases to operate an aeroplane must he keep the
documents?
a. No, they can be disposed of with the aeroplane.
b. Yes, but only until the aeroplane is re-registered.
c. Yes, but only for the specified period.
d. Yes, until the aeroplane is finally dismantled or destroyed.
16. What is a 'dry lease"'

a. Where the person leasing the aeroplane is responsible for fuel etc.
b. Where the aeroplane is operated under the AOC of the person to whom it is leased.
c. Where the aeroplane is operated under the AOC of the person from who it is leased.
d. Where the leased aeroplane comes complete with flight crew.
19
Chapter – 03 Operator Certification and Supervisory Requirements

1. An Air Operators Certificate (AOC) is required by any operator operating aeroplanes for which
of the following purposes?
a. Public transport of fare paying passengers only.
b. Carriage of passengers and cargo for hire and reward with aeroplanes of max take off
mass greater than 5700 kg.
c. Commercial air transport.
d. Public transport where more than 21 passengers are carried.
2. An applicant for an AOC must permit the authority to examine which of the following?
a. All safety aspects of the operation.
b. The administration, financial stability and the maintenance schedules of the operation.
c. Any previous records of running an air transport operation.
d. The medical records of all employees of the company involved directly with the
operation of aeroplanes.
3. In order to qualify for the issue of an AOC the operator must comply with certain requirements .
Which combination of the following list of requirements satisfies what a prospective operator
must demonstrate to the authority?
1. The operator must not already hold an AOC issued by another authority unless
approved.
2. The operator must only operate from the State of Registry.
3. The operator must have a registered office in the State issuing the AOC.
4. The operator must satisfy the Authority that he is able to conduct safe operations.
5. The operator must only employ qualified personnel.

b. 1, 3 and 5 only.
c. 2, 3 and 4 only.
d. 1, 3 and 4 only.
4. Deleted.
5. An AOC may be revoked, suspended or varied if the Authority deems it necessary. On what
grounds can this action be taken?
a. If the profitability/financial stability of the operation gives cause for concern.
b. If the operation is unable to comply with the safety requirements.
c. If the Quality System is not ISO 9001 approved.
d. If the operator is found guilty of unfair trading practices.
6. The terms of an AOC require the operator to maintain an organisation capable of:
a. Exercising operational and administrative control.
b. Exercising financial and administrative control.
c. Exercising operational control and supervision.
d. Exercising operational and financial control.
7. With regard to the organisation of the operation, the Authority is required to be satisfied that:
a. The organisation is financially well managed.
b. The organisation has a management structure approved by ISO 9001.
c. The organisation is staffed by CAAB personnel only.
d. The organisation details a progressive management structure for operations as well as
maintenance personnel.
20
8. The operator is required to nominate post holders in certain areas. These are:
a. Flight operations, maintenance, crew training, administration.
b. Flight operations, maintenance, crew training, ground operations.
c. Flight operations, maintenance, personnel training, ground operations.
d. Flight operations, crew training, administration, quality assurance.
9. The operator is to ensure that all flights are conducted in accordance with the operations
manual, and:
a. Aeroplanes are equipped and crews qualified.
b. Maintenance schedules are as detailed by CAAB.
c. Ground handling facilities ensure the safe handling of baggage.
d. Operational support facilities are maintained at all bases used in the operation.
10. Deleted.
11. In order to be satisfied that the operator is worthy to be granted an AOC, which of the following
may be required of the operator?
a. A cash deposit with the CAAB.
b. One or more demonstration flights are conducted.
c. The operation must be carried out for a period of six months without incident.
d. 10 000 passengers must be carried in a period of 6 months.
21
Chapter – 04 Operational Procedure Requirements

1. Who is required to exercise operational control"
a. The Authority.
b. The Operator.
c. The Commander.
d. The Area Air Traffic Control Unit.
2. Deleted.
3. What is the purpose of an operations manual"

a. For the guidance of operations personnel.
b. To specify what operations may be engaged in.
c To specify the crew requirements for the particular types flown.
d. To give the authority information concerning the nature of the operation.
4. Who is responsible for ensuring that all flight and ground operations personnel are properly
trained?
a. The Commander.
b. The Authority.
c ICAO.
d. The Operator.
5. Deleted.
6. An operator is required to establish procedures and instructions relating to the duties of ground
staff and crew in respect of what?
a. All types of aeroplanes flown.
b. Fire fighting and emergency actions.
c All types of operations undertaken.
d. Search and Rescue.
7. Who is responsible for establishing normal and abnormal checklists for crew members?
a. The Operator.
b. The aeroplane manufacturer.
c. The Authority.
d. The Training Captain.
8. Which of the following is an operator to ensure is used for all flights where available?
a. Aerodrome facilities.
b. Search and Rescue facilities.
c. The full runway length.
d. Air Traffic Control.
9. Where an established instrument approach is used, the commander may accept an ATC clearance
to deviate from the procedure only when:
a. The Operator gives permission.
b. The precision aid is unserviceable.
c. The obstacle clearance minima are observed.
d. The revised procedure is approved by the Authority.
22
10. Is it essential for the final part of an instrument approach to be flown visually?
a. Yes, always.
b. Yes, but only when the visual criteria is obtained at DA/H.
c. No, if it is as per an established instrument procedure.
d. No, but only if CAT III operations are approved.
11. Who is responsible for ensuring that instrument approach or departure procedures are flown?
a. The Operator.
b. The Authority of the State of the aerodrome.
c. The Authority of the State of the Operator.
d. The Authority of the State of the registration.
12. Persons with reduced mobility (PRMs) are to be permitted full and free access to aircraft
provided that:
a. Special seats are fitted.
b. Disabled toilet facilities are provided.
c. The Operator has established procedures for the carriage of PRMs.
d. The Purser or Chief Flight Attendant is aware of the presence of PRMs.
13. Where PRMs, inadmissible passengers, deportees and persons in custody are carried on
aeroplanes:
a. They must be seated at the rear of the aeroplane.
b. No passengers are to occupy adjacent seats.
c. The Operator is to ensure that all the other passengers are aware of the situation.
d. The Commander knows that they are on board.
14. Baggage can be carried in the passenger compartment providing:

a. The gross weight of any one item does not exceed 20Kol
b. Only one piece of baggage is carried by each passenger.
c. The total weight allowance for the passenger is not exceeded.
d. It is adequately stowed.
15. Passengers are only to be seated where:

a. They can see the no smoking signs.
b. They will not hinder an emergency evacuation.
c. The load Is equally spread about the C of G.
d. The flight attendants can ensure that the seat belts are correctly fastened.
16. Who is responsible for ensuring that all equipment and baggage in the passenger compartment
and the galley is property stowed, when required, during flight time?
a. The Operator.
b. The Authority.
c. The Chief Flight Attendant.
d. The Commander.
17. Deleted.
18. Who must be satisfied that the condition of the runway intended to be used should not prevent
a safe take-off and departure?
a. The Commander.
b. Air Traffic Control.
c. The Operator.
d. The Operations Officer.
23
19. What must be satisfied prior to take-off?

a. RVR is better than the applicable minima.
b. Visibility and cloud base is better than the applicable minima.
c. Visibility and cloud base is better than, or equal to, the applicable minima.
d. RVR is equal to or better than the applicable minima.
24
Chapter – 05
All Weather Operations Requirements – Low Visibility Operations
01. The Operator is required to establish Aerodrome Operating Minima (AOM) for:
a. The type of aeroplanes operated.
b. Each aerodrome planned to be used.
c. Aerodromes with precision approach systems.
d. Aerodromes with more than one runway.
2. Which of the combinations of the following list correctly describes what operations require AOM
to be prescribed?
1. Precision approaches.
2. Non Precision approaches.
3. Take off.
4. Circling approach.
5. Visual approach.
a. All the above.

b. All except 3.
c. Only I and 2.
d. 1, 2 and 5 only.
3. Deleted.
4. Deleted.
5. One of the criteria required to be taken into account by the operator in calculating AOM, is the
type, performance and handling characteristics of the aeroplane. In order to simplify assessment
of performance, aeroplanes are categorised in categories A - E. The performance criteria relating
to the category is:
a. VNE.
b. VSO.
c. VSIG.
d. VAT.
6. A 'Fail Passive Flight Control System' is one with which:

a. The approach to land can continue automatically after a failure.
b. The pilot must land the aeroplane manually.
c. Erratic flight path will result after a failure.
d. Height lock will be lost but azimuth information will be reliable.
7. If an instrument approach is required to an aerodrome to land on a runway which does not have
a 'straight in' instrument approach procedure, the visual portion of the approach to the non-
instrument runway is known as:
a. A circling approach based on MDH.
b. An off-set non precision approach to MDH.
c. An indirect precision approach to MDH.
d. A visual approach at MDH.
8. A low visibility take-off is defined where the RVR is less than:

a. 200m.
b. 400m.
c. 600m.
d. 800M.
25
9. Low visibility procedures relate to:

a. Cat 1, 11 and III operations.
b. Low visibility take-offs and Cat I and 11 operations.
c. Low visibility take-offs and Cat 11 and III operations.
d. Low visibility take-offs and all ILS/MLS operations.
10. Operators are only permitted to conduct low visibility operations when aeroplanes are certified
for such operations. The criteria for low visibility operations specify that the decision height
permitted is to be below what height?
a. 100,
b. 150'
c. 200'
d. 300'
11. It is also a requirement that within low visibility operations, the procedures (approach and/or
automatic landing) are monitored. What is the purpose of the monitoring procedure?
a. To review safety.
b. To record pilot performance.
c. To provide data for Authority analysis to enhance (reduce) criteria.
d. For on going research and development.
12. There is a basic crew requirement for low visibility operations. This stipulates that:
a. One pilot must be qualified on type.
b. The flight crew must consist of at least two pilots.
c. The commander must be at the controls at all tunes.
d. At least one pilot must be 'low vis ops' qualified.
13. For low visibility operations, it is required that decision height (DH) is determined by:
a. Barometric altimeter with QNH set.
b. Barometric altimeter with QFE set.
c. Barometric altimeter with QNH or QFE set (where DH is defined as AMSL).
d. Radio Altimeter.
14. Unless special permission is obtained from the authority, operators are not permitted to conduct
low visibility take-offs when the RVR is less than defined values related to aircraft category. The
defined values are:
a. Category A, B and C - 150m; category D - 200m.
b. Category A, B and C - 200m; category D - 250m.
c. Category A, B and C 150m; category D – 250m.
d. Category A, B and C - 5 00m; category D - I 00m.
15. Operators are to ensure that training in low visibility operations is carried out prior to authorising
any such operations. Such training is to be:
a. Airborne practice of approaches in low visibility.
b. Simulated.
c. Specific to the type of aeroplane.
d. In accordance with the training manual.
16. Where low visibility operations are carried out, the operator is to:
a. Include the procedures in the operations manual.
b. Make sure that the commander is satisfied that conditions are favourable.
c. Make sure that ATC have implemented LV ops procedures.
d. Obtain authority approval for LV take-offs when the RVR is less than 200m.
26
17. Where LV cps are carried out the operations manual must specify:
a. The category of the aeroplane.
b. Aerodromes at which LV operations are permitted.
c. Minima for LV ops.
d. Minimum equipment requirements for LV ops.
18. Aerodrome Operating Minima (AOM) are based on several factors. Which combination of the
following are factors assessed in defining AOM:
1. Runway length.
2. Crew composition.
3. Communications for reporting weather.
4. Obstacles in the climb out and approach areas.
a. 1, 2 & 4.
b. 1, 3 & 4.
c. I & 4.
d. 1, 2, 3 & 4.
19. The minimum RVR requirement for CATI ILS approach is:
a. 350 in.
b. 500 m.
c. 550 m.
d. 800 m.
20. The minimum meteorological visibility for a circling approach in a Cat A aircraft is:
a. 1500 in.
b. 1600 in.
c. 2400 in.
d. 3600 in.
21. The VFR visual minima for flight in Class B airspace above FL 100 is:
a. 5 km forward visibility, 1000 ft vertically and 1500m laterally clear of cloud.
b. 5 kin forward visibility and clear of cloud.
c. 8 kin forward visibility, 1000 ft vertically and 1500m laterally clear of cloud.
d. 8 km forward visibility and clear of cloud.
22. Special VFR flights are not to be commenced when the visibility is:
a. Less than 5km.
b. Greater than 3000m but less than 5000m.
c. Less than 3000m.
d. Equal to or less than 1500m.
23. Special VFR flights are not to be continued when the visibility is:
a. 500m or less.
b. 1500m or less.
c. Less than 1500m.
d. Less than 1000m.
27
Chapter – 06 Instruments and Equipment

1. Deleted.
2. If there are 18 fuses rated at 7A in an aeroplane, how many spare 7A fuses must be carried?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 18
d. 1
3. A windshield wiper is to be fitted to each pilot station of an aeroplane with a take-off mass:
a. Equal to or greater than 57001Kgs.
b. Greater than 360OKgs.
c. Equal to or greater than 15,000Kgs.
d. Greater than 570OKgs.
4. In an unpressurised aeroplane with approved passenger seating of 9, is there a requirement to

carry airborne weather radar'?
a. Yes.
b. Yes, if flight in IMC is expected.
c. No.
d. No, if only flight in VMC is to be conducted.
5. Is there a requirement to carry airborne weather radar in aeroplanes with approved passenger
seating of 36 or more, and with a take-off mass exceeding 57001Kgs?
a. Yes.
b. Yes, if the aeroplane is to be flown at night.
c. No.
d. No, providing the aeroplane is only flown in VMC.
6. A new aeroplane has an approved passenger seating of 55 with a take-off mass not exceeding
13,700Kgs. Is it required to be fitted with a crew interphone system?
a. Yes, because the approved passenger seating is greater than 19.
b. No, because the max take-off mass is less than 15,00OKgs.
c. Yes, because it was not registered with CAAB before 1 April 1995.
d. No, because the C of A was dated after 1 April 1965.
7. When should a public address system be fitted?

a. With a max take-off mass exceeding 5700Kgs.
b. With an approved passenger seating in excess of 9.
c. With a max take-off mass exceeding 15,000K-s.
d. With an approved passenger seating in excess of 19.
8. A door between the passenger compartment and the flight deck is required:
a. On all aeroplanes flying for public air transport.
b. On all aeroplanes flying for public air transport, with the capability of being locked from
the inside.
c. On all aeroplanes seating 20 or more passengers.
d. On all passenger carrying aeroplanes where the total passenger seating exceeds 19, and
which must be marked 'No entry'.
28
9. If a door, between compartments which have emergency exits, is required to be used in an

emergency, it must have:
a. A caption stating that it is an emergency exit path.
b. A caption stating that it is a fire door and must be kept closed at all times.
c. A locking means to prevent unauthorised use in normal flight.
d. A means to hold it open in an emergency.
10. Where a door is capable of being locked by passengers (e.g. toilet doors), they must be fitted
with:
a. Tamper proof locks for privacy.
b. A sign that states that smoking is not permitted in the toilets.
c. Pin hinges that can be removed from the outside to allow access in an emergency.
d. A means of unlocking from the outside by crew members.
29
Ch-07 Comms and Navigation Equipment

1. When is each flight crew member required to have an audio selector panel?
a. If the take off mass is greater than 5700Kg.
b. If an IFR flight plan is filed.
c. Where two pilots are required to be carried.
d. Where an intercom system is required to be fitted.
2. If an aeroplane is being flown under VFR, is a SSR transponder required?

a. Yes.
b. Yes, but only in controlled airspace.
c. No.
d. Yes but only in areas where radar control is a service offered by ATC.
3. Is radio navigation equipment required to be fitted to aeroplanes?

a. Yes.
b. Yes, but only where navigation is achieved without visual reference.
c. No.
d. Yes, but only in controlled airspace.
4. Does an aeroplane require two VOR receivers?

a. Yes, if VOR is the specified navigation aid.
b. Yes, if flying on airways.
c. Yes, in MNPS airspace.
d. No.
5. Is an aeroplane flying under IFR required to have an ILS system fitted?

a. No.
b. Yes.
c. Yes, but only where instrument approaches are required.
d. Yes, where precision approaches are to be made in IMC.
6. Equipment fitted to aeroplanes for the purpose of navigation must comply with the stated
minimum RNP specification. RNP stands for:
a. Radio Navigation Performance.
b. Regulated/Normal Plotting.
c. Radio or Nominal Prediction.
d. Required Navigation Performance.
30
Chapter – 08 Aeroplane Maintenance

1. An inspection that is carried out before flight to ensure that the aeroplane Is fit for flight is called:
a. Maintenance Review Inspection (MRI).
b. Aircrew walk-round.
c. Turnround servicing inspection.
d. Pre-flight Inspection.
2. Deleted.
3. Deleted.
4. Deleted.
5. Part of the maintenance approval procedure is for the operator to Supply a Maintenance
Management Exposition. This is to include:
a. The persons responsible for maintenance management.
b. The maintenance schedules for the types of aeroplanes employed in the operation.
c. Approve maintenance quality system.
d. None of the above
6. An aeroplane is to be maintained in accordance with a maintenance programme. The programme

is to include which of the following?
a. A reliability programme when required.
b. Details of all emergency (non-scheduled) repairs that may be required.
c. Specification for the licensing of engineers.
d. The list of approved suppliers of parts and materials.
7. If, during a pre-flight inspection, a defect is found:

a. The inspection can be completed after the defect is rectified.
b. The Inspection can be completed after the defect has been brought to the attention of
maintenance supervisor.
c. The inspection must be terminated and fully repeated after rectification.
d. The aeroplane must be withdrawn from service and the certificate of maintenance review
cancelled.
8. Which of the following processes associated with maintenance is not required to be carried out
to an approved standard?
a. Management.
b. Design.
c. Quality.
d. Manufacturing.
31
Chapter – 09 Navigational Requirements

1. Concerning routes and areas of operations, which of the following is correct?
a. Appropriate maps and charts must be available.
b. The route has to be approved by the State of Registration.
c. The Operator has to be satisfied with the meteorological conditions expected along the
route.
d. The operator must ensure that SAR and Fire/Crash rescue services are adequate.
2. Where aeroplanes with only two engines are used on routes, specific requirements must be met
with regard to contingencies following an engine failure. Which of the following applies'!
a. The aeroplane must not be flown further than 200nm from the nearest aerodrome.
b. All alternate aerodromes along the route must be within 30 minutes flying time.
c. There must be aerodromes available within the required time/distance limitations.
d. The MEL is to include a minimum of one serviceable engine.
3. Who is responsible for ensuring that operations are conducted in accordance with any route
restrictions imposed by the authorIty:
a. The Operator.
b. The Commander.
d. The Authority of the State over which the route Is being flown.
4. Who is to be satisfied that maps and charts, sufficient to cover the route and any planned or
unplanned diversion, are available?
a. The Operator.
b. The Commander.
d. The Authority of the State over which the route is being flown.
5. An operational flight plan is to be completed for each flight. Who is responsible for signing it?
a. The Operations Officer.
b. The Flight Dispatcher.
c. The Pilot-in-Command.
d. The Flight Planning Office clerk.
6. Where is the content of the operational flight plan detailed?

a. In ICAO Annex 6.
b. FCOM.
c. In the Operations Manual.
d. In the Pre-Flight Check List.
7. Normally, when should the ATS flight plan be filed?

a. 60 minutes before take-off.
b. 60 minutes before ATC clearance is requested.
c. 60 minutes before 'crew-in' time.
d. 60 minutes before departure.
32
8. Which combination of the following correctly describes the factors to be taken into consideration
when choosing a route"
1. Communications.
2. Navigation Aids.
3. Alternative Aerodromes.
4. Meteorological information.
5. SAR facilities.
a. All the above.

b. 1, 2, 3 & 4.
c. , 3 and 5 only.
d. 3, 4 and 5 only.
9. What is the basic distance a twin-engined Class A (turbojet) aeroplane (without ETOPS approval)
with a take off mass of 45,360 Kg or more, or approved passenger seating of 20 or more, may fly
from an adequate aerodrome?
a. The distance flown in 60 minutes at the one engine out cruise speed but not exceeding
300nm.
b. The distance flown in 60 minutes at the one engine out cruise speed.
c. The distance flown in 120 minutes at the one engine out cruise speed.
d. The distance flown in 120 minutes at the one engine out cruise speed but not exceeding
400m.
10. Who is responsible for calculating the speed that shall be used to calculate the one engine out
speed?
a. The aeroplane manufacturer.
b. The ETOPS approval authority.
c. The Operator.
d. The Authority of the State of Registration.
11. Which of the following combinations correctly identifies the conditions that must be taken into
account when calculating the TAS that a twin engined aeroplane can maintain with one engine
out?
1. Maximum operating speed.

2. ISA.
3. Flight Level.
4. Max continuous power on the remaining engine.
5. Aeroplane mass.
a. All the above.

b. All except 5.
c. 1, 3 and 5 only.
d. 3, 4 and 5 only.
12. An aeroplane with more than 30 passenger seats, that does not comply with the ditching
requirements of the airworthiness code shall not be flown more than a specified distance from
land suitable for an emergency landing. How far is this distance"
a. 400nm.
b. 300nm.
c. 60 minutes flying distance or 300nm (whichever is less).
d. 120 minutes flying distance or 400nm (whichever is less).
33
13. For Class A performance aeroplanes in the event of en-route engine(s) failure, all terrain and
obstacles within 9.3Km (5nm) of track are to be vertically cleared by (once established at cruising
altitude):
a. 1000ft.
b. 2000ft.
c. The height of the terrain or obstacle (amsl) plus 10% plus 1500ft.
d. 1000ft plus the obstacle clearance height for the nearest aerodrome.
14. A modem turbo-jet aeroplane can be flown to achieve different operational profiles. The three
profiles most usually considered are:
a. Max speed, max range, max height.
b. Max fuel consumption, max distance, endurance.
c. Endurance, max range, max pay-load.
d. Max range, shortest route time, endurance.
15. When flying to achieve the lowest fuel flow, consideration should be given to:
a. Flying at the optimum level and minimum drag speed.
b. Shutting down unnecessary power plants.
c. Cruise climb technique at Vmd plus 10kts.
d. Planning the descent point to be as far from the destination as possible.
16. For a given gross mass, pressure altitude and temperature, the shortest route time is achieved by:
a. Operating all engines at max thrust.
b. Achieving the desired level as soon as possible after take-off.
c. Selecting a level above the tropopause.
d. Setting max cruise thrust to achieve the highest Mach No.
17. One method of reducing fuel consumption is to use a procedure known as stepping. This
involves:
a. Progressively reducing power settings as total mass reduces due to fuel being used.
b. Progressively increasing power settings to achieve higher speeds thus less flying time.
c. Progressively increasing height as mass reduces.
d. Sectoring the route by allocation of increasing Mach No and flight level.
18. If a stepped cruise technique is adopted, the step procedure is usually repeated:
a. When the mass has reduced by 500OKg.
b. Approximately every 2 hours.
c. When an increase in Mach No of 0.2 is achievable.
d. When the next flight level above becomes available.
19. For a four-engined aeroplane, the take-off alternate must be located within:
a. I hour flying time of the departure aerodrome.
b. 2 hours flying time from the departure aerodrome at the one engine out cruise speed.
c. 40 km if flying IFR.
d. The maximum distance that can be safely achieved with the remaining engines operating
at max continuous thrust.
20. A destination alternate must be selected for most IFR flights. In certain situations two destination
alternates must be selected. These are:
a. Met reports/forecasts indicate that from 1 hour before ETA until I hour after ETA the
weather will be below minima, or no met reports are available.
b. The overall route Is more than 2000nm long.
c. There is only one suitable alternate aerodrome within 250nm of the destination.
d. The nominated alternate does not have two separate runways.
34
21. If it is required that at the destination alternate a circling approach would be necessary, that
aerodrome would be considered suitable as an alternate providing:
a. The OCH is not greater than the observed cloud base.
b. The RVR is more than 1500rn.
c. The MDH is less than the cloud ceiling.
d. One runway has a serviceable ILS.
35
Chapter – 10 Transoceanic and Polar Flights

1. In a modem navigation system, how would pure equipment failure be indicated:
a. Over a period of time, it would become obvious that the system was inoperative.
b. There would be an obvious discrepancy between radio navigation data and the system
data.
c. A warning light would be illuminated.
d. The circuit breaker would pop out.
2. In a 3 set INS system, how can system output be cross checked?

a. By a 'voting' system (if 2 sets agree, the other must be wrong).
b. By comparison with fixes from radio navigation aids.
c. By switching each system off individually and comparing the results.
d. Error checking is automatic and the 'in error' set would be disabled.
3. If, after all efforts have failed to resolve an output problem in a 2 set INS system, the uncertainty
remains, what else could you do?
a. Descend and plot the wind and drift from observation of the surface.
b. Climb and try to get a fix from a radio navigation beacon.
c. Fly a course with a constant relative bearing to the sun or moon.
d. Compare wind, G/S and drift with another aeroplane in the vicinity.
4. If it becomes obvious that you cannot continue a transoceanic flight as per the ATC clearance,
you should:
a. Advise ATC that you have abandoned the original flight plan and are diverting to an
alternate aerodrome.
b. Request a revised clearance before commencing any alternative course of action.
c. Before altering course climb or descend 1000ft to avoid conflicting with other
aeroplanes.
d. Remain at the same level and turn 90' to original track for 10nm before changing
altitude.
5. If communications failure occurs whilst flying in the NAT region, a pilot shall:
a. Revert to the original flight plan immediately.
b. Head for the nearest landfall and attempt communications by telephone.
c. Divert to the nearest en-route aerodrome and land immediately.
d. Fly in accordance with the last acknowledged clearance to the oceanic exit point (last
specified oceanic route point).
6. In a comms failure situation when leaving the NAT region, it is imperative that a pilot:
a. Follows the pre-defined route from exit point to destination at the level set aside for
comrns failure.
b. Complete the flight as per the original flight plan.
c. Land at the first available aerodrome.
d. When in radar coverage squawk 2000+C with ]dent.
7. If a diversion is required whilst in the NAT region and a revised ATC clearance cannot be
obtained, the pilot should broadcast his intentions on what frequency?
a. 121.500MHz (International VHF distress and calling)
b. 123.450MHz (Company common frequency)
C. 131.800MHz (N/MNPSA VHF Common)
d. 123. 100MHz (SAR Scene of Search)
36
8. In the event of being unable to obtain a revised clearance in time to avoid weather etc, the pilot
in command should:
a. Turn to separate from track by 30nm and change altitude by 500' below FL410.
b. Turn to separate from track by 20nm and change altitude by 1000' below FL410.
c. Turn to separate from track by 30nm and change altitude by 500'above FL410.
d. Turn to separate from track by 20run and change altitude by 1000' above FL410.
9. In the event of diversion within the NAT Region without clearance, the aeroplane should be
flown along a track separated a specified distance from the assigned track. That distance is:
a. 20nm.
b. 30nm.
c. 40nm.
d. 60nm.
10. MNPS airspace exists in the NAT region between certain flight levels. These are:
a. FL250- FL660
b. FL300- FL490
c. FL285- FL420
d. FL290- FL410
11. The NAT MNPSA includes several Control Areas (CTAs). These are:
a. London; Scottish; Gander; New York; Iceland and Bermuda.
b. Reykjavik; Shanwick Oceanic; Gander Oceanic; Santa Maria Oceanic; New York
Oceanic.
c. Shannon; Prestwick; Gander; New York; Santa Maria.
d. Shanwick OCA; Gander OCA; Reykjavik OCA; New York OCA.
12. The northern extent of the NAT MNPSA is:

a. 700N.
b. 750N.
c. The North Pole.
d. 78030'N.
13. NAT organised tracks are formulated for:

a. East and West bound traffic only.
b. All flights in the NAT region above FL310.
c. Subsonic traffic.
d. Westbound traffic to 30W and East bound traffic from 30NN".
14. NAT Track Alpha is:

a. Is the track that starts at point Alpha on the eastern side of the NAT region.
b. The most southerly route by day.
c. A geographically fixed track starting from point Alpha and from which all the other
organised routes radiate.
d. The most northerly route by day.
15. Organised tracks south of 70°N between O°E/W and 70°W are defined by:
a. The intersection of half or whole degrees of latitude and longitude.
b. The intersection of half or whole degrees of latitude and intervals of 10° longitude.
c. The intersection of half or whole degrees of longitude and intervals of 10° latitude.
d. The intersection of intervals of 100 longitude with intervals of 10° latitude.
37
16. Deleted.
17. What is the maximum permitted interval between position reports in the NAT Region?
a. 10 minutes.
b. 20 minutes.
c. 30 minutes.
d. 60 minutes.
18. What makes navigation difficult at high latitudes (above 65°N)?

a. Poor charting and limited physical features.
b. Poor propagation of radio signals and difficulty identifying true north.
c. Steep magnetic dip angles, and high rates of change of magnetic variation.
d. Lack of radio aids and magnetic interference.
19. How are the problems of navigation at high latitudes overcome?

a. Use of GPS, INS and grid navigation processes.
b. Use of accurate gyrocompasses and long range radio navigation systems (Loran; Decca;
Omega).
c. Alignment of radio navigation beacons with grid north rather than magnetic north.
d. Carriage of a flight navigator as part of the flight crew.
20. In the Northern Canadian Control Area the alignment of VORs is:
a. To magnetic north.
b. To grid north.
c. To true north.
d. East/west.
21. Other factors affect polar flight operations, these include:

a. Very low tropopause giving rise to communications problems.
b. Irregular day and night periods and aurora discontinuities.
c. Lack of en-route alternates and major reliance on HF communications.
d. Long surface skip distances for low frequency radio navigation aids and inaccuracy of
charts.
22. Is it mandatory to flight plan to use NAT Tracks in the NAT region?
a. Yes.
b. No.
c. Yes, if flying above FL290.
d. Not generally, but it is mandatory for routes above 65°N.
23. Deleted.
24. How long after entering the NAT region should the domestic SSR squawk be retained?
a. 10 minutes.
b. 20 minutes.
c. 30 minutes.
d. 60 minutes.
25. What SSR code should be squawked in the NAT region (assuming no special code is required)
a. A/ 1000 plus C.
b. A/7000 plus C.
c. A/1234 standby.
d. A/2000 normal.
38
26. In polar areas, a polar track structure has been established for flights in the Bodo OCA and the
Reykjavik CTA. The use of the these tracks is and the tracks are for use on routes between
and
a. Mandatory, Scandinavia, North America.
b. Not mandatory, Europe, Alaska.
c. Mandatory, 65°N, the North Pole.
d. Not mandatory, Scandinavia, Alaska.
27. In the NAT region cruising speed is defined as:

a. The average true airspeed expected.
b. A Mach number.
c. The maximum ground speed possible.
d. V2,+ 70kts.
39
Chapter – 11 MNPS Airspace

1. What does the abbreviation WATRS represent'?
a. Weight and temperature reduction scale.
b. Western Air Traffic Restricted Service.
c. Western Atlantic Reduced Separation.
d. West Atlantic Route System.
2. What does the abbreviations MNPSA represent?

a. Minimum National Positioning System Allowance.
b. Minimum Navigation Performance Specification Area.
c. Main Navigation Positioning System - Atlantic.
d. Maritime and Nautical Planning Service Area.
3. What does the abbreviation RVSM mean?

a. Reduced Vertical Separation Minima.
b. Required Verifiable System Management.
c. Routine Vectoring System Minima.
d. Rapid Visual Search Manual.
4. What is the southerly limit of the MNPSA?

a. 30°N.
b. 25°N.
c. 0°N/S.
d. 27°N.
5. Can you fly VFR in the MNPS airspace within the Shanwick OCA?
a. Yes.
b. No.
c. Only below FI-55.
d. Yes but only in the Shannon FIR portion of the OCA.
6. Pilots are only permitted to fly in the NAT MNPSA if:

a. They have flown more than 2000 hours on type.
b. Have an unfrozen ATPL(A).
c. They are approved by the Authority of the State of Registry.
d. If the Operator is approved for MNPS operations by the State of the Operator.
7. The NAT organised track system (OTS) consists of unidirectional eastbound and westbound
peak flows. The tracks are organised for eastbound traffic from _____ to _____and westbound
from _____to _____at 300W.
a. 1200 UTC to 2l00UTC; 2l00 UTC to 0200 UTC.
b. 0100 UTC to 0800 UTC; 1130 UTC to 1800 UTC.
c. ll30 UTC to l800 UTC; 2l00 UTC to 0200 UTC.
d. 2400 UTC to 1159 UTC; l200 UTC to 2359 UTC.
8. A line from part of a Westbound NAT Track Message reads "E 55/10 57/20 57/30 56/40 54/50".
This decodes as:
a. Eastbound min FL55 at 10°W; FL57 at 20°W etc.
b. Eastbound minimum separation 10 minutes at 55°N; 20 minutes at 57°N etc.
c. Track ECHO; route 55°N/10°W; 57°N/20°W etc.
d. Track ECHO; not further north than 55°Nat 10°W; not further north than 57°N at20°W
etc.
40
9. Preferred Route Messages (PRMs) are sent by Operators to the OCAs to allow planning and
construction of the OTS. The latest time for sending a PRM for the following day-time OTS
is:
a. 1900 UTC.
b. 2100 UTC.
c. 2300 UTC.
d. 2330 UTC.
10. When flight planning to fly in the NAT MNPSA, which of the following combinations correctly
reflects the options available?
1. Fly the route in accordance with the OTS.
2. Plan to join and leave at intermediate points.
3. Plan a random route avoiding the OTS in total.
a. I and 3.
b. 1, 2 and 3.
c. 2 and 3.
d. 1 and 2.
11. Between the significant points of a NAT track or random track, what type of track should be
flown?
a. Straight line.
b. Great Circle.
c. Small Circle.
d. Rhumb line.
12. Deleted.
13. Which of the following statements correctly defines how separation of aeroplanes is achieved
in the N4NPSA?
a. Lateral, longitudinal and vertical displacement.
b. Time, height and speed clearance.
c. Mach no, Flight Level and Geographic position reporting.
d. Separation of aeroplanes by type and number of engines.
14. The minimum horizontal separation used in MNPS is:

a. 20nm.
b. 30nm.
c. 40nm.
d. 60nm.
15. The minimum longitudinal separation for aeroplanes flying the same track and at the same Mach
No (Mach No technique applied) in MNPS is:
a. 5 minutes.
b. 10 minutes.
c. 15 minutes.
d. 20 minutes.
16. The minimum longitudinal separation in MNPS for aeroplanes flying the same track where the
preceding aeroplane is flying at a greater Mach No is:
a. Between 9 and 6 minutes dependant upon the relative Mach No.
b. 5 minutes.
c. 10 minutes
d. 6 minutes.
41
17. How is longitudinal separation in the MNPSA maintained?

a. By use of long range SSR and insistence on GPS navigation.
b. By use of grid navigation techniques in high latitudes.
c. By use of the Mach No technique.
d. By visual station keeping
18. Deleted.
19. Oceanic clearance is usually requested 40 minutes prior to reaching the OCA entry point. A
change in ETA at the OCA boundary is to be reported to ATC for onward relay to the OCA
controller. That change in ETA specified is:
a. 3 minutes or more.
b. 5 minutes or more.
c. 10 minutes.
d. Greater than 3 minutes.
20. What is an "ATC System Loop Error"?

a. Failure of the radio DF loop aerial.
b. A misunderstanding between pilot and controller.
c. A communications breakdown between controller and radio operator.
d. The clearance for aeroplane A being given to aeroplane B.
21. The primary method of communication in the MNPSA is:

a. VHF.
b. UHF.
c. HF DSB.
d. HF SSB.
22. Where the ground radio station is remote from the Oceanic ATCC, messages from aeroplanes
are passed to the controller from the radio operator by:
a. Teleprintcr.
b. Fax.
c. Telephone.
d. E-mail.
23. When flying in the MNPSA, position reports are to be made:

a. At mandatory reporting points, but only when pilots have not been told to omit position
reports.
b. When requested by the OCA controller.
c. At designated route points or significant flight plan points.
d. When crossing parallels of latitude ending with a zero (ie 50'N).
24. Reported positions are specified as:

a. Either lat and long, or named points.
b. Either route identifier and sequential numbered track points, or lat and long.
c. Either range and bearing from the intersection of whole degrees of lat and long, or lat
and long.
d. Any convenient method of indicating present position.
25. A position report in the MNPSA should also be addressed to the ATCC of an adjacent OCA:
a. If HF contact has been established with both radio stations.
b. Only if the aeroplane is flying a random route.
c. If the position to be reported is within 60nm of the boundary between OCAs.
d. If at the position to be reported, comms with the ground radio station for the current
OCA have been lost.
42
26. If the pilot of an aeroplane is required by the OCA controller to make routine met reports, the
format of the report is as per:
a. The AIREP form.
b. A METAR.
c. A TAF report.
d. A PIREP.
27. A SELCAL watch may be maintained in the N/MNPSA:

a. If the pilot so requests and is authorised by the OCA station.
b. If a back-up VHF frequency is available.
c. If the system is confirmed as serviceable with an OCA radio station.
d. If all other aeroplanes in the OCA are using SELCAL.
28. In the MNPSA, a VHF air to air frequency has been allocated. This frequency is:
a. 131.850MHz.
b. 123.450MHz.
c. 150.000MHz.
d. 118.100 MHz.
29. In the MNPSA, when a SELCAL or HF watch is being maintained, pilots must also maintain a
VHF watch on which frequency'?
a. 131.800MHz.
b. 121.500MHz.
c. 123.450MHz.
d. 119. 100MHz.
30. In the event of HF comms equipment failure (not just loss of contact on one frequency), a pilot
should:
a. Continue as per the flight plan to the next domestic FIR and report the occurrence.
b. As well as continuing in accordance with the clearance received and acknowledged,
attempt to relay messages through other aeroplanes.
c. Turn right or left through 90° until clear of the OTS track then fly to destination
avoiding the OTS.
d. Climb or descend 500 ft and keep a good lookout for other aeroplanes.
31. If HF comms system failure occurs before entering the OCA pilots are recommended:
a. To continue as per the flight plan.
b. To continue as per any OCA clearance received.
c. Not to enter the OCA.
d. Follow another aeroplane as closely as possible and use VHF air to air.
32. In the event of total comms failure whilst in the MNPSA, at the point of exiting the OCA the
pilot must take a course of action based on whether the OCA clearance received was as per the
filed flight plan, or the route flown as per the OCA clearance was different from the filed flight
plan. The correct decision at the exit point is to:
a. Land at the closest aerodrome after landfall.
b. Continue to destination by the shortest and most direct route.
c. Continue or regain the flight-planned route and proceed in accordance with the
procedures and regulations of the state being over-flown.
d. Maintain the last assigned level and Mach No even if not as per the flight plan, and then
proceed in accordance with the procedures and regulations of the state being over-flown.
43
33. A 'step' climb is where:

a. Due to conflictions, the desired level cannot be allocated and the aeroplane gains height
in steps rather than one continuous climb.
b. At a constant power setting the aeroplane gradually gains height as the total mass
reduces.
c. The aeroplane flies to a geographic position at one level and then orbits/holds at that
position and gains height to a higher level and then proceeds at the new level.
d. As the total mass reduces and the aeroplane is able to maintain a higher level, a cleared
climb is then initiated to the new level that is then maintained until an even higher level
becomes possible.
34. As fuel is consumed and mass reduces, it may be more economical to adjust Mach No. In this
case:
a. ATC approval must be obtained before change is initiated.
b. Height must also be changed.
c. Inadvertent supersonic flight must be avoided.
d. All subsequent OCAs and FIRs, which are to be flown through, are to be informed and
re-clearance received on entry.
35. For unrestricted operations in the MNPSA, an aeroplane must be fitted with:
a. At least one serviceable Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS).
b. At least one serviceable Inertial Navigation System (INS).
c. Two serviceable long range navigation systems (LRNS).
d. Two LRNS and a Flight Navigator.
36. If a required navigation system fails before entering the MNPSA, which combination of the
following should the pilot consider:
1. Landing at a suitable aerodrome before entering the OCA or returning to the departure
aerodrome.
2. Diverting along a 'Blue Spruce' route.
3. Obtaining clearance to fly above or below MNPSA.
4. Continue in accordance with the acknowledged clearance (and hope that the other
systems remain serviceable).
a. 1, 3 and 4.
b. 1, 2 and 3.
c. All of the above.
d. 2, 3 and 4.
37. If a required system fails after entering the MNPSA, the pilot should:
a. Continue in accordance with the clearance received.
b. Leave the MNPSA by the quickest possible route.
c. If flying on the OTS, turn through 90' left or right, and when clear of the track resume
heading towards landfall.
d. If unable to navigate with sufficient accuracy to maintain track, climb or descend 500'
and navigate as best as possible.
38. Which of the following is recommended If total navigation system failure occurs in the MNPSA?
a. Set up a racetrack whilst trying to fix the equipment.
b. Descend to low level to get a wind from the sea surface and then using the stand-by
magnetic compass, use dead reckoning.
c. Follow a contrail going in the same direction.
d. Turn towards the Sun, it will lead you to the West.
44
39. In order to minimise the effect of a total nav system failure in the MNPSA, pilots are
recommended to:
a. Carry a spare compass.
b. Become familiar with the route so that they can navigate visually if required.
c. Take a course in astro navigation.
d. Keep a plot going on a large scale chart.
40. Gross Navigation Error (GNE) is defined as:

a. Deviation from track of 10 nm or more.
b. Deviation from track of 25nm or more.
c. Deviation from track of 50nm or more.
d. Deviation from track of 100nm or more.
41. If an aeroplane is unable to maintain assigned level due to weather, performance or

pressurisation problem, which of the following should be carried out if the pilot is unable to
obtain a re-clearance?
a. Turn right or left 90° and when clear of the OTS track climb or descend as required.
b. Turn right or left 90° and when 30nm offset from the OTS track climb or descend as
required to a height 500° above or below those normally assigned if below FL410 or
1000' If above FL410.
c. Divert to an en-route alternate at any level from the present position.
d. Continue to attempt to contact ATC whilst flying at whatever level is considered safe.
45
Chapter – 12 Operations and Procedures

1. What does the abbreviation MEL mean?
a. Main Equipment List.
b. Master Equipment List.
c. Manufacturer's Equipment List.
d. Minimum Equipment List.
2. Who is responsible for compiling the MEL"

a. The Chief Engineer.
b. The Operator.
c. The Manufacturer.
d. The Safety Regulation branch of the Authority.
3. Where is the MEL published?

a. In the aeroplane servicing manual.
b. In FCOM
c. In the Aircraft Reference Manual.
d. In the Operations Manual.
4. What is the MMEL?

a. The Master Minimum Equipment List.
b. The Main Minimum Equipment List.
c. The Main Manufacturers Equipment List.
d. The Master Manufacturers Equipment List.
5. What is the relationship between the MEL and the MMEL?

a. The MEL is the same as the MMEL.
b. The MEL is compiled with reference to the MNIEL.
c. The MMEL is always more restrictive than the MEL.
d. The MMEL should be consulted in an emergency whereas the MEL is for normal
operational use.
6. Who is responsible for ensuring that the equipment specified in the MEL for the type of
operation to be undertaken, is complied with?
a. The Operator.
b. The Authority of the State of the Operator.
d. The Commander.
7. The law requires that an Aeroplane Flight Manual (AFM) is made available. Which of the
following is not required to be included in the AFM?
a. Loading limitations and Information.
b. Performance Information.
c. Least-risk bomb information.
d. Operating crew requirements.
8. Will ice form on an aeroplane if the ambient temperature (air temperature) is above zero but the
airframe temperature is below zero?
a. Always.
b. Never.
c. Yes, but only if there is moisture present in the air and the airframe temperature is below
the dew point of the surrounding atmosphere.
d. No, because precipitation will only freeze if the ambient air temperature is below zero
(the freezing point of water).
46
9. De-Icing is defined as:

a. The process of spraying the airframe with anti-freeze to prevent ice forming on the
airframe.
b. The process of removing ice from an airframe in accordance with the rules and
regulations.
c. A chemical application process that causes the ice on an airframe to melt.
d. Bleeding off hot air from engines to provide a supply of airframe heating air that will
cause the ice on the airframe to melt and prevent further build up of ice.
10. Anti-icing is defined as:

a. Any process that prevents ice forming or building up on an airframe or in an engine.
b. The application of fluids and chemicals to remove a build up of ice on an airframe.
c. The actions that must be taken to ensure compliance with the rules that state that no
aeroplane is permitted to fly with ice on it.
d. Instructions in the Operations Manual to avoid flying within 5000ft of the height of the
zero de-ice isotherm.
11. Which of the following is not a hazard that may result from ice on an airframe'!
a. Instrument errors caused by reduced skin friction.
b. Lumps of ice failing off aeroplanes and damaging property.
c. Increased stalling speed.
d. Interference (static) caused by ice on aerials.
12. By law, Operators are required to establish procedures for de-icing and anti-icing of aeroplanes.
Additionally, operators are to ensure that:
a. Aeroplanes do not fly in conditions where icing is expected.
b. Aeroplanes are to be heated internally to ensure that passengers do not suffer from the
cold.
c. All areas outside the pressure hull are suitably heated.
d. If flying at night, a light is provided to see if ice is building up.
13. The Commander of an aeroplane is required by law to ensure that:

a. The airframe is clear of all ice deposits that may aversely affect the aircraft performance.
b. All de-icing/anti -icing fluids are removed from the airframe before engine start.
c. The aeroplane is not flown into airspace where icing is known to exist.
d. The aeroplane has been de-iced and that all holdover periods have been complied with.
14. The Commander will find information concerning de-icing/anti-icing in:

a. The Operations Manual; ICAO Doc 9640 (Man of Aircraft Ground De-
icing/Anti-icing).
b. The Operations Manual; ICAO Doc 9640 (Man of Aircraft Ground De-icing/Anti-icing);
and Chap 12 of the aircraft maintenance manuals.
c. The Operations Manual; ICAO Doc 9640 (Man of Aircraft Ground De-icing/Anti-icing).
d. On the cans of de-icing fluid or in the relevant AICs.
15. Which of the following is not an approved method of removing ice from an airframe?
a. Scraping the ice off the airframe.
b. Using 'taxi-through' systems that apply de-icing fluids.
c. Warning the airframe with hot air blowers.
d. A gang of men on the wings with brooms.
47
16. A 'one-step' procedure for de-icing/anti-icing requires that:

a. The airframe has to be free of ice before the process of anti-icing begins.
b. The fluid used de-ices and then provides anti-icing for a further defined period.
c. The process cannot be repeated until the aeroplane has flown.
d. If the process is not repeated within 12 hours, it is invalid.
17. Holdover times are quoted for anti-icing fluids. Holdover time is defined as:
a. The maximum shelf storage life of the fluid.
b. The time it takes the fluid to effectively de-ice an airframe at an ambient temperature
of -10°C.
c. The time period during which the de-icing/anti-icing process is active.
d. The time period during which the mixture may be applied, after which it has to be
discarded and a new batch of fluid mixed.
18. The holdover time for a fluid anti-icing process is dependant upon:
a. The temperature of the fluid when it is applied.
b. The concentration and consistency of the fluid.
c. The outside air temperature and type of the precipitation expected.
d. All of the above.
19. In order to increase the awareness of pilots concerning the possibility of bird strike hazards,
information is disseminated by:
a. IBIS (ICAO Bird-strike Information Systems).
b. DUCK (Data Underpinning Concentration Knowledge).
c. CROW (Comprehensive Regional Ornithological Warning).
d. WREN (Warnings Regarding Excessive Nuisance).
20. After a bird strike incident, the Commander is required to:

a. Ensure that the remains of the bird are available for identification and investigation.
b. Declare an emergency in case structural damage has occurred.
c. Make a written report to the Authority after landing (within 10 days).
d. Fly the aeroplane at VMD+10kts to limit the effect of any airframe damage.
21. Birds present a continual aviation hazard especially at low altitude (approach and climb-out)
where the aeroplane is most vulnerable. Areas where the problem is most acute are:
a. Near known bird migration routes and rubbish tips.
b. At aerodromes where the grass is not cut and there are plenty of trees nearby.
c. At aerodromes near centres of population where birds have become scavengers.
d. At aerodromes near the coast or near areas of natural habitat for birds.
22. Who is responsible for the establishment of noise abatement procedures'!

a. The Authority of the State in which the aerodrome is situated.
b. The Operator.
c. The aeroplane manufacturer.
d. The aerodrome manager.
23. For a runway to be designated as a noise preferential runway it must be equipped with:
a. Equipment to determine glide-path guidance (eg. ILS for IFR; PAPIs for VFR).
b. Noise assessment sensors at pre-set intervals.
c. Radio navigation aids to provide centre line fixes for take off and landing.
d, Accurate systems for determining the centre line of the runway for approaches and
climb-out in both VMC and IMC.
48
24. The choice of which runway to use (assuming that a choice exists) should not be influenced by
noise abatement requirements under certain runway conditions. Which combination of the
following correctly reflects the runway conditions that would override noise abatement in the
choice of runway?
1. Runway contaminated (le not dry)

2. Cloud ceiling below 500'for take-off or horizontal visibility less than 1.9 km for take-off
and landing.
3. Crosswind component greater than 15kts.
4. Tail wind component greater than 5kts.
5. When wind shear reported or when thunderstorms are expected to affect the approach
or departure.
a. All the above.

b. 1, 2, 3 and 5.
c. 2, 3, 4 and 5.
d. 2, 3 and 5.
25. What is the minimum height for turns and obstacle clearance on noise preferential routes?
a. 300ft AGL for turns; 250ft AGL OCH.
b. 300ft AGL for turns; 500ft above the highest obstacle under the flight path.
c. 500ft AGL for turns; with turns limited to 15° bank angle.
d. 100011 on a/d QFE before turning; 100ft minimum clearance above the dominant
obstacle for the flight path.
26. Deleted.
27. Noise Abatement procedures include safety limitations. The minimum steady climb speed is to
be not less than:
a. V2
b. VMD.
c. V2 + 10kts.
d. VMD + 10kts.
28. For some aeroplanes, mass and configuration considerations may result in a further limitation
being placed upon minimum steady climb speed. In such a case, minimum steady climb speed
is not to be observed where:
a. The rate of climb would cause distress to the passengers.
b. The maximum acceptable body angle would be exceeded.
c. The rate of acceleration in the climb would lead to V2 being exceeded.
d. To achieve the speed required, the power settings of the engines would be such that the
total engine thrust would be so low that in the event of a critical power unit failing,
insufficient thrust would be provided by the remaining engines and the aeroplane would
stall.
29. During the noise abatement climb-out, power reductions shall not be required unless:
a. The acroplane has reached 800ft, a climb gradient is maintained and all obstacles under
the flight path are cleared by an adequate margin.
b. The aeroplane continues to accelerate above the minimum steady climb speed.
c. There is a temperature inversion of more than 10°C during the first 1000 ft of climb and
such a power reduction is required to counter the subsequent increase in performance.
d. The aeroplane is so light that the minimum steady climb speed is less than V 2
49
30. During a noise abatement approach, the aeroplane is to be in the final landing configuration:
a. At or before passing over the middle marker beacon on an ILS approach.
b. Prior to passing over the initial approach fix.
c. Not closer to the runway threshold than 5nm.
d. Not closer to the runway threshold than 5nm or at any point after passing the ILS outer
marker, whichever is the earlier.
31. During noise abatement approaches, additional limitations are imposed to limit the procedures.
These include:
a. A requirement that excessive rates of descent are to be avoided, and separation between
aeroplanes is applied to prevent aggregated noise nuisance.
b. No turns are permitted during a VFR approach, if such a turn would not permit a period
of stabilisation prior to crossing the threshold.
c. Glide-path angles to be restricted to a minimum of 3.5' (350ft/nm).
d. Max noise output to be limited to 125dB M-2.
32. It has been found that reduced power/reduced drag approach configurations have proved
effective and acceptable methods of noise abatement during the approach to land. This
technique involves:
a. Reducing power and lowering the nose to increase the speed to VAT +50kts, and
stabilising the rate of descent to the glide path by selection of varying degrees of
flap/spoilers/air brakes/under carriage all the way down to the runway.
b. Setting a constant power below the recommended noise output dB level and delaying
lowering the undercarriage until below 300ft AGL.
c. Delaying the selection of flaps and undercarriage until the final stages of the approach.
d. Throttling back two or three engines to flight idle at the outer marker and adjusting
speed by aeroplane attitude.
33. Is the use of reverse thrust prohibited under noise abatement procedures?
a. Yes.
b. Sometimes.
c. Only for non-propeller driven aeroplanes.
d. No.
34. A convenient way of achieving noise abatement for approaching traffic is to displace threshold
further down the runway. This is permitted providing:
a. Sufficient runway remains available for stopping the aeroplane.
b. That apparent noise nuisance reduction is achieved overall.
c. That the displaced threshold can be properly identified and that all the approach aids are
set up for the displaced threshold.
d. That sufficient noise reduction is achieved and the remaining runway is adequate for
operational requirements.
50
Chapter – 13 Fire and Smoke

1. The correct actions to be taken in the event of a carburettor fire on a piston engined aeroplane
depend upon:
a. The type of fuel.
b. Whether the engine has started.
c. The OAT.
d. The accessibility of a fire extinguisher.
2. The initial actions to be taken in the event of an engine fire depend upon:
a. The type of engine.
b. Whether the aeroplane is in the air or on the ground.
c. How many passengers are on board.
d. The availability of Crash, Fire-axes.
3. What equipment is required to be carried to combat the effects of smoke in the flight deck area?
a. Fire extinguishers.
b. A drop out oxygen system.
c. Smoke hoods with emergency 100% oxygen supply.
d. Battery operated torches.
4. What colour is a Halon 1211 - BCF fire extinguisher?

a. Red.
b. Green.
c. Black.
d. Blue.
5. On what type of fire in an aeroplane can you use a CO2 extinguisher?

a. Any fire on the flight deck.
b. Only electrical fires on the flight deck.
c. Brake fires.
d. Electrical fires (but not on the flight deck).
6. Would you use a dry powder extinguisher on a liquid fire in an aeroplane?

a. Yes, but not on the flight deck.
b. No, it is only for use on electrical fires.
c. Yes anywhere.
d. Yes, but only in confined spaces not accessible to passengers.
7. Fire detection equipment fitted to aeroplanes is designed to:

a. Detect fire and smoke by optical means.
b. Detect heat by electrical means and smoke by optical means.
c. Operate sprinkler systems.
d. Operate fire alarms and automatically operate CO2 flooding of inaccessible spaces.
8. If an aeroplane is certificated for 6 passengers, how many hand-held fire extinguishers are
required to be carried in the aeroplane?
a. 1 .
b. Nil.
c. 2.
d. It depends upon the max take off mass permitted.
51
9. If an aeroplane is certificated for 10 passengers, how many hand-held fire extinguishers are
required to be carried in the passenger compartment?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
10. If the galley is not located on the main passenger deck:

a. The closest extinguisher in the passenger compartment must be not more than 10 metres
from the galley.
b. The galley must have an automatic extinguisher system and fire detection system.
c. Separate extinguishers suitable for both oil and solid fires are to be available in the
galley.
d. At least one extinguisher is to be positioned in the galley.
11. A crash axe and/or crow bar is/are required to be carried on the flight deck of aeroplanes:
a. In the public transport (passenger) role.
b. With a max take-off mass exceeding 5700 Kg and 10 or more passenger seats.
c With a max take-off mass of 5700 Kg and 9 passenger seats.
d. That are carrying more than 200 passengers.
12. Which combination of the following statements correctly identifies the problems associated with
overheated brakes after a heavyweight landing or an aborted take-off'?
1. Reduced braking efficiency.
2. Inadvertent operation of fire extinguishers.
3. Extended brake cooling time.
4. Inadvertent operation of brake overheat sensors.
5. Problems with heat dispersal.
6. Risk of tyre explosion.
a. 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6.
b. All.
c 1, 3, 5 and 6.
d. 2, 3, 4 and 5.
52
Chapter – 14 Pressurization Failure

1. What is a minimum supplemental oxygen requirement to be supplied in a pressurised
aeroplane during an emergency descent'?
a. A supply of oxygen sufficient for all crew and passengers to enable a shallow rate of
descent to 10 000ft or 2 hours whichever is the longer.
b. A supply of oxygen for the crew only for the entire time the aeroplane cabin pressure
is above 8 000ft.
c A supply for all crew and passengers sufficient for a constant rate of descent from
the aeroplane's maximum certificated operating altitude to 15 000ft in 10 minutes.
d. A supply for 10% of passengers whilst the cabin pressure is over 13 000ft.
2. In a rapid or explosive decompression:

a. The cabin pressure control system immediately reduces the cabin pressure to ambient
pressure to prevent the fuselage integrity being destroyed.
b. The cabin altitude quickly or instantaneously reduces to ambient (outside) pressure.
c. The cause of the decompression is usually catastrophic failure of the pressure hull.
d. Cabin pressurisation system failure will be the first indication that something is
wrong.
3. The difference between slow and rapid decompression is:

a. A rapid decompression will be immediately noticeable, a slow decompression will
require instrumentation to detect the failure.
b. A rapid decompression is caused by a pressure hull rupture whereas a slow
decompression is caused by system failure.
c. The rate at which the cabin altitude climbs with respect to the desired climb setting
or the automatic control setting.
d. The speed with which the cabin altitude rises with respect to the ambient (outside)
pressure.
4. During a slow decompression, passengers will notice:

a. The cabin temperature will fall as the pressure reduces.
b. Body cavities (sinuses, ears etc.) will become pressurised and may require assistance
in venting.
c. As soon as the pressure falls, the oxygen drop-out system will operate.
d. No contra effects, as slow depressurisation has no effect on the human body.
5. During a rapid or explosive decompression, passengers may notice:

a. Gross discomfort, breathlessness, possible damage to sinus cavities.
b. Tunnel vision and sensorial depletion.
c. Marked reduction in night vision.
d. Pain in muscles and joints caused by the bends.
6. In the event of a cabin depressurisation, the actions of the pilot will be to:
a. Immediately commence a diversion to a suitable alternate.
b. Increase engine power to provide additional airflow to the pressurisation systems.
c. Maintain the aeroplane attitude to prevent further damage to the airframe by over
loading of the structure.
d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is
sufficient for all crew and passengers.
53
Chapter – 15 Windshear and Microburst

1. What is meant by 'Low Altitude Wind shear'?
a. Turbulence at or below FL50.
b. A sudden change in wind direction at any altitude below 2000ft.
c. A sudden change in wind velocity on the runway, final approach or in the climb-out.
d. An unexpected crosswind when the aeroplane is on the runway.
2. Vertical wind shear is defined as:

a. A change in wind velocity with height.
b. A change in wind speed with an increase in altitude.
c. A change in wind direction, contrary to that expected, with an increase in altitude.
d. A rapid change in speed of an ascending current of air.
3. Horizontal wind shear is defined as:

a. A change in wind direction with a change in horizontal distance.
b. A change in wind force over a defined area.
c. A change of wind velocity with horizontal distance.
d. Any change in speed of a wind that is blowing horizontally.
4. What would you expect to happen in an 'up and down draught' wind shear?
a. The wind velocity to vary with both altitude and horizontal displacement from a datum.
b. Initially an up draught causing the aeroplane to rise uncontrollably, and subsequently
a down draught causing uncontrolled descent.
c. Encountering alternately rising and descending air currents in the vicinity of large cloud
formations.
d. Vertical excursions in horizontal flight.
5. With what met phenomena is wind shear most associated?

a. Thunderstorms.
b. Passage of a warm front.
c. Tropical revolving storms.
d. Standing mountain waves.
6. Deleted.
7. If, during an approach to land you encounter an abrupt decrease in wind speed or a shift to a tail
wind the aircraft will _________and you should __________.
a. suffer a loss of lift; apply power
b. increase speed due to reduced drag; lift the nose
c. yaw to starboard; apply right rudder
d. suffer an energy gain; reduce power and lower the nose
8. Shortly after take-off the attitude of the aeroplane suffers an abrupt pitch-up and IAS rapidly
decreases followed quickly by a decrease in altitude. Engine indications are normal. You should
suspect what, and what should you do?
a. Marked temperature drop-, apply full power.
b. Loss of head wind or an increase in tall wind; apply full power.
c. Incipient engine failure (ignore instruments); lower the nose to gain airspeed.
d. Local clear air turbulence; reduce speed to VR, and ride it out.
54
9. On an ILS final approach, you notice that the sky is darkening, visibility is reducing and
turbulence is increasing. At the same time you encounter an energy gain situation causing you
to 'balloon' above the glide path. What should you do?
a. Suspect wind shear and correct power and attitude to regain the glide path.
b. Suspect that you have passed through the top of the turbulence layer and that the wind
is no longer geostrophic, so corrections to power and attitude are required.
c. Suspect microburst activity and pre-empt the inevitable energy loss situation by leaving
power and attitude settings as before and then correct once clear of the microburst.
d. Suspect microburst activity, apply full power, climb as per the missed approach
procedure and go around for a further approach after the microburst has cleared the
approach area.
10. With which of the following should you be aware of the possibility of microburst activity?
1. Thunderstorms.
2. Cumulonimbus clouds.
3. Sudden rain squalls.
4. Gust front activity (rising dust clouds).
5. Unexpected wind shear.
6. Virga.
a. All the above.

b. 2, 4 and 5.
c. 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6.
d. 2, 5 and 6.
55
Chapter – 16 Wake Turbulence

1. Wake vortex turbulence is correctly defined as:
a. The displaced air in the wake of the passage of an aircraft.
b. The effect of the rotating air masses generated behind the wing tips of all aeroplanes.
c. The efflux from jet engines and the wash from propellers.
d. 'Dirty' air caused by the horizontal movement of an aeroplane through the atmosphere.
2. Wake vortex turbulence is caused by:
a. The shape of the wing.
b. Differential speed of movement of air across the wing section.
c. The interaction of the engine efflux./prop, wash and the 'dirty' air from the wing.
d. The disruption of airflow over a wing section when lift conditions exist.
3. Tip vortices are characterised by:
a. Two counter-rotating cylindrical air masses trailing aft from the aeroplane.
b. Visible disturbances like 'streamers' trailing from wing tips.
c. Standing waves emanating from the wing area spaced according to the speed of the
aeroplane.
d. Rotating disturbances of the air whilst the aeroplane is in the ground effect region.
4. Vortex generation begins and ends

a. when the aeroplane moves; when the aeroplane stops.
b. when the nose wheel lifts off, when the nose wheel touches down.
c. when lift is being generated; when lift generation stops.
d. when speed exceeds V2
5. Which of the following describes the behaviour of vortices on the ground?

a. In the absence of crosswind, the vortices move downwards and outwards from the
runway centre line at a speed of approx 5kts.
b. With a crosswind, the down wind vortex is stationary and the upwind vortex moves
away from the centre line at approx 5kts.
c. With a crosswind, the up wind vortex is stationary and the down wind vortex moves
towards the centre line at approx 5kts.
d. With a crosswind, both vortices move away from the centre line in the up wind direction
at approx 5kts.
6. The strongest vortices are generated by:

a. Heavy aeroplanes, travelling fast, in a 'clean' configuration.
b. Heavy aeroplanes, travelling fast, in a 'dirty' configuration.
c. Heavy aeroplanes, travelling slow, in a 'clean' configuration.
d. Heavy aeroplanes, travelling slow, in a 'dirty' configuration.
7. Which of the following conditions is worst with regard to wake vortex turbulence?
a. Light winds near the surface.
b. Strong winds near the surface.
c. Marked vertical wind shear.
d. Marked atmospheric turbulence near the ground.
8. When comparing vortex generation between aeroplanes and helicopters:

a. Aeroplanes generate more intense vortices per kg gross mass.
b. A helicopter always generates more intense vortices because the diameter of the rotor
is greater than a propeller.
c. Propeller aeroplanes generate more intense vortices than helicopters of the same gross
mass.
d. Helicopters generate more intense vortices per kg gross mass than aeroplanes.
56
9. ICAO categorises aeroplanes with a max gross take off mass of 138000kg as:
a. Upper medium.
b. Medium.
c. Heavy.
d. Cat D.
10. Where a medium category aeroplane is landing behind a heavy category aeroplane, the minimum
separation distance in NM is:
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
11. Where a light category aeroplane is landing behind a heavy category aeroplane, the minimum
a. 3
b. 5
c. 4
d. 6
12. Where a light category aeroplane is landing behind a medium category aeroplane, the minimum
a. 6
b. 5
c. 4
d. 3
13. Where a light or medium category aeroplane is taking off behind a heavy category aeroplane on
the same runway and from the same point, the minimum separation spacing in minutes is:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
14. Where a light category aeroplane is taking off behind a medium category aeroplane on the same
runway but the following aeroplane is departing from an intermediate point, the minimum
separation spacing in minutes is:
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
15. Where parallel runway operations are being conducted and the runways are separated by 750m:
a. The same wake turbulence separation criteria as single runway operations apply.
b. The separation is reduced to 2 minutes.
c. There is no need to apply separation.
d. Separation is only applied if the net flight paths from the parallel runways cross at a
distance of not more than 5nm from the departure end of either runway.
16. Where parallel runway operations are in use and the projected flight path of the following
aeroplane crosses that of the leading aeroplane at the same level or within I 000ft lower:
a. The same wake turbulence separation criteria as single runway operations apply.
b. The separation is reduced to 2 minutes.
c. There is no need to apply separation.
d. Separation is only applied if the net flight paths from the parallel runways cross at a
distance of not more than 5nm from the departure end of either runway.
57
17. What is the minimum separation to be applied where a medium category aeroplane is about to
take off after a heavy category aeroplane has made a missed approach in the opposite direction?
a. 1 minute.
b. 2 minutes.
c. 3 minutes.
d. 4 minutes.
58
Chapter – 17 Security
1. Who is responsible for instigating training programmes, the aim of which is to minimise the
opportunities for unlawful interference with flights?
a. The Authority of the State of Registration.
b. The Authority of the State of the Operator.
c. The Operator.
d. The law enforcement agency with responsibility under the law of the state of registration
of the aeroplane.
2. Who is responsible for reporting acts of unlawful interference?

a. The Commander or the Operator.
b. The ATCU for the airspace in which the event occurred.
c. Any member of the flight crew.
d. Any person on board the aeroplane.
3. The operator is responsible for ensuring that a search procedure of an aeroplane is published.
By what means are these procedures published?
a. In the Operations Manual.
b. As a check list.
c. As a standing order or standard operating procedure.
d. As an enclosure to the aeroplane handbook.
4. After an act of unlawful interference a report is to be made. When and to whom?

a. Within 10 days and to the Authority of the State of Registry.
b. Immediately and to the Authority of the State of the airspace in which the event
occurred.
c. Without delay, to the designated local authority and the Authority of the State of
Registration.
d. Without delay, to the designated local authority and the Authority of the State of the
Operator.
5. In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure
to be taken by the pilot in command?
a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue the flight as per the ATC clearance
received if possible.
b. Squawk 7500 and broadcast a warning to ATC and other traffic on 121.500MHz or the
frequency in use whilst maintaining the flight as cleared.
c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces
deviation from the cleared flight plan.
d. If forced to deviate from flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the
nonnal cruising altitudes by 1000ft.
6. When an unlawful interference occurs, the State over which the event occurs is required by
international law to take adequate measures to protect passengers and crew. Such measures will
include:
a. The provision of a fully functioning ATC system and a landing clearance if required.
b. If the aeroplane lands, it Is to be disabled to prevent subsequent take-off.
c. Facilities for the armed forces of the State of Registry (if not the same as the state in
which the aeroplane has landed) to storm the aeroplane by force.
d. Notification to ICAO that the event has occurred.
59
7. As of March 2000, the construction of the flight deck door connecting to the passenger
compartment is to be:
a. Impenetrable to gunfire.
b. Bombproof.
c. Lockable.
d. Designed to minimise penetration by grenade shrapnel.
8. ICAO requires that states establish procedures to prevent the carriage of weapons that can be
used in unlawful interference. Circumstances do exist where weapons may be carried. These
are:
a. In accordance with the regulations by law enforcement personnel in the discharge of
their duty.
b. By passengers if special permission has been obtained and the weapons are unloaded.
c. By members of the crew over areas of known terrorist activity.
d. For sporting purposes but must be stowed in the personal belongings of passengers.
9. If it is suspected that a bomb is on board an aeroplane the measures that should be taken are
designed to:
a. Disable the device.
b. Find out what will trigger the device.
c. Prevent knowledge of the device on board getting to the passengers.
d. Locate and move the device to the 'least risk' location and apply as much padding as
possible.
60
Chapter – 18 Emergency and Precautionary Landings

1. An emergency landing or ditching is defined as:
a. A procedure that is not a normal landing where the intent is to attempt to preserve the
integrity of the airframe to permit orderly and controlled evacuation of passengers from
the aeroplane.
b. Any landing where the pilot does not have full control of the aeroplane.
c. Any landing where the structural integrity of the aeroplane has been seriously affected.
d. A landing for which ATC permission has not been previously obtained.
2. The aim of a ditching procedure is:

a. To enable the pilot to land the aeroplane on water rather than a crash landing on land.
b. To land on water if the undercarriage is not able to be lowered correctly.
c. To land the aeroplane on water if it is not possible to reach land.
d. To land the aeroplane on water if it is on fire.
3. A precautionary landing is a procedure that:

a. Enables the aeroplane to land at the destination with unserviceabilities that prevent a
normal instrument approach being carried out.
b. Enables a landing after the declaration of a state of emergency or urgency.
c. Enables a landing if it is suspected that the undercarriage is not properly lowered.
d. Is carried out in the event of landing at an alternate aerodrome.
4. What is the purpose of the passenger briefing given in the event of a precautionary landing being
necessary?
a. To find out if there are any other pilots on board who may have experienced the
situation and can help.
b. To prepare the passengers for the worst outcome.
c. To stop the passengers pestering the cabin staff so that they can get on with their
preparations for crash-landing or ditching.
d. By involving the passengers and sharing information, fear may be overcome and greater
survivability achieved.
5. In the event of a successful crash landing or ditching, rapid and controlled evacuation from the
aeroplane is essential. In order to achieve this:
a. All doors and windows should be opened as soon as the aeroplane comes to rest.
b. Women and children should be evacuated first.
c. The use of slides/chutes is preferred.
d. The cabin staff have to impress their authority and frequently carry out drills and
practices.
6. One way in which passengers can be reassured during an emergency Is:

a. To regularly see members of the flight crew calmly moving about the cabin in a relaxed
manner.
b. For the captain or first officer to keep a running commentary going over the PA.
c. For the cabin staff to ensure that the passengers are aware of what is happening and that
they are complying with instructions.
d. For the cabin staff to direct the passengers' attention to the emergency passenger brief
cards and make sure that they have read them.
7. Briefing the passengers about the emergency prior to the crash landing /ditching must include:
a. Comprehensive brief concerning evacuation.
b. How to tackle any fires that may result, including the use of extinguishers.
c. A short brief concerning survival in the environment to be encountered.
d. Departing passengers to take over from the crew if they are all killed.
61
8. If a ditching is inevitable:
a. Non swimmers are to be evacuated first.
b. Life jackets are to be inflated before leaving the aeroplane.
c. The use of life jackets is to be reiterated before the ditching.
d. Passengers should be briefed that even if they successfully evacuate the aeroplane it is
inevitable that some of them will die from drowning.
9. Where are details of drills and crew training requirements for evacuation of an aeroplane in an
emergency published?
a. In the Training Manual (Part B).
b. In the Aeroplane Manual.
c. In the aircrew training notes.
d. In the Operations Manual (Part B).
10. If the Captain elects to ditch the aeroplane, it is recommended to:

a. land along the swell.
b. land into the swell but down wind.
c. land into the swell but into wind.
d. land into wind regardless of the swell direction if the wind speed is over 20kts.
11. The method of alighting the aeroplane on water during a ditching is to:
a. Carry out a normal approach with flaps and gear selected as normal but to calculate all
speeds plus 10kts.
b. Reduce the approach angle to 1.5deg (150 ft per mile), add 15kts to all speeds, keep the
aeroplane clean (no flaps or gear) and fly it onto the surface.
c. Fly a normal approach but keep the gear up and land at the lowest possible speed with
the nose raised for the tail to strike first.
d. Fly a normal approach to stalling speed and then drop the aeroplane vertically onto the
water.
12. During a ditching passenger injuries can be limited by:

a. Ensuring that all seat belts are fastened as tightly as possible and passengers brace
themselves against the seat in front.
b. Ensuring that seat belts are fastened and passengers adopt a braced position with heads
as far forward with hands clasped behind the neck so as to minimise further forward
movement of the body at impact, and the wearing of life jackets.
c. Ensure that all loose objects in passenger cabin are held tightly by passengers.
d. Illuminating the No Smoking light, ensuring seats are fully forward, internally stowed
dinghies are placed by emergency exits for quick deployment.
13. During a ditching:

a. There will be one or two minor skips after the main impact.
b. It is inevitable that the nose will dig in and the acroplane will immediately start to
submerge.
c. The main effect will be rapid deceleration and the preparation in the cabin will be to
counter the effects of this deceleration.
d. As sea-state (wave height and swell height) increases, the effect of the initial high
rotation will be reduced and the accompanying uncontrolled roll will disappear.
14. In the event of a precautionary landing, who is responsible for alerting the emergency services?
a. ATC.
b. The Commander.
c. The local constabulary.
d. The Operations Despatcher.
62
Chapter – 19 Fuel Jettison

1. Where a fuel Jettison system is fitted to an aeroplane it must be capable of
a. Reducing the aeroplane mass from max take-off mass to max landing mass in 15 mins.
b. Reducing the aeroplane mass from max take-off mass to max landing mass in 10 mins.
c. Reducing the aeroplane mass from max take-off mass to max landing mass in 20 mins.
d. Reducing the aeroplane mass from max take-off mass to max landing mass in 5 mins.
2. Which of the following correctly describes the requirement of a fuel jettison system?
a. Free from fire hazards; discharges are clear of the aeroplane; fuel or fumes do not enter
the aeroplane; control of the aeroplane is not affected by the Jettison operation.
b. Free from fire hazards; discharges are clear of the aeroplane; fuel or fumes do not enter
the aeroplane; normal radio operation can continue.
c. Free from fire hazards; discharges are clear of the aeroplane; fuel or fumes do not enter
the aeroplane; must be safe to use in all weather/environmental conditions.
d. The system must contain a protection device to stop the jettison as soon as the gear is
lowered, and also to prevent all tanks being drained totally.
3. Fuel jettison:
a. Is a procedure to reduce mass in an emergency only.
b. Is a procedure that may be employed to reduce aeroplane mass where an overweight
landing may result in damage to the aeroplane.
c. May be authorised by ATC to reduce delays by protracted holding procedures.
d. May be ordered by ATC to reduce aeroplane mass in an emergency situation.
4. Fuel is to be jettisoned:
a. Over the sea and then only above 10 000ft.
b. Over the sea, or over land above 10 000ft agl.
c. Anywhere and at any height if unavoidable in an emergency.
d. Over the sea, or over land above 4000ft in summer or 7000ft in winter.
5. The following aeroplanes are required to have a jettison system:

a. All Public Transport aeroplanes.
b. Only public transport aeroplanes with MTM greater than 5700 kg.
c. All public transport aeroplanes requiring two pilots.
d. All aeroplanes, except where the max landing mass exceeds the max take off mass less
the mass of fuel required for a 15 minute flight to land back at the aerodrome of
departure.
6. When jettisoning fuel, safety is an overriding consideration. Which of the following lists
correctly identifies items to be considered when planning to jettison fuel?
a. Smoking; HF Radio; operation of flaps/gear/slats; weather conditions.
b. Height; speed; ATC clearance; weather; area.
c. Time required; position; other aeroplanes; proximity of cloud; aeroplane attitude.
d. OAT; wind direction; altitude; time of day; airspace restrictions; any other emergencies.
7. Once jettison has begun:

a. Passengers are restricted to their seats and strapped in.
b. Normal operation of flaps/gear and lift enhancers is permitted.
c. Radios may be used but limited to essential transmissions only.
d. Fuel flow from the vents is to be visually monitored (where possible).
63
8. Once the fuel jettison is complete:

a. It is essential that the fuel remaining is balanced in the tanks and a revised endurance
calculated.
b. ATC is to be informed that jettison is cornplete.
c. The NO SMOKING light is to be extinguished.
d. Normal food distribution service is to recommence.
64
Chapter – 20 Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air

1. With regard to the transportation of dangerous goods by air, Operators are required to comply
with:
a. The manufacturer's specification for the storage of items with low flash points.
b. The Health and Safety requirements of the World Health Organisation.
c. The United Nations embargo on the transportation of hazardous materials.
d. ICAO Annex 18 SARPS.
2. Dangerous goods are defined as:

a. Articles or substances which are capable of significant risk to health, safety or property.
b. Any item which contains toxic liquids or solids.
c. Any item which has the capability to be used for purposes other than that intended.
d. Guns, ammunition, explosives, toxic waste, or chemical, biological or nuclear agents or
reagents.
3. With regard to dangerous goods, what does a UN number identify?

a. The international code for the country of destination.
b. A substance or particular group of substances.
c. The registered dangerous goods consignee.
d. The identity of the registered carrier of dangerous goods.
4. Which of the following correctly identifies a 'unit load device"?

a. Any type of freight container used for dangerous goods.
b. Any device used to secure a load/pallet to the floor of an aeroplane.
c. Any type of freight container, pallet with a net, or pallet with a net over an igloo.
d. The method by which individual units of dangerous goods are loaded into aeroplanes.
5. Define 'Proper Shipping Name':

a. The correct (internationally accepted) description of the method by which goods are
carried between states.
b. The registered address of the consignment destination.
c. The name to be used to describe a particular item or substance in all shipping documents
and notifications and, where appropriate, on packaging.
d. The full name and ICAO identity of the airline or freight company/agent responsible for
compliance with the regulations.
6. Which of the following correctly Identifies 'the operation by which articles or substances are
enveloped in wrappings and/or enclosed in packaging or otherwise secured'?
a. Boxing.
b. Packaging.
c. Packing.
d. Wrapping.
7. The document that identifies the technical instructions for the classification and safe transport
of dangerous goods by air is called:
a. The Operations Manual.
b. The Technical Instructions.
c. The Loading Manual.
d. ICAO Annex 19
65
8. Certain items, which by their nature are dangerous goods, may be carried in aeroplanes excluded
from the provisions. Which of the following lists correctly identifies such items?
a. Veterinary aids orhumane killers, ammunition, gas cylinders, catering supplies, personal items.
b. Veterinary aids or humane killers, ammunition, equipment with wet cell batteries,
catering supplies, personal items.
c. Veterinary aids or humane killers, drugs, equipment with batteries, gas cylinders,
catering supplies, personal items.
d. Veterinary aids or humane killers, items required for operational reasons, medical aids
for a patient, catering supplies, personal items.
9. If an item which is excluded from the provisions is carried as a replacement (eg a replacement
0, bottle for a patient) it must be classified as dangerous goods.
a. True.
b. False.
c. Class 7.
d. Class 1.
10. Who is responsible for ensuring that dangerous goods are packed, labelled and carried in
accordance with the regulations?
a. The Commander.
b. The Operator.
c. The Shipping Agent.
d. The Consignee.
11. Who is responsible for ensuring that dangerous goods offered for carriage by air are properly
classified, packed and labelled correctly and that the correct documentation has been completed?
a. The Commander.
b. The Operator.
c. The Shipper.
d. The Authority of the State of Departure.
12. The requirements for packaging and labelling are to be found in:
a. The Technical Instructions.
b. The Operations Manual.
c. ICAO Annex 18.
d. Security Manual
13. What is the purpose of the 'acceptance checklist'?

a. To ensure that the requirements of the Technical Instructions are complied with.
b. To enable the loading supervisor to take appropriate precautions.
c. To enable performance calculations to be made with regard to total cargo weight.
d. To ensure that the shipper is not trying to smuggle munitions of war.
14. Can dangerous goods be carried in the passenger cabin or on the flight deck?
a. Yes; but only goods specified in the technical instructions.
b. No.
c. Yes, if authorised by the authority.
d. Yes, provided they are non toxic.
15. If dangerous goods are to be carried, the commander is to be given information as specified in
the technical instructions. Who is responsible for the provision of this information?
a. The Authority.
b. The Operator.
c. The Loading Supervisor.
d. The Shipper.
66
16. Certain items and goods are prohibited from carriage by air. For instance, non safety matches.
clearreservoir lighters, aerosol containers and certain chemical/medical preparations are widely
available. Where is information concerning such items to be published/displayed for the benefit
of passengers?
a. In the aeroplane.
b. On the packaging of the item.
c. At the point of purchase of such items within the aerodrome complex.
d. On tickets/ticket jackets, where tickets are sold, at the check-in desk, in the departure
lounge, at luggage check-in areas.
17. Where an aeroplane is carrying dangerous goods and suffers an in-flight emergency:
a. The Commander is to contact the Operator by whatever means and request instructions.
b. The Operator is to inform the Authority of the State in which the emergency has
occurred that the aeroplane is carrying dangerous goods.
c. The Commander is to inform the crash/rescue services on the Fire Frequency and advise
what special handling is required.
d. The Commander is to ask ATC to arrange for a landing at a remote aerodrome or
parking on a remote site, where the effects of contarnination/pollution may be limited.
18. Operators are to establish Dangerous Goods training programmes. Where are details of the
training required, published?
a. In the Operations Manual.
b. In the Training Manual.
c. In ICAO Annex 18.
d. In the Technical Instructions.
67
Chapter – 21 Contaminated Runways

1. If 30% of the surface area of a runway is covered by surface water more than 3mm deep, by
slush, by loose snow or compacted snow which resists further compression, or ice (including wet
ice), the runway is classified as:
a. Wet.
b. Contaminated.
c. Unusable.
d. Useable with care.
2. If the surface of a runway is not dry, but the moisture on it does not give a shiny appearance, the
runway is:
a. Wet.
b. Wet but not contaminated.
c. Dry.
d. Damp.
3. If a runway is covered with water which is less than 3mm deep, or where the surface appears
reflective but without standing water patches, it is said to be:
a. Wet.
b. Wet but not contaminated.
c. Dry.
d. Damp.
4. A dry runway is one which:

a. Can be wet if it has sufficient camber to allow the water to drain quickly off the surface
therefore maintaining an 'effective dry' braking action.
b. Is wet but not to a depth of water greater than 3mm.
c. Is not contaminated.
d. Can be wet if it has specially prepared grooved or porous surfaces, which maintain,
effectively dry' braking action.
5. If a runway is contaminated with dry snow, the depth that will preclude operations is:
a. 60mm.
b. 15mm.
c. 10 mm.
d. 3mm.
6. If a runway is contaminated with wet snow, slush or water, the depth that will preclude operations
is:
a. 60mm.
b. 15mm.
c. 10 mm.
d. 3mm.
7. The effect whereby a tyre is lifted from the runway due to aeroplane speed along the runway is
known as:
a. Surface water effect.
b. Hydroplaning.
v. Aqua-skimming.
d. Surface tension.
68
8. For any given contaminant by (specific gravity), the aquaplaning speed is given by:
a. Nine times the square of the tyre pressure (lbs/sq in).
b. The tyre pressure (Bars) divided by nine.
c. Nine times the square root of the tyre pressure (lbs/sq in).
d. The square root of the tyre pressure (Bars) multiplied by nine.
9. One Bar (barometric pressure unit) is equal to:

a. 14.7psi.
b. 28.82 in Hg.
c. 29.92 lbs/sq in.
d. 1013.25 hPa M-2.
10. Braking action on contaminated runways is given by:

a. A simple code (I - 5) or a description (excellent - bad).
b. A simple code (0.25 - 0.4) or a description (good - bad).
c. A simple code (I - 5), a description (good - poor) or the measured co-efficient of
braking effect (<0.25 - >0.40).
d. The co-efficient of braking action related to a simple code where I is poor and 5 is good,
supplemented by a description of the braking effect and an aquaplaning warning.
11. Deleted.
12. Where operations from contaminated runways have been approved, required
performance calculations to be enhanced to cater for the reduced braking efficiency. The factor
to be applied is:
a. Landing distance available is at least 115% of landing distance required.
b. Landing distance available is at least 1.5 x landing distance required.
c. Landing distance required must be at least 115% of landing distance available.
d. Runway length must be a minimum of 115% of the landing distance required.
13. Apart from aquaplaning and reduced braking efficiency, what other hazards are associated with
heavy rain contamination of runways:
a. Wet aeroplanes do not perform as well as dry ones.
b. The efficiency of jet engines is reduced by the ingress of water diluting the fuel.
c. The refraction of light from landing lights causes visual impairment.
d. Water ingress into engines can cause flame-out.
14. In a SNOWTAM infori-nation is given concerning friction measurements (braking co-efficient

x 100) in which field of the message?
a. F.
b. G.
c. H.
d. N.
69
Chapter – 22 Specimen Questions

1. Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that the flight can be safety made, and
that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?
a. The company's cargo technicians.
b. The captain.
c. The mechanic on board, or in his absence the copilot.
d. The operator.
2. FDRs must keep data and parameters for at least the last:
a. 30 hours of operation.
b. 48 hours of operation.
c. 25 hours of operation.
d. The whole flight.
3. When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking:

a. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking/ disembarking.
b. All flight crew must be on board.
c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board.
d. The stairs shall be fully extended.
4. To act as co-pilot for take-off or landing you must have:

a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days.
b. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 30 days.
c. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 60 days.
d. Been at the controls for landing in the same type recently.
5. When are life jackets required.'

a. 50nm from land.
b. 100nrn from land.
c. 300nm from land.
d. 400nm from land.
6. Where is the Minimum Equipment List"

a. Appended to the Aeroplane Flight Manual.
b. In the Operations Manual
c. In the Maintenance Documents.
d. In the Operations Room.
7. Aeroplanes with a take-off mass greater than 5700kg shall be fitted with an independent
automatically operated emergency power supply to operate and illuminate the artificial horizon
for:
a. 15mins.
b. 30mins.
c. 60-mins.
d. 2hrs.
8. One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the
available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or, at
an aerodrome of alternate destination, are, at the predicted time of'.
a. Take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
b. Arrival, and for a reasonable time before and after such a predicted time, equal to or
better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
c. Arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
d. Arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
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9. What is the co-pilot currency requirement'

a. 3 flights in the last 90 days.
b. 3 take-offs and landings in the last 60 days.
c. At the controls for 3 flights in the last 60 days.
d. At the controls for 3 take-offs and landings in the last 90 days.
10. Supplemental oxygen is used to:

a. Provide oxygen to passengers who might require it, following a cabin depressurisation.
b. Assist a passenger with breathing difficulties.
c. Protect a crew member who fights a fire.
d. Provide passengers on board with oxygen during a cabin depressurisation.
11. Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the:

a. Operation manual.
b. Flight manual.
c. Journey logbook.
d. Operational flight plan.
12. Where is the general information about the carriage of dangerous goods to be found?
a. Operations Manual.
b. A IC.
c. . Aircraft flight notes.
d. Journey logbook.
13. The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by the:

a. Airline operator.
b. Manufacturer.
c. Aeronautical authority the airline operator depends on.
d. Civil Aviation Authority.
14. The recent experience conditions of a captain assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an operator
must not be less than:
a. 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last
90 days.
b. 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last
6 months.
c. 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last
6 months.
d. 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last
90 days.
15. A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still parked. The
reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is the:
a. Operation manual's chapter 'Abnormal and Emergency procedures'.
b. Flight manual.
c. FCOM.
d. Minimum equipment list.
16. When don't you need a destination alternate aerodrome?

a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome? and a
reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC.
b. If the flight time is less than 6 hours.
c. If the flight time is less than I hour.
d. If your operator deems the weather to be suitable for a visual landing.
71
17. When are all flight crewmembers required to be at their stations'?

a. Take-off and landing.
b. Throughout the flight.
c. At all times other than take-off and landing.
d. As specified in the operations manual.
18. When are flight crew allowed to leave their stations'.

a. In the performance of their duties.
b. At any time specified by the operations manual.
c. When having lunch.
d. Only when the captain allows it.
19. Who is the operator to provide an Operations Manual for?

a. Operations staff.
b. All company personnel.
c. Only for flight crew
d. For the Authority.
20. When must a radiation indicator be carried?

a. For flights above 29,000ft.
b. For flights above 39,000ft.
c. For flights above 49,000ft.
d. For flights above 59.000ft.
21. What must be ensured with respect to navigation equipment?

a. The failure of one piece does not affect another.
b. All navigation equipment must be serviceable at the start of flight.
c. All equipment must conform to ICAO specifications.
d. If one piece of equipment falls there must be a spare available.
22. What skills constitute pilot proficiency checks?

a. Simulator flying skills.
b. The ability to land safely.
c. Flying technique, emergency procedures and IFR.
d. The ability to conform with set procedures.
23. How often should pilot proficiency checks be performed?

a. No less than 6 months between checks.
b. 2 checks every 13 months.
c. 3 checks within the year with no less than 4 months between checks.
d. 2 within a year, more than 4 months between checks.
24. Who is to ensure safe handling of flights?

a. The Operator.
b. The Authority.
c. The State of Registration.
d. The operations officer.
25. Destination alternate for a turbojet - what is the required fuel overhead?
a. 30 Minutes at cruise speed.
b. 30 minutes at 1500' in standard conditions.
c. 2 hours at 1500' in standard conditions.
d. 30 minutes at endurance speed.
72
26. Who is responsible for ensuring that the aeroplane is airworthy prior to flight?
a. Operator.
b. State of Registration.
c. Captain.
d. State of the operator.
27. Following an indication of an unserviceability whilst taxying to the holding point, what do
you consult first?
a. Flight manual.
b. Operator.
c. State of registration.
d. MEL.
28. Above what altitude are quick-donning masks required'?

a. 25,000ft
b. 15,000ft
c. 11,000ft
d. ,000ft
29. What is the oxygen requirement for the crew and 100% of the passengers in an unpressurised
aircraft?
a. 10,000ft.
b. 1,000ft.
c. 12,000ft.
d. 13,000ft.
30. What is the requirement regarding the carriage of a CVR for aircraft registered before April
1989
a. Record last 30 mins. of flight.
b. Record for the duration of the flight.
c Record the last 25 hours of operation.
d. Record the last 48 hours of flight.
31. What is the requirement for the carriage of life rafts?

a. 30mins. or 120nm whichever is less.
b. 50nm from land.
c. 120mins or 400nm whichever is less.
d. 60mins flying time at the one engine out cruise speed.
32. Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
a. Only during take-off and landing.
b. While at their station.
c. From take-off to landing.
d. Only during take-off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the
interest of safety.
33. Deleted.
34. On an ILS you are told that the weather has dropped below company minima. When must
you abort the approach"
a. Start of the glide-slope descent.

b. FAF.
c. Inner Marker.
d. Outer Marker.
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35. The MEL is drawn up by the:

a. Operator and may be more restrictive than the MMEL.
b. Operator and may be less restrictive than the MMEL.
c. Manufacturer and may be more restrictive than the MMEL.
d. Manufacturer and may be less restrictive than the MMEL.
36. On board a pressurised aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided
with an oxygen reserve enabling all crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied
with oxygen in the event of cabin depressurisation, throughout the flight period, during which
the pressure altitude is greater than:
a. 9,000ft.
b. 10,000ft.
c. 12,000ft.
d. 13,000ft.
37. A modem aircraft must be provided with a flight data recorder when its certified take-off
gross weight is greater than:
a. 27,000kg.
b. 5,700kg.
c. 20,000kg.
d. 14,000kg.
38. Who provides the operations personnel with the operations manual and the amendments to
keep it up to date?
a. Aircraft manufacturer.
b. ATS authority of the state of registry.
c. Aircraft operator.
d. Owner of aircraft.
39. What is required for navigation in IMC?

a. Radio equipment and equipment for guidance until the visual point.
b. Anti-icing equipment.
c. A serviceable weather radar.
d. One VHF box and one HF box.
40. Who compiles the MEL and where does it go?

a. The manufacturer and in the Flight Manual.
b. The manufacturer and in the Operations Manual.
c. The operator and in the Flight Manual.
d. The operator and in the Operations Manual.
41. On an NDB approach with an MDH of 360' and a required RVR of 1500m and a reported
RVR of 2500m, when can you start an approach; which is most correct?
a. When the cloud base is above the system minimum.
b. With any cloud base.
c. When the cloud base is above 360'.
d. When the cloud base report is received.
42. Where is permanent approval for the carriage of dangerous goods given
a. Certificate of Airworthiness.
b. Aircraft registration.
c. Air Operator's Certificate.
d. Insurance certificate.
74
43. How far away can a take-off alternate be for a 2-engined aeroplane?
a. 60mins. at one engine cruise speed.
b. 60mins. at normal cruise speed.
c. 120mins. at one engine cruise speed.
d. 120mins. at normal cruise speed.
44. Who issues and updates the MEL?

a. The authority.
b. The designer.
c. The manufacturer.
d. The operator.
45. Who accepts the MEL?

a. The country where the flight takes place.
b. The country of the operator.
c. The country of the designers.
d. The country of the manufacturers.
46. A Flight Data Recorder is required in aeroplanes over:

a. 20,000kg.
b. 5,700kg.
c. I 0,000kg.
d. 7,000kg.
47. In determining Aerodrome Operating Minima, what of the following needs to be considered?
2. Ability to communicate/receive meteorological information.
3. Significant obstacles in the missed approach area.
4. Dimensions and characteristics of the runway.
5. Navigation equipment in the aeroplane.
a. 1, 2, 4 & 5.
b. 1, 2 & 3.
c. 2,3, 4 & 5.
48. A list to be carried in the aeroplane detailing minimum equipment required must be approved
by:
a. Country of operations.
b. Country of operator.
c. Country of manufacturer.
d. No such book is required to be approved by an authority.
49. A pilot in command:

1. Must comply with ATC instructions immediately.
2. Is only responsible when airborne.
3. May deviate in an emergency.
4. May deviate from complying with rules of the air in order to comply with an
ATC instruction.
5. May request a new clearance if unsatisfied.
a. 1, 3, 4 & 5.
b. 3 & 5.
c. 3, 4 & 5.
75
50. If there is unauthorised use of equipment that affects the aeroplane's system, the commander:
a. May authorise its use for take-off and landing.
b. Must not authorise its use.
c. May authorise its use for the whole flight.
d. May authorise its use at his discretion.
51. What is the currency requirement for a co-pilot?

a. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 90 days.
b. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 60 days.
c. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator
within the last 90 days.
d. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator
within the last 60 days.
52. Following an electrical failure, the emergency lighting unit must provide illumination for:
a. 90 sec.
b. 5 min.
c. 10 min.
d. 30 min.
53 From the flight deck you observe an aeroplane in the forward left position on an opposite
parallel track. What Nav light will be observed:
a. Green.
b. Red.
c. White.
54. The MMEL is?

a. Compiled by the manufacturer and approved by the operator.
b. Compiled by the manufacturer and approved by the state of design or state of
the manufacturer.
c. Compiled by the operator and approved by tile state of design.
d. Compiled by the manufacturer and not approved by the operator.
55. When does a pilot apply the limitations of the MEL.

a. At parking before commencement of taxi.
b. Prior to take-off.
c. At any time in flight.
d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake.
56. All aeroplanes which individual certificates of airworthiness were issued after 1 January 1989
must be fitted with a flight data recorder when their maximum certificated take-off mass is
greater than:
a. 20,000kg.
b. 27,000kg.
c. 5,700kg.
d. 14,000kg.
57. The operator shall include in the operations manual a minimum equipment list which shall be
approved by the authority of
a. None, no approval is required.
b. The country where the aeroplane is operated.
c. The country where the aeroplane was manufactured.
d. The country of the operator.
76
58. At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel
quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during:
a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft.
b. 45 minutes at holding flight speed at 1.500 ft.
c. 30 minutes at cruising speed.
d. 45 minutes at cruising speed.
59. The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when
undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is
prepared by:
a. the operator, and it is inserted In the operations manual.
b. the manufacturer, and it is inserted in the operations manual.
c. the operator, and it is appended in the flight manual.
d. the manufacturer, and it is appended to the flight manual.
60. After an accident, the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the
original recordings for a period of:
a. 30 days.
b. 90 days.
c. 45 days.
d. 60 days.
61. During a flight, the captain is informed that a passenger is using a portable electronic device,
which is adversely affecting the aircraft's electrical avionics. The captain must:
a. Stop the passenger from using the device.
b. Allow the device to be used at take-off and landing.
c. Allow the device to be used from take-off to landing.
d. Allow the device to be used for certain exceptions.
62. A copy of which of the following documents must be kept on the ground by an operator for
the duration of each flight?
a. The Journey I log
b. The ATC (Air Traffic Control) flight plan.
c. The operational flight plan.
d. The meteorological forecast.
63. What manuals are to be carried?

a. Operations Manual in toto.
b. Company instructions for all flight crew.
c. All those specified in the Certificate of Airworthiness.
d. Relevant parts of the ops manual and AFM.
64. A copy of what info is to be left on the ground?

a. Passenger manifests, notification of special passengers.
b. Route specific maps and charts.
c. NOTAMs, Tech log, Op flight plan, mass & Balance, Spec load notification.
d. AICs AISs and all company NOTAMs,
65. Which of the following is to be left on the ground?

a. The aeroplane noise certificate.
b. The operations manual.
c. Parts of the operations manual relevant to the flight.
d. Operational flight plan.
77
66. Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a certain amount of information. The
operator will see that this file is kept on ground. It particularly contains:
1. The weather conditions for the day including the weather forecast at destination.
2. One copy of the operational flight plan and, if required, the weight and balance sheet.
3. Copies of the relevant aircraft's technical log.
4. The en-route NOTAM documentation when specifically issued by the operator.
5. Special loads notification.
6. charts.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a. 1, 3 & 5.
b. 2,3, 4 & 5.
c. 2 & 4.
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 & 6.
67. Deleted.
68. After an incident, the FDR recordings must be kept for:

a. 30 days.
b. 60 days.
c. 90 days.
d. 120 days.
69. Coverage of permanently illuminated white light's at the rear of the aircraft is:
a. 140°.
b. 70°.
c. 110°.
d. 220°.
70. Deleted.
71. What is the requirement for the issue of an AOC?

a. Not already hold an AOC? issued by another authority.
b. Have a fleet of serviceable aeroplanes.
c. Have registered offices in all countries of operations.
d. Have facilities for all maintenance.
72. The "NO SMOKING" sign must be illuminated:

a. When oxygen is being supplied in the cabin.
b. In each cabin section if oxygen is being carried.
c. During climb and descent.
d. During take-off and landing.
73. What are the rules on the carriage of PRMs?

a. Cannot impede the performance of crew duty.
b. Must be seated away from emergency exits.
c. No more than 5% of passengers may be PRMs?
d. They must provide their own food.
74. What is the system minimum for an NDB approach?

a. 200ft.
b. 250ft.
c. 300ft.
d. 350ft.
78
75. A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect (circling) approach followed by a visual
manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:
a. 1600m.
b. 2400m.
c. 1500m.
d. 3600m.
76. What are the circling minimum visibility and MDH for a CAT B aeroplane')
a. 1600m. 400ft.
b. 1600m. 500ft.
c. 1500m. 450ft.
d. 1500m. 600ft.
77. Deleted.
78. What is the minimum RVR for a CAT IIIC approach?

a. No minimum.
b. Adm.
c. 75m.
d. loom.
79. The considerations for a non-precision approach are:

1. MDA (H)
2. DH.
3. Ceiling.
4. Horizontal visibility.
a. 2, 3 & 4.
b. 1, 3 & 4.
c I & 3.
d. 2 & 4.
80. What is the minimum required RVR for CAT IIIB operations?
a. loom.
b. 75m.
c 150m.
d. 200m.
81. What is the minimum visibility for a CAT A aircraft during a circling approach?
a. 500m.
b. 1600m.
c. 2400m.
d. 3600m.
82. A category 11 precision approach (CAT 11) is an approach with:

a. A decision height of at least I 00ft.
b. No decision height.
c A decision height of at least 200ft.
d. A decision height of at least 50ft.
83. When can special VFR be commenced'-.'

a. Visibility greater than 1500m.
b. Greater than 3km vis.
c Visibility no more than 3000m.
d. Greater than 5km vis.
79
84. What IS VAT?

a. Vso x 1.3.
b. VSIGX 1.3.
c The lesser of Vso or Vsig
d. Vso x 1.23.
85. Deleted.
86. What is the take-off RVR limit for a Cat A aeroplane, when high centreline lights
and edge lights are on and the crew is IFR qualified and approved?
a. 150m if threshold RVR is available.
b. 150m
c 200m.
d. 250rn.
87. When is MDH referenced to the threshold as opposed to the aerodrome elevation?
a. The threshold is more than 2m above the ARP.
b. The threshold is less than 2m above the ARP.
c The threshold is less than 2m below the ARP.
d. The threshold is more than 2m below the ARP.
88. What are the threshold speeds for a CAT D aeroplane,

a. 121 - 140kts.
b. 131 -155kts.
c. 141 - 165kts.
d. 145 - 160kts.
89. What is the minimum horizontal visibility for a CAT D aircraft on a circling approach?
a. 1500m.
b. . 1600m.
c. . 2400m.
d. 3600m.
90. What is DH used for

a. Visual manoeuvring.
b. Circling to land.
c. Precision approaches.
d. Non-precision approaches.
91. A category I precision approach (CAT 1) is an approach which may be carried out with a
runway visual range of at least:
a. 550m.
b. 350m.
c. 800m.
d. 500m.
92. When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their
speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the
landing configuration multiplied by a factor of
a. 1.5.
b. 1.45.
c. 1.15.
d. 1.3.
80
93. Deleted.
94. The CAT I minimum decision height is:

a. No decision height.
b. 50 feet.
c. 100 feet.
d. 200 feet.
95. What is the CAT IIIA RVR minimum?

a. 50m.
b. 100m.
c. 200m.
d. 250rn.
96. The minimum visibility for a CAT C aeroplane on a circling approach is:
a. 2400m.
b. 2500m.
c. 2600m.
d. 2700m.
97. Aircraft are categorised according to their threshold speeds, multiplied by a factor. What
aircraft category corresponds to a range of speeds 141kts - 165kts?
a. B.
b. F.
c. D.
d. C.
98. An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250ft and minimum
visibility of 800 metres. ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs When may
the approach be started?
a. When threshold and mid-runway RVRs are greater than 800m.
b. When all 3 RVRs are greater than 800m.
c. When the met viz is greater than 800m. RVR is for precision approaches only.
d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m.
99. The information to be considered for a non-precision approach is:

1. Horizontal visibility.
2. Ceiling.
3. Minimum Descent Altitude.
4. Decision Altitude.
a. 1,2&4. b. 1 & 3. c. 1 & 4. d. 1,2&3.
100. Deleted.
101. A category D aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological
visibility is higher than or equal to:
a. 1,500m.
b. 1,600m
c. 2,400m.
d. 3,600m.
81
Chapter – 22 – Specimen Questions
Supplementary
1. Through what angle can the regulatory green navigation light of an aircraft be seen?
a. 110 deg. b. 70 deg. c. 90 deg. d. 140 deg.
2. Who must ensure that any given aircraft malfunction complies with the MEL and therefore
allows the aircraft to fly?
a. The pilot in command.
b. A representative of the company that owns the aircraft.
c. The flight engineer, or the on board mechanic if present.
d. The operator.
3. Who is responsible for the establishment of the MEL?

a. The aeroplane manufacturer.
b. The Authority of the State of manufacture.
c. The authority of the State of Registration.
d. The Operator.
4. Aerodrome Operating Minima (AOM) are based on several factors, which combination of the
following are factors assessed in defining AOM:
1. Runway length.
3. Means used to report meteorological conditions.
4. Obstacles in the go around and approach areas.
a. 1,2&4. b. 1,3&4. c. 1 & 4. d. 1,2,3&4.
5. Refuelling an aircraft with passengers embarking or disembarking, is:

a. Not permitted.
b. Permitted only if all stairs are in position.
c. Permitted only if the flight deck crew is on board.
d. Permitted only if communications are maintained with the ground crew.
6. The VFR minima for flight in Class B airspace above FL 100 are?
a. 5 km forward visibility, 1000 ft vertically and 1500m laterally clear of c loud.
b. 5 km forward visibility and clear of cloud.
c. 8 km forward visibility, 1000 ft vertically and 1500m laterally clear of cloud.
d. 8 km forward visibility and clear of cloud.
7. Which of the following are operators' responsibilities?

1. Employees must comply with the laws of the country in which operations are being
conducted.
2. Cabin crew must be familiar with laws, regulations and procedures applicable to the
airspace.
3. Pilots and other flight crew members are familiar with aerodromes and navi gation
facilities to be used.
4. Commanders have all essential information concerning Search and Rescue services.
a. 1,2&4.
b. 2, 3 & 4.
c. 1,3&4.
82
8. Who is responsible for obtaining an appropriate clearance before initiating chan ges to a flight
plan?
a. The first officer.
b. The pilot in command.
c. The Air Traffic Controller
d. The operator.
9. What correctly describes the contents of the aircraft operating manual'?

a. MEL, checklists, system details, the operational flight plan.
b. The operational flight plan, normal and abnormal operating procedures, MEL.
c. Emergency procedures, training requirements, system details, aeroplane
performance.
d. Checklists, system details, emergency procedures, normal and abnormal operating
procedures.
10. How many first aid kits and medical kits should be carried on an aircraft authorised to carry
250 passengers'?
a. 4 first aid kits and 1 medical kit.
b. 4 first aid kits and no medical kit.
c. 3 first aid kits and 1 medical kit
d. 3 first aid kits and no medical kit.
11. An operator has to ensure that instrument procedures are used. When may a commander
deviate from those procedures?
a. When cleared by ATC.
b. When cleared by the Authority.
c. When cleared by the Operator.
d. When cleared by ICAO.
12. Of the following people, who specifically may have access to the flight deck?
1. A pilot positioning for a flight.
2. A person permitted according to the Operations Manual.
3. Wives of flight crew
4. Cabin crew members.
5. Representatives of the Authority.
a. 1,2&5
b. 2,3 & 5.
c. 1,2&4.
d. 2,4 & 5.
13. Deleted.
14. How may the Visual Approach be correctly described?

a. An approach which includes a visual circuit.
b. An approach where the conditions preclude an instrument approach.
c. An approach when part or all of the instrument approach is carried out visually with
reference to the terrain.
d. An approach when the use of instruments is not the method of reference.
83
15. What equipment must be fitted to an aeroplane for flight under VFR when not navigating by
visual reference points`?
a. One radio system, reply to SSR interrogation and sufficient navigation equipment.
b. Two radio systems, reply to SSR interrogation and sufficient navigation equipment.
c. One radio system, SSR transponder and one each of VOR, ADF and DME.
d. Two radio systems, SSR transponder and one each of VOR, ADF and DME.
16. Deleted.
17. The minimum meteorological visibility for a circling approach in a Cat B aircraft is:
a. 1500m.
b. 1600m.
c. 2400m.
d. 3600m.
18. The aeroplane's Vso is reported to be lll kts at maximum landing mass, to which approach
category does it belong?
a. B.
b. C.
c. D.
d. E.
19. The MDH and minimum RVR for a Cat D aeroplane making an approach on an ILS with no
glide path is:
a. 200ft & 550m.
b. 200ft & 800m.
c. 250ft & 800m.
d. 250ft & 1200m.
20. If the meteorological visibility is reported to be below the minimum required for a nonprecision
approach, by which criterion must the approach be aborted?
a. Final Approach Fix.
b. Inner marker.
c. 1000ft above the ARP.
d. Outer marker.
21. What is the minimum RVR for a CAT III 3 approach when the aeroplane is flying with a fail-
operational Roll-out Control/Guidance System?
a. 75m.
b. 125m.
c. 150m.
d. 200m.
22. A CAT I ILS may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
a. 400m.
b. 500m.
c. 550m.
d. 800m.
23. An aeroplane with just one pilot may carry out the same approach with a runway visual range
of:
a. 400m.
b. 500m.
c. 550m.
d. 800m.
84
24. The organised track system (OTS) is based on timings of aircraft at 030°W. What are the
parameters for these timings?
a. 1130Z until 180OZ for eastbound traffic and 0100Z until 0800Z for westbound traffic.
b. 1100Z until 1830Z for daytime traffic and 0130Z until 0800Z for night time traffic.
c. 1130Z until 180OZ for daytime traffic and 0100Z until 0800Z for night time traffic.
d. 1I00Z until 1830Z for eastbound traffic and 0130Z until 0800Z for westbound traffic.
25. If flying an Eastbound NAT track crossing 030°W at 1000 UTC, the type of track would be:
a. Daytime OTS.
b. Night time OTS.
c. Disorganised track.
d. Random track.
26. When flying a planned flight utilising the NAT track system, a SELCAL check is to be
carried out:
a. Before take-off.
b. At, or prior to entry into the NAT Oceanic Control area.
c. At least 10 minutes before the initial contact with the Oceanic Control centre is
required.
d. As soon as possible after entering the Oceanic Control area.
27. Reduced Vertical Separation Minima (RVSM) may be applied in MNPS Airspace between
which of the following inclusive FL bands?
a. 290-410.
b. 285-420.
c. 300-400.
d. 310-370.
28. What is the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome that a two -engined Performance
Class A aeroplane without ETOPS approval, with more than 19 seats and MTOM of 6813kgs,
may fly?
a. 60 minutes flying time.
b. 90 minutes flying time.
c. 120 minutes flying time.
d. 180 minutes flying time.
29. The limits of MNPS airspace within the NAT region are:
a. 270N -90 0N.
b. 30°N -70 0N.
c. 270N -70 0N.
d. 30°N -90 0N.
30. Mach number is used for separation of aircraft within the MNPSA. Which statement is
incorrect in describing its use?
a. It is rare for ATC to assign a Mach number more than 0.01 faster and 0.02 slower
than that requested.
b. Longitudinal separation is achieved by use of the Mach number technique.
c. Only changes of 0.02 and more to Mach number should be transmitted to ATC.
d. If a temporary essential change to Mach number is made, ATC must be notified.
31. Deleted.
85
32. What is the maximum distance a Performance A, 2-engined aeroplane can plan to have a
departure alternate if its ETOPS threshold distance is 1 hr 40 mins?
a. 60 mins flying distance at the one engine out cruising speed.
b. 100 mins flying distance at the all engines operating cruising speed.
c. 100 mins flying distance at the one engine out cruising speed.
d. 120 mins flying distance at the one engine out cruising speed.
33. In the case of a radio failure within the NAT region, what are the correct actions to be taken?
a. Maintain flight plan route, climb when planned to the subsequent flight levels, select
A/7600 and conform to state procedures when out of the NAT region.
b. Maintain last received oceanic clearance including level and Mach number, squawk
A/7600 and land as soon as practicable when out of the NAT region.
c. Maintain last acknowledged oceanic clearance including level and speed, squawk
A/7600 and conform to relevant state procedures after last specified oceanic route
point.
d. Maintain last acknowledged oceanic clearance to the last specified oceanic route point,
select A/7600 and divert to the nearest suitable airfield after landfall.
34. The minimum lateral separation between aeroplanes operating outside the OTS but within
MNPSA at the same flight level is:
a. 30 nm.
b. 60 nm.
c. 90 nm.
d. 120 nm.
35. An aeroplane within MNPSA can no longer maintain its clearance and is unable to obtain a
revised clearance from the relevant OCA. Having taken the initial correct procedure s, the
captain decides to change the aeroplane's level by +500ft. Is he:
a. At FL430.
b. Below FL430.
c. Above FL 430.
d. Below FL410.
36. For an aeroplane operating predominately East/West at approximately 65°N, how often should
significant points be planned?
a. Whole degrees of longitude and every 10° of latitude.
b. Whole degrees of latitude and every 20° of longitude.
c. Whole degrees of latitude and every 5° of longitude.
d. Whole degrees of latitude and every 10° of longitude.
37. MASPS stands for:

a. Master Altimeter System Performance Selection.
b. Minimum Aircrew Sleep Pattern Specification.
c. Minimum Aircraft System Performance Specification.
d. Maximum Altitude System Performance Specification.
38. When a pilot incorrectly plots a NAT clearance and it is not subsequently picked up by
clearance delivery on read back, it is called:
a. A waypoint insertion error.
b. An ATC system loop error.
c. A violation.
d. Just one of those things.
86
39. The worst airframe icing conditions occur on the ground in:
a. Frost.
b. Snow.
c. Freezing fog.
d. Freezing rain.
40. When carrying out de-icing/anti-icing as a one step procedure, the holdover time is deemed to
have started from:
a. The start of the de-icing procedure.
b. The end of the de-icing procedure.
c. When all ice deposits have been removed from the airframe.
d. When the icing conditions have stopped affecting the aeroplane.
41. What are the requirements for flying in icing conditions?

a. The aeroplane is fitted with radar that can detect icing conditions.
b. Sufficient anti-icing fluid is still present on the airframe at time of take-off.
c. The met officer has briefed the crew on all the actions required to avoid the icing
conditions.
d. If flying at night, the aeroplane is fitted with a light to illuminate the airframe.
42. A majority of bird strikes occur:

a. During take-off.
b. During landing.
c. Below 500ft.
d. On the wings (of the aircraft).
43. Which is the most likely to attract a bird problem to an aerodrome.

a. A nearby fun park.
b. A rubbish tip.
c. Mineral extraction.
d. Long grass policy.
44. Deleted.
45. After using all the fire extinguishers, which of the following would you use to fight the fire?
a. All beverages.
b. Blankets.
c. Axes and crow-bars.
d. Tool-kits.
46. With which fire extinguisher would you normally fight a wheel fire?
a. CO2.
b. Foam.
c. Dry powder.
d. Water.
47. In the event of an uncontrolled depressurisation at FL310, the first action of the flight crew is
to:
a. Declare a MAYDAY.
b. Initiate a descent to safety altitude.
c. Inform the passengers.
d. Don oxygen masks.
87
48. The immediate effect of a sudden decrease in tailwind is to:

a. Decrease the speed of the aeroplane over the ground.
b. Give the aeroplane a decrease of energy situation thus causing it to descend below
the flight path.
c. Cause an increase in indicated air speed.
d. Cause flutter on the aeroplane's control surfaces.
49. Windshear is:

a. Only encountered at low level around a front.
b. A horizontal or vertical change of wind velocity over a short distance.
c. A horizontal change of wind speed over any distance.
d. Uncomfortable and to be avoided at all times.
50. What period of time must elapse before a light category aircraft can take off from the same
position on a runway following a heavy category aircraft?
a. 1 min.
b. 2 mins.
c. 3 mins.
d. 4 mins.
51. What is the mass range of light aeroplanes vis-a-vis wake turbulence categories?
a. Below 5400kg.
b. 7000kg or less.
c. Between 5400kg and 7000kg.
d. Between 7000kg and 136000kg.
52. What transponder codes should be selected if the aeroplane is subjected to an act of unlawful
interference?
a. 7500.
b. 7600.
c. 7700.
d. 2000.
53. What would be the most appropriate action should an unidentified package, suspected to be an
IED (improvised explosive device), be found on the aeroplane?
a. Open the package and attempt to identify the owner.
b. Move the package to the least-risk bomb location and make an expeditious landing.
c. Cover the package with blankets and ask the passengers to pray to St Jude.
d. Squawk 7600 and make an emergency descent.
54. When fuel is jettisoned:

a. Maximum landing weight cannot be greater than the take-off mass.
b. With four engines operating a climb gradient of 3% must be achievable.
c. Maximum landing weight should be achievable within 15 minutes.
d. The centre tank should be emptied to reduced weight to landing weight.
55. A multi-engined aeroplane must be capable of surviving a ditching procedure if it is operated

over water more than:
a. 200nm from land.
b. 300nm from land.
c. 400nm from land.
d. 500nm from land.
88
56. After an emergency landing the captain should:

a. Take the first available turn-off lane to expedite clearance from the runway.
b. Stop as expeditiously as possible and turn the aeroplane to face its tail into wind.
c. Maintain pressure in the fuselage to help prevent fumes entering the passenger
compartment.
d. Stop on the runway.
57. In which document is it stated, in detail, what dangerous goods cannot be carried by air`?
a. The Operations Manual.
b. The Technical Instructions.
c. ICAO Annex 6.
d. ICAO Annex 18.
58. If an aircraft has tyres inflated to 10.8 bar, what is the speed at which aquaplaning would begin?
a. 85kts.
b. 97kts.
c. 103 kts.
d. 1 12kts.
59. A runway is said to be contaminated if:

a. More than 25% of the manoeuvring area is covered with a contaminant.
b. More than 25% of the surface area has a shiny appearance.
c. The snow on the runway isn't good enough to make snowballs.
d. More than 25% of the surface area has surface water greater than 3mm in depth.
60. If the breaking action was described as Code 4, it would be the equivalent of:
a. Good.
b. Medium to good.
c. Medium.
d. Medium to poor.
89
Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Radiotelephony (ATPL/FOOL )
Radiotelephony
Chapter – 08 VFR Q ue s tio n s
PAPER – 1
1. An altitude of 1500 feet is transmitted as:

a) Fifteen hundred feet
b) Wun tousand fife hundred feet
c) Wun fife hundred feet
d) Wun fife zero zero feet
2. Using the readability scale, readability 4 means:

a) Readable
b) Readable with difficulty
c) Readable with background noise
d) Unreadable
3. ÒRBIT RIGHT' means:

a) Turn right to avoid other traffic
b) Continue to make right hand turn until advised
c) Make a 360° turn to the right
d) Right hand circuits in use
4. The frequency used for the first transmission of a `MAYDAY' call should be:
a) The distress frequency 121.5 MHz
b) The frequency currently in use
c) Any international distress frequency
d) Approach frequency of the nearest airfield
5. `STANDBY' means:
a) Wait and I will call you again
b) Selected STANDBY on the SSR Transponder
c) Hold your present position
d) Continue on present heading and listen out
6. Deleted.
7. `SQUAWK 1234' means:

a) Count up to 4 for test purposes
b) Make a test transmission on 123.4 MHz
c) Select this code on the SSR transponder
d) Transmit for a VDF bearing
8. The phrase 'take-off s used by a pilot:

a) Only to acknowledge take-off clearance
b) Never. It is used only by a ground station
c) Only to request immediate clearance
d) After the aircraft is airborne
1
9. The Q code for the measurement of altitude is:

a) QFE
b) QFF
c) QNE
d) QNH
10. `VACATE RIGHT' means:

a) Continue right to the end of the runway
b) Clear the runway immediately
c) Take the next runway exit on the right
d) Turn right after take-off
11. A Blind Transmission is:

a) A transmission of information relating to the safety of air navigation that is not
addressed to a specific station or stations
b) A transmission from an aircraft to obtain VDF guidance to descend from the initial
approach altitude to a position from which an approach can be completed visually
c) A transmission from an aeronautical station to all aircraft on its frequency
d) A transmission made in circumstances where two-way communications cannot be
established but it is believed that the called station is able to receive the transmission
12. `VERIFY' means:

a) Repeat your last transmission
b) Check and confirm your last message
c) Read back VDF bearing
d) Confirm your last message
13. If a pilot receives an instruction from ATC that he cannot carry out he should use the phrase:
a) UNABLE TO COMPLY
b) NEGATIVE INSTRUCTION
c) NO CAN DO
d) CANCEL INSTRUCTION
14. A class `B' VDF bearing is accurate to within:

a) ± 2°
b) ± 3°
c) ± 5°
d) ± I°
15. `GO AROUND' means:

a) Overtake the aircraft ahead
b) Make a 360° turn
c) Taxi past the aircraft on the holding point
d) Carry out a missed approach
16. On hearing a Distress message a pilot must:

a) Acknowledge the message immediately and standby to relay further messages if
required
b) Maintain radio silence and monitor the frequency to ensure assistance is provided
c) Change frequency because radio silence will be imposed on the frequency in use
d) Take control of the situation and co-ordinate the efforts of all agencies in the rescue
operation
2
17. A pilot may abbreviate his aircraft callsign only:

a) After having established communication with an aeronautical ground station on the
frequency in use
b) When he considers no confusion with another similar callsign is likely to occur on the
frequency in use
c) When communicating with the departure and destination airfields
d) If it has first been abbreviated by the aeronautical ground station on the frequency in
use
18. A pilot is required to read back:

a) SSR operating instructions, take-off clearances, altimeter settings, VDF information,
frequency changes
b) Altimeter settings, taxi information, terminal weather, runway clearances, approach
aid serviceability
c) Route clearances, speed instructions, weather reports, taxi clearances, runway state
information
d) ATC route clearances, runway clearances, conditional clearances, actual weather
reports
19. The term àeronautical station' means:

a) An airborne station forming part of the AFTN
b) Any station established to exchange radiotelephony communications
c) a station in the aeronautical telecommunication service located on land or on board an
aircraft to exchange radiotelephony communications
d) A station in the aeronautical mobile service located on land or, in certain circumstances,
on board a ship or on a platform at sea
20. A DISTRESS message is preceded by the call............................ and would be sent by an aircraft
that is in a condition ..............................
a) Pan Pan Pan Pan Pan Pan of being threatened by imminent danger and of requiring
immediate assistance.
b) Mayday Mayday Mayday concerning the safety of an aircraft but does not require
immediate assistance
c) Pan Pan Pan concerning the safety of an aircraft but does not require immediate
assistance
d) Mayday Mayday Mayday of being threatened by imminent danger and of requiring
21. The correct pronunciation for the number 2500 when used to pass altitude, height, cloud height or
visibility by radiotelephony is:
a) TWO FIFE ZERO ZERO
b) TOO TOUSAND FIFE HUNDRED
c) TWO THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED
d) TWENTY FIVE HUNDRED
22. Deleted.
23. What are the two classified states of Emergency Message?

a) Emergency and PAN PAN
b) Distress and Urgency
c) MAYDAY and PAN PAN
d) Emergency and Security
3
24. On a VFR navigation exercise you request a flight information service from an ATSU providing
a LARS. After your initial call, you are invited to "pass your message" which should consist of:
a) Position; Heading; Altitude; Destination; Intention
b) Aircraft identification and type; Estimated position; Heading; Level; Intention; Type of
service required
c) Aircraft identification; Type; Level; Intention; Type of service required
d) Aircraft identification and type; Estimated position; Level; Flight conditions; Type of
service required
25. A Radar Information Service (RIS) is an ATC service:

a) in which the controller will provide radar separation from all other traffic
b) which may only be used by aircraft flying in accordance with the instrument flight
rules
c) in which the controller will inform the pilot of the bearing, distance and, if known, the
altitude of conflicting traffic
d) in which the controller will direct the aircraft to avoid the other traffic
4
PAPER -2
1. The word ROGER means:

a) that is correct
b) message received and understood
c) pass your message
d) I have received all your last transmission
2. Deleted.
3. Using the readability scale, readability 5 means:

a) readable now and then
b) unreadable
c) readable with difficulty
d) perfectly readable
4. An Aeronautical Station is defined as:

a) a radio communication service between aircraft stations and ground stations or between
aircraft stations
b) a land station in the aeronautical mobile service. In certain instances, an aeronautical
station may be placed on board a ship or an earth satellite
c) a mobile station in the aeronautical mobile service on board an aircraft
d) a radio station broadcasting aeronautical information
5. A time of 1020 hours is transmitted as:

a) ten twenty hours
b) one zero two zero' or `two zero'
c) one zero two zero
d) ten two zero
6. An altitude of 2400 feet is transmitted as:

a) twenty four hundred feet
b) two four hundred feet
c) two four zero zero feet
d) two thousand four hundred feet
7. The correct pronunciation of the frequency 122.1 MHz when passed by radiotelephony
is:
a) ONE TWO TWO POINT ONE
b) WUN TOO TOO DAYSEEMAL WUN
c) ONE TWO TWO DECIMAL ONE
d) ONE TWENTY TWO DAYSEEMAL ONE
8. When asked by ATC "Are you able to maintain FL 40" the correct reply contains the
phrase:
a) ROGER
b) WILCO
c) NO SIR
d) AFFIRM or NEGATIVE
9. Deleted.
5
10. Which of the following is a conditional clearance ?

a) Fastair 345, Line-Up and hold
b) Redwing 42, Take-off at your discretion
c) G-ZZ, Report Final, two ahead
d) G-BOJR, after the Jersey European 146, taxi to holding point D runway 26
11. `SQUAWK IDENT' means:

a) select the SSR transponder code to 7000
b) select the SSR transponder mode to " ALT"
c) say again your callsign
d) operate the SSR transponder "special position identification" feature
12. When requesting a special VFR clearance in flight, ATC must be given details of:
a) callsign, type, position, heading, intentions and ETA at entry point
b) callsign, altitude, heading and ETA at entry point
c) callsign, type, TAS, ETA at entry point and destination
d) callsign, type, intentions and ETA at entry point
13. On a long straight-in approach to land, the call "Long Final"would be made at a range
of.
a) 2 nm
b) 3 nm
c) between 4 nm and 8 nm
d) 25 nm
14. The abbreviation ATIS stands for:

a) Air Traffic Information Service
b) Aircraft Technical Information Service
c) Aerodrome Traffic Information Service
d) Automatic Terminal Information Service
15. URGENCY is defined as a condition:

a) of being threatened by serious and or immediate danger and of requiring immediate
assistance
b) concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on board or
within sight and requiring immediate assistance
c) concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on board or
within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance
d) requiring urgent assistance from ground stations
16. The callsign prefix `Tyro' indicates that:

a) this is a practice emergency
b) the aircraft is not in immediate need of assistance
c) the pilot lacks experience
d) the pilot is lost
17. A Class B bearing is accurate to within:

a) ± 5°
b) ± 10°
c) ± 1°
d) ± 2°
6
18. The frequency 121.5 MHz may be used to practise emergency procedures:
a) including simulated distress or urgency situations
b) not including any simulated distress incident
c) at no time; only the FIS frequency should be used
d) only on dual crew flights
19. Deleted.
20. ATIS is to be found on:

a) the Approach frequency
b) the Tower frequency
c) a discrete VHF frequency
d) a discrete VHF or a VOR frequency.
21. The phrase "Squawk Charlie" means:

a) press the ident button on the transponder
b) select altitude (ALT) on the transponder
c) confirm the transponder is selected ON
d) select 7700 on the transponder
22. Which of the following messages has the highest priority?

a) CAUTION, WORK IN PROGRESS ON THE TAXIWAY
b) REPORT FINAL NUMBER 1
c) REQUEST QDM
d) TAXI TO THE REFUELLING PUMPS
23. A height of 1250 feet is transmitted as:

a) Wun too fife zero feet
b) Twelve fifty feet
c) One thousand two hundred and five zero feet
d) One thousand two hundred and fifty feet
24. A radar advisory service will:

a) Give you standard separation from all traffic
b) Advise you of possible conflict
c) Give you a radar approach
d) Give you an air traffic control service
25. DAAIS stands for:

a) Dangerous Activity and Interception Service
b) District Aerial Activity Information System
c) Danger Area Activity Information Service
d) Descent And Approach Information System
7
PAPER -3
1. Deleted.
2. In the event of a radio failure the SSR transponder should be set to:
a) 7600
b) 7700
c) 7500
d) 7000
3. Deleted.
4. Your radio check is reported as `Readability 3', your transmission is:

a) unreadable
b) perfectly readable
c) reading only half the time
d) readable but with difficulty
5. The correct order and content of a position report is:

a) callsign, position, level, heading, ETA
b) callsign, position, time, level, next position and ETA
c) callsign, route, position, level, request
d) callsign, position, level, intention and ETA at destination
6. A Pilot may file a flight plan with an ATSU during flight. The frequency that would normally
be used for this purpose is:
a) FIR
b) RADAR
c) APPROACH
d) TOWER
7. The correct RTF call when you are ready to take off is:
a) Roger take-off
b) Request take-off
c) Request departure clearance
d) Ready for departure
8. What is the correct way of spelling out FRI-VOR in a radio message?

a) Foxtrot Romeo India - VOR
b) Foxtrot Romeo India - Victor Oscar Romeo
c) Friday - VOR
d) Fox Romeo India - VOR
9. You receive the message "G-ABCD Squawk Ident". You should:

a) select STAND-BY on the SSR transponder
b) select ALT - altitude reporting facility (Mode C) on the SSR transponder
c) operate the special position identification on the SSR transponder
d) reply giving your callsign
10. A time of 1300 UTC is transmitted as:

a) one thousand three hundred
b) one three zero zero
c) one three hundred UTC
d) thirteen hundred UTC
8
11. Deleted.
12. Which aeronautical communication service provides automated airfield and meteorological
information for departing and arriving traffic?
a) LARS
b) AFIS
c) FIS
d) ATIS
13. Deleted.
14. A pilot who has already established communication with a civil or military ATSU should in the
event of being confronted with an emergency:
a) make a distress call on the frequency in use and maintain the allocated SSR code
b) make a MAYDAY call on 121.5 MHz
c) select 7700 on the SSR and change to 121.5 MHz
d) squawk Ident
15. On the initial call to an ATSU a pilot should pass:

a) callsign, service requested
b) callsign, aircraft type, position, heading, ETA
c) callsign, position, heading, level, intention, type of service required
d) callsign, position, level, flight conditions and intention
16. A Special VFR (SVFR) flight is a:

a) royal flight that you must avoid
b) flight in VMC for which you must file a Flight Plan
c) flight made on a special occasion
d) flight which is unable to comply with the instrument flight rules and is cleared to enter a
Control Zone under specified weather minima
17. Which of the following lists are all ATC messages that must read back in full:
a) level instructions, altimeter settings, surface wind, runway information
b) clearance to enter, land on, take-off on, backtrack, cross or hold short of an active
runway; SSR instructions
c) VDF information, frequency changes, type of radar service
d) ATC route clearances, runway clearances, actual weather reports
18. You call an ATSU and receive the reply "G-XX Stand-By" you should:
a) acknowledge immediately: "Stand-By G-XX"
b) say nothing, assuming no onward clearance and wait until called
c) call the ATSU again after 5 mins to obtain a clearance
d) change frequency
19. When transmitting a message preceded by the phrase "Transmitting blind due to receiver
failure" the aircraft station shall also:
a) Advise the time of its next intended transmission
b) Hold for 5 minutes at its present position
c) Proceed to the alternate airport
d) Enter the next en-route holding pattern
20. Deleted.
9
21. A pilot may abbreviate his aircraft callsign only:

a) When changing frequency
b) After establishing communication with a ground station
c) If it has first been abbreviated by the ground station on the frequency in use
d) When he considers that no confusion is likely to occur
22. When an airfield has a RADIO service the answer a pilot can expect upon stating that they are
ready for departure is:
a) Wind and traffic information
b) "Take off at your discretion"
c) "Cleared for take off'
d) "Cleared to depart"
23. On an airfield with an INFORMATION service the controller:

a) Can give landing clearances only
b) Has, control over all surface movements including helicopters hover taxiing
c) No control over airfield movements
d) Can give a take off clearance
24. The abbreviation for a control zone is:

a) MATZ
b) CTZ
c) CTR
d) CTA
25. Deleted.
10
PAPER -4
1. Radio test transmissions should take the following form:

a) Station being called, aircraft identification, words "Readability check", frequency
b) Station being called, aircraft identification, words "radio check", frequency being used
c) Station being called, aircraft identification, words "How do your read?"
d) Station being called, aircraft identification, frequency, words "Do you read?"
2. After making a call to an ATSU, you are asked to "pass your message". This should take the
following form:
a) Aircraft identification and type, departure point and estimated position, heading, level,
intention, type of service required
b) Aircraft identification, full route details, level and type of service required
c) Aircraft identification and type, last turning point, level, intentions
d) Callsign and type, position, level and intentions
3. A "downwind" call is made:

a) Just before turning on to base leg
b) As soon as the aircraft is on the downwind leg
c) Abeam the upwind end of the runway
d) Any position on downwind leg
4. Aerodrome traffic is:

a) All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all aircraft operating in the
vicinity of an aerodrome
b) All aircraft on an aerodrome
c) All vehicles on an aerodrome
d) All traffic on the movement area of an aerodrome
5. DACS is normally spoken as one word. It means:

a) Direct Airfield Crossing Service
b) Diversion Airfield Control System
c) Danger Area Crossing Service
d) Departing Aircraft Control Service
6. FL 180 is transmitted as:

a) Flight Level One Eighty
b) Flight Level Wun Ate Zero
c) Foxtrot Lima One Eight Zero
d) Flight Level One hundred Eight Zero
7. Which of the following is correct?

a) Runway 18 is passed as "Runway Eighteen"
b) "With you" means that you are on frequency
c) The words "Over, Roger and Out" may be omitted if there is no possibility of confusion
d) The word "Wilco" means that you have received and understood the message
8. A pilot wishing to confirm his position may request a "Training Fix" on:
a) The frequency in use
b) 121.5 MHz
c) The approach control frequency of his nearest airfield
d) 243 MHz
9. When calling for a "Practice Pan", a pilot, before transmitting, should:

a) Listen out
b) Climb to as great a height as possible
11
c) Select 7700 on his transponder

d) Descend below 3000 feet
10. Frequency 121.725 MHz should be transmitted as:

a) One Two One Point Seven Two Five
b) Wun Too Wun Dayseemal Seven Too
c) Wun Too Wun Point Seven Too
d) One twenty one decimal seven twenty five
11. The priority of the message " Taxi to holding point Runway 05 " is:
a) less than " Clear land Runway 05 "
b) the same as " Caution construction and men adjacent to taxi-way "
c) same as " Line up and wait "
d) more than " Caution wind shear on final approach ".
12. Which statement is correct?

a) A D/F message has priority over a flight safety message
b) A meteorological message has no priority over a flight safety message
c) An urgency message is lower priority than a flight safety message
d) A "windshear" warning has a higher priority than "clear to take-off
13. If your signal is too weak or distorted the controller may ask you to use the speechless code. Three
short transmissions means:
a) Negative
b) Yes
c) Say again
d) My aircraft has developed another emergency
14. If a controller passes an instruction and you understand it and will comply, the standard reply is:
a) Verify
b) Roger
c) Confirm
d) Wilco
15. The opening rds of an urgency message are:

a) Emergency
b) Mayday, Mayday, Mayday
c) Pan, Pan, Pan
d) Pan Pan, Pan Pan, Pan Pan
16. The callsign of an aeronautical station controlling surface vehicles in the manoeuvring area would
be:
a) TOWER
b) GROUND
c) ARRIVALS
d) MOVEMENT.
17. If the pilot is unable to make contact with a station on a designated frequency, then he should:
a) make a blind transmission
b) transmit using words twice
c) transmit on 121.5 MHz
d) try transmitting on another related frequency.
12
18. A pilot who is unable to complete a landing from an approach should make the call:
a) GOING AROUND
b) OVERSHOOTING
c) CLIMBING OUT
d) MISSED APPROACH.
19. The correct readback of the message `XY-CD Change to Stephenville Tower 118.7' is:
a) 118.7 XY-CD
b) Changing frequency to Stephenville Tower XY-CD
c) Wilco XY-CD
d) Roger XY-CD.
20. An aircraft will be in the best range for VHF communications if it is:
a) at high altitude and long range
b) at low altitude and close range
c) at low altitude and long range
d) at high altitude in the vicinity of the airfield.
21. In order to make your communications more effective, you should:

a) use words twice
b) modulate your voice
c) use a constant speaking volume
d) call break between sentences.
22. The VHF aeronautical communications frequency range lies between:

a) 108 and 118 MHz
b) 118 and 136.975 MHz
c) 3 and 30 MHz
d) 118 and 136.975 kHz.
23. The correct callsign of a station providing flight information service is the location followed by:
a) RADIO
b) CONTROL
c) INFORMATION
d) HOMER.
24. The abbreviation HJ means that the hours of service of an aerodrome are:
a) between sunrise and sunset
b) between sunset and sunrise
c) twenty four hours
d) not specified hours.
25. The maximum VHF communications range that can be expected by an aircraft at FL 100 is:
a) 100nm
b) 120nm
c) 150nm
d) 1200nm.
13
Chapter – 09 IFR Questions
1. Which of the following shows the correct elements of a position report in their correct order?
a) Callsign, Position, Heading, Level, Next position and ETA
b) Callsign, Position, Level, Met conditions, Intention and Destination
c) Callsign, Position, Time, Level, Next position and ETA
d) Callsign, Type, Position, ETA next position, Level
2. Pilots flying an Instrument Departure must pass the following information on first contact with
approach control/departure radar:
a) Callsign, SID designator when appropriate, current or passing altitude/FL, cleared
altitude/FL
b) Call sign, type, destination, passing level and cleared level
c) Callsign, type, route details, passing level
d) Callsign, SID designation, heading, level passing, flight conditions
3. Which elements in a position report cannot be omitted?

a) Position, Time, Flight level
b) Aircraft callsign, Position, Time
c) Next position and ETA
d) Ensuing significant point.
4. What would be the suffix of an aeronautical station that transmits the Route Clearance to an
aircraft at an international airport?
a) DELIVERY
b) CLEARANCE
c) TOWER
d) DEPARTURE.
5. The callsign of a controlled airfield without radar would have the suffix:
a) ARRIVALS
b) TOWER
c) INFORMATION
d) APPROACH.
6. A reported braking action co-efficient of 30 means that the braking action is:
a) poor
b) poor to medium
c) medium
d) good.
7. If you wish to repeat a word or phrase for clarity then, before repeating, you should say:
a) WORDS TWICE
b) REPEAT
c) I SAY AGAIN
d) CORRECTION.
8. An aeronautical station that wishes to put out a general call to all aircraft in its area should address
the call to:
a) ALL STATIONS
b) ALL TRAFFIC
c) ALL AIRCRAFT
d) ALL STATION TRAFFIC.
14
9. Routine MET reports should be transmitted with position reports except when:
a) the flight is less than 1 hour long
b) the flight remains below 10,000 ft
c) the aircraft is less than 1 hour from landing
d) the aircraft is not equipped with IRS.
10. Which of the following statements about SELCAL is correct?

a) It can only be used with VHF radio
b) It requires a four letter code to be entered into the flight plan
c) It requires constant monitoring by the flight crew
d) The pilot can select it after the aircraft is outside VHF range.
15
Chapter – 10
Section-1 VFR Questions
1 The abbreviation for the callsign CHEROKEE XY-ABC would be:

a) XY- BC
b) CHEROKEE XY-BC
c) CHEROKEE BC
d) ABC
2 The Q code for TRUE BEARING from a station is:

a) QDR
b) QFE
c) QUJ
d) QTE
3 The definition of the DISTRESS condition is that:

a) there is concern for the safety of the aircraft or a person on board or other vehicle but
there is no need for immediate assistance
b) the aircraft is in imminent danger and requires immediate assistance
c) the aircraft has crashed
d) the aircraft is being hijacked
4 The words preceding an URGENCY message should be:

a) Urgency Urgency Urgency
b) Pan Pan Pan Pan Pan Pan
c) Pan Pan Pan
d) Mayday Mayday Mayday
5 The Q code on which height is based on:

a) QNH
b) QFF
c) QFE
d) QUJ
6 The frequency on which ATIS can be found is

a) Discrete VHF or VOR frequency
b) Discrete VHF only
c) VOR frequency only
d) any ATC frequency
7 The call from an aircraft for a missed approach is:

a) OVERSHOOTING
b) TOUCH AND GO
c) GOING AROUND
d) ABORTING
8 When asking for a repeat of a message, you should say:

a) WORDS TWICE
b) REPEAT MESSAGE
c) SPEAK SLOWER
d) SAY AGAIN
16
9 When reporting a frequency the use of the word "DECIMAL" can be omitted:
a) When there is no likelihood of confusion
b) After the initial call
c) Never
d) By the ground station only
10 The selection of the code 7600 on a transponder indicates:

a) loss of comms
b) distress
c) urgency
d) hijacking
11 Your action in response to the instruction from ATC to "RECYCLE SQUAWK" is to:
a) set the numbers to 7000
b) reselect the numbers on the control unit
c) switch to standby and back to ON
d) press the IDENT button
12 If you are unable to contact a station on a designated frequency you should:

a) try a another appropriate frequency
b) start transmitting blind
c) land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
d) transmit words twice
13. Deleted.
14 The best signals for VHF communications are obtained when the position of the aircraft is at:
a) high altitude at long range
b) high altitude and in the vicinity of the aerodrome
c) low altitude and short range
d) low level and long range
15 The Q code for the magnetic bearing from a station is:

a) QDM
b) QDR
c) QTE
d) QNH
16 The abbreviation for a control zone is:

a) CTR
b) CTZ
c) ATZ
d) CTA
17 The condition that defines the state of an aircraft in imminent danger is:
a) Mayday
b) Distress
c) Pan Pan
d) Urgency
18 The callsign of a station controlling surface vehicles in the manoeuvring area would be:
a) TOWER
b) CLEARANCE
c) GROUND
d) APRON
17
19 The instruction "ORBIT" from ATC means that the aircraft should:
a) carry out a go around
b) continue with 360 degree turns
c) carry out one 360 degree turn only
d) reverse the direction of the turn
20 The time given in aeronautical communications is:

a) Local mean time
b) in minutes only
c) UTC
d) daylight saving time
21 In order to make message effective you should:

a) use words twice
b) speak slower
c) repeat the message
d) speak at a constant volume
22 When making a blind transmission you should:

a) transmit the message twice
b) transmit each word twice
c) repeat the message on 121.5 MHz
d) wait for visual signals
23 The abbreviation AFIS stands for:

a) Aerodrome flight information service
b) Automatic flight information service
c) Aircraft fire indication system
d) Automatic flight instrument system
24 The full range of VHF frequencies used for communications is:

a) 3 to 30 MHz
b) 88 to 108 MHz
c) 108.0 to 139.95 MHz
d) 118.0 to 136.975 MHz
25 The message "READABILITY 3" means:

a) Readable now and then
b) Unreadable
c) Readable
d) Readable but with difficulty
26 The phrase to use when you want to say "yes" is:

a) AFFIRMATIVE
b) ROGER
c) WILCO
d) AFFIRM
27 The definition of the phrase "STANDBY" is:

a) consider the transmission as not sent
b) proceed with your message
c) wait and I will call you
d) hold your present position
18
28 The correct readback of the frequency 123.725 on 25 kHz spacing is:

a) 123.725
b) 123.7
c) 12372
d) 123.72
29 The correct reply to the instruction "HOLD SHORT AT RUNWAY" is:

a) WILCO
b) ROGER
c) HOLDING SHORT
d) UNDERSTOOD
30 The priority of the message "LINE UP" is:

a) greater than "REQUEST QDM"
b) less than "CLEAR TO LAND"
c) same as "TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20"
d) same as "WORK IN PROGRESS ON TAXIWAY"
19
Section-2 IFR Questions
1. Clearance limit is defined as:

a) the flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance
b) the time at which the ATC clearance expires
c) the point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance
d) the height below which you will hit the first obstacle
2 The instruction from ATC to an aircraft to abandon its take off includes the phrase:
a) CANCEL TAKE-OFF
b) STOP IMMEDIATELY
c) ABORT ABORT
d) YOU WONT LIKE THIS
3 The term "DISREGARD" means:

a) Consider the last message as not sent
b) Cancel the last clearance
c) You have not been cleared
d) Pay no attention to what I say
4 The message "CHECK" to an aircraft means that you should:

a) confirm the you received and understood the last message
b) pass the required information to ATC
c) stay where you are
d) examine a system or procedure
5 The callsign suffix of a station providing clearance delivery would be:

a) CLEARANCE
b) GROUND
c) DELIVERY
d) PRESTO
6 The term "CORRECTION" is used when:

a) the readback of a message is incorrect
b) the readback of a message is correct
c) the message has to be deleted
d) an error has been made in the transmission and the correct version is ...
7 The state of urgency is defined as a condition:

a) of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate
assistance
b) concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on board but
does not require immediate assistance
c) where an aircraft requires an immediate take-off
d) where the aircraft needs to land immediately because the crew are running out of duty
time
8 The response to general call from ATC is for the aircraft to:
a) respond in alphabetic order
b) respond in numerical order
c) give no response
d) request a repeat of the message
9 If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot:

a) has to cancel the flight
b) may proceed with the flight with ATC permission
c) has to fly low level only
d) should fly for another company
10 Following a communications failure the time at which the aircraft should aim to leave the hold
is:
a) within 10 minutes of the EAT or ETA
b) within 30 minutes of the EAT or ETA
c) EAT or ETA
d) before it runs out of fuel
11. Deleted.
12 An urgency message should include the following information:

a) name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of
commander, position, level, heading
b) callsign, position, route, destination, endurance
c) name of station addressed, callsign, present position, level, ETA destination
d) captains number, rank and name
13 Readability 2 means that your transmission is:

a) readable but with difficulty
b) readable
c) readable now and then
d) two way communications have been established
14 How does ATC report RVR?

a) In kilometres along the final approach
b) In metres at touchdown, mid-point and stop-end of runway
c) In nautical miles along the runway
d) In feet and inches
15. The procedure for an aircraft suffering RT failure during an IFR departure in IMC
within Europe is to:
a) maintain the last cleared level and speed for 20 minutes and then continue with
the flight plan
b) hold cleared level for 3 minutes and then conti nue in accordance with the
current flight plan
c) land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
d) give up and return to base
16 An altitude of 13,500 feet would be spoken as:

a) THIRTEEN THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET
b) ONE THREE THOUSAND FIVE ZERO ZERO FEET
c) ONE THREE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET
d) ANGELS THIRTEEN POINT FIVE
17 What cannot be left out from a position report?

a) Callsign Flight level and Time
b) Callsign, Position and Time
c) Position, Time, Flight level, Next position and ETA
d) Your signature
18 The callsign suffix for an airfield without radar would be:

a) APPROACH
b) CENTRE
c) INFORMATION
d) RADIO
19 The definition of the instruction "MONITOR ..." is:

a) listen out on frequency
b) establish communications on frequency
c) watch out for visual signals on frequency
d) you are being watched
20 The phrase "BRAKING CO-EFFICIENT 20" from ATC means that the braking action
is:
a) poor
b) medium to poor
c) medium
d) slippery
21 Your reply to the message "REPORT FLIGHT CONDITIONS" shou ld be:

a) VFR / IFR
b) SMOOTH / TURBULENT
c) NOT BAD / SO SO
d) VMC / IMC
22 A waypoint is:
a) a designated reporting point
b) a geographical point at which a change of level takes place
c) a geographical location relating to area navigation (RNAV)
d) a visual sign pointing the way
23 If you are repeating a word or a message for clarity then you should use the phrase:
a) WORDS TWICE
b) I REPEAT
c) I SAY AGAIN
d) DITTO
24 The condition that describes the state of an aircraft in serious and/or imminent danger and
requiring immediate assistance is:
a) Urgency
b) Flight safety
c) Hopeless
d) Distress
25 If you make a mistake in transmission you should use the phrase:

a) CORRECTION
b) CORRECT
c) I SAY AGAIN
d) SORRY
26 An example of a general call is:

a) STOP IMMEDIATELY I SAY AGAIN STOP IMMEDIATELY
b) BRAKING ACTION UNRELIABLE
c) ALL STATIONS
d) GOOD DAY
27 The frequency 121.5 MHz is the:

a) international flight safety frequency
b) one way air to ground emergency frequency
c) international emergency frequency
d) air to air chat frequency
28 The ATC message "DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED" signifies that:

a) all aircraft are to end their transmissions
b) all aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency
c) normal ATC is resumed after an emergency
d) ATC is shutting shop
29 The phrase used to separate portions of a message is:

a) BREAK BREAK
b) I SAY AGAIN
c) BREAK
d) UMM
30 The term "RECLEARED" means that:

a) your last clearance is confirmed
b) your last clearance has been cancelled
c) you may proceed as you please
d) a change has been made to your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes your
previous clearance
Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Human Performance (ATPL/FOOL)
HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 2 – THE CIRCULATORY SYSTEM
1. How is oxygen transported around the body ?

a) By red blood cells combined with carbon dioxide
b) By red blood cells combined with nitrogen and water vapour
c) By red blood cells combined with haemoglobin
d) By red blood cells combined with nitrogen, hormones and plasma
2. How is the rate and depth of breathing controlled ?

a) By the amount of oxy-haemoglobin in the blood and lungs
b) By the amount of haemoglobin in the blood and the lungs
c) By the amount of carbon dioxide and oxygen in the blood and the lungs
d) By the amount of carbonic acid and water vapour/nitrogen mixture in the blood and lungs
3. What is the function of the left and right ventricle ?

a) Left : Pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs
Right : Pumps oxygenated blood around the body
b) Left : Pumps oxygenated blood around the body
Right : Pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs
c) Left : Pumps oxygenated blood to the lungs
Right : Pumps deoxygenated blood around the body
d) Left : Pumps oxygenated blood to the lungs
Right : Pumps oxygenated blood around the body
4. The factor which most increases the risk of coronary heart disease is:
a) Family history
b) Smoking
c) Obesity
d) Both à’ & `b’ are correct
5. List in descending order the factors that will increase the risk of coronary heart disease.
a) Raised blood pressure, obesity, family history, age, previous history of cardio vascular problems,
smoking, raised blood cholesterol, diabetes.
b) Family history, age, previous history of cardio vascular problems, raised blood pressure, smoking,
raised blood cholesterol, lack of exercise, diabetes.
c) Family history, age, previous history of cardio vascular problems, raised blood pressure, smoking, raised
blood cholesterol, lack of exercise, obesity, diabetes.
d) Raised blood pressure, age, family history, previous history of cardio vascular problems, smoking,
obesity, raised blood cholesterol, diabetes.
6. List in ascending order the factors that will increase the risk of coronary heart disease
a) Diabetes, raised blood cholesterol, smoking, previous history of cardio vascular problems, age, family
history, obesity, raised blood pressure.
b) Diabetes, lack of exercise, raised blood cholesterol, smoking, raised blood pressure, previous history of
cardio vascular problems, age, family history.
c) Diabetes, obesity, lack of exercise, raised blood cholesterol, smoking, raised blood pressure, previous
history of cardio vascular problems, age, family history.
d) Raised blood pressure obesity,. family history, age, diabetes, raised blood cholesterol, smoking, previous
history of cardio vascular problems.
7. List the symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning

a) Ruddy complexion, headache, stomach cramps, nausea, feeling lethargic.
b) Difficulty in breathing, ruddy complexion, headache, stomach cramps, nausea, feeling lethargic.
c) Ruddy complexion, headache, nausea, giddiness, stomach cramps.
d) Ruddy complexion, headache, tightness across the forehead, impaired judgement.
1
8. Why is it essential to ensure that the combustion heaters are serviceable ?

a) To prevent carbon dioxide poisoning and possible fire.
b) To prevent carbon dioxide poisoning , possible fire or explosion.
c) To prevent carbon monoxide poisoning.
d) To prevent carbon monoxide poisoning and possible fire.
9. The effects of smoking, particularly in relation to aviation are:

a) An early onset of hypoxia due to an apparent increase in altitude and a reduction in night vision
b) An early onset of hypoxia due to an apparent increase in altitude.
c) An early onset of hypoxia to an apparent increase in altitude up to a maximum of 40,000 ft.
d) An early onset of hypoxia due to an apparent increase in altitude with a resulting risk of anaemia
10. Will smokers experience hypoxia lower or higher cabin altitude than non-smokers ?
a) At a higher cabin altitude
b) At a lower cabin altitude
c) Both will experience hypoxia at the approximately the same cabin altitude
d) Smoking, although harmful in other ways, lessens the effects of hypoxia.
11. A pilot must wait at least 24 hours before flying after donating blood:
a) True
b) False
12. Where does the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide + water vapour take place
a) The arteries
b) The veins
c) The capillaries
d) The pulmonary veins and arteries
13. The normal range of blood pressure for young adults

a) Systolic 120 mm Hg and Diastolic 80 mm HG
b) Systolic 80 mm Hg and Diastolic 120 mm HG
c) Systolic 120 mm Hg and Diastolic 120 mm HG
d) Systolic 80 mm Hg and Diastolic 80 mm HG
14. Do pressoreceptors affect the

a) ECG readings
b) Tightening and relaxation of the blood vessels only
c) EEG readings
d) Tightening and relaxation of the blood vessels and the pulse rate
15. Hypotension is
a) High blood pressure
b) High pulse rate
c) Low blood pressure
d) Low pulse rate
16. Haemoglobin has a preference to carbon monoxide over oxygen by a factor of

a) 100- 120
b) 210-250
c) 200
d) 10-20
17. Treatment of carbon monoxide poisoning where smoking is allowed in flights

a) Immediate descent to MSA
b) Turn up cabin heat
2
c) Keep the patient's body temperature as low as possible

d) Stop all smoking
18. Low blood pressure can lead to

a) Low body temperature
b) Reduced tolerance to G forces
c) Infract
d) Angina
19. Cardiac output (the quantity of blood pumped by the heart in unit time), is the product of
a) Stroke volume and the heart rate ( pulse rate)
b) Stroke volume and viscosity of the blood
c) Pulse rate and strength of the ventricle muscle
d) Pulse rate only
20. Internal Respiration is

a) The brain's control of the pulse rate
b) The exchange of oxygen with carbon dioxide and water in the cells
c) Sighing
d) The retention of breath
3
HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 3 – OXYGEN AND RESPIRATION
1. With an alveolar partial pressure of oxygen of 55 mm Hg., what is the maximum altitude to breathe 100%
oxygen without pressure?
a) 33,700 feet
b) 44,000 feet
c) 10,000 feet
d) 40,000 feet
2. What are the constituents of the atmosphere ?

a) Oxygen 22% Nitrogen 77% Other gases 1
b) Oxygen 22% Nitrogen 78% Other gases 2%
c) Oxygen 21 % Nitrogen 78% Other gases 1
d) Oxygen 22% Nitrogen 77% Other gases 1
3. What is the % of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the alveoli at sea level ?
a) 15.5% and 6.6% respectively
b) 16.5% and 7.6% respectively
c) 14.0% and 5.3% respectively
d) 21.0% and 0.5% respectively
4. On a 100% oxygen at 40,000 feet, what height in the atmosphere does the partial pressure of oxygen in the
alveoli equate to ?
a) The same as at 20,000 feet
b) The same as at 10,000 feet
c) The same as at 25,000 feet
d) The same as at 30,000 feet
5. At what height is the partial pressure of oxygen in the lungs approximately half that at sea level ?
a) 10,000 feet
b) 25,000 feet
c) 30,000 feet
d) 18,000 feet
6. What is the percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere at 35 ,000 feet ?

a) 25%
b) 21%
c) 32%
d) Approximately 30%
7. What is one of the initial indications of Hypoxia ?

a) Blue tinge in the lips
b) Stomach cramps
c) Pain in the joints
d) Impaired judgement
8. Why does cold make you more susceptible to Hypoxia ?

a) Heart beats faster which uses up more oxygen
b) More energy is required when shivering therefore more oxygen used
c) Lowers temperature of the body which makes it less efficient
d) Lowers temperature of the body and especially the head which has a debilitating effect on the brain
9. What is the first action that should be taken by the pilot in the event of a cabin decompression above 10,000
feet?
a) Descend as soon as possible
b) Don oxygen mask and check oxygen flow
c) Warn the passengers
4
d) Descend and check passengers

10. In flight someone complains of feeling light-headed, dizzy, tingling at the fingertips and is breathing
rapidly. What may they be suffering from ?
a) Hypoxic Hypoxia or Hyperventilation
b) Formication
c) Cyanosis
d) Hyperventilation
11. The carbon dioxide level of the blood level is higher than normal. Does the brain
a) Increase the rate of breathing and pulse rate
b) Decrease the rate of breathing and pulse rate
c) Increase the pulse rate and decrease rate of breathing
d) Decrease the pulse rate and increase rate of breathing
12. What are the times of useful consciousness at 20,000 ft. (moderate activity)
a) 5 minutes
b) 1 minute
c) 10 minutes
d) 30 seconds
13. If the symptoms of hyperventilation occur at an altitude where hypoxia is not a consideration, what is the
correct remedial action ?
a) Descend to MSL
b) Decrease rate and depth of breathing
c) Increase rate of breathing
d) If possible lay flat and help to calm sufferer
14. What increases the risk of DCS occurring in flight ?

a) Scuba diving shortly before flight
b) Snorkle diving shortly before flight
c) Alcohol
d) Smoking
15. What are the restrictions to flying after scuba diving ?

a) No flying within 48 hours if a depth of 40 feet has been exceeded, otherwise the limit is 12 hours.
b) No flying within 48 hours if a depth of 30 feet has been exceeded, otherwise the limit is 24 hours.
c) No flying within 12 hours if a depth of 30 feet has been reached, otherwise the limit is 24 hours.
d) No flying within 24 hours if a depth of 30 feet has been exceeded, otherwise the limit is 12 hours.
16. A pilot has been snorkelling and has exceeded a depth of 30 feet. Are there any restrictions to him/her
flying ?
a) No flying within 12 hours
b) No flying for 12 hours plus 30 minutes for every 10 feet deeper than 30 feet.
c) No
d) No flying within 6 hours
17. Tidal volume is

a) The volume of air inhaled with each normal breath
b) The volume of air exhaled with each normal breath
c) The volume of air breathed when diving
d) The volume of air inhaled and exhaled with each normal breath
18. The altitude that pressure will be half that of MSL in the standard atmosphere is
a) 8,000 ft.
b) 18,000 ft.
c) 34,000 ft.
d) 33,700 ft.
5
19. Henry's Law has application in Human Performance to

a) Otic Baratrauma
b) DCS
c) Carbon Monoxide poisoning
d) Partial pressure in the alveloi
20. Hypoxic Hypoxia effects night vision

a) True
b) False
21. Anaemic Hypoxia can be

a) Brought on by altitude
b) Caused by decompression
c) Caused by smoking
d) Brought on by fatigue
22. In commercial aircraft cabin pressure is normally maintained at

a) Sea level
b) 6,000 - 8,000 ft.
c) 10,000 ft.
d) Below 5,000 ft.
23. In the event of decompression the aircraft must

a) Descend to MSL
b) Descend to 10,000 ft.
c) Land as soon as possible
d) Descend to below 10,000 ft.
24. The "chokes" are associated with

a) NIHL
b) DCS
c) Blockage of the alveoli
d) Oxygen loss
25. Breathing 100% oxygen at 40,000 ft. is equivalent of breathing normally at

a) Sea level
b) 20,000 ft.
c) 40,000 ft.
d) 10,000 ft.
6
HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 4 – THE NERVOUS SYSTEM, EAR, HEARING & BALANCE
1. The outer, middle and inner ear are filled with

a) Air Air Liquid
b) Air Liquid Liquid
c) Liquid Air Air
d) Liquid Liquid Air
2. What is the purpose of the Eustachian tube ?

a) To pass sound waves across the middle ear to the Auditory nerve
b) To allow ambient pressure to equalise on both sides of the ear drum
c) To allow ambient pressure to equalise on the middle ear side of the ear drum
d) To allow ambient pressure to equalise on both sides of the Vestibular apparatus
3. What causes conductive deafness ?

a) Damage to the outer ear
b) Damage to the pinna
c) Damage to the ossicles or the eardrum
d) Damage to the middle ear
4. What is noise induced hearing loss (NIHL) ?

a) Loss of hearing due to damage to the ossicles
b) Loss of hearing due to damage to the Vestibular apparatus
c) Loss of hearing due to damage to the middle ear
d) Loss of hearing due to damage to the cochlea
5. On what does NIHL depend ?

a) Both the intensity and duration of the noise above 100 dbs
b) The duration of the noise above 100 dbs
c) The duration of the noise above 110 dbs
d) Both the intensity and duration of the noise above 90 dbs
6. What is the most important sense for spatial orientation ?

a) Hearing and balance
b) Sight
c) "Seat of the pants"
d) All senses play their part in situation awareness
7. If an aircraft accelerates, what do the otoliths indicate to the brain ?

a) That the aircraft nose is pitching down; this feeling will be re-enforced by an air driven artificial horizon
b) That the aircraft is turning; this feeling will be re-enforced by an air driven artificial horizon
c) That the aircraft is climbing and turning; this feeling will be re-enforced by an air driven artificial
horizon
d) That the aircraft is pitching up; this feeling will be re-enforced by an air driven artificial horizon
8. When can a pilot experience the "leans"

a) In all flight conditions
b) In the climb
c) In the descent
d) In the climb or the descent
9. Which part of the ear senses linear accelerations and decelerations ?

a) The ossicles in the middle ear
b) The otoliths in the middle ear
c) The ossicles in the middle ear
d) The otoliths in the semi-circular canals
7
10. What should a pilot rely on if disorientated in IMC?

a) Vision
b) Turning head to recover from disorientation
c) Sense of balance
d) Instruments
11. The Conductive System consists of

a) The ear drum and ossicles
b) The semi-circular canals and otoliths
c) The cochlea and Eustachian tube
d) The cochlea and the Mitus
12. The frequency band that a healthy young person can hear is
a) 70 - 15,000 cycles per second
b) 80 - 20,000 cycles per second
c) 500 - 15,000 cycles per second
d) 20 - 20,000 cycles per second
13. Decibels increase

a) Linearly
b) In terms of a logarithm
c) In terms of increments
d) In terms of integrals
14. Presbycusis is an impairment of hearing due to

a) Damage to the cochlea
b) Damage to the semi-circular canals
c) Age
d) Smoking
15. The Vegetative System is another name for the

a) Central Nervous System (CNS)
b) Noise Induced Loss of Hearing (NILH)
c) Sense Receptors
d) Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)
16. The Vestibular Apparatus detects ..................acceleration acceleration

a) Linear
b) Angular
c) Angular and linear
d) +g
17. Messages are sent in the nervous system by the following means
a) Electrical
b) Chemical
c) Biological
d) Electrical and chemical
18. The otoliths detect and acceleration greater than

a) 0.001 m/s z
b) 0.01 m/s z
c) 0.1 m/s 2
d) 1.0 m/s z
19. If a steady turn is being maintained then a sudden movement (greater than about ................) it may cause a
phenomena known as the Coriolis Effect
a) 4° a second
b) 5 ° a second
8
c) 3 ° a second
d) 2 ° a second
20. Another name for "the leans" is
a) The Oculogravic Effect
b) The Oculogyral Illusion
c) The Somatogravic Illusion
d) Ocular Disorientation
21. Vertigo can be caused by a blocked Eustachian Tube

a) True
b) False
22. The PNS comprises of

a) The sensory and motor nerves
b) Sensory and reaction nerves
c) Reaction and motor nerves
d) Only reaction nerves
23. The ANS is a biological control system which is neuro-hormonal and, like other, is not self regulating in
normal circumstances.
a) True
b) False
9
HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 5 – THE EYE AND VISION
1. What part of the eye bends the most light ?

a) The cornea
b) The lens
c) The pupil
d) The retina
2. Which part of the eye has the best visual acuity?

a) The retina
b) The fovea
c) The lens
d) The cornea
3. The resolving power of the fovea decreases rapidly .....................from its centre
a) 5 °
b) 130 to 16 °
c) 3 °
d) 2 ° to 3 °
4. What is "empty field myopia"

a) It is a term used when the eye, if it has nothing on which to focus will tend to focus at infinity.
b) It is a term used when the eye, if it has nothing on which to focus will tend to focus between 4 to 6
metres
c) It is a term used when the eye, if it has nothing on which to focus will tend to focus between 10 to 12
metres
d) It is a term used when the eye, if it has nothing on which to focus will tend to focus between just under 1
to 1.5 metres
5. What causes long or short sightedness?

a) Presbyopia
b) Astigmatism
c) Distortion of the eyeball
d) Distortion of the cornea
6. Is a pilot allowed to fly wearing bi-focal contact lenses?

a) Yes
b) Yes , if cleared to do so by a qualified Aviation Specialist
c) Yes, if cleared to do so by the Authority
d) No
7. What part of the spectrum should sunglasses filter out ?

a) The red and UV end of the spectrum
b) The blue and UV end of the spectrum
c) All high intensity light
d) UV only
8. What four factors effect night vision ?

a) Age, alcohol, altitude and smoking
b) Age, altitude, Instrument lights and smoking
c) Instrument lights, alcohol, altitude and smoking
d) Age, alcohol, altitude and instrument lights
9. Cones detect .................... and are mostly concentrated on .................

a) Black and white fovea
b) Colour fovea
c) Black and white retina
10
d) Colour entry point
10. What is the recommended course of action if encountering an electrical storm during flight`?
a) Pull the visors down
b) Turn the cockpit lights down
c) Turn the cockpit lights to full
d) Put on sunglasses if available
11. Where is the "Blind Spot" ?

a) On the iris
b) On the fovea
c) On the edge of the lens
d) At the entrance to the optic nerve
12. Peripheral vision is looked after by the

a) Rods
B) Cones
c) Rods and cones
d) Fovea
13. Does lack of oxygen affect sight ?

a) Yes
b) No
c) Sometimes
d) It depends on the health of the individual
14. The amount of light allowed to enter the eye is controlled by the
a) Cornea
b) Retina
c) Iris
d) Fovea
15. Accommodation is controlled by the

a) Ciliary muscles
b) Iris
c) Lens
d) Cornea
16. The maximum number of rods are found .................. from the fovea
a) 10°
b) 20°
c) 150
d) 30°
17. Dark adaption takes about .............for the rods and ..................for the cones
a) 30 minutes 7 minutes
b) 7 minutes 30 minutes
c) 15 minutes 20 minutes
d) 25 minutes 45 minutes
18. Stereopsis is associated with

a) Night flying
b) Depth perception
c) Acuity
d) Colour blindness
11
19. Hypermetropia is caused by a ....................eyeball and is corrected by a ..............lens

a) Elongated Convex
b) Shortened Concave
c) Shortened Convex
d) Elongated Concave
20. Astigmatism is normally associated with the

a) Retina
b) Fovea
c) Iris
d) Cornea
21. Glaucoma is caused by

a) An increase in the pressure of the eye
b) A decrease in the pressure of the eye
c) A defect of the cornea
d) A defect of the retina
22. Cataracts are associated with the

a) Retina
b) Tear ducts
c) Iris
d) Lens
23. Does colour blindness affect acuity ?

a) Yes
b) No
12
HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 6 – FLYING AND HEALTH
1. A pilot is 2 metres tall and weighs 80 kgs, calculate his BMI index
a) 22
b) 24
c) 18
d) 20
2. A pilot has a BMI index of 26 and is 1.75 metres tall, what is his/her weight?
a) 92 kgs
b) 78.5 kgs
c) 85 kgs
d) 79.5 kgs
3. Using the BMI formula, when will pilots be considered overweight ?

a) When they score over 30 for males and 29 for females
b) When they score over 26 for males and 22 for females
c) When they score 30 for males and 29 for females
d) When they score over 25 for males and 24 for females
4. Using the BMI formula, when will a pilot be obese ?

a) When they score over 30 for males and 28 for females
b) When they score over 26 for males and 29 for females
c) When they score over 30 for males and 29 for females
d) When they score over 32 for males and 26 for females
5. What is the weekly level of alcohol consumption that will cause physical damage ?
a) Consuming 22 units for men and 14 units for women
b) Consuming 21 units for men and 15 units for women
c) Consuming 24 units for men and 14 units for women
d) Consuming 21 units for men and 14 units for women
6. Deleted
7. At what rate does the body remove alcohol from the system ?
a) Approximately 1.5 units an hour
b) Approximately 2 units an hour
c) Approximately 2.5 units an hour
d) Approximately 1 unit an hour
8. What is the absolute minimum time a pilot should stop drinking before flying ?
a) 6 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed
b) 24 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed
c) 12 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed
d) 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed
9. Which of the following diseases is one of the world's biggest killer ?

a) Typhoid
b) Malaria
c) Yellow Fever
d) Influenza
10. Deleted
13
11. What causes otic barotrauma and when is it likely to occur ?

a) Blockage in the Eustachian tube which is most likely to occur in the descent
b) Blockage in the Eustachian tube which is most likely to occur in the climb
c) Blockage in the Eustachian tube and around the eardrum which is most likely to occur in the descent
d) Blockage in the Eustachian tube and around the eardrum which is most likely to occur in the climb
12. A prudent pilot should avoid flying for ................ hours having consumed small amounts of alcohol
a) 12 hours
b) 8 hours
c) 24 hours
d) 6 hours
13. The human body can tolerate a maximum of short duration g force ............in the ...............axis
a) 25G vertical
b) 45G vertical
c) 25G fore/aft
d) -3G fore/aft
14. The most common cause of in-flight incapacitation is

a) Heart Attack
b) Influenza
c) The common cold
d) Gastro-enteritis
15. If a passenger of a helicopter is feeling unwell due to the rotation of the rotors causing a stroboscopic
effect, what is the best course of action ?
a) Move the passenger away from the window
b) Give the passenger oxygen as soon as possible
c) Land and soon as possible and seek medical assistance
d) No action is necessary as the effect is not dangerous
16. The two types of radiation are

a) Galactic and Sun Spots
b) Galactic and Solar
c) High frequency and Low Frequency
d) Solar Flares and Galactic
17. If, having tried all normal methods, the ears cannot be cleared in flight, the following action should be
taken:
a) Ignore and it will go away
b) Descend to 10,000 ft
c) Seek medical advice as soon as possible
d) Descend as quickly as possible to minimise pain
18. To remove mercury spillage .........................must not be used

a) Water
b) White spirits
c) Acid
d) Compressed air
19. The best method for losing weight is

a) The use of appetite suppressants
b) Plenty of exercise
c) Crash diets
d) Exercise and diet
14
20. Hypoglycemia can be caused by

a) Not eating regularly or fasting
b) Too much sugar in the blood
c) Excessive g forces
d) Stress
21. Deleted
22. Food poisoning normally takes effect within ...................of eating contaminated food
a) 30 minutes
b) 60 minutes
c) 90 minutes
d) 120 minutes
23. Alcohol is removed from the body at the rate of ................milligrams per ...............millilitres per hour:
a) 10 50
b) 10 100
c) 10 120
d) 15 100
24. Permanent damage to the body of a man may occur if the consumption of alcohol level is ..............units
daily and ................units weekly.
a) 5 20
b) 5 21
c) 5 22
d) 3 14
25. A pilot's performance can be affected by an intake of caffeine above ............mg and should limit
him/herself to a daily intake of approximately ..................mg
a) 100 100-500
b) 100 100-900
c) 200 250-300
d) 200 200-600
15
HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 7 – STRESS
1. Having successfully overcome a stressful situation once, how will the person react if placed in the same or
similar situation a second time ?
a) There will be little difference
b) He/she will know what is ahead and be already in a stressful condition thus stress will increase
c) He/she will feel more confident and therefore stress will reduce
d) It will depend on the individual
2. How is performance effected by over and under arousal?

a) It is improved
b) There is little difference
c) It is degraded
d) It will depend on the individual
3. What is the purpose of the "sympathetic" nervous system?

a) To control the emotional response under stressful conditions
b) To control the effects of adrenalin
c) To return the body after the "fight or flee" syndrome
d) To prepare the body to "fight or flight"
4. What is the purpose of the "parasympathetic" nervous system ?

a) To prolong the bodies mobilisation and return the body to normal after the "fight or flight" syndrome.
b) To prepare the body to "fight or flee"
c) To direct the adrenalin to the correct organs of the body
d) To return the body to normal after an emotional response under stressful conditions
5. What part of the body is effected with the vibration in the 4 to 10 Hz frequency range?
a) The brain plus there will be a headache
b) The chest plus there will be an abdominal pain
c) The respiration plus pains in the chest d) The pulse rate
6. Which shaped graph shows the relationship between arousal and stress ?
a) A U shaped graph
b) An inverted U shaped graph
c) A straight 45 'line
d) An M shaped graph
7. The three phases of the GAS Syndrome are

a) Alarm, Fear, Resistance
b) Alarm, Resistance, Exhaustion
c) Alarm, Fear, Exhaustion
d) Fear, Resistance, Exhaustion
8. Which stressor will cause the most stress ?

a) Home/work interface
b) Divorce
c) Death of a family member
d) Death of a spouse, partner or child
9. During the Resistance phase of the GAS Syndrome ................is released to assist the body to convert fats to
sugar.
a) Adrenaline
b) Glucose
c) White blood cells
d) Cortisol
16
10. Broadly speaking the GAS Syndrome consists of three categories of reactions. These are
a) Somatic, Psychosomatic, Physiological
b) Physiological, Psychosomantic, Psychological
c) Somatic, Physiological, Psychological
d) Somatic, Psychosomatic, Psychological
11. Stress factors are

a) Non-cumulative
b) Cumulative
c) Stress reactions
d) Stress co-actions
12. A comfortable temperature for most people in normal clothing is

a) 25°C
b) 15°C
c) 20°C
d) 30 °C
13. The Autonomic Nervous system comprises of

a) Sympathetic, Neo-sympathetic and Parasympathetic systems
b) Sympathetic and Parasympathetic systems
c) Neo-sympathetic and Parasympathetic systems
14. Define three methods of coping with stress

a) Action coping, Forced Coping, Symptom Directed Coping
b) Action coping, Cognitive Coping, Symptom Directed coping
c) Slip coping, Cognitive Coping, Symptom Directed coping
d) Slip Coping, Action Coping, Symptom Directed coping
15. Among the five major guidelines to avoid stress in the cockpit and affecting safety are
a) Planned sleep patterns and use all crew resources
b) Planned sleep patterns and Keep It Simple
c) Use all crew resources and keep a good flight deck atmosphere
d) Never give up - there is always a suitable response
16. Most successful weapons against high stress levels are

a) Planning, experience and self-control (fewer unexpected situation)
b) Learning, experience and Anticipation
c) Learning, experience and CRM
d) Planning, experience and CRM
17. Once the blood temperature rises above ..................., the Homeostatic mechanisms within the body can no
longer cope.
a) 40°C
b) 35°C
c) 50°C
d) 41 °C
18. A comfortable humidity for most people in normal clothing is
a) 40%-50%
b) 30%-40%
c) 20%-50%
d) 40%-60%
19. An additional stress factor (stressor) can be

a) A lack of time
b) Homeostatis
17
c) Sympathetic system
d) Parasympathetic system
20. Deleted
18
HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 8 – INFORMATION PROCESSING, HUMAN ERROR & LEARNING
1. Where are visual and auditory stimuli initially stored ?

a) They are stored in the short term/working memory for a period of time
b) They are stored in the short term memory for a short time
c) They are stored in the Echoic and Iconic memory
d) They are stored in the Semantic and Episodic memory
2. How long will the iconic memory store information ?

a) l - 2 seconds
b) 2 - 3 seconds
c) 0.5 - 1 second
d) 7 seconds t2 seconds maximum
3. How long will the Echoic memory store information ?

a) 2 - 8 seconds
b) 10 - 15 minutes
c) 10 - 20 seconds
d) Normally up to 15 minutes
4. In sensory memory/stores there is a separate store for each sensory system:

a) True
b) False
5. What is the "cocktail party" effect ?

a) The ability to divide attention when surrounded by many different stimuli
b) The ability to hear, for example, your own name or call sign, whilst concentrating on something else.
c) The ability to divide attention when surrounded by a number of stressors
d) The ability to divide attention when surrounded by noise.
6. On what is our mental model of the world based ?

a) Our perception of the environment surrounding us
b) Our experiences and our sensitivities
c) Our experiences and learning
d) Each of us are different and each models the world individually
7. Having created a mental model, what is the danger ?

a) To only seek information which supports it (Confirmation Bias)
b) Other clues outside do not tie up (Environmental Bias)
c) We need confirmation (Confirmation Bias)
d) We are easily swayed by outside influences (Environmental Bias)
8. How many separate items can be held in the short term memory ?
a) 8±2
b) 9±2
c) 7±2
d) 6±2
9. What is the main feature of a fully developed motor programme ?

a) Skilled based behaviour not easily explained to other people
b) Skilled based behaviour not requiring conscious thought
c) Skilled based behaviour slowly learned
d) Skilled based behaviour quickly learned
19
10. What is the relationship between arousal and performance ?

a) Performance is increased at high levels of arousal
b) Performance is increased by both low and high arousal levels
c) Performance is degraded by both low and high arousal levels
d) Performance is increased at low levels of arousal
11. Define "episodic" memory

a) It is the memory of events which are held in the long-term memory and is influenced by experience
b) It is the memory of events which are held in the short-term memory and is influenced by experience
c) It is the memory of events which are held in the long-term memory and is influenced by meaning
d) It is the memory of events which are held in the short-term memory and is influenced by meaning
12. Define "semantic" memory

a) It is the meaning of words and lasts shorter than episodic memory and is less accurate
b) It is the memory of events which are held in the short-term memory and is influenced by experience
c) It is the meaning of words and lasts longer than episodic memory as well as being more accurate.
d) It is the memory of events which are held in the short-term memory and is influenced by meaning
13. Environmental Capture is associated with

a) Long term memory
b) Working memory
c) Short term memory
d) Motor programmes
14. With reference to human information processing, why is the attention mechanism required ?
a) Because the number of stimuli around us are too many
b) Because the stimuli around us all happen at the same time and we need a filter mechanism of some kind.
c) Because the capacity of the short term memory and the rate of information processing are limited
d) Because the brain needs to prioritise.
15. What is qualitative overload ?

a) When there are too many responses to be made in the time available
b) When the amount of information is perceived to be beyond the attentional capacity and the task is too
difficult
c) When too many responses are required
d) When responses get transposed due to overload of work
16. What are the two types of attention ?

a) Cognitive and Intuitive
b) Intuitive and Behavioural
c) Divided and Intuitive
d) Selective and Divided
17. Two of the factors effecting Long Term Memory are

a) Expectation and Suggestion
b) Repetition and Echoism
c) Amnesia and anxiety
d) Anxiety and concentration.
18. Generally human error can be split into two categories
a) Faults and static errors
b) Static errors and faults
c) Dynamic and static errors
d) Faults and slips
20
19. Information retention can be increased by the use of:

a) Study and Rote Learning
b) Instinct
c) Mnemonics and Memory Training
d) Tertiary Education
20. An experienced pilot reacting to an engine failure is demonstrating?

a) Imitation learning
b) Operant conditioning learning
c) Skill learning
d) Insight learning
21
HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 9 – BEHAVIOUR AND MOTIVATION
1. What behaviour is used to carry out a fire drill ?

a) Skill-based
b) Rule-based
c) Knowledge-based
d) A combination of Rule-based and Knowledge-based
2. Skill-based errors only occur

a) In those with little or no experience
b) In those who are in the learning process
c) In those who have only part-learned a procedure/system
d) In those with experience
3. Rule-based behaviour involves

a) Short term and long term memory
b) Short term and Iconic memory
c) Long term and Episodic memory
d) Short term, long term and Episodic memory
4. With regards to procedures you are advised to

a) Memorise all procedures as carefully as possible
b) Memorise immediate actions and subsequent actions
c) Memorise immediate actions and refer to check list for subsequent actions
d) Rely on the checklist for all procedures
5. Knowledge based behaviour enables people to

a) Deal smoothly and quickly with procedures
b) Deal with situations involving other people and especially with the flight and cabin crews
c) Deal with known situations
d) Deal with unfamiliar and novel situations
6. In evaluating data pilots are influenced by

a) Their technical knowledge
b) Their previous experience
c) Situation awareness
d) Their state of health
7. The reluctance to move away from a theory once formed in spite of evidence to the contrary is called
a) Mind set
b) Mind bias
c) Confirmation bias
d) Decision set
8. Situation awareness is
a) The process that ensures the pilot maintains an accurate model of his/her environment
b) The process that ensures the pilot maintains an accurate model of the situation within the cockpit.
c) The process that ensures the pilot maintains an accurate model of the situation outside the cockpit
d) The process that ensures the pilot maintains an accurate model of the situation on and around the landing point
9. Errors may occur when a pilot believes it is safe to depart from the procedure laid down. Is this:
a) True
b) False
c) True in some circumstances
d) False in some circumstances
10. Deleted
11. What is the Jens Rasmussen's Model ?

a) "KRS"
b) "SKR"
c) "SRK"
d) "KSR"
22
12. Among the most important factors which might interfere with Situational Awareness are a) Weather patterns
b) Inter-personal differences
c) Hopes, wishes and desires
d) Poor instrument layouts
13. Deleted
14. The second lowest tier of Maslow's pyramid of needs is

a) Physiological needs
b) Safety and security needs
c) Belonging and affection needs
d) Self-esteem needs
15. Job satisfaction is measurable.

a) True
b) False
16. The two main tools in improving job satisfaction are

a) Job enrichment job enlargement
b) Job enrichment financial considerations
c) Financial considerations good industrial relations
d) Good management good industrial relations
17. Job enlargement can be split into

a) Vertical slant
b) Slant horizontal
c) Slant vertical
d) Vertical horizontal
18. A tendency to ask leading questions is a symptom of

a) Increased awareness
b) Decreased awareness
c) Increased situational awareness
d) Decreased situational awareness
23
HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 10 – COGNITION IN AVIATION
1. If a runway slopes downwards, how does this effect the pilots' approach ?
a) It is likely to be too high
b) It is likely to be too low
c) It is likely to be too fast
d) It is likely to be too slow
2. If a runway slopes upwards, how does this effect the pilots' approach ?
a) It is likely to be too high
b) It is likely to be too low
c) It is likely to be too fast
d) It is likely to be too slow
3. What is the likely effect of a runway which is wider than expected ?

a) Flaring too late and damaging the aircraft
b) Flaring too soon and causing a heavy landing
c) Approach speed much too high
d) Approach speed higher than usual
4. What approach conditions cause "black hole effect"

a) Landing at night in sleet or heavy rain
b) Landing at night with a partially lit runway
c) Landing at night with the cockpit instruments turned up too high
d) Landing at night when there are no lights on the approach
5. How does the "black hole effect" alter the pilots' judgement of the approach ?
a) Over-estimation of height
b) Under-estimation of height
c) Tends to make the approach much too fast
d) Tends to make the approach faster than normal
6. What are the main visual cues for rounding-out ?

a) Round-out height and speed
b) Confirmation of Decision Height and closing speed
c) Closing speed and height check
d) Relative speed and texture
7. How do misty/foggy conditions effect the pilots judgement on the approach ?

a) Under-estimating range due to illusionary effect through cockpit glass
b) Under-estimating range due to the lights appearing dim
c) Under-estimating range due to illusionary effect through cockpit glass
d) Over-estimating range due to the lights appearing dim
8. If two aircraft are on a line of constant bearing, what is the likely outcome ?
a) Depends whether by day or by night
b) They will collide
c) There will be a near miss
d) It is quite safe and they will pass well clear of each other
24
9. How will an oncoming aircraft on a line of constant bearing appear visually?

a) There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the collision
b) There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the aircraft
passes close by
c) There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the aircraft
passes above
d) There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the aircraft
passes well clear
10. What is the duration of a saccade and rest period ?

a) 0.3 seconds
b) 0.5 seconds
c) 0.013 seconds
d) 1 second
11. What visual technique should be used when searching for an aircraft ?
a) Sweep from side to side with the eyes covering the whole field of vision
b) Search the sky portion by portion starting on the left
c) Pinpoint 10° segments of the sky and confirm before passing onto another
d) Use a succession of small and rapid eye movements
12. Refraction, due to rain on the windscreen, makes the approach

a) Steeper
b) Flatter
c) Faster
d) Slower
13. Expectation can affects perception

a) True
b) False
14. The blooming effect of rain makes

a) The runway appear closer
b) The runway appear further away
c) Does not effect runway perception
d) The instruments difficult to read
15. What are the laws that the Gestalt Theory propose ?
a) The laws of Perception
b) The laws of Perceptual Illusions
c) The laws of Perceptual Reception
d) The laws of Perceptual Organisation
16. A visual scan should cover the sky in overlapping sections of

a) 5 °
b) 10°
c) 15°
d) 20°
17. The scanning technique should differ by day and night

a) True
b) False
18. A distant aircraft is identified and remains on a constant relative bearing. You should
a) Wait until the aircraft appears to grow larger before taking avoiding action
b) Take avoiding action if you do not have right of way
c) Take immediate avoiding action
d) Wait two seconds to reidentitfy and then take avoiding action
25
19. Another name for vertigo is

a) The Somatogyral Illusion
b) The Somatogravic Illusion
c) Motion Sickness
d) Air sickness
20. If an illusion is known to be possible at a particular aerodrome, as Captain of the aircraft, you should:
a) Say nothing as it might frighten the crew
b) Ensure you brief the crew
c) Report the fact to operations so that other crews are aware of the danger
d) Report the fact to your Operator so that other crews are aware of the danger
26
HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 11 – SLEEP & FATIGUE
1. How long is a free running circadian rhythm ?

a) 24 hours
b) 48 hours
c) 25 hours
d) 29 hours
2. When is the circadian cycle of temperature at its lowest ?

a) At about 0500 hrs
b) At about 0 100 hrs
c) At about 0300 hrs
d) Varies from day to day
3. What does the duration of sleep depend on ?

a) The mental and physical exercise taken prior to sleep
b) The number of hours awake prior to sleep
c) Timing i.e . when the body temperature is falling
d) The quality of the REM sleep
4. What is the maximum number of "sleep credits" that can be accumulated and what is the minimum time to
accumulate them ?
a) 24 credits and it will take 12 hours
b) 8 credits and it will take 16 hours
c) 16 credits and it will take 12 hours
d) 16 credits and it will take 8 hours
5. When does orthodox (slow wave sleep) occur and what does it restore ?
a) It occurs early in the sleep cycle - stages 3 & 4 and it restores the body
b) It occurs early in the sleep cycle - stages 3 & 4 and it restores the brain
c) It occurs early in the sleep cycle - stages 1 & 2 and it restores the body
d) It occurs late in the sleep cycle - stages 3 & 4 and it restores the brain
6. If the sleeper awakes early, how does this effect the next sleep pattern ?
a) The sleeper goes into a "sleep deficit" and will need more sleep
b) The sleeper goes into a "sleep deficit" and will need twice the amount of sleep lost to catch up
c) They will "rebound" so that the current sleep pattern will make up those stages lost in the previous spell
of sleep
d) The sleeper goes into a "sleep deficit" which is carried forward
7. How many stages are there in a sleep cycle ?

a) 3 stages plus REM
b) 4 stages plus REM
c) 3 stages including REM
d) 4 stages including REM
8. How long is a sleep cycle?

a) 90 minutes
b) 120 minutes
c) 60 minutes
d) 30 minutes
9. What will an EOG trace during REM sleep ?

a) Little activity
b) A lot of activity
c) Intermittent activity
d) No activity
27
10. What is the function of REM sleep ?

a) To refresh the body after exercise
b) To refresh the body and brain following physical and mental activity
c) To assist in the organisation of memory and helping to co-ordinate and assimilate new information
learned
d) To exercise the brain so it is prepared for the next day
11. As a general rule, if a pilot is rostered for a flight which returns within 24 hours, should he adjust his/her
sleep pattern ?
a) Yes
b) Yes - as soon as possible
c) Yes - over the next 48 hours
d) No - stay on U.K. time
12. As a general rule, if a pilot is rostered for a flight which has 24 hours or more in a country where there is a
time zone difference, should he adjust his/her sleep pattern ?
a) Yes and try and arrange it so that the sleep pattern allows 8 hours sleep before "wakeup" call
b) Yes and try and arrange it so that the sleep pattern allows 10 hours sleep before "wakeup" call
c) No - stay on UK time
d) No - not necessary unless he/she stays for over 48 hours
13. How long does it take for the circadian rhythm to re-synchronise to local time after crossing time zones ?
a) Approximately 2 days per 1 to 2 hours of time change
b) Approximately 1 day per 1 to 2 hours of time change
c) Approximately 2 days per 1 to ½ hours of time change
d) Approximately 1 day per 1 to ½ hours of time change
14. Does it make any difference to the circadian rhythm adjusting to time zone changes if the flight is to the
East or West ?
a) Yes, due to the free running of the circadian rhythm tends to adjust more quickly to West bound flights
b) Yes, due to the free running of the circadian rhythm tends to adjust more quickly to East bound flights
c) No - it make no difference. West or East have the same effect
d) Yes, due to the free running of the circadian rhythm tends to adjust more slowly to West bound flights
15. What effect does drinking alcohol before sleep have to the sleep pattern ?
a) A small amount (one beer or a small whisky) is of help to relax the body prior to sleep and thus enhances
the sleep pattern
b) It lengthens REM sleep and the length of sleep
c) It shortens REM sleep and the length of sleep
d) It has not significant effect on the sleep pattern itself but does effect other systems of the body adversely
16. When suffering from sleep deprivation, will performance be further decreased by altitude ?
a) No
b) Yes
c) Sometimes
d) Under certain circumstances
17. Hypovigilance is akin to a microsleep.

a) True
b) False
18. The two forms of fatigue are

a) Mental and physical
b) Short-term and chronic
c) Mental and body
d) Psychological and physiological
28
19. Insomnia is divided into

a) Psychological and physiological
b) Mental and physical
c) Clinical and situational
d) Clinical and physiological
20. Can you fly suffering from narcolepsy ?

a) Under the strict supervision of an Aviation Medical Specialist
b) Sometimes - it depends on the degree
c) Never
d) By day only
29
HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 12 – INDIVIDUAL DIFF. & INTE PERSONAL REL.
1. What is the most effective way of analysing personality ?

a) Group therapy
b) Written questionnaires
c) Personal interviews
d) Two Dimensional Model analysis
2. How would a person who is aggressive and changeable be described ?

a) Aggressive extravert
b) Unpredictable extravert
c) Unreliable extravert
d) Anxious extravert
3. What are the personality traits of a good pilot?

a) Reliable and stable
b) Stable and extraverted
c) Reliable and extraverted
d) Reliable, calm and extraverted
4. What characteristics will authoritarian pilots display ?

a) Are autocratic on most occasions
b) Are autocratic with the crew of the aircraft but submissive when dealing with when an emergency or
when under stress
c) Are autocratic when in command and submissive when confronted by someone of higher perceived
status
d) Tend to be authoritarian when dressed in uniform and when dealing with both air and cabin crew
5. What "P" and "G" qualities should a pilot have ?

a) G+P+
b) G++ P++
c) G++P+
d) P+P+
6. How will a person tend to react if they are confronted with a decision from someone they perceive as
having a higher status ?
a) Listen to, believe, and comply with the decision.
b) Avoid confrontation
c) Become introverted
d) Question the decision
7. If an average ability group make a decision, is it likely to be better or worse than one made by the
individual members ?
a) Worse
b) Tends to be either
c) 75% of the time better
d) Better
8. If a group - with someone who has above average ability - makes a decision, is the decision likely to be
better or worse than one made by the above average person on their own ?
a) Unlikely to be better
b) Likely to be better
c) Likely to be worse
d) It depends on the number of the member of the group
30
9. Is a group decision likely to be more or less risky than one made by the individual members ?
a) Less risky
b) Sometimes more risky
c) Sometimes less risky
d) More risky
10. What should a Captain do before making a non-urgent decision ?

a) Put his own view forward and then ask for the opinions of other members of the crew
b) Consider all the implications
c) Encourage ideas from the crew before stating his own opinion
d) Monitor his motor programme (flying)
11. Body Language is

a) Non-verbal communication
b) Sign Language
c) Aggression
d) Verbal communication which is open to cultural problems
12. Self-discipline is an essential quality of the "ideal" pilot

a) True
b) False
13. Is a constituted crew an advantage in commercial aviation

a) Always
b) Sometimes
c) Depending on the task
14. What are the three types of Authority Gradients Cockpit

a) Autocratic, Subjective, Synergistic
b) Autocratic, Submissive, Synergistic
c) Laisser-Faire, Subjective, Synergistic
d) Autocratic, Laisser-Faire, Synergistic
15. There is no place at all for authoritarianism in the air

a) True
b) False
16. The Laisser-Faire cockpit may arise when

a) The Captain is suffering from stress
b) The Captain is pre-occupied
c) On a competent co-pilot's leg
d) On an incompetent co-pilot's leg
17. To counter-act an authoritarian cockpit crews should

a) Ensure that they ensure that their opinions are heard in spite of possible confrontation
b) Remain silent and sort it all out on the ground
c) Co-operate in a conciliatory form but the contents of this co-operation is firm
d) Obtain support from another crew member
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HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 13 – COMMUNICATION & CO-OPERATION
1. CFIT means
a) Controlled Flight in Terminal airspace
b) Controlled Flight into Terrain
c) Controlled Flying in Training
d) Controlled Flying in Taxiways (helicopters)
2. Implicit questions are

a) Is another name for closed questions
b) Require deductions to be made before an answer is possible
c) Does not Require deductions to be made before an answer is possible
d) Require a quick answer
3. Good Synergy is
a) 1+1 = 2
b) l+1 = <2
c) 1 + 1 = 4
d) 1 + 1 =>2
4. Co-ordination is divided into the three following types

a) Redundant Actions, Temporal and Co-action
b) Redundant Actions, General Co-operation and Co-action
c) General Co-operation, Temporal and Co-action
d) Cognitive Co-action, General Co-operation and Temporal
5. Synchronization can be said to be divided into

a) Temporal Synchronization and Rational Synchronization.
b) Cognitive Synchronization, Temporal Synchronization, Rational Synchronization.
c) Cognitive Synchronization and Temporal Synchronization.
d) Cognitive Synchronization and Rational Synchronization.
6. One BIT of communication is the quantity of information which reduces the uncertainty of the Receiver by
a) 75%-85%
b) 65-75%
c) 55-75%
d) 50%
7. Hypertext
a) Can alter according to the situation
b) Is fixed for all situations
c) Can alter according to the tone
d) Can alter as to the meaning implied
8. The contents of a Transmitter's message will depend on

a) The Receiver's image of the Transmitter
b) The Transmitter's image of the Receiver
c) The Transmitter's image of the situation
d) The Transmitter's image of the perceived situation
9. The following is/are the first to suffer from inter-human conflicts

a) Concentration and focus on the job in hand
b) Situation Awareness
c) Communications and cockpit harmony
d) Communications and quality of work
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10. Having interrupted your Captain for a sound reason you must
a) Attempt to establish eye contact with him/her
b) Remind him/her of his/her last action before the interruption
c) Make sure there is no ATC traffic on the radio
d) You must never interrupt
11. A briefing should consist of less than

a) 7 ideas
b) 10 ideas
c) 7 sentences
d) 10 sentences
12. Among the rules to improve crew co-operation are

a) Good briefings and awareness of cultural differences
b) Good briefings and a harmonious cockpit atmosphere
c) Use professional language
d) Resist putting your opinion forward first
13. What are the five hazardous attitudes which play a leading role in the inability of an individual to cope with
a potentially dangerous situation ?
a) Anti-authority, Over confident, Invulnerable, Macho and Resigned
b) Anti-authority, Impulsive, Invulnerable, Macho and Resigned
c) Anti-authority, Impulsive, Invulnerable, Macho and Over confident
d) Over confident, Impulsive, Invulnerable, Macho and Resigned
14. Communication in the cockpit is primarily used for what purpose ?

a) It is the main tool to ensure coordination
b) It is the main tool to ensure comprehension
c) It is the main tool to ensure harmony
d) It is the main tool to ensure understanding
15. What is meant by the term "Synergy" ?

a) Synergy is the state where the individual performances exceeds the sum of the group performance
b) Synergy is the state where the group performance exceeds the sum of the individual performances
c) Synergy is the state where the group performance exceeds the sum of the individual performances by
50%
d) Synergy is the state where the individual performances exceeds the sum of the group performance by 5
0%
16. In co-ordinated action what does the term "redundant actions" mean ?
a) The strict duplication of actions by various individuals
b) The strict duplication of actions by two individuals
c) Actions which are in the past
d) Actions which have been covered by the check list
17. What is meant by "co-action" ?

a) Individuals working in the different environments but sharing the same general objectives and working
independently in carrying out their actions
b) An action by the co-pilot
c) The strict duplication of actions by various individuals
d) Individuals working in the same environment and sharing the same general objectives but working
independently in carrying out their actions
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18. In communications what is Hypertext ?

a) The set of implicit information contained in a written text or spoken message
b) A recommended layout for checklists
c) The set of implicit information contained in a spoken message
d) A recommended layout for checklists and emergency drills
19. What is a dialogue ?

a) A conversation between two people
b) A series of communications on different subjects between a transmitter and receiver
c) A series of communications on the same subject between a transmitter and receiver
d) A communication between two or more people or machines
20. What are the key points of a good briefing ?

a) Individual, understood and simple
b) Individual, clear and simple
c) Individual, understood and short
d) Simple, clear, understood and individual
34
HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 14 – MAN AND MACHINE
1. What is anthropometry ?
a) The study of Man's adaption to machines
b) A branch of anthropology
c) The study of human measurement
d) The study of the adaption of machines to Man's needs
2. What percentage of the appropriate population are anthropometric data table measurements taken from ?
a) 80%, ie the tenth to the ninetieth percentile, using contour, dynamic and static data
b) 90%, ie the fifth to the ninety-fifth percentile, using contour, dynamic and static data
c) 50%, ie the twenty-fifth to the seventy-fifth percentile, using contour, dynamic and static data
3. What is the most common check-list error

a) Action slip
b) Too many capital letters are used
c) Responded to automatically
d) Missing items
4. What is the purpose of the lumbar support ?

a) To allow the most comfortable position for the spine and higher neck bones
b) To allow the most comfortable position for the spine and shoulder bones
c) To allow the most comfortable position for the spine
d) To produce an even pressure of the discs by allowing the lower spine to curve naturally
5. What are the essential characteristics of a cockpit warning ?

a) It should have the best attention-getting qualities as possible
b) It should be attention-getting but not alarming
c) It should have attention-getting qualities which do not compromise a clear indiction to the pilot of the
faulty component/system
d) Must not dazzle or possibly compromise the crew's night vision
6. What is the most important feature of flight deck design ?

a) Escape and emergency exits should be clear of obstructions
b) The Design Eye Point must be clearly marked
c) Important controls must be located in easily reached and unobstructed positions
d) Control and indicators should be standardised
7. What will the pilot lose sight of on the approach if seated below the Design Eye Point ?
a) Some of the undershoot
b) Some of the overshoot
c) Peripheral objects especially at night
d) The Sight View
8. What instrument is best for showing small change ?

a) A digital display
b) An analogue display
c) A mixed digital/analogue display
d) Ultra/high-precision gyro instrument
9. What colour should the Àlert' warning be on a CRT ?

a) Bright red and flashing
b) Steady Red
c) Flashing yellow/amber
d) Steady yellow
35
10. Which Pitot/static instrument is most likely to be misread ?

a) The ASI at night illuminated by a red light
b) The ASI at night illuminated by low intensity white light
c) The three point altimeter
d) The four point altimeter
11. A manually operated valve should be opened by

a) Turning it clockwise
b) Turning it anti-clockwise
c) Turning either way
d) Depends on the system it operates
12. The three types of Anthropometric measurements are

a) Static, Design, Contour
b) Contour, Design, Dynamic
c) Static, Dynamic, Contour
d) Static, Dynamic, Design
13. In the Shell Model L stands for

a) Latent errors
b) Long-termed errors
c) Lengthy errors
d) Liveware
14. System Tolerance can be sub-divided into

a) Protected and semi-protected systems
b) Protected and endangered systems
c) Protected and vulnerable systems
d) Protected and quasi-protected systems
15. A flashing red warning light on a CRT normally indicates

a) There is a fault in a critical system
b) Emergency
c) Alert d) Danger
16. Automation Complacency is

a) Overconfidence in the handling capability of the pilot
b) Overconfidence in the handling capability of the pilot of computers
c) Over-reliance on automation
d) The blind belief in automation
17. Mode error is associated with

a) Automation
b) Hardware
c) INS
d) Software
18. A danger of automation is that

a) There can be greater delays between the performance of the crew and its ultimate effect
b) Delays between the performance of the crew and its ultimate effect are shortened
c) Delays between the performance of the crew and its ultimate effect are not appreciated
d) Delays between the performance of the crew and its ultimate effect have no effect
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19. Automation
a) Helps with unusual and unexpected situations
b) May result in a pilot being unaware of important information when dealing with an unusual and
unexpected situation
c) Increases reaction time when dealing with unusual and unexpected situations
d) Decreases reaction time when dealing with unusual and unexpected situations
20. Automation can result in

a) Lack of information being passed between crew members
b) Too much information being passed between crew members
c) Confused information being passed between crew members
d) Too much detailed information being passed between crew members
37
HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 15 – DECISION MAKING & TASK
1. What are the categories of risk ?

a) Objective/Sudden and Subjective/Gradual
b) Sudden/Impromptu and Gradual/Planned
c) External/Objective and Internal/Subjective
d) Impromptu/Objective and Planned/Subjective
2. The Commander is ultimately responsible for all decisions made in the cockpit
a) True
b) False
3. There is no difference between "deciding" and "decision-making"

a) True
b) False
4. A decision is "good" when

a) It can be implemented within the available time
b) Time is not an issue. The decision must be correct
c) Time can be an issue but the correct perception is the important factor
d) When other members of the crew agree
5. Preparation is essential for good decision-making when time is an issue

a) True
b) False
6. One of the possible problems of preparation is

a) Action Slip
b) Confirmation Bias
c) Error of Commission
d) Environment Capture
7. If a person will tend to overestimate the frequency of

a) A common but negative occurrence
b) A common but beneficial occurrence
c) A rare but beneficial occurrence
d) A are but negative occurrence
8. Negative events are tended to be overestimated when

a) They are well published
b) Obvious
c) Under published
d) The results are unclear
9. The risk of an Airprox is normally

a) Overestimated
b) Underestimated
c) Discounted
d) Accurately assessed
10. Evaluation of options in the decision-making process involve

a) Positive and negative considerations
b) Values and costs
c) Planned and impromptu considerations
d) Assigning tasks
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11. People tend to be biased to make a

a) Risky loss rather than a certain loss even if the expected loss from the former is greater
b) Risky loss rather than a certain loss even if the expected loss from the former is less
c) Risky loss rather than a certain loss even if the expected loss from the latter is greater
d) Risky loss rather than a certain loss even if the expected loss from the latter is far greater
12. "Press-on-tis" is a
a) Common dilemma faced by all pilots
b) Is only experienced by skilled pilots
c) Only happens to inexperienced pilots
d) Is rarely faced by good pilots
13. The co-pilot is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the Commander's decision
a) True
b) False
14. People tend to focus on salient cues

a) True
b) False
15. Fatigue/overload
a) Sometimes affects decision-making
b) Rarely affects decision-making
c) Never affects decision-making
d) Always affects decision-making
16. In the decision-making process, what should follow "Review and feedback" ?
a) Assign Tasks
b) Decide
c) Risk assessment
d) Diagnose and define objective
17. Man is extremely capable of accurate risk assessment

a) True
b) False
18. Input from the crew is an important factor in the decision-making process
a) True
b) False
19. Lack of experience will have the following effect on the decision-making process
a) Will speed it up (leaping in at the deep end
b) Slow it down
c) Have no effect
d) Disrupt the process
20. The decision process should include the crew

a) True
b) False
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16 (13-18) HUMAN PERFORMANCE MC 1
1. The composition of the atmosphere from sea level to about 70,000ft retains proportions of.
a) 50%Nitrogen, 40%Oxygen, 10%other gases.
b) 78%Oxygen, 21 %Nitrogen, 1 %other gases.
c) 78%Nitrogen, 21 %Oxygen, 1 %other gases.
d) 76%Nitrogen, 14%Oxygen, 10%other gases.
2. Oxygen is required by the human body to:

a) clear the blood of impurities produced in the body.
b) derive energy from food by oxidation.
b) produce Carbon Dioxide to maintain the correct acidity of the blood.
c) to assure the conversion of fats and proteins to Carbohydrates required for tissue regeneration
3. Gas exchange between the air and blood takes place:

a) through the mucous lining of the Trachea and Bronchi.
b) between the interior of the alveoli and the capillaries on the alveoli walls.
c) from the whole surface of the lungs via the fluid in the thoracic cavity.
d) by means of the Pulmonary artery, linking the lungs directly to the heart.
4. Oxygen is transported in the blood:

a) dissolved in the blood plasma.
b) in chemical combination with haemoglobin in the white blood cells.
c) as microscopic bubbles linked to blood platelets.
d) in combination with haemoglobin in the red blood cells.
5. An individual who is short of Oxygen may try to compensate by increasing the rate and depth of breathing.
This process is called:
a) hypoxic compensation.
b) presbycusis.
c) hyperventilation.
d) carbonic dysrhythmia.
6. A free running circadian rhythm exhibits a periodicity of about:

a) 23 hours.
b) 24 hours.
c) 25 hours.
d) 26 hours.
7. Constantly seeking information to anticipate situations and to take the right decisions:
a) can be dangerous, as it may distract attention from flying the aircraft.
b) is impossible for pilots as they can only absorb a limited amount of information at any one time.
c) enables maintenance of situational awareness.
d) always carries the risk of constructing a false mental model.
8. Safety in commercial air transport:

a) is better than road safety, but not as good as rail safety.
b) though effective, lagging behind road and rail safety.
c) increasing each year, due to the increasing automation of modern aircraft.
d) better than road safety and rail safety.
9. `Slow wave' sleep occurs:

a) during low voltage high frequency Delta brain wave activity.
b) sleep stages 3 and 4.
c) as an individual first starts to fall asleep.
d) during the dreaming stage of REM sleep.
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10. Strengthening and organizing the human memory when learning new tasks is believed to occur in:
a) REM sleep.
b) slow wave sleep.
c) sleep stages 3 and 4.
d) stages 1 and 2 sleep.
11. The most common form of amnesia affects:

a) episodic memory.
b) short term or working memory,
c) semantic memory.
d) echoic and iconic memory.
12. The time of useful consciousness for a pilot, undertaking moderate activity, when exposed to progressive
decompression at 30,000 ft is:
a) 30 minutes.
b) 45 seconds.
c) 12 seconds.
d) 2 to 3 minutes.
13. Required Oxygen for an individual experiencing a moderate workload at 37,000 ft can be provided by
breathing:
a) 100% Oxygen under pressure.
b) An Oxygen/Air mixture
c) 100% Oxygen.
d) A mixture of Oxygen and helium to balance the partial pressure in the lungs.
14. The General Adaptation Syndrome has in sequence the following phases:
a) alarm phase - denial phase - acceptance phase.
b) alarm phase - resistance phase - exhaustion phase.
c) stressor - resistance phase - adaptation phase.
d) resistance phase - exhaustion phase - recovery phase.
15. With a large aircraft maintaining a standard 3° approach to a runway, the touchdown point will be:
a) at the visual aiming point.
b) further into the runway than the visual aiming point.
c) short or long from the visual aiming point depending on the runway slope.
d) short of the visual aiming point.
16. `Risky shift' is:

a) a flight or task undertaken at a time when the body's circadian rhythms are at their lowest point of
efficiency.
b) the process by which the central decision-maker will ignore any information which does not fit the
mental model created by the situation.
c) the tendency of a group of individuals to accept a higher risk than any individual member of the group.
d) the natural tendency of the human mind to blame outside agencies for any errors made in an emergency
situation.
17. The eye datum or design eye position in the cockpit is established:
a) so that the pilot can maintain an adequate view of all the important displays inside, and of the world
outside with minimum head or body movements.
b) to enable the pilot to see all his flight instruments within minimum scan movements of the head.
c) at the centre of the artificial horizon or flight director indicator.
d) to determine the eventual size of the flight deck and where the window frames will be positioned so as to
give minimum interference to the pilot's field of view.
41
18. The most dangerous characteristic of a false mental model is that:

a) it will mainly occur under conditions of low arousal.
b) it will mainly occur under conditions of stress.
c) it is extremely resistant to change.
d) it will always be modified to meet the expectations of the individual.
19. Which of the following is NOT one of the 5 hazardous attitudes?

a) Macho.
b) Anti-authority.
c) Impulsivity.
d) Domination.
20. To facilitate and reduce the time taken to access information in long term memory, it is necessary to:
a) learn to store information in a logical way.
b) mentally rehearse information before it is needed.
c) structure the information as much as possible before committing it to memory.
d) avoid pointlessly activating information, which we know will soon be needed.
21. If a stimulus is expected and the response prepared; when an unexpected stimulus is received:
a) the prepared response is likely to be carried out.
b) the mind will `freeze' and will require a reminder a reminder from its data store before actioning the new
demand.
c) the prepared response will be transferred to the long term memory store.
d) the mind will `switch off and ignore the unexpected stimulus.
22. The area on the retina where the optic nerve receives all the information from the light sensitive cells of the
retina is:
a) the blind spot.
b) The fovea.
c) The Rod/Cone intersection point.
d) The most sensitive part of the retina with the highest visual acuity.
23. The eye can adjust to changing light intensities by varying the diameter of the pupil. This can change the
intensity of the light falling on the retina by a factor of:
a) 10:1
b) 2:1
c) 5:1
d) 20:1
24. Following a flight that transits numerous time zones, the associated shifting of Zeitgebers helps
resynchronization to the new local time at the average rate of:
a) 2.5 hours per day.
b) 1.5 hours per day.
c) 4 hours per day.
d) 1 hour per day if the flight has been westward and 2 hours per day if the flight has been eastward.
25. A man is considered to be obese if his Body Mass Index (BMI) is over:
a) 18 b) 25 c) 22 d) 30
26. Divided attention:

a) is a fallacy, a pilot can only concentrate on one thing at a time.
b) makes it possible to detect abnormal values for flight parameters even though they are not the pilot's
immediate concern.
c) makes it possible to increase the number of simultaneously managed tasks in safety.
d) makes it possible to carry out several cognitive processes at the same time.
42
27. The human body can tolerate short duration acceleration forces of up to 45G:
a) in the vertical axis.
b) in the fore and aft axis.
c) in the lateral axis.
d) when suitable anti-G straining techniques are employed.
28. Barotrauma of the cranial sinuses is most likely to occur;

a) during the descent.
b) among elderly passengers.
c) In the climb.
d) In persons with a history of cardio-vascular problems.
29. Motor programmes:

a) are stored as working rules in long term memory.
b) require conscious thought to engage.
c) an be retained for only a few minutes.
d) the behavioural sub routines.
30. During visual scanning the eye movements should be:

a) large and frequent.
b) Small and infrequent.
c) Small and frequent.
d) Large and infrequent.
43
1. The `time of useful consciousness' for an individual experiencing rapid decompression at an altitude of 25,000 ft is:
a) 45 - 75 seconds.
b) 30 minutes.
c) 2 minutes.
d) 12 seconds.
2. During scanning of both the instruments and the exterior, the approximate duration of a saccade is:
a) 0.1 seconds.
b) 1/3 second.
c) 1.0 second.
d) variable, depending on the angular difference between the two objects to be scanned.
3. Rule based behaviours are stored in the brain:

a) as sets of rules in long term memory.
b) as `bits' in the working memory.
c) as conditioned responses in motor programmes.
d) as rule giving automatic linkage between the semantic and working memories.
4. The cabin pressure in commercial pressurized aircraft is normally maintained at an equivalent atmospheric
pressure:
a) always equivalent to sea level.
b) normally not exceeding 2,000 to 3,000 feet.
c) normally not exceeding 6,000 to 8,000 feet.
d) normally not exceeding 10,000 to 12,000 feet.
5. Ènvironment capture' is the process whereby:

a) the pilot becomes fixated on the outside environment and neglects to monitor the instruments in the
cockpit.
b) the pilot keeps `head in cockpit' to an extreme degree and may therefore miss vital cues from the external
environment.
c) the pilot is unable to allocate priorities between the exterior and interior environments causing confusion
and the possibility of mistakes.
d) the fact of being at a particular stage of flight may cause an automatic response to checks when the
actions have not actually been completed.
6. At altitude the necessary oxygen requirements may be provided for normal respiration by an oxygen/air
mix up to:
a) 30,800 ft.
b) 40,000 ft.
c) 24,000 ft.
d) 33,700 ft.
7. The partial pressures of various gases in the alveoli differs from those in atmospheric air because:
a) chest muscles and diaphragm raise the lung pressure to above atmospheric pressure.
b) there is a significant increase of carbon dioxide and water vapour in the alveoli.
c) oxygen is removed at a higher rate from alveolar air than carbon dioxide replaces it.
d) the venturi effect of air passing through the trachea and bronchi causes a reduction of pressure in the alveoli.
8. In respiration the functions of the nasal passages are to:

a) enable the detection of possible noxious gases and trigger the body's defences.
b) trap harmful particles and bacteria their mucous membranes so that they will not pass into the very
dedicate lung tissue.
c) filter, warm and humidify air drawn in during inspiration.
d) sample the air to enable the respiratory mechanism to adjust the rate and depth of breathing.
44
9. Any individual who has been SCUBA diving should avoid flying:
a) within 36 hours of the last dive.
b) within 24 hours or 48 hours if a depth of 30 ft has been exceeded.
c) only after consultation with a doctor if a depth of 30 ft has been exceeded.
d) within 12 hours, or 24 hours if a depth of 30 ft has been exceeded.
10. The major factor in the general population which predisposes an individual to heart attack is:
a) family history.
b) smoking.
c) the amount of saturated fats in the diet.
d) hypertension (high blood pressure).
11. Loss of hearing due to damage or defects in the eardrum or auditory ossicles is;
a) presbycusis.
b) noise induced hearing loss (NIHL)
c) conductive deafness.
d) middle ear disconnection.
12. The common illusion created by linear acceleration or deceleration is:

a) a false banking sensation due to disturbance in the endolymph of the inner ear.
b) a combined pitch up and banking sensation.
c) a feeling of pitch up when the aircraft decelerates causing an automatic attempt to push the nose of the
aircraft down.
d) a pitch up feeling when the aircraft accelerates.
13. What means can be used to combat human error?

