Nursing School Entrance Exams: Get Into The Nursing School of Your Choice With Help From Learningexpress!

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NURSING SCHOOL ENTRANCE EXAMS

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NURSING SCHOOL
A career in nursing can be very rewarding, offering a variety of specializations and
work environment options. Whether your goal is to work in a hospital, a doctor’s office,
a laboratory, or some other specialized area, your career begins with passing a nursing
ENTRANCE EXAMS
school entrance exam. To compete in this highly competitive field, you need to do well
on your exam and get accepted into the program of your choice. LearningExpress’s
unique step-by-step approach to the NSEE gives you the edge you need.
Nursing School Entrance Exams includes:

Prepare to Get into the Nursing or Allied Health Program of Your Choice!
n Targeted, comprehensive review covering everything you need to know to pass
your entrance exam, including verbal ability, reading comprehension, basic math, n FOUR updated and revised n Complete review of all subject areas
algebra, general science, biology, and chemistry practice tests tested on the exams
n The LearningExpress Test Preparation System, to help you prepare a personalized n Prepare for key exams including the n PLUS—the proven LearningExpress
study plan, overcome test anxiety, use your test time wisely, and make educated RNSAE, APNE, NET, HESI, Test Preparation System to ensure
guesses when appropriate and TEAS your success!
n Essential information about state-specific requirements, current career trends,
and other valuable resources
ion—
an instantly scored NSEE!

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FREE NSEE practice online! E d i t
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NursingSchoolExam_FM_i-iv.qx_TestPrep 4/23/12 11:44 AM Page i
NURSING
SCHOOL
ENTRANCE EXAM
Your Guide to
Passing the Test
Third Edition
®
NE W Y O RK
NursingSchoolExam_FM_i-iv.qx_TestPrep 4/23/12 11:44 AM Page ii
Copyright © 2012 LearningExpress, LLC.
All rights reserved under International and Pan-American Copyright Conventions.

Published in the United States by LearningExpress, LLC, New York.
Library of Congress Cataloging-in-Publication Data

Nursing school entrance exam.—3rd ed.
p. ; cm.
Includes bibliographical references and index.
ISBN 978-1-57685-902-5
I. LearningExpress (Organization)
[DNLM: 1. Nursing—Examination Questions. WY 18.2]
LC classification not assigned
610.73076—dc23
2011045556
Printed in the United States of America
987654321
3rd Edition
ISBN 13: 978-1-57685-902-5
For more information or to place an order, contact LearningExpress at:

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Or visit us at:
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NursingSchoolExam_FM_i-iv.qx_TestPrep 4/23/12 11:44 AM Page iii
CONTENTS
CHAPTER 1 Nursing School Entrance Exam Planner 1
CHAPTER 2 The LearningExpress Test Preparation System 9
CHAPTER 3 Practice Exam I 29
CHAPTER 4 Verbal Ability 87
CHAPTER 5 Reading Comprehension 95
CHAPTER 6 Math Review 107
CHAPTER 7 Biology Review 157
CHAPTER 8 Chemistry Review 191
CHAPTER 9 General Science Review 225
CHAPTER 10 Practice Exam II 283
CHAPTER 11 Practice Exam III 339
ADDITIONAL ONLINE PRACTICE 395
iii
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NursingSchoolExam_c01_01-08.qx_TestPrep 4/23/12 11:42 AM Page 1
1
C H A P T E R
NURSING SCHOOL
ENTRANCE
EXAM PLANNER
CHAPT ER S UM M ARY
In this chapter, you will learn about career opportunities in nursing
and what to expect on the job, as well as essential information about
choosing and getting into the nursing school of your choice. You will
also find out about the types of entrance tests that nursing schools
use to select students.
I f you enjoy caring for others and interacting with a wide range of people, and if you cope well when con-
fronted with challenges, nursing is a great career choice. Nursing is also a secure profession with excellent
starting salaries and very good job prospects. Job opportunities in nursing abound—registered nurses fill
more than 2.6 million jobs, making up the largest healthcare occupation in the nation. And the need for nurses
is likely to continue to soar—many of today’s nurses are beginning to retire, leaving thousands of job openings.
The U.S. population as a whole is also aging, and because older people require more nursing care, the demand
for skilled nurses willing to work on the front lines of patient care will also increase. Technological advances in
medical care, which allow more medical conditions to be treated, and an emphasis on preventive care also cre-
ate a greater demand for nurses. As you consider your future in nursing, think about these facts:
■ More new jobs are likely to be created for registered nurses than for any other occupation.
■ Employers in some areas of the country report a nursing shortage, spurring efforts to attract and keep
nurses on staff.
■ Hospital outpatient facilities—like same-day surgery centers or rehabilitation centers—offer the most
rapid growth in nursing jobs.
1
– NURSING SCHOOL ENTRANCE EXAM PLANNER –
To become a nurse, you need to pursue one of often work in a specific department of a hospital,
three educational routes—a bachelor’s degree, an asso- such as pediatrics, emergency care, or oncology.
ciate’s degree, or a hospital diploma. You may also con- ■ Office nurses work in doctor’s offices, clinics, out-
sider becoming a licensed practical nurse (LPN), patient surgical centers, and emergency medicine
which requires only one year of training in a vocational clinics. Their job tasks include assisting with
or technical school and can be a stepping stone to exams, giving medications, dressing wounds, and
becoming a registered nurse. Most nursing programs assisting in minor surgeries. They may also do
require that you take an entrance test, and that’s where office work and maintain patient records.
this book comes in. Nursing School Entrance Exam was ■ Nursing facility nurses provide care for residents
designed from real tests, including the admissions test in nursing homes or long-term rehabilitation
you will face to get into the program of your choice. By centers. They monitor residents’ progress, develop
tailoring your study plan and using the information in treatment plans, and oversee nursing aides and
this book, you can achieve your best score and begin licensed practical nurses.
the path of your desired career—training to become a ■ Home health nurses work in the patients’ own
nurse. homes. They give medications, check the patient’s
condition and environment, and instruct patients
and caregivers about care and treatment. They
Career Opportunities may supervise home health aides.
in Nursing ■ Public health nurses work on the community level
in schools, government agencies, retirement com-
Registered nurses (RNs) provide direct patient care munities, or other settings. They educate the pub-
and serve as health educators in the effort to promote lic about health promotion and disease
wellness and prevent disease. In giving care, they prevention strategies in areas like nutrition,
monitor and record a patient’s symptoms and smoking cessation, or childcare.
progress, give medications, assist in rehabilitation, ■ Occupational health nurses provide care to
and teach patients and families about proper care employees at work locations, giving emergency
practices. They assist physicians in everything from treatments, providing health counseling, or iden-
routine exams and treatments to surgery. There are tifying potential health problems in the work
limits to what a nurse does—state regulations deter- environment.
mine the scope of tasks a nurse can perform. But the
factor that most influences a nurse’s daily workload is Most RNs earn between $47,000 and $68,000
the type of healthcare facility in which he or she annually, with the highest paid receiving more than
works. Nurses work in a range of settings: hospitals, $80,000 annually. Nurses who earned the highest aver-
doctor’s offices, outpatient surgical centers, nursing age salaries worked in employment services, followed
homes, schools, or work sites. Home health nurses by hospitals, home healthcare services, physicians’
even work in patients’ homes. The following is an offices, and nursing care facilities.
overview of what you can expect on the job, depend- Licensed practical nurses (LPNs) care for patients
ing on your work setting. under the supervision of a physician or registered
nurse. They provide routine bedside care, such as tak-
■ Hospital nurses make up the largest group of ing vital signs, preparing injections, applying
nurses. They provide bedside care for hospitalized dressings, or collecting testing samples. They also aid
patients, observe and record symptoms, and patients with feeding, dressing, and bathing. In nursing
administer treatments and medications. They facilities, LPNs may evaluate the needs of residents and
2
oversee nursing aides. In private offices or clinics, they Which Nursing Program
may be responsible for some administrative work, such Is Right for You?
as making appointments or maintaining records. The
average yearly salary for LPNs is between $28,000 and You may need to consider many factors in deciding the
$50,000. The highest paying LPN positions were found nursing program that is right for you. If your financial
in employment services, followed by home healthcare situation is tight, you might choose to earn a two-year
services, nursing care facilities, hospitals, and physi- associate’s degree, land a job as a nurse, and then use
cians’ offices. tuition benefits that come with your employment to
Working conditions for nurses depend on the take additional courses and work toward a bachelor’s
type of healthcare facility. For example, work hours degree. Whether you are entering the workforce from
vary according to work setting. In nursing homes or high school or making a mid-career change may be
long-term rehabilitation centers where residents need another consideration.
around-the-clock care, nurses may work night or Of the programs described in the following list,
weekend shifts. Public health nurses and nurses who the bachelor’s degree of science in nursing (BSN) offers
work in offices or on industrial work sites follow the most job opportunities. Nurses with bachelor-level
schedules during regular business hours. education can more easily advance in their jobs, and
Risks for nurses in hospitals and clinics include some positions—like administrative work or those
coming in contact with patients who have infectious requiring a clinical specialty—may require a bachelor’s
diseases. Nurses must follow a standard set of precau- degree or even an advanced degree.
tions to reduce their risk for disease or other kinds of Nursing programs combine hands-on, super-
danger, like radiation or chemical exposure. Nurses vised clinical experience at a healthcare facility with
are also susceptible to back injury from moving traditional coursework. In addition to general
patients. education requirements, students fulfill courses in
CHECK YOUR BASIC SKILLS

Nursing requires a range of skills and abilities to perform the job well. Nurses face many challenges on the
job—from heavy workloads to long hours on their feet. Review this checklist to see if you fit these job char-
acteristics. Nurses must:
■ show caring and sympathy

■ look for ways to help others
■ demonstrate emotional stability in stressful situations
■ have good observational skills
■ have physical stamina
■ communicate effectively—talking and listening
■ be able to direct and supervise (RNs)
■ be able to follow orders (LPNs)
■ use judgment and make decisions
■ know how to problem solve
3
anatomy, physiology, microbiology, chemistry, nutri- On the other end of the educational spectrum is
tion, psychology, and nursing. After completing a a master of science in nursing (MSN). These two-year
nursing program, students must pass a licensing programs give nurses the opportunity to specialize in
exam to become a nurse. Here is an overview of the clinical training or research. People seeking this degree
degree programs that prepare students for entry-level typically have a BSN or an RN license.
nurse positions:
■ Diploma Programs are run by hospitals and usu- Selecting a Program

ally take three years to complete. These programs That Meets Your Needs
are few and their numbers are declining. To
broaden their job opportunities, nurses from Some considerations for finding a nursing program are
diploma programs may later opt to earn a bache- obvious. For example, most applicants limit their
lor’s degree by completing coursework in an search by geographic area. Some people need to find a
RN-to-BSN program. Staff nurse positions often school within driving distance; others are willing to
offer tuition reimbursement programs to help relocate to attend school. An Internet search or a pub-
allay the cost of additional education. lished listing of nursing schools will help locate
■ Associate’s Degree in Nursing (ADN) programs schools in the area of your choice.
are offered by community colleges and last from Tuition is another factor in choosing a nursing
two to three years. There are about 700 associate- school—cost can vary depending on whether the insti-
level nursing programs throughout the country. tution is private or public, or whether you qualify as an
ADN-schooled nurses may also later choose to in-state student. Financial aid availability also differs
earn a bachelor’s degree to increase their job by institution. When you research schools, collect as
choices. much information as possible considering these and
■ A Bachelor’s of Science Degree in Nursing the factors listed here.
(BSN) takes four years to complete at a college or
university. More than 670 programs offer this ■ Is it approved by the state? Each state determines
degree. For people who have earned a bachelor’s the standards for nursing schools and approves
degree in another field and are interested in them. Your school must be state-approved. How-
becoming a nurse, accelerated BSN programs are ever, state approval does not mean that the institu-
available; they grant credit for the liberal arts tion is accredited—for more about accreditation,
requirements you have already completed. They see the following paragraph.
take from one year to 18 months to complete. ■ Is it accredited? Accreditation means that a
national accrediting organization, such as the
To become a licensed practical nurse (LPN), you National League for Nursing Accrediting Com-
must complete a state-approved, one-year training pro- mission (NLNAC) or the Commission on Colle-
gram at a technical or vocational school, community giate Nursing Education (CCNE), has determined
college, or high school. You must also pass a licensing that the nursing school has met certain educa-
exam. If you want to become an LPN first, but wish to tional criteria. Earning your degree from an
continue your education to become an RN, you can accredited school can give you an edge in the job
enroll in an LPN-to-RN program. These programs market—when employers review your educa-
give you credit for your LPN coursework, so you can tional background, they know you were trained
build upon your training to become an RN. according to an established set of standards.
Attending an accredited school also allows you to
4
continue your education at a graduate-level choice or searching the Internet for funding possibili-
accredited school. To find out if your preferred ties from a variety of sources, such as the following:
school is accredited, contact a school representa-
tive or go to the NLNAC’s website at ■ Government: The U.S. Department of Education
www.nlnac.org/home.htm. offers a range of loans and scholarships. The U.S.
■ Pass rate. What percentage of the school’s stu- military also offers financial aid for service peo-
dents passed the nursing licensing exam after ple. State governments often provide aid for stu-
graduating? Ask a school representative for infor- dents attending school in their home state.
mation about pass rates from the last five years. ■ Your prospective school: Check with the school of
■ What is its focus? Consider what kind of nursing your choice about its scholarships. In addition to
program interests you (for example, are you aid based on your financial need, you may qualify
interested in a particular clinical specialty?) for a merit-based grant, scholarship, or fellowship.
before you begin your school search. After you ■ Your employer: Find out if your employer offers
choose what kind of program interests you, look scholarships or tuition reimbursement benefits
for the institution that meets your needs. for education.
■ School size and class size. Do you want the close- ■ Nursing associations: State nursing associations
knit community of a small school or the wider and national professional organizations are other
mix of students you will find at a large school? possible sources for financial aid.
Make sure to research the student-to-teacher
ratios at prospective schools. Smaller class sizes
often mean more attention from faculty. How This Book Can Help You
■ Clinical experience. What kind of clinical place-
ments does the school offer? How much time Nursing School Entrance Exam will help you maximize
does it allot for clinical experience? You can find your chances of scoring high on your upcoming
this information by talking to current students. exam. Preparing for this important admissions test
does not have to be overwhelming—this book will
help you organize your preparation process and break
Financing Your it down into manageable steps. Not only does it
Nursing Education include hundreds of practice questions and answers, it
explains study strategies, so that you can better utilize
Planning how you are going to pay for your nursing your time and better learn the key concepts that will
education is essential to your preparation process. The appear on your exam. It also offers test-taking tips, a
cost of nursing education can be considerable—a four- study planner, and practice tests designed from actual
year program at a state university can be $14,000 a entrance exams used by nursing schools today. The
year, and private schools can be more than twice as explanatory answers that follow the simulated tests
much. Fortunately, many resources offer financial are a study guide of their own—helping you under-
assistance to nursing students. Financial aid may be stand and review essential ideas and terms. The fol-
awarded based on financial need or on merit and lowing is an overview of what you can expect in every
comes in three basic forms—scholarships, loans, or chapter.
student employment. Be sure to fill out a financial aid In Chapter 2, you will learn important test-taking
form when you apply to nursing school—this form strategies, such as how to pace yourself during the
helps schools determine your financial need. Plan on exam, when to guess, and how to combat test anxiety.
visiting the financial aid office at the school of your This chapter presents specific study techniques, giving
5
WEB RESOURCES
For more information about funding sources, check FedMoney.org
out these Web resources: www.fedmoney.org
This is an online guide to all U.S. federal govern-
U.S. Department of Education ment financial aid programs.
www.ed.gov
This website has an online financial aid form and American Association of Colleges of Nursing
offers federal scholarship information. (AACN)
www.aacn.nche.edu
National Health Service Corps (NHSC) In addition to giving information about scholarships
http://nhsc.bhpr.hrsa.gov/ offered by the AACN, this website has links to other
A division of U.S. Department of Health and Human government funding sources as well as to other
Services, the NHSC offers scholarships and loans for nursing organizations that offer scholarships.
students who agree to practice in a medically under-
served area. National Student Nurses’ Association (NSNA)
www.nsna.org
The NSNA offers a scholarship program for nursing
students at a range of degree levels.
you several study methods that will aid you in increas- important terminology and concepts that you need to
ing your understanding and retention of material. Vary- know for your exam. The biology, chemistry, and gen-
ing your study methods will help you avoid boredom in eral science chapters present material in a clear, concise
your study sessions and make it easier to learn compli- outline form, so you can easily peruse each subtopic
cated or difficult topics. You will also learn how to avoid and focus your attention where you need it most. At
last-minute studying. Be sure to review the helpful the conclusion of each chapter, you will find a list of
strategies in this chapter before you take the practice additional resources to help you review topics
tests and begin the self-evaluation process described comprehensively.
later on in this chapter. Each of these chapters also provides an overview
Chapter 3 contains the first of three practice of the kinds of questions you will encounter on the
exams. Use the first practice exam as a self-evaluation. exam and how to tackle them. In addition, you will
Once you complete this practice test and score your- find practice questions throughout, so you can hone
self, you can diagnose your strengths and your test-taking skills while you review each topic.
weaknesses—those areas in which you need more Chapters 10 and 11 contain the last two practice
preparation. You can greatly increase the effectiveness tests. These sample exams use multiple-choice ques-
of your preparation by targeting your weakest subjects tions just like the ones you will encounter on exam
and allotting your study time accordingly. day. By taking these simulated tests and reviewing the
Chapters 4–9 cover the subject areas found on answer explanations, you will familiarize yourself
most nursing school entrance exams: “Verbal Ability,” with the question types, test format, and subject mat-
“Reading Comprehension,” “Math,” “Biology,” “Chem- ter so that you’ll feel more prepared and confident on
istry,” and “General Science.” Each chapter breaks testing day. Read on for more about developing your
down and organizes each review topic, highlighting own study plan, with suggestions about when to take
6
the practice tests so that you can check your scores tests—the NET, RNSAE, and APNE. If you know you
and still have enough time to focus on the areas in will need to take one of these tests, contact the testing
which you need to improve. agencies in each section for more information about
registration, testing locations, and dates.
Test Overview Registered Nursing School Aptitude

Exam (RNSAE)
To begin preparing for the test, you need an overview Nursing programs that offer degrees ranging from the
of the type of exam you are facing, and some tips on bachelor’s level to a master’s degree may require that
how to use this book to achieve your best test score. applicants take the RNSAE. Developed by the Psycho-
Schools have different requirements for admission, logical Services Bureau, Inc., this exam consists of five
depending on the institution, your choice of study, and parts and takes about two and a half hours to complete.
whether you are applying for a one-year LPN degree, The first section is divided into three subsections.
a two-year RN degree, a four-year BSN degree, a hos-
pital diploma program, or a graduate program. Many ■ Part 1: Academic Aptitude
accredited nursing schools ask candidates to pass the Verbal, 30 questions
Registered Nursing School Aptitude Exam (RNSAE), Math, 30 questions
or the Nurses Entrance Test (NET), or the Evolve Nonverbal, 30 questions
Reach Admission Assessment Exam (HESI A2), or the ■ Part 2: Spelling, 50 questions
Test of Essential Academic Skills (TEAS). Community ■ Part 3: Reading Comprehension, 40 questions
college LPN programs may require applicants to take ■ Part 4: Natural Sciences (Chemistry, Biology,
the Aptitude for Practical Nursing Exam (APNE). Health), 90 questions
However, even if the school of your choice uses ■ Part 5: Vocational Adjustment, 90 questions
another exam, you will most likely need to demon-
strate the essential skills covered in this book. You must Aptitude for Practical Nursing Exam
show that you can communicate effectively, read and (APNE)
understand college-level materials, and utilize basic The Psychological Services Bureau test for practical
math skills. You may also be asked to demonstrate that nursing varies somewhat from the exam for registered
you have fundamental knowledge about biology, nursing. Many community colleges with practical
chemistry, natural science, anatomy, and physiology. nursing programs use the APNE.
Contact the school of your choice immediately to
learn about its admissions requirements and test dates ■ Part 1: Academic Aptitude
and sites in your area. The dates when the test is Verbal, 30 questions
offered in your area may determine when you take the Math, 30 questions
exam. However, if you have a choice of test dates and Nonverbal, 30 questions
have not already applied to take the exam, do not apply ■ Part 2: Spelling, 50 questions
until you have conducted the self-evaluation outlined ■ Part 3: Natural Sciences (Chemistry, Biology,
in this chapter. The results of that self-evaluation can Health), 90 questions
help you decide when to take the exam. ■ Part 4: Judgment and Comprehension in Practi-
The following provides contact information for cal Nursing Situations, 50 questions
and an overview of the common nursing aptitude ■ Part 5: Vocational Adjustment, 90 questions
7
To register for the RNSAE or the APNE, or to If you know you need to take the NET, contact
learn about testing sites, contact the school of your the school you are applying to or the testing agency for
choice, or: more information about the test:
Educational Resources, Inc.

Psychological Services Bureau, Inc.
7500 West 160th Street
Health Careers Aptitude Tests
Stilwell, KS 66085
977 Seminole Trail
800-667-7531
PMB 317
www.eriworld.com
Charlottesville, VA 22901
434-293-5865
Evolve Reach Admission Assessment
www.psbtests.com
Exam (HESI A2)
Email: info@psbtests.com
The HESI A2 test is often required as an entrance exam-
ination to an accredited nursing program. Each school
Nurse Entrance Test (NET)
requires the specific sections it would like its applicants
Many RN and LPN nursing programs use the NET as
to complete. This guide will help you prep for the basic
a pre-admissions test. This approximately two-and-a-
skills portions of the HESI, along with the biology,
half-hour test measures your ability in two general
chemistry, and anatomy and physiology content.
academic areas: your critical reading ability and your
The academic portion of the HESI A2 exam con-
knowledge of basic math. The test includes two aca-
sists of the following:
demic sections:
■ Mathematics, 50 questions
■ Mathematics, 60 questions ■ Reading Comprehension, 47 questions
■ Reading Comprehension, 33 questions ■ Vocabulary and General Knowledge,
50 questions
Some schools require a different version of this ■ Grammar, 50 questions
test that includes a written expression section. Find out ■ Chemistry, 50 questions
from the training program of your choice whether this ■ Anatomy and Physiology, 25 questions
is required. If it is, you will have an additional hour to ■ Biology, 25 questions
complete this section. ■ Physics, 25 questions
In addition to reading comprehension and math
questions, the basic NET includes questions that eval- Test of Essential Academic Skills (TEAS)
uate your learning style, stress, and social skills. These Nursing schools sometimes require that students take
nonacademic sections include the following: Test- the TEAS, which can predict whether or not students
Taking Skills (30 questions); Stress Level (45 ques- have the skills required for nursing school and
tions); Social Interaction Profile (30 questions); and NCLEX-RN or PN success. Developed by ATI Nursing
Learning Style (50 questions). These sections are not Education, this exam is a multiple-choice assessment
used to determine whether you will be accepted into a of basic academic knowledge in reading, mathemat-
nursing school. The purpose of these sections is to ics, science, and English.
help learning institutions after a student has been The TEAS consists of a total of 170 questions:
accepted to their program—it aids the school in con- ■ The Math subtest, 45 questions
sidering how a student will best learn—and to increase ■ The Science subtest, 30 questions
the likelihood that a student will complete the pro- ■ The English subtest, 55 questions
gram successfully. ■ The Reading subtest, 40 questions
8
2
THE
C H A P T E R
LEARNINGEXPRESS
TEST PREPARATION
SYSTEM
CHAPT ER S UM M ARY
Taking a nursing school entrance exam can be tough, and your career
in nursing depends on your passing the exam. The LearningExpress
Test Preparation System, developed exclusively for LearningExpress
by leading test experts, gives you the discipline and attitude you
need to succeed.
F irst, the bad news: Taking the nursing school entrance exam is no picnic, and neither is getting ready
for it. Your future career depends on passing the test, but there are all sorts of pitfalls that can keep you
from doing your best on this all-important exam. Here are some of the obstacles that can stand in the
way of your success:
■ Being unfamiliar with the format of the exam

■ Being paralyzed by test anxiety
■ Leaving your preparation to the last minute
■ Not preparing at all!
■ Not knowing vital test-taking skills: how to pace yourself through the exam, how to use the process of
elimination, and when to guess
■ Not being in tip-top mental and physical shape
■ Arriving late at the test site, having to work on an empty stomach, or shivering through the exam because
the room is cold
9
– THE LEARNINGEXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM –
What’s the common denominator in all these Step 1: Get Information

test-taking pitfalls? One word: control. Who’s in con-
trol: you or the exam? Activities: Read Chapter 1, “Nursing School Entrance
Now the good news: The LearningExpress Test Exam Planner,” and use the suggestions there to
Preparation System puts you in control. In just nine find out about your requirements.
easy-to-follow steps, you will learn everything you Knowledge is power. Therefore, first, you have to find
need to know to make sure that you are in charge of out everything you can about the nursing school
your preparation and your performance on the exam. entrance exam. Once you have your information, the
Other test takers may let the test get the better of them; next steps will show you what to do about it.
other test takers may be unprepared or out of shape—
but not you. You will have taken all the steps you need Part A: Straight Talk about
to take to get a high score on the nursing school the Nursing School Entrance Exam
entrance exam. Why do you have to take this exam, anyway? Because an
Here’s how the LearningExpress Test Preparation increasing number of people need the kind of care that
System works: Nine easy steps lead you through every- only a nurse can provide. And, since more and more
thing you need to know and do to master your exam. people need these services, there is growing concern
Each of the steps listed below includes both reading about the quality of care the patients receive. One way
about the step and one or more activities. It is impor- to try to ensure quality of care is to test the people who
tant that you do the activities along with the reading, give that care to find out if they have been well trained.
or you won’t be getting the full benefit of the system. And that’s why your state or the agency you want to
work for may require you to take a written exam.
Step 1. Get Information It is important for you to remember that your
Step 2. Conquer Test Anxiety score on the written exam does not determine how
Step 3. Make a Plan smart you are or even whether you will make a good
Step 4. Learn to Manage Your Time nurse. There are all kinds of things a written exam like
Step 5. Learn to Use the Process of Elimination this can’t test: whether you are likely to show up late or
Step 6. Know When to Guess call in sick a lot, whether you can be patient with a try-
Step 7. Reach Your Peak Performance Zone ing client, or whether you can be trusted with confi-
Step 8. Get Your Act Together dential information about people’s health. Those
Step 9. Do It! kinds of things are hard to evaluate on a written exam.
However, it is easy to evaluate whether you can cor-
If you have several hours, you can work through rectly answer questions about your job duties.
the whole LearningExpress Test Preparation System in This is not to say that correctly answering the
one sitting. Otherwise, you can break it up and do just questions on the written exam is not important! The
one or two steps a day for the next several days. It is up knowledge tested on the exam is knowledge you will
to you—remember, you are in control. need to do your job, and your ability to enter the pro-
fession for which you have trained depends on your
passing this exam. And that’s why you are here—to
achieve control over the exam.
10
Part B: What’s on the Test Stress Management Before the Test

If you haven’t already done so, stop here and read If you feel your level of anxiety getting the best of you
Chapter 1 of this book, which gives you an overview of in the weeks before the test, here is what you need to
the written exam. Later, you will have the opportunity do to bring the level down again:
to take the sample practice exams in Chapters 3, 10,
and 11. ■ Get prepared. There’s nothing like knowing what
to expect and being prepared for it to put you in
control of test anxiety. That’s why you are reading
Step 2: Conquer Test Anxiety this book. Use it faithfully, and remind yourself
that you are better prepared than most of the
Activity: Take the Test Anxiety Quiz on page 12. people taking the test.
Having complete information about the exam is the ■ Practice self-confidence. A positive attitude is a
first step in getting control of the exam. Next, you have great way to combat test anxiety. This is no time
to overcome one of the biggest obstacles to test success: to be humble or shy. Stand in front of the mirror
test anxiety. Test anxiety can not only impair your per- and say to your reflection, “I’m prepared. I’m full
formance on the exam itself; it can even keep you from of self-confidence. I’m going to ace this test. I
preparing! In this step, you will learn stress manage- know I can do it.” If you hear it often enough, you
ment techniques that will help you succeed on your will come to believe it.
exam. Learn these strategies now, and practice them as ■ Fight negative messages. Every time someone
you complete the exams in this book so that they will starts telling you how hard the exam is or how it
be second nature to you by exam day. is almost impossible to get a high score, start
telling them your self-confidence messages above.
Combating Test Anxiety If the someone with the negative messages is you
The first thing you need to know is that a little test anx- telling yourself you don’t do well on exams or you
iety is a good thing. Everyone gets nervous before a big just can’t do this, don’t listen.
exam—and if that nervousness motivates you to pre- ■ Visualize. Imagine yourself reporting for duty on
pare thoroughly, so much the better. Many well-known your first day as a nurse. Think of yourself help-
people throughout history have experienced anxiety or ing patients and making them more comfortable.
nervousness—from performers such as actor Sir Lau- Imagine coming home with your first paycheck.
rence Olivier and singer Aretha Franklin to writers Visualizing success can help make it happen—
such as Charlotte Brontë and Alfred Lord Tennyson. In and it reminds you of why you are working so
fact, anxiety probably gave them a little extra edge— hard to pass the exam.
just the kind of edge you need to do well, whether on ■ Exercise. Physical activity helps calm down your
a stage or in an examination room. body and focus your mind. Besides, being in good
Stop here and complete the Test Anxiety Quiz on physical shape can actually help you do well on
the next page to find out whether your level of test the exam. Go for a run, lift weights, or go
anxiety is something you should worry about. swimming—and do it regularly.
11
TEST ANXIETY QUIZ
You need to worry about test anxiety only if it is extreme enough to impair your performance. The following
questionnaire will provide a diagnosis of your level of test anxiety. In the blank before each statement, write the
number that most accurately describes your experience.
0 = Never
1 = Once or twice
2 = Sometimes
3 = Often
I have gotten so nervous before an exam that I simply put down the books and didn’t study for it.
I have experienced disabling physical symptoms, such as vomiting and severe headaches, because I was
nervous about an exam.
I have simply not showed up for an exam because I was scared to take it.
I have experienced dizziness and disorientation while taking an exam.
I have had trouble filling in the little circles because my hands were shaking.
I have failed an exam because I was too nervous to complete it.
Total: Add up the numbers in the blanks above.
Your Test Anxiety Score

Here are the steps you should take, depending on your score. If you scored:
■ Below 3, your level of test anxiety is nothing to worry about; it is probably just enough to give you that
little extra edge.
■ Between 3 and 6, your test anxiety may be enough to impair your performance, and you should practice
the stress management techniques listed in this section to try to bring your test anxiety down to manage-
able levels.
■ Above 6, your level of test anxiety is a serious concern. In addition to practicing the stress management
techniques listed in this section, you may want to seek additional, personal help. Call your local high school
or community college and ask for the academic counselor. Tell the counselor that you have a level of test
anxiety that sometimes keeps you from being able to take an exam. The counselor may be willing to help
you or may suggest someone else with whom you should talk.
12
Stress Management on Test Day accept what has happened. Say to yourself, “Hey,
There are several ways you can bring down your level I lost it there for a minute. My brain is taking a
of test anxiety on test day. They will work best if you break.” Put down your pencil, close your eyes, and
practice them in the weeks before the test, so that you do some deep breathing for a few seconds. Then
know which ones work best for you. you will be ready to go back to work.
■ Deep breathing. Take a deep breath while you Try these techniques ahead of time, and see if
count to five. Hold it for a count of one, then let they don’t work for you!
it out for a count of five. Repeat several times.
■ Move your body. Try rolling your head in a circle.
Rotate your shoulders. Shake your hands from Step 3: Make a Plan
the wrist. Many people find these movements
very relaxing. Activity: Construct a study plan.
■ Visualize again. Think of the place where you are Maybe the most important thing you can do to get
most relaxed: lying on the beach in the sun, walk- control of yourself and your exam is to make a study
ing through the park, or whatever makes you feel plan. Too many people fail to prepare simply because
good. Now close your eyes and imagine you are they fail to plan. Spending hours poring over sample
actually there. If you practice in advance, you will test questions the day before the exam not only raises
find that you only need a few seconds of this your level of test anxiety, but also will not replace care-
exercise to experience a significant increase in ful preparation and practice over time.
your sense of well-being. Don’t fall into the cram trap. Take control of your
preparation time by mapping out a study schedule. On
When anxiety threatens to overwhelm you right the following pages are two sample schedules based on
there during the exam, there are still things you can do the amount of time you have before you take the writ-
to manage the stress level. ten exam. If you are the kind of person who needs
deadlines and assignments to motivate you for a proj-
■ Repeat your self-confidence messages. You ect, here they are. If you are the kind of person who
should have them memorized by now. Say them doesn’t like to follow other people’s plans, you can use
quietly to yourself and believe them! the suggested schedules here to construct your own.
■ Visualize one more time. This time, visualize Even more important than making a plan is mak-
yourself moving smoothly and quickly through ing a commitment. You can’t review everything you
the test, answering every question correctly, and learned in your nursing courses in one night. You need
finishing just before time is up. Like most visuali- to set aside some time every day for study and practice.
zation techniques, this one works best if you have Divide your test preparation into sessions of at least 20
practiced it ahead of time. minutes a day. Small, manageable, daily sessions over
■ Find an easy question. Skim over the test until the course of several weeks will do you much more
you find an easy question, and answer it. Getting good than two hours of cramming on Saturday. In
even one circle filled in gets you into the test- addition, making study notes, creating visual aids, and
taking groove. memorizing can be quite useful as you prepare. Each
■ Take a mental break. Everyone loses concentra- time you begin to study, quickly review your last lesson.
tion once in a while during a long test. It is nor- This act will help you retain all you have learned and
mal, so you shouldn’t worry about it. Instead, help you assess if you are studying effectively. You may
13
realize you are not remembering some of the material tion is within a certain range; that is, it is rare to score
you studied earlier. Approximately one week before under 50% in one section and over 90% in another. If
your exam, try to determine the areas that are still most you are one of those rare types, don’t worry; it just
difficult for you. shows you where most of your preparation time
Don’t put off your study until the day before the should go.
exam. Start now. A few minutes a day, with half an But if you are more typical, where your section
hour or more on weekends, can make a big difference scores tend to cluster on the following chart should tell
in your score. you something about when you should take the exam,
if you have a choice, and how much time you will have
Self-Evaluation to put in to prepare. If your score in a section clusters
One way to find out how to focus your study time is to in the “under 25%” category, you should really con-
conduct a self-evaluation. Begin by taking the practice sider postponing taking the exam until you have had
test in Chapter 3 to highlight areas in which you are some time for serious study. If your score is in the mid-
strongest and those in which you need more work. You do dle ranges, then you can go ahead and take the exam,
not have to time yourself—just make sure you have allotted but you should plan to put aside a fair amount of time
enough time to complete the test in one sitting. When to study between now and exam day. Finally, if your
you have finished, score your exam using the answer key score is in the “over 75%” category, you can still bene-
at the end of that chapter. Then, match your percentages fit from the practice tests and review chapters in this
on each section with the analysis below. book—your study time will most likely ensure a high
Most people do better on some sections of the score on the entrance exam.
exam than on others, but most also find that the varia-
SECTION SCORE ANALYSIS
under 25% You need concentrated work in this area. Your best bet is to take an additional
course. If that is not possible, contact your school’s guidance or academic coun-
seling office to arrange for a tutor. Turn to the chapter of this book pertaining to
this section of the test only after you have taken that course or spent at least two
months in tutoring; at that point, you will be ready to get maximum benefit from
the tips and practice questions in the chapter.
51–74% This area may not be your strong suit, which is why you should not only work
through the relevant chapter, but also use the additional resources listed at the end
of that chapter. You might want to find a tutor or form a study group with other stu-
dents preparing for a nursing school entrance exam.
over 75% Congratulations! You do not need a lot of work in this area. Turn to the relevant
chapter of this book to pick up vital tips and practice that can give you extra points
in this area.
14
Planning for Success Would you rather hear your friend read the directions to
Based on the amount of time you have before the exam, you and tell you which part connects to another? Or do
four customized schedules follow. If you are the kind of you draw your own diagram?
person who needs deadlines and assignments to moti- The three main learning methods are visual,
vate you for a project, here they are. If you prefer to auditory, and kinesthetic. Determining which type of
design your own study timeline, use the suggested learner you are will help you create tools for studying.
schedules to help you create an effective plan.
Be sure to research the content of the specific 1. Visual Learners need to see the information in the
entrance test you will be taking in order to adapt the form of maps, pictures, text, words, or math exam-
given schedules for your exam. For example, if you are ples. Outlining notes and important points in col-
taking the NET, you may plan to spend less time on the orful highlighters and taking note of diagrams and
science-related chapters, realizing that this topic is not pictures may be key in helping you study.
covered with as much depth as the RNSAE or APNE. 2. Auditory Learners retain information when they
(However, because the reading comprehension section can hear directions, the spelling of a word, a
of the NET focuses on science material, do not skip math theorem, or poem. Repeating information
these chapters altogether!) aloud or listening to your notes on a tape
In constructing your plan, you should take into recorder may help. Many auditory learners also
account how much work you need to do. If your scores find working in study groups or having someone
on the first practice exam were not what you hoped, quiz them beneficial.
you should take some of the steps from Schedule A and 3. Kinesthetic Learners must do! They need to
work them into Schedule D somehow, even if you have draw diagrams, write directions, etc. Rewriting
only two weeks before the exam. Similarly, your scores notes on index cards or making margin notes in
on the practice exam should help determine how their textbooks also helps kinesthetic learners to
much time you have to spend preparing each week. If retain information.
you scored low, you might need to devote several hours
a day to test preparation. If you scored high, a few Mnemonics
hours a week will probably be enough. Mnemonics are memory tricks that help you remem-
Even more important than making a plan is ber what you need to know. The three basic principles
making a commitment. You cannot get ready over- in the use of mnemonics are imagination, association,
night for a nursing school entrance exam. Set aside and location. Acronyms (words created from the first
some time every day—or every other day, if your scores letters in a series of words) are common mnemonics.
were high and you have months until the exam—for One acronym you may already know is HOMES, for
study and practice. An hour every day or every other the names of the Great Lakes (Huron, Ontario, Michi-
day will do you much more good than a day or two of gan, Erie, and Superior). ROY G. BIV reminds people
cramming right before the exam. of the colors in the visible light spectrum (Red,
Orange, Yellow, Green, Blue, Indigo, and Violet).
Learning Styles Depending on the type of learner you are, mnemonics
Each of us absorbs information differently. The way that can also be colorful or vivid images, stories, word asso-
works best for you is called your dominant learning ciations, or catchy rhymes that you create yourself. Any
method. If you were to help a friend assemble a bookcase type of learner, whether visual, auditory, or kinesthetic,
that arrived in many pieces, how would you begin? Do can use mnemonics to help the brain store and inter-
you need to read the directions and see the diagram? pret information.
15
Schedule A: Six Months to Exam

You have taken the first practice test in Chapter 3 and know that you have at least six months in which to build
on your strengths and improve in areas where you are weak. Do not put off your preparation. In six months of
five hours a week, you can make a significant difference in your score.
TIME PREPARATION
Exam minus 6 months Pick the one section in which your percentage score on the practice exam was
lowest to concentrate on this month. Read the relevant chapters from among
Chapters 4–9 and work through the exercises. Use the additional resources
listed in that chapter. When you get to that chapter in the plan below, review it.
Exam minus 5 months Read Chapter 5, “Reading Comprehension,” and work through the exercises. Prac-
tice reading textbooks and professional journal articles about healthcare, and quiz
yourself on each chapter or article you read. Read Chapter 9, “General Science
Review,” using your reading comprehension skills. Find other people who are
preparing for the exam and form a study group.
Exam minus 4 months Read Chapter 7, “Biology Review,” and work through the sample questions. Use
the resources listed at the end of the chapter for a comprehensive review. Doing
all this reading is a good way to practice your reading comprehension skills, too.
Exam minus 3 months Read Chapter 8, “Chemistry Review,” and work through the exercises. Use the
resources listed at the end of the chapter, or your old textbooks, to review topics
you are shaky on.
Exam minus 2 months Read Chapter 6, “Math Review,” and work through the exercises. Give yourself
additional practice by making up your own test questions in the areas that give
you the most trouble.
Exam minus 4 weeks Read Chapter 4, “Verbal Ability,” and work through the exercises. Use at least one
additional resource listed here.
Exam minus 2 weeks Take the practice test in Chapter 10. Use your scores to help you decide your
focus for this week. Go back to the relevant chapters and get the help of a
teacher or your study group.
Exam minus 1 week Review the first two sample tests, especially the answer explanations. Then, take
the practice exam in Chapter 11 for extra practice. As you study this week, concen-
trate on your strongest areas and decide not to let any areas where you still feel
uncertain bother you. Go to bed early every night this week so you can be at your
best by test time.
Exam minus 1 day Relax. Do something unrelated to your nursing school entrance exam. Eat a
good meal and go to bed at your new early bedtime.
16
Schedule B: Three to Six Months to Exam

If you have three to six months until the exam, you have just enough time to prepare, as long as you put in at least
seven or eight hours a week. This schedule assumes you have four months; stretch it out or compress it if you have
more or less time.
TIME PREPARATION
Exam minus 4 months Read Chapter 5, “Reading Comprehension,” and work through the exercises.
Practice your reading comprehension skills as you work through Chapter 9,
“General Science Review,” and the resources listed at the end of that chapter.
Find other people who are preparing for the exam and form a study group.
Exam minus 3 months Read Chapters 7 and 8, “Biology Review” and “Chemistry Review,” and work
through the exercises. Use the resources listed at the end of the chapter, or your
old textbooks, to review topics you’re shaky on.
Exam minus 2 months Read Chapter 6, “Math Review,” and work through the exercises. Give yourself
additional practice by making up your own test questions in the areas that give
you the most trouble.
Exam minus 4 weeks Read Chapter 4, “Verbal Ability,” and work through the exercises. Use at least one
of the additional resources listed there.
Exam minus 2 weeks Take the practice test in Chapter 10. Use your scores to help you decide where
to concentrate your efforts this week. Go back to the relevant chapters and get
help from a teacher or your study group.
Exam minus 1 week Review the first two sample tests, especially the answer explanations. Read over
the test-taking strategies in Chapter 2. Then, take the sample test in Chapter 11
for extra practice. Choose the one area in which your scores are lowest to review
this week. Go to bed early every night this week so you can be at your peak by test
time.
17
Schedule C: One to Three Months to Exam

If you have one to three months until the exam, you still have time to get ready, but you should plan to put in ten
hours a week. This schedule is built around a two-month time frame. If you have only one month, spend a cou-
ple of extra hours a week so you can get all the steps in. If you have three months, include some of the steps from
Schedule B.
TIME PREPARATION
Exam minus 8 weeks Read Chapter 5, “Reading Comprehension,” and work through the exercises.
Use your reading comprehension skills as you review Chapter 9, “General
Science Review.”
Exam minus 6 weeks Read Chapters 7 and 8, “Biology Review” and “Chemistry Review,” and work
through the exercises. Use the resources listed at the end of the chapters, or your
Exam minus 4 weeks Read Chapter 6, “Math Review,” and work through the exercises.
Exam minus 2 weeks Read Chapter 4, “Verbal Ability,” and work through the exercises.
Exam minus 1 week Take the practice test in Chapter 10. Use your scores to help you decide where
to concentrate your efforts this week. Go back to the relevant chapters, and get
the help of a teacher or friend. Go to bed early every night this week so you can
be at your peak by test time.
Exam minus 4 days Take the practice exam in Chapter 11 for extra practice.
18
Schedule D: Two to Four Weeks to Exam

If you have just two to four weeks until the exam, you really have your work cut out for you. Carve two hours out
of your day, every day, for study. This schedule shows you how to make the most of your time if you have just two
weeks. If you have an extra week or two, spend more time with the resources listed at the end of Chapters 4–9.
TIME PREPARATION
Exam minus 14 days Read Chapter 5, “Reading Comprehension,” and work through the exercises.
Use your reading comprehension skills as you review Chapter 9, “General
Science Review.” Work through the exercises in that chapter.
Exam minus 12 days Read Chapters 7 and 8, “Biology Review” and “Chemistry Review,” and work
through the exercises. Use the resources listed at the end of the chapter, or your
Exam minus 10 days Read Chapter 6, “Math Review,” and work through the exercises.
Exam minus 8 days Read Chapter 4, “Verbal Ability,” and work through the exercises. Go to bed early
every night this week so you can be at your peak by test time.
Exam minus 6 days Take the practice test in Chapter 10. Based on your scores, choose one or two
areas to review until the day before the exam. Go back to the relevant instructional
chapters and get the help of a teacher or friend. Go to bed early every night this
week so you can be at your peak by test time.
Exam minus 4 days Take the practice exam in Chapter 11 for extra practice.
Step 4: Learn to Manage exam booklet, read them carefully. Ask ques-
Your Time tions before the exam begins if there’s anything
you don’t understand. If you are allowed to
Activities: Practice these strategies as you take the write in your exam booklet, write down the
sample tests in this book. beginning time and the ending time of the
Steps 4, 5, and 6 of the LearningExpress Test Prepara- exam.
tion System put you in charge of your exam by show- ■ Pace yourself. Glance at your watch every few
ing you test-taking strategies that work. Practice these minutes, and compare the time to how far you
strategies as you take the sample tests in this book, and have gotten in the test. When one-quarter of the
then you will be ready to use them on test day. time has elapsed, you should be a quarter of
First, you will take control of your time on the the way through the test, and so on. If you are
exam. Most nursing school entrance exams have a time falling behind, pick up the pace a bit.
limit, which may give you more than enough time to ■ Keep moving. Don’t dither around on one ques-
complete all the questions. Then again, they may not. tion. If you don’t know the answer, skip the
It is a terrible feeling to hear the examiner say, “Five question and move on. Circle the number of the
minutes left,” when you are only three-quarters of the question in your test booklet in case you have
way through the test. Here are some tips to keep that time to come back to it later.
from happening to you: ■ Keep track of your place on the answer sheet. If
you skip a question, make sure that you also skip
■ Follow directions. If the directions are given the question on the answer sheet. Check yourself
orally, listen to them. If they are written on the every five to ten questions to make sure that the
19
number of the question still corresponds with the ■ Start with choice a. This one is pretty easy to
number on the answer sheet. eliminate; none of these signs and symptoms is
■ Don’t rush. Though you should keep moving, likely to indicate a heart attack. Mark an X next
rushing won’t help. Try to keep calm and work to choice a so that you never have to look at it
methodically and quickly. again.
■ On to choice b. “Dull chest pain” looks good,
though if you are not up on your cardiac signs
Step 5: Learn to Use and symptoms you might wonder if it should
the Process of Elimination be “acute chest pain” instead. “Sudden sweat-
ing” and “difficulty breathing”? Check. And
Activity: Complete worksheet on Using the Process that’s what you write next to choice b—a check
of Elimination (see page 22). mark, meaning “good answer; I might use this
After time management, your next most important one.”
tool for taking control of your exam is using the ■ Choice c is a possibility. Maybe you don’t really
process of elimination wisely. It is standard test-tak- expect wheezing in a heart-attack victim, but you
ing wisdom that you should always read all the know “chest pain” is right, and let’s say you are
answer choices before choosing your answer. This not sure whether “dizziness” is a sign of cardiac
helps you find the right answer by eliminating difficulty. Put a question mark next to choice c,
wrong answer choices. And, sure enough, that stan- meaning “well, maybe.”
dard wisdom applies to your nursing school entrance ■ Choice d is also a possibility. “Difficulty breath-
exam, too. ing” is a good sign of a heart attack. But wait a
Let’s say you are facing a question that goes minute. “High fever”? Not really. “Chills”? Well,
like this: maybe. This doesn’t really sound like a heart
attack, and you already have a better answer
picked out in choice b. If you are feeling sure of
Which of the following lists of signs and yourself, put an X next to this one. If you want to
symptoms indicates a possible heart attack? be careful, put a question mark. Now your ques-
a. headache, nausea, confusion tion looks like this:
b. dull chest pain, sudden sweating, difficulty
breathing Which of the following lists of signs and symp-
c. wheezing, dizziness, chest pain toms indicates a possible heart attack?
d. difficulty breathing, high fever, chills X a. headache, nausea, confusion
✓ b. dull chest pain, sudden sweating, difficulty
You should always use the process of elimina- breathing
tion on a question like this, even if the right answer ? c. wheezing, dizziness, chest pain
jumps out at you. Sometimes, the answer that ? d. difficulty breathing, high fever, chills
jumps out isn’t right after all. Let’s assume, for the
purpose of this exercise, that you are a little rusty on You have only one check mark for a good answer.
the signs and symptoms of a heart attack, so you If you are pressed for time, you should simply mark
need to use a little intuition to make up for what you choice b on your answer sheet. If you have the time to
don’t remember. Proceed through the answer choices be extra careful, you could compare your check-mark
in order.
20
answer to your question-mark answers to make sure to perform daily tasks such as feeding and bathing
that it is better. themselves.
It is good to have a system for marking good, Even when you think you are absolutely clueless
bad, and maybe answers. We recommend this one: about a question, you can often use the process of
elimination to get rid of at least one answer choice. If
X = bad so, you are better prepared to make an educated guess,
✓ = good as you will see in Step 6. More often, you can eliminate
? = maybe answers until you have only two possible answers.
Then you are in a strong position to guess.
If you don’t like these marks, devise your own Try using your powers of elimination on the
system. Just make sure you do it long before test day— questions in the worksheet Using the Process of Elimi-
while you are working through the practice exams in nation, found on the previous pages. The questions are
this book—so you won’t have to worry about it during not about nursing; they are just designed to show you
the test. how the process of elimination works. The answer
explanations for this worksheet show one possible way
Key Words you might use this process to arrive at the right answer.
Often, identifying key words in a question will help
you in the process of elimination. Words such as
always, never, all, only, must, and will often make state- Step 6: Know When to Guess
ments incorrect. Here is an example of an incorrect
statement: Activity: Complete worksheet on Your Guessing
Ability (see page 23).
When a nurse is preparing to ambulate a client, making Armed with the process of elimination, you are ready
sure the client is wearing proper footwear will always to take control of one of the big questions in test tak-
prevent him or her from falling. ing: Should I guess? The first and main answer is Yes.
Some exams have what’s called a “guessing penalty,” in
The word always in this statement makes it which a fraction of your wrong answers is subtracted
incorrect. Nurses must also take other measures, in from your right answers, but nursing school entrance
addition to providing proper footwear, when ambu- exams don’t tend to work like that. The number of
lating a resident, such as proper body mechanics and questions you answer correctly yields your raw score.
providing support to the client. So you have nothing to lose and everything to gain by
Words like usually, may, sometimes, and most may guessing.
make a statement correct. Here is an example of a cor- The more complicated answer to the question
rect statement: “Should I guess?” depends on you—your personality
and your “guessing intuition.” There are two things you
Clients of healthcare facilities and hospitals may need need to know about yourself before you go into the
help with tasks such as being fed and bathed. exam:
The word may makes this statement correct. Are you a risk-taker?
There are clients in facilities who may be too ill or weak Are you a good guesser?
21
USING THE PROCESS OF ELIMINATION
Use the process of elimination to answer the following questions.
1. Ilsa is as old as Meghan will be in five years. The 3. Smoking tobacco has been linked to
difference between Ed’s age and Meghan’s age a. increased risk of stroke and heart attack.
is twice the difference between Ilsa’s age and b. all forms of respiratory disease.
Meghan’s age. Ed is 29. How old is Ilsa? c. increasing mortality rates over the past ten
a. 4 years.
b. 10 d. juvenile delinquency.
c. 19
d. 24 4. Which of the following words is spelled
correctly?
2. “All drivers of commercial vehicles must carry a a. incorrigible
valid commercial driver’s license whenever oper- b. outragous
ating a commercial vehicle.” c. domestickated
According to this sentence, which of the d. understandible
following people need NOT carry a commercial
driver’s license?
a. a truck driver idling his engine while waiting
to be directed to a loading dock
b. a bus operator backing her bus out of the
way of another bus in the bus lot
c. a taxi driver driving his personal car to the
grocery store
d. a limousine driver taking the limousine to her
home after dropping off her last passenger of
the evening
Answers
Here are the answers, as well as some suggestions as to how you might have used the process of elimination
to find them.
1. d. You should have eliminated choice a off the 2. c. Note the word not in the question, and go
bat. Ilsa can’t be four years old if Meghan is through the answers one by one. Is the truck
going to be Ilsa’s age in five years. The best driver in choice a “operating a commercial
way to eliminate other answer choices is to vehicle”? Yes, idling counts as “operating,”
try plugging them in to the information given so he needs to have a commercial driver’s
in the problem. For instance, for choice b, if license. Likewise, the bus operator in choice
Ilsa is 10, then Meghan must be 5. The differ- b is operating a commercial vehicle; the
ence in their ages is 5. The difference question doesn’t say the operator has to be
between Ed’s age, 29, and Meghan’s age, 5, on the street. The limo driver in choice d is
is 24. Is 24 two times 5? No. Then choice b is operating a commercial vehicle, even if it
wrong. You could eliminate choice c in the doesn’t have a passenger in it. However, the
same way and be left with choice d. cabbie in answer c is not operating a com-
mercial vehicle, but his own private car.
22
USING THE PROCESS OF ELIMINATION (continued)
3. a. You could eliminate choice b simply because able to eliminate two answers and have only
of the presence of the word all. Such two from which to choose.) And choice d is
absolutes hardly ever appear in correct plain silly, so you could eliminate that one,
answer choices. Choice c looks attractive until too. You are left with the correct choice, a.
you think a little about what you know— 4. a. How you used the process of elimination
aren’t fewer people smoking these days, here depends on which words you recog-
rather than more? So how could smoking be nized as being spelled incorrectly. If you knew
responsible for a higher mortality rate? (If you that the correct spellings were outrageous,
didn’t know that mortality rate means the rate domesticated, and understandable, then you
at which people die, you might keep this were home free.
choice as a possibility, but you would still be
YOUR GUESSING ABILITY
The following are ten really hard questions. You are not supposed to know the answers. Rather, this is an assess-
ment of your ability to guess when you don’t have a clue. Read each question carefully, just as if you did expect
to answer it. If you have any knowledge of the subject, use that knowledge to help you eliminate wrong answer
choices.
1. September 7 is Independence Day in 4. American author Gertrude Stein was born in

a. India. a. 1713.
b. Costa Rica. b. 1830.
c. Brazil. c. 1874.
d. Australia. d. 1901.
2. Which of the following is the formula for deter- 5. Which of the following is NOT one of the Five
mining the momentum of an object? Classics attributed to Confucius?
a. p = MV a. I Ching
b. F = ma b. Book of Holiness
c. P = IV c. Spring and Autumn Annals
d. E = mc2 d. Book of History
3. Because of the expansion of the universe, the 6. The religious and philosophical doctrine that
stars and other celestial bodies are all moving holds that the universe is constantly in a strug-
away from each other. This phenomenon is gle between good and evil is known as
known as a. Pelagianism.
a. Newton’s first law. b. Manichaeism.
b. the big bang. c. neo-Hegelianism.
c. gravitational collapse. d. Epicureanism.
d. Hubble flow.
23
YOUR GUESSING ABILITY (continued)
7. The third Chief Justice of the U.S. Supreme How Did You Do?
Court was You may have simply gotten lucky and actually known
a. John Blair. the answer to one or two questions. In addition, your
b. Oliver Ellsworth. guessing was probably more successful if you were
c. James Wilson. able to use the process of elimination on any of the
d. John Jay. questions. Maybe you didn’t know who the third Chief
Justice was (question 7), but you knew that John Jay
8. Which of the following is the most poisonous was the first. In that case, you would have eliminated
portion of a daffodil? choice d and therefore improved your odds of guess-
a. the bulb ing right from one in four to one in three.
b. the leaves According to probability, you should get two-
c. the roots and-a-half answers correct, so getting either two or
d. the flowers three right would be average. If you got four or more
right, you may be a really terrific guesser. If you got
9. The winner of the Masters golf tournament in one or none right, you may be a really bad guesser.
1953 was Keep in mind, though, that this is only a small
a. Sam Snead. sample. You should continue to keep track of your
b. Cary Middlecoff. guessing ability as you work through the sample
c. Arnold Palmer. questions in this book. Circle the numbers of ques-
d. Ben Hogan. tions you guess on as you make your guess; or, if you
don’t have time while you take the practice tests, go
10. The state with the highest per capita personal back afterward and try to remember which questions
income in 1980 was you guessed at. Remember, on a test with four answer
a. Alaska. choices, your chance of guessing correctly is one in
b. Connecticut. four. So keep a separate “guessing” score for each
c. New York. exam. How many questions did you guess on? How
d. Texas. many did you get right? If the number you got right
is at least one-fourth of the number of questions you
Answers guessed on, you are at least an average guesser—
Check your answers against the following correct maybe better—and you should always go ahead and
answers. guess on the real exam. If the number you got right is
significantly lower than one-fourth of the number you
1. c. guessed on, you would be safe in guessing anyway.
2. a. However, you might feel more comfortable if you only
3. d. guessed selectively when you can eliminate a wrong
4. c. answer or when you have a good feeling about one of
5. b. the answer choices.
6. b. Frankly, even if you are a play-it-safe person with
7. b. lousy intuition, you are still safe guessing every time.
8. a.
9. d.
10. a.
24
You will have to decide about your risk-taking performance is simply a balanced diet. Eat plenty of
quotient on your own. To find out if you are a good fruits and vegetables, along with protein and carbohy-
guesser, complete the worksheet, Your Guessing Ability, drates. Foods that are high in lecithin (an amino acid),
on page 23. such as fish and beans, are especially good “brain foods.”
The night before the exam, you might “carbo-
load” the way athletes do before a contest. Eat a big
Step 7: Reach Your Peak plate of spaghetti, rice and beans, or whatever your
Performance Zone favorite carbohydrate is.
Activity: Complete the Physical Preparation Checklist. Rest

To get ready for a challenge like a big exam, you have You probably know how much sleep you need every
to take control of your physical, as well as your men- night to be at your best, even if you don’t always get it.
tal, state. Exercise, proper diet, and rest in the weeks Make sure you do get that much sleep, though, for at
prior to the test will ensure that your body works with, least a week before the exam. Moderation is important
rather than against, your mind during your prepara- here, too. Extra sleep will just make you groggy.
tion and on test day. If you are not a morning person and your exam
will be given in the morning, you should reset your
Exercise internal clock so that your body doesn’t think you are
If you don’t already have a regular exercise program taking an exam at 3 A.M. You have to start this process
going, the time during which you are preparing for an well before the exam. The way it works is to get up half
exam is an excellent time to start one. And if you are an hour earlier each morning, and then go to bed half
already keeping fit—or trying to get that way—don’t an hour earlier that night. Don’t try it the other way
let the pressure of preparing for an exam fool you into around; you will just toss and turn if you go to bed
quitting now. Exercise helps reduce stress by pumping early without having gotten up early. The next morn-
feel-good hormones, called endorphins, into your sys- ing, get up another half an hour earlier, and so on.
tem. It also increases the oxygen supply throughout How long you will have to do this depends on how late
your body, including your brain, so you will be at peak you are used to getting up.
performance on test day.
A half hour of vigorous activity—enough to raise
a sweat—every day should be your aim. If you are Step 8: Get Your
really pressed for time, every other day is OK. Choose Act Together
an activity you like and get out there and do it. Jogging
with a friend or while listening to music always makes Activity: Complete Final Preparations worksheet on
the time go faster. page 28.
But don’t overdo it. You don’t want to exhaust You are in control of your mind and body. You are in
yourself. Moderation is the key. charge of test anxiety, your preparation, and your test-
taking strategies. Now it is time to take charge of exter-
Diet nal factors, like the testing site and the materials you
First, cut out the junk. Go easy on caffeine and nicotine, need to take the exam.
and eliminate alcohol from your system at least two
weeks before the exam. What your body needs for peak
25
PHYSICAL PREPARATION CHECKLIST
For the week before the test, write down 1) what physical exercise you engaged in and for how long and 2) what
you ate for each meal. Remember, you’re aiming for at least half an hour of exercise every other day (prefer-
ably every day) and a balanced diet that’s light on junk food.
Exam minus 7 days Exam minus 3 days

Exercise: ______ for ______ minutes Exercise: ______ for ______ minutes
Breakfast: Breakfast:
Lunch: Lunch:
Dinner: Dinner:
Snacks: Snacks:
Exam minus 6 days Exam minus 2 days

Lunch: Lunch:
Dinner: Dinner:
Snacks: Snacks:
Exam minus 5 days Exam minus 1 day

Lunch: Lunch:
Dinner: Dinner:
Snacks: Snacks:
Exam minus 4 days

Exercise: ______ for ______ minutes
Breakfast:
Lunch:
Dinner:
Snacks:
26
Find Out Where the Test Is and Make Step 9: Do It!

a Trial Run
The testing agency or your nursing school advisor will Activity: Ace the nursing school entrance exam!
notify you when and where your exam is being held. Fast forward to exam day. You are ready. You made a
Do you know how to get to the testing site? Do you study plan and followed through. You practiced your
know how long it will take to get there? If not, make a test-taking strategies while working through this
trial run, preferably on the same day of the week at the book. You are in control of your physical, mental, and
same time of day. Make note on the worksheet Final emotional states. You know when and where to show
Preparations on page 28 of the amount of time it will up and what to bring with you. In other words, you are
take you to get to the exam site. Plan on arriving at better prepared than most of the other people taking
least ten to 15 minutes early so you can get the lay of the nursing school entrance exam with you. You are
the land, use the bathroom, and calm down. Then fig- psyched.
ure out how early you will have to get up that morning, Just one more thing. . . . When you are done with
and make sure you get up that early every day for a the exam, you deserve a reward. Plan a celebration.
week before the exam. Call up your friends and plan a party, or have a nice
dinner for two—whatever your heart desires. Give
Gather Your Materials yourself something to look forward to.
The night before the exam, lay out the clothes you will And then do it. Go into the exam, full of confi-
wear and the materials you have to bring with you to dence, armed with test-taking strategies you have prac-
the exam. Plan on dressing in layers; you won’t have ticed until they are second nature. You are in control of
any control over the temperature of the examination yourself, your environment, and your performance on
room. Have a sweater or jacket you can take off if it is the exam. You are ready to succeed. So do it. Go in
warm. Use the checklist on the worksheet Final Prep- there and ace the exam. And look forward to your
arations on page 28 to help you pull together what you future career as a nurse!
will need.
Don’t Skip Breakfast

Even if you don’t usually eat breakfast, do so on exam
morning. A cup of coffee doesn’t count. Don’t eat
doughnuts or other sweet foods, either. A sugar high
will leave you with a sugar low in the middle of the
exam. A mix of protein and carbohydrates is best:
Cereal with milk and just a little sugar, or eggs with
toast, will do your body a world of good.
27
FINAL PREPARATIONS
Getting to the Exam Site
Location of exam site:
Date:
Departure time:
Do I know how to get to the exam site? Yes No (If no, make a trial run.)
Time it will take to get to exam site:
Things to Lay Out the Night Before
Clothes I will wear
Sweater/jacket
Watch
Photo ID
Four #2 pencils
Other Things to Bring/Remember
28
3
C H A P T E R
PRACTICE EXAM I
CHAPT ER S UM M ARY
This is the first of three practice exams in this book based on actual
nursing school entrance exams commonly used in the field today.
Use this test to see how you would do if you had to take the test
today.
T he practice test in this chapter is modeled on real entrance exams required by nursing education pro-
grams. Like many nursing school entrance exams, this practice test measures your skills, abilities, and
knowledge of four core subjects: Verbal Ability, Math, Science, and Reading Comprehension. It uses
a multiple-choice format, with four answer choices, a through d. The types of questions in the practice test reflect
the kinds of test questions you will likely encounter on your entrance exam.
The practice test is divided into four sections, each covering the four main topics outlined above. On the
actual test, each section will be timed separately, and the whole test will last about two to three hours. Here, you
do not have to worry about timing—just try to relax and do your best. Remember: The goal of the practice test
is to familiarize yourself with the test format and type of questions and to highlight the areas where you need to
concentrate your study and preparation. Make sure that you have scheduled enough time to complete the test
without major interruptions, taking only short breaks between sections.
On the following pages, you will find an answer sheet. Use this sheet to mark your answers, filling in the ovals
that correspond with your answer choices. Each question has only one correct answer, so do not fill in more than
one oval per item. The answer key is located on page 72. Although you should not refer to it while you take the
practice test, be sure to review the answer explanations carefully after you have finished. A section about how to
score your exam follows the answer key.
29
– LEARNINGEXPRESS ANSWER SHEET –
Section 1: Verbal Ability

1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
8. a b c d 25. a b c d 42. a b c d
9. a b c d 26. a b c d 43. a b c d
10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d 46. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d 47. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d 48. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d 49. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d 50. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d
Section 2: Reading Comprehension