1) Reducing error-prone mechanisms.
2) Improving the way in which error is taken into account in training.
3) Sanctions against the initiators of errors.
4) Improving recovery from error and its consequences.
The combination of correct statements is:
a) 3 and 4.
b) 1 and 2.
c) 2, 3, and 4.
d) l , 2 and 4.
14. A system can be said to be tolerant of error when:

a) its safety system is too subject to error.
b) its safety system has taken into account all statistically probable errors.
c) the consequence of error will not seriously jeopardize safety.
d) latent errors do not entail serious consequences for safety.
15. The physiological responses to high levels of stress are:

a) fear, anxiety, depression.
b) sweating, dryness of the mouth, breathing difficulties.
c) indecision, inattention, withdrawal.
d) temporary mental confusion, restlessness.
16. The term àtmospheric perspective' in aviation means:

a) a change in the attitude of the aircraft could lead to misinterpretation of the runway length.
b) the tendency for objects to become indistinct with distance.
c) the tendency of objects of certain colours to remain in view for longer periods during differing light
conditions.
d) the presence of a sloping cloud bank may be mistaken for a horizon, causing a pilot who is flying VMC
to bank the aircraft to align it with the cloud bank.
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17. The `fight or flight' response occurs when:

a) a normal non-aggressive person suffers stress as result of shock, turns pale, trembles and chooses to flee
rather than fight.
b) in anger a person becomes red in the face, aggressive and chooses to fight rather than flee.
c) the sympathetic nervous system provides an individual with the resources to cope with a new and sudden
source of stress.
d) the parasympathetic nervous system provides extra resources for an individual to cope with a new and
sudden source of stress.
18. The working memory is limited in its capacity to store unrelated items. The number of such items that may
be stored with full attention is:
a) 7±2.
b) 7.
c) 5+2.
d) 4.
19. If information in the working memory is not rehearsed it will be lost in:
a) 1 to 2 minutes.
b) 8 to 12 seconds.
c) 5 to 10 minutes.
d) 10 to 20 seconds.
20. Anthropometry is:

a) the study of human behaviour in response to stress.
b) the study of sleep patterns and circadian rhythms.
c) the study of the relationship between man and his working environment
d) the study of human measurement.
21. In the event of a rapid decompression, the venturi effect of the airflow passing the fuselage may lead to:
a) a restriction of vision due to the sudden pressure drop causing water vapour to condense in the cabin.
b) the cabin altitude being at a higher altitude than the aircraft altitude.
c) a sudden rise in the skin temperature of the fuselage with the danger of igniting any fuel spillage.
d) a decrease in the rate at which the cabin depressurizes as the aircraft speed increases.
22. The generally accepted model for the acquisition of expertise or skill comprises three stages:
a) cognitive, associative and automatic.
b) cognitive, associative and expert.
c) associative, automatic and expert.
d) automatic, cognitive and expert.
23. According to Rasmussen's activity model, errors are of the following type in skill-based mode:
a) routine errors.
b) errors of technical knowledge.
c) handling errors.
d) creative errors.
24. Stress may be defined as:

a) a poorly controlled emotion which leads to a reduction in capabilities.
b) A psychological phenomenon which affects only fragile personalities.
c) A normal phenomenon that enables an individual to adapt to situations encountered.
d) A human reaction which individuals must manage to eliminate.
25. Which behaviour is most likely to promote a constructive solution to interpersonal conflicts?
a) responding with logical counter arguments.
b) steadfastly maintaining one's own point of view.
c) active listening.
d) surrendering one's own point of view.
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26. The speed of any learning process can be increased by:

a) gradually increasing the psychological pressure on the students.
b) punishing the learner for unsuccessful trials
c) reinforcing successful trials.
d) reinforcing errors made during the learning process.
27. Decision making in emergency situations requires primarily:

a) speed of reaction.
b) the distribution of tasks and crew coordination.
c) strong situational awareness.
d) the whole crew to focus on the immediate problem.
28. Sinuses in the skull are required to:

a) act as a reservoir for those fluids necessary to maintain the mucous membranes of the respiratory system
in a healthy state.
b) provide a system that allows any sudden pressure changes to be over the whole skull.
c) act as a drain system to allow cranial fluids to maintain correct pressure during altitude changes.
d) to make the skull lighter and the voice resonant.
29. The red blood cells are produced in the body by:
a) the bone marrow.
b) The spleen when triggered by hormone secretion.
c) The liver and pancreas.
d) The liver and spleen.
30. On the retina of the eye, the rod cells are:

a) used primarily during daylight.
b) highly sensitive to colour changes.
c) sensitive to much lower light levels than the cone cells.
d) concentrated in the area of the fovea.
47
1. The part of the retina with the highest visual acuity is:
a) the optic nerve entry point.
b) the fovea.
c) the retinal optical focus point.
d) the rod/cone balance point.
2. The effect on an individual of smoking 20 cigarettes a day is to increase the experienced altitude by:
a) 2 to 3 thousand feet.
b) 5 to 6 thousand feet.
c) A factor of about 20% of the ambient pressure.
d) 5 to 8 hundred feet.
3. Small amounts of carbon monoxide present in the air causes:

a) an improvement in the ability of the blood to carry oxygen.
b) A reduction in oxygen carrying capacity of the blood due to its blocking action on the diffusion of
oxygen through the walls of the alveoli.
c) A tarring and blackening of the lungs leading to a reduced ability to allow gas passage across the lung
surface.
d) A reduction in oxygen carrying capacity of the blood due to the much greater affinity of haemoglobin to
carbon monoxide than to oxygen.
4. Breathing 100% oxygen will supply sufficient oxygen for normal respiration up to an altitude of:
a) 24,000 ft.
b) 33,700 ft.
c) 10,000 ft.
d) 40,000 ft.
5. The effect of an increasing altitude on the gastro-intestinal tract may cause stretching of the small bowel if
gas is present. This possibility may be reduced by:
a) limiting the amounts of liquids taken during the flight to sufficient to relieve dryness of the mouth.
b) following a lifestyle which leads to regular bowel movement.
c) avoiding before flight the foodstuffs that cause the production of intestinal gases.
d) taking mild antacid tablets when the problem first arises.
6. One of the classes of effects of stress is cognitive stress. Cognitive effects can be identified as:
a) forgetfulness, lack of concentration, difficulty in `switching off
b) sleep disorders, increased heart rate and dry mouth.
c) sweating, mental block, disassociation.
d) fatigue, apathy, anxiety.
7. The composition of the atmosphere at sea level is 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 1 % other gases. These
proportions will:
a) remain constant up to the tropopause.
b) remain constant up to about 70,000 feet.
c) vary as the aircraft climbs.
d) remain constant to about 20,000 feet when the proportion of oxygen will reduce considerably as more of
the oxygen will be converted to ozone.
8. The capacity of the working memory may be expanded by:

a) constant repetition of the material.
b) `chunking' the material.
c) immediate transfer of the material to the long term memory.
d) practice of the use of mnemonics as memory aids.
48
9. Professional languages have certain characteristics. They:

1) use a limited vocabulary (a maximum of about 500 words)
2) are rich and adapted to the context which sometimes leads to ambiguities.
3) have technical characteristics allowing them to have a strong syntax.
4) Have a context which provides meaning and reduces the risk of ambiguities.
The correct statement(s) is/are?
a) 4.
b) 1 and 3.
c) 2 and 3.
d) 1 and 4.
10. Discussing private matters in the cockpit:

a) decreases the captains role in leadership
b) should be avoided in flight.
c) Can improve team spirit
d) Is appropriate at any stage of the flight.
11. Co-action is a mode of coordination that involves:

a) working in parallel to achieve individual objectives with independent and unrelated aims.
b) sustained cooperation on actions and the formulation of commitments concerning flight situations.
c) working in parallel to achieve one common objective, with independent but specified aims.
d) the application of procedural knowledge in the conduct of specific actions.
12. A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should:

a) descend to a lower level where the symptoms will disappear and continue the flight at this or a lower
level.
b) decrease the cabin pressure to relieve the symptoms.
c) continue the flight at a lower altitude and carry out exercises to relieve pain in the affected site.
d) land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance.
13. A pilot can improve the probability of detecting other aircraft by:
a) minimising the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible:
b) moving the head frequently to alter the apparent motion of any distant object.
c) maximising the tim spent looking in each sector to allow the maximum chance of detecting movement.
d) maintaining as far as possible a lookout ahead of the aircraft a relying on peripheral vision to detect any
movement from the side.
14. The temperature range of a flight deck to be comfortable should be:

a) 15°C to 30°C with a relative humidity of 40 - 60%
b) l 0°C to 25°C with a relative humidity of 20 - 30%
c) 15°C to 30°C with a relative humidity of 70 - 80%
d) 30°C to 40°C with a relative humidity of 30 - 40%
15. Confirmation bias:

a) tends to make the pilot accept information that confirms his diagnosis of a situation and reject
information that does not fit into his theory.
b) Makes the pilot look for the most probable solution to a problem to avoid using the full checklist.
c) Will cause the pilot to believe in a particular solution if the other crew members agree with him.
d) Is the reinforcement of any idea by any past experience of a similar problem.
16. The four primary flight instruments arranged in the standard `T' consists of:
a) ASI, AH/FDI, ALT, T'SLIP.
b) ASI, AH/FDI, DI/RMI, RMI.
c) ASI, AH/FDI, ALT, DI/HIS.
d) ASI, ALT, DI/HIS, RMI.
49
17. The sunglasses used by a pilot should have a luminance transmittance of:
a) 50 to 60%.
b) 10 to 15%.
c) 20 to 40%.
d) 5 to 8%.
18. The time of useful consciousness when suffering an explosive decompression at 40,000 ft is:
a) 1 minute.
b) 2 to 3 minutes.
c) 45 to 75 seconds.
d) about 12 seconds.
19. The greatest source of incapacitation in flight is:

a) motion sickness.
b) heart attack or circulatory problems.
c) acute gastro-enteritis.
d) spatial disorientation.
20. The heart muscle requires its own blood supply. This is provided by:
a) the pulmonary artery.
b) direct diffusion from the interior of the heart.
c) the aortic arch.
d) the coronary arteries.
21. Raised blood pressure (hypertension) is the main risk factor in the development of:
a) strokes.
b) angina.
c) coronary infarcts.
d) ferric haemoglobin poisoning.
22. A man is considered to be overweight if his Body Mass Index (BMI) is over:
a) 20.
b) 25.
c) 30.
d) 35.
23. Physical stimuli received by the sensory organs may be stored for a brief period of time after the input has
ceased. The visual and auditory sensory stores are:
a) visual - echoic memory lasting about o.5 to 1 second. auditory - iconic memory lasting up to 7 seconds.
b) auditory - echoic lasting 2 to 8 seconds. visual - iconic lasting 0.5 to 1 second.
c) visual - iconic lasing 2 to 8 seconds auditory - echoic lasting 0.5 to 1 second.
d) visual - iconic lasting 3 to 4 seconds. auditory - echoic about 3 to 8 seconds.
24. Thinking on human reliability is changing. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) human errors are now considered as being inherent to the cognitive functions of humans and are
generally inescapable.
b) human errors can be avoided. It will however extending one's knowledge and extreme vigilance.
c) the individual view of safety has gradually replaced the systemic view.
d) it is believed that it will be possible to eliminate all errors in the future.
25. How would one interpret the following statement; òne cannot avoid communication'?
a) every situation requires communication.
b) One can not influence one's own communications.
c) Being silent or inactive are also non-verbal behaviour patterns that are meaningful.
d) Differences in language or culture may prevent any meaningful communication.
50
26. Information in the short term memory:

a) is not affected by the arrival of new information.
b) is only retained for 2 to 3 minutes.
c) can be retained for long periods.
d) must be actively rehearsed to ensure long term retention.
27. The permanent denial of a flying licence will be the be the result of the pilot suffering from:
a) depression.
b) anxiety and phobic states.
c) obsessional disorders.
d) schizophrenia or manic depression.
28. A function of the vestibular apparatus is to:

a) assist in maintaining spatial orientation.
b) control motion sickness.
c) maintain visual orientation.
d) enhance hearing ability, especially at high frequencies.
29. The amount of stress experienced with a particular task is dependent on:
a) the actual demand and the actual ability.
b) the perceived demand and the actual ability.
c) the actual demand and the perceived ability.
d) the perceived demand and the perceived ability.
30. An excessive noise level would increase reaction and performance:

a) during periods of low arousal.
b) during periods of high arousal
c) never.
d) during periods of boredom or fatigue.
51
16 (31-36)HUMAN PERFORMANCE MC 4
1. An individual who has consumed a moderate amount of alcohol prior to sleep is likely to have:
a) a longer sleep.
b) less REM sleep.
c) more slow wave sleep.
d) more REM sleep.
2. If a pilot's seat is set too low on the approach, the effect would be to:
a) obscure the overshoot.
b) obscure the flight instruments.
c) obscure the undershoot.
d) all of the above.
3. In the late stages of an approach, ground proximity is judged by:

a) colour and contrast of ground features.
b) position of the aircraft nose relative to the horizon.
c) texture and relative speed of ground features.
d) position of the aircraft nose relative to the visual aiming point.
4. Which of the following graphs represents the relationship between arousal and performance?
a) Inverted "U"
b) "U" shaped
c) Straight line rising at 45° angle
d) Straight line descending at 45° angle
5. An individual's performance is adversely affected by:

a) high arousal state.
b) low arousal state
c) neither high nor low arousal state.
d) both high and low arousal states.
6. Following a sudden decompression at 30,000 feet, the time of useful consciousness would be:
a) 2 minutes.
b) 30 seconds.
c) 12 seconds.
d) 4 to 5 minutes.
7. A motor programme is:

a) one that is based on knowledge and experience.
b) the way that a checklist is actioned.
c) one that requires conscious thought throughout its action.
d) one that is learned by practice and repetition and which may be executed without conscious thought.
8. The main factor in the focussing of the human eye is:

a) the cornea.
b) the lens.
c) the iris.
d) the internal fluid in the eyeball.

a) Poor communications are of little significance in incidents and accidents.
b) Coding communication behaviour improves flight safety.
c) Interpersonal communications have little significance in the modern cockpit as all situations are covered
by manuals.
d) Problems in the personal relations between crew members hamper their communication process.
52
10. In decision making the decision of an average group member is usually:

a) worse than the group decision.
b) better than the group decision.
c) the same as the group decision.
d) excluded from the group decision.
11. Referring to the Body Mass Index, a man weighing 81 kg. Who is 175 cm tall would be:
a) considered to be within the normal weight range.
b) considered to be overweight.
c) considered to be obese.
d) considered to be underweight.
12. Once an individual has made a decision regarding a situation, he is most likely to:
a) give too much weight to information that tends to confirm the original decision.
b) give equal weight to information that confirms or contradicts that decision.
c) give insufficient weight to information that confirms the original decision.
d) give too much weight to information that goes against the original decision
13. An individual's body temperature will be at its lowest at:

a) 0900 body time.
b) 2300 body time.
c) 0500 body time.
d) 1100 body time.
14. Hypertension is:

a) a high level of stress.
b) low blood pressure.
c) a high workload.
d) high blood pressure.
15. A pilot suffering disorientation should:

a) rely on the vestibular apparatus.
b) Rely on his somatosensory system (`seat of the pants').
c) Line up with a visual reference (e.g. horizon).
d) Re-erect the flight instruments.
16. An individual with an introverted personality is likely to be:

a) cautious.
b) Sociable.
c) Uninhibited.
d) Outgoing.
17. During a general briefing at the preflight stage the captain should emphasise.
a) the complete delegation of all duties.
b) the importance of crew coordination.
c) the priority of departing on schedule.
d) the avoidance of inadequate handling of controls.
18. Mental training is helpful in improving flying skills:

a) mainly for student pilots.
b) mainly for pilots undertaking instructional duties.
c) at all levels of flying experience.
d) only when the student has reached a certain level of flying experience.
53
19. The response by the receiver to the sender by confirming the reception of the message is:
a) synchronization.
b) redundancy.
c) transference.
d) feedback.
20. The group of small bones (the ossicles) in the ear:

a) transmit air vibrations from the outer ear to the middle ear.
b) convert vibrations in the inner ear to small electric currents for detection by the auditory nerve.
c) convert air vibrations to vibrations in the liquid of the cochlea.
d) transmit vibrations of the ear drum to the semi-circular canals of the inner ear.
21. Gastro-enteritis would prevent an individual from flying as a crew member:

a) always.
b) possibly, if severe.
c) if not treated by an aviation specialist doctor.
d) never.
22. An ideal leader would be:

a) goal directed and person directed.
b) goal directed only.
c) person directed only.
d) neither goal nor person directed, but moderate and accommodating.
23. The severity of noise induced hearing loss (NIHL) is determined by:
a) the volume of noise experienced.
b) the duration of high noise levels experienced.
c) a break down in the conducting system of the ear.
d) the volume and duration of the noise experienced.
24. Which of the following diseases causes the greatest number of deaths each year?
a) Bubonic plague.
b) Malaria.
c) AIDS.
d) Smallpox.
25. The time elapsed before flying as crew or passenger after diving using compressed air if a depth of over 30
ft has been exceeded is:
a) 48 hours.
b) 12 hours.
c) 24 hours.
d) No limitation.
26. The major contribution to our perception of orientation is:

a) the visual sense.
b) the vestibular apparatus.
c) our previous experience.
d) the somato-sensory system.
27. An authoritarian individual tends to be:

a) a weak leader and bad underling.
b) a forceful leader and a good underling.
c) a forceful leader and a submissive underling.
d) a weak leader but a good underling.
54
28. If an individual is awakened after a short sleep, then the next period of sleep will:
a) be a normal sleep pattern.
b) contain a higher than normal amount of REM sleep.
c) contain a greater proportion of slow wave sleep.
d) contain more stages one and two sleep.
29. Human behaviour is determined by which of the following?

a) Biological characteristics, social environment and cultural influences.
b) Biological characteristics.
c) The social environment.
d) Cultural influences and heredity.
30. What are the various means which allow for better detection of errors`?
1. Improvement of the man-machine interface.
2. Development of systems for checking the consistency of situations.
3. Compliance with cross-over redundant procedures on the part of crews.
4. Adaptation of visual alarms for all systems.
The correct statements are:
a) 1 and 3.
b) 2,3 and 4.
c) 1,2 and 3.
d) 3 and 4.
55
1. With regard to communication in cockpits, which of the following statements is correct?

a) Communication is always sufficiently automated to enable an activity with a high workload element to
be carried out at the same time.
b) Communication uses resources, thus limiting resources allocated to work in progress.
c) Communication is only effective if messages are kept short and sufficiently precise to limit their number.
d) All the characteristics of communication, namely output, duration, precision, clarity, etc are stable and
are not much affected changes in workload.
2. The term àttitudes' is used to describe:

a) the predisposition for acting in a particular manner.
b) a synonym for ability.
c) a synonym for behaviour.
d) the conditions necessary for carrying out an activity.
3. Stress management is:

a) the effect on an individual in a managerial, or other responsible, position of the pressures of that job.
b) the stress upon an employee caused by the pressures imposed by the management or his superiors at
work.
c) the process by which individuals adopt systems to assist in coping with stress.
d) the use of a process, such as relaxation techniques, to remove the stress source.
4. Individuals are more likely to comply with a decision made a person who they perceive as:
a) larger than they are.
b) of a higher status.
c) having a better education than themselves.
d) being of a greater age.
5. A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can:

a) continue to fly as an operating pilot whilst he receives treatment.
b) never fly again as an operating pilot.
c) fly as a pilot only if he is supervised by another pilot.
d) return to flying duties after a suitable course of treatment is complete.
6. Risky shift is:

a) the tendency for extroverts to take more risks than introverts.
b) the tendency for military pilots to take more risks than civilian pilots.
c) the tendency of a group to make a more risky decision than the average individual within the group.
d) the tendency for individuals to take more risky decisions when transferred to a different aircraft type.
7. Very high ambition and a need for achievement:

a) meets the requirement for stress resistance.
b) disturbs the climate of cooperation.
c) always promotes effective teamwork.
d) makes it easier for an individual to cope with personal failures.
8. Reducing alcohol in an individual's blood:

a) is only achieved by the passage of time.
b) can be accelerated by the use of coffee or other drinks containing caffeine.
c) is more rapid when the individual is a regular alcohol user.
d) can be speeded up by the use of medication.
9. Long or short sightedness is normally caused by:

a) distortion of the cornea.
b) the shape of the whole eyeball.
c) distortion of the lens.
d) a malfunction of the iris.
56
10. Barotrauma caused by the inability of the eustachian tube to equalize external and internal pressure in the
descent will lead to a pressure difference between the outside air and:
a) the inner ear.
b) the vestibular apparatus.
c) the middle ear.
d) the cochlea.
11. Ènvironment capture' may lead to:

a) errors of rule based behaviour.
b) errors of knowledge based behaviour.
c) errors of semantic memory.
d) errors of skill based behaviour.
12. A runway that slopes downwards when approaching may induce the pilot to:
a) land long into the runway.
b) make a shallow approach.
c) land short.
d) go around.
13. When a pilot has no external visual references, a deceleration in straight and level flight can give the
impression of:
a) the nose of the aircraft pitching up.
b) the nose of the aircraft pitching down.
c) a sudden height loss.
d) a banking of the aircraft.
14. Episodic memory is:

a) a memory of events, held in short term memory.
b) a memory of information, held in short term memory.
c) a memory of information, held in long term memory.
d) a memory of events, held in long term memory.
15. The use of alcohol, drugs or tobacco to counter the effects of stress is an example of:
a) action coping
b) cognitive coping.
c) symptom directed coping.
d) bio-feedback technique.
16. A cockpit warning of an emergency should:

a) startle to gain attention.
b) illuminate a flashing red light.
c) make a noise symptomatic of the problem
d) be attention getting without being startling.
17. In processing information an attentional mechanism is required because:

a) working memory has a limited capacity.
b) processing capacity is limited.
c) echoic and iconic memories have a very short retention time.
d) it will activate a selection from episodic or semantic memory.
18. The function of slow wave sleep is believed to be:

a) a period of rest to allow restoration of the body tissues.
b) a period to rest and refresh the mind.
c) a period when vivid dreams can take place.
d) help in the learning process especially if a new or difficult procedures have been learned during the day.
57
19. A pilot is rostered for the following duty period:

Awake 0700 UTC
Depart 1000 UTC
Leg time10 hours
Local time UTC + 7 hours
Off duty 24 hours
Next leg 10 hours
The best rest pattern for time on the ground would be:
a) keep in time with UTC during stop for sleep times and nap for 2 - 3 hours before call.
b) do not sleep until 8 - 9 hours before call.
c) stay awake for 2 to 3 hours after landing, sleep for 3 to 4 hours then stay awake until 8 hours before call.
d) after 1 hours unwind time sleep for 8 hours then ensure 3 - 4 hours sleep prior to call.
20. The iconic memory is the visual store of the short term memory. It will hold information for:
a) 5 to 8 seconds.
b) 0.5 to 1 minute.
c) 10 to 15 seconds.
d) 0.5 to 1 second.
21. Oxygen is carried in the blood:

a) in combination with haemoglobin in the white blood cells.
b) dissolved in the plasma.
c) as microscopic bubbles attached to blood platelets.
d) within the red blood cells.
22. Anthropomorphic data table measurements should be taken from:

a) a large selection of the general population static and dynamic measurements.
b) a specific population using static measurements.
c) a large selection of the general population using static measurements.
d) a specific population using dynamic and static measurements.
23. Situational insomnia is:

a) an inability to sleep in normal favourable conditions.
b) a condition which may be eased by taking many short naps.
c) an inability to sleep due to circadian disrhythmia.
d) an inability to sleep due to environmental noise.
24. Sleep apnoea:

a) occurs more often in older individuals.
b) occurs when an individual cannot prevent falling asleep even when in sleep credit.
c) most often occur during REM sleep.
d) is a cessation of breathing whilst asleep.
25. If colours are used in a cockpit display, yellow should signify:

a) it is acceptable to proceed to the next stage of a process.
b) advisory information.
c) non-critical functions.
d) an alert.
26. In standardised controls a handle used to open a valve should:

a) always rotate in an anti-clockwise direction.
b) only rotate anti-clockwise if placed on an overhead panel.
c) rotate clockwise if used from the left hand seat and anti-clockwise if used from the right hand seat.
d) always rotate clockwise.
58
27. `Body language' on the flight deck should:

a) not be used.
b) be restricted to non-aggressive facial expressions.
c) used to supplement oral communication.
d) never used to touch an individual.
28. A circular instrument with a fixed pointer and a moving scale is:
a) an analogue display.
b) Ideal for displaying range information.
c) Ideal for displaying bearing information.
d) A digital display instrument.
29. A pilot is permitted to use bi-focal contact lenses:

a) only during the cruise stage of the flight.
b) never when flying.
c) only when a pair of bi-focal spectacles are carried for emergency use.
d) only when flying in daylight hours in VNIC conditions.
30. Donating blood by an operating flight deck crew member is:

a) permitted, subject to at least 24 hours elapsing before one's next flight.
b) not permitted for aircrew who are actively flying.
c) only permitted within 12 hours of one's next flight when cleared by a qualified aviation doctor.
d ) allowable with no restrictions on subsequent flying.
59
1. Hyperventilation:
a) is unlikely below 2000 feet.
b) is likely to result in death if not corrected.
c) may be caused by having too little carbon dioxide in the blood.
d) can result from an inadequate partial pressure of oxygen.
2. Following the donation of bone marrow a pilot may not operate an aircraft for:
a) 72 hours.
b) 48 hours.
c) 24 hours.
d) 12 hours.
3. The bronchi:
a) split from the trachea to the left and right lungs.
b) are easily damaged during rapid decompression.
c) are thin sacs which allow the passage of gases from the lungs to the blood.
d) connect the middle ear to the nose/throat to allow pressure equalization during climb and descent.
4. On the retina of the eye, the rod cells are:

a) used primarily during daylight.
b) highly sensitive to colour changes particularly those at the blue end of the spectrum.
c) sensitive to much lower light levels than the cone cells.
d) concentrated in the area of the fovea.
5. Light levels at high altitude may be considered dangerous because:

a) they cause the pupil to contract thereby reducing peripheral vision.
b) they will cause excessive glare in the windscreen reflections.
c) the associated closing of the iris will tend to focus the light on to the optic nerve.
d) they contain more high energy blue and ultra violet light.
6. Long sightedness is normally caused by:

a) the eyeball being shorter than normal.
b) the retina being too concave.
c) the eyeball being longer than normal.
d) the retina being too convex.
7. The most obvious sign of an individual suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning is:
a) muscular impairment.
b) cyanosis of the lips and fingernails.
c) sensory loss, particularly tunneling of vision.
d) cherry red lips and flushed cheeks.
8. Decompression sickness is caused by:

a) lack of oxygen at high cabin altitudes.
b) the presence of carbon monoxide from leaking exhausts.
c) nitrogen bubbles coming out of solution in the blood to form bubbles in the body tissues.
d) overbreathing, thereby exceeding the breathing rate needed to maintain the correct amount of carbon-
dioxide in the blood.
9. When on a collision course with an aircraft on a reciprocal track, the apparent size of the approaching
aircraft:
a) does not change.
b) increases only slowly and moves only slowly across the windscreen.
c) is easier to detect if the pilot continually moves his/her head.
d) increases very rapidly just prior to impact.
60
10. The body's internal biological clocks take longer to adjust to local time when flying:
a) East.
b) West.
c) North.
d) South.
11. A blocked Eustachian tube:

a) can cause severe pain in the descent.
b) is not a problem when flying in a modern pressurized aircraft.
c) normally only causes severe pain during the climb.
d) can cause problems with balancing the pressures the inner ear and the outside air.
12. A function of the vestibular apparatus is to:

a) enhance hearing ability, especially at high frequencies.
b) control motion sickness.
c) maintain spatial awareness.
d) maintain visual orientation.
13. The permanent denial of a flying licence will be the result of a pilot suffering from:
a) anxiety and phobic states.
b) schizophrenia and manic depression.
c) obsessional disorders.
d) depression.
14. A trained pilot, observing an aircraft accident, will, in comparison to a lay observer:
a) have a much better recollection of the events.
b) be a reliable expert witness at any accident inquiry.
c) have stronger expectations about likely set of events.
d) automatically discount any any previous accident experience.
15. During visual glide slope maintenance the pilot selects an aiming point on the runway. He will know he is
maintaining the correct path if:
a) the texture flow is parallel to the point and the visual angle between the point and the horizon remains
constant.
b) there is no texture flow in the vicinity of the point and the visual angle remains constant.
c) the texture flow is away from the point and the visual angle remains constant.
d) the texture flow is towards the aiming point and the visual angle remains constant.
16. The amount of stress experienced with a particular task is dependent on:
a) the actual demands of the task and the pilot's perception of his ability.
b) the perceived demands of the task and the pilot's actual ability.
c) the actual demands of the task and the pilot's actual ability.
d) the perceived demands of the task and the pilot's perception of his ability.
17. The alerting system for an important system failure should be fulfilled by:
a) an audio warning.
b) a flashing red light.
c) a large dolls-eye indicator.
d) a steady bright red light.
18. The cycle of REM sleep and stages 1 to 4 sleep occurs:

a) about every hour.
b) about every 90 minutes with REM sleep and slow wave sleep equally balanced in each cycle.
c) about every 90 minutes with the majority of REM sleep taking place in the early cycles.
d) about every 90 minutes with the majority of slow wave sleep taking place in the first two cycles.
61
19. One of the problems encountered when using a routine checklist is:
a) the use of coloured pages to highlight emergency information is rendered useless in low light conditions.
b) the use of mixed upper and lower case characters makes the checklist difficult to read in turbulent
conditions.
c) too much information in the lists removes the need for pilots to know their immediate actions.
d) individual responses may become automatic rather than diligent.
20. Situational awareness may well be inhibited by the introduction of:

a) computer generated checklists.
b) ìntelligent' flight decks.
c) pre-recorded voice warnings.
d) moving tape displays.
21. The elapsed time to be allowed before flying, when one has been diving using compressed air to a depth of
20 feet, is:
a) no restriction.
b) 12 hours.
c) 24 hours.
d) 36 hours.
22. During visual search the duration of an eye movement/rest cycle (saccade) is:
a) 1 second.
b) 0.2 seconds.
c) 0.33 seconds.
d) 0.75 seconds.
23. The normal reaction time for a simple response to a single stimulus is about:
a) 1 second.
b) 0.5 second.
c) 0.2 seconds.
d) 0.75 seconds.
24. With no visual references outside the cockpit the human eye will normally adjust to a focal length of:
a) infinity.
b) less than 2 metres.
c) about 5 metres.
d) a few centimetres.
25. The greatest source of incapacitation in flight is:

a) acute gastro-enteritis.
b) angina.
c) malaria.
d) heart attack.
26. Presbycusis is:

a) the deterioration of hearing as the result of the normal aging process.
b) loss of hearing due to excessive noise levels.
c) deterioration of vision due to the normal aging process.
d) deterioration in vision due to the formation of cataracts in the cornea.
27. Low blood pressure (hypotension) can have the following harmful effect:
a) it can increase the chances of developing a stroke.
b) It can be a major factor in the development of a heart attack.
c) It can reduce the ability of an individual to withstand high positive G forces.
d) It encourages the formation of cholesterol within the blood.
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28. At sea level the percentage of oxygen within the alveoli of the lungs is about:
a) 78%.
b) 40%.
c) 21%.
d) 14%.
29. In communications one `bit' is the quantity of information which.

a) can be contained in one sentence.
b) can be transmitted by verbal communication only
c) reduces the uncertainty of the receiver by 50%.
d) can be transferred by non-verbal communication only.
30. The term `Synergy' is the state:

a) where the individual performance exceeds the performance of the group.
b) where the group performance exceeds the sum of the individual performances.
c) where the group performance is dependent on the leadership style of individuals within the group.
d) of increase in reasoning power when extra oxygen is supplied at a time of emergency.
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17 (1- 47) HUMAN PERFORMANCE SPECIMEN QUESTIONS

SPECIMEN QUESTIONS
1. Which instrument, which was introduced in the 1980's, led to the greatest reduction of accidents ?
a. SSR
b. DME
c. GPWS
d. TCAS
2. Accidents are caused by lack of

a. good judgment
b. safe maintenance of aircraft
c. interpersonal relations
d. physical and mental skills
3. Who is responsible for Air Safety

a. Aircrew and Ground Crew
b. Aircrew, Groundcrew and Management
c. Everyone involved
d. Aircrew only
4. Human factors have been statistically proved to contribute approximately

a. 50% of aircraft accidents
b. 70% of aircraft accidents
c. 90% of aircraft accidents
d. Have not played a significant role in aircraft accidents
5. Having given blood a pilot should see a doctor because of the increased susceptibility to
a. Hypoxia
b. Low blood pressure
c. Hyperventilation
d. DCS
6. The body get its energy from

1. Minerals
2. Carbohydrates
3. Protein
4. Vitamins
a. 1 & 4 only
b. 2 & 3 only
c. 1,2 & 4
d. 3 & 4 only
7. Haemoglobin is
a. Dissolved in the blood
b. In red blood cells
c. In white cells of the blood
d. In the platelets
8. A pilot should consult an Aviation Medicine specialist before donating blood because:
a. Donation may lead to a rise in blood pressure (Hypertension)
b. Donation may lead to a lowering of blood pressure (Hypotension)
c. Donation may lead to a reduced tolerance of altitude
d. Donation may lead to a lowering of the body temperature causing unpredictable sleepiness
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9. With a pulse rate of 72 beats a minute and a stroke volume of 70 ml, what is the cardiac output ?
a. 8 litres a minute
b. 6 litres a minute
c. 5 litres a minute
d. 7 litres a minute
10. Having donated blood aircrew should

a. rest supine for at least 1 hour, drink plenty of fluids and not fly for 48 hours
b. rest supine for about 15 - 20 minutes, drink plenty of fluids and not fly for 24 hours
c. Aircrew are prohibited from donating blood
d. Aircrew are not encouraged to give blood
11. Blood from the pulmonary artery is ?

a. Rich in Oxygen and low in carbon dioxide
b. Rich in Oxygen and rich in carbon dioxide
c. Low in Oxygen and low in carbon dioxide
d. Low in Oxygen and rich in carbon dioxide
12. Smoking reduces the blood's ability to carry oxygen because

a. The inspiratory tract becomes obstructed
b. CO2 takes a larger lung volume
c. Haemoglobin has a greater affinity for CO
d. CO gets trapped in the alveoli and restricts internal respiration
13. A person is suffering from anaemia when

a. Lacking haemoglobin
b Lacking platelets
c. Lacking blood plasma
d. Lacking white blood cells
14. The average heart beat is

a. 30 - 50 beats a minute
b. 70 - 80 beats a minute
c 90 - 95 beats a minute
d. 100 - 1 10 beats a minute
15. When blood pressure is measured during an aviation medical examination, the pressure is
a. The venous pressure
b. The pressure of 02 in the blood
c. The pressure in all of the blood vessels, being representative of the pressure over the whole body
d. Arterial pressure in the upper arm, being equivalent to that of the heart
16. If someone is hyperventilating, the blood contains too much

a. acid
b. alkaline
c. CO1
d. haemoglobin
17. What is the carcinogenic substance in cigarettes that can modify cells and cause cancer
a. Tar
b. Nicotine
c. Carbon monoxide
d. Lead
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18. As a result of hyperventilation the blood becomes

a. More acid
b. More alkaline
c. More saturated with CO2
d. Less saturated with oxygen
19. The blood of the pulmonary artery is

a. rich in oxygen and lacking in CO2
b. rich in oxygen and rich in CO2
c. lacking in oxygen and rich in CO2
d. lacking in oxygen and lacking in CO2
20. The oxygen-carrying capacity of a smoker who smokes 20 to 30 cigarettes a day is reduced by
approximately
a. 8 - 10%
b. 12 - 18%
c. 20 - 25%
d. 0.2 - 2%
21. The effects of carbon monoxide

a. increases with altitude
b. decreases with altitude
c. increases with increase of density
d. decreases with pressure loss
22. What happens to the Systolic blood pressure if peripheral resistance is increased ?
a. Systolic blood pressure rises
b. Systolic blood pressure decreases
c. Systolic blood pressure is unaffected
d. Systolic blood pressure initially decreases and then increases
23. The walls of the capillaries of the lungs are permeable to

a. vitamins
b. proteins
c. gases
d. red blood cells
24. An increase in the pulse rate can be caused by

1. stress and fear
2. vitamin D
3. physical exercise
4. shortage of oxygen in the early stages of hypoxia
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
25. What is the main factor concerning smoking that reduces the red bloods cells' capability to carry oxygen ?
a. nicotine
b. tar
c. carbon Monoxide
d. carbon Dioxide
26. The rate of breathing is controlled by

a. the amount of CO2 in the blood
b. partial pressure
c. differential of concentration levels
d. the heart rate
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27. The pressoreceptors have signalled low blood pressure. The body's response is to :
1. increase rate of breathing
2. increase cardiac output
3. increase heart rate
4. relaxation of the blood vessels
5. decrease heart rate
6. tightening of the blood vessels
a. 1 , 2 , 3 and 4
b. 2 , 3 and 6
c. 4 and 5 only
d. 1 , 3 and 4
28. Circulation of the blood is for :

1. Transportation of oxygen to the cells of the body
2. Withdrawal of the waste products from the cells
3. Convey nutrients to the cells
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1 , 2 and 3
29. Which is the following actions is the most efficient to accelerate the release of Carbon Monoxide from the
blood ?
a. Inhalation of pressurized oxygen
b. Inhalation of a mixture of unpressurized oxygen and air
c. Inhalation of pressurized carbon dioxide
d. Inhalation of a mixture of unpressurised carbon dioxide and air
30. Which of the following s correct concerning O2 and blood is correct ?

a. The resistance and the efficiency of the cells
b. Cardiac input and the resistance of the capillaries
c. Cell output and the thinness of the blood
d. Cardiac output and the resistance of the capillaries
31. Which of the following is correct concerning O2 and blood is correct ?

a. Arterial blood is darker than venous blood
b. Blood plasma is oxygenated at the heart
c. Diffusion of oxygen from the alveoli to the dependent on the partial pressure
d. Diffusion from the blood to the cells is dependent on the partial pressure of oxygen (diffusion at the
tissue and alveolar levels is related to partial pressure)
32. DCS is caused by

a. Oxygen coming out of solution
b. Carbon dioxide coming out of solution
c. Nitrogen coming out of solution
d. Carbon Monoxide coming out of solution
33. What law governs the oxygen transfer at the alveoli ?

a. Boyle's
b. Charles's
c. Henry's
d. Gas Diffusion Law - Fick's Law
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34. Which of the following symptoms marks the beginning of hyperventilation ?

a. Slow heart beat
b. Cyanosis
c. Dizzy feeling
d. Slow rate of breath
35. Which of the following is true with respect to the cause of DCS
a. Altitudes above 18,000 ft in an unpressurised aircraft
b. Altitudes above 5,000 ft
c. Climbing at more than 500 ft/min to altitude greater than 18,000 ft.
d. Temperatures greater than 24-C at altitudes of over 2,000 ft.
36. Dalton's Law is associated with

a. DCS
b. Bends
c. Creeps
d. Hypoxia
37. Carbon Monoxide

a. Can have a severe affect on a pilot's abilities when receiving exposure for a relatively short period of
time
b. Does not have an effect when the body becomes used to the gas over a long period of time
c. Has no affect on the human body
d. Is not toxic
38. What is the normal tidal volume ?

a. 750 ml
b. 500 ml
c. 150 m1
d. 250 m1
39. The contents of exhaled air contains

a. less water vapour than the inhaled air
b. more nitrogen than the inhaled air
c. more oxygen than the inhaled air
d. more C02 than the inhaled air
40. Boyle's Law has a role to play in

a. Hypoxia with increased altitude
b. DCS
c. Gastro-Intestinal Tract Barotrauma
d. Night vision
41. A pilot suffering from hyperventilation during final approach in poor weather can combat the effects by
a. Go on 100% oxygen and go around
b. Land regardless of the weather
c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing
d. Declare a Mayday
42. What chemical substance in tobacco causes addiction ?

a. Tar and nicotine
b. Tar and carbon monoxide
c. Nicotine and carbon monoxide
d. Nicotine
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43. The composition of the atmosphere at 21,000 ft is approximately

a. 78% He, 21% O2 and 1 % CO
b. 78% He, 21 % O, and 0.003% CO, + traces
c. 78% N, 21 % O2 and 1 % CO2 + traces
d. 78% N, 21 % O2 and 1 % CO + traces
44. Which of the following factors decrease resistance to DCS ?

1. Body height
2. Scuba diving
3. Obesity
4. Age
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 3 and 4
c. l, 2 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4
45. Among the symptoms of hypoxia are

1. Impaired judgment
2. Fast and heavy breathing
3. Impairment of vision
4. Muscular impairment
a. 1&3
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
46. A few hours after landing a pilot feels pain in his/her joints. The correct action is
a. Take exercise which will cause the pain to disappear
b. Take physiotherapy
c. See an Aviation Medical Specialist as soon as possible
d. Ignore it since is probably due to common after-effect of height
47. TUC following loss of pressurization at 35,000 ft is

a. 3 - 4 minutes
b. 5 minutes upwards
c. 30 - 60 seconds
d. 10 - 15 seconds
48. Which of the following statements, if any, are correct

1. Euphoria is a possible result of hypoxia
2. Euphoria can lead to degraded decisions in flight
a. 1 & 2
b. 1 only
c. 2 only
d. Neither
49. Which of the following are defined in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere ?
1. Pressure
2. Temperature
3. Density
4. Humidity
a. 1, 2 & 4
b. 1 & 2
c. 2 , 3 & 4
d. 1 , 2 & 3
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50. 100% oxygen without pressure can be used up to:

a. 50,000 ft
b. 40,000 ft
c. 60,000 ft
d. 70,000 ft
51. Which of the following statements are correct ? DCS can be avoided by:
1. Staying below 18000 ft
2. Maintaining cabin pressure below 8000 ft
3. Breathing 100% oxygen 30 minutes prior to and during flight
4. Exercising before and during flight
a. All correct
b. 1, 2 & 3 correct
c. All wrong
d. 2, 3 & 4 correct
52. At what altitude is pressure half that at MSL

a. 8000 ft
b. 10000 ft
c. 18000 ft
d. 36000 ft
53. On expiration there is

a. Higher C02 content than on intake
b. More oxygen content than on intake
c. Less water vapour content than on intake
d. The same C02 content as on intake
54. The Critical Zone of hypoxia begins at

a. 18,000 ft
b. 20,000 ft
c. 23,000 ft
d. 3,600 ft
55. TUC is dependent upon

1. Rate of decompression
2. Altitude of the occurrence
3. Type of aircraft
4. Activity of the pilot
5. Personal health
a. 1 , 2 & 3
b. All of the above
c. All except 3
d. 2 , 3 & 5
56. Under normal conditions which gas diffuses from the blood to the alveoli ?
a. Oxygen
b. Carbon Dioxide
c. Carbon Monoxide
d. Nitrogen
57. Under normal conditions, external respiration is a subconscious process that occurs at a rate of
a. 20 to 30 breaths/min, averaging 25 breaths/minute
b. 30 to 40 breaths/min, averaging 35 breaths/minute
c. 15 to 25 breaths/min, averaging 20 breaths/minute
d. 12 to 20 breaths/min, averaging 16 breaths/minute
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58. A person who smokes is

1. More likely to develop coronary heart disease
2. Has an increased physiological altitude
3. More likely to develop lung cancer
a. 3 only
b. 1 & 2 only
c. 1 & 3 only
d. 1 , 2 & 3
59. At what height does the Critical Zone of hypoxia start ?

a. 38,000 ft
b. 23,000 ft
c. 18,000 ft
d. 20,000 ft
60. In an ascent, where is the greatest pressure differential ?

a. 0 - 5,000 ft
b. 5,000 - 10,000 ft
c. 10,000 - 15,000 ft
d. 40,000 - 45,000 ft
61. Short-term memory impairment occurs at what height ?

a. 8,000 ft
b. 12,000 ft
c. 15,000 ft
d. 18,000 ft
62. Concerning hypoxia, why is it more hazardous if flying solo ?

a. The effects are increased
b. It is difficult to recognize the first symptoms of hypoxia for a pilot in initial training
c. It is more difficult to manage the oxygen systems on your own
d. There is no one to take control once the symptoms of hypoxia appear
63. DCS symptoms can occur :

a. When flying from an area if high pressure to an area of low pressure in an unpressurised aircraft
b. When cabin pressure surges below 18,000 ft.
c. Following loss of cabin pressure at altitudes higher than 18,000 ft
d. Emergency descent following decompression below 10,000 ft
64. You have been scuba diving below I Om. When can you next fly
a. after 12 hours
b. after 24 hours
c. after 48 hours
d. Whenever you wish
65. As the body ascends, the partial pressure of oxygen within the lungs
a. decreases at a rate of 3 times the atmospheric rate
b. decreases at the same rate as that of the atmosphere
c. stays the same
d. increases
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66. The following are features of hypoxia

1. Blue discolouration of the lips and fingernails.
2. Shortness of breath and light-headedness.
3. Flatulence.
4. Impaired night vision.
a. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
c. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
d. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
67. TUC at 25,000 with moderate activity and rapid decompression is approximately
a. 2 minutes
b. 30 seconds to 5 minutes
c. 2.5 minutes to 6 minutes
d. 5 to 10 minutes
68. Hyperventilation can cause

a. too much oxygen to the brain
b. spasms in the muscles and possible unconsciousness
c. bluish tinge under the nails of the fingers and the lobes of the ears
d. a feeling of euphoria
69. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the lungs is

a. lower than the partial pressure of C02 in the atmosphere
b. higher than the pressure of C02 in the blood
c. lower than the pressure of C02 in the blood
d. almost equal to the pressure of C02 in the atmosphere
70. Which Law is relevant to DCS

a. Boyle's Law
b. Henry's Law
c. The Combined Gas Law
d. Dalton's Law
71. How much air is inhaled and exhaled in one breath ?

a. 70 mls
b. 150 mls
c. 350 mls
d. 500 mls
72. If you are suffering from hyperventilation, what should you do

a. close your eyes and relax
b. breathe 100% oxygen
c. talk through the procedure out loud and simultaneously control rate and depth of breathing
d. make an immediate landing
73. Hyperventilation can, after a long period of time, lead to unconsciousness due to
a. high level of carbon dioxide due to hypoxia
b. low partial pressure of oxygen to the brain
c. the body compensates for low partial pressure of oxygen
d. prolonged anxiety/stress
74. A pilot who is hyperventilating for a prolonged period of time may become unconscious. Hyperventilation
is likely to occur when
a. The pilot is stressed or anxious
b. There is an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood due to hypoxia
c. Flying a tight turn
d. There is an increased blood flow to the brain.
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75. Hyperventilation is likely to occur as a result of

a. The body attempting to compensate for a drop in partial oxygen pressure
b. An accelerated heart frequency caused by an increase in blood pressure
c. Over-breathing, leading to too much carbon dioxide in the blood
d. A reduction of partial oxygen pressure to the brain
76. What can cause hypoxia

a. Anaemia
b. high intake of nitrogen
c. high solar radiation
d. because of the lower percentage of oxygen at height
77. What is the percentage of oxygen at 18,000 ft ?

a. 5 %
b. 10%
C. 7%
d. 21%
78. One of the results of DCS is the "Chokes". The chokes causes problems in the
a. joints
b. lungs
c. brain
d. heart
79. If suffering from Hypoxia you should

1. descent to below 10,000ft.
2. climb above 10,000ft.
3. go onto 100% oxygen
4. reduce activity
a. 1 only
b. 1 , 3 & 4
c. 4 only
d. 2 ,3 & 4
80. Which of the following is a correct statement with regards to carbon monoxide'!
a. Breathing pure oxygen reduces the effects of carbon monoxide
b. Haemoglobin has an affinity to carbon monoxide over oxygen of 5 times
c. Carbon monoxide poisoning can result from nicotine
d. Carbon monoxide increases the altitude at which hypoxia is experienced prevalent
81. Flight for pilots following scuba diving, using compressed air, to a depth of 10m is...............
a. forbidden
b. not advisable due to risk of hypoxia
c. is acceptable if you stay below 38,000 ft
d. acceptable as long as you take exercise before flying
82. Which of the following can cause hypoxia ?

1. Ascent to altitudes over 10,000 feet
2. Failure of the oxygen system
3. Rapid decompression above 10,000 feet
a. All 3
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only
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83. Bubbles in the lungs cause

a. Leans
b. Bends
c. Pain in the joints
d. Chokes
84. Which of the following equals the sum total of the volume of the lungs ?
a. Tidal volume
b. Inspiratory reserve volume
c. Expiratory reserve volume
d. Reserve volume
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
85. Hypoxic Hypoxia

a. can occur at any altitude.
b. only occurs at altitudes over approximately 10,000 ft. in the case of a healthy individual
c. is caused by the inability of the blood to carry sufficient oxygen
d. is not affected by smoking
86. One of the outcomes of rapid decompression is

a. Regression
b. A collapse of the of the middle ear
c. Cyanosis
d. Fogging/Misting
87. Hypoxia
a. has no effect on cardiac output
b. causes cardiac output to decrease
c. causes cardiac output to increase
d. causes a small decrease in cardiac output initially and at approximately 15,000 feet cardiac output
remains steady
88. Hypoxia is caused by

1. a decrease in the saturation of oxygen in the blood due to intake of carbon monoxide
2. an inability of the body to metabolize oxygen
3. the effects of Gz due to inertia and pooling of the blood
4. low partial pressure of oxygen at high altitudes without supplemental oxygen
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 4 only
c. 1, 2 3 and 4
d. 1 & 4 only
89. Which gas diffuses from the blood to the lungs during external respiration ?
a. Nitrogen
b. Air
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Nitrogen
90. Generally a healthy person can compensate for the lack of oxygen with altitude up to
a. 15,000 ft
b. 20,000 ft
c. 10,000 - 12,000 ft
d. 10,000 ft
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91. When flying at 8,000 ft a male passenger is observed to be hyperventilating.

a. He should be treated for hypoxia because without treatment he may die
b. He should be treated for hypoxia since this is the safest course of action
c. Hyperventilation may be assumed and the patient should be so treated
d. He should be treated for hypoxia since both hyperventilation and hypoxia demand similar treatment
92. TUC for progressive decompression at 30,000 ft is

a. 1 - 2 minutes
b. 3 - 5 minutes
c. 5 - 10 minutes
d. 15 - 20 minutes
93. Which does not match ?

a. The Bends
b. The Creeps
c. The Chokes
d. The Leans
94. The ossicles (the malleus, incus and stapes) are situated in
a. The inner ear
b. Middle ear
c. Outer ear
d. Semi-circular canals
95. Vertigo causes the illusion when flying of
a. Flying straight while in a spin
b. Climbing while turning
c. A tumbling or turning sensation associated sometimes with dizziness
d. Descending with a decrease of speed
96. While turning the aircraft the pilots moves his/her head. What effect might the pilot be exposed to
a. Coriolis Effect
b. Somatogravic Effect
c. Flicker Effect
d. Oculogravic Effect
97. On initiating recovery from a spin, the pilot may have a strong sensation of turning
a. In a direction opposite to that of the spin
b. In a direction the same as the spin
c. Slowly upwards
d. Quickly upwards
98. If a pilot picks up a pen from the floor of the cockpit while in a turn, he/she may suffer from
a. Coriolis Effect
b. Hypoxic hypoxia
c. Barotrauma
d. Pressure Vertigo
99. Presbycusis causes loss of

a. High tones
b. Low tones
c. Both equally
d. Can be prevented by ear plugs
100. What would be the effect if in a tight turn one bends down to pick up a pencil?
a. Coriolis effect
b. Barotrauma
c. Vertigo
d. Inversion Illusion
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101. To prevent Vertigo in flight one should:

a. Use the Valsalva manoeuvre
b. Look to one side while turning
c. Avoid moving ones head whilst turning
d. Breathe deeply, but control frequency of breathing
102. Presbycusis is loss of hearing due to age and which effects

a. high tones first
b. low tones first
c. medium tones first
d. the whole spectrum of tones at the same time
103. What detects hearing ?

a. Cochlea
b. Semi-circular canals
c. Saccules
d. Pinna
104. Excessive wax in the ear is classed as

a. NIHL
b. Conductive Deafness
c. Presbycusis
d. Physical Deafness
105. Disorientation is most likely to occur when

1. flying IMC
2. the pilot is distracted (using FMS for example)
3. flying from IMC to VMC
4. the pilot is unwell or fatigued
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2and 4
d. 2,3 & 4
106. Perceptual conflict between the Vestibular Apparatus and the visual sensory inputs
1. can occur when flying IMC and may be compelling
2. can cause attitude misinformation
3 may occur when taking off bank following a sustained turn
4. can occur when decelerating
a. 1 , 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
107. What actions should a pilot take if suffering from vertigo ?

1. check and cross-check the aircraft instruments
2. accept and ignore illusions
3. keep head movements to a minimum
4. believe the aircraft instruments
a. 1 , 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
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108. What is a stereotype and involuntary reaction to a stimulation ?

a. data control
b. a reflex
c. stimulation control
d. automatic stimulation
109. What is an stereotyped and involuntary reaction to a stimulus ?

a. Data control
b. A reflex
c. Stimulation Control
d. Automatic Stimulation
110. Which of the following will result from a conflict between visual input and the Vestibular Apparatus ?
1. a sense of turning when you are not
2. a sense of a light moving outside the aircraft
3. a sense of flying too fast towards the bright lights of a runway
4. a sense of tumbling in a turn
a. 1 and 4 only
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1 only
d. 3 and 4 only
111. How many semi-circular canals are contained in the ear ?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
112. Vertigo can be associated with

a. The Coriolis Effect
b. Autokenesis
c. sweating
d. shivering
113. Hearing through bone conduction

a. by-passes the inner ear
b. by-passes the outer ear
c. by-passes outer and the middle ear
d. is no different from the normal hearing process
114. With regards to the harmful effects of intensive noise on human performance
a. High frequency cause more harm than low frequency
b. Low frequency cause more harm than high frequency
c. Medium cause more harm than high frequency
d. Frequency is not important
115. Ordinarily, levels of noise

a. Increase the number of human errors but do not reduce the speed at which work is done
b. Increase the number of human errors and reduce the speed at which work is done
c. Decrease the number of human errors but do not reduce the speed at which work is done
d. Decrease the number of human errors and reduce the speed at which work is done
116. The amount of light entering the eye is controlled by

a. The Central Nervous System
b. The Peripheral Nervous System
c. The Autonomic (Vegetative) Nervous System
d. The Secondary Nervous System
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117. When turning in MIC, head movements should be kept to a minimum to prevent :
a. autokinesis
b. the occulogyiral illusion
c. vertigo
d. Coriolis effect
118. Spatial disorientation is when :

a. The pilot’s seat harness is too tight not allowing the pilot to sense the aircraft’s attitude changes
b. There is a mis-match between the information received from the vestibular apparatus and the instruments
c. The pilot is ignoring illusions
d. Information from the vestibular apparatus is ignored
119. Disorientation is more likely when the pilot is :

1. flying in IMC
2. frequently changing between inside and outside references
3. flying from IMC into VMC
4. approaching over still water at night
a. 1 , 2 & 3 only are correct
b. 1 , 2 & 4 only are correct
c. 1 , 2 , 3 & 4 are correct
d. 1 only is correct
120. A sensation of tumbling and dizziness when a pilot makes movement of his/her head during a tight turn are
symptons of :
a. The Occulogyral Effect
b. Flicker-vertigo
c. Pilot’s Vertigo
d. Nystagmus
121. When a pilot looks at a near object , the :

a. Lens flattens
b. Pupil becomes smaller
c. Cornea becomes more curved
d. Cornea changes shape
122. Which light sensitive cells of the eye are used for night vision ?
a. Cones
b. Rods
c. Cones and Rods
123. Sunglasses
a. Supply protection for UV and IR
b. Should possess reasonable luminance
c. Absorb colour
d. Straighten the light beams
124. With reference to the following , which are true regarding flash blindness in a thunderstorm with lightning ?
1. Turn up the cockpit lights
2. Look inside the cockpit
3. Wear sunglasses
4. Wear face blinds or use face curtains if installed
a. 1 + 2
b. 1+2+3
c. All
d. 3+ 4
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125. Vitamin A and possibly vitamins B & C are chemical factors and essential to good night vision
1. Vitamin deficiency may decrease night vision performance
2. An excess intake of vitamins A will improve night vision performance significantly
3. Pilots should be careful to take a balanced diet containing sufficient vitamin A
4. Vitamin deficiency may decrease visual acuity in photopic vision but not in scotopic vision
a. All are correct
b. 1 & 3 are false. 2 & 4 are correct
c. 1, 2 & 3 are correct. 4 is false
d. 1 & 3 are correct. 2 & 4 are false
126. Sunglasses with variable transmission light sensitive Photochromic lenses

a. can be disadvantageous when used in the cockpit due to their dependence on UV light which is screened
by the cockpit glass
b. are advantageous for pilots
c. are generally forbidden for use in flight
d. are ideal as long as they are polarized
127. In the indifferent zone altitude band, night vision is affected

a. up to 3,000m
b. 3,000m - 5,000m
c. 5,000m - 7,000m
d. up to 5,000m
128. The eye can adjust to:

a. High levels of illumination in 10 minutes and darkness in 30 minutes
b. High levels of illumination in 10 seconds and darkness in 30 minutes
c. High levels of illumination in 30 minutes and darkness in 10 minutes
d. High levels of illumination in 30 minutes and darkness in 10 seconds
129. When the visual image is focused in front of the retina the condition is:
a. Myopia
b. Hypermetropia
c. Presbycusis
d. Astigmatism
130. A person suffering from Glaucoma will have

a. cloudiness of the lens
b. cloudiness of the cornea
c. increased pressure of the eye
d. colour blindness
131. The function of the retina is to
a. convert light images into meaningful information
b. transport electrical impulses to the brain
c. convert light signals into electrical impulses
d. convert light signals into chemical impulses
132. Night flying at 10,000 you find that your acuity decreases. What can you do about it to improve your acuity ?
a. Use your peripheral vision
b. Go onto oxygen
c. Turn up the instrument lights
d. Switch on or turn up the cabin heat
133. Glaucoma is caused by

a. excess pressure within the eye
b. a clouding of the lens
c. damage to the cornea
d. damage to the retina
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134. Good quality sunglasses provide

a. the ability to react to varying light levels automatically.
b. good luminance characteristics, avoidance of glare and harsh shadows, protection against UV and IR and
equal absorption of colours.
c. for the pilot's individual needs.
d. no distortion of aircraft windscreens.
135. The part of the retina which has the highest visual acuity is
a. the optic nerve entry point
b. the retinal optic focus point
c. the fovea
d. the outer sections of the retina
136. How many muscles control the eye ?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
137. The Rods and Cones of the eye converts light energy to
a. Electrical nerve signals
b. Chemical nerve signals
c. Chemical and motor nerve signals
d. Chemical and sensory nerve signals
138. Which of the following does not affect the photo-sensitive cells of the eye ?
1. Rapid acceleration
2. High speed flight
3. Toxic influence (smoking„ alcohol, carbon monoxide etc)
4. Lack of oxygen
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1 & 2 only
c. 2 only
d. 1, 3 & 4 only
139. What is essential for seeing colour ?

1. Correct light levels
2. Time to adjust
3. Looking 15° to one side of the object
4. No white lights
a. 1 only
b. 1 & 2 only
c. 1, 2 and 4 only
d. 3 only
140. Depth perception when objects are close (less than 1 metre) is achieved by
a. Visual memory
b. Binocular vision
c. The blind spot on the retina
d. Comparison of object sizes
141. As light decreases, the colour sensitivity of the eye

a. increases
b. decreases
c. is not affected
d. magnified
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142. The retina

a. receives electromagnetic energy and, through photochemical reactions, coverts it into photochemical
signals
b. receives light and, through electrical reactions, coverts it into electrical signals
c. receives light and, through electromagnetic reactions, coverts it into photochemical signals
d. receives light signals and, through photochemical reactions coverts them into chemical signals in the
form of pulses
143. Accommodation is triggered by the

a. The Secondary Nervous System
b. The Peripheral Nervous System
c. The Central Nervous System
d. The Autonomic (Vegetative) Nervous System
144. Scotopic vision is vision via the

a. cones
b. rods
c. cones and the rods
d. cornea and the lens
145. What part or parts of the eye is/are responsible for night vision ?
a. The cones
b. The rods
e. The rods and cones
d. The cornea
146. When being affected by the Flicker Effect, the pilot should
a. Turn off the strobe lights
b. Dim the cockpit lights
c. Switch the autopilot on.
d. Fly straight and level and avoiding the turning of the head
147. What is the worse type of incapacitation on finals

a. Sudden
b. Severe
c. Intensive
d. Gradual
148. The most dangerous type of incapacitation is

a. Acute
b. Rapid
c. Insidious
149. The metabolism of alcohol is

a. Influenced by time
b. Accelerated by drinking coffee
c. Quicker when the body gets used to alcohol
d. Improved by the use of easy-to-get medication.
150. Should a pilot fly with a bad cold he/she could suffer from
a. Chokes
b. Bends
c. Sinus pain
d. Blurred vision
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151. If a pilot in an unpressurised aircraft suffers from severe flatulence in flight. He/she should
a. Climb
b. Descend
c. Pressure breathe oxygen
d. Descend rapidly and seek medical advice
152. If a pilot experiences negative acceleration (-Gz) what is the effect on the pilot's inertia ?
a. In transverse to the right
b. In transverse to the left
c. Downwards and vertical
d. Upwards and vertical
153. Even with a small ingestion of alcohol

a. the brain will be stimulated thereby increasing the resistance to hypoxia
b. the brain functions will be increased and thereby increasing performance at high altitudes
c. the pilot will remain unaffected
d. the pilot will be more susceptible to hypoxia
154. Which of the following are correct ?

1. Scuba diving imposes no restriction on flying
2. Use of some medication can affect flying
3. One should drink sufficient water during flight to prevent dehydration
4. Diet does not have an effect on health
a. 2&3
b. 1,2&3
c. 2,3&4
d. 1,2,3&4
155. Greyout can result from G forces greater than:

a. +3G y
b. +3G z
c. -3G z
d. +3G x
156. What is the blood alcohol concentration associated with a highly significant increase in errors associated
with both experienced and inexperienced pilots even in a simple aircraft ?
a. 20 milligrams per 100 milliliters
b. 40 milligrams per 100 milliliters
c. 60 milligrams per 100 milliliters
d. 80 milligrams per 100 milliliters
157. JAR-OPS specifies a maximum blood alcohol limit. What is it ?

a. 20 milligrams per 100 milliliters
b. 40 milligrams per 100 milliliters
c. 60 milligrams per 100 milliliters
d. 80 milligrams per 100 milliliters
158. Pain in the cavities of the skull which accompanies a change of altitude is known as
a. Staggers
b. Bends
c. Barotrauma
d. Creeps
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159. With regard to alcohol

a. Does not effect performance
b. Even a small amount will effect performance
c. Drinking coffee with alcohol reduces the effects
d. It effects Orthodox sleep
160. A passenger complains if an inflated stomach at 8,000 ft. What action would you advised the passenger to take ?
1. Unbuckle the seat belt and rub the stomach
2. Avoid eating food with fermentation qualities and/or carbonated drinks.
3. Stand up and expel the gases from the intestines
4. Drink large amounts of water
a. 1 & 4
b. 2 & 4
c. 4 only
d. 1 , 2 & 3
161. If you switch on the anti-collision light in IMC, what are the likely effects ?
a. Depth perception increases
b. You can suffer from dizziness and disorientation
c. You can suffer from Colour Illusion
d. Binocular vision is affected
162. While carrying out a spin in an aircraft the pilot will experience
a. Angular acceleration
b. Radial acceleration
c. Negative acceleration
d. Static acceleration
163. Most ozone is found in the

a. Thermosphere
b. Ionosphere
c. Stratosphere
d. Troposphere
164. You suffer pain in an ear on a descent. Should you

a. Put one hand over the effected ear
b. Level off and, if necessary, climb to the level where it first occurred
c. Increase the rate of descent
d. Keep the head still and continue descending at a slower rate
165. The metabolism of alcohol

a. is affected by time
b. can be affected by caffeine
c. is reduced by readily available drugs
d. does not occur in the human body
166. If feeling unwell before a flight should you ?

1. Take over-the-counter medicine and consult an Aviation Specialist doctor at the return of the flight
2. Assess your own fitness and, if necessary, consult an Aviation
3. If in any doubt about your fitness, do not fly
4. Turn the cockpit temperature down and drink water before you are thirsty to avoid dehydration
a. 2 and 3 only
b. ,,1 only
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 3 and 4 only
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167. What is the first symptom of high radial acceleration ?

a. Grey out
b. Unconsciousness
c. Red out
d. Black out
168. What are the physiological systems which are involved with motion sickness
1. Auditory
2. Vestibular
3. Visual
4. Proprioceptive
5. Gastro-intestinal
a. 2 , 3 & 4
b. 1 , 3 & 5
c. 1 , 2 & 5
d. 2, 3 , 4 & 5
169. In tropical regions you should

a. Ensure you put ice into all cold drinks
b. Drink only from sealed containers
c. Eat raw vegetables whenever possible
d. Ensure you eat unpeeled fruit because of possible vitamin loss
170. Which of the following are among the symptoms of Otic Barotrauma in one or both ears?
a. Noise
b. Increase of pressure in the ear causing pain
c. Dizziness
d. The Bends
171. To avoid hypoglycemia

a. A pilot should not eat a meal
b. A pilot should not eat sugar or sweets
c. A pilot should eat regularly and ensure a balanced diet
d. A pilot should eat peanuts because they produce high energy levels
172. Alcohol is a
a. Peripheral Nervous System stimulant
b. Central Nervous System stimulant
c. Central Nervous system depressant
d. Vegetative System stimulant
173. The Flicker Effect

a. rarely causes spatial disorientation in pilots
b. is one of the main causes of spatial disorientation in pilots
c. can result in severe degradation of visual adaption
d. can result in severe degradation of sensory adaption
174. Ozone in a pressurized cabin can be eliminated by

a. Spraying detergents
b. Climbing to an altitude above 45,000 ft
c. Avoiding flights above the equator
d. Using ozone-converters
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175. The first effect on the human being subjected to gradual exposure of high positive radial acceleration is
a. loss of consciousness
b. black-out
c. red-out
d. grey-out
176. What is the order of symptoms that can be expected due to sustained positive g forces
a. unconsciousness, black-out, grey-out, and tunnel vision
b. unconsciousness, grey-out, black-out and tunnel vision
c. black-out, grey-out, tunnel vision and unconsciousness
d. grey-out, tunnel vision, black-out and unconsciousness
177. Concerning barotrauma which of the following statements is true ?

a. Baratrauma is associated with a sink rate which is greater than the ability of the body to balance its
internal pressures
b. Baratrauma is caused by pressure differentials between the ambient pressure and the gases in the cavities
of the body
c. Baratrauma is more likely to happen in the ascent than the descent
d. Baratrauma is caused by a decrease in altitude associated with an increase in the partial pressure of
oxygen
178. Anxiety affects

1. Judgement
2. Attention
3. Memory
4. Concentration
a. 1 & 2 only
b. 1 only
c. 1 , 2 & 4
d. All
179. Hypothermia causes a

a. Decrease in the demand for oxygen
b. Increase in the demand for oxygen and eventually lends to unconsciousness
c. Increase in the demand for oxygen
180. Which , if any, of the following is/are true ?

1. Psychosomatic refers to the interrelationships of mind and body
2. Psychosomatic refers to a psychological reaction to an outside stimulus causing physiological
change/changes
3. Psychosomatic problems are not common among the pilot community due to the high standard of
selection
4. Psychosomatic problems can be cured by conseling
a. 1 and 3
b. None are correct
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 2
181. With reference to Humidity :

1. 40-60% is optional
2. Cabin humidity is normally 5% - 15%
3. Dehydration will affect crew performance
4. Humidity has no effect on crew performance
a. 1 & 4 are correct
b. 1 , 2 and 3 are correct
c. 2 & 4 are correct
d. Only 3 is correct
85
182. Above and below what body temperatures will there be there be a degradation of mental and physical
capabilities ?
a. Above 38oC Below 35oC
b. Above 36oC Below 35oC
c. Above 38oC Below 27oC
d. Above 36oC Below 25oC
183. When faced with a problem a pilot should :

a. Take as much time as he/she needs within the available time to make up his/her mind
b. Make up his/her mind as quickly as possible to give as much spare time as possible
c. Make up his/her mind before consulting other crew members
d. Wait until the last minute to make up his/her mind
184. Which of the following statements are correct ? :

1. Psychosomatic stress causes physiological symptoms to have psychological effects
2. Psychosomatic stress hardly affects aviation because of good crew selection procedures
a. 1 & 2
b. Neither
c. 1 only
d. 2 only
185. Stressors are

a. External factors only
b. Internal factors only
c. Both external and internal factors
d. Neither external nor internal factors
186. Performance can be increased by

a. putting a student pilot under stress
b. a moderate amount of stress
c. no stress at all if possible
d. ignoring stress as all good pilots leave stress on the ground
187. The sequence of GAS is.

a. Alarm Resistance Exhaustion
b. Resistance Exhaustion Alarm
c. Alarm Flight Exhaustion
d. Exhaustion Resistance Alarm
188. A person suffering from extreme cold will stop shivering and thereafter become colder and colder when the
internal body falls to about
a. 20°C
b. 25°C
c. 30°C
d. 35°C
189. At height cockpit humidity can be between

a. 20-25%
b. 40-60%
c. 30-60%
d. 5-15%
190. Tuned resonance of the body parts, distressing the individual can be caused by
a. Acceleration along the horizontal flight path
b. Resonance between 150 - 250 Hz
c. Resonance between 16 - 18 Ghz
d. Resonance between 1 - 100 Hz
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191. If in a state of stress which is impossible to overcome, the pilot will be in a state of
a. Eustress
b. Hypertension
c. Distress
d. Regression
192. What will happen to the body when in situations of extreme heat ?
1. Shivering
2. Vascoconstriction of the exterior blood vessels
3. Sweating
4. Vascodilation of the exterior blood vessels
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 3 and 4 only
193. A person that is exposed to extreme or prolonged stress factors can perceive:
a. Distress
b. Eustress
c. Coping stress
d. Stressors
194. What is the relationship between stress and performance when plotted on a graph ?
a. The relationship is linear
b. The relationship is exponential
c. There is no relationship
d. The relationship is in the shape of an inverted U
195. What is the relationship between stress and fatigue ?

a. No stress and no fatigue is good
b. All stress and fatigue is good
c. Stress can be good, fatigue is always bad
d. No stress and some fatigue is good
196. The body loses water via

a. The skin, lungs and kidneys
b. The skin
c. The skin, lungs and liver
d. The skin, liver and kidneys
197. Extreme cold may be associated with

a. Aggression
b. Aggression and anxiety
c. Anxiety
d. Contentment or apathy
198. According to the "General Adaptation Syndrome" which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
1. During the alarm phase adrenalin will cause a large release of glucose into the blood, a raised heartbeat
and blood pressure plus an increase in the rate and depth of breathing
2. During the resistance phase the parasympathetic system released cortisol helping in the conversion of fat
into sugar.
3. During the exhaustion phase the body has to be given time to eliminate the waste products which have
been generated excessively
a. 1 & 2 only are correct
b. 2 & 3 only are correct
c. 1, 2 & 3 are correct
d. only 1 is correct
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199. An individual's perception of stress

a. depends on the current situation only
b. is the objective evaluation of a situation and the perceived ability to cope with it
c. is the subjective evaluation of a situation and the perceived ability to cope with it
d. depends on the individual's arousal
200. Which of the following alternatives is an example of "Negative Habit Transfer" or "Habit Reversion" ?
a. A pilot who is very experienced on one type of aircraft in which the fuel control is selected forward for
the ON position may select this control to the incorrect position when flying a new aircraft in which the ON
position is selected to the rear.
b. Predicting ATC instructions
c. Turning the aircraft in one direction when intending to turn it in the opposite direction
d. Missing out an item in a check list
201. Stress Management strategies normally involve

a. Only the prevention of stress
b. Only the removal of stress
c. the use of drugs
d. the prevention and the removal of stress
202. What is the duration of short-term memory (working memory) ?

a. 1 - 2 hours
b. 1 - 2 days
c. 1 - 2 months
d. 10 - 20 seconds
203. If the sensory threshold is increased

a. Selectivity is increased
b. Selectivity is decreased
c. Sensitivity is reduced
d. Sensitivity is increased
204. Which of the following is correct

a. Hearing is the most important sense for man
b. 'The Kinestatic channel is the most important channel in flying
c. 70% of information processed by man enters the visual channel
d. 40% of information processed by man enters the visual channel
205. The learning process can be facilitated by

a. Reinforcing successful endeavours
b. Punishing errors
c. Increasing psychological pressure on the student
d. Encouraging the student to make mistakes
206. Motor programmes

a. are stored as rules in the long term memory
b. are behavioural sub-routines
c. require conscious though to engage
d. are natural reactions
207. What error rate can be expected to be given reasonable training ?

a. 1 in 100,000
b. 1 in 10,000
c. 1 in 1,000
d. 1 in 100
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208. What human error rate is considered to be the norm ?

a. 1 in 10
b. 1 in 100
c. 1 in 1,000
d. 1 in 10,000
209. If you have an incorrect mental model, it is

1. easy to change
2. easy to comprehend
3. easy recognise
4. resistance to correction
a. 1 , 2 and 3
b. 2 & 3 only
c. 4 only
d. 1 only
210. Which of the following can you do simultaneously without mutually affecting the other ?
a. Manually maintaining straight and level flight and solving a complex problem.
b. Reading and listening attentively.
c. Talking and entering frequencies into the Working Memory.
d. Talking and solving a complex problem.
211. Age
a. generally decreases pilot's performance
b. generally increases pilot's performance
c. generally has little effect on pilots' performance since it is compensated for by experience
d. generally increases performance until approximately the age of 32 and therefore generally decreases
performance
212. Errors that occur during a highly automated action may result from
1. Capture of a poor action sub-programme
2. A mistake in the decision-making process
3. Implication of a poor rule
4. an action mode error
a. 2 , 3 and 4
b. 1 and 4
c. 3 and 4
d. 2 & 4
213. Which statement concerning LTM is true ?

1. Information is stored as Episodic and Semantic memory
2. The period of time for which information is retained is limited by the frequency with which it is used
3. It is never influenced by our expectations of what should have happened
4. Pre-activation of necessary knowledge will allow reduction in access time
a. 1 and 4 are correct
b. 2 & 4 are correct
c. 2, 3 & 4 are correct
d. 1 & 2 are correct
214. The thinking concerning human error has changed recently to

a. Human error is inherent and inescapable
b. It has been accepted that human error will always be made but can be decreased by training and
technology.
c. Error can be eliminated completely in the future
d. Human error can be avoided through vigilance and expansion of knowledge
89
215. Over learning

a. improves the chance of recall and makes the performance of a task more resistance to stress and is an
important concept of aviation training
b. is a process which is discouraged in the aviation training as it may lead to "Regression" in times of acute
stress
c. is a process in training which is usually adopted in order to pass complicated concepts to a recipient of
limited capabilities
d. is the process whereby information is layered and linked with previously learned facts and is an
important tool to improve Short-term Memory
216. Environmental capture is

1. Obtaining environmental skills
2. performing a skill in an environment commonly flown in, even if it is incorrect to do so.
3. the performance of a skill previously learnt in a different aircraft even f it incorrect to do so.
4. The way behaviour changes in different social situations.
a. 1 & 2 are correct
b. all are correct
c. 1 only
d. 2 & 3 are correct
217. With regard to automation of behaviour and the attention mechanism

a. The less behaviour is automated, the less attention is required and the more are resources available.
b. The more behaviour is automated, the more attention is required and the more are resources available
c. The more behaviour is automated, the more attention is required and the less resources available
d. The more behaviour is automated, the less attention is required and the more are resources available.
218. Mental models of the world are based on

a. past experiences and sensory information
b. past xperiences only
c. past experiences and motor programmes (skills)
d. only sensory information
219. A pilot becomes skilled when he/she

1. trains or practices regularly
2. knows how to manage him/herself
3. possesses all the knowledge associated with his/her aircraft
4. knows how to keep resources in reserve for coping with the unexpected
b. all are correct
c. 1 & 2 only are correct
220. Mental models are based upon

a. entirely on past experiences
b. past experiences and motor programmes
c. sensory information only
d. past experiences and sensory information received
221. Once a mental model is constructed, there is a tendency to give

a. undue weight to information that contradicts the model
b. equal weight to information that contradicts and confirms the mental model
c. frequent alterations to the mental model
d. undue weight to information that confirms the model
90
222. Motor programmes save resources and therefore attention however they may result in
a. errors in selecting the correct plan of action
b. errors in decision-making
c. routine errors
d. istakes
223. Mental rehearsal is useful for

a. all pilots
b. instructor pilots only
c. only for pilots with a specific level of experience
d. student pilots only
224. Which of the following statements are correct ?

1. The first information determines how subsequent information will evaluated
2. If an individual has made up his/her mind, contradictory information may not receive the attention it
needs
3. With increasing stress, attention tends to become limited and reduce the flow of information to the
Central Decision Maker
a. 1, 2 & 3 are correct

b. 2 & 3 only are correct
d. 1 & 3 only are correct
225. When problem-solving, what determines the transition from rule-based activities to knowledge-based
activities
a. Knowledge of rules that apply for the problem
b. Unsuitability of automated actions
c. Unsuitability of known rules for the problem posed
d. Lack of knowledge of the rules
226. Which of the following are included in Maslow's hierarchy of needs

1. Self-fulfilment through expression of capacities and talents
2. Self-esteem through self respect
3. Safety through avoidance of danger
4. Achievement through group efforts
5. Self-esteem through a job
a. All of the above

b. 1, 2 & 4 only
c. 1 & 5 only
d. 1,3 &5 only
227. When do we change from Rule Based Behaviour to Knowledge Based Behaviour ?
a. When we choose to do so
b. When we do not know the rules
c. When rules do not apply
d. When we become highly experienced
228. Which of the following can be said to be true ?

a. Motivation can substitute for a lack of knowledge
b. Motivation is only a psychological phenomenon
c. Motivation can lead to trying to attain an unrealistic goal which will cause stress and which will lead to a
reduction in performance
d. Motivation is only intrinsic
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229. Very high ambition and drive for success can lead to
a. conflict in the cockpit
b. improved performance
c. a "laiser faire" cockpit situation
d. improved cohesion and mutual consideration
230. With respect to Maslow's hierarchy of needs (1943) he expounded that

a. Motives lower in the hierarchy are aroused first and must be satisfied first
b. Motives higher in the hierarchy are aroused first and must be satisfied first
c. Motives in the middle of the hierarchy are aroused first and must be satisfied first
d. Any level may be aroused and there is no significance as to which must be satisfied first
231. With respect to the subcutaneous pressure receptors, they sense

a. The condition of the body
b. Spatial orientation of the body
c. Pressure on the body indicating true vertical
d. Environmental conditions
232. A pilot is accustomed to a runway with a width of 27m and lands on an unfamiliar runway with a width of
42m. The pilot will tend to
a. Fly a too high an approach and overshoot
b. Fly a too low an approach and overshoot
c. Fly a too high an approach and undershoot
d. Fly a too low an approach and undershoot
233. The Gestalt Theory relates to

a. Motivation
b. Perception and organisation
c. Personality traits
d. Faults and slips
234. When staring at an isolated light at night, the light may appear to
a. vary in size
b. move
c. vary in colour
d. vary in intensity
235. Illusions that pilots experience in conditions of fog, snow or mist are that
a. Objects appear further away than they really are
b. Objects appear closer than they really are
c. Objects appear to move slower than they really do
d. Objects appear to move faster than they really do
236. Cognitive illusions are caused by:

a. Poor interpretation of cockpit instruments
b. Lack of external reference points
c. Conflict between different senses
d. Erroneous mental model resulting from a misinterpretation of sensory inputs
237. What should you do if disorientated at night:

a. Ignore your instruments
b. Look at the horizon
c. Descend
d. Rely on your instruments
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238. Where are the Pressoreceptors located ?

a. In the heart
b. In the skin
c. In the carotid sinus
d. In the intestines
239. The illusion that the aircraft is taxiing too fast can be caused by
a. Snow and a tailwind
b. Snow and a tail wind
c. Rain and a headwind
d. A unaccustomed high distance of the cockpit from the ground
240. Errors in the judgment of height on an approach are more likely over
a. snow
b. mountains
c. jungle
d. rough seas
241. To cure Autokinesis

a. First focus on the light with the right eye and then the left
b. Shake the head and turn down the cockpit lights
c. Look at the light out of the corner of your eye
d. Look for other references inside and outside the cockpit and use peripheral vision
242. The Seat-of -the-Pants sensation emanates from receptors in the

a. Utricles and Saccules
b. Semi-circular canals
c. muscles and joints sensitive to the movement and position of the body
d. skin
243. What is the illusion when an aircraft is flying in fog, snow or haze ?
a. Objects appear to be further away than they actually are
b. Objects appear to be closer than they actually are
c. Objects appear to move faster than they actually are
d. Objects appear to be larger than they actually are
244. What is the normal illusion for a pilot undertaking an approach on an up- sloping runway ?
a. The aircraft is too high
b. The aircraft is too low
c. The aircraft is too fast
d. The aircraft is too slow
245. On an approach at night in rain onto a runway with approach lighting it is it not unusual for the approach to
appear
a. Slower than it actually is
b. Faster than it actually is
c. normal
d. curved
246. Flying by the "seat of one's pants"

a. gives a feeling of coming up and out of your seat
b. Is not reliable and does not indicate spatial orientation
c. Is reliable and indicates spatial orientation
d. Is not reliable and indicates spatial orientation
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247. Input for orientation is through

1. Eyes
2. Utricles & Saccules
3. Semi-circular canals
4. Seat-of -the-pants receptors
a. 2 & 3 only
b. 3 & 4 only
c. 1, 2 & 4 only
d. 1,2,3&4
248. 1. Paradoxic sleep refreshes the brain, memory and body.

2. Paradoxic sleep decreases during the night Which is correct
a. 1 & 2
b. 1 only
c. 2 only
d. Neither
249. Which of the following statements are correct ? Hypovigilance is increased by:
1. Lack of stimulation
2. Tiredness
3. Monotony 4. Stress
a. 1,2&3
b. 1,2&4
c. 1 & 3
d. l & 4
250. Which of the following are correct with regard to Circadian Disrhymthmia ?
1. The effects are worse when travelling from East to West
2. The effects are worse when travelling from West to East
3. Varies little between individuals
4. Varies substantially between individuals
a. 2 & 4 only
b. 2 & 3 only
c. 2 only
d. l, 3 and 4 only
251. The characteristics of Paradoxic Sleep are

1. efreshes body and muscle tone
2. REM
3. Decreases during the night
4. Brain activity similar to that of being awake
a. all are correct

b. 1,2&3
c. 2&4
d. 1 & 2
252. A pilot flies to Moscow (2 hours ahead of home time) with a 4 day stop-over. After 3 days his/her circadian
rhythm corresponds to
a. Local time
b. Home time
c. Central Europe time
d. UTC
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253. What is the maximum number of sleep "credits" for the normal person
a. 24
b. 48
c. 16
d. 72
254. What would disrupt the biological clock ?

1. A night flight from New York to Amsterdam
2. A day flight from Amsterdam to New York
3. A day flight from Amsterdam to Johannesburg
4. A poor night's sleep

b. 1 and 2 only are correct
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 & 4 only
255. What characterizes a self-centered cockpit ?

a. Autocratic Captain assures a synergistic cockpit
b. Crew member tends to do their own jobs independently without keeping other informed
c. A synergistic cockpit
d. A non-synergistic cockpit in which the Captain tends to be authoritarian
256. Attitude is
a. a synonym of behaviour
b. a genetic predisposition to be biased either positively or negatively
c. acting and thinking subjectively
d. How a person responds to another person, situation or organisation either positively or negatively
257. Personality is based on:

1. Heredity
2. Childhood
3. Upbringing
4. Experience
a. None of the above

b. 1, 2, and 4.
C. All of the above
D. 2, 3 and 4
258. During the pre-flight brief the aircraft commander should:

a. Delegate all duties to all crew members for the entire flight
b. Emphasise that he/she is in charge
c. Emphasise areas requiring good crew co-ordination
d. Ensure all points are covered for the flight to avoid repetition in the cockpit?
259. Attitude is
a. part of personality and cannot be changed in an adult
b. a person's response to a situation, person or object
c. the same as behaviour
d. stable and cannot be changed in an adult
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260. Leadership qualities should include

1. A dominant style
2. Laiser Faire
3. Technical competency
4. Good communications
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1 & 2 only
c. 2 only
d. 3 & 4 only
261. During the cruise, the Captain of an aircraft starts to smoke a cigarette. The co-pilot is a nonsmoker and
asks him to stop. The Captain ignores his request saying "That's your problem". What the co-pilot do about
the situation ?
a. He should call one of the cabin crew and ask him/her to arbitrate
b. He should argue with the Captain pointing out the potential dangers
c. He must accept his Captain's behaviour since it is the Captain who is responsible.
d. He should stop discussion and return to the issue during the debrief at the end of the flight.
262. What characteristics are most frequently and least appropriately displayed by a co-pilot when under
command of a highly autocratic Captain'?
1. Self assertion
2. Scapegoat feeling
3. Delayed reactions to observed discrepancies 4. Disengagement
b. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
c. 3 and 4 are correct
d. 1 and 2 are correct
263. Which of the following statements is correct ?

a. Personality is easily changed
b. Attitudes do not change in the long-term
c. Behaviour is the outward result of personality and attitude
d. Attitude is the outward result of behaviour and personality
264. Which of the following statements regarding interpersonal inter-actions are correct ?
1. If the sender believes that the receiver is competent, he/she tends to reduce the verbal redundancy of his
/her sentence
2. If the interlocutor is of non-native tongue, the sender will use more difficult words so as to optimise
understanding
3. If the sender believes that the receiver does not understand, he/she will simplify the contents of the
sentence
4. By making check-lists simpler, for crews that know each other, this is the root cause of interpersonal
conflict.
a. 1 & 2 are only correct

b. I & 3 are only correct
c. 2 & 4 are only correct
d. 3 & 4 are only correct
265. Metacommunications:
a. are of no importance in the cockpit
b. are shortcuts
c. are barriers to intea-conflict
d. compliment verbal communications
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266. What is not a useful element of good feedback ?

a. Tailor to the individual
b. Enable response and discussion
c. Specifically target each individual's failings
d. Should be understood by all
267. What constitutes effective communications ?

a. Speaking in a variety of mother tongues
b. Using different context which would be understood by the receiver
c. Considering cultural differences
d. Using commonly understood context, language and metacommunications
268. What is the main purpose of pre-flight briefings ?

a. To allow the Captain to assert his/her authority
b. To allow individual crew member to prepare their own responses to likely or problematic events
c. They form general information about the flight but they contain no specific reference to likely or
problematic events
d. They form information about the flight and allocate responsibilities and reactions to likely or problematic
events
269. Pilots should

a. have a good command of the English language
b. have at least a limited English vocabulary
c. be able to understand key words and phases only since these are sufficient to sufficiently impart meaning
d. be able to have a command of a local language since this is sufficient and legal in an emergency
270. To resolve conflict you should :

1. Actively listen
2. Talk on an emotional level
3. Be aware of prejudice
4. The leader should not offer his/her thoughts at the start
a. 1 , 2 , 3 and 4
b. 1 & 2 only
c. 2 , 3 and 4
d. 1 & 3 only
271. Which of the following elements of communications is most likely to lead o misunderstanding ?
a. Coding and decoding a message
b. The Receiver’s mood
c. Expectation (What you expect to hear )
d. The Sender’s nationality
272. Choose is/are the correct statement/s with regards to communications :

1. If the transmitter considers the reciptient competent , he/she cut down the verbal redundancy of
sentences
2. If the transmitter considers the recipient incompetent , sentences tend to be simplified
3. If the interlocutor is a non-native language, the transmitter will emphasise points by using more
complicated sentences to optimize understanding
4. Crew who know each other well tend to simplify check lists when conflict takes place
a. 1 and 3 are correct
b. 1 only is correct
c. 2 and 4 are correct
d. 1 and 2 are correct
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273. In communication which element shows that information has been received and understood ?
a. Encoding
b. Decoding
c. Feedback
d. Synchronization
274. With regards to anticipation, which of the following would most likely to result in the occurrence of a
hazardous situation ?
a. mishearing the contents of an air traffic controller's non-standard clearance when a standard procedure
was anticipated.
b. anticipation of a check list
c. anticipation of weather
d. anticipation of a longer flight time than expected
275. Which of the following represent a solution to conflict ?

1. Seeking arbitration
2. Active listening
3. Moving the conversation onto an emotional level
4. Awareness of cultural differences
a. 1,2and3
b. 3 and 4 only
c. 2 only
d. 1, 2 and 4
276. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to automation ?
a. Automation increases Situational Awareness
b. Enables the pilot to respond to unusual situations better since there is no need to monitor automatics.
c. Reduces pilot's attention since they can be out of the loop
d. Saves time
277. Co-action is a form of co-operation that involves:

a. Working in parallel towards a common goal
b. Working in parallel towards separate goals
c. Working independently
d. Duplicating actions
278. A latent error

1. will show itself in time
2. will not be foreseen by programmers
3. lies dormant
4. only becomes apparent under certain conditions
5. will easily be recognised by operators
a. 1,4&5
b. 1,2,3,&4
c. 3 only
d. 1,3,4&5
279. Murphy's Law states that

a. Even if a system can be designed correctly, it will always be mis-used
b. If a system can be operated incorrectly, sooner or later it will be
c. If a system can be operated incorrectly it should be guarded
d. If a system can be operated incorrectly it should be backed up by a second system
280. The alerting system for an important system failure should be

a. a flashing visual signal - preferably red
b. a doll's eye indicator
c. an audio warning
d. a steady visual signal - preferably red
98
281. Between which components of the SHELL Concept would create a mismatch when reading a 3 point altimeter ?
a. L and E
b. L and S
c. L and L
d. L and H
282. The introduction of automation and improvements in glass cockpit designs

a. can sometimes be detrimental to performance as some systems provide poor quality feedback to pilots
b. give better communications in the cockpit, as pilots have more time to communicate
c. improve man/machine interface due to artificial intelligence in modern FMS
d. almost completely remove the need to communicate with ATC
283. What would be the priority aim in the design of man/machine interface in combating the occurrence of
Human Error ?
a. To eliminate latent errors
b. To minimize the consequences of the appearance or non-appearance of errors with respect to safety
c. To systematically analyze the occurrences of errors to improve the future design of systems and
ergonomics
d. To generate clear warnings and alerts
284. Between which stage will a human error be induced in the interface of a warning system ?
a. L-H
b. E-L
c. L-S
d. L-L
285. Check lists are most important when

a. flying an aircraft which you have flown many times before.
b. flying an aircraft with which you are not familiar and when under stress
c. conducting a long flight
d. flying an aircraft in which you are current
286. Errors resulting from a bad indexing system in a checklist or manual are related to a mismatch between
a. Software to Hardware
b. Liveware to Software
c. Liveware to Environment
d. Liveware to Liveware
287. Which of the following are performed better by Man than machine ?
1. Waiting for an infrequent phenomenon
2. Detection of unusual conditions such as smell or noise
3. Qualitative decision-making
4. Monitoring of systems
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 2 only
d. 3 and 4 only
288. SOP's in the cockpit must

a. only be tailored to the type of aircraft regardless of current MCC procedures
b. follow implicitly the manufacturer's suggestions and not reflect the Operator's cockpit procedures
c. be shared by the members of the crew and modified/updated so as to maintain as much synergy as
possible
d. be tailored to the individual pilot's needs and requirements
99
289. The term `complacency' means

a. to query and double-check possible solutions
b. synergy between the co-pilot and the Commander emanating from CRM procedures
c. physiological problems resulting from the fear of flying
d. unjustified self-confidence resulting in careless negligence
290. One of the negative aspects of automation is

a. It can lead to complacency of the aircrew
b. Pilots tend to be overloaded when trying to monitor the equipment
c. Crews become less experienced because the ease of control
d. Pilots tend to disregard the equipment
291. With reference to decision-making, it is

a. An automatic function
b. Conscious and voluntary after assessing the options
c. An arbitrary decision
d. A systematic and analytical process
292. A efficient flight deck crew is one which

a. respect each other's decision and views
b. is a constituted crew
c. respect each other's political and religious persuasions
d. is laiser faire
293. Confirmation Bias of the decision-making process is

a. To ignore information which indicates that a hypothesis or decision is poor
b. Not to seek information which confirms the decision
c. Not to look for information which would reassure the correct decision
d. To look for facts that confirm expectations before making a decision
100
17 (51-61) HUMAN PERFORMANCE SPECIMEN QUESTIONS

SPECIMEN EXAMINATION PAPER
1. Which of the following statements is correct ? The cones of the eye

a. Detect colour and are more sensitive to low light levels and to movement than the rods
b. Detect colour and are less sensitive to low light levels but more sensitive to movement than the rods
c. Detect colour and are less sensitive to low light levels and to movement than the rods
d. Detect colour and are more sensitive to low light levels but less sensitive to movement than the rods
2. The semi-circular canals react to

a. Linear acceleration
b. Heat
c. Temperature
d. Angular acceleration
3. Paradoxical Sleep refreshes the

a. body and cell tissues
b. mind and body
c. homeoneural systems of the body only
d. brain and memory
4. With what is "Mode Error" associated ?

a. Leadership
b. Motivation
c. Automation
d. Homeostasis
5. The brain controls breathing rate based upon the

a. The amount of oxygen required at the capillaries
b. The acidity of the blood
c. Pulse rate
d. Sweat glands
6. Why is it essential to ensure that the combustion heater is serviceable in an aircraft ?

a. To prevent carbon dioxide poisoning and possible fire
b. To prevent carbon dioxide poisoning, possible fire or explosion
c. To prevent carbon dioxide poisoning
d. To prevent carbon monoxide poisoning
7. Short term memory (Working Memory) can be improved through

a. practice and retrieval
b. chunking and association
c. rehearsal and practice
d. rehearsal and retrieval
8. The Systolic pressure is higher than the Diastolic pressure and the normal reading for a healthy person is
120/80. High blood pressure can lead to strokes.
a. True
b. The above is false as the Diastolic pressure is higher than the Systolic pressure
c. The above is false as the normal reading is 250/90
d. The above is false since high blood pressure can lead to heart attacks
9. The factor which most increases the risk of coronary heart disease is
a. Family history
b. Lack of exercise
c. Obesity
d. Smoking
101
10. Tidal Volume is the volume of air

a. remaining in the lungs after the most forceful expiration
b that can still be exhaled by forceful expiration after the normal tidal expiration
c. that can still be inhaled over and beyond the normal breath
d. inhaled and exhaled with cacli normal breath

1. easy to change
3. easy to recognise
4. resistant to correction
a. 1, 2 & 4 only are correct

12. Approximately ..............% of all accidents are caused by Human factors

a. 50
b. 95
c. 20
d. 70
13. Linear acceleration may give a false impression of a

a. Climb
b. Descent
c. Turn
d. Spin
14. The altitudes in the Standard atmosphere that pressure will be 1/4 , ''/z , and '/4 of MSL pressure is
approximately
a. 20,000 ft 10,000 ft 5,000 ft
b. 5,000 ft 10,000 ft 20,000 ft
c. 36,000 ft 18,000 ft 8,000 ft
d. 8,000 ft 18,000 ft 36,000 ft
15. The law that states "Providing the temperature is constant, the volume of gas is inversely proportional to its
pressure" is
a. The Combined Gas Law
b. Henry's Law
c. Dalton's Law
d. Boyle's Law
16. The Time of useful consciousness (TUC) at 43,000 ft in the event of progressive decompression for sitting
and moderate activity is
a. 30 and 15 seconds
b. 30 and 25 seconds
c. 18 and 12 seconds
d. 40 and 20 seconds
17. When suffering from Hypoxic Hypoxia short-term memory impairment starts at approximately
a. 10,000 ft
b. 12,000 ft
c. 14,000 ft
d. 16,000 ft
102
18. DCS is normally associated with ascent to altitudes over

a. 10,000 ft
b. 25,000 ft
c. 33,700 ft
d. 40,000 ft
19. A free running circadian rhythm exhibits a periodicity of approximately

a) 23 hours
b) 24 hours
c) 25 hours
d) 26 hours
20. Messages are sent through the nervous systems by ......................means

a. Chemical and hormonal
b. Electrical and chemical
c. Electrical and hormonal
d. Chemical only
21. What is the relationship between personality, attitude and behaviour

a. Behaviour is the outward result of personality and attitude
b. Personality is the outward result of behaviour and attitude
c. Attitude is the outward result of personality and behaviour
d. There is no relationship. Personality is derived from genes whereas behaviour and attitude are learnt
22. The nose

a. Warms, dries and filters the air
b. Cools, dries and filters the air
c. Cools, moistens and filters the air
d. Warm, moistens and filters the air
23. Rain on the windscreen at night tends to lead to

a. Too steep an approach and the threshold appears to be more distant than it is in fact
b. Too shallow an approach and the threshold appears to be more distant than it is in fact
c. Too steep an approach and the threshold appears to be closer than it is in fact
d. Too shallow an approach and the threshold appears to be closer than it is in fact
24. One of the causes of Noise Induced Hearing Loss NIHL is

a. Long exposure to levels of noise in excess of 90 dbs
b. Age
c. A blow to the head with subsequent damage to the ossicles
d. Hypertension
25. The Vestibular Apparatus consists of the

a. Cochlea and the auditory nerve
b. Eustachian tube and the semi-circular canals
c. Semi-circular canals and the otoliths
d. Eustachian tube and the pinna
26. The `Leans' or Somatogyral illusion can be caused by

a. entering a turn too quickly
b. bunting the aircraft
c. leveling or reducing bank following a prolonged turn
d. a carrier take-off
103
27. To overcome disorientation in IMC conditions it is advised to

a. Look out at the horizon
b. Believe the instruments
c. Keep the head as still as possible
d. Get relief from look-out duties
28. Our primary source of spatial orientation is

a. Sight
b. The ears
c. The Cortex
d. The Cerebellum
29. Co-action is a form of co-operation that can be defined as

a. working in parallel towards a common goal
b. working in parallel towards separate goals
c. working independently
d. duplicating actions
30. When moving from high to low levels of light the Cones detect ................... and adapt in approximately
....................whereas the Rods detect................... and adapt in approximately
a. Black and white? minutes Colour 30 minutes
b. Black and white30 minutes Colour 7 minutes
c. Colour 7 minutes lack and white 30 minutes
d. Colour 30 minutes lack and white 7 minutes
31. Which of the following statements is true ?

a. Circadian Disrhythmia is usually worse when traveling from West to East and 1 day's recovery is
required for every 1 hour of Circadian Disrhythmia
b. Circadian Disrhythmia is usually worse when traveling from East to West and 1 day's recovery is
required for every 90 minutes of Circadian Disrhythmia
c. Circadian Disrhythmia is usually worse when traveling from West to East and 1 day's recovery is
required for every 12 hours of Circadian Disrhythmia
d. Circadian Disrhythmia is usually worse when traveling from West to East and 2 day's recovery is
required for every 1 hour of Circadian Disrhythmia
32. Among the factors which affect night vision are

a. Age, cabin altitudes above 8,000 ft, age, smoking and alcohol
b. Age, cabin altitudes above 8,000 ft, age, smoking and lack of vitamin C
c. Age, cabin altitudes above 8,000 ft, age, smoking and lack of vitamin D
d. Age, cabin altitudes above 8,000 ft, age, smoking and lack of vitamin B
33. The twin objectives of Human Performance are

a. Knowledge of the limitations of the body and their significance in aviation
b. Flight Safety and self-awareness
c. The safety and efficiency of the operation and the well-being of the individual
d. Physical fitness and good decision-making
34. Haemoglobin is manufactured mainly in the

a. Liver
b. Heart
c. Bone Marrow
d. Capillaries
35. Which of the following statements is correct ?

a. Automation always improves Situational Awareness
b. It has been shown that approximately 80% of all communications is achieved by metacommunications
c. The Black Hole Effect generally leads to a steep approach
d. A mix of status and role is the best way to constitute a flight crew
104
36. Normal cabin pressure is

a. 10,000 ft.
b. 5,000 ft
c. 3,000 ft - 4,000 ft
d. 6,000 ft - 8,000 ft
37. To be restorative a nap must last for at least

a. 5 minutes
b. 20 minutes
c. 1 hour
d. 2 hours
38. The function of the Eustachian tube is to

a. Equalise the pressure between the outer and middle ear
b. Equalise the pressure between the outer and inner ear
c. Equalise the pressure between the inner and middle ear
d. Equalise the pressure between the tympanum and the inner ear
39. If you wear contact lenses while flying, you must also
a. Inform the company aviation medical specialist of your condition
b. Make sure that they are correctly oiled, cleaned and maintained
c. Take a spare pair of contact lenses with you and ensure they are immediately available
d. Take a pair of ordinary corrective spectacles with you and have them immediately available
40. Generally the most common cause of accidents to aircraft is

a. CFIT
b. MAYDY
c. RADA
d. EMERG
41. Iconic memory lasts for approximately

a. 0.5 - 1.0 second
b. 2 - 8 seconds
c. 10 - 20 seconds
d. Normally over 20 seconds
42. Stimuli must be of a certain strength for the receptors to pick them up. This is called
a. Sensory threshold
b. Sensory filter
c. Sensory strength
d. Sensory volume
43. The main limitation of the Central Decision-maker is

a. It is dual channelled processing
b. It is single channelled processing
c. It is slow
d. It multi channelled processing
44. The Cocktail Party Effect is an example of

a. Selective attention
b. Divided attention
c. Selective Communication
d. Divided Communication
105
45. A latent error

1 . will show itself in time
2 . will not be foreseen by programmers
3. lies dormant
4. only becomes apparent under certain conditions
5 will easily be recognised programmers
a. 1, 2, 3 & 4 only are correct

b. only 3 is correct
c. 1, 3, 4 & 5 only are correct
d. 1, 4 & 5 only are correct
46. What 2 factors will bring a person temporarily from the Automatic phase stage of a motor programme into
the Associative stage ?
a. Fatigue and stress
b. Lack of practice and stress
c. Loss of Situational Awareness and fear
d. Anxiety and fatigue
47. What are the 3 reactions of the GAS syndrome ?

a. Alarm, Resistance and Exhaustion
b. Alert, Resistance and Exhaustion
c. Temporal, Cognitive and Resultant
d. Psychological, Psychosomatic and Somatic
48. A smoker travelling in a non-pressurised aircraft to a height of over 10,000ft will suffer from:
a. Hypoxic hypoxia only
b. Anaemic hypoxia only
c. Anaemic and hypoxic hypoxia
d. The Coriolis effect
49. With a pulse rate of 72 beats a minute and a stroke volume of 70 ml, what is the cardiac output ?
a. 8 litres a minute
b. 6 litres a minute
c. 5 litres a minute
d. 7 litres a minute
50. What are the physiological systems which are involved with motion sickness ?
1. Auditory
2. Vestibular
3. Visual
4. Proprioceptive 5. Gastro-intestinal
a. 2,3&4
b. 1,3&5
c. 1,2&5
d. 2,3,4&5
51. Anxiety affects

1. Judgement
2. Attention
3. Memory
4. Concentration
a. 1 & 2 only
b. 1 only
c. 1,2&4
d. All
106
52. Which, if any, of the following statements is/are true ?

1. Psychosomatic refers to the interrelationships of mind and body
2. Psychosomatic refers to a psychological reaction to an outside stimulus causing physiological
change/changes
3. Psychosomatic problems are not common among the pilot community due to the high standard of
selection
4. Psychosomatic problems can be cured by counseling
a. 1 and 3
b. None are correct
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 2
53. If the sensory threshold is increased

a. Selectivity is increased
b. Selectivity is decreased
c. Sensitivity is reduced
d. Sensitivity is increased

1. easy to change
3. easy recognise
4. resistance to correction
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 2 & 3 only
c. 4 only
d. 1 only
55. Overlearning
a. improves the chance of recall and makes the performance of a task more resistance to stress and is an
important concept of aviation training
b. is a process which is discouraged in the aviation training as it may lead to "Regression" in times of acute
stress
c. is a process in training which is usually adopted in order to pass complicated concepts to a recipient of
limited capabilities
d. is the process whereby information is layered and linked with previously learned facts and is an
important tool to improve Short-term Memory
56. What happens to the Systolic blood pressure if peripheral resistance is increased ?
a. Systolic blood pressure rises
b. Systolic blood pressure decreases
c. Systolic blood pressure is unaffected
d. Systolic blood pressure initially decreases and then increases
57. The pressoreceptors have signalled low blood pressure. The body's response is to
1. increase rate of breathing
2. increase cardiac output
3. increase heart rate
4. relaxation of the blood vessels
5. decrease heart rate
6. tightening of the blood vessels
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 2, 3 and 6
c. 4 and 5 only
d. 1, 3 and 4
107
58. On expiration there is

a. Higher C02 content than on intake
b. More oxygen content than on intake
c. Less water vapour content than on intake
d. The same C02 content as on intake
59. TUC is dependent upon

1. Rate of decompression
2. Altitude of the occurrence
3. Type of aircraft
4.Activity of the pilot
5. Personal health
a.1, 2 & 3 only are correct

b. All of the above are correct
c. All are correct except 3 which is incorrect
d. 2, 3 & 5 only are correct
60. Hearing through bone conduction

a. by-passes the inner ear
b. by-passes the outer ear
c. by-passes outer and the middle ear
d. is no different from the normal hearing process
61. What is the ideal personality for a pilot ?

a. G+ P+
b. A team player
c. Stable Extravert
d. Synergistic
62. Disorientation is more likely when the pilot is:

1. flying in IMC
2. frequently changing between inside and outside references
3.flying from IMC into VMC
4. approaching over still water at night
a. 1, 2 & 3 only are correct

b.1, 2 & 4 only are correct
c.1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct
63. A pilot becomes skilled when he/she

1. trains or practices regularly
2. knows how to manage him/herself
3. possesses all the knowledge associated with his/her aircraft
4. knows how to keep resources in reserve for coping with the unexpected

b. all are correct
64. Once a mental model is constructed, there is a tendency to give

a. undue weight to information that contradicts the model
b. equal weight to information that contradicts and confirms the mental model
c frequent alterations to the mental model
d. undue weight to information that confirms the model
108
65. A pilot inputting information from an altimeter can be expressed in terms of the SHELL Concept as
a. L-H
b. S-L
c. P - R
d. H-E
109
Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Air Law (ATPL/FOOL)
Air Law
Chapter – 02
1. ICAO publishes:
a) Standards and recommended practices which are enforced world wide without exception
b) Standards which are law for contracting states and recommendations for the rest of the world
c) Standards and recommended practices for ICAO contracting states only
d) International law
2. Which annex covers carriage of cargo?
a) 6 b) 14 c) 9 d) 11
3. Which annex pertains to design of aerodromes?
a) 14 b) 11 c) 6 d) 18
4. Which Annex contains information concerning Air Traffic Services?
a) Annex 11 b) Annex 10 c) Annex 14 d) Annex 15
5. How many ICAO Annexes are there?

a) 7 b) 18 c) 19 d) 16
6. What is cabotage?
a) Restricting domestic air service to a national carrier

b) Aircraft from a foreign country picking up passengers in another country
c) Aircraft providing a commercial air service within the EEC
d) An airline disembarking and embarking passengers in another country
7. The `standards' contained in the annexes to the Chicago Convention are to be considered:
a) Advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states.
b) Binding for all member states.
c) Binding for all member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference.
d) Binding for all airline companies with international traffic.
8. Which ICAO Annex deals with the processes involved with the regular transport of passengers and
luggage?
9. Bangladesh is a member of:

a) FAA b) JAA c) ICAO d) ECAC
10. What is the objective of ICAO?
a) To assist states to purchase aircraft

b) To help airlines set up
c) To assist with improving international aviation
d) To train pilots for international aviation
1
11. Which annex to the Chicago convention provides the details for the minimum acceptance of international
crew licences?
a) Annex 9 - Facilitation
b) Annex 1 - Personnel Licensing
c) Annex 6 - Operation of Aircraft
d) Annex - 17 Security
12. Which of the annexes deals with the transportation of cargo?
a) Annex 9 – Facilitation
b) Annex 18 - Transportation of Dangerous Goods
c) Annex 16 - Environmental Protection
d) Annex 6 - Operation of Aircraft
13. When and where were the objectives of ICAO ratified?

a) Chicago 1944 b) Paris 1919 c) Rome 1953 d) Geneva 1946
14. Which annex to the Chicago Convention covers dangerous goods carried in aircraft?
15. Which annex to the Chicago convention deals with registration marking of aircraft?
16. Cabotage indicates:

a) Crop spraying b) A national airline c) A flight over territorial water
d) Right to restrict internal services to operators of that State only
17. Which ICAO body furnishes the "Standards and Recommended Practices" (SARPS) for adoption by the
Council?
a) The Assembly
b) The Regional Air Navigation Meeting
c) The Council itself
d) The Air Navigation Commission
18. The Annex to the Chicago Convention which contains the Standards and Recommended Practices
(SARPS) for personnel licensing is:
19. Where is the headquarters of ICAO?

a) Paris b) London c) New York d) Montreal
20. ICAO has how many geographic regions?

a) 7 b) 8 c) 9 d) 10
21. Deleted.
2
22. What is the meaning of RVSM?

a) Reduced vertical separation measurement b) Reduced visual separation minima
c) Reduced vertical separation minima d) Reported vertical separation minima
23. ICAO has how many main divisions?

a) 5 b) 7 c) 9 d) 6
24. Which shall be deemed to be state aircraft?

a) Military b) Customs c) Police d) All of the above
25. Level when used as generic term means:

a) Height b) Altitude c) Flight level d) All of the above
26. It is suspected that a person on board an aircraft will commit an act that would jeopardize the safety of
the aircraft; the PIC may:
a) Request the crew to detain the passenger

b) Ask the passenger to disembark
c) Order the other passengers to detain the passenger in question
d) Hand him/her over to the authorities
27. Bangladesh falls into which geographic region of ICAO?

a) Middle East b) Asia c) Mid Asia d) South Asia
28. For how long are members of the ICAO Council appointed to sit on the council?
a) 3 Years b) 1 Year c) 2 Years d) 4 Years
29. What freedom allows an aircraft to land in a foreign country for technical reasons?
a) First freedom b) Fourth freedom

c) Third freedom d) Second freedom
30. The first freedom of the air allows:
a) Over-flight only
b) Acceptance of tickets issued by other operators
c) Landing for technical reasons
d) Carriage of mail and cargo
31. That part of an aerodrome to be used for take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding apron is
known as:
a) Manoeuvring area b) Movement area c) Operating area d) Apron
32. Which one of the followings is special use airspace?

a) Prohibited area b) Danger area c) Restricted area d) All of the above
33. What freedom covers landing and refueling in another state?
a) 1st b) 2nd c) 3rd d) 4th
3
34. A scheduled air service, in international context, is defined as:
a) A regular series of flights from one place to another

b) Flights from one place to another in accordance with an agreed schedule and a bilateral
agreement between the two states
c) Any flight for which the flight plan is published in advance
d) Any flight in accordance with the first and second freedoms of the air
35. Which annex to the Chicago Convention covers Rules of the air?
a) Annex 1 b) Annex 11 c) Annex 14 d) None of the above
36. Which annex deals with Annex 14?

a) Personnel Licensing b) Rules of the air c) air traffic services d) None of the above
37. The second Freedom of the Air is the right to:
a) Make a commercial flight between 2 States with passengers on board

b) Land for technical reasons
c) Cabotage
d) Over-fly a State without landing
38. Against what political background was the Chicago Convention of 1944 held?
a) World War I
b) The Korean War
c) World War II
d) The American War of Independence
39. What in civil aviation terms does `territorial airspace' mean?

a) The airspace over a state's land-mass of a state within international agreed frontiers
b) All the airspace over a state extending to the limits of space
c) The airspace over a state and the adjacent international waters to a defined median line forming a
boundary with another state
d) The airspace over a state and its territorial waters
40. What law is applicable over the `high seas'?
a) International law
b) The law of the state of registry of the aeroplane over flying the high seas area
c) The ICAO law
d) The law of the state closest to the point in the high seas area
41. If an aeroplane, which is registered in the Bangladesh, is over-flying France, does the commander have to
obey the law of France?
a) Yes at all times

b) No, the law of the Bangladesh applies because the aeroplane is not landing in France
c) Yes, but only if it does not conflict with the law of Bangladesh
d) Yes, but if there is a confliction with Bangladesh Law he must ask the French authority what he
should do
4
42. You are the commander of an aeroplane in flight. From whom do you get the authority to act as
commander?
a) The passengers
b) The Operator
c) The authority of the state of registry of the aeroplane
d) The national legislature of the state of registry of the aeroplane
5
Chapter –04 and 05
1. What age do you need to be to exercise the privileges of a CPL licence?
a) 18 b) 21 c) 16 d) 23
2. When you are over 40 and the holder of an ATPL engaged in single crew commercial air transport
operation, how often are you required to have a medical examination?
a) The 12 month period reduces to 6 months

b) The 24 month period reduces to 12 months
c) The 6 month period reduces to 3 months
d) The 9 month period reduces to 3 months
3. You can use simulator hours towards the 1500 hours required for an ATPL. How are simulator hours
limited?
a) Maximum of 100, not more than 15 in a procedural flight trainer

b) Maximum of 100, not more than 30 in a procedural flight trainer
c) Maximum of 100, not more than 25 in a procedural flight trainer
d) Maximum of 100, not more than 50 in a procedural flight trainer
4. What is the night flying hour’s requirement for an ATPL licence?
a) 75 hours PIC
b) 100 hours PIC or co-pilot
c) 100 hours PIC
d) 75 hours PIC or co-pilot
5. One of the privileges of the holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence is to:
a) Act as PIC of any aircraft in commercial air transport operations

b) Act as PIC of any single engine aeroplane in commercial air transport operations
c) Act as a flying instructor
d) Act as PIC of any aircraft involved in operations other than commercial air transportation
6. Which letters are prohibited for registration marks?
a) 4 letters international codes b) 5 letters combination used in international code of signal

c) 4 letters preceded by Q d) Any letter referring to an ICAO document
7. When are you required to tell the authorities of an illness?
a) After the 21st day of illness has elapsed

b) On the 21stday of the illness
c) After a month
d) After medical has expired
8. To obtain a CPL, how many hours of cross country flying are required?
a) 15 hrs b) 20 hrs c) 25 hrs d) 35 hrs
9. What medical is required for the issue of a CPL?

a) Class 2 b) As required by ICAO.
c) Class 1 d) None of the above.
6
10. The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot under supervision of the PIC and performing the
functions and duties of the PIC shall be entitled to be credited:
a) With 50% of the flight time towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
b) In full, but not more than 300hrs towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
c) The flight time in full towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
d) The flight in full towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence according to
the requirements of the licensing authority
11. For an ATPL how many night hours are required?
a) 30 b) 75 c) 100 d) 150
12. For an ATPL, how many cross-country hours are required?
a) 200 b) 100 c) 150 d) 250
13. To obtain a PPL, how many hours of cross country flying are required?
a) 15 hrs b) 10 hrs c) 25 hrs d) 20 hrs
14. When you are a newly qualified flying instructor (A) you have to be supervised by a senior flying
instructor. When will supervision cease?
a) Once you have passed a competency check

b) When you have completed 100 hours instruction and sent 25 students solo
c) When you have completed 100 hours instruction and sent 100 students solo
d) When you have completed 100 hours solo
15. At what ages can you exercise the privileges of an ATPL?
a) 21 -60 b) 21 -59 c) 8-59 d) 8-60
16. What medical is required for the issue of a PPL?
a) Class 1 b) As required by ICAO c) Class 2 d) None of the above
17. Which of the following correctly identifies the cross country hour’s requirement for a CPL (A)?
a) 100 hours PIC or SPIC

b) 20 hours cross country as PIC including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300
nm) in the course of which full stop landings are made at two different aerodromes
c) 25 hours including at least one flight of 2 hours duration covering at least 300 nm an d to
Include 2 landings
d) 10 hours solo with at least one flight over 300 nm with at least two landings
18. What is the minimum age for a holder of a PPL?
a) 16 b) 17 c) 18 d) 21
19. Which of the following is a Bangladesh registered aircraft?

a) S2-ACO b) S -ACO c) S2-ACO d) BD-ACX
7
20. Which of the following is a Bangladesh registered military aircraft?

a) S2-ACO b) S3-ACO c) S³-ACX d) S3-ACX
21. What is the minimum age of an applicant for a student’s pilot license?
a) 17 b) 16 c) 18 d) 21
22. Of the 1500 hours required experience for an ATPL ......... hours may be in a simulator but not more than
....... hours may be in a basic instrument trainer or basic procedure trainer.
a) 100 15 b) 100 20 c) 100 25 d) 75 25
23. In Bangladesh, a student pilot shall not undertake a cross-country flight unless he has a minimum of -- - -
hours of solo flight time:
a) 5 hr b) 15 hr c) 10 hr d) 20 hr
24. In Bangladesh , a cross-country flight, applicable to a student pilot, means a flight to a point beyond a
radius of--------- from the aerodrome of departure:
a) 25 nm b) 15 nm c) 20 nm d) 30 nm
25. According to CAR’84, what classes of medical exist?
a) Class 1 only
b) Classes 1, 2 and 3
c) Classes 1 and 2
d) Classes 1, 2, 3 and 4
26. For a PPL minimum how many hours are required?

a) 50 b) 40 c) 55 d) 45
27. The validity of multi engine type rating shall be 1 year from:
a) Date of issue
b) Date of application received by the authority
c) Date of skill test
d) Date of medical examination
28. In order to carry out PPL instruction you must hold:
a) PPL with instructor rating

b) Have CPL with FI rating
c) CPL
d) ATPL
29. For a pilot to hold an ATPL, the hours required are:
a) 250 as PIC, or 100 as PIC and 150 as co-pilot or as PIC under supervision
b) 200 as PIC, or 100 as PIC and 75 as co-pilot or as PIC under supervision
c) 250 as PIC, or 100 as PIC and 75 as co-pilot or as PIC under supervision
d) 200 as PIC, or 100 as PIC and 150 as co-pilot or as PIC under supervision
30. A pilot with a CPL can act as:
a) PIC in commercial aviation

b) PIC in any single engine aircraft engaged in commercial aviation
c) PIC of any single pilot aircraft engaged in commercial aviation
d) PIC in any aircraft for which he/she is type rated in commercial aviation
8
31. From what date is the initial general medical assessment valid from?
a) The date of the assessment b) The date the certificate delivered to the pilot
c) The date of licence issue d) The date of the revalidation of the licence
32. When time in a synthetic trainer is permitted for PPL, it is limited to--- hr?
a) 10 b) 5 c) 7 d) nil
33. The minimum age for a CPL holder is
a) 17 years b) 18 years c) 16 years d) 21 years
34. Which of the following Annexes of the Chicago Convention contains the minimum specification for a
crew member's licence to be recognized by Contracting States?
35. Which of the following registration marks cannot be used in registration?
a) G-PRAT b) SY-PAN c) 3T-SSS d) YT-LLL
36. The applicant for an ATPL for aircraft shall have at least:
a) 100 hours night flying purely as Pilot in Command

b) 75 hours night flying as Pilot in Command or as 2nd Pilot
c) 100 hours night flying as Pilot in Command or as 2nd Pilot
d) 75 hours night flying as Pilot in Command
37. A CPL applicant undergoing integrated flight training shall have completed:
a) 150 hours flight time including 10 hours instrument ground time

b) 150 hours flight time
c) 200 hours flight time including 10 hours instrument ground time
d) 200 hours flight time
9
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 6
1. An overtaking situation could be considered when the overtaking aircraft is within --------- degrees of the
overtaken aircraft’s plane of symmetry:
a) 140º b) 70º c) 110º d) 120º
2. An overtaking aircraft shall keep out of the aircraft being overtaken by altering its heading to the:
a) Left b) Left if it was to the left c) From the closest side d) Right
3. The VMC minima for a VFR flight within ATS airspace class C are:
a) 8 km visibility at or above 3050m AMSL and clear of cloud

b) 5 km visibility at or below 3050m AMSL, 1500m horizontal and 300m vertical clear of cloud
c) 8 km visibility at or above 3050m AMSL, 1500m horizontal and 300m vertical clear of cloud
d) 5 km visibility below 3050m AMSL and clear of cloud
4. Aircraft coming in from your rear and left which light will you see first?
a) Steady red
b) Steady green
c) Flashing green
d) White
5. What letter goes in item 8 of a flight plan for a flight starting on IFR then changing to VFR?
a) Z b) Y c) I d) V
6. What are the VMC limits for class B airspace?
a) Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface

b) 8km flight visibility, 1000 ft vertically and 1500 m horizontally from cloud
c) 5km flight visibility, 1000 ft vertically and 1500 m horizontally from cloud
d) The same as class D
7. The VMC minima for a VFR flight within ATS airspace class D are:
a. 8 kms visibility below 3050m AMSL, 1500m horizontal and 300m vertical clear of cloud
b. 5 km visibility below 3050m AMSL and clear of cloud
c. 5 kms visibility at or above 3050m AMSL, 1500m horizontal and 300m vertical clear of cloud
d. 5 kms visibility below 3050m AMSL, 1500m horizontal and 300m vertical clear of cloud
8. Whilst airborne you see a flashing green light from the Tower. What does this mean?
a) Cleared to land
b) Return for landing and await clearance to land
c) Give way to other landing aircraft
d) Land at this aerodrome after receiving clearance to land and proceed to the apron
9. Anti-collision lights are intended to:

a) Relative path of an aircraft b) Attract attention of an aircraft
c) Used in IFR only d) All of the above
10. You are taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and are shown a flashing green light. What does
it mean?
a) Return to start point b) Clear to taxi
c) Clear for take -off d) Stop
10
11. You have been intercepted. What is the signal for `clear to proceed'?
a) Rocking wings b) Flashing lights

c) Cut across track d) Breaking turn up and left
12. Which has priority to land?
a) A hospital flight b) An emergency

c) A military flight d) A VVIP flight
13. What letter goes in item 8 of a flight plan for a flight starting on VFR then changing to IFR?
a) Z b) Y c) I d) V
14. Which of these is not a distress frequency?

1. 121.5 MHz
2. 2182 KHz
3. 243.0 KHz
4. 2430 KHz
a) 4 only
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 3 and 4
15. If you are intercepted by another aircraft, what do you set on the SSR transponder?
a) A/2000 + C b) A/7500 + C c) A/7600 + C d) A/7700 + C
16. You are taxiing an aircraft on the ground and you see a flashing red light from the Tower. What does it
mean?
a) Stop
b) Taxi clear of the landing area
c) Give way to approaching aircraft
d) You are not clear for take- off
17. Aircraft ‘A’ is a VFR flight operating in a CTR under an ATC clearance. Aircraft B is entering the
CTR without clearance. As they converge, which one has the right of way (RoW)?
a) B has right of way regardless of aircraft type and position

b) A has right of way regardless of aircraft type and position
c) A has right of way if B is on the right
d) B has right of way if A is on the left
18. Flight plan must be submitted for:

a) Any IFR flight in advisory airspace
b) Any flight across international borders
c) Any flight to be provided with Air Traffic Control service
d) All of the above
11
19. If a pilot wishes to cancel an IFR flight plan and proceed VFR in VMC, he must inform ATC and
Include the phrase:
a) "Cancelling my flight plan"

b) "Cancelling my flight"
c) "Cancelling my IFR flight"
d) "Cancelling my IMC flight plan"
20. What signal from a marshaller to a pilot indicates "apply brakes"?
a) Waving the arms across the face

b) Drawing the palm across the throat
c) Clenching raised fists
d) Holding both arms up with palms facing forward
21. ATC has given you the transponder code of 4701. In case of a radio failure in flight you must set:
a) A 7600 Mode C b) A 0200 Mode C

c) A 7700 Mode C d) A 4701 Mode C
22. For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least:
a) 2 hours before off-block time b) 60 minutes before departure

c) 45 minutes before departure d) 30 minutes before off-block time
23. Which Mode ‘A’ code must be used to make sure that your aircraft is recognized as an aircraft in
distress?
a) Code 7500 b) Code 7700 c) Code 7000 d) Code 7600
24. An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft must immediately try to contact the intercepting
aircraft on the following frequencies:
a) 243 MHz - 125.7 MHz b) 121.5 MHz - 243 KHz

c) 121.5 KHz - 243 MHz d) 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz
25. Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. Instructions given by this aircraft do not c omply with
ATC instructions. You should:
a) Select code 7500 A on your transponder

b) Ask ATC for different instructions
c) Comply with instructions given by the intercepting aircraft
d) Comply with ATC instructions
26. A pilot crosses his/her hands in front of the face, palms outwards and then moves the arms outwards.
What does this signal indicate?
a) Clear to move forward b) Brakes off

c) Remove chocks d) Clear to close all engines
27. In Bangladesh, A VFR flight operated by trainee/non-instrument rated pilot shall not be cleared for any
airfield or X-Ctry flight, when ETA is----- at the destination
a) Before SS b) Within 30 minutes before SS
c) Within 24 minute before SS d) Within evening civil twilight
12
28. Who has the final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft?
a) The State b) The Operator c) The Commander d) The owner
29. The transition from IFR to VFR is done:
a) On the Captain's initiative b) whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace
c) If told by ATC d) at the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation
30. In Bangladesh, what is the minimum ground visibility required to enable a SVFR flight to take off from an
aerodrome in CTR?
a) 1000m b) 1500m c) 30000m d) 1500ft
31. Before an aircraft is taxied on the maneuvering area of and aerodrome for the purpose of take-off, the P-I-C
shall:
a) Enter the runway and take off immediately
b) Check that the radio apparatus fitted to the aircraft and to be used in flight is functioning corrections
c) Ask ATC what to do d. None is correct
32. In Bangladesh, a local VFR flight operated by trainee/non-instrument rated pilots
shall land back:
a) Before SS b) Within 30 minutes before SS
c) Within 24 minute before SS d) Within evening civil twilight
33. As per ICAO what is the minimum ground visibility required to enable a SVFR flight to take off from an
aerodrome in CTR?
a) 1000 m b) 1500 m c) 3000 m d) 1500 ft
34. A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level
deviates or is expected to deviate compared to the given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus
a) 10% b) 3% c) 5% d) 2%
35. In which of the following cases, ATC is to be notified if the ETA is found to be an error of:
a) 3minutes b) More than 3 minutes c) 2 minutes d) All of the above
36. In Bangladesh, VFR flights are not permitted above:
a) FL 150 b) FL 200 c) FL 60 d) TL
37. In Bangladesh, VFR flights are not permitted:
a) Above FL 150 b) Between SS and SR c) At transonic & supersonic speed d) All of the above
38. VFR flights are not permitted to fly over the congested area of cities at a height less than-------- above the
highest obstacle within a radius of 600m from the aircraft:
a) 2000ft b) 1000ft c) 500ft d) 3000ft
39. VFR flights are not permitted to fly over an open air assembly of persons at a height less than --------
above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600m from the aircraft:
a) 1000ft b) 2000ft c) 500ft d) 3000ft
40. VFR flights are not permitted to fly over the congested area of cities at a height less than-1000ft above the
highest obstacle within a radius of --------- from the aircraft:
a) 5km b) 6000m c) 600m d) 3000m
41. IFR flights are not permitted to fly over the low terrain at a height -------- above the highest obstacle within
a radius of 8km of the estimated position of the aircraft:
a) 1000ft b) 2000ft c) 500ft d) 3000ft
13
42. IFR flights are not permitted to fly over mountainous areas at a height less than -------- above the highest
obstacle within a radius of 8km of the estimated position of the aircraft:
a) 1000ft b) 2000ft c) 500ft d) 3000ft
43. IFR flights are not permitted to fly over high terrain or mountainous areas at a height less than 2000ft
above the highest obstacle within a radius of --------- of the estimated position of the aircraft:
a) 5km b) 600m c) 8km d) 3km
44. If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is
not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted
aircraft to you may proceed?
a) Continue b) Proceed c) May proceed d) You proceed
45. In the signals area of an aerodrome, a red square with l yellow diagonals (cross) means:
a) Landing prohibited b) gliders are operating c) helicopters are operating d) special landing
46. Weather minima for the VFR flight within control zone is:
a) Flight visibility 5 km ; ceiling 1500 ft b) Visibility 3 km ; ceiling 1000 ft
c) Visibility 3 km ; ceiling 1500 ft d) Ground Visibility 5 km ; ceiling 1500 ft
47. What is the VMC limits for class B airspace at 10,000ft?

a) 8km b) 5km c) 3km d) 6km
48. What is the VMC limits for class D airspace at 4,000ft?
a) 8km b) 5km c) 3km d) 5nm
49. When two or more heavier than air aircraft are approaching to land, which one has the right of way:
a) The faster aircraft has the right of way b)The bigger aircraft has the right of way
c) The aircraft at the lower altitude has the right of way d) None of the above.
50. Warning to an unauthorized aircraft that is flying or about to enter restricted, prohibited or danger area is
done by series of projectiles discharged from ground at an interval of:
a) 15 seconds b) 10 seconds c) 30 seconds d) 20 seconds
51. Do any rules of the air exist over international waters (high seas areas)?
a) Yes - ICAO Annex 2 - Rules of the Air
b) No. No state has the right to impose its law over the high seas
c) Yes - the rules of the air that are applicable to the state with the closest land-mass
d) Yes - the rules of the air of the state of registry of the aeroplane
52. It is an offence to commit an unlawful act in an aeroplane in the air. Who is empowered to prosecute such
an offence?
a) Interpol
b) The Authority of the State of registration of the aeroplane
c) The Authority of the State of the Operator
d) ICAO through the International Court at The Hague
53. What is the SSR unlawful interference (hijack) code?
a) 2000 b) 7777 c) 7600 d) 7500
54. Can you continue to fly if you are over 65?

a. No
b. Yes, but only for single engine operation
c. Yes, but not in commercial aviation
d. Yes, if there are two pilots on board, and you are the only pilot on board 65 or over
14
55. Your valid flight crew licence is always to be carried with you when exercising the privileges of the
licence. What else must you carry?
a) Your passport or a means of photographically identifying yourself
b) Your valid medical certificate
c) Your valid medical certificate or your passport
d) Your valid medical certificate and a document containing a photograph of you that confirms you
identity as stated on your licence
56. You are not permitted to exercise the privileges of your licence if you are aware that you are unwell.
Which of the following would be classified as being unwell?
a) Suffering a minor condition that requires the occasional use of medication
b) Admission to hospital or a clinic for 12 hours or less
c) Undergoing any surgical or invasive procedure
d) The need to wear dark glasses
57. You are required to inform the authority that you are unable to fly because of certain medical
concerns. One such situation is:
a) A visit to hospital or a clinic as a patient
b) Persistent sickness that has lasted 21 days
c) Persistent sickness that has lasted more than 21 days
d) Diagnosis for regular use of correcting lenses
58. You are not permitted to exercise the privileges of your licence if you are aware that you are unwell.
Which of the following would be classified as being unwell?
a) Suffering a minor condition that requires the occasional use of medication
b) Admission to hospital or a clinic for 12 hours or less
c) Admission to hospital or a clinic for 12 hours or more
d) Admission to hospital or a clinic for more than 12 hours
59. It is daytime and your aeroplane is fitted with anti-collision high intensity strobe (capacitive discharge)
lights. You are flying IFR just in the base of the clouds and the lights are creating a stroboscopic effect
that is worrying some of the passengers. Can you switch the strobe lights off?
a) No. Aircraft with anti-collision lights are to show them at all times
b) Yes but only because it is daylight
c) No because you are flying IFR
d) Yes
60. If you intend to fly the aeroplane to simulate IMC, you must have dual controls and a safety pilot at the
other set of controls. Must the safety pilot be a qualified pilot?
a) No, he only needs to be a qualified observer
b) No, but he must be capable of detecting any errors you make
c) Yes
d) No, he is there only to cover the case of you suffering a debilitating condition that renders you
incapable of flying the aeroplane, but he must have rudimentary knowledge of flying
61. Ìf you are flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome you are required to conform with or avoid the formed
traffic pattern'. For which of the following is this statement true?
a) Only if you intend landing at the aerodrome
b) If you are aware that the aerodrome is there
c) If you are flying inside the aerodrome traffic zone (ATZ)
d) Regardless of whether you are inside or outside the ATZ
15
62. When is a flight plan required?

a) For all flights
b) For all IFR flights
c) For all flights which require an air traffic service
d) For all flights which require an air traffic control service
63. When is a flight plan not required?

a) For VFR flights crossing international boundaries
b) For flights along boundaries between FIRS providing the flight does not actually cross the boundary
c) For VFR flights in advisory airspace
d) For flights over distances less than 50Km at night
64. A flight plan is required to include the number and type of aircraft for which the flight plan is submitted.
(NB one FP may be submitted for a formation of aeroplanes!). What other information is required
regarding the type of aeroplane?
a) Wake turbulence category
b) Optimum cruising Mach number
c) Maximum un-pressurized cabin altitude
d) Minimum equipment list
65. When is a flight plan `closed'?

a) When it is complete and ready for filing
b) When all the passengers are on board and the flight is announced as `closing'
c) When the aeroplane arrives at the destination
d) On the receipt of the arrival report at the ATSU at the arrival aerodrome
66. When is an ATC clearance to be obtained?

a) Prior to operating any controlled flight
b) Prior to entry into controlled airspace
c) Prior to take off from the initial departure aerodrome where the route involves landing at several
aerodromes en route
d) At least 30 minutes prior to take off
67. If you suffer a communication failure during the later stages of a flight after you have been given an
Estimated Approach Time (EAT) that is significantly different from your flight planned ETA, what do
you do?
a) Try and land within 30 minutes of the EAT, if possible
b) Revert to the original flight planned ETA and land as close to that time as possible
c) Stay in the holding pattern and squawk 7600 until you run short of fuel and then squawk 7700
and make an approach to land
d) Abandon the instrument approach and squawk 7700 and make a straight in approach in VMC
68. If you see a military aeroplane (a small one with missiles on it) positioning itself ahead, slightly to the
left and slightly above you and it is rocking its wings, what does this mean?
a) Congratulations, you have just joined the Red Arrows (Gulp! Where are the rest of them!)
b) You have just been intercepted and he/she wants you to follow
c) You are flying in military restricted airspace and are in danger
d) The Air Traffic Controllers have fouled up the clearances. This is an incident and must be
reported by AIRPROX procedures
69. When is a VFR flight not permitted to take off from an aerodrome in a CTR?
a) If the cloud ceiling is 1500ft or less and ground visibility is 5km or less
b) If the cloud ceiling is greater than 1500ft, but ground visibility is only 5km
c) If the cloud ceiling is less than 1500ft, or ground visibility is less than 5km
d) If the cloud base is less than 1500ft, or ground visibility 5km or less
16
70. Unless authorized, in Bangladesh VFR flight is not permitted above what flight level?
a) FL150 b) FL245 c) FL200 d) FL 180
71. When or where are you permitted to fly VFR below 1000ft above the highest obstacle within 600m
radius of the aircraft over towns, cities etc.. or below 500 ft above ground or water?
a) En route outside of an ATZ
b) Over the sea within gliding distance of the shore
c) In class G airspace in daylight
d) Only where necessary for take-off and landing
72. You are flying VFR in class C airspace outside of a CTR and you doubt if you can maintain VMC
much longer. What should you do'?
a) File an IFR flight plan and continue whilst awaiting clearance
b) If unable to get a clearance to continue under IFR leave CAS and land at the nearest suitable
aerodrome
c) Get a Special VFR clearance and continue
d) Push on in VMC until the last minute then squawk 7700 and let the ATC sort it out.
73. You are flying IFR at FL 100 in class A airspace. The Air Traffic Controller warns you that there is
traffic in your 12 O'clock at range 10 miles and asks you if you are VMC with a view to taking
avoiding action. What should you do?
a) Assess the meteorological conditions and if the minima for class A airspace is exceeded
report your flight conditions as VMC
b) Regardless of the meteorological conditions, report your flight conditions as IMC
c) Advise ATC that VFR is not applicable in class A airspace
d) Ask for Radar Advisory service to avoid the contact unless ATC advises that it has
disappeared
74. You are flying IFR in class B airspace but are flying in good VMC. What must you consider before
making a request to cancel the IFR flight plan and to proceed VFR?
a) What is the correct VFR flight level for the class of airspace
b) How long are you going to be able to maintain VMC
c) How much day light is left
d) Do you have the necessary equipment fitted in the aeroplane to make a VFR approach at the
destination
75. When may you routinely ignore the table of IFR cruising levels (flight levels) if flying IFR in class A
airspace?
a) In good VMC b) Above 24 500 ft
c) Where Reduced Vertical Separation Minima standards are in force
d) When cleared above a level to employ a cruise climb technique
76. If you are operating an IFR flight outside of controlled airspace, are you required to maintain a
listening watch with an ATS unit?
a) No
b) Yes, always
c) Yes, but only in areas or along routes where a flight plan is required
d) Yes if you are flying in IMC
77. If you have an urgent message to transmit regarding the safety of an aeroplane, what proword do you
prefix the message with?
a) Help
b) Mayday
c) Pan Pan
d) Securite (pron - see cure ee tay)
17
78. If you have been intercepted by a military aircraft, on what frequency should you attempt to
communicate with the military pilot?
a) The frequency in use
b) 121.500 MHz
c) 119.100 MHz
d) 123.450 MHz
79. You are taxiing on the manoeuvring area and see a flashing white light pointed at you from the tower,
what does it mean?
a) Give way to an approaching aeroplane
b) Return to the starting point
c) Stop
d) Continue taxiing to the holding point of the active runway
80. You are on short final after having received a clearance to land and you see a red pyrotechnic flare
fired from the tower. There are no other aeroplanes in the circuit, what does the flare mean?
a) The Tower controller is scaring the birds away
b) An aeroplane is taxiing out of sight of the tower controller and he is ordered to stop
immediately
c) You have not acknowledged the clearance to land
d) Notwithstanding any previous clearance, you are not to land for the time being
81. You are taxiing towards the runway at an aerodrome and it is outside the published hours of the ATC
watch. You see this yellow ladder marking on the taxiway, what does it mean and what must you do?
a) It is a holding point but not the closest one to the runway. You can ignore it.
b) It is a holding point other than the closest to the runway. You must stop and check that you are
clear to continue taxiing
c) It is a holding point for another runway so can ignore it.
d) It means that the taxiway is weak and you must not stop on it.
82. You are taxiing towards the terminal building but have not been allocated a bay for parking. You see a
man standing in an open space facing you with his arms raised vertically above his head. What does this
mean?
a) I am not your marshaller; I am waiting for the next aeroplane.
b) I am your marshaller, keep moving ahead and I will indicate when it is safe to turn into this
parking bay
c) This is your parking bay
d. Stop immediately
83. You are ready to start engines but there is no ground intercom system working. How do you indicate to
the marshaller that you intend to start number 2 engine first?
a) Raise your right hand with the index finger extended making a circular motion, whilst pointing
to no 2 engine
b) Raise a hand with two fingers extended
c) Raise a hand with two fingers extended and then raise and lower the other hand with a clenched
fist
d) Raise a hand and make a circular motion and leave it to him to work out which engine is starting
18
1. What do the initials ACAS mean?

a) Aircraft collision avoiding systems
b) Aircraft collision avoiding service
c) Airborne collision avoiding systems
d) Airborne collision avoiding service
2. Unless otherwise published or informed by ATC, after entering a hold all turns are made:
a) To the left
b) To the left then right
c) To the right
d) To the right then left
3. In a holding pattern, turns are to be made at:

a) Rate of turn of 3 °/sec
b) Rate of turn of 3 °/sec or 20 ° bank whichever is lesser
c) Rate of turn of 30°/sec or at a bank angle of 25° whichever is lesser
d) Rate of turn of 3°/sec or at a bank angle of 25 ° whichever is lesser
4. Which of the following correctly defines the five segments of an instrument approach procedure?
a. En-route, Initial, Immediate, Final, Missed Approach
b. Arrival, Initial, Intermediate, Final, Missed Approach
c. Arrival, Initial, Intermediate, Final, Terminal
d. En-route, Initial, Secondary, Final, Terminating
5. What radius from a terminal VOR is MSA provided?

a) 25nm b) 10nm c) 15nm d) 15km
6. What is the longest period of time that you can fly the 30° leg of a teardrop procedure when joining a
holding pattern?
a) 1 ½ mins b) 2 ½ mins c) 3 mins d) 30 secs
7. What is the optimum gradient of the final approach segment (the glide path)?
a) Not less than 3.5% b) 3.5°
c) About 300ft/nm d) Should not exceed 3%
8. What is the maximum speed (under normal conditions) for an aeroplane to enter a hold at 11,000 ft
without special ATC clearance?
a) 230 kts b) 285 kts c) 250 kts d) 240 kts
9. What is the climb gradient required during the intermediate segment of a missed approach?
a) 5.5% b) 2.5% c) 0.8% d) 3.3%
10. For a straight departure, track guidance is to be required within:

a) 10 nm from end of DER b) 10 km from end of DER
c) 10.8 nm from end of DER d) 10.8 nm from runway threshold
11. During the final approach, which of the following facilities is the most accurate for providing track
guidance?
a) VOR b) ILS localizer c) ILS glide path d) NDB
19
12. A precision Approach Procedure is defined as:

a) An approach using bearing, elevation and distance information
b) An approach with a crew of at least 2 pilots trained for such operations
c) An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and glide path information provided by an
ILS/MLS or a PAR
d) An approach using bearing, elevation and, optionally, distance information
13. Which of the following correctly defines the phases of a missed approach procedure?
a) Initial, Immediate, Final Missed Approach
b) Initial missed approach, Final missed approach
c) Initial missed approach, Intermediate missed approach, Final missed approach
d) En-route, Initial, Secondary, Final,
14. What is the optimum gradient of the final approach segment (the glide path)?
a) Not less than 3.5%
b) 3.5°
c) About 300ft/km
d) Should not exceed 5%
15. Where does the initial approach segment end?

a) At the start of the final approach segment
b) At the FAF
c) Overhead the facility upon which the procedure is based
d) At the IF
16. In general, for a straight in non-precision approach, the MDA/H will be not less than:
a) OCH/A
b) 200ft
c) 350ft
d) 400ft
17. In a missed approach procedure, turns are not specified until the climb is established. Why is this?
a) The aeroplane is too close to the ground and obstacle clearance may not be achieved
b) The final approach track is along the extended centre line of the runway and deviation from this
track may result in a collision with other approaching aircraft
c) The safest direction to go is in the direction of the runway and the climb-out lane
d) The initialization of the climb (attitude change, drag reduction, application of power) requires
the attention of the pilot, therefore turns are not specified.
18. Where does the missed approach procedure start?
a) At the beginning of the initial missed approach phase
b) At the missed approach point (MAPt)
c) At the point at which the instrument approach procedure cannot be continued
d) At DH for a precision approach or at MDH for a non precision approach
19. When carrying out a 45/180° procedure turn in CAT C, D or E aircraft, how long should the 45° leg be?
a) 1 minute b) 1 minute 15 seconds c) 1 minute 30 seconds d) 2 minutes
20. What is the airspeed for holding area construction for a CAT B aircraft in a hold under normal
conditions at 4,250 metres (14,000 ft)?
a) 0.83 Mach
b) 490 km/hr (265 kts)
c) 315 km/hr (170 kts)
d) 520 km/hr (280 kts)
20
21. What is the maximum interception angle which is allowed to the intermediate approach segment from
the initial approach segment for a non-precision approach?
a) 30 ° b) 45° c) 120° d) 15°
22. A missed approach procedure has how many phases?

a) 5 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6
23. An instrument approach is made up of a number of segments. How many of them are there?
a) 4 b) 5 c) 3 d) 6
24. On a precision approach, where does the final approach segment start?
a) DH b) FAF c) FAP d) MAPT
25. On an instrument approach, part of the procedure enables the aircraft to return inbound from outbound
with track reversal. This is called:
a) Base Turn b) Procedure Turn
c) Reverse Procedure d) Racetrack
26. In still air, holding on a facility at 5000 ft, what is the length of the outbound leg?
a) 1 ½ minutes starting over or abeam the fix
b) 1 minute starting abeam the fix
c) It is determined by either distance or time, whichever is specified
d) Not less than 5nm
27. The minimum permissible holding level for a holding pattern is based on the obstacle clearance height of
obstacles within the buffer area. The buffer area extends:
a) All the way around the holding area and encompasses the entry area
b) To 5nm beyond the boundary of the holding area
c) To 5nm beyond the boundary of the holding area but not including the entry area
d) 2nm to the non holding side of the boundary of the holding area and 5 nm from the boundary of
the holding area on the holding side of the pattern
28. What are the obstacle clearance limits for visual manoeuvring (circling)?
a) Only determined for Cats A & B
b) Only determined for Cats C, D & E
c) Different for all Cats
d) The same for all Cats
29. When flying through the transition layer, how is vertical position is reported?
a) As a flight level
b) It depends upon what you have set on the altimeter
c) As an altitude when ascending and as a flight level when descending
d) It doesn't matter because the layer is not very deep
30. At what distance does an SRA normally terminate?

a) 2nm b) 1 nm c) 2 km d) 1/2 nm
31. When/where is the use of aerodrome QFE permitted?

a) When transiting the Aerodrome Traffic Zone
b) Within a zone if the aerodrome is within a CTR
c) When flying en-route in the vicinity of an aerodrome if regional QNH is below the subsc ale of
the altimeter
d) For terrain clearance during the final approach to a runway
32. Which direction are turns in the standard holding pattern?

a) Left b) right c) depends on w/v d) depends on entry made
21
33. When making an approach, when should a pilot change his altimeter from standard to aerodrome
setting, unless otherwise authorized by ATC?
a) Transition altitude
b) Transition level
c) 3000ft above sea level or 1000ft AGL, whichever is the higher
d) Within the transition layer
34. What is the Cat 2 ILS criteria for instrument runways?

a) RVR 350m DH not below 100ft
b) RVR 200 DH not below 100ft
c) RVR 200 DH not below 200ft
d) RVR 300 DH not below 200ft
35. When is OCH for an ILS approach complied with?

a) Not more than 1/2 scale glide path and full scale localizer deflection
b) Not more than 1/2 scale localizer deflection
c) Not more than 1/2 scale glide path and 35 ° localizer deflection
d) Not more than full scale glide path and 1/2 scale localizer deflection
36. For the three entries into a hold, what is the sector tolerance?
a) ±5° b) ± 10 ° c) ±15 ° d) ± 20°
37. How wide is the buffer area associated with a holding pattern?
a) 10 kms b) 10 nm c) 5 kms d) 5 nms
38. If a departure track requires a turn of more than 15°, the turn required is commenced upon reaching a
specified:
a) Altitude/height b) At a fix c) At a facility d) All of the above
39. What is the minimum RVR for a CAT 1 ILS approach?

a) 500 m b) 550m c) 600 m d) 800 m
40. If your transponder fails before departure, can you continue if the flight is a controlled flight?
a) No, you must get it fixed even if the flight does not enter controlled airspace
b) Yes, but only if the flight does not enter class A, B or C controlled airspace
c) Yes if you have entered `X' in field 10 (SSR capability) of the flight plan form
d) Yes after seeking exemption from the requirements to carry SSR equipment on controlled
flights
41. In which stage of an instrument approach do you align with the runway?
a) Initial segment b) Final segment
c) Arrival segment d) Intermediate segment
42. During a visual manoeuvre (circling) in the downwind position you lose visual contact with the threshold
of the landing runway. What do you do?
a) Carry out the missed approach procedure
b) Turn through 90° and head towards the centre of the aerodrome until you regain visual reference
c) Head towards the FAF
d) Orbit in the present position until the visibility improves
43. What are ICAO defined instrument approaches?

a) Non-precision and CAT I / II / III precision
b) Non-precision and Precision in general
c) Precision CAT I / II / III
d) Instrument precision and CAT II / III
22
44. What is the transition level?

a) The first flight level above the transition altitude
b) The highest flight level available below the transition altitude
c) The top of the ATZ
d) The level at which 1013 is set
45. What do the initials SRA mean?

a) Separated Radar Approach
b) Simplex Radar Application
c) Secondary Radar Approach
d) Surveillance Radar Approach
46. What is the name of the phase of an instrument approach in which the aircraft is aligned with the
runway and descent commenced?
a) Final b) Initial c) Intermediate d) Arrival
47. What do the initials EFIS mean?

a) Electronic flight information system b) Electronic flight information service
c) Electronic flight integrated system d) Electrical flight information system
48. Within what angle of the extended centre line of a runway is a non-precision approach considered to be
straight in?
a) 30 ° for all categories b) 30 ° for category A and B
c) 30 ° for category C and D d) 15° for all categories
49. What is defined by a minimum obstacle clearance of 300 m (984 ft) within 46 km (25 nm) of a homing
facility providing the basis for an instrument approach?
a) Minimum Safe Altitude b) Minimum Sector Altitude
c) Mandatory Safety Area d) Maximum Speed Area
50. Is it legal to pass over the Missed Approach Point at an altitude higher than MDA?
a) Yes b) Never c) Sometimes d) It depends on the flight conditions
51. For an instrument approach, the missed approach gradient is:

a) 3% b) 3.3% c) 5% d) 2.5%
52. A straight departure is one in which the initial departure track is within --- of the alignment of the
runway:
a) 20° b) 45° c) 15° d) 25°
53. Within what angle of the extended centre line of a runway is a non-precision approach considered to be
straight in?
a) 30 ° for all categories b) 30 ° for category A and B
c) 15 ° for category C, D and E d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’
54. What is the turn from outbound to inbound called with track reversal?
a) Base turn b) Procedure turn
c) Reversal procedure d) Racetrack procedure
55. The segment where aircraft speed and configuration should be adjusted to prepare the aircraft for final
approach is known as:
a) Arrival segment b) Initial segment c) Intermediate segment d) Final segment
23
56. When following a SID, the pilot must:

a) Calculate the track required and request ATC clearance to follow it
b) Fly the heading without wind correction
c) Adjust the track specified to allow for the wind
d) Fly the heading to make good the required track allowing for the wind
57. T he mi n i mu m o b s tac le c lear a nce r eq uir e me n t i n th e p r i mar y area o f I nt er med ia te

se g me n t is :
a) 300 m b) 150 m c) 90 m d) 100 m
58. Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?
a) From where a new instrument approach can be commenced
b) Where 50 ft obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained
c) Where a climb is established
d) At the missed approach point
59. Who determines OCA/H?
a) The operator b) The flight operations department
c) The authority of the State d) The Commander
60. For visual manoeuvring area for a circling approach is, turns are to be made at:
c) Rate of turn of 30°/sec or at a bank angle of 25 ° whichever is lesser
d) Rate of turn of 3°/sec or at a bank angle of 25 ° whichever is lesser
61. The main factor (s) that dictate(s) in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is/are:
a) The terrain surrounding the aerodrome
b) ATC availability and requirements
c) Availability of navigation aids
d) Airspace restrictions applicable and in force
62. In general, what navigation aids are used to define RNAV departure routes?
a) NDB and ILS
b) VOR and NDB
c). VOR and DME
d) NDB and DME
63. OCH clearance on ILS is given, provided the accuracy flown on the localizer is within:
1
a) /4 scale deflection
b) 1½ scale deflection
c) 1 scale deflection
d) ½ scale deflection
64. Flight level zero is located at the atmospheric pressure level of:
a) 760mm b) 1013.2 hPa c) 29.92 inches d) All of the above
65. When calculating the type of entry to a holding pattern, which of the following is applicable?
a) Aircraft magnetic heading b) Aircraft true track
c) Aircraft track over the ground d) Aircraft compass heading
66. The holding direction of a holding pattern is 052 ° magnetic. You are flying inbound to hold on a
heading of 232° magnetic. What type of join should you make?
a) Direct b) Parallel c) Offset or Parallel d) Reciprocal
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67. What is the zone of flexibility either side of sector boundaries when joining a hold?
a) 5° b) nil c) 10° d) 2°
68. Your transponder fails prior to departure and it is not practical to effect a repair. ATC is required to:
a) Permit you to proceed, as directly as possible, to the nearest suitable aerodrome where a repair
can be made
b) Permit you to proceed as normal
c) Forbid you from taking off
d) Permit you to take off as long as you have indicated the failure in the Flight Plan
69. In case of final approach in a non-precision approach and where FAF is specified the MOC is:
a) 90 m b) 100 m c) 75 m d) 150 m
70. What are the main objectives of altimeter setting?

a) To read height and barometric pressure
b) QNH to be set in the vicinity of the aerodrome and QFE en route
c) To provide adequate terrain clearance and vertical separation
d) To provide altimeter reference to MSL above the transition altitude & to aerodrome level below
71. Flying a holding pattern in a jet aircraft at FL 110, the max IAS is:
72. The abbreviation OIS means:

a) Obstacle in surface
b) Obstruction in surface
c) Obstruction identification surface
d) Obstacle identification surface
73. In case of final approach in a non-precision approach and where FAF is not specified the MOC is:
a) 90 m b) 100 m c) 75 m d) 150 m
74. Which of the following defines a standard holding procedure?

a) Right turn at the fix; 1 minute below 14 000 ft
b) Left turn at the fix; 1 minute below 14 000 ft
c) Right turn at the fix; 1 minute at or below 14 000 ft
d) Left turn at the fix; 1.5 minutes above 14 000ft

a) Right turn at the fix; 1 minute at or above 14 000 ft
b) Right turn at the fix; 1 minute below 14 000 ft
c) Right turn at the fix; 1.5 minutes above 14 000 ft
d) Right turn at the fix; 1.5 minutes at or above 14 000ft
76. The vertical distance of a point or a level, on or affixed to the surface of the earth, measured from mean
sea level is:
a) Altitude b) Height c) Elevation d) Flight level
77. An aircraft‘s vertical position when measured from MSL is reported as:
a. Altitude and QFE is set on the altimeter sub-scale
b. Altitude and QNH is set on the altimeter sub-scale
c. Height and QFE is set on the altimeter sub-scale
d. Altitude and 1013.2 hPa is set on the altimeter sub-scale
25
78. In a category ‘A’ aeroplane, which reversing turn takes approximately 2 minutes in still air?
a) 45/180° procedure turn
b) 80/260° procedure turn
c) 90/270° procedure turn
d) Racetrack
79. During the arrival and initial segments of an instrument approach (not in mountainous areas) what is the
obstacle clearance provided?
a) 300m
b) At least 300m
c) 150m
d) At least 150m
80. When conducting a procedure turn (45°/180°), for how long should the 45° leg be flown for a Cat A or
CAT B aircraft?
a) 1 minute 30 seconds
b) 1 minute
c) 1 minute 15 seconds
d) 2 minutes
81. The main objective (s) of altimeter setting procedures is/are to:
a) Provide adequate vertical separation between aircraft
b) Provide adequate vertical clearance during all phases of flight
c) Protect passengers from air pressure sickness
d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
82. A visual circling approach procedure:

a) Can only be conducted under radar control
b) Is a visual manoeuvre conducted under IMC
c) Entails the radar controller providing separation
d) Has to be conducted with visual reference to the ground
83. The visual phase of a flight after completion of an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into the
position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for a straight-in approach is termed as:
a) Visual Approach
b) Aerodrome traffic pattern
c) Visual Manoeuvring (circling)
d) Contact Approach
84. When on the final approach track a step-down fix is made, the decent has to be conducted such that:
a) You are 50 ft above the nominal glidepath
b) The fix is passed no lower than the specified crossing altitude
c) You leave the intermediate approach altitude step-by-step until reaching the MAPt
d) The fix is passed with the mandatory vertical speed of 500 ft/min.
85. A precision approach is a direct instrument approach:

a) Conducted by a crew consisting of at least 2 pilots who are properly trained
b) Which uses azimuth, elevation and distance information, provided that the pilot uses a flight
director or an autopilot and is certified to a height of 200 ft
c) Which uses azimuth and distance information
d) Which uses azimuth and elevation information
26
86. The minimum sector altitude gives an obstacle clearance of 300 metres within a certain radius from the
navigation aid on which the instrument procedure is based. This radius is:
a) 15 nms (28 kms) b) 30 nms (55 kms)

c) 25 nms (46 kms) d) 20 nms (37 kms)
87. What is the minimum ground visibility for a CAT I ILS approach?
a) 800m b) 550m c) 50m d) 550ft
88. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?

a) I minute 30 seconds
b) 1 minute
c) 2 minutes 30 seconds
d) 2 minutes
89. Where does the initial approach segment begin in an instrument approach procedure?
a) At the IF
b) At the IAF
c) At the FAF
d) At the final en-route fix
90. The outbound timing for a base turn is---- minutes (s):
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) All of the above
91. Which of the following is not the segment of instrument approach procedure?
a) Initial b) Missed approach c) Terminal d) Intermediate
92. Each of an approach segment starts and ends at fixes. Is this always true?
a) Yes b) Yes, but only where a fix is available and within the required tolerance
c) No, the final approach can begin at the interception of the glide path
d) No, the procedure may be flown on timings
93. If the track on an instrument departure is published the pilot is expected to:
a) Correct for the known wind so as to stay within controlled airspace
b) Ask ATC for another heading to steer correcting for wind
c) Ignore the wind and proceed with a heading equal to the track
d) Ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind
94. Under which circumstances may an aircraft on a "straight in" VOR approach continue below OCA?
a) When it seems possible to land
b) When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but does not have the runway in sight
c) When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and is visual with the runway lights
d) When the tower is visible
95. The maximum outbound timing for a base turn is:

a) 1minute b) 2 minutes c) 3minutes d) 5 minutes
96. What is the optimum distance that the FAF can be located?
a) 5 nm from touchdown point b) 5 nm from runway threshold
c) 5 nm from beginning of threshold marking d) 10 nm from runway threshold
97. What is the maximum distance that the FAF can be located?
a) 10 nm from touchdown point b) 5 nm from runway threshold
c) 10 nm from beginning of threshold marking d) 10 nm from runway threshold
27
98. The term "timed approach procedure" is used to expedite, if needed, the approach of a number of
inbound aircraft. This is achieved by asking aeroplanes to
a) Make a step-down descent in approaching sequence
b) Pass the specified inbound fix at a given time
c) Conduct the approach procedure with specified speeds
d) Pass a specific point
99. Which of the following is an invalid squawk?

a) 7777 b) 4128 c) 2000 d) 4701
100. When can an aircraft descend below Initial approach altitude?

1) The aerodrome is visible and will remain so
2) The aircraft is under radar control
3) The underlying terrain is visible
4) The aircraft is conducting a visual approach procedure
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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1. What is the definition of Distress?

a) An emergency condition where an aircraft is in imminent danger and requires
b) Persons on board an aircraft are in imminent danger and the flight cannot be continued
c) The aircraft will be unable to land at a suitable aerodrome
d) The aeroplane has a message to transmit concerning the safety of person on board or
within sight
2. What defines the SAR alert phase (ALERFA)?

a) A situation in which an aeroplane and passengers are known to be in serious and
imminent danger
b) A situation where it is certain that fuel is exhausted
c) A situation where apprehension exists about an aeroplane and its safety
d) A situation in which an aeroplane and its passengers are in emergency
3. Which of the following are the basic Air traffic Services?

a) ATC, Approach Control, Aerodrome Control
b) Flight information service, Alerting Service, Aerodrome Control service
c) Air Traffic Control Service, Flight information service, Alerting Service
d) Aerodrome Control, approach Control, Area Control
4. Which of the following is not a service provided by Air Traffic Control Service?
a) Ground Control b) Aerodrome Control c) Approach Control d) Area Control
5. In what class of airspace are all aircraft separated from one another and VFR is permitted?
a) D b) B c) A d) E
6. Emergency phases means:

a) Uncertainty phase b) alert phase c) Distress phase d) All of the above
7. A control zone extends laterally from the centre of an aerodrome or aerodromes in the direction of
approaching aircraft for at least:
a) 5km b) 5 nm c) 10 nm d) 25 nm
8. What is the speed limit below 10,000 ft in Class E airspace?

a) 250 kts TAS b) 250 kts IAS c) Not applicable d) 250 kph IAS
9. Voice ATIS is transmitted on a:

a) Discrete VHF frequency only
b) Discrete VHF frequency or on voice on VOR
c) VHF frequency or on ILS frequency
d) ILS only
10. Who is responsible for setting into movement the Alert Phase?
a) FIC or the relevant ATCU b) The State and ATC
c) The Area Control and the RCC d) RCC and the FIR
11. What is the definition of the Emergency Phase?

a) The Distress Phase
b) The Alarm Phase
c) The Alert Phase
d) A generic term meaning as the case maybe the Uncertainty Phase, the Alert Phase or the
Distress Phase
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12. FIS is provided to aircraft concerning collision hazards in the following classes of airspace:
a) C, D, E, F, G b) F and G only c) G only d) A, B, C, D, E, F, G
13. What are the three elements of an Air Traffic Control Service?
a) Radar, SAR and FIS
b) Area, Approach and Aerodrome
c) Radar, Procedural and FIS
d) Radar, Procedural and Alerting Service.
14. For VFR flight in class E airspace:

a) ATC clearance and two way radio are required
b) Two-way radio not required
c) ATC clearance and/or two way radio are required
d) ATC clearance is required
15. Danger, Prohibited and Restricted areas must be designated by:

a) Country identifier, followed by P/D/R, followed by the identi fier
b) Country identifier followed by P/D/R
c) P/D/R followed by the identifier
d) Country identifier followed by numbers
16. Which one is control area?

a) TMA b) CTR c) CTZ d) None
17. Who is responsible for designating the RNP for an airway?

a) The State b) The State + ICAO c) ICAO d) RAN
18. In which class or classes of airspace would essential traffic information be given to VFR traffic about other
VFR traffic?
a) B b) B,C,D,E c) B,C d) B,C,D
19. What is the primary function of a CTR and a CTA?

a) The controlling of all traffic close to an aerodrome
b) The controlling of all traffic in Class F airspace
c) The controlling of all traffic in Class F & G airspace
d) The controlling of IFR traffic
20. There lower limit of a control area should coincide with a VFR cruising level when its lower limit is above:
a) 2,000 ft b) 3,500 ft c) 4,000 ft d) 3,000ft
21. What type of airspace extends from the surface to a specified upper limit?
a) Control area b) Air Traffic Zone
c) Control zone d) TMA
22. What class of airspace can you get an advisory service for IFR traffic and a FIS for VFR traffic?
a) C b) D c) G d) F
23. The lowest height of a CTA above ground or water is:

a) 200ft b) 300m c) 200m d) 500ft
30
24. How often is an ATIS updated?

a) Every 30 mins for VFR, every 59 mins IFR
b) When there is a change in information, irrespective of content or intensity
c) When the minimum ceiling and visibility are below VFR minimum
d) When there is a significant change in information.
25. RNP 3 is a containment value meaning that a percentage of aircraft operating along a particular route
would be within 3nm of the centre line all the time. What is that percentage?
a) 98% b) 93% c) 95% d) 90%
26. In what class of airspace is IFR separated from IFR and all other traffic gets FIS?
a) A b) B c) D d) C, D and E
27. The lower boundary of an UIR must be:

a) An IFR flight level b) A VFR flight level
c) Is not specified d) At any flight level
28. List the services provided in a FIR:

a) FIS only b) FIS, advisory ATC, ATC
c) FIS, aerodrome control d) FIS, alerting service
29. When VVIP flights are taking off from any aerodrome in Bangladesh, no aircraft shall be allowed to land
or take off:
a) “Door close time” till 05 minutes before landing
b) 5 minutes before ETA of VVIP flight till door open time
c) “Door close time” till 5 minutes after take-off
d) “Door open time” till 5 minutes after take-off
30. Who organizes the RNP specification for airspace?

a) The State in which the airspace is located b) ICAO
c) The State + ICAO d) States who agree what the RNP should be
31. What is the upper limit of a CTA?

a) 2,000 ft b) 3,000 ft c) 5,000 ft d) A VFR Flight Level
32. The need for the provision of Air Traffic Service is determined by:
a. The density of air traffic involved b. The Meteorological condition
c. The type of air traffic involved d. All of the above
33. In what class of airspace can both IFR and VFR fly and IFR traffic only receives an advisory service
for separation?
a) F b) E c) G d) D
34. When a VVIP flight is expected to operate in controlled airspace:

a) Only IFR allowed b) IFR and VFR also allowed
c) There is no restriction d) Depends on Controller’s discretion
35. You are flying a visual approach in Class C airspace. ATC will:
a) Separate you from all traffic b) Separate you from all IFR traffic
c) Separate you from all arriving traffic d) Separate you from all VFR traffic
36. You are on VFR. In which airspace can you be cleared to fly without continuous two-way
communication?
a) E, F & G b) E &G only c) E, D d) C, D, E
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37. In which class of airspace is IFR and VFR permitted; IFR is separated from all traffic, VFR
separated from IFR and receives traffic information about other VFR traffic?
a) Class A b) Class B c) Class C d) Class D
38. In class C airspace, what flights are separated?

a) All flights
b) IFR from all flights; VFR from VFR
c) IFR from IFR; VFR from IFR and VFR from VFR
d) IFR from IFR; IFR from VFR; VFR from IFR
39. Along some routes in Bangladesh Air traffic advisory service is provided. The service is provided to:
a) All flights at or above FL 150 b) IFR flight at or above FL 150
c) All flights at or above FL 150 d) IFR flights above FL 150
40. An aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to do so within 5 minutes of the ETA of landing
and communications have not been re -established with the aircraft. What phase of the Alerting
Service will be declared by the ATSU?
a) DETRESFA b) INCERFA c) ALERFA d) EMERGFA
41. A Control Zone has to exist to at least:

b) 5 nms from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned
a) 5 kms from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from where
approaches can be made
c) 5 nms from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned against the direction from where
d) 5 nms from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from where
42. When an aircraft encounters difficulty, the initiation of the alert phase is the responsibility of:
a) Air Traffic Coordination Centres
b) Air Traffic Control and Flight Information Centres
c) Search and Rescue Coordination Centres
d) Air Traffic Control Centres only
43. When VVIP flights are landing at any aerodrome in Bangladesh, no aircraft shall be allowed to land or take
off:
a) 5 minutes before ETA of VVIP flight till door open time
b) “Door close time” till 5 minutes after take-off
c) “Door open time” till 5 minutes after take-off
d) “Door close time” till 05 minutes before landing
44. According to ICAO Annex 11, what does the following statement define: "information concerning the
occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may effect the safety
of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low-level
flights in the FIR concerned or sub-area thereof."
a) NOTAM
b) SIGMET Information
c) AIRMET Information
d) En-route Weather Report
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1. When, in airspace where VFR is permitted, the PIC of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight in
accordance with VFR until destination:
1) He/she must inform the control unit of his intention using the expression "cancelling my IFR
flight"
2) He/she must request and obtain clearance
3) ATC will acknowledge with the time the IFR flight is cancelled
4) The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight Which of the following combinations is
correct?
a) 2 and 3
b) 2 and 4
c) 1 and 3
d) 1 and 4
2. When are you not required to make position reports on a controlled flight?
a) When advised by ATC to cease position report
b) If navigating by visual reporting points
c) Outside of controlled airspace
d) If flying under VFR
3. What letter goes in item 8 of a flight plan for a flight starting on IFR then changing to VFR?
a) Z b) Y c) I d) V
4. What is the delay for a controlled flight after which a flight plan has to be re-filed?
a) 30 minutes b) 45 minutes c) 60 minutes d) 25 minutes
5. In Bangladesh, the written incident report should be submitted as soon as possible. However in case the
initial report was not made on air/ground frequency or any other means, the written report should reach
Chairman CAAB:
a) Not later than 10 days from the date of accident occurred
b) Not later than 7days from the date of accident occurred
c) Not later than 3 days from the date of accident occurred
d) Not later than 15 days from the date of accident occurred
6. What is the standard ICAO position report?

a) Aircraft call sign, position, time, level, next position and time, ensuing significant point
b) Aircraft call sign, position, time, level, next position and time
c) Aircraft call sign, position, level, next position and time
d) Aircraft call sign, position, level, TAS, time
7. After a delay of how long must a flight plan be amended or re-submitted for an uncontrolled flight?
a) 15 mins b) 30 mins c) 45 mins d) 60 mins
8. How is speed entered in item 15 of a flight plan?

a) Ground speed b) True airspeed
c) Ground speed plus 10% d) Indicated airspeed
9. Routine AIREP includes following information?

a. Position information and operational information
b. Position information
c. Position information and Meteorological information
d. Position information, operational information and Meteorological information
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10. You have been given a clearance by ATC but you are forced to deviate from it for some reason. What do
you do?
a) Request deviation from the clearance after the fact
b) Tell ATC at any time after the deviation
c) Tell ATC as soon as possible after the deviation
d) Notify ATC in writing within 24 hours
11. You file a VFR flight plan. What do you put in field 16 (total EET)?
a) Time from brakes off to overhead the destination
b) Time from brakes released to landing time
c) Time from take off to overhead the destination
d) Time from take off to landing
12. In the case of a delay of a controlled flight, the filed flight plan must be amended or cancelled and a new
flight plan must be filed, when the delay is:
a) 30 minutes more than the estimated off-blocks time
b) 60 minutes more than the estimated off-blocks time
c) 30 minutes more than the estimated departure time
d) 60 minutes more than the estimated departure time
13. What are the contents of section 2 of an AIREP?

a) Present position and ETA
b) Estimated time over the FIR boundary and endurance
c) Estimated elapsed time (EET) and endurance
d) ETA and endurance
14. In Bangladesh, the written incident report should be submitted as soon as possible. However in case the
initial report was made on air/ground frequency or any other means, the written report should reach
Chairman CAAB:
a) Not later than 10 days from the date of accident occurred
b) Not later than 7days from the date of accident occurred
c) Not later than 3 days from the date of accident occurred
d) Not later than 15 days from the date of accident occurred
34
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 1 0
1. What types of separation do ATC apply?

a) Horizontal, longitudinal and timing
b) Horizontal, vertical and longitudinal
c) Horizontal, vertical and composite
d) Horizontal, vertical and lateral
2. What is a strayed aircraft?

a) One that has gone significantly off-track
b) One that is lost and has reported so to ATC
c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’.
d) One which its position has not been established by ATC
3. What are two types of horizontal separation?

a) Lateral and geographic
b) Vertical and longitudinal
c) Lateral and longitudinal
d) Vertical and lateral
4. If you want to descend through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the minimum separation
is:
5. What is the longitudinal separation standard required for RNAV routes?

a) 80 nm b) 60 nm c) 50 nm d) 20 nm
6. When can one aircraft pass through the level of another aircraft which is flying along an ATS route, in
VMC maintaining own separation?
a) If the pilot requests and the state approves
b) If the pilot requests and it is day time
c) If the pilot requests during day or night
d) Irrelevant - the manoeuvre is not permitted
7. Minimum RNAV separation when RNP is specified is:

a) 80 nm
b) 50 nm
c) 80 or 50 dependant upon the RNP type
d) 20 nm
8. If two aircraft are using the same VOR, by what lateral distance must the aircraft be separated before one
of the two may commence a climb or descent?
a) 5 nm b) 10 nm c) 15 nm d) 20 nm
9. Whilst in IFR in VMC you decide to maintain your own separation to descend through the level of
another aircraft. What is required?
a) During day you must request clearance and with ATC authority approval
b) You must request clearance and the ATC authority must approve, during day or night
c) You only need to request approval for the manoeuvre
d) In CAS the manoeuvre is illegal
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10. How longitudinal separation is achieved?

a) By requiring aircraft to depart at a specified time
b) By requiring aircraft to arrive over a geographical location at a specified time
c) By requiring aircraft to hold over a geographical location until specified time
d) All of the above
11. An ATCO advises a pilot that "clearance expires at 0920 What does this mean?
a) The flight must end by 0920
b) The slot time cannot be later than 0920
c) The next clearance will be issued at 0920
d) Time at which the clearance is cancelled if the flight does not commenced
12. What is the separation standard between aircraft at the same altitude when using DME to determine
range from a beacon?
a) 10 nm where the first aircraft speed is 40 kts faster than the second
b) 10 nm where the first aircraft speed is 20 kts faster than the second
c) 20 nm where the first aircraft speed is 40 kts faster than the second
d) 20 nm where the first aircraft speed is 20 kts faster than the second
13. Two aircraft are using the Mach Number Technique (both at same Mach Number or first faster than
second) for same track separation. If using an RNAV track what would be the standard separation in lieu
of time?
a) 80 nm b) 60 nm c) 50 nm d) 25 nm
14. In case of DR, by what diverging angle must the aircraft be separated before one of the two may
commence a climb or descent?
a) 15º b) 45º c) 30º d) 20º
15. Two aircraft are flying the same route where the Mach number technique is applied. What is the
minimum RNAV distance based separation that may be applied in lieu of the normal 10 minutes
longitudinal separation?
a) 150nm b) 50nm c) 80nm d) 120nm
16. If you want to descend through the level of another aircraft on the same track and when navigation aids
do not permit frequent determination of position and speed, the minimum separation is:
17. For descent through the level of another aircraft on the crossing track, the maximum separation is:
18. A separation minimum based on "RNAV" distance can be used at the moment the level is being passed,
assuming that every aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on-track" waypoint. The minimum
is:
a) 60 nms b) 80 nms c) 50 nms d) 20 nms
19. What is essential traffic?

a) Special flights that do not require a clearance in CAS or under IFR
b) Controlled traffic to which separation is applicable but is or will not be applied from
Other controlled flight
c) Traffic that has priority by virtue of state of emergency, position or altitude
d) Commercial air transport
36
20. In an area where longitudinal separation is based on RNAV information, what conditions are necessary
for the reduced separation standard of 50 nm applied?
a) RNP 20: direct controller/pilot communications, procedural position reports and distance update
every 60 minutes
b) RNP 10: direct controller/pilot communications, procedural position reports and distance update
every 60 minutes
c) RNP 10: direct controller/pilot communications, procedural position reports and distance update
every 30 minutes
d) RNP 20: direct controller/pilot communications, procedural position reports and distance update
every 30 minutes
37
1. At commencement of final approach, if the approach controller has wind component information, what
change in cross wind component change would be passed to the pilot?
2. Where an aeroplane is making a straight in approach to land, what is the maximum time spacing applied
between that aeroplane and any other taking off in any direction?
3. Approach control is provided for:

a) All arriving and departing controlled flights b) All arriving IFR traffic
c) Traffic within the CTA d) All VFR traffic
4. Where an arriving aeroplane is making a complete instrument approach to land, what is the maximum
spacing applied between that aeroplane and any other taking off in any direction?
a) 3 minutes
b) 5 minutes
c) Until the arriving aircraft has started its procedure or base turn leading to final approach
d) 2 minutes
5. A revised EAT shall be transmitted to an aircraft whenever it differs from that EAT previously
transmitted by:
a) More than 5 minutes b) 10 minutes or more
c) 5 minutes or more d) 15 minutes or more
6. If one aircraft wishes to occupy the level of another aircraft which has been cleared to descend, when can
the first aircraft start descending to that level?
a) When the second aircraft reports leaving the level
b) When the second aircraft reports 1,000 ft out of the level
c) When the second aircraft reports at the cleared level
d) When the second aircraft reports through 500 ft from the original level
7. On an approach by an IFR flight, when can this be converted to a visual approach:

a) After the FAF b) With visual reference to the terrain
c) When the visibility is greater than 5km d) After the MAP
8. A controlled flight reports `field in sight'. Under what conditions may the flight make a visual approach?
a) When the controller will provide separation from other traffic
b) The aircraft has passed the FAF
c) With a met visibility at least 8kms
d) The remainder of the approach is to be conducted under VMC.
9. Two aircraft are departing from the same runway, the first aircraft being 40kts or more faster. What
separation should be provided?
10. On departure a 1 minute separation can be applied if the aircraft fly on diverging tracks immediately
after take-off at least:
a) 45° b) 15° c) 30° d) 20°
11. When can normal separation be reduced?

a) When the controller has both aircraft in sight
b) When the following aircraft has the preceding in sight and can maintain it
c) When both pilots request it
d) When both aircraft are under radar control
38
12. What would be considered a significant tail wind component?

a) 3 kts b) 5 kts c) 2 kts d) Any tail wind is significant
13. What is a visual approach?

a) Any approach carried out with the use of visual aids only
b) An instrument approach in VMC
c) Part or all of an instrument approach carried out with regard to visual reference
d) Part of an instrument approach below MDH where visual contact with ground is maintained
14. An EAT shall be determined when an arriving aircraft will be subjected to a delay of:
a) More than 5 minutes b) 10 minutes or more
c) More than 10 minutes d) 5 minutes or more
15. What separation is applied where vertical separation does not exist if a departing aircraft will be flown
through the level of preceding departing aircraft and both are to follow the same track?
16. The term "timed approach procedure" is used to expedite, if needed, the approach of a number of
inbound aircraft. This is achieved by asking aeroplanes to:
a) Make a step-down descent in approaching sequence
b) Pass the specified inbound fix at a given time
c) Conduct the approach procedure with specified speeds
d) Pass a specific point
17. According to international agreements the wind direction must be given in degrees magnetic converted
with local magnetic variation from the true wind direction:
a) Before landing and taxi for take-off
b) In anticipation of the upper wind for areas North of 60° N and South of 60° S
c) When an aircraft is requested by the meteorological office to give an AIREP
d) When the local variation is greater than 10° East or West
39
1. What is the maximum distance from touchdown that a radar controller can request a change of speed to
an aircraft on final approach?
a) 5nm b) 3nm c) 2nm d) 4nm
2. What is the criterion for an aerodrome to be controlled?

a) It must be located within a CTR
b) It must have a control tower giving an ATC service
c) It must have a control tower and be in a CTR
d) It must be in controlled airspace
3. What is the separation for a light aircraft taking off after a medium aircraft providing they are both using
the same runway for wake turbulence?
a) 5 min b) 3 min c) 1 min d) 2 min
4. What is the primary reason for Radar in ATC?

a) Separation
b) Helping when aircraft communications have failed
c) To assist pilots with technical problems
d) To assist pilots of aircraft that are lost
5. When must you operate your SSR transponder?

a) Always
b) At all times unless otherwise instructed by ATC
c) At your discretion regardless of ATC instructions
d) Mode ‘A’ always; Mode C at pilots discretion
6. A light on the aerodrome is unserviceable. Is aerodrome Control required to pass this information to Pilots?
a) Yes b) No c) Yes, but only at night
d) Yes, but only if that light is used for the guidance of aircraft
7. Between two aircraft on the same track, what is the minimum radar separation which must be provided
for wake turbulence?
a) 4 nms b) 2.5 nms c) 2 nms d) 3 nms
8. The maximum speed change that may be required during a radar approach is:
a) ± 40 kts b) ± 5 kts c) ± 10 kts d) ± 20 kts
9. To whom is the alerting service provided?

a) All IFR traffic
b) All flight-planned aircraft
c) All hijacked aircraft
d) All traffic known to ATC
10. An aircraft in receipt of a radar service is told to "resume own navigation". This means:
a) The pilot is responsible for own navigation
b) Radar vectoring is terminated
c) The pilot should contact next ATC unit
d) The pilot should contact the current ATC unit
11. What is standard radar separation?

40
12. In Bangladesh, what is the minimum radar separation within the coverage of primary radar?
13. A radar controller wants to identify an aircraft on radar. By how much will the aircraft be turned?
a) 45° b) 15° c) 30° or more d) More than 30°
14. In Bangladesh, what is the minimum radar separation outside the coverage of primary radar within the
coverage of secondary radar?
15. What is the tolerance factor of Mode C derived height information in RVSM airspace?
± 200ft b) ± 250ft c) ± 300ft d) ± 500ft
16. When may the pilot operate the ìdent’ switch on the transponder?
a) In controlled airspace
b) When requested by ATC
c) In uncontrolled airspace
d) When under radar control
17. If you are given an instruction by ATC, steer heading 030, is the heading:
a) Degrees true, to be corrected for wind
b) Degrees magnetic to be corrected for wind
c) Degrees true
d) Degrees magnetic
18. When should you use a SSR mode C transponder?

a) Only when directed by ATC
b) Always
c) Always in controlled airspace
d) Only in controlled airspace
19. What is the tolerance factor of Mode C derived height information outside RVSM airspace?
a) ± 200ft b) ± 250ft c) ± 300ft d) ± 500ft
20. What separation is required between a medium taking off behind a heavy for wake turbulence?
21. In Bangladesh, what is the minimum radar separation for two aircraft established on the same localizer?
a) 5 nm
b) 5 nm when the first a/c is 20 kts faster than the second
c) 10 nm
d) 20 nm
22. The maximum radar separation between 2 aircraft on the same approach with wake turbulence separation
applied as required is:
a) 6 nms b) 2.5 runs c) 4 nms d) 2 nms
23. If you are intercepted by another aircraft, what do you set on the SSR transponder?
a) A/2000 + C
b) A/7500 + C
c) A/7600 + C
d) A/7700 + C
41
24. During radar vectoring procedures, turns are to be:

a) At pilots discretion
b) Dependant on weather conditions
c) At a standard rate unless instructed by ATC
d) Not less than 30°
25. Aerodrome traffic is considered to be:

a) Aircraft on the movement area and flying in the vicinity
b) Aircraft on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity
c) Aircraft on the movement area only
d) Aircraft on the manoeuvring area only
26. On final approach, what is the minimum radar separation standard, notwithstanding wake turbulence
separation?
a) 5 nm b) 2.5 nm c) 2 run d) 1 nm
27. What is the minimum radar separation when a heavy category aircraft is preceding a light category
aircraft on final approach?
a) 2.5 nm b) 3 nm c) 5 nm d) 6 nm
28. A light or medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy from an intermediate part of the same runway.
What wake turbulence separation will be applied?
a) 3 minutes b) 2 minutes c) 5 minutes d) 1 minute
29. The minima that must be applied to aircraft which are landing after a "heavy" or "medium" aircraft
complying with wake turbulence separation on a timed approach is:
a) Light aircraft behind medium aircraft; 4 minutes
b) Medium aircraft behind medium aircraft; 2 minutes
c) Medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft; 3 minutes
d) Medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft; 2 minutes
30. Which separation minimum must be used for wake turbulence when a medium aircraft departs behind a
heavy aircraft and both use the same runway?
a) 2 minutes b) 1 minute c) 3 minutes d) 4 minutes
31. What does the ATC term "radar contact" mean?

a) The aircraft is identified and will receive separation from all aircraft while you are
communicating with this radar facility
b) ATC is receiving your transponder and will provide you with vectors and advice concerning
traffic until you are notified that contact is lost
c) Your aircraft is identified on the radar screen
d) You receive radar advisory concerning traffic until you are notified that the contact is lost or
radar service is terminated
32. The letter “L" is used in the wake turbulence section of the flight plan when the maximum certified take -
off mass of an aircraft is:
a) 5,700 kg for fixed-wing aircraft and 2700 kg for helicopters
b) 7,000 kg
c) 20,000 kg
d) 7,000 kg or less
33. If an aircraft is vectored to intercept the localizer during parallel runway operations, the final vector must
be such that the aircraft is enabled to intercept the localizer course with an angle not greater than:
a) 20° b) 30° c) 15° d) 25°
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34. Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS):

a) Facilitates ATC services but is not an official organization
b) Only gives ATC information to an aircraft in flight and on the ground
c) Has the same authority and privileges as an ATC organization, but the activities are neither
continuous or regular
d) Can only give limited service to its users but, in any case, cannot give ATC services
43
1. Which of the following did not have a significant role on the development of Aeronautical Information
Service?
a) Introduction of RNP b) Airborne computer based navigation systems
c) Implementation of RNAV d) Classification of airspace
2. Is each contracting state required to set up AIS?
a) Yes, it is a contractual requirement
b) No, if the responsibility is assumed (on a bilateral basis) by another state
c) Yes, but only if the state has more than one FIR
d) Yes, but only if the airspace of the state contains regional ATS routes
3. If the AIS for an FIR is not available on a 24 hour basis, when is it to be available?
a) 0000 to 1700 UTC
b) During the hours of operation of the Air Traffic Unit
c) 2 hours before until 2 hours after a flight is in progress in the FIR
d) From sunrise to sunset
4. An integrated aeronautical information package consists of:

a) AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins
(PIBs), AICs, checklists and summaries.
b) AIP and amendment service, NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins (PIBs), AICs, AIRACs,
checklists and summaries.
c) AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, AIRACs, AICs, checklists and
summaries.
d) AIP & Supplements, AIRACs, NOTAMs and pre-flight bulletins
5. With effect from 1 January 98, with reference to what system is position to be determined for use in the
AIP?
a) WGS-84 b) Lat and Long c) Georef d) National Grid
6. In which section of the AIP would you find information on holding, approach and departing procedures?
a) GEN b) ENR c) AD d) None
7. In what section of the AIP are details of SIGMET found?

a) GEN b) ENR c) AD d) COMMS
8. Where in the AIP is a list of Location Indicators to be found?

a) GEN b) COMMS c) AD d) AGA
9. Where in the AIP is information concerning re-fuelling facilities and services found?
a) ENR b) SUPP c) AD d) GEN
10. Where in the AIP would you find information concerning prohibited, restricted or danger areas?
a) ENR b) SUPP c) AD d) GEN
11. What is the preferable colour of AIP supplements?

a) Red b) White c) Yellow d) Orange
12. What information is contained in a NOTAM?

a) Information of a temporary nature
b) Information concerning runway markings
c) Information concerning temporary obstructions
d) Information concerning parachuting in notified danger areas
44
13. A check list for NOTAMs is issued:

a) Every 5 days b) Every 28 days
c) Every 18 days d) At intervals of not more than one month.
14. AIP supplements with extensive text and graphics cover a short period. What is a long period in this
respect?
a) 1 yr b) 2 months c) 3 months d) 6 months
15. AIRAC is:

a) A breakdown service
b) Notification of operationally significant changes to the AIP
c) A medical evacuation flight
d) An Army Air Corps publication
16. What is the co-efficient of braking, if the braking action is reported as medium?
a) Between. 1.0 and 0.25 b) Between 0.25 and 0.3
c) Between 0.30 and 0.35 d) Between 0.35 and 0.4
17. How long advance of an event is AIRAC information to be published?

a) 14 days b) 28 days c) 42 days d) 7 days
18. On an ASHTAM the alert colour code is stated to be RED. What does it mean?
a) Volcanic eruption is in progress with plume/cloud reported above FL 250
b) Volcanic eruption expected within 12 hours
c) Volcanic eruption is in progress with plume/cloud reported not above FL 250
d) Global alert for volcanic activity
45
1. Where pavements are used by aircraft with maximum take off mass greater than------, the strength of
pavement is reported by the A CN-PCN system:
a) 7000 kg b) 5700 kg c) 7000 lb d) 5700 lb
2. What is the purpose of aiming point marking?

a) To show where the visual and instrument glide path coincide
b) To define a safe landing area
c) It is an alternative method of indicating a displace threshold
d) To provide additional conspicuity of the aiming area
3. A signal square shall be of at least ----- square:

a) 10 m b) 9m c) 9 ft d) 40 m
4. How many wind indicators (wind- socks) are required at a code 4 aerodrome?
a) One b) Two
c) One at each end of the longest runway
d) One at the threshold of each runway
5. A radio altimeter operating area must extend before the threshold of a precision approach runway for a
distance of at least:
a) 100 metres b) 200 metres c) 300 metres d) 500 metres
6. What must the radius of curvature of a taxiway cater for?

a) All aircraft are likely to use the aerodrome
b) Aircraft for which the taxiway is intended
c) The largest aeroplane reference field length code number
d) All aircraft and widening strips to be provided for insufficient width
7. How are the runways marked at an airfield where there are three parallel runways?
a) 02.03.04
b) The QDM for the third runway will be increased by 10°
c) The L and R runways will have differing QDM's
d) `L' `C' `R'
8. What is a stopway for?

a) Stopping after landing distance
b) Extending the Landing Distance Available
c) Stopping after an aborted take-off
d) A runway extension for big aircraft
9. A transverse white stripe on a runway is associated with a:

a) Closed runway
b) Runway which is 2400 meters or longer
c) Displaced runway
d) Runway available for circling to land approaches
10. The stopway is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of the take-off run available which is
prepared as a suitable area:
a) To stop an aircraft after a rejected take-off
b) To stop a landing aircraft in case of an emergency
c) To stop a starting or landing aircraft
d) To stop a landing aircraft if it overshoots the runway
46

a) Taxiway markings are white and runway markings are yellow
b) Numerals on aerodrome signs are reserved for runways
c) A clearway has the same function as a RESA
d) The pairs of touchdown zone markings are separated from each other by 120 meters
12. For a rapid exit taxiway the intersecting angle with the runway should be:
a) Not more than 45º nor less than 25º and preferably 30º
b) Not more than 90º nor less than 45º and preferably 30º
c) Not more than 75º nor less than 45º and preferably 30º
d) Not more than 45º nor less than 30º and preferably 25º
47
1. How many bars are there on a full Calvert approach light system?
a) 5 b) 4 c) 3 d) 2
2. Lead in lights are:

a) Green at threshold across the runway
b) White flashing in direction pointing towards the runway
c) Yellow
d) Steady white across the runway
3. What colour of lights are cautionary areas of runway edge lights?

a) Red or White b) White c) Yellow d) Blue
4. What colour are runway end lights?

a) Unidirectional red b) Unidirectional white
c) Omni directional red d) Omni directional white
5. What is the colour of threshold lighting?

a) Omni directional green
b) Uni-directional green, showing in the direction of the approach
c) Uni-directional white, showing in the direction of the approach
d) Omni directional white
6. On a Cat I lighting system, what is the distance between the single, double and triple lights on the
extended centre-line of a runway?
a) 150 metres b) 200 metres c) 250 metres d) 300 metres
7. What colour lights are runway edge lights, not including cautionary areas or pre-displaced thresholds`?
a) Red or yellow b) White c) Yellow d) Blue
8. An aerodrome identification beacon at water aerodrome is:

a) Flashing yellow b) Flashing white c) Flashing green d) Yellow
9. What colour is an aerodrome identification beacon light on a land based aerodrome?

a) Flashing Green b) Flashing Green and White
c) Steady Green d) Flashing White
10. What is the colour of threshold wing bar lights?

a) Steady white b) Flashing white
c) Steady green d) Flashing green
11. What is the length of the approach lighting for a CAT I system?
a) 300 m b) 600 m c) 900 m d) 1200 m
12. The lateral spacing of runway edge lights for an instrument runway is:
a) 60 m b) Not more than 60 m c) 100 m d) 50 m
13. The lateral spacing of runway edge lights for a non- instrument runway is:
a) Not more than 60 m b) Not more than 100 m c) 100 m d) 90 m
14. Aerodrome information signs are:

a) Black on red, or red on black b) Yellow on red, or black on yellow
c) Yellow on black, or black on yellow d) Orange on black, or black on orange
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15. Taxiway edge lights are:

a) Fixed showing blue b) Fixed showing green
c) Fixed showing yellow d) Flashing showing blue
16. Taxiway centre lights are:
a) Fixed showing blue b) Fixed showing green
c) Fixed showing yellow d) Flashing showing blue
17. Runway lead-in lights must consist of.

a) Only flashing lights
b) A group of at least 3 white lights which are flashing in sequence in the direction of the runway
c) Arbitrary number of green lights
d) Always a straight row of lights in the direction of the runway
18. The abbreviation "PAPI" stands for:
a) Precision Approach Path Index b) Precision Approach Power Indicator
c) Precision Approach Path Indicator d) Precision Approach Power Index
19. A PAPI system consists of

a) 2 wing bars of 4 lights uniformly spaced b) 1 wing bar of 4 lights uniformly spaced
c) 2 wing bars of 6 lights uniformly spaced d) 2 wing bars of 2 lights uniformly spaced
20. On the PAPI system the pilot can see, during the approach, two white lights furthest from the runway
and two red lights closest to the runway. Is the aircraft:
a) Under the approach glide path b) Above the approach glide path
c) Precisely on the glide path d) On or close to the approach glide path
21. What is the light indication of a land-based aerodrome beacon?
a) Green alternating with white flashes or white flashes only b) White flashes only
c) Green flashes only d) Same as an Aerodrome Identity Beacon
49
1. What is the purpose of marking or lighting of obstacles?

a) To reduce hazards to aircraft by indicating the presence of obstacles
b) To draw the attention of pilots to the presence of obstacles
c) To distinguish between old and new (unmarked) obstacles
d) To show presence of obstacles in poor visibility
2. When is an obstacle that extends above a runway take-off climb surface within 3000m of the inner edge,
required to be lit?
a) If it is above 150 m high
b) If it is 150 m or more high
c) If the runway is used at night
d) If it is not sufficiently obvious by its colour and shape
3. What is the colour of a low intensity obstacle light?

a) Blue b) Steady red c) Yellow d) Flashing red
4. Low intensity obstruction lights on buildings and moving objects are:

a) Flashing green b) Flashing yellow c) Steady red d) Steady blue
5. What colour lights are vehicles moving on the aerodrome except emergency and security vehicle
required to show?
a) Flashing yellow b) Flashing red c) Flashing blue d) Steady red
6. What colour lights are vehicles associated with emergency and security required to show?
a) Flashing yellow b) Flashing red c) Flashing blue d) Steady red
7. What colour are emergency vehicles painted that are used on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome?
a) Green
b) Day-Glo orange
c) A single conspicuous colour, preferably red or yellowish green
d) White and red chequered
8. An object of limited mobility (an aerobridge for example) is lit by:

a) Low intensity steady red lights b) Low intensity flashing red lights
c) Medium intensity steady red lights d) Medium intensity flashing red lights
9. It is night time and your aeroplane is parked on the movement area of an aerodrome. Is the aeroplane
required to be lit?
a. Yes, to indicate its extremities unless otherwise adequately illuminated
b. Only if the engines are running
c. No
d. Yes, aircraft are to be lit at all times on an aerodrome
10. What is the principle objective of firefighting and rescue service?

a) To prevent loss of aeroplanes by fire
b) To attend all crashed aircraft to prevent the spread of fire
c) To save life
d) To safe property
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11. Must an aerodrome fire station be located within the confides of an aerodrome?
a) No, providing the response time can be met
b) Yes
c) No
d) No, providing it is within 3 minutes driving time of the aerodrome
12. The level of rescue and fire fighting facilities is dependent upon the category of the aerodrome. What
factors determine this category?
a) Aeroplane reference field length, wing span and outer main gear wheel span of the largest
aircraft using that aerodrome
b) The length of the longest runway and the area to be covered
c) The overall length and the fuselage width of the longest aircraft using that aerodrome
d) The length of the longest runway and total area of hard standings (including access roads)
13. How response time for an aerodrome firefighting/rescue service defined?

a) The time between the initial call and the time when the all responding vehicle(s) is (are) in
position to apply foam at a rate of at least 50% of the rate required
b) The time between the initial call and the time when the first responding vehicle(s) is (are) in
position to apply foam at a rate of at least 50% of the rate required
c) Not more than 3 minutes in all weather conditions
d) It is separate for each aerodrome
14. The operational objective of the rescue and fire fighting service should be to achieve response times of------
to the end of each runway:
a) One minute, and not exceeding two minutes
b) Two minutes, and not exceeding three minutes
c) One minute, and not exceeding three minutes
d) Two minutes, and not exceeding four minutes
51
1. What specifically do SARPS concerning facilitation address?

a) The provision of radio navigation aids
b) The establishment of bilateral international agreements
c) The regulations for certification of aircraft and crew
d) Customs and immigration procedures
2. Are contracting states permitted to inspect crew member’s baggage?

a) Yes, but only to search for narcotics and psychotropic substances
b) Not without the permission and in presence of the embassy
c) Yes, but such inspection shall be carried out expeditiously
d) No
3. What is the purpose of the Crew Member Certificate?

a) To replace the crew licence
b) To negate the need to carry your passport
c) To confirm that you work for an operator whose AOC is issued by a contracting State
d) Identification of Crew including cabin attendants
4. Are passengers and crew required to make a written declaration concerning their ‘check in baggage?’
a) Yes
b) No, an oral declaration is acceptable
c) Yes, if the passenger intends transiting through
d) Passengers yes; crew no
5. The General Declaration is signed by the:

a) The Pilot in Command only
b) The Pilot in Command or the Agent
c) Any flight crew member
d) The Operator
52
1. What does the SAR signal "X" on the ground mean?

a) We need help
b) We are OK
c) We need medical supplies
d) We have gone away
2. For what period are SAR services to be provided by a Contracting State?

a) During the hours of operation of an FIR
b) On a 24 hour basis
c) Hours before until 2 hours after the first flight arrives and the last departing flight within an FIR
d) During the hours of both commercial and military air operations within the FIR
3. Three aircraft are at the scene of an accident. Aircraft 1 arrives first but cannot contact ATC. Aircraft 2
arrives second and has good communications with ATC. Aircraft 3 arrives last and is an SAR aircraft.
Who assumes responsibility?
a) Wait for aircraft 3 to arrive
b) Aircraft 2 because he has good communications with ATC
c) Aircraft 2 until aircraft 3 arrives
d) Aircraft 1 until aircraft 2 arrives who then passes control to aircraft 3
4. Which of the following means `Require assistance'?

a) Y b) X c) LL d) V
5. When sighting a distress flare at night, you should:

a) Circle once
b) Flash landing lights or navigation lights
c) Rock wings
d) Send the letter R in Morse by lights to the downed aircraft
6. Who is responsible for the efficient organization of an efficient SAR service?

a) FIC and RCC
b) RCC and rescue sub-centers
c) FIC, RCC and ACC
d) ICAO through regional navigation plans
7. What does the SAR ground signal "V" mean?

a) We have gone south
b) We need assistance
c) We need medical assistance
d) Yes
8. Using the visual SAR signals the symbol for "we have found all personnel" is:
a) ++ b) LLL c) LL d) Y
9. The phases used to indicate that an aircraft is in distress or used when an aircraft is assumed to be in
distress are:
a) Uncertainty phase, urgency phase and distress phase
b) Uncertainty phase, alert phase, urgency phase and distress phase
c) Uncertainty phase, alert phase and distress phase
d) Uncertainty phase, alert phase and urgency phase
53
1. When an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful interference without being able to make radiotelephony
contact with ATS, should proceed at a level where a vertical separation minimum of 1000 ft is applied:
a) 500 ft b) 1000 ft c) 2000 ft d) 3000 ft
2. In ICAO Annex 17 (Security), what does Security mean?

a) To safeguard international civil aviation operations against Unlawful Interference
b) To safeguard international civil aviation operations
c) To safeguard international civil aviation operations against hijacking
d) To safeguard international civil aviation operations against terrorism
3. ICAO Annex 17 states that each State is responsible for establishing security at:
a) All aerial locations within the FIR
b) At each aerodrome serving international civil aviation
c) All international airports
d) All international and commercial airports
4. Contracting States must design a security programme, with regard to Unlawful Interference, to safeguard:
a) Passengers, cargo and crews for international flights
b) Passengers, crews, ground personnel and the general public
c) Crews only for international flights
d) Passengers, cargo and crews for international flights and, at their discretion, all of these for
domestic flights
5. If armed personnel are to be carried to ensure the safety of an aircraft, then:

a) The PIC must be informed
b) The state of departure must notify the state of arrival
c) The state of departure must notify the airport of arrival
d) All of the above
6. According to Annex 17, security is defined as "a combination of measures and human resources intended
to safeguard:
a) Civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference"
b) International civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference"
c) International aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference"
d) Aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference"
7. Operators are to ensure that procedures are detailed for the carriage of:
a) Deportees and people under lawful custody
b) Deportees, people under lawful custody and inadmissible
c) Only people under lawful custody when physically restrained
d) Only deportees and inadmissible
8. Airlines are to have procedures in place when carrying potentially disruptive passengers confined to:
a) Inadmissible, deportees, persons in custody
b) Persons in custody
c) Inadmissible, deportees
d) Deportees, persons in custody
9. An aircraft subjected to Unlawful Interference cannot be denied:

a) Permission to land and fuel
b) Air Traffic Services, permission to land and the use of navigational aids.
c) Food and water for the occupants of the aircraft
d) Air Traffic Services and fuel
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10. To whom does the National Security organization of a state have to make available a written version of
its national security programme for civil aviation?
a) ICAO and ECAC
b) ICAO
c) ECAC
d) Other States on request
11. For the transport of persons who are at risk for security and/or health, certain precautions should be
taken among which is to:
a) Embark after all other passengers
b) Embark before all other passengers
c) Embarking at the captain's discretion
d) Embarking at the State's discretion
12. An isolated parking area is to be provided for an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference which is
never less than ............ metres from other parking positions:
a) 1,000 b) 2,500 c) 3,000 d) 100
13. A national civil aviation security programme must be established by:

a) ICAO and other organizations including the Contracting States concerned
b) ICAO
c) All Contracting States
d) ECAC
14. Member States should ensure that specific security measures are conducted in the air transport of
undesirable passengers. These are seen as:
a) None of the answers are correct
b) Deportees, inadmissible passengers and persons in custody
c) Deportees and inadmissible passengers only
d) Deportees and persons in custody
15. The State shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft subjected to
an act of unlawful interference until:
a) The end of the subsequent investigation
b) As such time as requested by the passengers and crew
c) Their journey can be continued
d) They are returned to their country of origin
16. A person found to be inadmissible shall be given to the custody of the operator who shall be responsible
for:
a) Transportation to where the person commenced his/her journey or to any place where the person
is admissible at the expense of the operator without redress.
b) Transportation to where the person commenced his/her journey or to any place where the person
is admissible at the expense of the operator. However nothing precludes the operator from
recovering from such a person any transportation costs arising from his/her inadmissibility.
c) Returning such a person to their country of origin
d) Returning such a person to their normal residence
55
1. According to ICAO, who is entitled to be represented on an Aeronautical Accident Investigation Board

(AAIB)?
a) State of Registry, aircraft operator, state of operator, state of design and state of aircraft
manufacture.
b) State of Registry, aircraft operator, state of design, and state of operator
c) State of Registry, state of operator, state of design and state of aircraft manufacture
d) Any ICAO state
2. An aircraft wheel gets stuck in the mud whilst taxiing to the runway for take-off and sustains damage.
This is:
a) An incident
b) An accident
c) A serious incident
d) Covered by normal operating procedures
3. Who is responsible for the investigation of an accident?

a) State of Occurrence
b) State or Registry
c) ICAO
d) Combination of A and B
4. In which language must an accident report be submitted to ICAO?

a) An ICAO (working) language
b) English
c) Major national language
d) Any language of a contracting state
5. The sole purpose of Accident Investigation is the prevention of future accidents and:
a) Apportion blame
b) Nothing else
c) To improve manufacturing design
d) To help judicial investigations
6. When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft must be allowed to resume its flight provided that:
a) The state where the aircraft is registered, the state where the aircraft is designed and the state
where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy, agree that the aircraft is still
airworthy
b) The state where the aircraft is registered is of the opinion that the sustained damage is of such a
nature that the aircraft is still airworthy
c) The state where the aircraft is designed and the state where the prototype of the aircraft is
declared to be airworthy, send a message to the state where the aircraft is registered which says
that the aircraft is still airworthy
d) The state where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy has informed the state
where the aircraft is registered that the sustained damage is of such a nature that the aircraft is
still airworthy
7. Just before arrival at the apron, the aircraft unintentionally taxies onto the grass causing the wheel to ride
into a pot-hole. The aircraft has sustained serious damage and consequently the crew is forced to delay
the departure:
a) Considering that there is no physical injury and that the flight has ended, the action that has to
be taken is merely constricted to notification of the insurance company, the mechanic, the
operator and persons who are in charge of runways and taxiways
b) This is an accident and the crew should follow the appropriate procedures
c) This is an incident and the captain has to report this to the aerodrome authority within 48 hours
d) This is an irregularity in the exploitation. This crew should inform the operator about the delay
caused by necessary repairs
8. According to ICAO, other than State of Registry, state of operator, state of design and state of aircraft
manufacture who else is entitled to be represented on an Aeronautical Accident Investigation Board
(AAIB)?
a) State of PIC
b) Aircraft operator
c) Any state which on request provides assistance or information to help the AAIB.
d) Any ICAO state
1. It has been raining but the surface of a runway has no patches of standing water on it. How would ATC
describe the state of the runway in this situation?
a) Wet b) Damp c) Not dry d) Braking action poor
2. What information concerning contaminants on an aerodrome is reported by SNOWTAM?

a) Clear ice, rime ice and snow
b) Light snow, heavy snow and blizzard
c) Snow, ice and standing water
d) Wet snow, dry snow and frozen snow
3. What is the principle requirement of a signals area on an aerodrome?

a) It must not be green
b) It should be clearly visible from a height of 300 m
c) It must be clearly visible from a height of 300 m
d) It indicates that non-radio traffic is not acceptable
4. Where a parking bay is provided at an aerodrome for the use by aircraft that have been subject to
unlawful interference, what is the minimum distance that parking bay is to be from other bays?
a) 50m b) 100 m c) 150 m d) 200 m
5. What colour is taxiway centre line markings?

a) White b) Green c) Yellow d) Green/yellow
6. What does a white line drawn across a runway indicate?

a) The threshold
b) A temporary displaced threshold
c) A displace threshold
d) 1000 ft from the end zone
7. What do alternate yellow and green centerline lights of taxiway lights indicate?
a) An ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area
b) A fast turn off lane
c) Special care required while taxiing
d) Runway proximity
8. What marks a runway holding position?

a) One of three different line arrangements painted across the taxiway
b) Occulting yellow `guard' lights
c) A red marker board either side of the taxiway
d) A red light stop bar
9. What colour are apron safety lines?

a) White b) Red c) Green
d) A contrasting colour from the aircraft stand markings
10. Do all runways require centreline markings?

a) No, only paved runways
b) No, only runways over 50 m wide
c) No, only instrument runways
d) Yes, but temporary grass runways may be exempt if less than 1200m long
11. A NOTAM is to be issued to addressees for whom the information is of operational significance
provided they would not have..... day’s prior notification. What number of days correctly fills the space?
a) 3 b) 5 c) 7 d) 9
12. What is an ASHTAM used for?

a) Notification of no smoking areas
b) Volcanic activity
c) Predicted volcanic eruptions
d) Aerodromes closed by volcanic ash contamination
13. On a runway with a length of 2500 m, how many pairs of touchdown zone markings are required?
a) 6 b) 5 c) 4 d) 3
14. Which would you expect to find on a taxiway, at the closest point to a runway?
a. A stop bar
b. A pattern ‘A’ runway holding position
c. Cat 1 holding point
d. A taxiway/runway intersection sign
15. For an instrument runway, how far from the centre line of the runway is a `runway vacated' sign
positioned?
a) 30 m b) at the end of the ILS/MLS sensitive area
c) 60 m d) A distance equal to twice the width of the runway
16. Crash/rescue (emergency) services provision is categorized according to physical characteristics of the
type of aeroplane using the aerodrome. The categories are 1 - 10. Upon what are the categories based?
a) Length and max take-off mass
b) Max number of passengers and crew
c) Overall length and fuselage width
d) Max landing mass and max number of passengers
17. What is the ICAO bird strike information system called?

a) IBSI b) IBIS c) IRIS d) BSIS
18. An obstacle that is required to be marked in the vicinity of an aerodrome where night operations are
carried out is 180 m high. How is it to be lit?
a) High intensity white flashing lights
b) Red flashing lights
c) Steady (non flashing) red lights
d) A combination of red lights every 50 m and high intensity flashing white at 90 m and 180 m.
19. How is a paved pre-threshold area which is not suitable for use by aircraft, marked?
a) By white arrows directing approaching aircraft to the displaced threshold
b) By yellow chevrons pointing towards the threshold
c) By a yellow X
d) By white crosses evenly spaced
20. What is the purpose of a Crew Member's Certificate?

a) To permit aircrew temporary residence in en route countries
b) To allow flight crew to be exempt customs, health and immigration formalities at an enroute
aerodrome
c) To replace the crew member's licence
d) To provide identification of aircrew
21. What is defined as: À control area or portion thereof established in the form of a corridor equipped with
radio navigation aids'?
a) A terminal control area b) An airway
c) An upper air route d) A flight entry/exit corridor
22. What is the meaning of this SAR ‘N’ visual signal when used by survivors on the ground?
a) Require assistance b) Negative
c) Affirmative d) Require medical assistance
23. 25%of the runway of a runway is covered with standing water. How would ATC describe the state of the
runway?
a) Water patches b) Flooded c) Damp d) Wet
24. Two aircraft are departing from a reporting point defined by an NDB. What is the minimum track
separation required before one aircraft would be permitted to climb/descend through the other aircraft's
level?
a) 15° and a distance of 15 nm or more b) 15° and a distance of 15 Km or more
c) 30° and a distance of 15 nm or more d) 30° and a distance of 15 Km or more
25. What track divergence angle is required immediately after take off to allow a departure interval of one
minute between successive departures from the same runway to be achieved?
a) 10° b) 15° c) 30° d) 45°
26. If two aircraft are departing from the same runway on the same track, and the second intends to climb
through the level of the preceding one, what separation must be applied?
a) 5 minutes b) 3 minutes c) 2 minutes d) 10 nm
27. For a separation of 2 minutes to be applied between successive departures on the same track, what is
the required speed difference?
a) The preceding aircraft must be 20kts faster than the following aircraft
b) The preceding aircraft must be 40kts faster than the following aircraft
c) The preceding aircraft must be 50kts faster than the following aircraft
d) The preceding aircraft must be 10kts faster than the following aircraft
28. What classifies an aeroplane as `heavy' for wake turbulence separation?

a) Maximum certified Take-off mass of 136 000 lb or more
b) AUW of 136 000 kg or more
c) Maximum certified Take-off mass of more than 136 000 kg
d) Maximum certified Take-off mass of 136 000 kg or more
29. What type of air traffic service is provided in class F airspace?

a) Air traffic advisory service to IFR flights and flight information to VFR
b) Air traffic advisory to all participating IFR traffic and flight information to others
c) Radar advisory service to participating traffic and flight information where no radar is
available
d) Air traffic control to participating traffic and advisory ATC to all other
30. What is required for aircraft flying IFR in advisory airspace but not electing to use the air traffic
advisory service?
a) Keep clear of all notified advisory routes
b) Fly at VFR flight levels
c) File a flight plan
d) Maintain a good look out for other IFR traffic using the service
31. An IFR flight not in receipt of an advisory service wishes to cross an advisory route. What procedure shall
be used to cross the route?
a) Cross at an intermediate level i.e FL75: FL95 etc..
b) Cross at 90° to the centre line at the appropriate IFR level
c) Cross at 90" to the centre line at the appropriate VFR level
d) Such crossings are only to be made at the base of the airway
32. Which of the following is an approved method of identifying a contact on radar as an aeroplane to which a
service is to be given?
a) The aircraft reporting his position as a range and bearing from the radar head
b) Observation of a SSR squawk
c) Observation on radar of a turn made by the aircraft
d) Aircraft compliance with an instruction to squawk ident
33. A MEDIUM wake turbulence category aircraft is following a HFAVY category aircraft on a radar
vectored approach to land. What is the minimum radar separation to be applied'?
a) 5 nm
b) 4 nm providing 1000 ft vertical separation also maintained
c) 6 nm until the speed of the heavy is reduced below wake turbulence threshold
d) There is no specified minimum for this case
34. You are flying IFR in controlled airspace and are advised that radar service is terminated. What must
you do?
a) Resume position reports
b) Squawk standby
c) Squawk A/2000
d) Leave controlled airspace
35. If you are flying a surveillance radar approach (non-precision), what information must the radar
controller pass to you?
a) Your distance from touchdown and observed deviation from the glide path
b) Distance from touchdown and advisory height information
c) Range and bearing from touchdown and when you are at MDH
d) Distance to run to your MDH and deviation from the extended centre line
36. Which of the following defines a visual approach?

a) When an instrument approach is not completed and visual reference to terrain is subsequently
maintained
b) An approach made under VFR using instrument height and track guidance
c) Any part of an instrument approach that is carried out in VMC
d) The circling portion of a precision approach to a runway other than the runway on which the
landing is to be made
37. What is the only item permitted to protrude through the plane of an approach lighting system within
60 m of the centre line?
a) An ILS or MLS azimuth (centreline guidance) antenna
b) A fixed object not more than 45 ft high
c) The ILS glide path antenna
d) The aerodrome boundary security fence
38. Which of the following would be described as aerodrome traffic?

a) All the traffic on the movement area of an aerodrome
b) All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and flying in the vicinity of the
aerodrome
c) Local flying aeroplanes in or adjacent to the visual circuit.
d) Any traffic flying through the aerodrome traffic zone.
39. Where a runway has a displaced threshold what colour are the edge lights between the end of the runway
and the displaced threshold, showing in the direction of the approach?
a) Blue b) White c) Red d) Green
40. Are runway edge lights required to show all round (omni-directionally)?
a) No, only in the direction of the approach
b) Yes where they are intended to provide guidance during circling
c) No, they are only required to show in azimuth in both runway directions
d) Yes but not vertically (limited to 15° above the horizontal)
41. Which of the following correctly describes runway end lights?

a) Fixed; uni-directional; red b) Fixed, omni-directional; red
c) Fixed; uni-directional; green d) Fixed; omni-directional; green
42. Generally, when and where are stop bars provided?

a) They are used as traffic lights on aerodromes to control vehicles in poor ground visibility
b) They are used specifically to indicate "stop here" to non radio traffic in IMC conditio ns
c) They are positioned at all taxi-holding positions for runways when RVR is less than
350m
d) At runway entrances to prevent vehicular movement in RVR equal to or less than 550m
43. Which of the following correctly defines aerodrome operating minima for take-off?
a) Cloud base and ground visibility
b) Cloud ceiling and ground visibility
c) Cloud base and RVR
d) Runway visual range and/or visibility and, if necessary, cloud conditions
44. What is the name of the part of an aerodrome used for the positioning of aircraft for the
embarkation/disembarkation of passengers?
a) Apron b) Ramp c) Stands d) Parking Bays
45. What is the proper name given to an aircraft operation that involves the transport of passengers, cargo
or mail for remuneration or hire?
a) A scheduled air service b) A commercial air operation
c) A commercial air transport operation d) A commercial transport operation
46. What is defined as that portion of a flight in which the aircraft descends below 1000 ft above the
relevant DH or MDH?
a) Glide path b) Final approach
c) Approach to landing d) Go around/Missed approach
47. What is the maximum permitted intercept angle between the initial approach track and the intermediate
approach track for a precision instrument approach?
a) 30° b) 45° c) 60° d) 90°

a) At DH/MDH
b) At any point that the criteria to continue the approach is lost
c) At the missed approach point
d) Over the threshold of the instrument runway
49. If the ILS glide path transmitter fails during an instrument procedure can the approach be continued?
a) Yes, but DH now becomes MDH
b) Yes, but the non-precision criteria must be complied with
c) It depends if the descent on the GP has already been initiated
d) Yes if the flight is in VMC
50. Why is the descent gradient kept as low as possible in the intermediate approach segment?
a) This is the segment in which speed and configuration are adjusted
b It is not possible to guarantee full obstacle clearance in this segment
c) Usually track guidance is poor in this segment resulting in a requirement for a high MOC
d) Pilots cannot cope with track maintenance and a high rate of descent
51. A Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) Area may be sectored to exclude a prominent obstacle. Under what
circumstances is this is permitted?
a) Flight visibility of 1500 m or more and cloud ceiling of 850 ft or more
b) The obstacle is outside the final approach and missed approach areas
c) The obstacle lies on the other side of the aerodrome from the threshold of the landing runway
d) Flight visibility of 3000 m or more and cloud ceiling of 800 ft or more
52. A holding pattern is established on a fix position with an inbound heading of 180° mag. You are
approaching the fix from the southwest. What type of joining procedure is required?
a) Offset join (sector 2)
b) Reverse direct (sector 3)
c) Teardrop procedure (sector 2)
d) Sector 1 (parallel)
53. You are required to carry out a sector 2 (offset) joining procedure to a holding pa ttern. What is the
required track divergence from the reciprocal inbound track from on top the fix towards the outbound
end?
a) 20° b) 30° c) 45° d) 60°
54. It is normal for holding procedures at 14 000 ft and below to include an outbound leg of 1 minute
duration. How long is the outbound leg above 14 000 ft?
a) 1½ minutes b) 2 minutes c) 2 ½ minutes d) not specified
55. How much obstacle clearance is guaranteed at the edge of the buffer area (5 nm outside of the holding area)
of a holding pattern?
a) 300 m (1000 ft) (2000 ft in mountainous areas) b) 150 m (500 ft)
c) 90 m (300 ft) d) nil
56. Is the length of the outbound leg of a holding pattern always expressed in terms of time?
a) Yes
b) Yes, even where DME is used the maximum length is always a time
c) No, where DME is available it may be specified in terms of distance
d) No, where G/S is less than 65kts, the outbound leg must be at least 2 nm long
57. The QNH is 1040 hPa and you are flying over the sea at 800 ft. What (assuming the T/Alt is MSL) would
your flight level be?
a) FL 10
b) FL 0
c) FL -10
d) You have no intention of flying over the Dead Sea; therefore the question is totally academic!
58. After setting 1013 hPa at the transition altitude you have to climb 350 ft to the transition level (FL 40)
which is the level you intend to fly en-route. Whilst climbing you are asked to report your vertical position,
how would you do this?
a) As a height above the transition altitude
b) As an altitude AMSL
c) As a FL with respect to the standard pressure setting of 1013 hPa
d. Tell the air traffic controller that you are already at FL 40 (it will take a short time to get there
anyway!)
59. Which of the following is true concerning the Transition Altitude?

a) It can be a general altitude applicable to all aerodromes in a state
b) The calculated height should be rounded down to the nearest 1000 ft
c) The transition altitude shall be as low as possible but must not be less than 3000 ft
d) The transition altitude must allow 1000 ft clearance above the top of the aerodrome traffic zone
60. What is a controlled flight?

a) A flight under IFR and in accordance with an Air Operators Certificate
b) A flight which is subject to an ATC clearance
c) A flight in controlled airspace in IFR or VFR
d) A flight by a manned aeroplane
61. What defines a danger area?

a) A zone where military activity includes firing projectiles in the air
b) Notified airspace (zone or area) where activities dangerous to flight may exist
c) NOTAM activated airspace where the normal flight rules are disregarded
d) Airspace of defined dimensions where activities dangerous to flight may exist
62. Which of the following correctly defines flight visibility?

a) The ability to determine in the air the distance and identity of unlit objects by day and lit objects
by night
b) Visibility determined in flight not obscured by cloud, dust, haze or precipitation
c) The forward distance at which objects can be discerned in the air with reference to atmospheric
conditions
d) The forward visibility from the cockpit of an aeroplane
63. When does night exist?

a) From the end of evening civil twilight until the end of morning civil twilight
b) From the beginning of evening civil twilight until the beginning of morning civil twilight
c) From the beginning of evening civil twilight until the end of morning civil twilight
d) During the period when the centre of the Sun's disc is 6° below the horizon
64. In order to fly as pilot-in-command for commercial air transport, you must hold a type rating on the
type of aeroplane you are required to fly. What must you pass to achieve the type rating?
a) A skill test including oral examinations as required

b) A proficiency check including oral examinations as required
c) Theoretical knowledge tests both written and oral
d) A flying performance check and a written type technical examination
65. Which of the following correctly defines Special VFR?

a) Any flight cleared by ATC to operate in conditions less than VMC in which the pilot is
required to remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
b) A flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in conditions below VMC
c) A flight in IMC for which the pilot and/or the aeroplane is unable to comply with the
requirements of IFR
d) A VFR procedure to enable an aeroplane to transit a control zone or area in IMC without
compliance with IFR
66. What is the name for a taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle designed to allow aeroplanes
to turn off at higher speeds than would be permitted at a right angled turn on to a normal taxiway?
a) Rapid turn off lane b) High speed taxiway
c) Rapid exit taxiway d) High speed exit
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 2 2 Sec tio n -1
1. ICAO Annex 17 lays down the rules to establish security measures for passengers with regard to:
a) Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design.
b) Cabin baggage and checked baggage
c) Passenger baggage
d) Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods and access control
2. Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when:
a) Cloud base is lower than 1500 feet and less than 5 kms ground visibility
b) Cloud ceiling is lower than 1500 feet and less than 5 kms ground visibility
c) Cloud ceiling is lower than 1500 feet or less than 5 kms ground visibility
d) Cloud ceiling is1000 feet and less than 5 kms ground visibility
3. When requesting to engage the parking brake, a marshaller will give the following signal :
a) Arms repeatedly crossed over the head
b) Arms placed down and crossed in front of the body moving horizontally
c) Raise arm and hand with fingers extended horizontally in front of the body, then clench fist.
d) Arms placed horizontally sideways with palms towards the ground beckoning downwards.
4. When doing a procedure turn (45°/180°) going outbound turned 45° off track, the time taken from the
start of the turn for Cat A and Cat B aircraft is
a. 1 minute 30 seconds b. 1 minute
c. 1 minute 15 seconds d. 2 minutes
5. Concerning the three entries to the hold, the entry has to be flown on:
a) Heading b) Track c) Course d) Bearing
6. When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall:

a) Only use the word "wilco" b) Only read back the code
c) Only use the word "roger" d) Read back mode and code
7. In an instrument approach procedure, the segment, where the aircraft is lined up with the runway centre line
and when the decent is commenced is called:
a) Intermediate approach segment b) Initial approach segment
c) Arrival segment d) Final approach segment
8. What does DER mean?

a) Distance end of route b) Departure end of runway
c) Distance end of runway d) Departure end of route
9. What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure?
a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed
b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible
c Maintain your assigned altitude and land at the nearest aerodrome at which there are VMC
conditions
d) Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA
a) The State b) The Operator c) The Commander d) The owner
11. Who is responsible for the safety of an ATC clearance concerning terrain clearance?
a) The ATS reporting point when accepting the flight plan
b) The Captain
c) The Operator of the aircraft
d) ATC
12. For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least:
a) 50 minutes before off-block time b) 60 minutes before departure
c) 45 minutes before departure d) 30 minutes before off-block time
13. An aircraft, on a radar approach, should be told to consider making a missed approach when the aircraft
is not visible on the radar screen for a significant period of time and when it is within
a) The last 2 nms of the approach b) The last 5 nms of the approach
c) The last 4 nms of the approach d) The last 3 nms of the approach
14. Clocks and other timing equipment used by air traffic services must be checked in order to be able to
give the time within plus or minus:
a) 15 seconds of UTC b) 10 seconds of UTC
c) 30 seconds of UTC d) 1 minute of UTC
15. How many red lights have to be seen by the pilot, whose aircraft on final approach follows a normal
PAPI defined glide-path?
a) 2 b) None c) 3 d) 1
16. A Clearway is a squared area that is established to

a) Protect aircraft during take-off and landing
b) To enable the aircraft to stop in the case of an aborted take-off
c) To enable the aircraft to make a part of the initial climb to a specified altitude
d) To decrease the risk of damage to aircraft which run off the end of the runway
17. When someone's admittance to a country is refused and he/she is brought back to the operator for
transportation away from the territory of the state:
a) The operator won't take any transportation costs from the passenger which arise from his/her
inadmissibility
b) The operator is not responsible for that person, to whom the admittance to the host country is
refused
c) The operator and state of the operator are both responsible for the refused person
d) The operator will not be prevented from taking any transport costs from a person which arises
out of his/her inadmissibility
18. A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level
deviates or is expected to deviate compared to the given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus:
a) 10% b) 3% c) 2% d) 5%
19. Concerning aircraft registration markings, no combinations can be used if they can be mistaken for
a) Codes which are used for identification of ICAO documents
b) Letter combinations beginning with Q
c) 3 letter combinations which are used by international code of signals
d) 5 letter combinations which are used in the international code of signals
20. What is the rule concerning level or height that an aircraft should maintain when flying IFR outside
controlled airspace unless otherwise directed?
a. 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 kms of the heading
b. 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 kms of the estimated position of the aircraft
c. 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 kms of the planned track
d. 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 kms of the planned track
21. The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the:
a) Pilot in command
b) Operator
c) ATC Controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace
d. Owner of the aircraft
22. Pilots are not allowed to use the indent function on their SSR, unless
a) They operate outside controlled airspace
b) If asked by ATC
c) With are within controlled airspace
d) They operate a transponder with mode C
23. It is permitted in a particular sector, if there is a conspicuous obstacle in the visual maneuvering area
outside the final and missed approach areas, to disregard that obstacle. When using this option, the
published procedure shall be:
a) Circling is only permitted in VMC
b) Recommended not to execute a circling approach in the entire sector in which the obstacle is
situated.
c) Prohibit a circling approach for the concerned runway
d) Forbid a circling approach in the entire sector in which the obstacle is located
24. If the track on an instrument departure is published the pilot is expected to:
a) Correct for the known wind so as to stay within controlled airspace
b) Ask ATC for another heading to steer correcting for wind
c) Ignore the wind and proceed with a heading equal to the track
d) Ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind
25. Close to an aerodrome that will be used for landing by aircraft, the vertical position shall be expressed
as:
a) Altitude above sea level on or above transition altitude
b) Flight level on or under the transition altitude
c) Flight level on or under the transition level
d) Altitude above sea level at or below transition altitude
26. A manoeuvre where a turn is made from a "designated track" followed by a turn in the opposite direction
to enable the aircraft to fly the prescribed track is called:
a) Base turn b) Reverse track c) Race track d) Procedure turn
27. The transition of altitude to flight level and vice versa is made:
a) On the transition level in the climb and transition altitude in the descent
b) At the transition altitude in the climb and transition level in the descent
c) At the transition level only
d) At the transition altitude only
28. Continuous Radio communication is not a requirement for:

a) All traffic in F & G airspace b) VFR traffic in E, F & G airspace
c) VFR traffic in F & G airspace d) All traffic in E, F & G airspace
29. Air Traffic Service unit consists of

a) Air Traffic Control Units and Flight Information Centers
b) Flight Information Centers and Air Services Reporting offices
c) Air Traffic Control Units, Flight Information Centers and Air Traffic Services Rep orting offices
d) Air Services Reporting offices and Air Traffic Control Units
30. When the captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance:

a) The Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan.
b) He/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance.
c) He/she may ask a new clearance and the appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance
d) He/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC
31. The transition from IFR to VFR is done:

a) On the Captain's initiative
b) Whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace
c) If told by ATC
d) At the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation
32. According to international agreements the wind direction must be given in degrees magnetic converted
with local magnetic variation from the true wind direction:
a) Before landing and taxi for take-off
b) In anticipation of the upper wind for areas North of 60 ° N and South of 60° S
c) When an aircraft is requested by the meteorological office or on specified points to give a PIREP
d) When the local variation is greater than 10 °East or West
33. The longitudinal separation minimum based on time between aircraft at the same FL, where there is
enough coverage for navigation aids and the preceding aircraft has a higher true airspeed of 20 kts
minimum is
34. What is the length of the approach lighting system of a Cat II precision landing runway?
a) 900m b) 600m c) 300m d) 150m
35. A PAPI must consist of:

a) A row of 4 multi-lamp units at equal distance from each other
b) Two rows of 4 multi-lamp units at equal distance from each other
c) A row of 2 multi-lamp units at equal distance from each other
d) Two rows of 6 multi-lamp units at equal distance from each other
36. Lights at the end of the runway shall be:

a) Steady unidirectional lights radiating white light in the direction of the runway
b) Steady white lights with controllable intensity
c) Steady omnidirectional red lights with controllable intensity
d) Steady unidirectional lights radiating red light in the direction of the runway
37. An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if:
a) The pilot follows the published approach procedures
b) The aircraft receives radar vectors
c) The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain
visual contact
d) All of the above
38. The VMC minima for a VFR flight within ATS airspace class B are:
a) 8 km visibility at or above 3050m AMSL and clear of cloud
b) 5 nms visibility at or above 3050m AMSL, 1500m horizontal and 300m vertical clear of cloud
c) 8 kms visibility at or above 3050m AMSL, 1500m horizontal and 300m vertical clear of cloud
d) 5 nms visibility at or above 3050m AMSL and clear of cloud
39. The minimum response time for the aerodrome rescue and fire fighting services to the end of each
runway as well as to any other part of the movement area is:
a. 3 minutes and not exceeding 4 minutes
b. 2 minutes and not exceeding 3 minutes
c. 2 minutes and not exceeding 4 minutes
d. 3 minutes and not exceeding 5 minutes
40. A pilot crosses his/her hands in front of the face, palms outwards and then moves the arms outwards.
What does this signal indicate?
a) Clear to move forward b) Brakes off
c) Remove chocks d) Clear to close all engines
41. What is required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace?

a) No flight plan required
b) Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory
service or not
c) Flight plan required but PIC need not notify of any changes
d) A flight plan is only required if advisory service is required
42. A Type Rating is applicable to:

a) An aircraft requiring a Certificate of Airworthiness
b) An aircraft with a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by the State
c) An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation
d) An aircraft that requires additional skills training
43. If an aircraft is radar vectored to intercept an ILS localizer, what is that maximum intercept angle?
a) 45° b) 30° c) 15° d) 20°
44. What are the objectives of ATC Services?

a) To prevent collisions between aircraft, to prevent collisions between aircraft on the
maneuvering area and obstructions on that area and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow
of air traffic.
b) To prevent collisions between controlled aircraft and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow
of air traffic.
c) To provide separation of aircraft and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic.
d) To provide separation of controlled aircraft and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow of
air traffic.
45. A TODA consists of:

a) The take-off run available excluding the clearway
b) The take-off run available including the clearway
c) The take-off run available excluding the stopway
d) The take-off run available only
46. The continued validity of a C of A of an aircraft is subject to the laws of:
a) The State of Registration
b) The State of Registration ands the State of the Operator
c) The State of the Operator
d) The State of Registry and the State of Design
47. ATIS will not broadcast which of the information:

a) Cloud at 3 000 ft
b) Cloud at 5 000 ft
c) When Cb is present
d) When the cloud base is below the highest MSA
48. Voice ATIS:
1. Cannot be broadcasted on a voice ILS
2. Cannot be broadcasted on voice VOR
3. Is broadcasted only on a discreet VFH frequency
4. Is broadcasted on either a discreet VHF, VOR or an ILS frequency
a) 1 only is correct
b) 2 only is correct
c) 4 only is correct
d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
49. What is the meaning of the symbol LLL to search parties?

a) We have only found some personnel
b) We have found all personnel
c) Operation completed
d) Nothing found
50. A contracting state which continues to require the presentation of a Cargo Manifest shall, apart from the
information indicated in the heading of the format of the cargo manifest, not require more than the
following items:
a) Airway bill number and the number of packages only
b) Total weight and the number of packages only
c) Total weight and the nature of the goods only
d) Airway bill number, the number of packages and the nature of goods
51. Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under a procedure applicable to:
a) Accompanied baggage or under a simplified customs procedure distinct and different from that
normally applicable to other cargo
b) Cargo
c) Dangerous Goods
d) Mail
52. An area symmetrical about the extended runway centreline and adjacent to the end of the strip, primarily
intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aircraft undershooting or overrunning the runway is defined
as a:
a) Clearway
b) Runway Strip Extension
c) Runway end safety area
d) Altimeter Operating Area Extension
53. For an instrument runway, how far from the centre line of the runway is a "runway vacated" sign
positioned?
a) To a distance of the nearest Pattern À' holding position
b) At the end of the ILS/MLS Sensitive Area
c) It depends on the Aerodrome Category
d) 85 metres
54. What is required if a stop bar is not provided at a runway entrance and runway is to be used with RVR of
less than 550m:
a) Both a Pattern À' and `B' holding position
b) High intensity taxiway centerline lights only
c) Runway guard lights
d) Both high intensity taxiway centerline lights and high intensity taxiway edge lights:
55. ATIS broadcasts shall contain cloud details, when:
a) They are below 2,500m
b) They are below 1,500m or highest MSA, whichever is the greater
c) They are above 1,500m
d) They are at or below 1, 500m or highest MSA, whichever is the greater
56. What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach ?
a) Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach
b) Land on the instrument runway
c) Initiate a missed approach
d) Return to the FAF
57. When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by
the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, in
addition, shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to:
a) Each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detaine d
as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO.
b) ICAO only
c) Each State whose citizens were known to be on board only
d) ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only
58. When a State renders valid a license issued by another Contracting State, as an alternative to issuance of
its own license, the validity shall:
a) Not extend beyond 15 days after the validity of the license.
b) Not extend beyond the period of validity of the license
c) Be at the discretion of the Contracting State rendering it valid
d) Be at the discretion of ICAO
59. Where in the AIP would you find details on instrument holding procedures?
a) GEN b) ENR c) AD d) AGA
60. The loading limitations shall include:

a) All limiting mass and centres of gravity
b) All limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loading
c) All limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor loading
d) All limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity
61. The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) establishes:

a) Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.
b) Aeronautical standards adopted by all states.
c) Proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.
d) Standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the
Chicago convention.
62. If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language
is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted
aircraft to descend for landing?
a) Let down b) Descend c) Descend for landing d) You land
63. An aircraft manoeuvrings in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower.
This signifies that the aircraft must:
a) Do not land because the airport is not available for landing.
b) Give way to another aircraft.
c) Return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course.
d) Not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.
64. Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio
failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?
a. Switching on and off three times the landing lights
b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
c. Switching on and off four times the navigation lights
d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights
65. The main factors that dictate in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is:
a) The terrain surrounding the aerodrome.
b) ATC availability and requirements.
c) Availability of navigation aids.
d) Airspace restrictions applicable and in force.
66. One of the conditions to descent below the MDA on a circling approach is:
a) The landing runway and an alternative landing possibility (runway) are in sight.
b) The required visual references have been established and can be maintained.
c) The Ceiling is 1500 ft or higher.
d) The horizontal Visibility is at least 5 NM and the Ceiling is 1500 ft or higher.
67. If for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal conditions laid down for any
particular holding pattern, he should:
a) Advise ATC as early as possible
b) Execute a non-standard holding pattern in accordance with the performance of his aeroplane
C) Remain within the protected area, but may deviate from the prescribed holding
d) Follow the radio communication failure procedure
68. The Transition Level:

a) Shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.
b) Shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established.
c) Is published for the aerodrome in the Section ENR of the AIR
d) Is calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-in command.
69. When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode :
a) Only when directed by ATC
b) Unless otherwise directed by ATC.
c) Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace
d) Regardless of ATC instructions
70. Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:
a) Achieving separation between IFR flights
b) Achieving separation between controlled flights
c) Providing advisory service
d) Providing flight Information Service
71. The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled
airspace below FL 290 is:
a) 500 feet (150 m) b) 2500 feet (750 m)
c) 1000 feet (300 m) d) 2000 feet (600 m)
72. For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be
reduced:
a) If the commander of the involved aircraft so requests
b) Only if the air traffic controller has the involved aircraft in sight
c) When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is able
to maintain own separation
d) At the discretion of the air traffic controller
73. In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be applied when a
medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are using the same runway?
a) 3 minutes b) 2 minutes c) 1 minute d) 4 minutes
74. When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restore is impossible, then:
a) You must indicate the failure in the fight plan, after which the ATC will endeavor to provide for
continuation of the flight;
b) Departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed
c) You are not allowed to commence the flight
d) The flight can only continue in the most direct manner;
75. In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre
line have a length of:
a) 250 m b) 200 m c) 150 m d) 300 m
76. When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory
of the state, the operator:
a) Shall not be precluded from recovering from such person any transportation costs arising from
his (her) inadmissibility
b) Shall not recover from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her)
inadmissibility
c) Is not responsible for the person inadmissible for entry in the receiving state
d) The state of the operator is responsible for the person inadmissible
77. Who is responsible for the initiation of an accident investigation?

a) The Authority of the State in which the accident took place
b) The Operators of the same aircraft type
c) The aircraft manufacturer
d) The State of design and manufacturer
78. When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the
responsibility of the:
a) Operational air traffic control centres
b) Flight information or control organizations
c) Air traffic co-ordination services
d) Search and rescue co-ordination centres
79. An aircraft intercepted by a military aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication
with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:
a) 121.5 MHz, and if communications cannot be established, on 243.0 MHz
b) 121.5 MHz, and if communications cannot be established, on 406.0 MHz
c) 121.5 MHz, and if communications cannot be established, on 282.0 MHz
d) 243.0 MHz, and if communications cannot be established, on 121.5 MHz
80. Except in special cases, the establishment of change-over points shall be limited to route segments of:
a) 1 00 nms or more b) more than 60 nm
c) 60 nms or more d) 50 nms or more
81. The body, which governs licensing of pilot licenses or the equivalent documents, must decide if the
experience of the pilot in training done on a simulator is acceptable as part of the total flying time of
1500 hours. Exemption from such experience shall be limited to a maximum of:
a) 100 hours, of which not more than 15 hours may be done on a flight procedure trainer or a
synthetic flight trainer
b) 75 hours, of which not more than 20 hours may be done on a flight procedure trainer or a
synthetic flight trainer
c) 100 hours, of which not more than 20 hours may be done on a synthetic flight trainer
d) 100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours may be done on a flight procedure trainer or a basic
instrument flight trainer
82. When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall:

a) Only use the word "wilco"
b) Only read back the code
c) Only use the word "roger"
d) Read back mode and code
a) The ATS reporting point when accepting the flight plan
b) The Captain
c) The Operator of the aircraft
d) ATC
84. The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the:
a) Pilot in command
b) Operator
c) ATC Controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace
d) Owner of the aircraft
85. Contracting States shall carry out the handling, forwarding and clearance of airmail and shall comply
with the documentary procedures as proscribed by:
a) The Acts in force of the Universal Postal Union
b) The Acts in force of the General Postal Union
c) The Acts in force of the Warsaw Convention
d) The Acts in force of the International Postal Union
86. Speed restriction is applicable for:

a) IFR traffic in D, E, F & G airspace below FL 100
b) VFR traffic in C, D, E, F & G airspace below FL 100
c) IFR traffic in D, E, F & G airspace & VFR traffic in C, D, E, F & G airspace
d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 2 2 Sec tio n -2
1. The `standards' contained in the annexes to the Chicago Convention are to be considered:
a) Advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states
b) Binding for all member states
c) Binding for all member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference
d) Binding for all airline companies with international traffic
2. It is suspected that a person on board an aircraft will commit an act that would jeopardize the safety of
the aircraft; the PIC may:
a) Request the crew to detain the passenger
b) Ask the passenger to disembark
c) Order the other passengers to detain the passenger in question
d) Hand him her over to the authorities
3. Which of the following is not permitted in the registration mark of an aircraft?

a) Four letter Q codes
b) Five letter combinations used in the international code of signals
c) Three letter international identification signals
d) Any number identifying an ICAO document
4. The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot under supervision of the PIC and performing the
functions and duties of the PIC shall be entitled to be credited:
a) With 50% of the flight time towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
b) In full, but not more than 300hrs towards the total time require for a higher grade of licence.
c) The flight time in full towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
d) The flight in full toward the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence according to
the requirements of the licensing authority.
5. For an ATPL (A), how many night hours are required?

a) 30 b) 75 c) 100 d) 150
7. What is the period of validity of a PPL class 2 medical in according to JAR FCL 3?
a) 24 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65, then 6 months
thereafter
b) 24 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65
c) 60 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65, then 6 months
thereafter
d) 60 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65
8. A CPL applicant undergoing integrated flight training shall be completed :

a) 150 hours flight time including 10 hours instrument ground time
b) 150 hours flight time
c) 200 hours flight time including 10 hours instrument ground time
d) 200 hours flight time
9. As per ICAO, what minimum ground visibility is required to enable a S VFR flight to take off from an
aerodrome in a CTR?
a) 1000m b) 1500m c) 2000m d) 3000m

a) Rate of turn of 3°/sec
b) Rate of turn of 3°/sec or 20° bank whichever is lesser
d) Bank angle of 25°
11. What is the climb gradient required during the intermediate segment of a missed approach?
a) 5.5% b) 2.5% c) 0.8% d) 3.3%
12. In general, for a straight in non-precision approach, the MDA/H will be not less than:
a) OCH/A b) 200ft c) 350ft d) 400ft
13. What is the airspeed for holding area construction for a CAT B aircraft in a hold under normal
conditions at 4,250 metres (14,000 ft)?
a) 0.83 Mach b) 490 km/hr (265 kts)
c) 315 km/hr (170 kts) d) 520 km/hr (280 kts)
14. For the intermediate section of a missed approach, what is the minimum obstacle clearance?
a) 30m b) 100m c) 50m d) 120m
15. At what distance does an SRA normally terminate:

a) 2nm b) 1 nm c) 2km d.) ½ nm

a) RVR not less than 350 m DH not below 100ft
b) RVR 200 m DH not below 100ft
c) RVR 200 m DH not below 200ft
d) RVR 300 m DH not below 200ft
17. The aiming point marking shall commence no closer to a threshold by specifics distance depending upon
runway LDA. What is the distance for a runway having an LDA of 2400 m or more?
a) 300 m b) 500 m c) 400 m d) 250 m
18. The 45° leg of a 45/180° procedure turn for a CAT C aircraft is:
a) 1 min b) 1 min 15 seconds
c) 1 min 30 seconds d) Continued until interception of the glide slope
19. The vat for a Category B aircraft is:

a) 90 to 120 kts inclusive b) 90 to 121 kts inclusive
c) 91 to 120 kph inclusive d) 91 to 120 kts inclusive
20. When using a DR segment to take up an ILS instrument approach, what is the length of the track that
may be used to intercept the localizer?
a) Not more than 10 nm b) 5 nm c) 10 nm d) 6 nm
21. The minimum sector altitude gives an obstacle clearance of 300 metres within a certain radius from the
navigation aid on which the instrument procedure is based. This radius is:
a) 15 nms b) 10 nms c) 25 nms d) 20 nms

a) 250 kts TAS b) 250 kts IAS c) Not applicable d) 200 kts IAS
23. What is the definition of the Emergency Phase?

b) The Alarm Phase
c) The Alert Phase
d) A generic term meaning as the case maybe the Uncertainty Phase, the Alert Phase or the
Distress Phase
24. Danger, Prohibited and Restricted areas must be designated by:

a) Country identifier, followed by P/D/R, followed by the identifier
b) Country identifier followed by P/D/R
c) P/D/R followed by the identifier
d) Country identifier followed by numbers
25. What are the contents of section 2 of an AIREP?

a) Present position and ETA
b) Estimated time over the FIR boundary and endurance
c) Estimated elapsed time (EET) and endurance
d) ETA and endurance
26. If you want to descend through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the Maximum separation
is:
27. If two aircraft are using the same VOR, by what lateral distance must the aircraft be separated before one
of the two may commence a climb or descent?
a) 5 nm b) 10 nm c) 15 nm d) 20 nm
29. The longitudinal separation minimum, based on time between two aircraft at the same altit ude, for which
navigation aids can give a frequent determination of position and speed and when the proceeding aircraft
has a true airspeed of at least 40 kts higher than the following aircraft, is:
30. Where an aeroplane is approaching to land, what is the maximum time spacing applied between that
aeroplane and any other taking off in any direction?
31. On departure, a 1 minute separation can be applied if the aircraft fly on diverging tracks immediately
after take-off at least:
a) 45° b) 15° c) 30° d) 20°
32. What is separation for a light aircraft taking off after a medium aircraft providing they are both using the
same runway?
a) 5 min b) 3 min c) 1 min d) 2 min
33. Between two aircraft on the same track what is the minimum radar separation which must be provided
for wake turbulence is:
a) 4 nms b) 2.5 nms c) 2 nms d) 3 nms
34. A heavy aircraft has made a missed approach to a runway in the opposite direction to normal take-off.
What is the separation required for a light aircraft taking off?
a) 2 minutes b) 3 minutes c) 1 minute c) 5 minutes
35. Radar separation may be applied before an aircraft taking off and a preceding departing aircraft
providing the departing aircraft can be identified from the end of the runway within:
a) 5nm b) 3nm c) 2nm d) 1 nm
36. In Bangladesh, what is the minimum radar separation provided for two aircraft established on the same
localizer?
a) 5 nm b) 5 nm when the first a/c is 20 kits faster than the second
c) 10 nm d) 20 nm
37. A radar controller can request an aircraft to change speed when it is on the intermediate and final
approach phase, except in certain conditions specified by the proper ATS authority. The speed change
must not be more than:
a) ± 20 kph b) ± 8 kts c) ± 10 kts d) ± 20 kts
38. The minima that must be applied to aircraft which are landing after a "heavy" or "medium" aircraft
complying with wake turbulence separation on a timed approach is
a) Light aircraft behind medium aircraft; 4 minutes
b) Medium aircraft behind medium aircraft; 2 minutes
c) Medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft; 3 minutes
d) Medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft; 2 minutes
39. An integrated aeronautical information package consists of:
a) AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins
b) AIP and amendment service„ NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins (PIBs), AICs, AIRACs,
c) AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, AIRACs, AICs, checklists and
summaries.
d) AIP & Supplements, AIRACs, NOTAMs and pre-flight bulletins
40. An object of limited mobility (an aerobridge for example) is lit by:
a) Low intensity steady red lights
b) Low intensity flashing red lights
c) Medium intensity steady red lights
d) Medium intensity flashing red lights
41. Who is responsible for the efficient organization of an efficient SAR service?
a) FIC and RCC
b) RCC and rescue sub-centres
c) FIC, RCC and ACC
d) ICAO through regional navigation plans
42. Using the visual SAR signals the symbol for "we have found all personnel" is :
a) ++ b) LLL c) LL d) Y
43. According to Annex 17, security is defined as "a combination of measures and human resources
intended to safeguard:
a) Civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference
b) International civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference
c) International aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference
d) Aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference
44. When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft must be allowed to resume its flight provided that :
a) The state where the aircraft is registered, the state where the aircraft is designed and the state
where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy, agree that the aircraft is still
airworthy
b) The state where the aircraft is registered is of the opinion that the sustained damage is of such
a nature that the aircraft is still airworthy
c) The state where the aircraft is designed and the state where the prototype of the aircraft is
declared to be airworthy, send a message to the state where there aircraft is registere d which
says that the aircraft is still airworthy
d) The state where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy has informed the state
where the aircraft is registered that the sustained damage is of such a nature that the aircraft is
still airworthy
45. As per ICAO what is the minimum radar separation for two aircraft established on the same localizer?
a) 5 nm b) 3 nm c) 10 nm d) 15 nm
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank
AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

NO. Question Option_1 Option_2 Option_3 Option_4
The temperature of the gases within

the cylinder of a four stroke engine
1. during the power stroke will: Be constant. Decrease. Increase. Follow Charles's Law.
The mixture changes from rich
The explosion pushes the to weak forward of the flame Complete combustion occurs Temperature and pressure
2. When the spark ignites the mixture: piston down. front. within 8 to 10 microseconds. increase within the cylinder.
stay the same for all
With an increase in outside air temperatures up to and
temperature, specific fuel including 15°C and thereafter
3. consumption will: Increase. Decrease. stay the same. increase.
Combustion, in a four stroke engine,
4. theoretically occurs at: A constant pressure. A constant temperature. A constant volume. A constant velocity.
The temperature of the gases The volume of the gases The mass of the mixture The mass of the mixture
5. During the compression stroke: remains constant. increases. decreases. remains constant.
The action of the exhaust gases The action of the exhaust
flowing past the exhaust valve The temperature of the gases flowing out past the
increases the pressure within exhaust gases increases the exhaust valve tends to reduce The crankshaft is moving past
6. During the period of valve overlap: the cylinder. mass of incoming mixture. the pressure in the cylinder. Bottom Dead Centre.
The power output of an internal
combustion engine can be increased Increasing the area of the Increasing the length of the
7. by: cylinder. stroke. Increasing the engine R.P.M. All of the above.
Between the camshaft and the Between the pushrods and the Between the crankshaft and Between the connecting rod
8. A reduction gear is fitted: propeller. valves. propeller. and the crankshaft.
The crankshaft of an ìn line' four Rotates at half the speed of the Will have the crank throws Allows a firing order of 1-3-4-
9. cylinder aircraft engine: camshaft. spaced 90 degrees apart. 2. Will not flex or twist.
Two valve springs are fitted to each
10. valve: To minimise camshaft wear. To allow a greater cam rise. To prevent valve rotation. To reduce valve bounce.
Piston rings are manufactured from Because it has a negative To take advantage of its Because of its self lubricating To take advantage of its
11. cast iron: coefficient of expansion. extreme malleability. qualities. brittleness.
Are opened directly by the Are less affected by the heat Are opened by the valve sometimes have their stems
12. The exhaust valves: action of push rods which are of combustion than the inlet springs and closed by the partly filled with sodium to
in turn operated by cams on valves. rocker gear. assist cooling.

the crankshaft.
A normally aspirated engine is one
13. which: Has four cylinders. Is not supercharged. Is never air cooled. Is all of the above.
The Compression Ratio of an engine swept volume + clearance swept volume + clearance Total volume - clearance swept volume - (swept
14. may be defined as the: volume - swept volume. volume - clearance volume. volume - clearance volume. volume + clearance volume).
Is the inability of the internal
combustion engine to use any Becomes greater as the Is the weight of fuel used by
fuel other than that specified efficiency of the engine an engine per unit horse Increases in proportion to the
15. Specific Fuel Consumption (S.F.C ) by the manufacturer. improves. power per unit time. thermal efficiency.
Theoretical power in the Power required to slow the
16. Brake Horsepower is: cylinder. Useful power at the propeller. Power lost in the engine. aircraft down.
A method of improving "Volumetric
17. Efficiency" is: Valve overlap. The use of carburettor heat. Weakening the mixture. To make the mixture richer.
The specific fuel consumption of a less than the turbo prop more than the pulse jet
18. turbojet engine is:- more than the turbofan engine engine more than the ramjet engine engine
Oil returning to the oil tank is filtered A micron size multi-bore
19. by: The oil pressure filter. The oil tank filter. filters assembly. The scavenge filter.
At take off Cowl flaps should be
20. selected: Fully closed to decrease drag. Open Partially closed Fully closed to increase drag.
When the ignition switch is placed in Makes the engine starter Èarths' or `grounds' the Breaks the primary to earth
21. the ÒN' position it: Isolates the breaker points. motor circuit. secondary winding. circuit.
Voltage from the secondary Voltage from the magneto Voltage from the secondary
Voltage from the primary winding to the primary secondary winding to the winding to the contact
22. The distributor directs: winding to the spark plug. winding. spark plug. breaker.
In a complex engine as RPM increases
23. the ignition timing may be: Advanced. Retarded. Not altered. Only retarded.
The Octane rating of a fuel is
determined by comparison with
24. mixtures of: Methane and orthodentine. Heptane and iso octane. Methane and iso octane. Heptane and orthodentine.
Heat energy required to raise
Heat energy required to raise the temperature of the fuel to
Kinetic energy contained within the temperature of the fuel to its boiling point from absolute
25. The calorific value of a fuel is the: it. Heat energy in the fuel. its boiling point. zero.
Pre-ignition refers to the condition A rich mixture is ignited by the The spark plug ignites the The mixture is ignited by The mixture burns in the inlet
26. when: spark plug. mixture too early. abnormal conditions within manifold.
the cylinder before the

normal ignition point.
Flame Rate is the term used to The mixture burns within the The combustion pressure rises Peroxide forms within the Fulminates form with the
27. describe the speed at which: cylinder. within the cylinder. cylinder. cylinder.
An air/fuel ratio of 9:1 would be
28. considered: Chemically correct. Extravagant. Rich. Weak.
The mixture must be
Because of the reduction in the The mixture control must be The throttle must close progressively richened to
density of the atmosphere associated moved towards the weak progressively to maintain the compensate for the power The octane rating of the fuel
29. with an increase in altitude: position. best air/fuel ratio. loss. must be increased.
30. A chemically correct mixture is: 15:1 (fuel : air) 15:1 (air: fuel) 13:1 (fuel : air) 13:1 (air: fuel)
While weakening the mixture from
the chemically correct mixture the
31. EGT will Increase Decrease Decrease then increase Increase then decrease
Which of the following mixtures
theoretically would produce the
32. maximum RPM? 14:1 (air : fuel) 14:1 (fuel: air) 15:1 (fuel : air) 15:1 (air: fuel)
A weak mixture is used for which of
33. the following? take off climbing engine starting cruising
Initially increases as the
The pressure in the induction throttle is opened but
manifold of a normally aspirated Remains constant as the Decreases as the throttle is decreases after approximately Increases as the throttle is
34. engine: throttle is opened. opened. the half open position. opened.
The R.P.M., the throttle
The fuel flow to a piston engine will The R.P.M. and the throttle position and the mixture The R.P.M. and the mixture
35. vary according to: position only. setting. setting only. The R.P.M. only.
Control the mixture strength
The primary function of a diffuser in a over part of the engine speed Vent air from the float Emulsify the fuel during Enable adjustment of the
36. carburettor is to: range. chamber. engine acceleration. engine slow running speed.
The Venturi in the carburettor choke A positive pressure over the A depression over the fuel A positive pressure at the A decrease in the velocity of
37. tube creates: discharge nozzle. discharge nozzle. throttle valve. the air entering the engine.
The inside of the combustion
The fuel priming pump supplies fuel chamber in the region of the
38. directly to: The throttle butterfly valve. The exhaust manifold. The induction manifold. spark plug.
A weak mixture would be indicated White smoke in the exhaust Detonation and black smoke An increase in engine speed
39. by: A drop in engine speed. manifold. from the exhaust. with black smoke from the
exhaust.
40. A fuel strainer should be fitted: In the inlet manifold. At the air intake. Before the main jet. After the main jet.
The correct air/fuel ratio for an
41. engine running at idle is: Weak. Chemically correct. 16:1 Rich.
Turn the engine over several
times on the starter motor Position the throttle lever
The method of priming an engine not Activate the mixture control before selecting the ignition Pump the throttle several midway between open and
42. fitted with a priming pump is to: lever several times. on. times. close.
A possible cause of the engine
43. backfiring could be: An exhaust valve sticking open. A broken push rod. A blocked float chamber. A sticking inlet valve.
The exact amount of fuel More fuel than is required by The exact amount of fuel More fuel than is required by
required for all running the engine; the excess fuel is required for all running and the engine, the excess being
44. The engine driven fuel pump supplies: conditions. recycled. starting conditions. used as priming fuel.
The mixture control on an engine Operated by a pneumatic Hydro-pneumatically
45. fitted with fuel injection is: Automatic. plunger system. operated. Necessary.
There will be a throttle valve Neither a throttle valve nor a There will be a Venturi but no Both a throttle valve and a
46. In the intake of a fuel injected engine: but no Venturi. Venturi is required. throttle valve. Venturi are required.
The engine they are fitted to
The discharge nozzles of a fuel supply exactly the same The type of engine they are The octane rating of the fuel and to the nozzles on the
47. injected engine are matched to: amounts of fuel as each other. fitted to. supply. other cylinders.
Meters the amount of fuel
delivered to the engine in Distributes fuel to each Distributes fuel continuously
proportion to the amount of air cylinder in the correct firing to all of the cylinders Is kept entirely separate from
48. The Fuel Manifold Valve: being delivered to the engine. order. continuously. the priming system.
The chord of the propeller The propeller chord and the
The blade angle of a propeller is the The root chord and the tip The chord and the airflow and the longitudinal axis of plane of rotation of the
49. angle between: chord of the propeller. relative to the propeller. the aircraft. propeller.
Is constant along the propeller Varies with changes in engine
50. The blade angle: blade. Decreases from root to tip. Increases from root to tip. rpm.
The distance it would move The distance the propeller
forward in one revolution at The angle the propeller chord actually moves forward in one The angle the propeller chord
51. The Geometric Pitch of a propeller is: the blade angle. makes to the plane of rotation. revolution. makes to the relative airflow.
The angle of attack of a fixed pitch Depends on forward speed Depends on forward speed Depends on engine rotational Is constant for a fixed pitch
52. propeller: only. and engine rotational speed. speed only. propeller.
53. An aircraft with a fixed pitch propeller Angle of attack will decrease. Pitch will decrease. Angle of attack will increase. Angle of attack will remain the
goes into a climb with reduced IAS same.

and increased rev/min The propeller:
Low at both low and high
For an aircraft with a fixed pitch Low at low speed, high at high High at low speed, low at high speed, and highest at cruising
54. propeller, propeller efficiency will be: speed. speed. Constant at all speeds. speed.
The blade angle of a fixed pitch
propeller would be set to give the At the maximum level flight
55. optimum angle: During take off. During the cruise. speed. For landing.
Rotates the engine in the Rotates the engine in the
normal direction and gives Rotates the engine in reverse Rotates the engine in reverse normal direction and gives
56. A propeller which is windmilling: some thrust. and gives drag. and gives some thrust. drag.
The turning moment
The tendency of the propeller produced by the propeller
to twist around its longitudinal The helical path of the about the axis of the The thrust produced by the
57. Propeller torque is: axis. propeller through the air. crankshaft. propeller.
The greatest stress on a rotating
58. propeller occurs: At the tip. At about 75% of the length. At the mid point. At the root.
59. An Àuto - Feathering' system senses: Low rpm. Decreasing rpm. High torque. Low torque.
Maintains the correct mixture sets the position of the waste
Prevents detonation and Maintains an automatic preset strength for the boost gate to ensure the preset
60. An Automatic Boost Control Unit: dissociation in the cylinder. boost pressure. pressure set. boost is maintained.
The turbo-charger bearing is Its own internal self contained A tapping in the scavenge oil
61. lubricated and cooled by: oil system. The engine oil. A total loss system. system.
During take-off from a sea level
airfield with I.S.A conditions, the
position of the waste gate of a turbo- Controlled by the throttle
62. charged engine is: Fully open. Almost fully open. position. Fully closed.
Unrestricted, but only if
Maximum Continuous Power (M.C.P ) economical cruising power is The maximum power the
63. is: set. engine will give at any time. Given a 5 minute limitation. Unrestricted.
At an idle or low power condition, the
64. turbo-charger waste gate is normally: Partially open. Fully open. Closed. Half open.
When the air or the mixture passes
through the diffuser shroud, the
65. energy conversion is from: Kinetic to pressure. Heat to potential. Mechanical to heat. Potential to kinetic.
The construction of a turbo-charger

ensures that the turbine and the Are connected by mechanical
66. compressor: Are on the same shaft. Are on different shafts. gearing. Are controlled by the A.B.C.
With a constant manifold pressure set
during the climb, the power output Is unaffected by altitude
67. from a supercharged engine: Decreases. Increases. Remains constant. change.
An internal supercharger is one Compresses the exhaust
68. which: Is driven by exhaust gases. Compresses the air. gases. Compresses the mixture.
To prevent large acceleration loads on
the compressor and the drive shaft of Incorporate a spring drive
an internal supercharger, it is usual mechanism in the driving Rely on the inertia absorbing
69. to: Prohibit "slam" acceleration. gears. qualities of the exhaust gases. Use a Vernier drive coupling.
Over boosting an engine fitted with a
turbo-charger is prevented by the An automatic boost control A waste gate pressure
70. installation of: unit. A manifold pressure gauge. controller. A suck in flap.
The limit of the amount of
supercharging that an engine can The engine is at its rated Maximum boost pressure is The engine starts to suffer
71. tolerate is reached when: Maximum R.P.M. is reached. altitude. obtained. from detonation.
The rotational speed of a turbo- Engine R.P.M. and waste gate
72. charger is dependant upon: position. Engine R.P.M. only. Throttle position only. Propeller pitch and altitude.
The type of compressor normally A reciprocating thrunge
73. used in a supercharger is: An axial compressor. A Rootes compressor. A centrifugal compressor. compressor.
sometimes greater,
The compressor output pressure of an Greater than the manifold sometimes less than the Less than the manifold
74. internal supercharger is: The same as manifold pressure pressure. manifold pressure. pressure.
The pressure increases and
Within the compressor of a turbo- The pressure increases and the Both the pressure and the Both the pressure and the the temperature remains
75. charger: temperature decreases. temperature increase. temperature decrease. constant.
The type of compressor normally
fitted to turbo-chargers and
superchargers would compress the
76. air: Axially. Co-axially. In the diffuser only. Centrifugally.
If the waste gate of a turbo-charged
engine seizes during the climb, the Initially increase and then
77. manifold pressure will: Remain constant. Decrease. Increase. decrease.
78. Boost pressure is indicated on: The cylinder head temperature The manifold pressure gauge. The fuel pressure gauge. The R.P.M. gauge and the
gauge. manifold pressure gauge.

With an increase of compressor Initially increase, but
79. discharge pressure, the fuel flow will: Decrease. Remain constant. subsequently decrease. Increase.
Enters through the eye of the Enters through the turbine Enters through the
impeller and leaves at the Enters at the periphery and and leaves through the compressor and leaves
80. In a supercharger, the mixture: periphery. leaves through the eye. compressor. through the turbine.
Facing towards the duty
What is the preferred direction for 15` engine to be started on runway threshold to enable
81. aircraft parking prior to start-up? Tail into wind. Nose into wind. windward side. easy taxi-out.
Immediately an engine has started
up, what is the first instrument
82. reading to be checked? Oil pressure. Battery volts. Gyro erection. Vacuum.
What would be the likely effect of
prolonged running with a weak Failure to come up to correct
83. mixture? Overheating. running temperature. Carburettor icing. High oil pressure.
What are the main reasons to In order that a pilot may To pre-set the feathering To check that a full range of To replace the cold oil in the
exercise a propeller from fine to practise propeller control signal before take-off, in case control is available at take-off pitch change mechanism and
84. coarse pitch after warm-up? technique before take-off. of an emergency. boost. check RPM control.
When cruising in a fixed-pitch
propeller equipped aircraft, what Increase in manifold Increase in engine
would be the symptoms of Decrease in RPM, Loss of temperature, Decrease in RPM temperature, Loss of altitude
85. carburettor icing? airspeed and Loss of altitude. and Increase in RPM. and Increase in RPM. All of the above
What is the correct way to shut down switch off both magnetos switch off the fuel booster Move the mixture control to Feather the propeller when
86. an engine? together. pump. ICO. at idle RPM.
The highest pressure in a gas turbine Between the compressor and
87. engine occurs: the combustion chamber. In the combustion chamber. In the jet pipe. At the P 1 probe.
All of the air goes through both
the low and high pressure Not all the air goes through Not all the air goes through All the air goes through the
88. In a high ratio by-pass engine: compressors. the high pressure compressor. the low pressure compressor. high pressure compressor.
Gas turbine engine efficiency An increase in volumetric An increase in ambient A decrease in ambient A decrease in ambient air
89. increases with: efficiency. temperature. temperature. pressure.
Cold stream air to that flowing
The By-Pass Ratio of an engine is the through the hot core of the Exhaust gas pressure to air
90. ratio of: Primary air to tertiary air. engine. intake pressure. Primary air to secondary air.
The Gas Turbine Engine uses the Creating thrust equal to the Expelling air at the same
91. principle of: Newton's Third Law of motion. weight of the aircraft. speed as that of the aircraft. The fluid flywheel.
The H.P. turbine is connected The L.P. turbine is connected The H.P. turbine is connected
The L.P. compressor is to the L.P. compressor, the L.P. to the L.P. compressor, the to the L.P. turbine, the H.P.
connected to the H.P. turbine is connected to the HP. H.P. turbine is connected to compressor is connected to
92. In a twin spool engine: compressor. compressor. the H.P. compressor. the L.P. compressor.
Cools the combustion
Increases the air mass flow and chamber and therefore Reduces the air mass flow Increases the air mass flow
therefore increases the increases the thermal and therefore increases the and therefore reduces the
93. In a by-pass engine, the by-pass air: propulsive efficiency. efficiency. propulsive efficiency. propulsive efficiency.
Turbo-shaft engine comes
Turbo-fan engine comes from Turbo-prop engine comes from the free power turbine Turbo-fan engine comes from
94. The majority of the thrust of a: the turbine exhaust. from the turbine exhaust. exhaust. the by-pass air.
The net thrust of a gas turbine engine
95. is lower than static thrust because of: Higher exhaust gas velocity Higher air density High fuel flow Forward speed of the engine
decrease with temperature
increase with temperature and increase with temperature and decrease with temperature and also increase with
96. Thrust produced by a turbine engine: decrease with pressure also increase with pressure and decrease with pressure pressure
The thrust of an engine is increased
by injecting water/methanol alcohol increases freezing alcohol decreases freezing
97. because:- water decreases air density water increases air density point point
The propulsive efficiency of an aircraft
flying with a speed of 300 miles/hour
and the jet speed is 400 miles/hour
98. will be:- 85.7% 75% 70% 87.5%
A pitot intake forms a duct the fan to
ensure that the airflow to and convergent before speeds up divergent after slows down divergent before speeds up divergent before slows down
99. achieves a subsonic pressure rise subsonic pressure rise sonic pressure drop subsonic pressure rise
The axial velocity of the air
The axial velocity of the air will The axial velocity of the air will decrease with an increase The axial velocity of the air
increase with a reduction in the will decrease with a reduction in the angle that the resultant will increase with an increase
angle of attack of the airflow in the angle of attack of the airflow forms with the in the angle of attack of the
What effect will severe icing in the with the compressor blades airflow with the compressor compressor blades chord line airflow with the compressor
100. intake have on a high by-pass engine? and a possible stall. blades and a possible stall. and a possible stall. blades and a possible stall.
When an aircraft is in the When the aircraft is near its When the rpm of the engine is When the rpm of the engine
101. Secondary air inlet doors are utilised: cruise maximum IAS. low while stationary. is high when stationary.
In a pitot intake the term `Ram EPR has attained the take off The HP Compressor has The EPR has recovered to its Intake pressure has been re-
102. Pressure Recovery' refers to the time setting. reached its maximum. optimum figure. established to ambient
when: pressure.
The ratio between The ratio between exhaust
The pressure ratio of a gas turbine Equal to the number of compressor outlet and inlet and exhaust outlet
103. engine compressor is: compression stages. compressor inlet pressure. pressure. Never greater than 5 to 1.
The compressor idling speed of a gas At higher ambient With higher than sea level At altitudes lower than sea At lower ambient
104. turbine engine will increase: temperature. density. level. temperature.
One stage of an axial flow compressor One rotor assembly and one One stator assembly and one One rotor and one impeller One impeller and one diffuser
105. consists of row of stator vanes. row of guide vanes. assembly. assembly.
The pressure rise across each stage of Greater than that of a
106. an axial flow compressor is: centrifugal compressor. Between 3 and 5 to one. Twice the inlet pressure. Between 1.1 and 1.2 to one.
The ring of blades which sometimes
precede the first rotor stage of an
107. axial flow compressor are called: The first stage stator blades. The inlet guides vanes. First stage diffuser blades. Nozzle guide vanes.
The air axial velocity and The speed of the gas flow
rotational speed relationship is The mass air flow and speed through the turbine falls The compression ratio
108. A compressor blade will stall when: disturbed. relationship is constant. below 0.4 Mach. exceeds 10 to 1.
There is a partial breakdown
All stages are at maximum All stages are at maximum of airflow through the
109. Compressor surge will occur when: efficiency. RPM. compressor. All stages have stalled.
The purpose of the diffuser vanes in a Increase the charge Convert pressure energy into Convert kinetic energy into
110. centrifugal compressor is to: temperature. kinetic energy. Increase the air velocity. pressure energy.
It is more prone to damage
The major disadvantage of a It cannot cope with a large It cannot be used for a than the axial flow
111. centrifugal compressor is that: mass flow of air. turbojet engine. A larger turbine must be used. compressor
The vibration level to increase An increase in the turbine gas
with a decrease in the turbine temperature and the vibration The rotation of the engine to The airflow through the
112. A compressor stall causes: gas temperature. level. stop suddenly. engine to stop suddenly.
Is a complete breakdown of May only affect one stage or
Is overcome by increasing the the airflow through the several stages of a Is mechanical failure of the
113. A compressor stall: fuel flow. compressor. compressor. compressor.
The occurrence of compressor stalls is
114. limited by: Bleed valves. Nozzle guide vanes. Swirl vanes. Cascade vanes.
At low engine RRM to
Bleed valves are automatically At maximum R.P.M. to prevent At low R.P.M. to prevent the During engine acceleration to prevent the compressor
115. opened: compressor stall. turbine stalling. prevent turbine surge. stalling.
A complete breakdown of airflow

116. through a compressor is known as: Compressor turbulence. Compressor buffet. Compressor surge. Compressor seizure.
Bleed valves are set to open at
117. Within the compressor: high R.P.M. Pressure decreases. Temperature decreases. Temperature increases.
Deflect air past the Induce air into a centrifugal
118. Variable inlet guide vanes: compressor. Prevent compressor stall. Deflect air past the turbine. compressor.
Compressor blades are twisted from To maintain a correct angle of To give added rigidity to the
119. root to tip: To decrease the pressure. attack. To reduce the relative airflow. blade structure.
The drop in air temperature is
The air temperature is steady The air temperature falls with inversely proportional to the The air temperature rises
120. In a compressor: with a pressure rise. a pressure rise. pressure rise. with a pressure rise.
The pressure energy of air flow converted to kinetic energy at converted to heat energy at unchanged at nozzle guide increased at nozzle guide
121. through a gas turbine engine will be:- nozzle guide vanes nozzle guide vanes vanes vanes
An axial flow compressor engine may
122. stall:- during acceleration at high rpm at low rpm all the above are correct
to increase the pressure of to increase the pressure of
The purpose of the inlet guide vanes the gases before entering the to circulate hot air through the gases and direct it to the
123. in front of the compressor is :- compressor IGV to prevent ice formation face of the compressor. none of the above is correct
imparting KE to the incoming
The principle of operation of a decreasing, incoming air air then change to pressure
124. compressor of turbine engine is:- velocity to increase energy imparting KE of incoming air all the above are correct
A set of flame tubes, each of One common flame tube Superior to the annular
which is mounted in a separate A set of flame tubes enclosed enclosed in a common air system because it only
125. A cannular combustion system is: air casing. in a common air casing. casing. requires one igniter.
To allow any unburnt fuel to To prevent the igniters
It is necessary to have a combustion To prevent pressure build up To allow moisture content in drain after shut down or a wet becoming wetted by excess
126. drain system: in the combustion chamber. the fuel to drain away. start. fuel.
Shows airspeed and altitude Shows fuel / air mixture
Shows the flame stability limitations for an in-flight limitations for an in-flight Contains the in flight re-start
127. A re-light envelope: limits. restart. restart. igniter plugs.
Swirl vanes in the combustion Increase the velocity of the Reduce the velocity of the
128. chamber: airflow. airflow. Prevent compressor stall. Help to stabilize combustion.
The can type combustion chamber less length and less engine more temperature and
129. have the disadvantage of:- diameter less structural strength less stable flame pressure loss
One of the following statement is not carbon formation must be there must be minimum loss all air passing through the there must be high
130. true for requirement of the kept to a minimum of temperature and pressure take part in combustion combustion efficiency
combustion chamber :- throughout the chamber

Mostly the combustion section is safety, in case of one sparking efficient ignition by both the better burning of the mixture
131. provided with two sparking plugs for : plug goes unserviceable plugs at a time in the combustion chamber both (a) and (b) are correct
The effect on the temperature and
pressure of the gases as they pass Their temperature decreases Both their temperature and Both their temperature and Their temperature increases
132. across the turbine is: and their pressure rises. pressure increase. pressure decrease. and their pressure falls.
To decrease the velocity of To increase the velocity of the
Nozzle guide vanes are fitted before To increase the velocity of the the gas flow therefore gas flow therefore reducing its To increase the temperature
133. the turbine: airflow. increasing its pressure. pressure. of the gas flow.
Movement of the turbine Temporary expansion due to Temporary elongation due to Permanent elongation due to
134. Blade creep is: blades around the turbine disc. temperature change. centrifugal forces. heat and centrifugal force.
Straightens the gas flow Prevents the hot gases
before it goes into the turbine flowing across the rear turbine Increases the velocity of the Decreases the pressure of the
135. The exhaust cone: assembly. face. gases. gas.
The gas flow through it is The gas flow through it The gas flow through it is
136. A nozzle is said to be "choked" when: subsonic. reaches its sonic value. The gas temperature rises. supersonic.
Implies that no further
increase in velocity can be
Gives additional pressure obtained without the increase
137. A choked nozzle: Decreases thrust. without the addition of heat. Has no effect on thrust. of heat.
The jet pipe is insulated from the A combination of cooling air Semi-conducting geodetic
138. airframe by: Heat insulation materials. A cooling air jacket. and insulating material. structures.
Is high in the exhaust section Is greater than that from a
The noise from a high ratio by-pass Is created mainly in the because of the high velocity Is predominantly from the fan turbo-jet engine of
139. engine: exhaust section. gas flow. and the turbine. comparable power output.
An exhaust nozzle is said to be
choked when the velocity at the
140. throat is: Mach.5. Below Mach 1. At Mach 1. Above Mach 1.
If the length of the exhaust nozzle is it will create laminar
141. too large: gas velocity will be insufficient boundary layer frictional loss will be more all the above are correct
If the diameter of the exhaust nozzle increased back pressure
142. is too small the result will be: choking increased gas velocity through the engine all the above are correct
Before reverse thrust can be selected, Positioned to reverse Put back to the reverser Positioned to reverse
143. the forward thrust lever must be: Pulled back to idle power. minimum power. deploy position. maximum power.
A Reverse Thrust Warning Light Only when the reverser doors When the reverser doors are When the reverser doors are Whenever reverse thrust is
144. illuminates: are fully deployed in the stowed in the forward thrust not stowed in the forward selected.
reverse thrust position. position. thrust position.

Ratio between intake
Ratio between ambient Ratio between ambient pressure and compressor Ratio between exhaust
145. EPR is a pressure and exhaust pressure. pressure and fan pressure. delivery pressure. pressure and intake pressure.
With an increase in altitude which of Temperature and pressure Fuel consumption will
the following statements are correct reduce with a resulting drop in increase and Specific fuel Fuel consumption will Temperature and pressure
for a jet aircraft with constant engine thrust and Fuel consumption consumption stays relatively decrease and Specific fuel will reduce, resulting in an
146. speed for a fixed throttle setting? will decrease. the same. consumption will increase. increase in thrust.
The maximum thrust that a jet engine
147. can develop will be: Take off thrust. Go around thrust. Max climb thrust. Max Static Thrust.
decrease then recover but
From a standing start with an increase will never achieve its initial
148. in forward speed jet thrust will: increase. stay the same. decrease. setting.
Later than normal due to
On a part throttled engine, take off pressure in the compressor Later than normal due to the Later than normal due to the
149. thrust would be achieved: being low. EPR being low. Earlier than normal. EPR being high.
Thrust is maximum and ram
Ram pressure is maximum at Ram pressure is unaffected Thrust is unaffected by the pressure at minimum at the
150. In a gas turbine engine: the start of the take off run. by airspeed. aircraft's forward speed. start of the take off run.
When the exhaust Automatic when after burning Automatic when approaching
151. When does the variable nozzle open? temperature reaches 1700°C selected. Automatic on take off. Mach l.
Thrust decreases , Fuel EGT increases, Pressure
Which of the following statements Fuel consumption increases, Fuel consumption decreases, consumption increases, thrust increases, Thrust
are correct with regard to after- Pressure thrust decreases , Thrust increases, Pressure Pressure thrust increases, EGT increases , Fuel consumption
152. burning? Thrust increases, EGT increases thrust increases, EGT increases decreases increases
Power can be restored up to Power can be augmented
its flat rated 100% only, and is above 100% due to the denser
On a turbojet aircraft which of the prevented from exceeding its Power can be restored up to Power can be restored up to mixture impinging on the
following statements would be limitations due to a pressure its flat rated 100% only, due to its flat rated 100% only, due turbine, which consequently
correct with the introduction of a sensor at the high pressure a pressure sensor at the to a pressure sensor in the drives the compressor
153. water into the combustion chamber? outlet. combustion chamber outlet. exhaust. quicker.
Engine sections are operating Engine sections are subjected It is difficult to obtain access
154. An inter-stage air seal is used where: at different pressures. to pressures of the same value. It is more convenient. during routine servicing.
An Internal Engine Overheat warning The oil temperature to be The EGT to be closely The engine power to be
155. would necessitate: closely monitored. monitored. reduced to idle. The engine to be shut down.
H.P. compressor air internally H.P. air tapped from the Air ducted from just before Intermediate pressure air
156. Turbine blades are cooled by: ducted through the blades. combustion chambers. the intake guide vanes. taken from the bleed valves.
Bleed air for engine anti-icing is
157. provided by: The bleed valves. The turbine stages. The compressor. The combustion chambers.
With a bleed air anti-icing system the
effect of selecting òn' while decrease specific fuel increase specific fuel specific fuel consumption will
158. maintaining thrust will: decrease fuel consumption. consumption. consumption. remain the same.
With a bleed air anti-icing system the The ratio between exhaust
effect of selecting òn' will have what pressure and intake pressure
159. effect? EGT will decrease. EGT will increase. EGT will remain the same. will increase.
The drive for fuel, oil and hydraulic
160. pumps is normally taken from LP fan. Intermediate compressor. HP compressor. HP turbine
Air for air conditioning on the Electrical power for ground or
161. A typical APU can provide: ground. Air for engine starting. in flight use. All of the above.
high E.G.T. - high fuel flow - low E.G.T. - idle fuel flow - low low E.G.T. - high fuel flow - high E.G.T. - idle fuel flow -
162. A "Hung Start" is indicated by: low R.P.M. R.P.M. high R.P.M. low R.P.M.
No further attempt to start It must be motored over with
If a gas turbine engine fails to light up It must be motored over with The fuel system must be may be made until the fuel the H.P. fuel cock shut and no
163. within the specified time: the H.P. fuel cock shut. drained. has evaporated. igniters selected.
The action of re-starting a
flamed out engine, usually What occurs when the engine The initiation of the after- What must be prevented
164. A Re-light is: while airborne. drain valve is stuck open. burning system. after a "wet start".
The engine lights up but does
The engine accelerates but The engine stabilises above not accelerate to self There is a double igniter
165. A "Hung Start" occurs when: does not light up. self sustaining speed. sustaining speed. failure.
The speed from which the
The aircraft can roll forward The speed from which the The engine will run engine can accelerate to idle
The term "Self Sustaining Speed" with no further opening of the engine can accelerate to full independently of external without the help of the starter
166. means that: throttles. power within 5 seconds. help. motor.
The Low Pressure compressor
Before opening the high-pressure The compressor must be must be rotating faster than
fuel shut off valve during the engine turning at the correct RPM in The Low-Pressure compressor The Low Pressure fuel cock the High-Pressure
167. start: the right direction. must be stationary. must be shut. compressor.
The air supply to operate an air storage bottles carried in the
168. starter usually comes from: An external installation. aircraft. The auxiliary power unit. A cross bleed start.
169. The starter motor is disengaged from As soon as the engine lights Just above self-sustaining At 26% H.P. R.P.M. Just below self-sustaining
the engine start system: up. speed. speed.

The power supply for the spark in the
170. combustion chamber is: low volts high current low volts low current high volts low current high volts high current
In a twin spool engine self sustaining
171. speed is normally reached at: 60% N2 60% N1 30% N2 30% N1
In a twin spool engine the typical idle
172. speeds are: 60% N2 25%N1 25% N2 60%N 1 40% N2 30% N 1 80% N2 45% N1
The sequence of starting of a gas fuel, ignition and compressor ignition, fuel and compressor compressor rotation, ignition compressor rotation, fuel and
173. turbine engine is:- rotation rotation and fuel ignition
A starter motor is used during
starting a gas turbine engine to adequate air mass to the adequate air mass in the
174. provide: combustion chamber compressor initial rotation to the engine All of the above
APU's provide electrical,
APU's provide electrical, pneumatic and hydraulic
Which of the following statements APU's provide emergency APU's provide electrical, pneumatic and hydraulic power for ground and air use
would be more correct with regard to hydraulics power for the pneumatic and hydraulic power for air use only and can and can provide an amount of
175. an APU? brakes only. power for ground use only. provide an amount of thrust. thrust.
will shut down immediately will need to be shut down
and if the fire persists the fire immediately and the fire
will need to be shut down bottles will automatically be bottles will be required to be
176. In the event of a fire in an APU: immediately. will shut down immediately. fired. fired immediately.
Which of the following would result in
a automatic shut down of an APU?
1) overspeed of compressor
2) over-temp of lubrication system
3) turbine over-temp
4) combustion chamber over-temp
5) Compressor outlet pressure
exceeded
177. 6) low pressure of lubricantion system 1236 1246 2356 2346
Emergency hydraulic power Emergency hydraulic power
for the elevator, rudder and for the brakes along with
Emergency hydraulic power for Emergency hydraulic power ailerons along with possible possible emergency electrical
178. A Ram Air Turbine is used to provide: the flaps and slats only. for the undercarriage. emergency electrical power. power.
The power to start an APU comes Aircraft main engine
179. from: Ground power unit. Aircraft main DC battery. generator. Aircraft main AC battery.
Ensure vapour losses are Make it easier to flow under

180. Fuel is heated to: Prevent waxing. minimised. Make it more viscous. all conditions.
In the line between the main Low pressure side of the High-pressure side of the
181. Fuel booster pumps are situated in: The fuel tanks. fuel tanks and the engine. engine. engine.
Which of the following is a normal Fuel tank booster pumps
182. stopping device for a gas turbine? LP shut off valve close. select off. HP shut off valve close. Isolate electrics from engine.
Between LP pump and the Between LP pump and HP Between HP shut off valve
183. The fuel flow-meter is situated: FCOC. pump. Just after FCU. and fuel nozzles.
The LP pump will draw fuel The LP pump will draw fuel
The LP pump will draw fuel from the tank, but there may from the tank, but there may
from the tank, but there may be a possibility of cavitation be a possibility of cavitation
Aircraft flying at FL 420. If the booster be a possibility of cavitation due to the low pressure and due to the higher pressure
pumps feeding the engine cease to The engine would close down due to the low pressure and higher boiling point of the and higher boiling point of the
184. work: immediately. low boiling point of the fuel. fuel. fuel.
Heats the oil and cools the Heats the fuel and cools the
185. The fuel cooled oil cooler: fuel. Heats the fuel only. Cools the oil only. oil.
In general a gas turbine engine fuel
186. should:- have high flash point have less fire hazard have high calorific value all the above are correct
Via a drain valve at the lowest Via a drain tank at the base of Via a scoop at the top of the
187. Water in the fuel tank is removed: point in the tank. the engine. tank. Every major servicing only.
A high oil temperature would indicate The exhaust gas temperature The air intake of the oil cooler
188. that: The oil pressure was high. (E.G.T.) was high. The oil filter was blocked. was blocked.
To ensure that the oil is
To ensure oil is forced into the prevented from leaving the To minimise heat loss in the
189. Oil seals are pressurised: bearings. To ensure minimum oil loss. bearing housing. bearing housing.
The fuel pressure is always
A pressure-maintaining valve kept higher than the oil
In the event that damage occurs to ensures that the oil pressure is pressure to ensure that the A differential pressure switch The oil by-pass valve will
the matrix of the fuel cooled oil always higher than the fuel fuel will leak into the oil will illuminate a light in the prevent a complete loss of oil
190. cooler: pressure. system. cockpit. pressure.
The main bearings in an axial flow gas
turbine engine are normally Air from an intermediate Gas from the second stage
191. pressuised by: Compressor by-pass air. Air at intake pressure . stage of the compressor. turbine section.
In a Gas Turbine engine oil As it leaves the fuel cooled oil Immediately after leaving the
192. temperature is measured: cooler (FCOC). Before entering the engine. engine. In the engine.
193. In a Gas Turbine engine oil pressure is In the engine. In the return line. After the pressure pump. In the FCOC to ensure oil
measured: pressure is always above fuel

pressure.
suction line between the Return line between the
The magnetic chip detectors are fitted The pressure line between the reservoir and the pressure engine and the scavenge
194. in: pressure pump and the engine. pump. pump. Return line after the FCOC.
195. Gas Turbines use: Wet sump and mineral oil. Dry sump and synthetic oil. Wet sump and synthetic oil. Dry sump and mineral oil.
The Purpose of the lubricating system reduce the friction between
196. is to cool down the moving parts cleaning the moving parts two moving parts all the above are correct
The temperature is sensed at the
turbine for the EGT indication system Outside Air Temperature
197. by a: Thermocouple. Ballast resistor. gauge. NTC resistor.
The engine anti-icing system should -10° C and below when there +10°C and below when there
198. be selected when the temperature is: Above +10° C. is visible moisture present. Below 0° C. is visible moisture present.
The time taken for the engine The time taken for the engine The time taken for the engine The time take for the engine
to decelerate from full power to stop after the H.P. fuel shut to slow from full power to to run down to ground idle
199. Spool down time or run down time is: to flight idle. off valve is closed. 30% power. from flight idle.
An Actuator Powered A constant speed, self- self contained but with a
200. An A.P.U is: Undercarriage. contained gas turbine engine. A source of standby power. separate thrust selector.
The efficiency of a gas turbine engine A decrease in ambient air An increase in ambient air An increase in ambient air A decrease in ambient air
201. will increase with: temperature. pressure. temperature. pressure.
What type of fire extinguisher would
202. be used on a propane fire foam water dry powder sand
On what principle do smoke detectors Inductance and light
203. work Resistance and capacitance Ionisation and impedance Optical and ionisation diffraction
If an artificial feel unit is fitted it In parallel with the primary In series with the primary In series with the secondary In parallel with the secondary
204. would be connected controls controls controls controls
The fuel tanks of a modern passenger Fuel is sucked in by the Fuel is pumped in by the fuel
205. airliner are filled by Gravity aircraft pumps truck The VTO system
Spur gear pumps - high Centrifugal pumps - high Spur gear pumps - low Centrifugal pumps - Low
206. Fuel tank booster pumps are: - pressure pressure pressure pressure
Reads fuel quantity by mass & Compensates for variations of
The advantage of a float type fuel Compensates for change of SG & Reads fuel quantity by Simple & measuring volume Simple & Reads fuel quantity
207. gauging system is aircraft attitude mass by varying resistance. by mass
The function of the baffles in a fuel To prevent movement of fuel To prevent fuel surge (or
208. tank is to the wingtip sloshing) during manoeuvring To prevent pump cavitation Both à’ & `b’ are correct
Turbine pressure to High pressure compressor Low pressure compressor exhaust pressure to low
combustion chamber inlet inlet pressure to exhaust inlet pressure to high pressure pressure compressor inlet
209. EPR is measured by the ratio of pressure pressure compressor outlet pressure pressure
In a modern airliner what is hydraulic
210. fluid used synthetic mineral mineral/alchohol vegetable
Using the oral inflation
211. How are escape slides inflated Fed from bleed air system Self contained gas bottle Hand pumped by cabin crew adaptor
The correct extinguisher to use on a
212. brake fire would be foam dry powder CO2 water
Electrically for chemical
oxygen generators and
The passenger oxygen drop-down By a lanyard operated by a pneumatically for gaseous
213. mask stowage doors are released barometric capsule Mechanically systems Manually by the cabin crew
The flight deck warning on activation warning light and warning
214. of an engine fire detection system is warning bell gear warning bell warning light
Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurised Air from Pneumatic system Engine bleed air from turbine
215. by Ram air in flight only Separate helium gas system or bleed air supply system engine
In the event that an emergency
decent causes the cabin pressure to The outward relief valve will The inward relief valve will
216. decrease below ambient pressure open The outflow valve will close open The safety valve will close
The purpose of a ditching control to allow rapid to dump the toilet water
217. valve is close the outflow valves open outflow valves depressurisation after landing
In a bleed air anti icing system the wing leading edge slats and
218. areas that are heated are the whole of the wing flaps wing leading edges and slats trailing edge flaps
An undercarriage leg is considered to Mechanically locked by an The actuating cylinder is at
219. be locked when: It is down The amber light is on 'over-centre' mechanism the end of its travel
Along the whole leading
220. Kreuger flaps are positioned Towards the wing tip At the wing inner leading edge edge At the wing trailing edge
What is the purpose of inboard To reduce wing bending at To reduce wing twist at high To reduce wing bending at
221. ailerons high speed speed low speed Both à’ `b’ are correct
To reduce stick forces in To reduce stick holding forces To increase control To reduce control
222. What is the purpose of trim tabs manoeuvres to zero effectiveness effectiveness
full face and provide a mouth and nose and provide full face and provide oxygen mouth and nose and provide
223. Smoke hoods protect continuous flow of oxygen a continuous flow of oxygen on demand oxygen on demand
Gaseous, diluted with ambient Chemically generated and Gaseous, diluted with cabin Chemically generated, diluted
224. oxygen supplied to the flight deck is air if required diluted with cabin air if /cockpit air if required with ambient air if required
required
If during pressurised flight the Safety valve opens when the The inward relief valve will
outflow valve closes fully due to a Skin will be overstressed and differential pressure reaches open to prevent excessive ECS packs are automatically
225. fault in the pressure controller the: could rupture. structural max diff negative differential. closed down.
internal mass airflow divided external mass airflow divided internal mass airflow divided mass fuel flow divided by
226. In a fan jet engine the bypass ratio is by external mass airflow by internal mass airflow by mass fuel flow mass fuel flow
The thrust reverser light illuminates Thrust reverser doors have Thrust reverser doors have
on the flight deck annunciator when moved to the reverse thrust been selected but the doors Thrust reverser doors are Thrust reverser doors are
227. the position haven't moved locked unlocked
In a modern turbofan engine - where In LP fuel supply system of In HP fuel supply system of
228. is fuel flow measured ? In the Fuel tank Engine Engine Both b and c are correct
Is permanently connected to Carries all of the non Is connected to the battery in
229. A hot busbar is one that Supplies galley power the battery essential loads an emergency
An aircraft which uses DC as the
primary source of power, AC for the
230. instruments may be obtained from: CSDU rectifier Inverter TRU
If the oil temperature gauge of the
CSD is in the red what would action is Throttle back and allow to cool Manually disconnect and Disconnect, then when
231. required down Auto disconnect reconnect on the ground cooled reconnect
The number of poles in the
The frequency of an AC generator is The number of poles in the The RPM and number of rotor and the number of
232. dependent upon The RPM of the rotor rotor poles in the rotor phase windings in the stator.
With an almost discharged battery a decrease of voltage with increase of current with decrease of current with increase of voltage with
233. there will be: increasing load decrease of voltage increasing load increasing load
When an overheat is detected When an overheat affects one When an overheat is When an overheat affects
When is an engine overheat firewire all along the length of both detector loop at a point detected all along the length both detector loops at a point
234. system activated firewire loops anywhere along its length of one firewire loop anywhere along their length.
To by-pass oil to the engine if
What is the purpose of the FCOC (Fuel To maintain the oil at the To heat the fuel and cool the To heat the oil and cool the the oil pressure filter becomes
235. Cooled Oil Cooler) correct temperature oil fuel blocked
Elevators are controlled Elevators are controlled
An artificial feel system is needed in Airplane has a variable through a reversible servo Elevator is controlled through an irreversible servo
236. the pitch channel if incidence tailplane system through a servo tab system
When the ground spoilers are When the speed falls below On the landing roll when the
237. Auto brakes are disengaged : retracted 20 kts autopilot is disengaged By the pilot
In an aircraft with a fuel dunping Down to a predetermined safe To leave 15 gallons in each Down to maximum landing
238. system it will allow fuel to be dumped valve Down to unusable value tank weight
How are modern passenger jet By nitrogen from a storage By ram air through the vent By bleed air from the
239. aircraft fuel tanks pressurized cylinder system pneumatic system By a volumetric top off unit
In which of the following areas would
240. an overheat/fire warning be provided Fuel tank Cabin Tyres Wheel/Undercarriage bay
Hydraulic pressure typically used in
the system of large transport aircraft
241. is 2000 - 3000psi 3000 - 4000psi 1000 - 2000psi 4000 - 5000psi
When smoke appears in the cockpit,
after donning the oxygen mask the
242. pilot should select Normal 1 Diluter Emergency
Which part of the gas turbine engine
243. limits the temperature Combustion chamber Turbine Compressor Exhaust
What ice protection system is used on
244. most modern jet transport aircraft Liquid Electrical Hot air Pressure operated boots
What frequency is commonly used in
245. aircraft electrical distribution systems 200Hz 400 Hz 100Hz 50Hz
When the engine fuel switch When the engine fuel switch
When does the engine High Pressure is selected òn' during engine is selected òff during engine
246. fuel shut off valve close After a booster pump failure start When flight idle is selected shut-down
When the engine fuel switch
When does the Low Pressure fuel is selected òn' during engine
247. shut off valve close When the fire handle is pulled start When flight idle is selected After a booster pump failure
In a vapour cycle cooling system what To remove moisture from the To convert the refrigerant To convert the refrigerant To raise the pressure of the
248. is the purpose of the condenser air by centrifugal action from a liquid to a gas from a gas to a liquid gas to allow efficient cooling
If the pressure controller
malfunctions during the cruise and Cabin ROC Increase, Cabin Alt Cabin ROC Decrease, Cabin Alt Cabin ROC Increase, Cabin Cabin ROC Increase, Cabin Alt
the outflow valve opens what Decrease, Differential pressure Increase, Differential pressure Alt Increase, Differential Increase, Differential pressure
249. happens: Decrease Decrease pressure Decrease Increase
250. What controls cabin pressurization ECS pack mass flow controller Outflow valve Engine bleed valve Inflow valve
If the fire handle is pulled in an
aeroplane with an AC generator
251. system what disconnects. Exciter control relay and GCB GCB and BTB BTB and GCU Exciter control relay only
The CSD can be disconnected The pilot must throttle back to The CSD can be disconnected The CSD can be disconnected
252. If a CSD overheat warning is shown and the pilot must control the reduce the load on the then reconnected later when but not used for the rest of
alternator himself alternator the temperature has reduced the flight

An emergency exit assisted escape 8ft with the aircraft on the 8ft with the aircraft on the 6ft with the aircraft on the 6ft with the aircraft on the
device must be fitted if the door sill landing gear with the landing gear with the landing gear with the landing gear with the
253. height is above: nosewheel extended nosewheel collapsed nosewheel extended nosewheel collapsed
lower surfaces only, upper surfaces only,
symmetrical and asymmetrical lower surfaces only, symmetrical and upper surfaces only,
254. How do aircraft spoilers work operation symmetrical operation asymmetrical operation symmetrical operation
What speed does the LP compressor
255. run at ? the speed of the LP turbine the speed of the HP turbine half the engine speed constant speed
toilets and cargo toilets and cargo
256. Where are smoke detectors fitted'? toilets compartments A,B,C,D,E all cargo compartments compartments B,C,E
On what principle does a fuel flow
257. meter work Volume and viscosity Quantity of movement Capacitive dielectric Pressure and temperature
The ratio of turbine outlet The ratio of turbine inlet Compressor inlet pressure
pressure to compressor inlet pressure to compressor inlet Turbine outlet pressure x divided by turbine outlet
258. What is engine pressure ratio ? pressure pressure compressor outlet pressure pressure
When is spark plug fouling most likely In the climb if you have not In the descent if you have
259. to occur? adjusted the mixture Cruise power not adjusted the mixture Max take-off power
Flight controls in case of
What is a ram air turbine (RAT) which Landing gear extension if the failure of the engine driven
260. drives a hydraulic pump used for? Nose wheel steering Flap extension normal system fails system
As altitude increases what does the increases flow due to reduced increases flow due to reduces flow due to reduced reduces flow due to
261. mixture control do to the fuel flow air density increased air density air density increased air density
What is the purpose of the diluter
demand valve in the emergency To supply air only when To dilute oxygen with air in To dilute oxygen with air in To supply oxygen only when
262. oxygen system ? inhaling crew oxygen system passenger oxygen system inhaling
Three systems, one for the
Two independent systems, Two systems each capable of flight deck, one for the
One system for both flight one for flight deck, one for supplying the flight deck and passengers and one for the
263. Emergency oxygen is provided by: deck and cabin cabin cabin cabin crew.
An aircraft planning to fly at FL330
with 120 seats fitted and 42 At least one passenger for the At least 3 passengers for the At least one passenger for the
passengers on board must provide duration of the flight above No first aid oxygen is duration of the flight above duration of the flight above
264. first aid oxygen for: 8000ft. necessary 15000ft. 14000ft
In the engine fuel system
265. Fuel heaters are fitted In the wing fuel tanks In the fuselage fuel tanks mounted on the engine All of the above
Automatically after a time

The engine fire extinguisher system is After the engine has been shut Automatically when a fire delay to allow the engine to
266. activated: down warning is sensed By the pilot when required stop
Both pilots immediately and
Both pilots immediately and the cabin crew plus some
An unpressurised aircraft is flying the cabin crew plus all passengers after 30 minutes
above FL 100 and therefore must passengers after 30 minutes Both Pilots and all above FL 100 but below FL
267. have sufficient oxygen for: above FL 100 but below FL 130 Both pilots only passengers 130
An aircraft entrance door is fitted
with an automatic escape slide, the If the door is opened from the If the door is opened from Entrance to the aircraft from
door is àrmed' from the inside by the The door cannot be opened outside the slide will remain the outside the slide will outside must be made
268. cabin crew: from the outside stowed deploy and inflate through the `break in' panel
Enable access behind panels
Aircraft above a certain capacity must Cut through the aircraft and soundproofing to aid fire Cut firewood in a survival Restrain disorderly
269. carry a crash axe, it is provided to fuselage to allow escape fighting situation passengers
At what height is it mandatory for one
of the flight deck crew to wear an
270. oxygen mask 25,000 ft 32,000 ft 37,000 ft 41,000 ft
All earthing of aircraft parts to
ground equipment must be
The precautions to be taken during GPU may not be running completed before filler caps Passengers may be boarded ( No radar or HF radios under
271. refueling are during refueling are removed traversing the refueling zone ) test within 10 metres
What type of fire extinguisher must
272. be on a flight deck Water Dry powder Special fluid Halon
What is the reason for putting the To be more efficient at high Create a pitch up by making To be out of the way of the
273. horizontal stabilizer on top of the fin speed No need for anti-icing the aeroplane tail heavy wing down wash
is harmful to eyes and skin,
274. Hydraulic fluid needs no special treatment is harmful to eyes and skin is a fire hazard and is also a fire hazard
if cabin pressure is decreasing, the
275. cabin VSI will indicate zero climb descent reducing pressure
When opening an aircraft door from
outside, what happens to the escape inflates, but stays inside its
276. slide inflates deploys, but does not inflate container is disarmed
restrict the rate of operation select the most suitable allow two supplies to be to allow a constant volume
277. A shuttle valve is used to of a system system pressure available to a service pump to idle
278. The temperature of hydraulic fluid is after the cooler in the reservoir at the actuator at the pumps
measured
when the doors move
when reverse power above when reverse thrust is towards the stowed position
279. Reverse thrust lights come on when reverser doors are unlocked idle is selected selected in flight inadvertently
An aircraft is to fly at 29000ft When
280. should the oxygen briefing take place before 10000ft. before 14000ft. at 20000ft before take-off
The excess cabin altitude alerting
system must operate to warn the
281. crew at 8000ft 10000ft 13000ft 14000ft
What does three green lights
represent when the landing gear is the gear and doors are down the gear is travelling between
282. selected down the gear is down the gear is down and locked and locked up and down
Increase lift on down going increase drag on up going
wing and decrease lift on up wing and decrease drag on equalise the drag on up equalise the lift on up going
283. How do differential ailerons work going wing down going wing going and down going wings and down going wings
to demist the interior of the to protect the windows
What is the effect of heating flight window if normal demist does to protect the windows to protect the windows against bird strike and ice
284. deck windows not function correctly against bird strike against ice formation formation
If an aircraft suffers a decompression
what happens to the indications on a VSI up, altimeter up, VSI down , altimeter up, VSI up, altimeter down,
cabin VSI, cabin altimeter and differential pressure gauge VSI , altimeter, differential differential pressure gauge differential pressure gauge
285. differential pressure gauge down pressure gauge all unchanged down down
a specified amount must
286. How much fuel can be jettisoned a specific amount the captain decides all remain
287. The power for LP fuel pumps is 28v DC 28v AC 115v DC 200vAC
converts electrical energy
288. What is a relay solenoid valve magnetic switch into heat energy used in starter motor circuit
An aircraft is in straight and level cabin altitude will descend
flight at a constant cabin altitude to, and continue beyond cabin altitude will increase to,
when the crew notice the rate of normal max. diff, at which and continue beyond normal
climb indicator reads -200ft/min. crew should begin a climb to cabin altitude will increase to point the safety valves will max. diff, at which point the
289. What will be the sequence of events regain cabin altitude outside atmospheric pressure open. safety valves will open.
The angle formed between plane of
290. rotation and relative airflow is called:- angle of attack angle of advance pitch blade angle
291. The advantages of a turbo jet engine high propulsive efficiency lowest thrust specific fuel efficient at high speed both (a) and b) are correct
are:- consumption operation

assist the basic engine
292. A good thrust reverser should : be mechanically strong have small backward thrust operation all the above are correct
The index of fire hazard of a gas
293. turbine fuel is flash point vapour point cloud point viscosity
If the gas turbine engine is supplied the exhaust gas temperature
294. with lean mixture of fuel and air:- the compressor may surge may increase the engine may flame out none of the above is correct
The lubricating oil used in gas turbine
295. engine should :- have low volatility have low viscosity have low flash point all of the above are correct
increase the incoming air
The purpose of an engine inlet duct is supply sufficient air in the create suction in front of the create turbulence in front of velocity in front of the
296. to:- engine compressor the compressor compressor
The shape of a supersonic engine duct
297. is convergent parallel convergent divergent divergent
The thrust developed by the engine,
taking into consideration of any
presence of initial air mass
298. momentum is called:- gross thrust static thrust thrust net thrust
greater fuel flow than the ignition system
299. A hot start could be the result of normal TGT rise faster than normal malfunctioning Both a) and b) are correct
With increasing altitude the thrust of drop of pressure or density of
300. a turbojet engine decreases due to:- temperature drop air less humidity in the air less oxygen in the air
The advantage of a bypass engine
301. over jet engine is:- less fuel consumption less frontal area longer take off roll less weight power ratio
Upto idle RPM fuel flows through
302. the:- secondary fuel manifold primary fuel manifold both primary and secondary bypass fuel manifold
by using aileron up float and by having tail mounted using aileron up float and by having wing mounted
How can wing bending moments be keeping the centre section fuel engines and using aileron down using the fuel in the wing engines and using the wing
303. reduced in flight tanks full for as long as possible float tanks last fuel tanks first
Which is the correct statement the outboard ailerons are used the outboard ailerons are only the inboard ailerons are only the inboard ailerons are
regarding a large aircraft fitted with only when the landing gear is used only when the landing used when the flaps are used when the flaps are
304. both inboard and outboard ailerons selected down gear is retracted retracted extended
On a modern jet transport the
hydraulic reservoirs are normally by a separate helium gas by air from the air
305. pressurized supply conditioning system by engine bleed air in flight only
A ram air turbine may be used to

provide emergency hydraulic power leading edge flap extension
306. for landing gear extension flight controls nose wheel steering only
An under inflated tyre on a dry decreases viscous causes the tyre temperature increases wear on the
307. runway hydroplaning speed to fall shoulder increases wear on the crown
An aircraft is in straight and level cabin altitude will descend
flight at a constant cabin altitude to, and continue beyond cabin altitude will increase to,
when the crew notice the rate of normal max. diff., at which and continue beyond normal
climb indicator reads -200ft/min. crew should begin a climb to cabin altitude will increase to point the safety valves will max. diff., at which point the
308. What will be the sequence of events regain cabin altitude outside atmospheric pressure open. safety valves will open
If the outflow valves failed closed in to increase cabin pressure to to shut down the air
309. flight the effect would be to damage the aircraft skin max differential to increase cabin altitude conditioning system
Modern transport aircraft fuel centrifugal and powered by do centrifugal and powered by ac spur gear and powered by do spur gear and powered by ac
310. booster pumps are generally induction motors induction motors induction motors induction motors
Modern passenger aircraft fuel tanks the air discharged by the air ram air through the vent
311. are pressurised by low pressure bleed air low pressure inert gas system conditioning system system
Where are the fuel heaters fitted on
312. jet aircraft in each tank on the engine they are not required centre tank only
supplied to the outboard supplied to any engine
The fuel cross feed system enables engines from any outboard transferred from the centre mounted on a wing from any supplied to any engine from
313. fuel to be tank tank to the wing tanks only tank within that wing any tank
The areas that heated by a bleed air leading edges of all aerofoil
system on a modern jet passenger leading edges of all aerofoil leading edges of all aerofoil surfaces including slats upper surfaces of the wings
314. transport are surfaces surfaces including flaps (where fitted) only
CSDU can be disconnected and CSDU can be disconnected CSDU must be disconnected
If a CSDU overheat warning occurs, not used for the rest of the the pilot must throttle back and then re-connected when and the alternator is
315. the flight the effected engine it has cooled down controlled directly by the pilot
What is disconnected if the fire Generator control relay
handle is pulled in an aircraft with an generator control relay (exciter control relay) and
316. AC generator system (exciter control relay) and GCB GCB BTB BTB
The frequency of an AC generator is
317. dependent upon poles only poles and rpm rpm only load
In an aircraft which uses DC as the
318. instruments may be obtained from a rectifier the AC busbar a TRU an inverter
319. How are the loads on an aircraft in parallel so that the current in parallel so that the voltage in series so that the current in series so that the voltage
busbar connected reduces through the busbar as reduces through the busbar as reduces through the busbar as reduces through the busbar as
loads are switched off loads are switched off loads are switched off loads are switched off
connected directly to the connected directly to the DC connected directly to the AC
320. Hot or vital busbars are heated by bleed air battery generator generator
transistorised unit that transistorised unit that fixed unit that changes DC fixed unit that changes AC
321. A static inverter is a converts AC to DC converts DC to AC voltages voltages
If AC generators are connected in
parallel the reactive loads are
322. balanced by adjusting the frequency torque of the CSDU energising current voltage
parallel with the armature
The voltage regulator of a DC series with the armature and and parallel with the shunt series with the armature and parallel with the armature
323. generator is connected in parallel with the shunt field field series with the shunt field and series with the shunt field
If the frequency of a series capacitve
circuit increases, what happens to the
324. current it increases it decreases it stays the same it increases or decreases
it can be filled from outside
The advantages of a chemical oxygen it is a self contained system, it the pressure hull , it can be the flow of oxygen can be
325. generator system are is relatively light turned off regulated, it can be turned off all of the above
An aircraft operating at FL 350 must
have sufficient supplementary oxygen
available for 100% of passengers for a
descent from its maximum
certificated operating altitude to
326. allow a descent to 13000 ft in 30 minutes 15000 ft in 4 minutes 15000 ft in 10 minutes 10000 ft in 4 minutes
electrically for chemical
generator systems and electrically for gaseous
The passenger oxygen drop down pneumatically for gaseous systems and pneumatically for
327. mask stowage doors are released barometrically operated latch systems chemical generator systems by the cabin crew
The fire extinguisher system for an automatically immediately a automatically once the engine by the pilot immediately a by the pilot once the engine
328. engine is activated fire is sensed has been shut down fire is detected has been shut down
The flight deck warning of an engine individual warning lights and a common light and common individual warning lights and
329. fire is bells aural warning aural warning only a common aural warning
In a gas turbine the maximum gas in the cooling air around the
330. temperature is reached in the combustion chamber at the turbine exit across the turbine turbine
When TAS increases the pitch angle of decreases and then returns
331. a constant speed propeller increases decreases remains constant to its original angle
Adjusting the mixture of piston increase fuel flow to decrease fuel flow to increase fuel flow to decrease fuel flow to
engines as aircraft altitude increases compensate for decreasing air compensate for decreasing air compensate for increasing air compensate for increasing air
332. is necessary to density density density density
When high pressure bleed valves
333. open they reduce the EPR increase the fuel flow reduce the EGT increase the thrust
The fan stage of ducted fan engine is HP compressor through
334. driven by the LP turbine IP turbine HP turbine reduction gearing
With the CSU governor in the
underspeed condition, oil will be
335. directed to increase the blade angle decrease the blade angle decrease the rpm open the throttle valve
At what speed does the LP
336. compressor run the speed of the LP turbine the speed of the IP turbine the speed of the HP turbine constant speed
The volume of the scavenge pump(s)
in an engine lubrication system is compensate for thermal
greater than that of the pressure prevent cavitation of the oil ensure heat is dissipated expansion of the lubricating ensure that the engine sump
337. pump(s) in order to system feedlines more efficiently fluid remains dry
Variable inlet guide vanes are fitted to increase the mass flow at high prevent a compressor stall at prevent a compressor stall at decelerate the flow into the
338. gas turbine engines to speeds low engine speed high engine speeds compressor
A gas turbine engine power change is fuel supplied and the amount fuel supplied and the amount
339. achieved by adjusting the amount of of air entering the compressor fuel supplied air supplied of air entering the turbine
What happens to the pressure and
velocity of the gas stream from root velocity increases, pressure velocity decreases, pressure
340. to tip across the nozzle guide vanes both remain constant both increase decreases increases
The effect of climbing at rated rpm produce no change to the reduce the time to full
341. but less than rated boost is to increase full throttle height reduce full throttle height full throttle height throttle height.
dynamic minus static
342. A pitot head is used to measure: pressure. static plus dynamic pressure. static pressure. dynamic pressure.
dynamic pressure minus pitot dynamic pressure plus pitot
343. A static vent is used to measure: excess. excess. atmospheric pressure. pitot excess pressure.
Turbulent flow around a pressure 95% increase in manoeuvre an increase in the dynamic
344. head will cause: density error. induced error. pressure. 95% of pressure error.
Static vents are usually fitted to both balance out errors caused by require a calibration card for enable a greater number of
345. sides of the aircraft fuselage. This will: reduce the position error. side slipping or yawing. each static vent. instruments to be fitted.
Which of the following instruments airspeed indicator,
require inputs of both pitot and static machmeter and vertical speed airspeed indicator, vertical airspeed indicator and
346. pressure: indicator. speed indicator, altimeter. airspeed indicator only. machmeter.
Where an alternate static source is

fitted, use of this source usually leads a temporary increase in lag a lower pressure error than
347. to: error. with normal sources. an increase in position error. no change in position error.
Converted into degrees Celsius - 40°F
348. is: -56.5°C -40°C -20°C -108°C
the maximum temperature the temperature indicated on
attainable by the air when the air temperature the static air temperature the recovery factor plus the
349. Total Air Temperature is: brought to rest, adiabatically. thermometer plus the ram rise. minus the recovery factor. ram rise.
The difference between static air
temperature and total air corrected outside air
350. temperature is known as: temperature. the ram rise. the recovery factor. hot ramp radiation.
If the pitot line to an ASI becomes
totally blocked during a climb, the ASI decrease, no matter what the increase, no matter what the progressively under indicate stick at the airspeed showing
351. reading will: actual airspeed is. actual airspeed is. the value of the airspeed. at the moment of blockage.
is calibrated out of the ASI at is calibrated out of the ASI at
MSL ISA conditions and only MSL ISA conditions and only
causes overreading of the ASI causes overreading when air causes overreading when air
at all levels whenever TAS causes overreading of the ASI density is decreased and CAS density is decreased and TAS
352. Compressibility error: exceeds 300 kt. whenever CAS exceeds 300 kt. exceeds 300 kt. exceeds 300 kt.
overreading, this indicated underreading, this indicated underreading, this indicated overreading, this indicated
If the static line to the ASI becomes speed falsely showing the speed falsely showing the speed possibly leading to the speed possibly leading to the
blocked during a long descent, a aircraft to be further from the aircraft to be closer to the operation of flaps and/or operation of flaps and/or
dangerous situation could arise due stalling speed than it actually stalling speed than it actually landing gear at speeds in landing gear at speeds in
353. to the ASI: is. is. excess of safety speeds. excess of safety speeds.
The airspeed indicator is calibrated conditions of the International conditions of the International an air density of 1013.25 indicate correctly in any
354. to: Standard Atmosphere. Standard Atmosphere at MSL. gms/m3 atmosphere.
instrument error, position instrument error, position instrument error, position
instrument error, position error, temperature error, error, barometric error, error, density error,
Excluding blockages, the full list of error, density error, compressibility error, temperature error, lag, compressibility error,
355. errors of the ASI is: manoeuvre induced error. manoeuvre induced error. manoeuvre induced error. manoeuvre induced error.
If the static line to the ASI becomes
blocked during a climb, the ASI increase, no matter what the progressively under indicate progressively over indicate stick at the airspeed showing
356. reading will: actual airspeed is. the value of airspeed. the value of airspeed. at the moment of blockage.
In the International Standard
Atmosphere, the mean sea level 1225 mb; 2°C per 1000 ft; 37 1013.25 mb; 1.98°C per 1000 1013.25 mb; 1.98°C per 1000 1225 mb; 1.98°C per 1000 ft;
357. pressure is ............., the lapse rate of 000 ft; 66 000 ft. ft; 36 090 ft; 65 617 ft. ft; 36 090 ft; 104 987 ft. 36 090 ft; 104 987 ft.
temperature ............. between MSL

and ............. and is isothermal up to
............. The numbers missing are:
An aircraft taking off from an airfield
with QNH set on the altimeter has
both static vents blocked by ice. As
the aircraft climbs away the altimeter indicate the aircraft height read the height of the aircraft show only a very small
358. will: read the airfield elevation. amsl. above the airfield. increase in height.
When flying from low pressure to
high pressure, the barometric error of read the true altitude,
an altimeter will cause the instrument providing a correction is made overread the true altitude of indicate a higher altitude underread the true altitude of
359. to: for temperature. the aircraft. than the correct one. the aircraft.
instrument position, instrument, pressure, instrument, position, instrument, pressure, lag,
The errors affecting the pressure manoeuvre induced, density, manoeuvre induced, density, manoeuvre induced, barometric, temperature,
360. altimeter are: temperature, lag. temperature, lag. temperature, barometric, lag. compressibility.
During a missed approach and go-
around procedure the change of
aircraft attitude plus raising of the
landing gear and changing of flap
settings can cause short term
unpredictable errors in certain the airspeed indicator, the machmeter, airspeed the vertical speed indicator,
instruments. The instruments most the altimeter, artificial horizon machmeter and vertical speed indicator, altimeter and airspeed indicator and
361. likely to be affected in this case are: and vertical speed indicator. indicator. vertical speed indicator. altimeter.
When entering a steep turn, an IVSI is a slight descent at high
362. likely to show: no change in altitude. a slight clim a slight descent. airspeed only.
the VSI will stop at the rate of
If the static vent becomes blocked climb of the aircraft at the time the VSI will indicate a the VSI will indicate an
363. during a climb: of blockage. decreasing rate of clim the VSI will return to zero. increasing rate of climb.
the standard VSI is more both types will react the the vertical acceleration
364. In conditions of clear air turbulence: sensitive. the IVSI is more sensitive. same. pump will not be affected.
will affect VSI readings
whenever temperature lapse is compensated at the has no effect on the VSI as
Change of temperature as an aircraft rate differs from standard metering unit by means of a only static pressure is used in may be allowed for by use of
365. climbs or descends: conditions. capillary and orifice. this instrument. tables or computer.
At FL 350 with a ISA deviation of-12,
366. the true airspeed when flying at M 460 kt 436 kt 447 kt 490 kt
0.78 is:
When climbing at a constant mach
number below the tropopause the CAS and TAS will both the CAS and TAS will both the CAS will decrease and the the CAS will increase and the
367. through an inversion: increase. decrease. TAS will increase. TAS will decrease.
When descending below the
tropopause under normal conditions
(increasing temperature) at a both TAS and mach number both TAS and mach number the TAS will decrease and the the TAS will increase and the
368. constant CAS: will decrease. will increase. mach number will increase. mach number will decrease.
Cruising at FL390, M 0.84 is found to
give a TAS of 499 kt. The ISA deviation
369. at this level will be: -17 17 19 -19
instrument error, position
instrument error, position error, barometric error, instrument error, position
The errors to which the machmeter is error, compressibility error and instrument error, position temperature error and error, density error and
370. subject are: manoeuvre induced error. error. manoeuvre induced error. manoeuvre induced error.
The machmeter gives an indication of static pressure/dynamic dynamic pressure / pitot dynamic pressure / static
371. mach number by measuring the ratio: pitot pressure/static pressure pressure pressure pressure
An aircraft is flying at FL350 with a JSA
deviation of +8. The mach no is 0.83
and the TAS 485. If the aircraft
descends to FL300 and maintains the
same mach no and TAS, the JSA
372. deviation will now be: 8 -2 2 -18
a circular magnet or pair of a low magnetic moment
In a standby direct reading compass a non-pendulously mounted a single pendulously mounted bar magnets pendulously system, either of circular or
373. there is: magnet system. bar magnet. mounted. bar configuration.
To improve the horizontality of a
compass, the magnet assembly is on the centre line of the varying with magnetic
374. suspended from a point: magnet. below the centre of gravity. above the centre of gravity. latitude.
The magnitude, and sense, of turning the design of the compass and which hemisphere the
error shown by a direct reading the amount of dip at the the direction of the turn and aircraft is in and the heading
375. compass varies with: aircraft's latitude. the rate of turn. of the aircraft. all of the above.
gimballing error, random gimballing error, looping transport wander, apparent
acceleration error, turning wander, apparent wander, error, rolling error, rotor wander, latitude error,
error, altitude error, transport rotor speed error, transport speed error, transport turning error, acceleration
376. Errors of the directional gyro are: wander, rotor speed error. wander. wander. error.
to reset the heading and to

377. The purpose of the caging knob is: to prevent the gyro toppling. to reset the heading. prevent toppling. to prevent apparent wander.
In an air driven directional gyro the air
378. jets are attached to: the inner gimbal. the outer gimbal. the instrument casing. the rotor axis.
The limits of pitch and roll for a
modern directional gyro are
379. respectively: 55' and 85' 85' and 55' 55' and 55' 85' and 85'
During the take-off run an air driven nose up and incorrect left a false descending turn to the increased nose up attitude a false climbing turn to the
380. artificial horizon will usually indicate: bank. right. and right wing low. left.
False nose-up attitude displayed on
air driven artificial horizon during the the high pendulosity of the the lag of the lateral
381. take-off run is caused by: rotor pendulous vanes the linear acceleration cut out incorrect rotor speed
The rotor axis of an electrical horizon the low centre of gravity of two mercury level switches
382. is tied to the earth's vertical by: four pendulous vanes the roll cut out the rotor housing and two torque motors
False right wing low attitude shown
on an air driven artificial horizon the lag of the base of the rotor the logitudinal pendulous
383. during an acceleration is caused by: housing vanes the roll cut-out high rotor speed
the inner gimbal ring is pivoted
laterally inside the outer the rotor axis is kept level by a
gimbal ring and the outer calibrated spring attached to
gimbal ring is pivoted the inner gimbal ring is tied to the outer gimbal ring and the
384. Inside an artificial horizon: longitudinally inside the case the vertical by a control system instrument case there is only one gimbal ring
the force produced by the
the calibrated spring is spring is producing a the spring is providing a force the spring is providing a force
exerting a force about the precession equal to but which produces a precession which produces a precession
When the pointer of a rate of turn lateral axis equal to the rate of opposite to the rate of turn is equal to the rate of turn (in equal to the rate of turn (in
385. indicator shows a steady rate of turn: turn correctly banked the opposite direction). the correct direction)
If the filter of the air driven rate of
turn indicator becomes partially the aircraft will turn faster the rate of turn indicated will the radius of the turn will
386. blocked: than indicated the instrument will overread be unaffected decrease
The radius of a turn at rate l, and TAS
387. 360 kt is: 10nm 5nm 7.5nm 2nm
The gimbal ring of a turn co-ordinator
is inclined at about 30° with respect make the gyro sensitive to have a higher rotor speed
to the aircraft's longitudinal axis in make the rate of turn more banking of the aircraft as well make the gyro more effective which will prolong the life of
388. order: accurate as to turning during inverted flight the instrument
one degree for a remote three degrees for a direct ten degrees for a remote one degree for a direct
Regulatory Requirements state that indicating compass and ten reading magnetic compass and indicating compass and one reading magnetic compass
the maximum permissible deviations degrees for a direct reading one degree for a remote degree for a direct reading and eleven degrees for a
389. after compensation are: magnetic compass. indicating compass. magnetic compass. slaved compass.
Compass swings should be carried only on the compass swinging
390. out: on the apron. base or site. at the holding point. on the active runway.
Aircraft magnetism caused by Vertical varies with magnetic heading varies with magnetic latitude it is not affected magnetic varies as the cosine of the
391. Soft Iron: but not with magnetic latitude. but not with heading. latitude or heading. compass heading.
Aircraft magnetism caused by Hard is not usually influenced by the varies directly with magnetic varies indirectly with is maximum on east and
392. Iron: earth's magnetic field. latitude. magnetic latitude. west.
to find deviation on the
cardinal headings and to to record any residual
calculate coefficients A, B and to eliminate or reduce the deviation and to prepare a
393. The aim of a compass swing is: C. coefficients found. compass correction card. all of the above.
The detector unit of a remote
394. indicating compass is normally: Fixed in the vertical plane only Fixed in the azimuth Free in the vertical Free in the horizontal plane
In a remote indicating compass, the
rotor of the slaved gyro is
automatically prevented from
wandering in the vertical plane by A levelling switch and torque
395. means of: motor pendulous suspension Bevel gears and gimbals A torque motor
Regulations state that the residual
deviation of a remote indicating
396. compass shall not exceed; 1 degree 3 degrees 2 degrees 5 degrees
A DG flag appears on the pilots gyro The gyro is no longer being
unit. What does it indicate to the Remote indicating compass in monitored by the detector The compass is aligned with
397. pilot? unserviceable The compass is misaligned unit the detector unit
To show by a dot or a cross
The purpose of the annunciator To indicate that the system is independently that the
398. circuit is to: Alternate irregularly Alternate regularly synchronised system is synchronised
start flashing 2 minutes illuminates if power from the illuminates steadily after
illuminates steadily 2 minutes, before reaching the next aircraft bus bar has been lost passing a waypoint in manual
The amber ALERT light on an INS in AUTO mode, before reaching waypoint and goes out at 30 and the system is operating mode, until the next leg is
399. control and display unit: the next waypoint. seconds to run. on standby battery. programmed in.
During initialisation of an INS the The ramp position has been The gyros and accelerometers The green "ready NAV" light
400. aircraft must not be moved until: inserted and checked. The platform is levelled. are in the "null" position. has been illuminated and the
mode selector switch has

been set to the "NAV"
position.
When using EHSI, weather radar may
401. be displayed on following settings: map, VOR/ILS. VOR/ILS, map, expanded plan. expanded map, VOR/ILS, plan. map, expanded VOR/ILS.
both captains and co-pilots
402. WXR display is controlled from: captains EHSI control only. co-pilots EHSI control only. a special control panel. EHSI control panels.
Decision height is adjusted and set on HSI section of the EFIS control ADI section of the EFIS control
403. the: flight management computer. panel. panel. ADI or HSI
on both the captains and co-
404. WXR display is on: the captains CRT only. the co-pilots CRT only. a special screen. pilots CRTs.
only on the flight
405. Airspeed is shown: only on the captains EHSI. on both EADIs. on both EHSIs. management CRT.
magnetic north between magnetic north between magnetic north between
With an EFIS flight director using IRS 73°Nth and 65°Sth and true 65°Nth and 73°Sth and true 750Nth and 75°Sth and true
406. guidance, reference north can be: magnetic north only. north above these latitudes. north above these latitudes. north above these latitudes.
Modes available for (EFIS) HSI on VOR, ILS, MAP and AUTO only from manometric
407. some units are: airspeed and Mach. MAP and PLAN. TRIM. sources.
An EFIS as well as having a control
panel, symbol generators and a
408. remote light sensor also has: EADIS and EHSIs EHSIs and altitude indicator EADIS and EICAs EADI and WXR display tubes.
A partially blocked air filter will cause under read the correct rate of over read the correct rate of
409. the air-driven turn indicator to: turn. turn. read in the reverse sense. indicate zero rate of turn.
An aircraft is climbing at a constant
Mach No. below the tropopause in
ISA conditions. During the climb the decrease due to decreasing increase due to falling decrease due to increasing increase due to the LSS
410. CAS will: density error. temperature. density error. decreasing.
An aircraft is flying at FL
390,temperature ISA, at Mach 0.85.
411. The TAS of the aircraft is: 561 476 485 472
The rate of precession of a gyro
varies:- APPLIED FORCE ROTOR SPEED
412. ROTOR MASS directly inversely inversely directly inversely directly inversely directly inversely inversely directly directly
In a climb the pitot line becomes
blocked. The vertical speed indicator
413. (VSI) will indicate: the original rate of climb. too high a rate of clim too low a rate of climb. zero.
An aircraft is passing 6,500 ft in a

descent when the static line becomes
414. blocked. The altimeter then reads: 6,500 ft less than 6,500 ft more than 6,500 ft zero
In high speed flight at high altitude
415. the static source will suffer: barometric error lag temperature error position error
An increase of 0.15 in Mach number
results in an increase of 93 kt in TAS.
If the temperature deviation from ISA
416. is +9°C, the FL is: FL 200 FL 220 FL 170 FL 90
If the pitot line becomes blocked in
417. the descent, the ASI will indicate: an increasing CAS a decreasing CAS a steady CAS zero
will prevent the instrument creates a differential pressure
being damaged by high rates of compensates for changes in between the capsule and the compensates for time lag in
418. The restricted choke in the VSI: climb and descent. temperature and density only. case as its main function. the instrument.
a chamber with four exit slots
The latitude correcting device of an an adjustable weight attached an adjustable weight attached the air jet which drives the half covered by pendulous
419. air driven directional gyro is: to the outer gimbal of the DI. to the inner gimbal of the DI. rotor. vanes.
An uncorrected gyro is set to read
100°. The gyro reading after 45
minutes when stationary on the
420. ground in latitude 25°S is: 106.3° 104.8° 093.7° 095.3°
If the static source to an altimeter continues to show the height pointer will return to indicate
becomes blocked during a descent, will over read by a constant at which the blockage a height equivalent to the
421. the instrument: amount. occurred. will progressively under read. sub-scale setting.
The product of the first integration of
the output from the N/S velocity along the local distance along the local
422. accelerometer in INS equipment is: departure latitude meridian meridian
a single gimbal gyroscope a single gimbal gyroscope in
whose primary precession is which a spring, opposing the
a space gyro which uses the opposed by a spring which, in primary precession, in turn an earth gyro in which a
force of precession against a turn, produces a second produces a secondary calibrated spring ensures the
The principle of operation of the turn spring to give a reading of the precession equal and opposite precession equal to the tilt of the gyro is proportional
423. and slip indicator is best described as: aircraft rate of turn. to the aircraft rate of turn. aircraft rate of turn. to the aircraft rate of turn.
With reference to a 'north referenced' the process by which the carried out in the STANDBY the process by which the the process by which the
inertial navigation system (INS), 'gyro inertial platform is aligned with mode by aligning the platform platform is levelled and platform is maintained in
424. compassing' is: magnetic north during the using the aircraft gyromagnetic aligned with true north using correct alignment with true
ALIGN phase. compass system to define true the earths gravity, in the north during flight.
north. ALIGN mode.
When accelerating on a westerly
heading in the northern hemisphere,
the magnet assembly of a direct turn clockwise indicating an turn anti-clockwise indicating turn clockwise indicating an turn anti-clockwise indicating
reading magnetic compass, when apparent turn towards the an apparent turn towards the apparent turn towards the an apparent turn towards the
425. viewed from above, will: north. north. south. south.
An aircraft is flying at mach 0.86,
426. temperature 218 Kelvin. The TAS is: 494 kt 477 kt 607 kt 575 kt
The subscale of an altimeter is set to
1030 mb and indicates 4500 ft when
the QNH is 996 mb. Assuming 1mb
equals 30 ft, the true height of the
427. aircraft AMSL is: 3180 ft 3990 ft 5520 ft 3480 ft
An uncorrected DGI is set to read
339° when stationary on the ground
in latitude 59N. The reading after 36
428. minutes will be: 346.7° 331.3° 326.1 351.9°
a right turn due to the
During the take-off run, the air driven a climb due to the pendulosity a climb due to the action of pendulosity of the outer a right turn due to the action
429. artificial horizon will indicate: of the inner gimbal. the pendulous vanes. gimbal. of the pendulous vanes.
is compensated for by
affects the capillary tube in the affects the knife edge orifice affects the bi-metallic strip resetting the VSI to read zero
430. In the VSI, viscosity: restricted choke. in the restricted choke. and compensating spring. on the ground before take-off.
directly with the applied force indirectly with the applied directly with the applied force indirectly with the applied
and directly with the inertia of force and indirectly with the and indirectly with the inertia force and directly with the
431. The precession of a gyroscope varies: the rotor. inertia of the rotor. of the rotor. inertia of the rotor.
The rotor of the pitch correction
motor of the electrical artificial
432. horizon is on: the outer gimbal. the inner gimbal. the instrument case. the top of the gyro unit.
An aircraft flying at FL 100 and at a
constant CAS, flies from an area of
warm air into an area of cold air.
Assuming the QNH is the same during
the change of temperature, the
433. aircraft height AMSL and the TAS will decreased increased increased increased decreased decreased increased decreased
have: Height AMSL TAS

An aircraft is climbing at a constant fall due to density decreasing
Mach number. Assuming the rise due to TAS increasing with due to the increase in local rise due to the decreasing fall due to the increasing
434. temperature is ISA, the CAS will: falling density. speed of sound. pressure. density error.
IAS corrected for IAS corrected for instrument CAS corrected for CAS corrected for position
435. Equivalent airspeed (EAS) is: compressibility. error only. compressibility. error.
With reference to the altimeter,
pressure fluctuations at the static
436. vent cause: Barometric error. Temperature error. Position error. Hysteresis error.
static pressure minus pitot pitot pressure plus static pitot pressure minus static
437. Dynamic pressure is: pressure. pressure. density and static pressure. pressure.
directly with pressure and directly with temperature and inversely with temperature inversely with pressure and
438. Density varies: inversely with temperature. pressure. and pressure. directly with temperature.
An aircraft is flying at TAS of 1100 kt
and FL 650. A change of 0.1 mach
causes a change in TAS of 57 kt. The
temperature deviation at FL 650
439. assuming an ISA atmosphere is: -6° +6° -3° +3°
The deviating effect of vertical soft
iron (VSI) ............. with decrease of
magnetic latitude, due to the .............
of H and the ............. of ............. Z
The line containing the words to
correctly complete the above
440. statement is: increase decrease increase decrease increase decrease decreases increase increase increases decrease decrease.
Angle of attack may be sensed by a stick pusher, adjacent to an indexer, in the flight a conical slotted probe, on a hinged vane sensor, on the
441. means of ............. mounted ............. the flying controls. director. the wing leading edge. wing leading edge.
The servo altimeter is superior to the
442. sensitive altimeter because: it reduces barometric error. it reduces high altitude error. it reduces temperature error. all of the above are correct.
An aircraft is flying at FL 290, TAS 500
kt, mach number 0.86 The
443. temperature deviation from ISA is: -7° +7° -15° +25°
increasing the number of increasing the speed of increasing the speed of decreasing the speed of
The rigidity (gyroscopic inertia) of a gimbals and decreasing the rotation and decreasing the rotation and increasing the rotation and increasing the
444. gyroscope may be increased by: number of planes of rotation. mass of the rotor. mass of the rotor. mass of the rotor.
An electrically driven artificial horizon being more rigid and increased gyro rpm and
considerably reduces the acceleration being less pendulous and more incorporating erection system using mercury switches and giving it the opposite rotation
445. errors of the air driven variety by: rigid. cut-out switches. torque motors. direction.
A blockage in the static line to the VSI
will subsequently cause the
446. instrument to display: a decreased rate of climb. an increased rate of clim a zero rate of climb. an increased rate of descent.
temperature error and density error and instrument temperature error and instrument error and position
447. Machmeter readings are subject to: pressure error. error. density error. error.
the difference between the
actual mean temperature
below the aircraft and the the difference between the inaccurate calibration of the
Temperature error in the altimeter is mean temperature that would actual pressure setting and temperature compensating the ambient temperature at
448. due to: be found in ISA. 1013.2m device. which the aircraft is flying.
In an inertial reference system the
gyros and accelerometers are: GYROS non-strap down non-strap
449. ACCELEROMETERS down strap down strap down strap down non-strap down non-strap down strap down
TAS obtained from indicated
Mach No. corrected for
IAS corrected for CAS corrected for TAS corrected for pressure and instrument
450. Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) is: compressibility. compressibility. compressibility. error.
In a turn and slip indicator the largest
451. errors will be induced by: yaw angle of bank primary torque reduced spring tension
If the pitot line becomes blocked under read by an increasingly
452. during a climb the machmeter will: be unaffected under read over read erroneous amount.
the flux valve is fixed to the the flux valve is pendulously
the flux valve is pendulously aircraft and so turns with the mounted and so is not
mounted and is free to turn so aircraft to measure the angle affected by the vertical
With reference to the flux valve of a that it remains aligned with the between the aircraft and the the flux valve is not subject to component of the earths
453. gyromagnetic compass: earth magnetic field. earths magnetic field. acceleration errors. magnetic field.
If an increase of 0.15 Mach results in
an increase of 93 kt TAS of an aircraft,
454. the local speed of sound is: 560 kt 685 kt 620 kt 580 kt
An increase of 0.15 Mach results in an
increase of 93 kt TAS of an aircraft. If
the temperature deviation from ISA is
455. +5°C, the approximate flight level is: FL 200 FL 150 FL 220 FL 250
the temperature of air which

has suffered the full effect of static air temperature minus true outside air temperature
456. Total air temperature is: compression heating. the ambient air temperature. ram air temperature. allowing for cooling
An aircraft is carrying out a rate one
turn at a TAS of 480 kt. The diameter
457. of the turn will be: 2.5 nm 15 nm 5 nm 10 nm
dynamic pressure, static
dynamic pressure, static pitot pressure, static pressure static pressure, pitot pressure pressure and ram air
458. An Air Data Computer has inputs of pressure and air temperature. and static air temperature. and total air temperature. temperature.
When using EHSI, weather radar may MAP, centre map, plan, nav, expanded nav, map,
459. be displayed on following settings: VOR/ILS. VOR/ILS, map, nav, plan. nav, map, VOR/ILS, plan. expanded VOR/ILS.
On the EHSI the following displays are ETA to way point and distance
460. available: to next way point. airspeed and altitude. way point and real drift. pitch and roll attitude.
accept an error of 10° latitude will accept an error of 10°
not accept an error of 10° accept error of 10° latitude but not an error of 10° longitude but not 10° error of
latitude and 10° longitude of and 10° of longitude of the longitude of the inserted latitude in the initial inserted
461. An INS in the "Align" mode will: the inserted initial position. inserted initial position. initial position. position.
the green "ready nav" light is
the gyros and the illuminated and the mode
During initialisation of an INS the the ramp position has been accelerometers are all in the selector switch has been set
462. aircraft must not be moved until: inserted and checked. the platform is levelled. "null" position. to the "nav" position.
EAS = CAS corrected for EAS = IAS corrected for CAS = TAS corrected for TAS = EAS corrected for
463. Select the correct statement: compressibility error. position error. density error. compressibility error.
An aircraft flies an altitude of 3500
feet from A, elevation 700 feet QNH
1015 mb to B, elevation 1120 feet
QNH 992 mb. Assuming the altimeter
sub-scale is not changed, the aircraft
464. will arrive over B at a height: 3500 feet 2810 feet 1690 feet 2670 feet
During a descent at a constant Mach
465. No. below the tropopause in the ISA: TAS decreases LSS decreases. CAS increases TAS increases. LSS increases CAS decreases. CAS increases TAS decreases.
The rotational speed of the gyroscope
in a turn indicator falls below the
correct operational speed. A 90° turn
at an indicated 'rate one' on this turn 30 seconds ± 10 seconds
466. indicator will take: 30 seconds. less than 30 seconds. more than 30 seconds. either way.
the angle between the chord

the angle between the the angle between the chord line of the wing of an aircraft
The aerodynamic angle of incidence longitudinal axis and the line of the wing and the lateral and the direction of the the angle between the wing
467. (angle of attack) is: relative air flow. axis. relative air flow. and the chord line.
it appears in the middle of the it appears in the scratch pad
If an alert message is generated by CRT screen and a red light it appears at the top of the and the MSG annunciator it appears in the scratch pad
468. the flight management system: flashes. CRT and an amber light flashes. illuminates. and an amber light flashes
The full International Standard
Atmosphere (ISA) is assumed in the the pressure altimeter and the the vertical speed indicator the vertical speed indicator
469. calibration of: airspeed indicator. and the machmeter. the pressure altimeter only. only.
During a steady climb the pitot head
becomes totally blocked by ice. As the
climb continues the indications of the increase no matter what the progressively under indicate stick at the Mach number at
470. machmeter will actual Mach number. the Mach number. the time of blockage. go to zero and stay there.
An aircraft flies from A to B with QNH
at A of 1019 mb set on the altimeter
subscale throughout the flight.
Assuming all other errors are zero and
that 1 mb = 30 feet, when overhead
B, QNH 1013 mbs, the altimeter will
471. be: over indicating by 120 feet. over indicating by 180 feet. indicating true altitude. under indicating by 180 feet.
An aircraft maintaining a constant
CAS and FL is flying from a warm air
mass into a colder air mass. The effect
of the change of temperature on the TAS will decrease and true TAS will increase and true TAS will decrease and true TAS will increase and true
472. TAS and true altitude will be: altitude will decrease. altitude will increase. altitude will increase. altitude will decrease.
An aircraft flying at FL 310 is cruising
at an CAS of 280 kt. If the correct
outside air temperature is -48°C, this
473. will give a Mach number of 0.76 0.71 0.78 0.805
The gyroscopic instrument which has
its spin axis tied to the earth's vertical
474. is: the turn indicator. the artificial horizon. the INS azimuth gyro. the directional gyro indicator.
The rate of precession of a gyroscope
475. varies as: rigidity/disturbing couple 1/(rigidity only) 1/(disturbing couple) only disturbing couple/ rigidity
476. An artificial horizon with an electrical the gyro has greater rigidity, is it is fitted with a roll cut-out the gyro has greater rigidity, is the fast erection switch is
driven gyroscope has greatly reduced less bottom heavy and there is switch and a linear cut-out less bottom heavy and there used to overcome topple by
take-off errors. This is because: a linear accelerometer cut- out switch. is a roll cut-out switch fitted. increasing the erection rate to
switch fitted. a high value.
position, density, instrument,
The combined Machmeter/ASI is compressibility, manoeuvre instrument, pressure and instrument and
477. subject to the following errors: induced those of the Machmeter only temperature only compressibility only
According to Joint Aviation
requirements, the maximum
deviation on any heading after
correction of a direct reading
478. magnetic compass is: 1° 3° 5° l0°
the functions of Secant
Latitude and Tangent Latitude
used for certain corrections in
An INS with the accelerometers at high speed on East or West the computer start to the correction for the Coriolis
aligned N/S and E/W is limited to use tracks the rate of convergency approach infinity and the effect of earth rotation
at latitudes below about 82°. This is it loses horizontal reference as is faster than the azimuth computer cannot handle the approaches infinity above 82°
479. because: dip becomes large. motor can correct. rapid changes involved lat.
illuminates if power from the illuminates steadily after
illuminates steadily for 2 aircraft bus bar has been lost passing a way point in manual
The amber ALERT light on an INS minutes before reaching the flashes for 2 minutes before and the system is operating mode, until the next leg is
480. control and display unit: next way point. reaching the next way point. on standby battery. programmed in.
The correct check for a turn and slip
indicator when taxying and turning
481. left is: needle left, ball left. needle left, ball right. needle right, ball left. needle right, ball right.
If the alternate static source is
selected, the greatest error in the
482. machmeter will be; position error manoeuvre induced error density error lag
Compared to the VSI what errors are
483. eliminated by the IVSI? lag turning pressure temperature
In an INS the gyros should be strap
down. In an IRS the gyros should be
484. strap down always, never. always, always. never, always. never, never.
The airspeed indicator is calibrated ISA at the height the aircraft is
485. to; ISA at mean sea level. ISA at 36,090 ft. flying. the full ISA.
486. Which of the following lists the errors Position, manoeuvre induced, Compressibility, position, Lag, position, density, Position, manoeuvre induced
of the machmeter? lag, density and instrument. density, instrument and compressibility and and instrument.
manoeuvre induced. temperature.
A DGI reads 300°T when the aircraft is
stationary at 60°S, what will the DGI
487. read after 40 minutes? 309° 287° 313° 291°
does not vary with aircraft
varies with aircraft heading varies with latitude but does does not vary with aircraft latitude but does vary with
488. Aircraft magnetism; and latitude not vary with aircraft heading heading or latitude aircraft heading
An aircraft is flying a rate 1 turn at
480 kt TAS. What is the diameter of
489. the turn? 3nm 5nm 6nm 2nm
The machmeter measures Mach
490. Number by measuring; P+S/ S D+S/S P-S / S D-S / S
In gyroscopic theory the term `Topple' wander, real or apparent, in real wander only in the wander, real or apparent, in real wander only in the
491. is defined as; the horizontal plane vertical plane the vertical plane horizontal plane
Which of the following is true Its gyro is offset by 30° to the It gives angle of bank and rate It responds to rate of turn
492. regarding the turn co-ordinator? It has a tied gyroscope. longitudinal axis of the aircraft. of turn. only.
EAS from CAS and the CAS from IAS and the EAS from CAS and the CAS from IAS and the
Compressibility is corrected for when correction is always correction can be either correction is normally correction is normally
493. obtaining; subtractive. additive or subtractive. subtractive. subtractive
Reduced spin-up time and a Increased accuracy and a Insensitivity to `g' and
What are the advantages of an IRS dither motor to prevent 'lock- Reduced spin-up time and dither motor to prevent 'lock- reduced wander of the
494. compared to an INS? out'. insensitivity to `g'. out'. gyroscopes.
An aircraft flying at Mach 0.83 is in air
495. SAT 230 Kelvin. What is the TAS? 490 kt 575 kt 495 kt 470 kt
An altimeter has an error of 1 mb. The
error at 20,000ft will be _______,
while at 40,000ft the error will be
496. ________ 30ft, 30ft 50ft, 100ft I Oft, 30ft 50ft, 80ft
to below 500' radio altitude to below 500' radio altitude to below 200' barometric to below 200' radio altitude
The GPWS would provide visual and with flaps not in the landing with flaps not in the landing altitude with flap not in the with flap not in the landing
audible warning to a pilot if the position and speed below position and speed below landing position and speed position and speed below
497. aircraft descended: Mach.28 Mach.35 below Mach.28 Mach.28.
the radio altimeter, the ILS the radio altimeter, the Air the radio altimeter, the Air
receiver, the Air Data Data Computers, the landing Data Computers, the Captain's the radio altimeter and the ILS
498. The GPWS uses inputs from: Computers and the landing gear position indicators and ILS receiver, the landing gear receiver.
gear position indicators. the flap position indicators. position indicators and the
flap position indicators.
An aircraft 'goes around' after
descending to a radio altitude of 190ft
As power is applied a power unit fails
and some height is lost The GPWS
would provide an alert when the
499. aircraft had lost about: 10ft 20ft 50ft 100ft
On receipt of a TCAS RA your action is initiate the required request a flight clearance Do nothing until a TA is
500. to: manoeuvre immediately. make a note of the details. deviation from ATC. received.
TCAS 2 provides avoidance TCAS 2 cannot provide
Which of the following statements instructions in the vertical and information on non-SSR TCAS 2 requires Mode S to be TCAS 2 provides advice on
501. concerning TCAS is correct: horizontal planes. equipped intruders. fitted to other aircraft. which way to turn.
TCAS I can be fitted to aircraft
TCAS II can provide `Traffic TCAS II can only be fitted to which carry transponders with
Advisories' and `Resolution large aircraft which carry more Mode A only whilst TCAS 11
With reference to Traffic Collision Advisories' whilst TCAS I can than 30 passengers. Whilst can only be fitted to aircraft TCAS II can only be fitted to
Avoidance Systems. The difference only provide 'Traffic TCAS I can be fitted to any whose transponders include aircraft which are equipped
502. between TCAS I and II is that: Advisories'. aircraft. either Mode C or Mode S. with EFIS.
The aural messages provided by TCAS Climb left; Climb right; Climb; Descend; Increase Turn left, Turn Right, Increase
503. II are: Threat, Climb; Threat, Descend. Descend left; Descend right. climb; Increase Descent. Turn, Decrease Turn
RAs may be disregarded only RAs may be disregarded only
when the pilot visually when the pilot visually
identifies the potentially identifies the potentially RAs may be disregarded only
conflicting traffic and decides conflicting traffic and decides when the pilot visually
that no deviation is necessary that no deviation is necessary identifies the potentially
With reference to Traffic Collision and has the clearance and has advised ATC of the RAs must never be conflicting traffic and decides
504. Avoidance Systems: confirmed by ATC. other aircraft's proximity. disregarded. that no deviation is necessary.
What are the inputs to a modern jet
transport aeroplane's stall warning
system:
1. A.o.A
2. Engine RPM
3. Configuration
4. Pitch and bank information
505. 5. Control surface position 1,2,3&4 2,4,5&6 1,2,3&6 2,3,4&5
6. Airspeed vector
EGPWS may indicate:
1. Excessive sink rate after T/O
2. Excessive descent rate
3. Excessive closure
4. Ground proximity, not in the
landing configuration
5. Deviation from glide-slope
506. 6. Proximity to en-route terrain 1,4&6 2,3&5 1,3&5 2,4&6
A single axis autopilot may also be
507. called: Altitude hold Wing leveller Pitch control loop Auto stabilisation loop
is a system which will maintain is a system which will maintain is an outer loop control
508. An auto pilot: a preselected altitude a preselected airspeed is an auto stabilisation system system
Is another name for an Applies flight data to the auto Is automatically disengaged Can only be used in EFIS
509. An automatic flight control system: autopilot system pilot system by a GPWS alert equipped aircraft
An aircraft has yaw damping included
in its auto stabilisation system. An
essential requirement of such a Parallel connected servo Automatic maintenance of c
510. system is: A three axis autopilot system motors of g position INS inputs to the CADC
Manoeuvring commands may
Manoeuvring commands may be input using pitch and turn
be input by applying normal controls on the automatic
An automatic flight control system is The autopilot must be forces to the control yoke flight system control panel,
fitted with control wheel steering disengaged before the pilot can without first disengaging the without first disengaging the The CWS is only there for
511. (CWS) input manoeuvring commands autopilot autopilot steering on the ground
What type of autoland system would
be required for the landing to
continue following a single failure
512. below alert height: Fail soft Fail passive Fail operational or fail active Land 2 system
An automatic flight system which can
safely continue with an automatic
513. landing after a system failure is a: Fail redundant system Fail passive system Three axis system Fail operational system
During an autoland the caption LAND
514. 2 is illuminated. The system is: Fail active or fail operational Fail passive Approaching decision height Requiring a crew input
For an autoland system to meet FAIL Have suitable system Withstand a system failure Can continue with an Can continue with an
515. PASSIVE criteria it must: redundancy without excessive deviations autoland below alert height autoland above alert height
from flight path

localiser roll control is
disengaged just prior to flare is disengaged prior to glideslope is the engaged
516. During an autoland approach: flare is engaged at 1500'agl touchdown touchdown at 5'GA pitch mode until 5'GA
In an autoland at 1000' AGL with two the armed roll mode would be the engaged roll mode would the engaged pitch mode the engaged roll mode would
517. autopilots engaged: LOCALISER be GLIDESLOPE would be FLARE be LOCALISER.
An automatic flight control system in
which the application of normal
forces on the control column allows
the ilot to input demands to the
518. autopilot is a: control wheel steering touch control steering series connected system parallel connected system.
If a fault develops in a Triplex auto-
pilot system during an approach, the fail passive and the landing
519. system will revert to; may continue. fail control wheel mode. fail operational. a manual disconnect.
Central Air Data Computers (CADC's) airspeed, altitude and decision airspeed, altitude and Mach airspeed, attitude and Mach
520. transmit data concerning ;- height. Number. Number. airspeed and altitude only.
The auto-throttle is used to control
some factors during the three primary
521. control modes, they are: EPR, Mach and Speed. EPR, wheel and speed EPR, Mach and altitude. EPR, wheel and altitude.
The system which allows the pilot to
control the aircraft with the the electronic inner / outer
522. servomotors engaged is called; touch control steering. control wheel steering. axis loop. the outer loop control.
After a failure of one of the necessary
redundant systems below alert height continue the descent but disengage autoland and take continue descent and land
523. you would; revert to a higher D.H. carry out a missed approach. over manually. automatically.
When localiser and glide slope are
captured at 1,500 feet during an
automatic landing sequence, two
other functions will be activated at touch down mode and roll out flare mode arm and touch flare mode engage and roll flare mode arm and off line
524. the same time, they are; mode. down mode. out mode. channels engaged.
Inner loop control in the roll Outer loop input to the pitch Outer loop control about the Inner loop control in the pitch
525. ALT HOLD is an example of : axis channel longitudinal axis axis
Senses rate of turn and Supplies rate and
Has three degrees of freedom, positions an indicator on the displacement information to
526. A rate gyro: two gimbals and a transducer EHSI the computer Controls the outer loop inputs
In the pitch and roll channel In the pitch channel only with In the pitch channel only with In the pitch and roll channel
527. Autotrim is functional : with the autopilot engaged the autopilot engaged the autopilot disengaged with the autopilot disengaged
manoeuvre the aircraft in the alter the flight path while the
Control wheel steering enables a pilot air while the autopilot is autopilot is engaged by manoeuvre the aircraft with
528. to: taxy the aircraft on the ground engaged applying a breakout force the autopilot disengaged.
can be engaged without the usually operates on all three is not needed if the autopilot operates only in conjunction
529. The rules for the Autotrim are that it : autopilot axes is engaged with the autopilot
The Autothrottle will come on in a FBW aircraft the AoA
automatically even with the A/T reaches a critical value called a the AoA reaches the stalling reverse thrust is selected in
530. switch OFF when: floor angle TOGA button is pressed flight.
An aircraft on Autopilot is engaged in
the VOR mode and loses the VOR decouples from the VOR and
signals as it flies through the VOR automatically switches to decouples from the VOR and tunes to the next VOR on the flies the last heading for a
531. cone of silence. The autopilot: Heading mode disconnects route fixed period.
With the autopilot in CWS the pilot
manoeuvres the aircraft and releases attitude at the time of
532. control. The aircraft will maintain heading and altitude heading, speed and attitude altitude and attitude release.
Autopilot corrections affecting Pitch
533. are carried out by: autotrim only autotrim and elevators elevators only autothrottle.
the Engine Indicating and
Crew Alerting System, with
the Electronic Centralised the fourth mode a manual
the Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitor, with the the Engine Indicating and cross over from the Electronic
The electronic engine display system Aircraft Monitor, with the fourth mode flight phase Crew Alerting System, with Centralised Aircraft Monitor
534. with three automatic modes is: fourth mode manual. related or manual. the fourth mode manual System.
a compact message will
appear both on the upper a compact message will
With an Engine Indicating and Crew a compact message will only a compact message will only display unit and the captains appear on the upper display
Alerting System lower display unit appear on the upper display appear on the central display Electronic Flight Instrument unit when the status button is
535. failure: unit. unit. System. pressed on the control panel.
one primary and one
secondary display unit for an
EICAS and a change over two display units for ECAM an interconnect to the EFIS
The electronic engine display system selector to change to the ECAM and three display units for either EICAS or ECAM but not symbol generators in an
536. will have: mode if necessary. EICAS. both. emergency.
537. In an Engine Indicating and Crew N1, EGT, N2. N1, EGT, EPR. N2, EGT, EPR. N4, EGT, EPR.
Alerting System if both displays fail

then the following information is
displayed on the standby engine
indicator:
checklist format on the left checklist format on the left synoptic format on the left
The Electronic Centralised Aircraft display panel and schematic display unit and the right, or display unit and a warning and continuous primary engine
Monitor (ECAM) type of system form always automatically on lower display unit, a diagram or corrective action display on display on the primary display
538. shows a: the right display unit. synoptic format. the right or lower display unit. unit.
on both the Electronic Flight
Instrument System and Engine only on the Flight
An engine fire indication on an on the primary display panel in on the secondary display panel Indicating and Crew Alerting Management Computer
539. electronic engine display is shown: red. in amber. System secondary panels. primary panel.
An EICAS system with the An ECAM system with the
primary engine instruments primary engine instruments
An engine electronic system which in An EICAS system with EPR, EGT An ECAM system with the displayed on the primary displayed on the primary
normal conditions of flight shows only and N2 shown on the primary primary engine instruments screen, the secondary screen screen, the left screen being
540. the primary engine instruments is: instruments. displayed on the lower screen. being blank. blank.
541. The properties of a gyro are: mass , rigidity & inertia rigidity & precession rigidity & inertia mass & inertia
An aircraft fitted with a Direct
Reading Magnetic Compass (DRMC)
upon landing in a northerly direction
542. will indicate: no change oscillation about north a turn towards east a turn towards west
an airspeed indicator with an airspeed indicator with an an altimeter corrected for
543. The machmeter consists of: mach scale altimeter capsule density a VSI and altimeter combined
An aircraft is flying at an indicated
altitude of 16,000ft. The outside air
temperature is -30° C What is the true
544. altitude of the aircraft? 16,200 ft 15,200 ft 18,600 ft 13,500 ft
the airfield barometric the setting that will give zero the equivalent sea level the setting that will indicate
545. QNH is: pressure indication on the airfield pressure at the airfield airfield height
inertial navigation inertial attitude unit&inertial autopilot system&stabiliser rate of turn indicator&inertial
546. A rate integrating gyro is used in: unit&autopilot system navigation unit servo mechanism system navigation unit
time elapsed for signal to
An Air Data Computer (ADC) obtains barometric data from static travel to and return from the difference between absolute
547. altitude from: outside air temperature source earth and dynamic pressure
When descending through an

isothermal layer at constant CAS,
548. what does the TAS do? increase at a linear rate increase at an exponential rate remain the same decrease
549. What is VMO calculated from: CAS TAS COAS EAS
Descending from FL390 at maximum
groundspeed, what will the pilot be VMo initially then MMo at a MMO initially then VMO at a VNE initially then MMO at a VNO initially then VNE at a
550. limited by: specified altitude specified altitude specified altitude specified altitude
the flaps may be extended in the flaps may be extended in the flaps may be extended in
551. VFE is the maximum speed that: the flaps can be operated the take-off configuration the landing configuration a specified configuration
Mach number is defined as the ratio
552. of IAS to LSS TAS to LSS CAS to LSS EAS to LSS
The factors which will affect a Turn aircraft speed & aircraft angle of bank & aircraft
553. Indicator are: weight angle of bank & aircraft speed weight all of the above
To obtain heading information from a
Gyro Stabilised platform, the gyros 1 degree of freedom and a 1 degree of freedom and a 2 degrees of freedom and a 2 degrees of freedom and a
554. should have: horizontal axis vertical axis horizontal axis vertical axis
OAT, electric power, static dynamic pressure, TAT&pitot TAT, static pressure, electric
555. What are the inputs to the ADC ? pressure&AOA pressure both a & b power, pitot pressure&AOA
the pilot can fully deflect the should only be exceeded in must not be exceeded for
556. VNO is the max speed which: controls. still air and with caution. should never be exceeded. flap/gear extension
What does the "barbers pole" on an
557. ASI indicate?: VMO& altitude. VMO& temperature. VNO VNE
On board a/c, true altitude shown
558. from: standard atmosphere. pressure altitude. density altitude. temperature altitude.
altitude in the standard
atmosphere at which the
prevailing density is equal to
the density in the standard pressure altitude corrected for
559. What is density altitude: atmosphere prevailing temp. temperature altitude. pressure corrected
ground based and measures ground based and measures a/c based and measures true a/c based and measures true
560. A radio altimeter is: true altitude. true height. altitude. height.
If the pitot tube is leaking (and the
pitot drain is blocked) in a non- over-read in the climb, under- under-read in the climb, over-
561. pressurised a/c, the ASI will: under-read. over-read. read in the descent. read in the descent.
In a right turn while taxiing, the
562. correct indications are: Needle left, ball right. Needle left, ball left. Needle right, ball right. Needle right, ball left.
What will the altimeter read if the

layers beneath the aircraft are all read lower than the real read higher then the real
563. colder than standard? altitude altitude read the correct altitude readings will fluctuate
The indications of a machmeter are Differential static and
564. independent of Temperature (OAT) Static Pressure dynamic Pressure Dynamic Pressure
1 degree of freedom and an 2 degree of freedom and an 1 degree of freedom and a 2 degree of freedom and a
565. An artificial horizon has: horizontal axis. horizontal axis. vertical axis. vertical axis.
Increasing RPM and Increasing RPM and Decreasing RPM and Decreasing RPM and
concentrating the mass on the concentrating the mass at the concentrating the mass on the concentrating the mass at the
566. The rigidity of a gyro is improved by: periphery of the rotor. hub of the rotor. periphery of the rotor. hub of the rotor.
What is the speed of sound at sea
567. level ISA 644kts. 661 kts. 1059 kts 583kts.
What is the speed of sound at 30,000
568. ft and -40 degrees C. 562kts. 595kts. 590kts. 661 kts.
align compass north with align compass north with true align magnetic north with true get true north and lubber line
569. A compass swing is used to: magnetic north. north. north. aligned.
TAT = SAT - heating due to TAT = SAT + heating due to
570. The TAT probe measures TAT by: TAT = SAT + kinetic heating. compressibility. TAT = SAT - kinetic heating. compressibility.
If a pitot tube and drains are blocked
at altitude by icing, during a descent
571. the ASI will: read constant airspeed. under read. over read. show zero.
establish position relative to
An IRS is aligned when turned on so calculate the computed establish true and magnetic true north and magnetic
572. as to: trihedron. north. north. establish magnetic north.
In a slightly banked turn, the turn angular velocity about the
573. needle will indicate: roll rate. rate of yaw. vertical axis. rate of pitch.
The Primary Flying Display (PFD)
574. displays information dedicated to: engine data and alarms flight path weather radar aircraft systems
Radio Aids, Engine Parameters Route Data,Terminal Data &
575. What are the inputs to the FMS ? & Air Data Operating Data All of the above none of the above
What are the upper and lower limits lower limit VLO and upper limit lower limit VLE and upper limit lower limit VNO and upper lower limit VLO and upper
576. of the yellow arc on an ASI? VNE VNE limit VNE limit VLE
use of an accelerometer
577. In a VSI lag error is improved by: bi-metalic strip two system return spring
An aircraft is flying a true track of
578. 360° from 5° south to 5° north. What 0° per hour + 5° per hour - 5° per hour depends upon groundspeed
is the change in apparent wander

rate:
When turning through 180° at
constant attitude and bank, a classic nose up and correct angle of attitude and bank angle are nose up and bank angle too nose up and bank angle too
579. Artificial Horizon indicates: bank correct low high
The ratio of pitot pressure to The ratio of static pressure to The ratio of dynamic pressure The ratio of static pressure to
580. Mach number is defined as: dynamic pressure dynamic pressure to static pressure pitot pressure
relative temperature measured differential temperature relative temperature ambient temperature
581. What is SAT ? in K measured in K measured in °C measured in °C
What happens when the static vent
supplying an ASI is blocked, and the ASI acts opposite to an ASI always over reads / reads a ASI always under reads /
582. ram air inlet remains clear ? altimeter higher value reads a lower value ASI acts like an altimeter
In a left turn while taxiing, the correct
583. indications are: Needle left, ball right. Needle left, ball left. Needle right, ball right. Needle right, ball left.
the maximum speed at which the maximum speed at which the maximum speed at which the minimum speed at which
to fly with the landing gear the landing gear may be to fly with the landing gear to fly with the landing gear
584. VLO is defined as: retracted retracted or extended extended extended
the speed which must not be the speed above which the the maximum speed for
exceeded in still air, or without landing gear may not be the speed which must never normal flap extension to be
585. VNE is defined as: caution extended be exceeded selected
pitot pressure to static (pitot pressure minus static pitot pressure times static pitot pressure to (static
586. A machmeter measures the ratio of, pressure pressure) to static pressure pressure pressure times pitot pressure)
A standby artificial horizon must have a remote gyro &its own power its own power supply & its
587. the following properties: supply only to be used in emergency both a & b own gyro
increases if SAT is greater
During a descent at constant CAS and than standard temperature
588. total temperature, the mach no: increases remains constant and decreases if it is lower decreases
The single most significant item which
makes a servo altimeter more temperature compensated
589. accurate is: electromagnetic pick-off logarithmic scale spring multiple pointers
If a large aircraft is slide slipped to
starboard, and the port static vent is
blocked, what will the altimeter read
590. ? under read read correctly Over read fluctuate
radio alt flag, red lamp, and radio alt flag and red lamp
591. If the radio altimeter fails: height information disappears aural warning given aural warning given activates.
maximum structural cruising

592. VNO is defined as: speed never exceed speed manoeuvring speed maximum operating speed
If the left static vent is blocked, and
the right static vent is clear. What will
the altimeter read if the aircraft read correctly whatever the if side slipping to the left, if side slipping to the right,
593. maintains constant level? situation under read altimeter will over read. altimeter will over read.
An aircraft is flying at constant
indicated altitude, over a cold
594. airmass. The altimeter reading will be: greater than the real altitude standard altitude same as the real altitude less than the real altitude
From where does the air data
computer (ADC) obtain aircraft dynamic - absolute ambient absolute barometric sensor
595. altitude? OAT probe pressure on aircraft fuselage none of the above
What does a radio altimeter, for an
aircraft in the landing configuration, height of aircraft wheels above height of the aircraft above
596. measure: the ground the ground altitude of the aircraft altitude of the aircraft wheels
What is indicated on the ASI when the
597. static vent blocks during a descent ? under reads reads correctly over reads reads zero
The error in a Directional Gyro due to
the earth's rotation, at a mean
latitude of 45° N, will cause the spin
598. axis to move by: 10.6° Clockwise 10.6° Anti-clockwise 7.6° Clockwise 7.6° Anti-clockwise
If you maintain the same CAS and
Altitude (FL270), and the temperature
increases, what happens to the Mach increases at an exponential decreases at an exponential
599. No ? rate rate remains the same increases
An aircraft is fitted with two
altimeters. One is corrected for at high speed the non- provided that the ADC is at high speed the non-
position error, the other is not ATC will receive erroneous compensated altimeter will working normally, there will compensated altimeter will
600. corrected for position error information of flight level show a lower altitude be no error to either altimeter show a higher altitude
The pitot tube of an ASI gives a direct
601. reading of: static pressure total & static pressure total pressure dynamic pressure
When descending from FL230 to FL50
at maximum speed, the limitations
602. which apply are: VMO VMO then MMO MMO then VMO MMO
A modern low altitude Radio pulse modulated waves, with Frequency modulated waves, Wave modulation, with Triangular wave, with the
603. Altimeter uses the principle of: the difference between the where the difference between frequency shift due to frequency shift of the ground
transmitted and received the transmitted wave and the Doppler effect of the ground reflected wave being
waves displayed on a circular received wave is measured. reflected wave being measured
screen. measured
What is the principle of operation of a differential pressure across a
604. VSI: capsule total pressure in a capsule static pressure in a capsule dynamic pressure in a capsule
What is the normal operating range of
605. a low altitude Radio Altimeter? 0 to 2,500ft 50ft to 2500ft 0 to 10,000ft 0 to 7,500ft
to determine aircraft height to determine aircraft height to determine pressure
606. What is a radio altimeter used for? above mean sea level above ground level altitude to detennine aircraft altitude
Why must Latitude and Longitude be to determine the aircraft to check the IRS position with to enable the levelling to determine the accuracy of
607. inserted into an IRS? position relative to the earth the Flight Management System procedure to commence the alignment
608. What is the input to a VSI ? static pressure differential pressure total pressure dynamic pressure
The Pitot tube comprises a mast to avoid disturbance from
position it below the skin of the aerodynamic flow about the position it outside the
609. aircraft for: aircraft boundary layer anti-ice protection easy access for maintenance
The capacitance will change
In a capacitor type fuel quantity The capacitance decrease if The capacitance increase if with fuel quantity and
610. indicator : fuel is decreased. fuel is decreased. temperature. None of the above.
An accelerometer usually measures In all three directions (X,Y,Z)
611. acceleration : In one direction only. In two directions at a time. at a time. none of the above
612. The magnetic equator is : An agonic line. An isoclinic line. An aclinic line. An isogonic line.
613. Compass deviation is due to : Aircraft magnetic field. Earth’s magnetic field. Magnetic storm. None of the above.
Change of latitude and Mechanical imperfections of
614. The cause of apparent precession is : Earth’s rotation. longitude. Both (a) and (b) are correct. the gyro.
During entry of initial co-ordinates, accepts both wrong latitude does not accept wrong
615. the inertial navigation system : accepts wrong latitude. accepts wrong longitude. and longitude. latitude or longitude.
When an aircraft flies 2 dots below gives a “GLIDESLOPE” hard gives a “GLIDESLOPE” soft does not give any does not give any GPW
616. glideslope, the GPWS : warning. warning. “GLIDESLOPE” warning. warning.
cannot measure acceleration calculates the position of the can measure acceleration
without reference to a known aircraft with reference to requires a known initial independently but requires
initial position (latitude, known initial position and position to measure initial position to measure
617. The INS : longitude). velocity. acceleration. present position.
reproduced from prerecorded generated from random generated from read only manually initiated after some
618. The audible warning of GPWS is : tapes. access memories (RAM). memories (ROM). warnings.
619. The auto pilot : relieves the human pilot of assists in navigation with the improves safety but does not All of the above are correct.
flying fatigue. help of other instruments. replace the human pilot.