1. a b c d 16. a b c d 31. a b c d
2. a b c d 17. a b c d 32. a b c d
3. a b c d 18. a b c d 33. a b c d
4. a b c d 19. a b c d 34. a b c d
5. a b c d 20. a b c d 35. a b c d
6. a b c d 21. a b c d 36. a b c d
7. a b c d 22. a b c d 37. a b c d
8. a b c d 23. a b c d 38. a b c d
9. a b c d 24. a b c d 39. a b c d
10. a b c d 25. a b c d 40. a b c d
11. a b c d 26. a b c d 41. a b c d
12. a b c d 27. a b c d 42. a b c d
13. a b c d 28. a b c d 43. a b c d
14. a b c d 29. a b c d 44. a b c d
15. a b c d 30. a b c d 45. a b c d
31
Section 3: Quantitative Ability
1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
8. a b c d 25. a b c d 42. a b c d
9. a b c d 26. a b c d 43. a b c d
10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d 46. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d 47. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d 48. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d 49. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d 50. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d
Section 4: General Science
1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
8. a b c d 25. a b c d 42. a b c d
9. a b c d 26. a b c d 43. a b c d
10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d 46. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d 47. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d 48. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d 49. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d 50. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d
32
Section 5: Biology
1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
8. a b c d 25. a b c d 42. a b c d
9. a b c d 26. a b c d 43. a b c d
10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d 46. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d 47. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d 48. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d 49. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d 50. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d
Section 6: Chemistry
1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
8. a b c d 25. a b c d 42. a b c d
9. a b c d 26. a b c d 43. a b c d
10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d 46. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d 47. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d 48. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d 49. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d 50. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d
33
– PRACTICE EXAM I –
Section 1: Verbal Ability 8. a. errantt

b. errant
Find the correctly spelled word in the following c. errent
questions. d. erant
1. a. weigh 9. a. obssession
b. wiegh b. obsessian
c. weaigh c. obsession
d. wieigh d. obsessiun
2. a. procede 10. a. jeoperdy

b. proceid b. jepardy
c. proceed c. jeapardy
d. procied d. jeopardy
3. a. portrit 11. a. magnifisint

b. portrate b. magnifisent
c. portrait c. magnificent
d. portiat d. magnifficent
4. a. miscelaneous 12. a. monotonous

b. miscellaneous b. monotinous
c. miscellaneus c. monotonus
d. misellaneous d. monotonos
5. a. manageable 13. a. eligable

b. managable b. elligible
c. manageble c. eligibal
d. mannagable d. eligible
6. a. catalog 14. a. inquiry

b. catolog b. inquirry
c. catilog c. enquirry
d. catologe d. enquery
7. a. definately 15. a. terminated

b. definitely b. termenated
c. defenately c. terrminated
d. defanitely d. termanated
35
16. a. persecution 24. a. asspirations

b. pursecution b. asparations
c. presecution c. aspirrations
d. persecusion d. aspirations
17. a. peculior 25. a. excercise

b. peculiar b. exercise
c. peculliar c. exersize
d. piculear d. exercize
18. a. psycology Find the misspelled word in the following questions.

b. psycholigy
c. psychollogy 26. a. friend
d. psychology b. feirce
c. cried
19. a. lisense d. no mistakes
b. lisence
c. lycence 27. a. preperation
d. license b. government
c. quiet
20. a. credental d. no mistakes
b. credential
c. credentshil 28. a. propose
d. credentile b. rabble
c. quadrupal
21. a. necessatate d. no mistakes
b. necessitat
c. necesitate 29. a. cutlary
d. necessitate b. donation
c. insight
22. a. stabilize d. no mistakes
b. stablize
c. stableize 30. a. obesity
d. stabalize b. bees
c. quaintly
23. a. irelevent d. no mistakes
b. irelevant
c. irrelevant 31. a. stein
d. irrelevent b. hieght
c. perceive
d. no mistakes
36
32. a. suite 40. a. geometry

b. tedium b. perimeter
c. emporer c. circumferance
d. no mistakes d. no mistakes
33. a. incorporate 41. a. transparent

b. contridict b. worrys
c. exhale c. lightning
34. a. pertain 42. a. primarily

b. reversel b. finallity
c. memorization c. specifically
35. a. deceased 43. a. porridge

b. feroscious b. reprehensable
c. evolve c. resonance
36. a. inquire 44. a. animosity

b. monogram b. venture
c. restrain c. caffiene
37. a. phenomonal 45. a. balcony

b. emulate b. delenquent
c. misconception c. emergency
38. a. mischief 46. a. gratitude

b. temperture b. horrendous
c. lovable c. forcast
39. a. dictionary 47. a. rightious

b. auditorium b. strenuous
c. biology c. manageable
37
48. a. sincerly 50. a. digestion

b. faithfully b. resperation
c. reliably c. circulation
49. a. label
b. vacency
c. medal
d. no mistakes
38
Section 2: of bronchial epithelium and thickening of the

Reading Comprehension subbasement membrane is also characteristic.
In addition, there may be hypertrophy and
Read each passage and answer the accompanying ques- hyperplasia of airway smooth muscle, increase
tions based solely on the information found in the pas- in goblet cell number, and enlargement of
sage. You have 45 minutes to complete this section. submucous glands.
Although causes of the initial tendency
toward inflammation in the airways of patients
No longer is asthma considered a condition with asthma are not yet certain, to date the
with isolated, acute episodes of bronchospasm. strongest identified risk factor is atopy. This
Rather, asthma is now understood to be a inherited familial tendency to have allergic
chronic inflammatory disorder of the reactions includes increased sensitivity to
airways—that is, inflammation makes the allergens that are risk factors for developing
airways chronically sensitive. When these asthma. Some of these allergens include
hyper-responsive airways are irritated, air domestic dust mites, animals with fur,
flow is limited, and attacks of coughing, cockroaches, pollens, and molds. Additionally,
wheezing, chest tightness, and difficulty in asthma may be triggered by viral respiratory
breathing occur. infections, especially in children. By avoiding
Asthma involves complex interactions these allergens and triggers, a person with
among inflammatory cells, mediators, and the asthma lowers the risk of irritating sensitive
cells and tissues in the airways. The interactions airways. A few avoidance techniques include
result in airflow limitation from acute keeping the home clean and well-ventilated,
bronchoconstriction, swelling of the airway using an air conditioner in the summer months
wall, increased mucus secretion, and airway when pollen and mold counts are high, and
remodeling. The inflammation also causes an getting an annual influenza vaccination. Of
increase in airway responsiveness. During an course, asthma sufferers should avoid tobacco
asthma attack, the patient attempts to smoke altogether. Cigar, cigarette, and pipe
compensate by breathing at a higher lung smoke are triggers whether the patient smokes
volume in order to keep the air flowing through or breathes in the smoke from others. Smoke
the constricted airways, and the greater the increases the risk of allergic sensitization in
airway limitation, the higher the lung volume children and increases the severity of symptoms
must be to keep airways open. The in children who already have asthma. Many of
morphologic changes that occur in asthma the risk factors for developing asthma may also
include bronchial infiltration by inflammatory provoke asthma attacks, and people with
cells. Key effector cells in the inflammatory asthma may have one or more triggers, which
response are the mast cells, lymphocytes, and vary from individual to individual. The risk can
eosinophils. Mast cells and eosinophils are also be further reduced by taking medications that
significant participants in allergic responses, decrease airway inflammation. Most
hence the similarities between allergic reactions exacerbations can be prevented by the
and asthma attacks. Other changes include combination of avoiding triggers and taking
mucus plugging of the airways, interstitial anti-inflammatory medications. An exception
edema, and microvascular leakage. Destruction is physical activity, which is a common trigger
39
of exacerbations in asthma patients. However, 3. The passage suggests that, in the past, asthma
asthma patients should not necessarily avoid all was regarded as
physical exertion, because some types of a. a result of the overuse of tobacco products.
activity have actually been proven to reduce b. a hysterical condition.
symptoms. Rather, they should work in c. mysterious, unrelated attacks affecting the
conjunction with a doctor to design a proper lungs.
training regimen including the use of d. a chronic condition.
medication.
In order to diagnose asthma, a healthcare 4. Which of the following would be the best
professional must appreciate the underlying replacement for the word exacerbations in this
disorder that leads to asthma symptoms and passage?
understand how to recognize the condition a. attacks
through information gathered from the b. allergies
patient’s history, physical examination, c. triggers
measurements of lung function, and allergic d. allergens
status. Because asthma symptoms vary
throughout the day, the respiratory system may 5. The passage mentions all of the following
appear normal during physical examination. allergens to which people with asthma may be
Clinical signs are more likely to be present particularly sensitive EXCEPT
when a patient is experiencing symptoms; a. domestic dust mites.
however, the absence of symptoms at the time b. pollens.
of the examination does not exclude the c. cockroaches.
diagnosis of asthma. d. cigarette smoke.
1. What is a symptom of a chronic inflammatory 6. Which of the following triggers, albeit surprising,
disorder of the airways? is mentioned as possibly being able to reduce the
a. allergies symptoms of asthma in some patients?
b. influenza a. using a fan instead of an air conditioner
c. chest tightness b. second-hand cigarette smoke
d. lymphocyte swelling c. a family pet
d. physical exercise
2. Why does a person suffering from an asthma
attack attempt to inhale more air? 7. Why might a patient with asthma have an
a. to prevent the loss of consciousness apparently normal respiratory system during
b. to keep air flowing through shrunken air an examination by a doctor?
passageways a. Asthma symptoms come and go throughout
c. to prevent hyperplasia the day.
d. to compensate for weakened mast cells, b. Severe asthma occurs only after strenuous
lymphocytes, and eosinophils physical exertion.
c. Doctors’ offices are usually smoke-free and
very clean.
d. The pollen and mold count may be low that
day.
40
8. Who might be the most logical audience for 4) various safety factors. The evaluation
this passage? determines an appropriate level of use that
a. researchers studying the respiratory system includes a built-in safety margin—a factor that
b. healthcare professionals allows for uncertainty about the levels of
c. a mother whose child has been diagnosed consumption that are expected to be harmless.
with asthma In other words, the levels of use that gain
d. an anti-smoking activist approval are much lower than what would be
expected to have any adverse effect.
9. What is the reason given for why second-hand Because of inherent limitations of science,
smoke should be avoided by children? the FDA can never be absolutely certain of the
a. A smoke-filled room is most likely a absence of any risk from the use of any substance.
breeding ground for viral respiratory Therefore, the FDA must determine—based
infections. on the best science available—if there is a
b. Smoke can stunt an asthmatic child’s reasonable certainty of no harm to consumers
growth. when an additive is used as proposed.
c. Breathing smoke can lead to a fatal asthma If an additive is approved, the FDA issues
attack. regulations that may include the types of foods
d. Smoke can heighten the intensity of asthma in which the additive can be used, the
symptoms. maximum amounts to be used, and how it
should be identified on food labels. In 1999,
Today, food and color additives are more procedures changed so that the FDA now
strictly studied, regulated, and monitored than consults with the United States Department of
at any other time in history. The Food and Agriculture (USDA) during the review process
Drug Administration (FDA) has the primary for ingredients that are proposed for use in
legal responsibility for determining their safe meat and poultry products. Federal officials
use. To market a new food or color additive (or then monitor the extent of Americans’
before using an additive already approved for consumption of the new additive and results of
one use in another manner not yet approved), a any new research on its safety to ensure its use
manufacturer or other sponsor must first continues to be within safe limits.
petition the FDA for its approval. These If new evidence suggests that a product
petitions must provide evidence that the already in use may be unsafe, or if consumption
substance is safe for the ways in which it will be levels have changed enough to require another
used. Since 1999, indirect additives have been look, federal authorities may prohibit the use of
approved via a pre-market notification process that product or conduct further studies to
requiring the same data as was previously determine if its use can still be considered safe.
required by petition. Regulations known as Good Manufactur-
When evaluating the safety of a substance ing Practices (GMP) limit the number of food
and whether it should be approved, the FDA ingredients used in foods to the amount
considers: 1) the composition and properties necessary to achieve the desired effect.
of the substance, 2) the amount of the
substance that would typically be consumed,
3) immediate and long-term health effects, and
41
10. Which of the following does the FDA take 14. At what point does the FDA issue regulations
under consideration when evaluating a regarding an additive?
substance for possible approval? a. as soon as the additive has been tested
a. its cost b. after the additive has been shown to be
b. its chemical makeup harmful
c. its palatability c. before the additive has been submitted for
d. its possible appeal to the general public testing
d. after the additive has been approved
11. According to the passage, which of the
following is true? 15. What is the main idea of the passage?
a. The FDA considers the properties of a a. Current dangerous food practices have
substance when evaluating its safety. caused increased FDA activity in recent
b. The FDA is in charge of developing new years.
food and color additives. b. The FDA is the organization responsible for
c. The FDA approves more new food and making sure the substances you consume
color additives than it rejects. are safe.
d. The FDA is solely responsible for reviewing c. 1999 was a year of major change in the food
ingredients used in poultry products. and drug industry.
d. The FDA is in charge of setting Good
12. What does reasonable certainty of no harm Manufacturing Practices for society.
mean?
a. The FDA has only so much capability to test Medical waste has been a growing concern
a substance fully before it is out on the because of recent incidents of public exposure
commercial market. to discarded blood vials, needles (sharps),
b. The FDA makes a notation of whether or empty prescription bottles, and syringes.
not it feels a product is reasonable in the Medical waste can typically include general
economic climate. refuse, human blood and blood products,
c. An FDA seal of approval means that the cultures and stocks of infectious agents,
government guarantees no danger will come laboratory animal carcasses, contaminated
from consumption. bedding material, and pathological wastes.
d. There is a 75% assurance that a product is Wastes are collected by gravity chutes,
safe for human consumption. carts, or pneumatic tubes. Chutes are limited to
vertical transport, and there is some risk of
13. The FDA does NOT have the right to exhausting contaminants into hallways if a door
a. lower the amount of money charged for a is left open during use. Another disadvantage of
food product using a recently approved gravity chutes is that the waste container may get
additive. jammed while dropping or broken upon hitting
b. set limitations on the amount of a food dye the bottom. Carts are primarily for horizontal
that can be used in a certain product. transport of bagged or containerized wastes. The
c. determine the language used on a food’s main risk here is that bags may be broken or torn
nutrition label. during transport, potentially exposing the
d. have a say in the way beef is commercially worker to the wastes. Using automated carts can
prepared. reduce the potential for exposure. Pneumatic
42
tubes offer the best performance for waste trans- Steam sterilization is limited in the types
port in a large facility. Advantages include high- of medical waste it can treat but is appropriate
speed movement, movement in any direction, for laboratory cultures and/or substances
and minimal intermediate storage of untreated contaminated with infectious organisms. The
wastes. However, some objects cannot be con- waste is subjected to steam in a sealed,
veyed pneumatically. pressurized chamber. The liquid that may form
Off-site disposal of regulated medical is drained off to the sewer or sent for
wastes remains a viable option for smaller processing. The unit is then reopened after a
hospitals (those with fewer than 150 beds). vapor release to the atmosphere, and the solid
Some preliminary on-site processing, such as waste is taken out for further processing or
compaction or hydropulping, may be necessary disposal. One advantage of steam sterilization is
prior to sending the waste off-site. Compaction that it has been used for many years in hospitals
reduces the total volume of solid wastes, often to sterilize instruments and containers and to
reducing transportation and disposal costs, but treat small quantities of waste. However, since
it does not change the hazardous characteristics sterilization does not change the appearance of
of the waste. However, compaction may not be the waste, there could be a problem in gaining
economical if transportation and disposal costs acceptance of the waste for landfilling.
are based on weight rather than volume. A properly designed, maintained, and
Hydropulping involves grounding the operated incinerator achieves a relatively high
waste in the presence of an oxidizing fluid, such level of organism destruction. Incineration
as hypochlorite solution. The liquid is reduces the weight and volume of the waste as
separated from the pulp and discharged directly much as 95% and is especially appropriate for
into the sewer, unless local limits require pathological wastes and sharps. The most
additional pretreatment prior to discharge. The common incineration system for medical waste
pulp can often be disposed of at a landfill. One is the controlled-air type. The principal
advantage is that waste can be rendered advantage of this type of incinerator is low
innocuous and reduced in size within the same particulate emissions. Rotary kiln and grate-
system. Disadvantages are the added operating type units have been used, but use of grate-type
burden, difficulty of controlling fugitive units has been discontinued due to high air
emission, and the difficulty of conducting emissions. The rotary kiln also puts out high
microbiological tests to determine whether all emissions, and the costs have been prohibitive
organic matters and infectious organisms from for smaller units.
the waste have been destroyed.
On-site disposal is a feasible alternative 16. One disadvantage of the compaction method
for hospitals generating two tons per day or of waste disposal is that it
more of total solid waste. Common treatment a. cannot reduce transportation costs.
techniques include steam sterilization and b. reduces the volume of solid waste material.
incineration. Although other options are c. does not allow hospitals to confirm that
available, incineration is currently the preferred organic matter has been eliminated.
method for on-site treatment of hospital waste. d. does not reduce the weight of solid waste
material.
43
17. For small hospitals, medical wastes may be 22. The process that transforms waste from
disposed hazardous to harmless AND diminishes waste
a. in hydropulping facilities. volume is
b. off site. a. sterilization.
c. in compactors. b. hydropulping.
d. on site. c. oxidizing.
d. compacting.
18. Which of the following could be safely
disposed of in a landfill but might not be 23. As it is used in the fourth paragraph of the
accepted by landfill facilities? passage, the word grounding most nearly
a. hydropulped material means
b. sterilized waste a. confirming.
c. incinerated waste b. descending.
d. laboratory cultures c. compressing.
d. instructing.
19. The two processes mentioned that involve the
formation of liquid are 24. Budgetary constraints have precluded some
a. compaction and hydropulping. small hospitals from purchasing
b. incineration and compaction. a. pneumatic tubes.
c. hydropulping and sterilization. b. rotary kilns.
d. sterilization and incineration. c. sterilization equipment.
d. controlled-air kilns.
20. Two effective methods for treating waste
caused by infectious matter are The immune system is equal in complexity to
a. steam sterilization and incineration. the combined intricacies of the brain and
b. hydropulping and steam sterilization. nervous system. The success of the immune
c. incineration and compaction. system in defending the body relies on a
d. hydropulping and incineration. dynamic regulatory-communications network
consisting of millions and millions of cells.
21. Hospitals can minimize employee contact with Organized into sets and subsets, these cells pass
dangerous waste by switching from information back and forth like clouds of bees
a. a manual cart to a gravity chute. swarming around a hive. The result is a
b. an automated cart to a hydropulping sensitive system of checks and balances, which
machine. produces an immune response that is prompt,
c. a gravity chute to a manual cart. appropriate, effective, and self-limiting.
d. a manual cart to an automated cart. At the heart of the immune system is the
ability to distinguish between self and nonself.
When immune defenders encounter cells or
organisms carrying foreign or nonself molecules,
the immune troops move quickly to eliminate the
intruders. Virtually every body cell carries
distinctive molecules that identify it as self. The
body’s immune defenses do not normally attack
44
tissues that carry a self marker. Rather, immune others at stimulating an immune response.
cells and other body cells coexist peaceably in a Only in abnormal situations does the immune
state known as self-tolerance. When a normally system wrongly identify self as nonself and
functioning immune system attacks a nonself execute a misdirected immune attack. The
molecule, the system has the ability to result can be a so-called autoimmune disease,
“remember” the specifics of the foreign body. such as rheumatoid arthritis or systemic lupus
Upon subsequent encounters with the same erythematosus. The painful side effects of these
species of molecules, the immune system reacts diseases are caused by a person’s immune
accordingly. With the possible exception of system actually attacking itself.
antibodies passed during lactation, this so-called
immune system memory is not inherited. 25. Which of the following is the analogy used in
Despite the occurrence of a virus in your family, the passage to describe the communications
your immune system must “learn” from network among the cells in the immune
experience with the many millions of distinctive system?
nonself molecules in the sea of microbes in a. the immune system’s memory
which we live. Learning entails producing the b. immune troops eliminating intruders
appropriate molecules and cells to match up with c. bees swarming around a hive
and counteract each nonself invader. d. a sea of microbes
Any substance capable of triggering an
immune response is called an antigen. Antigens 26. One symptom of a person’s immune system
are not to be confused with allergens, which are attacking itself is
most often harmless substances (such as a. an excess of antigens.
ragweed pollen or cat hair) that provoke the b. indigestion.
immune system to set off the inappropriate and c. rejection of foreign tissues.
harmful response known as allergy. An antigen d. pain.
can be a virus, a bacterium, a fungus, a parasite,
or even a portion or product of one of these 27. What is the specific term used in the passage
organisms. Tissues or cells from another for the substance capable of triggering an
individual (except an identical twin, whose cells inappropriate or harmful immune response to
carry identical self markers) also act as a harmless substance such as ragweed pollen?
antigens; because the immune system a. antigen
recognizes transplanted tissues as foreign, it b. microbe
rejects them. The body will even reject c. allergen
nourishing proteins unless they are first broken d. autoimmune disease
down by the digestive system into their
primary, non-antigenic building blocks. An 28. How do the cells in the immune system
antigen announces its foreignness by means of recognize an antigen as “foreign” or “nonself ”?
intricate and characteristic shapes called a. through an allergic response
epitopes, which protrude from its surface. Most b. through blood type
antigens, even the simplest microbes, carry c. through fine hairs protruding from the
several different kinds of epitopes on their antigen surface
surface; some may even carry several hundred. d. through characteristic shapes on the antigen
Some epitopes will be more effective than surface
45
29. After you have had the chicken pox, your Notebooks, erasers, pencil sets, and backpacks are
immune system will be able to do all of the on most kids’ back-to-school lists. But if your
following EXCEPT child has diabetes, you should add a few extra
a. protect your offspring from infection by the tasks to the list. At the top, put “good
chicken pox virus. communication,” with your child and with the
b. distinguish between your body cells and school. Planning ahead, and getting help from
those of the chicken pox virus. others, will help pave the way for a successful year.
c. “remember” previous experiences with the Diabetes is a serious and lifelong condition,
chicken pox virus. and it’s a growing problem among children and
d. match up and counteract nonself molecules teens. About 186,000 Americans under age 20
in the form of the chicken pox virus. have diabetes. Most have type 1 diabetes, which
usually first appears during childhood. But in
30. Which of the following best expresses the main recent years a growing number of kids have been
idea of this passage? diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, a disease that in
a. The basic function of the immune system is the past primarily struck adults over age 45.
to distinguish between self and nonself. Excess weight and inactivity puts children and
b. An antigen is any substance that triggers an teens at risk for type 2 diabetes.
immune response. When you have diabetes, you have too
c. One of the immune system’s primary much glucose in your blood. Over time, this
functions is the allergic response. excess glucose can damage both large and small
d. The human body presents an opportune blood vessels, leading to heart disease, stroke,
habitat for microbes. nerve damage, blindness, and kidney disease.
That’s why people with diabetes must regularly
31. Based on the information in the passage, why check their blood glucose. They need to keep
would tissue transplanted from father to their levels from dropping by using strategies like
daughter have a greater risk of being detected as snacking. When their glucose is too high, insulin
foreign than tissue transplanted between can help to bring it down. Essentially, they have
identical twins? to manage their blood glucose level 24 hours a
a. The age of the twins’ tissue would be the day, seven days a week.
same and, therefore, less likely to be rejected. This intensive management can be
b. The twins’ tissue would carry the same self daunting to kids during school. They may
markers and would therefore be less likely to wonder: What happens if I feel light-headed or
be rejected. need a snack in the middle of class? Will I be
c. The difference in the sex of the father and okay in gym class? When should I go to the
daughter would cause the tissue to be nurse? These are all issues you should discuss
rejected by the daughter’s immune system. ahead of time with school staff and with your
d. The twins’ immune systems would child. Work with your child’s healthcare team to
“remember” the same encounters with develop a written diabetes management plan
childhood illnesses. outlining your child’s specific medical needs.
Make sure key staff members, like your child’s
teacher, have a copy of the plan.
46
Heading back to school with diabetes can 35. Which of the following is not true about
be a challenge. But by eating regular meals, glucose?
making healthy food choices, staying active, and a. After a few years of healthy living, glucose
taking medications, kids with diabetes can do levels even themselves out.
all the things their friends do and more. With b. Too much glucose can eventually destroy
planning and good communication, you can kidney function.
help your child have a healthy and happy c. Food is a way of raising glucose levels when
school year. they dip too low.
d. Levels of blood glucose need to be
32. What is a good title for the passage? monitored carefully.
a. The Obesity Epidemic: How Diabetes Is
Affecting Youth in the Twenty-First Century 36. According to the passage, children with
b. Knowledge Is Power: Teaching Your diabetes
Children about Their Diabetes a. should restrict calories and food intake in
c. Healthy and Happy: Good Living Tips for order to lose weight.
Children and Teens b. must take care when playing team sports
d. Snack Your Way to a Healthy Body because they are susceptible to many
diseases.
33. Which of the following put(s) children and c. need to become very familiar with their own
teens at risk for type 2 diabetes? blood glucose levels.
a. high estrogen levels d. contract the disease by eating too much
b. excess weight and inactivity sugar at an early age.
c. overactive thyroid
d. being taller than average 37. People with diabetes need insulin when
a. their glucose levels are too low.
34. According to the passage, which of the b. their blood pressure is too low.
following is true? c. their glucose levels are too high.
a. It is easier for a child to regulate his or her d. their blood pressure is too high.
diabetes if he or she is homeschooled.
b. Only people with diabetes have glucose in 38. According to the passage, too much blood
their system. glucose can lead to all of the following health
c. Diabetes is a private disease that a child problems EXCEPT
should learn to regulate on his or her own. a. heart disease.
d. Children with diabetes should pack snacks b. kidney disease.
in their schoolbags. c. stroke.
d. paralysis.
39. What does the word intensive mean in the

fourth paragraph?
a. rigorous
b. difficult
c. painful
d. confusing
47
40. According to the passage, the parents of 42. According to the passage, which of the
children with diabetes should following is true?
a. keep their child indoors at all times. a. When a cell undergoes mitosis, the result is
b. make sure their child does not do any the same as its parent cell.
physical activity. b. The most important type of cell division is
c. develop a diabetes management plan. mitosis.
d. inject their child with insulin every hour. c. Mitosis is responsible for forming the
gametes that join to make an embryo.
There are two types of cell division: mitosis and d. Meiosis creates two identical cells.
meiosis. Most of the time when people refer to
“cell division,” they mean mitosis, the process of 43. What is the meaning of the word unite in the
making new body cells. Meiosis is the type of passage?
cell division that creates gametes, or egg and a. to get married
sperm cells. b. to fight for a common cause
Mitosis is a fundamental process for life. c. to agree
During mitosis, a cell duplicates all of its d. to join
contents, including its chromosomes, and splits
to form two identical daughter cells. Because 44. What is a possible result of incorrectly
this process is so critical, the steps of mitosis are regulated mitosis?
carefully controlled by a number of genes. a. cell duplication
When mitosis is not regulated correctly, health b. cancer
problems, such as cancer, can result. c. meiosis
The other type of cell division, meiosis, d. twins
ensures that humans have the same number of
chromosomes in each generation. It is a two- 45. According to the information presented in the
step process that reduces the chromosome passage, which process is responsible for
number by half—from 46 to 23—to form creating new skin cells when the skin has been
sperm and egg cells. When the sperm and egg cut?
cells unite at conception, each contributes 23 a. mitosis
chromosomes, so the resulting embryo will b. meiosis
have the usual 46. Meiosis also allows genetic c. mitosis and meiosis
variation through processes of DNA shuffling d. neither mitosis nor meiosis
during cell division.
41. What is the main idea of this passage?

a. Meiosis is responsible for variations in
physical characteristics.
b. Mitosis can be the cause of fatal health
problems.
c. Cells divide through a pair of unique
processes.
d. Meiosis and mitosis are delicate biological
processes that can lead to fatal disease.
48
Section 3: 6. A boy turned on his radio at 5:30 P.M. on

Quantitative Ability Friday night while he was packing for a
weekend trip. He forgot to switch it off, so it
Use scratch paper if needed to answer the following 50 played the whole time he was gone. The boy
questions. You have 45 minutes to complete this section. finally turned it off on Sunday night at 8:15
P.M. In total, how long was the radio playing?
1. What is the reciprocal of 3ᎏ45ᎏ? a. 1 day, 3 hours
a. ᎏ159ᎏ b. 1 day, 2 hours, 45 minutes
b. 19
ᎏᎏ c. 2 days, 2 hours, 30 minutes
5
d. 2 days, 2 hours, 45 minutes
c. 4ᎏ14ᎏ
35
d. ᎏᎏ
4 7. A patient receives 2ᎏ52ᎏ grams of medication over
24 hours. If she is given 4 equal doses of
2. What is the value of y when 12y + 17 = 161? medication over this time, how many grams
a. 8.76 of medication are in each dose?
b. 12 a. ᎏ11ᎏ0
c. 14.8 3
b. ᎏᎏ
20
d. 14
3
c. ᎏᎏ
5
3. What is the circumference of a circle with a d. 1ᎏ23ᎏ
radius of 5?
a. 5p 8. Sarah went to the mall and spent $25.20 on a
b. 10p shirt, $45.05 on a pair of pants, $3.25 on a
c. 25p smoothie, and $32.75 on a pair of shorts. In
d. 50p total, how much money did Sarah spend on
clothes?
4. A designer buys 180 square feet of wallpaper to a. $102.75
cover a square wall with a length of 12 feet. b. $102.80
How much wallpaper will be left over when c. $103.00
he’s done covering the wall? d. $106.25
a. 6 sq. ft.
b. 12 sq. ft. 9. A clinic has enough flu vaccine this season to
c. 36 sq. ft. vaccinate 80% of its 30-person staff. How
d. 144 sq. ft. many staff members cannot be vaccinated this
season?
5. A man is 6 feet 2 inches and his daughter is 4 a. 2
feet 9 inches. How much taller is the man than b. 6
his daughter? c. 11
a. 1 ft., 3 in. d. 24
b. 1 ft., 5 in.
c. 2 ft., 3 in.
d. 2 ft., 5 in.
49
10. Lara biked 12 miles per hour for the first two 14. If jogging for one mile uses 150 calories and
hours of a long ride through the country and brisk walking for one mile uses 100 calories, a
14 miles per hour for the last hour. What was jogger has to go how many times as far as a
her average speed for the trip in miles per hour? walker to use the same number of calories?
a. 8ᎏ23ᎏ a. ᎏ12ᎏ
b. 12 b. 2
ᎏᎏ
3
c. 12ᎏ23ᎏ 3
c. ᎏᎏ
2
d. 13
d. 2
11. Rosalind measured her temperature for five
15. A dosage of a certain medication is 12 cc per
days and recorded these numbers: 99, 98, 97.9,
100 pounds. What is the dosage for a patient
98.6, and 98.5. What was her average
who weighs 175 pounds?
temperature during this time?
a. 15 cc
a. 97.9
b. 18 cc
b. 98.0
c. 21 cc
c. 98.4
d. 24 cc
d. 99.2
16. A gram of fat contains 9 calories. An 1,800-

12. The perimeter of a rectangle is 148 feet. Its two
calorie diet allows no more than 20% of
longest sides add up to 86 feet. What is the
calories from fat. How many grams of fat are
length of each of its two shortest sides?
allowed in that diet?
a. 31 ft.
a. 40 g
b. 42 ft.
b. 90 g
c. 62 ft.
c. 200 g
d. 74 ft.
d. 360 g
13. A hospital pays $15.50 for every new lab coat
17. If x = −1, y = 4, and z = −2, what is the value of
and $2.15 to wash each dirty one. If 50 new lab
the expression 2x − yz?
coats need to be purchased and 100 lab coats
a. −10
need to be washed, how much will the hospital
b. −4
spend in total?
c. 6
a. $990.00
d. 10
b. $1,215.00
c. $1,657.50
18. A 15 cc dosage must be increased by 20%.
d. $1,730.65
What is the new dosage?
a. 17 cc
b. 18 cc
c. 30 cc
d. 35 cc
50
19. What is the area of this triangle? 22. If Javier earns $3,500 a month and cannot
spend more than 30% of his monthly income
on rent, what is the highest monthly rent that
5 cm he can afford?
a. $650
b. $900
c. $1,050
3 cm
d. $1,260
a. 6 sq. cm
b. 7.5 sq. cm 23. If t is 4 more than s, and s is 2 less than r, what
c. 12 sq. cm is t when r = 8?
d. 15 sq. cm a. 2
b. 6
20. The following figure contains both a circle and c. 10
a square. What is the area of the entire shaded d. 14
figure?
24. The percent increase from 8 to 10 is equal to
2 the percent increase from 16 to what number?
8 a. 18
b. 20
c. 22
a. 16 + 4p d. 24
b. 16 + 16p
c. 24+ 2p 25. If (0.0013)x = 13, then x =
d. 24 + 4p a. 0.001
b. 0.01
21. At a carnival, each ride costs $1.50. However, a c. 1,000
dozen ride tickets can be bought for $15.50 at d. 10,000
the park entrance. How much money can be 7
saved by buying a dozen tickets at once rather 26. ᎏ40ᎏ is equal to
than buying each ticket separately? a. 0.0175
a. $2.50 b. 0.175
b. $3.00 c. 1.75
c. $10.30 d. 17.5
d. $18.00
51
27. A certain water pollutant is unsafe at a level 32. 3ᎏ196ᎏ − 1ᎏ78ᎏ is equal to
above 20 ppm (parts per million). A city’s a. 1ᎏ1116ᎏ
water supply now contains 50 ppm of this
b. 2ᎏ18ᎏ
pollutant. What percentage decrease will make
the water safe? c. 2ᎏ14ᎏ
a. 30% d. 2ᎏ156ᎏ
b. 40%
c. 50% 33. If the average woman burns 8.2 calories per
d. 60% minute while riding a bicycle, how many
calories will she burn if she rides for 35
28. In half of migraine sufferers, a certain drug minutes?
reduces the number of migraines by 50%. a. 286
Assuming all migraine sufferers experience the b. 287
same number of migraines, what percentage of c. 387
all migraines can be eliminated by this drug? d. 980
a. 25%
b. 50% 34. The basal metabolic rate (BMR) is the rate at
c. 75% which our body uses calories. The BMR for a
d. 100% man in his twenties is about 1,700 calories per
day. If 204 of those calories should come from
29. Nationwide, in one year, there were about protein, about what percentage of this man’s
21,500 fire-related injuries associated with diet should be protein?
furniture. Of these, 11,350 were caused by a. 1.2%
smoking materials. About what percent of the b. 8.3%
fire-related injuries were smoking-related? c. 12%
a. 47% d. 16%
b. 49%
c. 51% 35. Four patients are being transferred from the
d. 53% hospital to a nursing home in an ambulance,
one at a time. If the distance from the hospital
30. 0.08 × 0.27 is equal to to the nursing home is 10ᎏ15ᎏ miles, how many
a. 0.00216 miles total does the ambulance travel after it
b. 0.0216 drops off all the patients and returns to the
c. 2.16 hospital?
d. 21.6 a. 40ᎏ54ᎏ
b. 71ᎏ52ᎏ
2ᎏ14ᎏ
31. ᎏ is equal to
2
ᎏ3ᎏ c. 80ᎏ53ᎏ
8
a. ᎏᎏ
27 d. 81ᎏ53ᎏ
b. 1ᎏ12ᎏ
c. 3ᎏ38ᎏ
d. 3ᎏ12ᎏ
52
36. Down’s syndrome occurs in about 1 in 1,500 41. Which of the following numbers is the
children when the mothers are in their smallest?
twenties. About what percentage of all children 8
a. ᎏ15ᎏ
born to mothers in their twenties are likely to 6
b. ᎏ10ᎏ
have Down’s syndrome? 33
a. 0.0067% c. ᎏᎏ
60
11
b. 0.067% d. ᎏᎏ
20
c. 0.67%
d. 6.7% 42. 2ᎏ14ᎏ + 4ᎏ58ᎏ + ᎏ12ᎏ is equal to
a. 6ᎏ78ᎏ
37. If a population of yeast cells grows from ten to b. 7ᎏ14ᎏ
320 in a period of five hours, what is the rate of c. 7ᎏ38ᎏ
growth?
d. 7ᎏ34ᎏ
a. It doubles its numbers every hour.
b. It triples its numbers every hour.
43. What percentage of 600 is 750?
c. It doubles its numbers every two hours.
a. 80%
d. It triples its numbers every two hours.
b. 85%
c. 110%
38. Which value of x will make this number
d. 125%
sentence true? x + 25 £ 13
a. –12
44. Which of the following is the equivalent of ᎏ1235ᎏ?
b. –11
a. 0.38
c. 12
b. 0.4
d. 38
c. 0.48
d. 0.52
39. A square with a side length of 6 has the same
area as a rectangle with a length of 2 and a
45. Dr. Slagle needs 4 m of plaster bandages to
width of
make a cast for a broken wrist. One roll of
a. 3.
bandages is 250 cm long. How many rolls of
b. 6.
bandages will she need?
c. 12.
a. 1
d. 18.
b. 2
c. 3
40. If angle r measures 52° and is supplementary to
d. 4
angle s, what is the measure of angle s?
a. 38°
46. Which of the following statements is true?
b. 52°
a. Parallel lines intersect at right angles.
c. 128°
b. Parallel lines never intersect.
d. 142°
c. Perpendicular lines never intersect.
d. Intersecting lines have two points in
common.
53
47. 3.6 – 1.89 is equal to 49. The number of red blood corpuscles in one
a. 1.47 cubic millimeter is about 5 million, and the
b. 1.53 number of white blood corpuscles in one cubic
c. 1.71 millimeter is about 8,000. What, then, is the
d. 2.42 ratio of white blood corpuscles to red blood
corpuscles?
48. If a particular woman’s resting heartbeat is a. 1:625
72 beats per minute and she is at rest for 6ᎏ12ᎏ b. 1:40
hours, about how many times will her heart c. 4:10
beat during that period of time? d. 5:1,250
a. 4,320
5
b. 4,680 50. ᎏ12ᎏ – ᎏ38ᎏ is equal to
c. 28,080 1
a. ᎏ10ᎏ
d. 43,200 1
b. ᎏ24ᎏ
5
c. ᎏᎏ
48
19
d. ᎏᎏ
24
54
Section 4: General Science 4. How many micrograms are in one gram?

a. 100
This section will test your accumulated knowledge in b. 1,000
general science. c. 100,000
d. 1,000,000
1. Which of the following scientists is best known
for describing the laws of planetary motion? 5. Which of the following statements correctly
a. Sir Charles Lyell relates our present understanding of the
b. Gregor Mendel universe?
c. Johann Kepler a. The universe is about five billion years old.
d. Robert Hooke b. The universe is getting smaller with time.
c. The universe is expanding.
2. Suppose you conduct a scientific investigation d. The universe consists of only a few hundred
to find out how daily intake of vitamin C galaxies.
affects a person's resistance to developing flu
symptoms. You test 100 people, all of the same 6. Gregor Mendel studied plant variations using
age and same general health. You give 25 a. tomato plants.
people one vitamin tablet a day, another 25 b. basil plants.
people two vitamin tablets a day, another 25 c. geranium plants.
people three vitamin tablets a day, and the final d. pea plants.
25 people get four vitamin tablets a day. You
carry this out for two months and observe the 7. What did Galileo do?
health of all 100 people over time. Which of a. first split light into its colors
the following is your experimental factor? b. first used the x- and y-axis
a. number of people studied c. first realized the antiquity of Earth
b. number of vitamin tablets a person gets d. first observed the moons of Jupiter
each day
c. the age of the people in the study 8. If you want to test the effect of a new malaria
d. the health of each person at the beginning vaccine, the group of people who receive shots
of the study that contain no vaccine is called the
a. control group.
3. Which of the following is the standard metric b. experiment group.
unit of volume? c. fake group.
a. gram d. zero group.
b. joule
c. liter 9. How many milligrams are in one gram?
d. metric ton a. 10
b. 100
c. 1,000
d. 10,000
55
10. The biggest concepts in science are called 16. The typical human hair is about 50 microme-
a. predictions. ters in diameter. That means it is 50
b. theories. of a meter.
c. experiments. a. billionths
d. hypotheses. b. thousandths
c. parts
11. Which of the following best describes the d. millionths
atmosphere of the planet Venus?
a. very light and oxygen-rich 17. Humans are putting about 6 billion tons of
b. filled with water vapor carbon into the atmosphere each year in the
c. dominated by CO2 (carbon dioxide) form of carbon dioxide. Another way of saying
d. thin and cold this number is how many tons of carbon?
a. 6 megatons
12. Which of the following is not a flavor of quark? b. 6 kilotons
a. up c. 6 petatons
b. middle d. 6 gigatons
c. strange
d. charm 18. Which of the following is the standard metric
unit of energy?
13. What year was the first successful landing of a a. joule
U.S. rover on Mars? b. mole
a. 1969 c. watt
b. 1957 d. ampere
c. 1997
19. What exponent would you use to express how
d. 2011
many meters are in a kilometer?
a. 105
14. Two atoms both have 92 electrons as well as
b. 103
92 protons in their nuclei, but one atom has
c. 104
146 neutrons and the other has 144 neutrons.
d. 102
These two atoms are
a. ions. 20. Compute the number of seconds in a year.
b. compounds. a. about one million
c. molecules. b. about thirty million
d. isotopes. c. about one hundred thousand
d. about three million
15. If a substance gains electrons during a
chemical reaction, the substance is said to be 21. If you feel waves of warmth coming from a
a. oxidized. campfire, which of the following means of heat
b. acidified. transfer are you experiencing?
c. reduced. a. conduction
d. fused. b. radiation
c. electricity
d. nuclear fusion
56
22. Which of the following is our best understand- 27. In the stages of nuclear fusion inside stars,
ing of why the dinosaurs became extinct? which element in the list, compared to the
a. impact of a massive meteor on Earth others, is formed last?
b. intense volcanic activity a. hydrogen
c. disease b. helium
d. severe and prolonged storms c. carbon
d. oxygen
23. A rock that contains a fossil is most likely
a. igneous. 28. Which is the best answer for the events or
b. sedimentary. processes that disperse elements born in the
c. volcanic. internal nuclear fires of stars, making those
d. metamorphic. elements available for subsequent formations
of new stars and planets?
24. In which layer of the atmosphere does weather a. supernovas
occur? b. expanding universe
a. troposphere c. fusion reactions
b. stratosphere d. red shift
c. mesosphere
d. thermosphere 29. Which element is not made in stars?
a. aluminum
25. Which of the following carry out photosyn- b. boron
thesis? c. carbon
a. nektons d. hydrogen
b. heterotrophs
c. zooplanktons 30. Which element in the universe (including
d. autotrophs inside our sun) is both primordial (meaning
some of it was made shortly after the Big Bang,
26. In the electromagnetic spectrum, infrared before any stars formed) and made inside stars
wavelengths are slightly longer than those of during fusion reactions?
visible red, and ultraviolet wavelengths are a. carbon
slightly shorter than those of visible blue. If an b. hydrogen
absorption spectrum from a calcium atom here c. helium
on Earth has a characteristic pattern in the red d. iron
wavelengths, looking at calcium in the
absorption spectrum of a distant galaxy will 31. Which of the following increases in density as
show the same characteristic pattern shifted the universe ages?
toward the a. energy
a. ultraviolet. b. microwave radiation
b. blue. c. hydrogen
c. red (the same). d. carbon
d. infrared.
57
32. The planet nearest to Earth is 37. Which of the following is considered a dwarf
a. Venus. planet?
b. Jupiter. a. Mercury
c. Neptune. b. Eris
d. Saturn. c. Oort
d. Dysnomia
33. Astronomers sometimes make units that fit the
large scales of space and time. Consider the 38. Which body in our solar system has very good
time interval from today back to the formation evidence for the presence of liquid water at one
of Earth (in other words, Earth’s condensation time in the past?
from the gas cloud that also formed the sun). a. the moon
For just this question, call this amount of time b. Mars
one Earth Formation Unit (1 EFU). About how c. Venus
many EFUs from today must you go back in d. Mercury
time in order to reach the Big Bang?
a. 1 EFU 39. The Cassini space probe will explore the planet
b. 3 EFUs with rings. Before reaching that planet, Cassini
c. 8 EFUs has to pass the orbit of which planet?
d. 15 EFUs a. Uranus
b. Saturn
34. Our best dates for the origin of the solar c. Jupiter
system come from d. Neptune
a. rocks found on the moon.
b. the oldest rocks on Earth. 40. We know there is matter that cannot be seen by
c. meteorites. any means available to us, including the
d. gases in the sun. different wavelengths of the electromagnetic
spectrum. Yet we know this so-called “dark
35. The planet nearest to the sun is matter” exists. How?
a. the asteroids. a. Black holes have consumed much of the
b. Phobos. matter that once existed.
c. Venus. b. At the origin of the universe, there was a
d. Mercury. large amount of antimatter that became
hidden.
36. Humans are currently in space on the c. Einstein’s equation shows us the equivalence
a. Mir space station. of energy that could also be considered
b. International Space Station. matter.
c. space shuttle. d. The spins of galaxies cannot be explained by
d. Apollo capsule. the amount of known, ordinary matter.
58
41. Today, we know the composition of the uni- 46. Protons and neutrons are made of what?
verse fairly well in terms of types of matter (or a. electrons
types of energy that can be put into amounts of b. neutrinos
equivalent matter, using Einstein’s equation c. quarks
E = mc2). What percentage of the universe is d. mesons
dark energy?
a. 98% 47. Parts of the atomic nucleus are sometimes col-
b. 73% lectively called nucleons. Nucleons are therefore
c. 23% a. protons and mesons.
d. 4% b. electrons and neutrons.
c. mesons and electrons.
42. One element crucial to life is carbon, which d. neutrons and protons.
forms about 40% of our body’s dry weight. If
planets had formed around the very earliest 48. In measuring electricity, the unit of resistance
stars in the universe, why would it have been is the
unlikely for life to start on those earliest plan- a. volt.
ets? b. ohm.
a. Carbon is made slowly as the expanding c. amp.
energy is converted to matter. d. watt.
b. Carbon leaks into our universe through
black holes. 49. Electromagnetism is the force that
c. Carbon is made by fusion reactions in stars. a. causes the interaction between electrically
d. Carbon is made by the fission of oxygen. charged particles.
b. binds protons and neutrons together to
43. The geographical region of the ocean that form the nucleus of an atom.
meets the deep ocean floor is the c. is responsible for the radioactive decay of
a. continental alluvium. subatomic particles.
b. continental abyss. d. causes dispersed matter to coalesce.
c. continental slope.
d. continental shelf. 50. Which of the following scientists is known as
the founder of modern genetics?
44. What word in ancient Greek means indivisible? a. Johann Kepler
a. atom b. Sir Charles Lyell
b. molecule c. Gregor Mendel
c. ion d. Robert Hooke
d. isotope
45. The radioactive isotope of carbon is

a. carbon-11.
b. carbon-12.
c. carbon-13.
d. carbon-14.
59
Section 5: Biology 6. The loop of Henle is part of which of the

following organs?
There are 50 questions in this section. You have 45 a. heart
minutes to complete this section. b. kidney
c. pancreas
1. Which of the following represents a human d. liver
nucleotide base pairing?
a. T-U 7. Which of the following organelles is found in
b. A-U plants, but not in animals or bacteria?
c. G-T a. mitochondria
d. A-G b. chloroplasts
c. nucleus
2. Adipose tissue is composed of d. cell wall
a. amino acids.
b. nucleotides. 8. What is 10–12 meters?
c. white blood cells. a. a picometer
d. lipids. b. a nanometer
c. a micrometer
3. Viruses appear to be living organisms with all d. a femtometer
of the following characteristics EXCEPT
a. cellular reproduction. 9. Which of the following is an air- or fluid-filled
b. enzymes. space in the cytoplasm of a living cell?
c. adaptation. a. a vacuum
d. nucleic acids. b. a vacuole
c. a centriole
4. What is the correct order of classification from d. a centrosome
general to specific?
a. Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Genus, 10. Which of the following structures is part of a
Family, Species plant cell but not of an animal cell?
b. Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Genus, Family, a. a mitochondrion
Order, Species b. a ribosome
c. Kingdom, Phylum, Order, Class, Family, c. a chloroplast
Genus, Species d. an endoplasmic reticulum
d. Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family,
Genus, Species 11. Which organelles generate the majority of ATP
in eukaryotic cells?
5. Which accessory organ detoxifies substances in a. mitochondria
the blood absorbed through the intestines? b. chloroplasts
a. kidney c. ribosomes
b. liver d. lysosomes
c. pancreas
d. spleen
60
12. Cells of various organ systems 17. Hepatitis is an inflammation of the

a. have completely different DNA. a. joints.
b. have the same DNA. b. lungs.
c. express different parts of their DNA. c. liver.
d. choices b and c d. large intestine.
13. Which adaptation differentiates mammals 18. The process of cellular reproduction in
from other animals? bacteria is known as
a. regulation of body temperature a. mitosis.
b. terrestrial mobility b. meiosis.
c. specialized communication c. telophase.
d. mammary glands functional in mothers d. binary fission.
with offspring
19. The principal function of blood platelets is to
14. The function of the lysosome is to a. help clot blood.
a. contain the cell’s genetic material. b. carry oxygen.
b. combine amino acids into proteins. c. produce antibodies.
c. break down waste material in the cell. d. phagocytize bacteria.
d. generate ATP
20. The two or more related genes that control a
15. Why might flowering plants’ (angiosperms) trait are known as
recovery from a devastating environmental a. chromosomes.
phenomenon be faster than conifers? b. chromatids.
a. Conifers require more sunlight. c. phenotypes.
b. Angiosperms reproduce more quickly. d. alleles.
c. Angiosperms depend on mammals to
spread seeds. 21. Once the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere
d. Conifers have tougher seeds. was increased, which adaptation helped
organisms evolve to more advanced forms?
16. What type of cell is shown in the following a. photosynthesis
figure? b. anaerobic respiration
c. oxidation
d. aerobic respiration
22. A fossil is found that is believed to be at least

three billion years old. Which of the following
modern organisms would it most likely
resemble?
a. a blood cell a. primitive aquatic plants
b. a fat cell b. protists
c. a muscle cell c. bacteria
d. a nerve cell d. protozoa
61
23. A father presents an X-linked trait and a 28. Initial classification of a bacterium is based on
mother does not. What is the probability that its
the mother is a carrier of this trait if they a. size.
produce a son who also presents the X-linked b. shape.
trait? c. color.
a. 0% d. ability to cause disease.
b. 25%
c. 50% 29. Which of the following is NOT caused by a
d. 100% virus?
a. polio
24. Which organ system is responsible for b. rabies
producing white blood cells in humans? c. malaria
a. skeletal d. cold sores (herpes simplex)
b. immune
c. circulatory 30. Which of the following is NOT true of most
d. integumentary bacteria?
a. They are single-celled.
25. The term “biological catalyst” most closely b. They belong to the Kingdom Bacteria.
describes c. They are eukaryotes.
a. RNA. d. They are systematically classified by their
b. DNA. biochemical makeup.
c. a mitochondrion.
d. an enzyme. 31. The process of a complementary strand of
RNA being made from a sequence of DNA is
26. Which of the following is NOT a member of known as
the class of fungi? a. transcription.
a. common bread mold b. translation.
b. mushrooms c. mitosis.
c. kelp d. replication.
d. yeast
32. When part of a chromosome breaks off and
27. Which of the following is characteristic of attaches to another chromosome, some genetic
viruses? information is transferred. What is this
III. Viruses lack most of the structural and occurrence called?
functional features of a cell. a. aneuploidy
III. Viruses can reproduce only when they b. transcription
are within living cells. c. translation
III. Nearly all viruses cause diseases. d. translocation
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II only
d. I, II, and III
62
33. The structure formed by the union of male and 39. The molecule responsible for the green color of
female gametes is the leaves is
a. zoospore. a. deoxyribonucleic acid.
b. zygote. b. adenosine triphosphate.
c. ova. c. chlorophyll.
d. oocyte. d. glucose.
34. The metabolic pathway involving the 40. Which of the following is NOT characteristic
degradation of glucose into pyruvate to of anaphylaxis?
produce ATP is known as a. circulatory shock
a. glycolysis. b. bronchospasm
b. gluconeogenesis. c. hives
c. the Calvin cycle. d. hypertension
d. the Krebs cycle.
41. What is the generic term for any substance
35. During strenuous exercise, a build-up of what which blocks ONLY the sensory perception of
substance may cause muscle cramps? pain?
a. lactic acid a. analgesic
b. lactose b. general anesthetic
c. adrenaline c. local anesthetic
d. serotonin d. acetylcholine
36. Which organ functions to absorb water and 42. Which of the following is NOT an amino acid?
create feces from undigested food? a. tyrosine
a. small intestine b. tryptophan
b. liver c. thymine
c. large intestine d. threonine
d. stomach
43. Cells that remove dead and dying red blood
37. During a latent period in muscle tissue, what is cells from the liver are known as
released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum? a. leukocytes.
a. calcium b. erythrocytes.
b. sodium c. eosinophils.
c. lactic acid d. Kupffer cells.
d. acetylcholine
44. “Energy cannot be destroyed; it can only be
38. Beriberi is caused by a deficit of which transformed” is a statement of what physical
vitamin? law?
a. vitamin B1 a. first law of thermodynamics
b. vitamin C b. second law of thermodynamics
c. vitamin E c. law of entropy
d. vitamin D d. law of constant composition
63
45. In humans, an extra copy of chromosome 21 49. What is the light-sensitive pigment found in
causes the vertebrate retina?
a. Turner’s syndrome. a. cytochrome
b. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome. b. hemoglobin
c. Down’s syndrome. c. rhodopsin
d. Klinefelter’s syndrome. d. melanin
46. The primary component of alcoholic beverages 50. What is another term for excessively high
that acts as a central nervous system (CNS) blood pressure?
depressant is a. cardiomyopathy
a. isopropyl alcohol. b. hypertension
b. methanol. c. hypoglycemia
c. methionine. d. hemophilia
d. ethanol.
47. Primary structure refers to a protein’s

a. amino acid sequence.
b. a-helices andb-sheets.
c. shape.
d. active site.
48. A benign tumor usually caused by a papilloma-

virus is a
a. wart.
b. sarcoma.
c. adenoma.
d. cold sore.
64
There are 50 questions in this section. You have 45 minutes to complete this section. Use the periodic table on
this page when necessary to help you answer the following questions.
IA VIIA VIIIA
1 1 2
H H He
1.00794 IIA IIIA IVA VA VIA 1.00794 4.002602
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.941 9.012182 10.811 12.0107 14.00674 15.9994 18.9984032 20.1797
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg VIIIB A1 Si P S Cl Ar
22.989770 24.3050 IIIB IVB VB VIB VIIB IB IIB 26.981538 28.0855 30.973761 32.066 35.4527 39.948
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
39.0983 40.078 44.955910 47.867 50.9415 51.9961 54.938049 55.845 58.933200 58.6934 63.546 65.39 69.723 72.61 74.92160 78.96 79.904 83.80
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
85.4678 87.62 88.90585 91.224 92.90638 95.94 (98) 101.07 102.90550 106.42 107.8682 112.411 114.818 118.710 121.760 127.60 126.90447 131.29
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
Cs Ba La* Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
132.90545 137.327 138.9055 178.49 180.9479 183.84 186.207 190.23 192.217 195.078 196.96655 200.59 204.3833 207.2 208.98038 (209) (210) (222)
87 88 89 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118
Fr Ra Ac** Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Uut Uuq Uup Uuh Uus Uuo
(223) (226) (227) (261) (262) (263) (262) (265) (266) (269) (281) (285) (286) (289) (289) (289) (294) (293)
* Lanthanide 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
series Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
140.116 140.90765 144.24 (145) 150.36 151.964 157.25 158.92534 162.50 164.93032 167.26 168.93421 173.04 174.967
** Actinide 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103

series Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
232.0381 231.03588 238.0289 (237) (244) (243) (247) (247) (251) (252) (257) (258) (259) (262)
1. Which of the following substances has a pH 3. Which of the following groups is common to
closest to 7? the majority of amino acids?
a. ammonia a. CH3
b. blood b. H2O
c. lemon juice c. NH2
d. vinegar d. SO4–2
2. What functional groups form a peptide bond? 4. When amino acids polymerize to make a
a. amides protein, which of the following is produced as
b. amines a byproduct?
c. esters a. H2O
d. ethers b. H2
c. O2
d. CO2
65
5. The a-helices andb-sheets in a protein make 10. Which of the following represents t-butane?
up its a. CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
a. primary structure. b. CH3
b. secondary structure. |
c. tertiary structure. CH3 – C – CH3
d. quaternary structure. |
CH3
6. 35Cl has 17 protons. How many neutrons does c. CH3 – CH2 – CH3
it have? d. H
a. 17 |
b. 18 CH3 – C – CH3
c. 35 |
d. 52 CH3
7. The number of protons in an atom is always 11. O2– has how many electrons?
equal to its a. 6
a. mass number. b. 8
b. atomic number. c. 10
c. number of isotopes d. 18
d. number of neutrons
12. Which of the following is NOT a Lewis base?
8. NaOH ⫹ HCl Æ NaCl + H2O a. C6H10O
The reaction shown here is best described as b. H-O-CH3
which of the following? c. Na
a. base ⫹ acid Æ salt ⫹ water d. CH3-CH2-CH2-CH(NH2)-CH3
b. metal ⫹ acid Æ salt ⫹ hydrogen
c. metal oxide ⫹ acid Æ salt ⫹ water 13. Which of the following is the correct, balanced
d. metal carbonate ⫹ acid Æ salt ⫹ carbonate equation for the combustion of propane?
acid (unstable) a. C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) + N2(g) Æ 3CO2(g) +
2NO2(g) + 4H2(g)
9. Chlorine, atomic number 17, becomes an ion b. C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) Æ 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(g)
when it bonds with sodium to form salt. How c. C3H8(g) + 6O2(g) + 2H2(g) Æ 3CO2(g) +
many electrons does that ion have? 6H2O(g)
a. 0 d. C3H8(g) + O2(g) + 4H2O(g) Æ 3CO2(g) +
b. 1 6H2(g)
c. 17
d. 18 14. What is the electron configuration of a Cl– ion?
a. [Ne]3s23p5
b. [Ne]3s2p63d1
c. [Ne]3s23p4
d. [Ne]3s23p6
66
15. Which of the following is the hybridization of 21. Which of the following is the chemical symbol
the carbon atom in methane, CH4? for the species that has 16 protons, 17
a. sp neutrons, and 18 electrons?
b. sp2 33S
a. 16
c. sp3 b. 33
17Cl
d. sp4
c. 35
17Cl
16. Which of the following elements is the most d. 33 2–

16S
electronegative?
a. Na 22. Which of the following equations correctly
b. S describes the reaction between SO3(g) and
c. Cl KOH(aq)?
d. Br a. 4SO3(g) + 4KOH(aq) Æ 2H2SO4(aq) + 4K(s)
+ O2(g)
17. When a liquid is at its boiling point, the vapor b. SO3(g) + 2KOH(aq) Æ K2SO4(aq) + H2O(1)
pressure of the liquid c. 2SO3 + 4KOH(aq) Æ 2K2SO3(aq) + 2H2O(1)
a. is less than the external pressure on the + O2(g)
liquid. d. No reaction occurs.
b. is equal to the external pressure on the
liquid. 23. Which of the following is a Lewis acid, but not
c. is greater than the external pressure on the a Brønsted acid?
liquid. a. HCl
d. can be either less or greater than the b. H2SO4
external pressure on the liquid. c. CH4
d. AlCl3
18. What is the oxidation state of iron in Fe2O3?
a. 0 24. Butane, C4H10, combusts to form CO2 and
b. +2 H2O. Which of the following is the balanced
c. +3 chemical equation that describes this reaction?
d. +6 a. C4H10 + O2 Æ CO2 + H2O
b. C4H10 +7O2 + H2 Æ 4CO2 + 6H2O
19. Which of the following is the empirical c. C4H10 + 7O2 Æ 4CO2 + 5H2O
formula for ethylene glycol, C2H6O2? d. 2C4H10 + 13O2 Æ 8CO2 + 10H2O
a. CH3O
b. C2H6O2 25. One liter of solution is made by dissolving
c. C4H12O4 29.2 g of NaCl in water. What is the molarity of
d. CH2 the solution?
a. 0.5 M
20. What is the most likely oxidation state of Mg? b. 2.0 M
a. +2 c. 1.3 M
b. +1 d. 0.82 M
c. 0
d. –6
67
26. Which of the following is an ether? 31. The electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p3
a. CH3CH2OCH2CH3 describes which atom?
b. CH3CH2COOH a. N
c. CH3CH2NH2 b. Ne
d. CH3CH=CHCH3 c. Ar
d. P
27. Which of the following is the oxidation
number of sulfur in the compound sodium 32. Which of the following is the best Lewis
thiosulfate, Na2S2O3? structure for methanol, CH3OH?
a. +1 a. H
b. –1 | ..
c. +2 H – C – O– H
d. –2 | ..
H
28. Two liters of air at a pressure of two atm are b. H
condensed to 0.5 liters. If the temperature is | ..
constant, what is the new pressure? C–O–H–H
a. 16 atm | ..
b. 8 atm H
c. 2 atm c. H
d. 0.5 atm \
C⫽O–H:
29. The composition of dry air consists of / |
approximately 78% nitrogen, N2, and 21% H H
oxygen, O2. If the air pressure of a 5-liter d. H
sample of dry air is 800 torr, what is the | ..
approximate partial pressure of oxygen? H – C – O– H
a. 620 torr |
b. 720 torr H
c. 210 torr
d. 170 torr
30. What does the number 36 represent on the

periodic table entry for krypton?
a. atomic number
b. relative atomic mass
c. group number
d. electron configuration
68
33. A single atom of an element in group VI is Answer questions 37 and 38 based on the following
most likely to form an ionic bond with a single phase diagram for an unknown compound.
atom of an element in group
a. I
b. II D C
c. III
d. IV
34. What type of bond is responsible for water G H
Pressure
tension and the formation of water drops?
a. ionic bond 1 atm E
b. nuclear bond F
c. covalent bond B
d. hydrogen bond
J I
35. Which of the following will do the least
A
damage to the hemoglobin in blood?
a. pH of 1.60 Temperature
b. pH of 2.50
c. pH of 4.90 37. At which point is the compound a solid?
d. pH of 7.40 a. F
b. G
36. Which of the following variables are inversely c. H
proportional for an ideal gas if all other d. I
conditions are constant?
a. pressure and volume 38. Sublimation occurs when moving from
b. pressure and temperature a. G to H.
c. pressure and the number of moles b. I to J.
d. No two variables are inversely proportional. c. J to I.
d. I to H.
39. Which of following is the balanced equation

for the reaction between NH3 and O2?
a. 4NH3 + 5O2 Æ 4NO + 6H2O
b. 2NH3 + 3O2 Æ 2NO + 3H2O
c. 2NH3 + 2O2 Æ N2O + 3H2O
d. NH3 + O2 Æ N2O + 3H2O
69
40. In the reaction 4A1 +3O2 Æ 2A12O3, how 45.

many grams of O2 are needed to completely
react with 1.5 moles of Al?
a. 24 g
b. 36 g
c. 48 g
d. 60 g
41. Appropriate protection from exposure to alpha

particles is provided by
a. thin clothing and breathing protection.
b. thick layered clothing and breathing
protection.
c. concrete and/or lead walled containment. Which of these sets of measurements shows the
d. No material provides appropriate protec- greatest precision?
tion. a. 112 mL, 125 mL, 130 ml, 127 mL
b. 122 mL, 121 mL, 121 mL, 121 mL
42. What is the hybridization of the carbon atoms c. 125 mL, 123 mL, 126 mL, 125 mL
in benzene, C6H6? d. 132 mL, 126 mL, 124 mL, 122 mL
a. s
b. sp 46. Which of the following is most reactive with
c. sp2 water?
d. sp3 a. Cs
b. Ba
43. Convert 8.26 ⫻ 102 nm to pm. c. Fr
a. 8.26 ⫻ 103 pm d. Ra
b. 8.26 ⫻ 105 pm
c. 8.26 ⫻ 10–3 pm 47. Electronegativity increases on the periodic
d. 8.26 ⫻ 10–5 pm table travelling
a. down and to the left.
44. HPO4−2 + H+ Æ H2PO−4 b. down and to the right.
The above system would be most effective for c. up and to the left.
a. preventing a drop in blood pH below 7.40. d. up and to the right.
b. preventing a rise in blood pH above 7.40.
c. holding the blood pH significantly above 48. Which of the following ions is essential in the
7.40. clotting of blood?
d. holding the blood pH significantly below a. Ca2+
7.40. b. F–
c. Na+
d. OH−
70
49. What is the empirical formula for glucose, 50. A fatty acid with no double bonds is known
C6H12O6? as a
a. CH2O a. polyunsaturated fatty acid.
b. CHO b. monounsaturated fatty acid.
c. C3H4O3 c. saturated fatty acid.
d. [CH2O]6 d. trans fatty acid.
71
Answers 41. b. The correct spelling is worries.