At 50 feet agl during an autoland,
what happens to the glideslope signal
620. ? continues to be actioned is disconnected is factored for range is used to flare the aircraft
Autothrottle engaged mode can be
621. checked by the pilot, using: primary flight display thrust control computer position of throttles navigation display
glideslope and localiser
What happens at 50ft whilst carrying disconnect and aircraft radio altimeter controls the radio altimeter controls the glideslope disconnects and
622. out an autolanding? continues to land rate of descent angle of attack aircraft continues descent
If the autopilot is selected to VOR Temporarily follows current The pilot manually flies the
mode, what happens if the aircraft heading until exiting the cone VOR disengages and Heading The pilot must select an aircraft following flight
623. flies over the cone of confusion`? of confusion hold engages alternate roll mode director roll commands.
The autopilot disconnects (or the
624. autoland is completed) at: 100 ft decision height flare roll out
how the pilot's control input and output at the
The control law in a fly-by-wire demands are translated into amplifier level respectively computer input deviation data the versine signal between
625. system is a relationship between: control surface movements. control the deviation data and flap position modification the ailerons and elevators
At the missed approach point the
TOGA switch on the throttles is Autopilot selects max. power Autopilot selects max. power
depressed. Which of the following GA power selected & Pilot & Pilot manually fly’s & Autopilot fly’s the GA GA power selected & Aircraft
626. statements are correct : manually fly’s manoeuvre manoeuvre manoeuvre automatically cleans up
the pilot retracts the flap and the auto throttle selects
the landing gear to reduce drag maximum power as soon as
If a Go-Around is initiated from an & the autopilot monitors the the TOGA switch is pressed &
627. auto-approach : climb the pilot performs the climb both a & b none of the above
Where can the pilot look to see the
628. autothrottle mode ? PFD overhead panel throttle control panel EICAS
The autopilot is engaged with no
modes selected. What is the autopilot
629. providing: wing leveling altitude hold Auto-stability with auto-trim LNAV and VNAV
630. Autoland Flare is initiated at 1500 ft 330 ft 50 ft 5 ft
An autopilot capable of altitude hold
and heading hold is a minimum Single pilot operation in VMC Single pilot operation under
631. requirement for: and IMC. IFR and at night. Aircraft over 5700kg. Dual pilot operation (in IFR).
632. During a fully automatic landing the and the auto-throttle control and the auto-throttle control and the auto-throttle control controls the approach (at
autopilot: the approach at least until the the approach at least until the the approach at least until least) until the roll-out, the
flare. roll-out. decision height. pilot controls the power.
Pitch attitude holding , Pitch attitude holding , Horizontal wing holding , VOR axis holding ,Inertial
In an autopilot system, a/c flight path Horizontal wing holding & Horizontal wing holding & ASI Inertial heading holding & heading holding & ASI and
633. modes include which of the following: Inertial heading holding and Mach hold Yaw damper Mach hold
ailerons are moved in
ailerons are moved in proportion to rate of angular rudder is moved in proportion rudder is moved in proportion
634. In a yaw damper: proportion to Mach No. velocity. to Mach No. to rate of angular velocity.
LOC ARMED lights up on the localiser armed and awaiting
635. annunciator, this means: localiser beam captured. capture. localiser alarm is on. ILS is captured
What is the most basic function of an
636. autopilot? altitude hold heading hold wing leveller altitude and heading hold
A/P holds IAS/MACH when A/P holds altitude in cruise
Regarding autopilot and auto- climbing in LVL CHG and A/T with ALT HOLD, A/T controls A/P holds pitch in descent in
637. throttle: controls thrust. IAS/Mach. V/S mode, A/T controls thrust. both a and b.
To provide control about To prevent snatching on To prevent snatching on
638. Auto-trim is fitted to an autopilot: lateral axis. disengaging A/P. engaging A/P To correct for Mach tuck
speed , flight path , altitude ,
639. Auto throttle can hold speed , flight path , attitude speed , Mach , EPR / N Mach altitude , Mach , EPR / N
When operating with the autopilot in
ALT hold mode what happens if the
Captain's barometric altimeter
640. pressure setting is increased ALT hold disengages Nothing The aeroplane will climb The aeroplane will descend
to relieve forces on the to relieve forces on the
to synchronise the longitudinal autopilot servomotor prior to to react to altitude changes in control column before hand
641. The function of autotrim is loop hand over ALT HOLD mode over
compensates for the rearward compensates for the forward
movement of the CP due to movement of the CP due to is operational at low subsonic
642. The Mach Trim system shockwave formation shockwave formation controls the aircraft in roll speeds
The Flight Director horizontal and
vertical bars are up and left of aircraft
symbol on the ADI, these indications Increase pitch angle, turn Decrease pitch angle, turn
643. are directing the pilot to: Increase pitch angle, turn left Decrease pitch angle, turn left right right
engine limitation
protection&power automatic engine starting manual engine starting
644. What does FADEC do? management sequence sequence all of the above
When turning into a desired radial, FD correct attitude to intercept

645. bars indicate: a 45° angle of bank a 30° angle of bank a 15° angle of bank radial
The input to a basic stall warning
646. system are: Angle of attack IAS Slat/flap position Mmo
647. Where is TCAS displayed ? On its own screen On the EFIS&On VSI Weather Radar all of the above
648. The principle that TCAS uses is: Primary radar ATC radar RT communications Transponders in the aircraft
What does a FDR record when Cockpit voice , Radio & Public
649. combined with a CVR? addresses from the cockpit Cockpit voice&Radio Radio & Cabin voice all of the above
The Altitude Alert system alerts the When reference altitude When deviating from the
650. pilot: At decision height At the selected altitude equals the selected altitude selected altitude
Pressure encoding from mode Aircraft specific
S transponder &Radio configurations&Inertial
651. TCAS II obtains information from: altimeter reference unit (IRU) both a and b none of the above
PA announcements even
Cabin crew conversation on when not selected on flight
652. What does a CVR record ? Cabin crew conversations intercom deck Radio conversations
Various inputs including speed Various inputs including
brake position, a warning landing gear micro switch, a Various inputs including EGT,
A stall warning system fitted to a module and a visual or aural warning module and an aural a warning module and an Stick shakers and/or stick
653. large aircraft will always include: warning warning aural warning push
654. GPWS is active between what heights: Oft and 2500ft 50ft and 2450 ft 0 ft and 2450 ft 50 ft and 5000 ft
Smoothly and immediately Turn 90° and smoothly and
What is the correct response to a follow the climb or descent Request permission to Follow ATC instructions as immediately follow the climb
655. TCAS RA ? commands manoeuvre from ATC these override TCAS RAs or descent commands
What symbol is used to represent a
656. RA on a TCAS PPI ? Yellow circle Red lozenge Red square Red circle
From the time when the
From the time when the From the time the first engine From the time when the first aircraft is first able to move
What are the regulatory requirements aircraft is first able to move is started and stops 5 minutes engine is started and stops 5 under its own power until 5
for the CVR to start and stop under its own power until it is after the last engine is minutes after the APU is minutes after it is no longer
657. recording ? no longer able to do so. shutdown. shutdown. able to do so.
An altitude alerting system must at Approaching selected altitude Abnormal gear/flap
least be capable of alerting the crew & Excessive deviation from Approaching selected altitude combination & Excessive
658. on: selected altitude. & Excessive vertical speed. terrain closure. all of the above
659. Other traffic which is assessed as not A solid red square. A solid white or cyan diamond. A hollow cyan diamond. A hollow cyan square.
being a threat will be indicated by a

TCAS system as:
Flaps in incorrect
Which of the following are modes of Excessive sink rate&Altitude Excessive Glideslope position&High altitude
660. the GPWS? Excessive sink rate&Stall loss after T/O or go-around deviation&High climb rate descent
What corrective action is given by
661. TCAS ? Turn left or right. Climb or descend. Contact ATC Turn then climb or descend.
The Flight Data Recorder actually At the beginning of the T/O Before the a/c starts moving
662. starts running: run. under its own power When the gear is retracted. When a/c lines up on runway.
SINK RATE repeated each 1.5
DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK seconds. Penetrating the
followed by WHOOP WHOOP, DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK second boundary generates
What I's the GPWS Mode 3 audible PULL UP if the sink rate DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK followed immediately by an aural alert of WHOOP,
663. alert ? exceeds a certain value. continuously. WHOOP WHOOP, PULL UP. WHOOP PULL UP.
Crash/Fire resistant
Microphone & Crash/Fire Microphone & A Flight data Microphone &Independent construction& A Flight data
664. CVR components consist of: resistant construction recorder battery recorder
If an aircraft GPWS detects an
excessive rate of descent with gear TOO LOW TERRAIN, TOO LOW
and flaps up, the alert and warning TERRAIN followed by TOO LOW SINK RATE followed by TERRAIN TERRAIN followed by
665. will be DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK GEAR TOO, LOW GEAR `WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP `WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP
The requirement to carry a GPWS
concerns aircraft which are,
depending on their age, weight and
666. passenger capacity Jet & Piston Turboprop & Jet Turboprop&Piston None of the above
If both displays of an EICAS system fail
what information will be displayed on
667. the standby engine indicator N1 , EPR , N2 N1, EPR, EGT N2 , EPR , EGT EGT , N1 , FF
During the take-off run , the effect of
increasing airspeed is to cause the increase and subsequently
668. EPR indication to remain constant increase decrease decrease
displayed in red, normally on
displayed in amber on the the upper screen , and displayed in amber, normally displayed in amber, normally
An advisory message on the EICAS lower screen with associated requiring immediate corrective on the upper screen with on the upper screen, indented
669. system screen would be: caution lights and aural tones action aural warnings . one space to the right.
670. A supercharged aircraft is climbing at 18 in Hg 33 in Hg 41 in Hg 46 in Hg
its maximum permitted boost of 8 psi

(16in.Hg) from sea level to its full
throttle height of 10,000 feet. If sea
level pressure is 29.92in.Hg , when
the aircraft reaches 5000 feet, where
the pressure is 24.72in.Hg, what will
be the approximate indication on the
MAP gauge
An aircraft has a compensated
capacitance fuel contents gauging
system and is refuelled so that the
total fuel contents are 76000kg at a
temperature of 18 degrees C and an
S.G. of 0.81. Whilst the aircraft is
parked the temperature increases to
26 degrees C and the S.G. becomes
671. 0.80 The indicated fuel contents have: increased by 5% increased by 10% decreased by 5% remained the same
The working principle of a capacitive
fuel contents gauging system is based
672. upon volume of fuel changes in capacitance height of fuel dielectric value
Total Air Temperature (TAT) is equal
673. to: SAT + ram rise RAT + friction rise SAT - RAT RAT + ram rise
variation of capacitance of a
The capacitor gauge principle is based capacitor with the nature of variation of capacitance by variation of the EMF in a variation of outflow and
674. on: the dielectric volume measure at the probe wheastone bridge couple in the system
The most significant parameters and
the most important that express the
675. thrust of a gas turbine engine are; EGT or N2 N2 and FF FF and EGT N1 and EPR
On a modern twin spool turbofan, the the temperature upstream the a rotational speed and a The rotational speed of the The rotational speed of the
676. main handling parameter is : turbine or EGT temperature high-pressure compressor low-pressure compressor
rotational speed of the fan (N1)
or the total pressure at the fan rotational speed (N1) or
Two main indications used to outlet of the low-pressure total pressure at the high- fan rotational speed (N1) or high pressure turbine
677. evaluate a turbojet thrust are: turbine pressure compressor outlet EPR rotational speed or EPR
The working principle of mass flow the volume and viscosity of the the temperature and pressure volume mass and dielectric
678. meters mostly used now days, is to fuel of the fuel value of fuel kinetic energy transmitted
measure in their system:

An RPM gauge has a red line at the it indicates an RPM that must
upper end of the green arc, in the not be used continuously it indicates an RPM that must
middle of the green arc is a smaller because of the increased it is the RPM at which there is not be used continuously
red arc. What is the significance of vibration level from the an increased likelihood of oil because there is insufficient
679. this smaller red arc engine/propeller it is maximum continuous RPM leakage cooling air for the engine
In an ECAM system if a caution illuminate the page number display a diagrammatic view of will alert the pilot by an will cause the relevant
680. message appears the system will that requires to be selected the affected system audible warning only buttons to light up
A cylinder head temperature One in each of the two banks
measuring system in a piston engine One in each cylinder head to One in the coolest running One in the hottest running of cylinders in a horizontally
681. has a sensor average the temperature cylinder cylinder opposed engine.
Advantage of a ratiometer type Changes indication if voltage No external power supply is
682. measuring circuit is Very Accurate Simple changes required
Compressor inlet pressure
Fan Speed (N1) and Turbine Compressor outlet pressure and combustion chamber
683. In a Turbojet thrust is measured by Inlet Pressure N 1 and EPR and jet pipe pressure pressure
What is used to measure gas turbine
684. inlet pressure Bourdon Tube Differential capsule Aneroid capsule Bellows
A Thermocouple would normally be
used to measure the temperature of
685. the: Turbine Exterior Cabin Oil
Temperature probes in front of
686. The Bourdon Tube is used in: the engine Smok detectors Pressure measurement Vibration detectors
Allowing the determination of
the power from the propeller
Allowing automatic Giving the power available by Giving the power from the by using a formula which is a
687. The torquemeter is an instrument: synchronisation of the engines the engine propeller by direct reading function of the RPM
Of the oil pressure resisting Of the frequency of a phonic
Torque can be calculated in a lateral movement of the Of the amount of light through wheel connected to the Of the difference between 2
torquemeter system by the gearing in an epicyclic a gear wheel connected to the planet gears of an epicyclic phonic wheels connected to
688. measurement: reduction gearbox transmission gearbox the transmission
An aircraft that is assessed as not
being a threat would be indicated on a hollow white or cyan
689. a TCAS system as: a solid red square a solid white or cyan diamond diamond a solid yellow circle
During descent through a block of increase at a rate of1000 ft /
690. airspace of constant temperature and increase decrease remain constant min
while flying at a constant mach no will

cause the CAS to:
The true altitude of an aircraft in
691. flight is shown from: the standard atmosphere pressure altitude density altitude temperature altitude
ground based and measures ground based and measures aircraft based and measures aircraft based and measures
692. A Radio Altimeter is: true altitude true height true altitude true height
excessive sink rate, altitude excessive sink rate, excessive
Which of the following are modes of loss after take-off or go-around glideslope deviation , high excessive sink rate , flaps in flaps in the incorrect position,
693. the GPWS? , excessive glideslope deviation climb rate the incorrect position, stall high altitude descent, stall
An aircraft is travelling at 120 kt, what
angle of bank would be required for a
694. rate one turn? 30° 12° 19° 35°
An aircraft is travelling at 100 kt
forward speed on a 3° glideslope.
695. What is its rate of descent? 500 ft/min 300 ft/min 250 ft/min 500 ft/sec
contact ATC on receipt of a climb or descend at 500
696. What correction is given by TCAS? turn left or right climb or descend Resolution Advisory ft/min
Which of the following are inputs to
the central processing unit of the flaps, landing gear, glideslope, flaps, landing gear, unusual flaps, landing gear, glideslope,
697. GPWS ? flaps,landing gear, VOR radio altimeter attitudes, radio altimeter radio altimeter, VOR
698. What is used for EGT measurement? helical bi-metallic strips thermistors radiation pyrometry thermo emf thermocouples
When accelerating on a northerly
heading what does the Direct Reading
699. Magnetic Compass indicate? no change north a turn to the west a turn to the east
to prevent hysteresis , to
Why is there a vibration device in a to prevent hysteresis ,to keep prevent lag in a mechanical to prevent lag in a mechanical to prevent icing , to overcome
700. pressure altimeter? pilots happy during long flights system system , to prevent icing dither
calculate the computed
An inertial reference system is aligned trihedron with reference to the establish true and magnetic establish position relative to
701. when turned on so as to: earth north true and magnetic north establish magnetic north
Total Air Temperature is than static
air temperature and the difference
702. varies with warmer altitude colder altitude warmer CAS colder CAS
True heading can be converted into
magnetic heading using a compass
703. and: a map with isogonal lines a map with isoclinal lines a map with isobars a deviation card
An aircraft flies into a colder airmass. the indication will depend on

704. This will cause the altimeter to: over-read under-read read the correct altitude the hemisphere of operation
The period of validity of an FMS data d.varies depending on the
705. base is: 56 days one week 28 days area of operational cover
the accelerometers are the platform is strapped down
strapped down but the but the accelerometers are accelerometers and gyros are accelerometers and gyros are
706. In an IRS: platform is gyro-stabilised gyro-stabilised both gyro-stabilised both strapped down
Which of the following correctly 1 degree of freedom , the
describes the gyroscope of a Rate of 1 degree of freedom , its spin 2 degrees of freedom , its spin axis is parallel to the yaw 1 degree of freedom , the spin
707. Turn Indicator? axis is parallel to the pitch axis frame is held by two springs axis axis is horizontal
A blockage occurs in the ram air
source and the drain-hole. The ASI in
708. a non-pressurised aircraft will: read a little low read a little high act like an altimeter freeze at zero
709. Rate of turn is affected by: aircraft speed , angle of bank aircraft speed , aircraft weight angle of bank , aircraft weight none of the above
The local speed of sound at mean sea
710. level at ISA -10°C is: 661 kt 650 kt 673 kt 680 kt
What would the compass heading be
given a true heading of 247° in an
area where the variation is 8°W and a
711. compass deviation of 11°E ? 255° 244° 247° 266°
An aircraft is flying at flight level 350
at a CAS of 290 kt and a temperature
deviation of ISA -10°C The TAS and
712. MN will be: TAS 498kt Mach 0.885 TAS 520kt Mach 0.882 TAS 481kt Mach 0.855 TAS 507kt Mach 0.86
An aircraft in the northern
hemisphere lands and decelerates on
a westerly heading. The compass will
713. indicate: a turn north no turn will be indicated an oscillation a turn south
The angle formed between the
directive force and the total magnetic
714. force is called: variation deviation dip isoclinal
If a constant CAS is maintained under
normal conditions in the climb what it will decrease in an
715. happens to the Mach No ? it will decrease it will remain constant isothermal layer it will increase
If the TAS at 40,000 ft is 450 kt the
716. Mach No is: 0.815 0.783 0.76 0.0825
In which of the following modes may expanded ILS , map ,

information from the AWR be plan , expanded ILS , full nav , plan , map , full VOR , expanded nav , expanded VOR expanded ILS , map , full ILS ,
717. displayed ? full VOR expanded VOR , centre map , centre map full VOR , centre map
Wind information can be displayed in
an EFIS system in which of the plan map expanded ILS full full nav full ILS map centre
718. following modes ? VOR map centre map plan full ILS map full ILS full VOR map plan
In FMS fitted aircraft the main
interface between pilot and system the automatic flight control the multi-purpose control and
719. will be provided by: system display unit the flight control unit the flight management source
In the ILS mode, one dot on the
lateral deviation scale on the EHSI
720. indicates: 1 nm 2nm 1° 2°
On a standard 2-dot EHSI in the en-
721. route mode each dot represents: 1 nm 2 nm 5 nm 10 nm
An aircraft maintaining a constant
CAS and altitude is flying from a cold
airmass into warmer air. The effect of
the change of temperature on the
722. speed will be: CAS will increase EAS will decrease TAS will increase TAS will decrease
EAS = CAS corrected for EAS = IAS corrected for CAS = TAS corrected for TAS = EAS corrected for
723. Select the correct statement: compressibility error position error density error compressibility error
An aircraft taking off from an airfield
with QNH set in the altimeter has
both static vents blocked by ice. As
the aircraft climbs away the altimeter Indicate the aircraft height Read the height of the aircraft Show only a very small
724. will: Read the airfield elevation amsl above the airfield increase in height
In an inertial-lead VSI the source of
725. the most pronounced error is: Instrument Position Steep turn Missed approach manoeuver
An aircraft is descending at a constant
mach number. If the aircraft is
descending through an inversion Decrease then decrease more
726. layer, the CAS will: Remain constant Increase Decrease slowly
Position, density, instrument,
The combined Machmeter/ASI is compressibility, manoeuvre Instrument, pressure and Instrument and
727. subject to the following errors: induced Those of the Machmeter only temperature only compressibility only
728. You are flying at a constant FL 290 remain approximately constant increase by 10 kts decrease by 10 kts will increase or decrease
and constant mach number. The total depending on whether you

temperature increases by 5°. The CAS are above or below ISA.
will:
Reduce spin-up time and a Reduce spin-up time and Insensitively to "g" and
What are the advantages of an IRS dither motor to prevent "lock- accuracy not adversely affect Increase accuracy and a dither reduced wander of the
729. compared to an INS? out". by "g" motor to prevent "lock-out". gyroscope.
lag & density error &
What errors can the Air Data compressibility & density error instrument error & ram rise & lag & density error & temperature & instrument
730. Computer correct for? & position & temperature error manoeuvre error & ram rise manoeuvre & position errors error
Which of the following is the FMS
normal operating condition in the
731. cruise ? L NAV only V NAV only L NAV or V NAV L NAV and V NAV
Weather Radar returns can be
displayed in which of the following
732. EFIS Modes: Plan Exp ILS Exp VOR Plan Exp ILS MAP Map Exp ILS Exp VOR Map ILS VOR
What are the colors used on an EFIS
display to show a tuned navigation
733. aid and an airport? green & white white & magenta green & cyan white & yellow
On both the captains and co-
734. Weather display is on The captains CRT only The co-pilots CRT only A special screen pilots CRTs
The LOC mode is engaged in The ROLL OUT mode is The auto-throttle is
The LOC mode is engaged in the roll channel and the FLARE engaged in the Roll channel maintaining the speed and the
the roll channel and the G/S mode is engaged in the pitch and the G/S mode is engaged pitch channel is maintaining
735. At 200ft on an auto-land: mode is engaged in pitch. channel in pitch. the height.
During a CAT 1 ILS approach, height is
736. indicated by: GPS Radio Altimeter Marker Barometric
Localiser is controlling the roll
channel, off line channels are Localiser is controlling the roll Provided both localiser and
During an approach to autoland at Off line channels are manually automatically engaged and channel, stabiliser is trimmed glideslope signals are valid
737. 1500feet; engaged, flare mode is armed flare mode is armed nose up and roll out is armed LAND 3 will
LOC ARMED lights up on the FMA part localiser beam armed and
738. of the PFD, this means: localiser beam captured awaiting capture localiser alarm is on a/c is on localiser centerline
TCAS 2 when fitted with mode C
739. transponder may give: TA only. TA and RA in horizontal plane. TA and RA in vertical plane. RA only.
The Altitude Alert system alerts the When reference altitude When deviating from the
740. pilot: At decision height At the selected altitude equals the selected altitude selected altitude
The radio altimeter, static The radio altimeter, ILS The radio altimeter, static
pressure monitor, ILS receiver receiver, static pressure pressure monitor, landing
and the landing gear and flap The radio altimeter and the ILS monitor, and the landing gear gear position monitor, and the
741. The GPWS uses inputs from ; position monitors receiver only position monitor only flap position monitor only
Microphone & Crash/Fire Microphone & A Flight data Independent battery & A
742. What are the components of a CVR resistant construction recorder Flight data recorder All of the above
What corrective action is given by
743. TCAS? Turn left or right. Climb or descend. Contact ATC Turn then climb or descend.
when an intruder aircraft has no
Altitude Reporting facility, i.e. Mode
equipped with 'A' transponder only, TA followed by a Preventative
744. TCAS can only give: Corrective RA only RA TA only Preventative RA only
displayed in red, normally on
displayed in amber on the displayed in amber, normally the upper screen , and displayed in amber, normally
A warning message on the EICAS lower screen with associated on the upper screen with aural requiring immediate on the upper screen, indented
745. system screen would be: caution lights and aural tones warnings . corrective action one space to the right.
An aircraft equipped with digital
avionics includes an ECAM system
This centralised system, if a failure in analyse initially the failure and reset the warning display apply the immediate actions
one of the monitored systems is only respond to a level 1 after noting the failure on the as directed by the checklist on
746. displayed, the crew must: cancel the warning warning left screen the left of the two screens
The compressor outlet Jet pipe pressure to Jet pipe pressure to the Jet pipe pressure to the
pressure to the compressor compressor inlet pressure on a compressor inlet pressure on compressor outlet pressure
747. EPR is the ratio of, inlet pressure turbo-prop engine only a gas turbine engine on a gas turbine engine
If one probe of a multi-sensor EGT
system became disconnected, the Increase by between 20°C to Decrease by between 20°C to
748. reading would: 30°C 30°C Fall to zero Be largely unaffected
The red arc in the middle of the green
band of a piston engine RPM indicator RPM at which a greater level RPM that must never be
749. signifies: Maximum RPM Minimum RPM of vibration is encountered exceeded in the cruise
What is the purpose of the wing main To withstand bending and To withstand compressive and To withstand compressive and To withstand bending and
750. spar torsional loads torsional loads shear loads shear loads
To withstand the fatigue To shape the wing and support To house the fuel and the To provide local support for
751. What is the purpose of wing ribs stresses the skin landing gear the skin
To absorb the torsional and To produce stress risers and To prevent buckling and To support the primary
752. What is the purpose of stringers compressive stresses support the fatigue metres bending by supporting and control surfaces
stiffening the skin

Has a programmed inspection
cycle to detect and rectify Is changed before its predicted
753. Regarding a safe life structure: faults life is reached Both a and b None of the above
Has a programmed inspection
Is changed before its predicted cycle to detect and rectify Is secondary structure of no
754. A fail safe structure life is reached faults structural significance all of the above
Is made up of light alloy steel Provides aerodynamic lift and Is primary load bearing
The skin of a modern pressurized sheets built on the monocoque Houses the crew and the prevents corrosion by keeping structure carrying much of the
755. aircraft principle payload out adverse weather structural loads
The primary purpose of the fuselage
756. is to: Support the wings House the crew and payload Keep out adverse weather Provide access to the cockpit
Strengthened clear vinyl with
An amalgam of strengthened Strengthened glass with shock an electrical conducting coat
Flight deck windows are constructed glass and vinyl with rubber absorbing clear vinyl interlayer for de-icing and rubber Strengthened glass with
757. from pressure seals and rubber pressure seals pressure seals rubber seals
Folds at the root section to
Is externally braced with either Is supported at one end only Has both an upper an lower ease storage in confined
758. A cantilever wing: struts and/or bracing wires with no external bracing airfoil section spaces
Is a structure within the Is a structure formed between Is a structure within the wing
fuselage to withstand the wing spars, skin and ribs to for housing the fuel tanks,
compression, bending and resist bending and twisting flight controls and landing Is a structure designed to
759. A torsion box: twisting loads. loads gear reduce the weight
Provides a means of passing
Prevents lightning strikes cables and controls through a Collects and disposes of Lightens and stiffens the
760. A lightening hole in a rib damaging the fuselage pressure bulkhead electrical charges structure
Provides additional lift for take Is a destructive vibration that
off and landing in the event of must be damped out within Is a means of predicting the
761. Control surface flutter engine failure Occurs at high angles of attack the flight envelope critical safe life of the wing.
Reducing the moment of the Aerodynamic balance of the Changing the wings before Mass balance of the control
762. Control surface flutter is minimized by critical engine control cables they reach their critical life surface
Has degree of structural Is light, non load bearing Need not be repaired until the
strength redundancy spread structure, damage to which will Is replaced when it reaches its aircraft undergoes deep
763. A damage tolérant structure over a large area not adversely affect the aircraft predicted life maintenance
Light alloy steel sheets with Magnesium alloy sheets with Aluminium alloy sheets and Aluminium sheets and rivets
764. Aircraft structures consists mainly of copper rivets and titanium or aluminium rivets and titanium rivets with titanium or steel with titanium or steel
steel materials at points or steel at points requiring high materials at points requiring materials at points requiring
requiring high strength strength high strength high strength
The maximum permissible The maximum permissible
The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass The maximum permissible take mass of an aircraft with no mass of an aircraft with zero The maximum permissible
765. (MZFM) of an aircraft is off mass of the aircraft. useable fuel payload landing mass
One of the following devices is used
to divert the spanwise flow of air to
chordwise over the top surface of an
766. aerofoil: Vortex generators. Wing fences Wing let Leading edge flap
when pressure difference is when the aircraft speed is
767. The wing tip vortices is less: less when the angle of attack is low high both a) and b) are correct
maintain straight and level
The purpose of the aileron trim tab is flight without pressure on the reposition the aileron to maintain wing level in case of
768. to : control wheel. maintain wing level primary control failure. none of the above
Effect of tail plane is considered
769. mainly in maintaining: Lateral stability Longitudinal stability Directional Stability all the above are correct.
The wing shock-wave moves The wing shock-wave moves The wing shock-wave remains The wing shock-wave
770. As the airspeed increases: backward forward in the same position suddenly disappears
An aircraft using flaps can land at increasing drag and
771. lower speed because of: pitching up moment additional lift. decreasing lift. flap acts as an air brake.
usually located in the bottom
772. An aircraft integral fuel tank is: removable from the aircraft. a self sealing tank a part of the aircraft structure of the fuselage
break the airflow and destroy create a smoother airflow decrease airspeed during
773. The function of the spoilers is to: lift create more lift over the wing steep descent
A pre charge pressure of 1000 bar of
gas is shown on the accumulator
gauge. The system is then pressurized
to 1500 bar, so the accumulator will
774. read: 500 bar 1000 bar 1500 bar 2500 bar
The pressure gauge of a hydraulic
system provides information the air and hydraulic fluid in the proportional pressure in the hydraulic fluid in the
775. regarding the pressure of: the air in the accumulator. the system. the system. system.
allows two supply sources to allows one source to operate
776. A shuttle valve: is used to replace NRVs. operate one unit two units acts as a non-return valve
The hydraulic fluid is changed, but the high operating fluid system failure from leaks and seal damage and jack
777. wrong fluid is replaced. This would temperature blocked filters, high temp and corrosion normal operation
lead to: possible corrosion.

prevents excessive pressure
relieves below system maintains pressure to a priority relieves at its designed through increased fluid
778. A relief valve: pressure. circuit. pressure. temperature.
The primary purpose of a hydraulic to compensate for leaks, to allow a space into which to maintain fluid between a
779. reservoir is: displacement and expansion. spare fluid may be stored. to indicate system contents. jack and the accumulator.
With air in the hydraulic system you ignore it because normal allow the accumulator to
780. would: operation would remove it. bleed the air out of the system. automatically adjust itself. expect it to operate faster.
The pressure filter in a hydraulic filters the fluid returning to the is fitted down stream of the can be by passed when clears the fluid as it leaves the
781. system: tank. pump. maximum flow is required. reservoir.
pressure is inversely oxygen can be used to charge applied force acts equally in
782. Pascal's law states that proportional to load liquid is compressible the accumulators. all directions.
does not need a positive fluid outlet pressure is governed by does not need a cooling fluid
783. A high pressure hydraulic pump: needs a positive fluid supply. supply. centrifugal force. flow.
store compressed gas for tyre
784. The purpose of an accumulator is to: relieve excess pressure. store fluid under pressure. inflation. remove air from the system.
flow stops when input pressure flow stops when the thermal flow starts when input flow stops when input
is greater than output relief valve off loads the hand pressure is less than output pressure is less than output
785. With a one way check valve (NRV): pressure. pump. pressure. pressure.
A restrictor valve is physically fitted in u/c down line and flap down supply line to the a/c
786. the: u/c up line and flap up line. u/c down line and flap up line. line. retraction actuator.
the terminal pressure will be
In the case of a failure of a cut-out a full flow relief valve is fitted a full flow relief valve is fitted a full flow relief valve is not controlled by adjusting the
787. valve: down stream of it. upstream of it. required. pump RPM.
reduces the size of the removes the dissolved gases maintains the fluid level in the
788. A separator in an accumulator: isolates the gas from the fluid. accumulator required. from the fluid. reservoir.
more when the piston is the same at both ends
more at the piston head than more at the cylinder end than moving than when it is between the piston and the
789. In an enclosed system pressure is felt: the rest of the cylinder. the piston head. stationary. cylinder head.
can only be fitted if provided closes if inlet pressure exceeds opens if inlet pressure equals,
790. A non return valve: with a by pass selector. outlet pressure. outlet pressure. closes if inlet pressure ceases.
provide an idling circuit when
An Automatic cut-off Valve(ACOV) provide an idling circuit when a extend the life of the the accumulator is fully ensure the pump is always on
791. will: selection is made. accumulator. charged. load.
the accumulator to be emptied the pressure pump to off-load two independent pressure high pressure fluid to return
792. A shuttle valve will allow: after engine shut down. when the system pressure is sources to operate a to the reservoir if the Full
reached. system/component. Flow Relief Valve fails.

compensates for small leaks,
compensates for temperature expansion and jack
793. The purpose of a reservoir is to: changes. displacement. compensates for fluid loss. to minimize pump cavitation.
reservoir fluid contents will rise reservoir fluid contents will
When the hydraulic system pressure reservoir air pressure will if reservoir is lower than other fall if reservoir is the highest reservoir contents are
794. is released increase. components in the system. point in the system. dumped overboard.
is greater in pipes of larger is greater in pipes of smaller does not vary with pipe varies in direct proportion to
795. Hydraulic pressure in a closed system: diameters. diameters. diameter. the system demands.
to allow for fluid to provide a housing for the
displacements, small leaks, main system pumps and so
to provide a housing for the to enable the contents to be thermal expansion and obviate the need for backing
796. The purpose of a reservoir is: instrument transmitters. checked. contents monitoring. pumps.
Different diameter actuators supplied
797. with the same pressure at same rate: exert the same force. will lift equal loads. will move at the same speed. exert different forces.
798. The function of an accumulator is to: Store fluid under pressure Dampen pressure fluctuations Allow for fluid expansion All of the above
restricts fluid flow in one allows fluid flow in one allows fluid flow in one
direction and prevents in the direction and prevents in the direction and restricts in the restricts in one direction only
799. A one way restrictor: other direction other direction other direction during overpressure
To a pressure greater than the To a pressure lower than the
Dry air should be used to charge pressure required to operate a pressure required to operate a Before installation in the
800. hydraulic accumulator : mechanism mechanism aircraft both b and c are correct
The purpose of the relief valve in relief the excess pressure to protect the system from over
801. hydraulic system is to: the atmosphere. pressure damage regulate the system pressure both a & c are correct
Support the weight of the Limit the speed of compression Lubricate the piston within Limit the speed of extension
802. Oil is used in an oleo strut to : aircraft of the strut the cylinder and compression of the strut
The aircraft may swerve on the The tyres may be damaged on It will remove any slush or
The nose wheel assembly must be There is limited space in the next landing if the nose wheel landing if the nose wheel is debris which may have
803. centered before retraction because: nose wheel bay is not straight not straight accumulated on take-off
Counteract the force of gravity
The movement of the gear on Prevent the fluid becoming which would bring the gear Make the lowering time Prevent the hydraulic fluid
804. lowering is normally damped to: aerated down too fast greater than the raising time becoming overheated
always a danger after the the responsibility of the first
Inadvertent retraction of the landing Not possible because the prevented by the ground/air ground locks have been officer when he is on the
805. gear on the ground is : system is not powerful enough logic system removed aircraft
Tyre wear when taxying can be restricting the use of brakes staying on the smoothest
806. reduced : and using thrust reversers taxying at less than 40 kph parts of the taxiway taxying at less than 25 knots
To prevent scrubbing the tyres while make sharp turns only if you turn no sharper than the deflate the tyres to a
807. taxying, you should : use tyres with fusible plugs have high speed tyres fitted minimum specified radius minimum pressure
The best extinguishant to use on a
808. wheel or brake fire is : CO2 Dry powder Freon Water
When inflating a tyre fitted to an
aircraft, the tyre pressure reading on
809. the gauge should be modified by : 1Opsi 10% 4psi 4%
The pressure needed to operate the
wheel brakes on a large aircraft the aircraft main hydraulic
810. comes from: system the pilots brake pedals a self contained power pack the hydraulic reservoir
Applying full anti-skid braking Application of reverse thrust
Which of the following statements Crossing the threshold at the as quickly as possible after as early as possible in the
811. will produce the shortest landing run: correct height and speed touchdown landing run All of the above
An aircraft has a tyre pressure of 225
psi , its minimum aquaplaning speed
812. will be: 135 mph 135 knots 145 knots 145 mph
fitted before flight to ensure fitted after flight to maintain a removed prior to flight and
the landing gear locks are fully removed prior to flight and hydraulic lock in the down stowed on the aircraft where
813. Landing gear ground locking pins are: cocked. returned to stores lock jack they are visible to the crew.
The most likely cause of brake unit dirt between the rotor and the brake pressure being too incorrect operation of the
814. dragging is: stator assemblies grease on the rotor assembly high adjuster assemblies.
A likely cause of nose wheel shimmy the aircraft is incorrectly a torque link is worn or
815. is: aircraft is overweight the tyre pressures are too high loaded damaged.
for both take off and landing
816. The anti-skid system would be used : on landing runs only on take off runs only for take off on icy runways runs
A hydraulic gear retraction
mechanism consists of sequence
817. valves, uplocks and: an anti-skid braking system downlocks torque links a shock absorber.
allows the nosewheel to castor prevents the nose gear from
prevents the nosewheel from within preset limits when in allows the nosewheel to lowering if the nosewheels
818. A nose wheel steering control system; castoring at all times the neutral position castor freely at all times are not centralized.
At an aircraft taxying speed of 10mph operative only on the operative only on the main
819. the antiskid braking system is: inoperative operative nosewheel brakes wheel brakes
820. The tyre pressures are checked after a fallen by 15% from their rated risen by 15% from their rated remained constant risen by 10% of their original
long taxi to the ramp following value value value

landing. The pressures will have:
always indicates the number of never indicates the number of
cords or plies in the tyre cords or plies in the tyre indicates whether or not an is the index of the tyre
821. The ply rating of a tyre : carcass carcass inner tube should be fitted strength
When the landing gear is selected UP
822. the sequence of lights is: red, green, out. red, out, green green, red, out out, red, green
The amount of wear on a reinforced ,
823. ribbed tread tyre is indicated by: the offset wear groove marker tie bars concentric wear rings grey cushion rubber
In the event of an approach to land
being made with the throttle levers
retarded towards idle and the flaps
down and the gear up , the warning
824. given to the pilot will be a; continuous bell horn buzzer stick shaker
Lowering the gear using the free fall
system will result in the main landing
825. gear doors : closing hydraulically closing mechanically remaining open being jettisoned
With RTO (rejected take-off) selected
and armed the brakes will be V1 is not reached after a Vr is not reached after a reverse thrust is selected at one of the thrust levers is
826. automatically applied if: predetermined distance predetermined distance any time returned to idle
A green fusible plug is designed to
deflate the tyre if a temperature of ---
827. -----is reached. 177 ° C 277 ° C 155 ° C 199 ° C
Anti-skid system functions by sensing
828. : the aircraft speed. the rate of wheel deceleration the rate of wheel acceleration the touch down protection
The landing gear in modern aircraft
are retracted into the structure to
829. reduce : induced drag weight parasite drag both (b) and (c) are correct.
The purpose of the torque link
attached to the cylinder and piston of absorb shock and reduce maintain correct wheel
830. a landing gear oleo shock strut is to: limit die compression stroke. hold the shock strut in place bounce alignment
Which of the following can be used as
braking device in flight as well as Spoiler & aerodynamic speed
831. during landing? Wheel brakes brakes Thrust reversers all the above are correct.
Implementing shimmy application of friction at the locking the wheel while
832. Shimmy can be prevented by: dampers spindle of main wheel taxiing at low speed all the above are correct
to limit control surface range in to limit the secondary control

The purpose of the secondary stops in to reduce the control loads on the event of primary stop system from excessive to remove the excess backlash
833. a control system is the primary stops failure movement in the controls
remove backlash from the
control linkage and provide provide tension on the provide tension on the
In a cable control system cables are positive action in both turnbuckles and compensate turnbuckles and ensure the
834. tensioned to directions for temperature variations full range is achieved all the above
are reversible, are instinctive
In a manual flying control system the are irreversible and are are reversible and are for the movement required
control inputs to the primary control are reversible and are opposite opposite for the movement instinctive for the movement and are limited in range by
835. surfaces for the movement required required required flight deck obstructions
the right rudder pedal is the right rudder pedal is the left rudder pedal is the left rudder pedal is
pushed forward and the rudder pushed forward and the rudder pushed forward and the pushed forward and the
836. To yaw the aircraft to the right moves to the left moves to the right rudder moves to the left rudder moves to the left
The aileron control is moved The aileron control is moved
the rudder control is moved to the aileron control is moved to to the right and the right to the right, the right aileron
the right, the right aileron the left and the right aileron elevator goes up and the left goes up and the left one
837. To roll the aircraft to the right moves up and the left down. moves up and the left down. one down. down.
Which way does the balance tab
838. move to bank an airplane to the left? upward in the left aileron. downward in the left aileron downward in the right aileron right in the rudder
different, with the mains
being unpressurized and the
839. Main and nose wheel bays are: pressurized unpressurized conditioned nose pressurized
when atmospheric pressure where the cabin pressure falls
exceeds cabin pressure by the below aircraft altitude pressure when the cabin pressure
Normal maximum negative amount permitted by the at which time the inward relief exceeds the atmospheric the pressure at which the duct
840. differential pressure is: system controls valve opens. pressure by 0.5 PSI relief valve is set to operate.
When would the negative differential rapid descent when A/C rapid ascent when aircraft when changing to manual
841. limit be reached/exceeded: descends below cabin altitude during ground pressure testing climbs operation
A/C in level flight if cabin altitude
842. increases does pressure diff: increase decrease remain the same nil
adjust to provide constant adjust to provide constant
In level pressurized flight does the flow, and is normally partially open to increase air flow, and is normally almost
843. outflow valve: close open conditioning closed
The rate of change of cabin pressure in periods when the
844. should be kept to the minimum. Is in descent in climb dehumidifier is in use in cruise
this more important:

Fatigue life of the fuselage is based on number of pressurization number of explosive number of cycles at maximum
845. the: cycles decompressions number of landings only. differential
If the forward oil seal in an axial flow `b' is only correct if synthetic à' will be correct only if the
846. compressor fails, will air be: contaminated unaffected oil is used aircraft is inverted
Cabin discharge valve (pneumatic) is air data computer output cabin pressure, static and air
847. supplied with: information cabin and static pressure speed information cabin pressure only
What is the purpose of the duct relief to protect the undercarriage to ensure the compressor to prevent damage to the to relieve excess pressure to
848. valve: bay pressure is regulated ducts compressor return line
What is the purpose of inward relief to allow positive pressure to
849. valves: to prevent negative differential to back up the duct relief valve be bled off in an emergency to back up the outflow valve
On a ground pressurization test, if the
cabin suffers a rapid de- the temperature will rise duct relief valve may jam
850. pressurization: suddenly water precipitation will occur damage to hull may occur open
passing charge air through
mixing the various vapours ducts and cool air around
851. A heat exchanger functions by: combining ram and charge air inside the heat exchanger ducts removing the static charge
is the maximum authorized
pressure difference between
the inside of the fuselage and is the absolute pressure the
the atmospheric ambient is the absolute pressure is the pressure loss over a cabin pressure ducting is
852. Maximum Differential pressure: pressure provided by the vacuum pump given time limit designed to carry
the safety valve would limit the safety relief valve would
If the discharge or outflow valve the duct relief valve will take the inward relief valve would the positive pressure limit the negative pressure
853. closes: control assume control difference difference
Air for conditioning and the engine compressor or cabin the engine by pass duct or the engine compressor or ram the engine turbine or cabin
854. pressurization is taken from: compressor thrust reverse by pass duct turbine compressor
in the direction sensed by the
855. Safety valves are biased: inwards outwards SVC neither a nor b
In a pressurization circuit the inward relief valve to open outflow valve to operate outflow valve to operate after outflow valve to operate the
856. sequence of operation is for the: before the safety valve before the safety valve the safety valve same time as the safety valve.
With the QFE set on the cabin the fuselage will be pressurized a ground pressurization will the cabin will be the flight deck will be
857. controller, against an altitude of zero: on landing automatically take place unpressurised on landing depressurized
In the cruise at 30,000ft the cabin
altitude is adjusted from 4,000ft to cabin differential will not be cabin differential will
858. 6,000ft: cabin differential will increase affected decrease nil
An aircraft climbs from sea level to

16,000 ft at 1,000ft per min, the cabin
pressurization is set to climb at 500ft
per min to a cabin altitude of 8,000ft.
The time taken for the cabin to reach the same time as it takes the half the time it takes the twice the time it takes the three times the time it takes
859. 8,000ft is: aircraft to reach 16,000ft aircraft to reach 16,000ft aircraft to reach 16,000ft the aircraft to reach 16,000ft
860. Negative differential is limited by: dump valve inward relief valve outflow valve safety valve
air introduced into a fuselage the frequency in Hzs the
The term "pressurization cycle" air introduced into a fuselage under pressure until the time air discharged from the pressure cycles from the roots
861. means: under pressure only the air is released fuselage, above 15 psi blowers enter the fuselage
in conjunction with the cabin in conjunction with the cabin when manually selected
pressure controller when there altitude selector when there is during the emergency descent automatically when there is a
862. Inward Relief Valves operate: is a negative diff. negative diff procedure negative diff.
at higher diff than discharge at a lower diff than a at a set value, which is
863. Safety valves operate: valve as soon as initiation takes place discharge valve selected
automatically when the soluble to direct pressure into
864. Ditching Cocks are operated: plugs dissolve to shut all outflow valves flotation bags for rapid depressurization
excessive pressure builds up in to prevent the floor from the cooling modulator
the air conditioning system to keep cabin pressure close to collapsing should baggage shutters reach the optimized
865. Duct Relief Valves operate when: supply ducts ambient pressure door open. position.
During a normal pressurized cruise, at a position pre-set before open until selected altitude is closed until selected altitude
866. the discharge valve position is: take off partially open reached is reached.
automatically opens when fuel is opened automatically when is controlled by the safety
867. A dump valve: is dumped is controlled manually the safety valve opens valve integrating line.
When air is pressurized, the % of
868. oxygen in it: increases decreases remains the same nil
care should be taken to
an extra member is required to the climb rate would be climb rate could not be ensure climb/descent rates
869. If pressure is manually controlled: monitor system operation maintained automatically maintained are safe
An aircraft is prevented from the auto deflating valve on the inhibiting micro switches on inhibiting micro switches on the pressure control master
870. pressurizing on the ground by: main oleos the landing gear the throttles switch
If the cabin pressure increases in level no change unless the aircraft
871. flight does the cabin VSI show: rate of climb climbs rate of descent nil
the altitude corresponding to altitude at which cabin altitude corresponding to
cabin pressure regardless of is presented on a second pressure equals ambient cabin pressure in relation to
872. Cabin altitude in pressured flight is: aircraft height needle on the aircraft altimeter pressure MSL ISA conditions
the ability to pressurize the the ability to maintain a

The term pressure cabin is used to pressurization of the flight deck aircraft to a higher than the passenger cabin on an constant pressure differential
873. describe: only ambient pressure airliner at all altitudes
supplying hot gases from the
essentially constant input mass essentially constant output does not start until an altitude engine exhaust unit to the
874. A pressurization system works by: flow and variable output mass flow and variable input of 8,000ft has been reached mass flow control system
When air is pressurized by an engine the temperature is not
875. driven compressor, it is also: moisturized heated cooled affected
Cabin negative differential pressure is outflow valve safety
876. prevented by : Relief valve inward opening mechanism needle valve auto controller
When an aircraft is de-iced prior to
departure, if the temperature is 0°C in
precipitation, which type of fluid and
application method will provide the Type I fluid at the rate of 100% Type II fluid diluted to 50% hot Type I fluid diluted to 50% hot Type II fluid at the rate of
877. longest holdover period: cold spray application. spray application. spray application. 100% cold spray application.
is to cause an increase in the
surface roughness which in
is to cause an increase in has no significant effect on turn increases skin friction
boundary layer energy and so the aerodynamic contour or and reduces the kinetic
878. The effect of frost on an aircraft: delay the onset of the stall. can be generally ignored. CL max. energy of the boundary layer.
879. In flight airframe icing does not occur: above 25,000 feet above 40,000 feet above 35,000 feet above 35,000 feet
The methods used to provide de-icing mechanical or pneumatic or electrically heated or air centrifugally forced or ram air
880. in flight can be: fluid. pneumatic or thermal or fluid. heated or oil heated. heated.
that engine icing conditions
Ice detectors are used primarily to that they are approaching that they are approaching now warrant the initiation of that airframe icing conditions
881. warn the crew: airframe icing conditions. engine icing conditions. the engine system. exist.
the aircraft can be de-iced neither the APU or main
If an aircraft is to be de-iced prior to the aircraft can be de-iced with the aircraft can be de-iced with with the APU running and the engines can be running during
882. departure: the engines running. the APU running. bleed air off. the procedure.
whenever the OAT is +10°C or whenever the ice detector
With a gas turbine engine, should below and the air contains whenever the TAT is +10°C or system warning light comes
883. engine anti-icing be selected "ON": whenever the igniters are on. visible moisture. below and it is raining. on.
increase the strength of
884. The windshield anti-icing is used to: windshield prevent ice formation improve the impact resistance All the above are correct
the boots remain inflated while the boots are inflated and vacuum inflates the boots and when the boots are fully
885. In a pneumatic de-icing system: the system operates. deflated repeatedly. pressure deflates them inflated the pressure is
repeatedly. released and they collapse

due to their elasticity.
a small flow of hot air the dynamic pressure on the
When the pneumatic de-icing system the relief valves admit ram air continuously flows through the leading edge ensures that the vacuum deflates the boots to
886. is switched off: to the boots. boots. boots lie flat. minimize drag.
transfer power to the
use only continuous loads to convert electrical energy to elements via a commutator in
887. Propeller electrical de-icing systems: the elements. use a cyclic timer. mechanical energy. DC systems.
To prevent propeller elements use only when all other carry out a load check before use only when the propellers
888. overheating: services are switched off. starting engines. are rotating. use only when in flight.
feeds the engine exhaust relies on heat generated by
feeds hot air along the through the leading edge ducts can use air taken from the the kinetic heating effect of
889. A thermal wing de-icing system: complete upper wing surface. only. engine compressor. the airflow.
by passing current across an
only to prevent condensation by agitating the window with a reflective inner coating inner conductive electrical
890. Pilots cockpit windows are heated: occurring. molecules with an AC current. that prevents fogging. coating.
only heated when the MAT
For maximum strength against impact normally kept to a minimum specially treated during heated internally to increase falls below 0°C in
891. damage pilots windows are: size. construction. their elasticity. precipitation.
constructed by heat treating made of sandwich
only heated by air from the de- the outer surface to reduce construction with an electrical
892. Pilots cockpit windows are: misting fan. glare. conductive coating. made of polarized glass.
An aircraft is to be de-iced and then
enter the line up for departure. Which
de-ice fluid will have the best
holdover time at 0°C with a 50%/50% solution of type II a 50%/50% solution of type I type II fluid at 100% cold
893. precipitation: type I fluid at 100% cold spray. fluid hot spray. fluid hot spray. spray.
Without added oxygen the time of
useful consciousness at 25 000 ft is
894. approximately: twenty seconds eighty seconds three minutes six minutes
Without added oxygen the time of
useful consciousness at 40,000 ft is
895. approximately: twenty seconds three minutes eighty seconds six minutes
The maximum altitude without
oxygen at which flying efficiency is
896. not seriously impaired is: 10,000 ft 17,500 ft 25,000 ft 30,000 ft
each member of the crew has a each member of the crew has a oxygen is supplied with a oxygen demand will cause the
897. In a pressure demand oxygen system: regulator. continuous oxygen supply. continuous pressure flow. pressure to rise.
In a continuous flow oxygen system, only when the mask is plugged only on passenger inhalation only when the cabin altitude only when the supply has
898. oxygen is supplied: into the socket connection. through the mask. is above 18 000 ft. been regulated by the pilot.
In a diluter demand system, selection
of emergency on this regulator will air mix supplied at emergency 100% oxygen supply as called 100% oxygen at positive 100% oxygen continuous flow
899. result in: pressure. for by the user. pressure. at positive pressure.
If the aircraft suffers a decompression automatically drop to a half are handed out by the cabin must be removed from the
900. passenger oxygen masks: are released by the passengers. hung (ready position). staff. life jacket storage.
Oxygen cylinders are normally
901. charged to: 1 000 PSI 1 200 PSI 1 800 PSI 2 000 PSI
902. Rate of flow of oxygen is given in: liters/minute pounds/minute liters/second kilos/hour
Dangerous pressure rise in oxygen is relieved by under is controlled by a thermal
903. cylinders: is relieved by a thermostat. pressurizing the bottle. is relieved by a bursting disc relief valve.
fairy liquid and de-ionized acid free soap and distilled
904. To leak test an oxygen system use: water. thin oil. water. acid free soap and water.
Satisfactory operation of the oxygen
905. system is indicated by: flow indicators. lack of anoxia. aural reassurance. pressure indicators.
If the pressurization system fails and
the cabin starts to climb, then at the passengers grabbing a masks automatically ejected &
14,000 ft oxygen will be available to the stewardess who will hand mask from the overhead portable oxygen bottles hung to the passenger
906. the passengers by: out masks. lockers. located in the seat backs. position.
only when the cabin altitude only if selected by the cabin if selected manually /
907. Passenger oxygen masks will present reaches 14 000. only if selected by the crew. staff: electrically / barometrically.
The charged pressure of a portable
908. oxygen cylinder is normally: 500 psi 1200 psi 1800 psi 3000 psi.
At what altitude will the diluter-
demand oxygen regulator provide
909. 100% pure oxygen. 10,000 ft 14,000 ft 24,000 ft 34,000 ft
that the system pressure
that exactly the correct that the crew member is reducing valve is supplying the
A Flow Indicator fitted to an Oxygen amount of oxygen is being used that oxygen is flowing through correctly connected to the correct pressure to the
910. regulator indicates: by the crew member. the regulator. regulator. regulator.
What is the effect on cabin A gradual decrease to A gradual decrease to
temperature of a rapid de- Insignificant change over the ambient over a period of ambient temperature over a
911. compression at 30,000 ft. Sudden and extreme drop first 2 minutes about 10 minutes if the cabin period of about 30 minutes if
heating ceases. cabin heating continues

Susceptibility to hypoxia is increased
912. by: Heat Noise Smoking Under-Breathing
What is the approximate cabin
altitude above which you must breath
100% oxygen if you are to maintain an
alveolar partial pressure equal to that
913. at sea level: 26,000 ft 30,000 ft 34,000 ft 38,000 ft
The duration of a chemical oxygen
914. generator is 10 minutes 2.5 hours 30 minutes 15 minutes
flashing red light for each
On a multi engined aircraft, an engine flashing red lights for each steady red light for each engine engine and a common steady red light and bell for
915. fire warning system consists of: engine and a warning horn and a common warning bell warning bell each engine
passenger cabins, cargo bays, cargo bays, APU compartment, toilets, electrical equipment cargo bays, electrical
916. Smoke detectors are fitted in: electrical equipment bays toilets bays, APU compartments equipment bays, toilets
A short circuit in a resistive "fire wire" fire the squib in the fire bottle cause a spurious fire warning cause the blow out disc to be
917. detector will: discharge head to be received ruptured disable the test circuit
On receipt of an engine fire warning pull the fire handle, fire the fire shut down the affected fire the first extinguisher, pull
on the flight deck the correct fight the fire with the flight extinguisher, shut down the engine, pull the fire handle, the fire handle, shut down the
918. procedure should be: deck BCF fire extinguisher engine fire the first extinguisher engine
automatically fire the engine are connected to the Vital bus can be tested from the flight
919. Fire detection systems: extinguishers can only use AC electricity bar deck
by high temperature in its by remote control from the by a switch at the nearest
920. A toilet fire extinguisher is activated: vicinity flight deck flight attendant station by a smoke detector
must be outlined externally by
can only be opened from the must have an escape slide a 2 inch band of contrasting
921. Emergency exits: inside fitted to them are painted yellow colour
Regulations governing the fitting,
marking and use of safety equipment British Civil Airworthiness Joint Airworthiness
922. is contained in: Requirements Navigation Regulations Requirements Operations Manual
automatically inflates when inflates when the recovery
can be armed from the inside can only be activated from the the crash switches are team open the door from the
923. An automatic escape slide: of the aircraft only flight deck activated outside of the aircraft
Emergency lighting must be capable
of remaining illuminated for a
924. minimum of: 5 mins 7 mins 10 mins 15 mins
The LED indicator light on the

emergency torch is flashing at 4
925. second intervals. This indicates: the battery is charging the torch is serviceable the battery needs replacing the filament is broken
If the emergency lighting system is
powered from the aircraft electrical
926. system, it takes is power supply from: AC essential bus-bar DC essential bus-bar Vital DC bus-bar The inverter
Lifejackets are inflated with
927. compressed: Helium Nitrogen Freon Carbon Dioxide
comprises flight deck lighting,
can be switched on from the must illuminate the inside of cabin internal and external once activated cannot be
928. Emergency lighting: flight deck only the passenger cabin only lighting switched off
is delineated by external
always has a crash axe located is designated as a weaker is lit internally by the markings having right angled
929. A Cut-in area: next to it fuselage area emergency lighting system corners
Normal use by the Cockpit Emergency use by the Cockpit Emergency use by both
Portable Fire Extinguisher is used in crews and emergency use by crews and normal use by the Cockpit crews and cabin Normal use by both Cockpit
930. the aircraft for- the cabin occupants cabin occupants occupants crews and cabin occupants
The fire originating from electrical
931. equipment is known as : A class fire B class fire C class fire D class fire.
A fuel booster pump, besides
pumping fuel to the engine, can also
932. be utilised to: jettison and transfer fuel. jettison and heat the fuel. transfer and heat the fuel. transfer and recycle the fuel.
a ground power unit is passengers are walking
933. The aircraft cannot be refueled while: operating on the ramp. through the refueling zones. passengers are boarding. the A.P.U. is running.
The disadvantage of refueling the
aircraft to "tanks full" the night the change in the specific the change in the volume of the change in calorific value
before a departure in the heat of the gravity may cause the aircraft the fuel may cause it to spill may reduce engine power to the R.P.M. governor will be
934. day is that: to be overweight. through the vent system. below sufficient. rendered inoperative.
The main components of aircraft fuel fuel abut off valve and
935. system is : fuel tank electrical booster pump refueling valve all the above are correct.
equalize the tank Pressure
936. Fuel tank vent system is installed to: pressurize the fuel tank remove the fuel vapour with ambient both (b) and (c) are correct
If a fuel sample appears cloudy or
937. hazy, the most probable cause is: water contamination. anti-microbiological additives. mixing different fuel grades. oil in the fuel.
On an aircraft equipped with a a decrease of 10% of the
938. compensated capacitance type fuel an increase of 10%. volume factored by the new a decrease. the same amount.
quantity indication system graduated specific gravity.

to read in kg, the temperature
increases just after the tanks are half
filled with fuel. If the fuel expands by
10%, the gauges will show:
must be started before
must be switched OFF fuelling is carried out, and can can be started only after the
The exhaust gases from the A.P.U. go throughout the refueling can be started while refueling be run throughout the refueling operation has been
939. into the refueling zone. The A.P.U.: operation. is carried out. refueling operation. terminated.
can only be used in domestic can only be used by aircraft cannot be re-used until its
940. De-fuelled fuel: heating systems from the same operators fleet. must be put back into storage. quality has been verified.
isolation of the engine from
The fuel cross feed valves are fitted in the use of fuel from any tank refueling when only one the fuel system in the case of transfer of fuel between the
941. order to facilitate: to any engine. bowser is in use. an engine fire. main fuel tanks.
if the aircraft has more than
twenty seats and the ratio of
cabin attendants to
passengers is greater than
Refueling with passengers on board is 1:50 and it is a wide bodied
942. not permissible: on a fixed wing aircraft. if AVGAS is being used. jet. in any of the above cases.
the rear left or right door must
be manned constantly by a
While refueling with passengers on two sets of extra steps must be cabin attendant ready for use
board, when a loading bridge is in provided, one of which must as an emergency exit using the ground servicing must not be catering and cleaning must
943. use: be at the rear of the aircraft. inflatable escape slide. carried out. not be carried out.
with a/c communication
Aircraft refueling should be in an open air for good as soon as possible after in a hangar when activities equipment on and in contact
944. accomplished ventilation engine shutdown can be controlled with the tower in case of fire.
allow the booster pump to maintain a pre-determined
prevent longitudinal remain covered by fuel dampen lateral movement of quantity of fuel in the
The purpose of fitting baffles in fuel movement of the fuel during irrespective of the aircraft the fuel in the wing tanks outboard section of the wing
945. tanks is to: acceleration. attitude during a sideslip tanks
to stop cavitation in the High to maintain a constant to prevent water to stop ice blocking the Low
946. Fuel is heated: Pressure Fuel Pump. viscosity. contamination. Pressure fuel filter.
947. Fuel tank booster pumps are: centrifugal, low pressure. centrifugal, high pressure gear type, low pressure gear type, high pressure
948. The Low Pressure engine driven backs up in case the engine backs up in case of a double assists in the refueling pressurizes the fuel tanks to
pump: High Pressure Pump fails. booster pump failure. operation if only low pressure assist flow to the booster
refueling systems are pumps.
available.
The purpose of the fuel cooled oil
949. cooler is to: heat the oil and cool the fuel. heat the fuel and cool the oil. cool the oil. heat the fuel.
If a fuel tank with a capacitive
quantity system was filled with water
instead of fuel, the gauge would it would indicate the same as if it would freeze at the last
950. indicate: full scale low (zero) it were filled with fuel full scale high (max) known indication
The advantages of integral fuel tanks
951. are: it is trouble free more safe for crash landing saves more weight and space all the above are correct
Current in amps =(Resistance Resistance in ohms = (Current Current in amps =
in ohms)/(Electromotive force in amps)/(Electromotive force (Electromotive force in
952. Ohms Law states: in volts) in volts) volts)/(Resistance in ohms) None of the above.
In a simple electrical circuit, if the the sum of the currents taken the average current taken by the sum of the reciprocals of
resistors are in parallel, the total by the devices divided by the the sum of the currents taken the devices times the number the currents taken by the
953. current consumed is equal to: number of devices. by the devices. of the devices. devices.
The current flowing in an electrical
954. circuit is measured in: volts ohms inductance amps
955. Electro-motive force is measured in: amps x volts Watts ohms volts
Directly proportional to Directly proportional to Inversely proportional to Inversely proportional to
resistance, indirectly temperature, inversely resistance, directly applied voltage, directly
956. The current flowing in a circuit is proportional to voltage proportional to resistance proportional to voltage proportional to temperature
Current will decrease but
The voltage applied to a simple power consumed remains Resistance and power Current flow will increase and Current flow increases and
957. resistor increases constant decrease power consumed will increase power consumed decreases
In a circuit fitted with a non trip free if the reset button is the reset button may be
circuit breaker if a fault occurs and depressed and held in, the the trip button may be pressed a non trip free circuit breaker pressed to make the circuit
958. persists: circuit will be made. to reset, but not permanently. can never be by-passed. permanent.
A trip-free circuit breaker that has can be reset and held in during maybe reset manually after
959. tripped due to overload: rectification. can never be reset. can be reset after overhaul. fault has been cleared.
are used in low current
960. Circuit breakers and fuses are used in DC circuits only are used in AC or DC circuits are used in AC circuits only circuits only
A trip-free circuit breaker is one cannot be reset by holding the can be reset by holding the must be held in during checks
961. which: lever in while the fault persists. lever in while the fault persists. to find faults. can be by passed.
If the reset button is pressed in the

trip-free circuit breaker, the contacts only be made if there is a fuse reset itself only after a delay not be made and the reset
962. with the fault cleared will: be made and kept made. in the circuit. of 20 seconds. will remain inoperative.
A thermal circuit breaker works on differential expAnsion of differential thickness of differential pressure of
963. the principle of: metals. metals. differential density of metals. metals.
964. Circuit breakers are fitted in: series with the load. parallel with the load. across the load. shunt with the load.
the amperage has been
a current of a higher value sufficiently high to cause the
an excess current has burst than the fuse rating has fuse to trip out of its holder
the outer cover and melted the conductor and and has therefore,
disconnected the circuit from disconnected the circuit from disconnected the circuit from
965. A fuse is said to have blown when: the supply. the circuit is reconnected. the supply. the supply.
Overloading an electrical circuit increases the weight of the disconnects the fuse from its
966. causes the fuse to 'Blow'. This: insulation. fractures the fuse case. holder. melts the fuse wire
the amps capacity of the
What must be checked before the amps being used in the consuming device in the the correct fuse volt or watts
967. replacing a fuse: the ohms of the circuit. circuit. circuit. rating.
A fuse is used to protect an electrical
968. circuit, it is: of low melting point. of high capacity. of high melting point. of low resistance.
969. A battery capacity test is carried out: 6 monthly 2 monthly 3 monthly every minor check
An aircraft has three batteries each of
12 volts with 40 amp/hr capacity
connected in series. The resultant unit a voltage of 36 and a capacity a capacity of 120 amp/hr and a a capacity of 36 amp/hr and a voltage of 36 and a capacity
970. has: of 120 amp/hr. voltage of 12. 120 watts. of 40 amp/hr.
The method of ascertaining the
voltage of a standard aircraft lead- the current flow with a rated the voltage with rated load
971. acid battery is by checking: the voltage on open circuit. voltage charge. the voltage off load. switched ‘ON’.
A battery is checked for serviceability measuring the specific gravity
972. by: using an ammeter. of the electrolyte. a boric acid solution. using an ohmmeter.
the battery is connected in a battery cannot be used a battery cannot be used only NICAD batteries can be
973. In an AC circuit: series. because the wire is too thick. because it is DC used.
Energy in general cannot be
created or destroyed but can In a motor, mechanical energy In a battery, chemical energy
be transformed from one form is converted to electrical is converted to electrical
974. Find the correct statement : to other. energy. energy. Both ( a) and ( c) are correct.
In an aircraft having a battery of 24

volts nominal and fully charged the
975. voltmeter would read: 22 volts 24 volts 26 volts 28 volts
The electrolyte used in the lead acid
976. cell is diluted: hydrochloric acid. sulphuric acid. boric acid. potassium hydroxide.
The number of lead acid cells
required to make up a Twelve Volt
977. Battery is: 8 12 6 10
determined by the area of the determined by the active determined by the size of the determined by the number of
978. The capacity of a lead acid battery is: plates. materials on the plates. series coupling bars. separators.
Acid spillage in an aircraft can be bicarbonate of soda and
979. neutralized by using: caustic sod soap and water. soda and water. water.
the battery is discharged
When the battery master switch is the generators are the battery is isolated from through the bonding circuit
980. switched off in flight: disconnected from the bus bar. the ammeter reads maximum. the bus bar. diodes.
in series when the generator
When the generator is on line the in parallel with the other is on line and is relayed when
981. battery is: loads. in series with the generator. the generator is off line. load sharing.
The voltage rating remains the The current rating remains the
If two batteries are connected in same while current rating same while voltage rating Both the voltage and current Only the ampere-Hour
982. parallel : increases. increases. rating increases. increases.
The area of force around a magnet is
983. termed: conductance. stable. magnetic resistance. magnetic field.
When a magnet is unable to accept
984. any further magnetism it is termed: reluctance. saturation. active. reactance.
Permanent magnets are
985. manufactured from: steel. plastic. liquid. glass.
Magnetic lines of force flow externally one main line station to
986. from: another. the master station. the north to the south pole. in a random direction.
Which of the two poles has the both poles have the same
987. greatest strength: north seeking pole. south seeking pole strength. the saturated pole.
988. Electromagnetism is a product of: voltage. current. resistance. engine resistance.
To increase electromagnetic force
989. one would: increase coil resistance. reduce current flow. lower EMF. increase current flow.
A DC generator has a commutator change AC to give a generator transmit the generator maintain a constant
990. whose purpose is to: output of DC. change DC to AC. output to the electrical circuit resistance.
and to cool the generator.

Another name for a number of
conductors rotating in a magnetic
991. field is: a capacitor. an armature. a condenser. a commutator.
the generator voltage
the EMF is constant and the the rate of flow is constant reduces generator back EMF is equal and
992. A generator is governed so that: rate of flow varies. and the EMF varies. temperature. opposite to the applied EMF.
senses generator output senses generator output
senses cut out pressure and pressure and adjusts field current and adjusts the field
993. The voltage regulator: adjusts field current. current. voltage. senses back EMF.
in the field circuit which is in the field circuit which is in
The generator master switch is fitted with a mechanical safety connected in parallel with the parallel with the voltage fitted in series with the
994. normally: catch. generator output. regulator. commutator.
regulates the amount of
provides a constant current maintains a steady generator current supplied by the
flow from the generator with voltage with changes of battery to operate the
995. The voltage regulator: changes of generator speed. senses current output. generator speed. generator.
Voltage is controlled in a generator
996. by: a reverse current relay. moving the brushes. a voltage regulator. it is uncontrollable.
On aircraft, generator voltage is varying the generator field increasing and decreasing the changing the generator
997. regulated by: strength. load. speed. changing generator load.
In an aircraft having a battery with a
nominal voltage of 24volts, generator
998. output would be: 24 volts. 28amps. 28 volts. 24 amps.
In DC electrical generating systems, regardless of varying engine by me Ans of a relay which
the voltage regulator controls the RPM and electrical load, by closes contacts in the output by a variable resistance which
system voltage within prescribed varying the current in the line when a certain RPM is limits the voltage given by the
999. limits: generator field windings. reached. by temperature. batteries.
prevent high circulating to ensure correct voltage to prevent battery feedback
1000. A voltage regulator is fitted to: currents. prevent backlash. output to battery. to the generator.
If an aircraft electrical system is
quoted as 24 volts DC the output of 12 volts with the generators 28 volts with the generators 36 volts with the generators
1001. the generator is: connected in series. connected in parallel. connected in series/parallel. 42 volts.
The aircraft electrical generator sensing the generator output a resistance in the generator the resistance of the
1002. output is controlled in flight by: pressure. ram air. output circuit. armature circuit.
In a generator control circuit the

strength of the magnetic field is the reverse current
1003. controlled by: the commutator. the voltage regulator contactor. the output C/B.
AC current from an engine driven
generator is converted to DC current
1004. by: a commutator a converter. an alternator. a rotary actuator.
an equalizing circuit to sense
On a twin engined DC aircraft having an equalizing circuit to sense the difference and equalize
two DC generators load sharing is the difference and equalize the synchronizing relays and the field currents of the two
1005. achieved by: equalizing engine RPM'S voltages of the two generators voltage coil tuners generators
Pilots are informed of rotary actuator
1006. positions by: non return valves. lights or dolls eye indicators. travel indicators. veger counters.
To supply direct current from a
generator giving alternating current it
1007. is normal to fit: a commutator a rotary inverter. an alternator. a static inverter.
to indicate to the pilot that the only to indicate to the pilot
circuit has power and is to control the movement of a to indicate to the pilot that that the equipment has
1008. Press to test lights are used: complete. rotary actuator. the circuit has operated. malfunctioned.
1009. A device for changing AC to DC is: an inverter. a rotary transformer. a rectifier. an alternator.
Friction clutches are fitted to protection against mechanical protection against brake on protection against non return protection against supply
1010. actuators for: overload. loads. valve failure. failures.
AC synchronous motor higher
DC shunt motor is higher than DC series motor is higher than than that of AC induction AC synchronous motor is very
1011. The starting torque of : that of DC series motor. that of DC shunt motor. motor. high.
In an electrical circuit the reverse when battery voltage exceeds when circuit voltage is less when the main output C/B is
1012. current cut-out relay will open: generator voltage. than generator voltage. reset. when the batteries are flat.
to prevent discharge of the
to prevent the battery over to prevent the battery from to allow the generator to be battery through the
1013. A generator cut-out is provided: heating. being overcharged. isolated in a crash. generator.
circuit loads equal the battery the air temperature reaches circuit loads equal the generator voltage falls below
1014. A generator cut-out will open when: voltage. 45°C. generator voltage. battery voltage.
the battery discharging
A generator cut-out is fitted to through the generator the generator overcharging fire in the event of
1015. prevent: windings. the battery. overloading the system. out of phasing.
In the event of the cut-out points
1016. sticking in the closed position, the gain of engine power. a burnt out generator. loss of residual magnetism. no apparent reaction.
most probable results, when the

engine stopped would be:
To prevent circulating currents when
more than one generator is being reverse current relays are the generators are connected
1017. connected to the same bus bar: fitted. in series. rectifiers are fitted. differential cut-outs are used.
in series with the generator in parallel with the generator
1018. A generator cut-out is fitted: output. in the diode circuit. output. in the field circuit.
On a 28 volt system with a 24 volt
battery the cut-out contacts close at
1019. approximately: 36 volts. 24 volts. 28 volts. 26 volts.
A component whose job is similar to a
1020. generator cut out is: a rectifier. a converter. an inverter. a reverse current relay.
If the cut-out is open, the battery is
1021. feeding the loads which are: in series with the battery. in parallel with the battery. in sequence with the cut-out. cross coupled.
one ammeter for each one voltmeter for each
generator and one voltmeter generator. and one ammeter one ammeter and one
switchable to indicate either switchable to indicate either one ammeter showing the voltmeter each showing the
In a two engine aircraft with two generator voltage or battery generator current or battery total output and one average current and voltage
1022. generators, there would be: voltage. current. switchable voltmeter. output.
A generator converts mechanical
1023. energy to electrical by: electro magnetic spring action. electro magnetic induction. electrostatic induction. electro dynamic induction.
If the generator warning light comes the generator is feeding the the generator is not feeding
1024. on in flight it indicates that: battery bus bar. the battery bus bar. the battery has failed. a rectifier is faulty.
the ammeter reading the voltmeter reading
decreasing or showing a increasing, the ammeter
A generator failure is usually discharge and a red warning reading showing discharge and the current consuming
1025. indicated by: lamp lighting. a red lamplighting. devices failing to operate. the motor speed increasing.
when the generator is
supplying current to a fully when the battery charge
when the battery voltage charged battery, and no current is lower than required
A generator warning light will be exceeds that of the generator electrical loads are switched to maintain its fully charged
1026. illuminated: and the cut-out has opened. at night only. on. state.
the voltmeter will read the ammeter reading will load sharing circuits will the watt metre will show a
1027. If a generator fails in flight: maximum. decrease. operate. increase.
stop and feather the engine switch off the failed switch off the failed
1028. If one generator fails you should: switch off the good generator. concerned. generator and continue generator, and cut down on
normal use of the electrical the electrical services being

system. used.
switched into the electrical
A generator is brought 'on the line' connected in series with other circuit in parallel with the other connected with the ground connected to a phase
1029. when it is: generators. generators. batteries for starting. reducer.
In a twin engine aircraft, fitted with the failed generator must be cut down the air supply to the failed generator must be both generators must be
1030. two generators, if one should fail: isolated. reduce five risks. stopped. switched off.
an increase in voltmeter
a decrease or discharge in readings, a discharge in
load sharing circuits ammeter readings and ammeter reading and failure of electrically driven
1031. Generator failure is indicted by: connecting. generator warning light on. generator warning light on. instruments.
In a twin engine aircraft, with a the engine with the failed
generator fitted to both engines, the generator will automatically
1032. starboard generator fails. Will: the starboard engine cut. the port engine cut. both engines run normally. feather.
in series with the generator so determined by the cross
that the voltage can be in parallel so the voltage can in parallel so the current can sectional area of the lead
1033. Loads on a bus bar are: reduced. be varied. be reduced. cable.
the battery is discharged
When the battery master switch is the generators are the battery is isolated from the through the bonding circuit
1034. switched off in flight: disconnected from the bus bar. bus bar. diodes. the battery may overheat.
1035. A generator is taken'off line’ by: the battery switch. operation of the field switch. opening of the cut-out. removing of all loads.
If the ammeter reads plus 5 amp after some switches have been left the generator field switch is
1036. engine shut down: 'on'. the battery is charging. 'on'. the ammeter is defective.
If the ammeter shows 'no' charge, yet
the battery remains charged. Would
1037. you look for: loose battery connections. defective voltage regulator. defective C/B. defective ammeter.
During flight a malfunction of the
generator cut-out would be indicated
1038. by: overheating of the battery. the ammeter. lights going out. the current limiter.
The indicating range of an ammeter A shunt fitted in parallel with A shunt fitted in parallel with A shunt fitted in series with A multiplier fitted in parallel
1039. can be increased by fitting; the instrument. the load the instrument with the instrument
An electrical system which uses the
aircraft structure as a return path for
1040. current, is known as: a diode pole circuit. an earth return circuit. a single phase circuit. a dipole circuit.
On a single pole circuit, if the positive the electrical component will the circuit will be under the load will only operate at
1041. conductor is shorted to the aircraft operate. the fuse will blow. loaded. half speed.
structure:
In a earth return circuit if the
1042. conductor is open circuited: the fuse will blow. the bus bars will overheat. the load will not operate. the generator will burn out.
the bus bar always connected the bus bar that supplies the the bus bar that supplies the the bus bar that supplies the
1043. A `hot bus' is to the battery galley power essential loads nom-essential loads
Why are static wick dischargers fitted to smooth the generator to prevent tyres bursting on to minimize radio to act as an earth return in a
1044. to aircraft: output. landing. interference. single pole electrical system.
metal components become sparks occur due to
very hot and ignite differences of potential and aircraft tyres become heavily
Static electricity constitutes a fire inflammable gases and could ignite inflammable gases charged and may burst on
1045. hazard because: materials. and materials. of colour charged electrons. landing.
Static electrical charges and currents
in an aircraft structure are evened out
1046. by: hardening screening bonding anodizing
prevent them interfering with
The electrical components of aircraft bond the circuit to reduce risk prevent short circuits in radio the function of radio
1047. systems are screened to: of fire. prevent them discharging. equipment. equipment.
the bonding plug must be the continuity between
the re-fuelling nozzle must be connected to the earth nozzle and hose must be
1048. When re-fuelling an aircraft: bonded to the fuel tank. terminal. infinity. only use plastic nozzles.
by law with a stated
1049. Spare fuses are carried: at the operator’s discretion. for generators only. minimum number required. by the first officer.
When selecting a fuse for a circuit the the power requirement of
1050. governing factor is: the voltage of the circuit. the fuse length and diameter. the resistance of the circuit. the circuit.
Differential cut-outs close when a
differential voltage exists between generator bus and battery bus-
1051. the: bar. generator bus-bar and earth. batteries. battery bus-bar and earth.
When a generator is on line and its
associated ammeter reads 10 amps,
1052. this is an indication of: BTB's being energized. battery charge rate. battery discharge rate. generator load.
If the voltage in a circuit is doubled increase only if the battery is
1053. the current will: double in circuit. remain the same. decrease.
When generators are connected in divided by the circuit
1054. parallel their output voltage must be: resistance. the same. added together. controlled by one generator.
A generator or battery cut-out is to isolate the battery on touch to prevent the battery from to allow the generator to be to prevent the battery
1055. fitted: down. being overcharged. isolated in a crash. feeding back into the
generator when its voltage is

above the generator voltage.
A circuit breaker that has tripped due cannot be reset unless the will not be able to be reset in will reset itself when the
1056. to overload: circuit has returned to normal. the air. circuit returns to normal. must be replaced.
As the speed of an electric motor
1057. increases the back EMF will: remain the same. fluctuate. increase. decrease.
The output of a shunt wound will rise gradually as load is will remain constant as load is will vary with generator will fall gradually as load is
1058. generator: applied. applied. speed. applied.
An inertia switch on an aircraft will when selected by the pilot or during an emergency or crash
1059. operate: flight engineer. automatically in flight. landing. in flight only.
to provide a low resistance
to isolate all components path for earth return circuits
to prevent compass electrically and therefore and safely dissipate local
The purpose of electrical bonding on to directly earth the positive malfunctioning and to gather make the static potential static charges and lightning
1060. aircraft is: lead. local static charges. constant. strikes.
prevent them interfering with prevent short circuits
Electrical components of aircraft bond the circuit to reduce risk the function of radio interfering with aircraft
1061. systems are screened to: of fire. equipment. equipment. prevent engine malfunctions.
is the total resistance in an is the highest resistance of a
1062. The impedance of a circuit :¬ is the AC inductive load. is the DC inductive load. AC circuit. rectifier.
The ratio of true power to apparent
1063. power is known as :¬ Ohms. the power factor. kVAs. the r.m.s. value.
The amount of electrical power
output for a given generator weight is dependent on the aircrafts determined by the size of the
1064. :¬ power requirements. greater for a DC generator. greater for an AC generator. aircraft.
the ease with which the
voltage can be stepped up or
One advantage that AC has over DC is that the generators require that the cables require less down with almost 100%
1065. :¬ that T.R.U.s are not required. less cooling. insulation. efficiency.
The voltage output of an AC in one direction, fall to zero
generator will rise to a maximum in one direction, fall to zero in one direction and remain and rise to a maximum value
1066. value :¬ and rise in the same direction. there. in the opposite direction. in one direction only.
If the frequency in a circuit is less than
it was designed for, then current
1067. consumption will :¬ decrease. remain the same fluctuate increase.
1068. The line voltage of a typical aircraft 115 208 200 400
constant frequency paralleled AC

system is :
In an AC circuit which is mainly current and voltage will be in the power factor will be
1069. inductive : current will lead voltage. phase. current will lag voltage. negative.
1070. An alternator is :- a reversing input switch. an AC generator. a DC generator. a static inverter.
The number of separate stator
windings in an AC generator the output voltage of the the output frequency of the the number of phases present
1071. determines :- supply. supply. the power factor. in the supply.
AC generators usually have a rotating reduce the overall diameter of allow the output to be taken reduce the weight of the prevent arcing at the
1072. field and a fixed armature to ;- the of the generator. from the stator. generator. commutator.
The field current is DC for
Current supplied to the field is Current supplied to the field is both rotating field and The field current is DC for
AC for rotating field type AC DC for rotating field type AC rotating armature AC rotating armature type a.c
1073. In an A.C generator : generator. generator only. generators. generators only.
Instruments measuring AC are
1074. calibrated in : r.m.s. values. average values. peak values. mean values.
The output of an AC generator is
1075. taken from : the exciter windings. the field coils. the stator windings. the rotor coils.
A step-up transformer is one in which
the number of turns on the secondary the same as the primary if the greater than that on the always the same as on the
1076. winding is : cable diameter is the same. primary. less than on the primary. primary.
half as much current flowing four times as many turns on
A transformer which halves the twice as many turns on the half as many turns on the in the secondary as in the the secondary as on the
1077. voltage will have : secondary as on the primary. secondary as on the primary. primary. primary.
The power output of a transformer is in proportion to the in inverse proportion to the increased in a step up
1078. : transformation ratio. transformation ratio. the same as the power input. transformer.
1079. A frequency wild alternator must be : paralleled. a rotating magnet type. self exciting. unparalleled.
In a 3 phase AC generator circuit, the
1080. phase voltage is : greater than line voltage. 10% higher than line voltage. less than line voltage. equal to line voltage.
The generator output voltage is decreasing the generator increasing the generator field
1081. increased by : putting more load on it. the frequency controller. field voltage. current.
An alternator normally used to supply
1082. an aircrafts power system would be : single phase. three phase. two phase. frequency wild.
line and phase current are line current is greater than line current is less than phase phase current is 0.707 times
1083. In a star connected supply system : equal. phase current. current. line current.
In a 3 phase supply system, line

voltage would be sensed between the
1084. : phases only. phase and earth. phase and neutral. phases and earth.
In a typical aircraft constant
frequency supply system, the phase
1085. voltage is : 200 115 208 400
If one phase of a star wound three
phase system becomes earthed, it will cause a large current to flow in have no effect on the other cause a reduction in the
1086. : earth all three phases. the neutral. phases. frequency of the supply.
The alternators fitted in an aircrafts
main power supply system would
1087. normally be : brushed self excited machines. frequency wild. self excited. externally excited.
To ensure correct load sharing on both real and reactive loads actual loads should be the reactive loads should be the the load impedance should be
1088. paralleled alternators : should be balanced. same. same. constant.
An aircrafts constant frequency
1089. supply is maintained at :- between 350 - 450 Hz. between 380 - 420 Hz. between 1 15 - 200 Hz. between 395 - 495 Hz.
For a modern aircraft powered by an
AC system, the ground power unit 200 volts, three phase, 400
1090. must supply : 28 volts AC only. 200 volts. 115 volts, three phase. Hz.
supplied from the engine oil a separate self contained drawn from a common tank only required for lubrication
1091. Oil for the operation of a C.S.D.U. is : system. supply. for all S.D.U.s. purposes.
automatic electrical operation of the drive operation of the drive
disconnection of the drive at that the input drive will shear disconnect switch at any time disconnect switch on the
1092. Malfunction of a C.S.D.U. requires : any time in flight. on the ground only. in flight. ground only.
suitable control arrangements
their frequency, phase, phase must exist for the sharing of
sequence and voltage must real and reactive loads. these
Before two constant frequency AC match, and a means of real and reactive loads must the synchronization lights on will correct any phase or
generators can be connected in automatic real and reactive match. Frequency, phase and the alternator control panel frequency error existing at the
1093. parallel : load sharing must be available. voltage must be within limits. must be fully bright. time of connection.
between the alternator and its between the load bus bar and
1094. The generator control relay (G.C.R) is : in the excitation circuit. load bus bar. in the stator circuit. the synchronous bus bar.
DC which is rectified AC and
could be from a separate
The running excitation current for an excitation generator on the
1095. alternator is : AC DC from the aircraft batteries. DC from the static inverter. main rotor shaft.
there is a considerable
increase in complexity
the greater load on the compared with a non-
faults can propagate, and any the system is less flexible due S.D.U.s means that their paralleled system, due to the
One disadvantage of parallel error in supply can affect all to the need for additional power / weight ratio is much need for C.S.D.U.s and load
1096. operation is that : services. control and protection circuits. reduced. sharing circuits.
The A.P.U. generator can only be used the bus bars are being fed when no other power source
1097. when: - another generator is on line. the aircraft is on the ground. from another source. is feeding the bus bar.
The purpose of the differential
protection circuit in a three phase AC to compare alternator output to compare on and off load to compare the alternators to compare theC.S.D.U.
1098. system is : current to bus bar current. currents. reactive load to its real load. efficiencyratings.
enable interconnections to be
The purpose of a synchronizing bus made between generator bus
1099. bar is to : bars. supply essential services. monitor on-load currents. interconnect DC bus bars.
the drive disconnect unit will
In the event of a mechanical automatically separate the the real load will be adjusted the C.S.D.U. oil temperature
1100. malfunction of the alternator : C.S.D.U. from the alternator. to compensate. the quill drive will fracture. will decrease.
the frequency meter indicated
Disconnection of the C.S.D.U. in flight a discrepancy of greater than 5 there was an over or under the oil temperature was high
1101. would be advisable if : Hz between alternators. voltage. or the oil pressure was low. the engine failed.
one load meter which one voltmeter for each one load meter for each one meter which indicates
1102. Paralleled alternators will have : measures total system load. alternator. alternator. both voltage and frequency.
paralleled only when the DC is
1103. Frequency controlled generators are : always paralleled. not always paralleled. never paralleled. paralleled.
If the C.S.D.U. drive disconnect unit only be reconnected when the be reinstated in flight from the be reinstated in flight from be reinstated when necessary
1104. had been used, the drive can : aircraft is on the ground. electrical supply department. the flight deck. by using the Ram Air Turbine.
to prevent out of balance to prevent large flows of to prevent harmonic
Paralleled generators must share real to prevent large current flows forces being fed through the current from one generator to frequencies being created in
1105. and reactive loads : through the T.R.U.s. C.S.D.U.s to the engines. another. the synchronous bus bars.
a large capacity is available to
absorb heavy transient loads
One advantage of running alternators the supply to all circuits is in when switching of heavy the risk of overloading the there is only a requirement
1106. in parallel is that : phase. currents occurs. system is reduced. for one C.S.D.U.
the aircraft generators are run the synchronizing unit will
When an external AC supply is the internal bus bars are in parallel with the external the aircraft generators are ensure that no frequency
1107. feeding the bus bars : disconnected. supply. taken off line. difference exists between the
aircraft generators and the

external supply.
A three phase AC system can be used both one or three phase only inductive or capacitive
1108. to supply : equipment. only three phase equipment. only single phase equipment. loads.
A fault on one phase of a three phase effect only the phase cause inductive loads to
1109. AC star connected system would : have no effect. concerned. overheat. affect all three phases.
to change the frequency of the to act as a back up for the
1110. The purpose of an inverter is : to change AC into DC AC supply. alternator. to change DC into AC
In the event of a mechanical failure
occurring in the generator, the
1111. C.S.D.U. is protected by : a hydraulic clutch. a universal joint. a quill drive. a feather drive.
To increase the real load which is the voltage regulator adjusts both its drive torque and its only its excitation is
1112. being taken by a paralleled alternator: the generator rotor torque. excitation are increased. increased. its drive torque is increased.
Where the aircraft's main electrical
supply is A.C, DC requirements are
1113. met by: batteries. T.R.U.s. inverters. a static inverter.
two T.R.U.s which are
In normal operation, the split bus bar two T.R.U.s which are always a battery which is supplied connected together by the
1114. AC system takes its DC supply from : isolated. from N° 1 T.R.U. only. isolation relay. the static inverter.
The static inverter in the split bus both essential and non-
1115. system supplies : the essential DC consumers. the essential AC consumers. essential consumers. the batteries.
are automatically connected are automatically connected can be connected together by can never be connected
In the split bus system, the AC bus via the isolation relay if one via the bus tie breaker if one switch selection if one together because there is no
1116. bars : alternator fails. alternator fails. alternator fails. load sharing circuit.
there are two synchronizing the G.C.s connect the the B.T.B.s connect the the G.C.R.s connect the
bus bars which are normally generators to the synchronizing bus bars generators to their load bus
1117. With parallel generator operation : kept isolated. synchronizing bus bar. together. bars.
would require that the would require that both the would require that all
An earth fault on a bus bar of a appropriate G.C.B. should would require that the appropriate G.C.B. and B.T.B. alternators should operate
1118. parallel generator system : open. appropriate T. should open. should open. independently.
To prevent high circulating currents their frequencies must be their voltage, frequency, their inductive and
between paralleled alternators, the their voltage and frequency identical and their phase phase and phase sequence capacitivereactances must
1119. following conditions should be met : must be the same. sequence must be the same. must all be the same. match exactly.
If external power is plugged into an it will automatically parallel essential AC consumers will
aircraft which utilizes the split bus itself with any alternators it will only supply non- it will supply all the aircraft be supplied from the static
1120. system of power distribution, then : already on line. essential AC consumers. services. inverter.
Synchronous motors are usually DC to the stator and AC to the

1121. supplied by : three phase AC single phase AC DC to the stator. rotor.
Reversing two phases to a three cause the motor to run in
1122. phase motor will : blow the phase fuses. reverse. overheat the stator windings. stall the motor.
will run at about half speed
If one phase of the supply to a three the motor will continue to run but will not start on its next
1123. phase motor fails, then : at the same speed. will slow down and stop. will stop immediately. selection.
The basic principle of operation of a 3 A rotating field created in the A rotating field created in the A stationary field created in A stationary field created in
1124. phase induction motor is : rotor. stator. the stator. the rotor.
energized by DC and it lines up
with the magnetic field in the impeded by the AC induced
1125. In a synchronous motor, the rotor is : stator. wave wound. both AC and DC energized. into it.
1126. An induction motor has : slip rings and brushes. a commutator. no slip ring or brushes. slip rings but no brushes.
A starting circuit for a powerful single a resistance / inductance
1127. phase induction motor might be : a capacitance starter. starter. a cartridge starter. a bump starter.
input peripherals and inertial central processing unit and auto brightness control and central processing unit and
1128. A basic digital computer consists of: unit memory output peripherals inertial unit
Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU),
The Central Processing Unit (CPU) input device,output device and input device,Hard disk and Hard disk, Control Unit and Shift Registers and Control
1129. consists of Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) output device Shift Registers Unit
In computer terminology an input
1130. peripheral device would be: a hard disk a floppy disk a keyboard a screen display unit
In computer terminology an output
1131. peripheral device would be: a floppy disk a hard disk a screen display unit a keyboard
In computer terminology a memory
which loses its data when power is
1132. removed is called: non-volatile non permanent non-retentive volatile
In computer terminology a memory
which retains its data when power is
1133. removed is called: non-volatile volatile RAM ROM
In computer terminology "software" the memory system floppy the programme of
1134. refers to: disks, hard disks, etc the RAM and ROM capacity instructions the BIOS
the digital computer
In computer terminology "hardware" components, keyboard, the permanent memory the programme of
1135. refers to: monitor, CPU, etc system and its capacity the RAM capacity instructions
The smallest information element in a

1136. digital system is: byte digit electron bit
A group of binary digits handled as a
1137. group is referred to as a: byte mega bit giga bit bits
Convert the decimal number 7 to its
1138. binary equivalent: 1110 111 1101 100
Convert binary 1 110 to its decimal
1139. equivalent: 13 14 15 16
The computer language in which
calculations are carried out and
1140. information is stored in memory is: decimal hexadecimal octal binary
The computer language system which
1141. uses the base 16 is known as: septagesimal hectadecimal hexadecimal octal
The computer language system which
1142. uses the base 8 is called: decimal binary octal hexadecimal
The number system which uses the
numbers 0 to 9 followed by the
1143. letters A to F is: alpha numeric hexadecimal octal numeric alpha
binary 1 and binary 0 are
binary I is a low level, binary 0 binary 1 is a high level, binary binary 1 is positive, binary 0 is equal levels above and below
1144. In a negative logic system: is a high level 0 is a low level negative zero
floppy or hard disks whose
The permanent memory of a digital Integrated circuits rated in shift registers whose capacity capacity is measured in mega
1145. computer usually takes the form of: megabytes is rated in mega or gigabytes or gigabytes Central Processing Unit
The purpose of the Arithmetic Logic perform calculations in the perform all clock functions
Unit within the Central Processing act as a temporary store for perform calculations in the binary, octal or hexadecimal based on the computer clock
1146. Unit is to: information being processed binary number system system frequency (clock time)
Aircraft data in analog form, before
being processed by a computer must digital to analog converter (D analog to digital converter (A
1147. be passed through a: to A) EPROM EAROM to D)
Within the Central Processing Unit,
the temporary stores and
accumulator which handle the data
1148. during processing are called: Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) Shift Registers Control Unit BIOS
A gate which requires that all inputs
1149. must be HIGH to obtain an output a 'NOR' gate. an 'OR' gate. an 'AND' gate. a 'NOT' gate.
would be;
The two most commonly used gates
1150. are; 'NOT' and 'NOR'. 'OR' and 'EXCLUSIVE AND'. 'AND' and 'OR'. 'AND' and 'NAND'.
can be used as a demi- can be used as a semi-
conductor to act as an conductor to act as an
can only be used as an automatic switch or an is an inverted silicon automatic switch or an
1151. A transistor ; amplifier. amplifier. controlled rectifier. amplifier.
is made up of crystals in the is made up of crystals in the is made up of crystals in the
arrangement of emitter, base arrangement of emitter, arrangement of collector, requires a current of ten amps
1152. A transistor ; and collector. collector and base. emitter and base. through the base to transmit.
A gate with only one input and one
1153. output; cannot be a 'double' gate. is a 'NOT' gate. can only be a 'semi-gate'. cannot be a 'NOT' gate.
Truth tables illustrate the relationship integrated gates for trouble the sequence of operation of electronic and electrical
1154. between; inputs and outputs. shooting. the gates. circuits.
The advantages of single sideband Bandwidth halved/signal to Bandwidth reduced by 2/3
over double sideband Bandwidth halved/power noise ratio greater/more better signal to noise ratio Bandwidth reduced by 1/3
1155. communications systems are: output many times greater power may be transmitted greater power output reduced
A signal with a wavelength of 7360
1156. metres lies in the: VLF band LF band MF band HF band
Phase comparison is only possible
1157. between two signals with the same: Amplitude Frequency Amplitude and frequency Plane of polarization
A frequency at with sky waves are
1158. unlikely to occur by day or night is: LF MF HF VHF
A frequency which corresponds to a
1159. wavelength of 12 cm : 2500 KHz 360 MHz 2500 MHz 3600 MHz
A maritime reconnaissance aircraft
using primary pulsed air to surface
radar first detects a large vessel on
this radar at a range of 110 NM.
Considering only line of sight
limitations of the system the aircraft
1160. altitude must be approximately: 230 ft 790 ft 2300 ft 7700 ft
The wavelength corresponding to a
1161. frequency of 108.95 MHz is: 0.275 m 275 m 27.5 m 2.75 m
The optimum frequency of an HF Puts the receiver just within Puts the receiver just within Puts the receiver just outside Allows a skywave to return to
1162. signal is one which: the surface wave coverage the minimum skip distance the minimum skip distance the surface
As the frequency of a signal entering

the ionosphere increases, the amount
of refraction suffered by the signal Increase by day, decrease by Decrease by day, increase by
1163. will: Increase Decrease night night
As the frequency of a transmitter is
increased the range of the surface Remain the same by day but
1164. wave will: Increase Decrease increase by night Increase over the sea only
The type of modulation described as HF single side band
1165. A3E is used in: ILS equipment VHF communications communications Doppler VOR
Increase due to both the
As the frequency of an HF Increase due only to the Increase due only to the increasing minimum skip
transmission is increased the dead increase of the minimum skip decreased surface wave distance and to decreasing
1166. space will: Decrease distance coverage surface wave range
Atmospheric ducting is most likely to There is a marked inversion There is a marked inversion There is a marked inversion
occur close to the surface of the earth and no change in humidity with and a marked increase in and a marked decrease in
1167. when: height humidity with height humidity with height Over the sea
The wavelength corresponding to a
1168. frequency of 9875 MHz is: 0.303 m 0.303 cm 3.03 cm 30.3 cm
Horizontal antenna rotating Horizontal antenna with the
Horizontal antenna with the Vertical antenna with the about a horizontal axis with electrical field in the
electrical field in the vertical electrical field in the vertical magnetic and electrical fields horizontal plane and the
A horizontally polarised wave is plane and the magnetic field in plane and the magnetic field in in alternating horizontal and magnetic field in the vertical
1169. emitted from: the horizontal plane the horizontal plane vertical planes plane
Wavelength decreases and Wavelength decreases and Wavelength increases and Wavelength decreases and
1170. As frequency increases: antenna size increases power requirements increase antenna size decreases antenna size decreases
Loran operates at 100 KHz the
1171. wavelength and band are: 3000 cm LF 3000 mm VLF 3 Km LF 3 nm LF
Frequency modulation had
Frequency modulation techniques are The large bandwidth required not been invented when
not used in the LF/MF/HF bands The power requirements would Naturally occurring static is not available in these frequencies in these bands
1172. because: be too high would swamp the signal congested bands were allocated to users
What is the average height of the F
1173. layer of the ionosphere: 75 km 225 km 275 km 500 km
produce a sine wave from a increase the frequency of a
1174. The purpose of a basic Oscillator is to: amplify a signal attenuate a signal DC input sine wave
1175. An electrical resonant circuit is resistors and inductors in inductors and resistors in series inductors and resistors always capacitor and inductor which
constructed from: series or parallel in parallel may be in parallel or series

When a parallel inductive capacitive inductive reactance equals inductive reactance equals
circuit is operating at its resonant capacitive reactance is greater inductive reactance is greater capacitive reactance and a capacitive reactance and zero
1176. frequency: than inductive reactance than capacitive reactance large circulating current exists current flows in the circuit
In a LC circuit the frequency where XL
1177. = XC is called: Impedance (Z) Cancellation point Oscillation frequency (Fo) Resonant frequency (Fo)
remains constant up to
approximately 30MHz and
decreases as frequency increases as frequency remains constant with then decreases with
1178. Capacitive reactance: increases increases changes in frequency increasing frequency
a quartz crystal vibrating at a
frequency dependent on its a quartz crystal vibrating at a
the generation of sine waves thickness when an EMF is frequency dependent on the
1179. The Piezo electric effect is: the resonation when XL = XC by an oscillator applied to it size of the EMF applied to it
The advantages of a crystal controlled precise stable frequency very narrow bandwidth and
oscillator over a LC controlled output and very narrow cheapness of construction and frequency can easily be there are no particular
1180. oscillator include: bandwidth very narrow bandwidth changed advantages
The output frequency of a magnetron the voltage applied to the the voltage applied to the the material from which the
1181. depends on: cathode anode the size of the cavities cavities are constructed
To produce frequencies in the SHF
(microwave) band which of the LC oscillator and Crystal
1182. following could be used: oscillator LC oscillator and Magnetron Magnetron and Klystron Crystal oscillator and Klystron
electrons under the influence
electrons under the influence of an electrostatic field
Oscillations in a magnetron are of a magnetic field energising creating negative feedback to electromagnetic coupling electromagnetic coupling
1183. maintained by: the cavities the cavities between anode and cathode between heater and cathode
The high power pulse of a ground
radar system is most likely to be klystron followed by a power
1184. produced by: crystal oscillator klystron amplifier magnetron
The relationship between current and they are in phase on a
voltage in a dipole or monopole monopole and out of phase in
1185. antenna is: they are out of phase by 90' they are in phase a dipole they are out of phase by 180'
placing a reflector behind it placing a reflector behind it placing directors behind it
A simple dipole may be made placing a reflector behind it and placing reflectors in front and placing directors in front and placing reflectors in front
1186. directional by: and placing directors behind it of it. of it of it
unfed elements which make unfed elements which make

With reference to antennas, parasitic the radiation pattern the antenna radiation pattern dipole or folded dipole parabolic reflectors placed
1187. elements are: directional omni directional radiating elements behind the antenna
an antenna which has had its
natural wavelength increased an antenna which has had its
by adding inductance and natural wavelength increased
capacitance or a combination by adding directors and a
1188. What is a loaded antenna: a highly directional antenna a parabolic dish antenna of both reflector
Loaded antenna come in the inductive (L), resistive (R) and inductive capacitive (LC) and inductive (L), capacitive (C) inductive (L), capacitive (C)
1189. following forms: resistive capacitive (RC). resistive capacitive (RC) and inductive capacitive (LC). and resistive capacitive (RC).
causes to current to flow only
causes insulation to effectively reduces the in the outer layer of the effectively increases the
breakdown and effectively resistance of the conductor conductor and may be resistance of the conductor
reduces the resistance of the and may be overcome by using overcome by using andcauses insulation to
1190. Skin Effect: conductor. waveguides. waveguides. breakdown.
in moist, humid conditions
at the higher frequencies ie in radar systems fed by when insulation may
1191. Skin effect is most likely to occur: at high power levels up to VHF VHF and above rectangular waveguides breakdown
use hollow conductors, multi use conductors with a large
frequencies are reduced below stranded conductors or cross sectional area thus
1192. To overcome skin effect: VHF power levels are reduced waveguide reducing resistance
Terrain and buildings , antenna scan rates, different
Radio beams may be "bent" or Terrain and buildings, weather weather and ionospheric coastal refraction, different power levels and ionospheric
1193. deflected by: and antenna scan rates refraction power levels and weather refraction
lobe transmissions on a UHF lobe transmissions on a VHF a scanning beam on a UHF a scanning beam on a SHF
carrier which are amplitude carrier which are amplitude carrier which is frequency carrier with the designator
1194. The glide slope antenna radiates: modulated modulated modulated A8W
a scanning azimuth beam in two lobes on a single VHF two lobes on paired VHF two lobes on a UHF carrier
the VHF band with 150 Hz and carrier with amplitude carriers with amplitude with amplitude modulations
1195. The localiser transmitter radiates: 90 Hz amplitude modulations modulations of 90 and 150 Hz modulations of 90 and 150 Hz of 90 and 150 Hz
With reference to the ILS localises, at up to 17 nm range when at up to 25 nm range when
false course and reverse indications anytime when outside the within +/-35o of the approach within +/-10° of the approach
1196. may be received: never published coverage area course line course line
The lowest false glide slope
1197. associated with a 3 ° ILS is: 2° 3° 6° 12°
1198. The ILS markers transmit: lobes at 75 MHZ vertically a fan beam vertically upwards a fan beam vertically upwards lobes amplitude with tones
upwards at 75 kHz modulated with at 75 MHz modulated with vertically upwards

amplitude modulated tones amplitude modulated tones
hectometric or kilometric
1199. Fan markers use: centimetric wavelengths millimetric wavelengths metric wavelengths wavelengths
hectometric or kilometric
1200. MLS equipment uses : centimetric wavelengths millimetric wavelengths metric wavelengths wavelengths
Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Air Law Validation
Air Law Validation Question Bank
1. ICAO publishes:
a) Standards and recommended practices which are enforced worldwide without exception
b) Standards which are law for contracting states and recommendations for the rest of the world
c) Standards and recommended practices for ICAO contracting states only
d) International law
2. Which annex covers entry of cargo?

a) 6
b) 14
c) 9
d) 11
3. Which Annex is concerned with aerodrome design?

a) Annex 12
b) Annex 14
c) Annex 11
d) Annex 15
4. What is the objective of ICAO?

a) To assist states to purchase aircraft
b) To help airlines set up
c) To assist with improving international aviation
d) To train pilots for international aviation
5. Which annex to the Chicago Convention covers dangerous goods carried in aircraft?
a) Annex 15
b) Annex 16
c) Annex 18
d) Annex 19
6. Which ICAO body furnishes the "Standards and Recommended Practices" (SARPS) for adoption by
the Council?
a) The Assembly
b) The Regional Air Navigation Meeting
c) The Council itself
d) The Air Navigation Commission
7. What convention related to third party injury on the ground?

a) Tokyo
b) Rome
c) Warsaw
d) Montreal
8. Which convention deals with hi-jacking?

a) Rome
b) Tokyo
c) Madrid
d) ` Hague.

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9. The first freedom of the air allows:

a) Over-flight only
b) Acceptance of tickets issued by other operators
c) Landing for technical reasons
d) Carriage of mail and cargo
10. The Warsaw Convention and its later amendments cover:

a) The permit of the operator for international flights
b) The limitations of the responsibilities of the operator against transported passengers and cargo
c) Regulations concerning transportation of Dangerous Goods
d) The Aerodrome security system
11. What letters are prohibited for registration marks?

a) 4 letter international codes
b) 5 letters combination used in international codes of signal
c) 4 letter codes preceded by Q
d) Any number referring to an ICAO document
12. Concerning aircraft registration, no combination of letters can be used which can be confused with
distress codes, for example:
a) RCC
b) DDD
c) LLL
d) PAN
13. What age do you need to be to exercise the privileges of a CPL license?
a) 18
b) 21
c) 16
d) 23
14. What is the night flying hours requirement for an ATPL (A) license?
a) 75 hours PIC
b) 100 hours PIC or co-pilot
c) 100 hours PIC
d) 75 hours PIC or co-pilot
15. When are you required to tell the authorities of an illness?

a) After the 21st day of illness has elapsed
b) On the 21stday of the illness
c) After a month
d) After medical has expired
16. What medical is required for the issue of a CPL?

a) Class 2
b) As required by particular state
c) Class 1
2
18. A private pilot's license holder shall demonstrate competence for an instrument rating in a n aircraft
with?
a) Amphibian all engines running only
b) Seaplane one engine inoperative
c) Multi-engined one engine inoperative
d) Multi-engined all engines running
19. The validity of a class rating or multi engine type rating shall be 1 year from:
a) Date of issue
b) Date of application received by the authority
c) Date of skill test
d) Date of medical examination
20. In order to carry out PPL instruction you must hold:

a) PPL with instructor rating
b) CPL and a FI rating
c) CPL
d) ATPL
21. From what date is the initial general medical assessment valid from?
a) The date of the assessment
b) The date the certificate delivered to the pilot
c) The date of license issue
d) The date of the revalidation of the license
22. When, in airspace where VFR is permitted, the PIC of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight i n
accordance with VFR until destination:
1. He/she must inform the control unit of his intention using the expression "cancelling my IFR flight"
2. He/she must request and obtain clearance
3. He/she may request the IFR flight plan to be changed to a VFR flight plan
4. The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight which of the following combinations is correct?
a) 2 and 3
b) 2 and 4
c) 1 and 3
d) 1 and 4
23. Aircraft coming in from the left which light will you see first?
a) Steady red
b) Steady green
c) Flashing green
d) White
24. Which has priority to land?

a) A hospital flight
b) An emergency
c) A military flight
d) A VIP flight
25. Which of these is not a distress frequency?

1. 121.5 MHz
2. 2182 KHz
3. 243.0 KHz
4. 2430 KHz
3
a) 4 only
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 3 and 4
26. ATC has given you the transponder code of 5320. In case of a radio failure in flight you must set:
a) A 7600 Mode C
b) A 0020 Mode C
c) A 5300 Mode C
d) A 7620 Mode C
27. An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft must immediately try to contact the intercepting
aircraft on the following frequencies:
a) 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz
b) 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz
c) 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz
d) 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz
28. Against what political background was the Chicago Convention of 1944 held?
a. World War I
b. The Korean War
c. World War II
d. The American War of Independence
29. What in civil aviation terms does `territorial airspace' mean?

a. The airspace over a state's land-mass of a state within international agreed frontiers
b. All the airspace over a state extending to the limits of space
c. The airspace over a state and the adjacent international waters to a defined median line forming a
boundary with another state
d. The airspace over a state and its territorial waters
30. Do any rules of the air exist over international waters (high seas areas)?
a. Yes - ICAO Annex 2 - Rules of the Air
b. No. No state has the right to impose its law over the high seas
c. Yes - the rules of the air that are applicable to the state with the closest land-mass
d. Yes - the rules of the air of the state of registry of the aeroplane
31. Why does ICAO have regional offices?

a. Because the organization is too large to be administered from one office
b. Because of the use of different languages in the world
c. Because of geographical and regional air navigation considerations
d. To allow the preservation of traditional methods of air navigation regionally throughout the world
32. You are the commander of an aeroplane in flight. From whom do you get the authority to act as
commander?
a. The passengers
b. The Operator
c. The authority of the state of registry of the aeroplane
d. The national legislature of the state of registry of the aeroplane
33. Your valid flight crew license is always to be carried with you when exercising the privileges of the license.
What else must you carry?
a. Your passport or a means of photographically identifying yourself
b. Your valid medical certificate
c. Your valid medical certificate or your passport
4
d. Your valid medical certificate and a document containing a photograph of you that confirms your
identity as stated on your license
34. An airship is approaching head on to a glider and there is a danger of collision. Which must give
way?
a. Both - they are both aircraft
b. The glider - the glider has priority (FAGB)
c. The airship - The airship has priority because it is less manoeuvrable
d. Neither - an interesting situation!
35. You are approaching another aircraft from behind but are climbing to a higher altitude. Are you
required to give way to the other aircraft?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Only if the other is climbing too
d. Yes, and you must stop climbing and turn to the right and maintain altitude and track until well clear
36. It is daytime and your aeroplane is fitted with anti-collision high intensity strobe (capacitive discharge)
lights. You are flying IFR just in the base of the clouds and the lights are creating a stroboscopic effect
that is worrying some of the passengers. Can you switch the strobe lights off?
a. No. Aircraft with anti-collision lights are to show them at all times
b. Yes but only because it is daylight
c. No because you are flying IFR
d. Yes
37. When is a flight plan required?

a. For all flights
b. For all IFR flights
c. For all VFR flights in controlled airspace
d. For all flights which require an air traffic service
38. A flight plan is required to include the number and type of aircraft for which the flight plan is
submitted. (NB one FP may be submitted for a formation of aeroplanes!). What other information is
required regarding the type of aeroplane?
a. Wake turbulence category
b. Optimum cruising Mach number
c. Maximum un-pressurised cabin altitude
d. Minimum equipment list
39. When is an ATC clearance to be obtained?

a. Prior to operating any controlled flight
b. Prior to entry into controlled airspace
c. Prior to take off from the initial departure aerodrome where the route involves landing at several
aerodromes en route
d. At least 30 minutes prior to take off
40. You are cruising at FL350 at M0.94. You have just reported over Caraffa (southern Italy) at time
1035Z and have informed Rome Control that your next position is Ponza (abeam Naples) at 1056Z.
Rome clears you to climb to FL390. This gives you a new speed of M0.96 and your estimate for Ponza is
revised to 1053Z. Do you need to tell Rome what the new ETA at Ponza is?
a. Yes, you must inform ATC if ETAs change by more than 5%
b. No, you only tell ATC if ETAs change by more than 3 minutes
c. No, nobody is interested in such a small change but you might want to tell ATC about the speed
change
d. Yes and you must also tell ATC what your new cruising speed is because changes of 3 minutes or
more in ETA and all changes in cruising speed are to be reported immediately
5
41. If you suffer a comms failure during the later stages of a flight after you have been given an Estimated
Approach Time (EAT) that is significantly different from your flight planned ETA, what do you do?
a. Try and land within 30 minutes of the EAT, if possible
b. Revert to the original flight planned ETA and land as close to that time as possible
c. Stay in the holding pattern and squawk 7600 until you run short of fuel and then squawk 7700 and
make an approach to land
d. Abandon the instrument approach and squawk 7700 and make a straight in approach in VMC
42. Unless authorised, VFR flight is not permitted above what flight level?
a. FL290
b. FL245
c. FL200
d. FL 180
43. If you are operating an IFR flight outside of controlled airspace, are you required to maintain a
listening watch with an ATS unit?
a. No
b. Yes, always
c. Yes, but only in areas or along routes where a flight plan is required
d. Yes if you are flying in IMC
44. If you have an urgent message to transmit regarding the safety of an aeroplane, what proword do you
prefix the message with?
a. Help
b. Mayday
c. Pan Pan
d. Securite (pron - see cure ee tay)
45. If you have been intercepted by a military aircraft, on what frequency sh ould you attempt to
communicate with the military pilot?
a. The frequency in use
b. 121.500 MHz (VHF Distress and Calling Frequency)
c. 119.100 MHz (Common ATC Tower frequency)
d. 123.450 MHz (general chat frequency)
46. You are taxiing towards the terminal building but have not been allocated a bay for parking. You see a
man standing in an open space facing you with his arms raised vertically above his head. What does this
mean?
a. I am not your marshaller, I am waiting for the next aeroplane.
b. I am your marshaller, keep moving ahead and I will indicate when it is safe to turn into this parking
bay
c. This is your parking bay
d. Stop immediately
47. Where no track guidance is provided in the design of a SID, aircraft are to climb on the extended cen tre
line to what height before turns are to be made?
a. 90 m (295 ft)
b. 100m (328 ft)
c. 120m (394 ft)
d. 150m (492ft)

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48. In general, what navigation aids are used to define RNAV departure routes?
a. NDB and ILS
b. VOR and NDB
c. VOR and DME
d. NDB and DME
49. To allow the construction of both departure and approach procedures, aircraft performance is taken
into consideration. Which factor of performance decides the aircraft category for an approach
procedures?
a. Final approach speed clean
b. Rate of descent in the final approach in landing configuration
c. Minimum drag speed with gear, flaps and spoilers down (landing configuration)
d. Threshold speed (1.3 x stalling speed in landing configuration)

a. At the beginning of the initial missed approach phase
b. At the missed approach point (MAPt)
c. At the point at which the instrument approach procedure cannot be continued
d. At DH for a precision approach or at MDH for a non precision approach
51. A holding procedure has been established on the OX beacon turning right at the facility with inbound
(holding) track of 270. You are approaching the facility from the northwest to hold prior to
commencing an instrument procedure. What type of joining procedure to the holding pattern will you
require to make?
a. Sector one (parallel entry)
b. Sector two (offset entry)
c. Sector three (direct entry)
d. Sector four (reciprocal parallel indirect offset entry)
52. What is defined by a minimum obstacle clearance of 300 m (984 ft) within 46 km (25 nm) of a homing
facility providing the basis for an instrument approach?
a. Minimum Safe Altitude
b. Minimum Sector Altitude
c. Mandatory Safety Area
d. Maximum Speed Area

d) Bank angle of 25 °
54. What radius from a terminal VOR is MSA provided?

a) 25nm
b) 10nm
c) 15nm
d) 25km
55. What is the maximum speed (under normal conditions) for an aeroplane to enter a hold at 11,000 ft.
without special ATC clearance?
a) 230 kts
b) 170 kts
c) 250 kts
d) 240 kts
7
56. The Obstacle clearance in the primary area of an intermediate approach is:
a) Not more than l 50 m
b) Reduces from 300 m to 150 m
c) Equal to or greater than 300 m
d) 500 m in mountainous terrain
57. In general, for a straight in non-precision approach, the MDA/H will be not less tha n:
a) OCH/A
b) 200ft
c) 350ft
d) 400ft
58. What is the maximum interception angle which is allowed to the intermediate approach segment from
the initial approach segment for a non-precision approach?
a) 30 °
b) 45°
c) 120°
d) 15°
59. On an instrument approach, part of the procedure enables the aircraft to return inbound from
outbound with track reversal. This is called:
a) Base Turn
b) Procedure Turn
c) Reverse Procedure
d) Racetrack
60. For the intermediate section of a missed approach, what is the minimum obstacle clearance?
a) 30m
b) 100m
c) 50m
d) 120m
61. Which direction are turns in the standard holding pattern?

a) left
b) right
c) depends on w/v
d) depends on entry made
62. When making an approach, when should a pilot change his altimeter from standard to aerodrome
setting, unless otherwise authorised by ATC?
a) Transition altitude
b) Transition level
c) 300011 above sea level or 1000ft AGL, whichever is higher
d) within the transition layer

a) RVR 350m, DH not below 100ft
b) RVR 200 DH not below 100ft
c) RVR 200 DH not below 200ft
d) RVR 300 DH not below 200ft
8
64. During a visual manoeuvre (circling) in the downwind position you lose visual contac t with the
threshold of the landing runway. What do you do?
a) Carry out the missed approach procedure
b) Turn through 90° and head towards the centre of the aerodrome until you regain visual reference
c) Head towards the FAF
d) Orbit in the present position until the visibility improves
65. What are ICAO defined instrument approaches?

a) Non-precision and CAT I / II / III precision
b) Precision in general
c) Precision CAT I / II / III
d) Instrument precision and CAT II / III
66. Are the minimum obstacle clearance heights for circling approach to land:
a) The same for Cat A and B aircraft
b) Different for each category
c) The same for Cats A, B and D
d) The same for Cat A and B, and the same for Cat C and D
67. When following a SID, the pilot must:

a) Calculate the track required and request ATC clearance to follow it
b) Fly the heading without wind correction
c) Adjust the track specified to allow for the wind
d) Fly the heading to make good the required track allowing for the wind
68. Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?
a) From where a new instrument approach can be commenced
b) Where 50 ft obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained
c) Where a climb is established
d) At the missed approach point
69. For an omnidirectional departure, the procedure dictates that the aircraft climbs on the extended
centreline to a specified height before turning. What is this height?
a) 300m
b) 120m
c) 150 m
d) 250m
70. When using a DR segment to take up an ILS instrument approach, what is the maximum length of
the track that may be used to intercept the localiser?
a) 10 nms
b) 5 nms
c) 10 minutes
d) 5 minutes
71. The obstacle clearance surfaces for an ILS assume a pilot localiser accuracy of.
a) 1/4 scale
b) 1/2 scale
c) 1 scale
d) 1 1/2 scale
9

a) Right turn at the fix; 1 minute at or below 14 000 ft
b) Left turn at the fix; 1 minute below 14 000 ft
c) Right turn at the fix; 1.5 minutes below 14 000 ft
d) Right turn at the fix; 1 minute below 14 000 ft
73. What are the 5 segments of an instrument approach?

a) Initial; Intermediate; Descent; Final; Landing
b) Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Missed Approach
c) Initial; Intermediate; Final; Landing; Missed Approach
d) Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Landing
74. The visual phase of a flight after completion of an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into the
position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for a straight-in approach is termed as:
a) Visual Approach
b) Aerodrome traffic pattern
c) Visual Manoeuvring (circling)
d) Contact Approach
75. Independent parallel approaches on parallel runways can be used when:

a) The missed approach track of one approach diverges by at least 20° from the missed approach track
of the adjacent approach
b) The missed approach track of one approach diverges by at least 25 ° from the missed approach track
c) The missed approach track of one approach diverges by at least 30° from the missed approach track
d) The missed approach track of one approach diverges by at least 45° from the missed approach track
76. You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding procedure is: All turns
are right hand, 1 minute outbound, inbound magnetic track is 052 °. You are approaching the fix on an
inbound magnetic heading of 150°. Choose the entry procedure:
a) direct
b) parallel or off-set
c) off-set
d) parallel
77. Turns in a standard holding pattern are:

a) in a direction dependent on the wind
b) in a direction dependent on the type of entry
c) left handed
d) right handed
78. A SVFR flight can fly in a control zone if the vis ibility is 1500m or more, without a radio, if the
class of airspace of the CTR is:
a) C, D, E
b) D, E
c) D
d) E
10

a) 250 kts TAS
b) 250 kts IAS
c) Not applicabled) 200 kts IAS
.
80 What is the definition of the Emergency Phase?
b) The Alarm Phase
c) The Alert Phase
d) A generic term meaning as the case maybe the Uncertainty Phase, the Alert Phase or the Distress
Phase
81. For VFR flight in class E airspace:

a) ATC clearance and two way radio are required
b) Two way radio not required
c) ATC clearance and/or two way radio are required
d) ATC clearance is required
82. How often is an ATIS updated?

a) Every 30 mins for VFR, every 59 mins IFR
b) When there is a change in information, irrespective of content or intensity
c) When the minimum ceiling and visibility are below VFR minimum
d) When there is a significant change in information.
83. The lower boundary of an UIR must be:

a) An IFR flight level
b) A VFR flight level
c) Is not specified
d) At any flight level
84. Who organises the RNP specification for airspace?

a) The State in which the airspace is located
b) ICAO
c) The State + ICAO
d) States who agree what the RNP should be
85. You are flying a visual approach in Class C airspace. ATC will:
a) Separate you from all traffic
b) Separate you from all IFR traffic
c) Separate you from all arriving traffic
d) Separate you from all VFR traffic
86. A Control Zone has to exist to at least:

a) 5 nms from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from where approaches
can be made
b) 25 nms from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from where approaches
can be made
c) 15 nms from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from where approaches
can be made
d) 10 nms from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from where approaches
can be made
11
87. According to ICAO Annex 11, what does the following statement define: "information concerning the
occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may effect the safety
of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low -level
flights in the FIR concerned or sub-area thereof."
a) NOTAM
b) SIGMET Information
c) AIRMET Information
d) En-route Weather Report
88. A non-scheduled aircraft wants to land for non-commercial reasons in an ICAO contracting state. The
flight plan is to be sufficient notification for acceptance of this flight. How much time in advance must
the flight plan be received?
a) 1 hour
b) 2 hours
c) 4 hours
d) 24 hours
89. How is speed entered in item 15 of a flight plan?

a) Ground speed
b) True airspeed
c) Ground speed plus 10%
d) Indicated airspeed
90. You file a VFR flight plan. What do you put in field 16 (total EET)?
a) Time from brakes off to overhead the destination
b) Time from brakes released to landing time
c) Time from take off to overhead the destination
d) Time from take off to landing
91. What is a strayed aircraft?

a) One that has gone significantly off-track
b) One that is lost and has reported so to ATC
c) A combination of a. and b
d) One which its position has not been established by ATC
92. If you want to descend through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the minimum separation
is:
a) 20 minutes
b) 10 minutes
c) 5 minutes
d) 15 minutes
93. What is the longitudinal separation standard required for RNAV routes?
a) 80 nm
b) 60 nm
c) 50 nm
d) 20 nm
12
95. The longitudinal separation minimum, based on time between two aircraft at the same altitude, for
which navigation aids can give a frequent determination of position and speed and when the proceeding
aircraft has a true airspeed of at least 40 kts higher than the following aircraft, is:
a) 5 minutes
b) 6 minutes
c) 10 minutes
d) 3 minutes
96. Approach control is provided for:

a) All arriving and departing controlled flights
b) All arriving IFR traffic
c) Traffic within the CTA
d) All VFR traffic
97. A revised EAT shall be transmitted to an aircraft whenever it differs from that EAT previously
transmitted by:
a) 5 minutes or more
b) 10 minutes or more
c) 3 minute or more
d) 15 minutes or more
98. If one aircraft wishes to occupy the level of another aircraft which has been cleared to descend, when
can the first aircraft start descending to that level?
a) When the second aircraft reports leaving the level
b) When the second aircraft reports 1,000 ft out of the level
c) When the second aircraft reports at the cleared level
d) When the second aircraft reports through 500 ft from the original level
99. On an approach by an IFR flight, when can this be converted to a visual approach:
a) After the FAF
b) With visual reference to the terrain
c) When the visibility is greater than 5km
d) After the MAP
100. Under which circumstances may an aircraft on a "straight in" VOR approach continue below OCA?
a) When it seems possible to land
b) When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but does not have the runway in sight
c) When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and is visual with the runway lights
d) When the tower is visible
101. What is the criterion for an aerodrome to be controlled?

a) It must be located within a CTR
b) It must have a control tower giving an ATC service
c) It must have a control tower and be in a CTR
d) It must be in controlled airspace
102. When must you operate your SSR transponder?

a) Always
b) At all times unless otherwise instructed by ATC
c) At your discretion regardless of ATC instructions
d) Mode A always; Mode C at pilots discretion
13
103. The maximum speed change that may be required during a radar approach is:
a) ±40 kts
b) ± 5 kts
c) ± 10 kts
d) ±t 20 kts
104. To whom is the alerting service provided?

a) All IFR traffic
b) All flight-planned aircraft
c) All hijacked aircraft
d) All traffic known to ATC
105. A radar controller wants to identify an aircraft on radar. By how much will the aircraft be turned?
a) 45°
b) 15°
c) 30° or more
d) More than 30°
106. When may the pilot operate the ìdent’ switch on the transponder?
a) in controlled airspace
b) when requested by ATC
c) in uncontrolled airspace
d) when under radar control
107. If you are given an instruction by ATC, steer heading 030, is the heading:
a) Degrees true, to be corrected for wind
b) Degrees magnetic to be corrected for wind
c) Degrees true
d) Degrees magnetic
108. During radar vectoring procedures, turns are to be:

a) At pilots discretion
b) Dependant on weather conditions
c) At a standard rate unless instructed by ATC
d) Not less than 30°
109. Which separation minimum must be used for wake turbulence when a medium aircraft departs behind
a heavy aircraft and both use the same runway?
a) 2 minutes
b) 1 minute
c) 3 minutes
d) 4 minutes
110. If an aircraft is vectored to intercept the localiser during parallel runway operations, the final vector
must be such that the aircraft is enabled to intercept the localiser course with an angle not greater than:
a) 20°
b) 30°
c) 15°
d) 25°
.
14
111. In which section of the AIP would you find information on holding, approach and departing
procedures?
a) GEN
b) ENR
c) SAT
d) AD
112. A check list for NOTAMs is issued:

a) Every 5 days
b) Every 28 days
c) Every 18 days
d) At intervals of not more than one month
113. What information is found not on an aerodrome approach plate?

a) DME frequency
b) OCA
c) Dominant obstacles
d) All of the above
114. What is the co-efficient of braking, if the braking action is reported as medium?
a) Between. 1.0 and 0.25
b) Between 0.25 and 0.3
c) Between 0.30 and 0.35
d) Between 0.35 and 0.4
115. Which of the following is a valid colour scheme for signs on an aerodrome?
a) Black on red
b) Yellow on black or black on yellow
c) Red on white
d) Orange
116. Aerodrome code 4 refers to field length of:

a) 900 m
b) 1000 m
c) 1600 m
d) 1800 m or more
117. What is a stopway for?

a) Stopping after landing distance
b) Extending the Landing Distance Available
c) Stopping after an aborted take off
d) A runway extension for big aircraft
118. A PAPI system consists of

a) 2 wing bars of 4 lights uniformly spaced
b) 1 wing bar of 4 lights uniformly spaced
c) 2 wing bars of 6 lights uniformly spaced
d) 2 wing bars of 2 lights uniformly spaced
119. Lead in lights are:

a) Green at threshold across the runway
b) White flashing in direction pointing towards the runway
c) Yellow
d) Steady white across the runway
15
120. What colour are runway end lights?

a) Unidirectional red
b) Unidirectional white
c) Omni directional red
d) Omni directional white
121. On a Cat I lighting system, what is the distance between the single, double and treble lights on the
extended centre-line of a runway?
a) 150 metres
b) 200 metres
c) 250 metres
d) 300 metres
122. What is the colour of threshold lights?

a) Steady white
b) Flashing white
c) Steady green
d) Flashing green
123. When the lights of an aerodrome are required to be on (night-time etc.), they can only be switched off
providing it is possible to switch them on:
a) Not more than 1 hour before the ETA of an arriving flight
b) Not more than 30 minutes before the ETA of an arriving flight
c) Not more than 5 minutes before the ETA of an arriving flight
d) Not more than 15 minutes before the ETA of an arriving flight
124. An en-route obstacle is located:
a) Within 15 kms radius of an aerodrome
b) Outside 5 nms from the boundary of any controlled airspace
c) Beyond 15 kms radius of an aerodrome
d) In any location that might be encountered during the cruise phase of a flight
125. Low intensity obstruction lights on buildings and moving objects are:
a) Flashing green
b) Flashing yellow
c) Steady red
d) Steady blue
126. On arrival, Contracting States will not require the PIC of an aircraft to deliver more than:
a) 2 copies of the General Declaration, 2 copies of the cargo manifest and 2 copies of a simple
Stores List
b) 3 copies of the General Declaration, 2 copies of the cargo manifest and 2 copies of a simple
Stores List
c) 3 copies of the General Declaration, 3 copies of the cargo manifest and 2 copies of a simple
Stores List
d) 1 copy of the General Declaration
127. What does the SAR signal "X" on the ground mean?
a) We need help
b) We are OK
c) We need medical supplies
d) We have gone away
16
128. When sighting a distress flare at night, you should:

a) Circle once
b) Flash landing lights or navigation lights
c) Rock wings
d) Send the letter R in Morse by lights to the downed aircraft
129. What does the SAR ground signal "V" mean?

a) We have gone south
b) We need assistance
c) We need medical assistance
d) Yes
130. When taking firearms on board an aeroplane, carried by an authorised person, who needs to be informed?
a) The commander
b) The commander and the authority of the state of destination
c) The authority of the state of destination
d) The operator
131. In ICAO Annex 17 , what does Security mean?

a) To safeguard international civil aviation operations against Unlawful Interference
b) To safeguard international civil aviation operations
c) To safeguard international civil aviation operations against hijacking
d) To safeguard international civil aviation operations against terrorism
132. For the transport of persons who are at risk for security and/or health, certain precautions should be
taken among which is to:
a) Embark after all other passengers
b) Embark before all other passengers
c) Embarking at the captain's discretion
d) Embarking at the State's discretion
133. An isolated parking area is to be provided for an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference which is
never less than ............ metres from other parking positions:
a) 1,000
b) 2,500
c) 3,000
d) 100
134. An aircraft wheel gets stuck in the mud whilst taxiing to the runway for take-off and sustains damage.
Is this:
a) An incident
b) An accident
c) A serious incident
d) Covered by normal operating procedures
135. The sole purpose of Accident Investigation is the prevention of future accidents and:
a) Apportion blame
b) Nothing else
c) To improve manufacturing design
d) To help judicial investigations
17
136. It has been raining but the surface of a runway has no patches of standing water on it. How would ATC
describe the state of the runway in this situation?
a. Wet
b. Damp
c. Not dry
d. Braking action poor
137. What is the principle requirement of a signals area on an aerodrome?

a. It must not be green
b. It must be clearly visible from 300M AAL
c. It must be clearly visible from all parts of the manoeuvring area
d. It indicates that VFR operations are in progress
138. What marks a runway holding position?

a. One of three different line arrangements painted across the taxiway
b. Occulting yellow `guard' lights
c. A red marker board either side of the taxiway
d. A red light stop bar
139. What colour are apron safety lines?

a. White
b. Red
c. Green
d. A contrasting colour from the aircraft stand markings
140. A NOTAM is to be issued to addressees for whom the information is of operational significance
provided they would not have ..... days prior notification. What number of days correctly fills the space?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 9
141. On a runway with a length of 2500 m, how far is the aiming point from the threshold?
a. 150 m
b. 250 m
c. 300 m
d. 400 m
142. For planning purposes, an aerodrome is categorised by aerodrome reference code. This consists of two
elements: A number, and a letter. What does the number relate to?
a. Load classification number
b. Single wheel loading classification
c. Crash/Rescue category
d. Take-off distance required for an aeroplane
143. For an instrument runway, how far from the centre line of the runway is a `runway vacated' sign
positioned?
a. 30 m
b. at the end of the ILS/MLS sensitive area
c. 60 m
d. A distance equal to twice the width of the runway
18
144. How is a paved pre-threshold area which is not suitable for use by aircraft, marked?
a. By white arrows directing approaching aircraft to the displaced threshold
b. By yellow chevrons pointing towards the threshold
c. By a yellow X
d. By white crosses evenly spaced
145. What is the purpose of a Crew Member's Certificate (CMC)?

a. To permit aircrew temporary residence in en route countries
b. To allow flight crew to be exempt customs, health and immigration formalities at an enroute
aerodrome
c. To replace the crew member's license
d. To provide identification of aircrew
146. 25% of the runway of a runway is covered with standing water. How would ATC describe the state of the
runway?
a. Water patches
b. Flooded
c. Damp
d. Wet
147. What is the vertical separation minima applied in designated airspace subject to a regional air
navigation agreement below FL410?
a. 1000 ft
b. 2000 ft
c. 500 ft
d. 1500 ft
148. If two aeroplanes are departing from the same runway on the same track, and the second intends to
climb through the level of the preceding one, what separation must be applied?
a. 5 minutes
b. 3 minutes
c. 10 nm
d. 5 nm
149. What classifies an aeroplane as `heavy' for wake turbulence separation?

a. Wing span of 35m or more
b. Four turbojet engines
c. Take off mass of 145 000 kg
d. 245 passenger seats
150. Which of the following is an approved method of identifying a contact on radar as an aeroplane
to which a service is to be given'?
a. The aircraft reporting his position as a range and bearing from the radar head
b. Observation of a SSR squawk
c. Observation on radar of a turn made by the aircraft
d. Aircraft compliance with an instruction to squawk ident
151. You are flying IFR in controlled airspace and are advised that radar service is terminated. What must
you do?
a. Resume position reports
b. Squawk standby
c. Squawk A/2000
d. Leave controlled airspace
19
152. What is the only item permitted to protrude through the plane of an approach lighting system w ithin 60
m of the centre line?
a. An ILS or MLS azimuth (centreline guidance) antenna
b. A fixed object not more than 45 ft high
c. The ILS glidepath antenna
d. The aerodrome boundary security fence
153. What colour are runway edge lights?

a. Blue
b. Yellow
c. Red
d. White
154. Where a runway has a displaced threshold and the whole of the runway is used for take -off,
which of the following can be used to indicate the centre of the runway from the end to the
displaced threshold?
a. Approach lighting (such that it does not dazzle the pilot taking off)
b. Red centre line lighting
c. Green/yellow alternating taxiway lights
d. Unidirectional green lights
155. What is defined as the portion of a flight in which the aircraft descends below 1000 ft above the
relevant DH or MDH?
a. Glide path
b. Final approach
c. Approach to landing
d. Go around/Missed approach

a. At DH/MDH
b. At any point that the criteria to continue the approach is lost
c. At the missed approach point
d. Over the threshold of the instrument runway
157. When is the QNH to be communicated to aircraft prior to take off?

a. When taxi clearance is given
b. When the ATC clearance is delivered
c. When start clearance is given
d. When take-off clearance is given
158. For a non-precision approach, what is (normally) the maximum distance the Final Approach Fix (FAF)
can be from the threshold of the landing runway?
a. 9 Km (5 nm)
b. 19 Km (10 nm)
c. 28 Km (15 nm)
d. 38 Km (20 nm)
159. When does night exist?

a. During the hours of darkness
b. From 30 minutes after sunset until 30 minutes after sunrise
c. From the beginning of evening civil twilight until the beginning of morning civil twilight
d. During the period when the centre of the Sun's disc is 6° below the horizon
20
160. Which of the following correctly defines Special VFR?

a. Any flight cleared by ATC to operate in conditions less than VMC in which the pilot is required to
remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
b. A flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in conditions below VMC
c. A flight in IMC for which the pilot and/or the aeroplane is unable to comply with the requirements
of IFR
d. A VFR procedure to enable an aeroplane to transit a control zone or area i n IMC without
compliance with IFR
161. Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud
ceiling is lower than
a. 1000 feet and less than 8 kms visibility
b. 2000 feet and less than 5 kms visibility
c. 1500 feet or less than 5 kms visibility
d. 1000 feet and less than 5 kms visibility
162. Concerning the three entries to the hold, the entry has to be flown on
a. Heading
b. Track
c. Course
d. Bearing
163. When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall

a. Only use the word "wilco"
b. Only read back the code
c Only use the word "roger"
d Read back mode and code
164. What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure?
a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed
b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible
c Maintain your assigned altitude and land at the nearest aerodrome at which there are VMC conditions
d Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA
a. The State
b. The Operator
c. The Commander
d. The owner
a the ATS reporting point when accepting the flight plan
b the Captain
c the Operator of the aircraft
d. ATC
167. An aircraft, on a radar approach, should be told to consider making a missed approach when the
aircraft is not visible on the radar screen for a significant period of time and when it is within
a the last 2 nms of the approach
b the last 5 nms of the approach
c the last 4 nms of the approach
d the last 3 nms of the approach
21
168. Clocks and other timing equipment used by air traffic services must be checked in order to be able to
give the time within plus or minus
a 15 seconds of UTC
b 10 seconds of UTC
c 30 seconds of UTC
d 1 minute of UTC
169. Temporary changes of long duration in specifications for AIP supplements and information of short
duration, which contains extensive text and / or graphical representation, has to be published as AIP
supplements. Long duration is considered to be
a 3 months or longer
b 2 months or longer
c 1 year or longer
d 6 months or longer
170. How many red lights have to be seen by the pilot, whose aircraft on final approach follows a normal
PAPI defined glide-path?
a 2
b none
c 3
d 1
171. It says in the Annex of the ICAO convention that the sizes of airfields are specified by codes for
different runways. What is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4 ?
a 40 metres
b 45 metres
c 50 metres
d 35 metres
172. An aircraft which is not concerned with regular international flights and which makes a flight to or via
a dedicated aerodrome of a member State and is temporarily free of taxes is admitted, will stay within
that State without paying customs
a during a period which is determined by the State
b during a period of 24 hours
c during a period of 12 hours
d during a period of 48 hours
173. Pilots are not allowed to use the indent function on their SSR, unless
a. they operate outside controlled airspace
b. if asked by ATC
c. with are within controlled airspace
d. they operate a transponder with mode C
174. Transition Level

a. will be given by NOTAM
b. is published on every approach and landing chart for every airfield
c. will be calculated by the pilot in command
d. will be calculated by the ATC service of an ATS unit
175 If the track on an instrument departure is published the pilot is expected to

a. correct for the known wind so as to stay within controlled airspace
b. ask ATC for another heading to steer correcting for wind
c. ignore the wind and proceed with a heading equal to the track
d. ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind
22
176. A manoeuvre where a turn is made from a "designated track" followed by a turn in the opposite
direction to enable the aircraft to fly the prescribed track is called
a. Base turn
b. Reverse track
c. Race track
d. Procedure turn
177. For the three entries into a hold, what is the sector tolerance?
a) ±5° b) ± 10 ° c) ±15 ° d) ± 20°
178. An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 in Class C Airspace. Another aircraft below at FL 140 receives a
clearance to descend to FL 70. There is severe turbulence in the area. When at earliest can a clearance
be expected to descend to FL 140 or lower?
a. When the other aircraft has reported to be descending through FL 130
b. When the other aircraft has reported to have left FL 120
c. When the other aircraft has reported to have left FL 140
d. When the other aircraft has reached FL 70
179. The transition from IFR to VFR is done

a. on the Captain's initiative
b. whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace
c. if told by ATC
d. at the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation
180. What is the length of the approach lighting system of a Cat II precision landing runway?
a. 900m
b. 600m
c. 300m
d. 150m
181. A check list of AIP Supplements is published

a. annually
b. monthly
c. weekly
d. every six months
182. A TODA consists of

a. The take-off run available excluding the clearway
b. The take-off run available including the clearway
c. The take-off run available excluding the stopway
d. The take-off run available only
183. Voice ATIS

1. cannot be broadcasted on a voice ILS
2. cannot be broadcasted on voice VOR
3. is broadcasted only on a discreet VFH frequency
4. is broadcasted on either a discreet VHF, VOR or an ILS frequency
a. 1 only is correct
c. 4 only is correct
23
184. What is the width of a code letter D taxiway used by aircraft with an outer gear wheel span of less than
9m?
a. 10.5m
b. 15m
c. 18m
d. 23m
185. What is the meaning of the symbol LLL search parties?

a. We have only found some personnel
b. We have found all personnel
c. Operation completed
d. Nothing found
186. For an instrument runway, how far from the centre line of the runway is a "runway vacated" sign
positioned?
a. To a distance of the nearest Pattern À' holding position
b. At the end of the ILS/MLS Sensitive Area
c. It depends on the Aerodrome Category
d. 85 metres
187. Where in the AIP would you find details on instrument holding procedures ?
a. GEN
b. ENR
c. AD
d. AGA
188. The loading limitations shall include:

a. All limiting mass and centres of gravity
b. All limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loading
c. All limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor loading
d. All limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity
189 If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common

language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the
intercepted aircraft to descend for landing?
a. Let down
b. Descend
c. Descend for landing
d. You land
190. If for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal conditions laid down for
any particular holding pattern, he should:
a. advise ATC as early as possible.
b. execute a non-standard holding pattern in accordance with the performance of his aeroplane.
c. remain within the protected area, but may deviate from the prescribed holding.
d. follow the radio communication failure procedure.
191. The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3,050 m
(10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
a. Not applicable
b. 240 KT IAS
c. 250 KT IAS
d. 250 KT TAS
24
192. The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled
airspace below FL 290 is:
a. 500 feet (150 m).
b. 2500 feet (750 m).
c. 1000 feet (300 m).
d. 2000 feet (600 m).
193. Which does ATC Term "Radar contact" signify?

a. Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be pr ovided
until radar identification is terminated.
b. Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact
with this radar facility.
c. You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that radar
contact has been lost.
d. ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are
advised that contact has been lost.
194. In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre
line have a length of:
a. 250 m.
b. 200 m.
c. 150 m.
d. 300 m.
195. Which of the following is not a valid SSR mode A squawk ?

a. A5555
b. A5678
c. A2345
d. A3333
196 Which of the annexes deals with the transportation of cargo?

a. Annex 9 - Facilitation
b. Annex 18 - Transportation of Dangerous Goods
c. Annex 16 - Environmental Protection
d. Annex 6 - Operation of Aircraft
197 To what did the Tokyo convention of 1963 address itself?

a. Licensing of scheduled air services
b. Damage caused by a contracting states aircraft to property in the same state
c. Damage caused by a contracting states aircraft to property in another state
d. Interference with an aircraft in flight
198 Which of the following is a Bangladesh registered military aircraft?

a) S2-ACO
b) S3-ACX
c) S³-ACX
d) S3ACO
199 What registration is disallowed because of possible confusion with distress/urgency signals?
a. RCC
b. NNN
c. XXX
d. ZZZ
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200 What is the climb gradient required during the intermediate segment of a missed approach?
a. 5.5%
b. 2.5%
c. 0.8%
d. 3.3%
201 The main factors that dictate in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is:
a) ATC availability and requirements
b) The terrain surrounding the aerodrome
c) Availability of navigation aids
d) Airspace restrictions applicable and in force
202 The full range of VHF frequencies used for communications is:
a) 118.0 to 136.975 MHz
b) 88 to 108 MHz
c) 108.0 to 139.95 MHz
d) 3 to 30 MHz
203 An altitude of 1500 feet is transmitted as:

a) Fifteen hundred feet b) Wun tousand fife hundred feet
c) Wun fife hundred feet d) Wun fife zero zero feet
204 Within what angle of the extended centre line of a runway is a non-precision approach considered to be
straight in?
a. 10°
b. 15°
c. 30°
d. 40°
205 The 45° leg of a 45/180° procedure turn for a Cat C aircraft is:
a. 1 min
b. 1 min 15 seconds
c. 1 min 30 seconds
d. Continued until interception of the glide slope
206 On a precision approach (ILS), the OCH(A) is based among other standard conditions, on the vertical
limits between the flight path of the wheels and the glide path antenna. This should not be more than:
a. 6m
b. 9m
c. 3m
d. 12m
207 The correct order and content of a position report is:
a) callsign, position, level, heading, ETA
b) callsign, position, time, level, next position and ETA
c) callsign, route, position, level, request
d) callsign, position, level, intention and ETA at destination
208 The lowest height of a CTA above ground or water is:

a. 300m
b. 150m
c. 200m
d. 500m
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209 RNP (Required Navigation Performance) is:

a. Based on Regional Air Navigation Orders (RANOs)
b. Based on RANOs and applied by the state
c. Based on RANOs and applied by the state and ICAO
d. Based on RANOs and applied by the ICAO
210 On departure a 1 minute separation can be applied if the aircraft fly on diverging tracks immediately
after take-off at least
a. 45°
b. 15°
c. 30°
d. 20°
211 What is separation for a light aircraft taking off after a medium aircraft providing they are both using
the same runway?
a. 5 min
b. 3 min
c. 1 min
d. 2 min
212 An integrated aeronautical information package consists of

a. AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins
b. AIP and amendment service„ NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins (PIBs), AICs, AIRACs,
c. AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, AIRACs, AICs, checklists and
summaries.
d. AIP & Supplements, AIRACs, NOTAMs and pre-flight bulletins
213 Touchdown zone markings are set out in pairs. How many such pairs are required for a runway of 2400
m or more?
a. 6
b. 4
c. 2
d. 8
214 Which "code letter" has to be chosen to identify a taxiway that has to be used by an aircraft with a
wheel-base of 15 metres?
a. Code letter E
b. Code letter C
c. Code letter B
d. Code letter D
215. An aircraft equipped with SSR transponder might operate the equipment as follows to indicate that it is
threatened by grave and imminent danger and requires immediate:
a) Code 7700. b) Code 7600.
c) Code 7400. d) Code 7500.
216. When flying at night, you observe another aircraft moving at right angles and crossing your track from
right to left. You would be seeing its:
a) White light. b) Red light.
c) Green light. d) Red and Green lights both.
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217. The validity of Commercial Pilot License of a pilot age below 40 years is 12 months from the date of:
a) Signing of the license by the Chairman CAAB.
b) Passing Flying test examination.
c) Passing Medical Examination.
d) Issuance of License.
218. In radio telephony FL 100 shall be transmitted like:

a) Flight level One Zero Zero.
b) Level Ten thousand feet.
c) Flight level One hundred.
d) Level Ten thousand
219. What is the color of aircraft starboard navigation light?

a) Green.
b) White.
c) Red.
d) Blue.
220. Dhaka TMA is classified as airspace as:

a) Class C. b) Class A.
c) Class B. d) Class B & C.
221. In radio telephony altimeter setting 1112.9 shall be transmitted like:

a) QNH one one one two decimal niner.
b) QNH one one one two.
c) QNH One One One Three.
d) QNH one one one two point niner
222. While climbing pilot will set the altimeter to 1013.2 hPa when:
a) Passing through transition altitude.
b) Passing through transition level.
c) Passing through transition layer.
d) All above
223. Altimeter subscale being set 1013.2 hPa after landing the altimeter will indicate certain vertical distance. That
value of vertical distance is called:
a) Aerodrome elevation. b) Altitude.
c) Height d) Flight level.
224. In Bangladesh Airway is classified as:

a) Class A. b) Class B. c) Class C d) Class D
225. An ATC incident report filed on radio telephony must be confirmed in writing on the proper form within:
a) 10 days of the incident. b) 24 hours of the incident.
c) 3 days of the incident d) 7 days of the incident.
226. The initial approach altitude for all types of instrument approach for RWY 14 of HSIA is:
a) 1000ft. b) 1800 ft. c) 3000 ft. d) 3500 ft.
227. In Bangladesh VFR flights are not allowed above flight level:
a) 150. b) 200. c) 160. d) 230.
228. Operation of an aircraft on the movement area shall be in compliance with:

a) GFR + IFR. b) GFR + VFR. c) GFR + IFR/VFR. d) None above.
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229. The ICAO Annex-1 deals with:

a) Personnel Licensing. b) Rules of the air.
c) Air Traffic Services. d) None of the above.
230. Location Indicator for Chittagong Airport is:

a) VGZR. b) VGEG. c) VGCG. d) VGFG.
231. Emergency stand-by frequency is:

a) 125.7 MHz b) 121.5 MHz. c) 243 KHz. d) Both “b” and “c”
232. The length of the runway of HSIA International Airport is:

a) 3000 meter. b) 2500 meter
c) 3200 meter d) 2700 meter
233. When two or more heavier than air aircraft are approaching to land, which one has the right of way:
a) The slower aircraft has the right of way.
b) The aircraft at the lower altitude has the right of way.
c) The bigger aircraft has the right of way.
d) The faster aircraft has the right of way.
234. According to the semi-circular system of cruising level, which of the following groups contain the correct
flight level for the westbound VFR flight:
a) FL 75, FL 115, FL 175 b) FL 60, FL 100, FL 140
c) FL 85, FL 105, FL 125 d) FL 70, FL 110, FL 170
235. In Bangladesh Flight plan has to be submitted to ATS unit not before:
a) Four hours before departure b) Three hours before departure.
c) One hour before departure. d) Two hours before departure.
236. The word “ROGER” when shall be used in radiotelephony communications shall have the meaning:
a) Received the message and be compiled with.
b) Received the message and understood.
c) Notwithstanding last instruction continue holding.
237. Responsibility of publication of AIP is of:
a) Notional airlines
b) State concerned.
c) Managing Director Biman.
238. All aeroplanes when operated in accordance with the instrument flight rules required to be equipped:
a) With one pressure altimeter.
b) Two sensitive pressure altimeters.
c) Two pressure altimeters.
d) Both à’ & `c’ are correct.
239. While a pilot making an approach, following PAPI will be on or close to the approach if he/she sees:
a) The two units nearest the runway as red and two units farthest from the runway white.
b) The two units nearest the runway as white and two units farthest from the runway as red.
c) All units green.
d) None above is correct
29
240. While in holding aircraft will make turns at a bank angle of:
a) Five degrees.
b) Three degrees.
c) Twenty five degrees.
d) Thirty degrees.
241. Cockpit voice recorder shall be capable of retaining the information recorded during:
a) Whole period of operation.
b) Last 25 hours of operation.
c) Last thirty minutes of operation.
d) The last two years of operation.
242. Where in the AIP is a list of Location Indicators to be found?

(a) GEN
(b) COMMS
(c) AD
(d) AGA
243. The correct RTF call when you are ready to take off is:
a) Roger take-off b) Request take-off
c) Request departure clearance d) Ready for departure
244. What is the call sign of Area Control Center?

(a) Control
(b) Ground
(c) Approach
(d) Tower
245. What is the upper limit of Dhaka TMA?

(a) Flight level 460
(b) Flight level 060
(c) Flight level 145
(d) Flight level 450
246. AIP is divided into

(a) 4 parts.
(b) 8 parts.
(c) 6 parts.
(d) 3 parts.
247. PAPI consists of
(a) 4 pairs of lights.
(b) 2 pairs of lights.
(c) 3 pairs of lights.
248. Chittagong Control Zone is
(a) B type of air space
(b) C type of airspace.
(c) D type of airspace.
(d) A type of airspace.
249. Lower limit of Dhaka control zone is

(a) FL 060
(b) FL 055
(c) GND/Water.
(d) GND.
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250. Which class of airspace is not available in Bangladesh?

(a) A and F
(b) A and E
(c) A and F
(d) F and G

www.exambd.net
31
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh Question Bank(CPL AGK)
AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

No. question option_1 option_2 option_3 option_4
1 The temperature of the gases within the Be constant. Decrease. Increase. Follow Charles's Law.
cylinder of a four stroke engine during
the power stroke will: 1
2 The number of revolutions of the 6 4 2 8
crankshaft required to complete a full
cycle in a four stroke engine is: 2
3 The inlet valve opens before T.D.C in the Increase the pressure in the Reduce engine Allow the incoming Induce a greater amount
exhaust stroke to: 3 cylinder on completion of vibration. mixture to mix with a of mixture into the
the induction stroke. certain proportion of cylinder.
the exhaust gases.
4 The correct working cycle of a four stroke Exhaust, power, induction, Compression, power, Induction, power, Power, exhaust,
engine is: 4 compression. exhaust, induction. compression, exhaust. compression, induction.
5 Valve overlap is incorporated in the valve Improve volumetric Reduce wear on the Increase the engine's Prevent a weak cut when
timing of a piston engine to: 5 efficiency. big end bearings. compression ratio. the engine is accelerated
rapidly.
6 With an increase in the rotational speed Increases. Decreases. Remains constant. Increases up to ground
of a four stroke engine, the valve overlap: idle and thereafter
6 decreases.
7 In a normally aspirated engine, exhaust Decreases as an aircraft Increases as an aircraft Is affected by the Decreases as an aircraft
back pressure: 7 climbs and thereby reduces climbs and thereby power lever position. descends and thereby
the rate of decline of the reduces the engine improves the engine
engine power output power output. power output.
8 When the spark ignites the mixture: 8 The explosion pushes the The mixture changes Complete combustion Temperature and
piston down. from rich to weak occurs within 8 to 10 pressure increase within
forward of the flame microseconds. the cylinder.
front.
9 If the volume of a quantity of gas is Its pressure is approximately Its temperature Its mass is Its pressure is
halved during compression: doubled. remains constant. approximately approximately halved.
doubled.
10 The term "Indicated Mean Effective The maximum working The effective working The pressure The minimum working
Pressure" refers to: pressure in the engine pressure in the cylinder achieved during pressure applied to the
cylinder. during the power compression. piston during the cycle.
stroke.
11 The degrees of rotation to complete a full 180 360 720 80
cycle on a nine cylinder engine will be: 11
12 The firing interval of a six cylinder 180 120 60 360

horizontally opposed engine will be: 12
13 Which of the following statements would There will always be an odd Radial engines are The linear distance Radial engines cannot
be correct for a double banked radial number of cylinders. generally liquid cooled. from TDC to BDC will suffer from hydraulicing.
engine? 13 accommodate two
throws.
14 On a four cylinder engine with a total 7:1 8:1 24:1 6:1
volume of 9600cc, bore area of 100cm2
and a crank throw of 10cm, what would
the Compression Ratio be? 14
15 With an increase in outside air Increase. Decrease. stay the same. stay the same for all
temperature, specific fuel consumption temperatures up to and
will: 15 including 15°C and
thereafter increase.
16 Combustion, in a four stroke engine, A constant pressure. A constant A constant volume. A constant velocity.
theoretically occurs at: temperature.
17 In a convergent duct: The pressure and velocity The pressure and The temperature and The pressure and velocity
increase, the temperature temperature decrease, velocity increase, the remain constant, the
decreases. the velocity increases. pressure decreases. temperature decreases.
18 During the compression stroke: The temperature of the The volume of the The mass of the The mass of the mixture
gases remains constant. gases increases. mixture decreases. remains constant.
19 From Top Dead Centre (TDC) to Bottom The temperature of the The pressure of the The temperature of The density of the gas
Dead Centre (BDC) on the practical power gases rises for a short time gases remains the gases decreases remains constant.
stroke: then decreases. constant. from TDC to BDC.
20 In a divergent duct: The velocity and The temperature and The temperature and The velocity and
temperature increase, the pressure increase, the pressure decrease, the temperature decrease,
pressure decreases. velocity decreases. velocity increases. the pressure increases.
21 Ideally, maximum pressure is attained When combustion is At the end of the During the period of When combustion
within the cylinder: complete. compression stroke. valve overlap. temperature is at a
minimum.
22 The power output of an internal Is proportional to the Increases with Falls as the charge Is proportional to the
combustion engine: volume of mixture induced increased humidity. temperature falls. weight of the mixture
into the cylinder. induced into the cylinder.
23 During the period of valve overlap: The action of the exhaust The temperature of The action of the The crankshaft is moving
gases flowing past the the exhaust gases exhaust gases flowing past Bottom Dead
exhaust valve increases the increases the mass of out past the exhaust Centre.
pressure within the cylinder. incoming mixture. valve tends to reduce
the pressure in the
cylinder.
24 The power output of an internal Increasing the area of the Increasing the length Increasing the engine All of the above.
combustion engine can be increased by: cylinder. of the stroke. R.P.M.
25 Valve Overlap is: The number of degrees of The number of The distance the The number of degrees
camshaft rotation during degrees of crankshaft piston travels while of crankshaft rotation
which the inlet and exhaust movement during the inlet valve remains during which the inlet
valves are open at the same which the inlet and open after B.D.C. and exhaust valves are
time. exhaust valves are open at the same time
open at the same time. around B.D.C.
26 Excessive blue smoke from the exhaust of The mixture is too rich. The oil pressure relief The piston rings are The oil pressure is too
an engine that has been warmed up to valve has stuck in the worn or stuck in their low.
normal operating temperature may open position. grooves.
indicate that:
27 The camshaft of a horizontally opposed Twice engine speed. Engine speed. Twice magneto Half engine speed.
four stroke engine rotates at: speed.
28 A reduction gear is fitted: Between the camshaft and Between the pushrods Between the Between the connecting
the propeller. and the valves. crankshaft and rod and the crankshaft.
propeller.
29 Prolonged use of low R.P.M could cause Oil filter. spark plug. Carburetor. Oil pump.
contamination of the:
30 If the starter Engaged Light remains on shut the engine down Ignore it if it remains shut the engine down shut the engine down if
after engine start, you should: immediately. on for longer than 30 if the light remains on the light remains on for
seconds. for more than 30 more than 60 seconds.
seconds.
31 The crankshaft of an ìn line' four cylinder Rotates at half the speed of Will have the crank Allows a firing order Will not flex or twist.
aircraft engine: the camshaft. throws spaced 90 of 1-3-4-2.
degrees apart.
32 Two valve springs are fitted to each valve: To minimise camshaft wear. To allow a greater cam To prevent valve To reduce valve bounce.
rise. rotation.
33 Excessive valve clearance: Will prevent the valve Is eliminated when the Will cause the valve Will cause the valve to
closing completely. engine reaches working to open early and open late and close early.
temperature. close late.
34 Valve lead occurs when: The inlet valve opens before The exhaust valve The exhaust valve The inlet valve opens
bottom dead centre. opens before the inlet opens before top before top dead centre
valve. dead centre. and the exhaust valve
opens before bottom
dead centre.
35 Insufficient tappet clearance at the inlet The valve to open early and The valve to open late The mixture in that Misfiring.
valve would cause: close late. and close early. cylinder to be weak.
36 The length of the stroke is: Equal to the length of the Determined by the size Equivalent to twice Inversely proportional to
cylinder. of the piston. the crank throw. the engine power output.
37 Tappet clearance is measured between Push rod and the valve tip. Valve tip and the Valve spring and the Valve tip and the rocker
the: rocker pad. rocker pad. cover.
38 The number of revolutions required to 1 2 6 4
complete the induction and compression
stroke in a six cylinder four stroke engine
is:
39 The purpose of a crankcase breather is Maintain the oil tank Prevent distortion of Allow the oil to Prevent pressure building
to: pressure at atmospheric. the crankcase. breathe. up inside the crankcase.
40 Tappet clearance is provided in a piston Adjust the valve timing. Allow for expansion of Allow for Prevent valve bounce.
engine to: the valve gear as the manufacturing
engine warms up. tolerances.
41 Piston rings are manufactured from cast Because it has a negative To take advantage of Because of its self To take advantage of its
iron: coefficient of expansion. its extreme lubricating qualities. brittleness.
malleability.
42 Hydraulic valve tappets are used on some Eliminate valve bounce. Eliminate constant Give a more positive Give a more positive
engines to: valve adjustment and closing action. opening action.
checks.
43 The swept volume of a cylinder is: The area of the piston The area of the Half of the clearance The total volume + the
crown x the stroke. cylinder cross section x volume. piston volume.
the cylinder length.
44 The thermal efficiency of a piston engine Increasing the R.P.M. Increasing the Advancing the Increasing the
can be increased by: combustion chamber ignition point into the compression ratio.
volume. direction of rotation.
45 A normally aspirated engine is one which: Has four cylinders. Is not supercharged. Is never air cooled. Is all of the above.
46 The Compression Ratio of an engine may swept volume + clearance swept volume + Total volume - swept volume - (swept
be defined as the: volume - swept volume. clearance volume - clearance volume - volume + clearance
clearance volume. clearance volume. volume).
47 An engine has a total volume of 2,100 7:6 6:1 7:1 6:7
cm3 and a swept volume of 1,800 cm3.
Its compression ratio is:
48 Volumetric efficiency may be defined as: The ratio of the volume of The ratio of the The ratio of the The efficiency with which
the mixture drawn into the volume of air and the volume of one of the the air and fuel mix
cylinder during normal volume of fuel drawn cylinders to the together in the cylinder.
engine working, to the into the cylinder. volume of all of the
volume of the mixture cylinders in
which would be required to

fill the cylinder under
normal temperatures and
pressures.
49 The ratio of the power produced by an specific fuel consumption. Indicated horse power. Volumetric efficiency. Thermal efficiency.
engine to the power available in the fuel
is known as the:
50 Specific Fuel Consumption (S.F.C ) Is the inability of the Becomes greater as Is the weight of fuel Increases in proportion
internal combustion engine the efficiency of the used by an engine per to the thermal efficiency.
to use any fuel other than engine improves. unit horse power per
that specified by the unit time.
manufacturer.
51 A method of improving "Volumetric Valve overlap. The use of carburettor Weakening the To make the mixture
Efficiency" is: heat. mixture. richer.
52 The thermal efficiency is the ratio of:- thrust developed to energy useful work output to useful work done to output energy to input
supplied energy input heat energy added energy
53 The primary task of the lubrication is to: Reduce friction and Clean Cool the engine and Reduce friction and Reduce friction and Act
the engine Act as a hydraulic Reduce component as a hydraulic medium
medium wear
54 In a piston engine dry sump oil system, When the oil is leaving the For the temperature For the oil At the same point.
the oil temperature and pressure are sump. when the oil is leaving temperature when
sensed: the tank, and for the the oil is entering the
pressure when the oil tank and for the
is leaving the pressure pressure when it is
pump. entering the pressure
pump.
55 Oil returning to the oil tank is filtered by: The oil pressure filter. The oil tank filter. A micron size multi- The scavenge filter.
bore filters assembly.
56 The purpose of the crankcase breather is Maintain the pressure in the Ease the task of the oil Prevent pressure Prevent distortion of the
to: oil tank at atmospheric scraper ring. building up inside the crankcase.
pressure. crankcase.
57 The most probably cause of small Lack of oil. The pressure relief Air in the oil tank. The scavenge pump
fluctuations in the oil pressure would be: valve sticking. working at a greater
capacity than the
pressure pump.
58 The extra space in the oil tank is to cater Frothing and aeration of the Fire protection. The accommodation Anti-surge action.
for: oil as it passes through the of extra oil contents
engine. on long duration
flights.
59 The scavenge pump system in a A by-pass in case of A smaller capacity A bifurcated tertiary A larger capacity than the
lubrication system has: blockage. than the pressure drive system. pressure pump.
pump.
60 The engine is checked for dead cut at: A power check. slow running. Cruising RPM. Full throttle.
61 The distributor directs: Voltage from the primary Voltage from the Voltage from the Voltage from the
winding to the spark plug. secondary winding to magneto secondary secondary winding to the
the primary winding. winding to the spark contact breaker.
plug.
62 To obtain a spark across the gap between The circuit must have high The circuit must have The circuit must have The circuit must have an
two electrodes: EMF. high ohms. high current flow. impulse union.
63 The purpose of an ignition switch is: To control the primary To prevent To connect the To connect the battery to
circuit of the magneto. condensation. secondary coil to the the magneto.
distributor.
64 In a complex engine as RPM increases the Advanced. Retarded. Not altered. Only retarded.
ignition timing may be:
65 An impulse starter is a device to assist in A leaf spring. A coil spring to A special starting An explosive inserted in a
starting an engine which uses: increase temporarily battery which special tube.
the speed of rotation provides a sudden
of the magneto. impulse of electricity
to the plugs.
66 If the specific gravity of a fuel is known to 7001b 701b 7000lb 7,100 lb
be 0.7, 100 gallons of it will weigh:
67 A fuel grade which is used in typical D.T.D.585/100 D.E.R.D.2479 AVGAS 100 D.E.R.D.2484
aircraft engines is:
68 The "anti-knock" value of a fuel is its: Degree of resistance to pre- Resistance to adiabatic Ability to oppose Resistance to detonation.
ignition. combustion. burning.
69 The differences between AVGAS 100 and same same same Different Different same Different Different
AVGAS 100 LL are: Colour Anti-Knock
value
70 The Octane rating of a fuel is determined Methane and orthodentine. Heptane and iso Methane and iso Heptane and
by comparison with mixtures of: octane. octane. orthodentine.
71 The calorific value of a fuel is the: Kinetic energy contained Heat energy in the Heat energy required Heat energy required to
within it. fuel. to raise the raise the temperature of
temperature of the the fuel to its boiling
fuel to its boiling point from absolute zero.
point.
72 The octane rating of a particular grade of It will act as both 100 octane With a rich mixture it Its "anti-knock" With a weak mixture it
fuel is given as 100/130, this indicates and 130 octane fuel at take will act as 100 octanes, qualities are identical will act as 100 octane,
that: off power settings. and with a weak to iso-octane. and with a rich mixture it
mixture it will act as will act as a 130 octane
130 octanes. fuel.
73 Tetra ethyl lead is added to some aviation Decrease its octane rating. Decrease the risk of Increase its calorific Increase its specific
fuel to: detonation. value. gravity.
74 If the vent pipe of an aircraft's fuel tank The pressure in the tank to The pressure in the The evaporation rate The fuel pressure at the
becomes blocked, it will cause: fall when fuel is used. tank to rise when fuel of the fuel to decrease carburettor to rise.
is used. as fuel is used from
the tank.
75 Detonation is liable to occur in the With an over rich mixture at With a weak mixture With a rich mixture at At very low engine
cylinders: idle power. and high cylinder head high power settings. speed.
temperature.
76 Pre-ignition refers to the condition when: A rich mixture is ignited by The spark plug ignites The mixture is ignited The mixture burns in the
the spark plug. the mixture too early. by abnormal inlet manifold.
conditions within the
cylinder before the
normal ignition point.
77 An exhaust gas temperature gauge is 12v DC 115v AC 28v DC A thermocouple which
powered by: generates its own voltage
78 Flame Rate is the term used to describe The mixture burns within The combustion Peroxide forms within Fulminates form with the
the speed at which: the cylinder. pressure rises within the cylinder. cylinder.
the cylinder.
79 The colour of 100 / 130 grade low lead Green. Blue. Red. straw yellow.
fuel is:
80 Weakening the mixture below the best Decrease. Increase initially, but Increase. Be unaffected by altitude
fuel/air ratio will cause the engine power decrease below take increase.
to: off power.
81 For maximum endurance the mixture Weak. The chemically correct Between rich and Rich.
control should be set to: state. weak.
82 An air/fuel ratio of 9:1 would be Chemically correct. Extravagant. Rich. Weak.
considered:
83 Because of the reduction in the density of The mixture control must be The throttle must The mixture must be The octane rating of the
the atmosphere associated with an moved towards the weak close progressively to progressively richened fuel must be increased.
increase in altitude: position. maintain the best to compensate for the
air/fuel ratio. power loss.
84 A chemically correct mixture is: 15:1 (fuel : air) 15:1 (air: fuel) 13:1 (fuel : air) 13:1 (air: fuel)
85 While weakening the mixture from the Increase Decrease Decrease then Increase then decrease
chemically correct mixture the EGT will increase

86 Which of the following mixtures 14:1 (air : fuel) 14:1 (fuel: air) 15:1 (fuel : air) 15:1 (air: fuel)
theoretically would produce the
maximum RPM?
87 A weak mixture is used for which of the take off climbing engine starting cruising
following?
88 While using a weak mixture which of the The charge would be cooled The charge would burn The ignition may have The ignition may have to
following would be an incorrect due to a larger proportion of slower due to a larger to be advanced. be retarded.
statement? Nitrogen in the cylinder. proportion of Nitrogen
in the cylinder.
89 While using a rich mixture which of the The charge would burn All of the fuel would All of the oxygen Cylinder head
following would be a correct statement? slower. be used during would be used during temperature increases
combustion. combustion. while richening further.
90 The pressure in the induction manifold of Remains constant as the Decreases as the Initially increases as Increases as the throttle
a normally aspirated engine: throttle is opened. throttle is opened. the throttle is opened is opened.
but decreases after
approximately the half
open position.
91 The purpose of an accelerator pump is to: Assist in the atomization of Prevent a rich cut Prevent dissociation Prevent a weak cut when
the fuel before it leaves the when the throttle lever and detonation. the throttle lever is
discharge nozzle. is advanced rapidly. advanced rapidly.
92 The fuel flow to a piston engine will vary The R.P.M. and the throttle The R.P.M., the The R.P.M. and the The R.P.M. only.
according to: position only. throttle position and mixture setting only.
the mixture setting.
93 The primary function of a diffuser in a Control the mixture strength Vent air from the float Emulsify the fuel Enable adjustment of the
carburettor is to: over part of the engine chamber. during engine engine slow running
speed range. acceleration. speed.
94 For an aircraft with a fixed pitch Low at low speed, high at High at low speed, low Constant at all Low at both low and high
propeller, propeller efficiency will be: high speed. at high speed. speeds. speed, and highest at
cruising speed.
95 The blade angle of a fixed pitch propeller During take off. During the cruise. At the maximum level For landing.
would be set to give the optimum angle: flight speed.
96 Propeller torque results from the forces Caused by the airflow, giving Caused by centrifugal Caused by the Caused by centrifugal
on the propeller: a moment around the effect, giving a moment airflow, giving a effect, giving a moment
propeller's longitudinal axis. around the propellers' moment around the around the aircraft's
longitudinal axis. aircraft's longitudinal longitudinal axis.
axis.
97 The thrust force of a propeller producing Tends to bend the propeller Tends to bend the Tends to bend the Causes a tension load in
forward thrust: tips forward. propeller tips propeller in its plane the propeller.
backward. of rotation.
98 A propeller which is windmilling: Rotates the engine in the Rotates the engine in Rotates the engine in Rotates the engine in the
normal direction and gives reverse and gives drag. reverse and gives normal direction and
some thrust. some thrust. gives drag.
99 The alpha range of a variable pitch Feather and flight fine pitch Feather and ground Flight fine pitch stop Ground fine pitch and
propeller is between: stop. fine pitch stop. and reverse stop. reverse stop.
100 When the CSU is running "on speed": The governor weight The CSU spring force The governor weight The supply of oil to the
centrifugal force balances balances the oil centrifugal force CSU is shut off.
the CSU spring force. pressure. balances the oil
pressure.
101 The purpose of the Centrifugal feathering CTM turning the propeller to The propeller from The propeller from The propeller from
latch on a single acting propeller is to fine pitches. accidentally feathering feathering on shut overspeeding if the flight
prevent: at high rpm. down. fine pitch stop fails to
reset.
102 If it is required to increase the rpm of a Forward, the governor Backward, the Forwards, the Forwards, the governor
variable pitch propeller without moving weights move inwards, governor weights move governor weights weights move outwards,
the power lever, the propeller lever must blade angle increases. outwards, blade angle move inwards, blade blade angle decreases.
be moved: decreases. angle decreases.
103 A propeller blade is twisted along its To compensate for the To maintain a constant To increase the thrust To maintain constant
length: Centrifugal Twisting angle of attack from given by the tip. thrust from root to tip.
Moment. root to tip of the blade.
104 The greatest stress on a rotating At the tip. At about 75% of the At the mid point. At the root.
propeller occurs: length.
105 An Àuto - Feathering' system senses: Low rpm. Decreasing rpm. High torque. Low torque.
106 Propellers may have an àvoid' range of To avoid resonance peaks To avoid excessive Because the engine To avoid the possibility of
rpm: which could lead to fatigue propeller noise. does not run detonation occurring in
damage to the propeller. efficiently in that rpm the engine.
range.
107 The Manifold Pressure Gauge fitted to a The absolute pressure in the The differential The ratio between The pressure upstream of
supercharged engine measures: induction manifold. pressure across the the atmospheric the throttle valve.
supercharger pressure and the cam
compressor. rise at the
supercharger inlet.
108 The use of a turbo-charger on an engine Improve the exhaust Raise the volumetric Cause an automatic Cause an automatic rise
will: scavenging efficiency. efficiency of the rise in the engine in engine power as
engine. R.P.M. as altitude is altitude is gained.
gained.
109 The power increase that occurs with The reduced weight of The decreasing density The reducing The increasing charge
initial increase in altitude when an engine mixture being passed to the of the atmosphere. exhausts back temperature.
has an internal supercharger fitted, is due engine. pressure.
to: supercharger fitted, is due to:
110 The speed of the turbine of a turbo- The diversion of exhaust Controlling the exit of The use of a variable An automatic gearbox
charger is controlled by: gases. the exhaust gas passing controller. positioned between the
out of the eye of the turbine and the impeller.
impeller.
111 The turbo-charger bearing is lubricated Its own internal self The engine oil. A total loss system. A tapping in the scavenge
and cooled by: contained oil system. oil system.
112 The automatic boost pressure control Atmospheric pressure. Carburettor inlet Boost pressure. Cabin pressure
capsules are made sensitive to: pressure. differential.
113 Boost pressure is the: Inlet manifold pressure in Absolute pressure in Absolute pressure in Inlet manifold pressure in
pounds per square inch the inlet manifold the inlet manifold pounds per square inch
above or below standard measured in inches of measured in millibars. above or below
mean sea level pressure. mercury. atmospheric pressure.
114 The purpose of an intercooler is: To minimise the risk of To increase the To decrease the To prevent overheating
detonation. volume of the charge. density of the charge. of the exhaust manifold.
115 Air enters the compressor of a turbo- At the tip and passes across At the diffuser and At the eye and passes At the eye and passes
supercharger: the impeller blades to exit at exits at the impeller. across the diffuser across the impeller
the eye. blades before exiting blades to exit at the tip.
at the impeller tip.
116 The waste gate is operated by: The automatic boost control The waste gate Inlet manifold Exhaust gas temperature.
unit. actuator. pressure.
117 A high performance supercharger may Between the supercharger At the carburettor Between each Between the engine
require an intercooler to be placed: and the inlet valve. intake. cylinder. block and the exhaust
manifold.
118 A turbo-charger's rotational speed is Throttling the exhaust inlet The position of the The density of the air Bleeding off excess
determined by: to the turbine. throttle valve. at the compressor exhaust pressure.
intake.
119 Maximum Continuous Power (M.C.P ) is: Unrestricted, but only if The maximum power Given a 5 minute Unrestricted.
economical cruising power the engine will give at limitation.
is set. any time.
120 The type of fuel used in a turbo-charged AVTUR. AVGAS. AVTAG. AVPIN.
engine would be:
121 When the air or the mixture passes Kinetic to pressure. Heat to potential. Mechanical to heat. Potential to kinetic.
through the diffuser shroud, the energy
conversion is from:
122 The waste gate fitted to a turbo-charger The mixture that enters the The atmosphere that The exhaust gas that The exhaust gas that
regulates the quantity of: induction manifold. can enter the will by-pass the leaves the compressor.
compressor. turbine.
123 The response of a turbo-charged engine Is initially better, but Is always better. Is worse. Is identical.
to rapid throttle opening, when exhaust back pressure will
compared to a normally aspirated engine: cause a flat spot.
124 An internal supercharger is one which: Is driven by exhaust gases. Compresses the air. Compresses the Compresses the mixture.
exhaust gases.
125 To prevent large acceleration loads on Prohibit "slam" acceleration. Incorporate a spring Rely on the inertia Use a Vernier drive
the compressor and the drive shaft of an drive mechanism in the absorbing qualities of coupling.
internal supercharger, it is usual to: driving gears. the exhaust gases.
126 Maintaining a constant manifold pressure The exhaust gas The waste gate to The waste gate to The diffuser rotational
in a turbo-charged engine during the temperature to decrease open. progressively close. speed to increase.
climb will cause: due to a decrease in exhaust
back pressure.
127 A turbo-charger which is designed to An altitude-boosted turbo- A turbo-supercharger. An internal A ground boosted turbo-
maintain sea level pressure at altitude is charger. supercharger. charger.
termed:
128 "static Boost" is the manifold pressure The engine is stopped. The engine is running The engine is running The manifold gauge
indicated on the boost pressure gauge at the manufacturer's at its rated power. needle is opposite the
when: recommended idle lubber line.
speed.
129 The rotational speed of a turbo-charger is Engine R.P.M. and waste Engine R.P.M. only. Throttle position only. Propeller pitch and
dependant upon: gate position. altitude.
130 The type of compressor normally used in An axial compressor. A Rootes compressor. A centrifugal A reciprocating thrunge
a supercharger is: compressor. compressor.
131 The position of the waste gate in a turbo- In the inlet manifold. Downstream of the In parallel with the In parallel with the
charged engine is: turbine. turbine. compressor.
132 The compressor output of a turbo- The same as the manifold Greater than the sometimes greater, Less than manifold
charger unit is: pressure. manifold pressure. sometimes less than pressure.
the manifold pressure.
133 The type of compressor normally fitted to Axially. Co-axially. In the diffuser only. Centrifugally.
turbo-chargers and superchargers would
compress the air:
134 To maintain the Rated Boost of a The throttle valve must be The waste gate must The waste gate must The throttle valve must
supercharged engine while reducing the opened. be closed. be opened. be closed.
R.P.M :
135 The Automatic Boost Control Unit The Boost Control Lever. The waste gate. The throttle butterfly. The R.P.M. gauge and the
operates: manifold pressure gauge.