42. b. The correct spelling is finality.
Section 1: Verbal Ability 43. b. The correct spelling is reprehensible.
1. a. weigh 44. c. The correct spelling is caffeine.
2. c. proceed 45. b. The correct spelling is delinquent.
3. c. portrait 46. c. The correct spelling is forecast.
4. b. miscellaneous 47. a. The correct spelling is righteous.
5. a. manageable 48. a. The correct spelling is sincerely.
6. a. catalog 49. b. The correct spelling is vacancy.
7. b. definitely 50. b. The correct spelling is respiration.
8. b. errant
9. c. obsession Section 2: Reading Comprehension
10. d. jeopardy 1. c. A common symptom of a chronic
11. c. magnificent inflammatory disorder of the airways, such
12. a. monotonous as asthma, is chest tightness. The first
13. d. eligible paragraph lists chest tightness among the
14. a. inquiry symptoms that also include coughing,
15. a. terminated wheezing, and difficulty in breathing.
16. a. persecution 2. b. The second paragraph explains that during
17. b. peculiar an attack, the asthmatic will compensate for
18. d. psychology constricted airways by breathing a greater
19. d. license volume of air.
20. b. credential 3. c. The first sentence of the passage begins, No
21. d. necessitate longer . . . , indicating that in the past,
22. a. stabilize asthma was considered an anomalous
23. c. irrelevant inflammation of the bronchi. Now asthma is
24. d. aspirations considered a chronic condition of the lungs.
25. b. exercise 4. a. An exacerbation is usually defined as an
26. b. The correct spelling is fierce. aggravation of symptoms or increase in the
27. a. The correct spelling is preparation. severity of a disease. However, in this
28. c. The correct spelling is quadruple. passage, exacerbations is interchangeable
29. a. The correct spelling is cutlery with asthma attacks.
30. d. no mistakes 5. d. Although people with asthma should avoid
31. b. The correct spelling is height. cigarette smoke, it is not specifically listed
32. c. The correct spelling is emperor. among the allergens to which people with
33. b. The correct spelling is contradict. asthma may be particularly sensitive in
34. b. The correct spelling is reversal. paragraph 3 of the passage.
35. b. The correct spelling is ferocious. 6. d. The third paragraph discusses triggers in
36. d. no mistakes detail. Only physical activity is listed as also
37. a. The correct spelling is phenomenal. being a possible symptom reducer.
38. b. The correct spelling is temperature. 7. a. Since asthma symptoms vary throughout
39. d. no mistakes the day, relying on the presence of an attack
40. c. The correct spelling is circumference. or even just on the presence of a respiratory
ailment to diagnose asthma is flawed logic.
72
8. b. All of the individuals listed would glean a 16. d. See the last sentence of the third paragraph.
certain amount of knowledge from the Compaction may well reduce transporta-
passage; however, a healthcare professional tion costs (choice a) according to the third
would find the broad overview of the effects paragraph. That it reduces the volume of
of asthma, combined with the trigger- waste (choice b) is an advantage, not a
avoidance and diagnosis information, most disadvantage. Compaction is not designed
relevant. to eliminate organic matter, so confirming
9. d. According to the third paragraph, second- that it has been eliminated (choice c) is not
hand smoke can increase the risk of allergic an issue.
sensitization in children. 17. b. See the first sentence of paragraph 3.
10. b. According to paragraph 2, when reviewing a Hydropulping (choice a) and compacting
new substance, the FDA considers its safety (choice c) are processing methods, not
in terms of factors like the composition and disposal methods. On-site disposal (choice d)
properties of the substance. is not usually an option for small hospitals
11. a. See the first sentence of paragraph 2, which with limited resources.
states that When evaluating the safety of a 18. b. See the last sentence of the sixth paragraph,
substance and whether it should be approved, which points out that steam sterilization
the FDA considers: 1) the composition and does not change the appearance of the
properties of the substance . . . waste, thus perhaps raising questions at a
12. a. According to paragraph 3, the limitations of landfill.
science mean that the FDA can never be 19. c. The fourth paragraph states that liquid is
100% sure of the absence of any risk from separated from pulp in the hydropulping
the use of any substance. process. The sixth paragraph says that liquid
13. a. Nowhere in the passage is the FDA’s may form during the sterilization process.
involvement in the amount of money charged 20. a. This response relies on an understanding of
for products using their approved additives pathological wastes, which are wastes
discussed. generated by infectious materials. The
14. d. See the first sentence of paragraph 4, which seventh paragraph points out that
states that If an additive is approved, the incineration is especially appropriate for
FDA issues regulations that may include the pathological wastes. Previously, the sixth
types of foods in which the additive can be paragraph states that steam sterilization is
used, the maximum amounts to be used, and appropriate for substances contaminated
how it should be identified on food labels. with infectious organisms.
15. b. The passage as a whole introduces the FDA 21. d. The second paragraph says that the main
and talks about its function in society. risk of manual carts is potential exposure
from torn bags, but also that automated
carts can reduce that potential.
22. b. See the next-to-last sentence of the fourth
paragraph. Sterilization does not change the
volume of waste. While compacting does
change the volume of the waste, it is not
appropriate for eliminating hazardous
materials.
73
23. c. See the first sentence of the fourth 32. b. The passage is a message to parents about
paragraph: Hydropulping involves grounding how important it is to inform their children
the waste in the presence of an oxidizing fluid, about their condition and how best to
such as hypochlorite solution, meaning that handle it.
hydropulping involves compressing the 33. b. According to paragraph 2, excess weight and
waste. inactivity put children and teens at risk for
24. b. See the last sentence of the passage, which type 2 diabetes.
states, regarding the rotary kiln, that the 34. d. According to paragraph 3, people with
costs have been prohibitive for smaller units. diabetes need to keep their glucose levels
25. c. In the first paragraph, the communication from dropping by snacking.
network of the millions of cells in the 35. a. The passage does not say anything about
immune system is compared to bees glucose levels regulating themselves. It
swarming around a hive. makes a point to say that managing blood
26. d. See the final sentence of the passage: The glucose levels must be done 24 hours a day,
painful side effects of these diseases are caused seven days a week.
by a person’s immune system actually 36. c. Paragraph 3 makes a point to specify that
attacking itself. people with diabetes must regularly check
27. c. See the last paragraph. Allergens are their blood glucose.
responsible for triggering an inappropriate 37. c. People with diabetes have too much glucose
immune response to otherwise harmless in their blood. As stated in paragraph 3,
substances such as ragweed pollen or cat insulin is used to help bring blood glucose
hair. levels down.
28. d. The last paragraph of the passage mentions 38. d. Paragraph 3 states that excess glucose can
that an antigen announces its foreignness lead to heart disease, stroke, nerve damage,
with intricate shapes called epitopes that blindness, and kidney disease because of
protrude from its surface. damage to large and small blood vessels.
29. a. Every individual’s immune system must Paralysis is not listed as an ailment.
learn to recognize and deal with nonself 39. a. Managing diabetes is an intensive, or
molecules through experience. However, the rigorous, process.
last section of the second paragraph 40. c. According to paragraph 4, parents should
mentions that the immune system is develop a diabetes management plan with
capable of choices b, c, and d. their child’s healthcare team that outlines
30. a. According to the second paragraph, the the child’s specific medical needs. Nowhere
ability to distinguish between self and in the passage does it say that children with
nonself is the heart of the immune system. diabetes need to stay indoors, avoid physical
This topic is further elucidated throughout activity, or inject insulin every hour.
the body of the passage. 41. c. As a whole, the passage introduces and
31. b. The last paragraph mentions that tissues or explains meiosis and mitosis, the two types
cells from another individual may act as of cell division.
antigens except in the case of identical 42. a. According to paragraph 2, During mitosis, a
twins, whose cells carry identical self cell duplicates all of its contents, including its
markers. chromosomes, and splits to form two identical
daughter cells.
74
43. d. When the sperm and the egg unite during 6. d. First, find the number of complete days—all
conception, they physically come together, day Saturday is one full day. Next, subtract
or join. 5:30 from the 12:00 (midnight) that follows
44. b. See the second paragraph, which explains to get 6 hours 30 minutes for Friday. Next,
that When mitosis is not regulated correctly, add 8:15 to the 12 hours from midnight to
health problems, such as cancer, can result. noon on Sunday to get 20 hours 15 minutes
45. a. According to paragraph 1, mitosis is the for the whole day. Add them all together: 1
process responsible for making new body day + 6 hours 30 minutes + 20 hours
cells; meiosis is the process responsible for 15 minutes ⫽ 1 day + 26 hours 45
creating egg and sperm cells. minutes ⫽ 2 days, 2 hours, 45 minutes.
7. c. Read the question carefully; it asks how
Section 3: Quantitative Ability much medication is given in every dose, not
1. a. First, change 3ᎏ45ᎏ into an improper fraction: at every hour. First change the total grams
3ᎏ45ᎏ ⫽ ᎏ159ᎏ. The reciprocal of ᎏ159ᎏ is ᎏ159ᎏ. of medication into an improper fraction:
2. b. To solve for y, you must isolate it on one 2 52 = 12
5
. Then divide by 4 by multiplying by
side of the equation. Subtract 17 from both its reciprocal and reduce to get the final
sides to get 12y ⫽ 144. Divide both sides answer:
12
by 12 to find that y ⫽ 12. 5
÷ 4 = 125
× 14 = 12
20
= 53
3. b. The formula for circumference is 2pr. Since 8. c. Read the question carefully; it asks how
the radius is 5, the circumference is 2p(5), much Sarah spent on clothes only: $25.20
or 10p. ⫹ $45.05 ⫹ $32.75 ⫽ $103.00.
4. c. First, find the total area of the wall. Since 9. b. Be careful to answer what the question asks,
the wall is square, all sides are the same. The which is how many staff members cannot
area of a square is length ⫻ width, so the be vaccinated. 30 × 0.80 = 24 people can be
area of the wall is 12 ⫻ 12 ⫽ 144 square vaccinated, so 30 − 24 = 6 cannot be
feet. If the designer buys 180 square feet and vaccinated.
only uses 144, he has 180 − 144 ⫽ 36 square 10. c. Add together her miles per hour for each
feet left. hour traveled and then divide by 3 (total
5. b. Be careful to keep track of the units in hours traveled) to get the average speed:
which you are working. An easy way to 12 for hour one + 12 for hour two ⫹ 14 for
compute is to change all units to inches: hour three = ᎏ338ᎏ ⫽ 12ᎏ23ᎏ.
6 feet, 2 inches = 6(12) ⫹ 2 ⫽ 74 inches. 11. c. You may have been able to estimate that
4 feet, 9 inches ⫽ 4(12) ⫹ 9 ⫽ 57 inches. 99.2 is too high to be the average, since all
74 inches − 57 inches ⫽ 17 inches, or 1 foot the numbers given are less than 99.2, and
5 inches. that 97.9 and 98.0 are too low, since most of
the numbers are greater than 98. You can
also calculate the answer by adding all the
numbers together and dividing by 5:
99 + 98 + 97.9 + 98.6 + 98.5
5
= 492
5
= 98.4 .
75
12. a. The first step in solving the problem is to 20. c. The easiest way to calculate the area is to
subtract 86 from 148. The remainder, 62, is realize that in order to include the shaded
then divided by 2 to get 31. areas between the circle and the square, the
13. a. The hospital will spend 50($15.50) + entire shaded figure must be made up of
100($2.15) = $775 + $215 = $990.00 on lab half a circle of diameter 4, or radius 2, on
coats. top of a rectangle that is 4 units wide and 6
14. b. 150x = (100)(1), where x is the part of a units tall. The area of a rectangle is length ⫻
mile a jogger has to go to burn the calories a width. The area of a circle ispr2. So the area
walker burns in 1 mile. If you divide both of the shaded area = (4)(6) + ᎏ12ᎏp(2)2 =
sides of this equation by 150, you get 24 + 2p.
100
x=ᎏ 150 . Cancel 50 from the numerator and
ᎏ 21. a. First, find out what 12 rides would cost if
denominator to get ᎏ23ᎏ. This means that a you bought each ride individually: 12 ⫻
jogger has to jog only ᎏ23ᎏ of a mile to burn $1.50 ⫽ $18.00. $18.00 ⫺ $15.50 = $2.50.
the same number of calories a walker burns 22. c. The highest monthly rent that Javier can
in a mile of brisk walking. afford is 30% of his monthly income, or
1 2 cc x cc
15. c. The ratio is ᎏ 100 lbs. = 175 lbs., where x is the
ᎏ 0.30($3,500) = $1,050.
number of cc’s per 175 lbs. Multiply both 23. c. Write out the words into equations.
12
sides by 175 in order to get 175 ⫻ ᎏ 100 = x,
ᎏ t ⫽ s + 4; s ⫽ r ⫺ 2. When r ⫽ 8, then
so x = 21. s ⫽ 6. When s ⫽ 6, then t = 6 + 4 ⫽ 10.
16. a. 20% of 1,800 = (0.2)(1,800) = 360 calories 24. b. First, find the percent increase from 8 to 10.
from fat. Since there are 9 calories in each 10 ⫺ 8 ⫽ 2. ᎏ28ᎏ ⫽ ᎏ14ᎏ ⫽ 25%. How do you
gram of fat, you should divide 360 by 9 to increase 16 by 25%? Find 25% of 16: 16 ⫻
find that 40 grams of fat are allowed. 0.25 ⫽ 4. Add this 25% to 16: 16 ⫹ 4 ⫽ 20.
17. c. Plug in the given values, being careful with 25. d. Solve the equation by isolating x:
the signs: 2x − yz = 2(−1) − (4)(−2) = 13 ⫼ 0.0013 ⫽ 10,000.
−2 − (−8) = −2 + 8 = 6. 26. b. Simply estimating the value of ᎏ470ᎏ will
18. b. 20% of 15 cc = (0.20)(15) = 3. Adding 3 to probably let you know that 0.0175 is much
15 gives 18 cc. too small, and 1.75 and 17.5 are much too
19. a. The area of a triangle equals ᎏ21ᎏ(base × height) large. If that did not work for you, however,
but only the base is given. Since this is a you could divide 7 by 40 in order to get
right triangle, we can find the height h using 0.175.
the Pythagorean theorem. h2 + 32 = 52; 27. d. 30 ppm of the pollutant would have to be
h2 + 9 = 25; h2 = 16; h = 4. Thus, the area removed to bring 50 ppm down to 20 ppm;
is ᎏ12ᎏ(3)(4) = ᎏ12ᎏ(12) = 6. 30 ppm represents 60% of 50 ppm.
28. a. The drug is 50% effective for half (or 50%)
of migraine sufferers, so it eliminates
(0.50)(0.50) = 0.25 = 25% of all migraines.
29. d. Division is used to arrive at a decimal,
which can then be rounded to the nearest
hundredth and converted to a percentage:
11,350 ÷ 21,500 = 0.5279; 0.5279 rounded
to the nearest hundredth is 0.53, or 53%.
76
30. b. Since there are two digits after the decimal 39. d. The area formula for both a square and a
point in each number you are multiplying, rectangle is A = length × width. Since all
there will be four digits after the decimal sides of a square are equal, a square of side
point in the correct answer: 0.0216. length 6 has an area of 62 = 36. To have the
31. c. First, change 2ᎏ14ᎏ to an improper fraction: ᎏ94ᎏ. same area, a rectangle of length 2 must have
Next, in order to divide by ᎏ23ᎏ, invert that a width w such that 2w = 36, or w = 18.
fraction to ᎏ32ᎏ and multiply: ᎏ94ᎏ ⫻ ᎏ32ᎏ = ᎏ287ᎏ = 3ᎏ38ᎏ. 40. c. The measures of supplementary angles add
32. a. First, find the least common denominator, up to 180°, so r + s = 180°. Therefore,
16; ᎏ78ᎏ = ᎏ1146ᎏ, so you can rewrite the problem 52° + s = 180°, and s = 128°.
as (3 + ᎏ196ᎏ) – (1 + ᎏ1146ᎏ). To get a large enough 41. a. Fractions must be converted to the lowest
numerator from which to subtract 14, you common denominator, which is 60; ᎏ160ᎏ = ᎏ3660ᎏ;
11 33 8 32
borrow 1 from the 3 to rewrite the problem ᎏᎏ = ᎏᎏ; ᎏ15ᎏ = ᎏᎏ, which is the smallest
20 60 60
as 2ᎏ216ᎏ5 – 1ᎏ1146ᎏ = 1ᎏ1116ᎏ. fraction.
33. b. This is a simple multiplication problem, 42. c. Add the whole numbers: 2 + 4 = 6. Use the
which is solved by multiplying 35 ⫻ 8.2 in least common denominator of 8 to add the
order to get 287. fractions: ᎏ28ᎏ + ᎏ58ᎏ + ᎏ48ᎏ = ᎏ181ᎏ = lᎏ38ᎏ. Add 1 to the
34. c. The problem is solved by dividing 204 by whole number sum: 1 + 6 = 7, and then add
1,700. The answer, 0.12, is then converted the fraction to get 7ᎏ38ᎏ.
to a percentage, 12%. 43. d. 750 is n% of 600, which, expressed as an
n
35. d. The patients are being transferred from the equation, is 750 = (ᎏ 100 )(600). Cancel 100 in
ᎏ
hospital to the nursing home, and the the right side of the equation: 750 = 6n.
question asks for total miles traveled by the Divide both sides by 6 to arrive at n = 125.
time the ambulance returns to the hospital. Therefore, 750 is 125% of 600.
Since the ambulance is starting and ending 44. d. Multiply the numerator and denominator
at the hospital, it will be making 4 round of ᎏ1235ᎏ by 4 to get ᎏ 52
100 or 0.52.
ᎏ
trips total with 4 patients, or traveling 45. b. Make sure to convert the given numbers to
8 ⫻ 10ᎏ15ᎏ = 80ᎏ58ᎏ = 81ᎏ35ᎏ miles. the same units. Convert the length of
36. b. The simplest way to solve this problem is to bandages needed into centimeters:
divide 1 by 1,500, which is 0.0006667, and 4 m × 100 cm/m = 400 cm. One 250 cm roll
then count off two decimal places to arrive of bandages will not be enough, but
at the percentage 0.06667%. Since the two rolls will provide 500 cm of bandages,
question asks about what percentage, the which will fulfill the doctor’s needs with
nearest value is 0.067%. 100 cm left over.
37. a. You can use trial and error to arrive at a 46. b. Because parallel lines never intersect, choice
solution to this problem. Using choice a, a is incorrect. Perpendicular lines do
after the first hour, the number would be intersect, so choice c is incorrect. Choice d
20, after the second hour 40, after the third is incorrect because intersecting lines have
hour 80, after the fourth hour 160, and after only one point in common.
the fifth hour 320. The other answer choices 47. c. This is a simple subtraction problem, as
do not have the same outcome. long as the decimals are lined up correctly:
38. a. Since the solution to the problem x + 25 £ 3.60 − 1.89 = 1.71.
13 is x £ –12, choices b, c, and d are all too
large to be correct.
77
48. c. This is a two-step multiplication problem. 11. c. The atmosphere of Venus is dominated by
To find out how many heartbeats there CO2. It has no water vapor and is very thick.
would be in one hour, you must multiply 12. b. There are six flavors of quark: up, down,
72 beats per minute by 60 minutes per hour, bottom, top, charm, and strange.
and then multiply this result, 4,320, by 6.5 13. c. Mars Pathfinder successfully landed on
hours in order to get 28,080. Mars in 1997.
49. a. The unreduced ratio is 8,000:5,000,000 or 14. d. If atoms have the same number of protons
8:5,000; 5,000 ÷ 8 = 625, for a ratio of but different numbers of neutrons, they are
1:625. isotopes.
50. b. Before subtracting, you must convert both 15. c. If a substance gains electrons, it is reduced.
5
fractions to 24ths: 12 − 38 = 10
24
9
− 24 1.
= 24 If it loses electrons, it is said to be oxidized
(because its oxidation state is decreased).
Section 4: General Science 16. d. The prefix micro- refers to millionths.
1. c. Johann Kepler gave us the laws of planetary 17. d. The prefix giga- refers to billions.
motion. Lyell studied changes in the Earth 18. a. The standard metric unit of energy is the
over time; Mendel studied the heredity of joule.
plants; and Hooke studied biological cells. 19. b. There are 1,000, or 103, meters in a
2. b. The experimental factor is the one you kilometer.
change or manipulate. All the others are 20. b. Multiplying 60 seconds per minute by
held constant. 60 minutes per hour times 24 hours per day
3. c. The standard metric unit of volume is the by 365 days in a year (actually 365.25) yields
liter. the answer of between 31 and 32 million
4. d. There are 1,000,000 micrograms in one seconds per year.
gram. The prefix micro- means million. 21. b. Radiation is the means of heat transfer by
5. c. The universe is expanding outward. which heat moves outward from a hot body.
6. d. Mendel used pea plants to conduct his 22. a. We believe the dinosaurs became extinct
research in trait inheritance. He grew and because of a massive meteor that impacted
studied nearly 30,000 pea plants. the Earth. Evidence for this includes a layer
7. d. Galileo made himself a small—but for that of iridium in the rock layer from the same
time, powerful—telescope, turned it time period, with iridium being found
skyward, and made many discoveries, primarily in meteorites. Also, a giant impact
including the moons of Jupiter, craters of crater has been found from that time.
our moon, and sunspots. 23. b. If a rock contains fossils, it is most likely
8. a. The control in an experiment is the baseline sedimentary. Igneous, metamorphic, and
that is not subjected to the variable under volcanic rocks have been exposed to too
study. Choices c and d are made up. much heat and/or pressure for any traces of
9. c. One gram is equal to 1,000 milligrams. The life to be left behind.
prefix milli- means thousandth. 24. a. Weather occurs in the troposphere.
10. b. Theories, such as Einstein’s theory of 25. d. Autotrophs are plants, algae, and bacteria
relativity or Darwin’s theory of evolution, that produce their own food through
are the biggest concepts in science. Theories photosynthesis. The other choices are
can contain more detailed hypotheses, and all animals, which do not carry out
good theories make predictions. photosynthesis.
78
26. d. Patterns from distant galaxies are shifted 33. b. If the time when the Big Bang occurred was
“red,” which means toward longer 13.7 billion years ago, the formation of
wavelengths. In this case, going from a Earth occurred about 4.5 billion years ago.
pattern in the red toward a pattern in longer Therefore, taking 1 EFU as 4.5 billion years
wavelengths means the infrared. (by definition from the question), there
13.7
27. d. Oxygen is formed last because it is the most were ᎏ 4.5 , or about 3, EFUs back to the Big
ᎏ
massive and complex of the four elements Bang.
listed. Fusion reactions build from the 34. c. Meteorites formed along with Earth at the
simplest to the most complex, and the beginning of the solar system. But on Earth,
stages of fusion take hydrogen and then the no rocks go back that far. The dates from
other elements built in sequence as starting meteorites give us the best estimate of the
points for more complex elements. origin of our solar system.
28. a. Supernova explosions, which are cata- 35. d. Mercury is the nearest planet to the sun.
strophic events at the end of the lives of giant The asteroids are between Mars and Jupiter.
stars, scatter elements previously made by Phobos is a moon of Mars.
fusion reactions in the star over their 36. b. Of the possibilities, the only one in space
lifetimes, as well as elements born in the right now is the International Space Station.
intense temperatures and pressures of the The space shuttles have been taken out of
supernova explosion itself. active service, so Russian rockets are taking
29. d. Hydrogen is primordial and was made new astronauts to the space station at this
shortly after the Big Bang when the universe time.
cooled enough for atoms to condense. The 37. b. Eris is the most massive known dwarf
other elements are all made by nuclear planet in the Solar System.
fusion reactions in stars. These reactions 38. b. In 2004, rovers on the surface of Mars
consume hydrogen. discovered types of minerals that, as far as
30. c. Helium is both primordial and made we know, could have been formed only with
during fusion reactions when two hydrogen the activity of water. Also, channels on Mars
nuclei are fused together inside stars. This had previously been seen that looked much
fusion reaction is the main source of energy like the branching slow patterns of Earth’s
for stars. rivers.
31. d. Carbon increases in density because as time 39. c. Jupiter comes before the planet with rings,
passes, more and more carbon is made in Saturn. Choices a and d are planets farther
the fusion reactions inside stars. Choices a away than Saturn. And obviously, Saturn
and b actually decrease in density as the itself (choice b) makes no sense.
universe expands, and choice c also 40. d. The spins of galaxies cannot be explained by
decreases in density as hydrogen is the amount of known, ordinary matter.
consumed in fusion reactions. Something out there (the “dark matter”) is
32. a. Venus is the closest planet to Earth. It is 38 creating more gravity than we can account
million kilometers from Earth at its closest for with the known, ordinary matter.
approach. Mars, the second-nearest planet 41. b. 73% of the universe is dark energy.
to Earth, is 54 million kilometers at its
closest approach.
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42. c. Carbon is made by fusion reactions in stars. Section 5: Biology

Therefore, before stars and supernovas can 1. b. A-U is a nucleotide base pairing. This
disperse that carbon, there would have been represents the pairing in RNA with tyrosine
no carbon in the earliest planets (in fact, (T) replaced by uracil (U).
planets as solid bodies could not have 2. d. Adipose tissue is the connective tissue
formed either). Life is so dependent on otherwise known as fat. Adipose is made up
carbon that without carbon is seems likely of lipids, also referred to as fatty acids or
there could not have been life. triglycerides.
43. c. The continental slope is still part of the 3. a. Viruses are unable to reproduce because
continent, but it does head downward to the they lack cells. Viruses rely on host cells to
ocean floor itself. express their genetic material. Viruses
44. a. The word atom comes from the Greek word contain enzymes and nucleic acid and have
that means indivisible. Though atoms are evolved through natural selection.
now known to have parts (they are 4. d. Kingdoms are general categories and species
divisible), they still are the fundamental are very specific groups.
units of any element. 5. b. One of the primary functions of the liver is
45. d. Carbon-14 is the radioactive form of to process toxins absorbed in the digestive
carbon (the most common form is carbon- system.
12). Carbon-14 is formed in the atmosphere 6. b. The loop of Henle is a component of the
when cosmic rays hit nitrogen and convert nephron of the kidney, the excretory organ
small amounts of it by changing a proton to in vertebrates.
a neutron—a nuclear change. Using its half- 7. b. Chloroplasts are found only in plants. Both
life decay rate, we can measure the amount plants and animals have mitochondria and
of carbon-14 in ancient wood to determine nuclei, and bacteria and plants possess cell
the dates of wood architecture of ancient walls.
peoples, as well as their campfires and even 8. a. The following are the SI units: 10–l = deci;
bones. 10–2 = centi; 10–3 = milli; 10–6 = micro;
46. c. Quarks are the constituents of protons and 10–9 = nano; 10–12 = pico; 10–15 = femto;
neutrons. 10–18 = atto.
47. d. Neutrons and protons are the parts of the 9. b. A compartment filled with air or watery
nucleus of an atom. fluid in the cytoplasm is referred to as a
48. b. The unit of resistance is the ohm. vacuole. Centrioles and centrosomes are
49. a. Electromagnetism describes the interaction associated with the process of cell division.
between charged particles. Answers b, c, and 10. c. Chloroplasts contain chlorophyll and are
d correspond to the strong, weak, and found only in plant cells.
gravitational forces, respectively. 11. a. Mitochondria are known as the power
50. c. Mendel is known as the founder of modern plants of the cell and are responsible for
genetics because of his work showing how most ATP generation.
the inheritance of certain traits in pea plants
follows a pattern. This is now called
Mendelian Inheritance.
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12. d. All cells undergo mitosis to reproduce into 20. d. An expressed trait is determined by two
identical cells with the same DNA. Cells alleles. A phenotype is the physical or visual
specialize into different tissue by expressing expression of the genotype.
different parts of their DNA. Only gametes 21. d. Organisms that adapted to use oxygen
may have different DNA from their parent through aerobic respiration made energy
cells due to meiosis. more efficiently than those that used
13. d. Mammals are differentiated from other anaerobic respiration, giving them an
animals by their mammary glands, which evolutionary advantage.
females use to nurse their young. Birds can 22. c. Early cells were prokaryotic and resemble
also regulate their body temperatue, so that the bacteria found today. The other options
is not the correct answer. are simple life forms that evolved from
14. c. The lysosome is the garbage truck of the single-celled prokaryotes.
cell, handling waste and breaking it down. 23. d. The father gives only his Y chromosome to
15. b. Flowering plants (angiosperms) might the son, so the mother must have given the
reproduce faster because their reproductive son the X-linked trait. Because the mother
process involves flowers, which attract does not show the X-linked trait, she is
insects to help spread pollen and other considered a carrier of the trait.
animals to spread seeds. Also, the seeds of 24. a. Marrow produces red and white blood cells
angiosperms have a tough skin, which may and platelets and is located in the bones of
help them tolerate harsh conditions. the skeletal system.
16. d. The figure shows a nerve cell. Note the long 25. d. Enzymes are catalysts that allow chemical
extensions (axons and dendrites) unique to reactions to proceed more rapidly.
neurons. Blood, fat, and muscle cells have 26. c. Kelp is a brown algae; the others are fungi.
very different shapes. 27. c. Viruses are noncellular, and they must enter
17. c. Hepatitis is a disease marked by a inflam- a living cell to replicate. However, not all
mation of the liver, as indicated by the viruses are disease-causing; many viruses do
Greek roots hepato meaning liver and itis no apparent harm.
meaning inflammation. 28. b. Bacteria can be placed in three groups
18. d. Bacteria reproduce by binary fission. All (cocci, bacilli, spirilla) based on their shape.
other choices relate to eukaryotic cell 29. c. Malaria is caused by Plasmodium, which is a
division. protist. The others are viruses.
19. a. The primary function of a blood platelet is 30. c. All bacteria are prokaryotes, meaning that
to aid in the blood clotting process. Platelets they lack a nucleus. Eukaryotes contain a
scrape against the rough edges of broken nucleus and other organelles. Some
tissue and release a substance to promote eukaryotes are single-celled (protists).
clotting. Red blood cells carry oxygen. 31. a. Transcription describes the copying of DNA
Antibodies are produced by B lymphocytes. to messenger RNA, which travels out of the
Phagocytic cells include neutrophils and nucleus before being translated into
macrophages (monocytes). proteins.
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32. d. Translocation is a type of mutation in 38. a. Beriberi, most common in countries where
which a section of one chromosome breaks white rice is the main food source, is caused
off and joins with another. In aneuploidy, by a lack of vitamin B1. Deficiencies in
an individual has an abnormal number of vitamin C can cause scurvy, and deficiencies
chromosomes. Transcription is the process in vitamin D can cause rickets. Hemolytic
in which genetic information is transferred anemia is a possible consequence of vitamin
from DNA to mRNA. Translation is a E deficiency.
process used in the synthesis of new 39. c. Chlorophyll is the pigment that absorbs
proteins on ribosomes. light energy and is critical to photosynthe-
33. b. A zygote is the product of a sperm nucleus sis. It is green in color.
fused with an ovum nucleus. A zoospore is 40. d. Anaphylaxis is an immune system response
found in certain fungi. Ova is the plural of such as that which occurs in a person who
ovum, a female egg, while an oocyte is a cell gets stung by a bee and is allergic to the
in the ovary that produces an ovum after venom. Hypertension is another term for
undergoing meiosis. high blood pressure and is not a common
34. a. Glycolysis is a combination of “glucose” and characteristic of anaphylaxis.
“lysis” (meaning breakdown). 41. a. The correct answer is analgesic. Anesthetics
35. a. When there is a shortage of oxygen in block perception of all sensory stimuli
muscle tissue, pyruvic acid produces lactic either generally (all over) or locally (in a
acid to be converted to glucose by the liver. specific area). Acetycholine is a neurotrans-
Lactose is milk sugar. Adrenaline is a mitter.
hormone produced in the adrenal medulla 42. c. Thymine is a DNA nucleobase that pairs
that stimulates the sympathetic nervous with adenine.
system, while serotonin, also a hormone, is 43. d. Kupffer cells remove red blood cells,
produced in many parts of the body. otherwise known as erythrocytes, and other
36. c. The large intestine’s main functions are degenerating matter from the liver.
water absorption and feces production. The Leukocytes and eosinophils are white blood
large intestine consists of the rectum, colon, cells.
and caecum. Almost all the digestion and 44. a. The first law of thermodynamics describes
absorption of nutrients occurs in the small the conservation of energy.
intestine. The liver has numerous functions, 45. c. Down’s syndrome is also known as trisomy
including the metabolism of carbohydrates, 21 syndrome.
lipids, and proteins, as well as the removal 46. d. Ethanol, or ethyl alcohol, depresses the CNS,
of drugs and hormones and the production thereby affecting the neural activity of the
of bile. The stomach is the holding reservoir consumer. Isopropyl alcohol is for external
in which saliva, food, and gastric juices mix use only and is found in cosmetics.
prior to continuing the digestive process in Methanol is wood alcohol used as a solvent.
the small intestine. Methionine is an organic compound used in
37. a. Calcium ions are released in the interim dietary supplements.
between the time when a stimulus is 47. a. The primary structure describes a protein’s
received and a response occurs in muscle amino acid sequence. Choices b and c
tissue. describe a protein’s secondary and tertiary
structures, respectively.
82
48. a. Warts are usually insignificant growths 5. b. The secondary structure describes the
caused by a virus. Sarcomas are malignant geometry of segments of the protein, such
tumors arising from connective tissue, while as a-helices and b-sheets. The amino acid
adenomas are glandlike benign tumors. A sequence describes the primary structure,
cold sore is a lesion caused by the herpes while the 3-dimensional fold of the protein
simplex virus. describes the tertiary structure. Quaternary
49. c. Rhodopsin, or visual purple, is the light- structure is the arrangement of multiple
sensitive pigment in vertebrate eyes. protein subunits into a larger protein
Cytochrome is a respiratory enzyme, complex.
hemoglobin is the oxygen-bearing protein 6. b. The mass number (35) is equal to the
in red blood cells that gives them their red number of protons + neutrons. 35 − 17 =
color, and melanin is the dark pigment 18 neutrons.
found in skin, hair, and the retina. 7. b. The atomic number is the number of
50. b. People suffering from high blood pressure, protons in any given element.
or hypertension, have an increased risk of 8. a. Sodium hydroxide, a strong base, forms
stroke and heart attack. Cardiomyopathy is sodium chloride (table salt) and water when
a form of muscle damage that leads to heart combined with hydrochloric acid, a strong
failure. acid.
9. d. According to the octet rule, the atom tends
Section 6: Chemistry to be most stable when it has eight valence
1. b. It is very important for blood to be close to electrons. Chlorine, a group VII element on
neutral pH, as variance outside a small pH the periodic table, will have to gain one
range can cause death. Ammonia is a well- electron to have eight valence electrons.
known base, while lemon juice and vinegar This gives it a total of 18 electrons.
contain citric and acetic acids, respectively, 10. d. A butane is an alkane with four carbon
giving them low pH. atoms. The t in t-butane stands for a tertiary
2. a. The condensation of two amino acids carbon. The central carbon of choice d is
occurs when amine and carboxylic acid tertiary because it has three other carbon
groups combine to form an amide bond. atoms bonded to it. Choice a is also a
3. c. NH2 is an amino group, which gives an butane molecule, but it is n-butane. Choices
amino acid the first part of its name. It is b and c are not butanes.
found in 19 of the 20 amino acids. The 11. c. Neutral oxygen possesses 8 electrons (same
other prevalent group is carboxylic acid, or as the number of protons). The −2 charge
COOH, which is not one of the answer on the ion means that there are 2 additional
choices. electrons for 10 total.
4. a. When two amino acids come together, the 12. c. A Lewis base is defined as a species that has
carboxylic acid group of one reacts with the a nonbonding pair or pairs of electrons that
amine group of the other. An OH– from the it can donate to form new bonds. Sodium is
carboxylic acid combines with an H+ from the only choice that does not have at least
the amine group to form H2O. The one lone pair of electrons.
remaining C=O of the carboxylic acid then
bonds with the remaining N-H of the
amine to form a peptide bond.
83
13. b. Combustion is a reaction in which an 20. a. Neutral magnesium possesses 2 valence

alkane burns in excess oxygen to give off electrons. To reach its nearest full valence
carbon dioxide and water. Hydrogen gas, shell, it loses those electrons, giving it an
present in all three incorrect equations, is oxidation state of +2.
not a participant in combustion reactions. 21. d. The complete chemical symbol includes two
14. d. The configuration of a chlorine atom in the numbers. The lower number is the atomic
ground state is [Ne]3s23p5. A Cl– ion has an number, or the number of protons in the
additional electron, giving it the same nucleus. The upper number is the mass
electron configuration as an argon atom in number, or the sum of the protons and
the ground state, which can also be written neutrons in the nucleus. Therefore, the
as [Ne]3s23p6. answer is 1633S2– because there are 18
15. c. The carbon atom in methane has four electrons present.

sigma bonds around it, meaning that it uses 22. b. Nonmetal oxides (SO3) and bases (KOH)
its s atomic orbital and all three p atomic react to form salts and water. The solution
orbitals to form four sp3 molecular orbitals. in choice a forms an acid, and that in choice
The number of atomic orbitals combining c forms a salt, but such a reaction would not
always equals the number of molecular give off oxygen.
orbitals formed. 23. d. Lewis acids are electron-pair acceptors,
16. c. Electronegativity is a measure of the ability while Brønsted acids are proton donors.
of an atom to attract shared electrons to HCl and H2SO4 are proton donors. CH4 is
itself. It increases going across rows of the not an acid of any type. AlCl3 has the ability
periodic table to the right and decreases to accept 2 electrons (to give it 8 in its
going down columns of the table. Na, S, and valence shell), making it a Lewis acid.
Cl are all in the same row of the table, with 24. d. This problem is simply an equation-
Cl being rightmost. Cl is also above Br, so it balancing problem. The number of
is the most electronegative atom. molecules of each element must be the
17. b. This is the definition of the boiling point. At same on each side of the equation. Choice d
temperatures higher than the boiling point, has 8 carbons, 20 hydrogens, and 26
the vapor pressure of the liquid is greater oxygens on each side of the equation.
than external pressure, and molecules begin 25. a. The molar mass of the compound NaCl is
to escape in the gaseous phase. approximately 58.4 g/mol; 29.2 grams is
18. c. Fe2O3 contains 3 O atoms, each with a −2 one-half the molar mass of NaCl, so the
charge. To balance this −6 overall charge, solution is 0.5 M because there is one liter
each iron atom must have an oxidation state of the solution. Molarity is moles/liter.
of +3. 26. a. Ethers have the formula R1–O–R2. Choices
19. a. The empirical formula of a compound is b, c, and d are a carboxylic acid, an amine,
the formula written in the simplest form and an alkene, respectively.
possible. C2H6O2 has one molecule of both
C and O for every three molecules of H, so
the empirical formula is CH3O.
84
27. c. The sum of the oxidation numbers must be 35. d. The pH of blood is naturally 7.40 and must
equal to the net charge on the compound, always remain near that pH to prevent
so the sum must be equal to zero. The shock and/or death.
charge on the cation is the same as its 36. a. This question refers to the ideal gas law, or
oxidation number, so the oxidation number the equation PV = nRT. Solving for P gives
of Na is +1 and the oxidation number for P = nRT/V. Therefore, pressure is inversely
S2O3 is −2. Oxygen almost always has an proportional to volume.
oxidation number of −2, so the oxidation 37. b. Compounds are solids in the upper left
number of sulfur must be +2. portion of the diagram.
28. b. The formula P1V1 = P2V2 must be used. 38. c. To sublime is to go directly from the solid to
Solving 2 atm(2 L) = P2(0.5 L) for P2 gives the gas state. The gas state is the farthest
8 atm. down on the phase diagram.
29. d. The sum of the partial pressures is the total 39. a. NH3 and O2 form NO. Choice a is the only
pressure, or, in this case, the air pressure. equation that forms this molecule and is
Since the sample is 21% oxygen, and there is balanced.
a total pressure of 800 torr, the partial 40. b. 36 grams of O2 are needed; the molar mass
pressure is 800 ⫻ 0.21, or 170 torr. of O2 is 32 g/mol.
32 g O
30. a. 36 is the atomic number of krypton. The 1.5 mole Al ⫻ 34 moles O2
moles Al
⫻ mole O2 = 36 g O2
2
atomic mass of krypton is 83.80, and the 41. a. Only a thin layer of clothing and breathing
electron configuration is represented by the protection are necessary to protect the body
period numbers listed on the left of the from exposure to alpha particles.
periodic table. The group number refers to 42. c. Each carbon atom in benzene has 3 s bonds
the element’s placement on a vertical (2 to other carbons and 1 to hydrogen),
column on the periodic table. meaning that it must use 1 s atomic orbital
31. d. P possesses 15 total electrons and this and 2 of its p orbitals to form 3 sp2
electronic structure, according to Hund’s molecular orbitals.
rule. 43. b. 8.26 ⫻ 102 ⫻ 103 pm = 8.26 ⫻ 105 pm
32. a. Only choice a has all the octets filled and no 44. a. This system shows one of the blood’s acid
formal charges. Other choices leave buffers preventing a rise in acidity, which
impossible or unstable structures (i.e., also means that it is preventing a drop in
choice b), unfilled octets (i.e., choice d), or pH. This system is preventing the pH from
formal charges. dropping below 7.40, which is the pH of
33. b. Group VI elements will fill their outer shells blood.
by gaining two electrons, giving them a 45. b. Precision is the degree of closeness to which
charge of ⫺2. They will most likely form the measurements are repeated, regardless
ionic bonds with atoms from group II, which of how close those measurements are to the
will lose two electrons to have a full outer true value. The group of measurements
shell and a charge of ⫹2. closest to each other, although not
34. d. The hydrogen bond causes an attraction necessarily 125, are 122 mL, 121 mL, 121
between the positive and negative poles of mL, and 121 mL.
water molecules, making the surface of 46. c. Reactivity with water increases going down
water sticky. and to the left on the periodic table.
85
47. d. Electronegativity increases on the periodic In order to do so, convert your raw scores above into
table travelling up and to the right, making percentages. (Note that this percentage is not the same
F the most electronegative element. as the percentile that will appear on your score report.
48. a. Calcium ions convert prothrombin to The percentage is simply the number you would have
thrombin, which causes fibrinogen to gotten right if there had been 100 questions in the sec-
convert to fibrin. Fibrin causes coagulation tion; it will enable you to compare your raw scores
of the blood. among the various sections. The percentile compares
49. a. The empirical formula describes the your score with that of other candidates.)
simplest relative ratios of the atoms in a To get percentages for the sections with 50 ques-
molecule. tions, simply multiply your raw score by two. (Since
50. c. The definition of a saturated fatty acid is a each section has 50 questions, your percentage is twice
fatty acid with no double bonds. your raw score.)
For section 2, divide your raw score by 45, and
then move the decimal point two places to the right to
Scoring arrive at a percentage.
Now that you know what percentage of the ques-
Your score on each section is reported both as a raw tions on each section you got right, you’re ready to out-
score, the number of questions you got right in that line your study plan. The sections on which you got the
section, and as a percentile, a number that indicates lowest percentages are the ones that you should plan
what percent of other test takers scored lower than you on studying hardest. Sections on which you got
did on this section. No total score is reported, only higher percentages may not need as much of your
scores for individual sections. Furthermore, there is no time. However, unless you scored over 95% on a given
such thing as a “passing” raw or percentile score. Indi- section, you can’t afford to skip studying that section
vidual schools set their own standards. altogether. After all, you want the highest score you can
For purposes of comparison, you’ll work with manage in the time left before the exam.
raw scores in this book. So the first thing you should Use your percentage scores in conjunction with
do is count up the number of questions you got right the Nursing School Entrance Exam Planner in Chap-
in each section and record them in the following ter 1 of this book to help you devise a study plan. Then
blanks. turn to the chapters that follow this one, which cover
each of the areas tested on the nursing school entrance
Section 1: _____ of 50 questions right exam. These chapters contain valuable information on
Section 2: _____ of 45 questions right each section of the exam, along with study and test-
Section 3: _____ of 50 questions right taking tips and lots of practice questions to help you
Section 4: _____ of 50 questions right score your best.
Section 5: _____ of 50 questions right
Section 6: _____ of 50 questions right
Your purpose in taking this first practice exam—

in addition to getting practice in answering the kinds
of questions found on nursing school entrance
exams—is to identify your strengths and weaknesses.
86
4
C H A P T E R
VERBAL ABILITY
CHAPT ER S UM M ARY
In order to be a successful health professional, you have to express
ideas clearly and accurately. Because written expression is an impor-
tant part of your ability to communicate, your nursing school entrance
exam will contain a spelling section. In the Verbal Ability section, you
will not be required to spell out words, but rather, you will be asked to
identify the correct spelling of a word from four choices.
T his chapter is designed to help you refresh your spelling skills by teaching you rules you can use to
spell your best. You’ll learn strategies to help you spell words with tricky letter combinations, unusual
plurals, prefixes, and hyphenated and compound words.
What Spelling Questions Are Like
The spelling part of the Verbal Ability section of your exam will test your capacity to spell correctly and recog-
nize properly and improperly spelled words. For example, you may be given four differently spelled versions of
the same word and asked to find the choice that is spelled correctly.
1. Select the correctly spelled word.

a. peice
b. piece
c. peece
d. peise
87
– VERBAL ABILITY –
The correct answer is choice b, piece. Knowing ie and ei

the rule for when to use ie or ei could have helped you If you’ve never heard the old rhyme, “I before e except
answer this question. Read on to learn the rule. after c, or when sounding like a as in neighbor or weigh,”
Your exam might also present you with a set of be sure to learn it now—it works. Another way to think
different words and ask you to pick out the one word about ie vs. ei is to remember that you use ie to make a
that is spelled incorrectly. For example: long e sound and ei to make a long a sound. Words with
the long e sound include: wield, fierce, and cashier. Words
2. Choose the misspelled word. with the long a sound include: eight, vein, and deign.
a. destructive
b. decisive 3. Choose the correctly spelled word.
c. distinguished a. yeild
d. There is no misspelled word. b. mischeivous
c. achieve
If your spelling skills are sharp, you know that the d. percieve
correct answer is choice d; all three choices are spelled
correctly. If you remember the rhyme and the long a/long e
Another version of this question type may ask rule above, it’s easy to see the correct answer is choice c,
you to find the correctly spelled word from a group of achieve.
misspelled words. When you are taking your exam, But beware! There are some words that are
always be sure to read each question carefully so that exceptions to this rule. Memorize the following words
you know exactly what the question is asking. so you’ll recognize them if they come up on the exam:
friend piety fiery

How to Prepare for quiet notoriety society
Spelling Questions science ancient deficient
conscience either seize
Reading as much as you can, looking at words carefully, weird sheik seizure
visualizing the words, listening for the sounds of words, leisure height sleight
and learning the most common prefixes, suffixes, and stein seismology heifer
roots are all simple and effective ways to improve your their foreign forfeit
spelling skills naturally. But if you want to ensure that neither protein Fahrenheit
you ace the spelling portion of your entrance exam, Codeine
nothing beats learning the rules.
ia and ai
Use ai when the vowel combination makes the sound
Spelling Rules “uh,” like the word villain. Use ia when each vowel is
pronounced separately, like the word median.
Most of the spelling questions found on your nursing
school entrance exam will test your knowledge of 4. Which of the following words is misspelled?
spelling rules, so getting a good grasp on these rules is a. guardain
essential. The most common rules the test will cover b. Britain
are: c. controversial
d. There is no misspelled word.
88
Choice a is spelled incorrectly. In the word When to Drop the Final e

guardian, the i and a are pronounced separately— Drop the final e before adding any ending that begins
guard-I-an. Therefore, ia should be used. with a vowel, such as -ed, -ing, and -able. Some exam-
ples are biked and baking. Keep the final e when adding
Other Two-Vowel Combinations endings that begin with consonants, such as -ly or -ful.
Another grade-school rhyme will help you here: Some examples are carefully and gamely.
“When two vowels go walking, the first one does the There are a few exceptions to this rule. You keep
talking.” This holds true most of the time. Let’s break the final e when adding an ending that begins with a
down the rhyme to fully understand it. “When two vowel if:
vowels go walking” refers to a two-vowel combination
in a word. For example, abstain, cheap, and foe. “The ■ You need to protect pronunciation (show that a
first one does the talking” means that in the two-vowel preceding vowel should be long, for example, as
combinations, only the first vowel is pronounced, and in hoe + ing = hoeing, not hoing).
the second one is silent. In the case of our examples,
you hear the long a in abstain, but not the i. In cheap, You will drop the final e when adding an ending
you hear the long e but not the a. Similarly, in foe, you that begins with a consonant if:
hear the long o but not the e.
Here are some more examples of words that fol- ■ The e follows a u or w.
low the two-vowels rule:
6. Choose the misspelled word.
plead float a. placed
woe repeat b. woeful
boat gear c. truely
treat suit d. There is no misspelled word.
steal read
chaise bead The misspelled word is found in choice c, truely.
moat heat The correct spelling is truly. This word is an example of
an exception to the rule. Usually, when adding an end-
5. Choose the correctly spelled word. ing that begins with a consonant (in this case, -ly), you
a. nuisance keep the final e, unless it follows a u or w. In the word
b. niusance true, the letter e does indeed follow the letter u, so
c. nuicanse when adding true + ly, drop the final e: truly.
d. niucanse
When to Keep a Final y or
The correct answer is choice a, nuisance. Say this Change It to i
word out loud. It sounds like new-sance, right? You When a final y follows a consonant, change the y to i
hear the long u, but not the i, The first vowel does the when adding any ending except -ing. When the final y
talking here, so the correct combination must be ui. follows a vowel, it does not change. This rule applies to
all endings, even plurals.
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Change the y to an i: For example:
early—earlier fly—flier, flies traffic + -er = trafficker

party—partied, weary—wearied, wearies traffic + -able = trafficable
partier, parties pretty—prettier,
sorry—sorrier prettiness Other examples of when to add a k are:
worry—worried, try—tried, tries
worrier, worries panic—panicking, panicked, panicky
mimic—mimicking, mimicked, mimicker
Remember to keep the y when adding -ing: picnic—picnicking, picnicked, picnicker
fly—flying party—partying 8. Choose the correctly spelled word.

weary—wearying worry—worrying a. trafficer
try—trying b. panicy
c. historical
When the final y is preceded by a vowel, you do d. havoced
not change it to an i. For example:
Only choice c, historical, is spelled correctly.
enjoy—enjoyed, employ—employed, Remember, a k is required after a final c when an end-
enjoying, enjoys employing, employs ing that begins with e, i, or y is added. So the other
pray—prayed, delay—delayed, choices should be trafficker, panicky, and havocked.
praying, prays delaying, delays One of the difficulties of spelling in English is
creating plurals. Unfortunately, you can’t always sim-
7. Find the misspelled word. ply add the letter -s to the end of the word to signal
a. holiness more than one.
b. queasyness
c. spying When to Use -s or -es to Form Plurals
d. There is no misspelled word. There are two simple rules that govern most plurals.
The rule states that when a final y follows a con- 1. Most nouns add -s to make plurals.
sonant, you must change the y to i when adding any 2. If a noun ends in a sibilant sound (s, ss, z, ch, x,
ending except -ing. The final y in queasy is preceded by sh), add -es.
a consonant (letter s), so when the ending -ness is
added, the y should change to i: queasiness. Therefore, The following are some examples of plurals:
choice b is misspelled.
cars faxes dresses
Adding Endings to Words computers indexes churches
with a Final c books lunches guesses
Add a k after a final c before any ending that begins skills dishes buzzes
with e, i, or y. All other endings do not require a k.
90
Exceptions Plurals That Don’t Use -s or -es

Remember from the last lesson that when a word ends There are many words that don’t use -s or -es to form
in a y preceded by a consonant, the y changes to i when plurals. These are usually words that still observe the
you add -es. rules of the languages from which they were adopted.
For instance, in Latin words, -um becomes -a, -us
SINGULAR PLURAL
becomes -i, and in Greek words, -sis becomes -ses.
fly flies
Most of these plurals are part of your reading, speak-
rally rallies ing, and listening vocabularies. A good way to remem-
ber these plurals is by saying the words aloud, because
Plurals for Words That End in o you may remember them more easily if you listen to
If a final o follows another vowel, you need to add only the sound of the spelling.
an -s.
SINGULAR PLURAL
Here are some examples:
child children
deer deer
patios radios
studios videos goose geese
man men
When the final o follows a consonant rather than a mouse mice
vowel, there is no rule to guide you in choosing -s ox oxen
or -es. You just have to learn the individual words. woman women
The following words form a plural with -s alone:
alumnus alumni
curriculum curricula
albinos pianos
datum data
altos silos
banjos sopranos fungus fungi
logs broncos medium media

stratum strata
The following words take -es: analysis analyses
axis axes
heroes tomatoes
basis bases
potatoes vetoes
oasis oases
When in doubt about whether to add -s or -es to parenthesis parentheses
a word, look it up in the dictionary. thesis theses
91
9. Choose the correctly spelled word. Examples in Context

a. pianoes He led a dual (adjective) life as a spy.
b. tomatos He fought a duel (noun) with his great enemy.
c. deers
d. spies He had to alter (verb) his clothes after he lost
weight.
Only choice d, spies, is spelled correctly. The cor- The bride smiled as she walked toward the altar
rect spelling of choices a and b is pianos and tomatoes. (noun).
These words belong to the group of plurals that has to
be learned individually. Choice c is an exception. It
belongs to the group of plurals that do not use -s/-es Prefixes
endings. The plural form of deer is deer.
Generally, when you add a prefix to a root word,
neither the root nor the prefix changes spelling:
Homonyms
un- + prepared = unprepared
Homonyms are words that sound the same but are mal- + nutrition = malnutrition
spelled differently. Many of these words have just one sub- + traction = subtraction
change in the vowel or vowel combination. There’s no mis- + informed = misinformed
rule about these words, so you’ll simply have to mem-
orize them. This rule applies even when the root word begins
Here are some examples of word pairs that can with the last letter of the prefix. Generally, you use both
be troublesome. Often, the two words in a homophone consonants, but let your eye be your guide. If it looks
pair are a different part of speech. Take a look at the funny, it’s probably not spelled correctly. The following
following examples: are some examples of double consonants that are correct:
affect/effect led/lead dissatisfied irreverent

altar/alter minor/miner disservice misspelled
bare/bear passed/past illegible misstep
bloc/block peal/peel irrational unnatural
cite/site piece/peace
cord/chord sheer/shear 10. Choose the correctly spelled word.
coarse/course stationery/stationary a. ilogical
descent/dissent weak/week b. illogicall
dual/duel which/witch c. illogicle
heal/heel write/right d. illogical
Since the meanings of these homonyms are usu- Only choice d, illogical, is spelled correctly.
ally very different, context within a sentence is proba- Remember that in the majority of cases, when you add
bly the best way to differentiate between these words. a prefix to a root word (il- + logical), neither the root
nor the prefix changes spelling, even when the root
word begins with the last letter of the prefix.
92
Practice Questions 18. a. anouncement

Here are some practice spelling questions. The b. advisement
answers follow. c. description
Choose the correctly spelled word in questions 11–15.
19. a. omission
11. a. magically b. aisle
b. magickelly c. litrature
c. majicelly d. There is no misspelled word.
d. magicaly
20. a. oases
12. a. beleif b. tomatoes
b. bilief c. heroes
c. belief d. gooses
d. beleaf
Answers to Practice Questions
13. a. nieghbor 11. a. magically
b. neihbor 12. c. belief
c. niehbor 13. d. neighbor
d. neighbor 14. c. efficient
15. a. collaborate
14. a. eficient 16. c. The correct spelling is babies.
b. eficeint 17. d. There is no misspelled word.
c. efficient 18. a. The correct spelling is announcement.
d. efficeint 19. c. The correct spelling is literature.
20. d. The correct spelling is geese.
15. a. collaborate
b. colaborate
c. collaborat Tips for Answering Verbal
d. colabarate Ability Questions
Find the misspelled word in questions 16–20. ■ Practice using the sample questions in this
chapter.
16. a. women ■ Read widely to improve your general vocabulary
b. people and spelling.
c. babys ■ Say the words silently to yourself. If it sounds
d. There is no misspelled word. wrong, it probably is wrong.
■ Dissect the words to find their roots, prefixes,
17. a. radios and suffixes.
b. leaves ■ Learn the rules of spelling and memorize words
c. alumni that are exceptions.
93
Additional Resources ■ Vocabulary and Spelling Success in 20 Minutes a

Day, 5th Edition
If you’d like to improve your verbal ability, your best ■ 501 Synonym and Antonym Questions
resource is your public or college library. Any chal-
lenging reading will improve your vocabulary and
spelling. The following are some LearningExpress
books specifically about building those skills.
94
5
C H A P T E R
READING
COMPREHENSION
CHAPT ER S UM M ARY
Because reading is such a vital skill, many nursing school entrance
exams include a reading comprehension section that tests your abil-
ity to understand what you read. The tips and exercises in this chap-
ter will help you improve your comprehension of written passages so
that you can increase your score in this area.
A s a nursing professional, you will do a lot of reading—memos, policies, and manuals, as well as
medical and technical reports, charts, and procedures. Understanding written material is a key
part of the job. Reading comprehension is also an essential skill for students of nursing
programs—most likely, you will need to read and understand scientific and medical textbooks as part of the train-
ing for your career. As a result, nursing school entrance exams attempt to measure how well applicants under-
stand what they read.
The reading comprehension section of your test will look much like reading comprehension segments you
have encountered before on other standardized tests. You read a passage one to five paragraphs long, usually sci-
entific in nature, and then answer one or more questions based on what you have read. You do not need to have
any prior or specific knowledge to answer the questions—you need only the information presented in the pas-
sage. You will be asked to interpret passages, identify the author’s purpose, look at how ideas are organized and
presented, and draw conclusions based on the information in the passage.
95
– READING COMPREHENSION –
Types of Reading is his opinion (and not everyone shares it), he needs to
Comprehension Questions support his opinion with facts and details.
An inference is a conclusion that can be drawn
As a test taker, you have two advantages when answer- based on facts or evidence. For example, you can infer
ing multiple-choice questions about reading passages: based on the fact that workers became 50% more pro-
ductive after the reorganization, which is a dramatic
1. Before you start reading, you don’t have to know change, that prior to the reorganization, the department
anything about the topic of the passage. had not been efficiently organized. The fact sentence,
2. You’re being tested only on the information the “After the department’s reorganization, workers were
passage provides. 50% more productive,” also implies that the reorgani-
zation of the department was the reason workers
The disadvantage is that you have to know where became more productive. There may, of course, have
and how to find that information quickly in an unfa- been other reasons, but we can infer only one from this
miliar text. This makes it easy to fall for one of the sentence.
wrong answer choices, especially since they are As you might expect, vocabulary questions ask
designed to mislead you. you to determine the meanings of particular words. If
The best way to do well on this passage/question you have read carefully, you can determine the mean-
format is to be very familiar with the kinds of ques- ing of a word from its context—that is, how the word
tions that are typically asked on the test. Questions is used in the sentence or paragraph.
most frequently ask you to: Because most of the texts you will read as a nurs-
ing student and professional are scientific in nature,
■ Identify a specific fact or detail in the passage. you are most likely to find fact or detail and vocabulary
■ Note the main idea of the passage. questions on your entrance exam. However, because all
■ Make an inference based on the passage. four types of questions are important to reading com-
■ Define a vocabulary word from the passage. prehension (because not all scientific texts are objec-
tive, and analysis and interpretation are important
Facts and details are the specific pieces of infor- parts of the scientific process), you will find main idea
mation that support the passage’s main idea. The main and inference questions on the tests as well.
idea is the thought, opinion, or attitude that governs The following is a sample test passage, followed
the whole passage. Generally speaking, facts and by four questions. Read the passage carefully, and then
details are indisputable—things that don’t need to be answer the questions based on your reading of the text
proven, like statistics (18 million people) or descrip- by circling your choice. Note under your answer which
tions (a green overcoat). Let’s say, for example, you type of question has been asked (fact or detail, main
read a sentence that says, “After the department’s reor- idea, inference, or vocabulary). Correct answers appear
ganization, workers were 50% more productive.” A immediately after the questions.
sentence like this, which gives you the fact that 50% of
workers were more productive, might support a main Practice Passage 1:
idea that says, “Every department should be reorgan- Using the Four Question Types
ized.” Notice that this main idea is not something The immune system, which protects the body
indisputable; it is an opinion. The writer thinks all from infections, diseases, and other injuries, is
departments should be reorganized, and because this composed of the lymphatic system and the
skin. Lymph nodes, which measure about 1 to
96
25 centimeters across, and small vessels called 3. Which of the following best expresses the main
lymphatics compose the lymphatic system. The idea of the passage?
nodes are located in the groin, armpits, throat, a. The immune system is very sensitive and
and trunk, and are connected by the registers minute sensations.
lymphatics. The nodes work with the body’s b. The skin and its glands are responsible for
immune system to fight off infectious agents, preventing most infections.
like bacteria and fungus. When infected, the c. The lymphatic system and the skin work
lymph nodes are often swollen and sensitive. together to protect the body from infection.
The skin, the largest organ of the human body, d. Communication between the lymphatic
is also considered part of the immune system. system and the brain is essential in
Hundreds of small nerves in the skin send preventing and fighting infection.
messages to the brain to communicate pressure, Question type:
pain, and other sensations. The skin encloses
the organs to prevent injuries and forms a 4. As it is used in this passage, the word compose
protective barrier that repels dirt and water and most nearly means
stops the entry of most harmful chemicals. a. create, construct.
Sweat glands in the skin help regulate the b. arrange, put in order.
body’s temperature, and other glands release c. control, pull together.
oils that can kill or impede the growth of d. form, constitute.
certain bacteria. Hair follicles in the skin also Question type:
provide protection, especially of the skull and
groin. Answers and Explanations for
Practice Passage 1
1. Lymph nodes are connected by Don’t just look at the right answers and move on. The
a. blood vessels. explanations are the most important part, so read
b. smaller nodes. them carefully. Use these explanations to help you
c. nerves. understand how to tackle each kind of question the
d. small vessels. next time you come across it.
Question type:
1. d. Question type: fact or detail. The third
2. According to the passage, pain in the lymph sentence of the passage says that the nodes
nodes most likely indicates that the are connected by the lymphatics, which are
a. skin is dirty or saturated with water. defined in the second sentence as small
b. nodes are battling an infection. vessels. You may know that nerves and blood
c. brain is not responding properly to infection. vessels make a web of connections in our
d. lymphatics are not properly connected to bodies, but the passage specifically states
the nodes. that lymphatics—small vessels, not blood
Question type: vessels (choice a)—connect the nodes.
97
2. b. Question type: inference. The passage says Detail and Main

that when lymph nodes are infected, they Idea Questions
are often swollen and sensitive. Thus, if
nodes are painful, they are probably swollen Detail or fact questions and main idea questions both
and sensitive, and they are swollen and ask you for information that is right there in the pas-
sensitive because they are fighting an sage. All you have to do is find it.
infection. This is also the best answer
because none of the other answers are Detail or Fact Questions
clearly connected to pain in the lymph In detail or fact questions, you have to identify a specific
nodes. Dirty or saturated skin (choice a) item of information from the text. This is usually the
may indeed result in infection, but that is simplest kind of question. You just have to be able to
not what the question is asking. Choices c separate important information from less important
and d describe malfunctions of the immune information. However, the choices may often be very
system, a subject that is not discussed in the similar, so you must be careful not to get confused.
passage. Be sure you read the passage and questions care-
3. c. Question type: main idea. The idea that the fully. In fact, it is usually a good idea to read the ques-
lymphatic system and the skin work tions first, before you even read the passage, so you will
together to protect the body from infection know what details to look out for.
is the only answer that can serve as a “net”
for the whole passage. The other three Main Idea Questions
answers are limited to specific aspects of The main idea of a passage, like that of a paragraph or
the immune system and, therefore, are too a book, is what it is mostly about. The main idea is like
restrictive to be the main idea. For example, an umbrella that covers all of the ideas and details in
choice b refers only to the skin, so it does the passage, so it is usually something general, not spe-
not encompass all of the ideas in the cific. For example, in Practice Passage 1, question 3
passage. asked about the main idea, and the correct answer was
4. d. Question type: vocabulary. Although all of the choice that said the skin and the lymphatic system
the answers can mean compose in certain work together to prevent infection. This is the best
circumstances, choice d is the only meaning answer because it is the only one that includes both the
that really works in the context of the skin and the lymphatic system, both of which are dis-
passage, which says that the lymph nodes cussed in the passage.
and the lymphatics “compose the lymphatic Sometimes, the main idea is stated clearly, often
system.” The passage makes it clear that the in the first or last sentence of the passage. The main
lymph nodes and the lymphatics are the two idea is expressed in the first sentence of Practice Pas-
parts of the lymphatic system. Thus, they sage 1, for example. The sentence that expresses the
form or constitute the lymphatic system. main idea is often referred to as the topic sentence.
They don’t create it, arrange it, or control it; At other times, the main idea is not stated in a
they are it. topic sentence but is implied in the overall passage, and
you will need to determine the main idea by inference.
Because there may be a lot of information given in the
passage, the trick is to understand what all that infor-
mation adds up to—the gist of what the author wants
98
you to know. Often, some of the wrong answers on 1. Which type(s) of allergic reactions result in
main idea questions are specific facts or details from swelling?
the passage. A good way to test yourself is to ask, “Can a. Types I and III
this answer serve as a net to hold the whole passage b. Types III and IV
together?” If not, chances are you have chosen a fact or c. Type III only
detail, not a main idea. d. Types II and IV
Practice answering main idea and detail ques-
tions by working on the questions that follow this pas- 2. IgE, IgG, and IgM can be classified as
sage. Check your answers against the key that appears a. allergens.
immediately after the questions. b. mediators.
c. antibodies.
Practice Passage 2: Detail and Main d. medications.
Idea Questions
3. Which of the following would be the best title
Because the body responds differently to
for this passage?
different allergens, allergic reactions have been
a. Preventing Allergic Reactions
divided into four categories. Type I allergies, the
b. Determining the Causes of Allergies
most common, are characterized by the
c. Allergens and the Human Body
production of immunoglobulin E (IgE), a type
d. Four Types of Allergic Reactions
of antibody that the immune system releases
when it thinks a substance is a threat to the body.
4. Which of the following best expresses the main
IgE releases chemicals called mediators, like
idea of the passage?
histamine, which cause blood vessels to dilate
a. Allergies cause different responses in the
and release fluid into the surrounding tissues,
body.
usually resulting in a runny nose and sneezing.
b. People should avoid things that may cause
Type I allergies include allergic asthma and hay
allergic reactions.
fever, as well as reactions to insect stings and
c. Type I allergies affect the most people.
dust. Type II allergies, which are far more rare,
d. Mediators play an important role in allergic
are usually reactions to medications and can
reactions.
cause liver and kidney damage or anemia. The
body sends immunoglobulin M (IgM) and
Answers and Explanations for
immunoglobulin G (IgG) to the site to fight the
Practice Passage 2
infection. Type III allergies are usually caused by
1. b. The passage says that both Type III and Type
reactions to drugs like penicillin. The body
IV allergic reactions cause swelling. In Type
releases IgM and IgG, but these allergens cause
III allergies, IgM and IgG bind away from cell
IgM and IgG to bind away from cell surfaces.
surfaces. This creates clumps of allergens and
This creates clumps of allergens and antibodies
antibodies that . . . cause swelling. Type IV
that get caught in the tissues and cause swelling,
allergies also cause the release of mediators
which can affect the kidneys, joints, and skin.
that create swelling as well as itchy rashes.
Type IV allergies cause the release of mediators
that create swelling as well as itchy rashes. These
are usually skin reactions to irritants like poison
ivy, soaps, cosmetics, and other contact allergens.
99
2. c. The passage says that immunoglobulin E main idea should be general enough to
(IgE) is a type of antibody that the immune include all of the ideas in the passage.
system releases. The Ig in IgE, IgG, and IgM
stands for immunoglobulin; all three are
different types of immunoglobulin and, Inference and
therefore, different types of antibodies. The Vocabulary Questions
immunoglobulins then release the mediators,
like histamine, so choice b is incorrect. Questions that ask you about the meaning of vocabu-
Further, immunoglobulins are produced in lary words in the passage and those that ask what the
response to allergens, so choice a cannot be passage suggests or implies (inference questions) are
correct. And the passage clearly indicates that different from detail or main idea questions. In vocab-
immunoglobulins are produced by the body, ulary and inference questions, you usually have to pull
so choice d is also incorrect. ideas that are not expressly stated in the passage, some-
3. d. Titles generally reflect the main idea of a times from more than one place in the passage.
passage and must therefore be general
enough to cover everything in that passage. Inference Questions
The passage does not discuss how to prevent Inference questions can be the most difficult to answer
allergic reactions, so choice a is not a good because they require you to draw meaning from the text
answer. The passage does discuss what when that meaning is implied rather than directly stated.
causes allergic reactions, but that is only part Inferences are conclusions that we draw based on the
of what the passage covers, and it does not clues the writer has given us. When you draw inferences,
discuss how to determine the specific causes you have to be something of a detective, looking for clues
of a reaction, so choice b is incorrect. Choice such as word choice, tone, and specific details that sug-
c is not right because the passage does not gest a certain conclusion, attitude, or point of view. You
focus on allergens; in fact, specific allergens have to read between the lines in order to make a judg-
aren’t even mentioned for Type II allergies. ment about what an author is implying in the passage.
Finally, it is clear that choice d is the best A good way to test whether you have drawn an
answer because the first sentence in the acceptable inference is to ask, “What evidence do I have
passage is a topic sentence: Because the body for this inference?” If you can’t find any, you probably
responds differently to different allergens, have the wrong answer. You need to be sure that your
allergic reactions have been divided into four inference is logical and that it is based on something
categories. This indicates that the passage is that is suggested or implied in the passage itself—not
primarily about the four types of allergic by what you or others might think. Like a good detec-
reactions and not about allergens. tive, you need to base your conclusions on evidence—
4. a. This choice best expresses the main idea of facts, details, and other information—not on random
the passage because it restates the topic hunches or guesses.
sentence, which tells us that the body responds
differently to different allergens. Choice b is Vocabulary Questions
not a good answer because the passage does There are generally two types of vocabulary questions.
not discuss ways to avoid allergic reactions, The first tests how carefully you have read a passage
and although choices c and d are mentioned that may contain a number of new or technical terms
in the passage, they are too specific to and definitions. If you see that a passage has a number
encompass the whole passage. Remember, the of unfamiliar terms, mark each term as it is defined.
100
This will make it easier for you to go back and find the text in which it is used, as you can see from the fol-
right answer. lowing sentences.
The second type of vocabulary question is
designed to measure how well you can figure out the a. The patient manipulated the wheelchair
meaning of a word from its context. Context refers to around the obstacles.
how the word is used in the sentence—how it works b. The media’s manipulation of the facts has a
with the words and ideas that surround it. If the context powerful effect on politics.
is clear enough, you should be able to substitute a non-
sense word for the one being sought and still make the Sentence a uses the first definition of the word,
right choice because you could determine its meaning while sentence b uses the second.
strictly from the sense of the sentence. For example, you When you are confronted with this type of ques-
should be able to determine the meaning of the fol- tion, your best bet is to take each possible answer and
lowing italicized nonsense word based on its context: substitute it for the word in question in the sentence.
Whichever answer makes the most sense in the context
The speaker noted that it gave him great of the sentence should be the correct answer.
terivinix to announce the winner of the Outstanding The questions that follow this passage are strictly
Leadership Award. vocabulary and inference questions. Circle the answers
to the questions, and then check your answers against
In this sentence, terivinix most likely means the key that appears immediately after the questions.
a. pain.
b. sympathy. Practice Passage 3: Inference and
c. pleasure. Vocabulary Questions
d. anxiety.
The rise of science in the seventeenth century
ushered in the modern world. Four men are
Clearly, the context of an award makes choice c,
primarily responsible for the discoveries that
pleasure, the best answer. Awards don’t usually bring
form the foundation of scientific and
pain, sympathy, or anxiety.
philosophical thought today: Copernicus,
When confronted with an unfamiliar word, try
Kepler, Galileo, and Newton. Copernicus
substituting a nonsense word and see if the context
overthrew the geocentric notion of the universe
gives you the clue. If you are familiar with prefixes,
which held that the earth—and therefore
suffixes, and word roots, you can also use this knowl-
humanity—was at the center of the universe
edge to help you determine the meaning of an unfa-
and showed that the planets revolve around the
miliar word.
sun. Kepler, the first major astronomer to adopt
More often, however, you will be asked about
Copernicus’s heliocentric theory, discovered
how familiar words or phrases are used in context.
three laws of planetary motion that helped
These questions can be very tricky because words often
validate Copernicus’s theory. Galileo revealed
have more than one acceptable meaning. Your job is to
the role of acceleration in dynamics and
figure out which meaning makes the most sense in the
established the law of falling bodies. Finally,
context of the sentence. For example, the word manip-
Newton’s studies of motion—made possible
ulate can mean either (a) to handle or manage skillfully
only by the work of the three scientists before
or (b) to arrange or influence cleverly or craftily. The
him—led to his laws of motion and the
meaning of this word depends entirely upon the con-
universal law of gravitation: “Every body
101
attracts every other body with a force directly Answers and Explanations for
proportional to the product of their masses and Practice Passage 3
inversely proportional to the square of the 1. b. Look at how adopt is used in the sentence:
distance between them.” Much of modern Kepler, the first major astronomer to adopt
science is based upon these theories. Copernicus’s heliocentric theory, discovered
three laws of planetary motion that helped vali-
1. As it is used in the passage, the word “adopt” date Copernicus’s theory. Because Kepler
most nearly means to helped validate this theory, choice a can’t be
a. take and use as one’s own. correct, and neither can choice d; the passage
b. approve or accept. clearly indicates that it’s Copernicus’s theory,
c. make suitable for a new situation. not Kepler’s. Furthermore, there’s no indica-
d. take guardianship for. tion from the context that Kepler changed the
theory to make it suitable for another situa-
2. From the passage, which of the following can tion, so choice c cannot be correct either.
be inferred about Copernicus’s heliocentric 2. c. We can infer that Copernicus’s theory went
theory? against established ideas because the passage
a. It supported the religious doctrine of says that Copernicus overthrew the notion
the time. that humanity was at the center of the uni-
b. It was accepted only because of Kepler. verse, suggesting that the geocentric theory
c. It went against established ideas. was the accepted theory of the time and that
d. It revealed the laws of planetary motion. Copernicus’s idea was revolutionary. There is
no suggestion in the passage that Copernicus’s
3. Information contained in the passage supports theory supported the religious doctrine of the
which of the following statements about the time, so choice a cannot be correct. Further-
four scientists? more, the passage says that Kepler’s discovery
a. Their scientific discoveries contributed to helped validate Copernicus’s theory, but this
the philosophical and social changes of the does not imply that it was accepted only
seventeenth century. because of Kepler (choice b). Finally, the laws
b. Of the four, Newton’s theories have been of planetary motion were discovered by
most instrumental in modern science. Kepler, not Copernicus, so choice d cannot be
c. Their primary goal was to refute the theory correct.
that Earth was the center of the universe. 3. a. The passage discusses scientific discoveries
d. They recognized that their achievements that challenged and changed the way human
were based on the achievements of those beings saw themselves in the universe and
before them. how the motion of bodies on Earth and in the
universe was understood. We can thus infer
4. As it is used in the passage, the word established that these discoveries greatly altered ideas in
most nearly means both philosophy and, of course, science.
a. instituted or ordained by law or agreement. Again, the word overthrew suggests upheaval,
b. set up permanently or brought into so choice a is the best answer. Choice b can-
existence. not be correct because the passage does not
c. settled in a place or position. favor one scientist over the others; in fact, the
d. introduced and secured acceptance of. passage tells us that Newton could not have
102
done his work without those who came 4. d. If you insert the possible answers into the sen-
before him. Furthermore, although these men tence, it should be clear that choice d makes
did refute the theory that Earth was the cen- the most sense in context. Galileo “established
ter of the universe, there’s no indication in the law of falling bodies”—a law of gravity
this passage that that was what the men were and motion that naturally exists in the uni-
out to prove, as in choice c. Finally, while the verse—so he could not have personally insti-
writer of the passage recognizes that the tuted these laws by law or agreement (choice
achievements of these men were based only a), set them up or brought them into existence
on the achievements of the others before (choice b), or settled them in a place or posi-
them, there is no indication here of what the tion (choice c). Instead, he introduced them
men themselves thought, so choice d cannot to the public and secured acceptance of them
be correct. by revealing the role of acceleration in dynam-
ics (choice d).
If English Is Not Your First Language