136 With an increase of compressor discharge Decrease. Remain constant. Initially increase, but Increase.
pressure, the fuel flow will: subsequently
decrease.
137 The boost pressure of a turbo-charged Adjusting the throttle Varying the speed of The A.B.C. Changing engine R.P.M.
engine is controlled by: position. the turbo-charger.
138 The thrust horse power is related to THP = (ThrustxMPH)/350 THP = (ThrustxMPH)/3 THP = THP = (ThrustxMPH)/750
forward speed as:- 75 (ThrustxMPH)/550
139 Prior to starting a piston aero engine (in Check that the pilot's flying No further checks are Obtain start-up Carry out a check for
line inverted) and after ensuring that the licence is still in-date. necessary. permission from the engine hydraulicing.
ignition is "OFF", which check may have Tower.
to be carried out?
140 Immediately an engine has started up, Oil pressure. Battery volts. Gyro erection. Vacuum.
what is the first instrument reading to be
checked?
141 should over-priming cause a fire to start Evacuate the aircraft and shut down the engine. Keep the engine select weak mixture on
in the engine's carburettor during make a "flash" call to the The fire will extinguish turning on the starter the mixture control and
starting, what is the best immediate airport fire services. itself. motor and select "idle rapidly increase RPM.
action? cut-off'. The fire
should be drawn
through the engine.
142 When is "static Boost" noted? Before engine start. Just after engine start, It is permanently It must be calculated
while warming up. marked on the boost from the airfield QNH.
gauge.
143 If, during a "Mag drop" check the engine Immediately switch to select the other The engine must be Decrease RPM to idle for
cuts, what action must be taken? "Both" and recheck. magneto, increase RPM stopped. no more than 1 minute.
to burn off the plug Reselect reference RPM
fouling and recheck. and recheck.
144 What are the main reasons to exercise a In order that a pilot may To pre-set the To check that a full To replace the cold oil in
propeller from fine to coarse pitch after practise propeller control feathering signal range of control is the pitch change
warm-up? technique before take-off. before take-off, in case available at take-off mechanism and check
of an emergency. boost. RPM control.
145 Why, when climbing, is the engine A low temperature will be Decreasing air density A low engine Use of high power at
temperature monitored carefully? the only sign that pre- will reduce the engine temperature can give relatively low speed can
ignition is occurring. cooling system's rise to poor allow engine
efficiency. atomization of fuel, temperature to creep up.
and thus adversely
146 What is the main danger from using a Low cylinder head Low fuel pressure. Pre-ignition. Detonation.
weak mixture at a high power setting? temperature.

147 What problem is prevented by the use of spark plug fouling. Oil cooler coring. Very high rate of Over high temperatures
the correct running down procedure? piston ring wear. on next start-up.
148 What are the two main symptoms of an Loss of power and a drop in Gain in power and a Loss of power and a Gain in power and a rise
excessively rich mixture? cylinder head temperature. drop in cylinder head rise in cylinder head in cylinder head
temperature. temperature. temperature.
149 Select the correct order of best High by-pass ratio turbo jet, Low by-pass ratio Pure turbojet, Turbo- Turbo-prop, High by-pass
propulsive efficiency, from low to high Low by-pass ratio turbojet, turbojet, Pure turbojet, prop, High by-pass ratio turbojet, Low by-
airspeed Pure turbojet, Turbo-prop. Turbo-prop, High by- ratio turbojet, Low by- pass ratio turbojet, Pure
pass ratio turbojet. pass ratio turbojet. turbo jet.
150 In a turbo-fan engine, the fan speed is A reduction gear. A waste gate. The turbine. Varying the pitch.
controlled by:
151 Modular construction: Is only used on turbo-prop Cannot be used on Has a weight saving Enables malfunctioning
engines. high ratio engines. function. sections of the engine to
be changed without
changing the whole
engine.
152 On a cold day, the idle speed of a gas Is unaffected by Will increase. Will decrease. Will increase by no more
turbine engine which has no fuel control temperature. than 4%.
unit compensation:
153 The Gas Turbine Engine uses the principle Newton's Third Law of Creating thrust equal Expelling air at the The fluid flywheel.
of: motion. to the weight of the same speed as that of
aircraft. the aircraft.
154 In a divergent duct: The pressure decreases and The pressure, velocity The pressure The pressure decreases,
the temperature and and temperature temperature increases the temperature
velocity increases. increases. and the velocity increases and the
decreases. velocity remains
constant.
155 A By-Pass Ratio of 5:1 means that: 5 pounds of air is by-passed 5 pounds of goes 10 pounds of air goes 5 pounds of air is by-
for every 10 pounds through the H.P. through the by-pass passed for every 1 pound
entering the engine intake. compressor for every for every 5 pounds that goes through the
10 pounds that enters that enters the intake. hot core of the engine.
the intake.
156 The fan in a ducted fan engine, is driven The high pressure turbine. The rearmost turbine. The intermediate All of the above.
by: pressure turbine.
157 The majority of the thrust of a: Turbo-fan engine comes Turbo-prop engine Turbo-shaft engine Turbo-fan engine comes
from the turbine exhaust. comes from the turbine comes from the free from the by-pass air.
exhaust. power turbine
exhaust.
158 During the Brayton cycle, combustion Continuously. Once every revolution. Once every other Only during the start
takes place: revolution. cycle.
159 Thrust produced by a turbine engine: increase with temperature increase with decrease with decrease with
and decrease with pressure temperature and also temperature and temperature and also
increase with pressure decrease with increase with pressure
pressure
160 The purpose of the holes in the allow secondary cooling air allow the primary to propagate the both (a) and b) are
combustion chamber is to : for mixing cooling air for initial flame from one can to correct
ignition other
161 The thrust of an engine is increased by water decreases air density water increases air alcohol increases alcohol decreases
injecting water/methanol because:- density freezing point freezing point
162 In a high by-pass engine with a `pitot' same greater less 14.7psi
intake, with the engine running and the
brakes on, what will P1 be in relation to
PO?
163 What effect will severe icing in the intake The axial velocity of the air The axial velocity of The axial velocity of The axial velocity of the
have on a high by-pass engine? will increase with a the air will decrease the air will decrease air will increase with an
reduction in the angle of with a reduction in the with an increase in the increase in the angle of
attack of the airflow with angle of attack of the angle that the attack of the airflow with
the compressor blades and a airflow with the resultant airflow the compressor blades
possible stall. compressor blades and forms with the and a possible stall.
a possible stall. compressor blades
chord line and a
possible stall.
164 Which of the following would be classed Only carry out engine runs Fit debris guards Only do ground runs Only do ground runs on
as prudent when carrying out Engine with a tail wind when running on Tarmac concrete
Ground Runs?
165 Secondary air inlet doors are utilised: When an aircraft is in the When the aircraft is When the rpm of the When the rpm of the
cruise near its maximum IAS. engine is low while engine is high when
stationary. stationary.
166 The purpose of an air inlet is to provide a turbulent free face low turbulent face low turbulent free rear turbulent free face high
relatively supply of air to the of the pressure pressure low pressure pressure
compressor
167 The effect on EPR with an iced up P1 EPR would decrease. No change. EPR would EPR would increase.
probe with the RPM of the engine momentarily decrease
increasing then increase.
168 The compressor idling speed of a gas At higher ambient With higher than sea At altitudes lower At lower ambient
turbine engine will increase: temperature. level density. than sea level. temperature.
169 The pressure rise across each stage of an Greater than that of a Between 3 and 5 to Twice the inlet Between 1.1 and 1.2 to
axial flow compressor is: centrifugal compressor. one. pressure. one.
170 As air passes through an axial flow The impeller and the The rotor blades only. Both the rotor blades The stator vanes only.
compressor, a pressure rise takes place diffuser. and the stator vanes.
in:
171 Shrouding of stator blade tips is designed Prevent tip turbulence. Ensure adequate Minimise vibration. Prevent tip losses.
to: cooling.
172 The attachment of blades to the Allows slight movement to Is rigid. Prevents them being Allows slight movement
compressor disc: relieve stress concentration. contaminated by the because of the different
atmosphere. expansion rates of the
blades and the disc which
would otherwise cause
center line closure.
173 A compressor blade will stall when: The air axial velocity and The mass air flow and The speed of the gas The compression ratio
rotational speed speed relationship is flow through the exceeds 10 to 1.
relationship is disturbed. constant. turbine falls below 0.4
Mach.
174 Cascade vanes are fitted in which part of The air inlet The outlet elbow The impeller The diffuser
the centrifugal compressor?
175 The pressure rise across a centrifugal Occurs in the impeller only. Occurs in the diffuser Is shared almost Is always greater in the
compressor: only. equally by the diffuser than in the
impeller and the impeller.
diffuser.
176 The major disadvantage of a centrifugal It cannot cope with a large It cannot be used for a A larger turbine must It is more prone to
compressor is that: mass flow of air. turbojet engine. be used. damage than the axial
flow compressor
177 The type of compressor used to create Positive displacement. Axial. Centrifugal. Constant volume.
radial airflow would be:
178 An advantage of a centrifugal compressor Dynamically balanced. More robust and is Unaffected by Able to handle a larger
is that it is: easier to develop and turbulence. mass of air than an axial
manufacture. flow compressor.
179 Air passing through a convergent duct A decrease in temperature An increase in An increase in Adiabatic expansion.
experiences: and pressure with an temperature and temperature and
increase in velocity. velocity with a pressure with a
decrease in pressure. velocity decrease.
180 A compressor stall: Is overcome by increasing Is a complete May only affect one Is mechanical failure of
the fuel flow. breakdown of the stage or several stages the compressor.
airflow through the of a compressor.

compressor.
181 The occurrence of compressor stalls is Bleed valves. Nozzle guide vanes. Swirl vanes. Cascade vanes.
limited by:
182 To prevent compressor stall at the rear of At the rear stages of the At the front stages of At the mid stages of At the intake of the
the compressor, bleed valves must be compressor. the compressor. the compressor. engine.
positioned:
183 One indication that a compressor bleed Possible compressor stall. An inability to achieve That bleed air is That the engine will
valve has stuck closed at low R P M is: full power. reduced. stop.
184 Bleeding compressor air for anti-icing will An increase in T.G.T., a A decrease in T.G.T., An increase in R.P.M. An increase in R.P.M.
cause: decrease in thrust and an an increase in thrust and fuel flow. and a decrease in fuel
increase in S.F.C. and a decrease in S.F.C. flow.
185 Compressor blades are twisted from root To decrease the pressure. To maintain a correct To reduce the relative To give added rigidity to
to tip: angle of attack. airflow. the blade structure.
186 A stall in a gas turbine engine is most High Front High Back Low Back Low Front
likely to occur with :Pressure Ratio
Location in Compressor
187 The low pressure compressor of a high Is driven by the high Rotates faster than Is always a centrifugal Is driven by the rearmost
ratio by-pass engine: pressure turbine. the high-pressure compressor. turbine.
compressor.
188 The pressure energy of air flow through a converted to kinetic energy converted to heat unchanged at nozzle increased at nozzle guide
gas turbine engine will be:- at nozzle guide vanes energy at nozzle guide guide vanes vanes
vanes
189 The disadvantage of an axial flow high Starting power is less expensive and light weight large frontal area
compressor is:- required complex
190 The purpose of the inlet guide vanes in to increase the pressure of to circulate hot air to increase the none of the above is
front of the compressor is :- the gases before entering through IGV to prevent pressure of the gases correct
the compressor ice formation and direct it to the
face of the
compressor.
191 The principle of operation of a decreasing, incoming air imparting KE to the imparting KE of all the above are correct
compressor of turbine engine is:- velocity to increase incoming air then incoming air
change to pressure
energy
192 One advantage of an annular combustion The diameter of the engine There is unrestricted There are no flame The air casing area is
chamber system is that: is reduced. airflow at maximum propagation greater.
r.p.m. problems.
193 The combustion chamber drain valve is By combustion chamber gas By a return spring. By 12th stage During a blow out cycle.
closed: pressure. compressor air

pressure.
194 It is necessary to have a combustion drain To prevent pressure build To allow moisture To allow any unburnt To prevent the igniters
system: up in the combustion content in the fuel to fuel to drain after shut becoming wetted by
chamber. drain away. down or a wet start. excess fuel.
195 A re-light envelope: Shows the flame stability Shows airspeed and Shows fuel / air Contains the in flight re-
limits. altitude limitations for mixture limitations for start igniter plugs.
an in-flight restart. an in-flight restart.
196 The air entering the combustion Is syphoned off for airframe Is used only for Is used to reduce the Is used to cool both the
chamber is divided; a small percentage is anti-icing purposes. cooling the gases oil temperature and gases exiting the
used in combustion, the rest: before they exit the cool the turbine chamber and the walls of
combustion chamber. blades. the air casing.
197 One of the following statement is not carbon formation must be there must be all air passing there must be high
true for requirement of the combustion kept to a minimum minimum loss of through the take part combustion efficiency
chamber :- temperature and in combustion
pressure throughout
the chamber
198 At an idle or low power condition, the Partially open. Fully open. Closed. Half open.
turbo-charger waste gate is normally:
199 The term "Indicated Mean Effective The maximum working The effective working The pressure The minimum working
Pressure" refers to: 10 pressure in the engine pressure in the cylinder achieved during pressure applied to the
cylinder. during the power compression. piston during the cycle.
stroke.
200 The degrees of rotation to complete a full 180 360 720 80

cycle on a nine cylinder engine will be: 11
201 The principle of operation of fire wire is Positive coefficient of Positive coefficient of Positive coefficient of Positive coefficient of
impedance, negative resistance, negative inductance, negative capacitance, negative
coefficient of inductance coefficient of coefficient of coefficient of resistance
capacitance impedance
202 What type of fire extinguisher would be foam water dry powder sand
used on a propane fire
203 On what principle do smoke detectors Resistance and capacitance Ionisation and Optical and Inductance and light
work impedance ionisation diffraction
204 An ion detector detects smoke and fire smoke overheat light
205 If an artificial feel unit is fitted it would be In parallel with the primary In series with the In series with the In parallel with the
connected controls primary controls secondary controls secondary controls
206 In a twin jet fuel system what is the Equally distribute the fuel Prevent pump Feed fuel to the Control the amount of
function of a feeder box to each tank during cavitation volumetric top-off fuel remaining during
refueling unit fuel dumping
207 The fuel tanks of a modern passenger Gravity Fuel is sucked in by Fuel is pumped in by The VTO system
airliner are filled by the aircraft pumps the fuel truck
208 The purpose of a refueling volumetric top To keep the feeder box full To close the fuelling To close the surge To close the tank vent
off unit (VTO) is: of fuel at all times valve when the tank is check valves in the system when the tank is
full outboard tanks to full
keep the tank full until
the centre tank fuel
has been used
209 Fuel tank booster pumps are: - Spur gear pumps - high Centrifugal pumps - Spur gear pumps - Centrifugal pumps - Low
pressure high pressure low pressure pressure
210 The advantage of a float type fuel Reads fuel quantity by mass Compensates for Simple & measuring Simple & Reads fuel
gauging system is & Compensates for change variations of SG & volume by varying quantity by mass
of aircraft attitude Reads fuel quantity by resistance.
mass
211 A magneto is switched off by Open circuiting the primary Grounding the Open circuiting the Grounding the primary
circuit secondary circuit secondary circuit circuit
212 EPR is measured by the ratio of Turbine pressure to High pressure Low pressure exhaust pressure to low
combustion chamber inlet compressor inlet compressor inlet pressure compressor
pressure pressure to exhaust pressure to high inlet pressure
pressure pressure compressor
outlet pressure
213 In a bootstrap air conditioning system goes through the primary goes through the goes through the goes through the
what is the first thing the air does? heat exchanger, turbine and compressor, turbine, turbine, compressor compressor, secondary
compressor secondary heat and secondary heat heat exchanger, turbine
exchanger exchanger
214 How are the loads on an aircraft busbar are in series so that current are in parallel so that are in parallel so that are in series so that
connected reduces through the busbar voltage reduces current reduces voltage reduces through
as loads are switched off through the busbar as through the busbar as the busbar as loads are
loads are switched off loads are switched off switched off
215 How are escape slides inflated Fed from bleed air system Self contained gas Hand pumped by Using the oral inflation
bottle cabin crew adaptor
216 If a aircraft has a maximum seating One on the flight deck only One on the flight deck Two on the flight One on the flight deck
configuration of less than 200 but more and one in the deck and one in the and two in the passenger
than 9 a crash axe or crowbar must be passenger cabin fwd cargo hold cabin
carried
217 In a centrifugal compressor The air enters the eye The air enters the The air enters the The air enters the
tangentially and leaves the periphery axially and eye radially and leaves impeller axially at the eye
periphery axially leaves the eye the tip tangentially and leaves at the
tangentially periphery tangentially.
218 The type of smoke detection system optical and ionisation chemical electrical magnetic
fitted to aircraft is
219 Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurised by Ram air in flight only Separate helium gas Air from Pneumatic Engine bleed air from
system system or bleed air turbine engine
supply system
220 The purpose of a hydraulic fuse is to allow the parking brake to allow a reduced prevent over- prevent loss of system
remain on overnight if pressure to the wheel pressurising the fluid if the pipeline to a
required brake system to avoid reservoir as altitude brake unit should rupture
locking the wheels increases
221 In the event that an emergency decent The outward relief valve The outflow valve will The inward relief The safety valve will
causes the cabin pressure to decrease will open close valve will open close
below ambient pressure
222 In a bleed air anti icing system the areas the whole of the wing wing leading edge wing leading edges trailing edge flaps
that are heated are slats and flaps and slats
223 If an aircraft maximum operating altitude The maximum positive The maximum The maximum The maximum zero fuel
is limited by the pressure cabin, this limit pressure differential at positive pressure number of mass at maximum
is due to maximum operating ceiling differential at pressurisation cycles pressure altitude
maximum cabin
altitude
224 An underinflated tyre on a dry runway Increases wear on the Increases wear on the Increases viscous Will cause the tyre
shoulder crown aquaplaning speed temperature to reduce
225 Kreuger flaps are positioned Towards the wing tip At the wing inner Along the whole At the wing trailing edge
leading edge leading edge
226 What are flaperons Combined spoiler and flap Combined elevators Combined ailerons Combined flap and
and flaps and elevators ailerons
227 What is the purpose of inboard ailerons To reduce wing bending at To reduce wing twist To reduce wing Both à’ `b’ are correct
high speed at high speed bending at low speed
228 What is the purpose of trim tabs To reduce stick forces in To reduce stick To increase control To reduce control
manoeuvres holding forces to zero effectiveness effectiveness
229 Smoke hoods protect full face and provide a mouth and nose and full face and provide mouth and nose and
continuous flow of oxygen provide a continuous oxygen on demand provide oxygen on
flow of oxygen demand
230 oxygen supplied to the flight deck is Gaseous, diluted with Chemically generated Gaseous, diluted Chemically generated,
ambient air if required and diluted with cabin with cabin /cockpit air diluted with ambient air
air if required if required if required

231 If during pressurised flight the outflow Skin will be overstressed Safety valve opens The inward relief ECS packs are
valve closes fully due to a fault in the and could rupture. when the differential valve will open to automatically closed
pressure controller the: pressure reaches prevent excessive down.
structural max diff negative differential.
232 In a fan jet engine the bypass ratio is internal mass airflow external mass airflow internal mass airflow mass fuel flow divided
divided by external mass divided by internal divided by mass fuel by mass fuel flow
airflow mass airflow flow
233 The thrust reverser light illuminates on Thrust reverser doors have Thrust reverser doors Thrust reverser doors Thrust reverser doors
the flight deck annunciator when the moved to the reverse thrust have been selected but are locked are unlocked
position the doors haven't
moved
234 In a four stroke engine, when the piston Closed Closed Open Open Open Closed Closed Open
is at BDC at the end of the power stroke
the position of the valves is
Inlet Exhaust
235 What is the effect on EGT and EPR if a Increase, increase Decrease, decrease Decrease, increase Increase, decrease
bleed valve is opened
236 In a modern turbofan engine - where is In the Fuel tank In LP fuel supply In HP fuel supply Both b and c are correct
fuel flow measured ? system of Engine system of Engine
237 Where is torque measured in a turboprop Accessory gearbox Reduction gearbox At the turbine At the constant speed
engine unit oil pump
238 Propeller blade angle is The angle between the The angle between Dependent upon The difference between
blade chord and the plane the relative airflow and RPM and TAS effective pitch and
of rotation the chord geometric pitch
239 Why is a propeller blade twisted To reduce the thrust at the To prevent the blade To reduce the tip To even out the thrust
root of the blade from fully feathering speed force along the length of
the blade
240 For calculating resistances in parallel the 1/RT = 1/R1 + 1/R2 - 1/R3 RT =R1 +R2 +R3 RT = R1xR2xR3 1/RT = 1/R1 + 1/R2 +
formula is 1/R3
241 A hot busbar is one that Supplies galley power Is permanently Carries all of the non Is connected to the
connected to the essential loads battery in an emergency
battery
242 In an AC distribution system what is the Maintains constant Connects the load Controls generator Connects a generator
purpose of the GCB frequency busbar to the field excitation output to its load busbar
synchronizing busbar
243 An aircraft which uses DC as the primary CSDU rectifier Inverter TRU
source of power, AC for the instruments
may be obtained from:

244 The state of charge of an aircraft battery On load Off load With the battery By monitoring the
on an aircraft with a voltmeter would be negative terminal electrolyte resistance
checked disconnected
245 In a paralleled AC distribution system Torque from the CSDU Field excitation from Synchronising circuits A potentiometer on the
what regulates the real load (CSD) the voltage regulator in the BTB Flight Engineers panel
246 If the oil temperature gauge of the CSD is Throttle back and allow to Auto disconnect Manually disconnect Disconnect, then when
in the red what would action is required cool down and reconnect on the cooled reconnect
ground
247 What is a transistorised static inverter in Convert AC to DC Provide field Provide AC for To supply power to the
a DC circuit used for excitation current instruments emergency lights
248 Incorrect bonding of the aircraft structure Corrosion at skin joints CB trips Static on the radio VOR interference
could cause
249 The frequency of an AC generator is The RPM of the rotor The number of poles The RPM and The number of poles in
dependent upon in the rotor number of poles in the the rotor and the number
rotor of phase windings in the
stator.
250 With an almost discharged battery there a decrease of voltage with increase of current decrease of current increase of voltage with
will be: increasing load with decrease of with increasing load increasing load
voltage
251 When is an engine overheat firewire When an overheat is When an overheat When an overheat is When an overheat
system activated detected all along the length affects one detector detected all along the affects both detector
of both firewire loops loop at a point length of one firewire loops at a point
anywhere along its loop anywhere along their
length length.
252 In an air cycle air conditioning system To re-circulate air through To draw cooling air To blow air into the To draw cooling air over
what is the function of the ground- the mix manifold over the turbine compressor the heat exchangers
cooling fan
253 How do you control power in a jet engine By controlling the mixture By controlling the fuel By controlling the By controlling the bleed
ratio flow airflow valves
254 In a normally aspirated piston engine Between 0°C and -10°C At more than + 10°C Only at less than + Only above 5000 ft
carburettor icing can occur: 10°C if there is visible
moisture
255 In a gas turbine engine fuel system why is To prevent `waxing' To help vaporization To prevent water in To prevent the fuel from
the fuel heater before the filter of the fuel the fuel freezing and freezing and blocking the
blocking the filter filter
256 What is the purpose of the FCOC (Fuel To maintain the oil at the To heat the fuel and To heat the oil and To by-pass oil to the
Cooled Oil Cooler) correct temperature cool the oil cool the fuel engine if the oil pressure
filter becomes blocked

257 What is the purpose of the torque links in To prevent the wheel To prevent shimmy To transfer the brake To position the wheels in
a landing gear leg rotating around the leg torque to the wheel the correct attitude prior
to landing
258 An artificial feel system is needed in the Airplane has a variable Elevators are Elevator is controlled Elevators are controlled
pitch channel if incidence tailplane controlled through a through a servo tab through an irreversible
reversible servo system servo system
259 Auto brakes are disengaged : When the ground spoilers When the speed falls On the landing roll By the pilot
are retracted below 20 kts when the autopilot is
disengaged
260 A likely cause of nose wheel shimmy is: aircraft is overweight the tyre pressures are the aircraft is a torque link is worn or
too high incorrectly loaded damaged.
261 In an aircraft with a fuel dunping system Down to a predetermined Down to unusable To leave 15 gallons in Down to maximum
it will allow fuel to be dumped safe valve value each tank landing weight
262 What does ‘octane rating’ when applied The waxing point of the fuel The ability of the fuel The anti-knock value The volatility of the fuel
to AVGAS refer to – to disperse water of the fuel
263 How are modern passenger jet aircraft By nitrogen from a storage By ram air through By bleed air from the By a volumetric top off
fuel tanks pressurized cylinder the vent system pneumatic system unit
264 Fuel tank vent system is installed to: pressurize the fuel tank remove the fuel equalize the tank both (b) and (c) are
vapour Pressure with ambient correct
265 In which of the following areas would an Fuel tank Cabin Tyres Wheel/Undercarriage
overheat/fire warning be provided bay
266 An axial flow compressor when Takes in less air and is less Takes in more air and Takes in more air and Takes in less air and is
compared to a centrifugal compressor prone to rupturing is more prone to is less prone to more prone to rupturing
rupturing rupturing
267 Hydraulic pressure typically used in the 2000 - 3000psi 3000 - 4000psi 1000 - 2000psi 4000 - 5000psi
system of large transport aircraft is
268 The EGT indication on a piston engine is To control the cooling air To monitor the oil To assist the pilot to To indicate cylinder head
used shutters temperature adjust the fuel temperature
mixture
269 A gas turbine engine having a single At the same speed as the Slower than the Faster than the Independently of the
spool, the compressor will rotate: turbine turbine turbine turbine
270 Because of its function an ÀND' gate may Invert or not gate Any or all gate All or nothing gate Either or gate
also be referred to as:
271 What type of hydraulic fluid is used in a Mineral based Phosphate ester Vegetable based Water based
modern passenger jet aircraft based
272 In a 4 stroke engine when does ignition After TDC for starting and Before TDC for After TDC for starting Before TDC for starting
occur in each cylinder then before TDC every 2nd starting and then after and then before TDC and then after TDC every
rotation of the crankshaft TDC every 2nd rotation every rotation of the rotation of the crankshaft
of the crankshaft crankshaft
273 When smoke appears in the cockpit, after Normal 1 Diluter Emergency
donning the oxygen mask the pilot should
select
274 Which part of the gas turbine engine Combustion chamber Turbine Compressor Exhaust
limits the temperature
275 What makes the non-rigid fittings of Spring locks Thrust and drag forces Aerodynamic and Tapered bead seats
compressor and turbine blades rigid Centrifugal force
when the engine is running
276 What ice protection system is used on Liquid Electrical Hot air Pressure operated boots
most modern jet transport aircraft
277 What frequency is commonly used in 200Hz 400 Hz 100Hz 50Hz
aircraft electrical distribution systems
278 When does the engine High Pressure fuel After a booster pump When the engine fuel When flight idle is When the engine fuel
shut off valve close failure switch is selected òn' selected switch is selected òff
during engine start during engine shut-down
279 When does the Low Pressure fuel shut off When the fire handle is When the engine fuel When flight idle is After a booster pump
valve close pulled switch is selected òn' selected failure
during engine start
280 In a vapour cycle cooling system what is To remove moisture from To convert the To convert the To raise the pressure of
the purpose of the condenser the air by centrifugal action refrigerant from a refrigerant from a gas the gas to allow efficient
liquid to a gas to a liquid cooling
281 What voltage is supplied to booster 115v AC single phase 200v AC three phase 28v DC froth an 12v DC frorn the battery
pumps on a modern jet airliner inverter
282 An engine having a `Free turbine' There is a mechanical There is no There is a mechanical Air enters via
connection between the mechanical connection connection between compressor inlet on the
power output shaft and the between the power the compressor and turbine
turbine output shaft and the the propeller shaft
turbine
283 If the pressure controller malfunctions Cabin ROC Increase, Cabin Cabin ROC Decrease, Cabin ROC Increase, Cabin ROC Increase,
during the cruise and the outflow valve Alt Decrease, Differential Cabin Alt Increase, Cabin Alt Increase, Cabin Alt Increase,
opens what happens: pressure Decrease Differential pressure Differential pressure Differential pressure
Decrease Decrease Increase
284 What controls cabin pressurization ECS pack mass flow Outflow valve Engine bleed valve Inflow valve
controller
285 If the fire handle is pulled in an aeroplane Exciter control relay and GCB and BTB BTB and GCU Exciter control relay only
with an AC generator system what GCB
disconnects.
286 Which components constitute a crank Crankshaft, camshaft, valve Crankcase, crankshaft, Crankshaft, pistons Propeller, crankshaft,
assembly springs pistons and connecting and connecting rods connecting rods
rods
287 One stage of an axial compressor Comprises a row of stators Has a compression Comprises a rotor Has a compression ratio
followed by a rotor disc ratio of 2:1 disc followed by a row of 0.8
of stators
288 If a CSD overheat warning is shown The CSD can be The pilot must The CSD can be The CSD can be
disconnected and the pilot throttle back to reduce disconnected then disconnected but not
must control the alternator the load on the reconnected later used for the rest of the
himself alternator when the flight
temperature has
reduced
289 A new tyre with wear on the tread and Can be repaired once only Can be repaired Can never be is fit for use only on a
parallel grooves several times repaired nose-wheel
290 An emergency exit assisted escape device 8ft with the aircraft on the 8ft with the aircraft 6ft with the aircraft 6ft with the aircraft on
must be fitted if the door sill height is landing gear with the on the landing gear on the landing gear the landing gear with the
above: nosewheel extended with the nosewheel with the nosewheel nosewheel collapsed
collapsed extended
291 In a compensated capacitance fuel decreases by 5% increases by 5% remains the same increases by 5% for
contents system what happens to a fuel every degree rise in
weight of 80001bs if its volume increases temperature
by 5%
292 How do aircraft spoilers work lower surfaces only, lower surfaces only, upper surfaces only, upper surfaces only,
symmetrical and symmetrical operation symmetrical and symmetrical operation
asymmetrical operation asymmetrical
operation
293 What is the total volume in the cylinder A value equal to the cubic swept volume minus volume between TDC swept volume plus
of a four stroke engine capacity clearance volume and BDC clearance volume
294 After the power stroke on a piston engine exhaust valve opens, inlet exhaust valve closes, inlet valve opens, inlet valve closes,
the poppet valve sequence is valve opens, exhaust valve inlet valve opens, exhaust valve closes, exhaust valve closes,
closes exhaust valve opens inlet valve closes inlet valve opens
295 What speed does the LP compressor run the speed of the LP turbine the speed of the HP half the engine speed constant speed
at ? turbine
296 What happens to the angle of attack of a increases decreases remains the same blade angle changes to
fixed pitch propeller as the aircraft compensate for forward
accelerates down the runway speed
297 What happens to the AoA of a VP blade angle remains increases decreases remains the same
propeller with increasing TAS if the RPM constant to compensate for

and throttle levers are not moved forward speed
298 What colour is the hydraulic liquid in a Purple Red Yellow Pink
modern jet airliner ?
299 On what principle does a fuel flow meter Volume and viscosity Quantity of Capacitive dielectric Pressure and
work movement temperature
300 On what principle does the fuel contents Capacity affected by Capacity affected by Changes in dielectric Change in dielectric
gauging system work on a modern large dielectric therefore dielectric therefore causes changes in causes change in distance
aircraft ? changing EMF of system changing resistivity of capacitance between plates and
system therefore changes
capacitance
301 What would happen if the waste gate of Compressor will overspeed Blow the turbine MAP may exceed its RPM may exceed its
a turbocharged engine seized in the blades off maximum permitted maximum permitted
descent? value in the induction value
manifold
302 When is spark plug fouling most likely to In the climb if you have not Cruise power In the descent if you Max take-off power
occur? adjusted the mixture have not adjusted the
mixture
303 What is a ram air turbine (RAT) which Nose wheel steering Flap extension Landing gear Flight controls in case of
drives a hydraulic pump used for? extension if the failure of the engine
normal system fails driven system
304 What is the purpose of the diluter To supply air only when To dilute oxygen with To dilute oxygen with To supply oxygen only
demand valve in the emergency oxygen inhaling air in crew oxygen air in passenger when inhaling
system ? system oxygen system
305 What limits the max temperature in a gas Temperature in the Temperature at the Temperature at the Temperature entering
turbine engine ? combustion chamber exhaust turbine the combustion chamber
306 An aircraft planning to fly at FL330 with At least one passenger for No first aid oxygen is At least 3 passengers At least one passenger
120 seats fitted and 42 passengers on the duration of the flight necessary for the duration of the for the duration of the
board must provide first aid oxygen for: above 8000ft. flight above 15000ft. flight above 14000ft
307 The engine fire extinguisher system is After the engine has been Automatically when a By the pilot when Automatically after a
activated: shut down fire warning is sensed required time delay to allow the
engine to stop
308 An unpressurised aircraft is flying above Both pilots immediately and Both pilots only Both Pilots and all Both pilots immediately
FL 100 and therefore must have sufficient the cabin crew plus all passengers and the cabin crew plus
oxygen for: passengers after 30 minutes some passengers after 30
above FL 100 but below FL minutes above FL 100
130 but below FL 130
309 Aircraft above a certain capacity must Cut through the aircraft Enable access behind Cut firewood in a Restrain disorderly
carry a crash axe, it is provided to fuselage to allow escape panels and survival situation passengers
soundproofing to aid
fire fighting
310 The function of stringers in the To withstand shear stress To provide an To provide support To provide an alternate
construction of the fuselage is: attachment for for the skin and to load path in the event of
insulation absorb some of the the failure of a frame.
pressurization strain
as tensile loading
311 The type of refrigerant used in a vapour Argon Freon Helium BCF
cycle cooling system is
312 The requirement for an aircraft to have a All aircraft in the Transport All aircraft Aircraft whose All aircraft with a seating
fuel dumping system is: Category having a maximum manufactured after maximum landing capacity of 250 or more
take off mass (MTOM) of 1997 having a MTOM mass (MLM) is
75000kg or greater of 7500kg or more significantly lower
than its maximum
take off mass (MTOM)
313 A Volumetric Top-Off Unit (VTO) , is Vent the tank to Allow a main feed Allow the main tank Prevent too much fuel
provided in a fuel system to atmosphere when its full tank to be maintained to automatically from being dumped
at a predetermine level maintain a
automatically , while predetermined fuel
being fed from an pressure
auxiliary tank
314 The precautions to be taken during GPU may not be running All earthing of aircraft Passengers may be No radar or HF radios
refueling are during refueling parts to ground boarded ( traversing under test within 10
equipment must be the refueling zone ) metres
completed before filler
caps are removed
315 What prevents an impulse coupling Electro-magnetic indication Hydraulic clutch Centrifugal force On/Off switch
operating at speeds above start speed ,
considering that it has flyweights
316 In a Bramah press one piston has an area 1N 20 N 25 N 100 N
of 0.5m² and has a force of 10 N acting on
it. If the area of the second piston is
0.5m², what force will it produce
317 What is the reason for putting the To be more efficient at high No need for anti-icing Create a pitch up by To be out of the way of
horizontal stabilizer on top of the fin speed making the aeroplane the wing down wash
tail heavy
318 Where are thermal plugs fitted Wheel rim cargo bay fuel tank oil tank
319 In a non-stressed skin aircraft, bending skin spars stringers ribs

loads acting on the wings are taken by
320 In a stressed skin aircraft, bending loads ribs and stringers stringers and spars spars and skin spars and stringers
acting on the wings are taken by
321 The demand valve of a diluter demand the pressure to the user breathes in user requires 100% diluter control is in the
oxygen regulator in normal mode regulator is more than 500 oxygen `normal' position
operates when psi
322 Torque links on an undercarriage come during crosswind landings during pushback making tight turns after take-off
under most stress when when taxying
323 When opening an aircraft door from inflates deploys, but does not inflates, but stays is disarmed
outside, what happens to the escape inflate inside its container
slide
324 The temperature of hydraulic fluid is after the cooler in the reservoir at the actuator at the pumps
measured
325 The magnetos are switched off and the a wire from the magneto hotspots existing in carbon deposits on grounding wire from
engine continues to run normally. The coming in contact with the cylinder spark plug magneto being broken
cause of this fault is metal aircraft skin
326 An aircraft is to fly at 29000ft When before 10000ft. before 14000ft. at 20000ft before take-off
should the oxygen briefing take place
327 What is the purpose of the magneto to give a retarded spark reduce the rate of advance the ignition automatically increases
impulse coupling during starting rotation of the and give a hotter spark rate at high engine
magneto spark during starting speeds
328 The excess cabin altitude alerting system 8000ft 10000ft 13000ft 14000ft
must operate to warn the crew at
329 A device in a hydraulic system which acts restrictor valve sequence valve fuse one way check valve
in the same way as a diode in an
electrical circuit is a
330 What does three green lights represent the gear is down the gear is down and the gear and doors the gear is travelling
when the landing gear is selected down locked are down and locked between up and down
331 Which is the correct statement regarding the outboard ailerons are the outboard ailerons the inboard ailerons the inboard ailerons are
a large aircraft fitted with both inboard used only when the landing are used only when the are used only when only used when the flaps
and outboard ailerons gear is selected down landing gear is the flaps are retracted are extended
retracted
332 What is the effect of heating flight deck to demist the interior of the to protect the to protect the to protect the windows
windows window if normal demist windows against bird windows against ice against bird strike and ice
does not function correctly strike formation formation
333 If an aircraft suffers a decompression VSI up, altimeter up, VSI , altimeter, VSI down , altimeter VSI up, altimeter down,
what happens to the indications on a differential pressure gauge differential pressure up, differential differential pressure
cabin VSI, cabin altimeter and differential down gauge all unchanged pressure gauge down gauge down
pressure gauge
334 What happens if a gaseous oxygen a pressure relief valve vents a bursting disc vents a pressure regulator a pressure relief valve
cylinder is over pressurized the excess pressure into the the complete contents will prevent the excess vents the excess pressure
atmosphere of the cylinder(s) to pressure damaging into the fuselage
atmosphere the system
335 Fuel tanks accumulate moisture, the secure the filler cap tightly drain the tank at the fill the tank after drain the water before
most practical way to limit this in an and plug the drains end of each day each flight flight
aircraft flown daily is to:
336 An aircraft is in straight and level flight at crew should begin a climb cabin altitude will cabin altitude will cabin altitude will
a constant cabin altitude when the crew to regain cabin altitude increase to outside descend to, and increase to, and continue
notice the rate of climb indicator reads - atmospheric pressure continue beyond beyond normal max. diff,
200ft/min. What will be the sequence of normal max. diff, at at which point the safety
events which point the safety valves will open.
valves will open.
337 The angle formed between plane of angle of attack angle of advance pitch blade angle
rotation and relative airflow is called:-
338 One of main difference between piston gas turbine engine is called piston engine is called gas turbine engine is piston engine is not
and gas turbine engine is :- constant volume engine constant pressure called constant suitable for aircraft
engine pressure engine operation
339 The jet engine operated by using a pulse jet ramjet rocket all above
principle combustion without air is
known as:-
340 In impulse turbine the gas velocity inlet guide vanes turbine blades nozzle guide vanes both (b) and (c) are
increases at:- correct
341 The index of fire hazard of a gas turbine flash point vapour point cloud point viscosity
fuel is
342 An after burner engine is basically a:- rocket motor attached to pulse jet attached to ramj et attached to none of the above are
the turbine exhaust case of the. turbine exhaust the turbine exhaust correct
a jet engine arise of a jet engine case of a j et engine
343 Single entrance long pitot duct is efficient better ram recovery low bank angle high speed aircraft all of the above are
for:- correct
344 In a turbofan engine, the type of seals non-contact seal clearance seal air seal all of the above
used for bearings are:-
345 A hot start could be the result of greater fuel flow than the TGT rise faster than ignition system Both a) and b) are
normal normal malfunctioning correct
346 The advantage of a bypass engine over less fuel consumption less frontal area longer take off roll less weight power ratio
jet engine is:-
347 Kreuger flaps are positioned on the trailing edge leading edge outboard leading inboard leading edge
edge
348 The purpose of inboard ailerons is to bending at high speed twisting at high speed bending at low speed twisting at low speed
reduce wing
349 Which is the correct statement regarding the outboard ailerons are the outboard ailerons only the inboard only the inboard ailerons
a large aircraft fitted with both inboard used only when the landing are used only when the ailerons are used are used when the flaps
and outboard ailerons gear is selected down landing gear is when the flaps are are extended
retracted retracted
350 Why are two longitudinal trim switches there are two trim motors fast trimming at low as a safety to prevent both pilots
fitted to the control column altitude and a slower precaution to reduce operating the trim at the
rate at higher altitudes the possibility of trim same time
runaway
351 A ram air turbine may be used to provide landing gear extension flight controls nose wheel steering leading edge flap
emergency hydraulic power for extension only
352 An under inflated tyre on a dry runway decreases viscous causes the tyre increases wear on increases wear on the
hydroplaning speed temperature to fall the shoulder crown
353 What is the purpose of the ground to draw cooling air over the to draw cooling air to blow air onto the to re-circulate air
cooling fan in a boot strap air cycle turbine over the heat compressor through the mixing
conditioning system exchangers manifold
354 If the outflow valves failed closed in flight to damage the aircraft skin to increase cabin to increase cabin to shut down the air
the effect would be pressure to max altitude conditioning system
differential
355 Where are the fuel heaters fitted on jet in each tank on the engine they are not required centre tank only
aircraft
356 The areas that heated by a bleed air leading edges of all aerofoil leading edges of all leading edges of all upper surfaces of the
system on a modern jet passenger surfaces aerofoil surfaces aerofoil surfaces wings only
transport are including flaps including slats (where
fitted)
357 Which one of the following ice protection mechanical electrical chemical thermal
systems can only be used as a de-icing
system
358 The stators of a three phase alternator 60 degrees 90 degrees 120 degrees 180 degrees
are separated by
359 What is disconnected if the fire handle is generator control relay GCB BTB Generator control relay
pulled in an aircraft with an AC generator (exciter control relay) and (exciter control relay)
system GCB and BTB
360 A generator that produces 400Hz at 6000 12 8 6 4
rpm has how many pole pairs
361 In an aircraft which uses DC as the a rectifier the AC busbar a TRU an inverter
instruments may be obtained from
362 The wavelength of a VOR is metric decimetric hectometric centimetric
363 Skip distance is longest by (1) .................. day low day high night low night high
and with a (2) .................. frequency
364 The skip zone of an HF transmission will an increase in frequency an increase in an decrease in an decrease in frequency
increase with and an increase in height of frequency and an frequency and an and a decrease in height
the reflective (refractive) decrease in height of increase in height of of the reflective
layer the reflective the reflective (refractive) layer
(refractive) layer (refractive) layer
365 If AC generators are connected in parallel frequency torque of the CSDU energising current voltage
the reactive loads are balanced by
adjusting the
366 If the frequency of a series capacitve it increases it decreases it stays the same it increases or decreases
circuit increases, what happens to the
current
367 What is the minimum number of BCF 2 3 4 5
extinguishers required on an aircraft with
a seating capacity of 62 passengers
368 The advantages of a chemical oxygen it is a self contained it can be filled from the flow of oxygen all of the above
generator system are system, it is relatively light outside the pressure can be regulated, it
hull , it can be turned can be turned off
off
369 The passenger oxygen drop down mask barometrically operated electrically for electrically for by the cabin crew
stowage doors are released latch chemical generator gaseous systems and
systems and pneumatically for
pneumatically for chemical generator
gaseous systems systems
370 A turbo propeller aircraft has 60 persons 60 lifejackets 60 lifejackets and 60 lifejackets and two 30 man liferafts
on board and is flying at 240 knots two three 30 man liferafts two 30 man liferafts
hours away from the nearest landfall. It
has a minimum requirement of
371 How many crash axes and crow bars must a crash axe and crowbar on a crash axe or a crash axe and a crash axe or crowbar
a 46 seat aircraft of 10000kg weight on the flight deck crowbar on the flight crowbar on the flight on the flight deck
board deck and a crash axe or deck and a crash axe
crowbar in the cabin and crowbar in the
cabin
372 The fire extinguisher system for an automatically immediately automatically once by the pilot by the pilot once the
engine is activated a fire is sensed the engine has been immediately a fire is engine has been shut
shut down detected down
373 In a gas turbine the maximum gas in the combustion chamber at the turbine exit across the turbine in the cooling air around
temperature is reached the turbine
374 Select the conditions for highest engine low temperature, low low temperature, high high pressure, high low temperature, low
performance humidity, high temperature humidity, high pressure temperature, high humidity, high pressure
humidity
375 A reverse thrust door warning light is the reverser doors are the thrust levers are the reverse thrust asymmetric reverse
illuminated when unlocked lifted beyond ground mechanism is not thrust has been selected
idle operating correctly
376 Adjusting the mixture of piston engines increase fuel flow to decrease fuel flow to increase fuel flow to decrease fuel flow to
as aircraft altitude increases is necessary compensate for decreasing compensate for compensate for compensate for
to air density decreasing air density increasing air density increasing air density
377 The power output of a piston engine can force by distance work by velocity pressure by moment torque by RPM
be calculated by multiplying arm
378 The fan stage of ducted fan engine is LP turbine IP turbine HP turbine HP compressor through
driven by the reduction gearing
379 A fixed pitch propeller blade has wash- keep the local angle of keep the pitch angle keep the local angle decrease the blade
out from root to tip in order to attack constant along the constant along the of attack at its tangential speed from
blade length blade length optimum value along root to tip
the blade length
380 The volume of the scavenge pump(s) in prevent cavitation of the oil ensure heat is compensate for ensure that the engine
an engine lubrication system is greater system feedlines dissipated more thermal expansion of sump remains dry
than that of the pressure pump(s) in efficiently the lubricating fluid
order to
381 Variable inlet guide vanes are fitted to increase the mass flow at prevent a compressor prevent a decelerate the flow into
gas turbine engines to high speeds stall at low engine compressor stall at the compressor
speed high engine speeds
382 The theoretically correct air to fuel ratio 5:1 15:1 25:1 40:1
for efficient combustion in a gas turbine
under constant speed conditions is
383 What happens to the pressure and both remain constant both increase velocity increases, velocity decreases,
velocity of the gas stream from root to tip pressure decreases pressure increases
across the nozzle guide vanes
384 The effect of climbing at rated rpm but increase full throttle height reduce full throttle produce no change reduce the time to full
less than rated boost is to height to the full throttle throttle height.
height
385 The basic classifications of gas turbine is: Impulse, Reaction, Impulse- Impulse, Reaction and Axial flow and Single stage and two
reaction & Ram Impulse-reaction centrifugal flow stage
386 What is the purpose of a surge box inside Collect sediment at the Ventilate the tank Allow movement of Prevent sloshing of fuel
a fuel tank bottom of the tank during high pressure fuel between tanks away from pump inlet
refuelling while refueling during abnormal
manoeuvres
387 Emergency oxygen is provided by: One system for both flight Two independent Two systems each Three systems, one for
deck and cabin systems, one for flight capable of supplying the flight deck, one for
deck, one for cabin the flight deck and the passengers and one
cabin for the cabin crew.
388 A 12 volt lead acid battery has a broken Provides 1/12th less voltage Provides 1/12th less Is unserviceable Will suffer from thermal
connection in a cell, the battery: for the same time voltage for 1/12th less runaway
time
389 A changeover relay Allows an APU to connect Allows a GPU to Allows connection of Allows an alternate
to its busbar connect to its busbar AC to an source to supply an
unserviceable essential busbar.
generator's busbar
390 A relay is A motorway breakdown A mechanically An electrically Another name for a
service operated switch operated switch solenoid
391 Fuel heaters are fitted In the wing fuel tanks In the fuselage fuel In the engine fuel All of the above
tanks system mounted on
the engine
392 Electrical heating devices consume little power are used for are used for de-icing can de-ice large areas
preventing ice on small small areas because there is a large
areas (e.g pitot head, excess of electrical power
windscreen only) available
393 Reverse thrust lights come on when reverser doors are unlocked when reverse power when reverse thrust when the doors move
above idle is selected is selected in flight towards the stowed
position inadvertently

400 What is the frequency band for ADF hectometric metric centimetric decimetric
401 A pitot head is used to measure: dynamic minus static static plus dynamic static pressure. dynamic pressure.
pressure. pressure.
402 A pressure head is subject to the position, manoeuvre position, manoeuvre position, manoeuvre position, manoeuvre
following errors: induced, temperature. induced. induced, density. induced, instrument.
403 Turbulent flow around a pressure head density error. 95% increase in an increase in the 95% of pressure error.
will cause: manoeuvre induced dynamic pressure.
error.
404 Manoeuvre induced error: is caused by transient is likely to be greatest is combined with lasts for only a short
pressure changes at static when yawing after instrument and time at high altitude.
vents. engine failure. position error on a
correction card.
405 Position error: may be reduced by the will usually decrease will depend solely on will usually decrease as
fitting of static vents. with an increase in the attitude of the the aircraft approaches
altitude. aircraft. the speed of sound.
406 Pressure heads supply data to the air data computers, standby instruments altimeters, ASI's, VSI's, all the above plus air
following instruments: compasses, altimeters, and only, when air data machmeters, air data driven gyros.
ASI's. computers fitted. computers.
407 Static vents are usually fitted to both reduce the position error. balance out errors require a calibration enable a greater number
sides of the aircraft fuselage. This will: caused by side slipping card for each static of instruments to be
or yawing. vent. fitted.
408 Which of the following instruments airspeed indicator, airspeed indicator, airspeed indicator airspeed indicator and
require inputs of both pitot and static machmeter and vertical vertical speed only. machmeter.
pressure: speed indicator. indicator, altimeter.
409 Where an alternate static source is fitted, a temporary increase in lag a lower pressure error an increase in position no change in position
use of this source usually leads to: error. than with normal error. error.
sources.
410 Converted into degrees Celsius - 40°F is: -56.5°C -40°C -20°C -108°C
411 In an aircraft thermometer with an plutonium platinum potassium beryllium copper
electrical resistance sensor to measure
the air temperature, the resistance wire
element is probably:
412 Flying at high speed at high altitude, the likely to be less than when due to adiabatic due to adiabatic proportional to the
difference between ram air temperature flying low and slow. cooling. warming. square of the absolute
and static air temperature is: temperature.
413 Aircraft air temperature thermometers solar radiation. accidental physical airframe icing. kinetic heating.
are shielded to protect them from: damage on the ground
or hailstones in flight.
414 At a true airspeed of 500 knots, a ram 50 degrees Celsius 25 degrees Celsius 5 degrees Celsius 16 degrees Celsius
rise of air temperature can be expected
of:
415 An air temperature probe may be prevent icing. measure air compensate for reduce the effect of
aspirated in order to: temperature on the thermal soaking at the solar radiation.
ground. ramp position.
416 The difference between static air corrected outside air the ram rise. the recovery factor. hot ramp radiation.
temperature and total air temperature is temperature.
known as:
417 A direct reading aircraft thermometer difference in electrical increase in pressure increase in adiabatic different coefficients of
usually consists of a bimetallic helix resistance of the two as airspeed increases. cooling as airspeed expansion of the two
protruding into the airstream. Movement metals. increases. metals.
of the pointer over the temperature scale
will depend upon:
418 If the pitot line to an ASI becomes totally decrease, no matter what increase, no matter progressively under stick at the airspeed
blocked during a climb, the ASI reading the actual airspeed is. what the actual indicate the value of showing at the moment
will: airspeed is. the airspeed. of blockage.
419 If the static line to the ASI becomes overreading, this indicated underreading, this underreading, this overreading, this
blocked during a long descent, a speed falsely showing the indicated speed falsely indicated speed indicated speed possibly
dangerous situation could arise due to aircraft to be further from showing the aircraft to possibly leading to the leading to the operation
the ASI: the stalling speed than it be closer to the stalling operation of flaps of flaps and/or landing
actually is. speed than it actually and/or landing gear at gear at speeds in excess
is. speeds in excess of of safety speeds.
safety speeds.
420 The airspeed indicator is calibrated to: conditions of the conditions of the an air density of indicate correctly in any
International Standard International Standard 1013.25 gms/m3 atmosphere.
Atmosphere. Atmosphere at MSL.

421 Excluding blockages, the full list of errors instrument error, position instrument error, instrument error, instrument error,
of the ASI is: error, density error, position error, position error, position error, density
manoeuvre induced error. temperature error, barometric error, error, compressibility
compressibility error, temperature error, error, manoeuvre
manoeuvre induced lag, manoeuvre induced error.
error. induced error.
422 Some ASIs have coloured arcs and lines cautionary range and flap operating speed cautionary range and flap operating speed
marked on their dials. A yellow arc and a normal operating range. range and normal flap operating speed range and cautionary
white arc indicate: operating range. range. range.
423 What will be the TAS if cruising altitude is 388 kt 380 kt 364 kt 370 kt
39 000 ft, temperature is ISA +5 and CAS
200 kt:
424 If the static line to the ASI becomes increase, no matter what progressively under progressively over stick at the airspeed
blocked during a climb, the ASI reading the actual airspeed is. indicate the value of indicate the value of showing at the moment
will: airspeed. airspeed. of blockage.
425 The diagram below shows a simple pitot pressure inlet, linkage air inlet, temperature static pressure inlet, static pressure inlet,
altimeter. The parts labelled A, B, C and D mechanism, bellows, compensator, leaf partially evacuated partially evacuated
are: quadrant. spring, linkage capsule, linkage capsule, leaf spring,
mechanism. mechanism, subscale linkage mechanism.
setting device.
426 When flying from low pressure to high read the true altitude, overread the true indicate a higher underread the true
pressure, the barometric error of an providing a correction is altitude of the aircraft. altitude than the altitude of the aircraft.
altimeter will cause the instrument to: made for temperature. correct one.
427 An altimeter with set on the subscale will 1013; pressure altitude; QNE; pressure QFE; height above the QNH; height above touch
indicate , but with set, the altimeter will QNH; height above mean altitude; QNH; height airfield datum; down; 1013; height amsl.
show sea level. above airfield datum. 1013;height amsl.
428 An aircraft has one altimeter set to QFE 300 ft; zero; 2610 ft zero; 300 ft; 3390 ft zero; 300 ft; 3690 ft zero; 300 ft; 2610 ft
and one to aerodrome QNH 1000 mb If
the airfield elevation is 300 ft,
immediately before take-off the altimeter
with QFE set will read and the other If the
QFE altimeter is set to 1013 when passing
through the transition altitude 3000 ft, it
will read (Assume 1 mb = 30 ft)
429 Below is a schematic diagram of a servo- cam mechanism, amplifier, mechanical drive, cam mechanism, E-I bar, amplifier, servo
assisted altimeter The parts labelled A, B, servo motor, mechanical servo motor, amplifier, amplifier, E-1 bar, motor, AC exciter,
C and D z drive. AC exciter. mechanical drive. mechanical drive.
430 During a missed approach and go-around the altimeter, artificial the airspeed indicator, the machmeter, the vertical speed
procedure the change of aircraft attitude horizon and vertical speed machmeter and airspeed indicator, indicator, airspeed
plus raising of the landing gear and indicator. vertical speed altimeter and vertical indicator and altimeter.
changing of flap settings can cause short indicator. speed indicator.
term unpredictable errors in certain
instruments The instruments most likely
to be affected in this case are:
431 The vertical speed indicator indications a combination of time lag a combination of manoeuvre induced a combination of time
may be in error for some seconds after and manoeuvre induced position error and errors only. lag and instrument error.
starting or finishing a climb or descent errors. manoeuvre induced
The error is a result of errors.
432 The advantage of having the VSI dial at low rates of climb or readings are a greater range of the internal mechanism
presentation in logarithmic spacing descent the pointer instantaneous. rates of climb and is simplified by deletion
rather than in linear spacing is that: movement is much larger descent is shown. of the calibration choke.
and so is more easily read.
433 In the IVSI, lag error: is overcome by feeding a is virtually overcome is overcome by the is only overcome when
sample of static pressure to by using a special use of logarithmic initiating a climb or
the case and delaying it to dashpot accelerometer presentation. descent.
the capsule. assembly.
434 When entering a steep turn, an IVSI is no change in altitude. a slight clim a slight descent. a slight descent at high
likely to show: airspeed only.
435 If the static vent becomes blocked during the VSI will stop at the rate the VSI will indicate a the VSI will return to the VSI will indicate an
a climb: of climb of the aircraft at decreasing rate of clim zero. increasing rate of climb.
the time of blockage.
436 Change of temperature as an aircraft will affect VSI readings is compensated at the has no effect on the may be allowed for by
climbs or descends: whenever temperature metering unit by VSI as only static use of tables or
lapse rate differs from means of a capillary pressure is used in this computer.
standard conditions. and orifice. instrument.
437 Permissible limits of accuracy of the VSI ± 250 fpm, on the ground, - ± 200 fpm, at any ± 250 fpm, at any + 200 fpm, on the
are when within a temperature range of 20°C to +50°C, ± 300 fpm height, -20°C to +30°C, height, -20°C to ground, -20°C to +50°C,
and outside this range + 300-fpm +50°C, + 300 fpm + 300 fpm
438 The red pole of a freely suspended the nose of the aircraft, the north magnetic the nearest pole, the north magnetic pole,
magnet will point towards and at latitude downwards, deviation. pole, downwards, downwards, downwards, dip.
60 °N will point at an angle known as the variation. declination.
angle of
439 If the total force of the earth's field at a H = T sin dip H = Z tan dip H = T cos dip H = T tan dip
point is T and the horizontal and vertical
components H and Z, the value of H is
found by the formula:

440 In the diagram below, the compass 025° 015° 020° 335° 035° 020° 335° 340° 035° 025° 015° 340°
heading of the aircraft is , the magnetic
heading And the true heading
441 The directive force of the earth's varies with the heading of increases as the increases as magnetic is greatest at the
magnetic field: the aircraft. magnetic variation latitude increases. magnetic equator.
increases.
442 The slow change in the earth's magnetic annual, westerly movement diurnal, easterly secular, westerly annual, sunspot activity.
variation is known as the change and is of the magnetic pole. movement of the movement of the
caused by magnetic pole. magnetic pole.
443 Soft iron is comparatively to magnetise easy; difficult. easy; easy. difficult; easy. difficult; difficult.
whilst hard iron is to demagnetise
444 The magnetic moment of a magnet: is the product of pole varies inversely as the varies directly as the decreases as the magnet
strength and effective square of the distance square of the distance length increases.
length. between the poles. between the poles.
445 The main requirements of a direct horizontal, sensitive, easily read, floating in positioned directly in aperiodic, horizontal,
reading magnetic compass are that it periodic. a transparent liquid, front of the pilot, sensitive.
should be: quick to react to easily corrected for
change in aircraft magnetic deviation,
heading. aperiodic.
446 For a position in the southern 180°(C) and 360°(C) 045°(C) and 225°(C) 135°( and 315°( 090°(C) and 270°(C)
hemisphere, the effect of acceleration
errors are greatest on headings:
447 In a standby compass the magnet system increase sensitivity, increase sensitivity, increase sensitivity at increase sensitivity,
is immersed in a transparent liquid The increase aperiodicity. decrease aperiodicity. high latitudes, reduce liquid swirl.
purpose of this liquid is to: lubricate bearings.
448 To improve the horizontality of a on the centre line of the below the centre of above the centre of varying with magnetic
compass, the magnet assembly is magnet. gravity. gravity. latitude.
suspended from a point:
449 The magnitude, and sense, of turning the design of the compass the direction of the which hemisphere all of the above.
error shown by a direct reading compass and the amount of dip at turn and the rate of the aircraft is in and
varies with: the aircraft's latitude. turn. the heading of the
aircraft.
450 During a sustained turn the nearer away from; increase. towards; not affect. away from; not towards; increase.
magnetic pole, the effect of liquid swirl affect.
will Compass turning error
451 The spin axis of a directional gyro is the horizontal plane; air jets; the vertical plane; air the yawing plane; air the yawing plane; air jets;
maintained in by means of in an air wedge plate. jets; torque motor. jets; torque motor. wedge plate.
driven gyro and by means of a in an

electrically driven gyro:
452 The purpose of the caging knob is: to prevent the gyro to reset the heading. to reset the heading to prevent apparent
toppling. and to prevent wander.
toppling.
453 In an air driven directional gyro the air the inner gimbal. the outer gimbal. the instrument the rotor axis.
jets are attached to: casing.
454 The limits of pitch and roll for a modern 55' and 85' 85' and 55' 55' and 55' 85' and 85'
directional gyro are respectively:
455 Gimballing error: will disappear after a turn is will remain until the will only occur during will be zero on only two
completed. gyro is reset. a 360° turn. headings during a 360°
turn.
456 The indication at Figure 1 shows: a climbing turn to the right. nose-up and left wing 30° starboard bank, 30° port bank, nose
down nose up. below horizon.
457 False nose-up attitude displayed on air the high pendulosity of the the lag of the lateral the linear acceleration incorrect rotor speed
driven artificial horizon during the take- rotor pendulous vanes cut out
off run is caused by:
458 The rotor axis of an electrical horizon is four pendulous vanes the roll cut out the low centre of two mercury level
tied to the earth's vertical by: gravity of the rotor switches and two torque
housing motors
459 False right wing low attitude shown on an the lag of the base of the the logitudinal the roll cut-out high rotor speed
air driven artificial horizon during an rotor housing pendulous vanes
acceleration is caused by:
460 Inside an artificial horizon: the inner gimbal ring is the inner gimbal ring the rotor axis is kept there is only one gimbal
pivoted laterally inside the is tied to the vertical by level by a calibrated ring
outer gimbal ring and the a control system spring attached to the
outer gimbal ring is pivoted outer gimbal ring and
longitudinally inside the the instrument case
case
461 When an adjustable aircraft datum is it should be checked at it should be set to the it should be rendered it should be set to 15°
fitted to an artificial horizon in light regular intervals central position and inoperative
aircraft: left there
462 An electrically driven artificial horizon has it is less pendulous, has a the mercury level the roll cut-out speed it is less aperiodic than
less errors during the take-off run higher rotor speed and a switches are more is activated the air driven types
because: linear acceleration cut out sensitive than the
pendulous vanes fitted
to air driven types
463 The rate of turn indicator uses (i) which space gyroscope up and tied gyro anti- rate gyro up and earth gyro Clockwise
spins (ii) i ii away from the pilot clockwise when viewed away from the pilot
from above
464 The gyro in a rate of turn indicator has (1) lower, a higher rigidity is the same, it uses the a higher, a low variable, more than one
operating speed than the gyros used in not required property of rigidity precession rate gives a rate of turn is desired
other instruments because (ii) i ii greater operating
range
465 At Figure 1 The TBI shows: a rate of turn to the left, an aircraft taxiing and that the aircraft will the aircraft is yawing to
slipping in turning starboard complete a turn in the right
oneminute
466 When the pointer of a rate of turn the calibrated spring is the force produced by the spring is providing the spring is providing a
indicator shows a steady rate of turn: exerting a force about the the spring is producing a force which force which produces a
lateral axis equal to the rate a precession equal to produces a precession precession equal to the
of turn but opposite to the equal to the rate of rate of turn (in the
rate of turn is correctly turn (in the opposite correct direction)
banked direction).
467 If the filter of the air driven rate of turn the aircraft will turn faster the instrument will the rate of turn the radius of the turn
indicator becomes partially blocked: than indicated overread indicated will be will decrease
unaffected
468 The gimbal ring of a turn co-ordinator is make the rate of turn more make the gyro make the gyro more have a higher rotor
inclined at about 30° with respect to the accurate sensitive to banking of effective during speed which will prolong
aircraft's longitudinal axis in order: the aircraft as well as inverted flight the life of the instrument
to turning
469 If an aircraft turns as indicated in Figure the aircraft will turn it will take one minutethe aircraft is turning the aircraft is turning left
1: through 180° in two minutes to turn through 90° left at less than 3°/ at 3°/ second
second
470 Regulatory Requirements state that the one degree for a remote three degrees for a ten degrees for a one degree for a direct
maximum permissible deviations after indicating compass and ten direct reading magnetic remote indicating reading magnetic
compensation are: degrees for a direct reading compass and one compass and one compass and eleven
magnetic compass. degree for a remote degree for a direct degrees for a slaved
indicating compass. reading magnetic compass.
compass.
471 Aircraft magnetism caused by Vertical varies with magnetic varies with magnetic it is not affected varies as the cosine of
Soft Iron: heading but not with latitude but not with magnetic latitude or the compass heading.
magnetic latitude. heading. heading.
472 The detector unit of a remote indicating Fixed in the vertical plane Fixed in the azimuth Free in the vertical Free in the horizontal
compass is normally: only plane
473 In a remote indicating compass, the rotor A levelling switch and pendulous suspension Bevel gears and A torque motor
of the slaved gyro is automatically torque motor gimbals
prevented from wandering in the vertical

plane by means of:
474 Regulations state that the residual 1 degree 3 degrees 2 degrees 5 degrees
deviation of a remote indicating compass
shall not exceed;
475 What prevents the rotor of the slaved A levelling switch An alignment switch A precession circuit A follow up amplifier
gyro from wandering in the horizontal
plane:
476 A DG flag appears on the pilots gyro unit Remote indicating compass The compass is The gyro is no longer The compass is aligned
What does it indicate to the pilot? in unserviceable misaligned being monitored by with the detector unit
the detector unit
477 The function of the follow up system in a Exercise a low rate if Maintain the master Ensure the two gyro To ensure that the
remote indicating compass is to; control over the gyro unit indicator aligned with units are in alignment annunciator unit is
the gyro unit working
478 The purpose of the annunciator circuit is Alternate irregularly Alternate regularly To indicate that the To show by a dot or a
to: system is cross independently that
synchronised the system is
synchronised
479 With reference to the flux valve of a The flux valve is The flux valve is not The flux valve is The flux valve is fixed to
remote indicating compass; pendulously mounted and is subject to acceleration pendulously mounted the aircraft and so turns
free to turn to remain errors and so it is not subject with the aircraft to
aligned with the earth to or affected by the measure the angle
magnetic field earth's magnetic field between the aircraft and
the earth's magnetic field
480 A partially blocked air filter will cause the under read the correct rate over read the correct read in the reverse indicate zero rate of
air-driven turn indicator to: of turn. rate of turn. sense. turn.
481 The rate of precession of a gyro varies:- directly inversely inversely directly inversely inversely directly inversely directly
APPLIED FORCE ROTOR SPEED ROTOR directly inversely directly
MASS
482 An aircraft flying at a constant FL and increasing decrease decreasing increase decreasing decrease increasing increase
maintaining a constant TAS flies into an
area of warmer air The air density is
causing the CAS to
483 Referring to the turn and slip indicator more than 15 secs too much more then 30 secs too less than 15 secs too less than 30 secs too
shown, the indications are that a 90° turn G factor little radius of turn little TAS much IAS
will be completed in secs and there is
bank for the
484 In a climb the pitot line becomes blocked the original rate of climb. too high a rate of clim too low a rate of zero.
The vertical speed indicator (VSI) will climb.

indicate:
485 An aircraft accelerates on a westerly clockwise north anti-clockwise north clockwise south anti-clockwise south
heading in the N hemisphere The
compass needle rotates indicating a turn
towards
486 In high speed flight at high altitude the barometric error lag temperature error position error
static source will suffer:
487 A VSI metering unit incorporates a barometric error. position error. temperature and viscosity changes.
capillary tube to compensate for: pressure changes with
height.
488 In the diagram of a gyro magnetic flux valve inductive pick-off signal selsyn rotor stators rotor two way servo motor stator
compass, the components labelled B, H servo motor amplifier motor amplifier
and D in order are:
489 If the pitot line becomes blocked in the an increasing CAS a decreasing CAS a steady CAS zero
descent, the ASI will indicate:
490 The restricted choke in the VSI: will prevent the instrument compensates for creates a differential compensates for time
being damaged by high changes in pressure between the lag in the instrument.
rates of climb and descent. temperature and capsule and the case
density only. as its main function.
491 An aircraft is flying at a constant CAS If falls fall decreasing density. rises rise increasing rises rise decreasing falls fall decreasing
the ambient temperature , the TAS will density. density. pressure.
due to The words to correctly complete
the above statement are:
492 The latitude correcting device of an air an adjustable weight an adjustable weight the air jet which drives a chamber with four exit
driven directional gyro is: attached to the outer gimbal attached to the inner the rotor. slots half covered by
of the DI. gimbal of the DI. pendulous vanes.
493 Refer to Appendix A Figure D is a diagram an altimeter. a vertical speed a machmeter. an air speed indicator.
of: indicator.
494 An uncorrected gyro is set to read 100° 106.3° 104.8° 093.7° 095.3°
The gyro reading after 45 minutes when
stationary on the ground in latitude 25°S
is:
495 If the static source to an altimeter will over read by a constant continues to show the will progressively pointer will return to
becomes blocked during a descent, the amount. height at which the under read. indicate a height
instrument: blockage occurred. equivalent to the sub-
scale setting.
496 An electrical Artificial Horizon employs erection chamber fast erect buttons mercury switches precession circuit torque
and to maintain its position in relation to pendulous vanes space micro switches local torque motors the motor azimuth
Select the line of phrases given below longitude local vertical
that would complete the above
statement correctly:
497 Refer to the following diagram of a gyro flux valve system stators synchronising unit signal selsyn stators stator system rotor
magnetic compass system The correct gyro unit stators motor follow-up motor gyro unit
description of the components labelled A,
B and C in order are:
498 Refer to Appendix A Figure B is a diagram an altimeter a vertical speed a machmeter an air speed indicator
of: indicator
499 The principle of operation of the turn and a space gyro which uses the a single gimbal a single gimbal an earth gyro in which a
slip indicator is best described as: force of precession against a gyroscope whose gyroscope in which a calibrated spring ensures
spring to give a reading of primary precession is spring, opposing the the tilt of the gyro is
the aircraft rate of turn. opposed by a spring primary precession, in proportional to the
which, in turn, turn produces a aircraft rate of turn.
produces a second secondary precession
precession equal and equal to the aircraft
opposite to the aircraft rate of turn.
rate of turn.
500 The subscale of an altimeter is set to 3180 ft 3990 ft 5520 ft 3480 ft
1030 mb and indicates 4500 ft when the
QNH is 996 mb Assuming 1mb equals 30
ft, the true height of the aircraft AMSL is:
501 During the take-off run, the air driven a climb due to the a climb due to the a right turn due to the a right turn due to the
artificial horizon will indicate: pendulosity of the inner action of the pendulosity of the action of the pendulous
gimbal. pendulous vanes. outer gimbal. vanes.
502 Refer to the diagram below of a servo indicator transducer cam two-way motor amplifier two-way two-way motor follower
altimeter The correct descriptions of the transducer sub-scale motor cam and sub-scale setting knob
components labelled A, B and C in order setting knob follower
are:
503 The precession of a gyroscope varies: directly with the applied indirectly with the directly with the indirectly with the
force and directly with the applied force and applied force and applied force and directly
inertia of the rotor. indirectly with the indirectly with the with the inertia of the
inertia of the rotor. inertia of the rotor. rotor.
504 The air driven artificial horizon uses a free horizontal case an earth vertical a space horizontal a an earth vertical torque
gyroscope which is maintained by means levelling pendulous vanes. pitch-bank erection motors
of The words which correctly complete system.
the above sentence are:
505 In a turn from 045° to 315° through north anticlockwise reduce clockwise increase anticlockwise clockwise reduce
in the northern hemisphere, the increase
movement of the magnet system of a
direct reading compass, when viewed
from above and the effect of liquid swirl
on the error caused by the movement
are: MAGNET SYSTEM LIQUID SWIRL
506 An aircraft flying at FL 100 and at a decreased increased increased increased decreased decreased increased decreased
constant CAS, flies from an area of warm
air into an area of cold air Assuming the
QNH is the same during the change of
temperature, the aircraft height AMSL
and the TAS will have: Height AMSL TAS
507 Equivalent airspeed (EAS) is: IAS corrected for IAS corrected for CAS corrected for CAS corrected for
compressibility. instrument error only. compressibility. position error.
508 If during a climb, the static source a decreased rate of climb. a zero rate of clim an increased rate of a normal rate of climb.
becomes blocked, the vertical speed climb.
indicator (VSI) will show:
509 Dynamic pressure is: static pressure minus pitot pitot pressure plus density and static pitot pressure minus
pressure. static pressure. pressure. static pressure.
510 In the diagram below of a gyromagnetic flux valve rotors signal selsyn stators flux valve stators indicator flux valve
compass system, the components A, B annunciator gyroscope unit gyroscope unit amplifier
and C in order are:
511 The deviating effect of vertical soft iron increase decrease increase decrease increase decreases increase increases decrease
(VSI) with decrease of magnetic latitude, decrease increase decrease.
due to the of H and the of Z The line
containing the words to correctly
complete the above statement is:
512 The speed at the upper end of the Green VRA VNO VNE VMC.
arc on the ASI is:
513 The servo altimeter is superior to the it reduces barometric error. it reduces high altitude it reduces all of the above are
sensitive altimeter because: error. temperature error. correct.
514 The rotor of a rate gyroscope is over 3° per second. more than 3° per less than 3° per 6° per second
speeding The pilot carries out a turn with second. second.
the rate gyroscope indicating Rate 1 The
actual rate of turn will be:
515 If the rpm of the rotor in a turn and slip over read the correct rate under read the not indicate due to indicate correctly.
indicator is higher than normal, the turn of turn. correct rate of turn. the increased rigidity.
indicator will:
516 The rigidity (gyroscopic inertia) of a increasing the number of increasing the speed increasing the speed decreasing the speed of
gyroscope may be increased by: gimbals and decreasing the of rotation and of rotation and rotation and increasing
number of planes of decreasing the mass of increasing the mass of the mass of the rotor.
rotation. the rotor. the rotor.
517 A blockage in the static line to the VSI will a decreased rate of climb. an increased rate of a zero rate of climb. an increased rate of
subsequently cause the instrument to clim descent.
display:
518 An aircraft fitted with a direct-reading anti-clockwise reduce clockwise reduce anti-clockwise clockwise increase
compass is turning from 315° through increase
north on to 045° in the southern
hemisphere The direction of turn of the
magnet system and the effect of liquid
swirl on the error due to the turn
are:TURN LIQUID SWIRL
519 In an inertial-lead VSI the source of the instrument. position. steep turn. missed approach
most pronounced error is: manoeuvre.
520 In a turn and slip indicator the largest yaw angle of bank primary torque reduced spring tension
errors will be induced by:
521 With reference to the flux valve of a the flux valve is pendulously the flux valve is fixed the flux valve is not the flux valve is
gyromagnetic compass: mounted and is free to turn to the aircraft and so subject to acceleration pendulously mounted
so that it remains aligned turns with the aircraft errors. and so is not affected by
with the earth magnetic to measure the angle the vertical component
field. between the aircraft of the earths magnetic
and the earths field.
magnetic field.
522 Total air temperature is: the temperature of air the ambient air static air temperature true outside air
which has suffered the full temperature. minus ram air temperature allowing for
effect of compression temperature. cooling
heating.
523 An aircraft is carrying out a rate one turn 2.5 nm 15 nm 5 nm 10 nm
at a TAS of 480 kt The diameter of the
turn will be:
524 The following symbols, A, C and E are off route way point, airport, next way point, off route way point, active way point aircraft
best described respectively as: navigation aid. navigation aid, airport. navigation aid, a currently navigating to,
navigation point navigation aid, off-route
making up selected way point.
route.
525 With reference to an EHSI, the mode in PLAN VOR MAP ILS
which the following symbols would be
displayed is:
526 Ring laser gyros utilise a "Dither" motor prevent "lock-in" of the to reduce real to prevent bounded to level and align the
to: laser beams. wander. errors. gyros.
527 An altimeter is accurate to ± one millibar ± 30 feet ± 50 feet ± 50 feet ± 100 feet ± 100 feet ± 30 feet ± 40 feet ± 75 feet
so at 20,000 feet and 40,000 feet it is
accurate to: 20,000 40,000
528 The IVSI reduces (i) error by use of (ii) (i) time lag dashpots instrument jewelled density dashpots compressibility
(ii) bearings restricted choke
529 The rotational speed of the gyroscope in 30 seconds. less than 30 seconds. more than 30 30 seconds ± 10 seconds
a turn indicator falls below the correct seconds. either way.
operational speed A 90° turn at an
indicated 'rate one' on this turn indicator
will take:
530 An artificial horizon with an air driven the right wing going up and the right wing going the right wing going the right wing going
gyroscope, (spinning anti-clockwise seen the nose going down. up and the nose going down and the nose down and the nose going
from above),is subjected to acceleration up. going up. down.
during a take-off run As a result the
instrument indications will falsely show:
531 In Figure 6 1, a diagram of a detector unit W = AC excitation, Z = flux W = AC excitation, X = X = flux valve pick-off W = AC excitation, X =
and selsyn, the arrowed items are valve pick-off coil and Y = flux valve pick-off coil coil, Z = rotor pick-off stator coil and X = rotor
identified as: stator coil. and Z = stator coil. coil and Y = stator coil. pick-off coil.
532 The aerodynamic angle of incidence the angle between the the angle between the the angle between the the angle between the
(angle of attack) is: longitudinal axis and the chord line of the wing chord line of the wing wing and the chord line.
relative air flow. and the lateral axis. of an aircraft and the
direction of the
relative air flow.
533 Vertical Speed Indicator indications may a combination of time lag a combination of a combination of time manoeuvre induced
be in error for some seconds after and instrument error. position error and time lag and manoeuvre error only.
starting or finishing a climb or descent lag. induced error.
This error is a result of:
534 An aircraft flies from A to B with QNH at over indicating by 120 feet. over indicating by 180 indicating true under indicating by 180
A of 1019 mb set on the altimeter feet. altitude. feet.
subscale throughout the flight Assuming
all other errors are zero and that 1 mb =
30 feet, when overhead B, QNH 1013
mbs, the altimeter will be:
535 The gyroscopic instrument which has its the turn indicator. the artificial horizon. the INS azimuth gyro. the directional gyro
spin axis tied to the earth's vertical is: indicator.
536 The turn and slip and artificial horizon with too much bank and with insufficient bank and skidding out with slipping in with nose
shown in Figures 7 1 & 7 2 show the nose below the horizon. and nose above the nose below the below the horizon.
aircraft to be turning left at rate one: horizon. horizon.
537 An artificial horizon with an electrical the gyro has greater it is fitted with a roll the gyro has greater the fast erection switch
driven gyroscope has greatly reduced rigidity, is less bottom heavy cut-out switch and a rigidity, is less bottom is used to overcome
take-off errors This is because: and there is a linear linear cut-out switch. heavy and there is a topple by increasing the
accelerometer cut- out roll cut-out switch erection rate to a high
switch fitted. fitted. value.
538 The correct check for a turn and slip needle left, ball left. needle left, ball right. needle right, ball left. needle right, ball right.
indicator when taxying and turning left is:
539 Compared to the VSI what errors are lag turning pressure temperature
eliminated by the IVSI?
540 In the diagram below, a picture of a ac excitation, pick-off coil pick-off coil, stator pick-off coil, rotor and stator, ac excitation and
remote indicating compass, what are the and rotor and rotor stator pick-off coil.
components X, Y and Z?
541 In an INS the gyros should be strap down always, never. always, always. never, always. never, never.
In an IRS the gyros should be strap down
542 The airspeed indicator is calibrated to; ISA at mean sea level. ISA at 36,090 ft. ISA at the height the the full ISA.
aircraft is flying.
543 A DGI reads 300°T when the aircraft is 309° 287° 313° 291°
stationary at 60°S, what will the DGI read
after 40 minutes?
544 Aircraft magnetism; varies with aircraft heading varies with latitude does not vary with does not vary with
and latitude but does not vary with aircraft heading or aircraft latitude but does
aircraft heading latitude vary with aircraft heading
545 The turn and slip and artificial horizon right at 30 degrees angle of right at 30 degrees right with insufficient left with skid
illustrated in Figure 8 3 show the aircraft bank with slip angle of bank with skid bank and the nose
to be turning; above the horizon
546 An aircraft is flying a rate 1 turn at 480 kt 3nm 5nm 6nm 2nm
TAS What is the diameter of the turn?
547 In gyroscopic theory the term `Topple' is wander, real or apparent, in real wander only in wander, real or real wander only in the
defined as; the horizontal plane the vertical plane apparent, in the horizontal plane
vertical plane
548 Full VOR display is shown in diagram, A D E F
549 On which of the displays can weather be B, D and E A, C and F B and D C, E and F
displayed?
550 What would be the display which B E A D

resulted from the selection shown in
Figure 8 4
551 Ring laser gyros utilise a `Dither' motor reduce real wander prevent unbounded level and align the prevent lock in of the
to; errors gyros laser beam
552 Which of the following is true regarding It has a tied gyroscope. Its gyro is offset by It gives angle of bank It responds to rate of
the turn co-ordinator? 30° to the longitudinal and rate of turn. turn only.
axis of the aircraft.
553 The altimeter in Figure 8 5 shows; FL 27 FL 270 a pressure altitude of a height of 2,700ft
20,700ft
554 Compressibility is corrected for when EAS from CAS and the CAS from IAS and the EAS from CAS and the CAS from IAS and the
obtaining; correction is always correction can be correction is normally correction is normally
subtractive. either additive or subtractive. subtractive
subtractive.
555 The colour arcs of an ASI are in ascending green, yellow and red blue, yellow and red white, yellow and red white, green and yellow
speed order?
556 An altimeter has an error of 1 mb The 30ft, 30ft 50ft, 100ft I Oft, 30ft 50ft, 80ft
error at 20,000ft will be _______, while
at 40,000ft the error will be ________
557 A single axis autopilot system: Provides stabilisation about Provides control about Is unsuitable for use in Provides control about
the normal axis the pitch axis powered aircraft the roll axis
558 A single axis autopilot may also be called: Altitude hold Wing leveller Pitch control loop Auto stabilisation loop
559 An auto pilot: is a system which will is a system which will is an auto stabilisation is an outer loop control
maintain a preselected maintain a preselected system system
altitude airspeed
560 The fundamental components of an Rate gyro, servomotor, error Rate gyro, servo Torque limiter, error Servo motor, rate gyro,
autopilot control loop are: signal generator motor, torque limiter signal generator, torque limiter, error
servomotor signal generator
561 A device in a closed loop control system An amplifier A servomechanism A powered flying A rate gyro
in which a small power input controls a control unit
much larger power output in a strictly
proportionate manner is:
562 An automatic flight control system: Is another name for an Applies flight data to Is automatically Can only be used in EFIS
autopilot system the auto pilot system disengaged by a GPWS equipped aircraft
alert
563 An aircraft has yaw damping included in A three axis autopilot Parallel connected Automatic INS inputs to the CADC
its auto stabilisation system An essential system servo motors maintenance of c of g
requirement of such a system is: position
564 Automatic flight systems may be capable Azimuth, elevation and Azimuth and velocity Azimuth only Azimuth and elevation
of controlling the aircraft flight in: velocity only only
565 An automatic flight control system is The autopilot must be Manoeuvring Manoeuvring The CWS is only there for
fitted with control wheel steering (CWS) disengaged before the pilot commands may be commands may be steering on the ground
can input manoeuvring input by applying input using pitch and
commands normal forces to the turn controls on the
control yoke without automatic flight
first disengaging the system control panel,
autopilot without first
disengaging the
autopilot
566 During an approach to an autoland at Off line channels are Localiser is controlling Localiser is controlling Provided both localiser
1500 feet: manually engaged, flare the roll channel, off the roll channel, and glideslope signals are
mode is armed line channels are stabiliser is trimmed valid LAND 3 will
automatically engaged nose up and roll out is illuminate
and flare mode is armed
armed
567 Inputs to the rudder channels initially Servomotors Compass gyro and Compass gyro and AH gyro and turn and slip
originate from: gyro for AH turn and slip gyro gyro
568 An automatic flight system which can Fail redundant system Fail passive system Three axis system Fail operational system
safely continue with an automatic landing
after a system failure is a:
569 During an autoland the caption LAND 2 is Fail active or fail operational Fail passive Approaching decision Requiring a crew input
illuminated The system is: height
570 During an autoland approach: flare is engaged at 1500'agl localiser roll control is flare is disengaged glideslope is the engaged
disengaged just prior to prior to touchdown at pitch mode until 5'GA
touchdown 5'GA
571 In an autoland at 1000' AGL with two the armed roll mode would the engaged roll mode the engaged pitch the engaged roll mode
autopilots engaged: be LOCALISER would be GLIDESLOPE mode would be FLARE would be LOCALISER.
572 An automatic flight control system in control wheel steering touch control steering series connected parallel connected
which the application of normal forces on system system.
the control column allows the ilot to
input demands to the autopilot is a:
573 If a fault develops in a Triplex auto-pilot fail passive and the landing fail control wheel fail operational. a manual disconnect.
system during an approach, the system may continue. mode.
will revert to;
574 Inner loop stability is obtained by; inputs from the Air Data manometric locks. 'I' bar displacement. raw data feed to the data
Computer. control bus bar.
575 The mode that enables the pilot to control wheel steering (CWS touch control steering control wheel steering the touch control
manoeuvre his aircraft in pitch and roll by )mode that allows the pilot that will permit the mode which will steering mode which will
use of the automatic control system is to control the aircraft, and pilot to control the disengage the prevent the flaps
called the; when the wheel is released, aircraft via the air data servomotors. retracting.
the aircraft holds the newly computer.
established attitude.
576 Touch control steering; prevents aerodynamic will only operate while allows the pilot to engages the servomotors
feedback. the flaps are down. control the aircraft during manual operation
with the servomotors in pitch and roll.
disengaged.
577 A system which can still function without fail passive ability. fail soft ability. fail operational ability. fail symbol ability.
degradation of performance after a
failure has;
578 Heading hold mode relates to control in ; the height lock via the the pitch channel via the roll channel via the manometer mode of
CADC. the inner loop. the outer loop control the CADC.
source.
579 The system which allows the pilot to touch control steering. control wheel steering. the electronic inner / the outer loop control.
control the aircraft with the servomotors outer axis loop.
engaged is called;
580 The type of automatic landing system fail passive. fail safe. fail active. fail operational.
which would necessitate a manual
landing after a system failure during an
automatic approach is
581 After a failure of one of the necessary continue the descent but carry out a missed disengage autoland continue descent and
redundant systems below alert height revert to a higher D.H. approach. and take over land automatically.
you would; manually.
582 When localiser and glide slope are touch down mode and roll flare mode arm and flare mode engage flare mode arm and off
captured at 1,500 feet during an out mode. touch down mode. and roll out mode. line channels engaged.
automatic landing sequence, two other
functions will be activated at the same
time, they are;
583 A fundamental requirement of a closed a stable reference device. an interlock control. a tacho-generator. feedback.
loop servo-mechanism is;
584 ALT HOLD is an example of : Inner loop control in the roll Outer loop input to Outer loop control Inner loop control in the
axis the pitch channel about the longitudinal pitch axis
axis
585 A rate gyro: Has three degrees of Senses rate of turn and Supplies rate and Controls the outer loop
freedom, two gimbals and a positions an indicator displacement inputs
transducer on the EHSI information to the

computer
586 To prevent servo motor runaway from A gyro damper is fitted A torque limiter is A gyro limiter is fitted A torque converter is
producing excessive demands to the fitted fitted
control surface :
587 With the Autopilot engaged engaged in maintains its altitude changes its altitude in switches barometric trips out of altitude hold.
the Alt mode the Captain alters the accordance with the input over to the 1 s`
barometric setting The aircraft change in pressure Pilot setting
setting
588 Control wheel steering enables a pilot to: taxy the aircraft on the manoeuvre the aircraft alter the flight path manoeuvre the aircraft
ground in the air while the while the autopilot is with the autopilot
autopilot is engaged engaged by applying a disengaged.
breakout force
589 Auto synchronization in an aircraft : requires that the interlocks ensures that, when the requires that the needs at least two
are made before the autopilot is engaged, aircraft is trimmed out alternators running in
autopilot will engage the take-over is before the autopilot parallel.
effected smoothly and can be engaged
without snatching on
the control system
590 The regulatory requirements for single a single axis autopilot a two axis autopilot a three axis autopilot a two axis autopilot with
pilot operation under IFR state that the autothrottle
aircraft must be fitted with:
591 Regulatory operational requirements for Only statement A is correct Only statement B is Both statements are Neither statement is
the installation of automatic pilot state correct correct correct.
that the system must have: A automatic
synchronisation B quick release controls
on both control wheels
592 The control laws for an autopilot are normal law and emergency alternate law and normal, alternate and normal, alternate and
known as: law direct law emergency laws direct laws.
593 An autoland system that, in the event of fail passive fail safe fail operational duplex.
an autopilot failure, continues to function
without degradation of performance
beyond the limits required automatic,
would be one with the status:
594 The Autoland sequence is considered to reverse thrust is engaged the autopilot is the aircraft touches the aircraft reaches the
be complete when: manually disengaged down end of the runway.
by the pilot
595 An aircraft on Autopilot is engaged in the automatically switches to decouples from the tunes to the next VOR decouples from the VOR
VOR mode and loses the VOR signals as it Heading mode VOR and disconnects on the route and flies the last heading
flies through the VOR cone of silence The for a fixed period.
autopilot:
596 For an aircraft with a non-synchronised the pilot ensuring that the being in a straight and disengaging the switching on the yaw
autopilot system, `snatching' of the aircraft is trimmed out level position autotrim dampers.
controls by the autopilot when engaging before selecting or
or disengaging can be prevented by: disengaging the autopilot
597 With the autopilot in CWS the pilot heading and altitude heading, speed and altitude and attitude attitude at the time of
manoeuvres the aircraft and releases attitude release.
control The aircraft will maintain
598 For a commercial aircraft operating with three axes Heading mode Altitude Hold and Altitude Hold, Heading
a single pilot in IFR the minimum Heading mode mode and Speed.
requirement is that the autopilot should
have control in:
599 An air driven DGI is corrected for when flying north from 56°N when flying east from when flying south when flying west from
apparent wander at 56°N If the aircraft is the true heading of the 56°N the true heading from 56°N the true 56°N the true heading
maintaining constant DGI readings: aircraft will decrease. will decrease. heading will decrease. will increase.
600 The formula used to calculate apparent +15 sine latitude in degrees +15 sine latitude in -15 sine latitude in 15 sine latitude in
wander of a directional gyro in the for the time of running. degrees per hour. degrees per hour. degrees per hour
northern hemisphere is: increasing.
601 A 2 axis gyro, measuring vertical changes one degree of freedom, two degrees of one degree of two degrees of freedom,
will have: vertical axis freedom, vertical axis freedom, horizontal horizontal axis
axis
602 The properties of a gyro are: mass , rigidity & inertia rigidity & precession rigidity & inertia mass & inertia
603 An aircraft fitted with a Direct Reading no change oscillation about north a turn towards east a turn towards west
Magnetic Compass (DRMC) upon landing
in a northerly direction will indicate:
604 Which of the following will effect a direct ferrous metals only ferrous metals & ferrous metals & non- all of the above
reading compass? electrical equipment ferrous metals
605 A vibrator may be fitted to an altimeter friction hysterysis lag pressure error
to overcome:
606 An aircraft is flying at constant indicated correct greater than the real less than the real oscillating around the
altitude, over a warm airmass The altitude altitude correct altitude
altimeter reading will be:
607 CAS is IAS corrected for: position and instrument instrument, pressure relative density only compressibility
error and density error
608 A DGI has; one degree of freedom & a two degrees of two degrees of one degree of freedom &
horizontal spin axis freedom & a vertical freedom & a a vertical spin axis
spin axis horizontal spin axis

609 An aircraft is flying at an indicated 16,200 ft 15,200 ft 18,600 ft 13,500 ft
altitude of 16,000ft. The outside air
temperature is -30° C What is the true
altitude of the aircraft?
610 The main cause of error in a DRMC is: parallax in the rose turning magnetic deviation latitude
611 QNH is: the airfield barometric the setting that will the equivalent sea the setting that will
pressure give zero indication on level pressure at the indicate airfield height
the airfield airfield
612 What is the Schuler period? 21 minutes 84 minutes 1 oscillation in 63 minutes
azimuth
613 The vertical reference of a data horizontal axis with 1 vertical axis with 1 horizontal axis with 2 vertical axis with 2
generation unit is: degree of freedom degree of freedom degree of freedom degree of freedom
614 The torque motor of a gyro stabilised precesses the directional takes its input from moves the heading moves the Selsyn stator
magnetic compass: gyro the flux valve pointer
615 A factor giving an error on a direct crosswinds - particularly on parallax due to acceleration on turning through
indicating compass would be: east/west headings oscillations of the east/west headings east/west headings
compass rose
616 A rate integrating gyro is used in: inertial navigation inertial attitude autopilot rate of turn
unit&autopilot system unit&inertial navigation system&stabiliser indicator&inertial
unit servo mechanism navigation unit
system
617 The errors of a DGI are: earth rate&transport banking when pitched both a & b none of the above
wander up&mechanical
problems
618 If the needle and the ball of a Turn & Slip turn to left & too much bank turn to right & too turn to left & too little turn to right & too little
indicator both show right, what does it much bank bank bank
indicate:
619 When descending through an isothermal increase at a linear rate increase at an remain the same decrease
layer at constant CAS, what does the TAS exponential rate
do?
620 Descending from FL390 at maximum VMo initially then MMo at a MMO initially then VNE initially then VNO initially then VNE at
groundspeed, what will the pilot be specified altitude VMO at a specified MMO at a specified a specified altitude
limited by: altitude altitude
621 At constant weight, regardless of EAS TAS ground speed CAS
altitude, an aircraft always lifts off at a
constant:
622 VFE is the maximum speed that: the flaps can be operated the flaps may be the flaps may be the flaps may be
extended in the take- extended in the extended in a specified

off configuration landing configuration configuration
623 The white arc on the ASI indicates: Vs1, at the lower end and Vso at the lower end Vso at thelower end Vs1 at the lower end and
VLE at the upper end and VLE at the upper and VFE at the upper VFE at the upper end
end end
624 An ASI circuit consists of pressure total pressure & static dynamic pressure static pressure total pressure
sensors. The Pitot Probe measures: pressure
625 If a pitot source is blocked in an ASI, and ASI reading goes to zero ASI under reads ASI over reads ASI behaves like an
the drain hole is blocked, but the static altimeter
source is open, what will happen ?
626 In a turn at constant angle of bank, the independent of weight and dependant on weight independent of dependant on weight
rate of turn is: proportional a to TAS and inversely weight and inversely and proportional to TAS
proportional to TAS proportional a to TAS
627 The Turn Indicator is a useful gyroscopic angular velocity about the direction of turn& angular velocity about angular velocity about
instrument. When used in association yaw axis& angular velocity angular velocity about true vertical axis& the yaw axis & direction
with an attitude indicator will show: about true vertical axis true vertical axis speed of turn of turn
628 If an aircraft, fitted with a DRMC, takes a turn to the north oscillates about west no turn a turn to south
off on a westerly heading, in the northern
hemisphere, the DRMC will indicate:
629 When turning through 90° at constant nose up and correct angle of attitude and bank nose up and bank nose up and bank angle
attitude and bank, a classic Artificial bank angle are correct angle too low too high
Horizon indicates:
630 The factors which will affect a Turn aircraft speed & aircraft angle of bank & angle of bank & all of the above
Indicator are: weight aircraft speed aircraft weight
631 The properties of a Turn Indicator are: One degree of freedom, & two degrees of One degree of two degrees of freedom ,
spin axis horizontal freedom, & spin axis freedom, & spin axis & spin axis horizontal
parallel to the yaw axis in the longitudinal
plane
632 A gravity erector system corrects errors DGI artificial horizon turn indicator RIMC
on a:
633 In a Gyro magnetic Compass the flux gate heading indicator amplifier error detector erecting system
transmits information to the:
634 VNO is the max speed which: the pilot can fully deflect the should only be should never be must not be exceeded for
controls. exceeded in still air and exceeded. flap/gear extension
with caution.
635 If the static vent becomes blocked on an open the window. break the VSI glass. compute altitude Select standby pitot
unpressurised a/c, what could you do?: mathematically. source
636 What does the "barbers pole" on an ASI VMO& altitude. VMO& temperature. VNO VNE
indicate?:
637 On board a/c, true altitude shown from: standard atmosphere. pressure altitude. density altitude. temperature altitude.
638 On a turn and slip indicator, needle to the turn to the right, not enough turn to the left, too turn to the left, not turn to the right, too
left and ball to the right indicates: bank. much bank. enough bank. much bank.
639 What is density altitude: altitude in the standard pressure altitude temperature altitude. pressure corrected
atmosphere at which the corrected for prevailing
prevailing density is equal to temp.
the density in the standard
atmosphere
640 A radio altimeter is: ground based and measures ground based and a/c based and a/c based and measures
true altitude. measures true height. measures true true height.
altitude.
641 An a/c is travelling at 120 kts, what angle 30° 12° 18° 35°
of bank would be required for a rate 1
(one) turn:
642 An a/c is travelling at 100 kts forward 500 ft/min. 300 ft/min. 250 ft/min. 600 ft/min.
speed on a 3° glideslope. What is its rate
of descent?:
643 If the pitot tube is leaking (and the pitot under-read. over-read. over-read in the climb, under-read in the climb,
drain is blocked) in a non-pressurised a/c, under-read in the over-read in the descent.
the ASI will: descent.
644 An RMI rose is mechanically stuck on 090 225 degrees. 135 degrees. Cannot be 000 degrees.
degrees. The ADF pointer indicates 225 determined.
degrees. What is the relative bearing to
the beacon?
645 Using a classic Artificial Horizon, the a/c Nose up, too much bank. Nose up, not enough Nose up, wings level. Bank and pitch correct.
performs a right turn through 270 bank.
degrees at a constant angle of bank and
rate of turn. The indication is:
646 In a DGI what error is caused by the gyro Earth Rate Transport Wander real wander latitude error
movement relative to the earth?
647 In a right turn while taxiing, the correct Needle left, ball right. Needle left, ball left. Needle right, ball Needle right, ball left.
indications are: right.
648 An aircraft is taking of on a runway compass moves to less than compass moves to Compass stays on compass remains on 045°
heading 045°, in still air, with a compass 045° more than 045° 045° if wings are kept
having 0° deviation The runway is on an level
agonic line What are the northerly
turning errors (northern hemisphere) ?
649 True heading can be converted into A map with isogonal lines. A map with isoclinal A deviation card. A deviation curve
magnetic heading using a compass and: lines.
650 At sea level ISA, TAS: Equals CAS Is greater than CAS Is less than CAS None above is correct.
651 What will the altimeter read if the layers read lower than the real read higher then the read the correct readings will fluctuate
beneath the aircraft are all colder than altitude real altitude altitude
standard?
652 The flux valve in a RIMC is supplied with AC current is fed with DC. is made of perm-alloy has its own self exciter
(usually 487.5 Hz). magnetic steel. unit.
653 An artificial horizon has: 1 degree of freedom and an 2 degree of freedom 1 degree of freedom 2 degree of freedom and
horizontal axis. and an horizontal axis. and a vertical axis. a vertical axis.
654 The rigidity of a gyro is improved by: Increasing RPM and Increasing RPM and Decreasing RPM and Decreasing RPM and
concentrating the mass on concentrating the mass concentrating the concentrating the mass
the periphery of the rotor. at the hub of the rotor. mass on the periphery at the hub of the rotor.
of the rotor.
655 What is the speed of sound at sea level 644kts. 661 kts. 1059 kts 583kts.
ISA
656 What is the speed of sound at 25,000 ft 624kts. 618kts. 601 kts 610kts.
and -28 degrees C.
657 What is the speed of sound at 30,000 ft 562kts. 595kts. 590kts. 661 kts.
and -40 degrees C.
658 A compass swing is used to: align compass north with align compass north align magnetic north get true north and lubber
magnetic north. with true north. with true north. line aligned.
659 The TAT probe measures TAT by: TAT = SAT + kinetic heating. TAT = SAT - heating TAT = SAT - kinetic TAT = SAT + heating due
due to compressibility. heating. to compressibility.
660 If a pitot tube and drains are blocked at read constant airspeed. under read. over read. show zero.
altitude by icing, during a descent the ASI
will:
661 The frequency band used for a Radio SHF VHF UHF LF
Altimeter is:
662 What is the purpose of the latitude nut in to correct for latitude error to correct for to correct for earth to correct for coriolis
a DGI ? transport wander rate error
663 Total Air Temp is always ________ than warmer, altitude. colder, altitude. warmer, CAS. colder, CAS.
Static Air Temp and the difference varies
with ________
664 In a slightly banked turn, the turn needle roll rate. rate of yaw. angular velocity about rate of pitch.
will indicate: the vertical axis.
665 What are the upper and lower limits of lower limit VLO and upper lower limit VLE and lower limit VNO and lower limit VLO and
the yellow arc on an ASI? limit VNE upper limit VNE upper limit VNE upper limit VLE
666 What does the blue line on an ASI of a VYSE VNOS V FE VMCA
twin propeller engined aircraft indicate ?
667 The gravity erecting device on a vertical directional gyro unit turn indicator artificial horizon gyromagnetic device
gyro is used on which instrument;
668 In a VSI lag error is improved by: bi-metalic strip two use of an return spring
accelerometer system
669 An aircraft fitted with a DRMC is landing 180° turn to east no apparent turn turn to west All above are correct
in a southerly direction, in the Southern
Hemisphere. What indications will be
seen on the DRMC ?
670 What is the maximum drift of a gyro, due 90° per hour 180° per hour 15° per hour 5° per hour
to earth rate:
671 When turning through 180° at constant nose up and correct angle of attitude and bank nose up and bank nose up and bank angle
attitude and bank, a classic Artificial bank angle are correct angle too low too high
Horizon indicates:
672 What is the Schuler period? 48 minutes 84 seconds 48 seconds 84 minutes
673 You are flying at a constant FL 290 and remain approximately increase by 10 kts decrease by 10 kts will increase or decrease
constant mach number. The total constant depending on whether
temperature increases by 5°. The CAS you are above or below
will: ISA.
674 An aircraft turns from south-west to 130° 115° 140° 155°
south-east when situated at 45°N, what
heading should you roll out on if using a
DRMC ?
675 What is SAT ? relative temperature differential relative temperature ambient temperature
measured in K temperature measured measured in °C measured in °C
in K
676 Where is the earth rate wander, and the North Pole Equator 45° N 45° S
transport wander of a gyro equal to zero?
677 What happens when the static pressure reduces to zero overreads under reads indicates altitude at
supply, to an altimeter, becomes blocked which blockage occurred
during a descent ?
678 What happens when the static vent ASI acts opposite to an ASI always over reads / ASI always under ASI acts like an altimeter
supplying an ASI is blocked, and the ram altimeter reads a higher value reads / reads a lower
air inlet remains clear ? value
679 In a left turn while taxiing, the correct Needle left, ball right. Needle left, ball left. Needle right, ball Needle right, ball left.
indications are: right.
680 VNE is defined as: the speed which must not the speed above which the speed which must the maximum speed for
be exceeded in still air, or the landing gear may never be exceeded normal flap extension to
without caution not be extended be selected
681 In a left turn, the ball of the turn co- more right rudder less right bank more left bank more left rudder
ordinator is out to the right, what
corrective action is required?
682 In a gyro magnetic compass, where does the flux gate error detector the rotor gimbal amplifier
the torque motor get its information
from'?
683 What are the advantages of a laser gyro has a longer cycle life takes longer to set up/ uses more power takes longer to align
compared to a conventional gyro ? spin up
684 Which instrument has a 2° rotation in the artificial horizon flux detector directional gyro turn indicator
horizontal axis? indicator
685 The maximum drift error sensed by an 15° per hour 30° per hour 45° per hour 60° per hour
uncompensated DGI will be:
686 The green arc on the ASI is used to Vso to VNO VS1 to VFE VS1 to V NO VS1 to VLO
identify which speed range:
687 Pressure altitude may be defined as: lowest forecast regional pressure measured in altitude indicated with altitude indicated with
pressure the standard QFE set on the QNH set on the altimeter
atmosphere altimeter
688 What is the effect on an altimeter a change in hysterysis error a change in the a change in the a change in the
reading if variations in static pressure instrument error position error compressibility error
occur near to the pressure source ?
689 What is the value of the angle of 0° 45° 90° 60°
magnetic dip at the South Pole ?
690 A standby artificial horizon must have the a remote gyro &its own only to be used in both a & b its own power supply &
following properties: power supply emergency its own gyro
691 The single most significant item which electromagnetic pick-off logarithmic scale temperature multiple pointers
makes a servo altimeter more accurate is: compensated spring
692 Which of the following gyro instruments artificial horizon turn indicator directional gyro slaved gyro compass
has one degree of freedom?
693 If a large aircraft is slide slipped to under read read correctly Over read fluctuate
starboard, and the port static vent is
blocked, what will the altimeter read ?
694 The right static vent is blocked, when the Over read under read unaffected None of the above
aircraft yaws to the right. Does the
altimeter:
695 If the radio altimeter fails: height information aural warning given radio alt flag, red radio alt flag and red
disappears lamp, and aural lamp activates.
warning given
696 VNO is defined as: maximum structural cruising never exceed speed manoeuvring speed maximum operating
speed speed
697 If the left static vent is blocked, and the read correctly whatever the under read if side slipping to the if side slipping to the
right static vent is clear. What will the situation left, altimeter will right, altimeter will over
altimeter read if the aircraft maintains over read. read.
constant level?
698 An aircraft is flying at constant indicated greater than the real standard altitude same as the real less than the real altitude
altitude, over a cold airmass. The altitude altitude
altimeter reading will be:
699 An aircraft is accelerating to take-off on a less than 45° more than 45° correct if wings are correct
runway with a QDM of 045°. Which way level
does the DRMC move, if the aircraft is in
the Northern Hemisphere ?
700 When turning right onto north, through 020° 360° 340° 320°
90°, what heading on your DIC should
you roll out on, if the aircraft is in the
Northern Hemisphere?
701 What does a radio altimeter, for an height of aircraft wheels height of the aircraft altitude of the aircraft altitude of the aircraft
aircraft in the landing configuration, above the ground above the ground wheels
measure:
702 Why is a servo altimeter better than a it has a pick-off coil it is more accurate at it has ambient it is fitted with a knocking
sensitive altimeter/ low level pressure in the device
capsule
703 In an altimeter what is fed to: the capsule vacuum static input static input vacuum pitot input static total input ambient
(i) and to the case (ii)? (i) (ii) input input
704 What principle does the radio altimeter pulse modulation amplitude modulation pulse modulation and frequency modulation
work on ? carrier wave and carrier wave
705 What is indicated on the ASI when the under reads reads correctly over reads reads zero
static vent blocks during a descent ?
706 A rate integrating gyro is used in: inertial attitude unit autopilot system inertial navigation a rate of turn indicator
system
707 The error in a Directional Gyro due to the 10.6° Clockwise 10.6° Anti-clockwise 7.6° Clockwise 7.6° Anti-clockwise
earth's rotation, at a mean latitude of 45°
N, will cause the spin axis to move by:
708 What are the components of a Ring Laser mirrors and 2 cavities 2 anodes and 2 2 beams of laser light horizontal gryo axis and 1
Gyro ? cathodes degree of freedom
709 Where on the earth's surface is the earth 15° 30° 0° 90°
rate drift of a DGI equal to 15.04° per

hour ?
710 The pendulous type correction detector torque on the sensitive axis two torque motors on pendulous internal one torque motor
fitted to the DGI provides: the horizontal axis nozzle on the outer
gimbal
711 An aircraft is fitted with two altimeters. ATC will receive erroneous at high speed the non- provided that the ADC at high speed the non-
One is corrected for position error, the information of flight level compensated altimeter is working normally, compensated altimeter
other is not corrected for position error will show a lower there will be no error will show a higher
altitude to either altimeter altitude
712 Density altitude is defined as: the altitude of the airfield the altitude reading on the altitude the altitude showing on
elevation corrected for the altimeter which has corresponding to the the altimeter with the
Lapse Rate QNH set on it standard atmosphere lowest regional QNH set
compensated for
ambient density
713 The pitot tube of an ASI gives a direct static pressure total & static pressure total pressure dynamic pressure
reading of:
714 When descending from FL230 to FL50 at VMO VMO then MMO MMO then VMO MMO
maximum speed, the limitations which
apply are:
715 The pressure measured at the forward dynamic pressure static pressure total pressure total pressure + static
face of the Pitot probe is: pressure
716 What has inputs from the flux valve; error detector heading indicator amplifier precession motor
717 Sound propagates at a speed which density temperature temperature & pressure
depends only on; pressure
718 What aircraft system uses a frequency of SSR radio altimeter weather radar ATC radar
4,400 MHz ?
719 A low altitude Radio Altimeter, used in 1540MHz to 1660 MHz frequency modulation frequency modulation pulse transmissions and
precision approaches, has the following range and an accuracy of +/- and height range and an accuracy of +/- frequency modulation
characteristics: 2ft between 0 and 500ft between 0 and 5,000ft 2ft between 0 and
500ft
720 A modern low altitude Radio Altimeter pulse modulated waves, Frequency modulated Wave modulation, Triangular wave, with the
uses the principle of: with the difference between waves, where the with frequency shift frequency shift of the
the transmitted and difference between the due to Doppler effect ground reflected wave
received waves displayed on transmitted wave and of the ground being measured
a circular screen. the received wave is reflected wave being
measured. measured
721 The frequencies used in a low altitude 5 GHz to 6 GHz 5400 MHz and 9400 4200 MHz to 4400 2700 MHz to 2900 MHz
Radio Altimeter are: MHz MHz
722 The difference between Magnetic North deviation curve deviation card map with isoclinic map with isogonal lines
and True North can be derived by: lines
723 A direction gyro gets its directional air data computer direct reading flight director flux valve
information from: magnetic compass
724 What is the principle of operation of a differential pressure across total pressure in a static pressure in a dynamic pressure in a
VSI: a capsule capsule capsule capsule
725 In a Remote Indicating Compass, what gyro precession signal flux valve annunciator error detector
component feeds the Amplifier?
726 An aircraft turns right, through 90o, onto 010° 030° 330° 350°
North, at 48N, using a direct indicating
compass. The aircraft is turning at rate 2.
What heading should the aircraft roll out
on?
727 What is the normal operating range of a 0 to 2,500ft 50ft to 2500ft 0 to 10,000ft 0 to 7,500ft
low altitude Radio Altimeter?
728 What is a radio altimeter used for? to determine aircraft height to determine aircraft to determine pressure to detennine aircraft
above mean sea level height above ground altitude altitude
level
729 You commence a rate 2 turn from south- 240° 255° 235° 205°
east to south-west, in the Northern
Hemisphere. On what heading do you
stop the turn ?
730 A directional gyro is valid only for a short earth rotation , a/c motion earth rotation, a/c earth rotation , all of the above
period of time. The causes of this over the earth & gyro mass motion over the earth longitudinal
inaccuracy are; & mechanical defects accelerations & a/c
motion over the earth
731 A VMO / MMO alarm system, on an subjected to static pressure subjected to dynamic subjected to static subjected to dynamic
airline aircraft, is fitted with an aneroid and an anemometer pressure and an pressure and an pressure and an
capsule which is: subjected to dynamic anemometer subjected anemometer anemometer subjected
pressure to static pressure subjected to static to dynamic pressure
pressure
732 An aircraft, in the southern hemisphere, an apparent turn to north an apparent turn to correctly an oscillation about west
is decelerating to land on a westerly south
heading. The direct reading magnetic
compass will indicate:
733 What is the input to a VSI ? static pressure differential pressure total pressure dynamic pressure
734 The component(s) used to align an Accelerometers and Accelerometers Flow inductors Gyroscopes
inertial strap-down unit in the horizontal gyroscopes
plane is/are:
735 A ring laser gyro consists of ; A gyro with 2 degrees of Two moving cavities A laser split into two Two electrodes (anodes
freedom using mirrors beams and cathodes)
736 The Directional Gyro Indicator (DGI) can: not align itself with can automatically align have 1° of freedom have 2° of freedom
magnetic north itself with magnetic
north
737 The Pitot tube comprises a mast to avoid disturbance from position it outside the anti-ice protection easy access for
position it below the skin of the aircraft aerodynamic flow about the boundary layer maintenance
for: aircraft
738 Using a classic Artificial Horizon, the a/c Nose up, too much bank. Nose up, not enough Nose up, wings level. Bank and pitch correct.
performs a right turn through 360 bank.
degrees at a constant angle of bank and
rate of turn. The indication is:
739 Find the correct answer : The inner gimbal of V.G The outer gimbal of The inner gimbal of The V.G gives pitch while
show roll. V.G show pitch. V.G show pitch the D.G gives roll and
heading information.
740 In the turn and slip indicator : Rate gyro is used for turn Rate gyro is used for Rate gyro is used for Rate gyro is used for
indication while gravity is slip indication while turn indication while bank indication while
used for slip indication. gravity is used for turn gravity is used for gravity is used for turn
indication. bank indication. indication.
741 The rate gyro used in a turn indicator has The longitudinal axis The athwartship axis The vertical axis The fore and aft axis.
its axis aligned in :
742 In a capacitor type fuel quantity indicator The capacitance decrease if The capacitance The capacitance will None of the above.
: fuel is decreased. increase if fuel is change with fuel
decreased. quantity and
temperature.
743 If an aircraft turns East from Northerly The Easterly deviation The Westerly deviation The dip will increase. The dip will decrease.
heading in the northern hemisphere, increase with no change in increase with no
dip. change in dip.
744 An accelerometer usually measures In one direction only. In two directions at a In all three directions none of the above
acceleration : time. (X,Y,Z) at a time.
745 The magnetic equator is : An agonic line. An isoclinic line. An aclinic line. An isogonic line.
746 Compass deviation is due to : Aircraft magnetic field. Earth’s magnetic field. Magnetic storm. None of the above.
747 A gyro will not precess when an external force is when the rotor is when there is friction when an external force is
applied perpendicular to the unbalanced but there is in the bearings but no applied along the spin
spin axis. no gravitational force. external force is axis.
present.
748 The strength of the horizontal varies with the sine of dip. does not vary with varies with cosine of vary with latitude but
component of earth’s magnetic field : latitude. dip. does not vary with the
cosine of dip.
749 If in an altimeter, the setting (mBar) is increase decrease remain unaffected become unstable.
decreased the reading of the altimeter
will :
750 The cause of apparent precession is : Earth’s rotation. Change of latitude and Both (a) and (b) are Mechanical
longitude. correct. imperfections of the
gyro.
751 During entry of initial co-ordinates, the accepts wrong latitude. accepts wrong accepts both wrong does not accept wrong
inertial navigation system : longitude. latitude and latitude or longitude.
longitude.
752 When an aircraft flies 2 dots below gives a “GLIDESLOPE” hard gives a “GLIDESLOPE” does not give any does not give any GPW
glideslope, the GPWS : warning. soft warning. “GLIDESLOPE” warning.
warning.
753 Find the incorrect statement : The amplifier of an AP The servometer acts as The detector detects The detector detects the
strengthens the signal from a muscle to move the the position of the change in attitude of the
the detector to operate the control surfaces. control surfaces. aircraft.
servometer.
754 The auto pilot when engaged : can maintain aircraft can capture a new can capture a new All of the above are
heading and altitude. selected heading. selected altitude. correct.
755 The auto pilot : relieves the human pilot of assists in navigation improves safety but All of the above are
flying fatigue. with the help of other does not replace the correct.
instruments. human pilot.
756 The flight director command bars on the fly up and left fly down and right fly down and left fly up and right
display shown are commanding
757 Where are the flight director modes PFD ND EICAM FD control panel
displayed ?
758 The autopilot is in heading select mode, roll command bar goes full roll command bar the heading command roll command bar moves
and the aircraft is flying on a heading of deflection right and then moves to right and bar will disappear and to the right and then
270°. If you change heading to 360°, the doesn't move until the centres when AFDS the heading hold will progressively returns to
flight director command bars will; aircraft heading is within 30° angle of bank to disengage the centre as the
of the selected heading intercept has been deviation from the
achieved selected heading reduces
759 What are the basic functions of an Heading hold &Speed hold Maintain pitch attitude Maintain wings level all of the above
autopilot? & Maintain wings level & Altitude hold
760 At 50 feet agl during an autoland, what continues to be actioned is disconnected is factored for range is used to flare the
happens to the glideslope signal ? aircraft
761 What is the wavelength of an ILS signal Centimetric Hectometric Metric Decimetric
762 The interception of the localiser beam by on a constant magnetic a mode using an a mode using an on a constant heading
the autopilot is: course interception verses interception verses
range computation radio deviation law
763 Engagement of the autopilot is not electrical supply is the turn control knob there is a fault in the all of the above
possible when: faulty&there is a is not set to centre off attitude reference
synchronisation fault unit
764 On which instrument are the flight Primary EICAS ADI ND EHSI
director bars normally present?
765 What happens at 50ft whilst carrying out glideslope and localiser radio altimeter radio altimeter glideslope disconnects
an autolanding? disconnect and aircraft controls the rate of controls the angle of and aircraft continues
continues to land descent attack descent
766 If you have selected a heading of 180° only if aircraft is subject to only if aircraft is cannot be centralised will only be central when
and are flying aircraft on heading of 160° 20° port drift subject to 20° flying correct attitude to
to intercept the correct course, the ADI starboard drift intercept desired heading
vertical bar be central when?
767 If the autopilot is selected to VOR mode, Temporarily follows current VOR disengages and The pilot must select The pilot manually flies
what happens if the aircraft flies over the heading until exiting the Heading hold engages an alternate roll mode the aircraft following
cone of confusion`? cone of confusion flight director roll
commands.
768 The autopilot disconnects (or the 100 ft decision height flare roll out
autoland is completed) at:
769 The control law in a fly-by-wire system is how the pilot's control input and output at computer input the versine signal
a relationship between: demands are translated into the amplifier level deviation data and between the ailerons and
control surface movements. respectively control the flap position elevators
deviation data modification
770 What are the autopilot minimum Two axis autopilot with Two axis autopilot Single axis autopilot Single axis autopilot with
requirements in order to fly single pilot altitude hold and heading with altitude hold, with Altitude hold Heading select and VS
operations in IFR conditions or at night ? hold. heading hold, VOR only
tracking and Alt acquire
771 When flying level in the cruise the Autopilot, Autopilot Auto-throttle, Auto- Auto-throttle, Autopilot, Auto-throttle
.............. holds height and the .............. throttle Autopilot
holds the speed:
772 At what height during a semi-automatic 100 ft 45 ft Decision height 14 ft
landing is the autopilot disengaged:
773 At the missed approach point the TOGA GA power selected & Pilot Autopilot selects max. Autopilot selects max. GA power selected &
switch on the throttles is depressed. manually fly’s manoeuvre power & Pilot manually power & Autopilot Aircraft automatically
Which of the following statements are fly’s manoeuvre fly’s the GA cleans up
correct : manoeuvre
774 If a Go-Around is initiated from an auto- the pilot retracts the flap the auto throttle both a & b none of the above
approach : and the landing gear to selects maximum
reduce drag & the autopilot power as soon as the
monitors the climb TOGA switch is pressed
& the pilot performs
the climb
775 An auto-land system which can continue Fail passive Fail Soft Fail Safe Fail active
to automatically land the aircraft after a
single failure is called :
776 Where can the pilot look to see the PFD overhead panel throttle control panel EICAS
autothrottle mode ?
777 Where can the pilot look to see the thrust PFD Overhead panel Throttle control panel Primary EICAS
limit mode ?
778 The autopilot is engaged with no modes wing leveling altitude hold Auto-stability with LNAV and VNAV
selected. What is the autopilot providing: auto-trim
779 When is an Autoland procedure complete At the markers At the beginning of the At decision height At the flare
ground roll
780 During aCAT2 approach, what is providing Capsule stack Radio Altimeter Captain's barometric Central Air Data
the height information altimeter Computer
781 Autoland Flare is initiated at 1500 ft 330 ft 50 ft 5 ft
782 An autopilot capable of altitude hold and Single pilot operation in Single pilot operation Aircraft over 5700kg. Dual pilot operation (in
heading hold is a minimum requirement VMC and IMC. under IFR and at night. IFR).
for:
783 During a fully automatic landing the and the auto-throttle and the auto-throttle and the auto-throttle controls the approach (at
autopilot: control the approach at control the approach at control the approach least) until the roll-out,
least until the flare. least until the roll-out. at least until decision the pilot controls the
height. power.
784 A landing is considered to be Automatic autothrottle maintains autothrottle autopilot flies the ILS none of the above
when: speed until Decision Height, disengages thrust at until the flare & the
and then disengages 50ft & the flare is flare is automatic
automatic
785 In an autopilot system, modes for Yaw damper , Pitch attitude Yaw damper , Pitch Yaw damper , Pitch attitude holding ,
stabilising the a/c include which of the holding & ASI & Mach hold attitude holding & Horizontal wing ASI & Mach hold &
following: Horizontal wing holding holding & Altitude Altitude holding
holding
786 In an autopilot system, a/c flight path Pitch attitude holding , Pitch attitude holding , Horizontal wing VOR axis holding ,Inertial
modes include which of the following: Horizontal wing holding & Horizontal wing holding holding , Inertial heading holding & ASI
Inertial heading holding & ASI and Mach hold heading holding & and Mach hold
Yaw damper
787 An autopilot system whereby if one A/P passive. safe. operational. redundant.
fails cannot carry out an auto-land is
called fail
788 In a yaw damper: ailerons are moved in ailerons are moved in rudder is moved in rudder is moved in
proportion to Mach No. proportion to rate of proportion to Mach proportion to rate of
angular velocity. No. angular velocity.
789 LOC ARMED lights up on the annunciator, localiser beam captured. localiser armed and localiser alarm is on. ILS is captured
this means: awaiting capture.
790 What is the most basic function of an altitude hold heading hold wing leveller altitude and heading hold
autopilot?
791 What does the autopilot pitch / rotate centre of gravity manoeuvre point centre of pressure neutral point
around?
792 During a semi-automatic landing the A/P is disengaged at DH the A/T flies airspeed the A/P flies the the A/T flies approach
having followed the ILS. down to approximately approach and flare speed and disengages
30 ft and automatically and roll-out. automatically at DH
disengages.
793 If only a single A/P is used to climb, cruise it is fail passive with it is fail operational it is fail soft and will it is fail safe and will
and approach; following a failure: redundancy. and will not not disconnect. disconnect.
disconnect.
794 In heading select the autopilot delivers proportional to TAS, but not Proportional to the Set bank of 15 both a and b
roll commands to the controls to bank beyond a specified deviation from the degrees &
the aircraft: maximum. selected heading. Proportional to the
deviation from the
selected heading
795 Auto-trim is fitted to an autopilot: To provide control about To prevent snatching To prevent snatching To correct for Mach tuck
lateral axis. on disengaging A/P. on engaging A/P
796 What is the purpose of the Prevents snatch on Prevents snatch on Pevents snatch on Cancels rudder control
synchronisation in an autopilot (list) disengagement & Pevents disengagement & engagement & May inputs & May not allow
snatch on engagement Cancels rudder control not allow the the autopilot to engage if
inputs autopilot to engage if unserviceable
unserviceable
797 When operating with the autopilot in ALT ALT hold disengages Nothing The aeroplane will The aeroplane will
hold mode what happens if the Captain's climb descend
barometric altimeter pressure setting is
increased
798 TO/GA is engaged automatically at GS capture automatically when an by the pilot pressing a by the pilot selecting
autopilot fails button on or near the flare
throttles
799 On crossing the cone of confusion of a Always coupled to the Temporarily Damped by a trim Temporarily switches to
VOR when in VOR mode of the autopilot selected VOR radial disconnected input from the lateral heading mode
what will happen to the roll channel trim system
800 The function of autotrim is to synchronise the to relieve forces on the to react to altitude to relieve forces on the
longitudinal loop autopilot servomotor changes in ALT HOLD control column before
prior to hand over mode hand over
801 What is the purpose of the wing main To withstand bending and To withstand To withstand To withstand bending
spar torsional loads compressive and compressive and and shear loads
torsional loads shear loads
802 What is the purpose of wing ribs To withstand the fatigue To shape the wing and To house the fuel and To provide local support
stresses support the skin the landing gear for the skin
803 What is the purpose of stringers To absorb the torsional and To produce stress risers To prevent buckling To support the primary
compressive stresses and support the fatigue and bending by control surfaces
metres supporting and
stiffening the skin
804 The airframe structure must remain The design ultimate load The design limit load Three times the The design limit load
substantially intact after experiencing: times a 1.5 safety factor plus the design safety factor times a 1.5 factor of
ultimate load safety
805 In the construction of airframes the Provide a means of Oppose hoop stresses Form the entrance Support the wings
primary purpose of frames or formers is attaching the stringers and and provide shape and door posts
to: skin panels form to the fuselage
806 Regarding a safe life structure: Has a programmed Is changed before its Both a and b None of the above
inspection cycle to detect predicted life is
and rectify faults reached
807 A fail safe structure Is changed before its Has a programmed Is secondary structure all of the above
predicted life is reached inspection cycle to of no structural
detect and rectify significance
faults
808 The skin of a modern pressurized aircraft Is made up of light alloy Houses the crew and Provides aerodynamic Is primary load bearing
steel sheets built on the the payload lift and prevents structure carrying much
monocoque principle corrosion by keeping of the structural loads
out adverse weather
809 The primary purpose of the fuselage is to: Support the wings House the crew and Keep out adverse Provide access to the
payload weather cockpit
810 Station numbers (Stn) and water lines A means of locating Passenger seat Runway markings for Compass alignment
(WL) are: airframe structure and locations guiding the aircraft to markings
components the terminal
811 Flight deck windows are constructed An amalgam of Strengthened glass Strengthened clear Strengthened glass with
from strengthened glass and vinyl with shock absorbing vinyl with an electrical rubber seals
with rubber pressure seals clear vinyl interlayer conducting coat for
and rubber pressure de-icing and rubber
seals pressure seals
812 A cantilever wing: Is externally braced with Is supported at one Has both an upper an Folds at the root section
either struts and/or bracing end only with no lower airfoil section to ease storage in
wires external bracing confined spaces
813 A torsion box: Is a structure within the Is a structure formed Is a structure within Is a structure designed to
fuselage to withstand between the wing the wing for housing reduce the weight
compression, bending and spars, skin and ribs to the fuel tanks, flight
twisting loads. resist bending and controls and landing
twisting loads gear
814 A lightening hole in a rib Prevents lightning strikes Provides a means of Collects and disposes Lightens and stiffens the
damaging the fuselage passing cables and of electrical charges structure
controls through a
pressure bulkhead
815 A damage tolérant structure Has degree of structural Is light, non load Is replaced when it Need not be repaired
strength redundancy spread bearing structure, reaches its predicted until the aircraft
over a large area damage to which will life undergoes deep
not adversely affect the maintenance
aircraft
816 Aircraft structures consists mainly of Light alloy steel sheets with Magnesium alloy Aluminium alloy Aluminium sheets and
copper rivets and titanium sheets with aluminium sheets and rivets with rivets with titanium or
or steel materials at points rivets and titanium or titanium or steel steel materials at points
requiring high strength steel at points materials at points requiring high strength
requiring high strength requiring high
strength
817 The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM) of The maximum permissible The maximum The maximum The maximum
an aircraft is take off mass of the aircraft. permissible mass of an permissible mass of an permissible landing mass
aircraft with no useable aircraft with zero
fuel payload
818 One of the following devices is used to Vortex generators. Wing fences Wing let Leading edge flap
divert the spanwise flow of air to
chordwise over the top surface of an
aerofoil:
819 The wing tip vortices is less: when pressure difference is when the angle of when the aircraft both a) and b) are
less attack is low speed is high correct
820 The purpose of the aileron trim tab is to : maintain straight and level reposition the aileron maintain wing level in none of the above
flight without pressure on to maintain wing level case of primary
the control wheel. control failure.
821 Effect of tail plane is considered mainly Lateral stability Longitudinal stability Directional Stability all the above are correct.
in maintaining:
822 As the airspeed increases: The wing shock-wave moves The wing shock-wave The wing shock-wave The wing shock-wave
backward moves forward remains in the same suddenly disappears
position
823 An aircraft using flaps can land at lower pitching up moment additional lift. increasing drag and flap acts as an air brake.
speed because of: decreasing lift.
824 An aircraft integral fuel tank is: removable from the a self sealing tank a part of the aircraft usually located in the
aircraft. structure bottom of the fuselage
825 In semi monocoque fuselage primary bulkhead formers longerons stringers
bending loads are taken by:
826 The function of the spoilers is to: break the airflow and create more lift create a smoother decrease airspeed during
destroy lift airflow over the wing steep descent
827 A force of 100N is applied to 2 separate The smaller jack will exert a The smaller jack will Both jacks will move Both have the same load.
jacks, the area of one is 0.02M² and the pressure of 2000Pa and the exert a pressure of at the same speed.
other is 0.04m²: larger 4000 Pa 5000 Pa and the larger
2500 Pa
828 A pre charge pressure of 1000 bar of gas 500 bar 1000 bar 1500 bar 2500 bar
is shown on the accumulator gauge. The
system is then pressurized to 1500 bar,
so the accumulator will read:
829 The pressure gauge of a hydraulic system the air in the accumulator. the air and hydraulic the proportional the hydraulic fluid in the
provides information regarding the fluid in the system. pressure in the system.
pressure of: system.
830 A shuttle valve: is used to replace NRVs. allows two supply allows one source to acts as a non-return valve
sources to operate one operate two units
unit
831 Def. Stan 91/48 is ---------- and is ------------ red, mineral red , synthetic green, mineral purple, synthetic
- based:
832 A restrictor valve: is used to restrict the controls the rate of controls the rate of controls the distance a
number of services available movement of a service build up of pressure in jack moves
after loss of system the system
pressure.
833 With a hydraulic lock there is: flow, but no jack movement no flow but jack no flow, jack is constant flow
continues to move stationary
under gravitational
effects.
834 The hydraulic fluid is changed, but the high operating fluid system failure from seal damage and jack normal operation
wrong fluid is replaced. This would lead temperature leaks and blocked corrosion
to: filters, high temp and
possible corrosion.
835 Accumulator floating piston: pushes the fluid up when pushes the fluid down provides a seal prevents a hydraulic lock
being charged. when being charged between the gas and
fluid
836 A relief valve: relieves below system maintains pressure to a relieves at its designed prevents excessive
pressure. priority circuit. pressure. pressure through
increased fluid
temperature.
837 The primary purpose of a hydraulic to compensate for leaks, to allow a space into to indicate system to maintain fluid
reservoir is: displacement and which spare fluid may contents. between a jack and the
expansion. be stored. accumulator.
838 With air in the hydraulic system you ignore it because normal bleed the air out of the allow the accumulator expect it to operate
would: operation would remove it. system. to automatically faster.
adjust itself.
839 The pressure filter in a hydraulic system: filters the fluid returning to is fitted down stream can be by passed clears the fluid as it
the tank. of the pump. when maximum flow leaves the reservoir.
is required.
840 Pascal's law states that pressure is inversely liquid is compressible oxygen can be used to applied force acts equally
proportional to load charge the in all directions.
accumulators.
841 A constant pressure hydraulic pump is an automatic cut out. engine RPM. a control piston. a swash plate that senses
governed by: the fluid temperature.
842 A high pressure hydraulic pump: needs a positive fluid does not need a outlet pressure is does not need a cooling
supply. positive fluid supply. governed by fluid flow.
centrifugal force.
843 Case drain filters are fitted to prevent debris from designed to allow to enable pump fitted in the reservoir
the reservoir reaching the hydraulic pump lubricating fluid to be outlet
system lubricating fluid to used to monitor pump
drain to atmosphere condition
844 The purpose of an accumulator is to: relieve excess pressure. store fluid under store compressed gas remove air from the
pressure. for tyre inflation. system.
845 With a one way check valve (NRV): flow stops when input flow stops when the flow starts when input flow stops when input
pressure is greater than thermal relief valve off pressure is less than pressure is less than
output pressure. loads the hand pump. output pressure. output pressure.
846 A restrictor valve is physically fitted in u/c up line and flap up line. u/c down line and flap u/c down line and flap supply line to the a/c
the: up line. down line. retraction actuator.
847 In the case of a failure of a cut-out valve: a full flow relief valve is a full flow relief valve is a full flow relief valve the terminal pressure will
fitted down stream of it. fitted upstream of it. is not required. be controlled by
adjusting the pump RPM.
848 Hydraulic pressure of 3000Pa is applied both have the same force. both jacks will move at the smaller jack will the smaller jack will exert
to an actuator, the piston area of which is the same speed. exert a force of 600N a force of 60N and the
0.02 and the same pressure is exerted on and the larger 1200N larger 120N
actuator whose area is 0.04
849 A separator in an accumulator: isolates the gas from the reduces the size of the removes the dissolved maintains the fluid level
fluid. accumulator required. gases from the fluid. in the reservoir.
850 In an operating hydraulic actuator the greatest near to the greatest at the high initially, falling as the same at all points.
pressure of the fluid will be: actuator due to the load opposite end to the the actuator
imposed on the jack. actuator due to the completes its travel.
load imposed on the
actuator
851 The contents of the hydraulic fluid fall below the "full" mark. fall to a position remain at the same rise above the "full"
reservoir are checked. They indicate that marked 'full level. mark.
the reservoir is at the full level. The accumulators charged'.
system is then pressurized. Will the
contents level:
852 A pressure maintaining or priority valve: enables ground operation of is used to ensure is used to control is used to increase
services when the engines available pressure is pressure to services pressure in the sys
are off. directed to essential requiring less than
services. system pressure.
853 A hydraulic lock occurs: when the thermal RV when fluid by passes a when flow is stopped when fluid and air enters
operates. system and returns to and the actuator is not the cylinder and only
the tank. able to move . fluid is allowed to bypass
to the reservoir.
854 In an enclosed system pressure is felt: more at the piston head more at the cylinder more when the piston the same at both ends
than the rest of the cylinder. end than the piston is moving than when it between the piston and
head. is stationary. the cylinder head.
855 A non return valve: can only be fitted if closes if inlet pressure opens if inlet pressure closes if inlet pressure
provided with a by pass exceeds outlet equals, outlet ceases.
selector. pressure. pressure.
856 Low gas pressure in accumulator causes: rapid jack movements. no effect on system. rapid pressure rapid and smooth
fluctuations while operation of system.
system is operating.
857 Hammering in system: is normal and does not is caused by pipe is an indication that a is detrimental to the
affect the systems diameter fluctuations. further selection is system.
efficiency. necessary.
858 The specification of hydraulic fluids always distinguishable by generally generally cannot be distinguished
(mineral, vegetable or ester based) is: taste and smell. distinguishable by distinguishable by by colour alone.
colour. colour only if they are
from the same
manufacturer.
859 An Automatic cut-off Valve(ACOV) will: provide an idling circuit extend the life of the provide an idling ensure the pump is
when a selection is made. accumulator. circuit when the always on load.
accumulator is fully
charged.
860 A shuttle valve will allow: the accumulator to be the pressure pump to two independent high pressure fluid to
emptied after engine shut off-load when the pressure sources to return to the reservoir if
down. system pressure is operate a the Full Flow Relief Valve
reached. system/component. fails.
861 The purpose of a reservoir is to: compensates for compensates for small compensates for fluid to minimize pump
temperature changes. leaks, expansion and loss. cavitation.
jack displacement.
862 When the hydraulic system pressure is reservoir air pressure will reservoir fluid contents reservoir fluid reservoir contents are
released increase. will rise if reservoir is contents will fall if dumped overboard.
lower than other reservoir is the
components in the highest point in the
system. system.
863 Hydraulic pressure in a closed system: is greater in pipes of larger is greater in pipes of does not vary with varies in direct
diameters. smaller diameters. pipe diameter. proportion to the system
demands.
864 Skydrol hydraulic fluid: needs no special safety is flame resistant but is is highly flammable is highly flammable but
precautions or treatment. harmful to skin, eyes and harmful to skin, not harmful in any other
and some paints. eyes and some paints. way.
865 Skydrol hydraulic fluid can be used to any hydraulic system hydraulic systems that any hydraulic system hydraulic systems that
replenish: without restriction. have butyl rubber seals in an emergency. have neopropane seals
only. only.
866 A variable displacement pump on system minimum stroke. an optimized position maximum stroke. mid stroke.
startup will be at: depending on fluid
viscosity.
867 The purpose of a reservoir is: to provide a housing for the to enable the contents to allow for fluid to provide a housing for
instrument transmitters. to be checked. displacements, small the main system pumps

leaks, thermal and so obviate the need
expansion and for backing pumps.
contents monitoring.
868 Hydraulic Thermal Relief Valves are to release all the pressure to release half the to relieve excess in isolated lines only to
fitted: back to return in an pressure back to return pressure back to the relieve excess pressure
overheat situation. in an overheat actuator in an caused by temperature
situation. overheat situation. rises.
869 A main system hydraulic pump: does not need a positive always needs a positive does not need a can be run dry without
fluid supply if primed before fluid supply in order to positive fluid supply in causing any damage.
startup. prevent cavitation. order to prevent
cavitation.
870 Different diameter actuators supplied exert the same force. will lift equal loads. will move at the same exert different forces.
with the same pressure at same rate: speed.
871 The function of an accumulator is to: Store fluid under pressure Dampen pressure Allow for fluid All of the above
fluctuations expansion
872 The seal materials used with hydraulic Natural rubber and Neoprene and natural Butyl and neoprene Neoprene and butyl
fluids to DEF/STAN 91-48 and SKYDROL neoprene rubber
700 specification are respectively
873 To prevent cavitation of the pump a pressurized bootstrapped above the pump all of the above
hydraulic reservoir may be:
874 A hand pump is usually fitted for ground servicing lowering the landing pressurising the oleo retracting the gear after
purposes gear in an emergency struts in the air take-off.
875 A one way restrictor: restricts fluid flow in one allows fluid flow in one allows fluid flow in restricts in one direction
direction and prevents in direction and prevents one direction and only during overpressure
the other direction in the other direction restricts in the other
direction
876 Dry air should be used to charge To a pressure greater than To a pressure lower Before installation in both b and c are correct
hydraulic accumulator : the pressure required to than the pressure the aircraft
operate a mechanism required to operate a
mechanism
877 Which of the following is a High flash point High viscosity Low moisture Low flash point
characteristics of skydrol ? retention
878 The purpose of the relief valve in relief the excess pressure to protect the system regulate the system both a & c are correct
hydraulic system is to: the atmosphere. from over pressure pressure
damage
879 Operation of more than one selector close centered hydraulic open centered simple hydraulic all the above are correct.
valve at any desired moment is possible system hydraulic system system
in :
880 The valve used in a hydraulic system that shuttle valve selector valve check valve sequence valve
directs pressurized fluid to one end of an
actuator cylinder and simultaneously
directs return fluid to the reservoir from
the other end is known as:
881 Oil is used in an oleo strut to : Support the weight of the Limit the speed of Lubricate the piston Limit the speed of
aircraft compression of the within the cylinder extension and
strut compression of the strut
882 The nose wheel assembly must be There is limited space in the The aircraft may The tyres may be It will remove any slush
centered before retraction because: nose wheel bay swerve on the next damaged on landing if or debris which may have
landing if the nose the nose wheel is not accumulated on take-off
wheel is not straight straight
883 The movement of the gear on lowering is Prevent the fluid becoming Counteract the force of Make the lowering Prevent the hydraulic
normally damped to: aerated gravity which would time greater than the fluid becoming
bring the gear down raising time overheated
too fast
884 Inadvertent retraction of the landing gear Not possible because the prevented by the always a danger after the responsibility of the
on the ground is : system is not powerful ground/air logic system the ground locks have first officer when he is on
enough been removed the aircraft
885 Creep or Slippage(slight movement of the is not a problem with refers to the can rip out the can be prevented by
tyre relative to the wheel): tubeless tyres movement of the inflation valve and painting lines on the
aircraft against the deflate the tyre wheel and tyre.
brakes
886 Tyre wear when taxying can be reduced : restricting the use of brakes taxying at less than 40 staying on the taxying at less than 25
and using thrust reversers kph smoothest parts of knots
the taxiway
887 To prevent scrubbing the tyres while use tyres with fusible plugs make sharp turns only turn no sharper than deflate the tyres to a
taxying, you should : if you have high speed the minimum minimum pressure
tyres fitted specified radius
888 The best extinguishant to use on a wheel CO2 Dry powder Freon Water
or brake fire is :
889 When inflating a tyre fitted to an aircraft, 1Opsi 10% 4psi 4%
the tyre pressure reading on the gauge
should be modified by :
890 The most likely cause of brake fade is: oil or grease on the brake worn stators the pilot reducing the overheating
drums brake pressure
891 The pressure needed to operate the the aircraft main hydraulic the pilots brake pedals a self contained the hydraulic reservoir
wheel brakes on a large aircraft comes system power pack

from:
892 Which of the following statements will Crossing the threshold at Applying full anti-skid Application of reverse All of the above
produce the shortest landing run: the correct height and braking as quickly as thrust as early as
speed possible after possible in the landing
touchdown run
893 The formula which gives the minimum VP= 9 X ÖP where P is VP= 9 X ÖP where P is VP= 9 X ÖP where P is VP= 34 X ÖP where P is
speed (VP) at which aquaplaning may kg/cm2 and VP is in knots psi and VP is in mph. psi and VP is in knots kg/cm2- and VP is in mph
occur is:
894 An aircraft has a tyre pressure of 225 psi , 135 mph 135 knots 145 knots 145 mph
its minimum aquaplaning speed will be:
895 Landing gear ground locking pins are: fitted before flight to ensure removed prior to flight fitted after flight to removed prior to flight
the landing gear locks are and returned to stores maintain a hydraulic and stowed on the
fully cocked. lock in the down lock aircraft where they are
jack visible to the crew.
896 The most likely cause of brake unit dirt between the rotor and grease on the rotor the brake pressure incorrect operation of
dragging is: stator assemblies assembly being too high the adjuster assemblies.
897 The anti-skid system would be used : on landing runs only on take off runs only for take off on icy for both take off and
runways landing runs
898 A hydraulic gear retraction mechanism an anti-skid braking system downlocks torque links a shock absorber.
consists of sequence valves, uplocks and:
899 A nose wheel steering control system; prevents the nosewheel allows the nosewheel allows the nosewheel prevents the nose gear
from castoring at all times to castor within preset to castor freely at all from lowering if the
limits when in the times nosewheels are not
neutral position centralized.
900 At an aircraft taxying speed of 10mph the inoperative operative operative only on the operative only on the
antiskid braking system is: nosewheel brakes main wheel brakes
901 The tyre pressures are checked after a fallen by 15% from their risen by 15% from their remained constant risen by 10% of their
long taxi to the ramp following landing. rated value rated value original value
The pressures will have:
902 The ply rating of a tyre : always indicates the number never indicates the indicates whether or is the index of the tyre
of cords or plies in the tyre number of cords or not an inner tube strength
carcass plies in the tyre carcass should be fitted
903 When the landing gear is selected UP the red, green, out. red, out, green green, red, out out, red, green
sequence of lights is:
904 The amount of wear on a reinforced , the offset wear groove marker tie bars concentric wear rings grey cushion rubber
ribbed tread tyre is indicated by:
905 In the event of an approach to land being continuous bell horn buzzer stick shaker
made with the throttle levers retarded

towards idle and the flaps down and the
gear up , the warning given to the pilot
will be a;
906 Lowering the gear using the free fall closing hydraulically closing mechanically remaining open being jettisoned
system will result in the main landing
gear doors :
907 With RTO (rejected take-off) selected and V1 is not reached after a Vr is not reached after reverse thrust is one of the thrust levers is
armed the brakes will be automatically predetermined distance a predetermined selected at any time returned to idle
applied if: distance
908 A green fusible plug is designed to deflate 177 ° C 277 ° C 155 ° C 199 ° C
the tyre if a temperature of --------is
reached.
909 The landing gear in modern aircraft are induced drag weight parasite drag both (b) and (c) are
retracted into the structure to reduce : correct.
910 Which of the following can be used as Wheel brakes Spoiler & aerodynamic Thrust reversers all the above are correct.
braking device in flight as well as during speed brakes
landing?
911 Shimmy can be prevented by: Implementing shimmy application of friction locking the wheel all the above are correct
dampers at the spindle of main while taxiing at low
wheel speed
912 The purpose of pulley wheels in cable to ensure the cable tensions to change the direction to ensure smooth to prevent the cable from
control systems is: are equal throughout the of the control cable operation of the slackening
system system
913 The purpose of the primary stops in a to set the range of to enable the to limit control to set the control surface
control system is movement of the control secondary stops to be movement to one neutral position
surface correctly spaced direction only
914 The purpose of the secondary stops in a to reduce the control loads to limit control surface to limit the secondary to remove the excess
control system is on the primary stops range in the event of control system from backlash in the controls
primary stop failure excessive movement
915 The purpose of the fairleads in a cable alter the angle of deflection to guide the cables on to attach the cables to to keep the cable straight
control system is to of the cables to the pulley wheels chain drives and clear of structure
916 In a cable control system cables are remove backlash from the provide tension on the provide tension on the all the above
tensioned to control linkage and provide turnbuckles and turnbuckles and
positive action in both compensate for ensure the full range
directions temperature variations is achieved
917 In a cable control system the cables are remove backlash from the provide positive action ensure the full range provide tension on the
mounted in pairs to control linkage in both directions is achieved turnbuckles
918 In a manual flying control system the are reversible and are are irreversible and are are reversible and are are reversible, are
control inputs to the primary control opposite for the movement opposite for the instinctive for the instinctive for the
surfaces required movement required movement required movement required and
are limited in range by
flight deck obstructions
919 To yaw the aircraft to the right the right rudder pedal is the right rudder pedal the left rudder pedal the left rudder pedal is
pushed forward and the is pushed forward and is pushed forward and pushed forward and the
rudder moves to the left the rudder moves to the rudder moves to rudder moves to the left
the right the left
920 To roll the aircraft to the right the rudder control is moved the aileron control is The aileron control is The aileron control is
to the right, the right aileron moved to the left and moved to the right moved to the right, the
moves up and the left down. the right aileron moves and the right elevator right aileron goes up and
up and the left down. goes up and the left the left one down.
one down.
921 The advantages of a cable control are light, very good strength to easy to route through less prone to impact all of the above
weight ratio the aircraft and less damage and takes up
bolted joints less volume
922 Right wing of an aircraft flying low, to Left spring tab upward right aileron trim tab left balance tab left aileron trim tab
rectify that you should operate : downward upward. downward
923 Which way does the balance tab move to upward in the left aileron. downward in the left downward in the right right in the rudder
bank an airplane to the left? aileron aileron
924 During flight the unbalance condition balance tab Spring tab control tab trim tab
may be corrected without exerting any
pressure on the primary control by:
925 Main and nose wheel bays are: pressurized unpressurized conditioned different, with the mains
being unpressurized and
the nose pressurized
926 Normal maximum negative differential when atmospheric pressure where the cabin when the cabin the pressure at which the
pressure is: exceeds cabin pressure by pressure falls below pressure exceeds the duct relief valve is set to
the amount permitted by aircraft altitude atmospheric pressure operate.
the system controls pressure at which time by 0.5 PSI
the inward relief valve
opens.
927 When would the negative differential rapid descent when A/C during ground pressure rapid ascent when when changing to
limit be reached/exceeded: descends below cabin testing aircraft climbs manual operation
altitude
928 A/C in level flight if cabin altitude increase decrease remain the same nil
increases does pressure diff:
929 In level pressurized flight does the close adjust to provide open to increase air adjust to provide
outflow valve: constant flow, and is conditioning constant flow, and is
normally partially open normally almost closed
930 In a turbo cooler system is the cooling air: ram air engine by pass air cabin air compressor air
931 The rate of change of cabin pressure in descent in climb in periods when the in cruise
should be kept to the minimum. Is this dehumidifier is in use
more important:
932 Is a cabin humidifier: on the ground in conditions at high altitude at low altitude on the ground in high
of low relative humidity ambient temperatures
933 Fatigue life of the fuselage is based on number of pressurization number of explosive number of landings number of cycles at
the: cycles decompressions only. maximum differential
934 If the forward oil seal in an axial flow contaminated unaffected `b' is only correct if à' will be correct only if
compressor fails, will air be: synthetic oil is used the aircraft is inverted
935 Rate of change of cabin altitude is shown special gauge aircrafts VSI cabin pressure gauge reading a
on a: controller percentage of Max Diff
Pressure
936 Cabin discharge valve (pneumatic) is air data computer output cabin and static cabin pressure, static cabin pressure only
supplied with: information pressure and air speed
information
937 On what principle does the vapour cycle liquid into vapour vapour into liquid vapour into gas cold gas into hot gas
cooling system work on:
938 What is the purpose of the duct relief to protect the undercarriage to ensure the to prevent damage to to relieve excess pressure
valve: bay compressor pressure is the ducts to compressor return line
regulated
939 What system is installed to control the air emulsifier and water impingement type dehydrator only humidifier only
conditioning: extractor dehydrator and
humidifier
940 How is the (charge) air cooled in a by expanding over turbine by expanding over via an air cooled by passing it through the
bootstrap (turbo-compressor) system? turbine driving radiator fuel heater
compressor
941 At the max differential phase, is the open closed under the control of partly open
discharge valve: the rate capsule
942 What is the purpose of inward relief to prevent negative to back up the duct to allow positive to back up the outflow
valves: differential relief valve pressure to be bled off valve
in an emergency
943 On a ground pressurization test, if the the temperature will rise water precipitation will damage to hull may duct relief valve may jam
cabin suffers a rapid de-pressurization: suddenly occur occur open
944 A heat exchanger functions by: combining ram and charge mixing the various passing charge air removing the static
air vapours inside the heat through ducts and charge

exchanger cool air around ducts
945 Maximum Differential pressure: is the maximum authorized is the absolute is the pressure loss is the absolute pressure
pressure difference pressure provided by over a given time limit the cabin pressure
between the inside of the the vacuum pump ducting is designed to
fuselage and the carry
atmospheric ambient
pressure
946 A humidifier is fitted to: extract the moisture filter the air increase the moisture to ensure the cabin air is
content in the air content in the air saturated at high altitude
when operating at
high altitude
947 If the discharge or outflow valve closes: the duct relief valve will take the inward relief valve the safety valve would the safety relief valve
control would assume control limit the positive would limit the negative
pressure difference pressure difference
948 Air for conditioning and pressurization is the engine compressor or the engine by pass duct the engine the engine turbine or
taken from: cabin compressor or thrust reverse by compressor or ram cabin compressor
pass duct turbine
949 Safety valves are biased: inwards outwards in the direction neither a nor b
sensed by the SVC
950 Cabin compressors: increase their flow in cruise decrease their flow in increase their flow in deliver minimum air at
conditions cruise conditions proportion to sea level via the cold air
increases of altitude unit.
differential pressure
and reduction in
engine RPM in order
to maintain the mass
flow.
951 In a pressurization circuit the sequence of inward relief valve to open outflow valve to outflow valve to outflow valve to operate
operation is for the: before the safety valve operate before the operate after the the same time as the
safety valve safety valve safety valve.
952 With the QFE set on the cabin controller, the fuselage will be a ground pressurization the cabin will be the flight deck will be
against an altitude of zero: pressurized on landing will automatically take unpressurised on depressurized
place landing
953 In the cruise at 30,000ft the cabin cabin differential will cabin differential will cabin differential will nil
altitude is adjusted from 4,000ft to increase not be affected decrease
6,000ft:
954 An aircraft climbs from sea level to the same time as it takes the half the time it takes twice the time it takes three times the time it
16,000 ft at 1,000ft per min, the cabin aircraft to reach 16,000ft the aircraft to reach the aircraft to reach takes the aircraft to
pressurization is set to climb at 500ft per 16,000ft 16,000ft reach 16,000ft
min to a cabin altitude of 8,000ft. The
time taken for the cabin to reach 8,000ft
is:
955 The aircraft inhibiting switch connected allows the aircraft to be stops pressurizing on ensures that the cancels out the safety
to the A/C landing gear: pressurized on the ground the ground and discharge valve is valve on the ground
ensures that there is no closed
pressure differential
956 Negative differential is limited by: dump valve inward relief valve outflow valve safety valve
957 Sequence of air through a vapour cooling turbine then expansion tank then evaporator turbine then compressor then turbine
system is: valve evaporator
958 To maintain a steady and constant a duct relief valve is fitted a venturi device is a mass flow controller a thermostatic relief
airflow regardless of altitude or cabin fitted is fitted valve is fitted
pressure:
959 The term "pressurization cycle" means: air introduced into a air introduced into a air discharged from the frequency in Hzs the
fuselage under pressure fuselage under the fuselage, above 15 pressure cycles from the
only pressure until the time psi roots blowers enter the
the air is released fuselage
960 Inward Relief Valves operate: in conjunction with the in conjunction with the when manually automatically when there
cabin pressure controller cabin altitude selector selected during the is a negative diff.
when there is a negative when there is negative emergency descent
diff. diff procedure
961 Safety valves operate: at higher diff than discharge as soon as initiation at a lower diff than a at a set value, which is
valve takes place discharge valve selected
962 Ditching Cocks are operated: automatically when the to shut all outflow to direct pressure into for rapid
soluble plugs dissolve valves flotation bags depressurization
963 Duct Relief Valves operate when: excessive pressure builds up to keep cabin pressure to prevent the floor the cooling modulator
in the air conditioning close to ambient from collapsing should shutters reach the
system supply ducts pressure baggage door open. optimized position.
964 During a normal pressurized cruise, the at a position pre-set before partially open open until selected closed until selected
discharge valve position is: take off altitude is reached altitude is reached.
965 A dump valve: automatically opens when is controlled manually is opened is controlled by the
fuel is dumped automatically when safety valve integrating
the safety valve opens line.
966 When air is pressurized, the % of oxygen increases decreases remains the same nil
in it:
967 An aircraft is prevented from pressurizing the auto deflating valve on inhibiting micro inhibiting micro the pressure control
on the ground by: the main oleos switches on the landing switches on the master switch
gear throttles
968 If the cabin pressure increases in level rate of climb no change unless the rate of descent nil
flight does the cabin VSI show: aircraft climbs
969 The term pressure cabin is used to pressurization of the flight the ability to pressurize the passenger cabin the ability to maintain a
describe: deck only the aircraft to a higher on an airliner constant pressure
than ambient pressure differential at all
altitudes
970 When air is pressurized by an engine moisturized heated cooled the temperature is not
driven compressor, it is also: affected
971 The electrical supply to the propeller is controlled to give an must be taken directly must only be selected is continuous to all
blades for de-icing purposes: intermittent supply. from the APU on for short periods. blades.
generator.
972 Propeller blade heating elements are: fitted only to the thin outer fitted only to the thick usually fitted to the fitted to the complete
sections where maximum inner section where thick section but leading edge.
ice accretion occurs. minimum ice accretion sometimes a second
occurs. element is fitted to a
mid section.
973 When an aircraft is de-iced prior to Type I fluid at the rate of Type II fluid diluted to Type I fluid diluted to Type II fluid at the rate of
departure, if the temperature is 0°C in 100% cold spray application. 50% hot spray 50% hot spray 100% cold spray
precipitation, which type of fluid and application. application. application.
application method will provide the
longest holdover period:
974 The effect of frost on an aircraft: is to cause an increase in can be generally has no significant is to cause an increase in
boundary layer energy and ignored. effect on the the surface roughness
so delay the onset of the aerodynamic contour which in turn increases
stall. or CL max. skin friction and reduces
the kinetic energy of the
boundary layer.
975 In flight airframe icing does not occur: above 25,000 feet above 40,000 feet above 35,000 feet above 35,000 feet
976 The methods used to provide de-icing in mechanical or pneumatic or pneumatic or thermal electrically heated or centrifugally forced or
flight can be: fluid. or fluid. air heated or oil ram air heated.
heated.
977 Ice detectors are used primarily to warn that they are approaching that they are that engine icing that airframe icing
the crew: airframe icing conditions. approaching engine conditions now conditions exist.
icing conditions. warrant the initiation
of the engine system.
978 Fluid is delivered to a propeller by: a centrifugal slipper ring and integral passages a small reservoir a slinger ring and pipes.
pipes. within the propeller contained within the

dome. spinner.
979 If an aircraft is to be de-iced prior to the aircraft can be de-iced the aircraft can be de- the aircraft can be de- neither the APU or main
departure: with the engines running. iced with the APU iced with the APU engines can be running
running. running and the bleed during the procedure.
air off.
980 With a gas turbine engine, should engine whenever the igniters are whenever the OAT is whenever the TAT is whenever the ice
anti-icing be selected "ON": on. +10°C or below and the +10°C or below and it detector system warning
air contains visible is raining. light comes on.
moisture.
981 The defrost system heats: inner side of windshield and outer side of both the inner and inner side of side
side windows windshield and side outer sides of windows only
windows windshield and side
windows
982 Inflatable rubber boots de-icing systems wing leading edge de-icing propeller leading edge horizontal stabilizer both a) and c) are correct
can be used in: de-icing leading edge
983 The windshield anti-icing is used to: increase the strength of prevent ice formation improve the impact All the above are correct
windshield resistance
984 In a pneumatic de-icing system: the boots remain inflated the boots are inflated vacuum inflates the when the boots are fully
while the system operates. and deflated boots and pressure inflated the pressure is
repeatedly. deflates them released and they
repeatedly. collapse due to their
elasticity.
985 When the pneumatic de-icing system is the relief valves admit ram a small flow of hot air the dynamic pressure vacuum deflates the
switched off: air to the boots. continuously flows on the leading edge boots to minimize drag.
through the boots. ensures that the boots
lie flat.
986 Propeller electrical de-icing systems: use only continuous loads to use a cyclic timer. convert electrical transfer power to the
the elements. energy to mechanical elements via a
energy. commutator in DC
systems.
987 To prevent propeller elements use only when all other carry out a load check use only when the use only when in flight.
overheating: services are switched off. before starting propellers are
engines. rotating.
988 A thermal wing de-icing system: feeds hot air along the feeds the engine can use air taken from relies on heat generated
complete upper wing exhaust through the the engine by the kinetic heating
surface. leading edge ducts compressor. effect of the airflow.
only.
989 Pilots cockpit windows are heated: only to prevent by agitating the with a reflective inner by passing current across
condensation occurring. window molecules with coating that prevents an inner conductive
an AC current. fogging. electrical coating.
990 For maximum strength against impact normally kept to a minimum specially treated during heated internally to only heated when the
damage pilots windows are: size. construction. increase their MAT falls below 0°C in
elasticity. precipitation.
991 Pilots cockpit windows are: only heated by air from the constructed by heat made of sandwich made of polarized glass.
de-misting fan. treating the outer construction with an
surface to reduce glare. electrical conductive
coating.
992 An aircraft is to be de-iced and then enter type I fluid at 100% cold a 50%/50% solution of a 50%/50% solution of type II fluid at 100% cold
the line up for departure. Which de-ice spray. type II fluid hot spray. type I fluid hot spray. spray.
fluid will have the best holdover time at
0°C with precipitation:
993 Without added oxygen the time of useful twenty seconds eighty seconds three minutes six minutes
consciousness at 25 000 ft is
approximately:
994 Without added oxygen the time of useful twenty seconds three minutes eighty seconds six minutes
consciousness at 40,000 ft is
approximately:
995 The maximum altitude without oxygen at 10,000 ft 17,500 ft 25,000 ft 30,000 ft
which flying efficiency is not seriously
impaired is:
996 In a pressure demand oxygen system: each member of the crew each member of the oxygen is supplied oxygen demand will
has a regulator. crew has a continuous with a continuous cause the pressure to
oxygen supply. pressure flow. rise.
997 In a continuous flow oxygen system, only when the mask is only on passenger only when the cabin only when the supply has
oxygen is supplied: plugged into the socket inhalation through the altitude is above 18 been regulated by the
connection. mask. 000 ft. pilot.
998 In a diluter demand system, selection of air mix supplied at 100% oxygen supply as 100% oxygen at 100% oxygen continuous
emergency on this regulator will result in: emergency pressure. called for by the user. positive pressure. flow at positive pressure.
999 If the aircraft suffers a decompression are released by the automatically drop to a are handed out by the must be removed from
passenger oxygen masks: passengers. half hung (ready cabin staff. the life jacket storage.
position).
1000 Oxygen cylinders are normally charged 1 000 PSI 1 200 PSI 1 800 PSI 2 000 PSI
to:
1001 All effects of electricity take place electric. proton. neutron. electron
because of the existence of a tiny particle
called the:
1002 The nucleus of an atom is: positively charged. negatively charged. statically charged. of zero potential.
1003 An atom is electrically balanced when: its protons and electrons the protons outnumber the electrons the electric and static
balance each other. the electrons. outnumber the charges are balanced.
protons.
1004 The electrons of an atom are: positively charged. neutral. negatively charged. of zero potential.
1005 A material with a deficiency of electrons positively charged. negatively charged. isolated. overheated.
becomes:
1006 A material with a surplus of electrons positively charged. negatively charged. over charged. saturated.
becomes:
1007 Heat produces an electric charge when: like poles are joined. a hard and soft glass is the junction of two hard and soft material
heated. unlike metals is are rubbed together.
heated.
1008 Friction causes: mobile electricity. basic electricity. static electricity. wild electricity.
1009 Chemical action produces electricity in: a light meter. a generator. a primary cell. starter generator.
1010 A photo electric cell produces electricity two metals are heated. exposed to a light a light source is exposed to the heat of
when: source. removed. the sun.
1011 The difference in electric potential is KVAR's watts amps volts
measured in:
1012 The units of electrical power is measured watts amperes ohms volts
in:
1013 An ammeter measures: current power dissipation differences of heat energy
electrical potential
1014 The unit used for measuring the E.M.F. of the ohm the ampere the volt the watt
electricity is:
1015 Three resistance of 60 ohms each in 180 ohms 40 ohms 30 ohms 20 ohms
parallel give a total resistance of:
1016 Watts = resistance squared x amps volts x ohms ohms x amps volts x amps
1017 The total resistance of a number of the addition of the the addition of the twice the reciprocal the reciprocal of the
power consumer devices connected in individual resistances. reciprocals of the of the individual total.
series is: individual resistance. resistances.
1018 Ohms Law states: Current in amps Resistance in ohms = Current in amps = None of the above.
=(Resistance in (Current in (Electromotive force
ohms)/(Electromotive force amps)/(Electromotive in volts)/(Resistance in
in volts) force in volts) ohms)
1019 In a simple electrical circuit, if the the sum of the currents the sum of the the average current the sum of the
resistors are in parallel, the total current taken by the devices divided currents taken by the taken by the devices reciprocals of the
consumed is equal to: by the number of devices. devices. times the number of currents taken by the
the devices. devices.
1020 Electrical potential is measured in: watts bars volts ohms
1021 The current flowing in an electrical circuit volts ohms inductance amps
is measured in:
1022 OHMS law is given by the formula I = R/V V=R/I I = V/R R = VxI
1023 The unit of EMF is the Ampere Volt Watt Ohm
1024 The unit of current is the Ampere Volt Watt Ohm
1025 1,250 ohms may also be expressed as 1250 K ohms 1.25 K ohms 1.25 M ohms 0.125 K ohms
1026 550 K ohms may also be expressed as 550000 M ohms 0.55 M ohms 55000 ohms 0.55 ohms
1027 In a circuit fitted with a non trip free if the reset button is the trip button may be a non trip free circuit the reset button may be
circuit breaker if a fault occurs and depressed and held in, the pressed to reset, but breaker can never be pressed to make the
persists: circuit will be made. not permanently. by-passed. circuit permanent.
1028 Circuit breakers and fuses are used in DC circuits only are used in AC or DC are used in AC circuits are used in low current
circuits only circuits only
1029 If the reset button is pressed in the trip- be made and kept made. only be made if there reset itself only after not be made and the
free circuit breaker, the contacts with the is a fuse in the circuit. a delay of 20 seconds. reset will remain
fault cleared will: inoperative.
1030 A non-trip free circuit breaker is: one which can make a a wire placed in a another type of an on-off type tumbler
circuit in flight by pushing a conductor which melts voltage regulator. switch.
button. under overload.
1031 A thermal circuit breaker works on the differential expAnsion of differential thickness differential density of differential pressure of
principle of: metals. of metals. metals. metals.
1032 A fuse is said to have blown when: an excess current has burst the circuit is a current of a higher the amperage has been
the outer cover and reconnected. value than the fuse sufficiently high to cause
disconnected the circuit rating has melted the the fuse to trip out of its
from the supply. conductor and holder and has therefore,
disconnected the disconnected the circuit
circuit from the from the supply.
supply.
1033 Overloading an electrical circuit causes increases the weight of the fractures the fuse disconnects the fuse melts the fuse wire
the fuse to 'Blow'. This: insulation. case. from its holder.
1034 The size of fuse required for an electrical 24 amps 10 amps 5 amps 15 amps
circuit whose power is 72 watts and
whose voltage is 24 volts is:
1035 A fuse is used to protect an electrical of low melting point. of high capacity. of high melting point. of low resistance.
circuit, it is:
1036 A current limiter: is a fuse with a low melting is a circuit breaker. is a fuse with a high is a fuse enclosed in a
point. melting point. quartz or sand.
1037 Two 12V 40 amp/hour batteries 12V 80 amp/hr 12V 20 amp/hr 24V 80 amp/hr 24V 40 amp/hr
connected in series will produce:
1038 A battery capacity test is carried out: 6 monthly 2 monthly 3 monthly every minor check
1039 An aircraft has a battery with a capacity it will pass 40 amps for 10 it will pass 10 amps for it will pass 4 amps for it will pass 40 amps for 1
of 40 amp/hr. Assuming that it will hrs. 4 hrs. 10 hrs. hr.
provide its normal capacity and is
discharged at the 10 hour rate:
1040 The method of ascertaining the voltage the voltage on open circuit. the current flow with a the voltage off load. the voltage with rated
of a standard aircraft lead-acid battery is rated voltage charge. load switched ‘ON’.
by checking:
1041 In an AC circuit: the battery is connected in a battery cannot be a battery cannot be only NICAD batteries can
series. used because the wire used because it is DC be used.
is too thick.
1042 The specific gravity of a fully charged lead 1.27 1.09 1.12 0.127
acid cell is:
1043 A lead acid battery voltage should be on open circuit using a trimmer circuit with an ammeter on load
checked:
1044 The system used to maintain aircraft constant current system. constant load system. constant resistance constant voltage system.
batteries in a high state of charge is the: system.
1045 The nominal voltage of an alkaline cell is: 2.2 volts 1.8 volts 1.2 volts 0.12 volts
1046 The electrolyte used in the lead acid cell hydrochloric acid. sulphuric acid. boric acid. potassium hydroxide.
is diluted:
1047 A Lead-acid cell : is a secondary cell. is a primary cell Contains Lead Both ( a) and ( c) are
because it cannot be sulphate, Lead correct.
recharged after the peroxide and
acid is used up. Sulphuric acid.
1048 The number of lead acid cells required to 8 12 6 10
make up a Twelve Volt Battery is:
1049 The voltage of a secondary cell is: determined by the number determined by the determined by the determined by the active
of plates. area of the plates. diameter of the main materials on the plates.
terminals.
1050 To top up the electrolyte add: sulphuric acid. distilled water. sulphuric acid diluted boric acid.
with distilled water.
1051 The capacity of a lead acid battery is: determined by the area of determined by the determined by the determined by the
the plates. active materials on the size of the series number of separators.
plates. coupling bars.
1052 When the battery master switch is the generators are the ammeter reads the battery is isolated the battery is discharged
switched off in flight: disconnected from the bus maximum. from the bus bar. through the bonding
bar. circuit diodes.
1053 If two batteries are connected in parallel : The voltage rating remains The current rating Both the voltage and Only the ampere-Hour
the same while current remains the same current rating increases.
rating increases. while voltage rating increases.
increases.
1054 When a magnet is unable to accept any reluctance. saturation. active. reactance.
further magnetism it is termed:
1055 Magnetic lines of force flow externally one main line station to the master station. the north to the in a random direction.
from: another. south pole.
1056 Electromagnetism is a product of: voltage. current. resistance. engine resistance.
1057 If you bring two magnets together: like poles will attract. unlike poles will over heating will their magnetic fields will
attract. occur. adjust to avoid
overcrowding.
1058 An EMF is induced in a conductor rotating capacitive reaction. the reverse current electro transmission. electro magnetic
in a magnetic field by: relay. induction.
1059 If a conductor is placed in a magnetic an EMF is induced in the an EMF is induced in the applied resistance an EMF is induced in the
field: conductor. the conductor only assists the back EMF. conductor only when the
when the conductor conductor is stationary.
rotates.
1060 An internally excited generator is one the field is produced within the field is initiated by the field is initiated the field is initiated
where: the distribution. a HT and LT coil. by the battery. within the generator.
1061 Another name for a number of a capacitor. an armature. a condenser. a commutator.
conductors rotating in a magnetic field is:
1062 The voltage regulator: senses cut out pressure and senses generator senses generator senses back EMF.
adjusts field current. output pressure and output current and
adjusts field current. adjusts the field
voltage.
1063 The voltage regulator: provides a constant current senses current output. maintains a steady regulates the amount of
flow from the generator generator voltage current supplied by the
with changes of generator with changes of battery to operate the
speed. generator speed. generator.
1064 On aircraft, generator voltage is varying the generator field increasing and changing the changing generator load.
regulated by: strength. decreasing the load. generator speed.
1065 A voltage regulator is fitted to: prevent high circulating prevent backlash. to ensure correct to prevent battery
currents. voltage output to feedback to the
battery. generator.
1066 If a circuit is designed for 12 volts - the give paralleled output only. give controlled 14 14 volts wild D give controlled 12 volts.
generator will: volts.
1067 In a generator control circuit the strength the commutator. the voltage regulator the reverse current the output C/B.
of the magnetic field is controlled by: contactor.
1068 Actuator normal travel is controlled by: a clutch. limit micro switches. mechanical mechanical stops.
indicators.
1069 On a twin engined DC aircraft having two equalizing engine RPM'S an equalizing circuit to synchronizing relays an equalizing circuit to
DC generators load sharing is achieved sense the difference and voltage coil tuners sense the difference and
by: and equalize the equalize the field
voltages of the two currents of the two
generators generators
1070 To supply direct current from a generator a commutator a rotary inverter. an alternator. a static inverter.
giving alternating current it is normal to
fit:
1071 A device for changing AC to DC is: an inverter. a rotary transformer. a rectifier. an alternator.
1072 Friction clutches are fitted to actuators protection against protection against protection against protection against
for: mechanical overload. brake on loads. non return valve supply failures.
failure.
1073 In an electrical circuit the reverse current when battery voltage when circuit voltage is when the main when the batteries are
cut-out relay will open: exceeds generator voltage. less than generator output C/B is reset. flat.
voltage.
1074 A generator cut-out will open when: circuit loads equal the the air temperature circuit loads equal the generator voltage falls
battery voltage. reaches 45°C. generator voltage. below battery voltage.
1075 In the event of the cut-out points sticking gain of engine power. a burnt out generator. loss of residual no apparent reaction.
in the closed position, the most probable magnetism.
results, when the engine stopped would
be:
1076 A generator cut-out is fitted: in series with the generator in the diode circuit. in parallel with the in the field circuit.
output. generator output.
1077 On a 28 volt system with a 24 volt battery 36 volts. 24 volts. 28 volts. 26 volts.
the cut-out contacts close at
approximately:
1078 If the cut-out is open, the battery is in series with the battery. in parallel with the in sequence with the cross coupled.
feeding the loads which are: battery. cut-out.
1079 A generator converts mechanical energy electro magnetic spring electro magnetic electrostatic electro dynamic
to electrical by: action. induction. induction. induction.
1080 If the generator warning light comes on the generator is feeding the the generator is not the battery has failed. a rectifier is faulty.
in flight it indicates that: battery bus bar. feeding the battery bus
bar.
1081 A generator warning light will be when the battery voltage at night only. when the generator is when the battery charge
illuminated: exceeds that of the supplying current to a current is lower than
generator and the cut-out fully charged battery, required to maintain its
has opened. and no electrical loads fully charged state.
are switched on.
1082 If one generator fails you should: switch off the good stop and feather the switch off the failed switch off the failed
generator. engine concerned. generator and generator, and cut down
continue normal use on the electrical services
of the electrical being used.
system.
1083 In a twin engine aircraft, fitted with two the failed generator must cut down the air the failed generator both generators must be
generators, if one should fail: be isolated. supply to reduce five must be stopped. switched off.
risks.
1084 Generator failure is indicted by: load sharing circuits a decrease or an increase in failure of electrically
connecting. discharge in ammeter voltmeter readings, a driven instruments.
readings and generator discharge in ammeter
warning light on. reading and generator
warning light on.
1085 Loads on a bus bar are: in series with the generator in parallel so the in parallel so the determined by the cross
so that the voltage can be voltage can be varied. current can be sectional area of the lead
reduced. reduced. cable.
1086 A generator is taken'off line’ by: the battery switch. operation of the field opening of the cut- removing of all loads.
switch. out.
1087 If the ammeter shows 'no' charge, yet the loose battery connections. defective voltage defective C/B. defective ammeter.
battery remains charged. Would you look regulator.
for:
1088 During flight a malfunction of the overheating of the battery. the ammeter. lights going out. the current limiter.
generator cut-out would be indicated by:
1089 In a'2 pole' electrical circuit, a short of an item of equipment the component not an increase in an item of equipment
the conductors would result in: operating automatically working. voltage. burning out because of a
without switches. large current flow.
1090 An electrical system which uses the a diode pole circuit. an earth return circuit. a single phase circuit. a dipole circuit.
aircraft structure as a return path for
current, is known as:
1091 In a double pole circuit: the systems polarity will the current is supplied the current passes the current passes out
change. by one wire and the out through one wire through one wire and is
current is returned and is returned returned via the aircraft's
through the aircraft through a second immune circuit.

bonding system. wire.
1092 A `hot bus' is the bus bar always the bus bar that the bus bar that the bus bar that supplies
connected to the battery supplies the galley supplies the essential the nom-essential loads
power loads
1093 A dipole circuit is one where: diode valves are used. three conductors are the aircraft structure two conductor wires are
used. is used for the earth used
return.
1094 Bonding is used to protect the aircraft providing an earth return. shortening the maintaining different ensuring the same
against fire from arcing of static negative strips. electrical potential electrical potential of all
electricity by: throughout the metal components.
structure.
1095 Static electrical charges and currents in hardening screening bonding anodizing
an aircraft structure are evened out by:
1096 Bonding is a method of: heat screening. providing a positive ensuring that the ensuring that the
reaction. different parts of the different parts of the
aircraft are aircraft are maintained at
maintained at a the same potential.
different potential.
1097 Spare fuses are carried: at the operator’s discretion. for generators only. by law with a stated by the first officer.
minimum number
required.
1098 Differential cut-outs close when a generator bus and battery generator bus-bar and batteries. battery bus-bar and
differential voltage exists between the: bus-bar. earth. earth.
1099 A megohm is: 10,000 ohms 1000 ohms 1,000,000 ohms 1,000,000,000 ohms
1100 The formula for calculating power is V2/R orI2 x R or IxV V2 or I x R or I x V R V or I2 x R or I2 x V R2 V or Ix R2 or I x V R2
1101 Assuming a 5 amp circuit has failed to switch the circuit off switch off replace the leave the switch on, switch off, replace the
during flight and investigation has shown immediately. fuse with another of replace the failed fuse failed fuse with one of
that the fuse is open circuit, the action to the correct rating for with one of increased the correct rating once
be taken is to: the circuit and repeat rating. only.
this action as often as
necessary.
1102 A simple electrical circuit has a current 20 watts 45 watts 80 watts 100 watts
flow of 4 amperes and its resistance is 5
ohms. How much power (watts) is used:
1103 A NICAD battery shows a high thermal runaway. it is not connected to normal temperature depends upon the
temperature after engine start, this could the battery bus-bar. during charging. outside air temperature.
be an indication of:
1104 A generator or battery cut-out is fitted: to isolate the battery on to prevent the battery to allow the to prevent the battery
touch down. from being generator to be feeding back into the
overcharged. isolated in a crash. generator when its
voltage is above the
generator voltage.
1105 On an earth return aircraft wiring circuit: the negative pole is the positive pole is the negative pole is two fused are needed.
connected to the aircraft connected to the connected to the
structure. aircraft structure. positive pole.
1106 A circuit breaker that has tripped due to cannot be reset unless the will not be able to be will reset itself when must be replaced.
overload: circuit has returned to reset in the air. the circuit returns to
normal. normal.
1107 As the speed of an electric motor remain the same. fluctuate. increase. decrease.
increases the back EMF will:
1108 An inertia switch on an aircraft will when selected by the pilot automatically in flight. during an emergency in flight only.
operate: or flight engineer. or crash landing.
1109 Electrical components of aircraft systems bond the circuit to reduce prevent them prevent short circuits prevent engine
are screened to: risk of fire. interfering with the interfering with malfunctions.
function of radio aircraft equipment.
equipment.
1110 The ratio of true power to apparent Ohms. the power factor. kVAs. the r.m.s. value.
power is known as :¬
1111 The amount of electrical power output dependent on the aircrafts greater for a DC greater for an AC determined by the size
for a given generator weight is :¬ power requirements. generator. generator. of the aircraft.
1112 Instrument transformers normally :¬ convert 14 volts DC to 26 reduce the A.C supply change 115 volts to convert 28 volts DC to 28
volts AC to 26 volts for some 200 volts for engine volts AC
instruments. instruments.
1113 The voltage output of an AC generator in one direction, fall to zero in one direction and in one direction, fall in one direction only.
will rise to a maximum value :¬ and rise in the same remain there. to zero and rise to a
direction. maximum value in the
opposite direction.
1114 In a capacitive circuit, if the frequency current decreases. current increases. current flow is the voltage fluctuates.
increases :¬ unaffected by
frequency change.
1115 A 400 Hz supply has : an output capacity of an impedance of 400 a frequency of 400 a frequency of 400 cycles
400,000 watts. ohms. cycles per second. per minute.
1116 An alternator is :- a reversing input switch. an AC generator. a DC generator. a static inverter.
1117 The number of separate stator windings the output voltage of the the output frequency the power factor. the number of phases
in an AC generator determines :- supply. of the supply. present in the supply.
1118 In an A.C generator : Current supplied to the field Current supplied to the The field current is DC The field current is DC for
is AC for rotating field type field is DC for rotating for both rotating field rotating armature type
AC generator. field type AC generator and rotating armature a.c generators only.
only. AC generators.
1119 In a Star wound three phase system: - line voltage equals phase line current and line current equals line current equals phase
voltage and line current voltage are 1.73 times phase current and line current and line voltage
equals .707 times phase phase current and voltage equals .707 equals 1.73 times phase
current. voltage. times phase voltage. voltage.
1120 The output of an AC generator is taken the exciter windings. the field coils. the stator windings. the rotor coils.
from :
1121 If an alternator is run at below normal electric motors will stop. inductive devices will lights will become lights will become
frequency, then : overheat. dim. brighter.
1122 The power factor is : kVA/kW kW/kVAR kW/kVA kVAR/kW
1123 Generator output frequency is decreased generator field rotation generator field generator field generator field
by decreasing the : speed. voltage. current. impedance.
1124 A step-up transformer is one in which the the same as the primary if greater than that on less than on the always the same as on
number of turns on the secondary the cable diameter is the the primary. primary. the primary.
winding is : same.
1125 In a reactive circuit : the voltage and current will the voltage and the voltage will the voltage and current
be out of phase. current will be in phase always be led by the will be in phase.
opposition. current.
1126 The power output of a transformer is : in proportion to the in inverse proportion the same as the increased in a step up
transformation ratio. to the transformation power input. transformer.
ratio.
1127 In a DC circuit, an inductance : never has any effect on the only affects the offers opposition to will always increase the
voltage. voltage upon switching the flow while voltage.
on. switching on and off.
1128 With no load across the output terminals the current flow will be the current flow will the current will be in the voltage in the
of a transformer : maximum. be negligible. phase with the primary will be always
voltage. greater than the
secondary.
1129 A frequency wild alternator must be : paralleled. a rotating magnet type. self exciting. unparalleled.
1130 If the voltage induced in the secondary an autotransformer. a step up. a step down. a magnetic amplifier.
windings is greater than that in the
primary then the transformer is :
1131 The generator output voltage is increased putting more load on it. the frequency decreasing the increasing the generator
by : controller. generator field field current.
voltage.
1132 An alternator normally used to supply an single phase. three phase. two phase. frequency wild.
aircrafts power system would be :
1133 Voltage control of an alternator output is excitation of the rotating load current. excitation of the power factor.
achieved by varying the : commutator. rotating field.
1134 In a star connected supply system : line and phase current are line current is greater line current is less phase current is 0.707
equal. than phase current. than phase current. times line current.
1135 In an inductive circuit : current leads the voltage. current lags the the voltage is in only the r.m.s. values
voltage. phase with the vary.
current.
1136 One advantage of three phase generation most aircraft services it can be more easily it gives more compact the power factor is much
over single phase generation is that: require a three phase transformed into DC generators and allows lower.
supply. lower cable weights.
1137 An alternator with its output taken from a stationary field. its field excitation fed AC excitation. a rotating field.
its stationary armature, has : directly to the
armature.
1138 If one phase of a star wound three phase earth all three phases. cause a large current have no effect on the cause a reduction in the
system becomes earthed, it will : to flow in the neutral. other phases. frequency of the supply.
1139 The alternators fitted in an aircrafts main brushed self excited frequency wild. self excited. externally excited.
power supply system would normally be : machines.
1140 A voltage regulator works by: - sensing the battery voltage. assessing the varying the circuit varying the rotating field
impedance of the voltage. strength.
circuit.
1141 Reactive load sharing is achieved by :- altering the loads on the varying the generator varying the generator altering the C.S.D.U
bus bars. rotational speed. field current. output torque.
1142 The phase relationship of paralleled unimportant. 180° apart. synchronous. 120° apart.
generators should be ;-
1143 An aircrafts constant frequency supply is between 350 - 450 Hz. between 380 - 420 Hz. between 1 15 - 200 between 395 - 495 Hz.
maintained at :- Hz.
1144 Oil for the operation of a C.S.D.U. is : supplied from the engine oil a separate self drawn from a only required for
system. contained supply. common tank for all lubrication purposes.
S.D.U.s.
1145 Before two constant frequency AC their frequency, phase, real and reactive loads the synchronization suitable control
generators can be connected in parallel : phase sequence and voltage must match. lights on the arrangements must exist
must match, and a means of Frequency, phase and alternator control for the sharing of real
automatic real and reactive voltage must be within panel must be fully and reactive loads. these
load sharing must be limits. bright. will correct any phase or
available. frequency error existing
at the time of
connection.
1146 The running excitation current for an AC DC from the aircraft DC from the static DC which is rectified AC
alternator is : batteries. inverter. and could be from a
separate excitation
generator on the main
rotor shaft.
1147 Protection from 'earth' faults and 'line to a negative earth detector. a fault protection the synchronization reactive load sharing
line' faults is given by : system including a unit. circuits.
differential protection
monitor.
1148 Alternators in parallel operation require balance the battery voltage prevent re-circulating control their voltage. reduce their magnetic
the maintenance of constant frequency when more than one currents. fields.
and phase synchronization to : battery is being used.
1149 The purpose of the differential protection to compare alternator to compare on and off to compare the to compare theC.S.D.U.
circuit in a three phase AC system is : output current to bus bar load currents. alternators reactive efficiencyratings.
current. load to its real load.
1150 The purpose of a synchronizing bus bar is enable interconnections to supply essential monitor on-load interconnect DC bus bars.
to : be made between generator services. currents.
bus bars.
1151 The load meter, upon selection to "kVAR" total power available. reactive loads. active loads. only DC resistive loads.
would indicate :
1152 To increase the real load taken by a generator drive torque is generator excitation is generator drive generator voltage
paralleled AC generator, the : increased. increased. torque and field regulator adjusts the
excitation are generator rotor torque.
increased.
1153 Paralleled alternators will have : one load meter which one voltmeter for each one load meter for one meter which
measures total system load. alternator. each alternator. indicates both voltage
and frequency.
1154 If the C.S.D.U. drive disconnect unit had only be reconnected when be reinstated in flight be reinstated in flight be reinstated when
been used, the drive can : the aircraft is on the ground. from the electrical from the flight deck. necessary by using the
supply department. Ram Air Turbine.
1155 An AC generator's I.D.U. oil system: is self contained. is common with the is used only for is used only for
engine oil system. cooling. lubrication.
1156 The load in a paralleled AC system is kW & kV kW & kV. kV &kVAR. kW &kVAR.
measured in :
1157 One advantage of running alternators in the supply to all circuits is in a large capacity is the risk of there is only a
parallel is that : phase. available to absorb overloading the requirement for one
heavy transient loads system is reduced. C.S.D.U.
when switching of
heavy currents occurs.
1158 The output of an alternator is rated in : kVA WAR. kW. kw/kVAR.
1159 In a frequency wild generation system : generators can be run in generators can never generators can never capacitive and inductive
parallel only when all engine be run in parallel and be run in parallel, but loads can be fed with no
r.p.m.s match. there can be no after rectification, the problems of overheating.
duplication of supply. D,C, can be fed to a
common bus bar to
provide a redundancy
of supply.
1160 Fuses and circuit breakers are fitted : in DC circuits only. in both AC and DC in AC circuits only. only to protect the
circuits. wiring.
1161 A low reactive load on one generator is altering the excitation increasing the rotor increasing the real overall load reduction.
compensated for by : current flowing in its field speed. load on the other
circuit. generators.
1162 To increase the real load which is being the voltage regulator both its drive torque only its excitation is its drive torque is
taken by a paralleled alternator: adjusts the generator rotor and its excitation are increased. increased.
torque. increased.
1163 In a split bus system using non-paralleled essential AC loads are essential AC loads are only non-essential AC essential AC loads are
constant frequency alternators as the supplied directly from N° 1 supplied directly from loads are supplied normally supplied from
primary power source : AC bus bar. N° 2 AC bus bar. from the AC bus bars. N° 1 AC bus bar via the
changeover relay.
1164 In normal operation, the split bus bar AC two T.R.U.s which are a battery which is two T.R.U.s which are the static inverter.
system takes its DC supply from : always isolated. supplied from N° 1 connected together by
T.R.U. only. the isolation relay.
1165 In the split bus system, the AC bus bars : are automatically are automatically can be connected can never be connected
connected via the isolation connected via the bus together by switch together because there is
relay if one alternator fails. tie breaker if one selection if one no load sharing circuit.
alternator fails. alternator fails.
1166 In a parallel alternator operation, should the other alternators can be the failed alternators the G.B. of the failed the S.S.B. will close
one alternator fail, then : selected to supply its load. loads will not be alternator will remain allowing the three
supplied. closed to allow its remaining alternators to
loads to be supplied share all of the load.
by the remaining
alternators.
1167 An earth fault on a bus bar of a parallel would require that the would require that the would require that would require that all
generator system : appropriate G.C.B. should appropriate T. should both the appropriate alternators should
open. open. G.C.B. and B.T.B. operate independently.
should open.
1168 If external power is plugged into an it will automatically parallel it will only supply non- it will supply all the essential AC consumers
aircraft which utilizes the split bus system itself with any alternators essential AC aircraft services. will be supplied from the
of power distribution, then : already on line. consumers. static inverter.
1169 Reversing two phases to a three phase blow the phase fuses. cause the motor to run overheat the stator stall the motor.
motor will : in reverse. windings.
1170 If one phase of the supply to a three the motor will continue to will slow down and will stop immediately. will run at about half
phase motor fails, then : run at the same speed. stop. speed but will not start
on its next selection.
1171 In an induction motor: the rotor is star connected. magnetic fields blend AC is induced in the a DC supply produces DC
evenly with one rotor. in the rotor.
another.
1172 An induction motor has : slip rings and brushes. a commutator. no slip ring or slip rings but no brushes.
brushes.
1173 A starting circuit for a powerful single a capacitance starter. a resistance / a cartridge starter. a bump starter.
phase induction motor might be : inductance starter.
1174 The Central Processing Unit (CPU) input device,output device input device,Hard disk Hard disk, Control Arithmetic Logic Unit
consists of and Arithmetic Logic Unit and output device Unit and Shift (ALU), Shift Registers and
(ALU) Registers Control Unit
1175 The two types of binary logic are: positive and negative variable and negative positive and variable and reversible
reversible
1176 In computer terminology a memory non-volatile non permanent non-retentive volatile
which loses its data when power is
removed is called:
1177 Examples of input peripheral devices are: mouse and screen display mouse,modem and keyboard and printer. mouse,modem and
unit. keyboard. printer.
1178 In computer terminology "hardware" the digital computer the permanent the RAM capacity the programme of
refers to: components, keyboard, memory system and its instructions
monitor, CPU, etc capacity
1179 The smallest information element in a byte digit electron bit
digital system is:
1180 Convert the decimal number 7 to its 1110 111 1101 100
binary equivalent:
1181 The computer language in which decimal hexadecimal octal binary
calculations are carried out and
information is stored in memory is:
1182 The computer language system which decimal binary octal hexadecimal
uses the base 8 is called:
1183 In a digital computer binary 1 is negative logic bipolar logic positive logic analog system
represented by +5 volts and Binary 0 by
earth. This is an example of:
1184 The permanent memory of a digital Integrated circuits rated in shift registers whose floppy or hard disks Central Processing Unit
computer usually takes the form of: megabytes capacity is rated in whose capacity is
mega or gigabytes measured in mega or
gigabytes
1185 Within the Central Processing Unit, the Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) Shift Registers Control Unit BIOS
temporary stores and accumulator which
handle the data during processing are
called:
1186 Phase comparison is only possible Amplitude Frequency Amplitude and Plane of polarization
between two signals with the same: frequency
1187 A signal with a wavelength of 7360 VLF band LF band MF band HF band
metres lies in the:
1188 A maritime reconnaissance aircraft using 230 ft 790 ft 2300 ft 7700 ft
primary pulsed air to surface radar first
detects a large vessel on this radar at a
range of 110 NM. Considering only line of
sight limitations of the system the aircraft
altitude must be approximately:
1189 The wavelength corresponding to a 0.275 m 275 m 27.5 m 2.75 m
frequency of 108.95 MHz is:
1190 The optimum frequency of an HF signal is Puts the receiver just within Puts the receiver just Puts the receiver just Allows a skywave to
one which: the surface wave coverage within the minimum outside the minimum return to the surface
skip distance skip distance
1191 A transmitter polar diagram is a line Points bounding the limits of Points at which the Points at which the Points at which the signal
joining: reception signal to noise ratio will signal to noise ratio strength will be equal
be 3 : 1 will be 5 : 1
1192 The type of modulation described as A3E ILS equipment VHF communications HF single side band Doppler VOR
is used in: communications
1193 Atmospheric ducting is most likely to There is a marked inversion There is a marked There is a marked Over the sea
occur close to the surface of the earth and no change in humidity inversion and a marked inversion and a
when: with height increase in humidity marked decrease in
with height humidity with height
1194 VLF surface waves achieve a greater VLF diffraction is greater VLF diffraction and VLF diffraction is less VLF diffraction and
range than LF surface waves because: and attenuation is less attenuation are less and attenuation is attenuation are greater
greater
1195 The maximum theoretical range at which 194 NM The DOC limit 237.5 NM 68.75 NM
an aircraft at FL225 can receive signals
from a VOR situated at 1600 ft AMSL is:
1196 As frequency increases: Wavelength decreases and Wavelength decreases Wavelength increases Wavelength decreases
antenna size increases and power and antenna size and antenna size
requirements increase decreases decreases
1197 Frequency modulation techniques are The power requirements Naturally occurring The large bandwidth Frequency modulation
not used in the LF/MF/HF bands because: would be too high static would swamp required is not had not been invented
the signal available in these when frequencies in
congested bands these bands were
allocated to users
1198 The purpose of a basic Oscillator is to: amplify a signal attenuate a signal produce a sine wave increase the frequency of
from a DC input a sine wave
1199 An electrical resonant circuit is resistors and inductors in inductors and resistors inductors and capacitor and inductor
constructed from: series in series or parallel resistors always in which may be in parallel
parallel or series
1200 The advantages of single sideband over Bandwidth halved/power Bandwidth Bandwidth reduced by Bandwidth reduced by
double sideband communications output many times greater halved/signal to noise 2/3 better signal to 1/3 power output
systems are: ratio greater/more noise ratio greater reduced
power may be
transmitted
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh Question Bank of ATPL(Composite)
Flight performance, planning and loading