A major problem for non-native English speakers is difficulty in recognizing vocabulary and idioms (expres-
sions like “chewing the fat”) that assist comprehension. In order to read with good understanding, it’s impor-
tant to have an immediate grasp of as many words as possible in the text. Test takers need to be able to
recognize vocabulary and idioms immediately so that the ideas those words and phrases express are clear.
The Day-to-Day
Read newspapers, magazines, and other periodicals that deal with current events and matters of local, state,
and national importance. Pay special attention to articles related to the career you want to pursue.
Be alert to new or unfamiliar vocabulary or terms that occur frequently in the popular press. Use a high-
lighter pen to mark new or unfamiliar words as you read. Keep a list of those words and their definitions.
Review them for 15 minutes each day. Though at first you may find yourself looking up a lot of words, don’t
be frustrated—you will look up fewer and fewer words as your vocabulary expands.
During the Test

When you are taking the test, make a picture in your mind of the situation being described in the passage.
Ask yourself, “What did the writer want me to think about this subject?”
Locate and underline the topic sentence that carries the main idea of the passage. Remember that the
topic sentence—if there is one—may not always be the first sentence. If there doesn’t seem to be one, try
to determine what idea summarizes the whole passage.
103
Review: Putting It 2. Main idea question: _____________________

All Together _____________________________________
a.
A good way to solidify what you have learned about b.
reading comprehension questions is for you to write c.
the questions. Here is a passage, followed by space for d.
you to write your own questions. Write one question of
each of the four types: fact or detail, main idea, infer- 3. Inference question: _____________________
ence, and vocabulary. _____________________________________
a.
In the years since it was first proposed, the free b.
radical theory of aging has gained wide c.
acceptance. But hypotheses that attempt to d.
explain exactly how free radicals are involved in
the aging process are muddled by the lack of a 4. Vocabulary question: ____________________
clear definition of aging. Is aging a _____________________________________
programmed stage of cellular differentiation, or a.
is it the result of physiological processes b.
impaired by free radical or other damage to c.
cells? Despite the want of a clear definition, few d.
people question that free radical damage to cell
nucleic acids and lipids is an important factor Possible Questions
in aging. A recent study shows that oxygen-free Here is one question of each type based on the previ-
radicals cause approximately 10,000 DNA base ous passage. Your questions may be very different, but
modifications per cell per day. Perhaps the these will give you an idea of the kinds of questions
accumulation of unrepaired damage of this that could be asked.
type accounts for the deterioration of
physiological function. A new theory, however, 1. Detail: DNA modification can occur
indicates that free radicals also damage cell a. 10,000 times in the life of a cell.
proteins, and that the accumulation of oxidized b. 1,000 times every second.
protein is an important factor in aging. c. thousands of times a day.
d. once a day.
1. Detail question: ________________________
_____________________________________ 2. Main idea: Which sentence best sums up this
a. passage?
b. a. There are many theories, but no one knows
c. how free radicals really affect aging.
d. b. Free radicals are deadly.
c. Scientists need a clearer definition of aging.
d. Free radicals will lead scientists to the
fountain of youth.
104
3. Inference: The passage suggests which of the Additional Resources

following about the aging process?
a. A clear definition of aging must be found in Here are some other ways you can build the vocabulary
order to determine the cause of aging. and knowledge that will help you do well on reading
b. DNA controls the aging process. comprehension questions.
c. Free radical damage to proteins increases
with age. ■ Practice asking the four sample question types
d. Aging is somehow related to free radical about passages you read for information or
damage to cells. pleasure.
■ Using a computer search engine such as Google
4. Vocabulary: The phrase want of as used in the or Yahoo!, search out articles and forums related
fourth sentence most nearly means to the career you would like to pursue. Exchange
a. desire for. views with others through online forums and
b. lack of. message boards. All of these exchanges will help
c. requirement of. expand your knowledge of job-related material
d. request for. that may appear in a passage on the test.
■ Begin now to build a broad knowledge of your
Answers potential profession. Get in the habit of reading
1. c. articles in newspapers and magazines on job-
2. a. related issues. Keep a clipping file of those arti-
3. d. cles. This will help keep you informed of trends
4. b. in the profession and familiarize you with perti-
nent vocabulary.
■ Consider reading or subscribing to professional
journals. They are usually available for a reason-
able annual fee. They may also be available in
your library.
■ If you need more help building your reading
skills and taking reading comprehension tests,
consider Reading Comprehension Success in 20
Minutes a Day, 4th Edition, published by
LearningExpress.
105
6
C H A P T E R
MATH REVIEW
CHAPT ER S UM M ARY
This chapter gives you important tips for dealing with math questions
on your nursing school entrance exam and reviews some of the most
commonly tested concepts. If you have forgotten most of your high
school math or have math anxiety, this chapter is for you.
T he math section of any nursing school entrance exam covers concepts that you probably studied in
high school, with an emphasis on arithmetic, algebra, and geometry. Nurses need to be comfortable
with numbers and be able to compute sums quickly. Both your ability to learn the scientific concepts
that form the foundation of your work and your on-the-job performance will depend on your ability to reason
logically using numbers.
For an entrance exam to the educational program of your choice, you need to know how to work not only
with whole numbers, but also with fractions and decimals. You will have to be able to figure percentages, solve
algebraic equations, and work with geometric figures. The tests assume that you know some basic terminology—
words such as sum and perimeter—and some basic formulas, such as the area of a square or circle. Some admis-
sions tests have a separate analytical reasoning section that measures your ability to recognize relationships
between shapes or objects through visualization. This chapter will also prepare you for these types of questions.
Before you review those concepts, however, take a look at some strategies you can use to help you answer
multiple-choice math questions.
107
– MATH REVIEW –
Math Strategies ■ Approximate when appropriate. For example:

■ $5.98 + $8.97 is a little less than $15. (Add:
■ Don’t work in your head! Use your test book or $6 + $9)

■ 0.9876 5.0342 is close to 5. (Multiply:
scratch paper to take notes, draw pictures, and
calculate. Although you might think that you can 1 5)
solve math questions more quickly in your head, ■ Skip hard questions and come back to them
that’s a good way to make mistakes. Write out later. Mark them in your test book so you can
each step. find them quickly. Make sure you also skip the
■ Read a math question in chunks rather than question on your answer sheet!
straight through from beginning to end. As you
read each chunk, stop to think about what it Backdoor Approaches for
means and make notes or draw a picture to repre- Answering Questions
sent that chunk. Remember those word problems you dreaded in high
■ When you get to the actual question in the mid- school? Many of them are actually easier to solve using
dle of a word problem, circle it. This will keep backdoor approaches. The two techniques that follow
you more focused as you solve the problem. are terrific ways to solve multiple-choice word prob-
■ Glance at the answer choices for clues. If they’re lems. The first technique, nice numbers, is useful when
fractions, you should probably do your work in there are unknowns (like x) in the text of the word
fractions; if they’re decimals, you should probably problem, making the problem abstract. The second
work in decimals; etc. technique, working backward, presents a quick way to
■ Before you begin doing any math, make a plan substitute numeric answer choices into the problem to
of attack to help you solve the problem. see which one works.
■ If a question stumps you, try one of the back-
door approaches explained in the next section. Nice Numbers
These are particularly useful for solving word 1. When a question contains unknowns, like x, plug
problems. “nice numbers” in for the unknowns. A nice
■ When you get your answer, reread the circled number is one that is easy to calculate with and
question to make sure you’ve answered it. This makes sense in the problem.
helps avoid the careless mistake of answering the 2. Read the question with the nice numbers in
wrong question. place. Then solve it.
■ Check your work after you get an answer. Test 3. If the answer choices are all numbers, the choice
takers get a false sense of security when they get that matches your answer is the right one.
an answer that matches one of the multiple- 4. If the answer choices contain unknowns, substi-
choice answers. Here are some good ways to tute the same nice numbers into all of the
check your work if you have time: answer choices. The choice that matches your
■ Ask yourself if your answer is reasonable and answer is the right one. If more than one answer
if it makes sense. matches, do the problem again with different
■ Plug your answer back into the problem to nice numbers. You’ll only have to check the
make sure the problem holds together. answer choices that have already matched.
■ Do the question a second time, but use a
different method.
108
– MATH REVIEW –
Example probably only have to substitute one or two answers to

find the right one.
Judi went shopping with p dollars in her
pocket. If the price of shirts was s shirts for d This approach works only when:
dollars, what is the maximum number of shirts
Judi could buy with the money in her pocket? ■ All of the answer choices are numbers.
a. psd ■ You’re asked to find a simple number—not a sum,
b. pds product, difference, or ratio.
pd
c.
s
d. ds
Here’s what to do:
p
To solve this problem, let’s try these nice num- 1. Look at all the answer choices and begin with the
bers: p = $100, s = 2 shirts; d = $25. Now reread it with one in the middle of the range. For example, if
the numbers in place: the answers are 14, 8, 2, 20, and 25, begin by
plugging 14 into the problem.
Judi went shopping with $100 in her pocket. If 2. If your choice doesn’t work, eliminate it. Deter-
the price of shirts was 2 shirts for $25, what is mine if you need a bigger or smaller answer.
the maximum number of shirts Judi could buy 3. Plug in one of the remaining choices.
with the money in her pocket? 4. If none of the answers works, you may have
made a careless error. Begin again or look for
Since 2 shirts cost $25, that means that 4 shirts cost your mistake.
$50, and 8 shirts cost $100. So our answer is 8. Let’s
substitute the nice numbers into all four answers: Example
a. 100 2 25 = 5,000 Juan ate 13 of the jelly beans. Maria then ate 34
100 2
b. =8 of the remaining jelly beans, which left 10 jelly
25
100 25 beans. How many jelly beans were there to
c. = 1,250
2
25 2 1 begin with?
d. =
100 2 a. 60
b. 80
The answer is choice b because it is the only one that
c. 90
matches our answer of 8.
d. 120
e. 140
Working Backward
You can frequently solve a word problem by plugging
Starting with the middle answer, let’s assume
the given answer choices into the text of the problem
there were 90 jelly beans to begin with:
to see which one fits all the facts stated in the problem.
Since Juan ate 13 of them, that means he ate 30 (13
The process is faster than you think because you’ll
90 = 30), leaving 60 of them (90 – 30 = 60). Maria
109
– MATH REVIEW –
then ate 34 of the 60 jelly beans, or 45 of them (34 60 Since Juan ate 13 of them, that means he ate 20 (13
= 45). That leaves 15 jelly beans (60 – 45 = 15). 60 = 20), leaving 40 of them (60 – 20 = 40). Maria
The problem states that there were 10 jelly beans then ate 34 of the 40 jelly beans, or 30 of them (34 40
left, and we wound up with 15 of them. That indicates = 30). That leaves 10 jelly beans (40 – 30 = 10).
that we started with too big a number. Thus, 90, 120, Because this result of 10 remaining jelly beans
and 140 are all wrong! With only two choices left, let’s agrees with the original problem, the right answer is
use common sense to decide which one to try. The choice a.
next lower answer is only a little smaller than 90 and
may not be small enough. So, let’s try 60:
GLOSSARY OF TERMS
Denominator the bottom number in a fraction. Example: 2 is the denominator in 12.

Difference the answer you get when you subtract. The difference of two numbers means to subtract
one number from the other.
Divisible by a number is divisible by a second number if that second number divides evenly into the
original number. Example: 10 is divisible by 5 (10 ÷ 5 = 2, with no remainder). However,
10 is not divisible by 3. (See multiple of)
Even Integer integers that are divisible by 2, like . . . –4, –2, 0, 2, 4, . . . (See integer)
Integer numbers along the number line, like . . . –3, –2, –1, 0, 1, 2, 3, . . . Integers include the
whole numbers and their opposites. (See whole number)
Multiple of a number is a multiple of a second number if that second number can be multiplied
by an integer to get the original number. Example: 10 is a multiple of 5
(10 = 5 2); however, 10 is not a multiple of 3. (See divisible by)
Negative Number a number that is less than zero, like . . . –1, –18.6, –34, . . .
Numerator the top part of a fraction. Example: 1 is the numerator of 12.
Odd Integer integers that aren’t divisible by 2, like . . . –5, –3, –1, 1, 3, . . .
Positive Number a number that is greater than zero, like . . . 2, 42, 12, 4.63, . . .
Prime Number an integer that is divisible only by 1 and itself, like . . . 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, . . .
Product the answer you get when you multiply. The product of two numbers means the numbers
are multiplied together.
Quotient the answer you get when you divide. Example: 10 divided by 5 is 2; the quotient is 2.
Real Number all the numbers you can think of, like . . . 17, –5, 12, –23.6, 3.4329, 0, . . . Real numbers
include integers, fractions, and decimals. (See integer)
Remainder the number left over after division. Example: 11 divided by 2 is 5, with a remainder of 1.
Sum the answer you get when you add. The sum of two numbers means the numbers are
added together.
Whole Number numbers you can count on your fingers, like . . . 1, 2, 3, . . . All whole numbers are
positive.
110
– MATH REVIEW –
Word Problems
Many of the math problems on tests are word problems. A word problem can include any kind of math, includ-
ing simple arithmetic, fractions, decimals, percentages, and even algebra and geometry.
The hardest part of any word problem is translating English into math. When you read a problem, you can
frequently translate it word for word from English statements into mathematical statements. At other times, how-
ever, a key word in the word problem only hints at the mathematical operation to be performed. Here are the
translation rules:
EQUALS keywords: is, are, has

English Math
Bob is 18 years old. b = 18
There are 7 hats. h=7
Judi has 5 cats. c=5
ADDITION keywords: sum, more than, greater than, older than, total, altogether
English Math
The sum of two numbers is 10. x + y = 10
Karen has $5 more than Sam. k=5+s
The base is 3 inches greater than the height. b=3+h
Judi is 2 years older than Tony. j=2+t
The total of three numbers is 25. a + b + c = 25
How much do Joan and Tom have altogether? j+t=?
SUBTRACTION keywords: difference, fewer than, less than, younger than, remain, left over
English Math
The difference between two numbers is 17. x – y = 17
Mike has 5 fewer cats than twice the number Jan has. m = 2j – 5
Jay is 2 years younger than Brett. j=b–2
After Carol ate 3 apples, r apples remained. r=a–3
MULTIPLICATION keywords: of, product, times, each, at

English Math
20% of the samples 0.20 s
1
Half of the bacteria b
2
The product of two numbers is 12. a b = 12
DIVISION keyword: per

English Math
15 drops
15 drops per teaspoon
teaspoon
22 miles
22 miles per gallon
gallon
111
– MATH REVIEW –
DISTANCE FORMULA: DISTANCE = Solving this equation for J gives J = 60. Thus, the
RATE TIME right answer is choice a (the same answer we got when
You know you will need to use the distance formula we worked backward). As you can see, both methods—
when you see movement words like: plane, train, boat, working backward and translating from English to
car, walk, run, climb, or swim. math—work. You should use whichever method is
more comfortable for you.
■ How far did the plane travel in 4 hours if it aver-
aged 300 miles per hour? Practice Word Problems
D = 300 4 You will find word problems using fractions, decimals,
D = 1,200 miles and percentages as these specific sections come up later
■ Ben walked 20 miles in 4 hours. What was his in this chapter. For now, practice using the translation
average speed? table on problems that just require you to work with
20 = r 4 basic arithmetic. Answers are at the end of the chapter.
5 miles per hour = r
1. Joan went shopping with $100 and
Solving a Word Problem Using the returned home with only $18.42. How
Translation Table much money did she spend?
Remember the problem at the beginning of this chap- a. $81.58
ter about the jelly beans? b. $72.68
c. $72.58
Juan ate 13 of the jelly beans. Maria then ate 34 d. $71.68
of the remaining jelly beans, which left 10 jelly e. $71.58
beans. How many jelly beans were there to
begin with? 2. Each of five physical therapists at the
a. 60 therapy center works six hours per day.
b. 80 Each therapist can work with three
c. 90 patients per hour. In total, how many
d. 120 patients can be seen each day at the
center?
We solved it by working backward. Now let’s solve a. 18
it using our translation rules. b. 30
Assume Juan started with J jelly beans. If Juan ate c. 60
1 2 2 d. 75
of them, that means there were of them left, or
3 3 3
J jelly beans. Maria ate a fraction of the remaining e. 90
jelly beans, which means we must subtract to find out
how many are left. Maria ate 34, leaving 14 of the 23 J
jelly beans, or 14 23 J jelly beans. Multiplying out 14
23 J gives 16J as the number of jelly beans left. The
problem states that there were 10 jelly beans left,
meaning that we set 16 J equal to 10:
1
J = 10
6
112
– MATH REVIEW –
3. The office secretary can type 80 words

per minute on his word processor.
How many minutes will it take him to
type a report containing 760 words?
a. 8
b. 812
c. 9
d. 912
e. 10
4. Mr. Wallace is writing a budget request Three Kinds of Fractions

to upgrade his personal computer sys- Proper fraction: The top number (numerator) is
tem. He wants to purchase a cable less than the bottom number
modem, which will cost $100, two new (denominator):
software programs at $350 each, a 1 2 4 8
; ; ;
2 3 9 13
color printer for $249, and an addi- The value of a proper fraction is
tional color cartridge for $25. What is less than 1.
the total amount Mr. Wallace should Improper fraction: The top number is greater than
write on his budget request? or equal to the bottom number:
a. $724 3 5 14 12
; ; ;
b. $974 2 3 9 12
The value of an improper frac-
c. $1,049
tion is 1 or more.
d. $1,064
Mixed number: A fraction written to the right of
e. $1,074
a whole number:
1 2 3 3
32; 43; 124; 244
Fraction Review The value of a mixed number is
more than 1. It is the sum of the
Problems involving fractions may be straightforward whole number plus the fraction.
calculation questions, or they may be word problems.
Typically, they ask you to add, subtract, multiply, Changing Improper Fractions into Mixed or
divide, or compare fractions. Whole Numbers
It’s easier to add and subtract fractions that are mixed
Working with Fractions numbers rather than improper fractions. To change an
A fraction is a part of something. improper fraction, say 123, into a mixed number, follow
these steps:
Example 6
Let’s say that a pizza was cut into 8 equal slices 1. Divide the denominator (2) into the
213
12
and you ate 3 of them. The fraction 38 tells you numerator (13) to get the whole number
1
what part of the pizza you ate. The following portion (6) of the mixed number:
1
pizza shows 3 of the 8 pieces (the ones you ate) 2. Write the remainder of the division (1) 62
shaded. over the old denominator (2):
113
– MATH REVIEW –
3. Check: Change the mixed number back For example, let’s reduce 284. We could do it in
8÷4 2 2÷2 1
into an improper fraction (see steps two steps:
24 ÷ 4 = 6; then 6 ÷ 2 = 3 . Or we could do it

8÷8 1
that follow). in a single step:
24 ÷ 8 = 3.
Changing Mixed Numbers into Shortcut: When the numerator and

Improper Fractions denominator both end in zeros, cross out the
It’s easier to multiply and divide fractions when you’re same number of zeros in both numbers to
300
working with improper fractions rather than mixed begin the reducing process. For example 4,0
00
3 3
numbers. To change a mixed number, say 24, into an reduces to 40 when you cross out two zeros in
improper fraction, follow these steps: both numbers.
1. Multiply the whole number (2) Whenever you do arithmetic with fractions,
by the denominator (4): 24=8 reduce your answer. On a multiple-choice test, don’t
2. Add the result (8) to the panic if your answer isn’t listed. Try to reduce it and
numerator (3): 8 + 3 = 11 then compare it to the choices.
3. Put the total (11) over the
11
denominator (4):
4 Reduce these fractions to lowest terms:
4. Check: Reverse the process by
changing the improper fraction 5. 132
into a mixed number. If you get
the number you started with, your 6. 1345
answer is right.
7. 2772
Reducing Fractions
Reducing a fraction means writing it in lowest terms, Raising Fractions to Higher Terms
that is, with the smallest numbers possible. For Sometimes before you can add and subtract fractions,
50 1
100 of a dollar, or 2 of a dollar. Reduc-
instance, 50¢ is you have to know how to raise a fraction to higher

ing a fraction does not change its value. terms. This is actually the opposite of reducing a frac-
tion.
Follow these steps to reduce a fraction: Follow these steps to raise 23 to 24ths:
1. Find a whole number that divides evenly into 1. Divide the old denominator
both the numerator and the denominator. (3) into the new one (24): =8
324
2. Divide that number into the numerator and 2. Multiply the answer (8) by the old
replace the numerator with the quotient (the numerator (2): 2 8 = 16
answer you got when you divided).
3. Repeat the same division step for the 3. Put the answer (16) over the new =
16
denominator. denominator (24):
24
4. Repeat steps 1–3 until you can’t find a number 4. Check: Reduce the new fraction
that divides evenly into both numbers of the to see if you get back the original
16 8
fraction. one:
24 8 = 23
114
– MATH REVIEW –
Raise these fractions to higher terms: Here are a few tips for finding the LCD, the
smallest number into which all the denominators
8. 152 = 2?4 evenly divide:
9. 29 = 2?7 ■ First, see if all the denominators divide evenly

into the biggest one.
10. 25 = ?
500
■ Inspect multiples of the largest denominator until
you find a number into which all the other ones
Adding Fractions evenly divide.
If the fractions have the same denominators, just add ■ When all else fails, multiply all the denominators
the numerators together and write the total over the together.
denominator.
2
Example:
3 + 45
Examples
2 4 2+4 6
+ = =
9 9 9 9 Reduce the sum: 23. 1. Find the LCD. Multiply the
5
+ 78 = 182 Change the sum to a mixed denominators: 3 5 = 15
8
2 10
number: 148; then reduce: 2. Raise each fraction to 15ths: =
3 15
112. 4 12
5 = 15
22
3. Add as usual:
There are a few extra steps to add mixed numbers 15
with the same denominators, say 235 + 145:
Try these addition problems:
3
1. Add the fractions:
5 + 45 = 75
11. 34 + 46
2. Change the improper fraction
7
into a mixed number: =
5 152 12. 78 + 23 + 34
3. Add the whole numbers: 2+1= 3
4. Add the results of steps 2 and 3: 152 + 3 = 452 13. 413 + 234 + 16
Finding the Least Common Denominator Subtracting Fractions

If the fractions you want to add don’t have the same If the fractions have the same denominators, just sub-
denominator, you will have to raise some or all of the tract the numerators and write the difference over the
fractions to higher terms so that they do; this number denominator.
is then called the common denominator. All of the 4
original denominators divide evenly into the common Example:
9 – 39 =
4–3 1
9 = 9

denominator. If it is the smallest number that they all

divide into evenly, it is called the least common If the fractions you want to subtract don’t have
denominator (LCD). the same denominator, you will have to raise some or
all of the fractions to higher terms so that they all have
115
– MATH REVIEW –
the same denominator, or LCD. If you forgot how to 5. Subtract the whole number 6–2=4
find the LCD, just reread the section on adding frac- parts of the two mixed numbers:
tions with different denominators. 6. Add the results of the last two 4 + 45 = 445
5
steps together:
Example:
6 – 34
5 10 Try these subtraction problems:

1. Raise each fraction to 12ths = 12
6
because 12 is the LCD, the 14. 45 – 23
smallest number
that both 6 and 4 divide into – 34 = 192 15. 78 – 14 – 12
evenly:
1
2. Subtract as usual:
12 16. 413 – 234
Subtracting mixed numbers with the same Now, let’s put what you have learned about adding and
denominator is similar to adding mixed numbers. subtracting fractions to work in some real-life
problems:
Example: 435 – 125
17. Visiting nurse Alan drove 312 miles to
3
1. Subtract the fractions:
5 – 25 = 15 the office to check his assignments for
2. Subtract the whole numbers: 4–1=3 the day. Then he drove 434 miles to his
1
first patient. When he left there, he
3. Add the results of steps 1 and 2:
5 + 3 = 315 drove 2 miles to his next patient. Then
he drove 323 miles back to the office for
Sometimes, there is an extra “borrowing” step a meeting. Finally, he drove 312 miles
when you subtract mixed numbers with the same home. How many miles did he travel
denominators, say 735 – 245: in total?
a. 17152
1. You can’t subtract the fractions
the way they are because 45 is b. 16152
bigger than 35. So you borrow 1 c. 15172
from the 7, making it 6, and d. 15152
change that 1 to 55 because
5 is the denominator: 735 = 655 + 35 e. 131112
2. Add the numbers from step 1: 655 + 35 = 685

3. Now you have a different version
of the original problem: 685 – 245
4. Subtract the fractional parts
8
of the two mixed numbers:
5 – 45 = 45
116
– MATH REVIEW –
18. Before leaving the hospital, the ambu- 2. Cancel the 5 and the 20 by dividing
lance driver noted that the mileage 5 into both of them: 5 ÷ 5 = 1 and
gauge on Ambulance 2 registered 20 ÷ 5 = 4. Cross out the 5 and the
4,357140 miles. When he arrived at the 20 and replace with the reduced 1 3
5 9
scene of the accident, the mileage numbers:
6
20
gauge then registered 4,400110 miles.
2 4
3. Multiply across the new
How many miles did he drive from the numerators and the new
hospital to the accident? denominators: 13 3

24 8
a. 42130
b. 42170 Try these multiplication problems:
c. 43170
19. 15 23
d. 47120
20. 23 47 35
Multiplying Fractions
Multiplying fractions is actually easier than adding 21. 34 89
them. All you do is multiply the numerators and then
multiply the denominators. You do not need to find a To multiply a fraction by a whole number, first
common denominator. rewrite the whole number as a fraction with a denom-
inator of 1.
Examples:
2 25

3 57 = 10
3 7 = 21
Example: 5 23 = 51 23 = 130 (Optional:
1 137
35 74 = 21 Convert 130 to a mixed number: 313)
2 5 4 = 40

2
Sometimes, you can cancel before multiplying. To multiply with mixed numbers, it’s easier to
Canceling is a shortcut that makes the multiplication change them to improper fractions before multiplying.
go faster because you’re multiplying with smaller num-
bers. It’s very similar to reducing: If there is a number Example: 423 512
that divides evenly into one numerator and its oppo-
site denominator, do that division before multiplying. 1. Convert 423 to an
432
If you forget to cancel, you will still get the right improper fraction: 423 = 14
=
3 3
answer, but you will have to reduce it. 2. Convert 512 to an
521
improper fraction: 512 = 11
=
2 2
Example: 5
290 3. Cancel and multiply the 7
6
14 11
fractions:
3 2 = 737
1
1. Cancel the 6 and the 9 by dividing 3 4. Optional: Convert the
into both of them: 6 ÷ 3 = 2 and improper fraction to a
77
9 ÷ 3 = 3. Cross out the 6 and the mixed number:
3 = 2523
9 and replace with the reduced 3
numbers: 5

6 290
2
117
– MATH REVIEW –
Now, try these multiplication problems with mixed Dividing Fractions

numbers and whole numbers: To divide one fraction by a second fraction, invert the
second fraction (that is, flip the top and bottom num-
22. 413 25 bers; this is called the reciprocal) and then multiply.
That’s all there is to it!
23. 212 6
1
Example:
2 ÷ 35
24. 334 425
1. Invert the second
Here are a few more real-life problems to test your fraction (35): 5

3
skills:
2. Change the division
sign (÷) to a
25. After driving 23 of the 15 miles to work, 1
multiplication sign ():
2 53
Dr. Stone received an emergency call
from the hospital. How many miles 3. Multiply the first
had he driven when he got the call? fraction by the new
1 1 5
a. 5 second fraction:
2 53 =
5
2 3 = 6
b. 712
c. 10 To divide a fraction by a whole number, first
d. 12 change the whole number to a fraction by putting it
e. 1523 over 1. Then follow the division steps above.
3 31
26. If Henry spent 34 of a 40-hour week Example:
5 ÷ 2 = 35 ÷ 21 = 35 12 =
3
5 2 = 10
learning to use new laboratory equip-
ment, how many hours did he spend in When the division problem has a mixed number,
training? convert it to an improper fraction and then divide as
a. 712 usual.
b. 10
c. 20 Example: 234 ÷ 16
d. 25
e. 30 1. Convert 234 to an
243
improper fraction: 234 = 11
=
4 4
27. Technician Chin makes $14.00 an 2. Rewrite the division
hour. When she works more than 8 problem and change ÷
hours a day, she gets overtime pay of to ¥: 11

4 ∏ 16 = 141 ¥ 61
112 times her regular hourly wage for 3
11 ¥ 3
3. Cancel and multiply: 11

4 ¥ 61 = 33
2¥1 = 2

the extra hours. How much did she 2
earn for working 11 hours in one day?

Here are a few division problems to try:
a. $77
b. $154
28. 13 ÷ 23
c. $175
d. $210
29. 234 ÷ 12
e. $231
118
– MATH REVIEW –
30. 35 ÷ 3 Decimals

31. 334 ÷ 213 What Is a Decimal?
A decimal is another way to represent a fraction. You
Let’s wrap this up with some real-life problems. use decimals every day when you deal with money—
$10.35 is a decimal that represents 10 dollars and 35
32. If Dr. McCarthy’s four assistants evenly cents. The decimal point separates the dollars from the
divided 612 pounds of candy among cents. Because there are 100 cents in one dollar, 1 cent
themselves, how many pounds of 1
is of a dollar, or $0.01.
100
candy did each assistant get? Each decimal digit to the right of the decimal
a. 183 point has a name:
b. 158
Examples: 0.1 = 1 tenth = 110
c. 112 2
0.02 = 2 hundredths =
100
d. 1153 0.003 = 3 thousandths = 3

1,000
4
e. 4 0.0004 = 4 ten-thousandths =
10,000
33. How many 212-pound chunks of cheese When you add zeros after the rightmost decimal
can be cut from a single 20-pound place, you don’t change the value of the decimal. For
piece of cheese? example, 6.17 is the same as all of the following:
a. 2
b. 4 6.170
c. 6 6.1700
d. 8 6.17000000000000000
e. 10
If there are digits on both sides of the decimal
34. Ms. Goldbaum earned $36.75 for point (like 10.35), the number is called a mixed deci-
1
working 32 hours. What was her mal. If there are digits only to the right of the decimal
hourly wage? point (like 0.53), the number is called a decimal. A
a. $10.00 whole number (like 15) is understood to have a deci-
b. $10.50 mal point at its right (15.). Thus, 15 is the same as 15.0,
c. $10.75 15.00, 15.000, and so on.
d. $12.00
e. $12.25 Changing Fractions to Decimals
To change a fraction to a decimal, divide the denomi-
nator into the numerator after you put a decimal point
and a few zeros to the right of the numerator. When
you divide, bring the decimal point into your answer.
119
– MATH REVIEW –
Example: Change 34 to a decimal. Change these decimals or mixed decimals to

fractions:
1. Add a decimal point and 2 zeros to
the numerator (3): 3. 00 35. 0.005
2. Divide the denominator (4) into 3.00: 0. 75
4)3≠. 00 36. 3.48
–2 8
20
– 20 37. 123.456
0
3. The quotient (result of the division) Comparing Decimals

is the answer: 0.75 Because decimals are easier to compare when they
have the same number of digits after the decimal
Some fractions may require you to add many decimal point, you can tack zeros onto the end of the shorter
zeros in order for the division to come out evenly. In decimals without affecting the number value. Then all
fact, when you convert a fraction like 23 to a decimal, you have to do is compare the numbers as if the deci-
you can keep adding decimal zeros to the numerator mal points weren’t there:
forever because the division will never come out
evenly. As you divide 3 into 2, you will keep getting 6s: Example: Compare 0.08 and 0.1.
2 ÷ 3 = 0.6666666666 etc.
This is called a repeating decimal, and it can be written 1. Tack one zero at the end of 0.1: 0.10
as 0.666 or as 0.6623. You can approximate it as 0.67, 2. To compare 0.10 to 0.08, just compare
0.667, 0.6667, and so on. When a bar is written above a 10 to 8.
digit or digits in a repeating decimal, those numbers are 3. Since 10 is larger than 8, 0.1 is larger
understood to repeat (for example, 0.42 ៮ means than 0.08.
0.42424242 . . . ).
Adding and Subtracting Decimals
Changing Decimals to Fractions To add or subtract decimals, line them up so their dec-
To change a decimal to a fraction, write the digits of imal points are aligned. You may want to tack on zeros
the decimal as the numerator and write the decimal’s at the end of shorter decimals so that you can keep all
name (the name of the farthest right non-zero digit your digits lined up evenly. Remember, if a number
after the decimal point) as the denominator. Then doesn’t have a decimal point, then put one at the right
reduce the fraction, if possible. end of the number and add zeros after it.
Example: .018 Example: 1.23 + 57 + 0.038
18 1. Line up the numbers like this: 1.230

1. Write 18 as the numerator:
57.000
2. Three places to the right of the
+ .038
decimal means thousandths, so
18 2. Add: 58.268
write 1,000 as the denominator:
1,000
3. Reduce by dividing 2 into the

18 2 9
numerator and denominator:
1,0002 =
500
120
– MATH REVIEW –
Example: 1.23 - 0.038 Multiplying Decimals

To multiply decimals, ignore the decimal points and
1. Line up the numbers like this: 1.230 just multiply the numbers. Then count the total num-
- .038 ber of decimal digits (the digits to the right of the dec-
2. Subtract: 1.192 imal point) in all of the numbers you are multiplying.
Count off that total number of digits in your answer
Try these addition and subtraction problems: beginning at the right side and put the decimal point
to the left of those digits.
38. 0.905 + 0.02 + 3.075
Example: 215.7 2.4
39. 0.005 + 8 + 0.3
1. Multiply 2157 times 24: 2157
40. 3.48 – 2.573 ¥ 24
8628
41. 123.456 – 122 43140
51768
42. James drove 3.7 miles to his physical 2. Because there are a total of two
therapist’s office. He then walked 1.6 decimal digits in 215.7 and 2.4,
miles on the treadmill to strengthen count off two places from the right
his legs. He got back into the car, drove in 51768, placing the decimal point
2.75 miles to his radiology appoint- to the left of the last two digits: 517.68
ment, and then drove 2 miles back
home. How many miles did he drive in If your answer doesn’t have enough digits, tack
total? zeros on to the left of the answer.
a. 8.05
b. 8.45 Example: 0.03 ¥ 0.006
c. 8.8
d. 10 1. Multiply 3 times 6: 3 ¥ 6 = 18
e. 10.05 2. You need 5 decimal digits in your
answer, so tack on 3 zeros: 00018
43. The average number of emergency 3. Put the decimal point at the front
room visits at City Hospital fell from of the number (which is 5 digits in
486.4 per week to 402.5 per week. By from the right): 0.00018
how many emergency room visits per
week did the average fall? You can practice multiplying decimals with these:
a. 73.9
b. 83 44. 0.05 0.6
c. 83.1
d. 83.9 45. 0.053 6.4
e. 84.9
46. 38.1 0.0184
121
– MATH REVIEW –
47. Joe earns $14.50 per hour as an occu- 21

Example: .061. 8
pational therapist. Last week, he
worked 37.5 hours. How much money 1. Because there are 2 decimal
did he earn that week? digits in 0.06, move the decimal
a. $518.00 point 2 places to the right in
b. $518.50 both numbers and move the .
c. $525.00 decimal point straight up into 21
.06.1. .≠8
哭哭
d. $536.50 the answer:
e. $543.75 2. Divide using the new numbers: 20.3
1.
612 8
– 120
48. Nuts cost $3.50 per pound. Approxi- 01
mately how much will 4.25 pounds of – 00
18
nuts cost? – 18
a. $12.25 0
b. $12.50 Under certain conditions, you have to tack on
c. $12.88 zeros to the right of the last decimal digit in the num-
d. $14.50 ber you are dividing into:
e. $14.88
■ If there aren’t enough digits for you to move the
Dividing Decimals decimal point to the right
To divide a decimal by a whole number, set up the divi- ■ If you are dividing a whole number by a decimal.
56
sion (8.2) and immediately bring
. the decimal point Then you will have to tack on the decimal point
56
≠
straight up into the answer (8.2 ). Then divide as as well as some zeros.
you would normally divide whole numbers: ■ If the answer doesn’t come out evenly when you
do the division
Example: .032
8|.25
≠6 Try your skills on these division problems:
–0
25
– 24 8
49. 79.
16
– 16
0 51
50. 0.0004.0 2
To divide any number by a decimal, there is an .6

51. 0.0528
extra step to perform before you can divide. Move the
decimal point to the very right of the number you’re 6
52. 0.1419
dividing by, counting the number of places you’re
moving it. Then move the decimal point the same
number of places to the right in the number you’re
dividing into. In other words, first change the problem
to one in which you’re dividing by a whole number.
122
– MATH REVIEW –
53. If James Worthington drove the mobile Changing a Decimal to a Percent and
blood bank unit 92.4 miles in 2.1 Vice Versa
hours, what was his average speed in To change a decimal to a percent, move the decimal
miles per hour? point two places to the right and tack on a percent sign
a. 41 (%) at the end. If the decimal point moves to the very
b. 44 right of the number, you don’t have to write the deci-
c. 90.3 mal point. If there aren’t enough places to move the
d. 94.5 decimal point, add zeros on the right before moving
e. 194.04 the decimal point.
To change a percent to a decimal, drop off the
54. Mary Sanders walked a total of 18.6 percent sign and move the decimal point two places to
miles in 4 days. On average, how many the left. If there aren’t enough places to move the dec-
miles did she walk each day? imal point, add zeros on the left before moving the
a. 4.15 decimal point.
b. 4.60
c. 4.65 Try changing these decimals to percents:
d. 22.60
e. 74.40 55. 0.45
56. 0.008
Percents
57. 0.1623
What Is a Percent?
A percent is another way to represent a fraction or a Now, change these percents to decimals:
part of something. When you write percents as frac-
tions, the denominator is always 100. For example, 58. 12%
17
17% is the same as 100 . Literally, the word percent
means per 100 parts. The root cent means 100: A cen- 59. 8712%
tury is 100 years; there are 100 cents in a dollar, etc.
Thus, 17% means 17 parts out of 100. Because frac- 60. 250%
tions can also be expressed as decimals, 17% is also
equivalent to 0.17, which is 17 hundredths.
You come into contact with percents every day.
Sales tax, interest, and discounts are just a few com-
mon examples.
If you’re shaky on fractions, you may want to
review the fraction section before reading further.
123
– MATH REVIEW –
CONVERSION TABLE Example: Change 4% to a fraction.

DECIMAL % FRACTION
1
1. Remove the % and write the
0.25 25% 4 4
fraction 4 over 100:
100
1 4÷4
0.50 50% 2
2. Reduce:
100
÷4 = 215
3
0.75 75% 4
Here’s a more complicated example: Change 1623% to
1
0.10 10%
10 a fraction.
1
0.20 20% 5
2
1. Remove the % and write the 1623
0.40 40% 5
fraction 1623 over 100: 100
3
0.60 60% 5
2. Since a fraction means
0.80 80% 4
5 “numerator divided by
denominator,” rewrite the

0.333 3313% 1
3
fraction as a division problem: 1623 ∏ 100

0.666 6623% 2
3 3. Change the mixed number
(1623) to an improper fraction
(530): 50

3
100
÷1

Changing a Fraction to a Percent and
1
Vice Versa 4. Flip the second fraction
50 1 1

3
1 =
00 6
To change a fraction to a percent, there are two tech- and multiply: 2
niques.
Try changing these fractions to percents:
Technique 1: Multiply the fraction by 100%.
Multiply 14 by 100%: 61. 18
25
1 %
100
1 = 25%

1
4 62. 1235
Technique 2: Divide the fraction’s denominator

63. 172
into the numerator, then move
the decimal point two places to
Now, change these percents to fractions:
the right and tack on a percent
sign (%).
64. 95%
Divide 4 into 1 and move the dec-
imal point two places to the right:
65. 3712%
.25
00
41.
66. 125%
0.25 = 25%
Sometimes it is more convenient to work with a
To change a percent to a fraction, remove the percentage as a fraction or a decimal. Rather than hav-
percent sign and write the number over 100. Then ing to calculate the equivalent fraction or decimal,
reduce if possible. consider memorizing the above conversion table.
124
– MATH REVIEW –
Not only will this increase your efficiency on the math Here’s how to use the shortcut with cross prod-
test, but it will also be practical for real-life situations. ucts:
Percent Word Problems ■ Find a percent of a whole.

Word problems involving percents come in three main What is 30% of 40?
varieties: 30 is the % and 40 is
is 30
the of number: 40 =
10
0
■ Find a percent of a whole. Cross multiply and solve
Example: What is 30% of 40? for is: is ¥ 100 = 40 ¥ 30
■ Find what percent one number is of another is ¥ 100 = 1,200
number. is = 1,100
200
= 12
Example: 12 is what percent of 40? Thus, 12 is 30% of 40.
■ Find the whole when the percent of it is given.
■ Find what percent one
Example: 12 is 30% of what number?
number is of another
number.
While each variety has its own approach, there is
12 is what percent of 40?
a single shortcut formula you can use to solve each of
12 is the is number and
these: 12 %
is % 40 is the of number: =
= 40 100
of 100
Cross multiply and solve
for %: 12 ¥ 100 = 40 ¥ %
The is is the number that usually follows or is just
1,200 = 40 ¥ %
before the word is in the question.
% = 1,40
200
= 30
The of is the number that usually follows the
Thus, 12 is 30% of 40.
word of in the question.
The % is the number that is in front of the % or ■ Find the whole when the
percent in the question. percent of it is given.
Or you may think of the shortcut formula as: 12 is 30% of what number?
12 is the is number and
part % 12 30

whole =
100 30 is the %: =
of 100
To solve each of the three varieties, we’re going to Cross multiply and solve
use the fact that the cross products of these two func- for of: 12 ¥ 100 = of ¥ 30
tions are always equal. The cross products are the 1,200 = of ¥ 30
products of the numbers diagonally across from each of = 1,30
200
= 40
other. Remembering that product means multiply, Thus, 12 is 30% of 40.
here’s how to create the cross products for the percent
shortcut: You can use the same technique when asked to
find a percent increase or decrease. The is number is
part %
=
whole

100 the actual increase or decrease, and the of number is
part ¥ 100 = whole ¥ % the original amount.
125
– MATH REVIEW –
Example: If a merchant puts his $20 hats on Find what percent one number is of another number:
sale for $15, by what percent does he decrease
the selling price? 71. 10 is what % of 20?
1. Calculate the actual decrease, 72. 4 is what % of 12?

the is number: $20 - $15 = $5
2. The of number is the original 73. 12 is what % of 4?
amount, $20.
3. Set up the equation and solve Find the whole when the percent of it is given:
5 %
for of by cross multiplying: 20 =
100
5 ¥ 100 = 20 ¥ % 74. 15% of what number is 15?
500 = 20 ¥ %
% = 50020
= 25 75. 3712% of what number is 3?
4. Thus, he decreased the
selling price by 25%. 76. 200% of what number is 20?
If the merchant later raises
Now, try your percent skills on some real-life prob-
the price of the hats from
5 % lems:
$15 back to $20,
15 =
100
don’t be fooled into
77. Last Monday, 20% of the 140-member
thinking that the percent
nursing staff was absent. How many
increase is also 25%! It’s 5 ¥ 100 = 15 ¥ %
nurses were absent that day?
actually more, because the
a. 14
increase amount of $5 is
b. 20
now based on a lower 500 = 15 ¥ %
c. 28
original price of only $15: % = 500
15
= 3313
d. 112
Thus, the selling price is
e. 126
increased by 33%.
78. Forty percent of General Hospital’s

Find a percent of a whole:
medical technologists are women. If
there are 80 female medical technolo-
67. 1% of 25
gists, how many medical technologists
are male?
68. 18.2% of 50
a. 32
b. 112
69. 3712% of 100
c. 120
d. 160
70. 125% of 60
e. 200
126
– MATH REVIEW –
79. Of the 840 biopsies performed last Shortcut

month, 42 were positive. What percent Here are a few neat shortcuts for average problems.
of the biopsies were positive?
a. 0.5% ■ Look at the numbers being averaged. If they are
b. 2% equally spaced when placed in ascending order,
c. 5% like 5, 10, 15, 20, and 25, then the average is the
d. 20% number in the middle, or 15 in this case.
e. 50% ■ If there are an even number of such equally
spaced numbers, say 10, 20, 30, and 40, then there
80. Sam’s Shoe Store put all of its mer- is no middle number. In this case, the average is
chandise on sale for 20% off. If Jason halfway between the two middle numbers. In this
saved $10 by purchasing one pair of case, the average is halfway between 20 and 30,
shoes during the sale, what was the or 25.
original price of the shoes before the ■ If the numbers are almost evenly spaced, you can
sale? probably estimate the average without going to
a. $12 the trouble of actually computing it. For example,
b. $20 the average of 10, 20, and 32 is just a little more
c. $40 than 20, the middle number.
d. $50
e. $70 Try these average questions:
81. Bob’s bowling scores for the last five

Averages games were 180, 182, 184, 186, and
188. What was his average bowling
An average, also called an arithmetic mean, is a num- score?
ber that typifies a group of numbers and functions as a. 182
a measure of central tendency. You come into contact b. 183
with averages on a regular basis: your bowling average, c. 184
the average grade on a test, the average number of d. 185
hours you work per week. e. 186
To calculate an average, add up the number of
items being averaged and divide by the total number of 82. Ambulance Driver Conroy averaged 30
items. miles an hour for the two hours he
drove in town and 60 miles an hour
Example: What is the average of 6, 10, and 20? for the two hours he drove on the
highway. What was his average speed
Solution: Add the three in miles per hour?
numbers together and a. 18
6 + 10 + 20
divide by 3:
3 = 12 b. 2212
c. 45
d. 60
e. 90
127
– MATH REVIEW –
83. There are ten females and 20 males in Working with Length
the first aid course. If the females and Time Units
achieved an average score of 85 and the
males achieved an average score of 95, The United States uses the English system to measure
what was the class average? (Hint: length; however, most other countries use the metric
Don’t fall for the trap of taking the system, which is also prevalent in scientific use in the
average of 85 and 95; there are more United States. The English system requires knowing
95s being averaged than 85s, so the many different equivalences, but you’re probably used
average is closer to 95.) to dealing with these equivalences on a daily basis.
a. 9023 Mathematically, however, it’s simpler to work in met-
b. 9123 ric units because their equivalences are all multiples of
10. The meter is the basic unit of length, with all other
c. 92
length units defined in terms of the meter.
d. 9223
e. 95 Length Conversions
Math questions on standardized tests, especially geom-
etry word problems, may require conversions within a
particular system. An easy way to convert from one
unit of measurement to another is to multiply by an
equivalence ratio.
ENGLISH SYSTEM METRIC SYSTEM

UNIT EQUIVALENCE UNIT EQUIVALENCE
foot (ft.) 1 ft. 5 12 in. meter (m) Basic unit
A giant step is about 1 meter long.
yard (yd.) 1 yd. 5 3 ft.
1 yd. 5 36 in. centimeter 100 cm 5 1 m
(cm) Your index finger is about 1 cm wide.
mile (mi.) 1 mi. 5 5,280 ft.
1 mi. 5 1,760 yds. millimeter 10 mm 5 1 cm; 1,000 mm 5 1 m
(mm) Your fingernail is about 1 mm thick.
kilometer 1 km 5 1,000 m
(km) Five city blocks are about 1 km long.
ENGLISH SYSTEM METRIC SYSTEM

TO CONVERT MULTIPLY BY THIS TO CONVERT MULTIPLY BY THIS
BETWEEN RATIO BETWEEN RATIO
12 i n. 1 ft. 10 mm 1 cm
inches and feet
1 ft. or
12 i n. millimeters and or
1 cm 10 mm
36 in. 1 yd. centimeters
inches and yards
1 yd. or
36
in.
1,000 mm 1m
3 ft. 1 yd . meters and millimeters
1m or
1,000
mm
feet and yards
1 y
d. or
3 f t.
100 cm 1m
5,280 ft. 1 mi. meters and centimeters
1m or
100
cm
feet and miles
1 mi. or
5,28
0 ft.
1,000 m 1 km
1,760 yds. 1 mi. meters and kilometers
1 km or
1,000m
yards and miles
1 mi. or
1,760yds.
128
– MATH REVIEW –
Example: Convert 3 yards to feet. To add the lengths, add each column of length units
separately:
3 f t.
Multiply 3 yards by the ratio 1 yd. . Notice that
3 f t. 1 y d.
we chose
1 yd. rather than
3 f t. because the
5 ft. 7 in.
yards cancel during the multiplication: 2 ft. 6 in.
6 ft. 9 in.
3 ft.
3 yds. 3 yds. 3 ft. + 3 ft. 5 in.
d. =
1 y 1 y
d. = 9 ft.
16 ft. 27 in.
Example: Convert 31 inches to feet and inches. Since 27 inches is more than 1 foot, the total of 16 ft.
27 in. must be simplified:
1 ft . ■ Convert 27 inches to feet and inches:
1. First, multiply 31 inches by the ratio
12 in. : 1 ft . 27 3
1 ft. 31 in. 1 ft. 31 7 27 in. in. 12 ft. 2 12 ft. 2 ft. 3 in.
12

31 in. in. =
12 12
in. = 12 ft. = 212 ft.
3 ft. 5 in.
2. Then change the 172 portion to inches:
7 ft. 12 in. 7 ft. 12 in.

12 1 ft. =
12 1 ft. = 7 in.
3. Thus, 31 inches is equivalent to both 2172 ft. and

2 feet 7 inches.
5 ft. 7 in.
Convert as indicated. 6 ft. 9 in.
84. 2 ft. = in.
85. 3 cm = mm
86. 16 m = cm 2 ft. 6 in.

■ Add: 16 ft.
87. 294 cm = m + 2 ft. 3 in.
18 ft. 3 in. Thus, the perimeter is
Addition and Subtraction with 18 feet 3 inches.
Length Units
Finding the perimeter of a figure may require adding
lengths of different units.
Example: Find the perimeter of the figure at

right.
129
– MATH REVIEW –
Finding the length of a line segment may require sub- Subtract and simplify.
tracting lengths of different units.
90. 4 ft. 1 in.
Example: Find the length of line segment AB – 2 ft. 9 in.
below.
A 91. 14 cm 2 mm
– 6 cm 4 mm
Time Conversions
9 ft. 3 in. Word problems involving time typically ask you to
B determine how long something takes. You might have
3 ft. 8 in. to add together the amount of time several activities
take in order to determine the total amount of time the
C entire process takes or calculate the elapsed time from
the start to the finish of a particular activity.
To subtract the lengths, subtract each column of Adding and subtracting time units is a lot like
length units separately, starting with the rightmost adding and subtracting length units. You have to make
column. sure that you are adding hours to hours, minutes to
9 ft. 3 in. minutes, and seconds to seconds. If the given infor-
3 ft. 8 in. mation is in different time units, then you’ll have to
convert to a common time unit before you can pro-
Warning: You can’t subtract 8 inches from 3 ceed. Use the following conversion ratios:
inches because 8 is larger than 3! As in regular sub-
traction, you have to borrow 1 from the column on 1 hour
■ To convert minutes to hours:
60 minutes
the left. However, borrowing 1 ft. is the same as bor- 60 minutes
■ To convert hours to minutes:
1 hour
rowing 12 inches; adding the borrowed 12 inches to
1 minute
the 3 inches gives 15 inches. Thus: ■ To convert seconds to minutes:
60 seconds
60 seconds
15 ■ To convert minutes to seconds:
1 minute
8 122 1
9 ft. 3 in. Example: Convert 24 hours to seconds.
2 3 ft. 8 in.
5 ft. 7 in. Thus, the length of
A
B is 1. Convert hours to
214 hr. 60 min.
______
5 feet 7 inches. minutes: 1 1 hr. = 135 min.
2. Convert minutes
Add and simplify. to seconds: 135 min.
60 sec.
______ = 8,100 sec.
1 1 min.
88. 5 ft. 3 in. The hours and minutes cancel, giving an answer
+ 2 ft. 9 in. in seconds.
89. 7 km 220 m
4 km 180 m
+ 9 km 770 m
130
– MATH REVIEW –
Calculating Elapsed Time Example: If Radiology Associates opens at

Calculating elapsed time when you’re given the start- 7:15 a.m. and closes at 5:30 p.m., how long are
ing and ending time can be a bit tricky, depending on they open?
the starting and ending time. If the starting and end- 11 60
ing times are both a.m. or both p.m. of the same day, 1. Subtract the starting time from 12:00
you can calculate the elapsed time by simply subtract- noon: – 7:15
ing the starting time from the ending time. However, (You’ll have to “borrow” 4:45
you may have to “regroup,” or “borrow.” 60 minutes from 12.)
Radiology Associates is open for
Example: Radiology Associates opens at 4 hours 45 minutes in the morning.
6:45 a.m. and closes for lunch at 11:35 a.m. 2. Radiology Associates closes at
How long are they open in the morning? 5:30 p.m. Thus, they’re open for
10 95
5 hours 30 minutes in the afternoon.
1. Set up the subtraction: 11:35 3. Add the results together: 4:45
2. You can’t subtract 45 minutes – 6:45 + 5:30
from 35 minutes, so you have to 4:50 9:75
“borrow” 1 hour from the 4. The sum of 9 hours 75 minutes
11 hours. Borrowing 1 hour needs to be adjusted because
from 11 hours is equivalent to 75 minutes is more than an hour.
borrowing 60 minutes. Thus, There’s a “carry” of 1 hour: the
you’re actually subtracting 75 minutes is equivalent to 1 hour
45 minutes from 95 minutes 15 minutes. Thus, 9 hours
(that is, 35 + 60 minutes). 75 minutes is the same as 10 hours
15 minutes.
Radiology Associates is open for 4 hours 50 min-
utes in the morning. You follow the same procedure when the starting
time is p.m. of one day and the ending time is a.m. of
If the starting time is a.m. and ending time is the next day. Calculate the elapsed p.m. time by sub-
p.m. of the same day, you have to calculate the elapsed tracting the starting time from midnight. Then add the
time in two steps and then add the results together. elapsed A.M. time, which is equivalent to the ending
Calculate the elapsed morning time by subtracting the time.
starting time from noon. The elapsed afternoon time If the starting and ending times are on different
is equivalent to the ending time. So you add the days, you calculate the elapsed time in three steps:
elapsed morning time and the elapsed afternoon time elapsed time on the starting day, elapsed time on the
to get the total elapsed time. ending day, and the time of the intervening days. Then
you add the results of the three steps together.
131
– MATH REVIEW –
Example: Each week, employees of Radiology portion of the answer must be converted to a
Associates turn their computers on at 6:45 A.M. fraction of an hour:
on Monday and turn them off for the weekend 1 hour 3
45 minutes nutes = 4 hour
60 mi
at 5:30 P.M. on Friday. How long are the
computers on, in hours? Thus, the computers were on for a total of 10634
hours.
1. Starting day, Monday
11 60 Now, try these time problems:
a. For the A.M. hours, subtract the 12:00
starting time from noon: – 6:45
92. Jan ran three tests in the lab that each
5:15
required 45 minutes. If she then ran a
b. For the p.m. hours, there are
final test and all four tests required a
12 hours from noon until midnight. 12
total of 314 hours, how long did the
c. Add the a.m. and p.m. hours to 5:15
final test take?
get the total hours on the + 12:00
a. 12 hour
starting day: 17:15
2
On Monday, 17 hours 15 minutes elapse. b.
3 hour
3
c.
4 hour
2. Ending day, Friday
d. 1 hour
a. For the a.m. hours, there are
12 hours from midnight until noon: 12:00 e. 114 hours
b. For the p.m. hours, the ending
time is the elapsed time: + 5:30 93. If each of eight radiology rooms is in
c. Add the a.m. and p.m. hours to use for 5 hours 15 minutes per day,
get the total hours on the 17:30 and a total of 84 procedures are per-
ending day: formed, how long does each procedure
On Friday, 17 hours 30 minutes elapse. take on average?
a. 20 minutes
3. The intervening days: Tuesday, b. 30 minutes
Wednesday, and Thursday c. 40 minutes
3 days 24 hours per day = 72 hours d. 50 minutes
e. 1 hour
4. Add the results of steps 1–3 together: 17:15
17:30 94. Clara cultured a particular virus at
+ 72:00 2:30 P.M. on Monday and stored the
106:45 culture in the refrigerator until 11:30
The total elapsed time is 106 hours 45 minutes. A.M. on Wednesday. How long was the
5. Since the question asks for the amount of time culture in the refrigerator?
the computers are on in hours, the 45 minutes a. 3 hours
b. 21 hours
c. 27 hours
d. 45 hours
e. 69 hours
132
– MATH REVIEW –
Algebra Equations
An equation is a mathematical sentence stating that
Popular topics for algebra questions on nursing school two quantities are equal. For example:
exams include:
2x = 10
■ Solving equations x+5=8
■ Positive and negative numbers
■ Algebraic expressions The idea is to find a replacement for the
unknown that will make the sentence true. That’s
What Is Algebra? called solving the equation. Thus, in the first example,
Algebra is a way to express and solve problems using x = 5 because 2 5 = 10. In the second example, x =
numbers and symbols. These symbols, called 3 because 3 + 5 = 8.
unknowns or variables, are letters of the alphabet that Sometimes you can solve an equation by inspec-
are used to represent numbers. tion, as with the above examples. Other equations may
For example, let’s say you are asked to find out be more complicated and require a step-by-step solu-
what number, when added to 3, gives you a total of 5. tion, for example:
Using algebra, you could express the problem as x + 3
n+2
= 5. The variable x represents the number you are try-
4 +1=3
ing to find.
Here’s another example, but this one uses only The general approach is to consider an equation
variables. To find the distance traveled, multiply the like a balance scale, with both sides equally balanced.
rate of travel (speed) by the amount of time traveled: Essentially, whatever you do to one side, you must also
d = r t. The variable d stands for distance, r stands for do to the other side to maintain the balance. Thus, if
rate, and t stands for time. you were to add 2 to the left side, you would also have
In algebra, the variables may take on different to add 2 to the right side.
values. In other words, they vary, and that’s why they’re Let’s apply this balance concept to our previous
called variables. complicated equation. We want to solve for n, which
means we must somehow rearrange the equation so
Operations the n is isolated on one side of it. Its value will then be
Algebra uses the same operations as arithmetic: addi- on the other side. Looking at the equation, you can see
tion, subtraction, multiplication, and division. In that n has been increased by 2 and then divided by 4
arithmetic, we might say 3 + 4 = 7, while in algebra, we and ultimately added to 1. Therefore, we will undo
would talk about two numbers whose values we don’t these operations to isolate n.
know that add up to 7, or x + y = 7. Here’s how each
operation translates to algebra:
ALGEBRAIC OPERATIONS
The sum of 2 numbers ab
The difference of 2 numbers ab
The product of 2 numbers a b or a · b or ab

a
The quotient of 2 numbers b
133
– MATH REVIEW –
Begin by subtracting 1 from Notice that each operation in the original equa-
n+2
both sides of the equation: +1 = 3 tion was undone by using its inverse operation. That is,
4
–1 –1 addition was undone by subtraction, and division was
n+2
= 2 undone by multiplication. In general, each operation
4
n+2 can be undone by its inverse.
Next, multiply both 4
4 =24
sides by 4: n+2 =8
Finally, subtract 2 from
both sides: –2 –2
This isolates n and solves n =6
the equation:
ALGEBRAIC INVERSES
OPERATION INVERSE OPERATION INVERSE
Addition Subtraction Subtraction Addition
Multiplication Division Division Multiplication
Square Square Root Square Root Square
After you solve an equation, check your work by Solve each equation:
plugging the answer back into the original equation to
make sure it balances. Let’s see what happens when we 95. x + 5 = 12
plug 6 in for n:
96. 3x + 6 = 18
6+2

4 +1 =3 ?
8
+1 =3 ? 97. 14x = 7
4
2+1 =3 ?
3 =3 ✓
134
– MATH REVIEW –
Positive and Negative Numbers

Positive and negative numbers, also known as signed numbers, are best shown as points along the number line:
−5 −4 −3 −2 −1 0 +1 +2 +3 +4 +5
Numbers to the left of (smaller than) 0 are nega- On the other hand, to say that –2 is less than 4, we
tive and those to the right of (greater than) 0 are posi- use the less than sign (<):
tive. Zero is neither negative nor positive. If a number
is written without a sign, it is assumed to be positive. –2 < 4
Notice that when you are on the negative side of the
number line, bigger numbers have smaller values. For Arithmetic with Positive and
example, –5 is less than –2. You come into contact with Negative Numbers
negative numbers more often than you might think; The table on the next page illustrates the rules for
for example, very cold temperatures are recorded as doing arithmetic with signed numbers. Notice that
negative numbers. when a negative number follows an operation, it is
As you move to the right along the number line, often enclosed in parentheses to avoid confusion.
the numbers get larger. Mathematically, to indicate When more than one arithmetic operation
that one number, say 4, is greater than another number, appears, you must know the correct sequence in which
say –2, the greater than sign (>) is used: to perform the operations. For example, do you know
what to do first when calculating 2 + 3 4? You’re
4 > –2 right if you said, “Multiply first.” The correct answer is
14. If you add first, you’ll get the wrong answer of 20!
The correct sequence of operations is:
}
1. Parentheses
2. Exponents
If you remember this saying, you’ll know
3. Multiplication or Division
the order of operations: Please Excuse
(whichever comes first when reading left to right)
My Dear Aunt Sally.
4. Addition or Subtraction
(whichever comes first when reading left to right)
Even when signed numbers appear in an equa- arithmetic rules for negative numbers. For example,
tion, the step-by-step process works exactly as it does let’s solve–14x + 2 = 5.
for positive numbers. You just have to remember the
135
– MATH REVIEW –
1. Subtract 2 from both sides: -14x + 2 = -5

-2 = -2
-14x -7
2. Divide both sides by -14:
-14

=–14
1
-14x + = 2
RULE EXAMPLE
ADDITION
If both numbers have the same sign, just add them. The 3 ((–5) 8
answer has the same sign as the numbers being added. 3 (5) 8
If both numbers have different signs, drop the signs and subtract 3 ( (–5) 2
the smaller number from the larger. The answer has the same sign 3 (5) 2
as the larger number.
If both numbers are the same but have opposite signs, the 3 (3) 0
sum is zero.
SUBTRACTION
Change the subtraction sign to addition. Then change the 3 (5) 3 (5) 2
sign of the second number. Add as above. 3 (5) 3 (5) 8
3 (5) 3 (5) 2
MULTIPLICATION
Multiply the numbers together. If both numbers have the same 3 ( 5) 15
sign, the answer is positive; otherwise, it is negative. 3 ( 5) 15
3 ( 5) 15
3 ( 5) 15
If one number (or both) is zero, the answer is zero. 3 ( 0) 01
DIVISION
Divide the numbers. If both numbers have the same sign, 15 ∏ ( 3) 5
the answer is positive; otherwise, it is negative. 15 ∏ ( 3) 5
15 ∏ ( 3) 5
15 ∏ ( 3) 5
If the number to be divided (or the numerator of a fraction) 3 ∏ 0 is meaningless

is zero, the answer is zero. But you cannot divide by zero; thus,
the denominator of a fraction cannot be zero.
136
– MATH REVIEW –
Algebraic Expressions 104. The volume of a cylinder is given by

An algebraic expression is a group of numbers, the formula V=pr2h, where r is the
unknowns, and arithmetic operations, like 3x – 2y. radius of the base and h is the height
This one may be translated as “3 times some number of the cylinder. What is the volume of
minus 2 times another number.” To evaluate an alge- a cylinder with a base radius of 3 and
braic expression, replace each variable with its value. height of 4? (Leavepin your answer.)
For example, if x = 5 and y = 4, we would evaluate
3x – 2y as follows: Squares and Square Roots
It’s not uncommon to see squares and square roots on
3(5) – 2(4) = 15 – 8 = 7 standardized math tests, especially in questions that
involve right triangles.
Now, solve these problems with signed numbers. To find the square of a number, multiply that
number by itself. For example, the square of 4 is 16,
98. 1 – 3(–4) = x because 4 4 = 16. Mathematically, this is expressed
as:
99. –3x + 6 = –18
42 = 16
100. –4x + 3 = –7 4 squared equals 16.
Evaluate these expressions. To find the square root of a number, ask your-
self, “What number times itself equals the given num-
101. 4a + 3b; a = 2 and b = –1 ber?” For example, the square root of 16 is 4 because 4
4 16. Mathematically, this is expressed as:
102. 3mn – 4m + 2n; m = 3 and n = –3
=4
16
1
103. –2x – y
2 + 4z; x = 5, y = –4, and z = 6 The square root of 16 is 4.
Because certain squares and square roots tend to

appear more often than others on standardized tests,
the best course is to memorize the most common ones.
137
– MATH REVIEW –
COMMON SQUARES AND SQUARE ROOTS
SQUARES SQUARE ROOTS
12 = 1 72 = 49 132 = 169 1
=1 4

9=7 1
69
= 13
22 = 4 82 = 64 142 = 196 4
= 2 6
4
=8 1
96
= 14
32 = 9 92 = 81 152 = 225 9
= 3 8

1=9 2
25
= 15
42 = 16 102 = 100 162 = 256 1

6=4 1
0
0 = 10 2
56
= 16
52 = 25 112 = 121 202 = 400 2

5
=5 1
21
= 11 4
00
= 20
62 = 36 122 = 144 252 = 625 3

6=6 1
44
= 12 6
25
= 25
You can multiply and divide square roots, but 3. Decide where you want all of
you cannot add or subtract them: the x terms. Put all the x terms
on one side by addition and + 6x = + 6x
subtraction: 3 = 13x – 8
a + b = a
+b a b = a
b 4. Get all the constants on the
a
b =
a
a – b = a
–b other side by addition and 3 = 13x – 8
b
subtraction: +8 =+8
11 = 13x
11
13x
Use the previous rules to solve these problems in 5. Isolate the x by performing the = 3
13 1
squares and square roots. 11
opposite operation:
13 =x
105. 4 9 = ? 108. 9

+x=5
106. 1
4 = ? 109. (3 + x)2 = 49
107. 9 + 16

=?
Geometry
How to Solve an Equation
Example: 5 – 2(3x + 1) = 7x – 8 Geometry questions cover points, lines, planes, angles,
triangles, rectangles, squares, and circles. You may be
1. Remove parentheses by asked to determine the area or perimeter of a partic-
distributing the value ular shape, the size of an angle, the length of a line,
outside to both values and so forth. Some word problems may also involve
within: 5 – 6x – 2 = 7x – 8 geometry.
2. If there are like terms on
the same side of the equal
sign, combine them: 3 – 6x = 7x – 8
138
– MATH REVIEW –
Points, Lines, and Planes ■ A line segment (or line) that divides another line
What Is a Point? segment into two congruent line segments is said
A point has position but no size or to bisect it. Y bisects
X A
B.
dimension. It is usually represented by a X
•
dot named with an uppercase letter: ∑A
What Is a Line? • •
A B
A line consists of an infinite number of points that
extend endlessly in both directions.
•
Y
A line can be named in two ways:
1. By a letter at one end (typically in lowercase): l ■ A ray is a section of a line that has one endpoint.
l • • The ray below is indicated as ៮៬AB .
A B
A B
2. By two points on the line: ៭AB
៮៬ or ៭BA
៮៬
The following terminology is frequently used on math What Is a Plane?

tests: A plane is like a flat surface with no thickness.
Although a plane extends endlessly in all directions,
■ Points are collinear if they lie on the same line. it is usually represented by a four-sided figure and
Points J, U, D, and I are collinear. named by an uppercase letter in a corner of the
l • • • • plane: K.
J U D I
■ A line segment is a section of a line with two K
endpoints. The line segment at right is indicated
as
A
B.
•A
• • •B
A B
■ The midpoint is a point on a line segment that
divides it into two line segments of equal length.
M is the midpoint of line segment AB. Two line Points are coplanar if they lie on the same plane.
segments of the same length are said to be con- Points A and B are coplanar.
gruent. Congruent line segments are indicated by
the same mark on each line segment(like the Angles
double marks shown on A
B). An angle is formed when two rays meet at a point:
The lines are called the sides of the angle, and the
• • • point where they meet is called the vertex of the
A M B
angle.
The symbol used to indicate an angle is ⬔.
139
– MATH REVIEW –
There are three ways to name an angle: Obtuse angle: more than 90° and less than 180°
■ By the letter that labels the vertex: ⬔B

■ By the three letters that label the angle: ⬔ABC or
⬔CBA, with the vertex letter in the middle
■ By the number inside the vertex: ⬔1
Special Angle Pairs
A ■ Congruent angles: Two angles that have the same
degree measure.
1
B C
An angle’s size is based on the opening between

A B
its sides. Size is measured in degrees (°). The smaller
Congruent angles are indicated by identical mark-
the angle, the fewer degrees it has. Angles are classified
( ings.The symbol is used to indicate that two angles
by size. Notice how the arc ( shows which of
are congruent: ⬔A ⬔B.
the two angles is indicated:
■ Complementary angles: Two angles whose sum
is 90°.
Acute angle: less than 90°
A
B C
Right angle: exactly 90°
⬔ABD and ⬔DBC are complementary angles.
⬔ABD is the complement of ⬔DBC, and vice versa.
■ Supplementary angles: Two angles whose sum is

A little box indicates a right angle. A right angle is 180°.
formed by two perpendicular lines.
D
Straight angle: exactly 180°

180°
A C
• B
⬔ABD and ⬔DBC are supplementary angles.
⬔ABD is the supplement of ⬔DBC, and vice versa.
140
– MATH REVIEW –
Hint: To avoid confusion between complementary To solve geometry problems more easily, draw a
and supplementary: picture if one is not provided. Try to draw the picture
C comes before S in the alphabet, and 90 to scale. As the problem presents information about
comes before 180. the size of an angle or line segment, label the corre-
Complementary: 90° sponding part of your picture to reflect the given infor-
Supplementary: 180° mation. As you begin to find the missing information,
label your picture accordingly.
■ Vertical angles: Two angles that are opposite each These word problems require you to find the
other when two lines cross. measures of angles.
110. In order to paint the second story of

1 his house, Alex leaned a
2 3
4 ladder against the side of his house,
making an acute angle of
Two sets of vertical angles are formed: 58° with the ground. Find the size of
⬔1 and ⬔4 the supplementary obtuse
⬔2 and ⬔3 angle the ladder made with the
Vertical angles are congruent. ground.
When two lines cross, the adjacent angles are supple-
mentary and the sum of all four angles is 360°.
Angle-pair problems tend to ask for an angle’s com-

plement or supplement.
58°
Example: If the measure of ⬔2 = 70°, what are
the measures of the other three angles? 111. Confusion Corner is an appropriately
named intersection
that confuses drivers who are unfamil-
iar with the area.
1 Referring to the street plan on the
2 3
4 right, find the size of
the marked angle.
1. ⬔2 ⬔3 because they’re vertical angles.

Therefore, ⬔3 = 70°.
2. ⬔1 and ⬔2 are adjacent angles and therefore
supplementary. 70°
Thus, ⬔1 = 110° (180° – 70° = 110°). 20°
3. ⬔1 ⬔4 because they’re also vertical angles.
Therefore, ⬔4 = 110°.
Check: Add the angles to be sure their sum is
360°: 70° + 70° + 110° + 110° = 360° ✔
141
– MATH REVIEW –
Special Line Pairs Perpendicular Lines

Parallel Lines Perpendicular lines lie in the same plane and intersect
Parallel lines lie in the same plane and never cross at to form four right angles.
any point.
t A
l 1 2 >
3 4
C D
m 5 6 >
7 8
B
The arrowheads on the lines indicate that they are The little box where the lines cross indicates a
parallel. The symbol || is used to indicate that two right angle. Because vertical angles are equal and the
lines are parallel: l || m. sum of all four angles is 360°, each of the four angles
When two parallel lines are crossed by another is a right angle and 90°. However, only one little box
line, two groups of four angles each are formed. One is needed to indicate this.
group consists of ⬔1, ⬔2, ⬔3, and ⬔4; the other The symbol ^ is used to indicate that two lines
group contains ⬔5, ⬔6, ⬔7, and ⬔8. AB ^ ៭៮៬
are perpendicular: ៭៮៬ CD .
These angles have special relationships: Don’t be fooled into thinking two lines are per-
pendicular just because they look perpendicular. The
■ The four obtuse angles are always congruent: ⬔1 problem must indicate the presence of a right angle
⬔4 ⬔5 ⬔8. (by stating that an angle measures 90° or by the little
■ The four acute angles are always congruent: ⬔2 right angle box in a corresponding diagram), or you
⬔3 ⬔6 ⬔7. must be able to prove the presence of a 90° angle.
■ The sum of any one acute angle and any one
obtuse angle is always 180° because the acute Determine the measure of the marked angles.
angles lie on the same line as the obtuse angles.
112.
>
>
Don’t be fooled into thinking two lines are par- >> 120°
allel just because they look parallel. Either the lines
must be marked with similar arrowheads or there must
>>
be an angle pair as just described.
113.
89°
>
>
142
– MATH REVIEW –
Polygons Parallelogram
A polygon is a closed, plane (flat) figure formed by
three or more connected line segments that don’t cross
each other. Familiarize yourself with the following
polygons; they are the four most common polygons
appearing on standardized tests—and in life.
Four-sided polygon; each pair of opposite sides is

Triangle
parallel and congruent.
6
height Perimeter
Perimeter is the distance around a polygon. The word
perimeter is derived from peri, which means around (as
6
in periscope and peripheral vision), and meter, which
base
means measure. Thus, perimeter is the measure around
Three-sided polygon something. There are many everyday applications of
perimeter. For instance, a carpenter measures the
Square perimeter of a room to determine how many feet of
5 ceiling molding she needs. A farmer measures the
perimeter of a field to determine how many feet of
fencing he needs to surround it.
5 5 Perimeter is measured in length units, like feet,
yards, inches, meters, etc.
5
Four-sided polygon with four right angles; all sides To find the perimeter of a polygon, add the
are congruent (equal), and each pair of opposite lengths of the sides.
sides is parallel.
Rectangle Example: Find the perimeter of the following

12 polygon:
3" 2"
2"
4 4
4" 7"
12
Write down the length of each side and add:
Four-sided polygon with four right angles; each pair 3 inches
of opposite sides is parallel and congruent. 2 inches
7 inches
4 inches
+ 2 inches
18 inches
143
– MATH REVIEW –
Note: The notion of perimeter also applies to a the following two figures are more difficult to meas-
circle; however, the perimeter of a circle is referred to ure because the square units don’t fit into them
as its circumference. We will take a closer look at cir- evenly.
cles and circumference later in this chapter.
Find the perimeters for these word problems:
114. Maryellen has cleared a 10-foot-by-6-

foot rectangular plot of ground for
her herb garden. She must completely
enclose it with a chain-link fence to
keep her dog out. How many feet of
fencing does she need, excluding the
3-foot gate at the south end of the
garden?
115. Terri plans to hang a wallpaper border

along the top of each wall in her
square dressing room. Wallpaper bor-
der is sold only in 12-foot strips. If
each wall is 8 feet long, how many
strips should she buy?
Area
Area is the total amount of space taken by a figure’s
surface. Area is measured in square units.
For instance, a square that is 1 unit on all sides
covers 1 square unit. If the unit of measurement for
each side is feet, for example, then the area is meas-
ured in square feet. Other possibilities are units like
square inches, square miles, square meters, and so
on. Because it’s not always practical to measure a
particular figure’s area by counting the number of
1 square units it occupies, an area formula is used. As
1 1 each figure is discussed, you’ll learn its area formula.
Although there are perimeter formulas as well, you
1 don’t really need them (except for circles) if you under-
stand the perimeter concept: It is merely the sum of the
You could measure the area of any figure by
lengths of the sides.
counting the number of square units the figure occu-
pies. The first two figures are easy to measure
because the square units fit into them evenly, while
144
– MATH REVIEW –
Triangles Types of Triangles

A triangle is a polygon with three sides, like those A triangle can be classified by the size of its angles and
shown here: sides.
Equilateral Triangle
■ three congruent angles, each 60°
■ three congruent sides
l
l
Hint to help you remember: The word equilateral

comes from equi, meaning equal, and lat, meaning
side. Thus, all equal sides.
The symbol used to indicate a triangle is 䉭. Each
vertex—the point at which two lines meet—is named Isosceles Triangle
by a capital letter. The triangle is named by the three ■ two congruent angles, called base angles; the third
letters at the vertices, usually in clockwise order: angle is the vertex angle.
䉭ABC. ■ Sides opposite the base angles are also congruent.
■ An equilateral triangle is also isosceles, since it
B always has two congruent base angles.
c a
l
A
l
b C
( (
There are two ways to refer to a side of a triangle: Right Triangle

■ By the letters at each end of the side: AB ■ one right (90°) angle, which is the largest angle in
■ By the letter—typically a lowercase letter—next the triangle
to the side: c ■ The side opposite the right angle is the
Notice that the name of the side is the same as the hypotenuse, which is the longest side of the trian-
name of the angle opposite it, except the angle’s gle. (Hint: The word hypotenuse reminds us of
name is a capital letter. hippopotamus, a very large animal.)
■ The other two sides are called legs.
There are two ways to refer to an angle of a
triangle:
leg hypotenuse
■ By the letter at the vertex: –A
■ By the triangle’s three letters, with that angle’s
vertex letter in the middle: –BAC or –CAB leg
145
– MATH REVIEW –
Area of a Triangle Hint: Think of a triangle as being half a

To find the area of a triangle, use this formula: rectangle. The area of that triangle is half the
area of the rectangle.
Area = 21(base height)
1
}2}
Although any side of a triangle may be called its 1

}2}
base, it’s often easiest to use the side on the bottom. To
use another side, rotate the page and view the triangle
from another perspective.
A triangle’s height is represented by a perpendi- Example: Find the area of a triangle with a
cular line drawn from the angle opposite the base 2-inch base and a 3-inch height.
down to the base. Depending on the triangle, the
height may be inside, outside, or on the triangle.
Notice the height of the second triangle: We extended
the base to draw the height perpendicular to the base. 3"
The third triangle is a right triangle: One leg may be its
base and the other its height.
2"
1. Draw the triangle as close to scale as you can.

2. Label the size of the base and height.
height
3. Write the area formula; then substitute the base
and height numbers into it: Area = 12(base
base height)
4. The area of the triangle is 3 square inches. Area
= 12(2 3) = 12 6; Area = 3
height Find the area of the following triangles:
116.
base base
extension
6
height
4
117.
base
4
146
– MATH REVIEW –
Triangle Rules largest angle

The following rules tend to appear more frequently on
standardized tests than other rules. A typical test ques- shortest
tion follows each rule. side
smallest
largest side angle
B
The longest side of a triangle is opposite the

A C largest angle. This rule implies that the sec-
ond-longest side is opposite the second-
largest angle, and the shortest side is
The sum of the angles in a triangle is 180°: opposite the shortest angle.
⬔A + ⬔B + ⬔C = 180°
Example: In the triangle shown below, which
Example: One base angle of an isosceles side is the shortest?
triangle is 30°. Find the vertex angle.
A
l l
30° 30°
46° B
1. Draw a picture of an isosceles triangle. Drawing C
it to scale helps: Since it is an isosceles triangle,
1. Determine the size of ⬔A, the missing angle, by
draw both base angles the same size (as close to
adding the two known angles and then subtract-
30° as you can) and make sure the sides opposite
ing their sum from 180°: 90° + 46° = 136°;
them are the same length. Label one base angle
180° – 136° = 44°. Thus, ⬔A is 44°.
as 30°.
2. Since ⬔A is the smallest angle, side BC, which is
2. Since the base angles are congruent, label the
opposite ⬔A, is the shortest side.
other base angle as 30°.
3. There are two steps needed to find the vertex Find the missing angles:
angle:
■ Add the two base angles together: 30° + 30° = 118. K
60°
■ The sum of all three angles is 180°. To find the
40°
l
vertex angle, subtract the sum of the two base

angles (60°) from 180°: 180° – 60° = 120°
J L
Thus, the vertex angle is 120°.
Check: Add all three angles together to make

sure their sum is 180°:
30° + 30° + 120° = 180° ✔
147
– MATH REVIEW –
119. N 2. Substitute the given sides

for two of the letters.
Remember: Side c is always
M 75° 25° P the hypotenuse. 32 b2 52
9 b2 25
3. To solve this equation, 9 9
subtract 9 from both sides: b 2 16
4. Then, take the square
root of both sides. b2 16

Thus, the missing side
has a length of 4 units: b 4
Right Triangles 5. Adding the three sides
yields a perimeter of 12: 3 4 5 12
To find the missing side of a RIGHT triangle,
use the Pythagorean theorem: Simplifying Radicals
a2 + b2 = c2 Radical sign
w
Ï48
Index 3
(c is the hypotenuse)
Radicand
c A radical is simplified if there is no perfect square
a factor of the radicand. For example, 10 is simpli-
fied because 10 has no perfect square factors. But,
b 20 is not simplified because 20 has a perfect square
Example: What is the perimeter of the triangle factor of 4.
shown below? In order to simplify a radical, rewrite the radical
as the product of two radicals, one of which is the
largest perfect square factor of the radicand. The
5 square root of a perfect square always simplifies to a
3
rational number. Simplify the perfect square radical to
get your final answer.
1. Since the perimeter is the a2 b2 c2
sum of the lengths of the .
Example: Simplify 50
sides, we must first find the
missing side. Use the 50
= 25
2 = 25
2 = 52
Pythagorean theorem since
you know this is a right
triangle.
148
– MATH REVIEW –
Find the perimeter and area of each triangle (Hint: Use Square
the Pythagorean theorem):
4
120.
4 4
3
4
3 Parallelogram
121. 8
13
12
4.5 4.5
122. Irene is fishing at the edge of a 40-

foot-wide river, directly across from 8
her friend Sam, who is fishing at the Rhombus
edge of the other side. Sam’s friend
Arthur is fishing 30 feet down the river
from Sam. How far is Irene from
Arthur?
A 30 ft. S
)
)
)
)
)
)
)
)
)
)
)
Four-sided polygon with each pair of opposite sides

)
)
)
)
)
)
)
)
)
)
)
40 ft. parallel and all sides congruent. A square is an exam-

ple of a rhombus.
)
)
)
)
)
)
)
)
)
)
)
I
Trapezoid
Quadrilaterals
A quadrilateral is a four-sided polygon. Following are
examples of quadrilaterals that are most likely to
appear on standardized tests (and in everyday life):
Rectangle
Four-sided polygon with exactly one pair of opposite
8
sides parallel.
4 4
149
– MATH REVIEW –
Isosceles Trapezoid The quadrilaterals in the table below have something

in common besides having four sides:
■ Opposite sides are the same size and parallel.
■ Opposite angles are the same size.
However, each quadrilateral has its own distin-

Trapezoid whose nonparallel sides are congruent. Base guishing characteristics:
angles are @.
QUADRILATERALS
RECTANGLE SQUARE PARALLELOGRAM
SIDES Adjacent sides are not All four sides are the Adjacent sides are not
necessarily the same length. same length. necessarily the same length.
ANGLES All the angles are right All the angles are right The opposite angles are the same
angles. angles. size, but they don’t have to be
right angles. (A rectangle leaning
to one side is a parallelogram.)
The naming conventions for quadrilaterals are similar Perimeter

to those for triangles: To find the perimeter of a quadrilateral, follow this
■ The figure is named by the letters at its four con- simple rule:
secutive corners, usually in clockwise order: rec-
tangle ABCD.
■ A side is named by the letters at its ends: side AB.
Perimeter = sum of all four sides
■ An angle is named by its vertex letter: –A.
Shortcut: Take advantage of the fact that the opposite

A B sides of a rectangle and a parallelogram are equal: Just
add two adjacent sides and double the sum. Similarly,
multiply one side of a square by four.
Following are two word problems involving perimeters

D C of quadrilaterals:
The sum of the angles of a quadrilateral is 360°:

–A –B –C –D 360°
150
– MATH REVIEW –
123. What is the length of a side of a square Square

room whose perimeter is 58 feet?
a. 8 ft.
b. 14 ft.
c. 14.5 ft. height
d. 29 ft.
e. 232 ft.
base
124. Find the dimensions of a rectangle

Caution: A parallelogram’s height is not usually
with perimeter of 16 feet and whose
the same as the length of the side connecting the base
long side is three times the length of its
to its opposite side (called the slant height), but the
short side.
length of a perpendicular line drawn from the base
a. 4 ft. by 4 ft.
to the side opposite it.
b. 4 ft. by 12 ft.
c. 3 ft. by 5 ft.
d. 2 ft. by 6 ft.
e. 2 ft. by 8 ft. slant
height height
Area
To find the area of a rectangle, square, or parallelo-
base
gram, use this formula:
Example: Find the area of a rectangle with a
Area = base height base of 4 meters and a height of 3 meters.
The base is the length of one of the sides. It is

easiest if you call the side on the bottom the base, but 3
any side can be a base. The height (or altitude) is the
length of a perpendicular line drawn from the base up
to the side opposite it. The height of a rectangle and a 4
square is the same as the length of its non-base side.
1. Draw the rectangle as close to
scale as possible.
Rectangle 2. Label the length of the base
and height.
3. Write the area formula;
then substitute Abh
height the base and height
numbers into it: A 4 3 12
Thus, the area is 12 square meters.
base
151
– MATH REVIEW –
Now, try some area word problems: Circumference

The circumference of a circle is the distance around
125. Tristan is laying 12-inch by 18-inch the circle (it is the perimeter of the circle). To deter-
tiles on the laboratory floor. If the lab mine the circumference of a circle, use either of these
measures 15 feet by 18 feet, how many two equivalent formulas:
tiles does Tristan need, assuming
there’s no waste? (Hint: Do all your Circumference 2pr
work in either feet or inches.) or
a. 12 Circumference pd
b. 120
c. 180
d. 216 ■ r is the radius
e. 270 ■ d is the diameter (which is the same as 2x the
radius)
126. What is the length in feet of a rectan- ■ p is approximately equal (denoted by the symbol
gular parking lot that has an area of ª) to 3.14 or 272
8,400 square feet and a width of 70
Note: Math often uses letters of the Greek alpha-
feet?
bet, like p(pi). Perhaps that’s what makes math seem
a. 12
like Greek to some people! In the case of the circle, you
b. 120
can use pas a hint to recognize a circle question: A pie
c. 1,200
is shaped like a circle.
d. 4,000
e. 4,130
Example: Find the circumference of a circle
whose radius is 7 inches.
Circles
We can all recognize a circle when we see one, but its
definition is a bit technical. A circle is a set of points
that are all the same distance from a given point called • 7 in.
the center. That distance is called the radius. The
diameter is twice the length of the radius; it passes
through the center of the circle.
1. Draw this circle and write
the radius version of the
circumference formula
diameter
• (because you’re given the
ra
radius): C 2pr
di
us
2. Substitute 7 for the radius: C 2 p 7

center
3. On a multiple-choice test,
look at the answer choices
o determine whether to
leavepin your answer or
substitute the value of pin
the formula.
152
– MATH REVIEW –
If the answer choices These word problems require you to find the circum-
don’t includep, ference:
substitute 272 or 3.14 C 2 272 7;
forpand multiply: C 44 127. What is the circumference of a circular
C 2 3.14 7; room whose diameter is 15 feet?
C 43.96 a. 7.5pft.
If the answer choices C 2 p 7; b. 15pft.
includep, just multiply: C = 14 c. 30pft.
All the answers—44 inches, 43.96 inches, and d. 45pft.
14 inches—are considered correct. e. 225pft.
Example: What is the diameter of a circle with 128. What is the approximate circumfer-
a circumference of 62.8 centimeters? ence of a round tower whose radius is
Use 3.14 forp. 3121 feet?
a. 10 ft.
b. 20 ft.
c. 33 ft.
• d. 40 ft.
e. 48 ft.
1. Draw a circle with its 129. Find the circumference of a water pipe
diameter and write the whose radius is 1.2 inches.
diameter version of the a. 1.2pin.
circumference formula b. 1.44pin.
(because you’re asked to c. 2.4pin.
find the diameter): C pd d. 12pin.
2. Substitute 62.8 for the e. 24pin.
circumference, 3.14 forp,
and solve the equation: 62.8 3.14 d Area
The diameter is The area of a circle is the space its surface occupies. To
62.8 determine the area of a circle, use this formula:
20 centimeters. d ____
3.14
20
Area pr2
Hint: To avoid confusing the area and circumference

formulas, just remember that area is always
measured in square units, like 12 square yards of
carpeting. Thus, the area formula is the one with
the squared term in it.
153
– MATH REVIEW –
Example: Find the area of the circle at right, Try these word problems on the area of a circle:
rounded to the nearest tenth:
130. What is the area in square inches of the
bottom of a beaker with a diameter of
6 inches?
• 2.3 in. a. 6p
b. 9p
c. 12p
1. Write the area formula: A pr 2 d. 18p
2. Substitute 2.3 for the radius: A p 2.32 e. 36p
3. On a multiple-choice test,
look at the answer choices 131. James Band is believed to be hiding
to determine whether to use within a 5-mile radius of his home.
por an approximate value What is the approximate area, in
ofp(decimal or fraction) in square miles, of the region in which he
the formula. may be hiding?
If the answers don’t include A 3.14 a. 15.7
p, use 3.14 forp(because 2.3 2.3 b. 25
the radius is a decimal): A 16.6 c. 31.4
If the answers includep, d. 78.5
multiply and round: A p 2.3 2.3 e. 157
A 5.3
Both answers—16.6 square inches and 5.3 132. If a circular parking lot covers an area
square inches—are correct. of 2,826 square feet, what is the size of
its radius? (Use 3.14 forp.)
Example: What is the diameter of a circle with a. 30 ft.
an area of 9psquare centimeters? b. 60 ft.
c. 90 ft.
1. Draw a circle with its diameter d. 450 ft.
(to help you remember that the e. 900 ft.
question asks for the diameter);
then write the area formula: A pr 2
2. Substitute 9pfor the area and
solve the equation: 9ppr 2
9 r2
Since the radius is 3 centimeters,
the diameter is 6 centimeters. 3r
154
– MATH REVIEW –
Answers to Math Practice Problems

Word Problems 29. 11 1
2 or 5 2
Percents
1. a. 30. 15 55. 45%
2. e.
31. 4258 or 11278 56. 0.8%
3. d.
4. e. 32. b. 57. 16.6% or 1623%
33. d. 58. 0.12
Fractions
34. b. 59. 0.875
1
5.
4
2
60. 2.5
6.
5
Decimals
3 5 1 61. 12.5% or 1212%
7.
8
35. 00 or
1,0
200
48 12 62. 52%
8. 10 36. 3 or 3
100 25
456 57 63. 58.3% or 5813%
9. 6 37. 123 00 or 123
1,0 125
64. 1290
10. 200 38. 4
65. 38
11. 1127 or 1152 39. 8.305
66. 54 or 114
12. 5254 or 2274 40. 0.907
67. 14 or 0.25
13. 714 41. 1.456
68. 9.1
14. 125 42. b.
69. 3712 or 37.5
15. 18 43. d.
70. 75
16. 1192 or 1172 44. 0.03
71. 50%
17. a. 45. 0.3392
72. 3313%
18. b. 46. 0.70104
73. 300%
19. 125 47. e.
74. 100
20. 385 48. e.
75. 8
21. 23 49. 1.4
76. 10
22. 2165 or 11115 50. 128
77. c.
23. 15 51. 572
78. c.
24. 323 or 1612 52. 1,400
79. c.
25. c. 53. b.
80. d.
26. e. 54. c.
27. c.
28. 12
155
– MATH REVIEW –
Averages Algebra Geometry

81. c. 95. 7 110. 122°
82. c. 111. 20°
83. b. 96. 4 112. 60°
97. 28 113. 91° (The horizontal lines are
Length and Time 98. 13 not parallel.)
84. 24 114. 29 feet
85. 30 99. 8 115. 3 strips (She will have some
86. 1,600 100. 40 extra.)
87. 2.94 101. 5 116. 12 square units
88. 8 ft. 117. 18 square units
89. 21 km 170 m 102. –45 118. ⬔J = ⬔L = 70°
90. 1 ft. 4 in. 103. 16 119. ⬔N = 80°
91. 7 cm 8 mm 104. 36p 120. Perimeter = 6 + 32 units
92. d. Area = 4.5 square units
93. b. 105. 6 121. Perimeter = 30 units
94. d. 106. 12 Area = 30 square units
107. 7 122. 50 feet
123. c.
108. 16 124. d.
109. 4 125. c.
126. b.
127. b.
128. b.
129. c.
130. b.
131. d.
132. a.
156
7
C H A P T E R
BIOLOGY REVIEW
CHAPT ER S UM M ARY
This chapter reviews the key biology concepts tested by nursing
school entrance exams. After surveying the important concepts and
testing yourself with the sample questions in this chapter, you will
know where to concentrate your studies.
Biology Review: Important Concepts
I. General Introduction
A. Description of How Nursing School Entrance Exams Test Biology
All nursing school entrance exams do not measure scientific knowledge in the same way. The natural sciences sec-
tion (which is comprised of chemistry, biology, and health) of the Registered Nursing School Aptitude Exam
(RNSAE) and the Aptitude for Practical Nursing Exam (APNE) is made up of approximately 90 multiple-choice
questions. The Nurse Entrance Test (NET) has reading comprehension questions that focus on the sciences.
B. How to Use This Chapter

This chapter includes major biology concepts you will encounter on the exam. There is also a section on other con-
tent areas that will be helpful to you in taking the test: the scientific method, the origin of life, a brief description
of taxonomic classification systems, and the social behavior of animals. The general discussions in this chapter,
lists of terms and concepts, and “You Should Review’’ sections are meant to guide you in your studies—they are
not exhaustive and must be supplemented with a good college textbook, a reliable medical dictionary and dictionary
of biology, and a fair amount of general reading on the subject. Suggested sources of study materials are found
at the end of this chapter.
157
– BIOLOGY REVIEW –
After each main subject heading in this chapter, 3. Organization of a Cell

you will find several sample questions that represent Cells contain specialized structures that each serve
the content and level of difficulty of the questions that a specific purpose. Eukaryotes possess a nucleus and
will appear on the test. You should first read through membrane-bound organelles, while prokaryotes do
the outline and try to answer the sample questions, not.
and then make notes on those areas in which you need
Nucleus: the membrane-enclosed organelle that
more work. After that, you will want to go to your
houses the genetic material in eukaryotic
source material and review all subject areas, with spe-
cells. Prokaryotic cells do not have a nucleus.
cial emphasis on those areas where you feel least
Organelle: a specialized compartment within a
confident.
cell that is designed to perform a specific
Allow yourself plenty of time to prepare before
function. Only eukaryotes possess organelles.
the exam. Remember that thorough preparation is the
Cell membrane: a boundary layer, made up
most important factor in test-taking success. By study-
primarily of phospholipids, that separates
ing and taking practice tests, you become familiar with
the cell interior from its exterior. Found in
subject areas and typical test questions, boosting your
all types of cells.
ability to do your best on the exam.
Chromosome: a long threadlike structure, con-
sisting of DNA and protein, that carries genes
in a linear sequence and is found in the
II. Main Topics
nucleus of eukaryotic cells. Humans possess 46
chromosomes. The chromosome in prokary-
A. Cell Biology
otes forms a circular coil known as a plasmid.
Ribosomes: responsible for protein assembly.
1. Definition of a Cell
The ribosome receives messenger RNA
The cell is the structural and functional unit of life.
(mRNA) and translates it into proteins.
The Cell Doctrine, generally credited to Schleiden
Found in all types of cells.
(1838) and Schwann (1839), maintains that:
Cell wall: a semi-rigid outer layer that lies outside
the cell membrane and gives structural sup-
■ All living things are made up of cells and the
port and protection to the cell. Cell walls are
products formed by cells.
found in plant, bacterial, fungal, and algal cells.
■ Cells are units of structure and function.
Mitochondria: the “power plant” of the cell.
■ All cells arise from preexisting cells.
The mitochondria are responsible for gener-
ating most of the cell’s energy through ATP
2. Two Types of Cells
synthesis. Found in eukaryotes.
a. Prokaryotic Cells
Chloroplasts: the organelle responsible for pho-
Prokaryotic cells: cells found only in bacteria and
tosynthesis. Chloroplasts contain machinery
archaea. These cells lack a true nucleus and
that allows them to extract energy from light
organelles and have a cell wall and a cell membrane.
and convert it to ATP. They also convert car-
bon dioxide to sugars, releasing oxygen.
b. Eukaryotic Cells
Endoplasmic reticulum: this organelle, which
Eukaryotic cells: cells found in all organisms except
creates a network of phospholipid mem-
bacteria and archaea. These cells contain subcellu-
branes that run across a cell, can be either
lar structures called organelles, including a nucleus.
smooth or rough. Rough endoplasmic retic-
ula, which have ribosomes attached to its
membranes, synthesize proteins. Smooth
158
endoplasmic reticula aid in several metabolic small particles —for example, to sweep par-
functions, including the synthesis of lipids ticles out of the trachea.
and steroids, metabolism of carbohydrates, Flagella: similar to cilia, flagella are tail-like
and detoxification of drugs. structures that protrude from the cell and
Golgi apparatus: the organelle responsible for are used to control the motion of the cell.
packaging and processing complex macro- Found in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
molecules before they are transported to Centrioles: found in animal cells, these
other parts of the cell. Found in eukaryotes. organelles aid the process of cell division.
Lysosomes: organelles found primarily in ani-
mal cells and in some plant cells. Lysosomes 4. Energy Transformation in a Cell
are compartments that envelop and destroy a. General Discussion of Energy
waste materials within the cell. The two concepts most basic to science are
Vacuoles: compartments in the cell which store matter and energy.
and isolate various items depending on a Matter: anything that has mass and takes up
cell’s needs. These organelles are found pri- space (volume).
marily in plant cells but may also be Energy: the capacity to do work.
observed in other organisms. There are two types of energy: kinetic and
Cilia: finger-like projections founds in eukary- potential.
otes that primarily serve as sensors for the
Kinetic energy: The energy an object possess
cell. In more complex organisms, cilia along
due to its motion.
multiple cells can also be used to transport
PROKARYOTES EUKARYOTES
BACTERIA AND ARCHAEA PLANTS ANIMALS
Nucleus ✔ ✔
Cell Membrane ✔ ✔ ✔
Chromosome(s) ✔ ✔ ✔
Ribosomes ✔ ✔ ✔
Cell Wall ✔ ✔
Mitochondria ✔ ✔
Chloroplasts ✔
Endoplasmic reticulum ✔ ✔
Golgi Apparatus ✔ ✔
Lysosomes ✔ ✔
Vacuoles ✔ ✔
Cilia ✔
Flagella ✔ ✔
Centrioles ✔ ✔
159
Potential energy: The energy stored in a system released; however, atmospheric oxygen is
(e.g., in the chemical bonds of ATP or in a not involved in the process.
compressed spring). ■ Aerobic pathway of cellular respiration:
Food is completely oxidized to carbon

b. Thermodynamics dioxide and water, and chemical energy is
Thermodynamics: the physics of what is and is released; atmospheric oxygen is involved
not possible with regard to energy. in the process. The Krebs cycle, electron-
First law of thermodynamics: Energy can be transport chain, and oxidative phospho-
transferred and transformed, but it can- rylation are important concepts here.
not be created or destroyed (conservation Photosynthesis: conversion of light energy into
of energy). chemical energy on which, directly or indi-
Second law of thermodynamics: Every rectly, all living things depend. Photosynthe-
energy transfer or transformation results sis occurs in plants, algae, and certain
in the release of heat from the system to prokaryotes.
the rest of the universe.
d. Enzymology
c. Cell Metabolism Enzymology: the study of the speed of the
Cell metabolism: energy management by a cell. process of transformation of energy in a cell;
The complex structure of a cell includes enzymes are biological catalysts that acceler-
pathways along which metabolism proceeds, ate the rate of a reaction without themselves
aided by enzymes. being consumed by that reaction.
Bioenergetics: the study of how organisms
manage energy, including heat production e. Movement of Molecules
and transfer and regulation of body temper- Small molecules are steadily transported across the
ature (endothermy and ectothermy). cell membrane. Types of transport include diffu-
Metabolism: the totality of chemical reactions sion and passive transport; osmosis (a special case
that take place in an organism. of passive transport); and active transport.
Anabolism: the metabolic synthesis of pro-
teins, fats, etc., from simpler molecules; 5. Cell Reproduction
requires energy in the form of adenosine a. General Discussion of Cell Reproduction
triphosphate (ATP). All cells arise from other cells. The basis of all bio-
Catabolism: the metabolic breakdown of logical reproduction is cell division. A single, intact
molecules. chain of life extends backward from today to the
Cellular respiration: a catabolic pathway for first bacteria on Earth.
the production of ATP, in which oxygen is Prokaryotes often reproduce by binary fission, or
sometimes consumed along with an organic division into identical halves. Eukaryotes have
fuel (food). At other times, the process pro- much more complicated genomes, and therefore,
ceeds without atmospheric oxygen, but this their process of reproduction is more complex.
is less efficient.
■ Anaerobic pathway of cellular respira- b. The Cell Cycle
tion: Food (especially carbohydrates) is The cell cycle describes the entire reproductive life
partially oxidized, and chemical energy is cycle of a cell and occurs in an orderly sequence.
The cell cycle can be divided into interphase—
160
where most time is spent—and M phase—where and begin attaching to the kinetochores.
mitosis (cell division) occurs. Each of these phases ■ Metaphase: chromosomes align at the
can be divided into smaller components. When not center of the cell.
dividing or preparing to divide, the cell exists in a ■ Anaphase: chromosomes split, and sister
resting state, known as G0 phase. G0 phase follows chromatids separate to opposite poles of
cell division. the cell.
■ Telophase: nuclear envelope re-forms
c. Interphase around separated sister chromatids.

Interphase describes the time when the cell grows, Cytokinesis: division of the cytoplasm into two
takes in nutrients, and copies its DNA. It can be identical, separate daughter cells.
divided into three shorter phases:
■ G1 phase: the point in the cell life cycle where M
most cell growth occurs, organelles are syn-

thesized, and nutrients are collected. Only
when certain safeguards are met will the cell G2
move on to the next phase. G1
■ S phase: chromosomes are replicated. During
this phase, minimal RNA transcription takes
place.
■ G2 phase: the last phase before mitosis. Criti-
cal machinery is manufactured within the cell
to enable cell division to occur. At the end of
G2 phase, M phase begins. S
d. M phase
During M phase, the division of the nucleus and The cell cycle. The size of each segment approximates the
cytoplasm occurs—replication of the chromo- length of time the cell spends in each phase.
somes is completed during the S phase of inter-
phase. e. Control of Cell Division
Mitosis: division of the nucleus and distribu- A certain timing and rate of division are necessary
tion of nuclear materials, particularly chro- to normal growth. Cell division can be interfered
mosomes, occurs. For descriptive purposes, with by lack of nutrients, poisons, lack of growth
mitosis is divided into five phases: factors (for example, platelet-derived growth factor,
■ Prophase: DNA fibers (chromatids) con- or PDGF), cell size, and density.
dense into chromosomes, the nuclear
envelope breaks down, and spindles begin f. When Things Go Wrong
to form at the poles of the cell. In abnormal cell division (e.g., cancer), cells do not
■ Prometaphase: the nuclear envelope heed the restriction point in the G1 phase; they may
completely dissolves; kinetochores divide excessively, invading surrounding tissue. If
develop on each chromosome, and micro- given enough nutrients, they may divide “forever’’
tubules spread outward from the spindles (see “immortal,’’ or HeLa, cells); or abnormal cells
161
may stop dividing at any point in the cell cycle, not how enzymes function as biological catalysts;
just at the restriction point. types and shapes of active sites; response to envi-
ronmental conditions; enzyme inhibitors
You Should Review ■ coenzymes, especially vitamins: classifications
■ the structure and function of prokaryotic and and functions
eukaryotic cells; comparison of the two ■ cellular respiration
■ the composition, structure, and function of ■ basic mechanisms of prokaryotic and eukaryotic
organelles: nucleus and chromosomes; ribo- cell reproduction
somes; rough endoplasmic reticulum; smooth ■ the cell cycle
endoplasmic reticulum; Golgi apparatus; lyso- ■ how cell division is controlled
somes; vacuoles; mitochondria; chloroplasts in ■ main features of abnormal cell division
plants and some protists; cell wall in plants, fungi, ■ the following terms and concepts (among oth-
and some protists; cilia; flagella; and centrioles. ers): genome, haploid nucleus, diploid nucleus,
■ cell membrane structure and function chromatin, chromosome, centriole, atrophy,
■ major features of bioorganic molecules (carbohy- karyolysis, nucleic acid (especially DNA and
drates, proteins, lipids, DNA, and RNA); makeup RNA), pyrimidines (cytosine, thymine, uracil),
of amino acids; RNA genetic code showing base purines (guanine and adenine), nucleotide,
sequence transcription, translation, meiosis (not to be con-
■ why compartmental organization is important in fused with mitosis), basal metabolic rate
eukaryotic cells, and an understanding of the way
in which the various compartments interrelate—
i.e., how organelles “cooperate’’ Questions
■ biological membranes and the importance of
their selective permeability; the fluid mosaic 1. Most of a cell membrane’s specific functions
model of cell membrane structure; structure and are controlled by
function of lipids, proteins, and carbohydrates a. lipids.
■ differences between organelles of cells found in b. proteins.
organisms in the various kingdoms c. plasma.
■ properties of energy d. nitrogen.
■ heat production and transfer mechanisms in vari-
ous species; regulation of body temperature 2. The basic method by which chloroplasts and
■ ATP: structure and hydrolysis; how it performs; mitochondria generate ATP is
regeneration from ADP and phosphate; meta- a. oxidation.
bolic disequilibrium; ATP syntheses b. photorespiration.
■ metabolic map: the catabolic and anabolic c. respiration.
pathways d. chemiosmosis.
■ control of metabolism: feedback inhibition
■ how body size affects metabolic rate
■ enzymes (most of which are proteins): six major
groups (oxidoreductases, transferases, hydrolases,
lyases, isomerases, ligases) and the ways in which
the various classes work; molecular structure;
162
3. Which of the following regions exists just 8. Which of the following is the electron acceptor
outside the nuclear membrane of most animal in fermentation?
cells? a. pyridoxine
a. the centrosome b. pyruvate
b. the equatorial plane c. pyrimidine
c. the organelle d. pyrrole
d. the pellicle
9. The small spherical bodies within a cell where
4. The decay of a leaf after it falls from a tree proteins are assembled according to genetic
indicates an increase in its instructions are called
a. ecological efficiency. a. mitochondria.
b. entropy. b. ribosomes.
c. metabolic disequilibrium. c. Golgi apparatus.
d. estivation. d. lysosomes.
5. Alcoholic fermentation is a form of 10. Metastasis refers to the

a. anaerobic respiration. a. uncontrolled division of cancer cells.
b. aerobic respiration. b. irregularity in shape of a cancer cell.
c. cation exchange. c. spread of cancer cells to sites beyond their
d. absorption. origin.
d. transformation of a normal cell into a
6. Phagocytosis is a form of cancer cell.
a. hydrolysis.
b. exocytosis.
c. glycolysis.
d. endocytosis.
7. In the structure of cells, in which of the

following organisms would one find a cell wall?
a. a dog
b. a fruit fly
c. a tulip
d. a mackerel
163
Answers B. Heredity
1. b. Although a cell membrane’s main fabric is 1. Pre-Mendelian Concepts

made of lipids, its specific functions are Before Mendel’s discoveries, theories included aver-
largely determined by proteins. ages or blending of colors like the mixing of paints;
2. d. Chemiosmosis is the term used for this physical characteristics carried only by the male;
process. It is important to cellular work, characteristics carried by blood; small human
including ATP synthesis. grown large; pangenesis; and others.
3. a. The centrosome (also called the microtubule-
organizing center) is found in all 2. Mendelian Inheritance
eukaryotic cells and is important during a. Mendel’s Experiments
cell division. Gregor Mendel, the father of classical genetics, was an
4. b. Entropy (symbol S) is the quantitative Austrian monk who, in a small monastery, tended a
measure of a system’s disorder or random- little garden and did experiments on garden peas,
ness. As systems—whether houses, people, which have great variety. He allowed pure strains
leaves, or stars—break down and undergo (one with purple flowers, one with white) to either
irreversible changes, making less energy self-pollinate or cross-pollinate, strictly controlling
available to them, their entropy increases. the parentage. Cross-pollinated breeds (hybrids) of
5. a. Alcoholic fermentation is the anaerobic purple and white flowers showed all purple flowers
catabolism of organic nutrients; one of its in the first generation. But when the second genera-
end products is ethanol. tion self-pollinated, the white trait reappeared.
6. d. Phagocytosis and pinocytosis are both Through his work, the theory of dominant and
forms of endocytosis, the process by which recessive traits was formed.
materials enter a cell without passing
through the cell membrane. b. Mendel’s Major Discoveries
7. c. The cell wall is one of the cell structures Mendel found that no averages or blendings took
that helps differentiate plants and animals. place; instead, particular characteristics, which are
8. b. Pyruvate is the correct answer. Under either dominant or recessive, were retained. Today,
anaerobic conditions, like fermentation, it is we know the mechanisms: genes, chromosomes,
converted to lactate or ethanol. and DNA.
9. b. The ribosome is the site of protein
synthesis. 3. Chromosomal Genetics
10. c. Metastasis refers to the spread of cancer Not all of a eukaryotic cell’s genes are located on
cells to areas beyond their original site. nuclear chromosomes—some are found in cyto-
plasmic organelles.
a. Genes and Chromosomes

Gene: a discrete heritable unit of information
located on the chromosomes and made up
of DNA
Chromosome: a long threadlike structure car-
rying genes in a linear sequence, found in
the nucleus of eukaryotic cells and consisting
164
of DNA (which stores or contains genetic lowing probabilities—BB (25%), Bb (50%), or bb

information) and protein. Humans possess (25%). There is a 75% chance the offspring will
46 chromosomes; the ovum and sperm each exhibit a blue phenotype.
contain 23, of which 22 are autosomes and B b
one is a sex chromosome.
B BB Bb
Chromatin: the substance of which eukaryotic
b Bb bb
chromosomes are composed, consisting
mostly of proteins, DNA, and RNA
c. DNA and RNA
Chromatid: a threadlike strand formed as a
DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid): a double-
chromosome condenses during the early
stranded, helical nucleic acid molecule capa-
stages of cell division
ble of replicating. DNA makes up the genetic
Character (or trait): a heritable feature; for each
material of most living organisms and plays
character, an organism inherits two genes
a central role in determining heredity.
Genome: all the genes contained in a single set
RNA (ribonucleic acid): a single-stranded
of chromosomes; an organism’s complete
nucleic acid molecule involved in protein
genetic material
synthesis, the structure of which is specified
Autosome: a chromosome not directly involved
by DNA. Messenger RNA (mRNA) is
in determining sex
responsible for carrying the genetic code
Alleles: alternative versions of a gene, one from
transcribed from DNA to specialized sites
each parent. The existence of alleles explains
within a cell (ribosomes) where the informa-
why there is variation in inherited traits. An
tion is translated into a protein.
expressed trait is determined by two alleles.
A dominant allele is fully expressed in the
4. Molecular and Human Genetics
organism’s appearance; a recessive allele has
a. Molecular Genetics
no noticeable effect unless two recessive alle-
Molecular genetics is a specialized type of molecu-
les are inherited, in which case, the recessive
lar biology that is concerned with the analysis of
trait will be expressed. For some traits, there
genes. Perhaps the most famous molecule in the
is incomplete dominance.
world is the double-stranded helix, DNA, the sub-
Phenotype: an organism’s appearance; its
stance of genes.
observable, physical, and physiological traits;
often depends on environment as well as genes b. Human Genetics
Genotype: an organism’s genetic makeup (which Because humans are much more complex organ-
is not always apparent); the combination of isms than the ones Mendel studied, and because
alleles it possesses experimental breeding of humans is socially unac-
ceptable, study of human genetics must be done by
b. Punnett Square analyzing the results of matings that have already
A Punnett Square is a convenient tool for deter- occurred. This is done by examining the pedigree of
mining possible genotypes and phenotypes when the subjects involved—the interrelationships of par-
two organisms with known genotypes are crossed. ents and children across generations—and con-
For example, if two blue flowers with a heterozy- structing a pedigree chart to study both past and
gous genotype—one dominant blue allele (B) and future. Through the study of pedigrees, one can
one recessive white allele (b)—are crossed, the off- analyze genetic traits, from harmless (such as eye
spring can have one of three genotypes with the fol- color and texture of hair) to harmful or lethal (such
165
as the diseases discussed below). Various tests for produces insulin; bacteria is grown in tanks,
genetic defects are also useful in the study of human and the insulin is then removed for treatment
genetics. of diabetes.
■ Human proteins (hormones, enzymes, and
5. Treatment of Genetic Diseases and other biological chemicals) made in the same
Genetic Engineering manner can be used to treat hemophilia, mul-
a. Genetic Diseases tiple sclerosis, and other diseases that were
Although most harmful alleles are recessive, some previously untreatable.
genetic combinations can lead to lethal conditions. ■ New genes can be introduced into farm ani-
Examples are Huntington’s disease, Tay-Sachs dis- mals to make them larger, or into plants to
ease, sickle-cell anemia, and cystic fibrosis, as well as make them disease- or insect-resistant.
sex-linked disorders such as hemophilia. The likeli-
hood of two carriers of the same harmful allele mat- Scientists have set up regulating and ethics com-
ing is increased in consanguineous (“same blood’’) mittees to regulate genetic engineering because of
mating—i.e., mating between two close relatives the worry that the process might set up dangerous
(for example, siblings or first cousins). However, new life forms.
consanguineous mating can also lead to a concen-
tration of favorable alleles. You Should Review
In addition to simple Mendelian disorders, there ■ Mendel’s experiments with garden peas—self-
are multifactorial disorders that result from effects pollination and cross-pollination; dominant and
of harmful alleles along with environmental fac- recessive characteristics
tors—for example, heart disease, diabetes, cancer, ■ meiosis versus mitosis
alcoholism, schizophrenia, and bipolar disorder. ■ the genetic basis of variation among individuals
Genetic engineering (discussed next) may be in a population
important in the treatment of some genetic diseases. ■ genetic probability determined from a Punnett
Already, genetic screening and counseling is being square
undertaken in many hospitals, using tests along with ■ how to use probability to determine inherited
family history to compute the odds. Trait recognition characteristics; the statistical nature of inheri-
is now possible through various tests, such as amnio- tance or inheritance as a game of chance; the rule
centesis and chorionic villi sampling. Likewise, new- of multiplication and the rule of addition
borns can be screened for genetic disorders, most of ■ the testcross: breeding of a recessive homozygote
which are untreatable, but a few of which—for exam- with an organism of dominant phenotype but
ple, phenylketonuria—can be treated. unknown genotype
■ inheritance patterns based on dominant and
b. Genetic Engineering recessive alleles
Begun in the 1970s, genetic engineering is the ■ the “particulate model’’—i.e., parents pass on dis-
manipulation of genes—i.e., inserting new genes crete heritable units
into DNA, removing existing genes, or changing ■ aneuploidy (chromosomal aberration); also,
part of a gene. Examples are: polyploidy (triploidy and tetraploidy), deletion,
duplication, inversion, and translocation
■ The gene for human insulin has been added to ■ genomic imprinting
a common bacterium so that the bacterium ■ mutation
166
■ the Punnett square: a grid representing all possi- 12. When a red snapdragon is crossed with a white
ble genotypic combinations in the second genera- one, all the F1 hybrids have pink flowers. This
tion produced by a male (gametes listed is an example of
horizontally) and a female (gametes listed verti- a. inheritance of acquired characteristics.
cally) of the first generation b. the blending theory of inheritance.
■ the process of hybridization c. incomplete dominance.
■ Mendel’s Law of Segregation (named after the d. codominance.
sorting of alleles into separate gametes)
■ Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment 13. While doing his experiments on garden peas,
■ segregation of genes during gamete production Gregor Mendel was unaware of the
■ recessively inherited disorders and dominantly a. laws of probability.
inherited disorders; multifactorial disorders b. statistical nature of inheritance.
■ Thomas Hunt Morgan’s experiments with c. existence of particulate inheritance.
Drosophila melanogaster (the fruit fly) d. role of chromosomes in inheritance.
■ genetic mapping
■ the process of transcribing DNA to mRNA 14. Which of the following is NOT a feature of
■ discovery of the double helix by James Watson Mendel’s Law of Segregation?
and Francis Crick and what the discovery has a. The variation in inherited characters is
meant to the study of genetics caused by alternative versions of heritable
■ processes of DNA replication and DNA repair factors.
■ process of protein synthesis b. For each character, an organism inherits two
■ the genetic code heritable factors, one from each parent.
■ the basics of genetic engineering c. The two heritable factors for each character
■ recombinant DNA and gene cloning segregate during gamete production.
■ the following terms and concepts (among others): d. When heritable factors cannot segregate, they
homozygous and heterozygous; genotypic ratio; must be linked together and then passed on.
protein synthesis; transcription; translation;
linked genes; crossing over; Barr body; karyotype; 15. Sometimes, a gene at one locus on the
complete dominance, incomplete dominance, and chromosome suppresses the phenotypic
codominance; pleiotropy; epistasis; quantitative expression of a gene at a different locus. This is
characters; polygenetic inheritance; norm of reac- called
tion; gene sequencing; pedigree chart a. epistasis.
b. meiosis.
c. carrier recognition.
Questions d. consanguinity.
11. The probabilities for all possible outcomes of 16. Traits that are alternatives to the wild type (for
an event must add up to example, white eyes in a fruit fly as opposed to
a. 0.1 the usual red) are called
b. 1 a. point mutations.
c. 10 b. mutant phenotypes.
d. 100 c. missense mutations.
d. frameshift mutations.
167
17. When, in the 1960s, molecular biologists Answers

performed a series of experiments that showed
the amino acid translations of each of the 11. b. The probabilities for all possible outcomes
codons of nucleic acids, they of an event, added together, must equal 1.
a. created a model for most later genetic For example, in the toss of a two-headed
studies. coin, the probability of tossing tails is ᎏ12ᎏ and
b. called into question an important Mendelian of tossing heads ᎏ12ᎏ; in the throw of a six-
law. sided die, the probability of rolling the
c. cracked the code of life. number 3 is ᎏ16ᎏ, and the probability of rolling
d. established the first link between practical a number other than 3 is ᎏ56ᎏ.
and applied genetics. 12. c. Incomplete dominance is the correct
answer. Characteristics acquired during an
18. Lethal recessive mutations are perpetuated by individual’s lifetime (choice a)—for
the reproduction of carriers with normal example, increased muscle mass in a
a. genotypes. runner’s legs due to running—are not
b. Barr bodies. genetically controlled and are therefore not
c. linked genes. heritable. The blending theory of inheri-
d. phenotypes. tance (choice b) was discredited by
Mendel’s experiments with garden peas.
19. In helping determine whether a genetic The blending theory would predict only
disorder is present in a fetus, which of the pink offspring from this crossing, whereas
following is an alternative to amniocentesis? the reality is that the red or white traits can
a. chorionic villi sampling appear in the next generation—that is, one
b. carrier recognition testing can predict a phenotypic ratio of 1 red to 2
c. RFLP analysis pink to 1 white. Codominance (choice d)
d. use of labeled DNA probes arises when both alleles in a heterozygous
organism are dominant and shown in the
20. Which of the following is NOT a sex-linked phenotype.
genetic disorder? 13. d. Until 1918, most biologists dismissed the
a. color-blindness importance of chromosomes in inheritance.
b. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy Mendel died in 1884.
c. syphilis 14. d. The discovery of linked heritable factors
d. hemophilia (now called genes) did not occur until after
Mendel’s death. The discovery was made by
Bateson and Punnett of Cambridge
University in 1906.
168
15. a. Epistasis (Greek for standing still on) is the dehydration, and invasion by harmful agents
correct answer. such as bacteria.
16. b. Phenotypes are the observable physical and ■ As a sense organ, it provides sensitivity to
physiological traits of an organism. A trait pain, temperature, and pressure.
alternative to the normal phenotypic ■ It aids in the regulation of body temperature.
character (the “wild type’’) is a mutant
phenotype. 2. Skeletal System
17. c. Cracking the genetic code was one of the a. Definition and Structure
most important steps taken in the field of The skeleton is the chief structural system which,
molecular biology. Marshall Nirenberg, of along with the skin, provides form and shape to the
the National Institutes of Health, deci- body. Comprised of 206 bones in adults, along with
phered the first codon in 1961. cartilage and ligaments, the skeletal system is rigid,
18. d. Unlike lethal dominant alleles, lethal yet flexible because of joints; the bones form levers
recessive alleles are masked under “normal” that are moved by muscles. There are two types of
phenotypes in their heterozygous carriers. tissue that make up bone:
19. a. Chorionic villi sampling is the suctioning
off of a small amount of fetal tissue from ■ Cortical, or compact, bone: strong and dense
the villi of the embryonic membrane. It skeletal tissue. It makes up the hard outer por-
yields more rapid results than amniocente- tion of bone that supports the skeletal system.
sis, but its risks have not yet been fully ■ Cancellous, or trabecular, bone: spongy
assessed. skeletal tissue. It has a high surface area and
20. c. Syphilis is caused by infection by the contains many blood vessels.
bacterium Treponema pallidum.
There are five types of bone:
C. Structure and Function of Human
Systems ■ Long: bones are longer than they are wide—
for example, the femur, humerus, tibia, and
1. Integumentary System fibia.
a. Definition and Structure ■ Flat: bones form long flat plates—for example,
The integument is the outermost covering of the the cranium and pelvis.
body and is its largest organ. It consists of the epi- ■ Short: bones are cube-shaped, with a hard
dermis (thinner, outermost layer) and dermis exterior and spongy interior—for example,
(thicker, innermost layer). It also includes special- the bones of the wrist and ankle.
ized structures, the hair and nails. Within the layers, ■ Sesamoid: bones are embedded in the ten-
there are also other structures. Beneath the skin is dons—for example, the patella (kneecap).
the subcutaneous tissue. ■ Irregular: bones which do not fit into the
aforementioned types—for example, the spine.
b. Function
The integumentary system has the following b. Function
functions: The skeletal system has the following functions:
■ In cooperation with the immune system, it ■ It provides mechanical support.