SL NO Question Option_1 Option_2 Option_3 Option_4
1. Which of the following ICAO Annex 2. ICAO Annex 4. ICAO Annex 5. ICAO Annex 6.
has references to
aircraft mass and
balance?
2. The operator must prior to initial by actual weighing or prior to embarking on by using an
establish the mass of entry into service determine the mass the aircraft appropriate method
the Traffic Load: of the traffic load of calculation
3. The mass of the fuel by the operator by the owner using by the pilot using by the fuel bowser
load must be using actual actual density. actual density or by operator using actual
determined: density or by density calculation density or by density
density calculation specified in the calculation specified
specified in the Operations Manual. in the Fuelling
Operations Manual.
Manual.
4. The Dry Operating Crew and Crew and their hold Crew baggage, catering Crew and baggage,
Mass is the total mass passenger baggage, special and other special catering and
of the aeroplane ready baggage, special equipment, water equipment, potage passenger service
for a specific type of equipment, water and contingency fuel water and lavatory equipment, potable
operation and and chemicals chemicals water and lavatory
includes: chemicals.
5. The Maximum Zero with no useable with no useable fuel including the fuel taken including all useable
Fuel Mass is the fuel unless the Aeroplane up for take-off fuel unless the
maximum permissible Flight Manual Aeroplane Flight
mass of the aeroplane: Limitations explicitly Operations Manual
include it. explicitly excludes it.
6. The Maximum the maximum the maximum the maximum the maximum
Structural Take-off permissible total permissible total permissible total permissible total
Mass is: aeroplane mass aeroplane mass for aeroplane mass for aeroplane mass at
on completion of take-off subject to take-off but excluding the start of the take-
the refuelling the limiting fuel. off run.
1
operation. conditions at the

departure airfield.
7. The Regulated Take-off is the lower of is the higher of the the maximum the maximum
Mass: maximum maximum structural structural take-off performance limited
structural take-off zero fuel mass and the mass subject to any take-off mass subject
mass and the performance limited last minute mass to any last minute
performance takeoff mass. changes. mass changes.
limited take-off
mass.
8. The Operating Mass: is the lower of the is the higher of the is the actual mass of is the dry operating
structural mass structural mass and the aircraft on take- mass and the fuel
and the the performance off load.
performance limited mass
limited mass
9. The Traffic Load: includes includes passenger includes passenger includes passenger
passenger masses masses, baggage masses, baggage masses, baggage
and baggage masses and cargo masses, cargo masses masses and any non-
masses but masses but excludes and any non-revenue revenue load but
excludes any non- any nonrevenue load. load. excludes cargo.
revenue load.
10. The Traffic Load is: The Zero Fuel The Take-off Mass The landing Mass all the above
Mass minus the minus the sum of the minus the sum of the
Dry operating Dry Operating Mass Dry Operating Mass
Mass and the total fuel and the mass of the
load. remaining fuel.
11. Certified Transport may accept a estimate the total may compute the all the above.
category aircraft with verbal mass from mass of the actual mass of
less than 10 seats: or on behalf of passengers and add a passengers and
each passenger. pre-determined checked baggage.
constant to account
for hand baggage and
clothing.
12. When computing the Personal Infants must be Standard masses All of the above are
2
mass of passengers and belongings and classed as children it include infants being correct.
baggage: hand baggage they occupy a seat carried by an adult
must be included
13. When computing the Mass is Mass is categorised Mass is categorised None
mass of checked categorised by by departure by destination.
baggage for an aircraft gender
with twenty seats or
more:
14. Mass and balance must be must enable the must include the All the above
documentation: established prior commander to name of the person
to each flight and determine that the preparing the
must include the load and its document and must
aircraft distribution is such be signed by the
commanders that the mass and person supervising the
signature to signify balance limits of the loading to the effect
acceptance of the aircraft are not that the load and its
document. exceeded. distribution is in
accordance with the
data on the
document.
15. Once the mass and no load documented last the documentation is acceptable last
balance documentation alterations are minute changes to the not signed prior to minute changes to
has been signed prior allowed. load may be flight. the load must be
to flight: incorporated. documented.
16. Aircraft must be on initial entry if the mass and whenever the All of the above
weighed: into service and balance records have cumulative changes to
every four years not been adjusted for the dry operating
after initial weigh alterations or mass exceed plus or
modifications. minus 0.5% of the
maximum landing
mass and if the
cumulative change in
CG position exceeds
0.5% of the mean
3
aerodynamic chord.
17. Aeroplane loading: must be must comply with must comply with the All of the above
performed under compartment maximum mass per
the supervision of dimension limitations cargo compartment
qualified and the maximum
personnel and load per running
must be consistent metre
with the data used
for calculating the
mass and balance.
18. An average dry if they are of the providing appropriate providing the dry All of the above
operating mass and CG same model and corrections to mass operating mass of any
position may be used configuration and CG position are aeroplane does not
for a fleet or group of providing the applied to aircraft vary by more than
aeroplanes: individual masses within the fleet which 0.5% of the maximum
and CG positions have a physical, structural landing
meet specific accurately mass of the fleet.
tolerances accountable
specified in difference.
regulations.
19. LMC (Last Minute allowed if it is allowed if it is found allowed for booth ‘a’ not allowed for any
Change) of load found of the last that actual pay load is & ‘b’ of ‘a’ or ‘b’
Documents is: moment that CG is 5% more than the
out of limit by 5% acceptable pay load.
20. What effect has a A better rate of A reduction in the A reduce rate of A decreased induced
centre of gravity close climb capability specific fuel climb drag
to the forward limit? consumption
21. The DOM of an TOM minus LM plus Trip Fuel Useful Load minus TOM minus Useful
aeroplane is: Operating Mass Operating Mass Load
22. The TOM of a flight is: OM plus pay load LM plus trip fuel mass ZFM plus take off fuel All of the above
23. refer to CAP 696 (SEP at a mass of 2500 at a moment of at a moment of all the above
1) The CG is on the lb and moment of 175,000 lb in and a 192,000 lb in and a
lower of the fwd CG 185000 lb in mass of 2350 lb mass of 2600 lb
4
limits:
24. Define the useful load: traffic load plus dry operating mass traffic load plus dry that part of the traffic
usable fuel mass plus usable fuel load operating mass load which generates
revenue
25. The distance from the the index the moment the balance arm the station
datum to the CG is:
26. If the maximum The aircraft will be The undercarriage No damage will occur No damage will occur
structural landing mass unable to get could collapse on providing the aircraft providing the aircraft
is exceeded: airborne landing is within the regulated is within the
landing mass. performance limited
landing mass.
27. Due to a mistake in the V1, will be later Vmu will be later Vr will be later V1,Vmu,Vr will all
load sheet the occur earlier
aeroplane is 1000 kg
heavier than you
believe it to be As a
consequence:
28. If the aeroplane was the CG is forward the CG is in mid range the CG is on the rear the CG is behind the
neutrally stable this limit rear limit
would suggest that:
29. The CG position is: set by the pilot set by the able to exist within a fixed
manufacturer range
30. The CG datum has to between the nose between the leading but does not have to at the fire
be along the and the tail. and trailing edge of be between the nose
longitudinal axis: the MAC. and the tail.
31. The CG is the point on the the point on the the point on the the point on the
aircraft where the aircraft at which aircraft from where aircraft where the lift
datum is located. gravity appears to act. the dihedral angle is acts through.
measured.
32. When determining the determined by set out in OPS manual determined by the determined by the
mass of fuel/oil and the the operator (and aviation authority pilot
value of the SG is not laid down in the
known, the value to aeroplane OPS
5
use is: Manual. A pilot

simply has to look
it up)
33. In mass and balance A cut down A moment divided by A moment divided by A mass divided by a
terms, what is an version of a force a constant a mass moment
index?
34. What is the zero fuel MTOM minus fuel Maximum allowable Operating mass Actual loaded mass
mass? to destination mass of the aircraft minus the fuel load. of the aircraft with
minus fuel to with no usable fuel on no usable fuel on
alternative airfield. board. board.
35. If an aeroplane comes A go-around Tyre temperature It might not have All the answers are
into lands below its might not be limits could be sufficient runway correct
MSLM but above the achievable. exceeded and Brake length in which to
PLLM for the arrival fade could occur.. stop safely.
airfield:
36. The maximum aircraft fixed and listed in variable and is set by fixed by the physical variable and depends
mass excluding all the aircraft's the payload for the size of the fuselage on the actual fuel
usable fuel is: Operations trip. and cargo holds. load for the trip.
Manual
37. What is the maximum Maximum Maximum Structural Maximum Regulated Maximum Regulated
mass an aeroplane can Structural Ramp take-off mass Ramp Mass Take-off mass
be loaded to before it mass
moves under its own
power?
38. The weight of an parallel to the CG at right angles to the always through the vertically downwards
aircraft in all flight aeroplane's flight path MAC
conditions acts:
39. If the CG moves range will range will increase stability will increase range will remain the
rearwards during flight: decrease same but stalling
speed will decrease
40. What is the effect of Reduced optimum Reduced cruise range Increased cruise Increased stall spee
moving the CG from cruise range range
the front to the rear
limit at constant
6
altitude, CAS and

temperature?
41. Where does the mass The centre of The main wheels It doesn't act through The aerodynamic
act through when the gravity anywhere. centre
aircraft is stationary on
the ground?
42. If an aircraft is weighed The The operator The pilot The flight engineer.
prior to entry into manufacturer.
service who is
responsible for doing
the re-weigh to
prepare the plane for
operations?
43. Define Balance Arm BA = Mass / BA = Moment / Mass BA = Mass / Distance BA = Moment /
Moment Distance
44. The weight of an Operational Basic weight Operational empty Takeoff weight
aircraft fully equiped weight weight
for a particular flight
excluding all payload is
called
45. Purpose of the weight Center of graity Weight weight within Weight within its All above are correct
and balance is to within its limits its maximum maximum permissible
ensure permissible empty basic weight
weight
46. Individual aircraft on entry into when the effects of with the hangar all the above.
should be weighed in service and modifications or doors closed and the
an air conditioned subsequently repairs are not known air conditioning off.
hangar every 4 years
47. Which of the following Cabin crew Fuel consumption Stabilator trim setting Mass added or
would not affect the CG members during flight. removed at the
position? performing their neutral point
normal duties.
48. An aircraft is about to MZFM Obstacle clearance Maximum certified Climb gradient
depart on an oceanic Take-off mass
7
sector from a high

elevation airfield with
an exceptionally long
runway in the tropics at
1400 local time The
regulated take-off mass
is likely to be limited by
49. The CG datum has to between the nose between the leading but does not have to at the fire wall.
be along the and the tail. and trailing edge of be between the nose
longitudinal axis: the MAC. and the tail.
50. The useful load is: TOM - fuel mass BEM plus fuel load TOM minus the DOM TOM minus the
operating mass
51. Standard masses for 9 seats or more 20 seats or more 30 seats or more less than 30 seats
baggage can be used
for aircraft with:
52. What is the zero fuel MTOM minus fuel Maximum allowable Operating mass Actual loaded mass
mass? to destination mass of the aircraft minus the fuel load. of the aircraft with
minus fuel to with no usable fuel on no usable fuel on
alternative airfield. board. boar
53. Pay load of a flight is: ZFM minus DOM TOM minus operating LDM minus DOM all the above.
mass minus remaining
usable fuel.
54. The accelerate-stop TORA + Clearway TORA + Stopway TORA + Clearway TODA + Stopway
distance available is +Stopway
55. The Service Ceiling is the rate of climb the low speed and the lift becomes less the rate of climb
the pressure altitude is zero high speed buffet are than the weight reaches a specified
where coincident value
56. The Gross performance the average the minimum the average the minimum
of an aircraft is performance performance achieved performance achieved performance
achieved by a by a number of by a number of achieved by the
number of aircraft aircraft of the type aircraft of the type individual aircraft
of the type. reduced by a specified reduced by a
margin specified margin.
8
57. In relation to an TODA = TORA TODA = ASDA TORA = ASDA The runway is usable
aerodrome, a Balanced in both directions.
Field is when
58. Which of the following Gross gradient is Gross take-off Gross landing Gross acceleration is
statements is correct less than net distance is less than distance is greater less than net
gradient net take-off distance than net landing acceleration
distance
59. The load factor is the Lift : Drag at the Weight : Maximum Thrust : Weight Total lift : Weight
ratio of optimum angle of Authorised Weight
attack
60. The forces acting on an Lift, thrust and Lift, weight, Lift, weight, Weight, thrust, drag.
aircraft during the take- drag aerodynamic drag, aerodynamic drag,
off run are thrust wheel drag, thrust
61. A "flat rated" jet engine a constant thrust a constant thrust for decreasing thrust as increasing thrust as
will give for temperatures temperatures above a temperature temperature
below a cut-off cut-off value decreases below a increases above a
value cut-off value cut-off value
62. The rolling friction drag Depends on the Depends on the total Depends on the Depends on tyre
of an aircraft's wheels aircraft weight and load on the wheels wheel bearing friction distortion and
during take-off is constant during and decreases during and increases with increases with speed
take-off take-off speed
63. The take-off distance increasing mass, decreasing mass, decreasing mass, increasing mass,
required will increase reducing flap increasing flap above increasing flap above reducing flap below
as a result of below the the optimum setting, the optimum setting, the optimum setting,
optimum setting, increasing density decreasing density decreasing density
increasing density
64. The effect of increased decrease due to increase due to decrease due to increase due to
aircraft mass on the increased drag increased lift required increased drag and increased speed
climb gradient is reduced ratio of required at optimum
excess thrust to angle of attack
weight
65. The speeds V_X and Maximum Speed for best rate of Max. speed with flap Speed for best angle
V_Y are, respectively achievable speed climb and speed for extended and max. of climb and speed
with max. best angle of climb speed with gear for best rate of climb
9
continuous thrust extended

and maximum
take-off thrust
66. The rate of climb the excess thrust the excess power the excess lift the CLmax of the
depends on available available available wing.
67. The speed to give the always the same as close to the stalling higher than the speed lower than the speed
maximum rate of climb as the speed for speed as possible for best angle of climb for best angle of
will be best angle of climb.
climb.
68. The maximum rate of at a speed close at VMO with all at VMO with the at a speed
descent will occur to the stalling permissible drag aircraft in the clean corresponding to
speed with all producing devices configuration. maximum L :D with
permissible drag deployed. the aircraft in the
producing devices clean configuration.
deployed.
69. The climb gradient will high mass, low high pressure high temperature, low pressure altitude,
be reduced by temperature, high altitude, turning flight, high pressure altitude, high mass, high
flap angle low temperature contaminated temperature.
airframe.
70. When an aircraft the excess power it will have a small the rate of climb will the lift will be
reaches its service will be zero positive rate of climb be zero insufficient to
ceiling support the weight.
71. In a power-off glide, an increase the glide not affect the glide increase the glide not affect the glide
increase in aircraft angle and increase angle, but increase angle, but not affect angle, and not affect
mass will the speed for the speed for the speed for the speed for
minimum glide minimum glide angle. minimum glide angle. minimum glide angle.
angle.
72. For a jet aircraft, the the speed the speed a speed greater than a speed less than that
speed to give the corresponding to corresponding to that for maximum L :D for maximum L :D
maximum rate of climb maximum L :D minimum L:D
will be
73. The minimum total when the induced when the parasite when CL: CD is a when CDTotal is a
drag of an aircraft in drag is a minimum drag is a minimum maximum minimum
level flight occurs
10
74. For a jet aircraft the at sea level at the absolute ceiling at the same altitude at high altitude but
maximum achievable that the maximum below the absolute
True Air Speed will Indicated Air Speed ceiling.
occur occurs
75. The specific fuel c) for a jet engine a) the miles flown per the fuel flow per unit the fuel flow at
consumption (sf is kilogram of fuel used of thrust maximum take off
thrust
76. The tangent from the maximum range minimum drag minimum power maximum speed
origin to the Power ~
Speed curve will give
for a jet aircraft the
speed for:
77. If the mass of an the range is the range is increased the range is reduced the range is
aircraft is increased reduced and the and the altitude for and the altitude for increased and the
altitude for maximum range is maximum range is altitude for maximum
maximum range is higher lower range is lower.
higher
78. To obtain the at the altitude at an increasing at a decreasing at the altitude which
maximum range for a which is the altitude as the mass altitude as the mass is the optimum for
jet aircraft it should be optimum for the decreases decreases the mass at the top
flown mass at the top of of descent.
climb
79. If the aircraft's C.Gis the drag and lift the drag and lift will the drag will be the drag will be
moved into a more will be increased be increased and the increased, lift will be decreased, the lift
forward position and the range will range will be decreased and the will be increased and
be increased decreased range will be the range will be
decreased increase
80. The specific range (S R) the distance that the distance that the the distance that the the distance that the
is the aircraft would aircraft would fly aircraft would fly per aircraft could fly with
fly with full fuel without using the kilogram of fuel the capacity payload
reserve fuel
81. Maximum range for a at sea level at the absolute ceiling at the altitude where at a high altitude, but
jet aircraft will occur the maximum True Air below the absolute
Speed is achieved ceiling
11
82. Endurance for a jet at low altitude, at low altitude, and at high altitude, and at high altitude, and
aircraft is a maximum and increases with decreases with increases with decreases with
increasing aircraft increasing aircraft increasing aircraft increasing aircraft
mass mass mass mass
83. For a jet aircraft absolute ceiling high altitude high altitude level above the absolute
selected level for Long below absolute ceiling ceiling
Range Cruise (LRC) is at
the:
84. The landing distance increased increased decreased increased
required will be temperature, temperature, temperature, temperature,
increased as a result of increased pressure increased pressure decreased pressure decreased pressure
all of the following altitude, uphill altitude, downhill altitude, uphill runway altitude, downhill
runway slope. runway slope. slope runway slope.
85. When calculating the 50% of a 100% of a headwind, 50% of a headwind, 150% of a headwind,
landing distance, what headwind, and and 100% of a and 100% of a and 50% of a tailwin
percentage of the 150% of a tailwind. tailwind. tailwind.
reported wind
component must be
allowed for ?
86. Which of the following A reduced flap Wheel braking is Landing distance Deployment of lift
statements is correct ? setting for landing most effective when required on a grass dumpers will increase
will give a shorter the wheels are locked. runway will be shorter the effectiveness of
landing distance, than on tarmac the wheel brakes.
as a result of because of the
reduced lift and rougher surface.
greater load on
the wheels.
87. Which of the following Hydroplaning can When the wheel Hydroplaning can Hydroplaning can be
statements relating to only occur if the begins to hydroplane only occur if the delayed by reducing
hydroplaning is true ? depth of the the wheel drag brakes are applied the tyre pressure.
contaminant decreases. and releasing the
exceeds 3 mm. brakes will stop the
hydroplaning.
88. Decreasing air density increased landing reduced landing increased landing reduced landing
12
will give distance due to distance due to distance due to distance due to
increased TAS, and reduced TAS, and increased TAS, and reduced TAS, and
increased idling reduced idling thrust. reduced idling thrust. increased idling
thrust. thrust.
89. Dynamic hydroplaning high speed, low high speed, high tyre low speed, high tyre high speed, high tyre
is likely to occur as a tyre pressure, high pressure, high pressure, low pressure, low
result of a combination contaminant contaminant density. contaminant density. contaminant density.
of density.
90. The effect of increasing screen speed screen speed screen speed screen speed
aircraft mass on the increases, brake increases, brake drag decreases, brake drag decreases, brake drag
landing distance is : drag decreases, increases, landing increases, landing decreases, landing
landing distance distance increases. distance decreases. distance decreases.
increases.
91. Which of the following The braking effect Reverse thrust may Reverse thrust may At low speeds re-
statements regarding of reverse thrust is be used for landing not be used on a ingestion of the jet
reverse thrust is true ? greatest at low but not for an aborted slippery runway. efflux may occur,
speeds. take off. causing over-heating.
92. Given that control 10% above the 20% above the stall 25% above the stall 30% above the stall
requirements are stall speed speed speed speed CAP 698 Figure
adequate, the speed at 2.1
the screen must not be
less than
93. The take off climb 4.0% with 2.5% with maximum 4.0% with maximum a gradient of not less
gradient requirement maximum take off power and take off power and than zero with
for a single engine Class continuous power flaps in the take off flaps in the take off maximum continuous
B aircraft is and flaps up position position power and flaps in
the take off position.
94. When assessing the en- the altitude at the absolute ceiling the altitude at which the altitude at which
route performance, it which the rate of with maximum the rate of climb is a gradient of 0.5% is
may not be assumed climb is 300 continuous power. 300 ft./min. with achieved with
that the aircraft is ft./min. with maximum take-off maximum continuous
flying at an altitude maximum power. power.
exceeding continuous power.
95. Given that the control 20% above the 30% above the 30% above the 50% above the
13
requirement is met, the stalling speed with stalling speed with stalling speed with stalling speed with
speed at the 50 landing flap flaps up landing flap flaps up.
ftscreen must not be
less than
96. The landing distance 70% of the 60% of the landing 60% of the landing 70% of the landing
required must not landing distance distance available at a distance available at distance available at
exceed available at a destination destination and destination and
destination aerodrome, and 70% alternate aerodromes. alternate
aerodrome, and of the landing aerodromes.
60% of the landing distance available at
distance available an alternate
at an alternate aerodrome.
aerodrome.
97. If the runway is wet, may be used must be increased by must be increased by must be increased by
the landing distance unfactored 50% 15% 5%
required for a dry
runway
98. Which of the following The landing If the runway has an For planning The landing distance
statements is true distance required uphill slope of 1.0% , purposes the landing required is not
is not affected by the landing distance distance required affected by weight as
temperature. required should be should be based on the effect of the
decreased by 5% the I.S.A. temperature increased speed is
appropriate to the cancelled by the
pressure altitude. increased braking
effect.
99. Which of the following The angle of bank If the change of Obstacles must be Reported winds are
statements is true with may not be heading exceeds 15° , cleared by at least 35 not required to be
respect to the take off assumed to obstacles at a lateral ft. factore
flight path exceed 15° after distance from the
the 50 ft. screen track in IMC of greater
than 600 m. need not
be considered.
100. To achieve the at 14500 ft. with at 14500 ft. with at 17200 ft. with 75% at 12000 ft. with
maximum possible TAS 100% power, and 100% power, and power, and would 100% power, and
14
in ISA conditions, the would achieve 188 would achieve 196 achieve 193 kts. would achieve 196
aircraft should be flown kts. kts. kts.
101. The balked landing Gear down, Gear down, landing Gear down, approach Gear up, approach
climb requirement landing flap, take flap, take off power flap, maximum flap, maximum
must be met in the off power with one on all engines. continuous power on continuous power on
following configuration engine all engines. all engines.
inoperative.
102. The maximum landing there is adequate the landing distance the climb maneuverability is
weight may be obstacle clearance is not exceeded. performance is adequate.
determined by the during approach. adequate in the event
landing climb gradient of a go-around.
requirement This is to
ensure that
103. The speed V_MU is the maximum the maximum speed the minimum speed the minimum speed
speed for flight at which the aircraft at which the aircraft at which the
with the should become can safely lift off the elevators can rotate
undercarriage airborne. ground. the aircraft until the
extended. tail bumper is in
contact with the
runway.
104. The speed V1is: the stalling speed the critical speed for the speed at which, the speed at which
with the flaps in a engine failure during with the critical rotation to the
prescribed take off. engine inoperative, unstick attitude is
position. the TODR will not initiate
exceed the TODA, the
TORR will not exceed
the TORA. And the
ASDR will not exceed
the ASDA.
105. When calculating the at the speed at at the speed V1 at the speed reached at the speed reached
Accelerate-Stop which the engine 2 seconds after the after 2 seconds after
Distance Required, fails. engine failure has V1 , with all engines
braking is assumed to occurred operating, or with
begin one engine
15
inoperative,
whichever is limiting.
106. Select the correct VMCG VEF V1 VR VMCG VEF VR V1 VEF V1 VMCG VR VMCG V1 VEF VR
sequence of speeds
107. Which of the following If the aircraft is If the aircraft is If the aircraft is If the aircraft is
statements is correct rotated before VR rotated before VR to a rotated after VR to rotated after VR to a
to the normal greater than normal the normal attitude, greater than normal
attitude, the take attitude, the take off the take off distance attitude, the take off
off distance distance required will required will be distance will be
required will be be reduced. increased. reduce
reduced.
108. The Balanced Field the distance to the take off distance the take off run the take off distance
Length for an aircraft is accelerate is equal required is equal to required is equal to required is equal to
when, in the event of to the distance to the accelerate- stop the accelerate-stop the take off run
an engine failure during stop. distance required distance required require
take off
109. If the balanced field V1 V_MBE must be V1 must be reduced V1 must be reduced V_MBE must be
exceeds V_MBE increased to V1 to V_MBE and the to V_MBEE and the increased to V1 and
and the field field length required field length required the field length
length required will be greater than will be less than the required will be less
will be greater the balanced field balanced field length than the balanced
than the balanced length. field length.
field length.
110. If the balanced field Take off may not the V1 must be the V1 must be there will be a range
length required for a be made at that increased above the decreased below the of V1 speed available.
given weight is less weight. balanced field V1 balanced field V1
than the balanced field
length available
111. A runway is considered more than 50% of more than 25% of the more than 25% of the more than 30% of the
to be contaminated the runway runway surface is runway surface is runway surface is
when surface is covered covered by more than covered by more than covered by more
by more than a 5 a 2.5 mm. depth of a 3 mm. depth of than a 3 mm. depth
mm. depth of water. water. of water.
water.
16
112. The aquaplaning speed is not affected by is not affected by increases if decreases if
changes of changes of contaminant density contaminant density
contaminant contaminant density, increases, and tyre increases, and tyre
density, but but increases if tyre pressure decreases. pressure decreases.
increases if tyre pressure decreases.
pressure increases.
113. The effect of increasing the climb gradient the climb gradient the climb gradient the climb gradient
the V1 speed for a increases and the decreases and the increases and the take decreases and the
given take off mass and take off distance take off distance off distance increases. take off distance
aerodrome conditions decreases. increases. decreases.
is
114. Which of the following The increased V1 Reduced thrust may The increased V2 Reduced thrust may
statements is correct : procedure may be be used for take off if procedure would only be used for take off if
used with a the runway is be used if the climb the anti skid system
reduced thrust contaminated. limited take off mass is inoperative. Refer
take off. is less than the field to CAP 698 Fig. 4.17
length limited mass.
115. The first segment of when the flaps when the landing when the landing when the aircraft
the take off flight path and landing gear gear is retracted and gear is fully retracted. reaches a height of
ends are fully retracted. the power reduced to 400 ft.
maximum continuous.
116. For the third segment V2 Take off Take Accelerating Take off V1 Max.Continuous Accelerating Take off
of the take off flight off Retracted Being retracted Being retracted Take off Down
path, which of the Retracted Retracted
following combinations
of speed, power, flap
setting, and landing
gear position is correct
? Speed Power Flap
Gear
117. The second segment 150 ft./min. 240 ft./min. 360 ft./min. 625 ft./min.
gradient requirement
for a two engined
aircraft is 2.4If the V2
17
speed is 150 knots IAS

the rate of climb at sea
level ISA when
operating at the
W.A.Tlimit would be
approximately
118. The climb gradient the take off there will be in the event of an in the event of an
requirement distance available adequate obstacle engine failure on take engine failure on take
determines a maximum will not be clearance after take off a minimum climb off adequate control
weight for take off This exceeded. off. gradient will be will be available.
ensures that: achievable.
119. For an aircraft climbing increase increase increase decrease decrease increase decrease decrease
at a constant Indicated
Air Speed, the (i) True
airspeed and (ii) the
Mach number will : (i)
(ii)
120. An aircraft is increase decrease decrease increase increase increase decrease decrease
descending at a
constant Mach
numberThe (i) IAS
and(ii) the TAS will : (i)
(ii)
121. The Long Range Cruise at the speed which at a speed above the at a speed below the at a speed which
procedure is to fly : gives the maximum range maximum range gives the minimum
maximum possible speed, which gives speed, which gives fuel flow.
range 99% of the maximum 95% of the maximum
possible range range
122. It may be preferable to because a lower because a higher if a lower altitude has because a higher
cruise at an altitude altitude may give a altitude may give a a more favourable altitude may give a
other than the higher VMO larger buffet margin wind higher Specific Range
optimum altitude for
maximum range:
123. Which of the following Maximum cruise Maximum achievable Maximum cruise Maximum cruise
18
statements is correct speed is always cruise speed is not speed may be limited speed is always
with regard to cruising limited by affected by weight. by maximum cruise limited by a Mach
speed. maximum cruise thrust available, MMO number limitation
thrust available. or VMO
124. Which of the following If the flight is the gross gradient the effect of fuel the aircraft must
statements is correct continued to a must be reduced by jettisoning on the have a positive climb
with regard to the en landing 0.9% aircraft weight is not gradient at 1500 ft.
route regulations for aerodrome, permitted. above the landing
twin engined aircraft obstacles must be aerodrome
after engine failure : cleared by 1000 ft.
125. To meet the balked 3.2% in the 2.1 % in the approach 3.2% in the landing 2.1 % in the landing
landing requirements landing configuration with all configuration with all configuration with all
an aircraft must configuration with engines operating. engines operating. engines operating.
achieve a climb the critical engine
gradient of : inoperative.
126. For a class A jet 50% of the 60% of the landing 70% of the landing 90% of the landing
aircraft, the landing landing distance distance available distance available distance available.
distance required must available
not exceed
127. Which of the following Slope is only taken Slope should be taken Slope should be taken Slope is never taken
statement is true with into account if it is into account if it into account if it into account.
regard to runway slope downhill exceeds 1.0% exceeds 2.0%
in the calculation of
landing weight:
128. Landing is planned at Weight must be The screen height the aircraft may be the aircraft may be
an aerodrome with a reduced until the may be reduced to 30 despatched at the despatched at the
single runway. At the still air ft. if approved by the original weight if an original weight if two
expected arrival weight requirement is aerodrome authority alternate at which all alternates at which
the landing distance met. the landing all the landing
available is adequate requirements are met, requirements are
with the forecast wind, is available. met, are available.
but inadequate in still
air:
129. What happens to the Both remain Vx remains constant Vx increases and Vy Vx remains constant
19
speed for Vx and constant. and Vy increases. remains constant. and Vy decreases.
Vywith increasing
altitude?
130. The effect of a Decreased weight, Decreased weight, Decreased weight, Decreased weight,
contaminated runway increased V1, same V1, increased same V1, same VR. decreased V1,
on the field limit mass increased VR. VR. decreased VR.
131. When operating with Both landing and Only landing Only take off Neither take off or
anti-skid inoperative: take off performance will be performance will be landing performance
performance will affected. affected. will be affecte
be affected.
132. When comparing Vx to Vx will always be Vy will always be Vy will always be Vx will sometimes be
Vy: greater than Vy. greater than or equal greater than Vx. greater than Vy, but
to Vx. sometimes be less
than Vy.
133. With which conditions Cold temp, low Hot temp, low Hot temp, high Cold temp, high
would one expect Vmc altitude, low pressure altitude, high pressure altitude, high altitude, low
to be the lowest? humidity. humidity. humidity. humidity.
134. Give the correct order Vmcg, VR, V1, V2 Vmcg, V1, VR, V2 V 1, Vmcg, VR, V2 Vmcg, V1, Vmca, VR,
for the following: V2
135. If the C of G moves aft The range and the The range and the fuel The range will The range will
from the most forward fuel consumption consumption will increase and the fuel decrease and the fuel
position: will increase. decrease. consumption will consumption will
decrease. increase.
136. When approaching a Positive touch Smoothest possible Positive touch down, Normal landing, full
wet runway, with the down, full reverse touch down, full full reverse and only reverse and brakes at
risk of hydroplaning, and brakes as soon reverse and only brakes below VP. VP.
what technique should as possible. brakes below VP.
the pilot adapt?
137. Give the correct Vs, Vx, Vy Vx, Vs, Vy Vs, max range speed, Max endurance
sequence: max endurance speed. speed, Vs, Max range
spee
138. Flying at an altitude Max speed. Less manoeuvrability. Greater 1 engine Greater 1 engine
close to coffin corner inoperative Range. inoperative
gives: Endurance.
20
139. Ignoring the effect of Increase. Decrease. Remain the same. Increase, then
compressibility, what decrease.
would CL do with an
increase in altitude?
140. The main reason for Decrease sector Increase endurance. Adhere to ATC Increase range
using the stepped climb times procedures
technique is to:
141. When take off mass is Have no affect. Require a decrease in Allow an increase in Decrease the TODR.
limited by VMBE, an the mass. the mass.
increase in the uphill
slope will:
142. Reference point zero Point where the Point where the Point where the Point where gear is
refers to: aircraft lifts off the aircraft reaches V2. aircraft reaches 35ft. selected up.
ground.
143. To maintain the same Less airspeed and Same airspeed. More airspeed and More airspeed and
angle of attack and same power. less power. more power.
altitude at a higher
gross weight an
aeroplane needs:
144. The coefficient of lift Increase CAS. Reduce nose up Increase angle of Increase TAS.
may be increased by elevator trim. attack.
lowering the flaps or:
145. Which conditions are Low airfield Low airfield elevation, High elevation, no High airfield
most suited to a elevation, close no obstacles, short obstacles short elevations, distant
selection of lower flap obstacles, long runway, low runway, low obstacles, long
for take off? runway, high temperature. temperature. runway, high
temperature. ambient
temperature.
146. If the flap setting is Not change Decrease if not Increase Increase or decrease
changed from 10 limited to Vmca depending on weight
degrees to 20 degrees
V2 will:
147. For a turbojet Accelerating from Landing gear is fully Flap retraction begins. Flaps are fully
aeroplane the second V2 to flap retracted. retracte
21
segment of the climb retraction speed

begins when: begins.
148. For a turbojet Acceleration to Landing gear is fully Acceleration from Flaps are fully
aeroplane the third flap retraction retracted. VLOF to V2 begins. retracte
segment of climb speed begins (min
begins when: 400ft ).
149. The speed for Slower than the Faster than the speed Slower in a climb and Same as speed for
minimum power speed for for minimum drag. faster in the decent. minimum drag.
required in a turbojet minimum drag.
will be:
150. What landing distance Less than More than Same as destination. None applicable.
requirements need to destination. destination.
be met at an alternate
airfield compared to a
destination airfield for
a turboprop?
151. Absolute Ceiling is Altitude where Altitude at which rate Altitude obtained Altitude where low
defined by: theoretical rate of of climb is 100 fpm. when using lowest speed Buffet and
climb is zero. steady flight speed. high speed Buffet
speeds are
coincident.
152. Vr for a jet aircraft 1.05 Vmca and V1 Vmca and 1.1 V1 VMBE and V1 V 1 and 1.1 Vmca
must be faster than,
the greater of:
153. Landing on a runway Increase landing Decrease landing Not affect the landing Give a slighty
with 5 mm wet snow distance distance distance reduced landing
will: disntace, due to
increased
impingement drag
154. A balanced field length Distance taken to TORA X 1.5 V1 =VR ASDA equals TODA
is when: accelerate to V1
and distance to
stop are identical
22
155. Increase ambient Increased field Decrease maximum Increase climb limited Increased obstacle
temperature will result length limited brake energy limited mass. limited mass.
in: mass. mass.
156. Pitch angle during Increase. Decrease. Increase at first then Stay constant.
decent at a constant decrease.
mach number will:
157. At maximum range Same as L/D max. Less than L/D max. Maximum. More than L/D max.
speed in a turbojet the
angle of attack is:
158. Climbing to cruise Increase time to Decrease ground Decreased time to Increased ground
altitude with a climb. distance covered to climb. distance covered to
headwind will: clim climb.
159. Requirements for the Minimum There is no climb Level acceleration Legal minimum
third segment of climb acceleration gradient requirement with an equivalent altitude for
are: altitude for one during acceleration gradient of 1.2%. acceleration is 1500'.
engine inoperative phase.
should be used.
160. Why is there a So that an aircraft Adequate So that the aircraft To maintain
requirement for an falling below the performance for a go- will not stall when full minimum altitude on
approach climb glide path will be around in the event of flap is selected. the approach.
gradient? able to re- an engine failure.
intercept it.
161. The drift down is a After aircraft For a visual approach For an instrument When the engine fails
procedure applied: depressurization. to a VASI. approach at an airfield above the operating
without an ILS. altitude for one
engine inoperative.
162. Take off run required Brake release Brake release point to Brake release point to The same as for all
for a jet aircraft, with point to midpoint 3541. 15 ft. engines.
one engine inoperative between VLOF and
is: 35 ft.
163. A jet aircraft's It's certification It's pressurisation The altitude at which Thrust limits.
maximum altitude is maximum altitude. maximum altitude. low and high-speed
usually limited by: buffet will occur.
23
164. With respect to en- Drift down to Jettison fuel from the Assess remaining fuel Fly slight faster.
route diversions (using clearance height beginning of the drift requirements, then
drift down graph), if and then start to down. jettison fuel as soon
you believe that you jettison fuel. as possible.
will not clear an
obstacle do you:
165. What factors would Flaps at high With high pressure. With low All the above.
cause V2 to be limited settings. temperature.
by Vmca?
166. If not VMBE or V2 Vmga VR VMU
Vmcglimited, what
would V1 be limited by
?
167. What procedure is Improved climb Reduced thrust take When ASDA is greater Take off with anti-
likely to require V1 to produre. off. than TODA. skid inoperative.
be reduced ?
168. Which of the following Landing climb limit Obstacle limit mass. VMBE. Tyre speed limit
is not affected by a mass. mass.
tailwind
169. . When flying an aircraft More flap. Less thrust due to less More thrust. No change.
on the back of the drag parasite drag.
curve, maintaining a
slower speed (but still
faster than VS) would
require
170. When flying in a slightly decreased. slightly increased. unchanged. should be increased,
headwind, the speed or decreased
for max range should depending on the
be strength of the win
171. VLO is defined as : Actual speed that Minimum possible The maximum speed The long range cruise
the aircraft lifts off speed that the aircraft for landing gear spee
the ground. could lift off the operation.
ground.
24
172. When flying at the Fuel consumption Fuel consumption Fuel consumption Fuel consumption
optimum range gradually gradually increases. initially decreases remains constant.
altitude, over time the decreases. then gradually
increases.
173. What happens to the It increases with a It is unaffected by It decreases with a It increases with an
field limited take off downhill slope. runway slope. downhill slope. uphill slope.
mass with runway
slope ?
174. With regards to the always flown at always flown 2000 ft may be flown above flown as close to the
optimum altitude the optimum below the optimum or below the optimum optimum altitude as
during the cruise, the altitude. altitude. altitude, but never at ATC will allow.
aircraft is the optimum altitude.
175. A tailwind on take off climb limit mass. obstacle clearance. field limit mass. VMBE
will not affect
176. If a jet engine fails the take off can be the take off should be the take off should be the take off may be
during take off, before continued or aborted. continued. continued if aircraft
V1 aborted. speed is, above
VMCG and lies
between VGO and
VSTOP.
177. In a balanced turn load radius of turn and TAS and bank angle. radius of turn and Bank angle only.
factor is dependant on aircraft weight. bank angle.
178. When gliding into a reduce airspeed to the same as the max. lower than the max. higher than the max.
headwind airspeed gust penetration range glide speed in range glide speed in range glide speed in
should be speed. still air. still air. still air.
179. Which denotes the stall VSO. VS 1. VS. VS 1G.
speed in the landing
configuration ?
180. When descending Mach no. TAS increases. Mach no. remains Mach no. increases.
below the optimum decreases. constant.
altitude at the long
range cruise speed
181. During aircraft Nose wheel VMCG must be valid Nose wheel steering The aircraft may be
certification, the value steering does not in both wet and dry does not work after operated even if the
25
of VMCG is found with affect VMCG. conditions. an engine failure. nose wheel steering
nose wheel steering is inoperative.
inoperativeThis is
because
182. Which is true regarding Provides largest Provides minimum Take off distance will Distances will remain
a balanced field ? gap between net field length required always be more than equal, even if engine
and gross margins. in the case of an stopping distance. failure speed is
engine failure. change
183. Climbing in the Mach no. Mach no. decreases. CAS increases. IAS increases.
troposphere at a increases.
constant TAS
184. Out of the four forces Drag. Weight W Sin 0 Drag + W Sin 0
acting on the aircraft in
flight, what balances
thrust in the climb ?
185. With a downward V1 will increase. V1 will decrease. VR will increase. VR will decrease.
sloping runway
186. The reduced thrust Runway wet. After dark. Temperature varies by Anti-skid
take off procedure may more than 10°C from unserviceable.
not be used when ISA.
187. Prior to take off the they indicate the if the brakes are they would work they may need to be
brake temperature state of the fusible already hot, they may better if they are warmed up to
needs to be checked, plugs. fade / overheat during warm. prevent them from
because a RTO. cracking during a
RTO.
188. What happens to the VX increases, VY VX decreases, VY VX increases, VY VX decreases, VY
speeds, VX and VY, decreases. decreases. increases. increases.
when lowering the
aircraft's
undercarriage'?
189. Maximum Endurance : can be achieved in can be achieved by can be achieved in a can be achieved by
level flying at the best rate steady climb. flying at the absolute
unaccelerated of climb speed in ceiling.
flight with straight and level
26
minimum fuel flight.

consumption.
190. What factors affect Configuration and Configuration and Mass and attitude. Mass and
descent angle in a glide altitude. angle of attack. configuration.
?
191. What is meant by TORA = TODA ASDA = ASDR and TODA = ASDA TORA = ASDA
balanced field available TODA =TODR
?
192. Which of the following The C of G in an aft Increased altitude. Decreased weight. Increased flap
will not decrease the position within the setting.
value of VS? C of G envelope.
193. What effect does an It will cause it to It will cause it to It will have no effect. It will cause it to
increase in weight have increase. decrease. decrease by the same
on V1 ? percentage as the
weight increase.
194. VR for a Class 10 % above VMU. 5 % above VMCA. 5 % above VMCG. 10 % above VMCA.
Aaeroplane must not
be less than:
195. The maximum induced VMD. VMP. VSO. VATO.
drag occurs at a speed
of
196. VMD for a jet 1.3 VS. 1.7 VS. 1.6 VS. 2.1 VS.
aeroplane is
approximately equal to
197. The effect an increase increases. decreases. remains constant. increases or
of weight has on the decreases, depending
value of stalling speed on the amount of
(IAS) is that VS . weight increase.
198. Which one of the An increase will An increase will cause A decrease will cause A decrease will cause
following statements is cause a decrease a decrease in take off an increase in the an increase in the
true concerning the in the landing distance required. climb gradient take off ground run.
effect of changes of distance required.
ambient temperature
on an aeroplane's
27
performance, assuming
all other performance
parameters remain
constant'?
199. For a turbojet aircraft may be less than may be less than 15% may be less than 15% must always be at
planning to land on a 15% greater than greater than the dry greater than the dry least 15% greater
wet runway, the the dry landing landing distance if all landing distance if than the dry landing
landing distance distance if the reverse thrust systems permission is obtained distance.
available flight manual gives are operative. from the relevant
specific data for a aerodrome authority.
wet runway.
200. In relation to runway may not exceed may exceed the PCN may never exceed the may exceed the PCN
strength, the ACN 90% of the PCN. by up to 10%. PCN. by a factor of 2.
201. An aircraft is climbing the IAS decreases the IAS and TAS the IAS decreases and the IAS remains
in a standard and TAS remain remain constant. TAS decreases. constant and TAS
atmosphere above the constant. increases.
tropopause at a
constant Mach number
202. Optimum altitude can the highest the altitude at which the altitude at which the altitude at which
be defined as permissible an aeroplane attains the ground speed is specific fuel
altitude for an the maximum specific greatest. consumption is
aeroplane type. air range. highest.
203. If an aircraft is the IAS will the IAS will increase the IAS will decrease the IAS will decrease
descending at a increase and the and the margin to low and the margin to low and the margin to
constant Mach number margin to low speed buffet will speed buffet will low speed buffet will
speed buffet will increase. decrease. increase.
decrease.
204. The tyre speed limit is V1 in TAS. Max VLOF in TAS. Max VLOF in ground V1 in ground spee
speed.
205. For take off OAT, pressure Standard Standard altitude, Standard
performance altitude, wind, temperature, altitude, standard temperature,
calculations, what is weight. wind, weight. temperature, wind, pressure altitude,
taken into account ? weight. wind, weight.
28
206. Which 3 speeds are ROC, Range, Range, Best angle of Best angle of climb, Best angle of climb,
effectively the same for minimum Drag. climb, minimum Drag. minimum Drag, Range, Endurance.
a jet aircraft Endurance.
207. When an aircraft takes- the end of the the actual take-off the distance from BRP the balanced take-off
off at the mass it was runway will be mass equals the field to V1 is equal to the distance equals 115%
limited to by the TODA: cleared by 35ft length limited take-off distance from V1 to of the all engine take-
following an mass. the 35ft screen. off distance.
engine failure just
before V1.
208. Which of the following VY 1.2VSI VX VFE
speeds give the
maximum obstacle
clearance in the climb?
209. For a jet flying at a Increase, Decrease, Constant. Constant, Decrease. Decrease, Decrease.
constant altitude, at Increases.
the maximum range
speed, what is the
effect on IAS and Drag
over time?
210. For an aircraft gliding at glide distance will glide distance will glide distance will glide distance will
it's best glide range increase. remain unaffected. decrease. remain constant, if
speed, if AoAis speed is increase
reduced:
211. What happens to the Cost index is not Cost index will Cost index will It all depends on how
cost index when flying affected by speed. increase with decrease with much the speed is
above the optimum increased speed. increased speed. changed by.
Long Range cruise
speed?
212. By what percentage 0.3 0.1 0.2 0.15
should V2 be greater
than VMCA?
213. Reduced take off can be used if the can be used if the take is not recommended has the benefit of
thrust: headwind off mass is higher than at very low improving engine life.
component during the performance temperatures.
29
take off is at least limited take off mass.

10 kts.
214. Reduced take off can only be used in can't be used on a wet is not recommended is not recommended
thrust: daylight. runway. when wind shear is at sea level.
expected on
departure.
215. May the anti-skid be Only landing. Only take off. Yes No
considered in
determining the take
off and landing mass
limits?
216. Induced drag? Increases with Decreases with Independent of Initially increases and
increased increased airspeed. airspeed. the decreases with
airspeed. spee
217. A headwind increases climb decreases climb angle. increases best rate of decreases rate of
component: angle. climb. climb.
218. V1 is limited by: VMCG and VR. VMCA and VR. V2 and VR. 1.05 VMCA.
219. VR is: less than V1. more than V2. less than VMCG. equal to or more
than V1.
220. What is the effect of an increased take-off decreased take-off increased take-off decreased take-off
increase in pressure distance with distance and distance and distance with
altitude? increased increased decreased decreased
performance. performance. performance. performance.
221. What affects speed and weight. speed and fuel on speed, weight and none of the above.
endurance? board. fuel on board.
222. What degrades aircraft low altitude, low high altitude, high low altitude, high high temperature,
performance? temperature, low temperature, high temperature, low high altitude, low
humidity. humidity. humidity. humidity.
223. Losing an engine during Altitude. Straight and level Heading. Bank angle.
the take off above flight.
Vmca means the
aircraft will be able to
maintain:
30
224. What happens if V_1 is ASD decrease and ASD decrease ASD increase TOD decrease and
reduced when takeoff TOR decrease ASD increase
weight is limited by
TOD?
225. The cause of restriction Avoid undue stress Ensure that a fully Avoid aircraft both ‘b’ and ‘c’
on MZFW is due to: on wing structure loaded aircraft will be structural failure
able to follow a safe
flight
226. What should the pilot Maintain speed of Maintain V_2 speed Maintain V_2 speed Maintain V_2 speed
do if an engine failure engine failure up upto the height of upto the flap upto the landing gear
occurs prior to V_2 to flap retraction 1500 feet retraction height retraction height
speed? height
227. The conditions for flight Maintain normal Maintain maximum Maintain maximum Maintain maximum
over water is to: operating speed true airspeed altitude ground speed
228. The gradient of climb is Rate of climb to Change in height to Rate of climb to the Horizontal distance
the ratio of: the horizontal the horizontal change of height traveled to the
distance traveled distance traveled change in height
229. A field is said to be ASD required is TOR required is equal ASD/TOD required is TOD required is
balanced when less than ASD to TOR available equal to the ASD/TOD greater than TOD
available available available
230. For brake release to TOD ASD TOR Take Off Path
the point where
aircraft attains a height
of 35 ft is called:
231. The conditions in the Flaps in takeoff Speed equal to flap Landing gear Gradient of climb is
initial climbout position and retraction speed retracting greater than or equal
segment are: maximum takeoff to 1.2%
power
232. The engine operating Maximum Maximum takeoff Maximum climb Maximum takeoff
limits are: continuous thrust thrust for 5 minutes thrust for 5 minutes thrust for 10 minutes
for 5 minutes
233. Balancing of field V1 is equal to Vr V1 is less than Vr V1 is more than Vr a and c are correct
length is only possible
when
31
234. With increase of bank Decreases Increases Remains the same ‘a’ and ‘c’ are correct
angle, the load factor:
235. Stopway can be used TOD & ASD TOD & TOR ASD only TOD only
for additional length
for
236. Operational items used Crew and galley Unusable fluid and Usable fluids and All of the above
in aircraft may include supplies galley supplies electronic equipment
237. Actual Zero Fuel Operational empty Taxi weight minus Landing weight minus All of the above are
Weight can be weight plus block fuel reserve fuel correct
obtained by payload
238. Engine out enroute Provide drift down Impose a weight Be based on most All of the above
climb limitation will to lower altitude penalty at take-off critical point for single
engine failure
239. For calculation of Mean Average chord of the Average width of the All of the above
centre of gravity, the Aerodynamic wing wing
M.A.Cis Chord
240. How does the thrust It remains It increases slightly as It decreases slightly as It only varies with
from a fixed propeller constant. the aircraft speed the aircraft speed changes in mass.
change during the take- builds up. builds up.
off run of an aircraft?
241. The take-off run is distance to V1 and distance from brake the horizontal the distance to 35ft
defined as: then to stop, release to the point distance from the with an engine failure
assuing the engine where the aircraft start of the take-off at V1 or 1.15 times
failure is reaches V2 roll to a point the all engine
recognised at V1 equidistant between distance to 35 ft.
VLOF and 35 ft
242. What effect does a It has no effect on It decreases V1 It increases V1 It increases the IAS
downhill slope have on V1 for take-off
the take-off speeds?
243. Density altitude is: the true altitude of the altitude in the the indicated altitude used to calculate en-
the aircraft standard atmosphere on the altimeter route safety altitudes
corresponding to the
actual conditions
32
244. The take-off climb increases in a decreases in a head is independent of the is determined with
gradient: head wind and wind and increases in wind component the aircraft in the
decreases in a tail a tail wind take-off
wind configuration
245. The use of reduced if the field length if the actual take-off if the actual take-off if the take-off
thrust for take-off is limited take-off mass is less than the mass is less than the distance required at
permitted: mass is greater structural limiting field length and climb the actual take-off
than the climb mass limited take-off mass does not
limited take-off masses exceed the take¬off
mass distance available
246. The maximum and VR and VMCG V2 and VMCG VR and VMCA V2 and VMCA
minimum values of V1
are limited by:
247. A turbo jet is in a climb It increases It decreases it remains constant it increases initially
at a constant IAS what then decreases
happens to the drag?
248. Which is the correct Vs, V_Y, Vx Vx, V_Y,Vx Vs, Vx, V_Y Vx, V_Y,Vs
sequence of speed?
249. A turbo jet aircraft is TAS and IAS TAS and IAS decrease TAS decreases, IAS TAS increases, IAS
climbing at a constant increase increases decreases
Mach number in the
troposphereWhich of
the following
250. The induced drag in an increases as speed Is independent of decreases as speed decreases as weight
aeroplane: increases speed increases decreases
251. Thrust equals drag: in unaccelerated in an unaccelerated in an unaccelerated in a climb, descent or
level flight descent climb level flight if
unaccelerated
252. V1 is the speed: above which take- below which take-off engine failure the assumed speed
off must be must be continued if recognized below this for engine failure
rejected if engine engine failure occurs speed, take-off must
failure occurs be rejected and above
which take-off must
33
be continued
253. A constant headwind in Increases the Increases the rate of Increases the angle of Increases the ground
the descent: angle of descent descent the descent flight path distance traveled in
the descent
254. Why are step climbs to comply with step climbs have no to fly as close as they are only justified
used on long range ATC flight level significance for jet possible to the if the actual wind
flights in jet transport constraints aircraft, they are used optimum altitude as conditions differ
aircraft? by piston aircraft mass reduces significantly from the
forecast conditions
used for planning
255. The absolute ceiling of where the rate of always lower than the where the rate of where the gradient of
an aircraft is: climb reaches a aerodynamic ceiling climb is theoretically climb is 5%
specified value zero
256. A twin engine turbojet 35 ft 1000 ft 1500 ft 2000 ft
aircraft having lost one
engine must clear
obstacles in the drift
down by a minimum of:
257. Where would you find ATCC broadcasts NOTAMs NAV/RAD AIPs
information regarding supplements
Customs and Health
facilities?
258. Where would you find ATCC broadcasts NOTAMs SIGMETs AIPs
information regarding
Search and Rescue
procedures?
259. Where may details of SIGMETs Aeronautical NOTAM and ATCC
temporary Danger and Information Circulars Aeronautical
Restricted Airspace be (AIC) Information
found? Publication (AIP)
260. Details of temporary in AICs on the appropriate by VOLMET in NOTAMs
danger areas are chart
published:
34
261. Where would you find AIP NOTAM AIC ATCC

information regarding
temporary un-
serviceability of any
facility ?
262. What is the purpose of Carry minimum Increase safety of the Reduce landing mass Reduce contingency
Decision Point fuel to increase flight. to avoid stressing the fuel to below that
Procedure? Traffic Load. aircraft. required from
Decision Point to
destination.
263. What is Decision Point Reducing Reducing contingency Reducing trip fuel to Reducing
Procedure? It is a contingency fuel fuel to only that only that required contingency fuel to
procedure to reduce from 10% to 5% of required from from Decision below that required
the amount of fuel trip fuel. Decision Point to Aerodrome to from Decision Point
carried on a flight by: Destination. Destination. to destination.
264. Turbo jet ac; taxi fuel 80,500 kg 79,200 kg 77,800 kg 76,100 kg
600 kg; fuel flow cruise
10,000 kg/hr; fuel flow
hold 8,000 kg/hr;
alternate fuel 10,200
kg; flight time 6 hours;
visibility at destination
2000 mWhat is the
minimum ramp fuel?
(Considering
contingency 5% of the
trip)
265. For a flight distance to Decreases with Decreases with the Is not affected by Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
PNR the increase of increase of tailwind wind component
headwind component.
component
266. For a flight distance to Varies with Grand Varies with Grand both ‘a’ and ‘b’ Is not affected with
CP speed home speed out ground speed home
or out.
35
267. Distance to PNR is Tail wind Head wind Head wind or tail None of the above.
maximum if : component is component is component is nil
maximum. maximum
268. After flying for 16 10 min 40 sec 20 min 24 min 16 min
minutes at 100 kt TAS
with a 20 kt tail wind,
you have to return to
the airfield of
departureYou will
arrive after:
269. The fuel burn - off is 267 kg/hr 213 kg/hr 200 kg/hr 188 kg/hr
200 kg/hr with a
relative fuel density of
0.8If the relative fuel
density is 0.75, the fuel
burn will be:
270. Turbo jet a/c, flying to Greater of 45 30 mins holding at 30 mins holding at 2 hours at normal
an isolated airfield, mins + 15% of trip 450m AMSL 450m AAL cruise consumption
with no destination or 2 hours
alternativeOn top of:
taxi, trip and
contingency fuel, what
fuel is required?
271. Minimum planned diversion to a diversion to a nearby diversion to a nearby diversion to a nearby
take-off fuel is 160 kg nearby alternate is alternate is not alternate is necessary, alternate is
(30% total reserve is necessary, necessary, because because it is allowed necessary, unless the
include Assume the because the the reserve fuel has to calculate the fuel captain decides to
ground speed on this remaining fuel is not been used without the reserve continue on his own
trip is constantWhen not sufficient. completely. responsibility.
half the distance has
been flow, the
remaining fuel is 70
kgIs it necessary to
divert to a nearby
36
alternate?
272. What is Decision Point Reducing Reducing contingency Reducing trip fuel to Reducing trip
Procedures? It is a contingency fuel fuel to only that only that required distance
procedure to reduce from 10% to 5% of required from from Decision
the amount of fuel trip fuel. Decision Point to Aerodrome to
carried on a flight by: Destination Destination.
273. What is the purpose of Carry minimum Increase safety of the Reduce landing mass To assist in decision
Decision Point fuel to increase flight. to avoid stressing the making at refueling
Procedure? Traffic Load. aircraft.
274. An appropriate flight FL105 FL90 FL95 FL 100
level for IFR flight in
accordance with semi-
circular height rules on
a course of 180 degrees
magnetic is:
275. For an IFR flight using FL290 FL310 FL320 FL330
ICAO semi-circular
RVSM cruising levels on
a magnetic track of
200, which is a suitable
level?
276. A "current flight plan" flight plan in the filed flight plan flight plan with the filed flight plan with
is: course of which correct time of amendments and
radio departure clearances include
communication
should be
practised between
aeroplane and ATC
277. A repetitive flight plan It is not possible The airline's The pilot-in- The RPL must be
(RPL) is filed for a to plan another Operations command must advise cancelled for that day
scheduled flight: Paris- destination and department has to ATC of his intention to and an individual
Orly to Angouleme, that flight has to transmit a change to divert to Limoges at flight plan must be
Paris-Orly as be simply the RPL to the ATC least 15 minutes file
alternateFollowing cancelled that day office, at least half an before the planned
37
heavy snow falls, (scheduled flight hour before the time of arrival.
Angouleme airport will and not chartere planned time of
be closed at the departure.
expected time of
arrivalThe airline
decides before
departure to plan a re-
routing of that flight to
Limoges
278. For a flight plan filed the time overhead the time at which the c, The estimated off- The time of take-off.
before flight, the the first reporting flight plan is filed. block time.
indicated time of point after take-off
departure is:
279. For a radio equipped be the RTF call include the aircraft include the operating include an indication
aircraft, the identifier sign to be used registration agency designator of the aircraft type
in the ATS flight plan
item 7 must always:
280. Given: Maximum medium plus heavy/medium medium "M" Heavy "H"
Certificated take-off "M+" "H/M"
mass 137 000 kg Actual
take-off mass 135 000
kg For item 9 of the ATS
flight plan the wake
turbulence category is:
281. How many hours in 3.00 hrs 0.30 hrs 1.00 hr 0.10 hr
advance of departure
time should a flight
plan be filed in the case
of flights into areas
subject to air traffic
flow management
(ATFM) ?
282. If a pilot lands at an 45 mins 30 mins 15 mins 10 mins
aerodrome other than
38
the destination
aerodrome specified in
the ICAO flight plan,
he/she must ensure
that the ATS unit at the
destination is informed
within a specified time
of her planned ETA at
destinationThe time is:
283. If equipment listed in Circle boxes of Tick the boxes of Cross out the boxes List equipment
item 19 is not carried: equipment not equipment carried for equipment not carried in box 18
carried carried (other information)
284. If the destination //// AAAA XXXX ZZZZ
airport has no ICAO
indicator, in box 16 of
your ATS flight plan,
you write:
285. In an ATS flight plan an 27 000 kg 10 000 kg 57 000 kg 7 000 kg
aircraft will be
classified as "L" if its
MTOM is ?
286. In an ATS flight plan SID should be Both should be STAR should be SID nor STAR should
item 15 where either a entered but not entered entered but not SID be entered
route for which STAR
standard departure
(SId) and a standard
arrival (STAR) are
provided
287. In order to comply with TAS 3% and time 3 TAS 5% and time 3 TAS 5 kt and time 5 TAS 10 kt and time 2
PANS-RAC, during an minutes minutes minutes minutes.
IFR flight, deviations
from flight plan
particulars should be
reported to
39
ATCConcerning TAS
and time, the minimum
deviations which must
be reported are:
288. In the ATS flight plan It is not necessary It is necessary only to The letters "DCT" The words "as
Item 15, for a flight to indicate the give the first reporting should be entered, cleared" should be
along a designated point of joining point on that route followed by the point entere
route, where the that route as it will of joining the ATS
departure aerodrome be obvious to the route.
is not on or connected ATS unit.
to that route:
289. In the ATS flight plan 10% TAS or 0.05 20 knots or 0.05 5% TAS or 0.01 Mach 20km per hour or 0.1
item 15, it is necessary Mach or more Mach or more. or more Mach or more
to enter any point at
which a change of
cruising speed takes
placeFor this purpose a
"change of speed" is
defined as:
290. In the event that equipment route aircraft identification other information
SELCAL is prescribed by
an appropriate
authority, in which
section of the ATS flight
plan will the SELCAL
code be entered?
291. Reference item 19 of Maximum flight Maximum flight time Fuel endurance of the Total usable fuel
the ICAO flight plan, time plus 45 plus 30 minutes aircraft required for the flight
Endurance is? minutes holding holding fuel
fuel
292. Standard equipment in VHF, RTF, ADF, HF, RTF, VOR, DME VHF, VOR, ADF VHF, RTF, ILS, VOR
item 10a is considered VOR, ILS
to be:
293. Total Elapsed Time for take-off until take-off until taxi-out prior to take- taxiing until the IAF
40
an IFR flight, when landing reaching the IAF ( off until taxiing after (Initial Approach Fix)
filling in the ICAO flight Initial Approach Fix) of landing of the destination
plan at box 16, is the the destination aerodrome.
time elapsed from aerodrome
294. When filling in a flight Max certificated Max certificated take- Estimated landing Estimated take-off
plan, wake turbulence landing mass. off mass mass mass
category is a function
of ?
295. When submitting a Overhead the first At which the aircraft Take-off d. At which From taxi to arrival
flight plan before flight, reporting point leaves the parking flight plan is filed on the gate.
departure time is ? area
296. You have a flight plan, The filed deviation The route according It is not allowed to You will get a
IFR, from Amsterdam is not accepted to the flight plan is file such a flight plan separate clearance
to LondonIn the flight accepted for the deviation
plan it is noted that you
will deviate from the
ATS route on passing
the FIR boundary
Amsterdam/LondonThe
airway clearance reads
" Cleared to London via
flight plan route"Which
of these statements is
correct?
297. An ATC flight plan 30 mins 45 mins 1 hrs 2 hrs
should be
filed..........before
departure of the flight
298. During a flight ETA to 5 minutes or more 4 minutes or more 3 minutes or more need not to be revise
next reporting point
shall be revised if it
differ by :
299. Information on Search from NOTAMs. from the latest AIC. from the Aeronautical by RT communication
and Rescue (SAR) Information with the FIR within
41
procedures may be Publication. which the aircraft is

obtained: operating. 1
300. Given: Trip time 3hr 39 kg 55 kg 42 kg 45 kg
06min Block fuel 118kg
Taxi fuel 8kg If the
aircraft is required at
any time during its
flight to have a
minimum reserve fuel
of 30% of trip fuel
remaining, the
minimum fuel amount
after 2hr is:
301. On a Jeppesen chart The Route MORA Minimum Enroute Maximum Authorized The base of the
the figures FL80 2700a (a Safety Altitude) Altitude Altitude airway
are displayed below an
airway What does the
"FL80" indicate?
302. In the Jeppesen SID, True Course/Track Magnetic True Heading Magnetic Heading
STARs & IAP directions Course/Track
are given as
303. Given: MTOM 62000 kg 15000 kg 15800 kg 12000 kg 4000 kg
MLM 54000 kg DOM
35500 kg MZFM 51300
kg Take Off Fuel 14500
kg Landing Fuel 3500 kg
The maximum traffic
load for this flight is
304. Given: GS OUT 178 GS 204 nm 311 nm 415 nm 262 nm
HOME 249 Distance A
to B 450 nm Endurance
3 hours What is the
distance to the Point of
Safe Return from A ?
42
305. You are cruising at 66.7 nm 83.3 nm 98.5 nm 76.7 nm

FL250 and need to be
at FL50 10 nm before a
VOR/DME Your rate of
descent is 1250 ft/min
and your GS in the
descent 250 ktHow far
before the VOR/DME
should you start your
descent ?
306. When completing an take-off to from first taxiing take off to the IAF for take-off until landing
IFR flight plan the Total overhead the under own power the destination airport at the destination
Elapsed Time in item 16 destination airport until the IAF for airport
is from destination airport
307. Distance to CP varies Ground speed Ground speed out None of ‘a’ and ‘b’ always of the mid
with: home point
Human performance

1. How is oxygen By red blood cellsBy red blood cells By red blood cells By red blood cells
transported around the combined with combined with combined with combined with
body ? carbon dioxide nitrogen and water haemoglobin nitrogen, hormones
vapour and plasma
2. List the symptoms of Ruddy complexion, Difficulty in breathing, Ruddy complexion, Ruddy complexion,
carbon monoxide headache, ruddy complexion, headache, nausea, headache, tightness
poisoning stomach cramps, headache, stomach giddiness, stomach across the forehead,
nausea, feeling cramps, nausea, cramps. impaired judgement.
lethargic. feeling lethargic.
3. The effects of smoking, An early onset of An early onset of An early onset of An early onset of
particularly in relation hypoxia due to an hypoxia due to an hypoxia to an hypoxia due to an
to aviation are: apparent increase apparent increase in apparent increase in apparent increase in
in altitude and a altitude. altitude up to a altitude with a
43
reduction in night maximum of 40,000 resulting risk of

vision ft. anaemia
4. Will smokers At a higher cabin At a lower cabin Both will experience Smoking, although
experience hypoxia altitude altitude hypoxia at the harmful in other
lower or higher cabin approximately the ways, lessens the
altitude than non- same cabin altitude effects of hypoxia.
smokers ?
5. Where does the The arteries The veins The capillaries The pulmonary veins
exchange of oxygen and arteries
and carbon dioxide +
water vapour take
place
6. The normal range of Systolic 120 mm Systolic 80 mm Hg and Systolic 120 mm Hg Systolic 80 mm Hg
blood pressure for Hg and Diastolic 80 Diastolic 120 mm HG and Diastolic 120 mm and Diastolic 80 mm
young adults mm HG HG HG
7. Hypotension is High blood High pulse rate Low blood pressure Low pulse rate
pressure
8. Treatment of carbon Immediate Turn up cabin heat Keep the patient's Stop all smoking
monoxide poisoning descent to MSA body temperature as
where smoking is low as possible
allowed in flights
9. Internal Respiration is The brain's control The exchange of Sighing The retention of
of the pulse rate oxygen with carbon breath
dioxide and water in
the cells
10. What are the Oxygen 22% Oxygen 22% Nitrogen Oxygen 21 % Oxygen 22%
constituents of the Nitrogen 77% 78% Other gases 2% Nitrogen 78% Other Nitrogen 77% Other
atmosphere ? Other gases 1 gases 1 gases 1
11. At what height is the 10,000 feet 25,000 feet 30,000 feet 18,000 feet
partial pressure of
oxygen in the lungs
approximately half that
at sea level ?
44
12. What is one of the Blue tinge in the Stomach cramps Pain in the joints Impaired judgement
initial indications of lips
Hypoxia ?
13. Why does cold make Heart beats faster More energy is Lowers temperature Lowers temperature
you more susceptible which uses up required when of the body which of the body and
to Hypoxia ? more oxygen shivering therefore makes it less efficient especially the head
more oxygen used which has a
debilitating effect on
the brain
14. What is the first action Descend as soon Don oxygen mask and Warn the passengers Descend and check
that should be taken by as possible check oxygen flow passengers
the pilot in the event of
a cabin decompression
above 10,000 feet?
15. What are the times of 5 minutes 1 minute 10 minutes 30 seconds
useful consciousness at
20,000 ft. (moderate
activity)
16. If the symptoms of Descend to MSL Decrease rate and Increase rate of If possible lay flat
hyperventilation occur depth of breathing breathing and help to calm
at an altitude where sufferer
hypoxia is not a
consideration, what is
the correct remedial
action ?
17. What increases the risk Scuba diving Snorkle diving shortly Alcohol Smoking
of DCS occurring in shortly before before flight
flight ? flight
18. What are the No flying within 48 No flying within 48 No flying within 12 No flying within 24
restrictions to flying hours if a depth of hours if a depth of 30 hours if a depth of 30 hours if a depth of 30
after scuba diving ? 40 feet has been feet has been feet has been feet has been
exceeded, exceeded, otherwise reached, otherwise exceeded, otherwise
otherwise the limit the limit is 24 hours. the limit is 24 hours. the limit is 12 hours.
is 12 hours.
45
19. The altitude that 8,000 ft. 18,000 ft. 34,000 ft. 33,700 ft.
pressure will be half
that of MSL in the
standard atmosphere is
20. Anaemic Hypoxia can Brought on by Caused by Caused by smoking Brought on by
be altitude decompression fatigue
21. In commercial aircraft Sea level 6,000 - 8,000 ft. 10,000 ft. Below 5,000 ft.
cabin pressure is
normally maintained at
22. The "chokes" are NIHL DCS Blockage of the Oxygen loss
associated with alveoli
23. The outer, middle and Air Air Liquid Air Liquid Liquid Liquid Air Air Liquid Liquid Air
inner ear are filled with
24. What is the purpose of To pass sound To allow ambient To allow ambient To allow ambient
the Eustachian tube ? waves across the pressure to equalise pressure to equalise pressure to equalise
middle ear to the on both sides of the on the middle ear side on both sides of the
Auditory nerve ear drum of the ear drum Vestibular apparatus
25. What causes Damage to the Damage to the pinna Damage to the Damage to the
conductive deafness ? outer ear ossicles or the middle ear
eardrum
26. What is noise induced Loss of hearing Loss of hearing due to Loss of hearing due to Loss of hearing due
hearing loss (NIHL) ? due to damage to damage to the damage to the middle to damage to the
the ossicles Vestibular apparatus ear cochlea
27. What is the most Hearing and Sight "Seat of the pants" All senses play their
important sense for balance part in situation
spatial orientation ? awareness
28. If an aircraft That the aircraft That the aircraft is That the aircraft is That the aircraft is
accelerates, what do nose is pitching turning; this feeling climbing and turning; pitching up; this
the otoliths indicate to down; this feeling will be re-enforced by this feeling will be re- feeling will be re-
the brain ? will be re-enforced an air driven artificial enforced by an air enforced by an air
by an air driven horizon driven artificial driven artificial
artificial horizon horizon horizon
29. When can a pilot In all flight In the climb In the descent In the climb or the
experience the "leans" conditions descent
46
30. Which part of the ear The ossicles in the The otoliths in the The ossicles in the The otoliths in the
senses linear middle ear middle ear middle ear semi-circular canals
accelerations and
decelerations ?
31. What should a pilot Vision Turning head to Sense of balance Instruments
rely on if disorientated recover from
in IMC? disorientation
32. The Conductive System The ear drum and The semi-circular The cochlea and The cochlea and the
consists of ossicles canals and otoliths Eustachian tube Mitus
33. Presbycusis is an Damage to the Damage to the semi- Age Smoking
impairment of hearing cochlea circular canals
due to
34. The Vestibular Linear Angular Angular and linear +g
Apparatus detects
..................acceleration
acceleration
35. Messages are sent in Electrical Chemical Biological Electrical and
the nervous system by chemical
the following means
36. What part of the eye The cornea The lens The pupil The retina
bends the most light ?
37. What causes long or Presbyopia Astigmatism Distortion of the Distortion of the
short sightedness? eyeball cornea
38. Is a pilot allowed to fly Yes Yes , if cleared to do Yes, if cleared to do No
wearing bi-focal so by a qualified so by the Authority
contact lenses? Aviation Specialist
39. What part of the The red and UV The blue and UV end All high intensity light UV only
spectrum should end of the of the spectrum
sunglasses filter out ? spectrum
40. What four factors Age, alcohol, Age, altitude, Instrument lights, Age, alcohol, altitude
effect night vision ? altitude and Instrument lights and alcohol, altitude and and instrument lights
smoking smoking smoking
41. What is the Pull the visors Turn the cockpit lights Turn the cockpit Put on sunglasses if
47
recommended course down down lights to full available

of action if
encountering an
electrical storm during
flight`?
42. Where is the "Blind On the iris On the fovea On the edge of the At the entrance to
Spot" ? lens the optic nerve
43. Does lack of oxygen Yes No Sometimes It depends on the
affect sight ? health of the
individual
44. The amount of light Cornea Retina Iris Fovea
allowed to enter the
eye is controlled by the
45. Stereopsis is associated Night flying Depth perception Acuity Colour blindness
with
46. Astigmatism is normally Retina Fovea Iris Cornea
associated with the
47. Glaucoma is caused by An increase in the A decrease in the A defect of the A defect of the
pressure of the pressure of the eye cornea retina
eye
48. Cataracts are Retina Tear ducts Iris Lens
associated with the
49. Using the BMI formula, When they score When they score over When they score 30 When they score
when will pilots be over 30 for males 26 for males and 22 for males and 29 for over 25 for males and
considered overweight and 29 for females for females females 24 for females
?
50. Using the BMI formula, When they score When they score over When they score over When they score
when will a pilot be over 30 for males 26 for males and 29 30 for males and 29 over 32 for males and
obese ? and 28 for females for females for females 26 for females
51. What is the weekly Consuming 22 Consuming 21 units Consuming 24 units Consuming 21 units
level of alcohol units for men and for men and 15 units for men and 14 units for men and 14 units
consumption that will 14 units for for women for women for women
cause physical damage women
?
48
52. At what rate does the Approximately 1.5 Approximately 2 units Approximately 2.5 Approximately 1 unit
body remove alcohol units an hour an hour units an hour an hour
from the system ?
53. What is the absolute 6 hours but it 24 hours but it 12 hours but it 8 hours but it
minimum time a pilot depends upon the depends upon the depends upon the depends upon the
should stop drinking amount of alcohol amount of alcohol amount of alcohol amount of alcohol
before flying ? that has been that has been that has been that has been
consumed consumed consumed consumed
54. What causes otic Blockage in the Blockage in the Blockage in the Blockage in the
barotrauma and when Eustachian tube Eustachian tube which Eustachian tube and Eustachian tube and
is it likely to occur ? which is most is most likely to occur around the eardrum around the eardrum
likely to occur in in the climb which is most likely to which is most likely
the descent occur in the descent to occur in the climb
55. The human body can 25G vertical 45G vertical 25G fore/aft -3G fore/aft
tolerate a maximum of
short duration g force
............in the
...............axis
56. The most common Heart Attack Influenza The common cold Gastro-enteritis
cause of in-flight
incapacitation is
57. The two types of Galactic and Sun Galactic and Solar High frequency and Solar Flares and
radiation are Spots Low Frequency Galactic
58. If, having tried all Ignore and it will Descend to 10,000 ft Seek medical advice Descend as quickly
normal methods, the go away as soon as possible as possible to
ears cannot be cleared minimise pain
in flight, the following
action should be taken:
59. The best method for The use of Plenty of exercise Crash diets Exercise and diet
losing weight is appetite
suppressants
60. Hypoglycemia can be Not eating Too much sugar in the Excessive g forces Stress
caused by regularly or fasting blood
49
61. Food poisoning 30 minutes 60 minutes 90 minutes 120 minutes

normally takes effect
within ...................of
eating contaminated
food
62. Alcohol is removed 10 50 10 100 10 120 15 100
from the body at the
rate of
................milligrams
per ...............millilitres
per hour:
63. Permanent damage to 5 20 5 21 5 22 3 14
the body of a man may
occur if the
consumption of alcohol
level is ..............units
daily and
................units weekly.
64. Having successfully There will be little He/she will know He/she will feel more It will depend on the
overcome a stressful difference what is ahead and be confident and individual
situation once, how will already in a stressful therefore stress will
the person react if condition thus stress reduce
placed in the same or will increase
similar situation a
second time ?
65. How is performance It is improved There is little It is degraded It will depend on the
effected by over and difference individual
under arousal?
66. What is the purpose of To control the To control the effects To return the body To prepare the body
the "sympathetic" emotional of adrenalin after the "fight or to "fight or flight"
nervous system? response under flee" syndrome
stressful
conditions
67. What is the purpose of To prolong the To prepare the body To direct the To return the body
50
the "parasympathetic" bodies to "fight or flee" adrenalin to the to normal after an

nervous system ? mobilisation and correct organs of the emotional response
return the body to body under stressful
normal after the conditions
"fight or flight"
syndrome.
68. Which shaped graph A U shaped graph An inverted U shaped A straight 45 'line An M shaped graph
shows the relationship graph
between arousal and
stress ?
69. Which stressor will Home/work Divorce Death of a family Death of a spouse,
cause the most stress ? interface member partner or child
70. Stress factors are Non-cumulative Cumulative Stress reactions Stress co-actions
71. A comfortable 25°C 15°C 20°C 30 °C
temperature for most
people in normal
clothing is
72. The Autonomic Sympathetic, Neo- Sympathetic and Neo-sympathetic and None of the above
Nervous system sympathetic and Parasympathetic Parasympathetic
comprises of Parasympathetic systems systems
systems
73. Define three methods Action coping, Action coping, Slip coping, Cognitive Slip Coping, Action
of coping with stress Forced Coping, Cognitive Coping, Coping, Symptom Coping, Symptom
Symptom Directed Symptom Directed Directed coping Directed coping
Coping coping
74. Most successful Planning, Learning, experience Learning, experience Planning, experience
weapons against high experience and and Anticipation and CRM and CRM
stress levels are self-control (fewer
unexpected
situation)
75. A comfortable humidity 40%-50% 30%-40% 20%-50% 40%-60%
for most people in
normal clothing is
51
76. An additional stress A lack of time Homeostatis Sympathetic system Parasympathetic

factor (stressor) can be system
77. What is the "cocktail The ability to The ability to hear, for The ability to divide The ability to divide
party" effect ? divide attention example, your own attention when attention when
when surrounded name or call sign, surrounded by a surrounded by noise.
by many different whilst concentrating number of stressors
stimuli on something else.
78. On what is our mental Our perception of Our experiences and Our experiences and Each of us are
model of the world the environment our sensitivities learning different and each
based ? surrounding us models the world
individually
79. Having created a To only seek Other clues outside do We need We are easily
mental model, what is information which not tie up confirmation swayed by outside
the danger ? supports it (Environmental Bias) (Confirmation Bias) influences
(Confirmation (Environmental Bias)
Bias)
80. How many separate 8±2 9±2 7±2 6±2
items can be held in
the short term memory
?
81. What is the Performance is Performance is Performance is Performance is
relationship between increased at high increased by both low degraded by both low increased at low
arousal and levels of arousal and high arousal and high arousal levels of arousal
performance ? levels levels
82. Environmental Capture Long term Working memory Short term memory Motor programmes
is associated with memory
83. What is qualitative When there are When the amount of When too many When responses get
overload ? too many information is responses are transposed due to
responses to be perceived to be required overload of work
made in the time beyond the
available attentional capacity
and the task is too
difficult
52
84. What are the two types Cognitive and Intuitive and Divided and Intuitive Selective and
of attention ? Intuitive Behavioural Divided
85. Two of the factors Expectation and Repetition and Amnesia and anxiety Anxiety and
effecting Long Term Suggestion Echoism concentration.
Memory are
86. Generally human error Faults and static Static errors and faults Dynamic and static Faults and slips
can be split into two errors errors
categories
87. An experienced pilot Imitation learning Operant conditioning Skill learning Insight learning
reacting to an engine learning
failure is
demonstrating?
88. Skill-based errors only In those with little In those who are in In those who have In those with
occur or no experience the learning process only part-learned a experience
procedure/system
89. Rule-based behaviour Short term and Short term and Iconic Long term and Short term, long
involves long term memory memory Episodic memory term and Episodic
memory
90. With regards to Memorise all Memorise immediate Memorise immediate Rely on the checklist
procedures you are procedures as actions and actions and refer to for all procedures
advised to carefully as subsequent actions check list for
possible subsequent actions
91. Knowledge based Deal smoothly and Deal with situations Deal with known Deal with unfamiliar
behaviour enables quickly with involving other people situations and novel situations
people to procedures and especially with
the flight and cabin
crews
92. Situation awareness is The process that The process that The process that The process that
ensures the pilot ensures the pilot ensures the pilot ensures the pilot
maintains an maintains an accurate maintains an accurate maintains an
accurate model of model of the situation model of the situation accurate model of
his/her within the cockpit. outside the cockpit the situation on and
environment around the landing
point
53
93. Among the most Weather patterns Inter-personal Hopes, wishes and Poor instrument
important factors differences desires layouts
which might interfere
with Situational
Awareness are
94. A tendency to ask Increased Decreased awareness Increased situational Decreased
leading questions is a awareness awareness situational awareness
symptom of
95. What is the likely effect Flaring too late Flaring too soon and Approach speed Approach speed
of a runway which is and damaging the causing a heavy much too high higher than usual
wider than expected ? aircraft landing
96. What approach Landing at night in Landing at night with Landing at night with Landing at night
conditions cause "black sleet or heavy rain a partially lit runway the cockpit when there are no
hole effect" instruments turned up lights on the
too high approach
97. How does the "black Over-estimation Under-estimation of Tends to make the Tends to make the
hole effect" alter the of height height approach much too approach faster than
pilots' judgement of fast normal
the approach ?
98. What are the main Round-out height Confirmation of Closing speed and Relative speed and
visual cues for and speed Decision Height and height check texture
rounding-out ? closing speed
99. How do misty/foggy Under-estimating Under-estimating Under-estimating Over-estimating
conditions effect the range due to range due to the lights range due to range due to the
pilots judgement on illusionary effect appearing dim illusionary effect lights appearing dim
the approach ? through cockpit through cockpit glass
glass
100. How will an oncoming There will be no There will be no There will be no There will be no
aircraft on a line of relative movement relative movement relative movement relative movement
constant bearing and it will appear and it will appear to and it will appear to and it will appear to
appear visually? to be very small be very small until be very small until be very small until
until seconds seconds before the seconds before the seconds before the
before the aircraft passes close aircraft passes above aircraft passes well
collision by clear
54
101. What visual technique Sweep from side Search the sky portion Pinpoint 10° Use a succession of
should be used when to side with the by portion starting on segments of the sky small and rapid eye
searching for an aircraft eyes covering the the left and confirm before movements
? whole field of passing onto another
vision
102. Refraction, due to rain Steeper Flatter Faster Slower
on the windscreen,
makes the approach
103. If an illusion is known Say nothing as it Ensure you brief the Report the fact to Report the fact to
to be possible at a might frighten the crew operations so that your Operator so that
particular aerodrome, crew other crews are aware other crews are
as Captain of the of the danger aware of the danger
aircraft, you should:
104. How long is a free 24 hours 48 hours 25 hours 29 hours
running circadian
rhythm ?
105. When is the circadian At about 0500 hrs At about 0 100 hrs At about 0300 hrs Varies from day to
cycle of temperature at day
its lowest ?
106. What does the duration The mental and The number of hours Timing i.e . when the The quality of the
of sleep depend on ? physical exercise awake prior to sleep body temperature is REM sleep
taken prior to falling
sleep
107. What is the maximum 24 credits and it 8 credits and it will 16 credits and it will 16 credits and it will
number of "sleep will take 12 hours take 16 hours take 12 hours take 8 hours
credits" that can be
accumulated and what
is the minimum time to
accumulate them ?
108. How many stages are 3 stages plus REM 4 stages plus REM 3 stages including 4 stages including
there in a sleep cycle ? REM REM
109. What is the function of To refresh the To refresh the body To assist in the To exercise the brain
REM sleep ? body after exercise and brain following organisation of so it is prepared for
physical and mental memory and helping the next day
55
activity to co-ordinate and

assimilate new
information learned
110. What effect does A small amount It lengthens REM It shortens REM sleep It has not significant
drinking alcohol before (one beer or a sleep and the length and the length of effect on the sleep
sleep have to the sleep small whisky) is of of sleep sleep pattern itself but
pattern ? help to relax the does effect other
body prior to sleep systems of the body
and thus enhances adversely
the sleep pattern
111. When suffering from No Yes Sometimes Under certain
sleep deprivation, will circumstances
performance be further
decreased by altitude ?
112. The two forms of Mental and Short-term and Mental and body Psychological and
fatigue are physical chronic physiological
113. Insomnia is divided into Psychological and Mental and physical Clinical and Clinical and
physiological situational physiological
114. What is the most Group therapy Written Personal interviews Two Dimensional
effective way of questionnaires Model analysis
analysing personality ?
115. How would a person Aggressive Unpredictable Unreliable extravert Anxious extravert
who is aggressive and extravert extravert
changeable be
described ?
116. What are the Reliable and stable Stable and Reliable and Reliable, calm and
personality traits of a extraverted extraverted extraverted
good pilot?
117. What characteristics Are autocratic on Are autocratic with Are autocratic when Tend to be
will authoritarian pilots most occasions the crew of the in command and authoritarian when
display ? aircraft but submissive when dressed in uniform
submissive when confronted by and when dealing
dealing with when an someone of higher with both air and
emergency or when perceived status cabin crew
56
under stress
118. If a group - with Unlikely to be Likely to be better Likely to be worse It depends on the
someone who has better number of the
above average ability - member of the group
makes a decision, is the
decision likely to be
better or worse than
one made by the above
average person on
their own ?
119. Is a group decision Less risky Sometimes more risky Sometimes less risky More risky
likely to be more or less
risky than one made by
the individual members
?
120. What should a Captain Put his own view Consider all the Encourage ideas from Monitor his motor
do before making a forward and then implications the crew before programme (flying)
non-urgent decision ? ask for the stating his own
opinions of other opinion
members of the
crew
121. Body Language is Non-verbal Sign Language Aggression Verbal
communication communication
which is open to
cultural problems
122. What are the three Autocratic, Autocratic, Laisser-Faire, Autocratic, Laisser-
types of Authority Subjective, Submissive, Subjective, Synergistic Faire, Synergistic
Gradients Cockpit Synergistic Synergistic
123. To counter-act an Ensure that they Remain silent and sort Co-operate in a Obtain support from
authoritarian cockpit ensure that their it all out on the conciliatory form but another crew
crews should opinions are heard ground the contents of this member
in spite of possible co-operation is firm
confrontation
57
124. CFIT means Controlled Flight in Controlled Flight into Controlled Flying in Controlled Flying in
Terminal airspace Terrain Training Taxiways
(helicopters)
125. Implicit questions are Is another name Require deductions to Does not Require Require a quick
for closed be made before an deductions to be answer
questions answer is possible made before an
answer is possible
126. Having interrupted Attempt to Remind him/her of Make sure there is no You must never
your Captain for a establish eye his/her last action ATC traffic on the interrupt
sound reason you must contact with before the radio
him/her interruption
127. A briefing should 7 ideas 10 ideas 7 sentences 10 sentences
consist of less than
128. Among the rules to Good briefings and Good briefings and a Use professional Resist putting your
improve crew co- awareness of harmonious cockpit language opinion forward first
operation are cultural atmosphere
differences
129. Communication in the It is the main tool It is the main tool to It is the main tool to It is the main tool to
cockpit is primarily to ensure ensure ensure harmony ensure
used for what purpose coordination comprehension understanding
?
130. What is meant by the Synergy is the Synergy is the state Synergy is the state Synergy is the state
term "Synergy" ? state where the where the group where the group where the individual
individual performance exceeds performance exceeds performances
performances the sum of the the sum of the exceeds the sum of
exceeds the sum individual individual the group
of the group performances performances by 50% performance by 5 0%
performance
131. What is a dialogue ? A conversation A series of A series of A communication
between two communications on communications on between two or
people different subjects the same subject more people or
between a transmitter between a transmitter machines
and receiver and receiver
58
132. What are the key Individual, Individual, clear and Individual, Simple, clear,
points of a good understood and simple understood and short understood and
briefing ? simple individual
133. What is the purpose of To allow the most To allow the most To allow the most To produce an even
the lumbar support ? comfortable comfortable position comfortable position pressure of the discs
position for the for the spine and for the spine by allowing the lower
spine and higher shoulder bones spine to curve
neck bones naturally
134. What are the essential It should have the It should be attention- It should have Must not dazzle or
characteristics of a best attention- getting but not attention-getting possibly compromise
cockpit warning ? getting qualities as alarming qualities which do not the crew's night
possible compromise a clear vision
indiction to the pilot
of the faulty
component/system
135. What is the most Escape and The Design Eye Point Important controls Control and
important feature of emergency exits must be clearly must be located in indicators should be
flight deck design ? should be clear of marked easily reached and standardised
obstructions unobstructed
positions
136. What will the pilot lose Some of the Some of the Peripheral objects The Sight View
sight of on the undershoot overshoot especially at night
approach if seated
below the Design Eye
Point ?
137. What instrument is A digital display An analogue display A mixed Ultra/high-precision
best for showing small digital/analogue gyro instrument
change ? display
138. What colour should the Bright red and Steady Red Flashing Steady yellow
Àlert' warning be on a flashing yellow/amber
CRT ?
139. In the Shell Model L Latent errors Long-termed errors Lengthy errors Liveware
stands for
59
140. A flashing red warning There is a fault in a Emergency Alert Danger

light on a CRT normally critical system
indicates
141. Automation Overconfidence in Overconfidence in the Over-reliance on The blind belief in
Complacency is the handling handling capability of automation automation
capability of the the pilot of computers
pilot
142. Mode error is Automation Hardware INS Software
associated with
143. Automation can result Lack of Too much information Confused information Too much detailed
in information being being passed between being passed between information being
passed between crew members crew members passed between crew
crew members members
144. What are the Objective/Sudden Sudden/Impromptu External/Objective
categories of risk ? and and Gradual/Planned and Impromptu/Objective
Subjective/Gradual Internal/Subjective and
Planned/Subjective
145. Evaluation of options in Positive and Values and costs Planned and Assigning tasks
the decision-making negative impromptu
process involve considerations considerations
146. Press-on-tis is a Common dilemma Is only experienced by Only happens to Is rarely faced by
faced by all pilots skilled pilots inexperienced pilots good pilots
147. The composition of the 50%Nitrogen, 78%Oxygen, 21 78%Nitrogen, 21 76%Nitrogen,
atmosphere from sea 40%Oxygen, %Nitrogen, 1 %other %Oxygen, 1 %other 14%Oxygen,
level to about 70,000ft 10%other gases. gases. gases. 10%other gases.
retains proportions of
148. Oxygen is transported dissolved in the in chemical as microscopic in combination with
in the blood: blood plasma. combination with bubbles linked to haemoglobin in the
haemoglobin in the blood platelets. red blood cells.
white blood cells.
149. Safety in commercial is better than road though effective, increasing each year, better than road
air transport: safety, but not as lagging behind road due to the increasing safety and rail safety.
good as rail safety. and rail safety. automation of
modern aircraft.
60
150. The time of useful 30 minutes. 45 seconds. 12 seconds. 2 to 3 minutes.

consciousness for a
pilot, undertaking
moderate activity,
when exposed to
progressive
decompression at
30,000 ft is:
151. With a large aircraft at the visual further into the short or long from the short of the visual
maintaining a standard aiming point. runway than the visual aiming point aiming point.
3° approach to a visual aiming point. depending on the
runway, the runway slope.
touchdown point will
be:
152. `Risky shift' is: a flight or task the process by which the tendency of a the natural tendency
undertaken at a the central decision- group of individuals to of the human mind
time when the maker will ignore any accept a higher risk to blame outside
body's circadian information which than any individual agencies for any
rhythms are at does not fit the member of the group. errors made in an
their lowest point mental model created emergency situation.
of efficiency. by the situation.
153. The eye datum or so that the pilot to enable the pilot to at the centre of the to determine the
design eye position in can maintain an see all his flight artificial horizon or eventual size of the
the cockpit is adequate view of instruments within flight director flight deck and where
established: all the important minimum scan indicator. the window frames
displays inside, movements of the will be positioned so
and of the world head. as to give minimum
outside with interference to the
minimum head or pilot's field of view.
body movements.
154. Which of the following Macho. Anti-authority. Impulsivity. Domination.
is NOT one of the 5
hazardous attitudes?
155. The area on the retina the blind spot. The fovea. The Rod/Cone The most sensitive
61
where the optic nerve intersection point. part of the retina

receives all the with the highest
information from the visual acuity.
light sensitive cells of
the retina is:
156. A man is considered to 18 25 22 30
be obese if his Body
Mass Inde(BMI) is over:
157. Motor programmes: are stored as require conscious an be retained for the behavioural sub
working rules in thought to engage. only a few minutes. routines.
long term
memory.
158. During visual scanning large and Small and infrequent. Small and frequent. Large and infrequent.
the eye movements frequent.
should be:
159. The `time of useful 45 - 75 seconds. 30 minutes. 2 minutes. 12 seconds.
consciousness' for an
individual experiencing
rapid decompression at
an altitude of 25,000 ft
is:
160. Rule based behaviours as sets of rules in as `bits' in the working as conditioned as rule giving
are stored in the brain: long term memory. responses in motor automatic linkage
memory. programmes. between the
semantic and
working memories.
161. The cabin pressure in always equivalent normally not normally not normally not
commercial pressurized to sea level. exceeding 2,000 to exceeding 6,000 to exceeding 10,000 to
aircraft is normally 3,000 feet. 8,000 feet. 12,000 feet.
maintained at an
equivalent atmospheric
pressure:
162. Ènvironment capture' the pilot becomes the pilot keeps `head the pilot is unable to the fact of being at a
is the process whereby: fixated on the in cockpit' to an allocate priorities particular stage of
62
outside extreme degree and between the exterior flight may cause an
environment and may therefore miss and interior automatic response
neglects to vital cues from the environments causing to checks when the
monitor the external environment. confusion and the actions have not
instruments in the possibility of mistakes.actually been
cockpit. completed.
163. Any individual who has within 36 hours of within 24 hours or 48 only after consultation within 12 hours, or
been SCUBA diving the last dive. hours if a depth of 30 with a doctor if a 24 hours if a depth of
should avoid flying: ft has been exceeded. depth of 30 ft has 30 ft has been
been exceeded. exceeded.
164. Loss of hearing due to presbycusis. noise induced hearing conductive deafness. middle ear
damage or defects in loss (NIHL) disconnection.
the eardrum or
auditory ossicles is;
165. A system can be said to its safety system is its safety system has the consequence of latent errors do not
be tolerant of error too subject to taken into account all error will not seriously entail serious
when: error. statistically probable jeopardize safety. consequences for
errors. safety.
166. The physiological fear, anxiety, sweating, dryness of indecision, temporary mental
responses to high levels depression. the mouth, breathing inattention, confusion,
of stress are: difficulties. withdrawal. restlessness.
167. The term àtmospheric a change in the the tendency for the tendency of the presence of a
perspective' in aviation attitude of the objects to become objects of certain sloping cloud bank
means: aircraft could lead indistinct with colours to remain in may be mistaken for
to distance. view for longer a horizon, causing a
misinterpretation periods during pilot who is flying
of the runway differing light VMC to bank the
length. conditions. aircraft to align it
with the cloud bank.
168. The `fight or flight' a normal non- in anger a person the sympathetic the parasympathetic
response occurs when: aggressive person becomes red in the nervous system nervous system
suffers stress as face, aggressive and provides an individual provides extra
result of shock, chooses to fight with the resources to resources for an
turns pale, rather than flee. cope with a new and individual to cope
63
trembles and sudden source of with a new and

chooses to flee stress. sudden source of
rather than fight. stress.
169. The generally accepted cognitive, cognitive, associative associative, automatic automatic, cognitive
model for the associative and and expert. and expert. and expert.
acquisition of expertise automatic.
or skill comprises three
stages:
170. Stress may be defined a poorly controlled A psychological A normal A human reaction
as: emotion which phenomenon which phenomenon that which individuals
leads to a affects only fragile enables an individual must manage to
reduction in personalities. to adapt to situations eliminate.
capabilities. encountered.
171. The speed of any gradually punishing the learner reinforcing successful reinforcing errors
learning process can be increasing the for unsuccessful trials trials. made during the
increased by: psychological learning process.
pressure on the
students.
172. Decision making in speed of reaction. the distribution of strong situational the whole crew to
emergency situations tasks and crew awareness. focus on the
requires primarily: coordination. immediate problem.
173. On the retina of the used primarily highly sensitive to sensitive to much concentrated in the
eye, the rod cells are: during daylight. colour changes. lower light levels than area of the fovea.
the cone cells.
174. The part of the retina the optic nerve the fovea. the retinal optical the rod/cone balance
with the highest visual entry point. focus point. point.
acuity is:
175. The composition of the remain constant remain constant up to vary as the aircraft remain constant to
atmosphere at sea level up to the about 70,000 feet. climbs. about 20,000 feet
is 78% nitrogen, 21% tropopause. when the proportion
oxygen, 1 % other of oxygen will reduce
gases. These considerably as more
proportions will: of the oxygen will be
converted to ozone.
64
176. Discussing private decreases the should be avoided in Can improve team Is appropriate at any
matters in the cockpit: captains role in flight. spirit stage of the flight.
leadership
177. Co-action is a mode of working in parallel sustained cooperation working in parallel to the application of
coordination that to achieve on actions and the achieve one common procedural
involves: individual formulation of objective, with knowledge in the
objectives with commitments independent but conduct of specific
independent and concerning flight specified aims. actions.
unrelated aims. situations.
178. A pilot suffering from descend to a lower decrease the cabin continue the flight at land as soon as
decompression level where the pressure to relieve the a lower altitude and possible and seek
sickness should: symptoms will symptoms. carry out exercises to medical assistance.
disappear and relieve pain in the
continue the flight affected site.
at this or a lower
level.
179. A pilot can improve the minimising the moving the head maximising the tim maintaining as far as
probability of detecting duration of eye frequently to alter the spent looking in each possible a lookout
other aircraft by: rests and making apparent motion of sector to allow the ahead of the aircraft
as many eye any distant object. maximum chance of a relying on
movements as detecting movement. peripheral vision to
possible: detect any
movement from the
side.
180. The temperature range 15°C to 30°C with l 0°C to 25°C with a 15°C to 30°C with a 30°C to 40°C with a
of a flight deck to be a relative humidity relative humidity of relative humidity of relative humidity of
comfortable should be: of 40 - 60% 20 - 30% 70 - 80% 30 - 40%
181. Confirmation bias: tends to make the Makes the pilot look Will cause the pilot to Is the reinforcement
pilot accept for the most probable believe in a particular of any idea by any
information that solution to a problem solution if the other past experience of a
confirms his to avoid using the full crew members agree similar problem.
diagnosis of a checklist. with him.
situation and
reject information
65
that does not fit

into his theory.
182. The greatest source of motion sickness. heart attack or acute gastro-enteritis. spatial disorientation.
incapacitation in flight circulatory problems.
is:
183. The heart muscle the pulmonary direct diffusion from the aortic arch. the coronary arteries.
requires its own blood artery. the interior of the
supply. This is provided heart.
by:
184. Raised blood pressure strokes. angina. coronary infarcts. ferric haemoglobin
(hypertension) is the poisoning.
main risk factor in the
development of:
185. A man is considered to 20 25 30 35
be overweight if his
Body Mass Inde(BMI) is
over:
186. Thinking on human human errors are human errors can be the individual view of it is believed that it
reliability is changing. now considered as avoided. It will safety has gradually will be possible to
Which of the following being inherent to however extending replaced the systemic eliminate all errors in
statements is correct? the cognitive one's knowledge and view. the future.
functions of extreme vigilance.
humans and are
generally
inescapable.
187. How would one every situation One can not influence Being silent or inactive Differences in
interpret the following requires one's own are also non-verbal language or culture
statement; òne cannot communication. communications. behaviour patterns may prevent any
avoid communication'? that are meaningful. meaningful
communication.
188. Information in the is not affected by is only retained for 2 can be retained for must be actively
short term memory: the arrival of new to 3 minutes. long periods. rehearsed to ensure
information. long term retention.
66
189. The permanent denial depression. anxiety and phobic obsessional disorders. schizophrenia or
of a flying licence will states. manic depression.
be the be the result of
the pilot suffering
from:
190. A function of the assist in control motion maintain visual enhance hearing
vestibular apparatus is maintaining spatial sickness. orientation. ability, especially at
to: orientation. high frequencies.
191. In the late stages of an colour and position of the aircraft texture and relative position of the
approach, ground contrast of ground nose relative to the speed of ground aircraft nose relative
proximity is judged by: features. horizon. features. to the visual aiming
point.
192. An individual's high arousal state. low arousal state neither high nor low both high and low
performance is arousal state. arousal states.
adversely affected by:
193. A motor programme is: one that is based the way that a one that requires one that is learned by
on knowledge and checklist is actioned. conscious thought practice and
experience. throughout its action. repetition and which
may be executed
without conscious
thought.
194. The main factor in the the cornea. the lens. the iris. the internal fluid in
focussing of the human the eyeball.
eye is:
195. Which of the following Poor Coding Interpersonal Problems in the
statements is correct? communications communication communications have personal relations
are of little behaviour improves little significance in between crew
significance in flight safety. the modern cockpit as members hamper
incidents and all situations are their communication
accidents. covered by manuals. process.
196. Referring to the Body considered to be considered to be considered to be considered to be
Mass Index, a man within the normal overweight. obese. underweight.
weighing 81 kg. Who is weight range.
175 cm tall would be:
67
197. An individual's body 0900 body time. 2300 body time. 0500 body time. 1100 body time.
temperature will be at
its lowest at:
198. A pilot suffering rely on the Rely on his Line up with a visual Re-erect the flight
disorientation should: vestibular somatosensory reference (e.g. instruments.
apparatus. system (`seat of the horizon).
pants').
199. Mental training is mainly for student mainly for pilots at all levels of flying only when the
helpful in improving pilots. undertaking experience. student has reached
flying skills: instructional duties. a certain level of
flying experience.
200. Gastro-enteritis would always. possibly, if severe. if not treated by an never.
prevent an individual aviation specialist
from flying as a crew doctor.
member:
201. An ideal leader would goal directed and goal directed only. person directed only. neither goal nor
be: person directed. person directed, but
moderate and
accommodating.
202. Which of the following Bubonic plague. Malaria. AIDS. Smallpox.
diseases causes the
greatest number of
deaths each year?
203. The time elapsed 48 hours. 12 hours. 24 hours. No limitation.
before flying as crew or
passenger after diving
using compressed air if
a depth of over 30 ft
has been exceeded is:
204. An authoritarian a weak leader and a forceful leader and a a forceful leader and a a weak leader but a
individual tends to be: bad underling. good underling. submissive underling. good underling.
205. The term àttitudes' is the predisposition a synonym for ability. a synonym for the conditions
used to describe: for acting in a behaviour. necessary for
particular manner. carrying out an
68
activity.
206. Stress management is: the effect on an the stress upon an the process by which the use of a process,
individual in a employee caused by individuals adopt such as relaxation
managerial, or the pressures systems to assist in techniques, to
other responsible, imposed by the coping with stress. remove the stress
position of the management or his source.
pressures of that superiors at work.
job.
207. Individuals are more larger than they of a higher status. having a better being of a greater
likely to comply with a are. education than age.
decision made a person themselves.
who they perceive as:
208. A pilot who is continue to fly as never fly again as an fly as a pilot only if he return to flying duties
diagnosed as having an an operating pilot operating pilot. is supervised by after a suitable
alcohol problem can: whilst he receives another pilot. course of treatment
treatment. is complete.
209. Risky shift is: the tendency for the tendency for the tendency of a the tendency for
extroverts to take military pilots to take group to make a more individuals to take
more risks than more risks than risky decision than the more risky decisions
introverts. civilian pilots. average individual when transferred to a
within the group. different aircraft
type.
210. Very high ambition and meets the disturbs the climate of always promotes makes it easier for an
a need for requirement for cooperation. effective teamwork. individual to cope
achievement: stress resistance. with personal
failures.
211. Long or short distortion of the the shape of the distortion of the lens. a malfunction of the
sightedness is normally cornea. whole eyeball. iris.
caused by:
212. Ènvironment capture' errors of rule errors of knowledge errors of semantic errors of skill based
may lead to: based behaviour. based behaviour. memory. behaviour.
213. When a pilot has no the nose of the the nose of the a sudden height loss. a banking of the
external visual aircraft pitching aircraft pitching down. aircraft.
69
references, a up.
deceleration in straight
and level flight can give
the impression of:
214. Episodic memory is: a memory of a memory of a memory of a memory of events,
events, held in information, held in information, held in held in long term
short term short term memory. long term memory. memory.
memory.
215. The use of alcohol, action coping cognitive coping. symptom directed bio-feedback
drugs or tobacco to coping. technique.
counter the effects of
stress is an example of:
216. A cockpit warning of an startle to gain illuminate a flashing make a noise be attention getting
emergency should: attention. red light. symptomatic of the without being
problem startling.
217. In processing working memory processing capacity is echoic and iconic it will activate a
information an has a limited limited. memories have a very selection from
attentional mechanism capacity. short retention time. episodic or semantic
is required because: memory.
218. The function of slow a period of rest to a period to rest and a period when vivid help in the learning
wave sleep is believed allow restoration refresh the mind. dreams can take process especially if a
to be: of the body place. new or difficult
tissues. procedures have
been learned during
the day.
219. Oxygen is carried in the in combination dissolved in the as microscopic within the red blood
blood: with haemoglobin plasma. bubbles attached to cells.
in the white blood blood platelets.
cells.
220. Situational insomnia is: an inability to a condition which may an inability to sleep an inability to sleep
sleep in normal be eased by taking due to circadian due to environmental
favourable many short naps. disrhythmia. noise.
conditions.
70
221. Sleep apnoea: occurs more often occurs when an most often occur is a cessation of
in older individual cannot during REM sleep. breathing whilst
individuals. prevent falling asleep asleep.
even when in sleep
credit.
222. If colours are used in a it is acceptable to advisory information. non-critical functions. an alert.
cockpit display, yellow proceed to the
should signify: next stage of a
process.
223. `Body language' on the not be used. be restricted to non- used to supplement never used to touch
flight deck should: aggressive facial oral communication. an individual.
expressions.
224. A circular instrument an analogue Ideal for displaying Ideal for displaying A digital display
with a fixed pointer and display. range information. bearing information. instrument.
a moving scale is:
225. A pilot is permitted to only during the never when flying. only when a pair of bi- only when flying in
use bi-focal contact cruise stage of the focal spectacles are daylight hours in
lenses: flight. carried for emergency VNIC conditions.
use.
226. Donating blood by an permitted, subject not permitted for only permitted within allowable with no
operating flight deck to at least 24 aircrew who are 12 hours of one's next restrictions on
crew member is: hours elapsing actively flying. flight when cleared by subsequent flying.
before one's next a qualified aviation
flight. doctor.
227. Long sightedness is the eyeball being the retina being too the eyeball being the retina being too
normally caused by: shorter than concave. longer than normal. convex.
normal.
228. The most obvious sign muscular cyanosis of the lips sensory loss, cherry red lips and
of an individual impairment. and fingernails. particularly tunneling flushed cheeks.
suffering from carbon of vision.
monoxide poisoning is:
229. When on a collision does not change. increases only slowly is easier to detect if increases very rapidly
course with an aircraft and moves only slowly the pilot continually just prior to impact.
on a reciprocal track, across the moves his/her head.
71
the apparent size of the windscreen.

approaching aircraft:
230. The body's internal East. West. North. South.
biological clocks take
longer to adjust to local
time when flying:
231. A blocked Eustachian can cause severe is not a problem when normally only causes can cause problems
tube: pain in the flying in a modern severe pain during the with balancing the
descent. pressurized aircraft. climb. pressures the inner
ear and the outside
air.
232. The permanent denial anxiety and phobic schizophrenia and obsessional disorders. depression.
of a flying licence will states. manic depression.
be the result of a pilot
suffering from:
233. A trained pilot, have a much be a reliable expert have stronger automatically
observing an aircraft better recollection witness at any expectations about discount any any
accident, will, in of the events. accident inquiry. likely set of events. previous accident
comparison to a lay experience.
observer:
234. The alerting system for an audio warning. a flashing red light. a large dolls-eye a steady bright red
an important system indicator. light.
failure should be
fulfilled by:
235. Situational awareness computer ìntelligent' flight pre-recorded voice moving tape displays.
may well be inhibited generated decks. warnings.
by the introduction of: checklists.
236. The greatest source of acute gastro- angina. malaria. heart attack.
incapacitation in flight enteritis.
is:
237. Presbycusis is: the deterioration loss of hearing due to deterioration of vision deterioration in
of hearing as the excessive noise levels. due to the normal vision due to the
result of the aging process. formation of
normal aging cataracts in the
72
process. cornea.
238. The term `Synergy' is where the where the group where the group of increase in
the state: individual performance exceeds performance is reasoning power
performance the sum of the dependent on the when extra oxygen is
exceeds the individual leadership style of supplied at a time of
performance of performances. individuals within the emergency.
the group. group.
239. Which instrument, SSR DME GPWS TCAS
which was introduced
in the 1980's, led to the
greatest reduction of
accidents ?
240. Accidents are caused good judgment safe maintenance of interpersonal physical and mental
by lack of aircraft relations skills
241. Who is responsible for Aircrew and Aircrew, Groundcrew Everyone involved Aircrew only
Air Safety Ground Crew and Management
242. Human factors have 50% of aircraft 70% of aircraft 90% of aircraft Have not played a
been statistically accidents accidents accidents significant role in
proved to contribute aircraft accidents
approximately
243. Having given blood a Hypoxia Low blood pressure Hyperventilation DCS
pilot should see a
doctor because of the
increased susceptibility
to
244. Haemoglobin is Dissolved in the In red blood cells In white cells of the In the platelets
blood blood
245. A pilot should consult Donation may lead Donation may lead to Donation may lead to Donation may lead to
an Aviation Medicine to a rise in blood a lowering of blood a reduced tolerance of a lowering of the
specialist before pressure pressure altitude body temperature
donating blood (Hypertension) (Hypotension) causing
because: unpredictable
sleepiness
73
246. Having donated blood rest supine for at rest supine for about Aircrew are prohibited Aircrew are not
aircrew should least 1 hour, drink 15 - 20 minutes, drink from donating blood encouraged to give
plenty of fluids plenty of fluids and blood
and not fly for 48 not fly for 24 hours
hours
247. Blood from the Rich in Oxygen and Rich in Oxygen and Low in Oxygen and Low in Oxygen and
pulmonary artery is ? low in carbon rich in carbon dioxide low in carbon dioxide rich in carbon dioxide
dioxide
248. A person is suffering Lacking b Lacking platelets Lacking blood plasma Lacking white blood
from anaemia when haemoglobin cells
249. As a result of More acid More alkaline More saturated with Less saturated with
hyperventilation the CO2 oxygen
blood becomes
250. The effects of carbon increases with decreases with increases with decreases with
monoxide altitude altitude increase of density pressure loss
251. What happens to the Systolic blood Systolic blood Systolic blood Systolic blood
Systolic blood pressure pressure rises pressure decreases pressure is unaffected pressure initially
if peripheral resistance decreases and then
is increased ? increases
252. The walls of the vitamins proteins gases red blood cells
capillaries of the lungs
are permeable to
253. An increase in the pulse 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 3 and 4 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4
rate can be caused by
1) stress and fear 2)
vitamin D 3) physical
exercise 4) shortage of
oxygen in the early
stages of hypoxia
254. What is the main factor nicotine tar carbon Monoxide carbon Dioxide
concerning smoking
that reduces the red
bloods cells' capability
to carry oxygen ?
74
255. The rate of breathing is the amount of CO2 partial pressure differential of the heart rate
controlled by in the blood concentration levels
256. Which is the following Inhalation of Inhalation of a Inhalation of Inhalation of a
actions is the most pressurized mixture of pressurized carbon mixture of
efficient to accelerate oxygen unpressurized oxygen dioxide unpressurised carbon
the release of Carbon and air dioxide and air
Monoxide from the
blood ?
257. DCS is caused by Oxygen coming Carbon dioxide Nitrogen coming out Carbon Monoxide
out of solution coming out of solution of solution coming out of
solution
258. Which of the following Slow heart beat Cyanosis Dizzy feeling Slow rate of breath
symptoms marks the
beginning of
hyperventilation ?
259. Carbon Monoxide Can have a severe Does not have an Has no affect on the Is not toxic
affect on a pilot's effect when the body human body
abilities when becomes used to the
receiving exposure gas over a long period
for a relatively of time
short period of
time
260. The contents of less water vapour more nitrogen than more oxygen than the more C02 than the
exhaled air contains than the inhaled the inhaled air inhaled air inhaled air
air
261. A pilot suffering from Go on 100% Land regardless of the Regulate depth and Declare a Mayday
hyperventilation during oxygen and go weather rate of breathing
final approach in poor around
weather can combat
the effects by
262. What chemical Tar and nicotine Tar and carbon Nicotine and carbon Nicotine
substance in tobacco monoxide monoxide
causes addiction ?
75
263. A few hours after Take exercise Take physiotherapy See an Aviation Ignore it since is
landing a pilot feels which will cause Medical Specialist as probably due to
pain in his/her joints. the pain to soon as possible common after-effect
The correct action is disappear of height
264. Which of the following 1&2 1 only 2 only Neither
statements, if any, are
correct 1) Euphoria is a
possible result of
hypoxia 2) Euphoria
can lead to degraded
decisions in flight
265. 100% oxygen without 50,000 ft 40,000 ft 60,000 ft 70,000 ft
pressure can be used
up to:
266. At what altitude is 8000 ft 10000 ft 18000 ft 36000 ft
pressure half that at
MSL
267. The Critical Zone of 18,000 ft 20,000 ft 23,000 ft 3,600 ft
hypoxia begins at
268. Short-term memory 8,000 ft 12,000 ft 15,000 ft 18,000 ft
impairment occurs at
what height ?
269. Concerning hypoxia, The effects are It is difficult to It is more difficult to There is no one to
why is it more increased recognize the first manage the oxygen take control once the
hazardous if flying solo symptoms of hypoxia systems on your own symptoms of hypoxia
? for a pilot in initial appear
training
270. You have been scuba after 12 hours after 24 hours after 48 hours Whenever you wish
diving below I Om.
When can you next fly
271. As the body ascends, decreases at a rate decreases at the same stays the same increases
the partial pressure of of 3 times the rate as that of the
oxygen within the lungs atmospheric rate atmosphere
76
272. TUC at 25,000 with 2 minutes 30 seconds to 5 2.5 minutes to 6 5 to 10 minutes

moderate activity and minutes minutes
rapid decompression is
approximately
273. Hyperventilation can too much oxygen spasms in the muscles bluish tinge under the a feeling of euphoria
cause to the brain and possible nails of the fingers
unconsciousness and the lobes of the
ears
274. How much air is 70 mls 150 mls 350 mls 500 mls
inhaled and exhaled in
one breath ?
275. If you are suffering close your eyes breathe 100% oxygen talk through the make an immediate
from hyperventilation, and relax procedure out loud landing
what should you do and simultaneously
control rate and depth
of breathing
276. Hyperventilation can, high level of low partial pressure of the body prolonged
after a long period of carbon dioxide oxygen to the brain compensates for low anxiety/stress
time, lead to due to hypoxia partial pressure of
unconsciousness due to oxygen
277. A pilot who is The pilot is There is an excess of Flying a tight turn There is an increased
hyperventilating for a stressed or carbon dioxide in the blood flow to the
prolonged period of anxious blood due to hypoxia brain.
time may become
unconscious.
Hyperventilation is
likely to occur when
278. Hyperventilation is The body An accelerated heart Over-breathing, A reduction of partial
likely to occur as a attempting to frequency caused by leading to too much oxygen pressure to
result of compensate for a an increase in blood carbon dioxide in the the brain
drop in partial pressure blood
oxygen pressure
279. What can cause Anaemia high intake of high solar radiation because of the lower
hypoxia nitrogen percentage of oxygen
77
at height
280. One of the results of joints lungs brain heart
DCS is the "Chokes".
The chokes causes
problems in the
281. If suffering from 1 only 1,3&4 4 only 2 ,3 & 4
Hypoxia you should 1)
descent to below
10,000ft. 2) climb
above 10,000ft. 3) go
onto 100% oxygen 4)
reduce activity
282. Which of the following Breathing pure Haemoglobin has an Carbon monoxide Carbon monoxide
is a correct statement oxygen reduces affinity to carbon poisoning can result increases the altitude
with regards to carbon the effects of monoxide over from nicotine at which hypoxia is
monoxide'! carbon monoxide oxygen of 5 times experienced
prevalent
283. Which of the following All 3 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only
can cause hypoxia? 1)
Ascent to altitudes over
10,000 feet 2) Failure
of the oxygen system 3)
Rapid decompression
above 10,000 feet
284. Hypoxic Hypoxia can occur at any only occurs at is caused by the is not affected by
altitude. altitudes over inability of the blood smoking
approximately 10,000 to carry sufficient
ft. in the case of a oxygen
healthy individual
285. One of the outcomes of Regression A collapse of the of Cyanosis Fogging/Misting
rapid decompression is the middle ear
286. Hypoxia is caused by 1) 1 and 2 only 4 only 1, 2 3 and 4 1 & 4 only
a decrease in the
saturation of oxygen in
78
the blood due to intake

of carbon monoxide 2)
an inability of the body
to metabolize oxygen
3) the effects of Gz due
to inertia and pooling
of the blood 4) low
partial pressure of
oxygen at high altitudes
without supplemental
oxygen
287. TUC for progressive 1 - 2 minutes 3 - 5 minutes 5 - 10 minutes 15 - 20 minutes
decompression at
30,000 ft is
288. While turning the Coriolis Effect Somatogravic Effect Flicker Effect Oculogravic Effect
aircraft the pilots
moves his/her head.
What effect might the
pilot be exposed to
289. On initiating recovery In a direction In a direction the Slowly upwards Quickly upwards
from a spin, the pilot opposite to that of same as the spin
may have a strong the spin
sensation of turning
290. Presbycusis causes loss High tones Low tones Both equally Can be prevented by
of ear plugs
291. To prevent Vertigo in Use the Valsalva Look to one side while Avoid moving ones Breathe deeply, but
flight one should: manoeuvre turning head whilst turning control frequency of
breathing
292. Presbycusis is loss of high tones first low tones first medium tones first the whole spectrum
hearing due to age and of tones at the same
which effects time
293. Excessive wax the ear is NIHL Conductive Deafness Presbycusis Physical Deafness
classed as
79
294. Perceptual conflict 1 , 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1, 3 and 4 1, 2, 3 and 4

between the Vestibular
Apparatus and the
visual sensory inputs 1)
can occur when flying
IMC and may be
compelling 2) can cause
attitude
misinformation 3 may
occur when taking off
bank following a
sustained turn 4) can
occur when
decelerating
295. What is a stereotype data control a reflex stimulation control automatic
and involuntary stimulation
reaction to a
stimulation ?
296. How many semi- 1 2 3 4
circular canals are
contained in the ear ?
297. Vertigo can be The Coriolis Effect Autokenesis sweating shivering
associated with
298. Hearing through bone by-passes the by-passes the outer by-passes outer and is no different from
conduction inner ear ear the middle ear the normal hearing
process
299. With regards to the High frequency Low frequency cause Medium cause more Frequency is not
harmful effects of cause more harm more harm than high harm than high important
intensive noise on than low frequency frequency
human performance frequency
300. The amount of light The Central The Peripheral The Autonomic The Secondary
entering the eye is Nervous System Nervous System (Vegetative) Nervous Nervous System
controlled by System
301. When turning in IMC, autokinesis the occulogyiral vertigo Coriolis effect
80
head movements illusion

should be kept to a
minimum to prevent :
302. Spatial disorientation is The pilot’s seat There is a mis-match The pilot is ignoring Information from the
when : harness is too tight between the illusions vestibular apparatus
not allowing the information received is ignored
pilot to sense the from the vestibular
aircraft’s attitude apparatus and the
changes instruments
303. When a pilot looks at a Lens flattens Pupil becomes smaller Cornea becomes more Cornea changes
near object , the : curved shape
304. Which light sensitive Cones Rods Cones and Rods None of the above
cells of the eye are
used for night vision ?
305. Sunglasses with can be are advantageous for are generally are ideal as long as
variable transmission disadvantageous pilots forbidden for use in they are polarized
light sensitive when used in the flight
Photochromic lenses cockpit due to
their dependence
on UV light which
is screened by the
cockpit glass
306. The eye can adjust to: High levels of High levels of High levels of High levels of
illumination in 10 illumination in 10 illumination in 30 illumination in 30
minutes and seconds and darkness minutes and darkness minutes and
darkness in 30 in 30 minutes in 10 minutes darkness in 10
minutes seconds
307. When the visual image Myopia Hypermetropia Presbycusis Astigmatism
is focused in front of
the retina the condition
is:
308. A person suffering from cloudiness of the cloudiness of the increased pressure of colour blindness
Glaucoma will have lens cornea the eye
81
309. Glaucoma is caused by excess pressure a clouding of the lens damage to the cornea damage to the retina
within the eye
310. Good quality the ability to react good luminance for the pilot's no distortion of
sunglasses provide to varying light characteristics, individual needs. aircraft windscreens.
levels avoidance of glare and
automatically. harsh shadows,
protection against UV
and IR and equal
absorption of colours.
311. The Rods and Cones of Electrical nerve Chemical nerve signals Chemical and motor Chemical and sensory
the eye converts light signals nerve signals nerve signals
energy to
312. What is essential for 1 only 1 & 2 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 only
seeing colour? 1)
Correct light levels 2)
Time to adjust 3)
Looking 15° to one side
of the object 4) No
white lights
313. As light decreases, the increases decreases is not affected magnified
colour sensitivity of the
eye
314. The retina receives receives light and, receives light and, receives light signals
electromagnetic through electrical through and, through
energy and, reactions, coverts it electromagnetic photochemical
through into electrical signals reactions, coverts it reactions coverts
photochemical into photochemical them into chemical
reactions, coverts signals signals in the form of
it into pulses
photochemical
signals
315. Accommodation is The Secondary The Peripheral The Central Nervous The Autonomic
triggered by the Nervous System Nervous System System (Vegetative) Nervous
System
82
316. Scotopic vision is vision cones rods cones and the rods cornea and the lens
via the
317. What part or parts of The cones The rods The rods and cones The cornea
the eye is/are
responsible for night
vision ?
318. What is the worse type Sudden Severe Intensive Gradual
of incapacitation on
finals
319. The metabolism of Influenced by time Accelerated by Quicker when the Improved by the use
alcohol is drinking coffee body gets used to of easy-to-get
alcohol medication.
320. Should a pilot fly with a Chokes Bends Sinus pain Blurred vision
bad cold he/she could
suffer from
321. Even with a small the brain will be the brain functions the pilot will remain the pilot will be more
ingestion of alcohol stimulated thereby will be increased and unaffected susceptible to
increasing the thereby increasing hypoxia
resistance to performance at high
hypoxia altitudes
322. Pain in the cavities of Staggers Bends Barotrauma Creeps
the skull which
accompanies a change
of altitude is known as
323. With regard to alcohol Does not effect Even a small amount Drinking coffee with It effects Orthodox
performance will effect alcohol reduces the sleep
performance effects
324. If you switch on the Depth perception You can suffer from You can suffer from Binocular vision is
anti-collision light in increases dizziness and Colour Illusion affected
IMC, what are the likely disorientation
effects ?
325. Most ozone is found in Thermosphere Ionosphere Stratosphere Troposphere
the
83
326. You suffer pain in an Put one hand over Level off and, if Increase the rate of Keep the head still
ear on a descent. the effected ear necessary, climb to descent and continue
Should you the level where it first descending at a
occurred slower rate
327. The metabolism of is affected by time can be affected by is reduced by readily does not occur in the
alcohol caffeine available drugs human body
328. What is the first Grey out Unconsciousness Red out Black out
symptom of high radial
acceleration ?
329. In tropical regions you Ensure you put ice Drink only from sealed Eat raw vegetables Ensure you eat
should into all cold drinks containers whenever possible unpeeled fruit
because of possible
vitamin loss
330. Which of the following Noise Increase of pressure in Dizziness The Bends
are among the the ear causing pain
symptoms of Otic
Barotrauma in one or
both ears?
331. To avoid hypoglycemia A pilot should not A pilot should not eat A pilot should eat A pilot should eat
eat a meal sugar or sweets regularly and ensure a peanuts because they
balanced diet produce high energy
levels
332. Alcohol is a Peripheral Central Nervous Central Nervous Vegetative System
Nervous System System stimulant system depressant stimulant
stimulant
333. Ozone in a pressurized Spraying Climbing to an Avoiding flights above Using ozone-
cabin can be eliminated detergents altitude above 45,000 the equator converters
by ft
334. The first effect on the loss of black-out red-out grey-out
human being subjected consciousness
to gradual exposure of
high positive radial
acceleration is
84
335. Concerning barotrauma Baratrauma is Baratrauma is caused Baratrauma is more Baratrauma is caused
which of the following associated with a by pressure likely to happen in the by a decrease in
statements is true ? sink rate which is differentials between ascent than the altitude associated
greater than the the ambient pressure descent with an increase in
ability of the body and the gases in the the partial pressure
to balance its cavities of the body of oxygen
internal pressures
336. Anxiety affects 1) 1 & 2 only 1 only 1, 2 & 4 All
Judgement 2) Attention
3) Memory 4)
Concentration
337. Hypothermia causes a Decrease in the Increase in the Increase in the None of the above
demand for demand for oxygen demand for oxygen
oxygen and eventually lends
to unconsciousness
338. When faced with a Take as much time Make up his/her mind Make up his/her mind Wait until the last
problem a pilot should : as he/she needs as quickly as possible before consulting minute to make up
within the to give as much spare other crew members his/her mind
available time to time as possible
make up his/her
mind
339. Stressors are External factors Internal factors only Both external and Neither external nor
only internal factors internal factors
340. Performance can be putting a student a moderate amount of no stress at all if ignoring stress as all
increased by pilot under stress stress possible good pilots leave
stress on the ground
341. At height cockpit 20-25% 40-60% 30-60% 5-15%
humidity can be
between
342. If in a state of stress Eustress Hypertension Distress Regression
which is impossible to
overcome, the pilot will
be in a state of
85
343. A person that is Distress Eustress Coping stress Stressors

exposed to extreme or
prolonged stress
factors can perceive:
344. What is the No stress and no All stress and fatigue Stress can be good, No stress and some
relationship between fatigue is good is good fatigue is always bad fatigue is good
stress and fatigue ?
345. The body loses water The skin, lungs and The skin The skin, lungs and The skin, liver and
via kidneys liver kidneys
346. Extreme cold may be Aggression Aggression and Anxiety Contentment or
associated with anxiety apathy
347. An individual's depends on the is the objective is the subjective depends on the
perception of stress current situation evaluation of a evaluation of a individual's arousal
only situation and the situation and the
perceived ability to perceived ability to
cope with it cope with it
348. Stress Management Only the Only the removal of the use of drugs the prevention and
strategies normally prevention of stress the removal of stress
involve stress
349. If the sensory threshold Selectivity is Selectivity is Sensitivity is reduced Sensitivity is
is increased increased decreased increased
350. Which of the following Hearing is the 'The Kinestatic 70% of information 40% of information
is correct most important channel is the most processed by man processed by man
sense for man important channel in enters the visual enters the visual
flying channel channel
351. The learning process Reinforcing Punishing errors Increasing Encouraging the
can be facilitated by successful psychological pressure student to make
endeavours on the student mistakes
352. Motor programmes are stored as rules are behavioural sub- require conscious are natural reactions
in the long term routines though to engage
memory
353. What error rate can be 1 in 100,000 1 in 10,000 1 in 1,000 1 in 100
expected to be given
reasonable training ?
86
354. What human error rate 1 in 10 1 in 100 1 in 1,000 1 in 10,000

is considered to be the
norm ?
355. Age generally generally increases generally has little generally increases
decreases pilot's pilot's performance effect on pilots' performance until
performance performance since it is approximately the
compensated for by age of 32 and
experience therefore generally
decreases
performance
356. The thinking Human error is It has been accepted Error can be Human error can be
concerning human inherent and that human error will eliminated completely avoided through
error has changed inescapable always be made but in the future vigilance and
recently to can be decreased by expansion of
training and knowledge
technology.
357. Over learning improves the is a process which is is a process in training is the process
chance of recall discouraged in the which is usually whereby information
and makes the aviation training as it adopted in order to is layered and linked
performance of a may lead to pass complicated with previously
task more "Regression" in times concepts to a learned facts and is
resistance to stress of acute stress recipient of limited an important tool to
and is an capabilities improve Short-term
important concept Memory
of aviation training
358. Mental models of the past experiences past xperiences only past experiences and only sensory
world are based on and sensory motor programmes information
information (skills)
359. Mental models are entirely on past past experiences and sensory information past experiences and
based upon experiences motor programmes only sensory information
received
360. Once a mental model is undue weight to equal weight to frequent alterations undue weight to
constructed, there is a information that information that to the mental model information that
tendency to give contradicts the contradicts and confirms the model
87
model confirms the mental

model
361. Motor programmes errors in selecting errors in decision- routine errors istakes
save resources and the correct plan of making
therefore attention action
however they may
result in
362. Mental rehearsal is all pilots instructor pilots only only for pilots with a student pilots only
useful for specific level of
experience
363. When problem-solving, Knowledge of rules Unsuitability of Unsuitability of known Lack of knowledge of
what determines the that apply for the automated actions rules for the problem the rules
transition from rule- problem posed
based activities to
knowledge-based
activities
364. When do we change When we choose When we do not When rules do not When we become
from Rule Based to do so know the rules apply highly experienced
Behaviour to
Knowledge Based
Behaviour ?
365. Very high ambition and conflict in the improved a "laiser faire" cockpit improved cohesion
drive for success can cockpit performance situation and mutual
lead to consideration
366. With respect to the The condition of Spatial orientation of Pressure on the body Environmental
subcutaneous pressure the body the body indicating true vertical conditions
receptors, they sense
367. A pilot is accustomed Fly a too high an Fly a too low an Fly a too high an Fly a too low an
to a runway with a approach and approach and approach and approach and
width of 27m and lands overshoot overshoot undershoot undershoot
on an unfamiliar
runway with a width of
42m. The pilot will tend
to
88
368. When staring at an vary in size move vary in colour vary in intensity
isolated light at night,
the light may appear to
369. Illusions that pilots Objects appear Objects appear closer Objects appear to Objects appear to
experience in further away than than they really are move slower than move faster than
conditions of fog, snow they really are they really do they really do
or mist are that
370. Cognitive illusions are Poor Lack of external Conflict between Erroneous mental
caused by: interpretation of reference points different senses model resulting from
cockpit a misinterpretation
instruments of sensory inputs
371. What should you do if Ignore your Look at the horizon Descend Rely on your
disorientated at night: instruments instruments
372. The illusion that the Snow and a Snow and a tail wind Rain and a headwind A unaccustomed high
aircraft is taxiing too tailwind distance of the
fast can be caused by cockpit from the
ground
373. Errors in the judgment snow mountains jungle rough seas
of height on an
approach are more
likely over
374. What is the illusion Objects appear to Objects appear to be Objects appear to Objects appear to be
when an aircraft is be further away closer than they move faster than they larger than they
flying in fog, snow or than they actually actually are actually are actually are
haze ? are
375. What is the normal The aircraft is too The aircraft is too low The aircraft is too fast The aircraft is too
illusion for a pilot high slow
undertaking an
approach on an up-
sloping runway ?
376. On an approach at Slower than it Faster than it actually normal curved
night in rain onto a actually is is
runway with approach
lighting it is it not
89
unusual for the

approach to appear
377. Input for orientation is 2 & 3 only 3 & 4 only 1, 2 & 4 only 1,2,3& 4
through 1) Eyes 2)
Utricles & Saccules 3)
Semi-circular canals 4)
Seat-of-the-pants
receptors
378. A pilot flies to Moscow Local time Home time Central Europe time UTC
(2 hours ahead of
home time) with a 4
day stop-over. After 3
days his/her circadian
rhythm corresponds to
379. What characterizes a Autocratic Captain Crew member tends A synergistic cockpit A non-synergistic
self-centered cockpit ? assures a to do their own jobs cockpit in which the
synergistic cockpit independently Captain tends to be
without keeping other authoritarian
informed
380. Attitude is a synonym of a genetic acting and thinking How a person
behaviour predisposition to be subjectively responds to another
biased either person, situation or
positively or organisation either
negatively positively or
negatively
381. Personality is based on: None of the above 1, 2, and 4. All of the above 2, 3 and 4
1) Heredity 2)
Childhood 3)
Upbringing 4)
Experience
382. During the pre-flight Delegate all duties Emphasise that Emphasise areas Ensure all points are
brief the aircraft to all crew he/she is in charge requiring good crew covered for the flight
commander should: members for the co-ordination to avoid repetition in
entire flight the cockpit?
90
383. Attitude is part of personality a person's response to the same as behaviour stable and cannot be
and cannot be a situation, person or changed in an adult
changed in an object
adult
384. Leadership qualities 1, 2, 3 and 4 1 & 2 only 2 only 3 & 4 only
should include 1) A
dominant style 2)
Laiser Faire 3) Technical
competency 4) Good
communications
385. During the cruise, the He should call one He should argue with He must accept his He should stop
Captain of an aircraft of the cabin crew the Captain pointing Captain's behaviour discussion and return
starts to smoke a and ask him/her to out the potential since it is the Captain to the issue during
cigarette. The co-pilot arbitrate dangers who is responsible. the debrief at the
is a nonsmoker and end of the flight.
asks him to stop. The
Captain ignores his
request saying "That's
your problem". What
the co-pilot do about
the situation ?
386. Which of the following Personality is Attitudes do not Behaviour is the Attitude is the
statements is correct ? easily changed change in the long- outward result of outward result of
term personality and behaviour and
attitude personality
387. Metacommunications: are of no are shortcuts are barriers to intea- compliment verbal
importance in the conflict communications
cockpit
388. What is not a useful Tailor to the Enable response and Specifically target Should be
element of good individual discussion each individual's understood by all
feedback ? failings
389. What constitutes Speaking in a Using different Considering cultural Using commonly
effective variety of mother context which would differences understood context,
communications ? tongues be understood by the language and
91
receiver metacommunications
390. What is the main To allow the To allow individual They form general They form
purpose of pre-flight Captain to assert crew member to information about the information about
briefings ? his/her authority prepare their own flight but they contain the flight and allocate
responses to likely or no specific reference responsibilities and
problematic events to likely or reactions to likely or
problematic events problematic events
391. Pilots should have a good have at least a limited be able to understand be able to have a
command of the English vocabulary key words and phases command of a local
English language only since these are language since this is
sufficient to sufficient and legal in
sufficiently impart an emergency
meaning
392. Which of the following Coding and The Receiver’s mood Expectation (What The Sender’s
elements of decoding a you expect to hear ) nationality
communications is message
most likely to lead o
misunderstanding ?
393. In communication Encoding Decoding Feedback Synchronization
which element shows
that information has
been received and
understood ?
394. With regards to mishearing the anticipation of a check anticipation of anticipation of a
anticipation, which of contents of an air list weather longer flight time
the following would traffic controller's than expected
most likely to result in non-standard
the occurrence of a clearance when a
hazardous situation ? standard
procedure was
anticipated.
395. Which of the following Automation Enables the pilot to Reduces pilot's Saves time
statements are correct increases respond to unusual attention since they
with reference to Situational situations better since can be out of the loop
92
automation ? Awareness there is no need to

monitor automatics.
396. Murphy's Law states Even if a system If a system can be If a system can be If a system can be
that can be designed operated incorrectly, operated incorrectly it operated incorrectly
correctly, it will sooner or later it will should be guarded it should be backed
always be mis- be up by a second
used system
397. The alerting system for a flashing visual a doll's eye indicator an audio warning a steady visual signal
an important system signal - preferably - preferably red
failure should be red
398. What would be the To eliminate latent To minimize the To systematically To generate clear
priority aim in the errors consequences of the analyze the warnings and alerts
design of man/machine appearance or non- occurrences of errors
interface in combating appearance of errors to improve the future
the occurrence of with respect to safety design of systems and
Human Error ? ergonomics
399. Check lists are most flying an aircraft flying an aircraft with conducting a long flying an aircraft in
important when which you have which you are not flight which you are
flown many times familiar and when current
before. under stress
400. SOP's in the cockpit only be tailored to follow implicitly the be shared by the be tailored to the
must the type of aircraft manufacturer's members of the crew individual pilot's
regardless of suggestions and not and modified/updated needs and
current MCC reflect the Operator's so as to maintain as requirements
procedures cockpit procedures much synergy as
possible
401. The term to query and synergy between the physiological unjustified self-
`complacency' means double-check co-pilot and the problems resulting confidence resulting
possible solutions Commander from the fear of flying in careless negligence
emanating from CRM
procedures
402. One of the negative It can lead to Pilots tend to be Crews become less Pilots tend to
aspects of automation complacency of overloaded when experienced because disregard the
is the aircrew trying to monitor the the ease of control equipment
93
equipment
403. With reference to An automatic Conscious and An arbitrary decision A systematic and
decision-making, it is function voluntary after analytical process
assessing the options
404. A efficient flight deck respect each is a constituted crew respect each other's is laiser faire
crew is one which other's decision political and religious
and views persuasions
405. Confirmation Bias of To ignore Not to seek Not to look for To look for facts that
the decision-making information which information which information which confirm expectations
process is indicates that a confirms the decision would reassure the before making a
hypothesis or correct decision decision
decision is poor
406. The semi-circular Linear acceleration Heat Temperature Angular acceleration
canals react to
407. With what is "Mode Leadership Motivation Automation Homeostasis
Error" associated ?
408. Why is it essential to To prevent carbon To prevent carbon To prevent carbon To prevent carbon
ensure that the dioxide poisoning dioxide poisoning, dioxide poisoning monoxide poisoning
combustion heater is and possible fire possible fire or
serviceable in an explosion
aircraft ?
409. Short term memory practice and chunking and rehearsal and practice rehearsal and
(Working Memory) can retrieval association retrieval
be improved through
410. The Systolic pressure is True The above is false as The above is false as The above is false
higher than the the Diastolic pressure the normal reading is since high blood
Diastolic pressure and is higher than the 250/90 pressure can lead to
the normal reading for Systolic pressure heart attacks
a healthy person is
120/80. High blood
pressure can lead to
strokes.
411. Approximately 50 95 20 70
94
..............% of all
accidents are caused by
Human factors
412. Linear acceleration may Climb Descent Turn Spin
give a false impression
of a
413. The law that states The Combined Gas Henry's Law Dalton's Law Boyle's Law
"Providing the Law
temperature is
constant, the volume of
gas is inversely
proportional to its
pressure" is
414. The Time of useful 30 and 15 seconds 30 and 25 seconds 18 and 12 seconds 40 and 20 seconds
consciousness (TUC) at
43,000 ft in the event
of progressive
decompression for
sitting and moderate
activity is
415. When suffering from 10,000 ft 12,000 ft 14,000 ft 16,000 ft
Hypoxic Hypoxia short-
term memory
impairment starts at
approximately
416. A free running 23 hours 24 hours 25 hours 26 hours
circadian rhythm
exhibits a periodicity of
approximately
417. What is the Behaviour is the Personality is the Attitude is the There is no
relationship between outward result of outward result of outward result of relationship.
personality, attitude personality and behaviour and personality and Personality is derived
and behaviour attitude attitude behaviour from genes whereas
behaviour and
95
attitude are learnt

418. The Vestibular Cochlea and the Eustachian tube and Semi-circular canals Eustachian tube and
Apparatus consists of auditory nerve the semi-circular and the otoliths the pinna
the canals
419. To overcome Look out at the Believe the Keep the head as still Get relief from look-
disorientation in IMC horizon instruments as possible out duties
conditions it is advised
to
420. Our primary source of Sight The ears The Cortex The Cerebellum
spatial orientation is
421. Co-action is a form of working in parallel working in parallel working duplicating actions
co-operation that can towards a towards separate independently
be defined as common goal goals
422. Among the factors Age, cabin Age, cabin altitudes Age, cabin altitudes Age, cabin altitudes
which affect night altitudes above above 8,000 ft, age, above 8,000 ft, age, above 8,000 ft, age,
vision are 8,000 ft, age, smoking and lack of smoking and lack of smoking and lack of
smoking and vitamin C vitamin D vitamin B
alcohol
423. The twin objectives of Knowledge of the Flight Safety and self- The safety and Physical fitness and
Human Performance limitations of the awareness efficiency of the good decision-
are body and their operation and the making
significance in well-being of the
aviation individual
424. Haemoglobin is Liver Heart Bone Marrow Capillaries
manufactured mainly in
the
425. Normal cabin pressure 10,000 ft. 5,000 ft 3,000 ft - 4,000 ft 6,000 ft - 8,000 ft
is
426. To be restorative a nap 5 minutes 20 minutes 1 hour 2 hours
must last for at least
427. The function of the Equalise the Equalise the pressure Equalise the pressure Equalise the pressure
Eustachian tube is to pressure between between the outer between the inner between the
the outer and and inner ear and middle ear tympanum and the
96
middle ear inner ear

428. If you wear contact Inform the Make sure that they Take a spare pair of Take a pair of
lenses while flying, you company aviation are correctly oiled, contact lenses with ordinary corrective
must also medical specialist cleaned and you and ensure they spectacles with you
of your condition maintained are immediately and have them
available immediately
available
429. Generally the most CFIT MAYDY RADA EMERG
common cause of
accidents to aircraft is
430. Stimuli must be of a Sensory threshold Sensory filter Sensory strength Sensory volume
certain strength for the
receptors to pick them
up. This is called
431. The main limitation of It is dual It is single channelled It is slow It multi channelled
the Central Decision- channelled processing processing
maker is processing
432. The Cocktail Party Selective attention Divided attention Selective Divided
Effect is an example of Communication Communication
433. What 2 factors will Fatigue and stress Lack of practice and Loss of Situational Anxiety and fatigue
bring a person stress Awareness and fear
temporarily from the
Automatic phase stage
of a motor programme
into the Associative
stage ?
434. A smoker travelling in a Hypoxic hypoxia Anaemic hypoxia only Anaemic and hypoxic The Coriolis effect
non-pressurised only hypoxia
aircraft to a height of
over 10,000ft will suffer
from:
435. What happens to the Systolic blood Systolic blood Systolic blood Systolic blood
Systolic blood pressure pressure rises pressure decreases pressure is unaffected pressure initially
97
if peripheral resistance decreases and then

is increased ? increases
436. What is the ideal G+ P+ A team player Stable Extravert Synergistic
personality for a pilot ?
Meteorology

1. The international 2°C/1000 ft 1.5°C/1000 ft 3°C/1000 ft 1.98°C/1000 ft
standard atmosphere
assumes a lapse rate
of:
2. The tropopause is: The line where the The layer between the The layer beyond The line indicating
temperature no tropopause and the which only Cl cloud clear air turbulence.
longer decreases stratosphere. occurs.
with increase of
height.
3. One of the most Density is constant The air is a poor Temperature lapse The air is a good
important above 10 000 ft. conductor of heat. rate is very frequently conductor of heat.
characteristics of the above 3°C per 1000 ft.
atmosphere is:
4. The captain of an it normally density starts to there are no longer jet it indicates the height
aircraft needs to know represents the increase streams and CAT of the thermal wind
the height of the limit of weather
Tropopause because:
5. The level in the The troposphere. The Stratopause. The Stratosphere. The tropopause.
atmosphere where the
air temperature ceases
to fall with increase in
height is known as:
6. The atmosphere is a oxygen 21% oxygen 21% hydrogen nitrogen 78% argon nitrogen 78% oxygen
mixture of gasses of nitrogen 78% 78% other gasses 1% 21 % oxygen 1 21 % hydrogen 1
the following other gasses 1%
98
proportions:
7. The International 1013.25 mbs and 1013.25 mbs and 1013.25 mbs and falls 1013.25 mbs and
(ICAO) Standard decreases with an increases with an to about half this decreases with an
Atmosphere assumes increase in height increase in height value at 30000 increase in height up
that the sea level to the tropopause.
atmospheric pressure Above the
is: tropopause it
remains constant
8. At sea level the ISA 1225 grammes per 1252 grammes per 1013.2 mb (hpa) 29.6 inches of
density is stated to be: cubic metre cubic metre mercury
9. Which of the following the MSL pressure the MSL pressure is the MSL pressure is the MSL pressure is
statements is most is 1013.25 mbs 1013.25 mbs and the 1013.25 mbs and the 1013.25 mbs and the
correct when and the temperature is +15° C temperature is +15° C temperature is +15° C
describing ISA: temperature is + with a lapse rate of with a lapse rate of with a lapse rate of
15°C 1.98°C/1000 ft 1.98°C/1000ft up to 1.98°C/1000 ft up to
36090 ft above which 36090 ft
there is frequently an
'inversion
10. The following is true for at mean sea level within the the tropopause is at a the temperature at
the International the following troposphere the height of 36090 AGL the tropopause is
Standard Atmosphere: conditions prevail: temperature 226.5°K
temperature +15° decreases by 6.5° C
C, pressure per km
1013.25 hpa,
density 1125
gm/m
11. The barometric QNE QNH QFE Standard Pressure
Pressure at the airfield
datum point is known
as:
12. The instrument that barometer hygrometer anemograph barograph
gives a continuous
printed reading and
record of the
99
atmospheric pressure
is:
13. The pressure of the decreases at an decreases at a decreases at a decreases at a
atmosphere: increasing rate as constant rate as decreasing rate as constant rate up to
height increases height increases height increases the tropopause and
then remains
constant
14. When considering the it is low over the it is high over the it is the same height It is at a constant
actual tropopause poles and high poles and low over of 36090 ft all over altitude of 26000'
which statement is over the equator the equator the world
correct:
15. Atmospheric pressure the weight of the the weight of the the force per unit area a pressure exerted by
may be defined as: atmosphere atmosphere at exerted by the the atmosphere of
exerted on any standard sea level atmosphere on any 1013.2 mbs
surface with which surface with which it
it is in contact is in contact
16. The QFF is the at the place where corrected for at a place where the as measured by a
atmospheric pressure: the reading is temperature reading is taken barometer at the
taken difference from corrected to MSL aerodrome reference
standard and adjusted taking into account point.
to MSL assuming the prevailing
standard atmospheric temperature
conditions exist conditions
17. With 1013.25 mb set QNE QNH QFE QFF
on the altimeter sub
scale with an aircraft
stationary on the
airfield the altimeter
will read:
18. The aircraft altimeter QFF QNH QNE QFE
will read zero at
aerodrome level with
which pressure setting
set on the altimeter
100
sub scale:
19. You are passed an QFF 1013 1000 QFE
altimeter setting of
`29.53'. You would then
set your altimeter
subscale to:
20. The aerodrome QFE is: the reading on the the reading on the the reading on the the aerodrome
altimeter on an altimeter on altimeter on an barometric pressure.
aerodrome when touchdown at an aerodrome when the
the aerodrome aerodrome when sea level barometric
barometric 1013.2 is set on the pressure is set on the
pressure is set on sub scale sub scale
the sub scale
21. When an altimeter sub the elevation of zero at the aerodrome the pressure altitude the appropriate
scale is set to the the aerodrome at reference point at the aerodrome altitude of the
aerodrome QFE, the the aerodrome reference point aircraft
altimeter reads: reference point
22. The aerodrome QNH is corrected to mean corrected to mean sea corrected for corrected to MSL
the aerodrome sea level assuming level, assuming temperature and using ambient
barometric pressure: standard isothermal conditions adjusted to MSL temperature.
atmospheric exist assuming standard
conditions exist atmosphere
conditions exist
23. A line drawn on a chart an isotherm an isallobar a contour an isobar
joining places having
the same barometric
pressure at the same
level and at the same
time is
24. The tropopause in mid Lower in summer Lower in winter with a Lower in summer with Lower in winter with
latitudes is: with a lower higher temperature. a higher temperature. a lower temperature.
temperature.
25. Generally as altitude temperature temperature, pressure temperature and temperature
increases: decreases and and density decreases pressure increase and decreases and
101
density increases density decreases pressure density

increases
26. Density at the surface Pressure is high Pressure is high and Pressure is low and Pressure is low and
will be low when: and temperature temperature is low. temperature is low. temperature is high.
is high.
27. If in the southern an area of high an area of low a warm front a depression
hemisphere an aircraft pressure pressure
in flight at 2000 ft is
experiencing starboard
drift, the aircraft is
flying towards:
28. Subsidence in an saturated air and dry air and an isothermal dry and increased pressure at
anticyclone produces: an inversion inversion stable air the surface
29. With an anticyclone Thunderstorms in Stratus in summer Clear skies or fair Clear skies in summer
over the UK the summer, fog in with drizzle, CU and weather CU in with haze, cold
expected weather is: winter. snow in winter. summer, fog in winter frontal weather in
winter.
30. When flying towards a Lower than Higher than indicated. The same as Lower than indicated
depression at a indicated. indicated. at first then the same
constant indicated as indicated later.
altitude, the true
altitude will be:
31. The name given to the QFE Regional QNH QFF QNE
lowest forecast mean
sea level pressure in an
area is:
32. The Altimeter will With 1013 set the With airfield QNH set The vertical distance the correct flight
always read altitude above the height above the above the pressure level with regional
MSL airfield datum level set QFE set.
33. The altimeter subscale 3480' 3990' 5418' 3582'
is set to 1030 mbs and
the altimeter reads
4500'. QNH is 996 mbs.
What is the altitude of
102
the aircraft ? (Assume 1

mb = 27')
34. An aircraft, flying at FL decreased, Increased, increased decreased, decreased Increased, decreased
100 at a constant RAS, increased
flies from an area of
warm air into an area
of cold air. The QNH is
unchanged. How has
the aircraft altitude and
TAS changed? Altitude
TAS
35. QNH at Johannesburg 1000.8 hPa 830.6 hPa 1002 hPa 825 hPa
is 1025 hPa, elevation
is 1600m amsl. What is
the QFE. (Assume I mb
= 8m)
36. The measurement of at ground level at approximately 10 at approximately 4 at approximately 4
surface temperature is metres from ground feet above ground metres above ground
made: level level level
37. The purpose of a maintain a moist to prevent the protect the keep the wet and dry
"Stevenson Screen" is atmosphere so mercury freezing in thermometer from bulb thermometers
to: that the wet bulb the low winter wind, weather and away from surface
thermometer can temperatures from direct sunshine extremes of
function correctly temperature
38. If temperature remains an inversion an inversion aloft uniform lapse rate an isothermal layer
constant with an
increase in altitude
there is:
39. The surface of the convection conduction long wave solar short wave solar
earth is heated by: radiation radiation
40. Cloud cover will reduce incoming solar incoming solar the cloud stops the incoming solar
diurnal variation of radiation is radiation is re- suns rays getting radiation is reflected
temperature because: reflected back to radiated back to space through to the earth back to space and
space and and atmospheric and also reduces outgoing terrestrial
103
outgoing heating by convection outgoing conduction radiation is re-

terrestrial will stop at the level radiated from the
radiation is of the cloud layer cloud layer back to
reflected back to the surface
earth
41. Diurnal variation of the be unaffected by a decrease as wind increase as wind be at a minimum in
surface temperature change of wind speed increases speed increases calm conditions
will: speed
42. Which of the following rock or concrete water snow vegetation
surfaces is likely to
produce a higher than
average diurnal
variation of
temperature:
43. Most accurate tephigram aircraft reports temperature probe radio sonde
temperatures above
ground level are
obtained by:
44. The method by which radiation convection conduction latent heat
energy is transferred
from one body to
another by contact is
called:
45. The diurnal variation of greater over the less over desert areas reduced anywhere by increased anywhere
temperature is: sea than overland then over temperate the presence of cloud as wind speed
grassland increases
46. The troposphere is absorption of the radiation of heat from absorption by ozone conduction from the
heated largely by: sun's short wave cloud tops and the of the sun's short surface, convection
radiation earth's surface wave radiation and the release of
latent heat
47. An inversion is one in there is no there is no change of there is an increase of there is a decrease of
which: horizontal gradient temperature with temperature as height temperature as
of temperature height increases height increases
104
48. With a clear night sky, A steady lapse rate A stable lapse rate of An inversion above An inversion from
the temperature averaging 2°C per 1 °C per 1000 ft. the surface with an near the surface and
change with height by 1000 ft. isothermal layer a 2°C per 1000 ft
early morning is most above. lapse rate above.
likely to show:
49. Over continents and Warmer in winter Colder in winter over Cold in winter over Warmer in summer
oceans, the relative over land, colder land, warmer in land and sea. over land and sea.
temperature conditions in summer over winter over sea.
are: sea.
50. Throughout the 24 hrs Increase during Stay reasonably Reduce during the day Only change with a
of a day the Relative the day and constant throughout and increase at night. change of airmass.
Humidity can be decrease at night. the 24 hours.
expected to:
51. A change of state insolation condensation evaporation sublimation
directly from a solid to
a vapour or vice versa
is:
52. The instrument used hydrometer hygrometer wet bulb hygroscope
for measuring the thermometer
humidity of air is a:
53. The process of change evaporation in evaporation in which condensation in which condensation in
of state from a gas to a which latent heat latent heat is released latent heat is which latent heat is
liquid is: is absorbed absorbed released
54. The process of change condensation in evaporation in which condensation in which evaporation in which
of state from a liquid to which latent heat latent heat is released latent heat is latent heat is
a gas is: is released absorbed absorbed
55. Relative humidity is: air temperature air temperature over the actual amount of the maximum
over wet bulb dew point water vapour in a amount of water
temperature x 100 temperature x 100 sample of air over the vapour that a sample
maximum amount of of air can contain
water vapour that the over the actual
sample can contain x amount of water
100 vapour the sample
does contain x 100
105
56. Absolute humidity is: the number of the amount of water the maximum amount the maximum
water droplets in a vapour that a given of water vapour that a number of water
given quantity of quantity of air holds given quantity of air droplets that a given
air can hold quantity of air can
hold
57. Wet bulb temperature condensation evaporation causes latent heat is of condensation on
would normally be causes a release of cooling absorbed by the bulb the muslin wick of
lower than the dry bulb latent heat thermometer the bulb
temperature because:
58. Which one of the If the air The absolute humidity The diurnal variation The dewpoint
following statements temperature falls is the mass of water of dewpoint temperature is the
relating to atmospheric then the absolute vapour contained in temperature is temperature
humidity is correct: humidity must unit volume of air. greatest when skies indicated by the wet
increase. are clear at night. bulb thermometer.
59. When water vapour Latent heat is Specific heat is Latent heat is Specific heat is
changes to ice: absorbed. released. released. absorbed.
60. If the ELR is 0.65°C/ 1 Atmosphere is Atmosphere is stable Atmosphere is Atmosphere is stable
00m conditionally unstable when dry
stable
61. Why does air cool as it It expands It contracts The air is colder at The air is colder at
rises? higher latitudes higher altitudes
62. From which of the surface pressure surface temperature DALR ELR
following can the
stability of the
atmosphere be
determined?
63. When the upper part of Stability increases Stability decreases Wind speed will Both A & B
a layer of warm air is within the layer within the layer always decrease with
advected: increase in height in
the Northern
Hemisphere
64. The temperature at the Unstable Conditionally unstable Stable Cannot tell
surface is 15°C, the
temperature at 1000ft
106
is 13°C. Is the
atmosphere
65. A mass of unsaturated Temp. is greater Temp. stays the same Temp. is less than It depends on QFE
air is forced to rise till than before before
just under the
condensation level. It
then settles back to its
original position
66. What happens to the Absolutely stable Unstable Conditionally stable Conditionally
stability of the unstable
atmosphere in an
inversion? (Temp
increasing with height)
67. A layer of air can be Conditional; Conditional; unstable Neutrally stable when All of the above
unstable when when saturated and saturated and
unsaturated and stable when unstable when
stable when unsaturated unsaturated
saturated
68. The DALR is Variable with time Fixed Variable with latitude Variable with
temperature
69. A parcel of air cooling Conditionally Conditionally unstable Unstable Stable
by 1°C/100m is said to stable
be?
70. Maximum turbulence Two wavelengths Approximately one Just below the Down the lee side of
associated with the down wind and wavelength down tropopause above the the ridge and along
standing waves is likely just above the wind of, and ridge. the surface.
to be: surface. approximately level
with, the top of the
ridge.
71. Which of the following CAT associated The maximum The core of a Jet The rate of change of
statements referring to with Jet Streams is windspeed in a Jet Stream is usually windspeed at any
Jet Streams is correct: probably Stream increases with located just below the given level is usually
associated with increase of height up tropopause in the greatest on the
the rapid wind to the tropopause and colder air mass. warmer side of the
107
shear in the remains constant jet.

vicinity of the jet. thereafter.
72. The significance of There may be There are mountain A Fohn wind can be A Katabatic wind is
lenticular cloud is: mountain waves waves present but expected with no present which may
present and there they may not give turbulence. lead to fog in the
will be severe severe turbulence. valleys.
turbulence.
73. For standing waves to Decrease with Increase with height Decrease with height Increase with height
form, the wind height within a within an unstable within an unstable within a stable layer
direction must be near stable layer above layer above the hill. layer above the hill. above the hill.
perpendicular to a the hill.
ridge or range of
mountains and the
speed must:
74. Clear air turbulence, in Underneath the jet In the centre of the jet Looking downstream Looking downstream
association with a polar core core on the right hand side on the left hand side
front jet stream in the
Northern Hemisphere,
is more severe:
75. Mountain waves can Up to a maximum Up to mountain Above the mountain In the stratosphere.
occur: of 5000 ft above height only and 50 nm and downwind up to a
the mountains and to 100 nm downwind. maximum height at
50 nm to 100 nm the tropopause and
downwind. 50 nm to 100 nm
downwind.
76. CAT should be reported Light CAT Extreme CAT Severe CAT Moderate CAT
whenever it is
experienced. What
should be reported if
crew and passengers
feel a definite strain
against their seat or
shoulder straps, food
service and walking is
108
difficult and loose

objects become
dislodged:
77. A gust of wind often It strengthens It increases coriolis It increases centrifugal It lifts the air above
causes a veer in the pressure gradient force. force. the friction layer.
surface wind (Northern force.
Hemisphere) because:
78. When a Fohn wind There are unstable Air is cooled mainly at Windspeed must be at Air is cooled mainly
occurs: conditions on the the DALR on the least 15 kt at the at the SALR on the
downwind side of upwind side of the surface increasing upwind side of the
the mountain. mountain and is with height and mountain and is
heated at the SALR on maintaining direction. heated mainly at the
the downwind side. DALR on the
downwind side.
79. The geostrophic wind Parallel to curved When pressure values In a tropical revolving When the coriolis
blows: isobars. are changing rapidly. storm. force and pressure
gradient force are
equal.
80. A strong wind that rises a gust a squall a gale a blast
suddenly, last for some
minutes and dies
comparatively suddenly
away is called:
81. The force which causes pressure force centrifugal force coriolis force gradient force
the air to flow parallel
to the curved isobars is
called:
82. The deflection of the over the land by over the land by day - over the sea - 30° over the sea - 10°,
surface wind direction night - 35 ° in 35' in cloudy veered in the
from the geostrophic is, cloudy conditions conditions southern hemisphere
on average:
83. A ravine or valley wind: Is a wind blowing Is a wind blowing Is a wind blowing up a Is a wind blowing at
at increased speed from a hill to a valley hill from a valley. reduced speed along
along a valley. below. a valley.
109
84. How do you recognise High pressure Streaks of Cirrus High level dust Lenticularis
high level jet streams centre at high level
and associated CAT?
85. The Arctic Jet core is at: 20,000ft 30,000ft 40,000ft 50,000ft
86. When heading South in You are flying You are flying away You are flying towards You are flying out of
the Southern towards a lower from a lower a low pressure a high
Hemisphere you temperature temperature
experience Starboard
drift:
87. Contours on a weather Heights of Distance between Thickness between Height of ground
chart indicate: pressure levels pressure levels pressure levels
88. A jet stream with a Impossible Possible but very rare Possible in polar areas Common
wind speed of 350kts
is
89. When flying from south it increases it decreases it remains the same impossible to
to north in the determine
Southern Hemisphere,
you cross over the
Polar Front Jet. What
happens to the
temperature?
90. The core of a jet stream at the level where in the warm air where in the warm air and in cold air
is located temperature the pressure surface is directly beneath at
change with horizontal the surface
altitude becomes
little or nil and the
pressure surface is
at maximum slope
91. What is the ratio of 1:10 1:100 1:1000 1:10000
height to width in a
typical jet stream?
92. When and where does All year through In summer from SE In summer from the In winter in Arctic
an Easterly jet stream the Equator Asia through S. India Middle East through Russia
110
occur? to Central Africa N. Africa and the

Mediterranean to S.
Spain
93. From the pre-flight Stay level Descend Climb Reduce speed
briefing you know a jet
stream is at 31,000 ft
whilst you are at FL 270
You experience
moderate C.A.T. What
would be the best
course of action?
94. Wind at altitude is True, m/s Magnetic, m/s True, Kts Magnetic, Kts
usually given as ..........
in ..........
95. Under which of the A westerly jet A curved jet stream A straight jet stream A jet stream where
following stream at low near a deep trough near a low pressure there is a large
circumstances is the altitude in the area spacing between the
most severe CAT likely summer isotherms
to be experienced?
96. The size of raindrops Air is stable and Air is unstable and Cloud type is AC or The relative humidity
from a cloud is greater cloud is layer type. cloud is heap type. NS. is high.
if:
97. Which piece of barograph hygrometer alidade barometer
equipment is used to
measure cloud base:
98. In aerodrome reports the height above the height above the pressure altitude the height above the
and forecasts the mean sea level aerodrome elevation of the cloud base average ground level
height of the cloud for the area
base refers to:
99. Cloud types are Cirriform, Stratiform, Heap, Cirrus, Cumulus and Cumulus, Layer and
classified under three Stratiform, Cirriform layer Heap
basic family headings, Cumuliform
these are:
111
100. Lumpy or heaped white altocirrus cumulus cumulonimbus nimbostratus

cloud is:
101. Continuous type The vertical extent The upcurrents are The air is stable. The cloud is large in
precipitation is of the cloud is not very strong. horizontal extent.
expected from layer small.
clouds because:
102. The turbulence Moderate. Slight to nil. Nil. Moderate possibly
associated with severe.
cumulus cloud is:
103. When the met observer Clear, scattered, The amount of cloud, The amount of cloud, The amount of cloud,
reports the amount of broken or overcast in tenths of the sky in quarters of the sky in eighths of the sky
cloud present at a covered , using the covered, using the covered, using the
station, it will be given term oktas term oktas term oktas.
as:
104. Which of the following Nimbostratus Noctilucent cloud Cumulonimbus cloud Stratus cloud
clouds is never a hazard
to aviation:
105. If you observe drizzle AS CU ST NS
falling, the cloud above
you is most likely to be:
106. Clouds formed by Be layer clouds. Be CU CB or NS. Have a rising cloud Form only in Polar
convection will always: base and may develop maritime air.
into CB as the day
progresses.
107. The type of cloud from large cumulus altostratus nimbostratus cumulonimbus
which continuous
moderate or heavy rain
is likely to fall is:
108. The movement of cool cumulus or advection fog nimbostratus cloud alto cumulus
moist air over a cumulonimbus lenticular cloud
warmer surface is likely cloud
to cause:
109. Intensity of intermittent, drizzle, rain or snow slight, moderate or intermittent,
precipitation is continuous or heavy moderate or heavy
112
described as either: showery

110. The term precipitation is in precipitation is from precipitation is precipitation is
"precipitation" implies the form of rain cumulonimbus cloud intermittent and is continuous for long
that: and is continuous and lasts for short from strato form periods from
periods cloud cumuloform cloud
111. The type of drizzle snow light rain sleet
precipitation in which
visibility is likely to be
most reduced:
112. The type of Mainly water Ice crystals. Supercooled water Large water droplets
precipitation usually droplets which can droplets only. due to the strong up-
associated with shallow be supercooled if currents associated
stratocumulus is: the temperature is with this type of
low enough. cloud
113. If there are small Clear skies. St and drizzle. CB Cloud. Haze.
cumulus in the morning
in summer, it is
reasonable to forecast
later in the day:
114. The conditions which a trigger action, a a steep lapse rate, a a plentiful supply of a steep lapse rate
must exist to allow plentiful supply of stable atmosphere moisture and a steep through a large
thunderstorms to moisture and a through a large lapse rate through a vertical extent, a low
develop are: very stable vertical extent and a large vertical extent relative humidity and
atmosphere plentiful supply of and a trigger action a trigger action
moisture
115. Hazards of the mature microburst, icing, microburst and icing, drizzle and windshear, hail and
stage of a TS cell windshear and windshear microburst fog
include lightning, anvil
turbulence and:
116. On a significant moderate severe turbulence and moderate turbulence moderate/severe
weather chart the turbulence and severe icing and severe icing turbulence and/or
thunderstorm symbol moderate icing moderate/severe
signifies: icing
113
117. Thunderstorms require convergence in convergence in subsidence in tropical convection in polar

a trigger action to temperate tropical latitudes latitudes latitudes
release the conditional latitudes
instability. Which of the
following would be the
least suitable as a
trigger:
118. The following is Severe turbulence. Severe icing. Windshear. Large variations in
unlikely to be a hazard pressure setting
below a thunderstorm: values.
119. Thunderstorms are Air is unstable, Air is completely There is a warm front. There is a col in
likely if: there is sufficient stable, there is winter.
water vapour and sufficient water
there is trigger vapour and there is
action. lifting orographically.
120. How long 2-3 hours 1-2 hours 4-5 hours About 1 hour
approximately does a
Cumulonimbus cell
take to complete the
full cycle from the
Cumulus (building) to
dissipating stage:
121. A microburst usually 20 minutes 20 nm 5 minutes 5 km 30 minutes 10 nm 45 minutes 5 nm
lasts for………and is
about……….across.
122. Thunderstorms caused lapse rate air air masses frontal cold fronts air masses air masses frontal
by……….are most masses late spring activity winter autumn activity summer
common in the
summer and by……….in
the………….
123. When flying through an Above 5000' and In the clear air below In the temperature At or about 10 000 ft
active CB cloud, underneath the the cloud in rain. band between +10°C AMSL.
lightning strikes are anvil. and -10°C.
most likely:
114
124. Regarding There will always The average If the cloud base has a The number of
thunderstorms, the be windshear movement is in accord temperature below lightning flashes is
most accurate under the cloud. with the wind at 10 0°C then freezing rain directly proportional
statement amongst the 000 ft. will occur. to the degree of
following is: turbulence.
125. Advection fog is formed humid cold kept Warm moist cooler dry frozen well warm moist warmer
when……… air moves above cooled below below kept above
over a………….surface
and is………… its
dewpoint:.
126. On a night when Near the coast At the bottom of the Near the coast with a At the top of a hill
radiation fog is forming with a light hill with a light land breeze and with clear skies and
over most of southern onshore wind and katabatic wind cloudy skies. no wind.
England, the clear skies. blowing .
aerodromes likely to be
first to experience the
fog will be those
situated:
127. Radiation fog is most With a wind speed With a wind of 2-8 kt, In an anticyclone in On a hill in autumn.
likely: up to 15 kt, a clear a high density and the winter.
sky and a high summer season.
relative humidity.
128. Changes of RVR are 25 m up to 250 m 25 m up to 200 m 50 m between 300 m 50 m between 500 m
reported for and 800 m and 800 m
increments of:
129. Frontal fog is most form ahead of a form ahead of a warm form on a vigorous form to the rear of a
likely to: vigorous fast front cold front and last for warm front but only
moving cold front many hours last for 1 to 2 hours
130. Fog may be defined as: a reduction of a reduction of a reduction of a reduction of
visibility to less visibility to less than visibility to less than visibility to less than
than 1000 metres 1000 metres due to 1500 metres due to 1000 ft due to the
due to the the presence of water the presence of water presence of water
presence of water droplets in suspension droplets in suspension vapour in suspension
vapour in the in the atmosphere in the atmosphere in the atmosphere
115
atmosphere
131. .............. forms when radiation fog advection fog settles advection fog passes radiation fog settles
moist air .......... over a passes warmer cooler cooler warmer
surface which is ..........
than the dew point of
the air. Fill in the
missing 3 words from
the list given below:
132. Advection fog: Only occurs at Is most likely with Will only clear by Can sometimes last
night and early Polar Maritime air. insolation. for 24 hours or more
morning. in winter.
133. In circumstances where Radiation fog is Advection fog will Radiation fog is likely Hill fog can be
there is a clear sky, likely over night. form. at sunrise after expected.
calm wind and a high previous mist.
relative humidity in
Autumn:
134. At a station equipped Every '/2hour. When the normal When there is mist. When there is haze.
with IRVR, reports are visibility is 1500 m or
given: less.
135. At temperatures of entirely water entirely ice crystals mostly water vapour mostly supercooled
between 0°C and -10°C droplets water droplets and a
clouds will consist of: few ice crystals
136. Turbulent clouds are strong vertical strong vertical turbulent clouds turbulent clouds
most serious from the currents mean currents mean that a produce hail which indicate a low
icing standpoint that a predominance of sticks to the aircraft freezing level
because: predominance of small supercooled
large supercooled water droplets will be
water droplets will present
be present
137. Hoar frost forms on an the aircraft the aircraft in sub zero the aircraft in sub zero the aircraft suddenly
aircraft when: suddenly enters a clear air suddenly clear air suddenly enters a cloud which
cloud at below enters a colder region enters a warmer is at a higher
freezing moist region temperature than the
temperature surrounding air.
116
138. Stratus cloud of limited moderate to heavy moderate to heavy light to moderate light to moderate
depth at a temperature rime ice glaze ice rime ice glaze ice
of-5°C will most likely
give:
139. Clear ice forms as a large supercooled ice pellets splattering small supercooled water vapour
result of. water droplets on the aircraft water droplets freezing to the
spreading as they splashing over the aircraft
freeze aircraft
140. Carburettor icing is In cloud. At temperatures In clear air. When the RH is 40%.
unlikely: between -10°C and -
30°C.
141. In AS cloud at FL 170 Moderate clear Light rime icing. Hoar frost. Severe clear icing.
and a temperature of - icing.
20°C the airframe icing
most likely to be
experienced is:
142. Kinetic heating will: Increase the risk of Increase the risk of Always increase the Always decrease the
icing if it raises the icing if it raises the risk of airframe icing. risk of airframe icing.
airframe airframe temperature
temperature to to just above 0°C.
just below 0°C.
143. Frankfurt-Main EDDF : 060/18G30KT 040/15KT 060/18KT 040/10KT
The W/V at 211000 is
expected to be:
SA201720 03015KT
8000NE FEW045
SCT250 14/10 Q1016
NOSIG SA201650
03011KT 6000NE
SCT042 BKN250 15/10
Q1015 NOSIG
FC20150OZ 201601
04010KT CAVOK
117
FT20160OZ 210018
04015KT 3000HZ
BKN030 BECMG 0709
06018G30KT CAVOK
144. Zurich LSZH : The low stratus. fog. mist. showers.
reduction in visibility at
210100 is likely to be
caused by: Zurich: LSZH
SA201720 04005KT
7000 SCT016 OVC022
12/08 Q1013 NOSIG
SA201650 04008GI9KT
7000 SCTO16 SCT022
BKN040 12/08 Q1012
NOSIG FC20150OZ
201601 05005KT 6000
SCT013 OVC028
BECMG 2124 2500BR
OVCO10 FT20160OZ
210018 05005KT
2500BR OVCO10
TEMPO 0008 1500 BR
BECMG 0811 04010KT
OVCO15 PROB30
TEMPO 1218 BKN020
145. Milan/LIML : Minimum 5000m in mist. 5 km in haze. 9000m in fog. 900m in fog banks.
visibility forecast for
210500 is:Milan:
LIMLSA 201720
OOOOOKT CAVOK
16/14 Q1007 NOSIG SA
201650 OOOOOKT
CAVOK 16/15 Q1007
NOSIG FC 20170OZ
118
201803 VRB05KT 8000

SCT025 TEMPO 3000 -
RAFT 20160OZ 210018
VRB05KT 5000 SCT030
TEMPO 0206 0900
PRFG BKNO08 BECMG
1218 +RA BKN020
146. Milan/LIML : The 5,000 feet unlimited (no cloud) 2,500 feet. 3,000 feet.
lowest cloud base
expected at 201730
is:Milan: LIMLSA
201720 OOOOOKT
CAVOK 16/14 Q1007
NOSIG SA 201650
OOOOOKT CAVOK
16/15 Q1007 NOSIG FC
20170OZ 201803
VRB05KT 8000 SCT025
TEMPO 3000 -RAFT
20160OZ 210018
VRB05KT 5000 SCT030
TEMPO 0206 0900
PRFG BKNO08 BECMG
1218 +RA BKN020
147. Milan/LIML : The more than 10 km. 3000 m. 5000 m. 900 m.
lowest visibility to be
expected at 202 100
is:Milan: LIMLSA
201720 OOOOOKT
CAVOK 16/14 Q1007
NOSIG SA 201650
OOOOOKT CAVOK
20170OZ 201803
119
VRB05KT 8000 SCT025

TEMPO 3000 -RAFT
20160OZ 210018
VRB05KT 5000 SCT030
TEMPO 0206 0900
PRFG BKNO08 BECMG
1218 +RA BKN020
148. Milan/LIML : What is 3000m. 8000m. 5000m. 10km or more.
the visibility forecast to
be at LIML at
201730:Milan: LIMLSA
201720 OOOOOKT
CAVOK 16/14 Q1007
NOSIG SA 201650
OOOOOKT CAVOK
20170OZ 201803
VRB05KT 8000 SCT025
TEMPO 3000 -RAFT
20160OZ 210018
VRB05KT 5000 SCT030
TEMPO 0206 0900
PRFG BKNO08 BECMG
1218 +RA BKN020
149. An air mass that has continental air and continental air and maritime air and has a maritime air and has
travelled over an ocean has a high has a low humidity high humidity a low humidity
is known as: humidity
150. If air in transit is heated stable neutrally stable unstable none of these
from below it tends to
become more:
151. The weather associated overcast, overcast moderate broken cloud, light, broken cloud,
with polar maritime air moderate drizzle intermittent rain moderate or heavy moderate continuous
is: rain rain
152. In the N. hemisphere The wind will tend The wind will tend to The windspeed will The wind will tend to
120
when flying in the to veer in direction veer in direction with reduce progressively back in direction and
troposphere above the and increase in increase of altitude with increase of increase in speed
surface friction layer in speed with but the speed may altitude until at about with progressive
the polar maritime progressive remain constant in the 10 000 feet above increase of altitude.
airmass behind the increase of lower layers of the mean sea level where
cold front of a fully altitude. atmosphere. it will then tend to
developed frontal increase in speed
depression: from another
direction.
153. The airmasses involved Polar Maritime Tropical Maritime and Tropical Continental Polar Maritime and
in the development of and Polar Polar Continental. and Polar Maritime. Tropical Maritime.
a Polar Front Continental.
Depression are:
154. After passage of an backs stops falling veers drops rapidly veers drops or rises backs rises quickly
occluded front in the continues stops abruptly begins to dry up increases in strength
Northern Hemisphere:
Wind ………..
Temperature…………
Precipitation……………
155. With a cold occlusion: The air ahead of The warm sector The cloud type is There is a risk of CB
the warm front is remains on the predominately layer embedded in NS.
colder than the air surface. with a wide
behind the cold precipitation band.
front.
156. A warm occlusion warm air is forcing cold air is forcing cool cool air is forcing cool air is forcing cold
occurs when: cool air over cold air over warm air warm air over cold air air aloft
air
157. Tropical revolving form close to one move in a westerly move in an easterly do not form within 5
storms usually: side of the equator direction before direction before ° of the equator
and while moving recurving towards the recurving towards the
slowly in a equator nearest pole
westerly direction,
cross over to the
other hemisphere
121
158. With reference to typhoons are cyclones, occur in the hurricanes, in the hurricanes affect the
tropical revolving found in the South Bay of Bengal in South Atlantic south east of the USA
storms, which of the China sea in winter sometimes affect the in late summer
following statements is January east coast of Brazil
correct:
159. In comparison with a Always more Sometimes more Never more active. Unlikely to produce
primary depression a active. active. gale force winds.
secondary depression
is:
160. A Secondary A Polar A Col. A Summer Thermal A Polar Front Low.
Depression would form Depression. Depression over the
in association with: Mediterranean or
Caspian Sea.
161. Tropical Revolving Are always given a Have internal wind Usually have the most Regenerate after
Storms: male first name speeds of 10-20 knots severe weather in the crossing the coast
beginning with "A" rotating cyclonically quadrant to the right from sea to land
for the first of the round a subsiding of the track in a
season and clear air core known Hurricane.
thereafter named as the eye.
in alphabetical
order of
occurrence.
162. A Secondary low Cyclonically. Anticyclonically. Into the primary. At a constant
pressure system distance.
rotates around a
Primary low:
163. Flying conditions in a Always more Sometimes more Less severe than in a Relatively calm.
Secondary low pressure severe than in a severe than in a Primary low.
system are: Primary low. Primary low.
164. Tropical Revolving Do not occur in Generally move from Intensify after Occur principally in
Storms: the South Atlantic. east to west before crossing coasts. spring and early
turning towards the summer.
equator.
165. Northern hemisphere warmer than the colder than the colder than the warmer than the
122
summers tend to be: southern southern hemisphere southern hemisphere southern hemisphere
hemisphere and due to the smaller because of the large and the winters are
winters are amount of solar land masses. colder.
warmer too. radiation.
166. The effect of mountain European the Rocky mountains the Himalayas prevent the UraI mountains
barriers on temperatures are of North America warm dry air from of West Russia
temperature is low in winter prevent cold Pacific Russia reaching India prevent most of the
exemplified by the because there is air reaching inland, so and Pakistan. cold Siberian air
following: no barrier to summer temperatures reaching Europe in
prevent cold to the east of the summer.
Atlantic air mountains are high.
crossing the area.
167. Statistical pressure on average parallel on average parallel to much lower in winter higher over the
values tend to be: to the lines of the lines of latitude in in the northern oceans in winter.
latitude. the southern hemisphere than in
hemisphere and much the southern
more variable in the hemisphere.
northern hemisphere.
168. The average is always above is higher over the sea varies on average has a very high range
temperature around +40° C. areas. from winter to of temperatures
the equatorial regions: summer by only some throughout the year.
5° C.
169. Trade winds: blow towards the are caused by lifting only blow in the blow from the
sub tropical over the heat equator winter months. equatorial low
anticyclones. and the subsequent pressure systems
air movements from throughout the year.
the sub tropical
anticyclones.
170. Trade winds in the southeasterly. southeast at first in opposition to the usually from the
southern hemisphere becoming southwest. monsoons. northeast.
are:
171. The large change in the local pressure an excess of air at the change in the cyclostrophic
direction of trade differences. height in association geostrophic force force in the
winds is caused by: with the Hadley cells. when crossing the equatorial regions.
123
geographic equator.
172. Monsoons are seasonal develop due to the are never in blow only in the are from the
winds which: high pressure over combination with southeast Asia region. southeasterly
continents in trade winds. direction over the
winter and the Indian sub continent
subsequent low in summer.
pressure which
develops over the
same areas in
summer.
173. The outflow from the is northwesterly is the source of Polar is northwesterly over is evident throughout
Siberian High: over Japan, Maritime air. Japan, northeasterly the year.
northerly and over southeast Asia
northeasterly over and easterly over
China and Europe.
northerly over the
whole of India.
174. The upper winds tend the rotation of the the thermal winds are surface winds are jet streams are
to be westerly outside earth is west to westerly on average. nearly always usually westerly.
the tropics because: east. westerly.
175. Jet stream main in the warm air in the warm air some only in association in association with
locations are: some 400 nm 400 nm ahead of a with the polar front. the polar front and
ahead of a warm warm front and some with mountain
or cold front and 200 nm behind a cold waves.
near the front and near the sub
subtropical highs. tropical highs.
176. Jet streams: only occur in the have a speed in excess are located above the are caused by a large
troposphere. of 80 kt. tropopause. difference in mean
temperature in the
horizontal.
177. Near the equator upper easterly. westerly. at speeds greater than calm.
winds tend to be: 60 kt.
178. The ITCZ is: the region the boundary region the boundary a region of calm
between the two between the two between polar air and winds and layer type
124
trade wind monsoons. equatorial air. clouds with much

systems centred haze.
on the heat
equator.
179. The areas of greatest those where there in the equatorial in the polar regions. in central North
rainfall are: is much polar front regions. America in summer
depression due to the large
activity. convective cloud
formations.
180. Dust storms and haze in association with with the Haboobs in in unstable air with in temperate
are most common: the sub tropical winter. low pressure. latitudes.
anticyclones over
land.
181. The most notorious over southwest over the sea in the over Europe with high over central North
advection fogs occur: UK. region of pressure to the north. America in autumn
Newfoundland and and winter.
the Kamchatka
peninsula.
182. In the Northern Backs the Veers Constantly Backs Veers then Backs Backs then steady
Hemisphere a man
observes a low
pressure system
passing him to the
south, from west to
east. What wind will he
experience ?
183. When would a rotor Mature stage Cumulus stage Dissipating stage Initial stage
cloud be ahead of a Cb
?
184. What are the Warm moist air Cold dry air over Warm dry air over Cold moist air over
conditions under which over cold surface warm surface cold surface warm surface
advection fog will be
formed ?
185. What cloud does hail Cb Ns Cu Ci
125
fall from ?
186. What is Relative Moisture content Temperature of the Temperature and Moisture content of
Humidity dependent and temperature air pressure the air
upon? of the air
187. Where are you most In upper levels of Nimbostratus Stratus Cirrus
likely to find moderate Cumulonimbus
to severe icing ? Capillatus
188. What are the Thick Ci Thick Cb's Ns Sc
indications of a
thunderstorms from a
great distance ?
189. A characteristic of a Lapse rate of 1oC / Rising air slows down Lapse rate of Good visibility and
stable air mass 100 m and dissipates 0.3°C/100m shower
190. Which conditions lead Unstable moist air, Stable air, speed, >20 Unstable air, speed Stable air, speed
to mountain waves ? speeds <5 kts kts across the ridge >20 kts across the >30kts, parallel to the
across the ridge ridge ridge
191. Where is the coldest air Behind the cold At the junction of the In front of the Behind the warm
in a cold occlusion? front occlusion occlusion front
192. What causes low level Rain falling into Rain falling into warm Warm air passing over Cold air passing over
cloud in front of the the cold air air cold surface warm surface
warm front ?
193. Where is the largest 1n front of an Above the occlusion Behind the cold front Above the occlusion
chance of squalls active cold front along the cold front along the warm front
occurring ?
194. In the areas of the ITCZ Because it's too Because it cannot be Because it is likely to Because it is in the
why are the heights of cold measured be above your FL stratosphere
the tropopause not
reported ?
195. Description of radiation Marked increase in Marked increase in Ground cooling due to Warm air over warm
fog ground wind wind speed close to radiation surface
speed the ground
196. What is the Super cooled Ice crystals Water droplets Smoke particles
composition of Ci cloud water droplets
126
?
197. Isolated TS occur Warm frontal Cold front uplift Insulation Convection
mostly due to uplift
198. What type of cloud is St Cb Ci Ac
associated with drizzle
?
199. Fair weather cumulus Poor visibility Thunderstorms Turbulence Smooth flying below
gives an indication of
200. What type of jet stream Arctic jet Equatorial jet Polar night jet Sub tropical jet
blows constantly
through the northern
hemisphere ?
201. Why is clear ice such a Translucent and Not translucent and Very heavy and can Forms in clear air
problem ? forms along forms along leading affect aircraft controls
leading edges edges and surfaces
202. A steep pressure Isobars close Isobars far apart, Isobars close Isobars far apart,
gradient is together, decreased wind together, temperature temperature
characterized by strengthened wind increasing decreasing
203. What type of icing Light Moderate Severe extreme
requires immediate
diversion ?
204. At a stationary front Winds blow Winds blow Winds are always very Winds are usually
parallel to the perpendicular to the strong gusty and variable
isobars and front isobars
205. Sublimation is : Solid to vapour Vapour to liquid Liquid to vapour Liquid to solid
206. Standing in the Continually veer Continually back Back then veer Veer then back
Northern Hemisphere,
north of a polar frontal
depression travelling
west to east, the wind
will
207. What is the coldest 1 hr before sunrise 30 min before sunrise at exact moment of within 30 min of
time of the day ? sunrise sunrise
127
208. Which of the following warm moist air cold dry air over warm cold moist air over warm dry air over
would lead to the over cold surface, surface, clear night warm surface, cloud cold surface, cloudy
formation of Advection clear night and and light winds night with strong night with moderate
fog : light winds winds winds
209. Which of the following cold air over warm warm air over cold sea cold sea near coast warm air over land
would lead to the sea
formation of Steaming
fog :
210. When is diurnal Clear sky, still wind Clear sky, strong wind OVC, still OVC, windy
variation a maximum ?
211. Dew point is defined The lowest The lowest The temperature The temperature to
as: temperature at temperature to which below which the which moist air must
which evaporation air must be cooled in change of state for a be cooled to reach
will occur for a order to reduce the given volume of air saturation
given pressure relative humidity will result in
absorption of latent
heat
212. How do you define Horizontal Vertical movement of Same as advection Same as conduction
convection ? movement of air air
213. When is the latest time Just after dawn Late afternoon Midday Midnight
radiation fog is most
likely ?
214. What is the tropopause The layer between The boundary Where temperature Upper boundary to
? the troposphere between the increases with height C.A.T.
and mesosphere troposphere and
stratosphere
215. Where do you find the Troposphere Stratosphere Tropopause Mesosphere
majority of the air
within atmosphere ?
216. What are Lenticularis Mountain waves Instability Developing Cu and Cb Horizontal wind
clouds a possible shear in the upper
indication of ? atmosphere
217. What is the usual Request climb to Turn around Descend immediately Accelerate through it
procedure when get out of it immediately to clear it and stay level
128
encountering CAT en-

route ?
218. When are cyclones Mid Winter Late Autumn Late Summer Late Spring
most likely ?
219. In what cloud is icing Cb Ns Sc Ci
and turbulence most
severe ?
220. What will snow most Ns Ci Cs Ac
likely fall from ?
221. Rime ice is caused by: Large Super cooled Small Super cooled Slow freezing of water Rapid re-freezing of
water droplets water droplets droplets onto the large water droplets
wing
222. What is the most Dry Ice Hoar frost Clear ice Rime ice
severe form of icing ?
223. Cold occlusion is: Cold air Warm air overriding Air ahead of the warm Air behind the cold
undercutting cold air front undercutting the front undercutting
warm air air behind the cold the air in front of the
front warm front
224. Warm occlusion is: Warm air Warm air overriding Air ahead of the warm Air behind the cold
undercutting cold cold air front over riding the front over riding the
air air behind the cold air in front of the
front warm front
225. Duration of a 5 mins, 5 km 20 mins, 5 km 15 mins, 25 km 45 mins, 25 km
microburst:
226. What causes the Centrifugal force Centrifugal force Coriolis force adds to Coriolis force
Geostrophic wind to be adds to the opposes the gradient the gradient force opposes the
stronger than the gradient force force centrifugal force
gradient wind around a
low ?
227. The subtropical high 25° - 35° 10° - 15o 55° - 75° 40° - 55o
pressure belt is at
which latitude ?
228. A pilot experiences SPECI METAR TEMPO SIGMET
129
severe turbulence and

icing. A competent
met. man would issue:
229. ITCZ weather is: Thundery strong Clear Wx Showers Light winds
convergence
230. Where is the ITCZ Doesn't move Always north of the Always south of the Moves in accordance
during the year ? equator equator with the heat
equator
231. Satellite images are locate fronts in to achieve 14 day locate precipitation locate wind currents
used to: areas with few forecasts zones on the ground
ground stations
232. The degree of CAT Intensity of Intensity of solar Stability of the air Height of the aircraft
experienced by an vertical and radiation
aircraft is proportional horizontal wind
to: shear
233. Microbursts: Only affect tropical Average lifespan Typical horizontal Always associated
areas 30mins dimensions 1 - 3km with CB clouds
234. 7Which of the TS SQ SA DZ
following are described
as precipitation ?
235. Clouds classified as low 500 - 1000ft 1000 - 2000ft the surface - 6500ft 100 - 200ft
level are considered to
have a base height of:
236. Equatorial easterly jets Northern Northern Hemisphere Southern Hemisphere Southern
Hemisphere in all year all year Hemisphere
summer
237. Landing at an airfield Zero feet on Zero The elevation of the The elevation of the
with QNH set the landing only if ISA airfield if ISA airfield
pressure altimeter conditions prevail conditions prevail
reads:
238. Where are the fastest Near the eye In the wall of cloud To the right of the To the right of the
winds in a Tropical surrounding the eye track track in Hurricanes
Revolving Storm ? and Cyclones
130
239. What type of cloud is St Ac Cc Ns

usually found at high
level ?
240. The QNH is 1030Hpa Drops by 510ft Rises by 510ft Rises Drops
and at the Transition
Level you set the SPS.
What happens to your
indicated altitude?
241. Altostratus is A low level cloud A medium level cloud A high level cloud A heap type cloud
242. Which of the following GR SN FZFG Modearte Freezing
would give you the Rain
worst airframe icing ?
243. Small super cooled Freeze on impact Partially freezing and Freeze on impact Partially freezing and
water droplets hit the giving clear ice running back giving giving rime ice running back giving a
aerofoil, will it clear ice cloudy rime ice
244. What causes wind ? Difference in Rotation of the earth Frontal systems Difference in
pressure temperature
245. Where are icing TAF METAR SIGMET GAFFO
conditions on a runway
specified ?
246. Where are icing TAF and METAR METAR and SIGMET SWC (sig. weather. SPECI and TREND
conditions on route chart) and SIGMET
specified ?
247. ICAO statement no Light Moderate Severe Extreme
diversion necessary,
de-icing is not required
or is effective; the icing
in this case is
248. What is subsidence ? Horizontal motion Vertical down draught Vertical up draught of Adiabatic cooling
of air of air air
249. Moderate turbulence Alto-cumulus Cirrocumulus Nimbostratus Stratus
can be expected in Lenticularis
250. RVR is Measured using Displayed in TAF=s Usually greater than Given when the met
131
ceilometers along and METAR=s met visibility visibility is below

the runway 2000m
251. Relative humidity Warmer air Warm air at a Cold air at a constant Colder air compared
increases in compared to constant vapour vapour pressure to warmer air
colder air pressure
252. Super cooled water Clouds only Clouds, fog and Precipitation and Precipitation
droplets are found in precipitation clouds
253. What would be Fog Hail Cloud Mist
reflected to radar ?
254. Turbulence is worst in a In the core Along the axis of the Along the axis of the Between the
Jet stream core to the right core to the left boundaries of the
cold and warm air
255. Low level wind shear is At the At the condensation At the top of the At the top of a
likely to be greatest condensation level level when there is no friction layer during surface based
when there is a night radiation strong solar radiation inversion during
strong surface strong night radiation
friction
256. TEMPO TS indicates TS that will last for TS that will last for a TS that will last for at TS that will last for
the entire period max of 1 hr in each least 30 mins less than 30 mins
indicated instance
257. What is a microburst? Air descending at Air is descending at A small Tropical A small depression
high speed, the air high speed; the air is Revolving Storm with high wind
is colder than the warmer than the speeds
surrounding air surrounding air
258. Clear ice is most likely -10°C to -17°C -30°C to -40°C -20°C to -30°C -40°C to -60°C
to form
259. Where do you get Rain hitting the Rain falling into Rain falling from an Rain falling into
freezing rain ? ground and warmer air inversion into an area colder air and
freezing on impact below 0°C freezing into pellets
260. Which of the following -2°C to -15°C -15°C to -20°C -25°C to -30°C Near freezing level
is worst for icing ?
261. Which of the following Dry air Moist air Cold air Warm air
will give the greatest
132
difference between
temperature and dew
point ?
262. CB cloud in summer Water droplets Ice crystals Water droplets, ice Water droplets and
contains crystals and super ice crystals
cooled water droplets
263. In an METAR the cloud MSL Aerodrome level The measuring station The highest point
height is above within SKm
264. What is the technical Inversion Advection Adiabatic Subsidence
term for an increase in
temperature with
altitude ?
265. What units are used to m/sec kts kts/100ft kms/100ft
measure vertical wind
shear ?
266. How is QFE determined Using the Using the Using the elevation Using the
from QNH ? temperature of temperature temperature at MSL
the airfield and the and the elevation of
elevation of the the airfield
airfield
267. Which cloud would NS AS CS CB
produce showers ?
268. What clears radiation Temperature drop Wind speed decreases Wind speed increases Mixing
fog ?
269. On a surface weather QNH QFE QFF QNE
chart, isobars are lines
of
270. A cold pool over land in Clear skies Low stratus with A potentially very Extensive industrial
summer would give rise intermittent rain unstable atmosphere haze
to:
271. Near industrial areas Low level inversion Strong winds Fast moving cold Cb's in the area
with lots of smoke fronts
what the worst
situation is for met vis:
133
272. Upper level winds are True/knots Magnetic/knots Magnetic/km/h True/km/h2

forecast in significant
weather charts as:
273. METAR winds are 10 minute 30 minute 1 hour 1 minute
meaned over
the.............. period
immediately preceding
the time of
observation.
274. Main TAF's at large 1 hour 2 hours 6 hours 24 hours
aerodromes are valid
for approximately:
275. The most severe in- Cb Cu Ns FZRA
flight icing occurs in:
276. RVR is defined as being The maximum The maximum The maximum The distance it would
distance an distance a pilot in the distance in metres a be possible to see an
observer on the threshold area at 15ft pilot 15ft above the observer 15ft above
runway can see above the runway can touchdown zone can the runway when
marker boards by see marker boards by see marker boards by standing in the
day and runway day or runway lights day and runway lights direction of take-off
lights by night by night, when by night in the or landing.
looking in the direction of take-off
direction of take-off
or landing.
277. What type of cloud As Ace Ns Ci
extends into another
level ?
278. Ceilometers measure RVR Cloud height Met Vis Turbulence
279. In a METAR, the QFE rounded up to QFE rounded down to QNH rounded up to QNH rounded down
pressure group the nearest the nearest the nearest to the nearest
represents hectopascal hectopascal hectopascal hectopascal
280. On a Station circle 8 parts 6 parts 4 parts 10 parts
decode, the cloud
134
cover is divided into

281. Which of the following Always more than Always less than Never 1013.25 hPa Can never be above
is true ? QNH is: 1013.25 hPa 1013.25 hPa or below 1013 hPa
282. Radiation fog extends 5000ft 2000ft 10,000ft 800ft
from the surface to:
283. Low level inversions Good vis at night Good vis in the Poor vis due to the Poor vis because of
morning lack of vertical moving the lack of horizontal
air movement of air
284. A forecast trend Aerodrome and Route and valid for 24 SPECI and valid for 2 Landing and valid for
valid for 9 hours hours hours 2 hour
285. On rare occasions TS The warm sector The warm sector The cold air being The cold air being
can be found along the being stable being unstable stable unstable
warm front. What
conditions could lead
to this ?
286. Where are down Mature Dissipating Initial Cumulus
draughts predominant
in a thunderstorm ?
287. What is FG V V 100 ? RVR less than RVR less than 100ft Vertical visibility is Vertical visibility is
100m 100m 100ft
288. Where would an close to station, on the roof of the 10 m above next to the runway, 1
anemometer be placed 2m above ground station aerodrome elevation m above ground
? on a mast
289. The ITCZ is best The area where Where west winds Where Harmattan Where cold fronts
described as: trade winds from meet subtropical high meets the N.E. Trade form in the tropics
the Northern pressure zone winds
Hemisphere meets
those from the
Southern
Hemisphere
290. What is the average 2,000 ft 500 ft 5,000 ft 10,000 ft
vertical extent of
radiation fog ?
135
291. Where is clear ice most Near the freezing -2°C to -15°C -20°C to -40°C Below -40°C
likely in a Cb ? level
292. Radiation fog extends 8,000 ft 4,000 ft 2,000 ft 500 ft
to:
293. In association with CB Ground to FL 100 Ground to FL200 Cloud base to FL200 Ground to FL450
in temperate latitudes,
at about what levels
can hail be anticipated
?
294. Moderate Turbulence Changes in altitude Slight erratic changes Large, abrupt changes Slight, rapid and
and/or attitude in altitude and/or in altitude and/or somewhat rhythmic
occur but the attitude attitude. Aircraft bumpiness.
aircraft remains in maybe momentarily
positive control at out of control
all times
295. ATIS reports: Aerodrome Met only Operational only None of the above
operational and
meteorological
information
296. +TSRA come from what Cb Ns Cc Cu
sort of cloud ?
297. As an active cold front Increases then Fluctuates by 50 ft Decreases then Remains unchanged
passes, the altimeter of decreases increases
an a/c parked on the
apron
298. Where does a Energy gained Latent heat from The very fast winds The very low
thunderstorms gain its directly from the water in oceans pressures inside the
energy from ? sun storm
299. What is the height and 8km and -40°C at 16km and -75°C at 16km and -40°C at 8 km and -75°C at
temperature of Equator Equator Pole Pole
Tropopause ?
300. What is the Easterly a wave of weather a wave of weather a wave of weather a wave of weather
wave ? traveling east-west traveling west-east traveling north-south traveling south-north
136
301. Where is icing worst ? Near condensation Near freezing level -2°C to -15 °C -16°C to -30°C
level
302. What is the base of alto 0-1500Ft 1500-7000 Ft 7000-15000 Ft 7000-16500 Ft
cumulus in summer ?
303. What happens to an increases decreases increases then remains the same
aircraft altimeter on decreases
the ground once a cold
front has passed ?
304. What happens to an increases then decreases then remains the same increases
aircrafts altimeter on decreases increases
the ground at the
approach of a cold
front?
305. Which of these Ice will occur going Large amounts of icing Icing increases if dry Icing will occur if
statements about icing through cirrus if temperature is way snow starts to fall super-cooled water
is correct ? cloud below -12°C from cloud and ice are present
306. Trade winds are most Upper Lower troposphere Lower troposphere Upper troposphere
prominent or strongest troposphere over over ocean over land over land
sea
307. On a significant Front speed is 5kts Front movement is Front thickness is 5km front is 5000ft AMSL
weather chart you 5nm
notice a surface
weather front with an
arrow labelled with the
no. 5 pointing outward
perpendicular from the
front. This would
indicate
308. With all other things Anticyclonic Cyclonic Where the isobars are Wherever the PGF is
being equal with a high closest together greatest.
and a low having
constantly spaced
circular isobars. Where
is the wind the fastest.
137
309. Foehn winds are Warm katabatic Cold katabatic Warm descending Warm anabatic
winds
310. The Gust Front is Characterised by Formed by the cold another name for a Directly below a TS
frequent lightning outflow from beneath cold front
TS
311. Cu is an indication of vertical movement stability the approach of a the approach of a
of air warm front cold front
312. Which clouds are St, As Cb, Cc Cu, Ns Cu, Cb
evidence of stable air ?
313. What is the most Freezing pellets Freezing rain and Freezing graupel Freezing hail and
common freezing freezing drizzle freezing snow
precipitation ?
314. Which of the following Bora Harmattan Chinook Ghibli
is an example of a
Foehn wind ?
315. Where do you find 300mb chart 700mb chart Sig. WX chart Analysis chart
information on ICING
and CAT ?
316. When is pressure In standard When surface When the When the indicated
altitude equal to true conditions pressure is temperature is altitude is equal to
altitude ? 1013.25mb standard the pressure altitude
317. Where would a pilot On an Upper Air On a Significant On a Surface Analysis On a
find information about chart Weather chart chart Wind/Temperature
the presence of a jet chart
stream ?
318. Thunderstorms will When air is cold When air is warm When air is cold moist When air is warm
occur on a warm front: moist and cools moist and cools and cools slower than moist and cools
quicker than SALR quicker than SALR SALR slower than DALR
319. Which frontal or Warm front Cold front Cold occlusion Warm occlusion
occlusion system is the
fastest moving ?
320. On a significant The height of the Tropopause "low" Tropopause "high" Tropopause "middle"
weather chart you significant weather
138
notice a symbol with chart

the letter "H" and the
number "400" inside.
What does this imply ?
321. What is true about the Can be higher or Can be higher than Can be only lower Can be equal to or
dew point temperature lower than the air the temperature of than the temperature lower than the
? mass temperature the air mass only of the air mass temperature of the
air mass
322. What weather might 8 oktas of layered Scattered ST Isolated CB's and Continuous rain
you expect behind a cloud showers
fast moving cold front ?
323. How would an unstable By mist By haze By rain and or snow Low stratus
atmosphere likely
reduce the visibility ?
324. What is a SPECI ? A forecast valid for A report produced A forecast and valid A landing forecast
3 hours when significant for 6 hours
changes have
occurred
325. Where are easterly and Northern Southern hemisphere Northern and There are no easterly
westerly jets found ? hemisphere only only southern hemisphere jets.
326. Thermal lows usually Over the sea in Over the sea in Over the land in Over the land in
develop summer. winter. summer. winter.
327. TAF's are usually valid For the period For 18 hours For 24 hours. For 8 hours.
for indicated in the
TAF itself
328. The surface wind The doldrums The trade winds The easterlies The westerlies
circulation found
between the sub
tropical highs and the
equatorial lows are
called?
329. An occlusion is Behind the original Behind the original In front of the In front of the
mimicking a cold front, cold front. warm front occlusion. original warm front.
where would the
139
coldest air be found ?