provides protection for the body from injury, ■ It protects vulnerable organs within the body.
169
■ Along with the muscular system, it makes 5. Immune System

body movement possible. a. Definition and Structure
■ It stores calcium in the bones, which contain The immune system is the body’s protective mech-
marrow for production of red and white anism. It consists of the lymphatic system; the white
blood cells and platelets. cells of the blood and bone marrow; the thymus
gland; and the outer fortress, the skin. There are two
3. Muscular System types of immunity: inherited (natural or innate)
a. Definition and Structure and acquired (active and passive).
The muscular system is made up of muscle tissue The basic characteristics of the immune system
in sheets or bundles of cells. Muscles can only include the concepts of:
actively contract—expansion is passive—and are
attached to the skeleton, generally in pairs that work ■ Specificity: the immune system’s capacity to
against each other. There are three major types of recognize and get rid of antigens—harmful
muscle: pathogens and molecules—by producing lym-
phocytes and antibodies (specific proteins).
■ voluntary (skeletal): can be controlled by An antigen (literally meaning “antibody-
conscious thought—for example, the biceps. generating’’) can include anything “foreign’’ to
■ involuntary (visceral, smooth): cannot be the body, such as the molecules of viruses, bac-
controlled by the will—for example, the teria, fungi, protozoans, parasitic worms,
esophagus. pollen, insect poison, and, unfortunately, tissue
■ cardiac (heart muscles, striated, and that has been transplanted from another person.
smooth): specialized and particular to the ■ Diversity: the immune system’s capacity to
heart, contract spontaneously, and are regu- respond to literally millions of invaders, which
lated by nervous system intervention. is due to the great variety of lymphocytes
keyed to particular antigen markers.
b. Function ■ Self/nonself recognition: the immune system’s
Along with the skeletal system, the muscular system ability to distinguish its own body’s molecules
is responsible for flexibility, movement, and tension. (“self’’) from antigens (“nonself’’).
■ Memory: the immunological system’s capacity
4. Circulatory System to remember formerly encountered antigens
a. Definition and Structure and react more quickly when exposed again—
The circulatory system consists of the cardiovascu- called acquired immunity. There are two kinds
lar and lymphatic systems: the heart; blood vessels of acquired immunity: active, as a response by
(tubes through which blood is carried to and from the individual’s own immune system, either
the heart, including arteries, arterioles, capillaries, naturally or artificially acquired as through
venules, and veins); blood; lymphatic vessels and vaccines; and passive, as a response by anti-
sinuses; and lymph nodes. bodies transferred from one person to
another—for example, a mother’s passing
b. Function antibodies to the fetus or the artificial intro-
The circulatory system distributes blood and asso- duction of antibodies from an immune animal
ciated chemicals throughout the body and underlies or human.
all aspects of function within the human body.
170
b. Function ■ the structures that carry waste, in the form of

The immune system protects the body from infection urine, out of the body. Urine is 95% water and
(invasion by pathological agents—microorganisms 5% solids in solution, including organic con-
or viruses), diseases, and injury-causing agents. stituents (urea, hippuric acid, uric acid, creati-
nine) and inorganic constituents (mainly salts
6. Respiratory System of sodium and potassium)
a. Definition and Structure
The respiratory system consists of the organs respon- b. Function
sible for the interchange of gases between body and The kidneys remove nitrogenous waste or toxic
atmosphere—the lungs (its center), the nose, phar- byproducts from the blood and maintain the home-
ynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and diaphragm. ostasis of blood and body fluids.
b. Function 9. Nervous System

The respiratory system functions to take in oxygen a. Definition and Structure
and eliminate carbon dioxide. The nervous system is one of two coordinating sys-
tems. (The other is the endocrine system, with
7. Digestive (or Gastrointestinal) System which the nervous system interacts and cooperates.)
a. Definition and Structure It is made up of the nerves, brain, and sense organs
The digestive system includes the gastrointestinal for sight, sound, smell, taste, and touch. The nervous
tract (or alimentary canal), which is a tube with two system is divided into two parts:
openings, the mouth and anus, for intake of food
and elimination of waste; as well as accessory struc- ■ the central nervous system: the brain and
tures and organs such as the teeth, tongue, liver, spinal cord
pancreas, and gallbladder. ■ the peripheral nervous system: the rest of the
neural network—the cervical, thoracic, lumbar,
b. Function and sacral nerves that branch from the spine
The digestive system’s function is to break down
food for energy, reabsorb water and nutrients, and The brain is the nervous system’s main control
eliminate waste. center and consists of three parts:
8. Renal System ■ the cerebral hemispheres, which are responsi-

a. Definition and Structure ble for the higher functions, such as speech
The renal system consists of: and hearing
■ the cerebellum, which is responsible for
■ two kidneys: compact, bean-shaped organs subconscious activities and some balance
through which blood is cycled for removal of functions
nitrogenous waste and other substances ■ the brain stem, which is responsible for
■ the nephrons or excretory tubules contained necessary functions such as breathing and
within the kidneys circulation
■ the blood vessels that serve the kidneys
The cells of the nervous system consist of neu-
rons and supporting cells.
171
b. Function The male reproductive system is made up of:

The nervous system controls the flow of informa- ■ the external genitalia: the scrotum and penis
tion in the body between the sensory and motor ■ the internal reproductive organs: the gonads
cells and organs.
(testes) and hormones, accessory glands, and a
set of ducts that carry sperm and glandular
10. Endocrine System
secretions
a. Definition and Structure
The endocrine system is the internal system of The female reproductive system is made up of:
chemical communication, involving: ■ the external genitalia: the clitoris and two sets
of labia
■ Hormones: substances that regulate the growth
■ the internal system: the fallopian tubes, ovaries,
or functioning of a specific tissue or organ in a
uterus, vagina, and related organs. The ovaries
distant part of the body—for example, insulin,
contain thousands of eggs. During a female’s
sex hormones, corticosteroids, adrenaline, thy-
fertile years, an egg is released by one of the
roxine, and growth hormone
ovaries into the fallopian tube about once a
■ the ductless glands that secrete hormones
month. If fertilization occurs, the egg attaches
directly into the interstitial spaces: the pitu-
to the wall of the uterus and grows into a fetus.
itary, adrenal, thyroid, parathyroid, ovary,
testis, placenta, and part of the pancreas
b. Function
■ the molecular receptors on or in target cells
The reproductive system functions to create new indi-
that respond to hormones
viduals from existing ones and propagate the species.
b. Function
In concert with the nervous system, the endocrine c. Fertilization, Descriptive Embryology,
system affects internal regulation and maintains and Developmental Mechanics
homeostasis. Hormones affect the overall rate of Fertilization (syngamy): the union of male and
metabolism and the metabolism of specific sub- female gametes to form a zygote. Each
stances, growth and developmental processes, devel- gamete contains half the correct number of
opment and functioning of reproductive organs and chromosomes; together, they form a full
sexual characteristics, development of higher nervous complement.
functions (for example, personality), and the ability Embryology: the science that studies the devel-
of the body to handle stress and resist disease. opment of the embryo.
The development of the human embryo occurs

11. Reproductive System roughly in the second through eighth week after fer-
a. Definition and Structure tilization. During the first week, the zygote is formed
Reproduction is the method by which new individ- and enters the uterus, where implantation occurs. In
uals are created from existing ones. In humans, this the second through eighth weeks, the embryo devel-
involves two sets of organs: the internal reproduc- ops and begins to show human form. The develop-
tive organs and the external genitalia. Reproduction ment of the embryo occurs in the following stages:
involves the fusion of two haploid gametes—the
female ovum and the male spermatozoon—to
■ Cleavage: zygote divides to form the blastula
form a diploid zygote.
■ Gastrulation: cells become arranged into
three primary germ layers
172
■ Organogenesis or organogeny: further cell ■ the structure and action of an involuntary mus-
division and differentiation results in the for- cle; location is in the skin, around hair follicles,
mation of organs and in the internal organs (digestive tract, respi-
ratory tract, urogenital tract, and circulatory sys-
At this point, we refer to the growing organism as tem); the way an involuntary muscle is supplied
a fetus. Over nine months, the human fetus devel- by the autonomic nervous system; its composi-
ops until it comprises all the organs necessary for tion of fusiform or spindle-shaped cells without
life outside the womb. striations
■ the structure and function of the cardiac muscle:
You Should Review for example, Purkinje fibers; intercalated discs;
■ the structure of the skin, including sweat pores, pacemaker channels; action of the vagus nerve to
high and low temperature receptors, pain recep- produce bradycardia; action of cholinergic stimu-
tors, papillary region, hair and hair follicles, seba- lation to increase blood pressure and heart rate
ceous glands, arrector pili, Meissner’s corpuscle, ■ the structures of the heart; how the cardiac mus-
stratum corneum, stratum granulosum, Malpi- cle works; how blood circulates; and names of
ghian layer, sweat glands and sweat ducts, blood major blood vessels and lymphatic vessels
capillaries, the Pacinian corpuscles (pressure recep- ■ the makeup of blood: (1) plasma—90% water;
tors), sensory nerves, adipose (fat) tissue also contains fibrinogen (plasma protein to help
■ the way the skin functions in the immune system clotting), inorganic ions, dissolved gases (for
■ the main parts of the skeleton and a little about example, oxygen and carbon dioxide), organic
their individual functions, including the cranium nutrients (amino acids and fats), hormones, anti-
and its parts, and the mandible, sternum, clavicle, bodies, enzymes, and waste materials (for exam-
rib cage, vertebrae, carpals, metacarpals, pha- ple, uric acid and urea); (2) erythrocytes (red
langes, femur, patella, tibia, fibula, metatarsals, blood cells); (3) leukocytes and phagocytes (white
tarsals, phalanges, scapula, humerus, iliac crest, blood cells); and (4) platelets. You should become
ulna, radius, pelvis, coccyx, ischium familiar with what each type of blood cell does.
■ the synovial joints and their structure and func- ■ the makeup of lymph (called tissue fluid in the
tion: the ball-and-socket, ellipsoidal, gliding, intercellular spaces): alkaline, colorless (or yel-
hinged, pivot, saddle, sutures/immovable joints lowish or milky), and consisting mostly of water;
■ the way bones, muscle, and cartilage work also contains (1) proteins (serum albumin, serum
together to support weight and enable movement globulin, serum fibrinogen); (2) salts; and (3)
■ axial versus appendicular skeletal components organic substances (urea, creatinine, neutral fats,
■ the location, size, and shape of the main muscle glucose). You should become familiar with what
groups, their action, origin, insertion, and inner- each component contributes.
vation (You needn’t memorize all—there are ■ general facts about blood groups, blood banks,
about 700 of them!) tissue and organ transplants
■ the structure and action of a voluntary muscle: ■ general facts about blood types/antigens (for
the tendon, epimysium, bundle of muscle fibers, example, ABO, Rh factor) and blood transfusion;
nucleus, single muscle fiber, and myofibril (light why blood typing is important
band, dark band, sarcomere unit containing con- ■ some common blood disorders: for example, var-
tractile proteins); flexor versus extensor muscles ious kinds of anemia, hemophilia, leukemia,
polycythemia, or thrombosis
173
■ basics of homeostasis: acids, bases, normal blood salivary glands (saliva, salivary amylase), pan-
pH, fluid and electrolyte balance creas, liver, and gallbladder—and their functions
■ the basic characteristics of the immune system ■ the various sphincters and the mechanism of
■ characteristics and importance of B cells and peristalsis
T cells (the two main classes of lymphocytes) and ■ the function and composition of gastric juices
their antigen receptors; the central role of T cells— (for example, pepsin/pepsinogen, hydrochloric
cytotoxic or killer T cells and helper T cells acid), zymogens, gastrin, acid chyme
■ the molecular basis of antigen-antibody ■ hormones and enzymes involved in the digestive
specificity process
■ the nature of antibodies (a class of proteins called ■ how digestive secretions are regulated
immunoglobulins or Igs—includes IgM, IgG, ■ absorption and distribution of nutrients—the
IgA, IgD, and IgE) and how they work in the villi, microvilli, lacteal, chylomicrons, lipopro-
human body teins, capillaries, and hepatic portal vein leading
■ the cellular basis for specificity and diversity to the liver
■ the humoral response and activation of B cells; ■ the process of elimination of waste
T-dependent and T-independent antigens ■ the structure and function of the renal
■ the main immune disorders—autoimmune dis- system, especially the kidneys (collecting duct,
eases, immunodeficiency, especially AIDS cortex, medulla, glomeruli, Bowman’s capsule,
(acquired immunodeficiency syndrome) and loop of Henle, and others) and the renin-
HIV—and their treatment angiotensin-aldosterone axis
■ the following terms and concepts related to the ■ renal fluid composition
immune system (among others): humoral immu- ■ concepts of pressure gradients, diffusion, osmo-
nity, cell-mediated immunity, effector cells, sis, active transport, filtration, concentration,
plasma cells, clonal selection, primary and sec- diuresis
ondary immune responses, memory cells, self- ■ the nervous system and functions of its main
tolerance, cytokines (for example, interleukin-1 parts—for example, the spinal cord and its
and -2), interferon regions (cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral); and
■ the organs of respiration (especially the lungs) nerves (ulnar, median, radial, cauda equina, sci-
and their specific structures and functions atic, femoral, saphenous, vagus)
■ how breathing is controlled (nerves in the breath- ■ the brain and functions of main parts—frontal
ing center) lobe, temporal lobe, parietal lobe, occipital lobe,
■ gas exchange in humans cerebellum, brain stem
■ the following terms and concepts related to the ■ the various areas of control in the brain—for
respiratory system (among others): oxygen trans- example, the voluntary motor area, frontal lobe,
port and carbon dioxide transport, negative pres- speech center, olfactory area, somatic sensory
sure breathing, tidal volume, volume capacity, area, visual area, cerebellum, auditory area
residual volume ■ the cells of the nervous system, i.e., the neurons
■ major structures of the digestive system and the and supporting cells
function of each: oral cavity, esophagus, ■ neurons—cell body, dendrites, axons, Schwann’s
diaphragm, liver, gallbladder, stomach, pancreas, cells, myelin sheath (covers the axons of nerve
spleen, large intestine (colon), small intestine, cells, composed of lipids and proteins), synaptic
cecum, sigmoid colon, appendix, rectum, anus. terminals, synapses. The three kinds of neurons:
The alimentary canal and accessory organs—the sensory neurons, motor neurons, and interneurons
174
■ supporting cells (glial cells—meaning “glue Questions

cells’’)—for example, in the central nervous sys-
tem, astrocytes (which contribute to the blood- 21. Which of the following is one of the functions
brain barrier) and oligodendrocytes; in the of Meissner’s corpuscles?
peripheral nervous system, Schwann cells a. to detect light touch
■ how electrical signals are transmitted along a b. to detect pain
neuron c. to detect heat
■ the origin of electrical membrane potential d. to detect cold
■ the endocrine glands: hypophysis/pituitary,
parathyroid, thyroid, suprarenal/adrenal glands, 22. Which of the following structures is part of the
islet of Langerhans in the pancreas, and gonads axial skeleton?
(ovaries/testes) a. the bones of the limbs
■ the hormones (chemical signals transmitted b. the pectoral girdle
throughout the body via the circulatory system; c. the pelvic girdle
act upon body structures more or less distant) d. the skull
and their target cells
■ the three general classes of hormones based on 23. Repetitive muscle contraction depends upon a
chemical structure: (1) steroid hormones, includ- phosphate group being added to ADP by
ing sex hormones; (2) amino acid derivatives, a. phosphagens.
generally from tyrosine, which include epineph- b. phosphorylases.
rine/adrenaline, the “fight or flight’’ hormone; c. phospholipids.
and (3) peptides, the most diverse class, which d. phosphokinase.
includes insulin
■ the hormone receptors 24. The inner layer of squamous cells that lines the
■ the male and female reproductive structures and blood vessels is called the
functions a. endoderm.
■ the hormonal control of human reproduction: b. endothelium.
(1) in males, androgens, especially testosterone; c. endometrium.
(2) in females, the menstrual cycle, consisting of d. endomembrane.
menstrual flow phase, proliferative phase, secre-
tory phase; and the ovarian cycle, consisting of 25. Which of the following aspects of the immune
the follicular phase/ovulation and the luteal system is responsible for the rejection of organ
phase, hormones, in particular, estrogen, proges- transplants?
terone, and oxytocin a. phagocytosis
■ spermatogenesis and oogenesis b. the formation of antibodies
■ the main aspects of fertilization, embryo forma- c. the major histocompatibility complex
tion, and development from zygote to fetus d. the activation of B cells
■ the three trimesters of pregnancy
175
26. The enzyme that hydrolyzes protein in the 31. LH and FSH are both
digestive system is called a. pituitary gonadotropins.
a. erepsin. b. placental hormones.
b. steapsin. c. steroids.
c. ptyalin. d. androgens.
d. pepsin.
32. Which of the following structures is partially
27. The process of inhaling air begins with responsible for the fact that a mother does not
stimulation of the diaphragm by the reject the embryo as a foreign body, as she
a. phrenic nerve. would a tissue or organ graft?
b. trigeminal nerve. a. the endometrium
c. pressor nerve. b. the erythroblast
d. splanchnic nerve. c. the placenta
d. the trophoblast
28. Which of the following is a disorder of body
fluids common in renal disease?
a. acidocytosis
b. phagocytosis
c. acidosis
d. polyposis
29. Much of typically human emotion is thought

to rely on interactions between the cerebral
cortex and the
a. hindbrain.
b. R-complex.
c. corpus callosum.
d. limbic system.
30. The area of the brain that integrates endocrine

and neural functions is the
a. hippocampus.
b. gyrus.
c. hypothalamus.
d. pons.
176
Answers 29. d. The limbic system is that area of the human

brain midway between the R-complex and
21. a. Meissner’s corpuscles, which lie relatively the neocortex in both locale and evolution-
close to the surface of the skin, detect light ary age. It is thought to play a major role in
touch. the generation of strong, vivid emotions.
22. d. The vertebrate frame has two parts, the Some scientists believe that the beginnings
axial skeleton and the appendicular of altruistic behavior are to be found in the
skeleton. The skull, vertebral column, and limbic system.
rib cage make up the axial skeleton. The 30. c. The hypothalamus initiates endocrine
other answer choices make up the signals after receiving information about
appendicular skeleton. the environment from the peripheral nerves
23. a. Phosphagens are high-energy phosphate and other parts of the brain.
compounds found in animal tissues that 31. a. LH (luteinizing hormone) and FSH
supply a phosphate group to ADP to make (follicle-stimulating hormone) are pituitary
ATP. gonadotropins, which are hormones whose
24. b. Endothelium is the correct answer. The levels affect oogenesis and spermatogenesis.
other choices relate to systems other than 32. d. The trophoblast is a barrier that prevents
the human circulatory system. the embryo from coming into contact with
25. c. The major histocompatibility complex is maternal tissue.
part of the cell-mediated response system.
Choice a, phagocytosis, is involved in the D. Bacteria and Viruses
inflammatory response; choices b and d are
part of the humoral immune response 1. Definitions
system. a. Viruses
26. d. Pepsin is the chief enzyme found in gastric Viruses: the simplest of all genetic systems, infec-
juice and is responsible for hydrolyzing tious particles the largest of which can barely be
protein. Choices a, b, and c are enzymes seen with a light microscope
present in intestinal juice, pancreatic juice,
and saliva, respectively. Viruses hover between life and nonlife, being
27. a. The phrenic nerve arises in the cervical either very complex molecules or very simple life
plexus, enters the thorax, and passes into forms. They lack the structure and most of the
the diaphragm. Choices b, c, and d are equipment of cells and enzymes for metabolism;
involved in processes of nonrespiratory they are merely aggregates of nucleic acids and
organs. proteins—cores of nucleic acid packaged in protein
28. c. Acidosis is the excess acidity of body fluids coats called capsids. Some also bear an outer enve-
found in renal disease and diabetes. lope of proteins and lipids. Viruses are parasites of
animals, plants, and some bacteria, and can only
metabolize and reproduce within a living host cell.
The discovery of viruses began with the German
scientist Adolf Mayer in 1883; however, most of the
research conducted with viruses has been done in
the last twenty years.
177
Structure: nucleic acid coated with a shell of pro- ■ Metabolic requirements: Bacteria are further
tein called a capsid, and sometimes a membranous classified as to, for example, whether they
envelope (shell of protein and lipids) coating the require oxygen.
capsid. The envelope may help the virus enter the ■ Aerobic bacteria require oxygen.
host cell. Whereas other genes are made of double- ■ Anaerobic bacteria do not require oxygen
stranded DNA, genomes of a virus may consist of

double-stranded DNA or single-stranded DNA (in Bacteria have greater metabolic diversity than all
DNA viruses), or double-stranded RNA or single- eukaryotes combined. With regard to procurement of
stranded RNA (in RNA viruses). energy and carbon, they fall into four categories:
b. Bacteria ■ Photoautotrophs harness light energy for the

Bacteria: unicellular organisms—prokaryotes— synthesis of organic compounds from carbon
with no true nucleus dioxide—for example, cyanobacteria (for-
merly called blue-green algae).
Bacteria are classified into two groups, gram- ■ Photoheterotrophs use light to generate ATP
positive and gram-negative, based on differences in but can get carbon only in organic form (i.e.,
cell wall composition detected by Gram’s staining. not from CO2).
Gram-negative bacteria are more dangerous to ■ Chemoautotrophs obtain energy by oxidizing
other life forms than Gram-positive bacteria due to inorganic substances, although they need only
endotoxins in the outer membrane of the Gram- CO2 as source of carbon—for example, Sul-
negative cell wall. Bacteria are extremely adaptable folobus, which oxidizes sulfur.
with regard to their physiological adjustment to ■ Chemoheterotrophs use organic molecules
changes in the environment. They are the principal for both energy and carbon—the majority of
decomposers of most ecosystems. Bacteria were dis- bacteria are in this category.
covered by the Dutch inventor of the microscope,
Antoni van Leeuwenhoek (1632–1723). Bacteria also vary in the effect oxygen has on
metabolism (obligate aerobes, facultative anaerobes,
2. Structure, Shapes, Metabolism, and Life obligate anaerobes) and in nitrogen metabolism.
Cycle of Bacteria
a. Structure c. Life Cycle
The bacterial genome is mainly a single double- In their life cycle, bacteria do not undergo mitosis or
stranded DNA molecule (plasmid). Prokaryotes lack meiosis, although they may undergo genetic recom-
membrane-enclosed organelles. (See Section A of bination by three mechanisms: transformation,
this chapter for more detail.) conjugation, and transduction. Instead, they repro-
duce by binary fission, with each daughter cell
b. Shapes and Metabolic Requirements receiving a copy of the single parental chromosome.
Bacteria are initially grouped according to: Bacteria are exceptionally resistant to environmental
destruction; some cannot even be killed by boiling
■ Shape: Bacteria can be placed into three groups: water, and endospores may remain dormant for
cocci, with a spherical shape; bacilli, with a rod- centuries. Unchecked by unfavorable environmen-
like shape; and spirilla, with a spiral shape. tal conditions, their growth is geometric. Genera-
tion times are usually one to three hours, but some
species may double every 20 minutes.
178
3. Classification of Bacteria Bacterial viruses are called bacteriophages, or sim-

Bacteria used to be classified as plants; however, ply phages, and include, among many others, seven
prokaryotes and plants have a completely different that infect Escherichia coli.
molecular composition. Instead of cellulose, bacte-
rial walls are composed of peptidoglycan, which b. Bacterial Diseases
consists of polymers of modified sugars cross linked Approximately half of all human diseases are caused
by short polypeptides that vary according to species. by bacteria; they may be intruders from outside or
Classification of bacteria is still in flux. opportunistic—that is, they live inside the body of a
healthy host, becoming destructive only when the
a. Kingdom Archaea host’s defenses are weakened. Pathogenic bacteria
Archaebacteria may be descendants of the earliest can disrupt the physiology of the host by growing
forms of life. They include methanogens, extreme inside and invading the tissues. Others exude poisons
halophiles, and thermoacidophiles. that are one of two types: exotoxins or endotoxins.
(See Mechanisms of Infection/Bacteria.)
b. Kingdom Bacteria Examples of diseases caused by bacteria include
Eubacteria (or “true’’ bacteria) are sometimes said pneumonia, caused by the bacterium Streptococcus
to belong to the order Schizomycetes, although, as pneumoniae; tuberculosis, caused by the bacterium
noted previously, classification of bacteria is in flux. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which destroys parts of
Eubacteria include, among others, actinomycetes the lung tissue and is spread through inhalation and
(e.g., Mycobacterium), chemoautotrophic bacteria exhalation; syphilis, caused by the bacterium Tre-
(e.g., Nitrobacter), cyanobacteria (e.g., Chroococcus), ponema pallidum; and many others.
endospore-forming bacteria (e.g., Bacillus), enteric Escherichia coli is a well-known bacterium. Most
bacteria (e.g., Escherichia), mycoplasmas (e.g., E. coli are harmless, while some can cause serious
Mycoplasma), myxobacteria (e.g., Myxococcus), food poisoning. E. coli is widely used in laboratory
nitrogen-fixing aerobic bacteria (e.g., Azotobacter), experiments and biotechnology.
pseudomonads (e.g., Pseudomonas), rickettsias and
chlamydias (e.g., Rickettsia and Chlamydia), and 5. Mechanisms of Infection
spirochetes (e.g., Borrelia). a. Viruses
Lock-and-key fit is the method by which viruses iden-
4. Diseases tify their host. Some viruses can infect several species,
a. Viral Diseases like the swine flu virus and the rabies virus, and some
Not all viruses are disease-causing; many viruses do can infect only a single species, like the human cold
no apparent harm. Diseases caused by viruses virus and HIV. Some viruses depend on coinfection
include the common cold, influenza, AIDS, herpes, by other viruses. The host range is the range of host
viral pneumonia, meningitis, hepatitis, polio, rabies cells a particular type of virus can infect.
in animals, and tobacco mosaic disease in plants.
Types of viruses include adenovirus, arbovirus, her- ■ Lytic cycle: the reproductive cycle of virulent
pesvirus, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV, the viruses that ends in the death of the host
retrovirus that causes AIDS), myxovirus, papillo- ■ Lysogenic cycle: the reproductive cycle of
mavirus, picornavirus, poxvirus, retrovirus, and (in temperate viruses, which coexist with the host
plants) the tobacco mosaic virus. rather than killing it
■ Vaccines: variants or derivatives of pathogenic
microbes that help the cell defend against
179
infection (e.g., polio, rubella, measles, and ■ Mutualism: both symbionts benefit
mumps). There is little that can be done to ■ Commensalism: one symbiont receives
cure a viral infection once it begins, as antibi- benefits while neither harming nor helping
otics are powerless; however, many new antivi- the other
ral agents have been developed in recent years. ■ Parasitism: one symbiont benefits but harms
the host
b. Bacteria
One mechanism of infection is growing and invad- You Should Review
ing tissues. Bacteria that use this mechanism include ■ the structure and evolutionary origin of viruses
rickettsias that cause Rocky Mountain spotted ■ reproduction mechanism of viruses
fever and typhus, and actinomycetes that cause ■ plant viruses and viroids (even simpler pathogens
tuberculosis and leprosy. Others produce toxins of than viruses)
two types: ■ characteristics of the two kinds of virus, DNA
and RNA
■ Exotoxins: proteins secreted by the bacterial ■ Gram’s staining
cell; examples are Clostridium botulinum, ■ metabolic processes of prokaryotes
which causes the often fatal disease botulism, ■ nutritional needs of prokaryotes: Some are very
and Vibrio cholerae, which causes cholera. specific in their needs (for example, Lactobacillus
■ Endotoxins: not secreted by the bacterium, needs all 20 amino acids, several vitamins, and
but are merely components of its outer mem- various organic compounds); some are not spe-
brane; examples are the various species of Sal- cific (for example, E. coli can grow on a medium
monella, which cause food poisoning, and containing glucose or a substitute for glucose as
Salmonella typhi, which causes typhoid fever. the only organic component).
■ process of nitrogen fixation
Many bacteria are harmless or even beneficial; ■ kinds of chemoheterotrophic bacteria—for
they have certainly had wide-ranging benefits example, saprophytes (decomposers) and parasites;
to humankind. From bacteria, we have learned there are no known present-day phagotrophic
much about metabolism and molecular biology. bacteria
Methanogens are used for sewage treatment by aer- ■ life cycle of bacteria
ating sewage. Some soil species of pseudomonads ■ reproductive process of binary fission
are used to decompose pesticides and certain harm- ■ the various diseases caused by viruses and bacteria
ful synthetic substances. Bacteria are used to make ■ Koch’s postulates
vitamins, antibiotics, and certain foods—e.g., to ■ the reproductive cycle of the HIV virus
convert milk to yogurt and some types of cheese. ■ the lytic cycle and defense mechanisms of certain
Whether destructive or beneficial, bacteria do not bacteria against certain phages (e.g., restriction
act alone but often form relationships with other enzymes)
bacteria species and organisms from other kingdoms ■ the many variations of viral infection among ani-
through symbiosis, which means “living together’’— mal viruses, especially viruses with envelopes and
if one symbiont is larger than another, it is known as viruses with RNA genomes, and the reproductive
the host. There are three categories of symbiotic cycle of each
relationships: ■ retroviruses; reverse transcriptase
180
■ viruses and cancer; tumor viruses: HIV (the 36. If one member of an isolated bacterial colony
AIDS-causing virus) is found to be genetically different from the
■ the main groups of bacteria and kinds of bacteria rest, which of the following is the most likely
in these groups explanation?
■ sizes of various bacteria, along with motility; cap- a. Mitosis has taken place.
sules; spores; reproduction; colony formation; food, b. Mutation has taken place.
oxygen, and temperature requirements; and activi- c. Sexual reproduction has taken place.
ties (enzyme production, toxin production, etc.) d. Cloning has taken place.
37. Which of the following groups of microorgan-

Questions isms is an example of an obligate anaerobe?
a. methanogens
33. Which of the following is NOT a reason gram- b. cyanobacteria
negative bacteria are more threatening to other c. chemoautotrophs
life forms than gram-positive bacteria are? d. chemoheterotrophs
a. The lipopolysaccharides on the walls of
gram-negative bacteria are often toxic. 38. The ability, possessed by certain bacteria, to
b. The outer membrane provides protection assimilate atmospheric nitrogen into
for gram-negative bacteria against the nitrogenous compounds that can be used by
defenses of their hosts. plants is called nitrogen
c. Gram-negative bacteria are more resistant a. production.
to antibiotics than are gram-positive b. fixation.
bacteria. c. cycling.
d. Gram-negative bacteria cause hemolysis of d. equilibrium.
blood, whereas gram-positive bacteria do
not. 39. Which of the following microorganisms
encodes the enzyme reverse transcriptase?
34. Which of the following is NOT a factor a. the ECHO virus
differentiating bacteria and viruses? b. the masked virus
a. Bacteria are susceptible to antibiotics, c. the HIV virus
whereas viruses are not. d. the attenuated virus
b. The mechanism of replication is different in
bacteria than in viruses. 40. Which of the following is a kind of movement
c. Unlike viruses, bacteria are true cells. of which certain bacteria are capable?
d. Bacteria are often parasitic, whereas viruses a. chemotaxis
cannot be. b. chemosmosis
c. chemosynthesis
35. The resistant cells some bacteria form to resist d. chemylosis
environmental destruction are called
a. endospores.
b. coenocytes.
c. coenobia.
d. endosomes.
181
41. Destruction of bacteria by a lytic agent is called Answers

a. bacteriogenesis.
b. bacteriophagia. 33. d. Some gram-positive bacteria do cause
c. bacteremia. hemolysis—for example, the very common
d. bacteriostasis. Streptococcus.
34. d. Viruses are parasites, often even of bacteria.
42. The discovery of the virus began with German 35. a. The resistant cells, called endospores, can
scientist Adolf Mayer and occurred while he survive almost anything, including boiling
was seeking the cause of water, lack of nutrients or water, and most
a. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. poisons.
b. rabies. 36. b. Since bacteria reproduce asexually by binary
c. tobacco mosaic disease. fission, generally in an isolated colony all
d. fungal blight. will be genetically identical. Differences in
offspring in an isolated colony can,
however, be caused by mutation. Neither
mitosis nor sexual reproduction (choices a
and c) take place in bacteria; cloning
(choice d) produces genetically identical
individuals.
37. a. Methanogens produce methane and are
obligate, or strict, anaerobes found in
oxygen-deficient environments such as
marshes, swamps, sludge, and the digestive
systems of ruminants (such as cows).
38. b. Nitrogen fixation is important to the
nutrition of plants and can only be
performed by certain bacteria. In terms of
nutrition, this ability makes cyanobacteria
the most self-sufficient organisms on Earth.
39. c. The retrovirus HIV encodes the enzyme
reverse transcriptase, which uses RNA as a
template for DNA synthesis.
40. a. The word chemotaxis is derived from the
Greek chemeia (chemistry) + taxis
(arrangement). Positive chemotaxis is the
moving toward a chemical; negative
chemotaxis is the moving away from a
chemical.
41. b. Bacteriophages are viruses that are parasitic
to bacteria. The lytic cycle of a bacterio-
phage culminates in the death of the host.
182
42. c. Mayer noted that tobacco mosaic disease 4. Nutritional Requirements

was contagious, but he could find no In order to live, plants require both macronutrients
microbe in the infectious sap. He concluded (nutrients required in large quantities), including
that the causal agent was a bacterium too carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulfur, phos-
small to be seen with a microscope. Only phorus, calcium, potassium, and magnesium; and
later were scientists able to discern the micronutrients (nutrients required in smaller quan-
characteristics that set viruses apart from tities), including iron, chlorine, copper, manganese,
bacteria. zinc, molybdenum, boron, and nickel. Fixed nitrogen
is important to all aspects of a plant’s life cycle.
E. Plants
5. Structure and Function
1. Distinction between Plants Plants are classified as either nonvascular or vascular.
and Animals
Plants are multicellular eukaryotes that are nearly all a. Nonvascular Plants
terrestrial in origin, though some have evolved so Nonvascular plants have simpler tissues than vascu-
that they can live in water. They differ from animals lar plants. They are covered by a waxy cuticle to pre-
in structure, life cycle, and modes of nutrition and vent dehydration, require water to reproduce, and
are the mainstay of most ecosystems on Earth. They lack woody tissue and so do not grow tall but rather
draw their energy directly from sunlight and directly grow in mats low to the ground. The nonvascular
or indirectly feed the rest of the creatures on Earth, plants include mosses, liverworts, and hornworts.
including animals; without them, most ecosystems
would simply die. They are autotrophic in nutrition, b. Vascular Plants
making food by photosynthesis, or the conversion of Vascular plants have much more elaborate tissues,
light energy into chemical energy, a property they including vascular tissue; cells are joined into tubes
share with algae and certain prokaryotes. for transport of nutrients and water throughout the
plant. There are two types of vascular tissue:
2. Photosynthesis phloem, which transports sugars from leaves to
a. Definition other parts of the plant, and xylem, which trans-
Photosynthesis: the process by which light ports water and dissolved mineral nutrients from
energy, captured by the chloroplasts of plants, is roots to other parts of the plant. Vascular plants are
converted to chemical energy. of two types: seedless, including horsetails and
ferns, and seed plants. Seed plants in turn fall into
b. Process two categories:
Plants are equipped with the light-absorbing
molecules chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b and ■ Gymnosperms: seeds are uncovered; plants
certain carotenoid pigments that are necessary in achieve fertilization mainly through wind-
order to collect maximum energy from the sun. borne pollen. This category includes conifers
like pines, firs, and spruce; and cycads.
3. Cellular Anatomy ■ Angiosperms: flowering plants such as garden
The cell walls of plants consist mostly of cellulose, and wild flowers and hardwood trees; the
and they store food in the form of starch. See Sec- dominant plant form today (about 235,000
tion A of this chapter for more on the structure of species). Angiosperms have the most
plant cells. advanced structural form; seeds are enclosed
183
in carpels; animals and insects are employed ■ the transport systems of plants
for transfer of pollen in order to achieve fertil- ■ plant hormones
ization. Important structures of flowering ■ the following concepts and terms (among oth-
plants include its flower, which is the repro- ers): autotrophic nutrition; photoautotrophy;
ductive structure (includes the stamen, with light reactions; the Calvin cycle; nitrogen fixation;
filament and anthers, petals, pistil with its dermal, vascular, and ground tissue systems;
stigma, style, ovary, and sepal); and the fruit, sporophyte and gametophyte
which is the structure formed from the ovary
of a flower, usually after ovules have been fer-
tilized, and which protects dormant seeds and Questions
aids dispersal.
43. The sticky tip of the carpel of a flower, which
6. Reproduction and Development receives the pollen, is called the
Some plants reproduce sexually; seeded plants hold a. stigma.
an egg, which, after the plant matures, is fertilized by b. filament.
pollen from itself or another plant. Others reproduce c. anther.
asexually by cloning; bulbs, feelers, and rhizomes d. style.
require only one plant; there is no change in the
chromosome number, and the offspring is exactly 44. The Calvin cycle is one of the two stages of
the same genetically as the parent. plant
a. germination.
You Should Review b. photoperiodism.
■ the process of photosynthesis c. photosynthesis.
■ plant cellular anatomy d. flowering.
■ main characteristics of nonvascular and vascular
plants 45. A representation of the most recent evolution-
■ plant morphology and anatomy, especially of ary stage of plants is
flowering plants a. the cypress tree.
■ the processes of sexual and asexual reproduction b. the orchid.
in plants c. the ostrich fern.
■ division of plants into monoecious plants (have d. the liverwort.
both male and female reproductive organs in the
same flower) and dioecious plants (have either 46. The European butterwort, sundew, and pitcher
male or female reproductive organs in separate plant are examples of plants that are
flowers) a. medicinal.
■ symbiotic relationships that exist between certain b. poisonous.
plants and animals c. parasitic.
■ the various types of plants cells—for example, d. carnivorous.
parenchyma cells, collenchyma cells, scle-
renchyma cells, water-conducting cells, food-
conducting cells
184
47. The term morphogenesis, an area particularly Answers

important in plant development, refers to the
development of an organism’s 43. a. The stigma, located on the carpel, is the
a. external form. reproductive organ of a flower that receives
b. reproductive organs. pollen.
c. cytoskeleton. 44. c. Photosynthesis consists of two stages: light
d. nutritional uptake system. reactions and the Calvin cycle.
45. b. The orchid is an angiosperm, a type of
48. The orientation of a plant toward or away from flowering plant. Flowering plants came into
light is called existence about 140 to 125 million years
a. photogenesis. ago. The other choices are all considerably
b. phototropism. older.
c. photosynthesis. 46. d. All these plants are carnivorous, supplement-
d. photoautotrophism. ing their nutrition (usually in nutrient-poor
habitats such as acid bogs) by feeding on
49. Which of the following could be called a plant insects.
“antiaging hormone’’? 47. a. The term morphogenesis is related to the
a. cytokinin term morphology, which is the study of the
b. gibberellin external structure of an organism.
c. auxin 48. b. Phototropism (photo means light and tropos
d. florigen means turning) is the correct answer.
Positive phototropism is the turning of a
50. The major sites of photosynthesis in most plant shoot toward light, and negative
plants are the phototropism the turning away from light.
a. stems. 49. a. Cytokinins inhibit protein breakdown,
b. seeds. stimulate RNA and protein synthesis, and
c. leaves. mobilize nutrients. These attributes are
d. taproots. thought to be involved in the retardation of
aging in some plant organs.
51. The least specialized of all plant cells are the 50. c. Although green stems do perform
a. sclerenchyma cells. photosynthesis, the leaves are the most
b. water-conducting cells. important photosynthetic organs in most
c. food-conducting cells. plants.
d. parenchyma cells. 51. d. Parenchyma cells, relatively unspecialized
and usually lacking secondary walls, carry
52. Angiosperms respond physiologically to day on most of the plant’s metabolic functions.
length by flowering. This response is called 52. c. Photoperiodism is the physiological
a. the circadian rhythm. response of any organism to day length.
b. day-neutrality.
c. photoperiodism.
d. vernalization.
185
III. Other Concepts You Should experiments must be reproducible by other

Be Familiar With scientists.
■ Decide whether the hypothesis is to be
The following are not formal divisions of your nursing accepted, modified, or denied.
school entrance exam; however, concepts within them ■ Formulate a new hypothesis and start again, if
overlap with the subjects mentioned previously and necessary.
may find their way into some of the questions.
3. The Science of Biology
A. The Scientific Method Biology applies the scientific method to living organ-
isms in order to attempt to arrive at an understand-
1. General ing of them. It looks at life using chemical and
The scientific method is employed by all scientists physical approaches, mainly those processes that
to study the natural world, regardless of the partic- involve transformation of matter and energy. There
ular subject matter. are vast numbers of kinds of living entities and there-
fore many branches of biology.
2. Steps
Ideally, the scientific method involves the following B. The Origin of Life
steps, though the process is never as smooth as that
outlined here, and some steps may be taken out of 1. The Mechanistic View
order: Held by most scientists, the mechanistic view of the
origin of life holds that Earth is billions of years old
■ Formulate the problem, the solution to which and that life occurred at a point in time along a con-
explains an order or process in nature. tinuum of increasingly complex matter. Biologists
■ Collect data via observations, measurements, postulate a natural origin for life.
and review of the past—look for regularity
and relationships between the data. 2. Distinction between Living and
■ Form a hypothesis, or an educated guess as to Nonliving Entities
what is going on, using inductive logic (spe- Many biologists regard the distinction between liv-
cific to general) to infer a general or universal ing and nonliving entities as arbitrary, believing
premise. The hypothesis must be logical and instead that there is a continuum, generally involv-
testable. Then formulate the hypothesis using ing complexity.
deductive logic (general to specific—If . . . , Overall, however, there is a difference, in that liv-
then . . . ). ing entities ordinarily are capable of self-regulation,
■ Test the hypothesis by experimentation and metabolism, movement, irritability (response to
gathering new data. A hypothesis can be dis- stimuli in its internal and external environments),
proved, but never absolutely proved—it may growth (increase in mass through use of materials
change with tomorrow’s evidence. Experi- from the environment), adaptation (a tendency to
ments must be free of bias and sampling error, change, resulting in improved capacity to survive),
with control and experimental groups. An and reproduction (production of new individuals
adequate amount of data and/or adequate like themselves).
numbers of individuals must be tested, and
186
C. Classification of Living Entities D. Social Behavior of Animals

1. Systems of Classification 1. Humans
The classification of living entities is an artificial A heated debate continues to rage over the distinc-
construct. There are various systems, ranging from tion termed “nature versus nurture.’’ Some scien-
2- to 13-kingdom classifications. Following are three tists, particularly sociobiologists, believe that aspects
examples: of human behavior shared across cultures, such as
avoidance of incest, can be viewed as innate, or
■ 5-kingdom classification: Monera, Protista, somehow evolutionarily programmed. Others insist
Fungi, Plantae, Animalia that such cultural features as taboos would be
■ 6-kingdom classification: Bacteria, Archaea, unnecessary if behavior were truly innate; therefore,
Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia they say, much of what we view as particularly
■ Ecological classification: Autotrophs, includ- human behavior is learned. Those on the “nurture’’
ing green plants and some bacteria; het- side of the debate often point to altruistic behavior,
erotrophs, including herbivores, carnivores, which exists to a much greater extent in humans
omnivores, scavengers, decomposers, and than in any other species. Those on the “nature’’ side
parasites of the debate insist that most altruistic behavior, if
carefully looked at, does in some way enhance the
2. Linnaean System individual’s fitness, even when it causes that indi-
The hierarchical system most widely used is the Lin- vidual’s death.
naean system, devised by Swedish botonist Carolus
Linnaeus (Carl Linné, 1707–1778). This system 2. Other Species
consists of Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Although much of the social behavior between
Genus, and Species. members of a species involves cooperation, it is still
the case that individuals act in their own best inter-
3. Binomial Nomenclature est and that a good deal of competitive behavior
A system also devised by Linnaeus, binomial arises in all animal populations. Important aspects
nomenclature is still used for naming the genus of social interaction include:
and species of an organism. The first part is the
generic name, the second the specific—the crea- ■ agnostic behavior/competitive behavior—for
ture’s genus (capitalized) and species (lowercase) example, for food or a mate—involving a
are reflected in the name. For example, the com- contest in which individuals threaten one
mon house cat is Felis silvestris; a bacterium that another until one backs down. Often such
causes one type of streptococcal pneumonia is behavior is ritualistic, as natural selection
Streptococcus pneumoniae. would favor individuals able to settle a contest
without injury.
■ dominance hierarchies
■ territoriality
■ courtship rituals
■ communication among individuals
■ altruistic behavior, though to a lesser extent
than in humans
187
Questions 57. An alternative view of the mechanistic origin

of life holds that at least some organic
53. In science, which of the following is most compounds, including amino acids, originated
nearly synonymous with the word “theory’’? in the hundreds of thousands of meteorites
a. a proven fact and comets that hit the earth during its early
b. a hypothesis that has withstood repeated formation—that is, that life had extraterrestrial
testing origins. This idea is called
c. an untested supposition a. abiotic synthesis.
d. a body of published data b. panspermia.
c. protobiotic aggregation.
54. A distinguishing feature of the Kingdom d. the Oparin hypothesis.
Monera is that the cells of the organisms in
that kingdom 58. From the point of view of the scientific
a. contain many specialized parts. method, the most important requirement for a
b. contain mitochondria. sound hypothesis is that it be
c. obtain food through photosynthesis. a. able to be confirmed.
d. lack nuclei. b. intuitively possible.
c. useful in a practical sense.
55. The majority of primary producers in an d. testable through experimentation.
ecosystem are
a. autotrophs. 59. The category of classification of organisms that
b. carnivores. contains one or several similar or closely
c. detrivores. related families is the
d. herbivores. a. phylum.
b. class.
56. When rattlesnakes engage in “combat’’ in c. order.
which one tries to pin the other to the ground, d. genus.
but neither uses its deadly fangs, such behavior
is called 60. The primary feature that distinguishes life
a. survival of the fittest. from nonlife is that living organisms are
b. territoriality. capable of
c. ritualistic agonistic behavior. a. reproduction.
d. a mating dance. b. entropy.
c. chemical evolution.
d. atomic bonding.
188
Answers 59. c. Order is the category that holds one or

several similar or closely related families of
53. b. A theory has undergone testing. The word is organisms. Order names typically end in -ales
often mistakenly used to mean “just a for botany, -a for zoology (for example,
guess.’’ This misuse is seen in such a Rosales and Carnivora).
statement as “Evolution is just a theory.’’ In 60. a. All the other choices are properties of both
fact, evolution is regarded in the scientific living and nonliving entities.
community as a hypothesis that is so well-
supported by data as to be fact.
54. d. The Kingdom Monera consists of simple, IV. Suggested Sources
single-celled prokaryotic organisms whose for Further Study
cells lack nuclei and certain other special-
ized parts. All of the following are available in bookstores, as
55. a. The primary producers of an ecosystem are well as through the Internet from Amazon Books
autotrophs, most of which are photosyn- (www.amazon.com).
thetic organisms that synthesize organic
compounds directly from light energy. All Textbooks
the other choices are consumers, directly or Reece, Jane B., et al. Campbell Biology, 9th Edition.
indirectly dependent on photosynthetic (San Francisco: Pearson Benjamin Cummings,
products for nutrition. 2011). This is an excellent 1,200-page basic col-
56. c. This kind of ritualistic or symbolic combat lege textbook: authoritative, thorough, clear,
has an advantage, in that even the loser lives and readable (even enjoyable). It will be an excel-
to reproduce. lent main source for you to study. Older editions
57. b. The theory of panspermia gained strength are still a good reference and less expensive.
in 1986 when spacecraft flying near Halley’s Gould, James L., and William T. Keeton with Carol
Comet showed that the comet contained far Grant Gould. Biological Science, 6th Edition. (New
more organic material than had been York: Norton, 1996). This is a very fine textbook,
previously thought. well organized, thorough, and authoritative.
58. d. A hypothesis that is not testable is useless
from a scientific point of view. Hypotheses Reference Works
can never be absolutely confirmed (choice Fargis, Paul. The New York Public Library Desk Ref-
a). Hypotheses frequently fly in the face of erence, 4th Edition. (New York: Hyperion, 2002).
intuition (choice b); for instance, a flat The sections on “Biology’’ and “The Human
Earth probably seems more intuitively right Body and Biomedical Science’’ will make good
than a spherical one. Many scientific supplements to more detailed works and will
hypotheses have no immediately recogniza- help you create an organized outline of subject
ble practical applications (choice c); an areas.
example might be David Reznik’s hypothe- Hine, Robert, ed. Oxford Dictionary of Biology, 6th
ses concerning guppy populations in Edition. (New York: Oxford University Press,
Trinidad. 2008). This is an up-to-date and well-respected
dictionary of biology—though by no means the
189
only one—which contains the majority of the Supplemental Works

terms you will need to be familiar with on your Gould, Stephen Jay. Dinosaur in a Haystack: Reflec-
nursing school entrance exam. tions in Natural History. (New York: Crown, 1996).
Stedman, Thomas. Stedman’s Medical Dictionary for Gould, Stephen Jay. The Panda’s Thumb: More
the Health Professions and Nursing, 7th Edition. Reflections in Natural History. (New York: Nor-
(Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, ton, 1992). Stephen Jay Gould is known for his
2011). Stedman’s is an excellent, user-friendly provocative and authoritative essays on biology
medical dictionary, illustrated and with a CD- and natural history. Both this collection and the
ROM. previous one will make good supplements to the
more detailed textbooks mentioned.
Study Guides Sagan, Carl. Broca’s Brain: Reflections on the Romance
Fried, George, and George Hademenos. Schaum’s of Science. (New York: Ballantine, 1993). Both
Outline of Biology, 3rd Edition. (New York: works by Sagan contain knowledgeable, readable
McGraw-Hill, 2009). As part of a popular college essays that make biology and natural history
course series, this book contains a detailed topics accessible to the layperson but never talk
overview of the subject of biology. It is well down. Like Stephen Jay Gould’s books, these
organized and readable. collections will be good additions to the other
more complete, technical works in this list.
190
8
C H A P T E R
CHEMISTRY
REVIEW
CHAPT ER S UM M ARY
This chapter is a general outline and review of the important chem-
istry concepts that are tested by many nursing school entrance
exams.
Chemistry Review: Important Concepts
A. Description of How Nursing School Entrance Exams Test Chemistry

This chapter reviews essential concepts in chemistry that are covered in many nursing school entrance exams.
Some tests contain specific chemistry or science sections; others ask you to be able to recognize important ideas
and terms.
Some of these key concepts are atomic structure, the periodic table, chemical bonds, chemical equations,
stoichiometry, energy and states of matter, reaction rates, equilibrium, acids, bases, oxidation-reduction, nuclear
chemistry, and organic compounds.
191
– CHEMISTRY REVIEW –
B. How to Use This Chapter Read each topic and answer the questions that
This chapter is presented in outline format as a sys- follow. After answering the sample test questions, you
tematic presentation of important chemistry topics to can pinpoint where you want to concentrate your
help you review for your exam. This does not consti- efforts. If a question poses particular difficulty for you,
tute a comprehensive chemistry review—use it as an study more problems of this type. The more you hone
aid to help you recall concepts you have studied and to your problem-solving skills, understand basic princi-
identify areas in which you need more study. At the ples, and recognize core terms, the more relaxed and
end of this chapter, you will find a list of references and confident you will feel on test day.
resources for a more complete review.
STUDY TIPS FOR CHEMISTRY

■ Review the topics covered in this chapter carefully. Keep a copy of one or more of the suggested
resource books handy for more extensive review.
■ Don’t try to review all topics in one or two study sessions. Tackle a couple of topics at a time. Focus more
in-depth study on the items within a topic about which you feel least confident first.
■ Complete each group of practice questions after you study each topic, and check your answers. If you
experience particular difficulty with one type of question, choose similar questions from the other
resources listed to practice some more.
■ Review all the answer choices carefully before making your selection. The wrong answers often give you
hints at the correct one and help you confirm that you really do know the correct answer. Remember that
recognition is not necessarily understanding.
■ When checking your answers to practice questions with the answer key, be sure you understand why the
identified choice is the correct one. Practice writing out your reasoning for choosing a particular answer
and checking it against the reasoning given in the answer key.
■ Practice pronouncing chemical terminology aloud. If you can pronounce a term with ease, you are more
likely to remember the term and its meaning when reading it.
■ Review carefully the visual aspects of chemistry, such as the use of symbols, arrows, and sub- and super-
scripts. If you know the circumstances under which particular symbols are used, you will have immedi-
ate clues to right and wrong answers.
■ Focus on developing problem-solving skills. Almost all chemical problems require the analysis, sorting, and
understanding of details.
192
II. Main Topics moving in the empty space surrounding a

dense, positively charged nucleus.
A. Atoms ■ A. Becquerel and Marie Curie discovered
that the decay of radioactive (unstable)
1. Atomic Structure nuclei resulted in the release of particles
An atom is the basic unit of an element that retains and energy.
all of the element’s chemical properties. An atom is
composed of a nucleus (which contains one or 3. Mass Number
more protons and neutrons) and one or more elec- Mass number is the sum of protons and neutrons in
trons in motion around it. the nucleus of an atom. It varies with the isotopes
An electron is of negligible mass compared to of each element. The mass number is indicated
the mass of the nucleus and has a negative charge by the number to the upper left of the element sym-
of –1. bol: 23Na.
A proton has a mass of 1 amu (atomic mass
unit) and a positive charge of +1. 4. Atomic Number
A neutron has a mass of 1 amu also but no Atomic number is the number of protons in the
charge. atom and is specific for each element. The atomic
Atoms are electrically neutral because they are number is indicated by the number to the lower left
made up of equal numbers of protons and electrons. of the element symbol: 11Na.
2. Dalton’s Atomic Theory 5. Isotopes

In 1808, John Dalton proposed his hypotheses Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have
about the nature of matter that became the basis of the same number of protons (same atomic number)
Dalton’s atomic theory: but different number of neutrons (different mass
■ All elements are made of tiny, indivisible par- number). Isotopes have identical chemical properties
ticles called atoms (from the Greek atomos, (same reactivity) but different physical properties
meaning indivisible). (for example, some decay while others are stable).
■ Atoms of one element are identical in size,
mass, and chemical properties. ISOTOPES OF HYDROGEN
■ Atoms of different elements have different 1H protium
sizes, masses, and chemical properties.
2H (or D) deuterium
■ Chemical compounds are made up of atoms
of different elements in a ratio that is an inte- 3H (or T) tritium
ger (a whole number) or a simple fraction.
■ Atoms cannot be created or destroyed. They
can be combined or rearranged in a chemical The atomic weight (or mass) of an element is
reaction. given by the weighted average of the isotopes’ masses.
Later experiments completed the understand-

ing of atoms:
■ J. J. Thomson discovered the electron.
■ E. Rutherford established that the atom is
composed of negatively charged electrons
193
6. Classification of Matter example, 16 g of oxygen will react with 14 g of

a. Elements nitrogen to form NO and 28 g of nitrogen to form
Elements are substances that are composed of only N2O (1:2 ratio).
one type of atom. Elements have chemical symbols
(letters of their names) that are used for their rep-
resentation in the periodic table. For example, the Questions
element Helium is displayed as He.
In nature, atoms of one element may be 1. Which of the following statements about
chemically bonded to other atoms of the same ele- atoms is true?
ment. For example, hydrogen and oxygen are a. They have more protons than electrons.
always diatomic, which means that they naturally b. They have more electrons than protons.
exist as H2 and O2, respectively. Elemental sulfur c. They are electrically neutral.
exists as S8. Many elements, like sodium, exist as sin- d. They have as many neutrons as they have
gle atoms in their elemental form. electrons.
b. Compounds 2. What is the mass number of an atom with 60

A compound is a combination of two or more protons, 60 electrons, and 75 neutrons?
atoms of different elements in a precise proportion a. 120
by mass. In a compound, atoms are held together by b. 135
attractive forces called chemical bonds. c. 75
d. 195
c. Mixtures
A mixture is a combination of two or more com- 3. What is the atomic number of an atom with 17
pounds (or substances) that interact but are not protons, 17 electrons, and 20 neutrons?
bonded chemically with one another. Substances a. 37
that make up a mixture can be separated by physi- b. 34
cal means. c. 54
d. 17
7. Properties of Atoms
Law of conservation of mass: In a chemical reac- 4. Two atoms, L and M, are isotopes. Which of
tion, matter cannot be created or destroyed—i.e., the following properties would they NOT have
the mass of the reagents always equals the mass of in common?
the products. Likewise, the number of each type of a. atomic number
atom will be equal on each side of the reaction. b. atomic mass
Law of constant (definite) proportion: A c. chemical reactivity
chemical compound will always have the same pro- d. the number of protons in the nucleus
portion of elements by mass—e.g., water (H2O) will
always be 8/9 oxygen and 1/9 hydrogen by mass. 5. An atom with an atomic number of 58 and an
Law of multiple proportions: If two elements atomic mass of 118 has
form more than one compound between them, a. 58 neutrons.
then the ratios of the masses of the second element b. 176 neutrons.
which combine with a fixed mass of the first ele- c. 60 neutrons.
ment will be ratios of small whole numbers. For d. 116 neutrons.
194
6. According to Dalton’s theory, the only way a Answers

compound can consist of its elements in a
definite ratio by mass is when it is made from 1. c. Atoms are electrically neutral; the number
the elements in of electrons is equal to the number of
a. a definite ratio by volume. protons.
b. a definite ratio by number of atoms. 2. b. Mass number is the number of protons plus
c. multiple whole-number ratios by mass. the number of neutrons: 60 + 75 = 135.
d. multiple whole-number ratios by volume. 3. d. The atomic number is the number of
protons—in this case, 17.
7. Which of the following is a mixture? 4. b. By definition, isotopes have different
a. sodium chloride numbers of neutrons. Therefore, they differ
b. rice and beans in atomic weight.
c. magnesium sulfate 5. c. The number of neutrons is equal to the
d. water atomic mass minus the atomic number (the
number of protons): 118 – 58 = 60.
8. The mass of an atom is almost entirely 6. b. This is part of Dalton’s atomic theory.
contributed by its 7. b. Rice and beans are not chemically
a. nucleus. combined and can be separated into their
b. protons. constituent parts by physical means.
c. electrons and protons. 8. a. The protons and neutrons of an atom are
d. neutrons. found in the nucleus.
9. c. Atoms are electrically neutral. If there are 9
9. If an atom consists of 9 protons and 10 neutrons, protons, each with a +1 charge, 9 electrons
its with a –1 charge are needed to balance the
a. atomic number is 10. charge.
b. mass number is 10. 10. a. An atom consists of protons, neutrons, and
c. number of electrons is 9. electrons; the nucleus contains protons and
d. electrical charge is 9. neutrons. The protons are equal in number
to the electrons, but the nucleus itself is not
10. Which of the following is true of an atom? electrically neutral.
a. It consists of protons, neutrons, and
electrons. B. Periodic Table (page 196)
b. It has a nucleus consisting of protons,
1. Periodic Law
neutrons, and electrons.
Periodic law is when the properties of the
c. The protons are equal in number to the
elements are a periodic function of their
electrons, so the nucleus is electrically
atomic number.
neutral.
Periodic table is an arrangement of the elements
d. All of the above are true.
according to similarity in their chemical
properties and in order of increasing atomic
number.
195
IA VIIA VIIIA
1 1 2
H H He
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.941 9.012182 10.811 12.0107 14.00674 15.9994 18.9984032 20.1797
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
39.0983 40.078 44.955910 47.867 50.9415 51.9961 54.938049 55.845 58.933200 58.6934 63.546 65.39 69.723 72.61 74.92160 78.96 79.904 83.80
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
85.4678 87.62 88.90585 91.224 92.90638 95.94 (98) 101.07 102.90550 106.42 107.8682 112.411 114.818 118.710 121.760 127.60 126.90447 131.29
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
132.90545 137.327 138.9055 178.49 180.9479 183.84 186.207 190.23 192.217 195.078 196.96655 200.59 204.3833 207.2 208.98038 (209) (210) (222)
87 88 89 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118
(223) (226) (227) (261) (262) (263) (262) (265) (266) (269) (281) (285) (286) (289) (289) (289) (294) (293)
* Lanthanide 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
140.116 140.90765 144.24 (145) 150.36 151.964 157.25 158.92534 162.50 164.93032 167.26 168.93421 173.04 174.967
** Actinide 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103

232.0381 231.03588 238.0289 (237) (244) (243) (247) (247) (251) (252) (257) (258) (259) (262)
2. Properties of the Periodic Table d. Nonmetals

a. Periods A nonmetal is an element with poor conducting
Periods are the horizontal rows of the periodic table properties. They are electronegative and accept elec-
of elements. Elements in the same period have the trons in their valence shell. They are found in the
same number of electron shells (or levels). upper right-hand corner of the periodic table.
b. Groups e. Metalloids
Groups are the vertical columns of elements with A metalloid is an element with properties that are
the same number of electrons in their outermost intermediate between those of metals and nonmetals,
shell. The group number indicates the number of such as semiconductivity. They are also found
valence (or outermost) electrons. Elements in the between metals and nonmetals in the periodic table.
same group share similar chemical properties.
c. Metals 3. Electronic Structure of Atoms

A metal is an element that is a good conductor of a. Bohr Atom
heat and electricity in addition to being shiny Niels Bohr’s planetary model of the hydrogen atom,
(reflecting light), malleable (easily bent), and duc- in which a nucleus is surrounded by orbits of elec-
tile (made into wire). Metals are electropositive, trons, resembles the solar system. Electrons could be
having a greater tendency to lose their valence elec- excited by quanta of energy and move to an outer
trons. They are grouped in the left of the periodic orbit (excited level). They could also emit radiation
table (groups I–III). when falling to their original orbit (ground state).
196
b. Orbitals mum of two electrons, and only if they are of oppo-

An orbital is the space where one or two paired site spin.
electrons can be located. These are mathematical
functions (or figures) with restricted zones, called e. Electron Configuration
nodes, and specific shapes—for example, s orbitals Electron Configuration describes the exact arrange-
are spherical; p orbitals are dumbbell-shaped. ment of electrons (given in a superscript number) in
successive shells (indicated by numbers 1, 2, 3, and
c. Quantum Numbers so on) and orbitals (s, p, d, f) of an atom, starting
There are four quantum numbers that describe any with the innermost orbital.
electron in an atom. They are the principle quan- For example, 1s2 2s2 2p6.
tum number (n), the orbital quantum number (l),
the magnetic quantum number (ml) and the spin f. Hund’s Rule
quantum number (ms). Hund’s Rule states that the most stable arrange-
■ Principle quantum number (n): Determines ment of electrons in the same energy level is the
the overall energy level of the electron. n is one in which electrons have parallel spins (same
always a positive integer (n = 1, 2, 3, …). For a orientation).
given principle quantum number (n), there are
n – 1 possible orbital quantum numbers (0, 1, g. Outer Shell (or valence shell)
2, … , n – 1). The principle quantum number The outer shell is the last energy level in which
defines the energy level of an electron. There are loosely held electrons are contained. These are the
a maximum of n2 orbitals and 2n2 electrons in electrons that engage in bonding and are therefore
an energy level. characteristic of the element.
■ Orbital quantum number (l): Determines the
shape of the orbital in which the electron You Should Review

resides (0 = s, 1 = p, 2 = d, 3 = f, etc.). For a ■ periodic table: structure; specific names of the
given orbital quantum number (l), there are different groups (group I: alkali metal, group II:
2l + 1 orbitals. alkaline earth, group VII: halogens, etc.); the loca-
■ Magnetic quantum number (m ): Corresponds
l
tion of metals, nonmetals, and metalloids
to a specific orbital in which the electron ■ Bohr atom
resides. For a given orbital quantum number, ■ ground state
there are 2l + 1 magnetic quantum numbers ■ quantization of energy
(–l, –l + 1, –l + 2, …, 0, …, l – 2, l – 1, l). ■ quantum number
■ Spin quantum number (m ): Describes the
s
■ Heisenberg uncertainty principle
direction of electron spin, which may either be ■ the maximum number of electrons that can be
up (+ 21) or down (– 21). Therefore, for two elec- held in each energy level
trons to occupy the same orbital, they must be
of opposite spins.
d. Pauli Exclusion Principle

The Pauli exclusion principle states that no two
electrons can possess the same four quantum num-
bers. As a consequence, each orbital holds a maxi-
197
Questions 16. The horizontal rows of the periodic table are

called
11. If the electron configuration of an element is a. families.
written 1s2 2s2 2px2 2py2 2pz2 3s1, the element’s b. groups.
atomic c. representative elements.
a. number is 11. d. periods.
b. number is 12.
c. weight is 11. 17. Which of the following is an alkali metal
d. weight is 12. (group IA)?
a. calcium
12. Choose the proper group of symbols for the b. sodium
following elements: potassium, silver, mercury, c. aluminum
lead, sodium, iron. d. alkanium
a. Po, Ar, Hr, Pm, So, Fm
b. Pb, Sl, Me, Le, Su, Io 18. Who stated that an orbital can hold as many as
c. Pt, Sr, My, Pd, Sd, In two electrons if they have opposite spins, one
d. K, Ag, Hg, Pb, Na, Fe clockwise and one counterclockwise?
a. Hund
13. What is the maximum number of electrons b. Dalton
that each p orbital can hold? c. Pauli
a. 8 d. Bohr
b. 2
c. 6 19. Which elements are strong conductors of
d. 4 electricity?
a. metals
14. What is the maximum number of electrons b. nonmetals
that the second energy level can hold? c. metalloids
a. 8 d. ions
b. 6
c. 2 20. If the electron configuration of an element is
d. 16 written: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3, the element’s
atomic
15. What is the name of the individual who a. number is 15.
proposed that the atom was similar to a solar b. number is 5.
system, with a dense nucleus and concentric c. weight is 15.
circles around it? d. weight is 5.
a. Hund
b. Dalton
c. Pauli
d. Bohr
198
Answers in the suffix, -ide. For example, a chloride ion (Cl–)

occurs when a chlorine atom (Cl) has gained one
11. a. Since there are 11 electrons in the element’s electron to achieve the octet structure of Argon, or
electron configuration, the element has 11 Ar. An oxide ion (O2–) occurs when an oxygen atom
protons and, therefore, an atomic number of (O) has acquired two electrons in its valence shell
11. and has achieved the same stable electron configu-
12. d. See the periodic table. ration as Neon, or Ne.
13. b. Each p orbital holds two electrons. There are
three p orbitals, holding a total of six b. Cations
electrons. A cation results when an atom loses one or more
14. a. The second energy level has one s orbital and electrons, becoming positively charged. Most cations
three p orbitals, holding a total of eight are metallic and have the same name as the metallic
electrons. element. For example, lithium ion (Li+) has one elec-
15. d. Bohr proposed the model defined in the tron fewer than lithium atom (Li), having acquired
question. the noble gas electron structure of Helium, or He.
16. d. By definition, the periods are the horizontal
rows on the periodic table. 3. Ionic Compounds
17. b. Sodium is an alkali metal. Ionic compounds are compounds formed by com-
18. c. The question defines the Pauli exclusion bining cations and anions. The attractive electro-
principle. static force between a cation and an anion is called
19. a. Metals, by definition, are strong conductors an ionic bond.
of electricity.
20. a. Since the element has 15 electrons, it also 4. Molecular Compounds
has 15 protons and an atomic number of a. Covalent Bonds
15. A covalent bond is a type of bond formed when
two atoms share one or more pairs of electrons to
C. Chemical Bonds achieve a complete octet of electrons.
1. Octet Rule
b. Lewis Structures
Octet rule states that atoms bond by surrounding
Lewis structures are formulas for compounds in
themselves with eight (octet) outer electrons (two
which each atom exhibits an octet of valence elec-
electrons for H). They tend to acquire the stability
trons. These are represented as dots, or as a line for
of their closest noble gases in the periodic table,
a shared pair of electrons, thus leaving unshared
either by losing (metals), gaining (nonmetals), or
pairs of electrons as pairs of dots.
sharing electrons in their valence shell.
unshared pairs of electrons
2. Ions
a. Anions
H2O: O
When an atom gains one or more electrons, it
H H
becomes a negatively charged entity called an
anion. Most anions are nonmetallic. Their names
shared pairs of electrons
are derived from the elemental name with an ending
199
c. Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion O
(VSEPR) Theory N
The VSEPR model is based on electrostatic repul- H H

H
sion between electron pair orbitals. By pushing each
other as far as possible, electron pairs dictate which Acetone ((CH3)2CO) is a hydrogen bond accep-
geometry, or shape, a molecule will adopt. Mole- tor. Ammonia (NH3) is a hydrogen bond donor and
cules should be written as Lewis structures (see the acceptor. Like ammonia, water is both a hydrogen
preceding electron–dot notation). bond donor and acceptor.
d. Electronegativity and Dipoles 6. Polyatomic Ions

Electronegativity is the ability of an atom in a bond Polyatomic ions are groups of two or more cova-
to attract the electron density more than the other lently bonded atoms that possess a positive or neg-
atom(s) in the bond. Electronegativity increases ative charge. They form ionic compounds in the
from left to right and from bottom to top in same way as single-atom ions. Polyatomic ions can
the periodic table. Thus, fluorine (F) is the most be as simple as hydroxide (OH–). Other common
electronegative element of the periodic table, examples are ammonium (NH+4), phosphate (PO34–),
with the maximum value of 4.0 in the Pauling scale carbonate (CO23–), nitrate (NO–3), and sulfate (SO24–).
of electronegativity. The Pauling scale is a range of
electronegativity values based on fluorine having You Should Review
the highest value at 4.0. These values have no units. ■ polyatomic ions
Metals are electropositive, with a minimum elec- ■ molecular structures
tronegativity value of 0.8 on the Pauling scale for ■ structures of water molecules and biological
most alkali metals. compounds
A dipole results in a covalent bond between two
atoms of different electronegativity. Partial positive
(+) and negative (–) charges develop at both ends Questions
of the bond, creating a dipole (i.e., two poles) ori-
ented from the positive end to the negative end. 21. The bond between oxygen and hydrogen atoms
For example: H+–Cl– in a water molecule is a(n)
a. hydrogen bond.
5. Hydrogen Bonds b. polar covalent bond.
Hydrogen bonds are weak bonds that form between c. nonpolar covalent bond.
dipoles of consecutive polar molecules (intermolec- d. ionic bond.
ular) or polar groups of macromolecules (intramol-
ecular), such as proteins and DNA, in which these 22. Which of the following is a nonpolar
bonds play an important structural role. covalent bond?
Electronegative atoms (such as F, N, or O) cova- a. the bond between two carbons
lently bonded to H atoms are considered hydrogen b. the bond between sodium and chloride
bond donors. Electronegative atoms with free lone c. the bond between two water molecules
pairs of electrons in their Lewis structures act as d. the bond between nitrogen and hydrogen
hydrogen bond acceptors.
200
23. The type of bond formed between two 28. Which of the following is true according to the
molecules of water is a octet rule?
a. polar covalent bond. a. Ions of all Group IIA elements have electron
b. hydrogen bond. configurations that conform to those of the
c. nonpolar covalent bond. noble gases and have charges of +1.
d. peptide bond. b. The reactions of the active atoms of the
representative elements of the periodic table
24. Which of the following lists contains the generally lead to noble gas configurations.
formulas for these ions, in the order given: c. An ion of a metallic element that has lost
ammonium, silver, bicarbonate/hydrogen electrons to achieve noble gas configuration
carbonate, nitrate, calcium, fluoride? is less active than an atom of the same
a. Am–, Si++, HCO3–, NA+, CM–, F+ element.
b. AM+, Ag+, CO32–, NO3–, Cal+, Fl– d. The most reactive elements are generally
c. NH4–, Ag+, HCO3–, NO3–, Cal+, Fl– those whose atoms are nearest, but not
d. NH4+, Ag+, HCO3–, NO3–, Ca2+, F– equal, to noble gas configurations.
25. If X (atomic number 4) and Y (atomic number 29. Electron transfer is best described as a process
17) react, the formula of the compound a. by which ionic compounds are formed from
formed will be atoms of their elements.
a. XY2. b. in which a covalent bond is made.
b. YX2. c. that occurs between two nonmetals.
c. X2Y2. d. that occurs between two metals.
d. XY4.
30. How many electrons do the following have in
26. To acquire an outer octet, an atom of element their outer levels: S2–, Na+, Cl–, Ar, Mg2+, and
19 has to Al3+?
a. lose one electron (and acquire a charge of a. three
+1). b. five
b. lose two electrons (and acquire a charge of c. seven
+2). d. eight
c. gain one electron (and acquire a charge of
–1).
d. gain two electrons (and acquire a charge of
–2).
27. The most common ions of the elements of

group VIIA have electrical charges of
a. +7.
b. –7.
c. +1.
d. –1.
201
Answers D. Chemical Equations

and Stoichiometry
21. b. A covalent bond exists between H and O in 1. Molecular Weight
the H2O molecule. Since the bond is formed Molecular weight is the sum of the atomic weights
between two elements with different of all the atoms in a molecular formula. It is the
electronegativities, it is polar. same as the molar mass (in grams) without the unit.
22. a. The bond formed is covalent. Since it is
between two identical elements, it is 2. Moles
nonpolar. A mole of a particular substance is defined as the
23. b. Hydrogen bonds from the H of one water number of atoms in exactly 12 g of carbon-12.
molecule to the O of another hold water Experiments have established that number to be
molecules together. 6.02214199 1023 particles per mole (Avogadro’s
24. d. The other choices give incorrect symbols for number).
the elements or for the charge.
25. a. The electron configuration of X is 1s22s 2, 3. Chemical Equations
and the electron configuration of Y is a. Balancing Equations
1s22s22p63s23p5. X needs to give away two Chemical reactions can be balanced by a trial and
electrons to achieve the stable noble gas error method.
configuration of He, which is 1s2. Y needs to ■ Write the correct formulas for all reactants
accept one electron to achieve the outer and products.
octet. Therefore, two Y are needed to accept ■ Compare the number of atoms on the reac-
two electrons. tant and product(s) sides.
26. a. The electron configuration of element 19 is ■ Rebalance and recheck if necessary.
1s22s22p 63s 23p 64s1. To achieve the outer ■ Always balance the heavier atoms before try-
octet, it must give away one electron, thus ing to balance lighter ones, such as H.
gaining a charge of +1. ■ Use fractions if necessary to reduce coefficients
27. d. Group VIIA elements need to accept one or use the smallest possible whole number.
electron to achieve the outer octet, thus ■ Verify (again!) that the number of atoms of
gaining a charge of –1. each element is balanced.
28. d. The alkali metals (group I) and the halogens
(group VIIA) are the most reactive and have b. Use of Moles in Chemical Equations
atoms that are near but not equal to noble Stoichiometry establishes the quantities of reac-
gas configurations. tants used and products obtained based on a bal-
29. a. Ionic compounds are formed between a anced chemical equation.
metal and a nonmetal by electron transfer.
30. d. There are eight electrons in the outer shells #* moles =
mass* (in* g)
g
of these ions. molar* mass (in mol )
*
4. Theoretical Yield
Theoretical yield is the amount of product expected
in a chemical reaction based on the mass of the start-
ing materials and the stoichiometry of the balanced
chemical equation.
202
5. Percentage Yield 32. The formula of carbon dioxide is CO2. Its

When a chemical reaction is run, oftentimes the molecular weight is 44 amu. A sample of 11
amount of product recovered is less than what is pre- grams of CO2 contains
dicted by stoichiometry. The percentage yield is the a. 1.0 mole of carbon dioxide.
ratio of the experimental (actual) yield of the product b. 1.5 grams of carbon.
divided by the theoretical yield. c. 3.0 grams of carbon.
d. 6.0 grams of oxygen.
actual yield
% yield = ( al yield ) 100%
theoretic
33. How many grams are contained in 0.200 mol
6. Basic Types of Chemical Reactions of calcium phosphate, Ca3(PO4)2?
■ Combination reactions: a. 6.20
A+BÆC b. 62.0
2H2 + O2 Æ 2H2O c. 124
■ Decomposition reactions: d. 31.0
CÆA+B
CaCO3 Æ CaO + CO2 34. The symbol 5O2 signifies
■ Single displacement reactions: a. 5 atoms of oxygen.
A + BC Æ B + AC b. 80 grams of oxygen.
Zn + 2HCl Æ H2 + ZnCl2 c. 160 grams of oxygen.
■ Double displacement reactions: d. 5 grams of oxygen.
AB + CD Æ AC + BD
HCl + NaOHÆ H2O + NaCl 35. In the reaction
CaCl2 + Na2CO3 Æ CaCO3 + 2NaCl,
You Should Review if 0.5 mole of NaCl is to be formed,
■ balancing equations and using polyatomic ions in a. 1 mole of Na2CO3 is needed.
balancing equations b. 0.5 mole of CaCO3 is also formed.
c. 0.5 mole of Na2CO3 is needed.
d. 0.25 mole of CaCl2 is needed.
Questions
36. In the reaction 2Cu2S + 3O2 Æ 2Cu2O + 2SO2,
31. The molecular weight (in amu) of aluminum if 24 moles of Cu2O are to be prepared, then
carbonate, Al2(CO3)3, is how many moles of O2 are needed?
a. 55 a. 24
b. 114 b. 36
c. 234 c. 16
d. 201 d. 27
37. Which of the following equations is balanced?

a. 2H2O2 Æ 2H2O + O2
b. Ag + Cl2 Æ 2AgCl
c. KClO3 Æ KCl + O2
d. Na + H2O Æ NaOH + H2
203
38. Butane (C4H10) burns with oxygen in the air Answers

according to the following equation:
2C4H10 + 13O2 Æ 8CO2 + 10H2O 31. c. There are 2 atoms of Al, 3 atoms of C, and 9
In one experiment, the supply of oxygen was atoms of O. Look at the atomic weights in
limited to 98.0 g. How much butane can be the periodic table:
burned by this much oxygen? 2 Al = 2 27 = 54 amu
a. 15.1 g C4H10 3 C = 3 12 = 36 amu
b. 27.3 g C4H10 9 O = 9 16 = 144 amu
c. 54.6 g C4H10 Then add them up to get the formula
d. 30.2 g C4H10 weight, which is 234 amu.
mol C 12 g
32. c. 11 g CO2 44 g CO2 mol C = 3.0 g

39. What type of chemical equation is 33. b. 1 mole of Ca3(PO4) 2 = 310 g;
2NH3 Æ N2 + 3H2? 0.200 mol
310 g
= 62 g
mol
a. combination reaction 32 g
34. c. 5O2 = 5 mol
mol = 160 g
b. decomposition reaction
35. d. One mole of CaCl2 would be needed to get
c. single displacement reaction
2 mol NaCl. Since 0.5 mol of NaCl, or 25%
d. double displacement reaction
of 2 moles, is to be formed, 0.25 mol CaCl2
(25% of 1 mole) is needed.
40. Which of the following equations is balanced? 3 mol O2
36. b. 24 mol Cu2O Cu2O = 36 mol O2
2 mol
a. Mg + N2 Æ Mg3N2
37. a. There are 4 H in the reactants and 4 H in
b. Fe + O2 Æ Fe2O3
the products, and 4 O in the reactants and 4
c. C12H22O11 Æ 12C + 11H2O
O in the products.
d. Ca + H2O Æ Ca(OH)2 + H2
38. b. Normally, 2 moles of C4H10 react with 13
moles of O2. The supply of oxygen is limited
mol O2
to 98 g, or 3.06 moles; 98.0 g O2 32.0
g O2
2 mol C4H10 58.0 g

13 mol O2
mol C4H10 = 27.3 g
39. b. A decomposition reaction takes the form
C Æ A + B.
40. c. There are 12 C on both sides, 22 H on both
sides, and 11 O on both sides.
E. Energy and the States of Matter

1. Solids
A solid is the state of matter characterized by a defi-
nite volume and shape. Solids are not compressible.
2. Liquids
A liquid is a fluid state of matter characterized by a
definite volume but no definite shape. Liquids are
also slightly compressible.
204
3. Gases Standard temperature and pressure (STP) con-

All gases behave according to the following dition is achieved at 273 K and 1 atm (760 torr)
characteristics: when one mole (or 6.023 ¥ 1023 particles) of any
gas occupies a volume of 22.4 liters (molar volume
■ They expand to assume the volume and shape at STP).
of their container.
■ Many gases mix evenly and completely when e. Dalton’s Law of Partial Pressure
confined in the same container. In a mixture of gases, individual gases behave inde-
■ Gas molecules collide with each other; they do pendently so that the total pressure is the sum of the
not attract or repel each other. partial pressures; PT = P1 + P2 + P3 + . . .
■ Gas molecules have a higher kinetic energy at
higher temperatures. f. Graham’s Law of Effusion
Graham’s law of effusion states that:
4. Pressure Effusion* rate* of* A MW* of* B
Pressure is force exerted over a unit area. The Effusion* rate* of* B
= MW* of* A
atmospheric pressure exerted by Earth’s atmosphere Graham’s law states that the rate of effusion of
is a function of the altitude and the weather condi- two gases is inversely proportional to the square
tions. It decreases with higher altitude. Some useful root of their molecular weights. For example, if
units of pressure are the atmosphere (atm): 1 atm = hydrogen (H2, MW = 2 g/mol) and oxygen (O2,
760 mm Hg = 760 torr = 101,325 Pa (pascals). MW = 32 g/mol) are used to fill a balloon and a
small pin hole is introduced, hydrogen will escape
5. Gas Laws four times faster than oxygen.
a. Boyle’s Law (at constant temperature) kH 2 32
g
The volume of a sample of gas decreases as its pres- = mol

g
=4
kO2 2
sure increases. (P V1): P1V1 = P2V2 mol
b. Charles’s Law (at constant pressure) g. Ideal Gas Law

The volume of a sample of gas maintained at An ideal gas is a gas whose pressure, volume, and
constant pressure increases with its temperature. temperature obey the relation, PV = nRT (a combi-
V V
(V T): T1 = T2 nation of Boyle’s, Charles’s, and Avogadro’s laws),
1 2
with R being the gas constant. The same relation
PV PV
c. Gay-Lussac’s Law (at constant volume) can also be expressed as: 1 1 = 2 2
T1 T2
The pressure of any sample of gas increases (main-
tained at constant volume) with the temperature. You Should Review
P P
(P T): T1 = T2 ■ properties of gases, liquids, and solids
1 2
■ kinetic theory of gases
d. Avogadro’s Law (at constant T and P) ■ kinetic theory and chemical reactions
The volume of gas increases with the number of
moles of gas present at constant temperature and
V V
pressure. (V n): n1 = n2
1 2
205
Questions 46. Gases that conform to the assumptions of

kinetic theory are referred to as
41. A pressure of 740 mm Hg is the same as a. kinetic gases.
a. 1 atm. b. natural gases.
b. 0.974 atm. c. ideal gases.
c. 1.03 atm. d. real gases.
d. 0.740 atm.
47. What does the term pressure mean when
42. What volume will 500 mL of gas initially at applied to a gas?
25°C and 750 mm Hg occupy when conditions a. weight
change to 25°C and 650 mm Hg? b. how heavy the gas is
a. 477 mL c. mass divided by volume
b. 400 mL d. force exerted per unit area
c. 577 mL
d. 570 mL 48. A sample of helium at 25°C occupies a volume
of 725 ml at 730 mm Hg. What volume will it
43. Which law predicts that if the temperature (in occupy at 25°C and 760 mm Hg?
Kelvin) doubles, the pressure will also double? a. 755 ml
a. Boyle’s law b. 760 ml
b. Charles’s law c. 696 ml
c. Gay-Lussac’s law d. 730 ml
d. Dalton’s law
49. A sample of nitrogen at 20°C in a volume of
44. Which of the following laws is related to this 875 ml has a pressure of 730 mm Hg. What
expression: PT = P1 + P2 + P3? will be its pressure at 20°C if the volume is
a. Boyle’s law changed to 955 ml?
b. Charles’s law a. 750 mm Hg
c. Gay-Lussac’s law b. 658 mm Hg
d. Dalton’s law c. 797 mm Hg
d. 669 mm Hg
45. Which of the following is NOT characteristic
of gases? 50. A mixture consisting of 8.0 g of oxygen and
a. They have a definite volume and shape. 14 g of nitrogen is prepared in a container such
b. They are low in density. that the total pressure is 750 mm Hg. The
c. They are highly compressible. partial pressure of oxygen in the mixture is
d. They mix rapidly. a. 125 mm Hg.
b. 500 mm Hg.
c. 135 mm Hg.
d. 250 mm Hg.
206
Answers Solvation is the process of dissolving molecules

of solute in a solvent.
41. b. 760 mm Hg is equal to 1 atmosphere;
740 mm
= 0.974. 2. Solubility
760 mm
42. c. Since temperature is constant, use Boyle’s Solubility is the maximum amount of solute (in
law: P1V1 = P2V2. In this case P1 = 750 mmHg; grams) that can be dissolved in a certain amount of
P2 = 650 mmHg; V1 = 500 ml; V2 = x. solvent (in ml) at a particular temperature.
750 500 = 650x
375,000 = 650x a. Pressure
375,000 Solubility increases with pressure for a gas immersed
= x
650
577 ml = x in a liquid. Solubility of solids and liquids does not
43. c. This is Gay-Lussac’s law. vary significantly with pressure.
44. d. Dalton’s law states that PT = P1 + P2 + P3.
45. a. Gases have low density, are highly b. Temperature
compressible, and mix rapidly, but they do Solubility of most solids and liquids increases with
not have a definite volume and shape. increasing temperature while decreasing for gases
46. c. The assumptions of kinetic theory are dissolved in liquids (gas molecules tend to escape).
applied to ideal gases.
47. d. Pressure refers to the force exerted per unit 3. Concentration of Solutions
area. Percent concentration expresses the concentration
48. c. Use Boyle’s law: P1V1 = P2V2. as a ratio of the weight (or the volume) of the solute
730 725 = 760V2 over the weight (or the volume) of the solution.
529,250 = 760V2 This ratio is then multiplied by 100.
529,250 Weight grams of solute
= V
760 2 volume % =

100 ml of solvent
696 ml = V2 Volume volume of solute
% =
volume 100 ml volume of final solution
49. d. Again, use Boyle’s law: P1V1 = P2V2. Weight
% = grams of solute
730 875 = P2 955 weig ht 100 g of solution
638,750 = 955 P2
638,750 4. Molarity
5 = P2
95
669 mm = P2 Molarity (M) expresses the number of moles of
mol O2 solute per liter of solution. A 0.1 M NaOH aqueous
50. d. 8.0 g O2 = 0.25 mol O
32.0 g O 2
2
mol N (dissolved in water) solution has 0.1 mol of solute
14 g N2 2
= 0.50 mol N2
28.0 g N 2 (NaOH) per 1 liter of water.
0.25
PO2 = 0.50 750 mmHg
0.25 +
= 250 mmHg 5. Dilution
MiVi = MfVf (i = initial; f = final) established the
F. Solutions equivalence between the initial and final concen-
1. Properties trations. In dilution, equivalence must be achieved
Solution is a homogeneous mixture. between the initial and final concentrations.
Solute is a substance dissolved in a solvent. Since M (mol/L) × V (L) gives units of moles,
Solvent is a medium in which a solute is this equation states that the amount of a substance
dissolved. must be constant before and after a dilution occurs,
i.e., if 1 L of an aqueous solution containing 0.1 mol
207
(5.8 g) of NaCl is diluted by adding an additional c. Reactivity

liter of water, there will still be 0.1 mol (5.8 g) of Water is not reactive with most compounds, so it
NaCl in the solution. can serve to transport substances in the body. It
takes part in most metabolic transformations
6. Colloids (hydrolysis and dehydration reactions).
Colloids are stable mixtures in which particles of
rather large sizes (ranging from 1 nm (nanometer) to You Should Review
1 m (micrometer)) are dispersed throughout ■ the characteristics of solutions and the properties
another substance. Aerosols (liquid droplets or solid of true solutions
particles dispersed in a gas) such as fog can scatter a ■ the types of solutions and how they compare
beam of light. This is called the Tyndall effect. ■ saturated solutions
■ supersaturated solutions
7. Water ■ dilute solutions
a. Properties ■ concentrated solutions
Water is the most abundant (and important, besides ■ how water dissolves ionic compounds
oxygen) substance on Earth. The O–H bonds are ■ how water dissolves covalent compounds
highly polar, and water forms networks of hydrogen ■ hydrates
bonds. It is found in large amounts in cells and
blood. Water is an excellent solvent and has a high
boiling point, high surface tension, high heat of Questions
vaporization, and low vapor pressure.
51. In a dilute solution of sodium chloride in
b. High Heat Capacity and High Heat water, the sodium chloride is the
of Vaporization a. solvent.
Heat capacity is the amount of energy required to b. solute.
raise the temperature of a substance by 1° Celsius. c. precipitate.
The specific heat capacity is the energy required to d. reactant.
raise the temperature of 1 g of a substance by 1°C.
Water has a high heat capacity, absorbing and releas- 52. To prepare 100 ml of 0.20 M NaCl solution
ing large amounts of heat before changing its own from stock solution of 1.00 M NaCl, you
temperature. It thus allows the body to maintain a should mix
steady temperature even when internal and/or a. 20 ml of stock solution with 80 ml of water.
external conditions would otherwise increase body b. 40 ml of stock solution with 60 ml of water.
temperature. c. 20 ml of stock solution with 100 ml of
Specific heat of vaporization is the heat required water.
to evaporate 1 gram of a liquid. Water’s large heat of d. 25 ml of stock solution with 75 ml of water.
vaporization (540 calories/gram) requires large
amounts of heat in order to vaporize it. During per-
spiration, water evaporates from the skin, and large
amounts of heat are lost.
208
53. How many grams of NaOH would be needed 58. Which of the following types of bonds forms
to make 250 ml of 0.200 M solution? when a hydrogen atom binds to a highly
(molecular weight of NaOH = 40.0 g/mol) electronegative atom and also partially binds to
a. 8.00 g another atom?
b. 4.00 g a. coordinate covalent bond
c. 2.00 g b. hydrogen bond
d. 2.50 g c. ionic bond
d. covalent bond
54. The number of moles of NaCl in 250 ml of a
0.300 M solution of NaCl is 59. Which of the following is NOT true of a
a. 0.0750 solution?
b. 0.150 a. Each component of a solution retains its
c. 0.250 original properties.
d. 1.15 b. A solution is a heterogeneous mixture.
c. A solution is composed of a solute and
55. Which of the following properties of water is solvent.
not dependent on the polar nature of water? d. A solution involves two or more pure
a. color substances.
b. high boiling point
c. solvent power 60. Which of the following is NOT a factor that
d. high heat of vaporization affects solubility?
a. temperature
56. A substance has the formula MgSO4 7H2O. b. pressure
How many grams of water are in 5.00 moles of c. particle size
this substance? d. properties of the solvent
a. 7.00
b. 35.0
c. 126
d. 630
57. How many grams of sugar are needed to make

500 ml of a 5% (weight/volume) solution of
sugar?
a. 20
b. 25
c. 50
d. 10
209
Answers G. Reaction Rates and Equilibrium

1. Equilibrium
51. b. The substance being dissolved is the solute, Equilibrium is reached when two opposing reactions
by definition. occur at the same rate. No change is observed in the
52. a. You need 20 ml of stock solution; you system—e.g., for the reaction A´B, the rate at
would then fill the container with water to which A is converted to B is the same rate that B is
the 100 ml mark (80 ml H2O). converted to A.
Mi Vi = Mf Vf
1.0 M Vi = 0.2 M 100 ml
2. Equilibrium Constant
1.0 Vi = 20
The equilibrium constant, K, for a reaction
Vi = 20 ml
0.2* mol* NaOH describes the concentrations of reactants and prod-
53. c. 250 ml 1, 000* ml = 0.05 mol; 0.05 mol
ucts for a chemical reaction at equilibrium. K is
40 g/mol = 2.00 g
0.3* mol* NaCl often dependent on temperature. For a balanced
54. a. 250 ml 1, 000* ml = 0.0750 mol
chemical equation, wA + xB´yC + zD, the equi-
55. a. The other properties listed are due to the
librium constant is written as:
polar nature of water.
[C ] y [ D]z
56. d. There are 5 moles of MgSO4 7H2O. There K= w x
[ A] [ B]
are 7 moles of water of MgSO4 7H2O;
where [A], [B], [C], and [D] are concentrations of
7 5 = 35 moles; 35 mol 18 g/mol =
reactants and products and w, x, y, and z are the
630 g.
5 g solute coefficients used to balance the chemical equation.
57. b. 5% wv = 100

ml solution If one of the reactants or products is a solid, it is not

5g = x (solute needed)
included in the equilibrium expression.
100 ml 500 ml (final volume)
5 500
=x
100 3. Activation Energy
25 g = x Activation energy is the minimum amount of
58. b. Hydrogen atoms are capable of forming a energy required for reactants to be transformed into
partial bond between a highly electronega- products (i.e., to overcome the energy barrier
tive atom and another atom. between reactants and products). The higher the
59. b. A solution is a homogeneous mixture. activation energy, the slower the reaction.
60. c. Temperature, pressure, and the properties of
the solvent all affect solubility.
210
4. Endothermic versus Exothermic Reactions 6. Reversible Reactions

Endothermic reactions are reactions that consume A double arrow (¨ Æ) designates reversible (two-
energy in order to take place. Anabolic reactions are way) chemical reactions. If arrows differ in length,
endothermic. the longer arrow indicates the major (faster) direc-
Exothermic reactions are energy-releasing reaction in which the reaction proceeds.
tions. Most catabolic and oxidative reactions are
exothermic. 7. Le Chatelier’s Principle
Le Chatelier’s Principle states that when a system
Activation energy at equilibrium experiences a change (e.g., in con-
centration, temperature, or partial pressure), it
will respond to counteract this change and estab-
lish a new equilibrium. For example, increasing
Energy
the concentration of compounds on the right side

R
of a chemical equation will shift the equilibrium
to the left.
Energy released P
You Should Review
■ Le Chatelier’s principle and the different stresses
Reaction Progress that can be placed on chemical processes
■ equilibrium constants
Reaction diagram for an exothermic reaction
■ energy diagrams
5. Factors Affecting the Rate of Reaction
a. Temperature
Rates of reactions increase with temperature, as Questions
more collisions between particles occur at higher
temperatures. 61. Which of the following is NOT true of
reversible chemical reactions?
b. Particle Size a. A chemical reaction is never complete.
Smaller particles react faster, as they collide often at b. The products of the reaction also react to
any given temperature and concentration. reform the original reactants.
c. When the reaction is finished, both
c. Concentration reactants and products are present in equal
A high concentration of reacting particles increases amounts.
the rate of chemical reactions between them. d. The reaction can result in an equilibrium.
d. Catalysis 62. Which is an example of an exothermic change?

Catalysts speed the reaction rate by lowering the a. sublimation
activation energy of the reaction. They are not con- b. condensation
sumed in the reaction. c. melting
d. evaporation
211
63. Which is NOT an example of an endothermic Answers

change?
a. melting 61. c. The fact that a reaction is complete does not
b. sublimation mean that both reactants and products are
c. freezing present in equal amounts.
d. evaporation 62. b. Condensation is an example of a reaction in
which energy is given off.
64. The following reaction is exothermic: 63. c. Freezing does not absorb energy.
AgNO3 + NaCl ¨ Æ AgCl + NaNO3. How will 64. b. When the temperature is increased, the
the equilibrium be changed if the temperature equilibrium shifts to the left.
is increased?
a. Equilibrium will shift to the right. H. Acids and Bases
b. Equilibrium will shift to the left.
1. Definitions
c. The reaction will not proceed.
Acids are proton donors (according to the Brønsted
d. Equilibrium will not change.
Theory) or electron acceptors (according to the
Lewis Theory). Acids release protons (H+) and form
anionic conjugate bases (negatively charged ions).
Strong acids completely dissociate in water. Acids
have a sour taste.
COMMON STRONG ACIDS
Hydrochloric (HCl)
Hydrobromic (HBr)
Hydroiodic (HI)
Perchloric (HClO4)
Sulfuric (H2SO4)
Bases are proton acceptors (Brønsted) or elec-

tron donors (Lewis). When dissolved in water,
strong bases such as NaOH dissociate to release
hydroxide ions and sodium cations. Bases have a
bitter taste and feel slippery like soap.
2. Reactions of Acids
Common reactions include:
■ metal + acid Æ salt + hydrogen

Zn + 2HCl Æ ZnCl2 + H2
■ base + acid Æ salt + water
NaOH + HNO3 Æ NaNO3 + H2O
212
■ metal oxide + acid Æ salt + water b. Phosphate Buffer

CaO + 2HNO3 Æ Ca(NO3)2 + H2O The principal buffer system inside cells in blood
■ metal carbonate + acid Æ salt + carbonic consists of the couple H2PO4– and HPO4–2.
acid (unstable)
NaHCO3 + HCl Æ NaCl + H2CO3 Neutralization of acid:
(H2CO3 Æ H2O + CO2) HPO4–2 + H+ Æ H2PO4–
3. Autoionization of Water Neutralization of base:

In pure water, 2H2O ¨ +
Æ H3O + OH .
–
H2PO4– + OH– Æ HPO4–2 + H2O
[H3O+] = [OH–].
The ion product of water is Kw: 6. Titration
Kw = [H3O+] [OH–] = 1 10–14. Thus, in pure Titration is a technique used to determine the
water: [H3O+] = [OH–] = 1 10–7 moles/liter. unknown concentration of an analyte of interest by
reaching it with a known quantity of a reagent. In
4. pH an acid–base titration, an acid or base of unknown
pH = – log [H+]. The pH measures the negative log- concentration is reacted with a known amount of
arithm (for presentation of very small numbers in a base or acid.
large scale) of the hydrogen ion concentration (in
a. Equivalence Point
moles/liter). The pH scale runs from 0 to 14, with
In an acid–base titration, the equivalence point
acids in the lower end of the scale (smaller than pH 7)
is reached when the amount of titrant (acid or base
and bases at the higher end (greater than pH 7).
of known concentration) is equal to the amount of
analyte (base or acid of unknown concentration)
5. Buffers
and the solution is of neutral pH.
Buffer is a solution of a weak base and its conjugate
acid (weak also) that prevents drastic changes in
b. Normality (N)
pH. The weak base reacts with any H+ ions that
Normality is the number of equivalents of the
could increase acidity, and the weak conjugate acid
solute per liter of solution. 1 N solution of acid (or
reacts with OH– ions that may increase the basicity
base) contains 1 equivalent of an acid (or base) per
of the solution.
liter of solution.
a. Carbonic Acid/Bicarbonate Buffer

You Should Review
Blood pH must be maintained at pH 7.40 by a
■ monoprotic, diprotic, and triprotic acids
buffer system consisting of the couple H2CO3 (car-
■ organic and inorganic acids
bonic acid) and HCO3– (bicarbonate).
■ Arrhenius acids and bases
■ Bro/nsted-Lowry acids and bases
Neutralization of acid:
■ reactions of acids
HCO3– + H+ Æ H2CO3
■ activity series of metals
■ solubilities of salts
Neutralization of base:
■ ionic equations
H2CO3 + NaOH Æ NaHCO3 + H2O
■ buffer systems in the body
■ metabolic acidosis and alkalosis
■ respiratory acidosis and alkalosis
213
Questions 71. An acid is a substance that dissociates in water

into one or more ions and one or
65. What is the formula of sulfuric acid? more .
a. HNO3 a. hydrogen . . . anions
b. H2SO4 b. hydrogen . . . cations
c. HCl c. hydroxide . . . anions
d. H2CO3 d. hydroxide . . . cations
66. What is the formula of the hydronium ion? 72. A pH of 4 denotes times fewer
a. H+ than a pH of 3.
b. NH4+ a. 10 . . . hydrogen ions
c. H3O+ b. 4 . . . hydrogen ions
d. H2O+ c. 10 . . . water molecules
d. 20 . . . hydroxide ions
67. The pH of a blood sample is 7.40 at room
temperature. The pOH is therefore 73. Which of the following is considered to be
a. 6.60 neutral on the pH scale?
b. 7.40 a. pure water
c. 6 10–6 b. pure saliva
d. 4 10–7 c. pure blood
d. pure urine
68. As the concentration of hydrogen ions in a
solution decreases, 74. A substance that functions to prevent rapid,
a. the pH numerically decreases. drastic changes in the pH of a body fluid by
b. the pH numerically increases. changing strong acids and bases into weak
c. the product of the concentrations [H+] acids and bases is called a(n)
[OH–] comes closer to 1 10–14. a. salt.
d. the solution becomes more acidic. b. buffer.
c. enzyme.
69. The pH of an alkaline solution is d. coenzyme.
a. 14.
b. less than 7. 75. Complete the following equation:
c. more than 14. NaHCO3 + HCl Æ NaCl+
d. more than 7. a. HCO3
b. H2CO3
70. A base is a substance that dissociates in water c. HCl
into one or more ions and one or d. H2PO4
more .
a. hydrogen . . . anions
b. hydrogen . . . cations
c. hydroxide . . . anions
d. hydroxide . . . cations
214
Answers 2. Oxidation-Reduction (Redox) Reactions

Oxidation corresponds to a loss of electrons.
65. b. The formula is H2SO4. Reduction corresponds to a gain of electrons.
66. c. The formula is H3O+. Redox (reduction-oxidation) reaction involves an
67. a. The ion product constant of H2O is 1 10–14; electron transfer between the oxidizing (oxidizes
1 10–14 another by accepting its electrons) and the reducing
[H+] [OH–] = = 1 10–6.60;
1 10–7.40
pOH = 6.60 (reduces another by donating electrons) agents.
or Example: 2Na + Cl2 Æ 2NaCl
pH + pOH = 14.00 Na Æ Na+ + e–
pOH = 14.00 – 7.40 = 6.60 Oxidation Number: 0 +1 –1
68. b. As the concentration of hydrogen ions (Na is oxidized to Na+)
decreases, the pH becomes more basic and
increases. Example:
69. d. On the pH scale, 1–7 is acidic, 7 is neutral, Cl + e– Æ Cl–
and 7–14 is alkaline. Oxidation Number: 0 –1 –1
–
(Cl is reduced to Cl )
70. d. By definition, when a base dissociates in
water, it produces one or more OH– and Sum: Na + Cl Æ Na+ + Cl–
one or more cations.
71. a. By definition, when an acid dissociates in You Should Review
water, it produces one or more H+ and one ■ redox reactions: cellular respiration, combustion,
or more anions. rusting
72. a. An increase of one pH unit is a tenfold ■ oxidizing agents
decrease in hydrogen ions. ■ reducing agents
73. a. The pH of pure H2O is 7. [H+] = [OH–]
74. b. This is the definition of a buffer.
75. b. Metal bicarbonate + an acid Æ salt + Questions
carbonic acid.
76. The number of electrons lost during oxidation
I. Oxidation-Reduction must always equal the
a. charge of the ion.
1. Oxidation State
b. total change in oxidation number.
Oxidation state (or oxidation number) is the num-
c. number of electrons gained in the
ber of charges carried by an ion in an atom, or the
reduction.
number of charges that an atom would have in a
d. number of electrons gained by the reducing
[neutral] molecule if electrons were transferred com-
agent.
pletely. Oxidation numbers enable the identification
of oxidized (increase in oxidation number) and
77. What is the oxidation number for nitrogen in
reduced (reduction in oxidation number) elements.
HNO3?
The sum of the oxidation numbers of all atoms
a. –2
in the formula of a neutral compound is zero (or
b. +5
equal to the charge on the ion for a polyatomic ion).
c. –1
d. –5
215
Answers penetrating form of radiation, similar to X-rays, and

can only be stopped by barriers of heavy materials
76. c. The number of electrons lost during such as concrete or lead. They are extremely danger-
oxidation must always equal the number of ous and can cause damage to the human body.
electrons gained in the reduction.
77. b. H = +1; O3 = 3 –2 = –6 5. Transmutation
+1 + N – 6 = 0 Nuclear transmutation is the conversion of one ele-
N = +5 ment or isotope into another. This process may be
spontaneous (through a- or b-decay) and result in
J. Nuclear Chemistry lighter elements, or it may occur when nuclei are
bombarded by other particles (protons or neutrons)
1. Characteristics of Radioactivity or nuclei, resulting in heavier elements.
Radioactivity is the process by which unstable nuclei During nuclear reaction, there is:
break-down spontaneously, emitting particles and/or
electromagnetic radiation (i.e., energy) also called 1. conservation of mass number
nuclear radiation. 2. conservation of atomic number
Heavy elements (atomic numbers 83 to 92) are
naturally radioactive, and many more (the transura- For example, U-238 undergoes a-decay to form
nium elements: atomic numbers 93 to 118) are gen- Th-234
erated in laboratories.
238
92 U → 234
90 Th + 2 He
4
2. Alpha Emission
An alpha particle (symbol: 42He or ) corresponds 6. Half-Life
to the nucleus of a helium atom (having two pro- Half-life (symbol: t1) is the time required for the
2
tons and two neutrons) that is spontaneously emit- concentration of the nuclei in a given sample to
ted by a nuclear breakdown or decay. decrease to half of its initial concentration. Half-life
-particles are of low energy and therefore low is specific to a radioactive element and varies widely
penetrating (a lab coat is sufficient to block their (from a fraction of a second for Tc-43 to millions of
penetration), but they can be dangerous if inhaled years for U-238).
or ingested.
7. Nuclear Fusion
3. Beta Emission Nuclear fusion is the process by which small nuclei
A beta particle (symbol: –10e or –) is an electron are combined (fused) into larger, more stable ones
released with high speed by a radioactive nucleus in with the release of a large amount of energy. Fusion
which neutrons are converted into protons and reactions take place at very high temperatures. They
electrons (-particles). -particles are medium- are also known as thermonuclear reactions. Exam-
penetrating radiation requiring dense material and ples are our Sun and H-bombs.
several layers of clothing to block their penetration.
They are dangerous if inhaled or ingested. 8. Nuclear Fission
Nuclear fission is the process by which a heavier,
4. Gamma Emission usually less stable, nucleus splits into smaller nuclei
Gamma rays (symbol: ) are a massless and chargeless and neutrons. The process releases a large amount of
form of radiation (pure energy). They are the most- energy and neutrons that can set up a chain reaction
216
(or self-sustaining nuclear fission reaction) with a 80. The half-life of a given element is 70 years.
more and more uncontrollable release of energy (a How long will it take 5.0 g of this element to be
highly exothermic reaction) and neutrons. reduced to 1.25 g?
a. 70 years
9. Radioactive Isotopes b. 140 years
A radioactive isotope (radioisotope) is an unstable c. 210 years
isotope of an element that decays into a more stable d. 35 years
isotope of a different element. They are of great use in
medicine as tracers in the body to help monitor par- 81. If element 210
83A gives off an alpha particle, what
ticular atoms in chemical and biological reactions. In is the atomic number and mass of the resulting
this way, they aid with diagnosis and treatment. Doc- element B?
tors use Iodine (-131 and -123) and Technetium-99 a. 210
81B
because of their short half-lives. A short half-life 206
b. 81B
means a radioisotope decays into a stable (nonra- c. 206
83B
dioactive) substance in a relatively short time. d. 204
81B
You Should Review 82. If element 238

92B gives off a beta particle and
■ nuclear reactions gamma rays, what is the resulting element?
■ writing balanced nuclear equations a. 238
93B
■ radiocarbon dating 234
b. 90B
■ the principles of nuclear power c. 239
92B
■ the use of radioisotopes and their detection in 239
d. 91B
nuclear medicine
■ the dangers of ionizing radiation 83. What is the missing product?
■ radiation sickness/biological effects of radiation 42 42
17X Æ 18Y + ?
■ units of radiation measurement a. 42He
b.
Questions c. 10e
d. –10b
78. The time required for 12 of the atoms in a
84. What is the missing product?
sample of a radioactive element to decay is
60 A Æ 60 B + ?
known as the element’s 24 24
a. 42He
a. decay period.
b.
b. life time.
c. –10e
c. radioactive period.
d. 10b
d. half-life.
79. The least penetrating radiation given off by a

radioactive substance consists of
a. alpha particles.
b. beta particles.
c. gamma rays.
d. X-rays.
217
Answers oxygen. The names of carbohydrates end with the

suffix, -ose (for example, glucose and fructose).
78. d. The question gives the definition of half-life.
79. a. Alpha particles give off the least penetrating b. Monosaccharides
radiation. Monosaccharides are the simplest carbohydrate
80. b. In 70 years, there will be 12 5.0 = 2.5 g. In structures made of one ring that can contain five C
70 more years (140 total), there will be 12 atoms, called a pentose, or six C atoms, called a hex-
2.5 = 1.25 g. ose. An example of a pentose is ribose, which is a
81. b. Giving off an alpha particle is equivalent to constituent of RNA. One example of a hexose is
giving off a helium nucleus. galactose, which is derived from milk-sugar lactose.
210 A – 4 He = 206 B
83 2 81
82. a. When a beta particle is given off, the c. Disaccharides
nucleus has the same mass number, but the Disaccharides are dimeric sugars made of two
atomic number is greater by one since a monosaccharides joined together in a reaction that
neutron is converted to a proton and an releases a molecule of water (dehydration). The bond
electron. between the two sugar molecules is called a glycosidic
83. d. A beta particle allows the mass to remain linkage and can have either an axial (-glycoside) or
the same and increases the atomic number an equatorial (-glycoside) orientation with respect
by 1. to the ring conformation.
84. b. Gamma rays are not particles and therefore
Examples:
do not change the atomic number or
Maltose is two glucose molecules joined
atomic mass.
together, found in starch.
Lactose is one galactose joined to one glucose,
K. Organic Compounds
found in milk.
1. Definition Sucrose is one fructose joined to one glucose,
Organic compounds are compounds made pre- found in table sugar.
dominantly of carbon, hydrogen, and heteroatoms
such as oxygen, nitrogen, the halogens, phosphorus, d. Polysaccharides
sulfur, and others. Polysaccharides are polymers, or a long chain of
repeating monosaccharide units.
2. Stereoisomers
■ Starch is a mixture of two kinds of polymers of
Stereoisomers are two molecules that have the same
glucose (linear amylose and amylopectin).
molecular formula and structure but different spatial
Amylose contains glucose molecules joined
orientation with respect to the median axis or plane
together by -glycosidic linkages, while amy-
of the molecule. Their three-dimensional shapes are,
lopectin has an addition of branching at C-6.
therefore, different.
They are the storage form of polysaccharides
in plants.
3. Carbohydrates
■ Glycogen consists of glucose molecules linked
a. Function
by -glycosidic linkage (C-1 and C-4) and
Carbohydrates (or sugars) serve as the main source
branched (C-6) by -glycosidic linkage.
of energy for living organisms. They are made of
Glycogen is the storage form of glucose in ani-
one, two, or more rings of carbon, hydrogen, and
mals (in liver and skeletal muscle).
218
■ Cellulose consists of glucose molecules joined are converted to ketone bodies in the liver. They are
together by -glycosidic linkage. Cellulose is removed by the kidneys (ketosuria), but if they are
found in plants and cannot be digested by found in excess in the blood (ketonemia), ketone bod-
humans because they lack the necessary ies can cause a decrease of the blood pH, and ketoaci-
enzyme. dosis may result. In ketouria, acetone is exhaled
via the lungs. The whole process is called ketosis.
e. Condensation and Hydrolysis Ketosuria and ketonemia are common in patients with
Condensation is the process of bonding separate diabetes mellitus and in cases of prolonged starvation.
monosaccharide subunits together into a disaccha-
ride and/or a polysaccharide. It is also called dehy- d. Phospholipids
dration synthesis, as one molecule of water is lost Phospholipids are lipids containing a phosphate
in the process. It is carried out by specific enzymes. group. They are the main constituents of cellular
Hydrolysis is the reverse process of condensation membranes.
as a water molecule and specific enzymes, called
hydrolases, break the glycosidic linkages in disac- e. Steroids
charides and polysaccharides into their constituting Steroids are organic compounds characterized by a
monosaccharides. core structure known as gonane (three cyclo-
hexane—six carbon rings and one cyclopentane—
4. Lipids or five C rings fused together). Steroids differ by the
a. Function functional groups attached to the gonane core. Cho-
Lipids are a diverse group of compounds that are lesterol is an example of a steroid and is a precursor
insoluble in water and polar solvents but soluble in for the steroid hormones such as the sex hormones
nonpolar solvents. Lipids are stored in the body as (androgens and estrogens) and the corticosteroids
a source of energy and contain twice the energy (hormones of the adrenal cortex).
provided by equal amounts of carbohydrates.
5. Proteins
b. Triglycerides a. Functions
Triglycerides are lipids formed by condensation of Every organism contains thousands of different
glycerol (one molecule) with fatty acids (three mol- proteins with a variety of functions: structure (col-
ecules). They can be saturated (all fatty acids con- lagen, histones), transport (hemoglobin, serum
taining only C–C single bonds) or unsaturated albumin), defense (antibodies, fibrinogen for blood
(presence of one or more C=C double bonds). coagulation), control and regulation (insulin),
Triglycerides are found in the adipose cells of the catalysis (enzymes), and storage.
body (neutral fat) and are metabolized by the
enzyme lipase during hydrolysis, producing fatty b. Structure
acids and glycerol. Proteins (also called polypeptides) are long chains
of amino acids joined together by covalent bonds
c. Ketone Bodies of the same type (peptide or amide bonds). There
There are three ketone bodies formed during are 20 naturally occurring amino acids, each char-
the breakdown (metabolism) of fats: acetoacetate, acterized by an amino group at one end and a car-
-hydroxybutyrate, and acetone. They are produced boxylic acid group at the other end. Different
to meet the energy requirements of other tissues. Fatty proteins have different numbers and types of addi-
acids—produced by the hydrolysis of triglycerides— tional functional groups.
219
The sequence of amino acids in the long chain Enzyme names are derived from their substrate
defines the primary structure of a protein. names with the addition of the suffix -ase. An
A secondary structure is determined when sev- example is sucrase (substrate is sucrose). There are
eral residues, linked by hydrogen bonds, conform to categories of enzymes according to the reactions
a given combination (for example, the -helix or they catalyze (for example, the kinases for phos-
-sheet). phorylation).
Tertiary structure refers to the three-dimensionally Enzymes are often found in multienzyme sys-
folded conformation of a protein. This is the bio- tems that operate by simple negative feedback.
logically active conformation.
A quaternary structure can result when two or enzyme 1 enzyme 2 enzyme 3 enzyme 4
more individual proteins assemble into two or more A¨ÆB B¨ÆC C¨ÆD D¨Æ E1
polypeptide chains. D Æ E2
Conjugated proteins are complexes of proteins enzyme 5
with other biomolecules (for example, glycopro-
teins, also called sugar proteins). d. Protein Denaturation
Protein denaturation occurs when a protein’s con-
c. Enzymes figuration is changed by the destruction of the sec-
Enzymes are biological catalysts whose role is to ondary and tertiary structures (reduced to the
increase the rate of chemical (metabolic) reactions primary structure). Common denaturing agents are
without being consumed in the reaction. They do so by alcohol, heat, and heavy metal salts.
lowering the activation energy of a reaction by binding
specifically into the active site of their substrates in a You Should Review
“lock and key” or “induced-fit” mechanism. They do ■ stereoisomers
not change the nature of the reaction (in fact, any ■ the structure of monosaccharides and hemiacetals
change is associated with a malfunctioning enzyme, ■ the structure of disaccharides and acetals, glycosides
the onset of a disease) or its outcome. ■ reducing sugars
■ stereoisomers and enzymes in carbohydrate
Enzyme activity is influenced by: metabolism
■ digestion and synthesis of carbohydrates
■ temperature: proteins can be destroyed at ■ ketoacidosis, ketonemia, acetone breath, chemical
high temperatures, and their action is slowed structures of ketone bodies, gluconeogenesis
at low temperatures. ■ functions of proteins
■ pH: enzymes are active in a certain range of ■ protein synthesis and amino acid structures
pH. ■ organic functional groups in proteins
■ concentration of cofactors and coenzymes ■ enzyme-catalyzed reactions
(vitamins) ■ vitamins, metal ion activators
■ concentration of enzymes and substrates ■ enzyme nomenclature
■ feedback reactions ■ multienzyme systems, simple negative feedback
E + S Æ ES Æ E + P
enzyme substrate enzyme-substrate enzyme product
complex
220
Questions 90. An enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of a

triglyceride (fat) is
85. The elements found in carbohydrates are a. a catalose.
a. oxygen, carbon, and hydrogen. b. an esterase.
b. zinc, hydrogen, and iron. c. an amidose.
c. carbon, iron, and oxygen. d. lactose.
d. hydrogen, iron, and carbon.
91. The site on an enzyme molecule that does the
86. Steroids are classified as catalytic work is called the
a. carbohydrates. a. binding site.
b. nucleic acids. b. allosteric site.
c. lipids. c. lock.
d. proteins. d. active site.
87. The primary function of food carbohydrates in 92. In the multienzyme sequence shown here,
the body is to molecules of E are able to fit to the enzyme E1
a. provide for the storage of glycogen in cells. and prevent the conversion of A to B. What is
b. maintain the constancy of the blood sugar. this action of E called?
c. maintain energy production within the cells. E1 E2 E3 E4
d. contribute to the structure of the cells. A Æ B Æ C Æ D Æ E
a. effector inhibition
88. A high level of ketone bodies in urine indicates b. allosteric inhibition
marked increase in the metabolism of c. feedback inhibition
a. carbohydrates. d. competitive inhibition by nonproduct
b. fats.
c. proteins. 93. The carbohydrate sucrose is broken down by
d. nucleic acids. the enzyme sucrase into
a. glucose and fructose.
89. Which polysaccharide is a branched polymer b. galactose and glucose.
of -glucose found in the liver and muscle c. two glucose molecules.
cells? d. glucose and zylose.
a. amylase
b. cellulose 94. The bonds between amino acids in a poly-
c. glycogen peptide are
d. amylopectin a. glycosidic bonds.
b. ester bonds.
c. peptide bonds.
d. hydrogen bonds.
221
Answers B. Metric System
85. a. By definition, carbohydrates are made of Metric system is the standard system for recording
oxygen, carbon, and hydrogen. measurements. It is a decimal system, with the basic
86. c. Steroids are a subcategory of lipids. unit and its subunits separated by increasing and
87. c. Glucose, a monosaccharide, is the primary decreasing powers of ten. Some of the basic units of
energy source in the body. measurement are:
88. b. Ketone bodies are formed from free fatty
acids. ■ Length: meter (m)
89. c. Glycogen is a branched polymer of - ■ Volume: liter (l)
glucose, which is found stored in limited ■ Mass: kilogram (kg)
amounts in the liver and muscle cells. ■ Time: the second (s)
90. b. A fat is formed from one molecule of ■ Temperature: Centigrade (°C)
glycerol and three fatty acids, which are ■ Amount of substance: mole (mol)
combined by three ester bonds. To break
these bonds, an esterase is needed. C. Unit Conversion: The Factor
91. d. The active site is where the substrate is Label Method
broken down.
92. c. E stops E1 from converting A to B. A conversion factor establishes a relationship of
93. a. The disaccharide sucrose is broken down equivalence in measurement between two different
into glucose and fructose by sucrase. units. It is expressed as a fraction. For instance,
1 kg
94. c. Peptide bonds are formed between adjacent for 1 kg = 2.2 lbs., the conversion factor is lbs. ,
2.2
2.2 lbs.
amino acids in a polypeptide chain. or 1 kg .

Example:
III. Other Concepts You Should Convert 50 cm to m:
Be Familiar With Since 100 cm = 1 m, the conversion factor is
1m 100 cm

100 or
A. The Scientific Method cm 1m
1m
So, 50 cm ( cm ) = 0.50 m
100
1. General
The scientific method is based upon observations Example:
that lead to the formulation of a hypothesis in an How many grams are in 0.45 lbs.? (1 lb. = 453.6 g)
1 lb. 453.6 g
attempt to make a comprehensive guess. Only repro- Conversion factor: 453.6 g or 1 l
b.
ducible experiments will confirm the hypothesis and Since we need an answer in grams, we will use
eventually develop into a theory supported by all the conversion factor that has the grams in
the facts. the numerator.
453.6 g
So, 0.45 lb. ( b. ) = 204.1 g.
1 l
2. The Science of Chemistry
Chemistry is the study of the structures, properties,
and transformations of atoms and molecules.
222
D. Significant Figures F. Functional Groups in

Organic Chemistry
The number of significant figures in any physical
quantity or measurement is the number of digits 1. Alkene
known precisely to be accurate. The rules for count-
ing significant figures are the following: C === C
■ Zeros sandwiched between nonzero digits are

significant. For example, both 400.005 and 2. Alcohol
400,005 have six significant figures.
OH
■ Zeros that locate the decimal place (place
holder) on the left are not significant. For
example, 0.045 ml, 0.0045 ml, and 0.00045 ml 3. Aldehyde
O
each have two significant figures.
===
■ Trailing zeros to the right of the decimal point
C
are significant if the number is greater than 1. H
For example, 4.56000 has six significant
figures.
4. Ketone
■ For numbers smaller than 1, only zeros to the O
===
right of the first significant digit are signifi-
cant. For example, 0.020 has two significant C
figures.
■ Trailing zeros are not significant in a non-
decimal number. For example, 5,500 has two 5. Carboxylic Acid
O
significant figures.
===
C
E. Error, Accuracy, Precision, OH
and Uncertainty
Error is the difference between a value obtained 6. Amine
experimentally and the standard value accepted by the
scientific community. N
Accuracy establishes how close in agreement a
measurement is with the accepted value.
Precision of a measurement is the degree to 7. Amide
O
which successive measurements agree with each other
===
(average deviation is minimized).

C
Uncertainty expresses the doubt associated with N
the accuracy of any single measurement.
223
8. Ester Textbooks
O Chang, Raymond. General Chemistry: The Essen-
===
tial Concepts, 3rd Edition (New York: McGraw-
C Hill, 2003).
OR
Chang, Raymond and Overby, Jason. General
Chemistry: The Essential Concepts, 6th Edition.
9. Aromatic (New York: McGraw-Hill, 2011).
Kotz, John C., and Paul M. Treichel. Chemistry and
Chemical Reactivity, 5th Edition (Pacific Grove,
CA: Brooks/Cole, 2003).
10. Alkyne Kotz, John C., et al. Chemistry & Chemical Reactiv-
C === C ity, 8th Edition. (Pacific Grove, CA:
Brooks/Cole, 2011).
Timberlake, Karen C. General, Organic, and Bio-
11. Ether
logical Chemistry: Structures of Life, Platinum
O
Edition (Redwood City, CA: Benjamin-
Cummings, 2004).
12. Disulfide
Timberlake, Karen C. General, Organic, and Bio-
S S
logical Chemistry: Structures of Life, 4th Edition.
(New York: Prentice Hall, 2012).
Wade, Leroy G. Jr. Organic Chemistry, Fifth Edition
IV. Suggested Sources (New York: Prentice Hall, 2003).
for Further Study Wade, Leroy G. Jr. Organic Chemistry, 8th Edition.
(New York: Prentice Hall, 2012).
Study Guides
Klein, David R. Organic Chemistry as a Second
Language (New York: John Wiley & Sons, 2004).
Klein, David R. Organic Chemistry as a Second Lan-
guage: First Semester Topics, 3rd Edition. (New
York: John Wiley & Sons, 2011).
Varma-Nelson, Pratibha and Mark S. Cracolice.
Peer-Led Team Learning General, Organic, and
Biological Chemistry (New York: Prentice Hall,
2001).
224
9
C H A P T E R
GENERAL
SCIENCE REVIEW
CHAPT ER S UM M ARY
This chapter highlights the core concepts you need to know for the
general science section of most nursing school entrance exams—
essential topics such as the scientific method, formation of the uni-
verse, evolution, and biodiversity. Use this chapter as a study aid to
review important concepts and test yourself with sample questions.
General Science Review: Important Concepts
A. Description of How Nursing School Entrance Exams Test General Science

Nursing school entrance exams do not all measure scientific knowledge in the same way. The natural sciences sec-
tion (which is comprised of chemistry, biology, and health) of the Registered Nursing School Aptitude Exam
(RNSAE) and the Aptitude for Practical Nursing Exam (APNE) is made up of approximately 90 multiple-choice
questions. The Nurse Entrance Test (NET) has reading comprehension questions that focus on the sciences.
The following subject areas are important for you to know for your exam: history and methods of science,
the cosmos, basics of matter, evolution and life, earth works, biodiversity, ecology, and global environmental
challenges.
225
– GENERAL SCIENCE REVIEW –
B. How to Use This Chapter a. Ancient Greeks

This chapter covers all the subject areas just listed. (Some dates are approximate.)
Use the information about core topics and the prac-
tice questions in this chapter to guide you as you pre- Thales (624–546 BCE), called the “father of phi-
pare for your exam, but remember that this chapter losophy,” said the universe was ultimately
should not be your only resource. Review scientific made of water (one of the four ancient
concepts more comprehensively in the suggested Greek elements of water, fire, earth, and air).
materials listed at the end of this chapter or in your Pythagorus (560–480 BCE) discovered the math-
own textbooks. ematics of musical harmony and the proper-
After you read each subject heading in this ties of right triangles (triangles with one 90°
chapter, answer the practice questions that follow. angle in them).
These questions are designed to reflect the type of Hippocrates (460–370 BCE) was called the
questions you will find on your nursing school “father of medicine.”
entrance exam. Once you have answered the sample Plato (427–347 BCE) was a major philosopher
questions, you can target the content areas where you who wrote the dialogues of Socrates and was
need the most review. influential in championing logical thinking.
Plan your study time effectively so that you Aristotle (384–322 BCE) was a student of Plato
have enough preparation for the test. Familiarizing and tutor of Alexander the Great. He wrote
yourself with real test questions and brushing up on volumes on the knowledge of everything,
important natural science topics in a good college- from plants to the heavens and politics.
level textbook will build your confidence and lessen Euclid (325–270 BCE) accomplished major work
your test anxiety. in geometry.
Archimedes (287–212 BCE) discovered the law of
buoyancy and density, legend has it, during a
II. Main Topics bath, which allowed a king to verify the
amount of gold in a crown. He accomplished
A. History and Methods of Science major work in geometry and was first to
Everywhere you look in our present world, science is calculate the surface area and volume of a
evident, from the technology of medicine to our sphere.
understanding of how stars are made. Here you have
an overview of what science is and how it works. b. Originators of Modern Science
Nicholas Copernicus (1473–1543), Polish. His
1. Giants of Science book showed that the motions of the sun,
How did science begin? Who were the early discover- moon, and planets in the sky could be
ers of this way of exploring nature? It is important to explained by assuming that the planets go
look back and review some of these giants of around the sun and that Earth is a planet as
science. well. The book had so much influence that we
still talk about the “Copernican Revolution.”
Francis Bacon (1561–1626), English. He wrote
early books on how to do science, emphasiz-
ing experiments and inductive reasoning to
make generalizations.
226
Galileo Galilei (1564–1642), Italian. Galileo Sir Charles Lyell (1797–1875), Scottish. This
studied the swing of a pendulum, found that geologist championed “uniformitarianism,”
bodies of different masses fall at the same the idea that small constant changes over
rate, and distinguished acceleration from time created Earth today.
velocity. He first saw the moons of Jupiter Baron Alexander von Humboldt (1769–1850),
and craters on Earth’s moon. German. Baron von Humboldt was a geolo-
Johannes Kepler (1571–1630), German. Kepler gist and world traveler. The “Humbolt Cur-
described the laws of planetary motion and rent” off the west coast of South America is
declared that the paths of planets around the named after him.
sun are ellipses, not circles. Matthias Jakob Schleiden (1804–1881), German.
René Descartes (1596–1650), French. This father Schleiden contributed the cell theory for plants,
of modern philosophy invented coordinate which says that all plants are made of cells.
geometry (the x–y axis) and said “I think, Charles Darwin (1809–1882), English. Darwin’s
therefore I am.” book, The Origin of Species by Means of Nat-
Robert Hooke (1635–1703), English. Hooke ural Selection, started a new field of science,
published the book Micrographia, with evolutionary biology. He traveled extensively
detailed drawings of life under a microscope. in South America and discovered many new
He named the little units he saw in cork species both modern and extinct.
“cells,” which became the general word used Theodor Schwann (1810–1882), German.
in biology. Schwann contributed the cell theory for ani-
Anton von Leeuwenhoek (1632–1723), Dutch. mals, which says that all animals are made of
He perfected the microscope and made many cells, and coined the term “metabolism.”
discoveries, such as human sperm cells. Gregor Mendel (1822–1884), Austrian. Mendel
Sir Isaac Newton (1643–1727), English. Newton studied the heredity of pea plants, which led
discovered the law of gravity, discovered how to the modern science of genetics.
a prism splits light into colors, invented a Louis Pasteur (1822–1895), French. Pasteur
new form of math called calculus, and set invented biochemistry, discovered right-
forth the laws of motion (such as “every handed and left-handed crystals, worked
action has an equal and opposite reaction”). with yeast to prove that life only came from
Pierre-Simon Laplace (1749–1827), French. other life, and developed the germ theory of
Laplace applied math to the solar system in a disease.
new level of detail and correctly surmised Thomas Henry Huxley (1825–1895), English.
that the solar system was formed by conden- Huxley championed the theory of evolution
sation from a gas nebula. for technical and popular audiences and
became known as “Darwin’s Bulldog.”
c. Science Goes Full Tilt Lord Kelvin (1824–1907), Scottish. Kelvin made
James Hutton (1726–1797), Scottish. This new calculations on heat and analyzed the
“father of geology” realized the antiquity of history of Earth.
Earth. James Clerk Maxwell (1831–1870), Scottish.
John Dalton (1766–1844), English. Dalton was a Maxwell developed mathematical laws of
chemist whose theory of atoms explained electromagnetism, now known as “Maxwell’s
why elements combined into molecules in equations.”
constant proportions.
227
Dmitri Mendeleyev (1834–1907), Russian. James Watson (1928– ), American. Watson was
Mendeleyev discovered the arrangement of also a codiscoverer of the double helix struc-
elements in repeating sequences of proper- ture of DNA and is a leader in the Human
ties, and thereby created the first periodic Genome Project.
table of chemistry. He predicted new ele-
ments, which were, in fact, found. 2. Methods
Ernst Mach (1838–1916), Austrian. Mach was a What makes science special among ways of knowing
physicist who is honored by our use of the are its specific methods that uncover the truths of
name “Mach 1” for the speed of sound, nature in ways that can be repeated by anyone. For
“Mach 2” for twice the speed of sound, and example, after Galileo saw the moons of Jupiter, any-
so forth. one could look at Jupiter through a telescope and see
Sigmund Freud (1856–1939), Austrian. Freud them. Science does not accept any revelations said to
developed a theory of dreams and the be available only to visionary individuals.
unconscious.
a. Scientific Method
d. The Last 100 Years The scientific method is used in all branches of sci-
Albert Einstein (1879–1955), German-Swiss. ence to study the natural world. The method outlines
Einstein computed the size of atoms. He a series of five principal steps that scientists must
developed the special and general theories undertake in order to test and verify their ideas.
of relativity for light and gravity, respec-
tively. He also described the concept of Formulate the problem: Develop a question, the
four-dimensional space-time and made solution to which explains an order or process in
famous the equation E = mc2, which nature.
describes the relationship between energy Collect data: Research background informa-
(E) and mass (m). tion and make observations that are related to the
Alfred Lothar Wegener (1880–1930), German. problem.
Wegener proposed that all continents were Form a hypothesis: Develop an educated guess
once a single large one and had drifted apart based on your observations and background
in a “continental drift.” research that will answer the question. The hypoth-
Niels Bohr (1885–1962), Danish. He described esis must be logical and testable—experiments must
the Bohr model of the atom, in which elec- be possible that can disprove the hypothesis.
trons orbit around a nucleus like planets Do experiments: Conduct experiments to test
around the sun. the hypothesis. A hypothesis can be disproved, but
Werner Karl Heisenberg (1901–1976), German. never absolutely proved—it may change with new
Heisenberg developed the uncertainty prin- evidence! Experiments must be repeatable, free of
ciple of quantum physics. bias, and adequately controlled.
Erwin Schrödinger (1887–1961), Austrian. Analyze the data: Look at the results of your
Schrödinger developed wave mechanics to experiments and determine if they are consistent
explain the structure of atoms. with your hypothesis. If not, develop a new hypoth-
Francis Crick (1916–2004), English. Crick was a esis that is consistent with all available data. Begin the
codiscoverer of the double helix structure scientific method again with this new hypothesis!
of DNA.
228
Successful hypotheses lead scientists to make pre- Hypothesis and theory: In everyday language, the
dictions about the natural world that allow the word theory is often used to imply that something is
hypothesis to be tested further. only believed, but not yet proven. However, to scien-
tists, a theory is a set of well-substantiated observa-
b. Conducting Good Experiments tions and explanations for something. A scientific
Experiments are tests designed to evaluate a hypoth- theory is accepted as fact and is based on scientific
esis. In a good experiment, only one variable is observations.
changed at a time and all other variables are kept The process of experiment is cyclic. That is, the
constant—this is to ensure that any change is a result experiment leads to new ideas for further experi-
of only that variable. Often in an experiment, two ments. The cycle of the scientific method is repeated.
systems are compared where in one system nothing
is changed (the control), and in the other, the aspect c. How Truth Is Forged
to be tested is altered (the formal experiment). The The ancient Greeks never formalized the process of
results of the two systems are then compared. experimentation in the way that happened in
Europe after Galileo’s time.
Example: Louis Pasteur took two flasks of steril- Laws versus rules. When phenomena eventually
ized meat broth and configured their long necks so become explained, they become laws of science.
that air could go into both. But for one (the exper- This term is most appropriate in physics and chem-
iment), dust normally in the air was blocked. In the istry. Biology, in contrast, includes so many crea-
other (the control), the dust along with the air could tures and types of ecosystems that there are often
get in (as would usually be the situation, note that exceptions to the norm. Biologists refer to rules
the baseline is the control). instead of laws.
What determines scientific truth? The famous
In Pasteur’s experiment, he observed that the meat philosopher of science, Karl Popper, said that
broth spoiled in the control flask open to both air and experiments never prove; they only fail to disprove.
dust but not in the other experiment flask where dust He therefore said one should design experiments
was excluded. Experiments consist of independent with the aim to falsify. Popper’s concept has been
variables, which are usually consciously varied by the influential. So how is truth known? As more and
experimenter (in Pasteur’s case, the presence or more experiments fail to falsify a specific hypothe-
absence of dust). Experiments also have dependent sis, the hypothesis comes to be known as true.
variables, which, in our example, is state of the broth, Paradigm shift is a term coined by the philo-
which is affected by (and therefore is dependent sopher of the process of science, Thomas Kuhn,
upon) the independent variables. Often, experiments that refers to what happens when new scientific
are not a simple two-part system, but also include discoveries overturn an entire body of knowledge.
some variable that is shifted across a range of values, Einstein’s theories of relativity were a paradigm
to be compared to the control. shift.
If you were Pasteur, you might predict that using Reductionism occurs when smaller entities
a different kind of meat broth would give the same interacting as a system explain a phenomenon.
results, thus confirming the original experiment. Holism is sometimes contrasted to reductionism—
More remarkably, you might predict the existence of it looks to the context, the larger system surround-
small, invisible organisms in the dust of air as the ing the phenomenon being studied, as key to the
cause of the spoiling of the meat broth (microbes in explanation.
air were in fact discovered).
229
Truth changes as science progresses. Does that ment. For example, the Egyptians knew how to lay
mean that anything goes, or that anything is possi- out right triangles to measure areas of land and to site
ble? All scientific truth is tentative, but not arbitrary. the pyramids. The word geometry comes from
Truth is won by many practitioners, checking each ancient Greek, meaning “Earth-measurement.”
other’s results and trying new ideas for experiments,
over and over. a. Units Are Crucial
Two types of units are used in the world: the metric
d. Graphs, Calculations, and Models system and the English system (used only in the
Detailed data from experiments are often plotted as United States). The units in the English system
points or lines on graphs with x- and y-axes. include pounds, quarts, feet, inches, miles, and
degrees Fahrenheit. The metric system, used by
x-axis: the horizontal axis that, by convention, most of the world and by scientists, is the universal
varies along the numerical range of the inde- language of science. Here are some units in the met-
pendent variable (either time or some other ric system, which uses factors of ten smaller or
property being changed by the experimenter, larger to develop the names.
such as temperature). Length: meter (m)
y-axis: the vertical axis that contains the result micrometer (µm), also called a micron
being measured, which is called the dependent (.000001 m)
variable. millimeter (mm) (.001 m)
centimeter (cm) (.01 m)
Three-dimensional graphs are graphs that use kilometer (km) (1,000 m)
two horizontal axes for two independent variables Time: second (s). Time in the metric system
(x,y) and a vertical axis called the z-axis for the does not use factors (or powers) of ten,
dependent variable. except for units under a second (hundredths
Calculations are crucial to science. Important of a second, milliseconds, microseconds, and
tools are measurements, which then might be ana- so forth).
lyzed by algebra (to relate variables), calculus (to minute (min.)
look at changes in time and changes in rates of hour (h. or hr.)
processes in time), and statistics (to look at large day (d.)
amounts of data that have inherent variability). year (y. or yr.)
Models are conceptual or mathematical systems
that serve as explanations for phenomena. Models Note that there is another “second” in use as well.
can be simple, such as Copernicus’s model of the Consider: For degrees latitude and longitude, the
solar system. But usually the term model refers to 360° of the circle is divided into smaller units called
conceptual systems that are more complex, such as “minutes” (60 to each degree, note this is not a
today’s computer models of the weather that minute of time) and “seconds” (60 seconds to a
include hundreds of equations. minute of degree).
3. Measurements Mass: gram (g)