330. In a high pressure The winds tend to The angle between The winds tend to be The winds tend to be
systems be stronger in the the isobars and the stronger at night. stronger in early
morning. wind direction is afternoon.
greatest in the
afternoon.
331. Over flat dry land what Orographic uplift. Convective uplift Release of latent heat. Advection.
would cause cloud ? during the day.
332. When would the Land in summer Land in winter Sea in summer Sea in winter
strongest convection
occur ?
333. Which way does a Direction of the 90 degrees to the Towards the east Direction of the
depression move ? isobars in the plane of the warm isobars behind the
warm sector front cold front
334. Freezing rain is most Warm front in Cold front in summer Warm front in winter cold front in winter
likely from summer
335. What is the validity of a 3 hrs 6 hrs 9 hrs 12 hrs
significant weather
chart
336. What is haze ? poor visibility due poor visibility due to poor visibility due to all of the above
to drizzle rain dust or sand
337. What do the letters NO No significant No significant weather No significant cloud No signature on
SIG mean at the end of change report
a METAR ?
338. What is a trend An aerodrome A routine report A landing forecast A route forecast,
forecast forecast valid for 9 appended to a valid for 24 hours.
hours METAR/SPECI valid for
2 hours.
339. How does clear ice SWD's speading on Ice pellets shattering Frost on the wing Water vapour
form ? impact on impact freezing on the
aircraft surface.
340. Where is windshear the Near a strong low ear a valley with wind On the windward side When the wind is
greatest? level inversion and speeds greater than of a mountain greater than 35kts
140
in the region of a 35kts

thunderstorm
341. Where do you find Where there are Ahead of a fast Foggy areas Regions of snow
squall lines thunderstorms moving cold front
342. A Fohn wind occurs On the windward On the leeward side, On the windward side, On the leeward side,
side caused by because the caused by surface caused by
surface heating condensation level is cooling and wind flow precipitation
higher reversal
343. What is true about It will occur in Always occurs in AS May occur in the Most likely in NS
moderate to severe clear sky cloud uppermost levels of
airframe icing conditions CB capillatus
formation
344. An aircraft flies into an Clear Rime Hoar frost Granular frost
area of supercooled
rain with a
temperature below
zero, what kind of icing
is most likely
345. What causes Height Latitude Centripetal Force Friction
convection in a low
pressure system
346. Which of these They are 400- They pick up in force The air inside is They are never found
statements is true 500m wide. when they hit land . warmer than outside more than 25°
about Hurricanes? and can reach up to latitude.
tropopause.
347. Where is the ITCZ in 25 N over the 10 - 20 N over East 10 - 30 N over West 20 - 30 N over East
July ? Atlantic Africa and the Arabian Africa Africa
sea
348. Above a stable layer in radiation inversion subsidence inversion frontal inversion terrestrial inversion
the lower troposphere
in an old high pressure
system is called:
349. The figures “9999” in a 8 km 10 km or more 5 km 12 km
meteorological forecast
141
or report means -
350. Where is the ozone ionosphere Stratosphere Tropopause Troposphere
layer ?
351. The core of a jet stream a)At the level In the warm air where In the warm and In cold air .
located – where the pressure surface is directly beneath at
temperature horizontal . the surface .
change with
altitude becomes
little or nil and the
pressure surface is
at a maximum
slope .
352. What happens to an Increases Decreases Increases then Remain the same
aircrafts altimeters on decreases
the ground ones a cold
front has passed ?
353. Relative humidity Warmer air Warm air at a Cold air at a constant Colder air compared
increases in compared to constant vapour vapour pressure to warmer air
colder air pressure
354. In which part of the Caribbean Madagascar, eastern North West Pacific – Northern Indian
world are Tropical Indian ocean . Japan , Korea, Ocean around India,
Revolving Storms most Southeast Asia . Srilanka.
frequent ?
355. An early morning fog May drift over the will always disperse will always remain will always remain
over the sea lasts all land over the sea over the land.
day. As the land heats
up, the sea fog -
356. Satellite Data Radar imageries Meteorological data Telecommunication Rainfall
Distribution System distribution system system measurement system
(SADIS) is a system for
distribution of :-
357. Bangladesh 3 Radar 4 Radar 5 Radar 2 Radar station
Meteorological
142
Department has :
358. Radar is used for :- Wind direction Sea surface Detection cyclone and Detection of soil
and speed temperature cloud movement moisture
359. 5, 6 and 7 octas cloud is OVC BKN SCT FEW
express as :
360. Synoptic surface 2 hours interval 3 hours interval 4 hours interval 6 hours interval
observation are
generally taken every :
361. For a short range Satellite Radar observation Radio sonde Ship observation
weather forecast which observation observation
observation is more
effective :
362. Which seasons is called NE monsoon SW monsoon Pre-monsoon Retreating monsoon
transition period :-
363. Maximum frequency of March April May June
Nor’wester in Dhaka
during the month of :-
364. Which type of Type-A Type-B Type-C Type-D
Nor’wester reaches
upto Meghna estuary
through Rajshahi
Division :-
365. In the month of June Delhi Dhaka Karachi Kolkata
tropical revolving storm
in the Arabian sea may
affect :-
366. After passing western Tropical cyclone Morning fog Tornado Heat wave
disturbance the
weather phenomena
occurs :-
367. Most of the active Primary Secondary Tertiary None of the above
western disturbance
that comes towards
143
Bangladesh are :-
368. Western disturbance N/NE-ward South-SE ward E/NE-wards North to South ward
do not precisely travel
west to east but their
normal track is slightly
:-
369. On set date of SW 1st week of July 1st week of June 1st week of October 1st week of May
monsoon in Bangladesh
is :-
370. The winter rainfall in South-west Nor’wester North-East monsoon Western disturbance
India-Pakistan and monsoon
Bangladesh is mostly
due to :-
371. Pre-monsoon season in June to September March to May December to February October to
Bangladesh is :- November
372. A mamatus sky often a)Cyclone Tornado Monsoon Western disturbance
gives warning for the
formation of :-
373. Tornado often travels Straight way Horizontal way Erratic and skipping North to south way
in a :- way
374. Before issuing forecast Only TAF TAF and METAR All charts, Satellite None of the above
a Meteorological data, significant
officer follows :- weather chart etc
375. Bangladesh is Pre-monsoon NE monsoon season SW monsoon season Retreating monsoon
Charecterize by High season season
Pressure during:
376. When would a SIGMET Thunderstorms Severe mountain Solar Flare activity. Moderate turbulence
be issued be for and fog. waves . .
subsonic flights.
377. The average eye of a 30-40 miles 15-20 miles 10-15 miles 40-50 miles
tropical cyclone is :
378. Which of the following Nitrogen Oxygen Water vapor Hydrogen.
constituents in the
144
atmosphere has the

greatest effect on
weather :-
379. Ascent of balloon at A torch light A lantern attached to A charger light A electric bulb
night by observing : the balloon
380. Which is likely to cause +RA SA FG DS
aquaplaning ?
381. With the approach of a QNH/QFE QNH/QFE increase QNH decrease and QNH increase and
warm front ? decreases QFE increases QFE decreases
382. For carburetor ice to Bellow freezing Moist Dry Cold and moist
form , the outside air
must be -
383. Air at the upper levels Rise in pressure Rise in pressure with Fall in pressure with Fall in pressure with
of the atmosphere is with clouds clouds dissipating cloud dissipating cloud forming.
diverging, what would dissipating
you expect at he
surface ?
384. What causes the Water vapour that Spot particles from Water vapour that Un burnt fuel
formation of aircraft condenses behind the engine exhaust condenses in the wing
contrails at certain the engines tips due to pressure
altitudes ? changes in the relative
warm air
385. If ice forms over the Zero Too fast Too slow Correctly
static vent of an
aeroplane and blocks it
during the climb , the
air speed indicator will
read
386. Flying into an area climb, even though Descend into warmer maintin track and turn back
where the cloud base is it means entering air, but continue on. level .
lowering to within cloud.
1000ft of the terrain ,
ice starts to form on
the wings your course
145
of action is to -
387. Weather formation for Through the post By radio Via the public From ATC prior to
certain aerodromes is telephone network. flight.
available in recorded
form on the VOLMET
service -
388. With the approach of a Decrease Remain the same Increase Decrease then
cold front, temp. will increase
389. A weather forecast is -- an observer a prediction a landing forecast a trend forecast
---------
390. A trough of low convergence divergence causing subsidence causing subsidence causing
pressure is generally causing increased increased cloud and increased cloud and decreased cloud and
associated with: cloud and precipitation precipitation precipitation
precipitation
391. A ridge of high pressure convergence divergence causing divergence causing divergence and
is generally associated causing increased increased cloud and cloud to break up and subsidence causing
with: cloud and precipitation more precipitation clear skies and good
precipitation weather
392. A small low established a trough a col an anticyclone a secondary
within the circulation of depression
another low is called
393. An area of a trough a ridge a col a saddle
indeterminate pressure
between two lows and
two highs is called:
394. A trough of low a trougha small a ridgean extension or a centre of pressure an area where the
pressure is: low established elongation of a low surrounded on all pressure is lower
within the pressure system along sides by higher than anywhere else
circulation of an axis on each side of pressure in the area
another low which pressure
increases
395. A Katabatic wind can An increase in Fog in the valley at Thunderstorms in Stratus cloud.
result in: temperature. night summer.
146
Navigation
1. The maximum range at 200 nm 219 nm 175 nm 198 nm
which an aircraft at
FL250 can receive
transmissions from a
VHF R/T station at 300
ft is:
2. The greatest range for 198 KHz 121.5 MHz 2,182 KHz 4,300 MHz
a surface wave will be
at a frequency of:
3. The reduction in the Dissipation Diffraction Attenuation Refraction
power available in a
radio wave as the
distance from a
transmitter increases is
known as:
4. An advantage of FM Less susceptible to Smaller bandwidth Easier to demodulate More suitable for use
when compared with static interference (ie extract at lower frequencies
AM is: information)
5. Which of the following 121.5 MHz 500 KHz 4,300 MHz 5,500 KHz
frequencies is likely to
experience the most
severe static
interference?
6. The highest levels of At high latitudes in At low latitudes in At high latitudes in At low latitudes in
ionisation will be summer summer winter winter
found:
7. Concerning skywave The D-layer The D-layer The D-layer The D-layer
propagation, which of attenuates LF and attenuates LF and MF attenuates HF attenuates HF
the following is MF frequencies by frequencies by day. frequencies by night. frequencies by day.
correct? night.
147
8. The phenomenon of is most marked at can be minimised by can be minimised by is most marked one
coastal refraction night. using beacons taking bearings where hour before to one
which affects the situated well inland. the signal crosses the hour after sunrise
accuracy of ADF coastline at right and sunset.
bearings: angles.
9. ADF Quadrantal Error is static build up on the aircraft's major station interference NDB signals speeding
caused by: the airframe and electrical axis, the and/or night effect. up and bending as
St. Elmo's Fire. fuselage, reflecting they cross from a
and re-radiating the land to water
incoming NDB propagation path.
transmissions.
10. The magnitude of the selecting beacons only using beacons choosing NON A2A choosing beacons on
error in position lines situated well within the designated beacons. or near the coast.
derived from ADF inland. operational coverage.
bearings that are
affected by coastal
refraction may b
reduced by:
11. Each NDB has a range day ± 5 ° night ± 10° day ± 6 ° night ± 5 °
promulgated in the
COMM section of the
Air Pilot. Within this
range interference
from other NDBs
should not cause
bearing errors in excess
of:
12. In an ADF system, night during long winter when the aircraft is at when the aircraft is at at dusk and dawn.
effect is most nights. low altitude. high altitude.
pronounced:
13. The principal skywave surface wave direct wave ducted wave
propagation path
employed in an
NDB/ADF system is:
148
14. The Designated Is only applicable Guarantees a Defines the airspace Is determined by the
Operational Coverage by day. Protection Ratio of at within which an type of surface over
quoted for VOR least 3 to 1 by day and aircraft is assured of which the signal will
beacons in the COMM night. protection from have to travel.
section of the Air Pilot: interference from
other VORs on the
same channel.
15. A Conventional VOR: has an FM has a 150Hz has an AM reference has an AM reference
reference signal reference signal and a signal and a 150 Hz signal and an FM
and an AM 90Hz variable signal variable signal variable signal.
variable signal.
16. Concerning There is no way of The DVOR will always The DVOR has a The conventional
conventional and knowing from the have a "D" in the higher pitch ident VOR has less site
Doppler VORs (DVOR), instrumentation ident. than the standard error.
which of the following display which type VOR.
is correct? is being used.
17. A VOR beacon ceases The beacon may The beacon is This is a temporary The beacon is under
to transmit its normal be used providing undergoing short range test and pilots using
identification which is that extreme maintenance or transmission and will it should report its
substituted by'TST'. caution is used. calibration and should have approximately accuracy to air traffic
This means that: not be used. half its normal range. control.
18. An aircraft is required 064 to get correct 244 to get correct 064 to get correct 244 to get correct
to intercept and home needle sense and a needle sense and a TO needle sense and a needle sense and a
to a VOR along the 064 TO indication. indication. FROM indication. FROM indication.
Radial. The OBS should
be set to:
19. An aircraft wishes to 274 264 94 84
track towards a VOR
along the 274 radial. If
variation is 10° W what
should be set on the
OBS ?
20. A VOR receiver in an 140 40 320 220
aircraft measures the
149
phase difference from

a DVOR as 220°. Which
radial is the aircraft on?
21. The normal maximum plus or minus V plus or minus 2° plus or minus 5° plus or minus 10°
error which might be
expected with a VOR
bearingis:
22. The coverage of an ILS 10° 35 35° 10 35° 17 25° 25
localiser extends to
either side of the on
course line out to a
range of nm.
23. The upper and lower 6.125° 1.575° 7.700° 1.225° 5.250° 1.350° 3.850° 3.150°
limits of an ILS glide
path transmitter having
a 3.5° glide slope are:
24. The minimum angle at 6 degrees 5.35 degrees normal glide slope normal glide slope
which a false glide path times 1.75 times 0.70
is likely to be
encountered is:
25. The visual and aural continuous low continuous high alternating medium one letter in Morse
indications obtained pitched dashes pitched dots with pitch dots and dashes with synchronised
when overflying an ILS with synchronised synchronised amber with amber light. white light.
middle marker are: blue light. light.
26. In elevation the upper 0.35° 0.70° 3.00° at least 6° 5.25° 1.35° 10.0° 35.0°
and lower limits of an
ILS glide path
transmitter having a
3.0 degree glide slope
are:
27. A category 2 ILS provides accurate has a steep glide path, provides accurate has a false glide path
installation : guidance down to normally 7.5°. guidance down to the that is exactly twice
50' above the runway and along the the true glide path
horizontal plane runway after landing. angle.
150
containing the
runway threshold.
28. An aircraft tracking to will receive false will not normally will receive signals can expect signals to
intercept the ILS on-course or receive signals. without coding. give correct
localiser inbound on reverse sense indications.
the approach side but signals.
outside the published
coverage angle:
29. The outer marker of an alternating dots continuous dots at a continuous dashes at continuous dashes at
ILS installation has a and dashes on a rate of 3 per second, a rate of 2 per second, a rate of 2 per
visual identification of: blue light. blue light. amber light. second, blue light.
30. The coverage of the ILS ± 8° out to 1 Onm ± 10° out to 8nm ± 12° out to 17nm ± 35° out to 25nm
glideslope in azimuth
is:
31. To double the range of 2 4 8 16
a primary radar would
require the power to
be increased by a
factor of.
32. To improve the a narrow pulse a high frequency and a wide beamwidth a low frequency and
resolution of a radar width and a a large reflector and a wide pulse a narrow pulse width
display requires: narrow beam width
width
33. An advantage of a better resolution less power required reduced sidelobes all of the above
phased array (slotted and clutter
antenna) is:
34. The factor which limits pulse repetition transmitter power pulse width pulse repetition
the minimum detection interval frequency
range of a radar is:
35. The bearing of a phase comparison searchlight principle lobe comparison DF techniques
primary radar is
measured by:
36. When carrying out a 0.5 nm 2 nm 3 nm 5 nm
precision radar
151
approach, talkdown
normally ceases atnm
from touchdown:
37. A ground based radar an Airfield Surface a Precision Approach an Airfield Surface a high resolution
with a scanner rotation Movement Radar. Movement Indicator Surveillance
of 60rpm, a beam Indicator with a with a theoretical Approach Radar.
width in the order of .5 theoretical range range of 16nm.
° and a PRF of of 8nm.
10000pps would be:
38. The SHF band has been the EHF band the attenuation the EHF band is not target discrimination
selected for Airfield causes caused by suitable for the using the SHF band is
Surface Movement unacceptable precipitation is provision of the very better.
Indicator (ASMI) radars radiation hazards greater in the EHF narrow beams needed
in preference to the to personnel. band and reduces the for an ASMI radar.
EHF band because: radar's effective range
and usefulness.
39. The correct sequence red yellow green. yellowgreen red. green yellow red. red green yellow.
of colours of a colour
Airborne Weather
Radar as returns get
stronger is:
40. A false indication of flying over land flying over there is cloud and attempting to use the
water may be given by with the Land/Sea mountainous terrain. precipitation between mapping beam for
the Airborne Weather switch in the Sea the aircraft and a mapping in excess of
Radar display when: position. cloud target. 50 nm.
41. The antenna of an in pitch, roll and in pitch and roll. in pitch and roll in pitch and roll but
Airborne Weather yaw. whether the only when 0° tilt has
Radar is stabilised: stabilisation is on or been selecte
off.
42. The colours used to black, yellow, black, green, yellow, grey, green, yellow, black, green, yellow,
denote variations in green, magenta magenta red. red
rainfall rate on an
Airborne Weather
Radar screen are.... for
152
very light or no returns,

...... for light returns,.....
for medium returns
and .... for strong
returns.
43. The special SSR codes 7700; 7600; 7500. 7500; 7700; 7600;. 7600; 7500; 7700. 7500; 7600; 7700.
are as follows:
emergency , radio
failure, unlawful
interference with the
conduct of the flight
44. If the SSR transponder it causes a an identification pulse an identification an identification
IDENT button is momentary is automatically and pulse is automatically pulse is automatically
pressed distinctive display continuously and continuously and continuously
to appear on the transmitted for 20 transmitted for 10 transmitted for 20
controller's screen. seconds, 4.35p sec seconds, 4.35p sec seconds, 4.35p sec
before the last after the last framing after the last framing
framing pulse. pulse. pulse.
45. The SSR code which is 7500 7600 7700 2000
appropriate for a UK
FIR (inbound) crossing,
where no other
"squawk" has been
allocated is:
46. A DME transponder each aircraft DME transmits and it will only accept the DME only responds
does not respond to transmits pulses at receives on different unique twin DME to the strongest 100
pulses received from a random rate. frequencies. pulses. interrogators.
radars other than DME
because:
47. A DME receiver is able DME is secondary DME transponders Each aircraft When DME is in the
to distinguish between radar and each reply to interrogations transmits pulses at a search mode it will
replies to its own aircraft transmits with twin pulses and random rate and will only accept pulses
interrogations and and receives on a the airborne only accept giving the correct
replies to other aircraft different equipment ejects all synchronised replies. range.
153
because: frequency. other pulses.

48. When a DME it reverts to it increases the it increases the it goes into a
transponder becomes standby. number of pulse pairs receiver threshold to selective response
saturated: to meet the demand. remove weaker mode of operation.
signals.
49. DME is a ...... radar primary SHF CW secondary UHF twin secondary SHF primary UHF pulse
operating in the ...... signals pulses "jittered pulses" pairs
band and uses ....... in
order to obtain range
information. The
correct words to
complete the above
statement are:
50. DME and VOR are the same receiver the VOR transmitter is "cockpit workload" is both ground
"frequency paired" can be used for easily converted to reduced. transmitter aerials
because: both aids. the required DIVE can be placed on the
frequency. same site if require
51. A DME receiver is able DME is a DME transponders each aircraft when DME is in the
to distinguish between secondary radar reply to interrogations transmits pulses at a range search mode it
replies to its own and each aircraft by means of twin random will accept only
interrogation pulses transmits and pulses and the rate("jittering") and pulses separated by +
and those intended for receives on a airborne equipment will only accept or - 63MHz from the
other aircraft using the different rejects all single replies that match this interrogation
same transponder frequency. pulses. randomisation. frequency.
because:
52. The minimum number 3 4 5 6
of satellites required
for a 3D fix is:
53. The purpose of the identify the pass the almanac data pass the navigation pass the ephemeris
pseudo-random noise satellites and system data and time information
codes in NAVSTAR/GPS
is to:
54. The minimum number 3 4 5 6
of satellites required
154
for receiver
autonomous integrity
monitoring is:
55. The most accurate NAVSTAR/GPS & TRANSIT & COSPAS/SARSAT & NAVSTAR/GPS &
satellite fixing GLONASS NAVSTAR/GPS GLONASS COSPAS/SARSAT
information will be
obtained from:
56. The position derived selective propagation, selective GDOP, static ephemeris, GDOP,
from NAVSTAR/GPS availability, availability, ephemeris interference, siting
satellites may be skywave instrument
subject to the following interference,
errors: GDOP
57. The availability of two removes SV reduces propagation reduces errors caused removes receiver
frequencies in GNSS: ephemeris and errors by GDOP clock errors
clock errors
58. The NAVSTAR/GPS A geo-centred 3D A geo-centred 3D A geo-centred 3D A geo-centred 3D
reference system is: Cartesian co- Cartesian co-ordinate Cartesian co-ordinate system based on
ordinate system system fixed with system fixed with latitude, longitude
fixed with reference to the reference to space and altitude
reference to the prime meridian,
sun equator and pole
59. The initial range receiver clock receiver and satellite receiver and satellite receiver and satellite
calculation at the errors clock errors clock errors and clock errors and
receiver is known as a propagation errors ephemeris errors
pseudo-range, because
it is not yet corrected
for:
60. An all in view receiver: informs the checks all the requires 5 satellites uses all the satellites
operator that all satellites in view and to produce a 4D fix in view for fixing
the satellites selects the 4 with the
required for fixing best geometry for
and RAIM are in fixing
available
61. When using GNSS to barometric GPS altitude Radio altimeter Either barometric or
155
carry out a non- altitude height radio altimeter

precision approach the altitude
MDA will be
determined using:
62. If an aircraft the accuracy will the accuracy will be the receiver will the receiver will
manoeuvre puts a be unaffected temporarily automatically select maintain lock using
satellite being used for downgraded another satellite with signals reflected from
fixing into the wing no degradation in other parts of the
shadow then: positional accuracy aircraft with a small
degrading of
positional accuracy
63. Which of the following satellite time is the the satellite runs its the satellite runs its satellite time is based
statements concerning same as UTC own time based on own time based on on sidereal time
NAVSTAR/GPS time is seconds and weeks seconds and weeks
correct? which is independent which is correlated
of UTC with UTC
64. The advantage of a target definition is system range differentiation all of the above
narrow beam in a improved. (ignoring any PRF between adjacent advantages apply.
primary pulsed radar limitations) is targets is more likely
system is that: improved to occur.
65. The middle marker of alternating dots alternating dots and alternating dots and high pitch dots.
an ILS system has an and dashes at dashes at 1300Hz. dashes at 3000Hz.
audible code which is: 400Hz.
66. SELCAL functional only on the ground on initial contact and with the local ATCC when crossing the
check must be made: before departure when entering an area before take-off. coast inboun
of a flight into an where SELCAL is
area where SELCAL available.
is available
67. When using an areas where high areas of moderate or areas of probable areas of
Airborne Weather concentrations of severe turbulence. windshear. thunderstorm
Radar in the weather large water activity.
mode the strongest droplets exist.
returns on the screen
indicate:
156
68. Operational precision precision instrument precision instrument ILS approach and
Performance Category instrument approach and landing; approach and landing; landing; DH; 60m
2 is awith a -lower approach and DH; 60m (200ft) but DH; 30m (100ft) or no (200ft) but not lower
thanand a RVR landing; MDH; not lower than 30m DH; not less than than 30m (100ft);
60m (200ft); not (100ft); not less than 200m. not less than 300m.
less than 300m. 300m.
69. The rate of descent of 700 ft/min 780 ft/mm 860 ft/min 1050 ft/min
an aircraft with an
approach speed of
140kt on an ILS
approach with a glide
path angle of 3.25° is
(use 1 in 60 ):
70. In a conventional VOR FM AM AM FM FM FM AM AM
the reference signal is
...... and the variable
signal is ...... .
71. The correct SSR code to 7700 7600 2000 7500
indicate radio failure is:
72. VLF surface waves VLF diffraction is VLF diffraction and VLF diffraction is less VLF diffraction and
achieve greater range greater and attenuation are less. and attenuation is attenuation are
than LF surface waves attenuation is less. greater. greater.
because:
73. When using airborne because the wider the angle of tilt is at ranges over about because it overcomes
weather radar to beam gives better restricted in the 50 nm because the problems of "hill"
obtain a fix from a definition of mapping mode. greater power can be shadows.
ground feature, the ground features. concentrated in the
pencil beam is used in beam.
preference to the
mapping beam:
74. On selecting a DME a range search and a range search and a range search and that the system is
beacon the pointer or that the aircraft's that the aircraft's that the DME "jittering".
counters of a DME DME receiver is DME interrogator is beacon's receiver is
indicator revolve searching for searching for searching for
157
rapidly to a maximum responses from responses from the interrogations from

value and return to the ground ground transponder. the aircraft.
zero and continue the transponder.
process. This indicates:
75. A class B true bearing QTE +/-5° QDM +/-5° QUJ +/-5° QDR +/-5°
from a ground VDF
station isa ...... with an
accuracy of ...... .
76. Category 2 ILS 100 ft on the 50 ft above 200 ft above 50 ft above the plane
installation provides threshold QFE. aerodrome elevation. aerodrome elevation. containing the
accurate guidance to: runway threshold
77. To provide 3D 3 satellites with 6 satellites above the 4 satellites with 5 satellites with
positioning when flying adequate horizon. adequate elevation adequate elevation
under IFR a stand alone elevation and and suitable and suitable
GPS equipment needs a suitable geometry. geometry. geometry.
minimum of:
78. An apparent increase in the receiver the transmitter the transmitter the transmitter and
transmitted frequency, moving towards moving away from the moving towards the the receiver moving
proportional to the the transmitter. receiver. receiver. away from
velocity of the eachother.
transmitter, is caused
by:
79. With reference to the local datums. European Datum Nouvelle World Geodetic
Navstar Global 1950. Triangulation de System 1984
Positioning System France (NTF) 1970. (WGS84) Datum.
(GPS) the horizontal
accuracy figures
quoted are based upon
the assumption that
position is referenced
to:
80. Which of the following Primary radar uses Primary radar gives Secondary always Only secondary radar
statements is correct ? echoes from a range not bearing, of measures the bearing can be carried on an
reflecting object, a reflecting object. of a reflecting object aircraft.
158
whereas more accurately than

secondary radar primary radar.
uses responses
from a
transponder
beacon.
81. If an aircraft's should increase by should decrease by 25 should decrease by does not need to be
groundspeed reduces 50 ft/min. ft/min. 50 ft/min. adjusted as the speed
by 10kt whilst it is change is too small to
flying an ILS approach have any significant
with a 3° glidepath effect.
then its rate of descent:
82. Whilst in flight you are The first letter of The DVOR You are unable to The last letter of the
using a Doppler VOR. the DVOR identification is differentiate between DVOR identification is
Which of the following identification is'D'. followed by six dots. a conventional and a 'Z'.
statements is true? Doppler VOR when
using the aircraft's
system.
83. With reference to VDF a VDF let-down is both are controlled by both are controlled a VDF let-down is
let-downs or QGH let- controlled by the the pilot. by the ground controlled by the
downs available at the pilot; a QGH is operator. ground operator; a
same airfield: controlled by the QGH is controlled by
ground operator. the pilot.
84. The Global Navigation 21; 3; 6; 3; 3; 21; 3; 4; 3; 2; 21; 3; 6; 4; 3; 24; 3; 5; 3; 3;
Satellite System (GNSS)
is a system which
consists of ....... active
satellites plus .......
operational spare
satellites in ....... orbital
planes around the
earth. A minimum of
....... satellites are
needed to provide a
159
....... dimensional fix.

85. A pilot hears the morse The station is on The facility is The station accuracy The aid may be used
TST from a navigational test and may be transmitting for test has just been checked with caution and the
aid. This means that: used with caution. purposes only and and it has passed the accuracy reported to
must not be used. test ATC
86. The two factors which TAS and height of Ground speed and Transmitted Aircraft altitude and
affect the amount of the terrain. transmitted frequency and the the Doppler's pulse
Doppler shift measured wavelength. depression angle of repetition frequency.
by an aircraft's system the transmission
are: beams.
87. With reference to the 6 5 3 24
Global Positioning
System (GPS): The
minimum number of
satellites, with
adequate elevation and
suitable geometry, to
provide the RAIM
function and to isolate
the faulty satellite is:
88. An accuracy of 5° in within the cone of at all ranges within within the DOC limits beyond the cone of
VOR bearings received confusion by day the Design by day only. confusion as far as
at an aircraft is only. Operational Coverage the DOC limits by day
achieved: (DOC) limits day and and night.
night.
89. A typical ILS localiser 329.30Mhz 110.30Mhz 110.45Mhz 75.OOMhz
frequency is:
90. The maximum safe fly- 0.35° 2.5dots 1.3dots 0.7°
up indication on an ILS
approach when using a
meter with a 5 dot
display is:
91. Which of the following DME/DME VOR/DME VOR/NDB VOR/VOR
would be the normal fix
160
for a Basic RNAV (B-

RNAV) equipment:
92. Which following Primary radar uses Primary radar can only Secondary radar Only secondary, not
statement is true? echoes from a find the range of a always measures the primary, radar can be
reflecting object reflecting object. bearing of a reflecting carried in an aircraft.
whereas object more
secondary radar accurately than a
uses responses primary.
from a
transponder.
93. Two examples of VOR and DME AWR and SSR SSR and DME VOR and DECCA
secondary radar are:
94. The areas of greatest Cyclic Contouring the thinnest lines of the black holes selecting the
turbulence associated which emphases colour which indicate produced by the Iso- Sensitivity Time
with storm clouds are the high intensity steep rainfall echo Contour facility. Control function.
indicated on the colour rainfall areas by gradients.
screen of an Airborne alternately flashing
Weather Radar by: them red and
black.
95. The Global Positioning 1227.6MHz 1575.42MHz 2227.5MHz 1783.74MHz
System frequency
available for use by civil
operators is:
96. With reference to 6 7 4 5
NAVSTAR GPS; when
used as a stand-alone
system, the minimum
number of satellites
which must be in view
at any one time, is:
97. The principle of lobe comparison phase comparison of time referenced frequency
operation of MLS is: of scanning directional beams. scanning beams. comparison of
beams. reference beams.
98. What equipment does VHF radio VOR VOR/DME None
161
an aircraft need when

carrying out a VHF
direction finding
letdown?
99. Which of the following no equipment no special equipment only a VHF radio is it is pilot interpreted,
is an advantage of a required in the required in the needed in the aircraft so ATC is not
VHF direction finding aircraft aircraft or on the required
let down? ground
100. Which of the following it is simple and it is simple and it is simple requiring it uses line of sight
statements regarding only requires a requires a VHF radio only VHF radios on the propagation
VHF Direction Finding VHF radio on the and DF equipment in ground and in the
(VDF) is most accurate. ground the aircraft aircraft
101. A NDB transmits a a 30 Hz polar omni -directional a bi-lobal pattern a beam rotating at 30
signal pattern which is: diagram Hz
102. The accuracy of ADF +/-1° +/-2° +/-5° +/-10°
within the Designated
Operational Coverage
(DOC) by day is:
103. Which of the following interference from interference between interference from frequency drift at the
is likely to have the other NDB's aircraft aerials other NDB's, ground station
greatest effect on the particularly by day particularly at night
accuracy of ADF
bearings?
104. Which of the following selective night effect, mountain effect, selective availability,
are all errors associated availability, coastal quadrantal error, lane station interference, coastal refraction,
with ADF? refraction, night slip static interference quadrantal error
effect
105. What action must be BFO on Select the loop Both the loop and Select the LOOP
taken to receive a position sense aerials must position
bearing from an ADF? receive the signal
106. When is coastal error beacon inland at beacon inland at 90° beacon close to the beacon close to the
at its worst for an an acute angle to to the coast coast at an acute coast at 90° to the
aircraft at low level? the coast angle to the coast coast
162
107. Which of the following quadrantal error coastal refraction precipitation static static from Cb
is the most significant
error in ADF?
108. Which of the following static interference, station interference, coastal refraction, lack of failure
may cause inaccuracies height effect, lack mountain effect, slant range, night warning, station
in ADF bearings? of failure warning selective availability effect interference, static
interference
109. The principle used to phase comparison switched cardioids difference in depth of pulse technique
measure VOR bearings modulation
is:
110. If the VOR accuracy has 3.0 nm 2.5 nm 2.0 nm 3.5 nm
a limit of 1°, what is the
maximum cross track
error at 200 nm?
111. What is the maximum 2000 m 60 m 600 m 6m
distance apart a VOR
and TACAN can be
located and have the
same identification?
112. When tracking a VOR a constant track a great circle track a rhumb line track a constant heading
radial inbound the
aircraft would fly:
113. Using a VOR beyond loss of signal due interference from skywave scalloping errors
the limits of the DOC to line of sight other VOR's operating contamination of the
may result in: limitations on the same VOR signal
frequency
114. When identifying a co- 4 identifications in 4 identifications with 4 identifications with no DME
located VOR/DME the the same tone the DME at a higher the DME at a lower identification, but if
following signals are tone tone the VOR
heard in the Morse identification is
code every 30 seconds: present and a range
is indicated then this
shows that both are
serviceable
163
115. When tracking the 090 a straight line a rhumb line a great circle a constant true
radial outbound from a heading
VOR, the track flown is:
116. For a conventional VOR west north east south
a phase difference of
090° would be
achieved by flying ......
from the beacon:
117. The quoted accuracy of at all times by day only at all times except at all times except
VOR is valid: night dawn and dusk
118. Which of the following DME VOR ADF VDF
provides distance
information?
119. Which of the following a VOR on the flight a VOR off the flight a DME on the flight a DME off the flight
would give the best plan route plan route plan route plan route
indication of speed?
120. A DME beacon will 10 50 100 200
become saturated
when more than about
...... aircraft are
interrogating the
transponder.
121. A typical DME 1000 MHz 1300 MHz 1000 KHz 1575 MHz
frequency is:
122. The DME in an aircraft, the beacon is the aircraft is beyond the aircraft is beyond the aircraft signal is
cruising at FL210, fails saturated the maximum usable line of sight range too weak at that
to achieve lock on a range for DME range to trigger a
DME at msl at a range response
of 210 nm. The reason
for this is:
123. What information does magnetic bearing DME Nothing DME and magnetic
military TACAN provide bearing
for civil aviation users?
164
124. The DME counters are the DME is the DME is trying to the DME is trying to the DME is receiving
rotating continuously. unserviceable lock onto range lock onto frequency no response from the
This indicates that: ground station
125. On a DME presentation the DME is in the the DME is the DME is receiving The transponder is
the counters are search mode unserviceable no response from the unserviceable
continuously rotating. transponder
This indicates:
126. The errors of an ILS emission sidelobes ground reflections spurious signals from interference from
localiser (LLZ) beam are objects near the other systems
due to: runway operating on the
same frequency
127. The amplitude 400 Hz, blue 1300 Hz, amber 400 Hz, amber 1300 Hz, blue
modulation of the ILS
outer marker is .......
and it illuminates the
...... light in the cockpit.
128. The principle of different the same frequency the same frequency different frequencies
operation of the ILS frequencies with with different phases with different with different
localiser transmitter is different phases amplitude amplitude
that it transmits two modulations modulations
overlapping lobes on:
129. The ILS glideslope ground returns back scattering of the multiple lobes in the reflections from
transmitter generates from the vicinity of signals radiation pattern obstacles in the
false glidepaths the transmitter vicinity of the
because of: transmitter
130. A category III ILS the surface of the less than 50 ft less than 100 ft less than 200 ft
system provides runway
accurate guidance
down to:
131. The sequence of white, blue, amber blue, white, amber blue, amber, white amber, blue, white
marker colours when
flying an ILS approach
is:
165
132. The sensitive area of an ILS operations are category 1 ILS category II/III ILS the ILS is undergoing
ILS is the area aircraft in progress operations are in operations are in calibration
may not enter when: progress progress
133. The ILS localiser is 300 m from the 300 m from the 300 m from the 200 m abeam the
normally positioned: downwind end of threshold upwind end of the threshold
the runway runway
134. An aircraft is flying unreliable in reliable in azimuth, no indications will be reliable in azimuth
downwind outside the azimuth and unreliable in elevation shown and elevation
coverage of the ILS. The elevation
CDI indications will be:
135. Distance on MLS is measuring the measuring the time phase comparison co-located DME
measured by: time taken for the taken for the between the azimuth
primary radar secondary radar pulse and elevation beams
pulse to travel to travel from the MLS
from the MLS transmitter to the
transmitter to the aircraft receiver
aircraft receiver
136. Which of the following can be used in uses the same aircraft has a selective access is not affected by
is an advantage of inhospitable equipment as ILS ability heavy precipitation
MLS? terrain
137. Primary radar operates transponder pulse technique phase comparison continuous wave
on the principle of interrogation emission
138. The definition of a narrow narrow beamwidth wide beamwidth and wide beamwidth and
radar display will be beamwidth and and wide pulsewidth narrow pulsewidth wide pulsewidth
best with: narrow pulsewidth
139. The main advantage of more complex removes the smaller more compact permits
a continuous wave equipment but minimum range equipment measurement of
radar over a pulsed better resolution restriction Doppler in addition
radar is: and accuracy to improved range
and bearing
140. In a primary pulsed Pulse width Beamwidth Pulse recurrence rate Rate of rotation
radar the ability to
discriminate in azimuth
is a factor of:
166
141. The maximum range of pulse width peak power average power pulse recurrence rate
a ground radar is
limited by:
142. What does pulse the number of the number of pulses the ratio of pulse the delay known as
recurrence rate refer cycles per second per second width to pulse flyback or dead time
to? repetition period
143. The best radar for a continuous wave a pulsed secondary a pulsed primary a continuous wave
measuring very short primary radar radar radar secondary radar
ranges is:
144. The main advantage of reduces sidelobes removes the need for sidelobe suppression can produce
a slotted scanner is: and directs more azimuth slaving simultaneous map
energy into the and weather
main beam information
145. Which of the following SSR DME GPS AWR
is a primary radar
system?
146. On what principle does pulse technique pulse comparison continuous wave transponder
primary ATC radar interrogation
work?
147. Short range aerodrome millimetric centimetric decimetric metric
radars will have ......
wavelengths.
148. The airborne weather snow moderate rain dry hail wet hail
radar (AWR) cannot
detect:
149. The use of the AWR on not permitted permitted provided permitted provided only permitted to
the ground is: reduced power is special precautions assist movement in
reduced are taken to safeguard low visibility
personnel and conditions
equipment
150. Which type of cloud Cirro-cumulus Alto-stratus Cumulus Stratus
does the AWR detect?
151. The AWR uses the WEA CONT MAP MAN
cosecant squared beam
167
in the ...... mode.

152. On the AWR display the in flashing red by a black hole by a steep colour alternating red and
most severe turbulence gradient white
will be shown:
153. The ISO-ECHO circuit is to allow ground to alert pilots to the to display areas of
to allow
incorporated in the mapping presence of cloud turbulence in cloud
simultaneous
AWR: mapping and cloud
detection
154. The main factors which the size of the the scanner rotation the size of the water the size of the water
affect whether an AWR water droplets and rate and the droplets and the droplets and the
will detect a cloud are: the diameter of frequency/wavelength wavelength/frequency range of the cloud
the antenna
reflector
155. In an AWR with a iso-echo areas large areas of flashing iso-echo areas with no most rapid change of
colour CRT, areas of coloured black red colour colour
greatest turbulence are
indicated by:
156. The cosecant squared a greater range a wider beam is a larger area of it allows cloud
beam is used for can be achieved produced in azimuth ground is illuminated detection to be
mapping in the AWR to give a greater by the beam effected whilst
because: coverage mapping
157. On switching on the the transmitter is the receiver is the CRT is not the antenna is not
AWR a single line unserviceable unserviceable scanning scanning
appears on the display.
This means that:
158. Doppler navigation DVOR Phase comparison of Frequency shift in DME range
systems use to signals from ground signals reflected from measurement
determine the aircraft stations the ground
groundspeed and drift.
159. Which axes is the AWR Pitch, roll and yaw Roll and yaw Pitch and roll Pitch only
stabilized in'?
160. Why is the effect of the frequency is SSR does not use the The PRF is jittered By the use of MTI to
returns from storms too high echo principle remove stationary
168
not a problem with and slow moving

SSR? returns
161. Which SSR mode A 7700 7500 2000 7600
code should be
selected when entering
European airspace
from an area where no
code has been
allocated?
162. The vertical position QNH unless QFE is 1013.25 HPa QNH WGS84 datum
provided by SSR mode in use
C is referenced to:
163. Why is a secondary the frequencies the frequencies are moving target the principle of the
radar display free from are too low to too high to detect indication is used to return of echoes is
weather clutter? detect water water droplets suppress the static not used
droplets generated by water
droplets
164. The availability of 4096 A C S All
codes in SSR is
applicable to mode:
165. LORAN C is available: globally in oceanic areas in continental areas in specified areas
166. The principle of differential range differential range by range by pulse range by phase
operation of LORAN C by phase pulse technique technique comparison
is: comparison
167. The MDA for a non- barometric radio altimeter GPS altitude GPS or barometric
precision approach altitude altitude
using NAVSTAR/GPS is
based on:
168. If, during a manoeuvre, none the position will another satellite will the GPS will maintain
a satellite being used degrade be selected, so there lock using reflections
for position fixing is will be no degradation of the signals from
shadowed by the wing, of position the fuselage
the effect on position
169
will be:
169. The height derived by a above mean sea above ground level above the WGS84 pressure altitude
receiver from the level ellipsoid
NAVSTAR/GPS is:
170. The NAVSTAR/GPS 24 satellites in 6 24 satellites in 4 orbits 24 satellites in 3 orbits 24 satellites in 8
constellation orbits orbits
comprises:
171. Selective availability introducing an random dithering of random dithering of introducing an offset
may be used to offset in the the broadcast the broadcast in the broadcast
degrade the accuracy satellites clocks satellites clock time satellites X, Y & Z co- satellites X, Y & Z co-
of the NAVSTAR/GPS ordinates ordinates
position. This is
achieved by:
172. The positioning of a in the fm on the fuselage as on top of the fuselage under the fuselage
GNSS aerial on an close as possible to close to the centre of
aircraft is: the receiver gravity
173. NAVSTAR/GPS receiver regular auto- adjusting the pseudo- synchronisation with having an
clock error is removed synchronisation ranges to determine the satellite clocks on appropriate atomic
by: with the satellite the error initialisation time standard within
clocks the receiver.
174. The contents of the satellite clock satellite clock error, position accuracy ionospheric
navigation and systems error, almanac almanac data, satellite verification, satellite propagation
message from data, ionospheric position error clock time and clock information, X, Y & Z
NAVSTAR/GPS SVs propagation error co-ordinates and
include: information corrections, satellite
clock time and error
175. The NAVSTAR/GPS space, control, space, control, ground space, control, air space, ground, air
segments are: user
176. The preferred GNSS multiplex multi-channel sequential fast multiplex
receiver for airborne
application is:
177. The best accuracy from NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASS and GLONASS and TNSS NAVSTAR/GPS and
satellite systems will be TNSS transit COSPAS/SARSAT transit GLONASS
170
provided by:
178. The azimuth and determined by the determined by the transmitted by the determined by the
elevation of the satellite and receiver from the satellite as part of the receiver from the
satellites is: transmitted to the satellite almanac data almanac broadcast satellite X,
receiver Y, Z & T data
179. The skysearch carried is done prior to is done when the involves the receiver is the procedure
out by a GNSS receiver: each fix receiver position is in downloading the carried out by the
error almanac from each monitoring stations
satellite before to check the accuracy
determining which of the satellite data
satellites are in view
180. An aircraft GNSS using 4 satellites using alternative using alternative radio using inertial
receiver is using 5 with the pilot navigation systems navigation systems reference systems
satellites for RAIM. If monitoring the only only
the receiver deselects receiver output
one satellite then the
flight should be
continued
181. The WGS84 model of a geoid a sphere an exact model of the an ellipse
the earth is: earth
182. The frequency band of VHF UHF EHF SHF
the NAVSTAR/GPS L1
and L2 frequencies is:
183. The number of 3 4 5 6
satellites required to
produce a 4D fix is:
184. How many satellites 4 2 3 5
are needed for a 2D
fix?
185. Which of the following they are they are eliminated they are significantly transmitting the state
statements concerning significantly using differential reduced when a of the ionosphere to
ionospheric reduced by the use techniques second frequency is the receivers enables
propagation errors is of RAIM available the error to reduced
171
true? to less than one

metre
186. Using differential GNSS barometric GNSS radio radio or GNSS
for a non-precision
approach, the height
reference is:
187. The number of 4 5 6 3
satellites required to
provide a 3D fix
without RAIM is:
188. The number of 21 18 24 30
satellites required for a
fully operational
NAVSTAR/GPS is:
189. Unauthorised' civilian the P and Y codes the P code the C/A and P codes the C/A code
users of NAVSTAR/GPS
can access:
190. When using GPS to fly barometric GPS height radio altitude average of
airways, what is the barometric and GPS
vertical reference
used?
191. The nav/system SHF UHF VHF EHF
message from
GLONASS and
NAVSTAR/GPS is found
in the band.
192. Which GNSS system NAVSTAR/GPS GLONASS COSPAS/SARSAT TNSS transit
can be used for IFR
flights in Europe?
193. During flight using continue the flight continue using the continue using the switch off the faulty
NAVSTAR/GPS and in VMC conventional systems GPS system after
conventional determining which
navigation systems, one is in error
you see a large error
172
between the positions

given by the systems.
The action you should
take is:
194. What is the purpose of to control the use to monitor the to maintain the degrade the accuracy
the GPS control of the satellites by satellites in orbit satellites in orbit of satellites for
segment? unauthorised unauthorised users
users
195. In GNSS a fix is measuring the measuring the time measuring the pulse measuring the phase
obtained by: time taken for taken for the aircraft lengths of the angle of the signals
signals from a transmissions to sequential signals from a number of
minimum number travel to a number of from a number of satellites in known
of satellites to satellites in known satellites in known positions
reach the aircraft. positions and return positions
to the aircraft
196. The inclination of a the angle between the angle between the 90° minus the angle 90° minus the angle
satellite is: the SV orbit and SV orbit and the polar between the SV orbit between the SV orbit
the equator plane and the equator and the polar plane
197. The distance measured it is measured it includes receiver satellite and receiver it is measured against
between a satellite and using pseudo- clock error are continually idealisedKeplerian
a receiver is known as a random codes moving in relation to orbits
pseudo-range because: each other
198. The task of the control determine monitor the SV apply selective all of the above
segmentis to: availability to ephemeris and clock availability
users
199. To provide 3D fixing 4 5 6 7
with RAIM and allowing
for the loss of one
satellite requires ......
SVs:
200. In NAVSTAR/GPS the differentiate pass satellite pass satellite time and pass satellite time,
PRN codes are used to: between satellites ephemeris epheaneris ephemeris and other
information information information
173
201. An àll in view' satellite monitors all 24 tracks selected selects and tracks all tracks the closest
navigation receiver is satellites satellites (in view) satellites and satellites
one which: selects the best four
202. Which GPS frequencies 1227.6 MHz only 1575.42 MHz only 1227.6 MHz and 1227.6 MHz or
are available for 1575.42 MHz 1575.42 MHz
commercial air
transport?
203. Which GNSS is GLONASS NAVSTAR/GPS Galileo COSPAS/SARSAT
authorised for use on
European airways?
204. RAIM is achieved: by ground by ground stations within the receiver any of the above
monitoring determining the X, Y &
stations Z errors and passing
determining the the corrections to
satellite range receivers using
errors which are pseudolites
relayed to
receivers via geo-
stationary
satellites
205. The function of the interrogate the track the satellites to track the satellites to determine position
receiver in the GNSS satellites to calculate time calculate range and assess the
user segment is to: determine range accuracy of that
position
206. In which frequency SHF VHF UHF EHF
band are the L1 and L2
frequencies of GNSS?
207. The visibility of GPS dependent on the greatest at the greatest at the poles the same at all points
satellites is: location of the equator on and close to the
user surface of the earth
208. The required accuracy 0.25 nm standard 0.5 nm standard 1 nm standard 1.5 nm standard
of a precision RNAV (P- deviation or better deviation or better deviation or better deviation or better
RNAV) system is:
174
209. The ETA generated by when the forecast If the groundspeed If the forecast WN at If the groundspeed is
the FMS will be most W/V equals the and position are take-off is entered. correct and the take-
accurate: actual WN and the accurate. off time has been
FMS calculated entered
Mach No. equals
the actual Mach
No.
210. The FMC position is: the average of the the average of the IRS computer generated computer generated
IRS positions and radio navigation from the IRS and radio from the radio
positions navigation positions navigation positions
211. The inputs to the EHSI auto-throttle, IRS FCC, FMC and ADC IRS, FMC and radio IRS, ADC and FCC
display during and FMC navigation facilities
automatic flight
include:
212. The phantom station in VOR/DME Twin VOR Twin DME Any of the above
a 2D RNAV system may
be generated by:
213. The FMS database can altered by the read and altered by only read by the pilots altered by the pilots
be: pilots between the the pilots every 28 days
28 day updates
214. When is the IRS continuously by at VOR beacons on at significant on the ground only
position updated? the FMC route by the pilots waypoints only
215. Which of the following INS Direct reading VOR/DME ADF
is independent of magnetic compass
external inputs?
216. In an RNAV system GPS/rho Rho/theta Rho/rho GPS/theta
which combination of
external reference will
give the most accurate
position?
217. The NAVSTAR/GPS 6 SVs each in 4 4 SVs each in 6 orbits 8 SVs each in 3 orbits 3 SVs each in 8 orbits
constellation orbits
comprises:
175
218. The normal maximum 50 nm 150 nm 250 nm 350 nm

range for an ATC
surveillance radar is:
219. The cause of a RNAV the aircraft is in the aircraft is beyond the aircraft is beyond the aircraft is outside
giving erratic readings the cone of line of sight range of line of sight range of the DOC of the
would be: confusion of the the phantom station the reference station reference station
phantom station
220. The height of the GPS 19300 km 20200 km 10900 km 35800 km
constellation is:
221. Which type of radar area surveillance SSR AWR Aerodrome surface
could give an indication radar movement radar
of the shape and
sometimes the type of
the aircraft?
222. What are the ground separate azimuth separate azimuth and combined azimuth combined azimuth
components of MLS? and elevation elevation antennae and elevation and elevation
antennae with with middle and outer antennae with DME antennae with
DME markers middle and outer
markers
223. The accuracy required +/-5 nm on 90% of all the time +/-5 nm on 95% of +/-5 nm on 75% of
of a basic area occasions occasions occasions
navigation (B-RNAV)
system is:
224. The emissions from a a cardioid with a omni-directional a phase-compared a frequency
non-directional beacon 30 Hz rotation rate signal modulated
(NDB) are: continuous wave
(FMCW)
225. How does night effect Causes false Skywave interference Interference from Phase shift in the
affect ADF? bearings as the which affects the null other NDB's which is received signal giving
goniometer locks and is worst at dawn worst at dusk and random bearing
onto the skywave and dusk when due east of the errors
station
226. What is an ADC input Heading VOR/DME position TAS Groundspeed and
to the FMC? drift
176
227. The indications from a the aircraft is in The aircraft is outside the aircraft is below the aircraft is in the
basic RNAV are the cone of the DOC of the line of sight range of cone of confusion of
behaving erratically. confusion of the reference VOR/DME the reference the reference VOR
The reason is likely to phantom station VOR/DME
be:
228. In NAVSTAR/GPS the Provides the the receiver sends information for relays positional data
space segment: positional interrogates the receiver to determine from the control
information to the satellite and the latitude, longitude segment
receiver satellite provides and time
positional information
229. In a RNAV system the by what is selected automatically by by selecting DMEs to by automatically
DME is tuned: on the pilots DME taking pilot's DME give suitable angle of selecting the nearest
and hence is tuned selection cut to get a fix suitable DME
manually automatically
230. Which input to the INS pressure altitude magnetic heading VOR/DME
FMC is taken from from a direct reading
sources external to the compass
aircraft?
231. In NAVSTAR/GPS range the time the time taken for the the synchronisation of the time taken for a
measurement is difference signal to travel from the satellite and signal to travel from
achieved by measuring: between the the satellite to the receiver clocks the receiver to the
minimum number receiver satellite and return to
of satellites the receiver
232. Quadrantal error in the the metallic generative voltages the electrical wiring multipath reception
ADF is caused by: structure of the caused by the rotation running through the
aircraft of the engines aircraft
233. Which of the following it is used to verify an alternate source of GNSS position is GNSS data may only
is true concerning the and update the IRS position must be used usable stand alone be used in the
use of GNSS position in position and displayed absence of other
the FMC? positional
information
234. The VDF term meaning QDM QDR QTE QUJ
`true bearing from the
station' is:
177
235. A class B VDF bearing ± 2° ± 10° ± 1° ± 5°

will have an accuracy
of:
236. The Doppler effect is: the change in the change in the change in the change in
frequency caused frequency caused by frequency caused by frequency caused by
by the movement the movement of a the movement of a the relative
of a transmitter receiver transmitter movement between
and receiver a transmitter and
receiver
237. The accuracy of ADF night effect, static interference, angle of bank, angle of bank, static
may be affected by: tropospheric siting errors, slant mountain effect, from Cb, siting errors
propagation, range station interference
quadrantal error
238. The ADF error which night effect Cb static station interference coastal refraction
will cause the needle to
`hunt' (ie oscillate
around the correct
bearing) is:
239. The accuracy of ADF by +/-1° +/-2° +/-5° +/-10°
day and excluding
compass error is:
240. The principle of bearing by lobe bearing by frequency bearing by searchlight bearing by phase
operation of VOR is: comparison comparison principle comparison
241. The pilot of an aircraft the VOR is the range of VOR is the aircraft is beyond there are abnormal
flying at FL 240 is 250 unserviceable limited to 200 nm line of sight range atmospheric
nm from a VOR at 16 conditions
ftamsl which he selects.
He receives no signal
from the VOR. This is
because:
242. A category 2 ILS facility below 50 ft below 200 ft the surface below 100 ft
is required to provide
guidance to:
178
243. When flying downwind in the correct erratic on both erratic on the localiser no localiser signal
abeam the upwind end sense for the localiser and glidepath and in the correct and in the correct
of the runway the localiser and no sense on the glidepath sense for glidepath
indications from the ILS glidepath signal
on the CDI will be:
244. A full MLS system 4 elements 4 elements 2 elements using 2 2 elements
comprises a DME and: multiplexing on 2 multiplexing on one frequencies multiplexing on one
frequencies frequency frequency
245. The type of radar which primary CW radar primary pulsed radar secondary CW radar secondary pulsed
has no minimum range radar
restriction is:
246. The maximum power PW beamwidth PRF
theoretical range of
aradar is determined
by:
247. An advantage of a side lobes 360° scan without any less power required higher data rate
slotted antenna (planar removed rotation requirement possible
array) over a parabolic
reflector are:
248. The best resolution will high power output narrow beamwidth low frequency and wide beamwidth and
be achieved on a radar and large parabolic and narrow pulse small parabolic large pulsewidth
display with: reflector width reflector
249. The AWR frequency is good returns from good returns from good penetration of good returns from
selected because it water droplets turbulence cloud water vapour
gives:
250. On a colour AWR amber red yellow blue
display, the heaviest
precipitation will be
displayed in:
251. The altitude readout at 300 ft 100 ft 500 ft 50 ft
the ground station
from a mode C
response will give the
aircraft altitude within:
179
252. The coverage of LORAN in specified areas in oceanic areas over land only in oceanic areas in
C is: the northern
hemisphere
253. The NAVSTAR/GPS 21 satellites in 6 24 satellites in 6 orbits 24 satellites in 3 orbits 30 satellites in 6
operational orbits orbits
constellation
comprises:
254. The model of the earth WGS90 PZ84 PZ90 WGS84
used for GPS is:
255. The major limitation in lack of failure the height difference global coverage of degradation of range
the use of GPS for warning between the ellipsoid WARS is not available measurement
precision approaches and the earth because of
using wide area ionospheric
augmentation systems propagation errors
(WAAS) is:
256. The number of SV's `3 4 5 6
required to produce a
3D fix is:
257. The principle error in ionospheric GDOP receiver clock error SV ephemeris error
GNSS is: propagation
258. If the signal from a SV is the receiver will the receiver will go the receiver will the receiver position
lost during an aircraft select another SV into a DR mode with compensate by using will degrade
manoeuvre: with no loss in no loss of accuracy the last calculated regardless of the
accuracy altitude to maintain action taken
positional accuracy
259. The provision of RAIM 3 4 5 6
requires a minimum of
SVs.
260. The best position on an in the cockpit as on the fuselage close on the aircraft as far close to each wing tip
aircraft for the GNSS close as possible to the centre of as possible from other to compensate for
aerial is: to the receiver gravity aerials to reduce manoeuvre errors
reflections
261. A 2D RNAV system co-located twin DME VOR and/or DME Any of the above
takes fixing inputs VOR/DME
180
from:
262. The accuracy required 5 nm 5° 1 nm 1°
of a basic RNAV system
is:
263. The most accurate VOR/DME Twin DME Twin VOR Suitable combination
external reference of VOR and DME
position will be
provided by:
264. The accuracy required 0.25 nm 2 nm 1 nm 0.5 nm
of a precision area
navigation system is:
265. A basic 2D RNAV twin DME VOR/DME Twin VOR Any of the above
system will determine
tracking information
from:
266. The IRS position can be on the ground only at designated on the ground and at selected waypoints
updated: positions en-route overhead VOR/DME and on the ground
and on the ground
267. Which positions can be SIDS & STARS, Navigation facilities, SIDS & STARS and Latitude and
input to the FMC using reporting points reporting points and latitude and longitude longitude, reporting
a maximum of 5 alpha- and airways airways designators points and airways
numerics? designators designators
268. The FMC navigational to update the to read information to change to change the
database can be database only information between information to meet
accessed by the pilots: the 28 day updates the sector
requirements
269. The period of validity of 28 days 1 month determined by the 91 days
the navigational national authority and
database is: may be from 28 days
to 91 days
270. A Graticule is the name A series of lines A series of Latitude A selection of small Both a & c are correct
given to: drawn on a chart and Longitude lines circles as you get
drawn on a chart or nearer to either pole
181
map
271. A nautical mile is The length of the The length of the are The length of None of the above.
defined as: arc of a great circle of the Earth’s equator 1/10,000th part of the
which subtends an which subtends an average distance
angle of one angle of one minute between the equator
minute in the at the centre. and either pole.
centre of the
Earth.
272. Any Meridian Line is a: Rhumb Line Semi Great Circle Rhumb Line and a All above are correct.
semi Great Circle
273. A Rhumb Line cuts all The shortest A line which could A line of constant All above are correct.
meridians at the same distance between never be a great circle direction
angle. This gives: two points. track
274. The shortest distance Rhumb line Great circle Both of ‘a’ and ‘b’ None of ‘a’ and ‘c’
between to points on
the Earth is along the:
275. The sensitivity of a Inversely Proportional to the Inversely Inversely
direct reading magnetic proportional to horizontal component proportional to the proportional to the
compass is: the horizontal of the earth's vertical component of vertical and
component of the magnetic field. the earth's magnetic horizontal
earth's magnetic field. components of the
field. earth's magnetic fiel
276. What is the definition The angle between The angle between The angle between The angle between
of magnetic variation? the direction True North and Magnetic North and Magnetic Heading
indicated by a Compass North. True North. and Magnetic North.
compass and
Magnetic North.
277. Where is a compass About midway In the region of the In the region of the On the geographic
most effective? between the magnetic South pole magnetic North pole equator
earth's magnetic
poles
278. The value of variation: is zero at the has a maximum value has a maximum value cannot exceed 90°
magnetic equator of 180° of 45° E or 45° W
182
279. The agonic line: is midway follows the is the shorter distance Follows separate
between the geographic equator between the paths out of the
magnetic North respective True and North polar regions,
and South poles Magnetic North and one currently running
South poles through Western
Europe and the other
through the USA
280. What is the maximum 66° 180° 90° 45°
possible value of Dip
Angle?
281. The formula used for Ch long (degree) X Ch. long (mins) X cos Ch. long (degree) X Ch long (mins) X sin
calculation of cos mean lat mean lat sin mean lat mean lat
departure:
282. A direct Mercator Rectangular Square Circular Convergent
graticule is:
283. On a normal Mercator Curves concave to Curves convex to the Complex curves Straight lines
chart, rhumb lines are the Equator Equator
represented as:
284. On a direct Mercator, Straight lines Curves Straight lines and all of the above
Great Circles can be curves
represented as:
285. On a direct Mercator, Curves concave to Curves convex to the Curves concave to the Straight lines
with the exception of the Nearer Pole Equator Equator
the meridians and the
Equator, Great Circles
are represented as:
286. The angle between a Zero Earth convergency Conversion Angle Chart Convergence
straight line on a
Mercator chart and the
corresponding great
circle is:
287. On a Gnomonic Concave to the Converse to the Straight lines None of the above.
Projection the Great nearer pole nearer pole
circles are:
183
288. On a normal Mercator The projection is It is not equal area It is perspective A great circle is
Projection the correct not conformal projection always represented
statement is: by a straight line.
289. Scale on a Lambert's is constant is constant along a varies slightly as a is constant along a
conformal conic chart meridian of longitude function of latitude parallel of latitude
and longitude
290. Scale on a Lambert constant along a constant along a line constant everywhere correct at the parallel
conformal chart is: line of latitude of longitude of origin
291. A polar chart is the best Gnomonic Stereographic Both of the above None of the above.
between 90° and 74° projection projection
and it is made by:
292. An ICAO nautical mile is 6080 feet 1852 metres 1863 feet 6062 feet
defined as?
293. How much is the polar less by 40 km greater by 27 statute less by 27 statute greater by 27 nautical
diameter of the Earth miles miles miles
different from the
equatorial diameter?
294. The maximum 45° North and 90° North and South 60° North and South 0° (Equator)
difference between South
geodetic and
geocentric latitude
occurs at about?
295. The circumference of 43200 nm 10800 nm 21600 nm 5400 nm
the Earth is
approximately?
296. At a specific location, depends on the depends on the value varies slowly over depends on the type
the value of magnetic value of magnetic of true heading time of compass installed
variation heading
297. At the magnetic Dip is zero Variation is zero Deviation is zero The isogonal is an
equator agonic line
298. You are flying at FL330 600 knots 595 knots 540 knots 505 knots
at Mach No
0.9M.Ambient
temperature is ISA
184
+15°. What is your TAS?

299. An aircraft is 3640 feet 1890 feet 2210 feet 680 feet
maintaining a 5.2%
gradient on a flat
terrain. Its height at 7
nm from the runway is
approximately?
300. G/S = 240 knots, 20 minutes 29 minutes 2h 05 m 2h 12 m
Distance to go = 500
nm. What is time to
go?
301. An aircraft is climbing TAS increases and Both increase Both decrease TAS decreases and
at a constant CAS in ISA Mach No Mach No increases
conditions. What will decreases
be the effect on TAS
and Mach No?
302. By what amount must 50 feet per minute 30 feet per minute 50 feet per minute 30 feet per minute
you change your rate of increase increase decrease decrease
descent given a 10 knot
increase in headwind
on a 3° glideslope ?
303. A non-perspective is produced cannot be used for is produced by is used for a Polar
chart: directly from a navigation mathematically Stereographic
light projection of adjusting a light projection
a Reduced Earth projection of the
Reduced Earth
304. On a Mercator chart, a small circle curve convex to the complex curve straight line
Rhumb Line appears as concave to the nearer pole
a: nearer pole
305. Mercator charts use for cylindrical conical plane/azimuthal complex
what Projections?
306. Convergence on a the datum the datum meridian the Equator and the the Parallel of Origin
Transverse Mercator meridian only and the Equator Poles
185
chart is correct at:

307. What is the main use of flying a specified flying an equatorial mapping countries mapping countries
an Oblique Mercator Great Circle route route with a large N/S with a large E/W
chart? extent but a lesser extent but a lesser
E/W extent N/S extent
308. When does perihelion early January mid March early July 42634
occur?
309. When does aphelion early January mid March early July 42634
occur?
310. When do èquinoxes' December and February and March and September January and July
occur? June November
311. When it is the Winter the Arctic Circle the Tropic of the equator the Tropic of Cancer
Solstice in the Southern Capricorn
Hemisphere, the sun
will be overhead
312. A sidereal day is? longer than an longer than a real shorter than an equal to a real solar
apparent solar day solar day apparent solar day day
313. The maximum 21 minutes 16 minutes 30 minutes there is no difference
difference between
Mean Time and
Apparent Time is:
314. What is the length of a 365 days 366 days 365 days 6 hrs 365 days 5 hrs 48.75
Sidereal Year? minutes
315. The Hour Angle latitude longitude co-latitude UTC
(Greenwich Hour
Angle) of a celestial
body is
analogous/equivalent
on the Earth to ?
316. The definition of Local time based upon when the Mean Sun is when the Mean Sun all of the above.
Mean Time (LMT) is: the average transitting (crossing) is transitting (crossing)
movement of the your meridian, it is your anti-meridian, it
Earth around the 1200 hrs LMT. is 0000 hrs LMT (2400
186
Sun. hrs LMT, previous

day).
317. Local Mean Time (LMT) the Greenwich 180°E/W the International the Equator
always changes by a Meridian Date Line
day when crossing ?
318. Zone Time (ZT) is used? by aircraft on as legal time in all by ships at sea in polar regions
trans-oceanic countries
routes
319. Civil Twilight is? the period the period between related to the all of the above
between sunset the start of Morning position of the centre
and the end of Civil Twilight (MCT) of the sun being 6°
Evening Civil and sunrise below the sensible
Twilight (ECT) horizon
320. In a standby direct a non-pendulously a single pendulously a circular magnet or a low magnetic
reading compass there mounted magnet mounted bar magnet. pair of bar magnets moment system,
is: system. pendulously mounted. either of circular or
bar configuration.
321. The main requirements horizontal, easily read, floating in positioned directly in aperiodic, horizontal,
of a direct reading sensitive, periodic. a transparent liquid, front of the pilot, sensitive.
magnetic compass are quick to react to easily corrected for
that it should be: change in aircraft magnetic deviation,
heading. aperiodic
322. To improve the on the centre line below the centre of above the centre of varying with
horizontality of a of the magnet. gravity. gravity. magnetic latitude.
compass, the magnet
assembly is suspended
from a point:
323. When carrying out a no turning error. a tendency to a tendency to no turning error
turn at the magnetic underread turns underread turns due when turning
equator there will be: through south and to liquid swirl. through east or west
overread turns only.
through north.
324. What is the advantage It is lighter It is connected to a It senses the earth's It is not affected by
of the remote source of electrical magnetic field rather aircraft deviation
187
indicating compass power and so is more than seeks it, so is

(slaved gyro compass) accurate more sensitive
over the direct reading
magnetic compass?
325. IRS differs from INS in Has a longer spin- Has a shorter spin-up Does not need to Does not experience
that it: up time and is not time and suffers from correct for coriolis and Schuler errors as
affected by laser lock. central acceleration. accelerometers are
vertical strapped down and
accelerations due are not rotated by a
to gravity. V/Rfeedback loop.
326. The period of validity of 56 days One week 28 days Varies depending on
an FMS database is: the area of
operational cover.
327. In a ring laser gyro, the Enhance the Overcome laser lock. Compensate for Stabilise the laser
purpose of the dither accuracy of the transport wander. frequencies.
motor is to: gyro at all
rotational rates.
328. What is the source of The main Magnetic variation Magnetic variation is The FMS calculates
magnetic variation directional gyro information is stored calculated by each IRS MH and MT from the
information in a Flight which is coupled in each IRS memory; it based on the FMC position
Management system to the magnetic is applied to the true respective IRS position
(FMS)? sensor (flux valve) heading calculated by and the aircraft's
positioned in the the respective IRS magnetic heading
wing tip.
329. When and where are during all phases only on the ground when the FMS is in when the VHF Nav
IRS positions updated? of flight during the alignment IRS ONLY NAV Radios are selected
procedure operation to AUTO
330. On a triple-fit IRS will only differ if will only differ if an are likely to differ as will not differ as the
system, present one IRS has been initial input error of the information information is
positions on the CDU: decoupled due to aircraft position has comes from different averaged
a detected been made sources
malfunction
331. Laser lock is overcome shake SAGNAC dither vibration
in an IRS system by
188
using a piezo-electric
motor which utilises
the principle of
332. The main reason that earth's rotation relative speed of the inclination of the gravitational effect
day and night, sun along the ecliptic ecliptic to the equator of the Sun and the
throughout the year, Moon on the speed
have different of rotation of the
durations is due to the: Earth
333. When is the last point After passengers Immediately prior to At the holding point On operation of the
at which an INS or IRS and freight are push back or taxy TOGA switch when
may be selected to aboard from the gate opening the throttles
NAV mode? for the take-off
334. What does the sensor velocity displacement pressure acceleration
of an INS/IRS measure
?
335. The term drift refers to any plane the horizontal plane the vertical plane the vertical and
the wander of the axis horizontal plane
of a gyro in?
336. Groundspeed is 540 8 mins 9 mins 18 mins 12 mins
knots. 72 ran to go.
What is time to go?
337. The data that needs to airport ICAO the position of an in- aircraft heading aircraft position in
be inserted into an identifier range DME latitude and
Inertial Reference longitude
System in order to
enable the system to
make a successful
alignment for
navigation is:
338. A Rhumb line is: the vertex of a a straight line on a a line on the Earth the shortest distance
conformal Lambert's conformal which cuts all between two points
polyformic chart meridians at the same on the Earth's surface
projection angle
189
339. How long does 17 minutes 5 minutes 10 minutes 2 minutes

alignment of an IRS
(Laser Ring Gyros)
normally take at mid-
latitudes?
340. What method of Distance and Waypoint name Navaid identifier Latitude and
entering waypoints can bearing longitude
be used on all INS
equipments?
341. Alignment of INS and ATT and ALIGN NAV and ALIGN ALIGN only ALIGN and ATT
IRS equipments can
take place in which of
the following modes?
342. Which of the following INS / IRS pressure altimeter slaved gyro compass VOR
equipments does not
use information from
external sources in
flight?
343. An aircraft's compass If the aircraft has If the aircraft has Every maintenance After a change of
must be swung: been in the hangar been subjected to inspection theatre of operations
for a long time and hammering. at the same magnetic
has been moved latitude.
several times.
344. Civil Twilight occurs Sunset and 6° 6° and 12° below the 12° and 18° below Sunrise and sunset
between: below the horizon horizon the horizon
345. What is the reason for Because the Because the distance Because the Earth's Because of the
seasonal changes in Earth's spin axis is between the Earth orbital speed round difference between
climate? inclined to the and the Sun varies the Sun varies the Tropical Year and
plane of its orbit over a year according to the time the Calendar Year
round the Sun of the year
346. What is the effect on Mach number Mach number Mach number Mach number
the Mach number and decreases; TAS increases; TAS increases; TAS remains constant;
TAS in an aircraft that is decreases remains constant increases TAS increases
climbing with constant
190
CAS?
347. At what times of the Spring Equinox Summer Solstice and Spring Equinox and Autumn Equinox and
year does the length of and Autumn Winter Solstice Summer Solstice Winter Solstice
the hours of daylight Equinox
change most rapidly?
348. What is the definition Estimated on- Estimated time Estimated initial Estimated final
of EAT? blocks arrival time overhead the approach fix time approach fix time
destination airfield
349. On a Transverse Equator, parallel meridian of tangency datum meridian and prime meridian and
Mercator chart, scale is of origin and prime meridian the equator.
exactly correct along vertical perpendicular to it.
the?
350. The purpose of the provide provide continuous provide continuous provide continuous
FMS is to: continuous manual navigation, manual navigation, automatic navigation,
automatic guidance, and guidance and guidance and manual
navigation, performance automatic performance
guidance, and management performance management
performance management
management.
351. An aircraft on the Indicates an No change Indicates a decrease Indicates an
Equator accelerates increase in in heading apparent turn to the
whilst traveling heading North
westwards. What will
be the effect on a
direct reading
compass?
352. What is the duration of From the moment From the moment From the moment From the moment
civil twilight? when the centre of when the tip of the when the centre of when the tip of the
the sun is on the sun disappears below the sun is on the sun disappears below
sensible horizon the sensible horizon visual horizon until the visual horizon
until the centre until the centre the centre reaches a until the centre
reaches a reaches a depression depression angle of 6° reaches a depression
depression angle angle of 6° from the from the sensible angle of 6° from the
of 6° from the sensible horizon. horizon. sensible horizon
191
sensible horizon.
353. Lines of latitude on a Great Circles Small Circles except Vertices Meridians
chart are always: for the Equator
354. On which chart Direct Mercator Lamberts Transverse Mercator Polar Stereographic
projection is it not
possible to show the
North Pole?
355. What is the meaning of It is another term It is the time zone It is an expression for It is the time set by
the term `standard for UTC system applicable only local mean time. the legal authorities
time'? in the USA. for a country or part
of a country.
356. A compass swing is acceleration deviation variation aperiodicity
performed in order to
correct for?
357. The maximum 45° North and 90° North and South 60° North and South 0° North and South
difference between the South
geocentric and
geodetic latitude
occurs at about:
358. The value of magnetic has a maximum of varies between a must be 0° at the cannot exceed 90°
variation: 180° maximum of 45°E and magnetic equator
45W
359. On a Lambert north and south standard parallels Equator parallel of origin
Conformal Conic chart, limits of the chart
earth convergence is
most accurately
represented at the:
360. An Oblique Mercator radio navigation topographical maps of plotting charts in charts of the great
projection is used charts in large east/west extent equatorial regions circle route between
specifically to produce: equatorial regions two points
361. Given: GD = TAS/(GS x GD = (AD x GS)/TAS GD = AD x (GS- GD = (AD-TAS)/TAS
AD = Air distance AD) TAS)/GS
GD = Ground distance
192
TAS = True Airspeed GS

= Groundspeed
Which of the following
is the correct formula
to calculate ground
distance (GD) gone?
362. An aircraft is planned 1153 1203 1206 1157
to fly from position A to
position B, distance 480
nm, at an average
groundspeed of 240
knots. It departs A at
1000 UTC. After flying
150 nm along track
from A, the aircraft is 2
minutes behind the
planned time. Using
the actual groundspeed
experienced, what is
the revised ETA at B?
363. Scale on map or chart The representative The plain statement The graduated scale All the above
can be expressed by: fraction
364. Departure is the Kilometer Nautical mile Statute mile None of the above
distance between two
given meridians,
measured along a
stated parallel and is
expressed in:
365. Earth convergence can earth convergence earth convergence = earth convergence = None of the above
be calculate by the = ch.long X sin ch. long X cos mean ch. long X sec mean
formula: mean lat lat lat
193
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh Question Bank of CPL (Composite)
Flight Performance, Planning and Loading
SL Question option_1 option_2 option_3 option_4

Which of the following has references to
1. aircraft mass and balance? ICAO Annex 2. ICAO Annex 4. ICAO Annex 5. ICAO Annex 6.
The mass and centre of gravity of an by the operator prior to by the owner operator
aircraft must be established by actual by the pilot on entry of aircraft by the engineers before initial entry of aircraft into before the first flight of the
2. weighing: into service commencing service service day
by actual weighing or
The operator must establish the mass of prior to initial entry into determine the mass of the prior to embarking on the by using an appropriate
3. the Traffic Load: service traffic load aircraft method of calculation
by the operator using actual by the pilot using actual by the fuel bowser operator
density or by density density or by density using actual density or by
The mass of the fuel load must be calculation specified in the by the owner using actual calculation specified in the density calculation specified
4. determined: Operations Manual. density. Operations Manual. in the Fuelling Manual.
Crew baggage, catering and Crew and baggage, catering
The Dry Operating Mass is the total mass Crew and passenger baggage, Crew and their hold baggage, other special equipment, and passenger service
of the aeroplane ready for a specific type special equipment, water and special equipment, water and potage water and lavatory equipment, potable water
5. of operation and includes: chemicals contingency fuel chemicals and lavatory chemicals.
with no useable fuel unless including all useable fuel
The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is the the Aeroplane Flight Manual unless the Aeroplane Flight
maximum permissible mass of the Limitations explicitly include including the fuel taken up Operations Manual
6. aeroplane: with no useable fuel it. for take-off explicitly excludes it.
the maximum permissible
total aeroplane mass for take-
the maximum permissible total off subject to the limiting the maximum permissible the maximum permissible
aeroplane mass on completion conditions at the departure total aeroplane mass for total aeroplane mass at the
7. The Maximum Structural Take-off Mass is: of the refuelling operation. airfield. take-off but excluding fuel. start of the take-off run.
is the lower of maximum is the higher of the maximum the maximum performance
structural take-off mass and structural zero fuel mass and the maximum structural limited take-off mass
the performance limited take- the performance limited take-off mass subject to any subject to any last minute
8. The Regulated Take-off Mass: off mass. takeoff mass. last minute mass changes. mass changes.
the mass of the aeroplane
including everyone and
the maximum permissible total everything contained within it the maximum permissible the maximum permissible
aeroplane mass on completion at the start of the take-off total aeroplane mass for total aeroplane mass at the
9. The Take-off mass of the refuelling operation. run. take-off but excluding fuel. start of the take-off run.
1
is the lower of the structural is the higher of the structural

mass and the performance mass and the performance is the actual mass of the is the dry operating mass
10. The Operating Mass: limited mass limited mass aircraft on take-off and the fuel load.
plus standard items such as
unusable fluids, fire minus non-standard items
plus non-standard items such minus non-standard items extinguishers, emergency such as unusable fluids, fire
as lubricating oil, fire such as lubricating oil, fire oxygen equipment, extinguishers, emergency
The Basic Empty Mass is the mass of the extinguishers, emergency extinguishers, emergency supplementary electronics oxygen and supplementary
11. aeroplane: oxygen equipment etc. oxygen equipment etc. etc. electronic equipment etc.
includes passenger masses, includes passenger masses, includes passenger masses,
includes passenger masses and baggage masses and cargo baggage masses, cargo baggage masses and any
baggage masses but excludes masses but excludes any masses and any non- non-revenue load but
12. The Traffic Load: any non-revenue load. nonrevenue load. revenue load. excludes cargo.
is the take-off mass minus
is the take-off mass minus the is the landing mass minus the is the maximum zero fuel the basic empty mass and
13. The Operating Mass: traffic load. traffic load mass less the traffic load crew mass.
The landing Mass minus
The Take-off Mass minus the the sum of the Dry
The Zero Fuel Mass minus the sum of the Dry Operating Operating Mass and the
14. The Traffic Load is: Dry operating Mass Mass and the total fuel load. mass of the remaining fuel. all the above
MZFM minus both traffic load Take-off mass minus the Operating mass minus the Landing mass less traffic
15. The Basic Empty Mass is the: and the fuel load traffic load and the fuel load crew and fuel load load
Only if the performance
Is it possible to fly a certified aircraft at a limited take-off mass is less
Regulated Take-off mass with both a full than the structural limited
16. traffic load and a full fuel load? Some aircraft some of the time All aircraft all the time No, it is not possible! take-off mass.
The CG might not be in
It is intended to fly a certified aircraft with The CG might be in limits all of The CG limits will be in limits limits any of the time during The CG will not be within
17. both a full traffic load and a full fuel load. the flight. all of the flight. the flight. the limits during the flight.
Any non-human, non-animal any frieght or cargo not
18. The term `baggage' means: Excess frieght cargo carried on the person personal belongings
estimate the total mass of the
passengers and add a pre-
determined constant to may compute the actual
Certified Transport category aircraft with may accept a verbal mass from account for hand baggage and mass of passengers and
19. less than 10 seats: or on behalf of each passenger. clothing. checked baggage. all the above.
20. When computing the mass of passengers Personal belongings and hand Infants must be classed as Standard masses include All of the above are correct.
2
and baggage: baggage must be included children it they occupy a seat infants being carried by an
adult
Holiday Charter masses
apply to Table 1 and Table 3
When computing the mass of passengers Holiday flights and holiday Standard masses of male and if the charter is solely
and baggage for an aircraft with 20 seats charters attract the same mass female in Table 1 are intended as an element of a
21. or more: values. applicable. holiday travel package All the above
Table 2 masses vary with
If hand baggage is accounted both the gender (male or
When computing the mass of passengers for separately, 6 kg may be female) of the seat
and baggage for an aircraft with 19 seats The standard masses in Table deducted from the mass of occupant and the number
22. or less: 2 apply each male and female. of seats on the aircraft. All the above
When computing the mass of checked
baggage for an aircraft with twenty seats Mass is categorised by Mass is categorised by
23. or more: Mass is categorised by gender departure destination. None
On any flight identified as carrying a must determine the actual
significant number of passengers whose masses of such passengers need only determine the
masses, including hand baggage, are must add an adequate mass or add an adequate actual masses or apply an
expected to exceed the standard must determine the actual increment to each of such increment to each of such increment if the Take-off
24. passenger mass the operator: mass of such passengers passengers passengers. mass is likely to be exceede
If standard mass tables are being used for
checked baggage and a number of must determine the actual Must determine the actual
passengers check in baggage that is mass of such baggage by need may no alterations if mass of such baggage by
expected to exceed the standard baggage determine the actual masses weighing or by deducting an the Take-off mass is not weighing or adding an
25. mass, the operator: of such baggage adequate mass increment. likely to be exceeded. adequate mass increment
must include the name of
the person preparing the
document and must be
must enable the commander signed by the person
must be established prior to to determine that the load supervising the loading to
each flight and must include and its distribution is such the effect that the load and
the aircraft commanders that the mass and balance its distribution is in
signature to signify acceptance limits of the aircraft are not accordance with the data
26. Mass and balance documentation: of the document. exceeded. on the document. All the above
Once the mass and balance documented last minute acceptable last minute
documentation has been signed prior to no load alterations are changes to the load may be the documentation is not changes to the load must be
27. flight: allowed. incorporated. signed prior to flight. documented.
3
whenever the cumulative

changes to the dry
operating mass exceed plus
or minus 0.5% of the
maximum landing mass and
if the mass and balance if the cumulative change in
on initial entry into service and records have not been CG position exceeds 0.5% of
every four years after initial adjusted for alterations or the mean aerodynamic
28. Aircraft must be weighed: weigh modifications. chord. All of the above
must be performed under the
supervision of qualified
personnel and must be must comply with
consistent with the data used compartment dimension must comply with the
for calculating the mass and limitations and the maximum maximum mass per cargo
29. Aeroplane loading: balance. load per running metre compartment All of the above
if they are of the same model providing appropriate
and configurationproviding the corrections to mass and CG providing the dry operating
individual masses and CG position are applied to aircraft mass of any aeroplane does
An average dry operating mass and CG positions meet specific within the fleet which have a not vary by more than 0.5%
position may be used for a fleet or group tolerances specified in physical, accurately of the maximum structural
30. of aeroplanes: regulations. accountable difference. landing mass of the fleet. All of the above
allowed if it is found of the allowed if it is found that
LMC (Last Minute Change) of load last moment that CG is out of actual pay load is 5% more not allowed for any of ‘a’ or
31. Documents is: limit by 5% than the acceptable pay load. allowed for booth ‘a’ & ‘b’ ‘b’
After loading of an aircraft for a flight it is reshuffle the load by
found that pay load is acceptable by both some dead load will be off some passengers will be off calculating moment
mass and volume, but CG has gone slightly loaded to bring CG within loaded to brief CG within (armlength X mass) to bring
32. out of the limit: flight will be released limit limit the CG within limit.
The dry operating mass plus The empty mass plus the The empty mass plus crew, The empty mass plus the
33. The operating mass of an aircraft is: the take-off fuel mass take-off fuel mass crew baggage and catering trip fuel mass
What effect has a centre of gravity close A better rate of climb A reduction in the specific
34. to the forward limit? capability fuel consumption A reduce rate of climb A decreased induced drag
Useful Load minus
35. The DOM of an aeroplane is: TOM minus Operating Mass LM plus Trip Fuel Operating Mass TOM minus Useful Load
Useful Load minus
36. The Traffic Load of an aeroplane is: TOM minus Operating Mass LM plus Trip Fuel Operating Mass TOM minus Useful Load
37. The TOM of a flight is: OM plus pay load LM plus trip fuel mass ZFM plus take off fuel All of the above
4
minimum of regulated TOM,

Acceptable TOM of a flight of an aircraft is ZFM limited TOM and LM minimum of ZFM limited minimum of regulated minimum of regulated TOM
38. the: limited TOM TOM and LM limited TOM TOM and LM limited TOM and ZFM limited TOM
refer to CAP 696 (SEP 1)Where is the 74 inches aft of the fwd CG 80.4 inches aft of the rear CG 87.7 inches aft of the rear 39 inches forward of the
39. reference datum? position position CG position firewall
fwd limit = 74 inches to 80.4
refer to CAP 696 (SEP 1)What are the CG fwd limit = 74 inches to 80.4 fwd limit = 74 inches, aft limit fwd limit = 74 inches, aft inches and aft limit = 87.7
40. limits? inches = 80.4 inches limit = 87.7 inches inches
refer to CAP 696 (SEP 1) What is the CG at
41. the BEM? 77 inches 87 inches 76.7 inches 77.7 inches
refer to CAP 696 (SEP 1) What is the
structural load limit for the floor at
42. baggage zone `C'? 50 lb per square foot 100 lb per cubic foot 100 lb per square foot 100 kg per square inch
distance of the main undercarriage from
43. the firewall? 97 inches 58 inches 87.7 inches 39 inches
refer to CAP 696 (SEP 1) The aircraft has
six seatsAssuming no other cargo or
baggage, what is the maximum fuel that
can be carried if all six seats are occupied 50 lbs but the CG would be 155 lbs but the CG would be 50 lbs and the CG would be 1551bs and the CG would
44. and the mass of each occupant is 180 lb? dangerously out of limits dangerously out of limits in limits be in limits
refer to CAP 696 (SEP 1) Where is the
45. centroid of baggage zone B? 108 inches from the datum 120 inches from the datum 150 inches from the datum 180 inches from the datum
refer to CAP 696 (SEP 1) Assuming the
weight and access is not a problem where
can a box of mass 500 lb be positioned if in any of the baggage zones if in zones `B' or `C' if placed on in zone `C' only if placed on in zone À' only if placed on
46. the dimensions are 0.75 ft x 1.5 ft x 5 ft? placed on its smallest area its largest area its middle area its largest area
refer to CAP 696 (SEP 1) Assuming the
weight and access is not a problem, where
can a cubic box of mass 500 lb be
47. positioned if the dimensions are 3.15 ft? in any of the baggage zones in zone `B' or `C' only in zone À' only in zone `C' only
refer to CAP 696 (SEP 1) If the landing
mass is 3155lb and the trip fuel was 40
gallons, what was the ZFM if the fuel tanks
48. held 60 gallons of fuel prior to take-off? 3001 lb 3035 lb 3098 lb 3111 lb
49. maximum ramp mass? 3650 lbs 3663 lbs 37801bs 3870 Ibs
5
refer to CAP 696 (SEP 1) How far is the 0.7 inches behind the rear 0.7 inches forward of the rear 6.6 inches forward of the 9.3 inches aft of the rear
50. main wheel from the aft CG limit? datum datum rear datum datum
refer to CAP 696 (SEP 1) How fair is the
51. ifrewall from the fuel tank centroid? 36 inches 37 inches 38 inches 39 inches
refer to CAP 696 (SEP 1) If the total
moment is less than the minimum useful load items must be useful load items must be forward load items must be aft load items must be
52. moment allowed: shifted aft shifted forward increased reduced
refer to CAP 696 (SEP 1) The CG is on the at a mass of 2500 lb and at a moment of 175,000 lb in at a moment of 192,000 lb
53. lower of the fwd CG limits: moment of 185000 lb in and a mass of 2350 lb in and a mass of 2600 lb all the above
refer to CAP 696 (MEP 1) What
performance class does the aircraft belong
54. to? Performance class À' Performance class `B' Performance class `C' Performance class `D'
78.4 inches forward of the
wing leading edge at the
refer to CAP 696 (MEP 1) Where is the inboard edge of the inboard 25.3 inches forward of the 109.8 inches forward of the
55. reference datum? fuel tank nose wheel main wheel all the above
19 inches forward of the fwd 27.8 inches behind the fwd 15.2 inches forward of the
refer to CAP 696 (MEP 1) The main wheel CG limit at the maximum take- CG limit at a take-off mass of rear CG limit at the
56. is off mass 3400 lbs maximum take-off mass all the above
56.7 inches forward of the fwd 65.5 inches forward of the 69.3 inches aft of the rear
refer to CAP 696 (MEP 1) The nose wheel CG limit at maximum take-off fwd CG limit at maximum CG limit at maximum take-
57. is mass take-off mass off mass all the above
refer to CAP 696 (MEP 1) What is the
minimum fuel mass that must be
consumed if the aircraft, having become
airborne at maximum weight, decides to
58. abort the flight. 1260 lb 280 lb 237 lb 202 lb
refer to CAP 696 (MEP 1) If the pilot has a
mass of 200 lb, what is the maximum
59. traffic load? 1060 lb 1600 lb 1006 lb 6001 lb
refer to CAP 696 (MEP 1) Assuming the
maximum zero fuel mass and maximum
take-off mass, what fuel load can be
60. carried? 38.9 Imperial gallons 46.6 US gallons 176.8 litres any one of the above
refer to CAP 696 (MEP 1) A box of mass all zones, both the mass and no zones, both the mass
100 lb is to be transportedThe box structural loading are within and structural loading no zones, the structural
61. dimensions are 9 x 9 x 12 inchesWhich limits zones 2 and 3 only would be exceeded. loading would be exceede
6
zones can it be carried in?

refer to CAP 696 (MEP 1) A box of mass
360 lb is to be transportedThe dimensions no zones, both the mass
of the box are 1.7ft x 1.7ft x 1.8ftWhich zones 2 and 3only but placed zones 2 and 3 only but placed and structural loading no zones, the structural
62. zones can it be carried in? on the 1.7 x 1.7 face on the 1.7 x 1.8 face would be exceeded loading would be exceede
refer to CAP 696 (MEP 1) Assuming floor
loading limits are acceptable, how much 50 lb in zones 1 or 4 but full 3501bs load in zone 4 but
freight and fuel load can be carried for A full load in each zone plus loads in each of the other full loads in all the other A full freight load in each
63. MTOM if the pilot's mass was 2001b? 380 lb of fuel zones, plus 280 lbs of fuel. zones, plus 280 lbs of fuel. zone plus 280 lb of fuel
refer to CAP 696 (MEP 1) What is the
64. maximum fuel tank capacity? not given. 123 US gallons 46.6 US gallons TOM minus ZFM
refer to CAP 696 (MEP 1) If the aircraft is 625 lbs providing at least 759 lbs providing at least
at MTOM with full fuel tanks and a pilot of 579 lbs providing at least 20.5 43.3 gallons of fuel are 59.5 gallons of fuel are
mass 200 lb, what traffic load can be gallons of fuel are consumed consumed in start, taxi and consumed in start, taxi and
65. carried? nil in start, taxi and flight flight flight
refer to CAP 696 (MEP 1) The CG when the
TOM is 4300 lb and the corresponding 0.4 inches rear of the aft
66. moment is 408500 lb in is 95 inches 59 inches 0.4 inches tail heavy limit
refer to CAP 696 (MEP 1)If the CG is 86
inches and the TOM is 4100 lb the aircraft just outside the forward CG within the two forward
67. is just on the forward CG limit limit just inside the aft CG limit limits
refer to CAP 696 (MRJT 1) All other the rear section of the
parameters being acceptable, a box with a the front section of the aft forward cargo
maximum and minimum running load of any compartment of either the cargo compartment or the compartment or the rear the centre section of
12 kg/in and 7 kg/in and a mass of 800 kg forward or aft cargo rear section of the forward section of the aft cargo forward cargo
68. can be fitted into: compartment cargo compartment compartment compartment only
traffic load plus usable fuel dry operating mass plus traffic load plus dry that part of the traffic load
69. Define the useful load: mass usable fuel load operating mass which generates revenue
Determine the position of the CG as a
percentage of the Mean Aerodynamic
Chord (MAC) given that the balance arm
of the CG is 724 and the MAC balance
70. arms are 517 to 1706 14.2 15.3 16.3 17.4
No damage will occur No damage will occur
providing the aircraft is providing the aircraft is
If the maximum structural landing mass is The aircraft will be unable to The undercarriage could within the regulated landing within the performance
71. exceeded: get airborne collapse on landing mass. limited landing mass.
7
Using CAP 696, fig 4.-12 Assuming the fuel

index moves minus 5.7 from the ZFM
index, what is the take-off CG as a
72. percentage of the MAC? 20.1 19.1 23 18.2
Due to a mistake in the load sheet the
aeroplane is 1000 kg heavier than you V1,Vmu,Vr will all occur
73. believe it to beAs a consequence: V1, will be later Vmu will be later Vr will be later earlier
If the aeroplane was neutrally stable this the CG is behind the rear
74. would suggest that: the CG is forward the CG is in mid range the CG is on the rear limit limit
Which of the following would not affect Cabin crew members Mass added or removed at
75. the CG? performing their normal duties. Fuel usage Stabilator trim setting the neutral point
the point on the aircraft
the point on the aircraft where the point on the aircraft at from where the dihedral the point on the aircraft
76. The CG is the datum is located. which gravity appears to act. angle is measured. where the lift acts through.
the weighing schedule and the On the weighing schedule
aeroplane must be re-weighed and is adjusted to take
The aircraft basic mass and CG position is if equipment change causes a On the loading manifest and On the loading manifest account of any mass
77. found on change in mass or balance is DOM - traffic load. and is ZFM - useful load changes.
determined by the operator
When determining the mass of fuel/oil (and laid down in the
and the value of the SG is not known, the aeroplane OPS Manual. A pilot determined by the aviation
78. value to use is: simply has to look it up) set out in OPS manual authority determined by the pilot
In mass and balance terms, what is an A moment divided by a A moment divided by a A mass divided by a
79. index? A cut down version of a force constant mass moment
If an aeroplane comes into lands below its Tyre temperature limits could It might not have sufficient
MSLM but above the PLLM for the arrival A go-around might not be be exceeded and Brake fade runway length in which to
80. airfield: achievable. could occur.. stop safely. All the answers are correct
A twin engine aeroplane of mass 2500 kg
is in balanced level flightThe CG limits are
82 in to 95 in from the nose position of
the aeroplane and the CG is approximately
mid rangeA passenger of mass 85 kg,
moves from the front seat 85.5 inches aft
of the nose to the rear seat157.6 inches
from the noseWhat isthe new CG position
81. approximately? 2.5 inches 87.5 inches 91 inches 92.5 inches
82. 103.6 in Datum 25.3 in 6 in 3450 N Left BEM = 1489 kg and CG is 20 BEM = 1456 kg and CG is 20 BEM = 1489 kg and CG is 20 BEM = 1456 kg and CG is
8
Main =5550 N Right Main = 5610 N inches forward of datum inches aft of the nose inches aft of datum 89.6 inches aft of the nose
Calculate the Basic Empty mass and CG
position for the MEP 1 shown above.
A twin engine aeroplane is certified for a
MTOM and a MLM of 58000 kg and 55000
kg respectfullyWhat is the limiting take-off
mass for the aeroplane? PLTOM 61000 kg
PLLM 54000 KG MZFM 36000 kg
Operating mass 55000 kg Trip fuel 30000
kg Contingency fuel 5% of trip fuel
Alternative fuel 500 kg Final reserve 500
kg Flight duration 3 hours Fuel
consumption 500 kg per hour per engine
83. Useful load 41500 kg 58000 kg 61000 kg 56145 kg 56545 kg
367.9 inches from the nose
With reference to CAP 696 figure 4.9, the half way between stations 228 314.5 inches forward of the 367.9 inches from the of the aeroplane. Refer to
84. centroid of the forward hold is and station 500 aft cargo bay centroid datum CAP 696
fixed by the physical size of variable and depends on
The maximum aircraft mass excluding all fixed and listed in the aircraft's variable and is set by the the fuselage and cargo the actual fuel load for the
85. usable fuel is: Operations Manual payload for the trip. holds. trip.
Just prior to take-off, a baggage handler
put an extra box of significant mass into
the hold without recording it in the
LMC'sWhat are the effects of this action? Stick forces at VR will increase
The aeroplane has a normal, tricycle if the box is forward of the The safe stopping distance
86. undercarriage. main wheels VMU will occur later will increase all the above
What is the maximum acceptable take-off
mass, given: MTOM 43,000 kg MLM
35,000 kg PLLM 33,000 kg MZFM 31,000
kg DOM 19,000 kg Total Fuel capacity
12,500 kg Maximum Trip Fuel 9,000 kg
Contingency fuel 1000 kg Alternate fuel
87. 500 kg Final reserve fuel 400 kg 43,000 kg 42,000 kg 41,000 kg 40,000 kg
What is the maximum mass an aeroplane
can be loaded to before it moves under its Maximum Structural Ramp Maximum Structural take-off Maximum Regulated Ramp Maximum Regulated Take-
88. own power? mass mass Mass off mass
The weight of an aircraft in all flight at right angles to the
89. conditions acts: parallel to the CG aeroplane's flight path always through the MAC vertically downwards
9
range will remain the same

but stalling speed will
90. If the CG moves rearwards during flight: range will decrease range will increase stability will increase decrease
The CG of an aeroplane is situated at
115.8 arm and the mass is 4750 kgA
weight of 160 kg is moved from a hold
situated at 80 arm to a hold at 120
91. armWhat would be the new CG arm? 117.14 118.33 118.5 120.01
What is the effect of moving the CG from
the front to the rear limit at constant Reduced optimum cruise
92. altitude, CAS and temperature? range Reduced cruise range Increased cruise range Increased stall spee
The baggage compartment floor-loading
limit is 650 kg/m'What is the maximum
mass of baggage that can be placed in the
baggage compartment on a pallet of
dimensions 0.8m by 0.8mThe pallet has a
93. mass of 6 kg? 416 kg 1015 kg 650 kg 410 kg
An aeroplane of 110,000kg has its CG at
22.6m aft of the datumThe CGlimits are
18m to 22m aft of the datumHow much
mass must be removed from a hold 30m
aft of the datum to bring the CG to its mid
94. point? 26800 kg 28600 kg 86200 kg 62800 kg
Where does the mass act through when It doesn't act through
95. the aircraft is stationary on the ground? The centre of gravity The main wheels anywhere. The aerodynamic centre
If an aircraft is weighed prior to entry into
service who is responsible for doing the
re-weigh to prepare the plane for
96. operations? The manufacturer. The operator The pilot The flight engineer.
An aeroplane has a tank capacity of 50000
Imperial gallonsIt is loaded with fuel to a
quantity of 165000 kg (790 kg/m3)What is
the specific gravity of the fuel and
approximately how much more fuel could
be taken up given that mass limits would
97. not be exceeded? 0.73 46053 gallons 0.81 3940 gallons 0.72 46000 gallons 0.79 3946 gallons
98. Define Balance Arm BA = Mass / Moment BA = Moment / Mass BA = Mass / Distance BA = Moment / Distance
10
You have been given 16500 litres of fuel at heavier stick forces at rotation heavier stick forces on lighter stick forces on lighter stick forces on
SG 0.78 but written down is 16500 kgAs a and improved climb rotation and distance to take- rotation and calculated V1 rotation and V2 will be too
99. result you will experience performance. off increases. will be too high. low.
The weight of an aircraft fully equiped for
a particular flight excluding all payload is
100. called Operational weight Basic weight Operational empty weight Takeoff weight
Weight weight within its
Purpose of the weight and balance is to Center of graity within its maximum permissible empty Weight within its maximum
101. ensure limits weight permissible basic weight All above are correct
102. The distance from the datum to the CG is: the index the moment the balance arm the station
when the effects of with the hangar doors
Individual aircraft should be weighed in an on entry into service and modifications or repairs are closed and the air
103. air conditioned hangar subsequently every 4 years not known conditioning off. all the above.
If a compartment takes a maximum load
of 500 kg, with a running load limit of 350
kg/m and a distribution load limit of 300
kg/m2 maxWhich of the following boxes,
104. each of 500 kg, can be carried? 100 cm x 110 cm x 145 cm 125 cm x 135 cm x 142 cm 120 cm x 140 cm x 143 cm Any of the boxes
For a conventional light aeroplane with a
tricycle undercarriage configuration, the
higher the take-off mass (assume a stab Range will decrease but Stick forces at rotation and
105. trim system is not fitted): endurance will increase Gliding range will reduce Stalling speed will increase All are correct
Due to a mistake in the load sheet the
aeroplane is 100 kg heavier than you V1, VMU, VR will all occur
106. believe it to beAs a consequence: V1 will be later VMU will be VR will be later earlier
107. The CG position is: set by the pilot set by the manufacturer able to exist within a range fixed
An aircraft is about to depart on an
oceanic sector from a high elevation
airfield with an exceptionally long runway
in the tropics at 1400 local timeThe
regulated take-off mass is likely to be Maximum certified Take-
108. limited by MZFM Obstacle clearance off mass Climb gradient
An aircraft is flying at 1.3 Vs in order to
provide an adequate margin' above the
low speed buffet and transonic speedsIf 146.7 kts, drag will increase 191 kts, drag will increase 191 kts, drag will increase 147 kts, drag will remain
the l.3Vs speed is 180 kts CAS the mass and nautical mile per kg fuel and range nm/kg will and nm/kg fuel burn will the same and nm/kg fuel
109. increases from 285000 kg to 320000 kg, burn will decrease. increase. decrease. burn will increase
11
what is the new stalling speed?

but does not have to be
The CG datum has to be along the between the leading and between the nose and the
110. longitudinal axis: between the nose and the tail. trailing edge of the MAC. tail. at the fire wall.
TOM minus the operating
111. The useful load is: TOM - fuel mass BEM plus fuel load TOM minus the DOM mass
Standard masses for baggage can be used
112. for aircraft with: 9 seats or more 20 seats or more 30 seats or more less than 30 seats
If an aeroplane comes into lands below its Tyre temperature limits could It might not have sufficient
MSLM but above the PLLM for the arrival A go-around might not be be exceeded and Brake fade runway length in which to
113. airfield: achievable. could occur.. stop safely. All the answers are correct
MTOM minus fuel to Maximum allowable mass of Actual loaded mass of the
destination minus fuel to the aircraft with no usable Operating mass minus the aircraft with no usable fuel
114. What is the zero fuel mass? alternative airfield. fuel on board. fuel load. on boar
An aeroplane develops a serious
maintenance problem shortly after take-
off and has to return to its departure The pilot calculates the
airfieldIn order to land safely the aircraft amount of fuel to jettison to The fuel system As much as the pilot feels is
must jettison fuelHow much fuel must be Sufficient to reduce the mass reduce the mass to a safe automatically stops the just insufficient to land
115. jettisoned ? to the zero fuel mass level at or below the RLM. jettison at the RLM. safely
LDM minus DOM minus
116. Pay load of a flight is: ZFM minus DOM TOM minus operating mass remaining usable fuel. all the above.
The International Standard Atmosphere
defines an atmosphere where (i) Sea level
temperature (ii) Sea level pressure (iii) Sea
level density (iv) temperature lapse rate 15°C 1013 mb 1.225 kg/m3 15°C 1013 mb 1.225 kg/m3 0°C 1.013 Bar 1225 g/m3 15°C 29.92 in.Hg 1013
117. are: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 1.98°C/1000m 6.5°C/1000 m 1.98°C/1000 ft kg/m3 1.98°C/1000 ft.
The Service Ceiling is the pressure altitude the low speed and high speed the lift becomes less than the rate of climb reaches a
118. where the rate of climb is zero buffet are coincident the weight specified value
the average performance the minimum performance
the average performance the minimum performance achieved by a number of achieved by the individual
achieved by a number of achieved by a number of aircraft of the type reduced aircraft reduced by a
119. The Gross performance of an aircraft is aircraft of the type. aircraft of the type by a specified margin specified margin.
True Air speed : Speed of Indicated Air speed : local True Air speed : Local True Air speed : Speed of
120. The Mach number is the ratio of sound at sea level speed of sound speed of sound sound in ISA conditions
The Clearway at an aerodrome is an area at the end of the stopway, with at the end of the runway, at the end of the runway, at the end of the runway,
121. beginning a width equal to the runway having a minimum required with a minimum width of 60 clear of obstacles and
12
width, and clear of obstacles. width, disposed equally about m each side of the centre capable of supporting the
the extended centre line, with line and clear of obstacles. weight of the aircraft during
no obstacles protruding above an emergency stop.
a plane sloping upwards with
a slope of 1.25%
Gross landing distance is
Which of the following statements is Gross gradient is less than net Gross take-off distance is less greater than net landing Gross acceleration is less
122. correct gradient than net take-off distance distance than net acceleration
An aerodrome has a pressure of 1013 mb
and a temperature of 25°C, the (i)
pressure altitude and (ii) density altitude above sea level below sea below sea level above sea
123. are : Sea level Sea level level sea level above sea level level
Assuming that the acceleration is constant
during the take-off, if the take-off speed is
increased by 3%, the Take-off distance will
124. increase by 0.03 6 0.09 0.12
The forces acting on an aircraft during the Lift, weight, aerodynamic Lift, weight, aerodynamic
125. take-off run are Lift, thrust and drag drag, thrust drag, wheel drag, thrust Weight, thrust, drag.
Is decreased due to
reducing difference Is increased due to
During the take-off run the thrust of a jet Is increased due to intake between jet velocity and increasing intake ram
126. engine Is decreased due to ram effect momentum drag aircraft velocity temperature rise.
a constant thrust for a constant thrust for decreasing thrust as increasing thrust as
temperatures below a cut-off temperatures above a cut-off temperature decreases temperature increases
127. A "flat rated" jet engine will give value value below a cut-off value above a cut-off value
For a jet engine without limiters, thrust Increased ambient Decreased pressure Increased atmospheric
128. will increase as a result of Increased pressure altitude temperature altitude humidity
As speed increases the thrust of a fixed Decrease initially and then
129. pitch propeller will Decrease to a constant value Increase to a constant value increase Eventually decrease to zero
Depends on the total load on Depends on the wheel
The rolling friction drag of an aircraft's Depends on the aircraft weight the wheels and decreases bearing friction and Depends on tyre distortion
130. wheels during take-off and is constant during take-off during take-off increases with speed and increases with speed
For a given wind speed, the regulations on
wind factor give the least margin of safety if the wind is at 45° to the if the wind is at 90° to the if the wind is a pure
131. on takeoff: runway runway headwind if the wind is a pure tailwind
The take-off distance required will increasing mass, reducing flap decreasing mass, increasing decreasing mass, increasing increasing mass, reducing
132. increase as a result of below the optimum setting, flap above the optimum flap above the optimum flap below the optimum
13
increasing density setting, increasing density setting, decreasing density setting, decreasing density
If the flap angle is reduced below the
optimum take-off setting, the (i) field
limited take-off massand the (ii) climb
133. gradient limited mass are : (i) (ii) increase decrease decrease increase decrease decrease increase increase
If the flap setting for take off of a flight is increased with increased tail decreased with increased tail decreased with increased decreased with increased
134. maximum runway length required will be: wind wind head wind cross win
Which combination of forces on the
135. aircraft determine the climb gradient Lift, weight, thrust Lift, drag, thrust Thrust, drag, weight Lift, weight, thrust, drag
decrease due to increased increase due to increased
The effect of increased aircraft mass on decrease due to increased increase due to increased lift drag and reduced ratio of speed required at optimum
136. the climb gradient is drag required excess thrust to weight angle of attack
Maximum achievable speed Speed for best rate of climb Max. speed with flap Speed for best angle of
with max. continuous thrust and speed for best angle of extended and max. speed climb and speed for best
137. The speeds V_X and V_Y are, respectively and maximum take-off thrust climb with gear extended rate of climb
increases if flap angle decreases if flap angle increases if flap angle decreases if flap angle
For a given aircraft mass, the climb increases, and if temperature increases, and if temperature increases, and if increases, and if
138. gradient decreases. decreases. temperature increases. temperature increases.
With a headwind, compared to still air
conditions, the (i) rate of climb (ii) climb remain the same remain
139. angle relative to the ground will : (i) (ii) remain the same increase increase increase increase remain the same the same.
140. The rate of climb depends on the excess thrust available the excess power available the excess lift available the CLmax of the wing.
The speed to give the maximum rate of always the same as the speed as close to the stalling speed higher than the speed for lower than the speed for
141. climb will be for best angle of climb. as possible best angle of climb best angle of climb.
decreases because power decreases because power decreases because power
available decreases and power increases because density and available decreases and available is constant and
142. With increasing altitude, the rate of climb required is constant. drag decrease. power required increases. power required increases.
at a speed corresponding to
at a speed close to the stalling at VMO with all permissible maximum L :D with the
speed with all permissible drag drag producing devices at VMO with the aircraft in aircraft in the clean
143. The maximum rate of descent will occur producing devices deployed. deployed. the clean configuration. configuration.
In a power-off glide in still air, to obtain
the maximum glide range, the aircraft at a speed corresponding to at a speed corresponding
144. should be flown: maximum L : D at a speed close to the stall. to minimum CD at a speed close to VNE
For a given aircraft mass the climb
145. gradient is determined by lift - weight thrust - drag lift - drag thrust - weight.
146. For a given aircraft mass, the climb increase if the aircraft is decrease if the aircraft is increase if the aircraft is decrease if the aircraft is
14
tradient accelerating and if the accelerating and if the accelerating and if the accelerating and if the
temperature increases. temperature increases temperature decreases temperature decreases.
With the flaps in the take-off position,
compared to the aircraft clean, the (i)
climb gradient (ii) speed for best climb
147. angle will : (i) (ii) decrease increase increase decrease decrease decrease increase increase
high pressure altitude, high temperature, high
high mass, low temperature, turning flight, low pressure altitude, low pressure altitude, high
148. The climb gradient will be reduced by high flap angle temperature contaminated airframe. mass, high temperature.
it will have a small positive the rate of climb will be the lift will be insufficient to
149. When an aircraft reaches its service ceiling the excess power will be zero rate of climb zero support the weight.
If the speed brakes are extended during
the descent while maintaining a constant
speedThe rate of (i) descent (ii) angle of
150. descent will : (i) (ii) increase remain the same remain the same increase increase decrease increase increase
increase the glide angle and not affect the glide angle, but increase the glide angle, but not affect the glide angle,
In a power-off glide, an increase in aircraft increase the speed for increase the speed for not affect the speed for and not affect the speed for
151. mass will minimum glide angle. minimum glide angle. minimum glide angle. minimum glide angle.
For a jet aircraft, the speed to give the the speed corresponding to the speed corresponding to a speed greater than that a speed less than that for
152. maximum rate of climb will be maximum L :D minimum L:D for maximum L :D maximum L :D
In which document would you find
information on known short-term Aeronautical Information
153. unserviceability of VOR TACAN, and NDB? NOTAM Publication (AIP) SIGMET ATCC
NOTAM and Aeronautical
Where may details of temporary Danger Aeronautical Information Information Publication
154. and Restricted Airspace be found? SIGMETs Circulars (AIC) (AIP) ATCC
Details of temporary danger areas are
155. published: in AICs on the appropriate chart by VOLMET in NOTAMs
Temporary, short-notice, NOTAMN, NOTAMR,
156. What are the types of NOTAM? permanent A, B, C NOTAMC A, E, L
Where would you find information
regarding temporary un-serviceability of
157. any facility ? AIP NOTAM AIC ATCC
Given: Dry Op Mass = 33510 kg Load =
7600 kg Final reserve fuel = 983 kg
Alternate fuel = 1100 kg Contingency fuel
158. = 102 kg The estimated landing mass at 42312 kg 42093 kg 42210 kg 42195 kg
15
the alternate should be:

Reduce contingency fuel to
below that required from
What is the purpose of Decision Point Carry minimum fuel to Reduce landing mass to Decision Point to
159. Procedure? increase Traffic Load. Increase safety of the flight. avoid stressing the aircraft. destination.
Reducing contingency fuel
What is Decision Point Procedure? It is a Reducing contingency fuel to Reducing trip fuel to only to below that required from
procedure to reduce the amount of fuel Reducing contingency fuel only that required from that required from Decision Decision Point to
160. carried on a flight by: from 10% to 5% of trip fuel. Decision Point to Destination. Aerodrome to Destination. destination.
Turbo jet ac; taxi fuel 600 kg; fuel flow
cruise 10,000 kg/hr; fuel flow hold 8,000
kg/hr; alternate fuel 10,200 kg; flight time
6 hours; visibility at destination 2000
mWhat is the minimum ramp fuel?
161. (Considering contingency 5% of the trip) 80,500 kg 79,200 kg 77,800 kg 76,100 kg
Given: DOM 33,510 kg; Traffic load 7,600
kgTrip fuel 2040 kgFinal reserve 983
kgAlternate fuel 1100 kgContingency 5%
of trip fuelWhich of the following is est landing mass at destination est landing mass at
162. correct? 43,193 kg destination 43,295 kg est take-off mass 43,295 kg est take-off mass 45,233 kg
Multi-engined ac on IFR flightGiven: trip
fuel 65 US Gal; contingency 5% trip;
Alternate fuel including final reserve 17 US
Gal; Useable fuel at departure 93 US GalAt
a point halfway to destination, fuel Remaining fuel is
consumed is 40 US GalAssuming fuel insufficient to reach
consumption is unchanged, which of the At departure Reserve Fuel was At destination required destination with reserves At destination there will be
163. following is correct? 28 US Gal. reserves remain intact. intact. 30 gal in tanks.
For a flight of a jet engine aircraft of DOM
86000 kgs, MZFM 114000 Kgs, MLDM
124000 Kgs, MTOM 164000 Kgs, Trip fuel
30000 Kgs, Alternate fuel 3000 Kgs,
Holding fuel 5000 Kgs/Hr overshoot 200
Kgs, Contingency 5% of the trip fuel Taxi
fuel 200 Kgs,The maximum pay load that
164. can be carried is : 26800 Kgs. 28000 Kgs. 30800 Kgs 32000 kgs.
165. An aircraft is to fly 800nm from A to B at 153min; 435nm 163min; 435nm 163min; 455nm 173min; 435nm
16
160kt groundspeed; the return

groundspeed to its diversion A is 190ktIf
its safe endurance is 5 hours calculate the
time and distance from A to the point of
no return
Determine the time and distance to the
point of no return from the following
data: i) Outbound leg; TAS 275kt,
HEADWIND COMPONENT 35kt ii) Return
leg; TAS 285kt, TAILWIND COMPONENT
35kt iii) Fuel available, excluding reserve,
21420 lbiv Mean fuel consumption 3730
166. lb/h 180 min; 788nm 197 min; 758nm 197 min; 788nm 210 min; 788nm
On a flight from L to M the TAS is 170kt
and the fuel in tanks is sufficient for the
time of the flight, plus 2 hoursIn the event
of the aircraft having to divert back to L
the aircraft must arrive overhead with
sufficient fuel for a further 75 minute
flight Route details: FROM L to M wind
component +30 Distance 800 NM; From M
to L WC -30 DIST 800NM Calculate the
time and distance from L to the point of
167. no return 117.5min; 392nm 127.5min; 392nm 117.5min; 352nm 117.5min; 362nm
On a flight from L to M the TAS is 170kt
and the fuel in tanks is sufficient for the
time of the flight, plus 2 hoursIn the event
of the aircraft having to divert back to L
the aircraft must arrive overhead with
sufficient fuel for a further 75 minute
flightRoute details: FROM TO WCDISTL M
+30 800nm M L -30 800mn Calculate the
time and distance from L to the point of
no returnarrive overhead with a reserve of
168. 260 Imp gal 981 nm 961 nm 951 nm 931 nm
Given: Fuel flow out TO PNR 115001b/hr
TAS 474kt Wind component 50kt head
169. Fuel flow HOME from PNR 10300lb/hr TAS 1769nm; 250.5min. 1530nm; 169min. 1510nm; 213.5min. 1530nm; 211.5min.
17
466kt Wind component 70kt tail Flight

Plan fuel 820001b Fuel less reserves
700001b The time and distance to the
PNR are:
An aeroplane is to fly 1 190nm from A to B
at a TAS of 210kt with a forecast wind
component of 30kt head (assume 30kt tail
on return to The mean fuel consumption
outbound is expected to be 2400kg/h, and
2000kg/h if the aircraft has to return to AIf
the fuel available is 14500kg, excluding
reserve,the distance and time to the point
170. of no return are 669m-n; 223min. 678nm; 226min. 687nm ; 229min. 665nm; 166min.
At 1020Z an aircraft leaves its PNR to
return to overhead its departure
airfieldGiven: Fuel flow out TO PNR
3310kg/hr TAS 484kt Wind component
30kt head Fuel flow HOME from PNR
2810kg/hr TAS 475KT Wind component
50kt tail Route distance 2500nm Total
Endurance fuel 28900kg Safe Endurance
fuel 21000kg The aircraft's ETA at the
departure airfield and planned fuel burn
171. on the return flight are: 1328Z, 8990kg 1359Z; 12080kg. 1441Z; 12235kg. 1330Z; 8898kg.
Reference CAP697 and relevant MEP
dataGiven: Fuel in tanks 123GAL Safe
Endurance Fuel 93.5GAL Departure OUT to
PNR FL80 COAT-1°C Power Setting 55% @
230ORPM Wind Component 20kt tail PNR
HOME to Departure FL140 COAT-13°C Power
Setting 65% @ 250ORPM Wind component
35kt head The distance and time to the PNR
172. are: 348nm; 120.5min. 353nm; 122.5min. 459nm; 159min. 252nm; 87min.
Reference CAP 697 and relevant SEP
dataFuel in tanks 74GAL Safe Endurance
Fuel 64.6GAL 251N HG/250ORPM
Departure OUT to PNR FL 105 COAT -18°C
173. Wind component 20kthead PNR HOME to 500nm; 208min. 391 nm; 182min. 436nm; 181.5min. 448nm; 187min.
18
De Departure FL115 COAT -20°C Wind

component 30kttail The distance and time
to the PNR are:
Decreases with the increase of Decreases with the increase Is not affected by wind
174. For a flight distance to PNR headwind component of tailwind component. component Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
Is not affected with ground
175. For a flight distance to CP Varies with Grand speed home Varies with Grand speed out both ‘a’ and ‘b’ speed home or out.
Tail wind component is Head wind component is Head wind or tail
176. Distance to PNR is maximum if : maximum. maximum component is nil None of the above.
On a flight of 1400nm the groundspeeds
from the critical point to departure P and
destination Q are 310 kt and
230ktCalculate the distance and time to . 804nm. 220min. (804nm.
177. the critical point between P and Q . 804nm. 210min. . 804nm. 190min. . 825nm. 210min. 210min. )
The distance C to D is 1120nm, TAS 210kt
and wind component +35kt (assume the
wind component is +35kt D to Calculate
the distance and time from C to the
178. critical point between C and D 633min, 2241nm 653min, 2241nm 653min, 2141nm 653min, 2341nm
A flight at 165kt TAS is to make from L to
N, 1620nmIf the track direction is 035°(T)
and wind velocity is 090/35, after what
period of time will it be quicker to
continue the flight to N rather than return 892nmn, 386rnin. Ans: c
179. to L ? 912nmn, 366rnin. 932nmn, 386rnin. 912nmn, 386rnin. (912nmn, 386rnin.)
A flight is to be made from A to F; tracks
and distance are: SECTOR DISTANCE(nm)
A - B 220 B-C 170 C - D 480 D-E 95 E - F
320 Assuming that the mean TAS is 325kt,
and the mean wind components from the
critical point to F and A are +35kt and -
25kt, calculate distance to the critical
180. point between A and F 554nm 564nm 574nm 584nm
A twin engine aircraft is to fly 1700nm
from R to SAssume 2 engine TAS 480kt
Single engine TAS 370kt Mean wind
velocity 240/45 Track 030°(T) Airborne
181. time 090OUTC After what time will it be 1008UTC 1015UTC 1018UTC 1028UTC
19
quicker to continue the flight to S from

the engine failure critical point?
A turbine - engined aircraft burns fuel at
200 gals per hour (gph) with a Fuel Density
of 0.8What is the fuel flow if Fuel Density
182. is 0.75? 213 gph 208 gph 200 gph 188 gph
AC flying at 7500ft, is cleared to descend to
be level at 1000ft, 6nm before reaching a
beaconIf ground speed is 156kt and Rate of
Descent is 800fpm, how many miles before
183. the beacon should descent begin? 15 30.2 27.1 11.1
After flying for 16 minutes at 100 kt TAS
with a 20 kt tail wind, you have to return
to the airfield of departureYou will arrive
184. after: 10 min 40 sec 20 min 24 min 16 min
At a fuel check you have 60 US gallons
(USG) of useable fuel
remainingAlternative fuel required is 12
USGThe flight time remaining is 1 hour 35
minsWhat is the highest consumption rate
185. acceptable? 33.0 USG/Hr 37.9 USG/Hr 30.3 USG/Hr 21.3 USG/Hr
ATC require a descent from FL270 to FL
160 to be level 6 nm before a VORIf rate
of descent is 800 feet per minute, mean
groundspeed is 256 kt, how far out from
186. the VOR must descent be started? 59 nm 65 nm 144 nm 150 nm
Given: Track 355 T, wind velocity
340/30kt, TAS 140kt, total distance A to B
350 nmWhat are the time and distance to
187. the point of equal time between A and B? 75 mins, 211 nm. 75 mins, 140 nm. 50 mins, 140 nm. 114 rains, 211 nm.
The fuel burn - off is 200 kg/hr with a
relative fuel density of 0.8If the relative
188. fuel density is 0.75, the fuel burn will be: 267 kg/hr 213 kg/hr 200 kg/hr 188 kg/hr
189. regarding Customs and Health facilities? ATCC broadcasts NOTAMs NAV/RAD supplements AIPs
190. regarding Search and Rescue procedures? ATCC broadcasts NOTAMs SIGMETs AIPs
191. An aircraft climbs from an airfield, 6600 ft 7800 ft 6300 ft 6000 ft
20
elevation 1500 ft, QNH 1023mb, to

FL75What height does the aircraft have to
climb? (Assume 1 mb = 30ft.)
Given by a met station elevation at 4000ft
where QNH is 1003hpaThe minimum
obstruction clearance altitude(MOC) is
8500ftAssume 30ft per HPaWhat is the
192. minimum pressure altitude? 1280ft 8500ft 8200ft 8800ft
Given: true track 215; mountain elevation
11,600 ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035
mb; Required terrain clearance 1500 ft;
temperature ISA - 15CWhich of the
following is the minimum flight level
193. considering the temperature? FL150 FL 140 FL 120 FL110
Multi-engined ac on IFR flightGiven: trip
fuel 65 US Gal; contingency 5% trip;
Alternate fuel including final reserve 17 US
Gal; Useable fuel at departure 93 US GalAt
a point halfway to destination, fuel Remaining fuel is
consumed is 40 US GalAssuming fuel insufficient to reach Remaining fuel is
consumption is unchanged, which of the At departure Reserve Fuel was At destination required destination with reserves insufficient to reach the
194. following is correct'? 28 US Gal. reserves remain intact. intact. destination.
Turbo jet a/c, flying to an isolated airfield,
with no destination alternativeOn top of:
taxi, trip and contingency fuel, what fuel is Greater of 45 mins + 15% of 30 mins holding at 450m 30 mins holding at 450m 2 hours at normal cruise
195. required? trip or 2 hours AMSL AAL consumption
For a planned flight the calculated fuel is
as follows: Flight time 2 hr 42 minThe
reserve fuel, at any time, should be not
less than 30% of trip fuel remainingBlock
fuel 136 kgTaxi fuel 9 kgHow many kg of
196. fuel should remain after 2 hours flight'? 33kg trip and 10 kg reserve 25 kg trip and 8 kg reserve 23 kg trip and 10 kg reserve 33 kg trip and no reserve
Minimum planned take-off fuel is 160 kg
(30% total reserve is include Assume the diversion to a nearby diversion to a nearby
ground speed on this trip is constantWhen diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary, alternate is necessary,
half the distance has been flow, the diversion to a nearby alternate alternate is not necessary, because it is allowed to unless the captain decides
remaining fuel is 70 kgIs it necessary to is necessary, because the because the reserve fuel has calculate the fuel without to continue on his own
197. divert to a nearby alternate? remaining fuel is not sufficient. not been used completely. the reserve responsibility.
21
Refer to CAP 697 SEP1, fig 2.1Aerodrome

elevation 2500 ft, OAT +l0CInitial weight
35001bClimb to FL140, OAT -5CWhat are
198. the climb time, fuel and distance? 22 min, 6.5 g, 46 nm 24 min, 7.5g, 50 nm 2 min, 1.0g, 4 nm 26 min, 8.5g, 54 nm.
Refer to CAP 697 SEP l, fig 2.1Given: FL75,
OAT +5C, during climb, average headwind
component 20kt, take-off from MSL with
initial mass of 3 650 lbsFind time and fuel
199. to climb. 11 min, 3.6 USG 7 min, 2.6 USG 9 min, 2.7 USG 9 min, 3.3 USG
Refer to CAP 697 SEP I, fig 2.2.3Given:
FL75, OAT +l 0 C, Lean mixture, 2300
RPMFind fuel flow (GPH) gallons per hour
200. and TAS. 11.6 GPH 160 kt 68.5 GPH 160 kt 71.1 GPH 143 kt 11.6 GPH 143 kt
Refer to CAP 697 SEP 1 fig 2.4 Given:
Aeroplane mass at start up 3663 lbs fuel
load (density 6lbs/gal) 74 gal Take-off
altitude sea level Headwind 40 kt Cruise
altitude 8000 ft Power setting full throttle
2300 RPM 20°C lean of peak Calculate the
201. range 633 nm 844 nm 730 nm 547.5 nm
Refer to CAP697 SEPGiven: - Power setting
of 23 in HG at 2300 RPM 20°C leanFL50
OAT -5°c Fuel for start-up & taxi 10 lbs
Allow 1 gallon & 3 minutes for your climb
10 minutes and no fuel correction for
descent Flight time of 2 hours 37 minutes
Reserve fuel of 30% of trip fuel What is
202. the minimum block fuel? 250 lbs 208 Ibs 270 lbs 265 lbs
Refer to CAP697, SEP 1, fig 2.5Given: FL75;
Lean mixture; Full throttle/2300 RPM;
Take-off fuel 444 lbs; Take-off from
203. MSLFind endurance in hours. 5 hrs 12 mins 5 hrs 20 mins 4 hrs 42 mins 5 hrs 23 mins
The still air distance in the climb is 189
Nautical Air Miles and time 30
minutesWhat ground distance would be
204. covered in a 30 kt headwind? 189 nm 203 nm 174 nm 193 nm
Given: Turbo jet aircraft taxi fuel 600kg;
205. fuel flow cruise 10,000 kg/hr ; fuel flow 80,500 kg 79,200 kg 77,800 kg 76,100 kg
22
hold 8,000kg/hr; alternate fuel 10,200kg;

flight time 6 hours; visibility at destination
2000mWhat is the minimum ramp fuel?
What is Decision Point Procedures? It is a Reducing contingency fuel to Reducing trip fuel to only
procedure to reduce the amount of fuel Reducing contingency fuel only that required from that required from Decision
206. carried on a flight by: from 10% to 5% of trip fuel. Decision Point to Destination Aerodrome to Destination. Reducing trip distance
What is the purpose of Decision Point Carry minimum fuel to Reduce landing mass to To assist in decision making
207. Procedure? increase Traffic Load. Increase safety of the flight. avoid stressing the aircraft. at refueling
Refer to CAP 697, ME PI, fig 3.3Given: Trip
time 2 hr 37 min from departure to
destination at 2500 RPM, 65% powerFor
the climb and descent add 13 mins of
cruise fuelReserve = 30% of trip fuelTaxy
fuel is 5 US gal.What is the min Ramp
208. Fuel? 86 gal 91 gal 120 gal 115 gal
Refer to CAP697 MEPI fig 3.2A flight is to
be made in a multi-engine piston
aeroplaneGiven: Cruising level 11000 ft
OAT in the cruise -15C Usable fuel 123 US
gallons The power is set to economy
cruiseFind the range in NM with 45 min
209. reserve fuel at 45% power. 752 nm 852 nm 610 nm 602 nm.
Refer to CAP 697 fig 4.5.1Given:
aerodrome at MSL; cruise at FL280; ISA-
10C; Brake release mass 57 500 kgWhat is
210. the climb fuel required? 1100 kg 1150 kg 1138 kg 2200 kg
Refer to CAP 697 fig 4.5.1Given: Track
340T; W/V 280/40kt; aerodrome elevation
387 ft; ISA -10C; Brake release mass 52
000 kg; cruise at FL280What are the climb
211. fuel and time'? 15 min, 1100 kg 12 min, 1100 kg 10 min, 1000 kg 11 min, 1000 kg
Refer to CAP 697 MRJTI fig 4.2.1, 4.2.2,
4.5.3.2Given: Brake release weight 45,000
kg, trip distance 120 nm, temperature ISA-
10C, cruise at M.74Find optimum pressure
212. altitude and TAS. FL370 / 424 kt FL250 / 435 kt FL370 / 414 kt FL250 / 445 kt
DOM 2800kg Trip 300 Payload 400 MTOM
213. 4200 MLM 3700 What is maximum fuel 700 kg 1000 kg 800 kg 500 kg
23
load?
Given: Dry Op Mass 33510 kg Load 7600kg
Final reserve fuel 983 kg Alternate fuel
1100 kg Contingency fuel 102 kgThe
estimated landing mass at the alternate
214. should be: 42312 kg 42093 kg 42210 kg 42195 kg
Given: Dry operating mass 33 500 kg Load
7 600 kg Maximum allowable take-off
mass 66 200 kg Standard taxi fuel 200 kg
Tank capacity 16 100 kg The maximum
215. possible take-off fuel is: 15 900kg 16 300kg 17 100kg 17 300kg
Given : MTOM 64 400 kg MLM 56 200 kg
MZFM 53 000 kg DOM 35 500 kg Load 14
500 kg Trip fuel 4 900 kg T/O fuel 7 400 kg
216. Maximum additional load is ? 3 000 kg 4 000 kg 5 600 kg 7 000 kg
Given : MTOM 64400 kg MLM 56200 kg
MZFM 53300 kg DOM 35500 kg Traffic
load 14500kg Trip fuel 4900kg Minimum
takeoff fuel 7400kg What is the maximum
217. allowable takeoff fuel ? 11400 kg 14400 kg 8600 kg 11100 kg
Planning a flight from Paris (Charles-de-
Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for a twin
jet aeroplanePreplanning: Maximum take-
off mass 62 800 kg Maximum Zero Fuel
Mass 51 250 kg Maximum Landing Mass
54 900 kg Maximum Taxi Mass 63 050 kg
Assume the following preplanning results:
Trip fuel 1 800 kg Alternate fuel 1 400 kg
Holding fuel ( final reserve) 1 225 kg Dry
Operating Mass 34 000 kg Traffic Load 13
000 kg Catering 750 kg Baggage 3 500 kg
218. Find the Take-off Mass 55 765 kg 51 425 kg 52 265 kg 51 515 kg
Reference computer flight plre they able can automatically divert
to account for bad weather in calculating can automatically allow extra route around forecast can automatically allow for
219. fuel required? consumption for anti-icing use thunderstorms no poorly maintained engines
Which statements are correct about
220. computer flight plans? 1)They can file the 1 only 2 only Neither Both
24
flight plan for you2)In the event of an in-

flight re-routing computer automatically
generates a new flight plan
A flight is planned from L to M, distance
850 nmWind component out is 35 kt (TW
TAS 450 ktMean fuel flow out is 2500
kg/hr, mean fuel flow inbound is 1900
kg/hr and the fuel available is 6000 kgThe
time and distance to point of safe return
221. (PSR) is 1 hr 30 min, 660 nm 1 hr 30 min, 616 nm 1 hr 16 min, 606 nm 1 hr 16 min, 616 nm
Given: Maximum useable fuel 15 000 kg,
minimum reserve fuel 3 500 kg, Outbound
TAS 425 kt, head wind component 30 kt,
fuel flow 2150 kg/hrReturn TAS 430 kt,
tailwind component 20 kt, fuel flow 2150
kg/hrFind the distance to the Point of Safe
222. Return (PSR) 1491 nm 1125 nm 1143 nm 1463 nmb
Given: total fuel, 15,000 kg reserve 1,500
kg, TAS 440 kt, wind component 45 head
outbound, average fuel flow 2150
kg/hrWhat is the distance to the point of
223. safe return? 1520 nm 1368 nm 1702 nm 1250 nm
Given: fuel flow 2150 kg/hr, total fuel in
tanks 15,000 kg, fuel reserve required on
arrival 3500 kg, TAS outbound 420 kt,
wind -30 kt, TAS home bound 430 kt, wind
+20 ktFind the time to Point of Safe
224. Return 2 hr 06 min 1 hr 26 min 3 hr 33 min 2 hr 52 min
Given: Safe endurance 5 hours True track
315 W/V 100/20 TAS 115 kt What is
225. distance to PSR? 205 nm 100 nm 282 nm 141 nm
Given: Distance between airports 340 nm
True track 320 W/V 160/40 TAS 110kts
226. Distance to point of equal time (PET) is: 121 nm 219 nm 112 nm 228 nm
Flying from A to B, 270 nm, true track 030,
wind velocity 120/35, TAS 125 ktWhat are
the distance and time to the Point of
227. Equal Time? 141 nm, 65 min 141 nm, 68 min 135 nm, 68 min 150 nm, 65 min.
25
Given: Course A to B 088(T) Distance 1250

nm Mean TAS 330kt Mean W/V A to B
340/ 60kt The time from A to the Point of
228. Equal Time between A and B is: 1 Hour 54 minutes 1 Hour 44 minutes 1 hour 39 minutes 2 hours 02 minutes
Given: Distance A to B 2050 nmMean
groundspeed "on" 440 kt Mean
groundspeed "back" 540 kt The distance
to the point of equal time (PET) between
229. A and B is: 1153 nm 1025 nm 920 nm 1130 nm
If CAS is 190 kt, altitude 9000 ft,
temperature ISA – l0C true course 350,
W/V 320/40 distance from departure is
350 nm, endurance 3 hoursThe distance
230. to Point of Equal Time (PET) is? 203 nm 170 rim 211 nm 330 nm
An appropriate flight level for IFR flight in
accordance with semi-circular height rules
231. on a course of 180 degrees magnetic is: FL105 FL90 FL95 FL 100
For an IFR flight using ICAO semi-circular
RVSM cruising levels on a magnetic track
232. of 200, which is a suitable level? FL290 FL310 FL320 FL330
flight plan in the course of
which radio communication filed flight plan with
should be practised between flight plan with the correct amendments and
233. A "current flight plan" is: aeroplane and ATC filed flight plan time of departure clearances include
An aircraft in the cruise has a calibrated
airspeed of 150 kt, a true airspeed of 180
kt and an average ground speed of 210
ktThe speed box of the flight plan must be
234. filled as follows: K0210 N0150 N0180 K0180
For a flight plan filed before flight, the the time overhead the first the time at which the flight c, The estimated off-block
235. indicated time of departure is: reporting point after take-off plan is filed. time. The time of take-off.
For a radio equipped aircraft, the
identifier in the ATS flight plan item 7 include the aircraft include the operating include an indication of the
236. must always: be the RTF call sign to be used registration agency designator aircraft type
For which flights are Flight Plans required?
i)IFR flightsii)IFR and VFR flightsiii)Flights
crossing national boundariesiv)Flights over
237. waterv)Public transport flights ii, iii, iv i , iii , v i , iii ii , iii, iv, v
26
Given: Maximum Certificated take-off

mass 137 000 kg Actual take-off mass 135
000 kg For item 9 of the ATS flight plan the
238. wake turbulence category is: medium plus "M+" heavy/medium "H/M" medium "M" Heavy "H"
Given the following flight plan
information, Trip fuel 136 kg Flight time
2.75 hrs Reserve fuel 30% of trip Fuel in
tanks Minimum Taxi fuel 3 kg, state how
"endurance" should be completed on the
239. ICAO flight plan: 338 0334 245 249
How many hours in advance of departure
time should a flight plan be filed in the
case of flights into areas subject to air
240. traffic flow management (ATFM) ? 3.00 hrs 0.30 hrs 1.00 hr 0.10 hr
If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than
the destination aerodrome specified in
the ICAO flight plan, he/she must ensure
that the ATS unit at the destination is
informed within a specified time of her
241. planned ETA at destinationThe time is: 45 mins 30 mins 15 mins 10 mins
If equipment listed in item 19 is not Circle boxes of equipment not Tick the boxes of equipment Cross out the boxes for List equipment carried in
242. carried: carried carried equipment not carried box 18 (other information)
If the destination airport has no ICAO
indicator, in box 16 of your ATS flight plan,
243. you write: //// AAAA XXXX ZZZZ
In an ATS flight plan an aircraft will be
244. classified as "L" if its MTOM is ? 27 000 kg 10 000 kg 57 000 kg 7 000 kg
In an ATS flight plan item 15 where either
a route for which standard departure (SId) SID should be entered but not STAR should be entered SID nor STAR should be
245. and a standard arrival (STAR) are provided STAR Both should be entered but not SID entered
In flight, it is possible to: iFile an IFR flight
plan iiModify an active flight plan iiiCancel
246. a VFR flight plan ivClose a VFR flight plan i iii b i ii iii iv ii iii iv i iv
In the ATS flight plan Item 15, for a flight It is not necessary to indicate The letters "DCT" should be
along a designated route, where the the point of joining that route It is necessary only to give the entered, followed by the
departure aerodrome is not on or as it will be obvious to the ATS first reporting point on that point of joining the ATS The words "as cleared"
247. connected to that route: unit. route route. should be entere
27
In the ATS flight plan item 15, it is

necessary to enter any point at which a
change of cruising speed takes placeFor
this purpose a "change of speed" is 20 knots or 0.05 Mach or 5% TAS or 0.01 Mach or 20km per hour or 0.1 Mach
248. defined as: 10% TAS or 0.05 Mach or more more. more or more
In the event that SELCAL is prescribed by
an appropriate authority, in which section
of the ATS flight plan will the SELCAL code
249. be entered? equipment route aircraft identification other information
Prior to an IFR flight, when filling in the
ICAO flight plan, the time information take-off until reaching the IAF taxi-out prior to take-off
which should be entered in box 16 "total (initial approach fix) of the taxi out prior to take-off until until completion off taxi-ing
250. elapsed time" is the time elapsed from destination aerodrome the IAF take off until landing after landing.
Reference item 19 of the ICAO flight plan, Maximum flight time plus 45 Maximum flight time plus 30 Fuel endurance of the Total usable fuel required
251. Endurance is? minutes holding fuel minutes holding fuel aircraft for the flight
Reference the ICAO flight plan, in item 15 Initial cruising true
252. this speed refers to Indicated airspeed Equivalent airspeed airspeed Calculated groundspeed
Standard equipment in item 10a is
253. considered to be: VHF, RTF, ADF, VOR, ILS HF, RTF, VOR, DME VHF, VOR, ADF VHF, RTF, ILS, VOR
The navigation plan reads: Trip fuel 100 kg
Flight time 1 hr 35 min Taxi fuel 3 kg Block
fuel 181 kg How should "endurance" be
254. shown on the flight plan? 204 240 0249 252
The planned departure time from the
parking area is 1815 UTCThe estimated
take-off time is 1825 UTCThe IFR flight
plan must be filed with ATC at the latest
255. at: 1725 UTC 1715 UTC 1745 UTC 1755 UTC
Total Elapsed Time for an IFR flight, when take-off until reaching the IAF taxiing until the IAF (Initial
filling in the ICAO flight plan at box 16, is ( Initial Approach Fix) of the taxi-out prior to take-off Approach Fix) of the
256. the time elapsed from take-off until landing destination aerodrome until taxiing after landing destination aerodrome.
From taxi to arrival on the
gate. 225. When filling in a
flight plan, wake turbulence
category is a function of ?
a) Max certificated landing
What is Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight From take-off to overhead From take-off to overhead mass. b) Max certificated
257. plan ? destination destination + 15 mins From take-off to landing take-off mass From taxi to
28
arrival on the gate.

When filling in a flight plan, wake Max certificated take-off
258. turbulence category is a function of ? Max certificated landing mass. mass Estimated landing mass Estimated take-off mass
When filling in item 9 of the flight plan
and there is no aircraft designator listed, ZZZZ followed by an entry at XXXX followed by an entry a descriptive abbreviation
259. what should the entry be? none item 18 at item 18 of the aircraft type.
When submitting a flight plan before Overhead the first reporting At which the aircraft leaves Take-off d. At which flight From taxi to arrival on the
260. flight, departure time is ? point the parking area plan is filed gate.
You have filed a flight plan for an
uncontrolled flight and suffer a delay prior
to departureAfter how long a delay must
261. you restate your off block time (OBT)? 30 mins 40 mins 60 mins 90 mins
An ATC flight plan should be
262. filed..........before departure of the flight 30 mins 45 mins 1 hrs 2 hrs
You have a flight to DUBAI (DXB) via
KARACHI (KHI) today you want to operate
direct to DXB without landing at KHI but with
the fuel you can uplift you can operate the
flight upto KHI taking DXB as alternateIf you
want to operate that flight to DXB with KHI Initially will depart for KHI with
as alternate fuel wise it is not possibleHow Will operate to DXB without DXB as alternate and from over
263. you can operate the flight? alternate fuel head KHI direct to DX Both of the above None of the above
During a flight ETA to next reporting point
264. shall be revised if it differ by : 5 minutes or more 4 minutes or more 3 minutes or more need not to be revise
During departure of a flight maximum i)
structural limited TOM is 259000 kgs ii)
RWY length limited TOM is 258000 kgs iii)
OAT limited TOM is 255000 kgs iv)
Obstacle clearance TOM is 256000 kgsThe
265. regulated TOM is: 258000 kgs 255000 kgs 259000 kgs 256000 kgs
During departure of a flight i) Maximum
regulated TOM is 164000 kgs, ii)
Maximum landing mass is 124000 kgs, iii)
Maximum ZFM 114000 kgs, iv) Pay load
30000 kgs, v) Trip fuel 32000 kgs, vi)
Alternate Holding and overshoot fuel
266. 12000 kgsThe Maximum TOM is: 156000 kgs 164000 kgs 168000 kgs 144000 kgs
29
by RT communication with
Information on Search and Rescue (SAR) from the Aeronautical the FIR within which the
267. procedures may be obtained: from NOTAMs. from the latest AIC. Information Publication. aircraft is operating. 1
Refer to CAP697 SEP Figure 2.1Given :
Airfield elevation 6000ft OAT 15°C Initial
Weight 35251b Cruise altitude 14000ft
OAT -13 °C Wind component 60kt tail The
time, fuel and ground nautical miles to
268. TOC are: 16 min 5 gall 31 nm 15 min 6 gall 18 nm 17 min 7 gall 46 nm 16 min 5 gall 52 nm
Refer to CAP697 SEP Figure 2.2Given:
Pressure Altitude 10000ft OAT -15°C
Power 23IN HG at 2300RPM The fuel flow
269. and KIAS are: 67.3 PPH 140 kt 67.3 GPH 157 kt 11.4 GPH 139 kt 66.2 GPH 137 kt
Refer to CAP697 MEP Figure 3.4An aircraft
is flying at a High Speed Cruise at a
pressure altitude of 12000ft, temperature
270. ISA +15°C The TAS is: 189 kt 186 kt 183 kt 182 kt
Refer to CAP697 MEP Figure 3.5 The
endurance With 45 MinReserve at 45%
Power for an Economy Cruise at 13000ft
271. is: 4 hr 25 min 4 hr 04 min 4 hr 57 min 6 hr 18 min
The air distance and time to climb is 197
nm and 33 min respectivelyWhat is the
required ground distance with a 40 kt
272. headwind component ? 222 nm 184 nm 157 nm 175 nm
Given: Trip time 3hr 06min Block fuel
118kg Taxi fuel 8kg If the aircraft is
required at any time during its flight to
have a minimum reserve fuel of 30% of
trip fuel remaining, the minimum fuel
273. amount after 2hr is: 39 kg 55 kg 42 kg 45 kg
An aircraft is airborne from an airfield,
elevation 1560ft amsl, on a QNH of
986mb/hPaOn its track of 269°(M) there is
a mountain 12090ft amslTo clear this
obstacle by a minimum of 2000ft its
correct ICAO VFR Flight level is: (1 mb/hPa
274. = 30ft) FL145 FL155 FL160 FL165
30
On a Jeppesen chart the figures FL80

2700a are displayed below an airway The Route MORA (a Safety Maximum Authorized
275. What does the "FL80" indicate? Altitude) Minimum Enroute Altitude Altitude The base of the airway
In the Jeppesen SID, STARs & IAP
276. directions are given as True Course/Track Magnetic Course/Track True Heading Magnetic Heading
Refer to CAP697 SIMPLIFIED FLIGHT
PLANNING LRC (use Figures 4.5.3.1 & 4.3.1
Given: Distance 997 nm tail wind
component 160 kt, landing weight 45000
kg, Cruise weight 56000 kg, FL370, ISA 0°C
277. The fuel required and trip time is: 11200 kg 4 hr 09 min 5300 kg 1 hr 09 min 4200 kg 1 hr 51 min 5000 kg 2 hr 00 min
Refer to CAP697 MRJT Figure 4.4 Given:
Aircraft mass 43000 kg Destination airfield
elevation 3500 ft Alternate airfield
elevation 10 ft ISA conditions What is the
278. final reserve? 2110 kg 1025 kg 1038 kg 1055 kg
Given: MTOM 62000 kg MLM 54000 kg
DOM 35500 kg MZFM 51300 kg Take Off
Fuel 14500 kg Landing Fuel 3500 kg The
279. maximum traffic load for this flight is 15000 kg 15800 kg 12000 kg 4000 kg
Given: Track 185°(T) Variation 9° east
Heading 182°(M) Which is the lowest
280. suitable ICAO IFR cruising level ? FL280 FL310 FL290 FL270
A normal commercial IFR flight has an
estimated Estimated off Block time (EOBT)
of 1540 UTC with the estimated take-off
time as 1555 UTCWhat is the latest time
281. for filing the ICAO Flight Plan? 1510 UTC 1455 UTC 1525 UTC 1440 UTC
Given: A to B Distance 2050 nm Safe
Endurance 6 hrs GS OUT 480 kt GS HOME
380 kt Calculate the distance and time to the
282. Point of Equal Time from A 1272 nm 2 hr 39 min 906 nm 1 hr 53 min 1111 nm 2 hr 19 min 939 nm 1 hr 57 min
Given: GS OUT 178 GS HOME 249 Distance
A to B 450 nm Endurance 3 hours What is
the distance to the Point of Safe Return
283. from A ? 204 nm 311 nm 415 nm 262 nm
You plan to fly from A to B at a TAS of 230
284. kt, a GS of 255 kt and an initial cruising K0230 F150 N0230 F150 N0255 S1500 0230 FL 150
31
pressure altitude of 15000 ftWhat should

you complete Item 15 of the ICAO Flight
Plan?
You are cruising at FL250 and need to be
at FL50 10 nm before a VOR/DME Your
rate of descent is 1250 ft/min and your GS
in the descent 250 ktHow far before the
285. VOR/DME should you start your descent ? 66.7 nm 83.3 nm 98.5 nm 76.7 nm
You required to uplift 40 US Gallons of
AVGAS with Sp.G of 0.72 How many litres
286. and kilograms is this ? 109 ltr 151 kg 182 ltr 131 kg 182 ltr 289 kg 151 ltr 109 kg
Given: DOM 33510 kg Traffic load 7600 kg
Taxi fuel 250 kg Trip Fuel 2500 kg
Contingency fuel 125 kg Final reserve fuel
983 kg Alternate fuel 1100 kg What is the
estimated landing mass at the
287. destination? 43318 kg 45818 kg 42218 kg 43193 kg
from first taxiing under own
When completing an IFR flight plan the take-off to overhead the power until the IAF for take off to the IAF for the take-off until landing at the
288. Total Elapsed Time in item 16 is from destination airport destination airport destination airport destination airport
An aircraft is carrying Maritime Survival Cross out indicators P, D and J; Cross out indicators P, D
289. EquipmentThe correct entry at Item 19 is: tick M. Circle indicator M. Tick indicator M. and J.
At a fuel Relative Density of 0.80 an
aircraft turbine engine burns 220 liters per
hourIf Relative Density is 0.75 what is the
290. fuel burn ? 235 ltr/hr 206 ltr/hr 220 ltr/hr 176 ltr/hr
291. Distance to CP varies with: Ground speed home Ground speed out None of ‘a’ and ‘b’ always of the mid point
Following the fuel policy for a flight with
isolated destination (Island theory) the Trip + Alternate + 30 mins
292. fuel require for a flight is: Trip + alternate + 45 minus Trip + 2 hrs holding + 1 overshoot As per company policy
In ATC Flight plan, section 10.a) ‘S’ stands
293. for VOR, VHF RTF, ADF, ILS VOR, VHF, RTF, ILS VOR, ADF VHF RTF, ADF, ILS
Secondary Surveillance Radar
294. In ATC Flight Plan, Section 10.b) includes: Transponder Category Standard equipments Survival equipments None of ‘a’, ‘b’ & ‘c’
Indicator included in 10. a) of ATC Flight
295. Plan is to be identified in: Item 11 Item 16 Item 18 Item 20
32
CPL Composite (Human Performance)
SL question option_1 option_2 option_3 option_4

By red blood cells combined By red blood cells By red blood cells
How is oxygen transported around the By red blood cells combined with nitrogen and water combined with combined with nitrogen,
1. body ? with carbon dioxide vapour haemoglobin hormones and plasma
Left : Pumps deoxygenated Left : Pumps oxygenated Left : Pumps oxygenated Left : Pumps oxygenated
blood to the lungs Right : blood around the body Right : blood to the lungs Right : blood to the lungs Right :
What is the function of the left and right Pumps oxygenated blood Pumps deoxygenated blood to Pumps deoxygenated blood Pumps oxygenated blood
2. ventricle ? around the body the lungs around the body around the body
Diabetes, obesity, lack of
Diabetes, lack of exercise, exercise, raised blood Raised blood pressure
Diabetes, raised blood raised blood cholesterol, cholesterol, smoking, raised obesity,.family history, age,
cholesterol, smoking, previous smoking, raised blood blood pressure, previous diabetes, raised blood
history of cardio vascular pressure, previous history of history of cardio vascular cholesterol, smoking,
List in ascending order the factors that will problems, age, family history, cardio vascular problems, age, problems, age, family previous history of cardio
3. increase the risk of coronary heart disease obesity, raised blood pressure. family history. history. vascular problems.
Difficulty in breathing, ruddy Ruddy complexion,
Ruddy complexion, headache, complexion, headache, Ruddy complexion, headache, tightness across
List the symptoms of carbon monoxide stomach cramps, nausea, stomach cramps, nausea, headache, nausea, the forehead, impaired
4. poisoning feeling lethargic. feeling lethargic. giddiness, stomach cramps. judgement.
An early onset of hypoxia due An early onset of hypoxia An early onset of hypoxia
to an apparent increase in An early onset of hypoxia due to an apparent increase in due to an apparent increase
The effects of smoking, particularly in altitude and a reduction in to an apparent increase in altitude up to a maximum in altitude with a resulting
5. relation to aviation are: night vision altitude. of 40,000 ft. risk of anaemia
Both will experience
hypoxia at the Smoking, although harmful
Will smokers experience hypoxia lower or approximately the same in other ways, lessens the
6. higher cabin altitude than non-smokers ? At a higher cabin altitude At a lower cabin altitude cabin altitude effects of hypoxia.
Where does the exchange of oxygen and The pulmonary veins and
7. carbon dioxide + water vapour take place The arteries The veins The capillaries arteries
The normal range of blood pressure for Systolic 120 mm Hg and Systolic 80 mm Hg and Systolic 120 mm Hg and Systolic 80 mm Hg and
8. young adults Diastolic 80 mm HG Diastolic 120 mm HG Diastolic 120 mm HG Diastolic 80 mm HG
Tightening and relaxation
Tightening and relaxation of of the blood vessels and the
9. Do pressoreceptors affect the ECG readings the blood vessels only EEG readings pulse rate
10. Treatment of carbon monoxide poisoning Immediate descent to MSA Turn up cabin heat Keep the patient's body Stop all smoking
33
where smoking is allowed in flights temperature as low as

possible
11. Low blood pressure can lead to Low body temperature Reduced tolerance to G forces Infract Angina
Cardiac output (the quantity of blood
pumped by the heart in unit time), is the Stroke volume and the heart Stroke volume and viscosity of Pulse rate and strength of
12. product of rate ( pulse rate) the blood the ventricle muscle Pulse rate only
The exchange of oxygen with
The brain's control of the pulse carbon dioxide and water in
13. Internal Respiration is rate the cells Sighing The retention of breath
What are the constituents of the Oxygen 22% Nitrogen 77% Oxygen 22% Nitrogen 78% Oxygen 21 % Nitrogen 78% Oxygen 22% Nitrogen 77%
14. atmosphere ? Other gases 1 Other gases 2% Other gases 1 Other gases 1
What is the % of oxygen and carbon dioxide 14.0% and 5.3% 21.0% and 0.5%
15. in the alveoli at sea level ? 15.5% and 6.6% respectively 16.5% and 7.6% respectively respectively respectively
At what height is the partial pressure of
oxygen in the lungs approximately half that
16. at sea level ? 10,000 feet 25,000 feet 30,000 feet 18,000 feet
What is the percentage of oxygen in the
17. atmosphere at 35 ,000 feet ? 0.25 0.21 0.32 Approximately 30%
Lowers temperature of the
body and especially the
More energy is required when Lowers temperature of the head which has a
Why does cold make you more susceptible Heart beats faster which uses shivering therefore more body which makes it less debilitating effect on the
18. to Hypoxia ? up more oxygen oxygen used efficient brain
Decrease the pulse rate
The carbon dioxide level of the blood level Increase the rate of breathing Decrease the rate of Increase the pulse rate and and increase rate of
19. is higher than normal. Does the brain and pulse rate breathing and pulse rate decrease rate of breathing breathing
What are the times of useful consciousness
20. at 20,000 ft. (moderate activity) 5 minutes 1 minute 10 minutes 30 seconds
What increases the risk of DCS occurring in Scuba diving shortly before Snorkle diving shortly before
21. flight ? flight flight Alcohol Smoking
No flying within 48 hours if a No flying within 48 hours if a No flying within 12 hours if No flying within 24 hours if
depth of 40 feet has been depth of 30 feet has been a depth of 30 feet has been a depth of 30 feet has been
What are the restrictions to flying after exceeded, otherwise the limit exceeded, otherwise the limit reached, otherwise the limit exceeded, otherwise the
22. scuba diving ? is 12 hours. is 24 hours. is 24 hours. limit is 12 hours.
The volume of air inhaled
The volume of air inhaled with The volume of air exhaled The volume of air breathed and exhaled with each
23. Tidal volume is each normal breath with each normal breath when diving normal breath
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Henry's Law has application in Human Carbon Monoxide Partial pressure in the
24. Performance to Otic Baratrauma DCS poisoning alveloi
In the event of decompression the aircraft Descend to below 10,000
25. must Descend to MSL Descend to 10,000 ft. Land as soon as possible ft.
26. The "chokes" are associated with NIHL DCS Blockage of the alveoli Oxygen loss
The outer, middle and inner ear are filled
27. with Air Air Liquid Air Liquid Liquid Liquid Air Air Liquid Liquid Air
To pass sound waves across To allow ambient pressure to To allow ambient pressure To allow ambient pressure
What is the purpose of the Eustachian tube the middle ear to the Auditory equalise on both sides of the to equalise on the middle to equalise on both sides of
28. ? nerve ear drum ear side of the ear drum the Vestibular apparatus
Damage to the ossicles or
29. What causes conductive deafness ? Damage to the outer ear Damage to the pinna the eardrum Damage to the middle ear
Loss of hearing due to
Loss of hearing due to damage damage to the Vestibular Loss of hearing due to Loss of hearing due to
30. What is noise induced hearing loss (NIHL) ? to the ossicles apparatus damage to the middle ear damage to the cochlea
What is the most important sense for All senses play their part in
31. spatial orientation ? Hearing and balance Sight "Seat of the pants" situation awareness
That the aircraft nose is That the aircraft is turning; That the aircraft is climbing That the aircraft is pitching
pitching down; this feeling will this feeling will be re-enforced and turning; this feeling will up; this feeling will be re-
If an aircraft accelerates, what do the be re-enforced by an air driven by an air driven artificial be re-enforced by an air enforced by an air driven
32. otoliths indicate to the brain ? artificial horizon horizon driven artificial horizon artificial horizon
33. When can a pilot experience the "leans" In all flight conditions In the climb In the descent In the climb or the descent
What should a pilot rely on if disorientated Turning head to recover from
34. in IMC? Vision disorientation Sense of balance Instruments
The frequency band that a healthy young 500 - 15,000 cycles per 20 - 20,000 cycles per
35. person can hear is 70 - 15,000 cycles per second 80 - 20,000 cycles per second second second
36. Decibels increase Linearly In terms of a logarithm In terms of increments In terms of integrals
Presbycusis is an impairment of hearing Damage to the semi-circular
37. due to Damage to the cochlea canals Age Smoking
The Vegetative System is another name for Noise Induced Loss of Hearing Autonomic Nervous
38. the Central Nervous System (CNS) (NILH) Sense Receptors System (ANS)
The otoliths detect and acceleration
39. greater than 0.001 m/s z 0.01 m/s z 0.1 m/s 2 1.0 m/s z
40. What part of the eye bends the most light ? The cornea The lens The pupil The retina
Which part of the eye has the best visual
41. acuity? The retina The fovea The lens The cornea
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The resolving power of the fovea decreases

42. rapidly .....................from its centre 5° 130 to 16 ° 3° 2 ° to 3 °
43. What causes long or short sightedness? Presbyopia Astigmatism Distortion of the eyeball Distortion of the cornea
What part of the spectrum should The red and UV end of the The blue and UV end of the
44. sunglasses filter out ? spectrum spectrum All high intensity light UV only
Age, alcohol, altitude and Age, altitude, Instrument Instrument lights, alcohol, Age, alcohol, altitude and
45. What four factors effect night vision ? smoking lights and smoking altitude and smoking instrument lights
Cones detect ....................and are mostly
46. concentrated on ................. Black and white fovea Colour fovea Black and white retina Colour entry point
At the entrance to the optic
47. Where is the "Blind Spot" ? On the iris On the fovea On the edge of the lens nerve
48. Peripheral vision is looked after by the Rods Cones Rods and cones Fovea
It depends on the health of
49. Does lack of oxygen affect sight ? Yes No Sometimes the individual
The amount of light allowed to enter the
50. eye is controlled by the Cornea Retina Iris Fovea
51. Accommodation is controlled by the Ciliary muscles Iris Lens Cornea
The maximum number of rods are found
52. .................. from the fovea 10° 20° 150 30°
53. Astigmatism is normally associated with the Retina Fovea Iris Cornea
An increase in the pressure of A decrease in the pressure of
54. Glaucoma is caused by the eye the eye A defect of the cornea A defect of the retina
When they score over 25
Using the BMI formula, when will pilots be When they score over 30 for When they score over 26 for When they score 30 for for males and 24 for
55. considered overweight ? males and 29 for females males and 22 for females males and 29 for females females
What is the weekly level of alcohol Consuming 24 units for Consuming 21 units for
consumption that will cause physical Consuming 22 units for men Consuming 21 units for men men and 14 units for men and 14 units for
56. damage ? and 14 units for women and 15 units for women women women
At what rate does the body remove alcohol Approximately 1.5 units an Approximately 2.5 units an Approximately 1 unit an
57. from the system ? hour Approximately 2 units an hour hour hour
6 hours but it depends upon the 24 hours but it depends upon 12 hours but it depends 8 hours but it depends upon
What is the absolute minimum time a pilot amount of alcohol that has been the amount of alcohol that has upon the amount of alcohol the amount of alcohol that
58. should stop drinking before flying ? consumed been consumed that has been consumed has been consumed
Which of the following diseases is one of the
59. world's biggest killer ? Typhoid Malaria Yellow Fever Influenza
60. What causes otic barotrauma and when is Blockage in the Eustachian Blockage in the Eustachian Blockage in the Eustachian Blockage in the Eustachian
36
it likely to occur ? tube which is most likely to tube which is most likely to tube and around the tube and around the
occur in the descent occur in the climb eardrum which is most eardrum which is most
likely to occur in the likely to occur in the climb
descent
The human body can tolerate a maximum
of short duration g force ............in the
61. ...............axis 25G vertical 45G vertical 25G fore/aft -3G fore/aft
High frequency and Low
62. The two types of radiation are Galactic and Sun Spots Galactic and Solar Frequency Solar Flares and Galactic
To remove mercury spillage
63. .........................must not be used Water White spirits Acid Compressed air
The use of appetite
64. The best method for losing weight is suppressants Plenty of exercise Crash diets Exercise and diet
65. Hypoglycemia can be caused by Not eating regularly or fasting Too much sugar in the blood Excessive g forces Stress
How is performance effected by over and It will depend on the
66. under arousal? It is improved There is little difference It is degraded individual
To control the emotional
What is the purpose of the "sympathetic" response under stressful To control the effects of To return the body after To prepare the body to
67. nervous system? conditions adrenalin the "fight or flee" syndrome "fight or flight"
To prolong the bodies To return the body to
mobilisation and return the To direct the adrenalin to normal after an emotional
What is the purpose of the body to normal after the "fight To prepare the body to "fight the correct organs of the response under stressful
68. "parasympathetic" nervous system ? or flight" syndrome. or flee" body conditions
What part of the body is effected with the
vibration in the 4 to 10 Hz frequency The brain plus there will be a The chest plus there will be an The respiration plus pains
69. range? headache abdominal pain in the chest The pulse rate
Which shaped graph shows the relationship
70. between arousal and stress ? A U shaped graph An inverted U shaped graph A straight 45 'line An M shaped graph
Death of a spouse, partner
71. Which stressor will cause the most stress ? Home/work interface Divorce Death of a family member or child
Broadly speaking the GAS Syndrome Physiological,
consists of three categories of reactions. Somatic, Psychosomatic, Psychosomantic, Somatic, Physiological, Somatic, Psychosomatic,
72. These are Physiological Psychological Psychological Psychological
73. Stress factors are Non-cumulative Cumulative Stress reactions Stress co-actions
The Autonomic Nervous system comprises Sympathetic, Neo-sympathetic Sympathetic and Neo-sympathetic and
74. of and Parasympathetic systems Parasympathetic systems Parasympathetic systems None of the above
75. Define three methods of coping with stress Action coping, Forced Coping, Action coping, Cognitive Slip coping, Cognitive Slip Coping, Action Coping,
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Symptom Directed Coping Coping, Symptom Directed Coping, Symptom Directed Symptom Directed coping
coping coping
Planning, experience and self-
Most successful weapons against high control (fewer unexpected Learning, experience and Learning, experience and Planning, experience and
76. stress levels are situation) Anticipation CRM CRM
A comfortable humidity for most people in
77. normal clothing is 40%-50% 30%-40% 20%-50% 40%-60%
They are stored in the short They are stored in the
Where are visual and auditory stimuli term/working memory for a They are stored in the short They are stored in the Semantic and Episodic
78. initially stored ? period of time term memory for a short time Echoic and Iconic memory memory
How long will the iconic memory store 7 seconds t2 seconds
79. information ? l - 2 seconds 2 - 3 seconds 0.5 - 1 second maximum
How long will the Echoic memory store
80. information ? 2 - 8 seconds 10 - 15 minutes 10 - 20 seconds Normally up to 15 minutes
We are easily swayed by
Having created a mental model, what is the To only seek information which Other clues outside do not tie We need confirmation outside influences
81. danger ? supports it (Confirmation Bias) up (Environmental Bias) (Confirmation Bias) (Environmental Bias)
How many separate items can be held in
82. the short term memory ? 8±2 9±2 7±2 6±2
Skilled based behaviour not
What is the main feature of a fully easily explained to other Skilled based behaviour not Skilled based behaviour Skilled based behaviour
83. developed motor programme ? people requiring conscious thought slowly learned quickly learned
Performance is increased by Performance is degraded
What is the relationship between arousal Performance is increased at both low and high arousal by both low and high Performance is increased
84. and performance ? high levels of arousal levels arousal levels at low levels of arousal
When the amount of
information is perceived to be
When there are too many beyond the attentional When responses get
responses to be made in the capacity and the task is too When too many responses transposed due to overload
85. What is qualitative overload ? time available difficult are required of work
86. What are the two types of attention ? Cognitive and Intuitive Intuitive and Behavioural Divided and Intuitive Selective and Divided
Two of the factors effecting Long Term
87. Memory are Expectation and Suggestion Repetition and Echoism Amnesia and anxiety Anxiety and concentration.
Generally human error can be split into two
88. categories Faults and static errors Static errors and faults Dynamic and static errors Faults and slips
Information retention can be increased by Mnemonics and Memory
89. the use of: Study and Rote Learning Instinct Training Tertiary Education
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An experienced pilot reacting to an engine

90. failure is demonstrating? Imitation learning Operant conditioning learning Skill learning Insight learning
Short term and long term Long term and Episodic Short term, long term and
91. Rule-based behaviour involves memory Short term and Iconic memory memory Episodic memory
Memorise immediate
With regards to procedures you are advised Memorise all procedures as Memorise immediate actions actions and refer to check Rely on the checklist for all
92. to carefully as possible and subsequent actions list for subsequent actions procedures
The process that ensures The process that ensures
The process that ensures the the pilot maintains an the pilot maintains an
The process that ensures the pilot maintains an accurate accurate model of the accurate model of the
pilot maintains an accurate model of the situation within situation outside the situation on and around the
93. Situation awareness is model of his/her environment the cockpit. cockpit landing point
94. What is the Jens Rasmussen's Model ? "KRS" SKR "SRK" "KSR"
Among the most important factors which
might interfere with Situational Awareness
95. are Weather patterns Inter-personal differences Hopes, wishes and desires Poor instrument layouts
The second lowest tier of Maslow's Belonging and affection
96. pyramid of needs is Physiological needs Safety and security needs needs Self-esteem needs
The two main tools in improving job Job enrichment job Job enrichment financial Financial considerations Good management good
97. satisfaction are enlargement considerations good industrial relations industrial relations
98. Job enlargement can be split into Vertical slant Slant horizontal Slant vertical Vertical horizontal
A tendency to ask leading questions is a Increased situational Decreased situational
99. symptom of Increased awareness Decreased awareness awareness awareness
What is the likely effect of a runway which Flaring too late and damaging Flaring too soon and causing a Approach speed much too Approach speed higher
100. is wider than expected ? the aircraft heavy landing high than usual
Landing at night with the Landing at night when
What approach conditions cause "black Landing at night in sleet or Landing at night with a cockpit instruments turned there are no lights on the
101. hole effect" heavy rain partially lit runway up too high approach
Tends to make the
How does the "black hole effect" alter the Tends to make the approach faster than
102. pilots' judgement of the approach ? Over-estimation of height Under-estimation of height approach much too fast normal
It is quite safe and they will
If two aircraft are on a line of constant Depends whether by day or by pass well clear of each
103. bearing, what is the likely outcome ? night They will collide There will be a near miss other
What is the duration of a saccade and rest
104. period ? 0.3 seconds 0.5 seconds 0.013 seconds 1 second
105. What visual technique should be used Sweep from side to side with Search the sky portion by Pinpoint 10° segments of Use a succession of small
39
when searching for an aircraft ? the eyes covering the whole portion starting on the left the sky and confirm before and rapid eye movements
field of vision passing onto another
Refraction, due to rain on the windscreen,
106. makes the approach Steeper Flatter Faster Slower
What are the laws that the Gestalt Theory The laws of Perceptual The laws of Perceptual The laws of Perceptual
107. propose ? The laws of Perception Illusions Reception Organisation
A visual scan should cover the sky in
108. overlapping sections of 5° 10° 15° 20°
How long is a free running circadian rhythm
109. ? 24 hours 48 hours 25 hours 29 hours
When is the circadian cycle of temperature
110. at its lowest ? At about 0500 hrs At about 0 100 hrs At about 0300 hrs Varies from day to day
What does the duration of sleep depend on The mental and physical The number of hours awake Timing i.e . when the body The quality of the REM
111. ? exercise taken prior to sleep prior to sleep temperature is falling sleep
It occurs early in the sleep cycle It occurs early in the sleep It occurs early in the sleep It occurs late in the sleep
When does orthodo(slow wave sleep) - stages 3 & 4 and it restores cycle - stages 3 & 4 and it cycle - stages 1 & 2 and it cycle - stages 3 & 4 and it
112. occur and what does it restore ? the body restores the brain restores the body restores the brain
How many stages are there in a sleep cycle
113. ? 3 stages plus REM 4 stages plus REM 3 stages including REM 4 stages including REM
114. What will an EOG trace during REM sleep ? Little activity A lot of activity Intermittent activity No activity
To assist in the organisation
To refresh the body and brain of memory and helping to
To refresh the body after following physical and mental co-ordinate and assimilate To exercise the brain so it is
115. What is the function of REM sleep ? exercise activity new information learned prepared for the next day
How long does it take for the circadian
rhythm to re-synchronise to local time after Approximately 2 days per 1 to Approximately 1 day per 1 to Approximately 2 days per 1 Approximately 1 day per 1
116. crossing time zones ? 2 hours of time change 2 hours of time change to ½ hours of time change to ½ hours of time change
When suffering from sleep deprivation, will
performance be further decreased by Under certain
117. altitude ? No Yes Sometimes circumstances
Psychological and
118. The two forms of fatigue are Mental and physical Short-term and chronic Mental and body physiological
119. Insomnia is divided into Psychological and physiological Mental and physical Clinical and situational Clinical and physiological
Under the strict supervision of Sometimes - it depends on
120. Can you fly suffering from narcolepsy ? an Aviation Medical Specialist the degree Never By day only
How would a person who is aggressive and
121. changeable be described ? Aggressive extravert Unpredictable extravert Unreliable extravert Anxious extravert
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What are the personality traits of a good Reliable, calm and

122. pilot? Reliable and stable Stable and extraverted Reliable and extraverted extraverted
What "P" and "G" qualities should a pilot
123. have ? G+P+ G++ P++ G++P+ P+P+
Is a group decision likely to be more or less
risky than one made by the individual
124. members ? Less risky Sometimes more risky Sometimes less risky More risky
Put his own view forward and Encourage ideas from the
What should a Captain do before making a then ask for the opinions of crew before stating his own Monitor his motor
125. non-urgent decision ? other members of the crew Consider all the implications opinion programme (flying)
Is a constituted crew an advantage in
126. commercial aviation Always Sometimes Depending on the task None of the above
What are the three types of Authority Autocratic, Subjective, Autocratic, Submissive, Laisser-Faire, Subjective, Autocratic, Laisser-Faire,
127. Gradients Cockpit Synergistic Synergistic Synergistic Synergistic
The Captain is suffering from On a competent co-pilot's On an incompetent co-
128. The Laisser-Faire cockpit may arise when stress The Captain is pre-occupied leg pilot's leg
Ensure that they ensure that Co-operate in a conciliatory
To counter-act an authoritarian cockpit their opinions are heard in Remain silent and sort it all form but the contents of Obtain support from
129. crews should spite of possible confrontation out on the ground this co-operation is firm another crew member
Controlled Flight in Terminal Controlled Flying in Controlled Flying in
130. CFIT means airspace Controlled Flight into Terrain Training Taxiways (helicopters)
Require deductions to be Does not Require
Is another name for closed made before an answer is deductions to be made
131. Implicit questions are questions possible before an answer is possible Require a quick answer
132. Good Synergy is 1+1 = 2 l+1 = <2 1+1=4 1 + 1 =>2
Cognitive Co-action,
Co-ordination is divided into the three Redundant Actions, Temporal Redundant Actions, General General Co-operation, General Co-operation and
133. following types and Co-action Co-operation and Co-action Temporal and Co-action Temporal
Cognitive Synchronization, Cognitive Synchronization Cognitive Synchronization
Synchronization can be said to be divided Temporal Synchronization and Temporal Synchronization, and Temporal and Rational
134. into Rational Synchronization. Rational Synchronization. Synchronization. Synchronization.
The contents of a Transmitter's message The Receiver's image of the The Transmitter's image of The Transmitter's image of The Transmitter's image of
135. will depend on Transmitter the Receiver the situation the perceived situation
Remind him/her of his/her
Having interrupted your Captain for a Attempt to establish eye last action before the Make sure there is no ATC
136. sound reason you must contact with him/her interruption traffic on the radio You must never interrupt
137. A briefing should consist of less than 7 ideas 10 ideas 7 sentences 10 sentences
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Good briefings and a

Among the rules to improve crew co- Good briefings and awareness harmonious cockpit Resist putting your opinion
138. operation are of cultural differences atmosphere Use professional language forward first
Communication in the cockpit is primarily It is the main tool to ensure It is the main tool to ensure It is the main tool to ensure It is the main tool to ensure
139. used for what purpose ? coordination comprehension harmony understanding
Synergy is the state where
Synergy is the state where the Synergy is the state where the the group performance Synergy is the state where
individual performances group performance exceeds exceeds the sum of the the individual performances
exceeds the sum of the group the sum of the individual individual performances by exceeds the sum of the
140. What is meant by the term "Synergy" ? performance performances 50% group performance by 5 0%
In co-ordinated action what does the term The strict duplication of actions The strict duplication of Actions which are in the Actions which have been
141. "redundant actions" mean ? by various individuals actions by two individuals past covered by the check list
Individuals working in the Individuals working in the
different environments but same environment and
sharing the same general sharing the same general
objectives and working The strict duplication of objectives but working
independently in carrying out actions by various independently in carrying
142. What is meant by "co-action" ? their actions An action by the co-pilot individuals out their actions
The set of implicit information The set of implicit A recommended layout for
contained in a written text or A recommended layout for information contained in a checklists and emergency
143. In communications what is Hypertext ? spoken message checklists spoken message drills
A series of communications
A series of communications on the same subject A communication between
A conversation between two on different subjects between between a transmitter and two or more people or
144. What is a dialogue ? people a transmitter and receiver receiver machines
What are the key points of a good briefing Individual, understood and Individual, understood and Simple, clear, understood
145. ? simple Individual, clear and simple short and individual
The study of Man's adaption to The study of human The study of the adaption
146. What is anthropometry ? machines A branch of anthropology measurement of machines to Man's needs
To produce an even
To allow the most comfortable To allow the most To allow the most pressure of the discs by
What is the purpose of the lumbar support position for the spine and comfortable position for the comfortable position for the allowing the lower spine to
147. ? higher neck bones spine and shoulder bones spine curve naturally
It should have attention-
It should have the best getting qualities which do Must not dazzle or possibly
What are the essential characteristics of a attention-getting qualities as It should be attention-getting not compromise a clear compromise the crew's
148. cockpit warning ? possible but not alarming indiction to the pilot of the night vision
42
faulty component/system
Important controls must be
What is the most important feature of Escape and emergency exits The Design Eye Point must be located in easily reached Control and indicators
149. flight deck design ? should be clear of obstructions clearly marked and unobstructed positions should be standardised
What instrument is best for showing small A mixed digital/analogue Ultra/high-precision gyro
150. change ? A digital display An analogue display display instrument
What colour should the Àlert' warning be
151. on a CRT ? Bright red and flashing Steady Red Flashing yellow/amber Steady yellow
A manually operated valve should be Depends on the system it
152. opened by Turning it clockwise Turning it anti-clockwise Turning either way operates
153. In the Shell Model L stands for Latent errors Long-termed errors Lengthy errors Liveware
Protected and semi-protected Protected and endangered Protected and vulnerable Protected and quasi-
154. System Tolerance can be sub-divided into systems systems systems protected systems
A flashing red warning light on a CRT There is a fault in a critical
155. normally indicates system Emergency Alert Danger
Overconfidence in the
Overconfidence in the handling handling capability of the pilot Over-reliance on The blind belief in
156. Automation Complacency is capability of the pilot of computers automation automation
157. Mode error is associated with Automation Hardware INS Software
Objective/Sudden and Sudden/Impromptu and External/Objective and Impromptu/Objective and
158. What are the categories of risk ? Subjective/Gradual Gradual/Planned Internal/Subjective Planned/Subjective
If a person will tend to overestimate the A common but negative A common but beneficial A rare but beneficial A are but negative
159. frequency of occurrence occurrence occurrence occurrence
Risky loss rather than a Risky loss rather than a Risky loss rather than a
Risky loss rather than a certain certain loss even if the certain loss even if the certain loss even if the
loss even if the expected loss expected loss from the former expected loss from the expected loss from the
160. People tend to be biased to make a from the former is greater is less latter is greater latter is far greater
Common dilemma faced by all Is only experienced by skilled Only happens to Is rarely faced by good
161. Press-on-tis is a pilots pilots inexperienced pilots pilots
in chemical combination with in combination with
haemoglobin in the white as microscopic bubbles haemoglobin in the red
162. Oxygen is transported in the blood: dissolved in the blood plasma. blood cells. linked to blood platelets. blood cells.
increasing each year, due to
is better than road safety, but though effective, lagging the increasing automation better than road safety and
163. Safety in commercial air transport: not as good as rail safety. behind road and rail safety. of modern aircraft. rail safety.
The General Adaptation Syndrome has in alarm phase - denial phase - alarm phase - resistance stressor - resistance phase - resistance phase -
164. sequence the following phases: acceptance phase. phase - exhaustion phase. adaptation phase. exhaustion phase - recovery
43
phase.
so that the pilot can maintain to determine the eventual
an adequate view of all the size of the flight deck and
important displays inside, and to enable the pilot to see all where the window frames
of the world outside with his flight instruments within at the centre of the artificial will be positioned so as to
The eye datum or design eye position in the minimum head or body minimum scan movements of horizon or flight director give minimum interference
165. cockpit is established: movements. the head. indicator. to the pilot's field of view.
Which of the following is NOT one of the 5
166. hazardous attitudes? Macho. Anti-authority. Impulsivity. Domination.
Following a flight that transits numerous 1 hour per day if the flight
time zones, the associated shifting of has been westward and 2
Zeitgebers helps resynchronization to the hours per day if the flight
167. new local time at the average rate of: 2.5 hours per day. 1.5 hours per day. 4 hours per day. has been eastward.
A man is considered to be obese if his Body
168. Mass Inde(BMI) is over: 18 25 22 30
makes it possible to detect
abnormal values for flight makes it possible to
is a fallacy, a pilot can only parameters even though they increase the number of makes it possible to carry
concentrate on one thing at a are not the pilot's immediate simultaneously managed out several cognitive
169. Divided attention: time. concern. tasks in safety. processes at the same time.
Barotrauma of the cranial sinuses is most In persons with a history of
170. likely to occur; during the descent. among elderly passengers. In the climb. cardio-vascular problems.
During visual scanning the eye movements
171. should be: large and frequent. Small and infrequent. Small and frequent. Large and infrequent.
variable, depending on the
During scanning of both the instruments angular difference between
and the exterior, the approximate duration the two objects to be
172. of a saccade is: 0.1 seconds. 1/3 second. 1.0 second. scanned.
as rule giving automatic
linkage between the
Rule based behaviours are stored in the as sets of rules in long term as `bits' in the working as conditioned responses in semantic and working
173. brain: memory. memory. motor programmes. memories.
the pilot keeps `head in the pilot is unable to the fact of being at a
the pilot becomes fixated on cockpit' to an extreme degree allocate priorities between particular stage of flight
the outside environment and and may therefore miss vital the exterior and interior may cause an automatic
Ènvironment capture' is the process neglects to monitor the cues from the external environments causing response to checks when
174. whereby: instruments in the cockpit. environment. confusion and the the actions have not
44
possibility of mistakes. actually been completed.

trap harmful particles and
bacteria their mucous sample the air to enable the
enable the detection of membranes so that they will filter, warm and humidify respiratory mechanism to
In respiration the functions of the nasal possible noxious gases and not pass into the very air drawn in during adjust the rate and depth of
175. passages are to: trigger the body's defences. dedicate lung tissue. inspiration. breathing.
a feeling of pitch up when
the aircraft decelerates
a false banking sensation due causing an automatic
The common illusion created by linear to disturbance in the a combined pitch up and attempt to push the nose of a pitch up feeling when the
176. acceleration or deceleration is: endolymph of the inner ear. banking sensation. the aircraft down. aircraft accelerates.
its safety system has taken the consequence of error latent errors do not entail
A system can be said to be tolerant of error its safety system is too subject into account all statistically will not seriously jeopardize serious consequences for
177. when: to error. probable errors. safety. safety.
The physiological responses to high levels sweating, dryness of the indecision, inattention, temporary mental
178. of stress are: fear, anxiety, depression. mouth, breathing difficulties. withdrawal. confusion, restlessness.
the sympathetic nervous the parasympathetic
a normal non-aggressive system provides an nervous system provides
person suffers stress as result in anger a person becomes individual with the extra resources for an
of shock, turns pale, trembles red in the face, aggressive and resources to cope with a individual to cope with a
and chooses to flee rather than chooses to fight rather than new and sudden source of new and sudden source of
179. The `fight or flight' response occurs when: fight. flee. stress. stress.
If information in the working memory is not
180. rehearsed it will be lost in: 1 to 2 minutes. 8 to 12 seconds. 5 to 10 minutes. 10 to 20 seconds.
the study of the
relationship between man
the study of human behaviour the study of sleep patterns and his working the study of human
181. Anthropometry is: in response to stress. and circadian rhythms. environment measurement.
The generally accepted model for the
acquisition of expertise or skill comprises cognitive, associative and cognitive, associative and associative, automatic and automatic, cognitive and
182. three stages: automatic. expert. expert. expert.
gradually increasing the
The speed of any learning process can be psychological pressure on the punishing the learner for reinforcing errors made
183. increased by: students. unsuccessful trials reinforcing successful trials. during the learning process.
Decision making in emergency situations the distribution of tasks and strong situational the whole crew to focus on
184. requires primarily: speed of reaction. crew coordination. awareness. the immediate problem.
185. The red blood cells are produced in the the bone marrow. The spleen when triggered by The liver and pancreas. The liver and spleen.
45
body by: hormone secretion.