Measurements are so important to science that a micrograms (µg) (.000001 g)
practitioner once said, “the only things that count are milligrams (mg) (.001 g)
things that can be counted.” This may seem like a gram (g)
stretch, but it captures the importance of measure- kilograms (kg) (1,000 g)
230
metric tons (t; 1,000 kilograms to a tific equations. You do not have to memorize the
metric ton) numbers, but you should be familiar with the exis-
Volume: liter (L) tence and use of these constants.
milliliters (mL) (.001 L) Avogadro’s number (Na or n): In one mole of
the cubic meter (1,000 L = 1 m3) any element, there is an Avogadro’s number of con-
Temperature: The degree Centigrade (°C, some- stituent particles (usually atoms or molecules). This
times also called degree Celsius). An interval number can also be used for the number of mole-
of one degree C is 95 times larger than the cules of a substance in a chemical mix.
interval of one degree F. To convert the NA = 6.022 × 1023 mole–1
numerical scale of °F into the numerical scale Speed of light in a vacuum (c): 3.0 108 ms.
of °C, use the equation x °C = 59(y °F – 32). Universal gas constant (R): used to relate pres-
The freezing point of water is 0 °C or 32 °F. sure, temperature, and volume of a gas in the gas law.
Energy: The joule (J), or calorie (cal); 1 cal = J L × atm
R = 8.314 mol × K
or 0.08206 mol × K
4.184 J. Note that 1 calorie of energy in food
Stefan-Boltzman constant (): used to relate the
(Cal) is actually a kilocalorie of energy in the
energy of radiation of a material body (say, the sun)
metric system. Therefore, 1 Cal = 1,000 cal =
to its surface temperature.
1 kcal. Also, power is energy summed over J
time. Therefore, another term for energy is = 5.67 × 10–8 2 −4
s × m × K
the kilowatt-hour (kW-h) [or joule second
(J.S.)]. You Should Review
Power: watt (W)
■ major scientists
milliwatts (mW)
■ major experiments and findings
kilowatts (kW)
■ units of metric system
■ powers of ten
b. Powers of Ten and Constants
Powers of ten with prefix names in the metric system:
Questions
10–12 pico (p), one-trillionth
10–9 nano (n), one-billionth 1. Who wrote The Origin of Species by Means of
10–6 micro (µ), one-millionth Natural Selection, which established the theory
10–3 milli (m), one-thousandth of evolution?
10–2 centi (c), one-hundredth a. Charles Darwin
103 kilo (k), thousand b. William Gilbert
106 mega (M), million c. Aristotle
109 giga (G), billion d. René Descartes
1012 tera (T), trillion
1015 peta (P), quadrillion 2. If you are measuring how water chemistry
changes in a river in the days after a flood, the
Constants: Relating properties in the calcula- time measurement is the
tions of science has resulted in universal constants a. independent variable.
for major laws. These constants are units that work b. independent constant.
out to multiply the other properties in a way that c. dependent variable.
makes the total units equal on both sides of scien- d. dependent constant.
231
3. The prefix tera- refers to which unit in the 8. Which sequence best described the sequence of
metric system? the classical scientific method?
a. thousand a. experiment, prediction, idea, hypothesis
b. trillion b. idea, experiment, hypothesis, prediction
c. ten thousand c. prediction, idea, hypothesis, experiment
d. three d. hypothesis, prediction, idea, experiment
4. This codiscoverer published one of the giant 9. How many milliwatts are in 10 watts?
papers in the history of science in 1953 on the a. 10,000
double helix structure of DNA. b. 1,000
a. Albert Einstein c. 100
b. Francis Crick d. 10
c. Ernst Mach
d. Niels Bohr 10. What famous equation did Einstein write?
a. F = ma
5. Mathematics provides science with analytical b. E = mc2
tools. The branch of mathematics that deals c. PV = nRT
with changes in the rates of changes of d. A = r2
variables over time is
a. algebra.
b. calculus.
c. statistics.
d. tensor analysis.
6. To compute the number of molecules in 2

moles of oxygen gas, you would use
a. Avogadro’s number.
b. Einstein’s speed of light.
c. the Stefan-Boltzman constant.
d. Planck’s constant.
7. Who discovered the circulation of the blood?

a. Galileo
b. Archimedes
c. Schleiden
d. Harvey
232
Answers 9. a. Because there are 1,000 milliwatts in one

watt, in 10 watts there are 10,000 milliwatts.
1. a. Darwin’s world-shaking book on evolution 10. b. E = mc 2 computes the energy (E) inherent in
was published in England in 1859. William mass (m) itself, which is multiplied by one of
Gilbert (1544–1603), also English, theorized the important constants of physics, the
correctly that Earth was a giant magnet, speed of light (c), which is squared in this
thereby explaining why compass needles case. The equation in choice a was written
work as they do. See pages 226–227 for the by Newton. The equation in choice c is the
others. universal gas law. The equation in choice d is
2. a. The independent variable in this case is for the area of a circle.
time, because that is what is changing by
itself. On the other hand, the river B. The Cosmos
chemistry is the dependent variable, 1. First Billion Years of the Universe
because it is changing as a function of time. It is believed that our universe began with an event
Choices b and d are made up. called the Big Bang, which was followed by the for-
3. b. The prefix tera- refers to trillion. For mation of galaxies about a billion years later.
example, a teragram is a trillion grams. The Big Bang theory is a set of explanations for
4. b. Francis Crick not only discovered the how the universe began. It states that the universe
double helix structure of DNA, but also was once very small and densely compacted. The
went on to figure out the genetic code that theory goes on to explain that about fourteen bil-
coded for amino acids that are assembled lion years ago, the universe began expanding out-
into proteins. He died in 2004. See page 228 ward, and it continues to expand outward today.
for the others.
5. b. Calculus can take derivatives of variables, a. Evidence for the Expanding Universe
which gives rates of changes in the variables. In the 1920s, American astronomer Edwin Hubble
6. a. Avogadro’s number is a unit of the specific measured the distances to a number of galaxies and
number of atoms or molecules found in one their spectra of light, which provided crucial evi-
mole of a substance. dence that the universe is expanding.
7. d. William Harvey (1578–1657) was an Spectra: All elements, if above 0 K (absolute zero
English physician who discovered that on the Kelvin scale of temperature, which is approx-
blood makes a closed circuit around the imately –273°C), glow at particular wavelengths.
body. See pages 226–227 for the others. These are along different wavelengths of the elec-
8. b. First, you have an idea. Then, you create an tromagnetic (EM) spectrum, which spans from the
experiment, derive an hypothesis of why the very long wavelengths of radio waves to the ultra
experiment worked (or did not work), and, short wavelengths of X-rays. The wavelengths that
finally, make predictions, which then lead to our eyes see are called visible light. Visible red has a
other experiments. Language can be tricky, longer wavelength than blue. The particular wave-
because “idea” and “hypothesis” can have lengths for each element form patterns, which are
similar meanings. However, the sequences characteristic of that element, and which might be
in the other answer choices do not make called photon-prints, after the patterns of the EM
sense. photons. As the numerous EM emissions from a
star pass through gases that contain particular ele-
233
ments, elements also absorb wavelengths in their the same masses. The key point is that when particles
characteristic patterns. Thus, both emission spectra and antiparticles meet, they explode into pure
and absorption spectra can provide astronomers energy, in an amount dictated by Einstein’s famous
with information about the elements in outer space. equation E = mc 2. We know that antiparticles exist
Hubble’s Observations: By examining spectra, because they can be made in high-energy physics
Hubble found that compared to the photon-prints experiments.
of elements on Earth, those elements found in the In the early universe, there was an imbalance
galaxies of deep space are shifted toward the red; in between matter and antimatter, to the extent of
other words, the wavelengths are longer. This could about one part in 200 million. Therefore, in the
only occur if the galaxies were moving away from matter-antimatter annihilation, only one part in
Earth. (If the galaxies were moving toward us, the 200 million remained as matter, and the rest
shift in the wavelengths of the patterns would have became energy.
been toward the blue, which was not observed.) At one second: The universe was about a billion
Hubble had discovered the expanding universe. degrees K. This was “cool” enough for protons, neu-
By extrapolating the expansion back in time, trons, and electrons to exist as stable particles,
astronomers concluded that the expansion started which physicists call “subatomic” particles because
with a single explosive event known as the Big Bang. they are basic constituents of atoms.
If all galaxies are moving away from us, does that Note that the proton by itself is the nucleus of a
imply that we are at the center? No, because inhab- hydrogen atom.
itants of any galaxy would also observe that they
appear to be at the center. It is like raisins in an c. Formation of First Atoms
expanding raisin cake. To each raisin, all the others At around 300,000 years after the Big Bang, the tem-
are moving away. perature of the universe had dropped to about
We can look back in time as we look out into 3,000 K (close to the temperature of our sun’s sur-
space, because the light reaching us was emitted face). This was cool enough for electrons to remain
long ago. Because the speed of light is finite (fast but bound to nuclei (of protons and neutrons), thus cre-
finite), the light from stars in our own galaxy hun- ating atoms. (In contrast, at hotter temperatures, elec-
dred of thousands of years ago or stars in other trons are stripped off nuclei, and atoms cannot exist.)
galaxies billions of years ago is just now reaching us. Astronomers talk about this event by saying that
“the universe became transparent.” Before this
b. The Big Bang point, freely moving electrons (in the state of mat-
The Big Bang occurred about 13.7 billion years ago ter known as plasma, a kind of matter-energy “fog”)
(with an uncertainty of a few hundred million years). blocked the propagation of electromagnetic radia-
At one microsecond (following the Big Bang): The tion such as light. This crucial event separated mat-
universe as a whole had a temperature of about a ter and energy. Except for small amounts absorbed
trillion degrees K. Matter as we know it, as stable over time by interactions with matter, this ongoing
atoms, does not exist at this temperature. energy has been traveling throughout the universe
Between the first microsecond and one second: Mat- ever since, stretching and cooling with the ongoing
ter and antimatter nearly annihilated each other. expansion.
Antimatter is a form of matter that is the mirror In 1965, this radiation was detected. It is called
opposite of matter in all aspects. For a positively the cosmic background radiation. Its temperature,
charged particle, for example, the antiparticle is neg- which represents the average temperature of the
atively charged. Particles and their antiparticles have current state of the universe, is 2.7 K, very close to
234
absolute zero. (Locally, places like Earth and the sun, a. Nuclear Fusion
of course, are much hotter.) Stars are hot and are able to emit radiation into
At this point of formation of atoms, both the- space because of fusion reactions deep within their
oretical calculations and actual measurements have cores. Nuclear fusion is a type of nuclear reaction in
shown that matter consisted of 76 percent hydrogen which the nuclei of relatively light atoms combine
and 24 percent helium, with a trace of lithium. No to form a heavier atom. In the process, tremendous
other elements existed. amounts of energy are given off. For atoms from
hydrogen up to the atomic weight of iron, energy is
d. Formation of Stars and Galaxies released when atoms are fused to make larger
Stars and galaxies formed between 1 million and a atoms. This is because the protons and neutrons
billion years after the Big Bang. Stars are created inside the nuclei of the larger atoms (again, up to
when gas clouds in space are pulled together by iron) contain less mass per subatomic particle and
gravity and condense. During the condensation, the therefore less energy according to Einstein’s equa-
gas becomes hotter and hotter. If the density and tion. The excess energy of fusion is released as heat
temperature are high enough, the protostar ignites and radiation.
and is sustained as a glowing star by nuclear fusion.
Stars exist within large, gravitationally bound b. Sequence of Births of Elements
groupings called galaxies. Our Milky Way galaxy Inside stars, the first element to be fused is hydro-
has about 100 billion stars, which go through births gen, the most abundant primordial element. Under
and lifetimes. In special cases, extremely large intense temperature and pressure, two hydrogen
masses can contract so much that light itself cannot atoms are fused into one atom of helium, releasing
escape; they are called black holes. Many galaxies energy and making stars hot, thus sustaining further
are believed to have black holes in their centers. Our fusion reactions. When the hydrogen is used up,
galaxy has a central black hole. helium is fused into carbon, and then the carbon
The contraction of the matter of the universe and some helium are fused into oxygen. All the ele-
into galaxies could only have occurred from some ments up to iron can be made in this way. Note the
initial lumpiness in the universe, which was pre- sequence of how elements are made: Hydrogen (H)
dicted to be still present in the cosmic background Æ Helium (He) Æ Carbon (C) Æ Oxygen (O). All
radiation. Satellites such as the Cosmic Background these fusion reactions release energy.
Explorer did indeed find such inhomogeneities,
which indicate differences in the distribution of c. Supernovas and the Dispersal
energy in space from the time the universe became of Elements
transparent. These differences are small, only + or Stars can run out of matter to fuel fusion; they can
–27 microdegrees warmer and cooler than the aver- “die.” Some stars die by throwing off gases, then
age 2.7 K, but they are a crucial confirmation for the wither into small, smoldering white dwarfs.
Big Bang theory. Our universe now contains about Very massive stars, on the order of ten times the
100 billion galaxies. mass of our sun, can create supernova explosions
at their deaths. One supernova, for example,
2. Birth of Chemical Elements in Stars occurred in our galaxy in A.D. 1066 and created
All elements heavier than the primordial triplet of what is now known as the Crab Nebula. Ancient
elements, primarily hydrogen and helium with a people observed this bright new star in the sky
trace of lithium, are created in stars. before it faded.
235
Supernovas are important parts of how our uni- reaches an atom that is perfectly stable. Lead-206,
verse works because they do two special things. for example, is the stable daughter-product of what
First, all elements heavier than iron (such as gold started as Uranium-238 (the numbers refer to the
and uranium) are made in the intense heat and atomic weights, or the number of protons and neu-
pressure of the supernova. Second, the supernovas trons in the atom’s nucleus). When molten or
disperse all the elements inside the former star out gaseous, the lead-206 is driven off; the radioactive
into space. We can see these elements in the emis- clock is thereby “reset.” We can use the clock to date
sion and absorption spectra in the regions sur- when rocks formed. The oldest Earth rocks are 3.9
rounding former sites of supernovas. In the dispersal billion years old, the oldest moon rocks 4.1 billion
of elements by supernovas, there are elements made years old, and most meteorites about 4.6 billion
earlier in fusion reactions during the long, ordinary years old. Because Earth and the moon would have
lifetime of the star, as well as the new elements made been molten even after they formed (see the fol-
only in the supernova itself. lowing paragraph), the date of the meteorites is
The elements dispersed into space can eventually taken to be the time that Earth condensed (4.6 bil-
gather into gas clouds and might contract, after lion years ago, or, rounded to the nearest half billion,
mixing with remnants of other supernovas, into about four and a half billion years ago).
totally new stars and planets.
c. Formation of the Moon
3. Formation of Earth Though it was once thought that the moon might
a. Age of Sun and Earth have condensed separately around the Earth, the
About five billion years ago, a gas cloud condensed following scenario is now known to be true (from
into the star that is now our sun, which has been multiple lines of evidence). A few hundred million
burning since that birth. years after the formation of Earth, a rogue body
Around the sun, the gas cloud condensed into about the size of Mars, which had an odd orbit
smaller bodies (picture small whirlpools of con- around the Sun, smashed into Earth. Material from
traction around a large, central one). What started both the colliding body and Earth flew off and con-
as dust grains coalesced into rocks, then boulders, densed around Earth to form the moon. The moon
then objects the size of mountains. By collisions and was much closer then and has been slowly moving
gravitational attraction, which held the bodies away from Earth ever since.
together, the objects grew. Sometimes, the collisions
created smaller bodies but, on the whole, growth in 4. Exploration of the Solar System
size ruled. Earth formed about 4.5 billion years ago. From the dawn of time, humans have looked up at
the stars. Only in the past half century have we been
b. Methods of Dating able to look back on Earth itself with satellite cam-
To date the formation of stars and planets, scientists eras and even human eyes.
use radioactive clocks. Very large atoms, such as
those of uranium, can have unstable nuclei. These a. From Satellites to Humans in Space
unstable nuclei restructure into nuclei that are Sputnik, which means “fellow traveler” in Russian,
slightly smaller by giving off radioactive particles was launched by the U.S.S.R. in 1957. It was the first
(there is also a kind of radioactive decay that only artificial satellite in orbit.
gives off energy). The new atom might also be Vanguard was the first U.S. satellite, launched
radioactive, and thus, the process continues until it in 1958.
236
In the manned U.S. space program, the Mercury flowed, and there was possibly a shallow ocean.
program put solo humans in orbit, the Gemini pro- Again, compared to Earth, the atmosphere of Mars
gram put teams of two into orbit, and the Apollo pro- is very foreign. The thin atmosphere (about 7% that
gram, with teams of three, aimed for the moon. The of Earth) is, like that of Venus, mostly made up of
first manned moon landing came in 1969. The Rus- carbon dioxide. There is only a faint trace of oxygen
sians had the first space station, called Mir (for and little nitrogen (the two most abundant gases in
“peace”), but eventually it could not be maintained Earth’s atmosphere).
and fell to Earth. The International Space Station, led
by the efforts of the United States, is currently in orbit, 5. Mysteries of the Cosmos
and every half year or so, there are changes of crew.
a. Dark Matter
Russia has supplied the rockets for these changes in
When astronomers use the law of gravity to com-
recent years, following the grounding of the U.S.
pute what the spin of galaxies (such as ours) should
Space Shuttles after the second total loss of a space
be, given the presence of a known amount of matter,
shuttle crew in 2003, during the Space Shuttle Colum-
they find that there must be a significant amount of
bia’s disastrous reentry into Earth’s atmosphere.
matter that is “dark,” or unseen and unknown.
The dark matter is about six times the mass of
b. Discoveries from Venus
the known, ordinary matter of stars and gas clouds.
Astronomers cannot see surface features of the
planet Venus because of its thick clouds. Several U.S.
b. Dark Energy
and Russian probes have measured properties of the
Certain kinds of supernovas explode with a fixed
Venusian atmosphere and even mapped the surface
real brilliance. Astronomers have mapped these
from orbit, using various wavelengths that can pen-
“standard candles,” and, knowing their real bril-
etrate the clouds. Despite its similar size to Earth,
liance, their apparent brilliance to us on Earth, and
Venus is very different. It is extremely hot, partly
their red shifts, can calculate their distances and
because it is closer to the Sun, but mostly because
ages. A startling fact has emerged, which has been
the atmosphere is about 600 times more massive
borne out by other lines of evidence as well: The
than that of Earth and consists mostly of carbon
expansion of the universe has been accelerating
dioxide. This amount of CO2 produces an intense
since the Big Bang.
greenhouse effect, keeping the planet hot. There is
What is causing the expansion? It is some kind of
no water vapor or oxygen in the atmosphere.
energy that we cannot currently see. It is therefore
known as dark energy.
c. Discoveries from Mars
Using Einstein’s equation E = mc2, any amount of
In the mid-1970s, the Viking probe successfully
energy can be computed as an equivalent mass.
landed on Mars and measured properties of the soil,
Therefore, scientists can ask about the amounts of
seeking signs of life. None was found, but scientists
dark energy, dark matter, and the universe’s third
now believe that there is a possibility for life in
constituent of known, ordinary matter and energy.
cracks in rocks, well beneath the surface. Unusual
Here are the results:
bacteria are found in similar sites deep under the
surface of Earth.
Dark energy: 73% (most of the substance of the
In 2004, the United States successfully deployed
universe)
two more rovers on the surface of Mars. They have
Dark matter: 23%
analyzed minerals and concluded, through multiple
Ordinary matter and energy: 4%
lines of evidence, that Mars was once wet. Rivers
237
c. Life and Intelligence Elsewhere Questions

Are we alone? The research program called SETI
(the Search for Extraterrestrial Intelligence) seeks 11. What feature of our universe is demonstrated
answers to this question. It assumes that other intel- by the “red shift”?
ligent civilizations might send out signals to space. a. an increase in supernovas
So far, no definite signals have been found. b. the contraction of black holes
By measuring wobbles in stars, which are caused c. the expansion of the universe
by planets circling the stars and perturbing the stars d. the decrease in gravity
with their gravity, astronomers do know that many
stars have planets around them. To date, this tech- 12. What of the following did not occur at about
nique locates only very large planets, assumed to be 300,000 years after the Big Bang?
similar to the gas giants of our solar system, Jupiter a. Matter was left over from matter-antimatter
and Saturn. More than 600 planets around other annihilation.
stars are currently known. The first stars of the uni- b. The universe became transparent.
verse could not have had planets of heavy elements, c. The first atoms formed.
such as iron. Early planets could not have had car- d. Electrons started orbits around atomic
bon, a crucial element for life as we know it. This is nuclei.
because iron and carbon are made in the fusion
reactions inside stars. Therefore, the density of car- 13. What is the current temperature of the
bon increases over time, as stars go through life- universe, as indicated by the cosmic back-
times and more stars form. Is there a critical density ground radiation?
of carbon needed for life? Perhaps we are alone (or a. 2.7°C
nearly so) because just around the time of forma- b. –2.7 K
tion of Earth the density of carbon reached a value c. –2.7°C
high enough to form life. This is a possible expla- d. 2.7 K
nation for our apparent aloneness, but more work
on the history and composition of the cosmos 14. In the stages of nuclear fusion inside stars,
needs to be done. which element in the list is the ultimate
building block for all the others?
You Should Review a. hydrogen
■ Big Bang theory b. helium
■ formation of stars and galaxies c. carbon
■ dating methods d. oxygen
■ supernovas
■ formation of Earth and moon 15. A supernova is observed in a star that is a
■ characteristics of planets in the solar system distance of 500 light years from Earth. That
■ discoveries from space exploration means we now see the star
■ dark matter and dark energy a. as it was 500 years in the past.
b. as it was 500 years after the Big Bang.
c. as it will be 500 years in the future.
d. as it is today.
238
16. We can date very old rocks because of what Answers

fact?
a. Uranium turns into platinum. 11. c. All galaxies have red shifts in the signatures
b. Uranium turns into lead. of elements in their spectra of light, which
c. Lead turns into uranium. shows that the galaxies are all moving away
d. Gold turns into uranium. from each other, and therefore that the
universe is expanding.
17. How did the moon form? 12. a. This event (matter left over from matter-
a. A large body crashed into Earth soon after antimatter annihilation) occurred less than
its own formation. a second after the Big Bang. Choices c and d
b. A gas cloud condensed around Earth at the are two ways of describing the same event,
same time Earth itself condensed. which happened at about 300,000 years
c. Early Earth was unstable and split into the following the Big Bang. Choice b describes
moon and what became Earth. what happened during atom formation,
d. The moon was captured by Earth early on. which also occurred during this time
period.
18. Which planet is about the same size as Earth, 13. d. K for Kelvin refers to the temperature scale
has a blanket of thick clouds, and has a surface that uses absolute zero as the “zero” point.
temperature that could melt lead? Note that it is written as just “K” not “°K.” You
a. Mercury can figure this out if you know that 0 K refers
b. Jupiter to absolute zero and that the average
c. Titan temperature of the universe is very close to
d. Venus absolute zero. Negative K makes no sense.
The choices a and c are too warm, given that
19. Which country was the first to launch a 0°C is about 273 K.
satellite? 14. a. Hydrogen is the building block for other
a. Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (U.S.S.R.) elements inside stars. It is the simplest
b. United States element, with one proton and one electron.
c. China 15. a. We see the star as it was 500 years in the
d. European Union past because light can only travel at a finite
speed (fast but finite, the c in Einstein’s
20. What is the main piece of evidence for dark famous equation). A light year is the
energy? distance that light travels in a year. When we
a. black holes found in the centers of most look out into space, we also are looking
galaxies back in time.
b. discovery of cosmic background radiation 16. b. Uranium, a radioactive element, decays and
c. rotations of galaxies not explained by our turns into lead, which is stable. The amount
known, ordinary matter and energy of a particular isotope of lead present gives
d. acceleration of the expansion of the the amount of time that has passed since
universe the rock formed, and any lead that was
present prior to rock formation would have
been purged while in a gaseous or molten
state during formation.
239
17. a. A large body crashed into Earth soon after which orbit the nucleus, bound to it by electrical
its own formation. From this collision, attraction.
material went into space and recondensed The nucleus also has parts: protons and neu-
to form the moon, in addition to restruc- trons. Protons are positively charged, and neutrons
turing the surface of Earth. This was after are neutral. Their masses are nearly (but not
Earth had already condensed. exactly) the same. The mass of a proton or neutron
18. d. Venus has a super-thick atmosphere of is about 2,000 times the mass of an electron.
carbon dioxide that creates high surface Quantum theory made the picture of the atom
temperatures. Choice c is not a planet but a more complete though more difficult to visualize.
moon of Saturn. According to quantum mechanics, the electrons do
19. a. The Union of Soviet Socialist Republics first not orbit the nucleus like planets around a star but
launched a satellite into Earth’s orbit. (This exist in spaces that are more like clouds of proba-
country has since broken up into a number bility. An electron can exist anywhere in its cloud
of countries, but the largest part of the (its range of possible places), popping in and out of
former U.S.S.R. is Russia.) Choice d, the existence in different sites within its cloud, which
European Union, did not exist at the time of fades out with distance from the nucleus.
the first satellite’s launch. The atoms of a particular element all have the
20. d. The existence of dark energy is evidenced by same number of protons in their nuclei (which
the accelerating expansion of the universe. determines the charge of the nucleus, thus the num-
We know this by measuring the distances to ber of electrons around the nucleus, and thus the
certain types of supernovas in distant chemistry of the element). But atoms of elements
galaxies, which serve as standard candles of can vary in the number of neutrons in their nuclei;
known brightness. therefore atoms of an element can vary in their
masses. Atoms of the same element that possess dif-
C. Basics of Matter ferent numbers of neutrons are called isotopes.
1. Physics
Example:
Physics is the study of the constituents and forces
Most atoms of the element carbon contain 6
that govern matter at its most elementary level.
protons and 6 neutrons in their nuclei. This is
carbon-12 (atomic number 6, atomic weight
a. Atoms
12). About 1 in 100 atoms of carbon have 6
The word atom comes from the ancient Greek ato-
protons and 7 neutrons in their nuclei. This is
mos, meaning “indivisible.” Atoms are the most
carbon-13 (atomic number 6, atomic weight
finely divided parts of matter that possess the char-
13). An even smaller fraction of carbon is car-
acteristics of a particular element, such as copper,
bon-14. It has 6 protons and 8 neutrons in the
gold, carbon, or hydrogen.
nucleus. Also, it is radioactive, which means it is
Atoms are not actually indivisible. Atoms not in
inherently unstable and will decay in the fol-
molecules or ions are electrically neutral and con-
lowing manner: One neutron converts to a pro-
tain equal amounts of positive and negative electri-
ton plus an electron that is shot out at great
cal charges. The positive charge is concentrated in a
energy from the nucleus (note that the electron
tiny central massive region called the nucleus. The
was created by the conversion—it was not “in”
negative charge is in one or more tiny electrons,
the nucleus.) This is beta decay, which is gov-
240
erned by the weak nuclear force. After beta Momentum is mass times velocity. A car travel-
decay, the atom is no longer carbon; it is nitro- ing at 60 mph has twice the momentum of a car
gen, with 7 protons and 7 neutrons, and is now with the same mass traveling at 30 mph.
perfectly stable. Other radioactive isotopes, Objects traveling not in straight lines but in
such as those of uranium, can decay in another curved paths have angular properties—angular
manner called alpha decay, when a bound par- velocity, angular acceleration, and angular
ticle of 2 protons and 2 neutrons (a He nucleus) momentum. In the governing equations one must
is ejected. also account for the change in the angle. Earth has
a huge angular momentum because of its huge
b. Quarks and Charges mass.
From the discoveries of quantum mechanics, pro- Forces can be static as well as dynamic. Pressure
tons and neutrons were found to be made of (for example, the pressure that exists inside a bal-
quarks. There are six flavors (types) of quarks loon blown up with air) is expressed as mN2 , a force
according to the Standard Model (the current per area on the inner surface of the balloon. But
framework used to describe elementary particles): once it is blown up, the balloon does not keep
up, down, top, bottom, charm, and strange. Com- expanding. This is because there is an equal and
binations of quarks make up some subatomic par- opposite force exerted by the stretched skin of the
ticles. For example, the proton is made of two “up” balloon and the outside air pressure. The balloon
quarks and one “down” quark. The neutron is made remains at the same size (except for slowly leaking)
of one “up” quark and two “down” quarks. Other because the two forces, from air and skin, exactly
combinations of quarks create other kinds of parti- balance each other.
cles in a quantum mechanical “zoo,” such as Electricity is an entire special topic in physics.
mesons. This zoo also contains chargeless particles Voltage is the difference in electrical force that
called neutrinos with a mass much less than that of can drive electrons from one place to another; the
electrons. unit is the volt.
Amperage is the actual amount of flow of elec-
c. Essential Concepts tricity, or electrons; the unit is the ampere or amp.
Velocity (v) is distance (d) covered per unit time (t): Resistance is the resistance to the flow of elec-
v = td. tricity, which varies among materials; the unit is the
Acceleration (a) is the change in velocity over an ohm. The watt (W) is the rate at which work is done
interval of time. It can be written as a = vt ( = dif- when 1 amp flows through an electrical force of
ference, or, in the terms of calculus, derivative). If 1 volt.
velocity is a change in position, then acceleration is Another important topic in physics is waves.
the change in velocity. Waves are characterized by frequency (cycles per
Newtonian concept of force (F): F = m a. It unit of time) and by wavelength (distance traveled
takes force to accelerate a mass (m). Honoring New- by one cycle). Amplitude (strength) is another char-
ton, the metric unit of force is called a Newton (N). acteristic. For example, sound consists of traveling
×
Its units are kg 2 m (the force it takes to accelerate waves of compression and expansion in air (or
s
one kilogram by one meter by second over the water). Light waves (standing waves) are electro-
course of one second). magnetic, which can travel in a vacuum.
241
d. Basic Forces molecules, which range from simple ions to com-

Physicists recognize four forces that are ultimately plex organic molecules.
fundamental.
a. Atoms and the Periodic Table
1. Gravity attracts two masses toward each The naturally occurring elements contain from 1
other. Newton wrote the main equation of proton (hydrogen) to 92 protons (uranium) in the
gravity, and Einstein’s general theory of rela- nuclei of their atoms. Elements with more protons
tivity more completely explained gravity as a have been made artificially in experiments of high-
warping by matter of space-time. The force of energy physics.
gravity obeys an inverse-square law: the The electrons around each nucleus fill, in
strength of the force decreases as the square of sequence, what are called shells. These shells, and
the distance from the source increases. the number of electrons in them, determine the
2. Electromagnetism (EM) is the force that chemical properties of the elements, such as crys-
exists between charged particles. It is attrac- tal geometry, electrical conductivity, and, most
tive when the charges are opposite (positive importantly, their bonding properties with other
and negative) and repulsive when the charges atoms to form molecules.
are the same (both positive or both negative). The first shell can hold two electrons. The second
Electromagnetism holds atoms together—the shell can hold eight electrons (in two subshells of s
EM force in various forms is the secret to the with two and one p with six). The third shell can
chemical bond. The EM force, like gravity, hold 18 electrons (in three subshells of s with two,
obeys an inverse square law. Its main theoreti- three p with six, one d with 10, and so on). Things
cal formulation is in Maxwell’s equations. become more complicated as the elements move
3. Weak nuclear force, which has a very short into higher atomic numbers, with, for example,
range and is responsible for certain kinds of phenomena such as a lower subshell filling after a
interactions within the atom, governs a partic- more outer shell contains electrons. But basically, for
ular kind of radioactive decay called beta most of the chemistry we need to consider, the out-
decay, in which a neutron converts to a pro- ermost shell will have eight electrons when it is full.
ton plus an electron and antineutrino. (Note that the first shell only holds two electrons.)
4. Strong nuclear force is the major stabilizer of These shells of electrons, and the fact that shells
the atomic nucleus and governs interactions can be full or less than full, create cycles in the prop-
among the quarks that make up the protons erties of elements. For example, elements with full
and neutrons. Unlike forces such as gravity shells include helium, neon, and argon. These ele-
and EM that diminish with distance, strong ments are in the family of elements called noble
nuclear force strengthens with distance. The gases, which almost never combine with other ele-
more that quarks are separated, the more ments (they don’t need the other elements to create
strongly they are bound to each other. This is a full shell of electrons because they are already full).
why free quarks have never been observed. There is a tendency, driven by energy considera-
tions, for atoms to achieve complete shells of elec-
2. Chemistry trons. They may do this by either losing or gaining
Chemistry studies the interactions of atoms, how electrons, depending on which direction makes cre-
they form molecules, and the interactions of those ating the full shell “easier.”
242
For example, elements with one electron in an Chemical reactions can be expressed with chemical
outer shell will tend to give up that electron in a equations, in which the reactants are on the right
chemical bond with a different atom. Elements with side of the equation and products are on the left
seven electrons in the outer shell will tend to grab an side. By convention, chemical equations are written
electron in a chemical bond with another atom. An with an arrow taking the reactants into the state of
example is table salt, NaCl. By themselves, atoms of products.
sodium (Na) have one outer electron, whereas those Chemical reactions must be balanced according
of chlorine (Cl) have seven outer electrons. In to the law of conservation of matter: Matter can be
chemical contact, sodium gives up an electron to neither created nor destroyed. (Changes in the
chlorine, thereby both achieving full shells. They nucleus, for example, from nuclear fusion, nuclear
bond into a solid crystal (salt) of an alternating, fission, or radioactive decay, are not chemical reac-
three-dimensional lattice of Na ions and Cl ions. tions, which involve only the electrons of atoms, not
The outer shell that is chemically active by virtue their nuclei.) For instance, the number of atoms of
of this tendency to give up or gain electrons is called oxygen in the reactants has to equal the number of
the valence shell of atoms. atoms of oxygen in the products.
Depending on the strength of the tendency to Reactions can give off energy (exothermic).
gain or lose electrons and the “needs” of chemical These tend to occur spontaneously (but not
partners, chemical bonds exist in different types. instantaneously). Some reactions require energy
Ionic bonds occur when one element completely supplied from the environment—these are called
gives up electrons and the other element gains. An endothermic.
example is table salt, where the sodium atoms, hav- Many important chemical reactions are known
ing lost electrons, become ions with a positive as oxidation-reduction reactions. One element
charge (+1), and the chlorine atoms, having gained gains electrons (is reduced). A different element
electrons, become ions with a negative charge (–1). loses electrons (is oxidized). The word reduced
In another kind of bond, called a covalent bond, refers to the fact that the gain in electrons reduces
electrons are shared in pairs. In a covalent bond, the the oxidation state of the atom in the chemical com-
resulting atoms in the bond do not become ions, pound.
but they still can have a slight charge polarization. Acids are substances whose dissolution in water
The complexities of forces between atoms in chem- creates hydrogen ions (H+). Bases are substances
ical bonds and between molecules with charged sur- whose dissolution accepts hydrogen ions in water.
faces create other types of bonds, like hydrogen The pH scale is the measure of acidity or basicity
bonds and the bonds from van der Waal forces. that ranges from 0 to 14, with 7 being neutral, val-
ues below 7 being acidic, and those above 7 being
b. Chemical Reactions basic.
Chemical reactions occur when chemical reactants
change into products. Reactions can be as simple as c. States of Matter
salt dissolving its ions into water, or as complex as Solid: the state of matter in which atoms or mole-
two organic molecules brought together into a cules are bound tightly and move together as a unit.
larger one in the presence of an enzyme. In a chem- Some solids are mathematically regular in their
ical reaction, substances called reactants undergo a atomic structure (such as crystals). Other solids can
chemical change so that new chemical substances be more amorphous (such as coal).
are formed. The new substances are called products.
243
Liquid: the state of matter in which atoms or of carbon include diamonds, graphite, and the
molecules can glide past each other and are loosely recently discovered form of carbon in a hollow
bound but not attached to specific neighbors. How- sphere of 60 atoms called buckminster-fullerene, or
ever, in liquids, the molecules still have some degree “buckyball.”
of coherence to each other. Organic molecules are the stuff of life. Therefore,
Gas: the state of matter in which atoms or mol- organic chemistry is the chemistry of life itself.
ecules are totally free of each other. In air, for exam- There are important classes of organic molecules in
ple, the molecules of nitrogen and oxygen travel as living things.
independent units, only bumping into other mole- Proteins are organic molecules made from
cules (this bumping creates the gas pressure). smaller organic components called amino acids.
The different states of matter contain different Amino acids contain the element nitrogen. Enzymes
amounts of energy. The energy required to change and many structural parts of cells are all types of pro-
a substance from solid to liquid is called the heat of teins. Hemoglobin in our blood is a protein.
fusion (fusion here means melting). The energy Carbohydrates are organic molecules of carbon
required to change a substance from liquid to gas is in chains that are fairly short, with side groups that
called the heat of vaporization. The heats of fusion branch off the chains and consist of hydrogen and
and vaporization occur at constant temperatures, hydrogen-oxygen (hydroxy) groups. The chemical
depending on the substance. It requires energy to formulae for carbohydrates often look like they con-
heat water to the boiling point, but then more sist of carbon plus multiples of water (for example,
energy is needed—at that constant boiling point C6H12O6)—thus, the name carbo-hydrates. Exam-
temperature—to turn the water into steam. Only ples are sugars such as sucrose and lactose, and
after the water has become steam can more energy starch. The important structural molecule of
raise the temperature of the steam itself. These heats plants—cellulose—is also a carbohydrate.
of fusion and vaporization are unique for all sub- Lipids are very long chains of carbon atoms, with
stances, as are the freezing and boiling tempera- side groups that are primarily single hydrogen
tures. Water, for example, has a heat of vaporization atoms. Other side groups also occur. Examples of
of 549 calories per gram. lipids are the molecules in various kinds of oils (sat-
When temperatures are extreme (as in the center urated versus unsaturated). Lipids are crucial com-
of the sun), electrons are stripped from their nuclei. ponents of the membranes of cells, which all
The resulting state of matter is called a plasma (often, consist of complex lipids called phospholipids
plasma is called a fourth state of matter). because they have a phosphate group at one end.
Most lipids are insoluble in water.
d. Organic and Inorganic Molecules Nucleic acids, such as DNA and RNA, form
Organic molecules contain a reduced form of car- important coding molecules inside cells for the
bon, or carbon with a slightly negative charge from genetics of living things.
the stronger attraction (electron affinity) of elec- Inorganic chemistry deals with the chemistry of
trons in sharing with other atoms, notably hydro- everything that is not organic. This includes, for
gen. Carbon has four electrons in its outer energy example, the chemical reactions between simple
level, thus requiring four more to complete the shell charged ions dissolved in water, and the structures
of eight. Carbon can bond with itself in chains, a of crystals, with their different planes of cleavage.
virtually unique feature of its atomic structure (sil- Inorganic chemistry includes many kinds of reac-
icon also has this special characteristic). Pure forms tions among molecules in Earth’s atmosphere.
244
3. Energy matter. He had the equation for entropy put on his

gravestone.
a. First Law of Thermodynamics
In general, entropy will increase over time. Dis-
Work is force times distance and has the same units as
order increases. A hot cup of tea placed in an ordi-
energy. The metric unit of energy is the joule (J, there-
nary room will cool off. Its energy went into the
fore 1 J = 1 N . m). The unit is named after James
room’s air. Thus, the tea cooled off by many degrees
Prescott Joule (1818–1889), one of the founders of the
as the room warmed up a tiny amount of tempera-
concept of the conservation of energy.
ture (because it has a bigger mass). Because the heat,
In the first law of thermodynamics, energy can nei-
as energy, went from a more concentrated state (in
ther be created nor destroyed, but only transformed.
the tea) to a more diffuse state (in the room’s air),
One of the amazing discoveries in the history of
there was an increase in entropy of the tea-and-
science was the gradual realization that types of
room considered as a system. A concentrated
energy can be equivalent in value, which is the man-
amount of heat at a high temperature is not as
ifestation of the first law. How can the warmth of
degraded as a diffuse amount of heat at a lower tem-
our body or the strength of our arms come from the
perature. In fact, the unit of entropy is the heat per
food we eat? Joule discovered the mechanical calorie
unit degree Celsius, in other words, the °C . (Note
equivalent to heat—that, indeed, mechanical
from this definition that one calorie of heat at a
motion and heat could be put into equivalent terms
lower temperature has a higher entropy than one
as forms of energy. In heat, the unit is the calorie. In
calorie at a higher temperature.) A state of higher
the mechanical equivalent of heat, 4.18 J = 1 calorie.
entropy is a more disorderly and more degraded
One feature shared by all forms of energy is that
state of energy. These considerations are essential for
they can be converted into heat, or work.
the industrial world—for example, in the design and
operation of electrical power plants.
b. Second Law of Thermodynamics
Entropy can sometimes decrease. Energy can
All forms of energy can be converted to heat, but
become more useful (less degraded). For example,
heat cannot be converted to all other forms of energy
in plant photosynthesis, carbon dioxide and water
with equal efficiency. In a sense, heat is the most
are transformed into carbohydrates, which are
degraded form of energy because it is least convert-
food energy that we can eat. The carbon dioxide and
ible. This fact—that not all forms of energy are equal
water have a higher entropy than do the same atoms
in “quality”—led to what is known today as the sec-
arranged into the carbohydrate molecules. In this
ond law of thermodynamics.
case, entropy decreased, which is an apparent viola-
The key property of this law is entropy. This is
tion of the second law. But photosynthesis uses the
often taken to mean “disorder.” Indeed, there is a
solar energy of sunlight, which itself is a very low
relationship between the order of matter and its
form of entropy. One can compute the efficiency of
entropy content. Thus, a gas has higher entropy
photosynthesis, which is the efficiency of the con-
than a solid because compared to the molecular
version of solar energy into chemical energy of
chaos of a gas, the solid has atoms and molecules in
food. The wasted light (this waste is an unavoidable
relatively neat arrangements.
part of the process) goes off as heat from the plant.
Physicist Ludwig Boltzmann (1844–1906) worked
This heat is an increase in entropy. When we com-
out the relationship between entropy and the
bine the entropies for the two processes (1. some
number of states possibly occupied by a state of
part of the sunlight, along with carbon dioxide and
water, goes into carbohydrates in an entropy
245
decrease; and 2. the other part of sunlight goes into photon would be the X-ray. A low energy photon is
heat in an entropy increase), it turns out that the the microwave.
increase dominates. Electricity is moving electrons. In direct current
Local decreases in entropy have always been (DC, as from a battery), electrons actually move
found to co-occur with increases in entropy on a from the negative pole to the positive pole. Eventu-
larger scale, when more factors are included. There- ally, the battery becomes dead when the electrons
fore, some prefer to state the second law as the fact that can move have all done so. In alternating cur-
that in any process that transforms energy, the net rent (AC, 60 cycles per second here in the United
entropy of the universe always increases. States), electrons are vibrated back and forth, first
toward one direction in the wire, then toward the
c. Types of Energy other direction. They do not actually travel. We use
Heat (also called thermal energy), on a molecular AC for most power needs because it is safer at the
scale, whether for a solid, liquid, or gas, is the motion high voltages needed for long distance transmission
of molecules. In a solid, the atoms or molecules do not from power plants to individual homes.
go anywhere; they vibrate in place. In a gas, higher Nuclear energy is the energy inherent in the
temperatures mean faster velocities for the mole- nuclei of certain atoms. For example, nuclear
cules. As a cup of hot tea cools, the fast molecules of power plants use the nuclear energy of a uranium
the tea hit the molecules of the tea cup, which causes isotope (U-235), which can be split in a controlled
them to vibrate faster; these, in turn, come in con- chain reaction of nuclear fission. This source of
tact with the molecules of air around the cup, causing energy turns water to steam to spin a turbine, and
the air molecules to move faster. The air molecules thereby generates electricity. In the sun, the form of
that are faster collide into the slower ones, causing nuclear energy is nuclear fusion, in which hydrogen
them to move. Thus, the heat moves outward into is fused to helium with the release of energy.
the air as the cup cools. In addition to this conduction Work is formally defined as force times distance
of heat, heat can also move by convection, as when (w = F ¥ d). For example, to lift a heavy box from the
waves of air waft upward from a hot highway during ground is to do work. You exert a force, counter to
midday in summer. Heat can also move by radiation, that of gravity, to lift the mass through a distance.
which is why your hands held even to the sides of a Work has the same units as energy because work
campfire perimeter are warmed. requires the expenditure of energy. Where has the
Mechanical energy is the energy of motion (for energy gone? Some went into body heat as your
example, water in a waterfall that can turn a tur- muscles were used. Some went into lifting the box,
bine). As a very high quality (low entropy) form of now above the ground, and now a form of potential
energy, mechanical motion can be easily converted energy.
into other high quality forms, such as electricity. Gravitational and mechanical potential energy:
Light is an electromagnetic wave that travels in a There are many forms of potential energy, which
vacuum at the universal constant velocity, the speed usually means that energy is being held in a static
of light. The energy of an individual quantum arrangement of matter in some form, with the
packet of light in this wave (a photon) is higher for potential to be released and turned into some other
shorter wavelengths. Thus, a blue photon has form of energy, such as kinetic or electrical or heat
higher energy than a red photon, and an ultraviolet (thermal). An object lifted above the ground has
photon has even higher energy. A very high energy potential energy due to gravity. Potential energy also
246
resides in the mechanical tension of a pressed or 22. Which of the following is a true statement?
stretched spring. a. Velocity is the rate of change of time.
Chemical potential energy exists when two or b. Acceleration is the rate of change of
more substances are capable of undergoing a chem- velocity.
ical reaction that could potentially release energy in c. Velocity is the rate of change of accelera-
an exothermic reaction. One example is food and the tion.
oxygen in the air. That pair has the chemical poten- d. Acceleration is the rate of change of time.
tial to “burn” together and release energy. We do this
when consuming the food. Our cells convert the 23. A bicycle tire has air pressure inside it. Which
energy into other molecules that can store energy. concept in physics is the pressure most closely
This stored energy can then be used to construct the related to?
other molecules we need to live. a. energy
Kinetic energy is similar to mechanical energy b. momentum
and is called the energy of motion. It is proportional c. wave
to the square of the velocity of an object. d. force
KE = 12 mv 2 (m = mass of the object, v = velocity)
24. Which force gets stronger as the distance
You Should Review increases?
■ laws of motion, gravitation, momentum a. strong nuclear force
■ light and magnetism b. gravity
■ electricity c. weak nuclear force
■ structure of the atom d. electromagnetism
■ periodic table
■ chemical bonds 25. When a sodium atom gives up an electron to
■ forms of energy enter into an ionic bond with chorine in table
■ first and second laws of energy thermodynamics salt, it does so because
a. it requires a electrical charge of +1.
b. it requires an electrical charge of –1.
Questions c. it creates a negative potential energy.
d. it achieves a full electron shell.
21. Which variant of the most common type of
atom of an element has a different number of 26. Dissolving H2SO4 in water creates an acid by
neutrons in the nucleus? increasing the
a. epitope a. sulfate ions.
b. isotope b. water ions.
c. moletope c. hydrogen ions.
d. entrope d. oxygen ions.
247
27. Which organic molecule contains nitrogen? Answers

a. carbohydrate
b. lipid 21. b. Epitope refers to cell biology; the others are
c. cellulose nonsense words.
d. protein 22. b. Velocity is a change in distance; acceleration
is a change in velocity.
28. What is the first law of thermodynamics? 23. d. Pressure is, in fact, a force, usually expressed
a. Matter can be neither created nor destroyed, as force per unit of area (force per square
but only transformed. inch or force per square centimeter, in the
b. Energy moves from higher forms to lower case of the tire).
forms. 24. a. The strong nuclear force exhibits this
c. Energy can be neither created nor counterintuitive behavior.
destroyed, but only transformed. 25. d. The sodium atom has 1 electron in its
d. Matter moves from higher forms to lower outermost shell; by losing 1 electron, it
forms. achieves a full shell (the next innermost one
was already full). The sodium atom achieves
29. It is a fact that heat leaving a teacup never goes an electrical charge of +1, which is the
back in. Some have called this the “arrow of result of, not the reason for, giving up an
time.” This concept is most closely related to electron.
a. energy. 26. c. Hydrogen ions come directly from putting
b. entropy. H2SO4 into solution.
c. reactions. 27. d. The amino acids that make up proteins all
d. expanding universe. have nitrogen atoms in them. Cellulose is a
form of carbohydrate.
30. Moving electrons are best described as 28. c. Thermodynamics covers the properties of
a. electricity. energy, and the first law is about the
b. heat. conservation of energy.
c. kinetic energy. 29. b. In the teacup example, even though it
d. light. involves the transfer of energy, the
governing rule is the law of the increase in
entropy.
30. a. Electricity is electrons in motion.
D. Evolution and Life

1. Origin of Life
Life on Earth has persisted for nearly four billion
years. How did it begin?
a. Formation of Organic Molecules

In 1953, a Nobel Prize–winning experiment by
Harold Urey and Stanley Miller created organic mol-
ecules by passing a spark through a mixture of gases,
248
such as methane and ammonia, which are presumed molecular vesicles that became protocells, within
constituents of an early Earth atmosphere. Zapping which ran self-perpetuating chemical reactions, a
inorganic molecules with energy—a possible analogy step on the way to real life.
to lightning in ancient Earth’s atmosphere—could The details of how the origin of life went from
create certain constituents for life. simple organic molecules, perhaps enclosed in
Other possible sources of organic molecules are membranes, to real cells with the genetic machinery
space, because organic molecules do occur in cer- of proteins and DNA are still unknown. Many sci-
tain types of meteorites, and deep sea vents, where entists claim that RNA served as the first genetic
raw chemicals from inner Earth provide a source of material and was only later supplanted by DNA, at
materials and chemical energy. which time RNA then took on the role of helper
molecule in that machinery.
b. Concentration of Organic Molecules
To form life, organic molecules need to be concen- d. Evidence in the Rocks
trated. Darwin had the concept of a warm, little pond Evidence for early life is of two types.
as a site for the origin of life. Lagoons that periodi- An isotope of carbon, carbon-13, is set in a spe-
cally flooded and then dried up might have concen- cial ratio to ordinary carbon-12 when carbon
trated organic molecules during the dry stages. passes through living metabolisms. Some evidence
Scientists are not sure of the temperature of early of this isotopic signature of early life has been found
Earth at the time of the formation of life. Some say in rocks as old as 3.9 billion years old.
that early Earth was cold enough for ice to at least Scientists (micropaleontologists) find ancient
occasionally form, and the freezing of water, which rocks, slice them, and look through a microscope to
excludes any organic molecules present, could have seek direct visual evidence of cells. There are indi-
concentrated organic molecules at the surfaces of ice. cations of cells in rocks from 3.5 billion years ago.
Clay minerals are complex, and some scientists To gain clues to the origin of life, scientists seek
have suggested clay as a template for the concentra- organisms generally known as extremophiles across
tion, and even organization, of organic molecules Earth. These are bacteria or archaea adapted to (and
into more complex networks on the way to life. requiring) extreme conditions of acid or tempera-
As a possible source of organic molecules, deep ture to live (acidophiles, thermophiles, and others).
sea vents are also candidates, due to their necessary
concentration. In fact, in recent years, various lab 2. Recipe for Evolution
experiments have increased the odds that the
a. Inheritance, Variation, and Selection
vents—with hot water rich in minerals and abun-
Inheritance is when organisms in each generation
dant complex minerals—were sites of key steps in
share many of the same features as their predeces-
the origin of life.
sors because the DNA is copied from parent to off-
spring.
c. Membranes
Variation: Often, offspring are not exactly like
All cells today have membranes that separate inside
the parents. Variation is key because this serves as
from outside and regulate the exchange of matter
the raw material that can be molded by evolution
and energy.
into new structures and types of creatures.
Organic molecules (lipids) from certain kinds of
Selection (natural selection) is defined as sur-
meteorites, when added in water, spontaneously
vival of the fittest. Not all offspring live long enough
form spherical vesicles (liposomes). According to
for themselves to put forth the next generation.
some, these gifts from space could have created the
249
Those that can withstand drought, or seek out food How is the genetic code translated? Triplets of
most efficiently, or run the swiftest, survive. The fil- bases are read off and code for single amino acids
tering process of death upon life selects certain (there are 20 of these). Amino acids are assembled
types of creatures to carry on. in chains that then fold into complex, bulbous
In summary, evolution is modification by natu- shapes of proteins. Many proteins are active
ral selection. The process repeats: inheritance, vari- enzymes, while others are structural. Enzymes
ation, selection. It operates over and over as facilitate the assembly of other types of molecules
generations roll along, and it has been doing so for through chemical reactions inside cells.
nearly four billion years.
c. “Blind Watchmaker” of Natural Selection
b. DNA and Mutations Before evolution was accepted, a story about a
The molecule DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) is key to watch found on a beach was used as a parable to
inheritance and variation. It is the famous double suggest the presence of a creator for all life forms. A
helix, with double strands of alternating sugar and watch, being so complex, obviously had a watch-
phosphate units, between which are set rungs of the maker. The scientist and master writer of evolution,
genetic code. The code is made of four bases: adenine Richard Dawkins, coined the phrase the “blind
(A), cytosine (C), thymine (T), and guanine (G). watchmaker.” Evolution creates wondrous organ-
Base A always pairs with base T, and base C always isms, even though there is no maker, and because the
pairs with base G. The double helix allows a way for process is “blind,” it doesn’t know where it is going.
DNA to make copies. In the copying process, DNA
unravels, and because of the rule of pairing (A-T, C- 3. Types of Cells
G), the code on both individual strands can be com-
a. Prokaryotes
pleted and each made double again, as the
Prokaryotic cells were the earliest type of cell. They
complementary bases are added rung by rung. This
are small and simple. The word prokaryote means
copying creates faithful inheritance.
“before” (pro) and “kernel” (karyote), signifying that
Mistakes, or mutations, in copying sometimes
the prokaryotes are single cells with no central “ker-
occur randomly. Most mutations are detrimental to
nel,” or nucleus. Prokaryotes have their DNA floating
the offspring. But some can be beneficial (for exam-
in the cytyplasm and do not contain membrane-
ple, a mutation might create a more effective pore in
bound organelles. Today, there are two types of
the cell membrane for the transport of nutrients
prokaryotic organisms: archaea and bacteria.
into the cell).
Prokaryotes reproduce asexually, primarily by
The simplest type is base substitution, in which
binary fission when the cell copies itself and splits
one type of base nucleotide is removed and a base of
into two idential daughter cells. Bacteria also have
another type is incorrectly substituted. In another
ways to exchange parts of their genomes with dif-
kind of mutation, entire genes can be duplicated
ferent bacteria of the same species, or even other
and put somewhere else into the DNA. If the origi-
species.
nal gene continues with its function, the duplicated
gene has the potential to mutate into what possibly
b. Eukaryotes
could be a new and beneficial structure or function.
Eukaryotes are larger cells that make up animal and
There can be insertions and deletions from sec-
plant matter and fungi. Some types of single-celled
tions of the code.
creatures, such as amoebas and paramecia, are also
All the types of mutations potentially serve as
eukaryotes. The word eukaryote means “good” (eu)
variation in the process of evolution.
250
and “kernel” (karyote), signifying that eukaryotic cells The chloroplast also came about from a symbiotic
have a central, membrane-bound nucleus, which merger between something like today’s cyanobacteria
houses the DNA for these complex cells. Eukaryotic (a type of photosynthesizing, chlorophyll-containing
cells also have other membrane-bound organelles bacterium). As in the case of the mitochondrion,
inside them, which support special functions for the most of the DNA from the symbiotic cyanobacteria
cells. All eukaryotic cells have mitochondria, which migrated into the genome of the larger host cell, but
are powerplant organelles that take food nutrients there still exists a remnant DNA for a few proteins
and create high-energy molecules used elsewhere in in the modern cell’s chloroplast. Again, the size of
the cell for various metabolic tasks. Plant cells have the chloroplast is also about right for the theory.
another organelle, called the chloroplast, which con- Because all eukaryotic cells have mitochondria
tains the photosynthetic machinery for the plant cell. but only some have chloroplasts, the symbiotic
Eukaryotic cells have internal structures, like wires event that created the mitochondria came first. Sci-
and tent posts, called, respectively, microfilaments entists do not know how the nucleus itself evolved.
and microtubules. These allow the big cells to take
on complex shapes (and even creep along as the d. The Universal Tree of Life
amoeba does). All life possesses DNA and much of the same
Eukaryotic cells can reproduce by mitosis (for genetic machinery. This is strong evidence that all
example, paramecia or our skin cells). In addition, current life shares a universal ancestry. In addition,
multicellular eukaryotes (animals, plants, fungi) all organisms manufacture proteins at cell sites
have sexual reproduction for the entire organism, called ribosomes, where amino acids are linked into
which uses meiosis to generate sex cells with half chains on the way to forming proteins. The ribo-
the genetic components (sperm and egg). some contains some structural RNA as a permanent
subunit. All organisms thus contain rRNA (riboso-
c. Cell Evolution by Symbiosis mal RNA). This rRNA varies from organism to
The eukaryotic cell evolved about two billion years organism because rRNA mutated over time. The
ago, at about the same time that Earth’s atmosphere closer in structure the rRNA is between two organ-
shifted from anaerobic (with virtually no oxygen) to isms, the more closely related they are.
a level of oxygen about ten percent of the current Scientists can construct a tree of all life, using the
amount. The eukaryotic cell evolved from a symbi- degree of similarity of rRNA as the metric to dis-
otic merger between a large prokaryote and a tinguish and group organisms. The rRNA tree of life
smaller prokaryote, which eventually became the reveals three major lobes: the eukaryotes, the
mitochondrion of the new, eukaryotic type of cell. archaea (a type of prokaryote), and the bacteria
Symbiosis means working together, and the two (another type of prokaryote). Eukaryotes most
cells that merged had specific ways to help the other likely gained some of their genetic material from the
(probably by sharing metabolic products). Eventu- archaea and some from the bacteria.
ally, this merger became permanent. Genes were The universal tree of life constructed from the
transferred from the small, embedded cell into the patterns of rRNA shows that most of the organisms
genome of the larger host. One strong piece of evi- near the trunk (prokaryotes living today that pre-
dence in support of this ancient merger is the fact sumably are similar to those that lived long ago,
that today’s mitochondria still have a remnant of when the tree was near its trunk stage in evolution-
useful DNA inside them. Also, mitochondria are ary time) are hyperthermophilic (they require high
about the same size as typical bacteria. temperatures). These creatures might indicate a
251
very high temperature origin for life. Such temper- c. Evolution of Trees and Fungi
atures would have occurred at the deep sea vents, or The Devonian period was a period roughly
possibly over the entire Earth. between 300 and 400 million years ago in which
new types of creatures emerged. Important adapta-
4. Multicellular Life tions made this evolution possible. For land plants,
The eukaryotic cells gave rise in evolution to true these developments included: (1) molecules such as
multicellular life forms: fungi, plants, and animals. cellulose and lignin that could give structure to
stems and trunks and lift plants up into the air, and
a. Earliest Evidence (2) vascular tissues in the stems, trunks, and roots
Evidence of the first multicelled creatures is obscure that could transport water and mineral ions up
because their soft bodies meant they were rarely from the roots to the photosynthetic parts (via
preserved as fossils. Scientists use fossil and genetic tubes called the xylem) and transport manufac-
evidence from the universal tree of life to estimate tured food downward from the photosynthetic
the date of the origin of multicellularity at about parts to the roots (via tubes called the phloem).
one billion years ago. That means that for nearly The fossil record shows that plants evolved from
three-fourths of the history of life, all creatures were tiny, moss-sized beings into tall trees over a period of
single-celled. about 20 million years. No flowering plants
Ediacaran fauna was an early type of multicel- (angiosperms) existed yet. Fossil evidence shows
lular life that lived about 600 MYA (million years that fungal cells (visible as microscopic fossils)
ago). Scientists named