The part of the retina with the highest the retinal optical focus
186. visual acuity is: the optic nerve entry point. the fovea. point. the rod/cone balance point.
immediate transfer of the practice of the use of
The capacity of the working memory may constant repetition of the material to the long term mnemonics as memory
187. be expanded by: material. `chunking' the material. memory. aids.
decreases the captains role in Is appropriate at any stage
188. Discussing private matters in the cockpit: leadership should be avoided in flight. Can improve team spirit of the flight.
working in parallel to achieve sustained cooperation on working in parallel to the application of
individual objectives with actions and the formulation of achieve one common procedural knowledge in
Co-action is a mode of coordination that independent and unrelated commitments concerning objective, with independent the conduct of specific
189. involves: aims. flight situations. but specified aims. actions.
descend to a lower level where continue the flight at a
the symptoms will disappear lower altitude and carry out
A pilot suffering from decompression and continue the flight at this decrease the cabin pressure exercises to relieve pain in land as soon as possible and
190. sickness should: or a lower level. to relieve the symptoms. the affected site. seek medical assistance.
The temperature range of a flight deck to 15°C to 30°C with a relative l 0°C to 25°C with a relative 15°C to 30°C with a relative 30°C to 40°C with a relative
191. be comfortable should be: humidity of 40 - 60% humidity of 20 - 30% humidity of 70 - 80% humidity of 30 - 40%
The four primary flight instruments
192. arranged in the standard `T' consists of: ASI, AH/FDI, ALT, T'SLIP. ASI, AH/FDI, DI/RMI, RMI. ASI, AH/FDI, ALT, DI/HIS. ASI, ALT, DI/HIS, RMI.
The greatest source of incapacitation in heart attack or circulatory
193. flight is: motion sickness. problems. acute gastro-enteritis. spatial disorientation.
Raised blood pressure (hypertension) is the ferric haemoglobin
194. main risk factor in the development of: strokes. angina. coronary infarcts. poisoning.
A man is considered to be overweight if his
195. Body Mass Inde(BMI) is over: 20 25 30 35
human errors are now
considered as being inherent to human errors can be avoided.
Thinking on human reliability is changing. the cognitive functions of It will however extending the individual view of safety it is believed that it will be
Which of the following statements is humans and are generally one's knowledge and extreme has gradually replaced the possible to eliminate all
196. correct? inescapable. vigilance. systemic view. errors in the future.
Being silent or inactive are
How would one interpret the following also non-verbal behaviour Differences in language or
statement; òne cannot avoid every situation requires One can not influence one's patterns that are culture may prevent any
197. communication'? communication. own communications. meaningful. meaningful communication.
is not affected by the arrival of is only retained for 2 to 3 can be retained for long must be actively rehearsed
198. Information in the short term memory: new information. minutes. periods. to ensure long term
46
retention.
enhance hearing ability,
assist in maintaining spatial especially at high
199. A function of the vestibular apparatus is to: orientation. control motion sickness. maintain visual orientation. frequencies.
If a pilot's seat is set too low on the obscure the flight
200. approach, the effect would be to: obscure the overshoot. instruments. obscure the undershoot. all of the above.
Which of the following graphs represents
the relationship between arousal and Straight line rising at 45° Straight line descending at
201. performance? Inverted "U" U shaped angle 45° angle
one that is learned by
one that requires conscious practice and repetition and
one that is based on the way that a checklist is thought throughout its which may be executed
202. A motor programme is: knowledge and experience. actioned. action. without conscious thought.
The main factor in the focussing of the the internal fluid in the
203. human eye is: the cornea. the lens. the iris. eyeball.
Referring to the Body Mass Index, a man
weighing 81 kg. Who is 175 cm tall would considered to be within the considered to be
204. be: normal weight range. considered to be overweight. considered to be obese. underweight.
give too much weight to give equal weight to give insufficient weight to give too much weight to
Once an individual has made a decision information that tends to information that confirms or information that confirms information that goes
205. regarding a situation, he is most likely to: confirm the original decision. contradicts that decision. the original decision. against the original decision
206. Hypertension is: a high level of stress. low blood pressure. a high workload. high blood pressure.
rely on the vestibular Rely on his somatosensory Line up with a visual Re-erect the flight
207. A pilot suffering disorientation should: apparatus. system (`seat of the pants'). reference (e.g. horizon). instruments.
the avoidance of
During a general briefing at the preflight the complete delegation of all the importance of crew the priority of departing on inadequate handling of
208. stage the captain should emphasise. duties. coordination. schedule. controls.
Gastro-enteritis would prevent an if not treated by an aviation
209. individual from flying as a crew member: always. possibly, if severe. specialist doctor. never.
neither goal nor person
goal directed and person directed, but moderate and
210. An ideal leader would be: directed. goal directed only. person directed only. accommodating.
a break down in the
The severity of noise induced hearing loss the volume of noise the duration of high noise conducting system of the the volume and duration of
211. (NIHL) is determined by: experienced. levels experienced. ear. the noise experienced.
Which of the following diseases causes the
212. greatest number of deaths each year? Bubonic plague. Malaria. AIDS. Smallpox.
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The major contribution to our perception

213. of orientation is: the visual sense. the vestibular apparatus. our previous experience. the somato-sensory system.
Biological characteristics, social
Human behaviour is determined by which environment and cultural Cultural influences and
214. of the following? influences. Biological characteristics. The social environment. heredity.
the predisposition for acting in the conditions necessary for
215. The term àttitudes' is used to describe: a particular manner. a synonym for ability. a synonym for behaviour. carrying out an activity.
the effect on an individual in a the stress upon an employee the process by which
managerial, or other caused by the pressures individuals adopt systems the use of a process, such
responsible, position of the imposed by the management to assist in coping with as relaxation techniques, to
216. Stress management is: pressures of that job. or his superiors at work. stress. remove the stress source.
the tendency of a group to the tendency for individuals
the tendency for military make a more risky decision to take more risky decisions
the tendency for extroverts to pilots to take more risks than than the average individual when transferred to a
217. Risky shift is: take more risks than introverts. civilian pilots. within the group. different aircraft type.
makes it easier for an
Very high ambition and a need for meets the requirement for disturbs the climate of always promotes effective individual to cope with
218. achievement: stress resistance. cooperation. teamwork. personal failures.
Long or short sightedness is normally the shape of the whole
219. caused by: distortion of the cornea. eyeball. distortion of the lens. a malfunction of the iris.
errors of knowledge based errors of skill based
220. Ènvironment capture' may lead to: errors of rule based behaviour. behaviour. errors of semantic memory. behaviour.
A runway that slopes downwards when
221. approaching may induce the pilot to: land long into the runway. make a shallow approach. land short. go around.
The use of alcohol, drugs or tobacco to
counter the effects of stress is an example
222. of: action coping cognitive coping. symptom directed coping. bio-feedback technique.
make a noise symptomatic be attention getting
223. A cockpit warning of an emergency should: startle to gain attention. illuminate a flashing red light. of the problem without being startling.
echoic and iconic memories it will activate a selection
In processing information an attentional working memory has a limited have a very short retention from episodic or semantic
224. mechanism is required because: capacity. processing capacity is limited. time. memory.
help in the learning process
especially if a new or
difficult procedures have
The function of slow wave sleep is believed a period of rest to allow a period to rest and refresh a period when vivid dreams been learned during the
225. to be: restoration of the body tissues. the mind. can take place. day.
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in combination with
haemoglobin in the white as microscopic bubbles
226. Oxygen is carried in the blood: blood cells. dissolved in the plasma. attached to blood platelets. within the red blood cells.
a large selection of the general a large selection of the a specific population using
Anthropomorphic data table population static and dynamic a specific population using general population using dynamic and static
227. measurements should be taken from: measurements. static measurements. static measurements. measurements.
occurs when an individual
occurs more often in older cannot prevent falling asleep most often occur during is a cessation of breathing
228. Sleep apnoea: individuals. even when in sleep credit. REM sleep. whilst asleep.
rotate clockwise if used
from the left hand seat and
In standardised controls a handle used to always rotate in an anti- only rotate anti-clockwise if anti-clockwise if used from
229. open a valve should: clockwise direction. placed on an overhead panel. the right hand seat. always rotate clockwise.
only when a pair of bi-focal
A pilot is permitted to use bi-focal contact only during the cruise stage of spectacles are carried for only when flying in daylight
230. lenses: the flight. never when flying. emergency use. hours in VNIC conditions.
only permitted within 12
permitted, subject to at least hours of one's next flight allowable with no
Donating blood by an operating flight deck 24 hours elapsing before one's not permitted for aircrew who when cleared by a qualified restrictions on subsequent
231. crew member is: next flight. are actively flying. aviation doctor. flying.
highly sensitive to colour sensitive to much lower
changes particularly those at light levels than the cone concentrated in the area of
232. On the retina of the eye, the rod cells are: used primarily during daylight. the blue end of the spectrum. cells. the fovea.
the eyeball being shorter than the eyeball being longer
233. Long sightedness is normally caused by: normal. the retina being too concave. than normal. the retina being too convex.
The most obvious sign of an individual
suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning cyanosis of the lips and sensory loss, particularly cherry red lips and flushed
234. is: muscular impairment. fingernails. tunneling of vision. cheeks.
When on a collision course with an aircraft increases only slowly and is easier to detect if the
on a reciprocal track, the apparent size of moves only slowly across the pilot continually moves increases very rapidly just
235. the approaching aircraft: does not change. windscreen. his/her head. prior to impact.
enhance hearing ability,
236. A function of the vestibular apparatus is to: especially at high frequencies. control motion sickness. maintain spatial awareness. maintain visual orientation.
A trained pilot, observing an aircraft automatically discount any
accident, will, in comparison to a lay have a much better be a reliable expert witness at have stronger expectations any previous accident
237. observer: recollection of the events. any accident inquiry. about likely set of events. experience.
238. The amount of stress experienced with a the actual demands of the task the perceived demands of the the actual demands of the the perceived demands of
49
particular task is dependent on: and the pilot's perception of task and the pilot's actual task and the pilot's actual the task and the pilot's
his ability. ability. ability. perception of his ability.
about every 90 minutes with about every 90 minutes about every 90 minutes
REM sleep and slow wave with the majority of REM with the majority of slow
The cycle of REM sleep and stages 1 to 4 sleep equally balanced in each sleep taking place in the wave sleep taking place in
239. sleep occurs: about every hour. cycle. early cycles. the first two cycles.
Situational awareness may well be pre-recorded voice
240. inhibited by the introduction of: computer generated checklists. ìntelligent' flight decks. warnings. moving tape displays.
With no visual references outside the
cockpit the human eye will normally adjust
241. to a focal length of: infinity. less than 2 metres. about 5 metres. a few centimetres.
The greatest source of incapacitation in
242. flight is: acute gastro-enteritis. angina. malaria. heart attack.
It can be a major factor in the It can reduce the ability of It encourages the formation
Low blood pressure (hypotension) can have it can increase the chances of development of a heart an individual to withstand of cholesterol within the
243. the following harmful effect: developing a stroke. attack. high positive G forces. blood.
In communications one `bit' is the quantity can be contained in one can be transmitted by verbal reduces the uncertainty of can be transferred by non-
244. of information which. sentence. communication only the receiver by 50%. verbal communication only.
where the group
performance is dependent of increase in reasoning
where the individual where the group performance on the leadership style of power when extra oxygen is
performance exceeds the exceeds the sum of the individuals within the supplied at a time of
245. The term `Synergy' is the state: performance of the group. individual performances. group. emergency.
Aircrew, Groundcrew and
246. Who is responsible for Air Safety Aircrew and Ground Crew Management Everyone involved Aircrew only
The body get its energy from 1) Minerals 2)
247. Carbohydrates 3) Protein 4) Vitamins 1 & 4 only 2 & 3 only 1,2 & 4 3 & 4 only
248. Haemoglobin is Dissolved in the blood In red blood cells In white cells of the blood In the platelets
rest supine for at least 1 hour, rest supine for about 15 - 20
drink plenty of fluids and not minutes, drink plenty of fluids Aircrew are prohibited from Aircrew are not encouraged
249. Having donated blood aircrew should fly for 48 hours and not fly for 24 hours donating blood to give blood
CO gets trapped in the
Smoking reduces the blood's ability to carry The inspiratory tract becomes CO2 takes a larger lung Haemoglobin has a greater alveoli and restricts internal
250. oxygen because obstructed volume affinity for CO respiration
251. A person is suffering from anaemia when Lacking haemoglobin b Lacking platelets Lacking blood plasma Lacking white blood cells
252. The average heart beat is 30 - 50 beats a minute 70 - 80 beats a minute c 90 - 95 beats a minute 100 - 1 10 beats a minute
50
What is the carcinogenic substance in

cigarettes that can modify cells and cause
253. cancer Tar Nicotine Carbon monoxide Lead
rich in oxygen and lacking in lacking in oxygen and rich in lacking in oxygen and
254. The blood of the pulmonary artery is CO2 rich in oxygen and rich in CO2 CO2 lacking in CO2
increases with increase of decreases with pressure
255. The effects of carbon monoxide increases with altitude decreases with altitude density loss
the amount of CO2 in the differential of concentration
256. The rate of breathing is controlled by blood partial pressure levels the heart rate
What law governs the oxygen transfer at Gas Diffusion Law - Fick's
257. the alveoli ? Boyle's Charles's Henry's Law
Can have a severe affect on a
pilot's abilities when receiving Does not have an effect when
exposure for a relatively short the body becomes used to the Has no affect on the human
258. Carbon Monoxide period of time gas over a long period of time body Is not toxic
less water vapour than the more nitrogen than the more oxygen than the more C02 than the inhaled
259. The contents of exhaled air contains inhaled air inhaled air inhaled air air
Gastro-Intestinal Tract
260. Boyle's Law has a role to play in Hypoxia with increased altitude DCS Barotrauma Night vision
What chemical substance in tobacco causes Nicotine and carbon
261. addiction ? Tar and nicotine Tar and carbon monoxide monoxide Nicotine
The composition of the atmosphere at 78% He, 21 % O, and 0.003% 78% N, 21 % O2 and 1 % 78% N, 21 % O2 and 1 % CO
262. 21,000 ft is approximately 78% He, 21% O2 and 1 % CO CO, + traces CO2 + traces + traces
See an Aviation Medical Ignore it since is probably
A few hours after landing a pilot feels pain Take exercise which will cause Specialist as soon as due to common after-effect
263. in his/her joints. The correct action is the pain to disappear Take physiotherapy possible of height
TUC following loss of pressurization at
264. 35,000 ft is 3 - 4 minutes 5 minutes upwards 30 - 60 seconds 10 - 15 seconds
100% oxygen without pressure can be used
265. up to: 50,000 ft 40,000 ft 60,000 ft 70,000 ft
266. The Critical Zone of hypoxia begins at 18,000 ft 20,000 ft 23,000 ft 3,600 ft
Under normal conditions which gas diffuses
267. from the blood to the alveoli ? Oxygen Carbon Dioxide Carbon Monoxide Nitrogen
Under normal conditions, external 15 to 25 breaths/min, 12 to 20 breaths/min,
respiration is a subconscious process that 20 to 30 breaths/min, 30 to 40 breaths/min, averaging 20 averaging 16
268. occurs at a rate of averaging 25 breaths/minute averaging 35 breaths/minute breaths/minute breaths/minute
269. Concerning hypoxia, why is it more The effects are increased It is difficult to recognize the It is more difficult to There is no one to take
51
hazardous if flying solo ? first symptoms of hypoxia for manage the oxygen systems control once the symptoms
a pilot in initial training on your own of hypoxia appear
You have been scuba diving below I Om.
270. When can you next fly after 12 hours after 24 hours after 48 hours Whenever you wish
As the body ascends, the partial pressure of decreases at a rate of 3 times decreases at the same rate as
271. oxygen within the lungs the atmospheric rate that of the atmosphere stays the same increases
bluish tinge under the nails
spasms in the muscles and of the fingers and the lobes
272. Hyperventilation can cause too much oxygen to the brain possible unconsciousness of the ears a feeling of euphoria
almost equal to the
The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in lower than the partial pressure higher than the pressure of lower than the pressure of pressure of C02 in the
273. the lungs is of C02 in the atmosphere C02 in the blood C02 in the blood atmosphere
How much air is inhaled and exhaled in one
274. breath ? 70 mls 150 mls 350 mls 500 mls
talk through the procedure
out loud and
If you are suffering from hyperventilation, simultaneously control rate
275. what should you do close your eyes and relax breathe 100% oxygen and depth of breathing make an immediate landing
the body compensates for
Hyperventilation can, after a long period of high level of carbon dioxide low partial pressure of oxygen low partial pressure of
276. time, lead to unconsciousness due to due to hypoxia to the brain oxygen prolonged anxiety/stress
What is the percentage of oxygen at 18,000
277. ft ? 0.05 0.1 0.070 0.21
One of the results of DCS is the "Chokes".
278. The chokes causes problems in the joints lungs brain heart
Carbon monoxide increases
Which of the following is a correct Haemoglobin has an affinity the altitude at which
statement with regards to carbon Breathing pure oxygen reduces to carbon monoxide over Carbon monoxide poisoning hypoxia is experienced
279. monoxide'! the effects of carbon monoxide oxygen of 5 times can result from nicotine prevalent
only occurs at altitudes over
approximately 10,000 ft. in is caused by the inability of
the case of a healthy the blood to carry sufficient
280. Hypoxic Hypoxia can occur at any altitude. individual oxygen is not affected by smoking
One of the outcomes of rapid A collapse of the of the
281. decompression is Regression middle ear Cyanosis Fogging/Misting
Which gas diffuses from the blood to the
282. lungs during external respiration ? Nitrogen Air Carbon dioxide Nitrogen
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TUC for progressive decompression at

283. 30,000 ft is 1 - 2 minutes 3 - 5 minutes 5 - 10 minutes 15 - 20 minutes
On initiating recovery from a spin, the pilot In a direction opposite to that In a direction the same as the
284. may have a strong sensation of turning of the spin spin Slowly upwards Quickly upwards
If a pilot picks up a pen from the floor of
the cockpit while in a turn, he/she may
285. suffer from Coriolis Effect Hypoxic hypoxia Barotrauma Pressure Vertigo
Can be prevented by ear
286. Presbycusis causes loss of High tones Low tones Both equally plugs
10Presbycusis is loss of hearing due to age the whole spectrum of
287. and which effects high tones first low tones first medium tones first tones at the same time
288. What detects hearing ? Cochlea Semi-circular canals Saccules Pinna
10What is a stereotype and involuntary
289. reaction to a stimulation ? data control a reflex stimulation control automatic stimulation
How many semi-circular canals are
290. contained in the ear ? 1 2 3 4
291. Vertigo can be associated with The Coriolis Effect Autokenesis sweating shivering
by-passes outer and the is no different from the
292. Hearing through bone conduction by-passes the inner ear by-passes the outer ear middle ear normal hearing process
Decrease the number of Decrease the number of
Increase the number of human Increase the number of human errors but do not human errors and reduce
errors but do not reduce the human errors and reduce the reduce the speed at which the speed at which work is
293. Ordinarily, levels of noise speed at which work is done speed at which work is done work is done done
The amount of light entering the eye is The Peripheral Nervous The Autonomic (Vegetative) The Secondary Nervous
294. controlled by The Central Nervous System System Nervous System System
The pilot’s seat harness is too There is a mis-match between
tight not allowing the pilot to the information received from Information from the
sense the aircraft’s attitude the vestibular apparatus and vestibular apparatus is
295. Spatial disorientation is when : changes the instruments The pilot is ignoring illusions ignored
Cornea becomes more
296. When a pilot looks at a near object , the : Lens flattens Pupil becomes smaller curved Cornea changes shape
Which light sensitive cells of the eye are
297. used for night vision ? Cones Rods Cones and Rods None of the above
Should possess reasonable
298. Sunglasses Supply protection for UV and IR luminance Absorb colour Straighten the light beams
Sunglasses with variable transmission light can be disadvantageous when are generally forbidden for are ideal as long as they are
299. sensitive Photochromic lenses used in the cockpit due to their are advantageous for pilots use in flight polarized
53
dependence on UV light which

is screened by the cockpit glass
In the indifferent zone altitude band, night
300. vision is affected up to 3,000m 3,000m - 5,000m 5,000m - 7,000m up to 5,000m
When the visual image is focused in front
301. of the retina the condition is: Myopia Hypermetropia Presbycusis Astigmatism
increased pressure of the
302. A person suffering from Glaucoma will have cloudiness of the lens cloudiness of the cornea eye colour blindness
convert light images into transport electrical impulses convert light signals into convert light signals into
303. The function of the retina is to meaningful information to the brain electrical impulses chemical impulses
The part of the retina which has the highest the outer sections of the
304. visual acuity is the optic nerve entry point the retinal optic focus point the fovea retina
Depth perception when objects are close
305. (less than 1 metre) is achieved by Visual memory Binocular vision The blind spot on the retina Comparison of object sizes
As light decreases, the colour sensitivity of
306. the eye increases decreases is not affected magnified
The Peripheral Nervous The Autonomic (Vegetative)
307. Accommodation is triggered by the The Secondary Nervous System System The Central Nervous System Nervous System
308. Scotopic vision is vision via the cones rods cones and the rods cornea and the lens
What is the worse type of incapacitation on
309. finals Sudden Severe Intensive Gradual
The most dangerous type of incapacitation
310. is Acute Rapid Insidious None of the above
Should a pilot fly with a bad cold he/she
311. could suffer from Chokes Bends Sinus pain Blurred vision
If a pilot in an unpressurised aircraft suffers
from severe flatulence in flight. He/she Descend rapidly and seek
312. should Climb Descend Pressure breathe oxygen medical advice
If a pilot experiences negative acceleration
(-Gz) what is the effect on the pilot's inertia
313. ? In transverse to the right In transverse to the left Downwards and vertical Upwards and vertical
the brain functions will be
the brain will be stimulated increased and thereby
thereby increasing the increasing performance at the pilot will remain the pilot will be more
314. Even with a small ingestion of alcohol resistance to hypoxia high altitudes unaffected susceptible to hypoxia
JAR-OPS specifies a maximum blood 40 milligrams per 100 60 milligrams per 100 80 milligrams per 100
315. alcohol limit. What is it ? 20 milligrams per 100 milliliters milliliters milliliters milliliters
54
Even a small amount will Drinking coffee with alcohol

316. With regard to alcohol Does not effect performance effect performance reduces the effects It effects Orthodox sleep
While carrying out a spin in an aircraft the
317. pilot will experience Angular acceleration Radial acceleration Negative acceleration Static acceleration
318. Most ozone is found in the Thermosphere Ionosphere Stratosphere Troposphere
Level off and, if necessary, Keep the head still and
You suffer pain in an ear on a descent. Put one hand over the effected climb to the level where it continue descending at a
319. Should you ear first occurred Increase the rate of descent slower rate
What is the first symptom of high radial
320. acceleration ? Grey out Unconsciousness Red out Black out
Ensure you eat unpeeled
Ensure you put ice into all cold Drink only from sealed Eat raw vegetables fruit because of possible
321. In tropical regions you should drinks containers whenever possible vitamin loss
A pilot should eat peanuts
A pilot should not eat sugar or A pilot should eat regularly because they produce high
322. To avoid hypoglycemia A pilot should not eat a meal sweets and ensure a balanced diet energy levels
Peripheral Nervous System Central Nervous System Central Nervous system Vegetative System
323. Alcohol is a stimulant stimulant depressant stimulant
can result in severe can result in severe
rarely causes spatial is one of the main causes of degradation of visual degradation of sensory
324. The Flicker Effect disorientation in pilots spatial disorientation in pilots adaption adaption
Ozone in a pressurized cabin can be Climbing to an altitude above Avoiding flights above the
325. eliminated by Spraying detergents 45,000 ft equator Using ozone-converters
Anxiety affects 1) Judgement 2) Attention
326. 3) Memory 4) Concentration 1 & 2 only 1 only 1, 2 & 4 All
Increase in the demand for
Decrease in the demand for oxygen and eventually lends Increase in the demand for
327. Hypothermia causes a oxygen to unconsciousness oxygen None of the above
Take as much time as he/she Make up his/her mind as Make up his/her mind
needs within the available time quickly as possible to give as before consulting other Wait until the last minute to
328. When faced with a problem a pilot should : to make up his/her mind much spare time as possible crew members make up his/her mind
ignoring stress as all good
putting a student pilot under pilots leave stress on the
329. Performance can be increased by stress a moderate amount of stress no stress at all if possible ground
Exhaustion Resistance
330. The sequence of GAS is. Alarm Resistance Exhaustion Resistance Exhaustion Alarm Alarm Flight Exhaustion Alarm
331. At height cockpit humidity can be between 20-25% 40-60% 30-60% 5-15%
55
Tuned resonance of the body parts, Acceleration along the Resonance between 150 - 250 Resonance between 16 - 18 Resonance between 1 - 100
332. distressing the individual can be caused by horizontal flight path Hz Ghz Hz
If in a state of stress which is impossible to
333. overcome, the pilot will be in a state of Eustress Hypertension Distress Regression
A person that is exposed to extreme or
334. prolonged stress factors can perceive: Distress Eustress Coping stress Stressors
What is the relationship between stress No stress and no fatigue is Stress can be good, fatigue No stress and some fatigue
335. and fatigue ? good All stress and fatigue is good is always bad is good
336. Extreme cold may be associated with Aggression Aggression and anxiety Anxiety Contentment or apathy
is the subjective evaluation
is the objective evaluation of of a situation and the
depends on the current a situation and the perceived perceived ability to cope depends on the individual's
337. An individual's perception of stress situation only ability to cope with it with it arousal
Stress Management strategies normally the prevention and the
338. involve Only the prevention of stress Only the removal of stress the use of drugs removal of stress
are stored as rules in the long require conscious though to
339. Motor programmes term memory are behavioural sub-routines engage are natural reactions
What error rate can be expected to be
340. given reasonable training ? 1 in 100,000 1 in 10,000 1 in 1,000 1 in 100
What human error rate is considered to be
341. the norm ? 1 in 10 1 in 100 1 in 1,000 1 in 10,000
generally increases
generally has little effect on performance until
pilots' performance since it approximately the age of 32
generally decreases pilot's generally increases pilot's is compensated for by and therefore generally
342. Age performance performance experience decreases performance
It has been accepted that Human error can be
human error will always be avoided through vigilance
The thinking concerning human error has Human error is inherent and made but can be decreased Error can be eliminated and expansion of
343. changed recently to inescapable by training and technology. completely in the future knowledge
past experiences and sensory past experiences and motor
344. Mental models of the world are based on information past xperiences only programmes (skills) only sensory information
only for pilots with a
345. Mental rehearsal is useful for all pilots instructor pilots only specific level of experience student pilots only
When problem-solving, what determines
the transition from rule-based activities to Knowledge of rules that apply Unsuitability of automated Unsuitability of known rules Lack of knowledge of the
346. knowledge-based activities for the problem actions for the problem posed rules
56
When do we change from Rule Based When we do not know the When we become highly
347. Behaviour to Knowledge Based Behaviour ? When we choose to do so rules When rules do not apply experienced
Very high ambition and drive for success a "laiser faire" cockpit improved cohesion and
348. can lead to conflict in the cockpit improved performance situation mutual consideration
Motives in the middle of Any level may be aroused
Motives lower in the hierarchy Motives higher in the the hierarchy are aroused and there is no significance
With respect to Maslow's hierarchy of are aroused first and must be hierarchy are aroused first first and must be satisfied as to which must be
349. needs (1943) he expounded that satisfied first and must be satisfied first first satisfied first
With respect to the subcutaneous pressure Spatial orientation of the Pressure on the body
350. receptors, they sense The condition of the body body indicating true vertical Environmental conditions
A pilot is accustomed to a runway with a
width of 27m and lands on an unfamiliar
runway with a width of 42m. The pilot will Fly a too high an approach and Fly a too low an approach and Fly a too high an approach Fly a too low an approach
351. tend to overshoot overshoot and undershoot and undershoot
352. The Gestalt Theory relates to Motivation Perception and organisation Personality traits Faults and slips
When staring at an isolated light at night,
353. the light may appear to vary in size move vary in colour vary in intensity
Illusions that pilots experience in conditions Objects appear further away Objects appear closer than Objects appear to move Objects appear to move
354. of fog, snow or mist are that than they really are they really are slower than they really do faster than they really do
Erroneous mental model
resulting from a
Poor interpretation of cockpit Lack of external reference Conflict between different misinterpretation of
355. Cognitive illusions are caused by: instruments points senses sensory inputs
What should you do if disorientated at
356. night: Ignore your instruments Look at the horizon Descend Rely on your instruments
357. Where are the Pressoreceptors located ? In the heart In the skin In the carotid sinus In the intestines
A unaccustomed high
The illusion that the aircraft is taxiing too distance of the cockpit from
358. fast can be caused by Snow and a tailwind Snow and a tail wind Rain and a headwind the ground
Errors in the judgment of height on an
359. approach are more likely over snow mountains jungle rough seas
Look for other references
inside and outside the
First focus on the light with the Shake the head and turn Look at the light out of the cockpit and use peripheral
360. To cure Autokinesis right eye and then the left down the cockpit lights corner of your eye vision
The Seat-of -the-Pants sensation emanates muscles and joints sensitive
361. from receptors in the Utricles and Saccules Semi-circular canals to the movement and skin
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position of the body

On an approach at night in rain onto a
runway with approach lighting it is it not
362. unusual for the approach to appear Slower than it actually is Faster than it actually is normal curved
gives a feeling of coming up Is not reliable and does not Is reliable and indicates Is not reliable and indicates
363. Flying by the "seat of one's pants" and out of your seat indicate spatial orientation spatial orientation spatial orientation
1) Paradoxic sleep refreshes the brain,
memory and body. 2) Paradoxic sleep
decreases during the night. Which is
364. correct? 1&2 1 only 2 only Neither
Crew member tends to do
their own jobs independently A non-synergistic cockpit in
What characterizes a self-centered cockpit Autocratic Captain assures a without keeping other which the Captain tends to
365. ? synergistic cockpit informed A synergistic cockpit be authoritarian
How a person responds to
a genetic predisposition to be another person, situation or
biased either positively or acting and thinking organisation either
366. Attitude is a synonym of behaviour negatively subjectively positively or negatively
Personality is based on: 1) Heredity 2)
367. Childhood 3) Upbringing 4) Experience None of the above 1, 2, and 4. All of the above 2, 3 and 4
Ensure all points are
covered for the flight to
During the pre-flight brief the aircraft Delegate all duties to all crew Emphasise that he/she is in Emphasise areas requiring avoid repetition in the
368. commander should: members for the entire flight charge good crew co-ordination cockpit?
part of personality and cannot a person's response to a stable and cannot be
369. Attitude is be changed in an adult situation, person or object the same as behaviour changed in an adult
Leadership qualities should include 1) A
dominant style 2) Laiser Faire 3) Technical
370. competency 4) Good communications 1, 2, 3 and 4 1 & 2 only 2 only 3 & 4 only
Behaviour is the outward Attitude is the outward
Which of the following statements is Attitudes do not change in the result of personality and result of behaviour and
371. correct ? Personality is easily changed long-term attitude personality
What is not a useful element of good Enable response and Specifically target each
372. feedback ? Tailor to the individual discussion individual's failings Should be understood by all
Using different context which Using commonly
What constitutes effective communications Speaking in a variety of mother would be understood by the Considering cultural understood context,
373. ? tongues receiver differences language and
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metacommunications
They form general They form information
To allow individual crew information about the flight about the flight and allocate
member to prepare their own but they contain no specific responsibilities and
What is the main purpose of pre-flight To allow the Captain to assert responses to likely or reference to likely or reactions to likely or
374. briefings ? his/her authority problematic events problematic events problematic events
be able to understand key be able to have a command
words and phases only of a local language since
have a good command of the have at least a limited English since these are sufficient to this is sufficient and legal in
375. Pilots should English language vocabulary sufficiently impart meaning an emergency
Which of the following elements of
communications is most likely to lead o Coding and decoding a Expectation (What you
376. misunderstanding ? message The Receiver’s mood expect to hear ) The Sender’s nationality
In communication which element shows
that information has been received and
377. understood ? Encoding Decoding Feedback Synchronization
mishearing the contents of an
air traffic controller's non-
With regards to anticipation, which of the standard clearance when a
following would most likely to result in the standard procedure was anticipation of a longer
378. occurrence of a hazardous situation ? anticipated. anticipation of a check list anticipation of weather flight time than expected
Enables the pilot to respond
to unusual situations better Reduces pilot's attention
Which of the following statements are Automation increases since there is no need to since they can be out of the
379. correct with reference to automation ? Situational Awareness monitor automatics. loop Saves time
If a system can be operated
Even if a system can be If a system can be operated If a system can be operated incorrectly it should be
designed correctly, it will incorrectly, sooner or later it incorrectly it should be backed up by a second
380. Murphy's Law states that always be mis-used will be guarded system
The alerting system for an important a flashing visual signal - a steady visual signal -
381. system failure should be preferably red a doll's eye indicator an audio warning preferably red
can sometimes be detrimental
to performance as some give better communications in improve man/machine almost completely remove
The introduction of automation and systems provide poor quality the cockpit, as pilots have interface due to artificial the need to communicate
382. improvements in glass cockpit designs feedback to pilots more time to communicate intelligence in modern FMS with ATC
flying an aircraft which you flying an aircraft with which flying an aircraft in which
383. Check lists are most important when have flown many times before. you are not familiar and when conducting a long flight you are current
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under stress
Errors resulting from a bad indexing system
in a checklist or manual are related to a
384. mismatch between Software to Hardware Liveware to Software Liveware to Environment Liveware to Liveware
be shared by the members
follow implicitly the of the crew and
only be tailored to the type of manufacturer's suggestions modified/updated so as to be tailored to the individual
aircraft regardless of current and not reflect the Operator's maintain as much synergy pilot's needs and
385. SOP's in the cockpit must MCC procedures cockpit procedures as possible requirements
synergy between the co-pilot
and the Commander physiological problems unjustified self-confidence
to query and double-check emanating from CRM resulting from the fear of resulting in careless
386. The term `complacency' means possible solutions procedures flying negligence
Conscious and voluntary after A systematic and analytical
387. With reference to decision-making, it is An automatic function assessing the options An arbitrary decision process
respect each other's
respect each other's decision political and religious
388. A efficient flight deck crew is one which and views is a constituted crew persuasions is laiser faire
To ignore information which Not to look for information To look for facts that
Confirmation Bias of the decision-making indicates that a hypothesis or Not to seek information which which would reassure the confirm expectations before
389. process is decision is poor confirms the decision correct decision making a decision
390. The semi-circular canals react to Linear acceleration Heat Temperature Angular acceleration
391. With what is "Mode Error" associated ? Leadership Motivation Automation Homeostasis
The brain controls breathing rate based The amount of oxygen required
392. upon the at the capillaries The acidity of the blood Pulse rate Sweat glands
Why is it essential to ensure that the To prevent carbon dioxide
combustion heater is serviceable in an To prevent carbon dioxide poisoning, possible fire or To prevent carbon dioxide To prevent carbon
393. aircraft ? poisoning and possible fire explosion poisoning monoxide poisoning
Short term memory (Working Memory) can
394. be improved through practice and retrieval chunking and association rehearsal and practice rehearsal and retrieval
b that can still be exhaled by that can still be inhaled over
remaining in the lungs after the forceful expiration after the and beyond the normal inhaled and exhaled with
395. Tidal Volume is the volume of air most forceful expiration normal tidal expiration breath each normal breath
Approximately ..............% of all accidents
396. are caused by Human factors 50 95 20 70
Linear acceleration may give a false
397. impression of a Climb Descent Turn Spin
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When suffering from Hypoxic Hypoxia

short-term memory impairment starts at
398. approximately 10,000 ft 12,000 ft 14,000 ft 16,000 ft
A free running circadian rhythm exhibits a
399. periodicity of approximately 23 hours 24 hours 25 hours 26 hours
Too steep an approach and the Too shallow an approach and Too steep an approach and Too shallow an approach
Rain on the windscreen at night tends to threshold appears to be more the threshold appears to be the threshold appears to be and the threshold appears
400. lead to distant than it is in fact more distant than it is in fact closer than it is in fact to be closer than it is in fact
Eustachian tube and the semi- Semi-circular canals and the Eustachian tube and the
401. The Vestibular Apparatus consists of the Cochlea and the auditory nerve circular canals otoliths pinna
To overcome disorientation in IMC Keep the head as still as Get relief from look-out
402. conditions it is advised to Look out at the horizon Believe the instruments possible duties
403. Our primary source of spatial orientation is Sight The ears The Cortex The Cerebellum
Knowledge of the limitations of The safety and efficiency of
The twin objectives of Human Performance the body and their significance Flight Safety and self- the operation and the well- Physical fitness and good
404. are in aviation awareness being of the individual decision-making
405. Haemoglobin is manufactured mainly in the Liver Heart Bone Marrow Capillaries
It has been shown that
approximately 80% of all The Black Hole Effect A mix of status and role is
Which of the following statements is Automation always improves communications is achieved generally leads to a steep the best way to constitute a
406. correct ? Situational Awareness by metacommunications approach flight crew
407. Normal cabin pressure is 10,000 ft. 5,000 ft 3,000 ft - 4,000 ft 6,000 ft - 8,000 ft
Equalise the pressure Equalise the pressure Equalise the pressure
Equalise the pressure between between the outer and inner between the inner and between the tympanum
408. The function of the Eustachian tube is to the outer and middle ear ear middle ear and the inner ear
Take a spare pair of contact Take a pair of ordinary
Inform the company aviation Make sure that they are lenses with you and ensure corrective spectacles with
If you wear contact lenses while flying, you medical specialist of your correctly oiled, cleaned and they are immediately you and have them
409. must also condition maintained available immediately available
Generally the most common cause of
410. accidents to aircraft is CFIT MAYDY RADA EMERG
Stimuli must be of a certain strength for the
411. receptors to pick them up. This is called Sensory threshold Sensory filter Sensory strength Sensory volume
The main limitation of the Central Decision- It is single channelled It multi channelled
412. maker is It is dual channelled processing processing It is slow processing
413. The Cocktail Party Effect is an example of Selective attention Divided attention Selective Communication Divided Communication
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What 2 factors will bring a person

temporarily from the Automatic phase
stage of a motor programme into the Loss of Situational
414. Associative stage ? Fatigue and stress Lack of practice and stress Awareness and fear Anxiety and fatigue
What are the 3 reactions of the GAS Alarm, Resistance and Alert, Resistance and Temporal, Cognitive and Psychological,
415. syndrome ? Exhaustion Exhaustion Resultant Psychosomatic and Somatic
With a pulse rate of 72 beats a minute and
a stroke volume of 70 ml, what is the
416. cardiac output ? 8 litres a minute 6 litres a minute 5 litres a minute 7 litres a minute
417. If the sensory threshold is increased Selectivity is increased Selectivity is decreased Sensitivity is reduced Sensitivity is increased
What happens to the Systolic blood Systolic blood pressure
pressure if peripheral resistance is Systolic blood pressure Systolic blood pressure is initially decreases and then
418. increased ? Systolic blood pressure rises decreases unaffected increases
Higher C02 content than on More oxygen content than on Less water vapour content The same C02 content as on
419. On expiration there is intake intake than on intake intake
by-passes outer and the is no different from the
420. Hearing through bone conduction by-passes the inner ear by-passes the outer ear middle ear normal hearing process
421. What is the ideal personality for a pilot ? G+ P+ A team player Stable Extravert Synergistic
equal weight to information undue weight to
Once a mental model is constructed, there undue weight to information that contradicts and confirms c frequent alterations to the information that confirms
422. is a tendency to give that contradicts the model the mental model mental model the model
A pilot inputting information from an
altimeter can be expressed in terms of the
423. SHELL Concept as L-H S-L P-R H-E
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CPL Composite (Meteorology)

The international standard atmosphere
1. assumes a lapse rate of: 2°C/1000 ft 1.5°C/1000 ft 3°C/1000 ft 1.98°C/1000 ft
The line where the
temperature no longer The layer between the
decreases with increase of tropopause and the The layer beyond which The line indicating clear air
2. The tropopause is: height. stratosphere. only Cl cloud occurs. turbulence.
Temperature lapse rate is
One of the most important characteristics Density is constant above 10 The air is a poor conductor of very frequently above 3°C The air is a good conductor
3. of the atmosphere is: 000 ft. heat. per 1000 ft. of heat.
Most of the vapour in the atmosphere is
4. contained in the: tropopause stratosphere troposphere stratopause
5. The main Ozone layer is to be found in the: thermosphere troposphere mesosphere stratosphere
The level in the atmosphere where the air
temperature ceases to fall with increase in
6. height is known as: The troposphere. The Stratopause. The Stratosphere. The tropopause.
The atmosphere is a mixture of gasses of oxygen 21% nitrogen 78% oxygen 21% hydrogen 78% nitrogen 78% argon 21 % nitrogen 78% oxygen 21 %
7. the following proportions: other gasses 1% other gasses 1% oxygen 1 hydrogen 1
From 36 090 ft/11 kms to 65 From 36 090 ft/11 kms to From 36 090 ft/11 kms to
8. In the ISA the temperature is isothermal: Up to 36 090 ft/11 kms 617 ft/20 kms. 104 987 ft/32 kms. 45 090 ft/13.75 kms.
1252 grammes per cubic
9. At sea level the ISA density is stated to be: 1225 grammes per cubic metre metre 1013.2 mb (hpa) 29.6 inches of mercury
The barometric Pressure at the airfield
10. datum point is known as: QNE QNH QFE Standard Pressure
The instrument that gives a continuous
printed reading and record of the
11. atmospheric pressure is: barometer hygrometer anemograph barograph
When considering the actual tropopause it is low over the poles and it is high over the poles and it is the same height of It is at a constant altitude of
12. which statement is correct: high over the equator low over the equator 36090 ft all over the world 26000'
the force per unit area
the weight of the atmosphere exerted by the atmosphere
exerted on any surface with the weight of the atmosphere on any surface with which it a pressure exerted by the
13. Atmospheric pressure may be defined as: which it is in contact at standard sea level is in contact atmosphere of 1013.2 mbs
14. You are passed an altimeter setting of QFF 1013 1000 QFE
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`29.53'. You would then set your altimeter

subscale to:
the reading on the altimeter
the reading on the altimeter on the reading on the altimeter on an aerodrome when the
an aerodrome when the on touchdown at an sea level barometric
aerodrome barometric aerodrome when 1013.2 is set pressure is set on the sub the aerodrome barometric
15. The aerodrome QFE is: pressure is set on the sub scale on the sub scale scale pressure.
corrected for temperature
corrected to mean sea level corrected to mean sea level, and adjusted to MSL
The aerodrome QNH is the aerodrome assuming standard assuming isothermal assuming standard corrected to MSL using
16. barometric pressure: atmospheric conditions exist conditions exist atmosphere conditions exist ambient temperature.
An isobar on a meteorological chart joins all
17. places having the same: QFE QFF QNH QNE
Lower in summer with a lower Lower in winter with a higher Lower in summer with a Lower in winter with a
18. The tropopause in mid latitudes is: temperature. temperature. higher temperature. lower temperature.
over warm air, the pressure
over cold air, the pressure is over cold air, the pressure is is lower at upper levels than the upper level pressure
higher at upper levels than at lower at upper levels than at at similar levels over warm depends solely on the
19. In the troposphere: similar levels over warm air similar levels over warm air air relative humidity below
isothermal dry and stable increased pressure at the
20. Subsidence in an anticyclone produces: saturated air and an inversion dry air and an inversion air surface
Stratus in summer with Clear skies in summer with
With an anticyclone over the UK the Thunderstorms in summer, fog drizzle, CU and snow in Clear skies or fair weather haze, cold frontal weather
21. expected weather is: in winter. winter. CU in summer, fog in winter in winter.
A small low established within the
22. circulation of another low is called a trough a col an anticyclone a secondary depression
when flying towards a depression at a Lower than indicated at first
constant indicated altitude, the true then the same as indicated
23. altitude will be: Lower than indicated. Higher than indicated. The same as indicated. later.
subsidence causing subsidence causing
A trough of low pressure is generally convergence causing increased divergence causing increased increased cloud and decreased cloud and
24. associated with: cloud and precipitation cloud and precipitation precipitation precipitation
divergence causing cloud to divergence and subsidence
A ridge of high pressure is generally convergence causing increased divergence causing increased break up and more causing clear skies and good
25. associated with: cloud and precipitation cloud and precipitation precipitation weather
An area of indeterminate pressure between
26. two lows and two highs is called: a trough a ridge a col a saddle
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a ridgean extension or
elongation of a low pressure
a trougha small low established system along an axis on each a centre of pressure an area where the pressure
within the circulation of side of which pressure surrounded on all sides by is lower than anywhere else
27. A trough of low pressure is: another low increases higher pressure in the area
The name given to the lowest forecast
28. mean sea level pressure in an area is: QFE Regional QNH QFF QNE
With airfield QNH set the
With 1013 set the altitude height above the airfield The vertical distance above the correct flight level with
29. The Altimeter will always read above MSL datum the pressure level set regional QFE set.
QNH at Johannesburg is 1025 hPa,
elevation is 1600m amsl. What is the QFE.
30. (Assume I mb = 8m) 1000.8 hPa 830.6 hPa 1002 hPa 825 hPa
The measurement of surface temperature at approximately 10 metres at approximately 4 feet at approximately 4 metres
31. is made: at ground level from ground level above ground level above ground level
If temperature remains constant with an
32. increase in altitude there is: an inversion an inversion aloft uniform lapse rate an isothermal layer
33. The surface of the earth is heated by: convection conduction long wave solar radiation short wave solar radiation
Diurnal variation of the surface be unaffected by a change of decrease as wind speed increase as wind speed be at a minimum in calm
34. temperature will: wind speed increases increases conditions
Most accurate temperatures above ground
35. level are obtained by: tephigram aircraft reports temperature probe radio sonde
greater over the sea than less over desert areas then reduced anywhere by the increased anywhere as wind
36. The diurnal variation of temperature is: overland over temperate grassland presence of cloud speed increases
there is an increase of there is a decrease of
there is no horizontal gradient there is no change of temperature as height temperature as height
37. An inversion is one in which: of temperature temperature with height increases increases
The sun gives out _____ amount of energy
38. with_____ wavelengths. Large, large, small, small. Small, small, large, large. Large, large, small, large. Large, small, small, large.
Over continents and oceans, the relative Warmer in winter over land, Colder in winter over land, Cold in winter over land and Warmer in summer over
39. temperature conditions are: colder in summer over sea. warmer in winter over sea. sea. land and sea.
During a night with a clear sky, surface
temperature will -----------RH will --------------
40. ---and Dewpoint will---------------? Fall, Rise, Rise. Rise, Rise, Fall. Fall, Rise, Remain the same. Fall, Fall, Remain the same
A change of state directly from a solid to a
41. vapour or vice versa is: insolation condensation evaporation sublimation
42. The process of change of state from a gas evaporation in which latent evaporation in which latent condensation in which condensation in which
65
to a liquid is: heat is absorbed heat is released latent heat is absorbed latent heat is released
The process of change of state from a liquid condensation in which latent evaporation in which latent condensation in which evaporation in which latent
43. to a gas is: heat is released heat is released latent heat is absorbed heat is absorbed
the maximum amount of
the actual amount of water water vapour that a sample
vapour in a sample of air of air can contain over the
over the maximum amount actual amount of water
air temperature over wet bulb air temperature over dew of water vapour that the vapour the sample does
44. Relative humidity is: temperature x 100 point temperature x 100 sample can contain x 100 contain x 100
is the minimum
temperature reached by the
is the minimum temperature surface of the earth as
to which a thermometer bulb measured by a
is measured using a can be cooled by the measures the dew point of thermometer placed 1.2
45. The wet bulb temperature: hydrometer evaporation of water the air metres above the ground
46. When water vapour changes to ice: Latent heat is absorbed. Specific heat is released. Latent heat is released. Specific heat is absorbed.
Atmosphere is conditionally Atmosphere is stable when
47. If the ELR is 0.65°C/ 1 00m stable Atmosphere is stable Atmosphere is unstable dry
48. ELR is 1°C/100m Neutral when dry Absolute stability Absolute instability Conditional stability
The air is colder at higher The air is colder at higher
49. Why does air cool as it rises? It expands It contracts latitudes altitudes
From which of the following can the
50. stability of the atmosphere be determined? surface pressure surface temperature DALR ELR
Wind speed will always
decrease with increase in
When the upper part of a layer of warm air Stability increases within the Stability decreases within the height in the Northern
51. is advected: layer layer Hemisphere Both A & B
Which of the following gives conditionally
52. unstable conditions? 1°C/100m 0.65°C/100m 0.49°C/100m None of the above
What happens to stability of the
atmosphere in an isothermal layer? (Temp
53. constant with height) Absolutely stable Unstable Conditionally stable Conditionally unstable
What is the effect of a strong low level
54. inversion? Good visibility Calm conditions Turbulence Unstable conditions
In still air a lapse rate of 1.2°C/I00m refers
55. to: DALR SALR ELR ALR
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it heats up less than dry

because of latent heat
What happens to the temperature of a it heats up more than dry it heats up less than dry it heats up more than dry released during
56. saturated air mass when descending? because of expansion because of evaporation because of compression condensation
57. The DALR is Variable with time Fixed Variable with latitude Variable with temperature
A parcel of air cooling by 1°C/100m is said
58. to be? Conditionally stable Conditionally unstable Unstable Stable
For the formation of mountain waves, the Decrease or even reverse Increase initially then Increase with little change Increase and then reverse in
59. wind above the level of the ridge should: direction. decrease. in direction. direction.
Approximately one
wavelength down wind of,
Maximum turbulence associated with the Two wavelengths down wind and approximately level with, Just bellow the tropopause Down the lee side of the
60. standing waves is likely to be: and just above the surface. the top of the ridge. above the ridge. ridge and along the surface.
There may be mountain waves There are mountain waves A Fohn wind can be A Katabatic wind is present
present and there will be present but they may not give expected with no which may lead to fog in the
61. The significance of lenticular cloud is: severe turbulence. severe turbulence. turbulence. valleys.
For standing waves to form, the wind
direction must be near perpendicular to a Decrease with height within
ridge or range of mountains and the speed Decrease with height within a Increase with height within an an unstable layer above the Increase with height within
62. must: stable layer above the hill. unstable layer above the hill. hill. a stable layer above the hill.
Above the mountain and
downwind up to a
Up to a maximum of 5000 ft Up to mountain height only maximum height at the
above the mountains and 50 and 50 nm to 100 nm tropopause and 50 nm to
63. Mountain waves can occur: nm to 100 nm downwind. downwind. 100 nm downwind. In the stratosphere.
They are in the same
A cyclone and an anticyclone have the They are in the same hemisphere but the The cyclone is due north of
same pressure gradient and the same 2000 They are at identical latitudes hemisphere but the cyclone is anticyclone is at a lower the anticyclone in the
64. ft wind speed. This can only happen when: in opposite hemispheres. at a lower latitude. latitude. northern hemisphere.
During the day the surface wind in western
Australia is 270/30 kt. After dusk the wind
65. is most likely to be: 255/40 260/20 290/20 290/40
A gust of wind often causes a veer in the
surface wind (Northern Hemisphere) It strengthens pressure It increases centrifugal It lifts the air above the
66. because: gradient force. It increases coriolis force. force. friction layer.
There are unstable conditions Air is cooled mainly at the Windspeed must be at least Air is cooled mainly at the
67. When a Fohn wind occurs: on the downwind side of the DALR on the upwind side of 15 kt at the surface SALR on the upwind side of
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mountain. the mountain and is heated at increasing with height and the mountain and is heated
the SALR on the downwind maintaining direction. mainly at the DALR on the
side. downwind side.
When the coriolis force and
When pressure values are In a tropical revolving pressure gradient force are
68. The geostrophic wind blows: Parallel to curved isobars. changing rapidly. storm. equal.
A strong wind that rises suddenly, last for
some minutes and dies comparatively
69. suddenly away is called: a gust a squall a gale a blast
The force which causes the air to flow
70. parallel to the curved isobars is called: pressure force centrifugal force coriolis force gradient force
The deflection of the surface wind direction over the land by night - 35 ° in over the land by day - 35' in over the sea - 10°, veered in
71. from the geostrophic is, on average: cloudy conditions cloudy conditions over the sea - 30° the southern hemisphere
Is a wind blowing at
Is a wind blowing at increased Is a wind blowing from a hill Is a wind blowing up a hill reduced speed along a
72. A ravine or valley wind: speed along a valley. to a valley below. from a valley. valley.
The size of raindrops from a cloud is Air is stable and cloud is layer Air is unstable and cloud is The relative humidity is
73. greater if: type. heap type. Cloud type is AC or NS. high.
Which piece of equipment is used to
74. measure cloud base: barograph hygrometer alidade barometer
the height above the
In aerodrome reports and forecasts the the height above mean sea the height above aerodrome the pressure altitude of the average ground level for the
75. height of the cloud base refers to: level elevation cloud base area
Low cloud in temperate climates, excluding
76. heap are those existing from: the surface to 6500 ft 1000 ft to 6500 ft the surface to 7500 ft the surface to 7500 metres
77. Lumpy or heaped white cloud is: altocirrus cumulus cumulonimbus nimbostratus
In temperate latitudes which statement is Ci only occurs above 25000 Ci only occurs above 30000
78. correct: Ci only occurs above 15000 ft Ci only occurs above 16500 ft ft ft
The turbulence associated with cumulus
79. cloud is: Moderate. Slight to nil. Nil. Moderate possibly severe.
On weather charts, the station circle shows in metres above surface
80. the height of the cloud base: above ground level above mean sea level at a pressure altitude level
Which of the following clouds is never a
81. hazard to aviation: Nimbostratus Noctilucent cloud Cumulonimbus cloud Stratus cloud
If you observe drizzle falling, the cloud
82. above you is most likely to be: AS CU ST NS
83. Clouds formed by convection will always: Be layer clouds. Be CU CB or NS. Have a rising cloud base and Form only in Polar maritime
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may develop into CB as the air.

day progresses.
The type of cloud from which continuous
84. moderate or heavy rain is likely to fall is: large cumulus altostratus nimbostratus cumulonimbus
The movement of cool moist air over a cumulus or cumulonimbus alto cumulus lenticular
85. warmer surface is likely to cause: cloud advection fog nimbostratus cloud cloud
Intensity of precipitation is described as intermittent, continuous or intermittent, moderate or
86. either: showery drizzle, rain or snow slight, moderate or heavy heavy
precipitation is from precipitation is intermittent precipitation is continuous
precipitation is in the form of cumulonimbus cloud and lasts and is from strato form for long periods from
87. The term "shower" implies that: rain and is continuous for short periods cloud cumuloform cloud
Precipitation in the form of snow will not
reach the surface unless the surface
88. temperature is: less than +4°C less than 0 ° C less than 45°F less than 30°F
The type of precipitation in which visibility
89. is likely to be most reduced: drizzle snow light rain sleet
If there are small cumulus in the morning in
summer, it is reasonable to forecast later in
90. the day: Clear skies. St and drizzle. CB Cloud. Haze.
Hazards of the mature stage of a TS cell microburst, windshear and icing, microburst and
91. include lightning, turbulence and: anvil windshear icing, drizzle and microburst windshear, hail and fog
moderate/severe
On a significant weather chart the moderate turbulence and severe turbulence and severe moderate turbulence and turbulence and/or
92. thunderstorm symbol signifies: moderate icing icing severe icing moderate/severe icing
During the ......... stage of a thunderstorm
cell, the cloud contains ........ Complete the
above statement correctly using one of the building/up currents and down mature/up currents and down dissipating/up currents and building/down currents
93. following: currents currents down currents only
The following is unlikely to be a hazard Large variations in pressure
94. below a thunderstorm: Severe turbulence. Severe icing. Windshear. setting values.
By up and down progress in By collision with
95. Hail grows by: Freezing as it leaves the cloud. CU cloud. supercooled water drops. By collision with ice crystals.
A microburst usually lasts for………and is
96. about……….across. 20 minutes 20 nm 5 minutes 5 km 30 minutes 10 nm 45 minutes 5 nm
When flying through an active CB cloud, Above 5000' and underneath In the clear air below the In the temperature band
97. lightning strikes are most likely: the anvil. cloud in rain. between +10°C and -10°C. At or about 10 000 ft AMSL.
98. Regarding thunderstorms, the most There will always be windshear The average movement is in If the cloud base has a The number of lightning
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accurate statement amongst the following under the cloud. accord with the wind at 10 temperature below 0°C flashes is directly
is: 000 ft. then freezing rain will proportional to the degree
occur. of turbulence.
Radiation fog is most likely at an inland
airfield in the UK with a relative humidity of Winter clear skies 15/20
99. 80% in the…… with……and a wind of….…….. Autumn clear skies 2-8 knots Spring 6/8 ST& SC 2-10 knots knots Summer clear skies no wind
Advection fog is formed when……… air
moves over a………….surface and is………… Warm moist cooler cooled warm moist warmer kept
100. its dewpoint:. humid cold kept above below dry frozen well below above
With a wind speed up to 15 kt, With a wind of 2-8 kt, a high
a clear sky and a high relative density and the summer
101. Radiation fog is most likely: humidity. season. In an anticyclone in winter. On a hill in autumn.
Changes of RVR are reported for 50 m between 300 m and 50 m between 500 m and
102. increments of: 25 m up to 250 m 25 m up to 200 m 800 m 800 m
form on a vigorous cold form to the rear of a warm
form ahead of a vigorous fast front and last for many front but only last for 1 to 2
103. Frontal fog is most likely to: moving cold front form ahead of a warm front hours hours
a reduction of visibility to a reduction of visibility to
a reduction of visibility to less a reduction of visibility to less less than 1500 metres due less than 1000 ft due to the
than 1000 metres due to the than 1000 metres due to the to the presence of water presence of water vapour in
presence of water vapour in presence of water droplets in droplets in suspension in suspension in the
104. Fog may be defined as: the atmosphere suspension in the atmosphere the atmosphere atmosphere
Only occurs at night and early Is most likely with Polar Can sometimes last for 24
105. Advection fog: morning. Maritime air. Will only clear by insolation. hours or more in winter.
In circumstances where there is a clear sky,
calm wind and a high relative humidity in Radiation fog is likely over Radiation fog is likely at
106. Autumn: night. Advection fog will form. sunrise after previous mist. Hill fog can be expected.
At a station equipped with IRVR, reports When the normal visibility is
107. are given: Every '/2hour. 1500 m or less. When there is mist. When there is haze.
the aircraft suddenly enters
the aircraft suddenly enters a the aircraft in sub zero clear the aircraft in sub zero clear a cloud which is at a higher
cloud at below freezing air suddenly enters a colder air suddenly enters a temperature than the
108. Hoar frost forms on an aircraft when: temperature region warmer moist region surrounding air.
Stratus cloud of limited depth at a
109. temperature of-5°C will most likely give: moderate to heavy rime ice moderate to heavy glaze ice light to moderate rime ice light to moderate glaze ice
large supercooled water ice pellets splattering on the small supercooled water water vapour freezing to
110. Clear ice forms as a result of. droplets spreading as they aircraft droplets splashing over the the aircraft
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freeze aircraft
At temperatures between -
111. Carburettor icing is unlikely: In cloud. 10°C and -30°C. In clear air. When the RH is 40%.
Mixed (rime and clear) icing is most likely in nimbostratus at a in stratocumulus cloud at a in fair weather cumulus at a in towering cumulus at a
112. to be encountered: temperature of -10°C temperature of-20°C temperature of -15 °C temperature of-10°C
Increase the risk of icing if it
Increase the risk of icing if it raises the airframe
raises the airframe temperature to just above Always increase the risk of Always decrease the risk of
113. Kinetic heating will: temperature to just below 0°C. 0°C. airframe icing. airframe icing.
An air mass that has travelled over an continental air and has a high continental air and has a low maritime air and has a high maritime air and has a low
114. ocean is known as: humidity humidity humidity humidity
If air in transit is heated from below it
115. tends to become more: stable neutrally stable unstable none of these
The weather associated with polar overcast moderate broken cloud, light, broken cloud, moderate
116. maritime air is: overcast, moderate drizzle intermittent rain moderate or heavy rain continuous rain
hot dry cloudless weather
warm weather with broken Cu on coasts but Cu building up
and showers on coasts, inland with rain showers,
Tropical continental air normally brings to hot dry cloudless weather with visibility very good except in warm dry cloudless weather visibility good except in
117. the UK: a thick haze showers with very good visibility showers
Referring to the area of the North Atlantic,
the mean position of the polar front in from Florida to south west from Newfoundland to the from Florida to the north of from Newfoundland to
118. January is: England north of Scotland Scotland south west England
Surface layer air will become Surface layer air will Surface layer air will
Surface layer air will become colder, the RH will rise and become warmer, the RH become warmer, the RH
When air from an air mass moves to a warmer, the RH will rise and the air will become more will fall and the air will will fall and the air will
119. lower latitude, it can be expected that: the air will become unstable. stable. become unstable. become more stable.
Greater in Tropical
Greater in Polar Maritime air Greater in Tropical Maritime Greater in Polar Continental Continental air due to the
It can be expected that the depth of the due to the instability and air due to the warm air due to the very low relatively high
120. Friction Layer over the UK will be: moderate wind. temperature. temperatures. temperatures in winter.
The airmasses involved in the development Polar Maritime and Polar Tropical Maritime and Polar Tropical Continental and Polar Maritime and Tropical
121. of a Polar Front Depression are: Continental. Continental. Polar Maritime. Maritime.
When a cold front passes a Station in the The wind veers and the The wind backs and the The wind veers and the The wind backs and the
122. British Isles: dewpoint falls. dewpoint falls. dewpoint rises. dewpoint rises.
The air ahead of the warm The warm sector remains on The cloud type is There is a risk of CB
123. With a cold occlusion: front is colder than the air the surface. predominately layer with a embedded in NS.
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behind the cold front. wide precipitation band.

warm air is forcing cool air over cold air is forcing cool air over cool air is forcing warm air cool air is forcing cold air
124. A warm occlusion occurs when: cold air warm air over cold air aloft
in association with a on the trailing edge of a
over the Iberian peninsular in the lee of the Alps over marked trough of low warm sector mid latitude
125. A thermal depression is likely to form: during the summer Northern Italy in winter pressure over the USA depression
In comparison with a primary depression a Unlikely to produce gale
126. secondary depression is: Always more active. Sometimes more active. Never more active. force winds.
A Summer Thermal
Depression over the
A Secondary Depression would form in Mediterranean or Caspian
127. association with: A Polar Depression. A Col. Sea. A Polar Front Low.
The lows forming over flat
The equatorial trough, land in summer, polar air
monsoon lows, some depressions, tropical
depressions over the central The equatorial trough, polar revolving storms, some of
Which of the following are Thermal Tropical revolving storms, polar and eastern Mediterranean air depressions, monsoon the lows which form over
128. Depressions: air depressions, tornadoes. sea in summer. lows, orographic lows. inland seas in winter
Flying conditions in a Secondary low Always more severe than in a Sometimes more severe than Less severe than in a
129. pressure system are: Primary low. in a Primary low. Primary low. Relatively calm.
colder than the southern
warmer than the southern hemisphere due to the colder than the southern warmer than the southern
hemisphere and winters are smaller amount of solar hemisphere because of the hemisphere and the winters
130. Northern hemisphere summers tend to be: warmer too. radiation. large land masses. are colder.
on average parallel to the
lines of latitude in the much lower in winter in the
southern hemisphere and northern hemisphere than
on average parallel to the lines much more variable in the in the southern higher over the oceans in
131. Statistical pressure values tend to be: of latitude. northern hemisphere. hemisphere. winter.
are caused by lifting over the
heat equator and the
subsequent air movements blow from the equatorial
blow towards the sub tropical from the sub tropical only blow in the winter low pressure systems
132. Trade winds: anticyclones. anticyclones. months. throughout the year.
Trade winds in the southern hemisphere southeast at first becoming in opposition to the
133. are: southeasterly. southwest. monsoons. usually from the northeast.
134. The large change in the direction of trade local pressure differences. an excess of air at height in the change in geostrophic the cyclostrophic force in
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winds is caused by: association with the Hadley force when crossing the the equatorial regions.
cells. geographic equator.
develop due to the high
pressure over continents in
winter and the subsequent low are from the southeasterly
pressure which develops over are never in combination with blow only in the southeast direction over the Indian
135. Monsoons are seasonal winds which: the same areas in summer. trade winds. Asia region. sub continent in summer.
The upper winds tend to be westerly the rotation of the earth is the thermal winds are surface winds are nearly jet streams are usually
136. outside the tropics because: west to east. westerly on average. always westerly. westerly.
in the warm air some 400 nm
ahead of a warm front and
in the warm air some 400 nm some 200 nm behind a cold in association with the polar
ahead of a warm or cold front front and near the sub only in association with the front and with mountain
137. Jet stream main locations are: and near the subtropical highs. tropical highs. polar front. waves.
at speeds greater than 60
138. Near the equator upper winds tend to be: easterly. westerly. kt. calm.
the boundary surface between
polar continental and tropical only apparent over the the region where warm
139. The Polar Front is: continental air. near the poles. Atlantic ocean. sector depressions develop.
in association with the sub in unstable air with low
140. Dust storms and haze are most common: tropical anticyclones over land. with the Haboobs in winter. pressure. in temperate latitudes.
over the sea in the region of
Newfoundland and the over Europe with high over central North America
141. The most notorious advection fogs occur: over southwest UK. Kamchatka peninsula. pressure to the north. in autumn and winter.
When would a rotor cloud be ahead of a Cb
142. ? Mature stage Cumulus stage Dissipating stage Initial stage
143. What cloud does hail fall from ? Cb Ns Cu Ci
Where are you most likely to find moderate In upper levels of
144. to severe icing ? Cumulonimbus Capillatus Nimbostratus Stratus Cirrus
145. Height of the tropopause at 50°N 11 km 16 km 05 km 20 km
Rising air slows down and
146. A characteristic of a stable air mass Lapse rate of 1oC / 100 m dissipates Lapse rate of 0.3°C/100m Good visibility and shower
Unstable moist air, speeds <5 Stable air, speed, >20 kts Unstable air, speed >20 kts Stable air, speed >30kts,
147. Which conditions lead to mountain waves ? kts across the ridge across the ridge across the ridge parallel to the ridge
At the junction of the
148. Where is the coldest air in a cold occlusion? Behind the cold front occlusion In front of the occlusion Behind the warm front
149. Where is the largest chance of squalls 1n front of an active cold front Above the occlusion along the Behind the cold front Above the occlusion along
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occurring ? cold front the warm front

Flying conditions in Ci cloud and horizontal Less than 500m vis, light/mod Greater than 1000m vis, Greater than 1000m vi s, no
150. visibility clear icing light/mod rime ice Less then 500m vis, no icing icing
151. What is the composition of Ci cloud ? Super cooled water droplets Ice crystals Water droplets Smoke particles
What cloud types are classified as medium
152. cloud ? Ns + Sc Ac + As Cb + St Ci+Cs
153. Isolated TS occur mostly due to Warm frontal uplift Cold front uplift Insulation Convection
What type of cloud is associated with
154. drizzle ? St Cb Ci Ac
155. Fair weather cumulus gives an indication of Poor visibility Thunderstorms Turbulence Smooth flying below
What cloud type are you least likely to get
156. icing from ? Ci Cu St Ns
Very heavy and can affect
Translucent and forms along Not translucent and forms aircraft controls and
157. Why is clear ice such a problem ? leading edges along leading edges surfaces Forms in clear air
A steep pressure gradient is characterized Isobars close together, Isobars far apart, decreased Isobars close together, Isobars far apart,
158. by strengthened wind wind temperature increasing temperature decreasing
What type of icing requires immediate
159. diversion ? Light Moderate Severe extreme
160. Sublimation is : Solid to vapour Vapour to liquid Liquid to vapour Liquid to solid
161. What is the coldest time of the day ? 1 hr before sunrise 30 min before sunrise at exact moment of sunrise within 30 min of sunrise
Which of the following would lead to the
162. formation of Steaming fog : cold air over warm sea warm air over cold sea cold sea near coast warm air over land
163. When is diurnal variation a maximum ? Clear sky, still wind Clear sky, strong wind OVC, still OVC, windy
The temperature below
The lowest temperature to which the change of state
The lowest temperature at which air must be cooled in for a given volume of air will The temperature to which
which evaporation will occur order to reduce the relative result in absorption of moist air must be cooled to
164. Dew point is defined as: for a given pressure humidity latent heat reach saturation
From which of the following can the
stability of the atmosphere be determined
165. ? surface pressure surface temperature DALR ELR
166. How do you define convection ? Horizontal movement of air Vertical movement of air Same as advection Same as conduction
When is the latest time radiation fog is
167. most likely ? Just after dawn Late afternoon Midday Midnight
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The layer between the The boundary between the Where temperature
168. What is the tropopause ? troposphere and mesosphere troposphere and stratosphere increases with height Upper boundary to C.A.T.
Where do you find the majority of the air
169. within atmosphere ? Troposphere Stratosphere Tropopause Mesosphere
What are Lenticularis clouds a possible Horizontal wind shear in the
170. indication of ? Mountain waves Instability Developing Cu and Cb upper atmosphere
171. When are cyclones most likely ? Mid Winter Late Autumn Late Summer Late Spring
In what cloud is icing and turbulence most
172. severe ? Cb Ns Sc Ci
173. What will snow most likely fall from ? Ns Ci Cs Ac
Large Super cooled water Small Super cooled water Slow freezing of water Rapid re-freezing of large
174. Rime ice is caused by: droplets droplets droplets onto the wing water droplets
175. What is the most severe form of icing ? Dry Ice Hoar frost Clear ice Rime ice
Air ahead of the warm front Air behind the cold front
undercutting the air behind undercutting the air in front
176. Cold occlusion is: Cold air undercutting warm air Warm air overriding cold air the cold front of the warm front
Air ahead of the warm front Air behind the cold front
over riding the air behind over riding the air in front
177. Warm occlusion is: Warm air undercutting cold air Warm air overriding cold air the cold front of the warm front
178. Duration of a microburst: 5 mins, 5 km 20 mins, 5 km 15 mins, 25 km 45 mins, 25 km
A METAR for Paris gave the surface wind at
179. 260/20 at 2000ft is most likely to be: 260/15 210/30 290/40 175/15
A pilot experiences severe turbulence and
180. icing. A competent met. man would issue: SPECI METAR TEMPO SIGMET
Which of these would cause your true
altitude to decrease with a constant
181. indicated altitude ? Cold/Low Hot/Low Cold/High Hot/High
Closely spaced isobars - low Distant spaced isobars - high Close spaced isobars - Close spaced isobars - light
182. A large pressure gradient is shown by: temperature temperature strong winds winds
In an air mass with cold air
183. Squall lines are encountered: properties Ahead of a cold front Behind a stationary front At an occluded front
Typical horizontal Always associated with CB
184. Microbursts: Only affect tropical areas Average lifespan 30mins dimensions 1 - 3km clouds
7Which of the following are described as
185. precipitation ? TS SQ SA DZ
186. Clouds classified as low level are 500 - 1000ft 1000 - 2000ft the surface - 6500ft 100 - 200ft
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considered to have a base height of:

Distance between pressure Thickness between pressure
187. Contours on a weather chart indicate: Heights of pressure levels levels levels Height of ground
Between the Polar and
188. Sub tropical highs are found: 5°-15° 25° – 35° 40° - 60° Ferrell cells
In a Tropical Downpour the visibility is
189. sometimes reduced to: 1000m 500m 200m less than 100m
The pressure at MSL obtained The pressure at MSL obtained QFE reduced to MSL using QFE reduced to MSL using
190. QNH is defined as: using the standard atmosphere using the actual conditions the actual conditions the standard atmosphere
Landing at an airfield with QNH set the Zero feet on landing only if ISA The elevation of the airfield
191. pressure altimeter reads: conditions prevail Zero if ISA conditions prevail The elevation of the airfield
192. The fastest moving thunderstorms are: Orographic Thermal Frontal Lifting
Where are the fastest winds in a Tropical In the wall of cloud To the right of the track in
193. Revolving Storm ? Near the eye surrounding the eye To the right of the track Hurricanes and Cyclones
What type of cloud is usually found at high
194. level ? St Ac Cc Ns
The environmental lapse rate in the real Has a fixed value of 2°C / 1000 Has a fixed value of 0.65°C / Has a fixed value of 1 °C /
195. atmosphere: ft 100 Mtrs Varies with time 100 Mtrs
The QNH is 1030Hpa and at the Transition
Level you set the SPS. What happens to
196. your indicated altitude? Drops by 510ft Rises by 510ft Rises Drops
What is the movement of air relating to a
197. ridge? Descending and diverging Ascending and diverging Descending and converging Ascending and converging
198. Altostratus is A low level cloud A medium level cloud A high level cloud A heap type cloud
Which of the following would give you the
199. worst airframe icing ? GR SN FZFG Modearte Freezing Rain
Partially freezing and
Small super cooled water droplets hit the Freeze on impact giving clear Partially freezing and running Freeze on impact giving running back giving a cloudy
200. aerofoil, will it ice back giving clear ice rime ice rime ice
201. What causes wind ? Difference in pressure Rotation of the earth Frontal systems Difference in temperature
What is the approximate height of the
202. 250hPa level ? 30,000ft 32,000ft 39,000ft 34,000ft
Several aircraft report clear air turbulence ATC should issue a storm ATC should close the specified A competent ATC should A competent ATC should
203. in a certain area en route warning area issue a SPECI issue a SIGMET
Where are icing conditions on a runway
204. specified ? TAF METAR SIGMET GAFFO
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Where are icing conditions on route SWC (sig. weather. chart)

205. specified ? TAF and METAR METAR and SIGMET and SIGMET SPECI and TREND
206. What is subsidence ? Horizontal motion of air Vertical down draught of air Vertical up draught of air Adiabatic cooling
207. Moderate turbulence can be expected in Alto-cumulus Lenticularis Cirrocumulus Nimbostratus Stratus
Measured using ceilometers Displayed in TAF=s and Usually greater than met Given when the met
208. RVR is along the runway METAR=s visibility visibility is below 2000m
Warmer air compared to colder Warm air at a constant vapour Cold air at a constant Colder air compared to
209. Relative humidity increases in air pressure vapour pressure warmer air
210. Super cooled water droplets are found in Clouds only Clouds, fog and precipitation Precipitation and clouds Precipitation
211. What would be reflected to radar ? Fog Hail Cloud Mist
What is the relationship between the Surface winds are veered from Surface winds are backed Surface winds are veered Surface winds are backed
5000ft wind and the surface wind in the the 5000ft and have the same from the 5000ft and have a from the 5000ft and have a from the 5000ft and have a
212. southern hemisphere:- speed . slower speed. slower speed. faster speed.
Along the axis of the core to Along the axis of the core to Between the boundaries of
213. Turbulence is worst in a Jet stream In the core the right the left the cold and warm air
TS that will last for the entire TS that will last for a max of 1 TS that will last for at least TS that will last for less than
214. TEMPO TS indicates period indicated hr in each instance 30 mins 30 mins
Air descending at high speed, Air is descending at high
the air is colder than the speed; the air is warmer than A small Tropical Revolving A small depression with
215. What is a microburst? surrounding air the surrounding air Storm high wind speeds
216. Clear ice is most likely to form -10°C to -17°C -30°C to -40°C -20°C to -30°C -40°C to -60°C
Rain falling from an
Rain hitting the ground and inversion into an area Rain falling into colder air
217. Where do you get freezing rain ? freezing on impact Rain falling into warmer air below 0°C and freezing into pellets
218. Which of the following is worst for icing ? -2°C to -15°C -15°C to -20°C -25°C to -30°C Near freezing level
Which of the following will give the
greatest difference between temperature
219. and dew point ? Dry air Moist air Cold air Warm air
Water droplets, ice crystals
and super cooled water Water droplets and ice
220. CB cloud in summer contains Water droplets Ice crystals droplets crystals
Horizontal visibility in
221. In a METAR/TAF what is V V ? RVR in metres Vertical visibility metres Vertical visibility in feet
The highest point within
222. In an METAR the cloud height is above MSL Aerodrome level The measuring station SKm
223. Aerodrome at MSL, QNH is QFF is Greater than 1022 Less than 1022 Same as QNH Cannot tell without
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temperature information
What is the technical term for an increase
224. in temperature with altitude ? Inversion Advection Adiabatic Subsidence
What units are used to measure vertical
225. wind shear ? m/sec kts kts/100ft kms/100ft
Using the temperature of the Using the temperature at
airfield and the elevation of the MSL and the elevation of
226. How is QFE determined from QNH ? airfield Using the temperature Using the elevation the airfield
227. Which cloud would produce showers ? NS AS CS CB
228. What clears radiation fog ? Temperature drop Wind speed decreases Wind speed increases Mixing
On a surface weather chart, isobars are
229. lines of QNH QFE QFF QNE
What is the effect of a strong low level
230. inversion ? Good visibility Calm conditions Turbulence Unstable conditions
A cold pool over land in summer would give Low stratus with intermittent A potentially very unstable
231. rise to: Clear skies rain atmosphere Extensive industrial haze
Upper level winds are forecast in significant
232. weather charts as: True/knots Magnetic/knots Magnetic/km/h True/km/h2
METAR winds are meaned over
the.............. period immediately preceding
233. the time of observation. 10 minute 30 minute 1 hour 1 minute
Main TAF's at large aerodromes are valid
234. for approximately: 1 hour 2 hours 6 hours 24 hours
When would you mostly likely get fair
235. weather Cu ? 15 Hrs 12 Hrs 17 Hrs 07 Hrs
The maximum distance a pilot
in the threshold area at 15ft The maximum distance in The distance it would be
above the runway can see metres a pilot 15ft above possible to see an observer
The maximum distance an marker boards by day or the touchdown zone can 15ft above the runway
observer on the runway can runway lights by night, when see marker boards by day when standing in the
see marker boards by day and looking in the direction of and runway lights by night direction of take-off or
236. RVR is defined as being runway lights by night take-off or landing. in the direction of take-off landing.
What type of cloud extends into another
237. level ? As Ace Ns Ci
238. Ceilometers measure RVR Cloud height Met Vis Turbulence
239. In a METAR, the pressure group represents QFE rounded up to the nearest QFE rounded down to the QNH rounded up to the QNH rounded down to the
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hectopascal nearest hectopascal nearest hectopascal nearest hectopascal

Can never be above or
240. Which of the following is true ? QNH is: Always more than 1013.25 hPa Always less than 1013.25 hPa Never 1013.25 hPa below 1013 hPa
241. Radiation fog extends from the surface to: 5000ft 2000ft 10,000ft 800ft
Poor vis because of the lack
Poor vis due to the lack of of horizontal movement of
242. Low level inversions Good vis at night Good vis in the morning vertical moving air air
Aerodrome and valid for 9
243. A forecast trend hours Route and valid for 24 hours SPECI and valid for 2 hours Landing and valid for 2 hour
QNH is Aerodrome is 200m AMSL. What is
244. QFF ? Higher than 1030 Lower than 1030 Same Not enough info
Where are down draughts predominant in
245. a thunderstorm ? Mature Dissipating Initial Cumulus
246. What is FG V V 100 ? RVR less than 100m RVR less than 100ft Vertical visibility is 100m Vertical visibility is 100ft
close to station, 2m above 10 m above aerodrome next to the runway, 1 m
247. Where would an anemometer be placed ? ground on the roof of the station elevation on a mast above ground
248. 90km/hr wind in kts is: 70 60 50 30
An aircraft is stationary on the ground.
With the passage of an active cold front its
249. altimeter will show: An increase then a decrease Will fluctuate 50ft A decrease then an increase Remain constant
250. What is reported as precipitation ? FZFG FG TS SN
At FL60 what pressure chart would you use
251. ? 700 hPa 850 hPa 800 hPa 900 hPa
In association with CB in temperate
latitudes, at about what levels can hail be
252. anticipated ? Ground to FL 100 Ground to FL200 Cloud base to FL200 Ground to FL450
Changes in altitude and/or Large, abrupt changes in
attitude occur but the aircraft altitude and/or attitude.
remains in positive control at Slight erratic changes in Aircraft maybe momentarily Slight, rapid and somewhat
253. Moderate Turbulence all times altitude and/or attitude out of control rhythmic bumpiness.
Aerodrome operational and
254. ATIS reports: meteorological information Met only Operational only None of the above
Around the primary in a Around the primary in an
255. Secondary depressions move cyclonic fashion anticyclonic fashion Eastwards Westwards
Where does a thunderstorms gain its Energy gained directly from the Latent heat from water in The very low pressures
256. energy from ? sun oceans The very fast winds inside the storm
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What is the height and temperature of

257. Tropopause ? 8km and -40°C at Equator 16km and -75°C at Equator 16km and -40°C at Pole 8 km and -75°C at Pole
a wave of weather traveling a wave of weather traveling a wave of weather traveling a wave of weather traveling
258. What is the Easterly wave ? east-west west-east north-south south-north
What is the base of alto cumulus in
259. summer ? 0-1500Ft 1500-7000 Ft 7000-15000 Ft 7000-16500 Ft
Which air mass has the coldest
260. temperature ? AM PM PC TM
What happens to an aircraft altimeter on
261. the ground once a cold front has passed ? increases decreases increases then decreases remains the same
What happens to an aircrafts altimeter on
262. the ground at the approach of a cold front? increases then decreases decreases then increases remains the same increases
When would a SIGMET be issued for
263. subsonic flights Thunderstorms and fog Severe Mountain Waves Solar Flare activity Moderate turbulence
Trade winds are most prominent or Lower troposphere over Lower troposphere over Upper troposphere over
264. strongest Upper troposphere over sea ocean land land
With all other things being equal with a
high and a low having constantly spaced
circular isobars. Where is the wind the Where the isobars are Wherever the PGF is
265. fastest. Anticyclonic Cyclonic closest together greatest.
266. Foehn winds are Warm katabatic Cold katabatic Warm descending winds Warm anabatic
Lack of cloud at low level in a stationary
267. high is due to: instability rising air sinking air divergence at high level
disturbance in the higher
small scale wave disturbance wave-like disturbance in the levels associated with the
wave in a trade wind belt, in the tropics, moving from monsoon regime of indices equatorial easterly jets,
moving from east to west with east to west with severe moving from east to west moving from east to west,
severe convective activity in convective activity ahead of with severe convective with severe convective
268. An easterly wave is a: rear of its trough its trough activity ahead of its trough activity in rear of its trough
What is the most common freezing Freezing rain and freezing Freezing hail and freezing
269. precipitation ? Freezing pellets drizzle Freezing graupel snow
Which of the following is an example of a
270. Foehn wind ? Bora Harmattan Chinook Ghibli
From which of the following clouds are you
271. least likely to get precipitation in summer ? CS/NS CS/AS CB/CU CU/ST
Where do you find information on ICING
272. and CAT ? 300mb chart 700mb chart Sig. WX chart Analysis chart
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it heats up less than dry

What happens to the temperature of a because of latent heat
saturated air mass when forced to it heats up more than dry it heats up less than dry it heats up more than dry released during
273. descend? because of expansion because of evaporation because of sublimation condensation
When the indicated altitude
When is pressure altitude equal to true When surface pressure is When the temperature is is equal to the pressure
274. altitude ? In standard conditions 1013.25mb standard altitude
What is the relationship between QFE and There is no clear
275. QNH at an airport 50ft below MSL ? QFE = QNH QFE < QNH QFE > QNH relationship
Where would a pilot find information about On a Significant Weather On a Wind/Temperature
276. the presence of a jet stream ? On an Upper Air chart chart On a Surface Analysis chart chart
When air is cold moist and When air is warm moist and When air is cold moist and When air is warm moist and
277. Thunderstorms will occur on a warm front: cools quicker than SALR cools quicker than SALR cools slower than SALR cools slower than DALR
What is the effect of a mountain valley it blows down a mountain to a it blows down a mountain to a it blows from a valley up a it blows from a valley up a
278. wind ? valley at night valley during the day mountain by day mountain at night
In still air a lapse rate of 1.2°C/100m refers
279. to: DALR SALR ELR ALR
280. The DALR is Variable with time Fixed Variable with latitude Variable with temperature
Which frontal or occlusion system is the
281. fastest moving ? Warm front Cold front Cold occlusion Warm occlusion
What weather might you expect behind a
282. fast moving cold front ? 8 oktas of layered cloud Scattered ST Isolated CB's and showers Continuous rain
How would an unstable atmosphere likely
283. reduce the visibility ? By mist By haze By rain and or snow Low stratus
A report produced when
significant changes have A forecast and valid for 6
284. What is a SPECI ? A forecast valid for 3 hours occurred hours A landing forecast
285. Thermal lows usually develop Over the sea in summer. Over the sea in winter. Over the land in summer. Over the land in winter.
For the period indicated in the
286. TAF's are usually valid for TAF itself For 18 hours For 24 hours. For 8 hours.
Wind at altitude is usually given as ........in
287. ........ 1 Magnetic True Magnetic
The angle between the
The winds tend to be stronger isobars and the wind direction The winds tend to be The winds tend to be
288. In a high pressure systems in the morning. is greatest in the afternoon. stronger at night. stronger in early afternoon.
Convective uplift during the
289. Over flat dry land what would cause cloud ? Orographic uplift. day. Release of latent heat. Advection.
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The letters NC used at the end of a SIGMET,

290. mean: No cloud No change No cumulus Not clear
When would the strongest convection
291. occur ? Land in summer Land in winter Sea in summer Sea in winter
292. Freezing rain is most likely from Warm front in summer Cold front in summer Warm front in winter cold front in winter
Met vis is usually greater than RVR is usually less than met Met vis and RVR are usually
293. With regard to RVR and Met vis Met vis is usually less than RVR RVR vis the same
294. When are thermal lows most likely Land in summer Land in winter Sea in summer Sea in winter
What is the main feature of the initial stage
295. of a thunderstorm Downdrafts up currents rain rotor cloud
poor visibility due to dust or
296. What is haze ? poor visibility due to drizzle poor visibility due to rain sand all of the above
A landing forecast
appended to a
An aerodrome forecast valid METAR/SPECI valid for 2 A route forecast, valid for
297. What is a trend forecast for 9 hours A routine report hours. 24 hours.
Ice pellets shattering on Water vapour freezing on
298. How does clear ice form ? SWD's speading on impact impact Frost on the wing the aircraft surface.
Where there are Ahead of a fast moving cold
299. Where do you find squall lines thunderstorms front Foggy areas Regions of snow
On the leeward side, because On the windward side,
On the windward side caused the condensation level is caused by surface cooling On the leeward side, caused
300. A Fohn wind occurs by surface heating higher and wind flow reversal by precipitation
At what height is half the mass of the
301. atmosphere 5km 11 km 8km 3km
May occur in the
What is true about moderate to severe It will occur in clear sky uppermost levels of CB
302. airframe icing conditions Always occurs in AS cloud capillatus formation Most likely in NS
What causes convection in a low pressure
303. system Height Latitude Centripetal Force Friction
The air inside is warmer
Which of these statements is true about They pick up in force when than outside and can reach They are never found more
304. Hurricanes? They are 400-500m wide. they hit land . up to tropopause. than 25° latitude.
If you fly with left drift in the Northern
Hemisphere, what is happening to your
305. true altitude? Increases Decreases Stays the same Cannot tell
306. When is diurnal variation a maximum ? Clear sky, still wind Clear sky, strong wind OVC, still OVC, windy
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Above a stable layer in the lower

troposphere in an old high pressure system
307. is called: radiation inversion subsidence inversion frontal inversion terrestrial inversion
The air is colder at higher The air is colder at higher
308. Why does air cool as it rises ? It expands It contracts latitudes altitudes
Which of the following gives conditionally
309. unstable conditions? 1°C/100m 0.65°C/100m 0.49°C/ 100m None of the above
What affects how much water vapour the
310. air can hold ? RH Temperature Dew point Pressure
The figures “9999” in a meteorological
311. forecast or report means - 8 km 10 km or more 5 km 12 km
312. Where is the ozone layer ? ionosphere Stratosphere Tropopause Troposphere
Landing at an airfield with QNH set the Zero feet on landing only if ISA The elevation of the airfield
313. pressure altimeter reads: conditions prevail Zero if ISA conditions prevail The elevation of the airfield
What happens to an aircrafts altimeters on
314. the ground ones a cold front has passed ? Increases Decreases Increases then decreases Remain the same
An early morning fog over the sea lasts all will always remain over the will always remain over the
315. day. As the land heats up, the sea fog - May drift over the land will always disperse sea land.
When the indicated altitude
When is pressure altitude equal to true When surface pressure is When the temperature is is equal to the pressure
316. altitude ? In standard conditions 1013.25mb standard altitude
Bangladesh Meteorological Department
317. has : 3 Radar 4 Radar 5 Radar 2 Radar station
Detection cyclone and cloud
318. Radar is used for :- Wind direction and speed Sea surface temperature movement Detection of soil moisture
Sigmet is issued by Meteorological watch
319. office for every : 3 hours interval 4 hours interval 2 hours interval 5 hours interval
320. 5, 6 and 7 octas cloud is express as : OVC BKN SCT FEW
Synoptic surface observation are generally
321. taken every : 2 hours interval 3 hours interval 4 hours interval 6 hours interval
For a short range weather forecast which
322. observation is more effective : Satellite observation Radar observation Radio sonde observation Ship observation
323. Which seasons is called transition period :- NE monsoon SW monsoon Pre-monsoon Retreating monsoon
Which type of Nor’wester reaches upto
Meghna estuary through Rajshahi Division
324. :- Type-A Type-B Type-C Type-D
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325. In Horse latitude weather is :- a)Cold Clear and fresh Rain and thunderstorm Squally wind
Most of the active western disturbance
326. that comes towards Bangladesh are :- Primary Secondary Tertiary None of the above
Western disturbance do not precisely travel
west to east but their normal track is
327. slightly :- N/NE-ward South-SE ward E/NE-wards North to South ward
On set date of SW monsoon in Bangladesh
328. is :- 1st week of July 1st week of June 1st week of October 1st week of May
329. Pre-monsoon season in Bangladesh is :- June to September March to May December to February October to November
A mamatus sky often gives warning for the
330. formation of :- a)Cyclone Tornado Monsoon Western disturbance
331. Tornado often travels in a :- Straight way Horizontal way Erratic and skipping way North to south way
332. The SW monsoon reach up to :- Delhi China Persian gulf Baluchistan.
All charts, Satellite data,
Before issuing forecast a Meteorological significant weather chart
333. officer follows :- Only TAF TAF and METAR etc None of the above
Bangladesh is Charecterize by High
334. Pressure during: Pre-monsoon season NE monsoon season SW monsoon season Retreating monsoon season
When would a SIGMET be issued be for
335. subsonic flights. Thunderstorms and fog. Severe mountain waves . Solar Flare activity. Moderate turbulence .
336. The average eye of a tropical cyclone is : 30-40 miles 15-20 miles 10-15 miles 40-50 miles
A lantern attached to the
337. Ascent of balloon at night by observing : A torch light balloon A charger light A electric bulb
338. Which is likely to cause aquaplaning ? +RA SA FG DS
QNH decrease and QFE QNH increase and QFE
339. With the approach of a warm front ? QNH/QFE decreases QNH/QFE increase increases decreases
Heating the surface, this there Heating the water vapour
heats the air in the Heating the water vapour in directly unless there are
340. Solar radiation heats the atmosphere by- Heating the air directly atmosphere the atmosphere directly clouds present.
For carburetor ice to form , the outside air
341. must be - Bellow freezing Moist Dry Cold and moist
What happens to the stability of the
342. atmosphere in an inversion ? Absolutely stable Unstable Conditionally stable Conditionally unstable
If ice forms over the static vent of an
aeroplane and blocks it during the climb ,
343. the air speed indicator will read Zero Too fast Too slow Correctly
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A man is flying East to West in the

Northern Hemisphere. What is happening Flying into a head wind will If the wind is from the south, If the wind is from the Tail wind will increase
344. to the altitude ? decrease altitude he will gain altitude north, he will gain altitude altitude
Weather formation for certain aerodromes
is available in recorded form on the Via the public telephone
345. VOLMET service - Through the post By radio network. From ATC prior to flight.
Where there is a Ahead of a fast moving clod
346. Where do you find squall lines ? thunderstorms front Foggy areas Regions of snow
With the approach of a cold front, temp.
347. will Decrease Remain the same Increase Decrease then increase
In association with CB in temperature
latitude at about what levels can hail be
348. anticipated Ground to FL 100 Ground to FL 200 Cloud base FL 200 Ground to FL 450
349. A weather forecast is ------- an observer a prediction a landing forecast a trend forecast
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CPL Composite (Navigation)

The maximum range at which an aircraft at
FL250 can receive transmissions from a VHF
1. R/T station at 300 ft is: 200 nm 219 nm 175 nm 198 nm
The greatest range for a surface wave will be
2. at a frequency of: 198 KHz 121.5 MHz 2,182 KHz 4,300 MHz
The dead space will The dead space will
The dead space will increase The dead space will decrease increase because of a decrease because of an
At a fixed frequency if the level of ionisation because of the increase in because of a decrease in decrease in the critical increase in the critical
3. increases, then: critical angle. critical angle angle. angle.
The reduction in the power available in a
radio wave as the distance from a
4. transmitter increases is known as: Dissipation Diffraction Attenuation Refraction
An advantage of FM when compared with Less susceptible to static Easier to demodulate (ie More suitable for use at
5. AM is: interference Smaller bandwidth extract information) lower frequencies
Which of the following frequencies is likely
to experience the most severe static
6. interference? 121.5 MHz 500 KHz 4,300 MHz 5,500 KHz
can be minimised by taking
bearings where the signal is most marked one hour
The phenomenon of coastal refraction which can be minimised by using crosses the coastline at before to one hour after
7. affects the accuracy of ADF bearings: is most marked at night. beacons situated well inland. right angles. sunrise and sunset.
the aircraft's major electrical NDB signals speeding up
axis, the fuselage, reflecting and bending as they cross
static build up on the airframe and re-radiating the incoming station interference and/or from a land to water
8. ADF Quadrantal Error is caused by: and St. Elmo's Fire. NDB transmissions. night effect. propagation path.
The overall accuracy of ADF bearings by day
within the Promulgated Range/Designated
9. Operational Coverage (DOC) is: ± 3° ± 5° ± 6° ± 10°
The Protection Ratio of 3:1 that is provided
within the Promulgated range/Designated Long range skywave
Operational Coverage of an NDB by day interference from other Skywave signals from the NDB The increased skip distance The possibility of sporadic E
10. cannot be guaranteed at night because of: transmitters. to which you are tuned. that occurs at night. returns occurring at night.
In an ADF system, night effect is most when the aircraft is at low when the aircraft is at high
11. pronounced: during long winter nights. altitude. altitude. at dusk and dawn.
86
When the induced signals from the loop and

the sense antenna are combined in an ADF
12. receiver, the resultant polar diagram is: a limacon a cardioid figure of eight shaped circular
The principal propagation path employed in
13. an NDB/ADF system is: skywave surface wave direct wave ducted wave
The ADF of an aircraft on a heading of
189°(T) will experience the greatest effect
14. due to Quadrantal Error if the NDB bears: 234°(T) 279°(T) 225°(T) 145°(T)
Defines the airspace within
which an aircraft is assured
The Designated Operational Coverage Guarantees a Protection Ratio of protection from Is determined by the type
quoted for VOR beacons in the COMM of at least 3 to 1 by day and interference from other of surface over which the
15. section of the Air Pilot: Is only applicable by day. night. VORs on the same channel. signal will have to travel.
There is no way of knowing
from the instrumentation The DVOR has a higher
Concerning conventional and Doppler VORs display which type is being The DVOR will always have a pitch ident than the The conventional VOR has
16. (DVOR), which of the following is correct? used. "D" in the ident. standard VOR. less site error.
This is a temporary short The beacon is under test
A VOR beacon ceases to transmit its normal The beacon may be used The beacon is undergoing range transmission and will and pilots using it should
identification which is substituted by'TST'. providing that extreme caution maintenance or calibration have approximately half its report its accuracy to air
17. This means that: is used. and should not be used. normal range. traffic control.
An aircraft is required to intercept and home 064 to get correct needle 244 to get correct needle
to a VOR along the 064 Radial. The OBS 064 to get correct needle sense 244 to get correct needle sense and a FROM sense and a FROM
18. should be set to: and a TO indication. sense and a TO indication. indication. indication.
A double channel VHF carrier A single channel VHF carrier
with one channel being wave amplitude modulated at A VHF carrier wave with a A VHF pulse modulated
amplitude modulated and the 30 Hz with a sub carrier being 90 Hz frequency modulation emission with a pulse
The type of emission radiated by a VOR second channel being frequency modulated at 30 and a 150 Hz amplitude repetition frequency of 30
19. beacon is: frequency modulated. Hz. modulation. pps.
An aircraft wishes to track towards a VOR
along the 274 radial. If variation is 10° W
20. what should be set on the OBS ? 274 264 94 84
A VOR receiver in an aircraft measures the
phase difference from a DVOR as 220°.
21. Which radial is the aircraft on? 140 40 320 220
The VOR indications on an RMI whose must have deviation applied
22. deviation is not zero: are magnetic. are compass. are relative. before being use
87
The coverage of an ILS localiser extends to

either side of the on course line out to a
23. range of nm. 10° 35 35° 10 35° 17 25° 25
The minimum angle at which a false glide normal glide slope times normal glide slope times
24. path is likely to be encountered is: 6 degrees 5.35 degrees 1.75 0.70
In elevation the upper and lower limits of an
ILS glide path transmitter having a 3.0
25. degree glide slope are: 0.35° 0.70° 3.00° at least 6° 5.25° 1.35° 10.0° 35.0°
provides accurate guidance provides accurate guidance
down to 50' above the down to the runway and has a false glide path that is
horizontal plane containing the has a steep glide path, along the runway after exactly twice the true glide
26. A category 2 ILS installation : runway threshold. normally 7.5°. landing. path angle.
continuous dashes at a rate
The outer marker of an ILS installation has a alternating dots and dashes on continuous dots at a rate of 3 of 2 per second, amber continuous dashes at a rate
27. visual identification of: a blue light. per second, blue light. light. of 2 per second, blue light.
The specified maximum safe fly up half full scale needle deflection just before full scale
28. indication on a 5 dot CDI is: above the centre line. 2.5 dots fly up. deflection. 1.3 dots fly up.
From the localiser needle From the localiser needle
From the glideslope needle the the captain may be the captain may be
captain may be receiving false receiving false course and receiving false course and
course and reverse sense The aircraft's receiver is not intermittent indications and reverse sense indications
An aircraft is attempting to use an ILS indications and from the detecting any transmissions from the glideslope needle and from the glideslope
approach outside the coverage sectors of an localiser needle intermittent and the ILS needle OFF flags reverse sense and incorrect needle intermittent and
29. ICAO standard system: and incorrect indications. are visible. indications. incorrect indications.
If the PRF of a primary radar is 500 pulses
30. per second, the maximum range will be: 324 nm 300 nm 162 nm 600 nm
If the PRI of a radar is 2100 microseconds,
31. the maximum range of the radar is: 170 nm 315 nm 340 nm 630 nm
To improve the resolution of a radar display a narrow pulse width and a a high frequency and a large a wide beamwidth and a a low frequency and a
32. requires: narrow beam width reflector wide pulse width narrow pulse width
An advantage of a phased array (slotted reduced sidelobes and
33. antenna) is: better resolution less power required clutter all of the above
The factor which limits the minimum
34. detection range of a radar is: pulse repetition interval transmitter power pulse width pulse repetition frequency
A primary radar has a pulse repetition
frequency of 275 pulses per second. The
35. time interval between the leading edges of 3.64 milliseconds. 36.4 milliseconds. 3.64 microseconds. 36.4 microseconds.
88
successive pulses is:

When flying a Precision Approach Radar,
36. vertical displacement is based upon: Regional QNH QFE QFF Airfield QNH
The frequency band and rate of scan of
37. Airfield Surface Movement radars are: SHF; 60RPM SHF; 200RPM EHF; 100RPM EHF; I0RPM
When carrying out a precision radar
approach, talkdown normally ceases atnm
38. from touchdown: 0.5 nm 2 nm 3 nm 5 nm
An airborne weather radar is required to
detect targets up to a maximum range of
200 nm. Ignoring pulse length and flyback in
39. the CRT calculate the maximum PRR. 405 pps 810 pps 1500 pps 750 pps
Airborne Weather Radar is an example of
radar operating on a frequency of in the
40. band. primary 8800 MHz SHF secondary 9.375 MHz UHF secondary 9375 MHz SHF primary 9375 MHz SHF
flying over land with the there is cloud and attempting to use the
A false indication of water may be given by Land/Sea switch in the Sea flying over mountainous precipitation between the mapping beam for mapping
41. the Airborne Weather Radar display when: position. terrain. aircraft and a cloud target. in excess of 50 nm.
8800 MHz because gives the 9375 MHz because it gives 9.375 GHz because this
Airborne weather radar operates on a best returns from all types of the best returns from frequency is best for
42. frequency of: precipitation 13300 MHz rainfall associated with Cb detecting aircraft in flight.
the frequency penetrates
the short wavelength allows the wavelength is such that clouds quite easily enabling
it has a short wavelength so signals to be reflected from reflections are obtained good mapping of ground
An Airborne Weather Radar system uses a producing higher frequency cloud water droplets of all only from the larger water features in the mapping
43. frequency of 9 GHz because: returns. sizes. droplets. mode.
in pitch and roll but only
The antenna of an Airborne Weather Radar in pitch and roll whether when 0° tilt has been
44. is stabilised: in pitch, roll and yaw. in pitch and roll. the stabilisation is on or off. selecte
The special SSR codes are as follows:
emergency , radio failure, unlawful
45. interference with the conduct of the flight 7700; 7600; 7500. 7500; 7700; 7600;. 7600; 7500; 7700. 7500; 7600; 7700.
Secondary Surveillance Radar is a form of
radar with type emissions operating in the
46. band. primary pulse SHF primary pulse UHF secondary FM SHF secondary pulse UHF
a target which will respond to a target which will respond to a target which will respond
47. Secondary radars require: the interrogation, and this the interrogation, and this to the interrogation, and a quiescent target.
89
target will always be an target will always be ground this target may be either an
aircraft. based. aircraft or a ground based
transponder.
A VOR/DME share the same first two letters
of their respective identifiers; the last they are more than 600m they are widely separated
identifying letter of the DME is a Z. This apart but serve the same and do not serve the same they are a maximum
48. means that: they are co-located. location. location. distance of 30m apart.
The range indicated by DME is considered to +/-0.25 nm to +/-1.25% of
49. be accurate to within: 3% of range 1.25 % of range 0.5 nm range
it increases the number of it increases the receiver it goes into a selective
When a DME transponder becomes pulse pairs to meet the threshold to remove response mode of
50. saturated: it reverts to standby. demand. weaker signals. operation.
both beacons to have the
the aerial separation not to same first two letters for
the DME to transmit on the the aerial separation not to exceed 100 metres in a their ident' but the last
For a DME and a VOR to be said to be same VHF frequency as the exceed 100 feet in a TMA or TMA or 2000m outside a letter of the DME to be a
51. associated it is necessary for: VOR. 2000 feet outside a TMA. TMA. `Z'.
+ or - 3% of range, or 0.5nm, +/-0.25 nm to +/-1.25% of
52. The accuracy associated with DME is: whichever is greater + or - 1.25% of range + or - 3% of range range
For a VOR and a DME beacon to be said to
be associated the aerial separation must not
exceed in a terminal area andoutside a
53. terminal area. 100 m 2000 m 50 feet200 feet 30m 600m 50m 200 m
DME is a …… radar operating in the …… band
and usage …… in order to obtain range
information. The correct words to complete secondary SHF ”jittered
54. the above statement are: primary SHF CW signals secondary UHF twin pulses pulses” primary UHF pulse pairs
the aircraft receiver only
accepts reply pulses which
each aircraft has its own the reply pulses from the have the same time interval
unique transmitter frequency ground transmitter have the between successive pulses the aircraft receiver only
The receiver of airborne DME equipment is and the receiver only accepts same frequency as the as the pulses being accepts reply pulses which
able to “lock on” to its own “reply pulses” reply pulses having this incoming interrogation pulses transmitted by its own arrive at a constant time
55. because: frequency. from the aircraft. transmitter . interval.
the VOR transmitter is easily both ground transmitter
DME and VOR are "frequency paired" the same receiver can be used converted to the required "cockpit workload" is aerials can be placed on the
56. because: for both aids. DIVE frequency. reduced. same site if require
90
a master control station, a

back-up control station, five
the space segment, the user a ground segment and the a master control station, a monitoring stations and the
The NAVSTAR/ GPS control segment segment and the ground INMARSAT geostationary back-up control station and INMARSAT geostationary
57. comprises: segment satellites five monitoring stations satellites
The model of the earth used for
58. NAVSTAR/GPS is: WGS90 PZ90 WGS84 PZ84
The NAVSTAR/GPS operational constellation
59. comprises ...... satellites 12 21 24 30
The frequency available to non-authorised
60. users of NAVSTAR/GPS is: 1227.6 MHz 1575.42 MHz 1602 MHz 1246 MHz
If a receiver has to download the almanac,
61. the time to do this will be: 2.5 minutes 12.5 minutes 25 minutes 15 minutes
The most accurate satellite fixing COSPAS/SARSAT & NAVSTAR/GPS &
62. information will be obtained from: NAVSTAR/GPS & GLONASS TRANSIT & NAVSTAR/GPS GLONASS COSPAS/SARSAT
removes SV ephemeris and reduces errors caused by removes receiver clock
63. The availability of two frequencies in GNSS: clock errors reduces propagation errors GDOP errors
A geo-centred 3D Cartesian
A geo-centred 3D Cartesian co- co-ordinate system fixed with A geo-centred 3D Cartesian A geo-centred 3D system
ordinate system fixed with reference to the prime co-ordinate system fixed based on latitude, longitude
64. The NAVSTAR/GPS reference system is: reference to the sun meridian, equator and pole with reference to space and altitude
The navigation and system data message is
65. transmitted through the: 50 Hz modulation The C/A and P PRN codes The C/A code The P code
When using GNSS to carry out a non-
precision approach the MDA will be Either barometric or radio
66. determined using: barometric altitude GPS altitude Radio altimeter height altimeter altitude
the satellite runs its own
the satellite runs its own time time based on seconds and
Which of the following statements satellite time is the same as based on seconds and weeks weeks which is correlated satellite time is based on
67. concerning NAVSTAR/GPS time is correct? UTC which is independent of UTC with UTC sidereal time
produced by a 30Hz
produced by a 30Hz amplitude modulated
produced by a 30Hz amplitude amplitude modulated signal, a produced by a 30Hz signal, a Limacon, which
The bearing signal transmitted from a modulated signal, a Limacon, Cardiod, which rotates at frequency modulated signal rotates anti - clockwise at
68. Conventional VOR beacon is: which rotates at 30revs./sec. 30revs./sec. rotating at 30revs./se 30revs./sec.
An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to the pulse recurrence rates the reflections are not at
69. signals reflected from the ground because: DME uses the UHF band. DME transmits twin pulses. are varied. the receiver frequency.
91
The middle marker of an ILS system has an alternating dots and dashes at alternating dots and dashes at alternating dots and dashes
70. audible code which is: 400Hz. 1300Hz. at 3000Hz. high pitch dots.
an angle of 2.15° to an an angle of 1.00° to an
an angle of 1.35° to an angle of an angle of 1.85° to an angle angle of 5.75° above the angle of 6.0° above the
Accurate glidepath coverage in elevation is 5.25° above the horizontal, for of 4.75° above the horizontal, horizontal, for a 3° horizontal, for a 3°
71. provided for ILS installations between: a 3° glidepath. for a 3° glidepath. glidepath. glidepath.
only on the ground before on initial contact and when
departure of a flight into an entering an area where with the local ATCC before when crossing the coast
72. SELCAL functional check must be made: area where SELCAL is available SELCAL is available. take-off. inboun
When using an Airborne Weather Radar in areas where high
the weather mode the strongest returns on concentrations of large water areas of moderate or severe areas of probable areas of thunderstorm
73. the screen indicate: droplets exist. turbulence. windshear. activity.
precision instrument
approach and landing; DH; precision instrument ILS approach and landing;
precision instrument approach 60m (200ft) but not lower approach and landing; DH; DH; 60m (200ft) but not
Operational Performance Category 2 is and landing; MDH; 60m than 30m (100ft); not less 30m (100ft) or no DH; not lower than 30m (100ft);
74. awith a -lower thanand a RVR (200ft); not less than 300m. than 300m. less than 200m. not less than 300m.
In a conventional VOR the reference signal is
75. ...... and the variable signal is ...... . FM AM AM FM FM FM AM AM
The correct SSR code to indicate radio failure
76. is: 7700 7600 2000 7500
A primary radar has a PRF of 500 pulses per
second The maximum theoretical range,
77. ignoring all other factors, is: 300 nm 162 nm 600 nm 324 nm
VLF surface waves achieve greater range VLF diffraction is greater and VLF diffraction and VLF diffraction is less and VLF diffraction and
78. than LF surface waves because: attenuation is less. attenuation are less. attenuation is greater. attenuation are greater.
When using airborne weather radar to at ranges over about 50 nm
obtain a fix from a ground feature, the because the wider beam gives because greater power can
pencil beam is used in preference to the better definition of ground the angle of tilt is restricted in be concentrated in the because it overcomes the
79. mapping beam: features. the mapping mode. beam. problems of "hill" shadows.
A class B true bearing from a ground VDF
80. station isa ...... with an accuracy of ...... . QTE +/-5° QDM +/-5° QUJ +/-5° QDR +/-5°
50 ft above the plane
Category 2 ILS installation provides accurate 50 ft above aerodrome 200 ft above aerodrome containing the runway
81. guidance to: 100 ft on the threshold QFE. elevation. elevation. threshold
An apparent increase in transmitted the receiver moving towards the transmitter moving away the transmitter moving the transmitter and the
82. frequency, proportional to the velocity of the transmitter. from the receiver. towards the receiver. receiver moving away from
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the transmitter, is caused by: eachother.

Primary radar uses echoes Secondary always
from a reflecting object, measures the bearing of a
whereas secondary radar uses reflecting object more
Which of the following statements is correct responses from a transponder Primary radar gives range not accurately than primary Only secondary radar can
83. ? beacon. bearing, of a reflecting object. radar. be carried on an aircraft.
does not need to be
If an aircraft's groundspeed reduces by 10kt adjusted as the speed
whilst it is flying an ILS approach with a 3° should decrease by 50 change is too small to have
84. glidepath then its rate of descent: should increase by 50 ft/min. should decrease by 25 ft/min. ft/min. any significant effect.
The facility is transmitting for The station accuracy has The aid may be used with
A pilot hears the morse TST from a The station is on test and may test purposes only and must just been checked and it has caution and the accuracy
85. navigational aid. This means that: be used with caution. not be used. passed the test reported to ATC
produces the best returns
from large water droplets
produces the best returns and wet hail, indicates produces the best returns
produces the best returns from from precipitation, and areas of clear air from large water droplets
precipitation, and enables enables narrow, efficient turbulence, and enables and wet hail, and enables
narrow, efficient beams to be beams to be formed for narrow, efficient beams to narrow, efficient beams to
AWR uses the frequency of 9.375GHz formed for accurate target accurate target discrimination be formed for accurate be formed for accurate
86. because it: discrimination. and mapping beyond 60nm. target discrimination. target discrimination.
has developed an error
A VOR station which continues to transmit exceeding 1° at the can be used provided the
bearings but ceases to transmit its transmitter and must not be frequency selected is
87. identification: can be used only by day. can be used only in VMC. used. checked as correct.
The emission designator for a particular
aeronautical radio facility which utilises both
88. FM and AM could be: A9W NONA2A A8W A3E
89. A typical ILS localiser frequency is: 329.30Mhz 110.30Mhz 110.45Mhz 75.OOMhz
The ILS MIDDLE MARKER has the following
flight-deck aural and visual Alternate dot/dash 3/sec Alternate dot/dash 3/sec
90. characteristics:IDENT' RATE LIGHT Amber Alternate dot/dash 2/sec Blue Dashes 3/sec Amber Blue
The maximum safe fly-up indication on an
ILS approach when using a meter with a 5
91. dot display is: 0.35° 2.5dots 1.3dots 0.7°
Which of the following would be the normal
92. fix for a Basic RNAV (B-RNAV) equipment: DME/DME VOR/DME VOR/NDB VOR/VOR
93
Primary radar uses echoes Secondary radar always

from a reflecting object Primary radar can only find measures the bearing of a Only secondary, not
whereas secondary radar uses the range of a reflecting reflecting object more primary, radar can be
93. Which following statement is true? responses from a transponder. object. accurately than a primary. carried in an aircraft.
The Airfield Surface Movement Indicator
radar has a.............. rotation rate compared
to that of standard Surveillance radars and
94. also has a.............. beam. similar, wider. higher, narrower. slower, narrower. similar, narrower.
The areas of greatest turbulence associated Cyclic Contouring which
with storm clouds are indicated on the emphases the high intensity the thinnest lines of colour the black holes produced by
colour screen of an Airborne Weather Radar rainfall areas by alternately which indicate steep rainfall the Iso-echo Contour selecting the Sensitivity
95. by: flashing them red and black. gradients. facility. Time Control function.
The Global Positioning System frequency
96. available for use by civil operators is: 1227.6MHz 1575.42MHz 2227.5MHz 1783.74MHz
lobe comparison of scanning phase comparison of time referenced scanning frequency comparison of
97. The principle of operation of MLS is: beams. directional beams. beams. reference beams.
When first talking to a FIR on When joining controlled When declaring an
When would VHF direction finding be used When an aircraft declares an crossing an international airspace from uncontrolled emergency on 121.500
98. for a position fix? emergency on any frequency. boundary. airspace. MHz.
What equipment does an aircraft need when
carrying out a VHF direction finding
99. letdown? VHF radio VOR VOR/DME None
no special equipment
Which of the following is an advantage of a no equipment required in the required in the aircraft or on only a VHF radio is needed it is pilot interpreted, so
100. VHF direction finding let down? aircraft the ground in the aircraft ATC is not required
What is the maximum range at which a VHF
direction finding station at 325 ft can
101. provide a service to an aircraft at FL080 ? 134 nm 107 nm 91 nm 114 nm
Which of the following statements regarding it is simple and requires a VHF it is simple requiring only
VHF Direction Finding (VDF) is most it is simple and only requires a radio and DF equipment in the VHF radios on the ground it uses line of sight
102. accurate. VHF radio on the ground aircraft and in the aircraft propagation
What is the wavelength corresponding to a
103. frequency of 375 KHz? 8m 80 m 800 m 8000 m
The accuracy of ADF within the Designated
104. Operational Coverage (DOC) by day is: +/-1° +/-2° +/-5° +/-10°
Which of the following is likely to have the interference from other NDB's interference between aircraft interference from other frequency drift at the
105. greatest effect on the accuracy of ADF particularly by day aerials NDB's, particularly at night ground station
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bearings?
mountain effect, station
Which of the following are all errors selective availability, coastal night effect, quadrantal error, interference, static selective availability, coastal
106. associated with ADF? refraction, night effect lane slip interference refraction, quadrantal error
Both the loop and sense
What action must be taken to receive a aerials must receive the
107. bearing from an ADF? BFO on Select the loop position signal Select the LOOP position
When is coastal error at its worst for an beacon inland at an acute beacon inland at 90° to the beacon close to the coast at beacon close to the coast at
108. aircraft at low level? angle to the coast coast an acute angle to the coast 90° to the coast
Which of the following is the most
109. significant error in ADF? quadrantal error coastal refraction precipitation static static from Cb
station interference, lack of failure warning,
Which of the following may cause static interference, height mountain effect, selective coastal refraction, slant station interference, static
110. inaccuracies in ADF bearings? effect, lack of failure warning availability range, night effect interference
The principle used to measure VOR bearings difference in depth of
111. is: phase comparison switched cardioids modulation pulse technique
When converting VOR and ADF bearings to
true, the variation at the ...... should be used
112. for VOR and at the ...... for ADF. aircraft, aircraft aircraft, station station, aircraft station, station
In a conventional VOR the reference signal
and the variable signal have a 30 Hz using Doppler techniques to
modulation. The variable signal modulation adding 30 Hz to the a 30 Hz rotation producing a varying the amplitude up produce a 30 Hz amplitude
113. is produced by: transmitted signal 30 Hz modulation and down at +/-30 Hz modulation
If the VOR accuracy has a limit of 1°, what is
114. the maximum cross track error at 200 nm? 3.0 nm 2.5 nm 2.0 nm 3.5 nm
What is the maximum distance apart a VOR
and TACAN can be located and have the
115. same identification? 2000 m 60 m 600 m 6m
The maximum range an aircraft at FL370 can
receive transmissions from a VOR/DME at
116. 800 ft is: 275 nm 200 nm 243 nm 220 nm
When tracking a VOR radial inbound the
117. aircraft would fly: a constant track a great circle track a rhumb line track a constant heading
Which of the following is a valid frequency
118. (MHz) for a VOR? 107.75 109.9 118.35 112.2
Using a VOR beyond the limits of the DOC loss of signal due to line of interference from other VOR's skywave contamination of
119. may result in: sight limitations operating on the same the VOR signal scalloping errors
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frequency
no DME identification, but if
the VOR identification is
When identifying a co-located VOR/DME the present and a range is
following signals are heard in the Morse 4 identifications in the same 4 identifications with the DME 4 identifications with the indicated then this shows
120. code every 30 seconds: tone at a higher tone DME at a lower tone that both are serviceable
What is the maximum range a transmission
from a VOR beacon at 169 ft can be received
121. by an aircraft at FL012 60 nm 80 nm 120 nm 220 nm
When tracking the 090 radial outbound from
122. a VOR, the track flown is: a straight line a rhumb line a great circle a constant true heading
On which radial from a VOR at 61N025E
(VAR 13°E) is an aircraft at 59N025E (VAR
123. 20°E)? 160 347 193 167
What is the minimum height an aircraft
must be to receive signals from a VOR at 196
124. ftamsl at a range of 175 nm? 26000 ft 16000 ft 24000 ft 20000 ft
For a conventional VOR a phase difference
of 090° would be achieved by flying ......
125. from the beacon: west north east south
at all times except dawn
126. The quoted accuracy of VOR is valid: at all times by day only at all times except night and dusk
Which of the following provides distance
127. information? DME VOR ADF VDF
Which of the following would give the best a DME on the flight plan a DME off the flight plan
128. indication of speed? a VOR on the flight plan route a VOR off the flight plan route route route
it stays in the search mode, but
reduces to 60 pulse pairs per it stays in the search mode, it alternates between
What happens when a DME in the search second (ppps) after 100 but reduces to 60 ppps after it stays in the search mode search and memory modes
129. mode fails to achieve lock-on? seconds 15000 pulse pairs at 150 ppps every 10 seconds
The most accurate measurement of speed
by DME for an aircraft at 30000 ft will be tracking towards the beacon at tracking away from the passing abeam the beacon
130. when the aircraft is: 10 nm overhead the beacon beacon at 100 nm at 5 nm
A DME beacon will become saturated when
more than about ...... aircraft are
131. interrogating the transponder. 10 50 100 200
132. The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL210, the beacon is saturated the aircraft is beyond the the aircraft is beyond line of the aircraft signal is too
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fails to achieve lock on a DME at msl at a maximum usable range for sight range weak at that range to
range of 210 nm. The reason for this is: DME trigger a response
The aircraft DME receiver accepts replies to the pulse pairs from each the interrogation the interrogation and reply
its own transmissions but rejects replies to the PRF of the interrogations is aircraft have a unique frequencies are 63 MHz frequencies are separated
133. other aircraft transmissions because: unique to each aircraft amplitude modulation different for each aircraft by 63 MHz
When an aircraft at FL360 is directly above a
DME, at mean sea level, the range displayed
134. will be: 6 nm 9 nm 0 nm 12 nm
135. A DME frequency could be: 10 MHz 100 MHz 1000 MHz 10000 MHz
An aircraft at FL360 is 10 nm plan range
from a DME. The DME reading in the aircraft
136. will be: 8 nm 11.7 nm 10 nm 13.6 nm
A DME transceiver does not lock onto its the PRF of the pulse pairs is j the interrogation and reply the reflections will all fall
137. own reflections because: jittered it uses MTI frequencies differ within the flyback period
What information does military TACAN
138. provide for civil aviation users? magnetic bearing DME Nothing DME and magnetic bearing
The DME in an aircraft flying at FL430 shows
a range of 15 nm from a beacon at an
139. elevation of 167 ft. The plan range is: 13.5 nm 16.5 nm 15 nm 17.6 nm
the DME is receiving no
The DME counters are rotating continuously. the DME is trying to lock onto the DME is trying to lock response from the ground
140. This indicates that: the DME is unserviceable range onto frequency station
the DME is receiving no
On a DME presentation the counters are response from the The transponder is
141. continuously rotating. This indicates: the DME is in the search mode the DME is unserviceable transponder unserviceable
An aircraft at FL200 is 220 nm from a DME at
msl. The aircraft equipment fails to lock on The aircraft is too high to The aircraft is too low to
142. to the DME. This is because: DME is limited to 200 nm receive the signal receive the signal The beacon is saturated
On an ILS approach you receive more of the
90 Hz modulation than the 150 Hz
143. modulation. The action you should take is: fly left and up fly left and down fly right and up fly right and down
interference from other
The errors of an ILS localiser (LLZ) beam are spurious signals from systems operating on the
144. due to: emission sidelobes ground reflections objects near the runway same frequency
The amplitude modulation of the ILS outer
marker is ....... and it illuminates the ......
145. light in the cockpit. 400 Hz, blue 1300 Hz, amber 400 Hz, amber 1300 Hz, blue
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The principle of operation of the ILS localiser the same frequency with different frequencies with
transmitter is that it transmits two different frequencies with the same frequency with different amplitude different amplitude
146. overlapping lobes on: different phases different phases modulations modulations
reflections from obstacles
The ILS glideslope transmitter generates ground returns from the multiple lobes in the in the vicinity of the
147. false glidepaths because of: vicinity of the transmitter back scattering of the signals radiation pattern transmitter
A category III ILS system provides accurate
148. guidance down to: the surface of the runway less than 50 ft less than 100 ft less than 200 ft
A HSI compass rose is stuck on 200°. When
the aircraft is lined up on the centreline of
the ILS localiser for runway 25, the localiser centred with the fail flag
149. needle will be: left of the centre centred right of the centre showing
The coverage of the ILS glideslope with
150. respect to the localisercentreline is: +/-10° to 8 nm +/-10° to 25 nm +/-8° to 10 nm +/-35° to 17 nm
The sequence of marker colours when flying
151. an ILS approach is: white, blue, amber blue, white, amber blue, amber, white amber, blue, white
The sensitive area of an ILS is the area category 1 ILS operations are category II/III ILS operations the ILS is undergoing
152. aircraft may not enter when: ILS operations are in progress in progress are in progress calibration
153. The audio frequency of the outer marker is: 3000 Hz 400 Hz 1300 Hz 1000 Hz
An aircraft is flying downwind outside the
coverage of the ILS. The CDI indications will unreliable in azimuth and reliable in azimuth, unreliable reliable in azimuth and
154. be: elevation in elevation no indications will be shown elevation
155. The frequency band of the ILS glidepath is: UHF VHF SHF VLF
The coverage of MLS is ...... either side of the
156. centreline to a distance of ...... 40°, 40 nm 40° 20 nm 20°, 20 nm 20°, 40 nm
measuring the time taken for measuring the time taken for
the primary radar pulse to the secondary radar pulse to
travel from the MLS travel from the MLS phase comparison between
transmitter to the aircraft transmitter to the aircraft the azimuth and elevation
157. Distance on MLS is measured by: receiver receiver beams co-located DME
Which of the following is an advantage of can be used in inhospitable uses the same aircraft is not affected by heavy
158. MLS? terrain equipment as ILS has a selective access ability precipitation
159. The frequency band of MLS is: UHF VHF SHF VLF
160. Primary radar operates on the principle of transponder interrogation pulse technique phase comparison continuous wave emission
The definition of a radar display will be best narrow beamwidth and narrow narrow beamwidth and wide wide beamwidth and wide beamwidth and wide
161. with: pulsewidth pulsewidth narrow pulsewidth pulsewidth
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permits measurement of
The main advantage of a continuous wave more complex equipment but removes the minimum range smaller more compact Doppler in addition to
162. radar over a pulsed radar is: better resolution and accuracy restriction equipment improved range and bearing
To double the range of a primary radar, the
163. power must be increased by a factor of 2 4 8 16
In a primary pulsed radar the ability to
164. discriminate in azimuth is a factor of: Pulse width Beamwidth Pulse recurrence rate Rate of rotation
the number of cycles per the number of pulses per the ratio of pulse width to the delay known as flyback
165. What does pulse recurrence rate refer to? second second pulse repetition period or dead time
The maximum PRF required for a range of 50
166. nm is: 300 pulses per second (pps) 600 pps 1620 pps 3280 pps
The best radar for measuring very short a continuous wave primary a continuous wave
167. ranges is: radar a pulsed secondary radar a pulsed primary radar secondary radar
Which is the most suitable radar for
168. measuring short ranges? millimetric pulse continuous wave primary centimetric pulse continuous wave secondary
reduces sidelobes and directs can produce simultaneous
more energy into the main removes the need for azimuth map and weather
169. The main advantage of a slotted scanner is: beam slaving sidelobe suppression information
The maximum unambiguous (theoretical)
170. range for a PRF of 1200 pps is: 134 nm 180 nm 67 nm 360 nm
The PRF of a radar is 450 pps. If the speed of
light is 300000 kps, what is the maximum
171. range of the radar? 150 km 333 km 666 km 1326 kin
The best picture on a primary radar will be short wavelength, narrow long wavelength, wide
172. obtained using: low frequency, narrow beam beam high frequency, wide beam beam
Which of the following is a primary radar
173. system? SSR DME GPS AWR
ATC area surveillance radars will normally
174. operate to a maximum range o£ 100 nm 200 nm 300 rim 400 nm
An area surveillance radar is most likely to
175. use a frequency of. 330 MHz 600 MHz 10 GHz 15 GHz
Short range aerodrome radars will have ......
176. wavelengths. millimetric centimetric decimetric metric
The ASM Roperates in the ...... band, the
antenna rotates at ...... rpm can ......
177. distinguish between aircraft types. UHF, 120, sometimes SHF, 60, always UHF, 120, never SHF, 60, sometimes
178. The frequency band of most ATC radars and UHF SHF VHF EHF
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weather radars is:

The airborne weather radar (AWR) cannot
179. detect: snow moderate rain dry hail wet hail
permitted provided special
precautions are taken to only permitted to assist
permitted provided reduced safeguard personnel and movement in low visibility
180. The use of the AWR on the ground is: not permitted power is reduced equipment conditions
181. Which type of cloud does the AWR detect? Cirro-cumulus Alto-stratus Cumulus Stratus
The AWR uses the cosecant squared beam in
182. the ...... mode. WEA CONT MAP MAN
On an AWR colour display, the sequence of
colours indicating increasing water droplet
183. size is: blue, green, red green, yellow, red black, amber, red blue, amber, green
to allow simultaneous
The ISO-ECHO circuit is incorporated in the to alert pilots to the presence to display areas of mapping and cloud
184. AWR: to allow ground mapping of cloud turbulence in cloud detection
the size of the water droplets the size of the water the size of the water
The main factors which affect whether an and the diameter of the the scanner rotation rate and droplets and the droplets and the range of
185. AWR will detect a cloud are: antenna reflector the frequency/wavelength wavelength/frequency the cloud
In an AWR with a colour CRT, areas of iso-echo areas with no
186. greatest turbulence are indicated by: iso-echo areas coloured black large areas of flashing red colour most rapid change of colour
As a storm intensifies, the colour sequence
187. on the AWR display will change: black, yellow, amber green, yellow, red blue, green, orange green, yellow, amber
a wider beam is produced in
The cosecant squared beam is used for a greater range can be azimuth to give a greater a larger area of ground is it allows cloud detection to
188. mapping in the AWR because: achieved coverage illuminated by the beam be effected whilst mapping
On switching on the AWR a single line the transmitter is
189. appears on the display. This means that: unserviceable the receiver is unserviceable the CRT is not scanning the antenna is not scanning
Doppler navigation systems use to
determine the aircraft groundspeed and Phase comparison of signals Frequency shift in signals
190. drift. DVOR from ground stations reflected from the ground DME range measurement
By the use of MTI to
Why is the effect of returns from storms not SSR does not use the echo remove stationary and slow
191. a problem with SSR? the frequency is too high principle The PRF is jittered moving returns
data link, reduced voice TCAS, no RT better resolution, selective
192. The advantages of SSR mode S are: improved resolution, TCAS communications communications interrogation
193. The accuracy of SSR mode C altitude as +/-25 ft +/-50 ft +/-75 ft +/-100 ft
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displayed to the air traffic controller is:

moving target indication is
used to suppress the static
Why is a secondary radar display free from the frequencies are too low to the frequencies are too high generated by water the principle of the return
194. weather clutter? detect water droplets to detect water droplets droplets of echoes is not used
The availability of 4096 codes in SSR is
195. applicable to mode: A C S All
reduce ionospheric and eliminate satellite clock and
196. In NAVSTAR/GPS the PRN codes are used to: tropospheric errors determine satellite range ephemeris errors remove receiver clock error
The MDA for a non-precision approach using
197. NAVSTAR/GPS is based on: barometric altitude radio altimeter GPS altitude GPS or barometric altitude
The time required for a GNSS receiver to
download the satellite almanac for the
198. NAVSTAR/GPS is: 12.5 minutes 12 hours 30 seconds 15 minutes
minimized by the receivers
using a model of the
The effect of the ionosphere on only significant for satellites minimized by averaging the ionosphere to correct the
199. NAVSTAR/GPS accuracy is: close to the horizon signals signals negligible
the inclination of the orbits is the inclination of the orbits is the orbits are inclined at
Concerning NAVSTAR/GPS orbits, which of 55° with an orbital period of 12 55° with an orbital period of the orbits are geostationary 65° with an orbital period of
200. the following statements is correct? hours 24 hours to provide global coverage 11 hours 15 minutes
synchronisation with the having an appropriate
NAVSTAR/GPS receiver clock error is regular auto-synchronisation adjusting the pseudo-ranges satellite clocks on atomic time standard within
201. removed by: with the satellite clocks to determine the error initialisation the receiver.
202. The NAVSTAR/GPS segments are: space, control, user space, control, ground space, control, air space, ground, air
The preferred GNSS receiver for airborne
203. application is: multiplex multi-channel sequential fast multiplex
The orbital height of geostationary satellites
204. is: 19330 km 35800 km 10898 nm 10313 nm
The best accuracy from satellite systems will GLONASS and NAVSTAR/GPS and
205. be provided by: NAVSTAR/GPS and TNSS transit COSPAS/SARSAT GLONASS and TNSS transit GLONASS
determined by the receiver determined by the receiver
The azimuth and elevation of the satellites determined by the satellite and from the satellite almanac transmitted by the satellite from the broadcast satellite
206. is: transmitted to the receiver data as part of the almanac X, Y, Z & T data
involves the receiver is the procedure carried out
The sky search carried out by a GNSS is done when the receiver downloading the almanac by the monitoring stations
207. receiver: is done prior to each fix position is in error from each satellite before to check the accuracy of the
101
determining which satellites satellite data

are in view
The frequency band of the NAVSTAR/GPS L1
208. and L2 frequencies is: VHF UHF EHF SHF
The number of satellites required to produce
209. a 4D fix is: 3 4 5 6
210. How many satellites are needed for a 2D fix? 4 2 3 5
Using differential GNSS for a non-precision
211. approach, the height reference is: barometric GNSS radio radio or GNSS
The number of satellites required for a fully
212. operational NAVSTAR/GPS is: 21 18 24 30
Ùnauthorised' civilian users of
213. NAVSTAR/GPS can access: the P and Y codes the P code the C/A and P codes the C/A code
When using GPS to fly airways, what is the average of barometric and
214. vertical reference used? barometric GPS height radio altitude GPS
The nav/system message from GLONASS and
215. NAVSTAR/GPS is found in the band. SHF UHF VHF EHF
What information can a GPS fix using four latitude, longitude, altitude latitude, longitude and
216. satellites give you? latitude and longitude and time altitude latitude, longitude and time
What are the basic elements transmitted by
NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
i.offset of the satellite clock from GMT
ii.ephemeris data
iii.health data
iv.ionospheric delays
217. v.solar activity i, ii, iii, iv, v i, ii, iii i, ii, iv ii, iii, iv
degrade the accuracy of
What is the purpose of the GPS control to control the use of the to monitor the satellites in to maintain the satellites in satellites for unauthorised
218. segment? satellites by unauthorised users orbit orbit users
The distance measured between a satellite satellite and receiver are
and a receiver is known as a pseudo-range it is measured using pseudo- continually moving in it is measured against
219. because: random codes it includes receiver clock error relation to each other idealisedKeplerian orbits
monitor the SV ephemeris
220. The task of the control segmentis to: determine availability to users and clock apply selective availability all of the above
selects and tracks all (in
An àll in view' satellite navigation receiver is view) satellites and selects
221. one which: monitors all 24 satellites tracks selected satellites the best four tracks the closest satellites
102
Which GPS frequencies are available for 1227.6 MHz and 1575.42 1227.6 MHz or 1575.42
222. commercial air transport? 1227.6 MHz only 1575.42 MHz only MHz MHz
In GPS on which frequencies are both the
223. C/A and P codes transmitted? both frequencies the higher frequency neither frequency the lower frequency
The orbits of the NAVSTAR GPS satellites are 55° to the plane of the 99° to the plane of the
224. inclined at: 55° to the earth's axis equator 99° to the earth's axis equator
determine position and
The function of the receiver in the GNSS interrogate the satellites to track the satellites to calculate track the satellites to assess the accuracy of that
225. user segment is to: determine range time calculate range position
Local area DGPS gives the same Wide area DGPS accuracy
improvement in accuracy DGPS removes SV ephemeris DGPS can improve the improves the closer the
Which of the following statements regardless of distance from the and clock errors and accuracy of SA affected aircraft is to a ground
226. concerning differential GPS (DGPS) is true? station propagation errors position information. station
The required accuracy of a precision RNAV 0.25 nm standard deviation or 0.5 nm standard deviation or 1 nm standard deviation or 1.5 nm standard deviation
227. (P-RNAV) system is: better better better or better
When using a two dot HSI, a deviation of
one dot from the computed track
228. represents: 2° 5° 5 nm 2 nm
In the NAV and EXP NAV modes one dot on
229. the EHSI represents: 2 nm 2° 5 nm 5°
The phantom station in a 2D RNAV system
230. may be generated by: VOR/DME Twin VOR Twin DME Any of the above
because the computer cannot
determine if the aircraft is because the computer cannot because the pilot cannot if the selected navigation
The operation of a 2D RNAV system may be within the DOC of the determine if the heading and verify the correct frequency facility is in excess of about
231. seriously downgraded: programmed facilities altitude input are in error has been selected 70 nm
altered by the pilots between altered by the pilots every
232. The FMS database can be: the 28 day updates read and altered by the pilots only read by the pilots 28 days
the actual aircraft track
over the ground, which will the aircraft actual track
coincide with the aircraft which will coincide with the
that a manual track has been that a manual heading has heading when there is zero planned track when there is
233. The track line on an EFIS display indicates: selected been selected drift zero drift
In an RNAV system which combination of
external reference will give the most
234. accurate position? GPS/rho Rho/theta Rho/rho GPS/theta
235. Which EHSI modes cannot show AWR FULL VOR/ILS/NAV and MAP PLAN, CTR MAP and EXP CTR MAP and PLAN PLAN and FULL
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information? VORJILS/NAV VOR/ILS/NAV

236. The NAVSTAR/GPS constellation comprises: 6 SVs each in 4 orbits 4 SVs each in 6 orbits 8 SVs each in 3 orbits 3 SVs each in 8 orbits
Comparing the L1 and L2 signals helps with
237. the reduction of which GNSS error? tropospheric propagation SV ephemeris SV clock Ionospheric propagation
The normal maximum range for an ATC
238. surveillance radar is: 50 nm 150 nm 250 nm 350 nm
the aircraft is in the cone of the aircraft is beyond line of the aircraft is beyond line of the aircraft is outside the
The cause of a RNAV giving erratic readings confusion of the phantom sight range of the phantom sight range of the reference DOC of the reference
239. would be: station station station station
Which type of radar could give an indication
of the shape and sometimes the type of the Aerodrome surface
240. aircraft? area surveillance radar SSR AWR movement radar
separate azimuth and combined azimuth and combined azimuth and
separate azimuth and elevation elevation antennae with elevation antennae with elevation antennae with
241. What are the ground components of MLS? antennae with DME middle and outer markers DME middle and outer markers
The accuracy required of a basic area +/-5 nm on 95% of +/-5 nm on 75% of
242. navigation (B-RNAV) system is: +/-5 nm on 90% of occasions all the time occasions occasions
Converts VOR/DME
Uses VOR/DME information to information into HSI Uses VOR/DME information
What function does the course line Uses VOR/DME information to direct the aircraft along a directions to maintain the to determine track and
243. computer perform? direct the aircraft to the facility specified track planned track distance to a waypoint
The emissions from a non-directional a cardioid with a 30 Hz rotation a frequency modulated
244. beacon (NDB) are: rate omni-directional a phase-compared signal continuous wave (FMCW)
Interference from other
Causes false bearings as the Skywave interference which NDB's which is worst at Phase shift in the received
goniometer locks onto the affects the null and is worst at dusk and when due east of signal giving random
245. How does night effect affect ADF? skywave dawn and dusk the station bearing errors
If there is a discrepancy
between the GPS and multi- Both systems must be
sensor positions, then the The multi-sensor system operating but only the
When flying under IFR using GPS and a multisensor position must be The GPS must be operating must be operating and its primary system information
246. multi-sensor system: regarded as suspect and its information displayed information displayed needs to be displayed
What is the maximum PRF that allows
detection of targets to a range of 50 km?
247. (ignore any flyback time) 330 pulses per second (pps) 617 pps 3000 pps 1620 pps
determines selective assigns the PRN codes to the is used to determine is used to determine which
248. The almanac in the receiver: availability satellites receiver clock error satellites are above the
104
horizon
by what is selected on the by selecting DMEs to give
pilots DME and hence is tuned automatically by taking pilot's suitable angle of cut to get by automatically selecting
249. In a RNAV system the DME is tuned: manually DME selection a fix automatically the nearest suitable DME
the metallic structure of the generative voltages caused by the electrical wiring running
250. Quadrantal error in the ADF is caused by: aircraft the rotation of the engines through the aircraft multipath reception
Which wavelength corresponds to a
251. frequency of 5035 MHz? 5.96 mm 5.96 cm 59.6 cm 5.96 m
The VDF term meaning `true bearing from
252. the station' is: QDM QDR QTE QUJ
QDM information to
ATC inform a pilot that they will provide headings and heights to fly to radar vectors to position on position overhead the Radar vectors to position
253. aQGHservice. The pilot can expect: arrive overhead the aerodrome final approach aerodrome overhead the aerodrome
The ADF error which will cause the needle to
`hunt' (ie oscillate around the correct
254. bearing) is: night effect Cb static station interference coastal refraction
The accuracy of ADF by day and excluding
255. compass error is: +/-1° +/-2° +/-5° +/-10°
A NDB has emission designator N0NA1A this identification and tuning, identification and
256. will require the use of the BFO for: tuning identification monitoring monitoring
bearing by frequency bearing by searchlight bearing by phase
257. The principle of operation of VOR is: bearing by lobe comparison comparison principle comparison
In a Doppler VOR (DVOR) the reference
signal is the variphase signal is and the
258. rotation is . FM, AM, clockwise AM, FM, clockwise FM, AM, anti-clockwise AM, FM, anti-clockwise
A pilot intends to home to a VOR on the 147
radial. The setting he should put on the OBS
259. and the CDI indications will be: 147, TO 147, FROM 327, FROM 327, TO
Flying an ILS approach the equipment senses
that the 90 Hz modulation predominates on
both the localiser and the glidepath. The
260. indications the pilot will see are: fly left and fly up fly left and fly down fly right and fly up fly right and fly down
A category 2 ILS facility is required to
261. provide guidance to: below 50 ft below 200 ft the surface below 100 ft
The coverage of the approach azimuth and
262. elevation of a MLS is: +/-20° to 40 nm +/-20° to 20 nm +/-40° to 40 nm +/-40° to 20 nm
263. A full MLS system comprises a DME and: 4 elements multiplexing on 2 4 elements multiplexing on 2 elements using 2 2 elements multiplexing on
105
frequencies one frequency frequencies one frequency

MLS has 200 channels available in the
264. frequency band: 108 - 112 MHz 329 - 335 MHz 960 - 1215 MHz 5031 - 5090 MHz
The type of radar which has no minimum
265. range restriction is: primary CW radar primary pulsed radar secondary CW radar secondary pulsed radar
The maximum theoretical range of aradar is
266. determined by: power PW beamwidth PRF
The time interval between the transmission
of a pulse and receipt of the echo from a
target is 925.5 microseconds. The range of
267. the target is: 37.5 nm 75 nm 150 nm 300 nm
An advantage of a slotted antenna (planar 360° scan without any
268. array) over a parabolic reflector are: side lobes removed rotation requirement less power required higher data rate possible
The best resolution will be achieved on a high power output and large narrow beamwidth and low frequency and small wide beamwidth and large
269. radar display with: parabolic reflector narrow pulse width parabolic reflector pulsewidth
A radar transmitting on 600 MHz has a PRF
of 300 pps and an aerial rotation rate of 5 an aerodrome surface an aerodrome surveillance
270. rpm. This radar will be: an area surveillance radar movement radar radar a terminal area radar
The AWR frequency is selected because it good returns from water good returns from water
271. gives: droplets good returns from turbulence good penetration of cloud vapour
On a colour AWR display, the heaviest
272. precipitation will be displayed in: amber red yellow blue
If the identification of a VOR is FKL and the the beacons are between 600 the transmitters are within the transmitters are in
273. paired DME identification is FKZ, then: the transmitters are co-located m and 6 nm apart 600 m excess of 6 nm apart
274. The frequency used by LORAN C is: 100 KHz 100 MHz 190 KHz 190 MHz
The accuracy of LORAN C using surface wave
275. fixing is: 20 nm at 1000 nm 1 nm at 2500 nm 1 nm at 1000 nm 20 nm at 2500 nm
in oceanic areas in the
276. The coverage of LORAN C is: in specified areas in oceanic areas over land only northern hemisphere
The NAVSTAR/GPS operational constellation
277. comprises: 21 satellites in 6 orbits 24 satellites in 6 orbits 24 satellites in 3 orbits 30 satellites in 6 orbits
278. The model of the earth used for GPS is: WGS90 PZ84 PZ90 WGS84
The number of SV's required to produce a
279. 3D fix is: `3 4 5 6
The purpose of the PRN codes in synchronise the receiver pass navigation and system
280. NAVSTAR/GPS is to: identify the satellites clocks with the SV clocks data to the receiver all of the above
106
The provision of RAIM requires a minimum

281. of SVs. 3 4 5 6
on the aircraft as far as close to each wing tip to
The best position on an aircraft for the GNSS in the cockpit as close as on the fuselage close to the possible from other aerials compensate for manoeuvre
282. aerial is: possible to the receiver centre of gravity to reduce reflections errors
The NAVSTAR/GPS frequency available to
283. non-authorised users is: 1227.6 MHz 1575.42 MHz 1215.0 MHz 1090.0 MHz
284. A 2D RNAV system takes fixing inputs from: co-located VOR/DME twin DME VOR and/or DME Any of the above
The accuracy required of a basic RNAV
285. system is: 5 nm 5° 1 nm 1°
The most accurate external reference Suitable combination of
286. position will be provided by: VOR/DME Twin DME Twin VOR VOR and DME
The accuracy required of a precision area
287. navigation system is: 0.25 nm 2 nm 1 nm 0.5 nm
A basic 2D RNAV system will determine
288. tracking information from: twin DME VOR/DME Twin VOR Any of the above
The sequence of displays accessed on
289. initialisation is: POS INIT, IDENT, RTE IDENT, RTE, POS MIT IDENT, POS INIT, RTE POS MIT, RTE, IDENT
The correct format for the input of position
290. 50N 00527E to the CDU is: 5000.ON00527.OE N50EO0527 N5000.OE00527.0 N5000E00527
What is the approximate compression of the
291. Earth? 0.03 0.0003 0.3 1/3000,
A series of Latitude and A selection of small circles
A series of lines drawn on a Longitude lines drawn on a as you get nearer to either
292. A Graticule is the name given to: chart chart or map pole Both a & c are correct
A great circle has its North vertex at 70N
130E. What is the position of its South
293. vertex? 70N 050W 70S 050E 70S 050W 70N 050E
The length of the arc of a great The length of the are of the The length of 1/10,000th
circle which subtends an angle Earth’s equator which part of the average distance
of one minute in the centre of subtends an angle of one between the equator and
294. A nautical mile is defined as: the Earth. minute at the centre. either pole. None of the above.
Rhumb Line and a semi
295. Any Meridian Line is a: Rhumb Line Semi Great Circle Great Circle All above are correct.
A Rhumb Line cuts all meridians at the same The shortest distance between A line which could never be a
296. angle. This gives: two points. great circle track A line of constant direction All above are correct.
297. The shortest distance between to points on Rhumb line Great circle Both of ‘a’ and ‘b’ None of ‘a’ and ‘c’
107
the Earth is along the:

has a maximum value of 45°
298. The value of variation: is zero at the magnetic equator has a maximum value of 180° E or 45° W cannot exceed 90°
Movement of the magnetic
poles, which can cause
The value of magnetic variation on a chart Movement of the magnetic Increase in the magnetic Reduction in the magnetic either an increase or a
299. changes with time. This is due to: poles, causing an increase field, causing an increase field, causing a decrease decrease
True North is West of Magnetic Compass North is West of True North is East of Magnetic North is West of
300. If variation is West; then: North Magnetic North Magnetic North Compass North
One minute of latitude are
one minute of longitude
The possibility of confusion in The necessity of giving a 10 or represent different
Disadvantages of the latitude are longitude areas closed to the equator 11 figure group to obtain distances on the earth,
301. Reference system: and the prime meridian positional accuracy of 1 min except of the equator All the above.
Departure is the distance between two given
meridians, measured along a stated parallel
302. and is expressed in: Kilometer Nautical mile Statute mile None of the above
The formula used for calculation of Ch. long (degree) X sin Ch long (mins) X sin mean
303. departure: Ch long (degree) X cos mean lat Ch. long (mins) X cos mean lat mean lat lat
On a normal Mercator chart, rhumb lines are
304. represented as: Curves concave to the Equator Curves convex to the Equator Complex curves Straight lines
On a direct Mercator, Great Circles can be
305. represented as: Straight lines Curves Straight lines and curves all of the above
If the rhumb line track from Turin (45N
008E) to Khartoum (15N 032E) is 145°(T),
what is the direction of the great circle track
306. measured at Turin? 133°(T) 139°(T) 145°(T) 151°(T)
constant along a line of correct at the parallel of
307. Scale on a Lambert conformal chart is: constant along a line of latitude longitude constant everywhere origin
The best chart made by lambert conformal 12° and 74° (either at N or at 74° and 90° (either at N or
308. Projection is between the latitudes: 12°S and 12° N S) at S) None of the above.
A polar chart is the best between 90° and
309. 74° and it is made by: Gnomonic projection Stereographic projection Both of the above None of the above.
A Great Circle has a Northern Vertex of 50N
310. 100W. The Southern Vertex is? 40S 100W 40S 080E 50S 100W 50S 080E
How much is the polar diameter of the Earth
311. different from the equatorial diameter? less by 40 km greater by 27 statute miles less by 27 statute miles greater by 27 nautical miles
108
What is the shortest distance in kilometres

between Cairo (30°17'N 030°10 E) and
312. Durban (29°48' S 030°10'E) ? 3605 4146 4209 6676
An aircraft at latitude 02°20'N tracks 180°(T)
for 685 km. What is its latitude at the end of
313. the flight' ? 03°50' S 02°50' S 02°10' S 08°55' S
An aircraft is at latitude 10 N and is flying
South at 444 km/hour. After 3 hours the
314. latitude is ? 10 S 02 N 02 S 0N / S
The circumference of the Earth is
315. approximately? 43200 nm 10800 nm 21600 nm 5400 nm
keeping the magnetic
assembly mass close to the
The direct reading magnetic compass is pivot point and using damping pendulous suspension of using the lowest acceptable
316. made aperiodic (dead beat) by: using long magnets wires the magnetic assembly viscosity compass liquid
You are flying at 400 kts TAS, Indicated
317. temperature -50°C. What is your COAT? -67°C -50°C -33°C -17°C
You are flying at FL330 at Mach No
0.9M.Ambient temperature is ISA +15°.
318. What is your TAS? 600 knots 595 knots 540 knots 505 knots
Given: True Hdg 145°, TAS 240 kt, True Track
319. 150°, G/S 210 kt, calculate the W/V 360/35 295/35 180/35 115/35
G/S = 240 knots, Distance to go = 500 nm.
320. What is time to go? 20 minutes 29 minutes 2h 05 m 2h 12 m
Airfield elevation is 1000 feet. The QNH is
988 Use 27 feet per hectopascal. What is
321. pressure altitude? 675 feet 325 feet 1675 feet 825 feet
A pilot receives the following signals from a
VOR DME station.
Radial = 180° +/- 1°, distance = 200 nm What
322. is the approximate maximum error? +/- 2 nm +/- 3.5 nm +/- 7 nm +/- 1 nm
turn round and fly your flight fly a series of ever-
You are flying a VFR route and have become set heading towards a line plan tracks in reverse until expanding circles from your turn round and fly your
uncertain of your position. Which is the best feature - coastline, river or you see something you present position till you find flight plan in reverse back to
323. course of action? motorway recognised before your next check point base
is produced directly from a is produced by is used for a Polar
324. A non-perspective chart: light projection of a Reduced cannot be used for navigation mathematically adjusting a Stereographic projection
109
Earth light projection of the

Reduced Earth
On a Mercator chart, a Rhumb Line appears small circle concave to the curve convex to the nearer
325. as a: nearer pole pole complex curve straight line
Where is scale correct on a Transverse along the great Circle of along the Datum Meridian
326. Mercator chart? Tangency at the Poles and the Equator and at meridians at 90° to it at the Greenwich meridian
mapping countries with a mapping countries with a
What is the main use of a Transverse flying a specified Great Circle large N/S extent but a lesser large E/W extent but a
327. Mercator chart? route flying an equatorial route E/W extent lesser N/S extent
mapping countries with a mapping countries with a
What is the main use of an Oblique flying a specified Great Circle large N/S extent but a lesser large E/W extent but a
328. Mercator chart? route flying an equatorial route E/W extent lesser N/S extent
329. When does perihelion occur? early January mid March early July 42634
330. When does aphelion occur? early January mid March early July 42634
Viewed from the North Celestial Pole (above anti-clockwise in a circular clockwise in an elliptical anti-clockwise in an
331. the North Pole), the Earth orbits the Sun clockwise in a circular orbit orbit orbit elliptical orbit
332. When do èquinoxes' occur? December and June February and November March and September January and July
When it is the Winter Solstice in the
Southern Hemisphere, the Declination of the
333. Sun is 00° N/S 23 ½°N 66½°N 23½°S
When it is the Winter Solstice in the
Southern Hemisphere, the sun will be
334. overhead the Arctic Circle the Tropic of Capricorn the equator the Tropic of Cancer
What is the angle between the Equinoctial varies between 23'/20N and varies between 66'/20N and
335. and the Ecliptic? 66'/20 23'/20 23'/20S 66'/20S
The Declination of a celestial body (the Sun) altitude of the body
measured on the Celestial Sphere is measured from the sensible
336. analogous (equivalent) to on the Earth? latitude longitude horizon co-latitude
The maximum difference between mean
noon ( 1200LMT ) and real/apparent noon
337. occurs in January/July March/September November/February December/June
The maximum difference between Mean
338. Time and Apparent Time is: 21 minutes 16 minutes 30 minutes there is no difference
365 days 5 hrs 48.75
339. What is the length of a Sidereal Year? 365 days 366 days 365 days 6 hrs minutes
time based upon the average when the Mean Sun is when the Mean Sun is
340. The definition of Local Mean Time (LMT) is: movement of the Earth around transitting (crossing) your transitting (crossing) your all of the above.
110
the Sun. meridian, it is 1200 hrs LMT. anti-meridian, it is 0000 hrs

LMT (2400 hrs LMT,
previous day).
Local Mean Time (LMT) always changes by a
341. day when crossing ? the Greenwich Meridian 180°E/W the International Date Line the Equator
by aircraft on trans-oceanic
342. Zone Time (ZT) is used? routes as legal time in all countries by ships at sea in polar regions
What is the Zone Number for longitude
343. 127°30'W 8 9 -8 -9
On Mid-winter Day in the Northern
344. Hemisphere, the sun will be overhead: 66 1/2 S 23 1/2 N 23 1/2 S the Equator
related to the position of
the period between sunset and the period between the start the centre of the sun being
the end of Evening Civil of Morning Civil Twilight 6° below the sensible
345. Civil Twilight is? Twilight (ECT) (MCT) and sunrise horizon all of the above
a circular magnet or pair of a low magnetic moment
a non-pendulously mounted a single pendulously mounted bar magnets pendulously system, either of circular or
346. In a standby direct reading compass there is: magnet system. bar magnet. mounted. bar configuration.
easily read, floating in a positioned directly in front
transparent liquid, quick to of the pilot, easily corrected
The main requirements of a direct reading react to change in aircraft for magnetic deviation, aperiodic, horizontal,
347. magnetic compass are that it should be: horizontal, sensitive, periodic. heading. aperiodic sensitive.
For a position in the southern hemisphere,
the effect of acceleration errors are greatest
348. on headings: 180°(C) and 360°(C) 045°(C) and 225°(C) 135°(C) and 315°(C) 090°(C) and 270°(C)
In a standby compass the magnet system is increase sensitivity at high
immersed in a transparent liquid. The increase sensitivity, increase increase sensitivity, decrease latitudes, lubricate increase sensitivity, reduce
349. purpose of this liquid is to: aperiodicity. aperiodicity. bearings. liquid swirl.
To improve the horizontality of a compass,
the magnet assembly is suspended from a on the centre line of the varying with magnetic
350. point: magnet. below the centre of gravity. above the centre of gravity. latitude.
During a sustained turn ....... the nearer
magnetic pole, the effect of liquid swirl will
351. ....... compass turning error. away from increase. towards not affect. away from not affect. towards increase
a tendency to underread no turning error when
When carrying out a turn at the magnetic turns through south and a tendency to underread turning through east or
352. equator there will be: no turning error. overread turns through north. turns due to liquid swirl. west only.
111
OAT = +35°C, Pressure alt = 5000 feet. What

353. is true alt? 4550 feet 5550 feet 4290 feet 5320 feet
An aircraft flies a great circle track from
56°N 070°W to 62°N 110°E. The total
354. distance travelled is? 3720 NM 5420 NM 1788 NM 2040 NM
Inversely proportional to
Inversely proportional to the Proportional to the Inversely proportional to the vertical and horizontal
The sensitivity of a direct reading magnetic horizontal component of the horizontal component of the the vertical component of components of the earth's
355. compass is: earth's magnetic field. earth's magnetic field. the earth's magnetic field. magnetic field
The angle between the The angle between The angle between
direction indicated by a The angle between True Magnetic North and True Magnetic Heading and
356. What is the definition of magnetic variation? compass and Magnetic North. North and Compass North. North. Magnetic North.
It acts as though there is a The angle of dip is the angle
Which of these is a correct statement about large blue magnetic pole in between the vertical and the It may be temporary, It has no effect on aircraft
357. the Earth's magnetic field: Northern Canada total magnetic force. transient, or permanent. deviation.
What is the advantage of the remote It is connected to a source of It senses the earth's
indicating compass (slaved gyro compass) electrical power and so is magnetic field rather than It is not affected by aircraft
358. over the direct reading magnetic compass? It is lighter more accurate seeks it, so is more sensitive deviation
In a ring laser gyro, the purpose of the dither Enhance the accuracy of the Compensate for transport Stabilise the laser
359. motor is to: gyro at all rotational rates. Overcome laser lock. wander. frequencies.
Laser lock is overcome in an IRS system by
using a piezo-electric motor which utilises
360. the principle of shake SAGNAC dither vibration
An aircraft at position 6000N 00522W flies
361. 165 km due East. What is the new position? 6000N 00820E 6000N 00224W 6000N 00108E 6000N 00108W
By what amount must you change your rate
of descent given a 10 knot increase in 50 feet per minute 30 feet per minute
362. headwind on a 3° glideslope? 50 feet per minute increase 30 feet per minute increase decrease decrease
In which months is the difference between
apparent noon and mean noon the
363. greatest? November and February January and July March and September June and December
5 hours 20 minutes and 20 seconds hours
time difference is equivalent to which
364. change of longitude? 81°30' 78° 15' 79° 10' 80° 05'
On a Direct Mercator chart, great circles are Curves convex to the nearer Curves concave to the
365. shown as: pole Straight lines Rhumb lines nearer pole
366. The scale on a Lambert's conformal conic is constant along a meridian of is constant along a parallel of varies slightly as a function is constant across the
112
chart longitude latitude of latitude and longitude whole map

Heading is 156°T, TAS is 320 knots, W/V is
367. 130/45. What is your true track? 160 152 104 222
Convergence on a Transverse Mercator the datum meridian and the
368. chart is correct at: the datum meridian only Equator the Equator and the Poles the Parallel of Origin
Follows separate paths out
of the North polar regions,
is the shorter distance one currently running
is midway between the between the respective through Western Europe
magnetic North and South follows the geographic True and Magnetic North and the other through the
369. The agonic line: poles equator and South poles USA
On a 12% glide slope, your groundspeed is
370. 540 knots. What is your rate of descent? 6550 feet/min 4820 feet/min 8740 feet/min 3120 feet/min
In an Inertial Navigation System, what is the
output of the first stage North/South velocity along the local
371. integrator? groundspeed latitude meridian change of latitude
372. In which month does aphelion occur? January March July November
The term drift refers to the wander of the the vertical and horizontal
373. axis of a gyro in? any plane the horizontal plane the vertical plane plane
The pressure alt is 29000 feet and the SAT is
374. -55°C. What is density altitude? 27500 feet 26000 feet 30000 feet 31000 feet
Correct on the standard
parallels, expands outside Expands as the secant of
How does scale change on a normal Expands as the secant z (2 co- Expands directly with the them, contracts within the E/W great circle
375. Mercator chart? latitude) secant of the latitude them distance
Groundspeed is 540 knots. 72 ran to go.
376. What is time to go? 8 mins 9 mins 18 mins 12 mins
An aircraft at FL370 is required to
commence descent at 120 NM from a VOR
and to cross the facility at FL130. If the mean
GS for the descent is 288 kt, the minimum
377. rate of descent required is: 920 ft/min 890 ft/min 860 ft/min 960 ft/min
What is the highest latitude on the Earth at
378. which the Sun can be vertically overhead? 23½° 66½° 45° 90°
The angle between True North and Magnetic
379. north is known as: deviation variation alignment error dip
380. An aircraft is at 10° N and is flying South at 10°S 02° N 02°S 00° N/S
113
444 km/hour. After 3 hours the latitude is:

Given that: A is N55o E/W 000° B is N54°
E010o, If the true great circle track from A to
B is 100° T, what is the true Rhumb Line
381. track at A? 096° 107° 104° 100°
The angle between the plane of the Equator
382. and the plane of the Ecliptic is: 66.5° 23.5° 25.3° 65.6°
Why are the detector units of slaved gyro With one detector unit in each To isolate the detector unit To isolate the detector unit
compasses usually located in the aircraft wingtip, compass deviations from the aircraft deviation from the Earth's magnetic To reduce turning and
383. wingtips? are cancelled out. sources. field. acceleration errors.
What is the maximum possible value of Dip
384. Angle? 66° 180° 90° 45°
Given: Magnetic heading 311o Drift is 10°
left Relative bearing of NDB 270 What is the
magnetic bearing of the NDB treasured from
385. the aircraft? 221° 208° 211° 180°
The initial straight track from A (75N 60E) to
B (75N 60W) on a Polar Stereographic chart
386. is: 030° 360° 060° 330°
What is the weight in kilogrammes of 380 US
387. Gallons at a Specific Gravity of 0.78? 1123 2470 5434 543
If the aircraft has been in the After a change of theatre of
hangar for a long time and has If the aircraft has been Every maintenance operations at the same
388. An aircraft's compass must be swung: been moved several times. subjected to hammering. inspection magnetic latitude.
What is the dip angle at the South Magnetic
389. Pole? 0° 90° 180° 64°
Because the Earth's orbital
Because the Earth's spin axis is Because the distance speed round the Sun varies Because of the difference
What is the reason for seasonal changes in inclined to the plane of its orbit between the Earth and the according to the time of the between the Tropical Year
390. climate? round the Sun Sun varies over a year year and the Calendar Year
The accelerometers are The gyros are fixed but the
Some inertial reference systems are known The system is mounted on a The system is mounted and fixed but the gyros are accelerometers are
391. as 'strapdown'. This means: stabilised platform. fixed to the aircraft structure stabilised. stabilised
An aircraft is on the 025 radial from Shannon
VOR (SHA, 5243N 00853W) at 49 DME. What
392. is its position? 5329N 00930W 5239N 00830W 5229N 00930W 5329 00830W
393. At what latitude does the maximum 0° 45° 60° 90°
114
difference between geodetic and geocentric

latitude occur?
Given: Aircraft height = 2500 feet, ILS GP
angle = 3°-, at what approximate distance
from the threshold can you expect to
394. intercept the glide-path? 8.0 nm 14.5 nm 13.1 nm 7.0 nm
In which of the following projections does a
plane surface touch the Reduced Earth at
395. one of the Poles? Gnomic Stereographic Lambert's Direct Mercator
An aircraft at position 0000 N/S 16327W
flies a track of 225°-T for 70 nm. What is its
396. new position? 0049N 16238W 0049S 16238W 0049N 16416W 0049S 16416W
On a chart, meridians at 43N are shown
every 10 degrees apart. This is shown on the
chart by a distance of 14 cm. What is the
397. scale'? 1: 2,000,000 1: 4,000,000 1: 5,000,000 1: 6,000,000
datum meridian and
On a Transverse Mercator chart, scale is Equator, parallel of origin and meridian perpendicular to prime meridian and the
398. exactly correct along the? prime vertical meridian of tangency it. equator.
How do Rhumb lines (with the exception of
meridians) appear on a Polar Stereographic
399. chart? concave to the nearer pole convex to the nearer pole an ellipse round the pole straight lines
What is the value of convergence on a polar
400. stereographic chart? 0.8 1 0.866 0.5
An aircraft on the Equator accelerates whilst
traveling westwards. What will be the effect Indicates an increase in Indicates a decrease in Indicates an apparent turn
401. on a direct reading compass? heading No change heading to the North
An aircraft flies 100 st mile in 20 minutes.
402. How long does it take to fly 215 nm? 50 mins 37 mins 57 mins 42 mins
From the moment when
From the moment when the From the moment when the From the moment when the tip of the sun
centre of the sun is on the tip of the sun disappears the centre of the sun is on disappears below the visual
sensible horizon until the below the sensible horizon the visual horizon until the horizon until the centre
centre reaches a depression until the centre reaches a centre reaches a depression reaches a depression angle
angle of 6° from the sensible depression angle of 6° from angle of 6° from the of 6° from the sensible
403. What is the duration of civil twilight? horizon. the sensible horizon. sensible horizon. horizon
404. What is the shortest distance between Point 5400 nm 6318 nm 6557 nm 6000 nm
115
'A' (3543N 00841E) and Point 'B' (5417N

17119W)?
On which chart projection is it not possible
405. to show the North Pole? Direct Mercator Lamberts Transverse Mercator Polar Stereographic
Change of longitude x Sine Change of longitude x ½ Sine Change of longitudex½ Sine Change of longitude x
406. What is the formula for Conversion Angle? latitude mean longitude mean latitude Cosine latitude
On 27 Feb at 52°S 040°E sunrise is a
0243UTC. On the same day at 52°S 035°W
407. the time of sunrise is? 0743 UTC 0243 UTC 2143 UTC 0543 UTC.
A compass swing is performed in order to
408. correct for? acceleration deviation variation aperiodicity
409. Isogonals are lines of equal: compass deviation magnetic variation wind velocity pressure
On a Direct Mercator chart, a rhumb line small circle concave to the curve convex to the nearer
410. appears as a: nearer pole straight line pole spiral curve
Given: IAS 120 kt, FL 80, OAT +20°C What
411. is the TAS? 141 kt 102 kt 120 kt 132 kt
Given: True Course 300° Drift 8°R Variation
10°W Deviation -4° Calculate the compass
412. heading. 322° 306° 278° 294°
Given: True track 180° Drift 8°R Compass
Heading 195° Deviation -2° Calculate the
413. variation. 21°W 25°W 5°W 9°W
Which of the following indicates an advisory
414. airspace (ADA boundary? A B C D
Given: Runway direction 083°(M), Surface
WN 035/35kt. Calculate the effective
415. headwind component. 24 kt 27 kt 31 kt 34 kt
proportional to the sum of inversely proportional to
From the departure point, the distance to ground speed out and ground inversely proportional to the inversely proportional to the sum of ground speed
416. the point of equal time is: speed back total distance to go ground speed back out and ground speed back
Position `B' is 240°(T) and 200 nm from À'. If
the position of À' is N000 E100°, what is the
417. position of `B'? S01°40' E 101°40' S01°40' E097°07' N01°40' E097°07' N01°40' E101°40'
The maximum difference between the
geocentric and geodetic latitude occurs at
418. about: 45° North and South 90° North and South 60° North and South 0° North and South
419. What is the time required to travel along the 1 hr 15 min 2 hr 30 min 1 hr 45 min 5 hr 00 min
116
parallel of latitude 60° N between meridians

010°E and 030°W at a groundspeed of 480
kt?
It is the time set by the legal
What is the meaning of the term `standard It is the time zone system It is an expression for local authorities for a country or
420. time'? It is another term for UTC applicable only in the USA. mean time. part of a country.
At a specific location, the value of magnetic depends on the magnetic depends on the value of true depends on the type of
421. variation: heading heading varies slowly over time compass installed
varies between a maximum of must be 0° at the magnetic
422. The value of magnetic variation: has a maximum of 180° 45°E and 45W equator cannot exceed 90°
keeping the magnetic
assembly mass close to the
The direct reading magnetic compass is compass point and using pendulous suspension of using the lowest acceptable
423. made aperiodic (dead beat) by: using long magnets damping wires the magnetic assembly viscosity compass liquid
An Oblique Mercator projection is used radio navigation charts in topographical maps of large plotting charts in equatorial charts of the great circle
424. specifically to produce: equatorial regions east/west extent regions route between two points
On the Transverse Mercator chart, scale is equator, parallel of origin and datum meridian and the
425. correct along the: prime vertical prime meridian and equator meridian perpendicular to it meridian of tangency
An aircraft travels 2.4 statute miles in 47
426. seconds. What is its groundspeed? 183 kt 13 kt 209 kt 160 kt
Given: IAS 120 knots, FL 80, OAT +20°C, what
427. is the TAS? 132 kt 141 kt 102 kt 120 kt
Given: TAS 140 kt, HDG 005°(T), W/V
428. 265/25, calculate the drift and groundspeed. 11R - 140 kt 10R - 146 kt 09R - 140 kt 11R - 142 kt
If the Standard Time in Port of Spain,
Trinidad (1 IN 066W) is 2215 on 7 Feb, what
is the Standard Time in Vientiane, Laos (18N
429. 103E)? 07 1115 08 1115 08 0915 07 0915
On a chart, 49 nautical miles is represented
430. by 7.0 centimeters. What is the scale? 1 /700,000 1 / 2,015,396 1 / 1,296,400 1 / 1,156,600
431. Scale on map or chart can be expressed by: The representative fraction The plain statement The graduated scale All the above
If the scale factor is other than unity the
difference between scale factor and unity is
432. called: Scale deviation Scale error None of ‘a’ and ‘b’ Both of ‘a’ and ‘b’
Earth convergence can be calculated by the earth convergence = ch.long X earth convergence = ch. long earth convergence = ch.
433. formula: sin mean lat X cos mean lat long X sec mean lat None of the above
117

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Principles of Flight (ATPL/FOOL)

Chapter – 01 Overview and Definitions

1. An aircraft's mass is a result of:

2. The unit of mass is the:

3. The definition of a force is:

4. The unit of force is the:

5. The unit of weight is the:

6. Weight is the result of:

7. About which point does an aircraft rotate:

8. If a force is applied to a mass and the mass does not move:

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ডাউনেলাড করেত িভিজট ক ন 1

9. The unit of work is called the:

10. The unit of power is called the:

11. If a force of 20 Newton's moves a mass 5 metres:

13. The definition of power is:

15. Kinetic energy is:

16. The unit of kinetic energy is the:

17. When considering kinetic energy:

18. The property of inertia is said to be:

19. Considering Newton's first law of motion:

20. Considering Newton's second law of motion:

21. Newton's third law of motion states:

22. The definition of velocity is the:

23. When considering acceleration:

24. The definition of momentum is:

26. When considering momentum:

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Chapter – 02 The Atmosphere

4. When considering static pressure:

5. When considering air density:

6. Air density is:

10. Dynamic pressure is:

11. Dynamic pressure is equal to:

13. A static pressure vent must be positioned:

14. The inputs to an Air Speed Indicator are from:

19. The speed of sound:

20. Mach number is:

21. An aircraft's critical Mach number is;

22. When humidity of the atmosphere increases, the lift of an aerofoil:

24. With the increase in height, the atmospheric pressure

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Chapter – 03 Basic Aerodynamic Theory

2. The statement, "Pressure plus Kinetic energy is constant", refers to:

3. If the velocity of an air mass is increased:

4. When considering a streamlined airflow, which of the following statements is correct:

6. When considering a streamtube, which of the following statements is correct:

8. In accordance with the principle of continuity:

9. In accordance with Bernoulli's theorem:

13. The relative air velocity is maximum at

Chapter – 04 Subsonic Airflow

2. The definition of lift is:

3. An aerofoil section is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the:

6. Why does increasing speed also increase lift?

7. The point on an aerofoil section through which lift acts is the:

12. The angle of attack of an aerofoil section directly controls:

14. The term "angle of attack" is defined as the angle:

15. Which of the following statements is true:

16. Which of the following statements is correct:

21. When the angle of attack increases:

3. Which of the following statements is correct:

12. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to:

20. Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the:

21. Which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack: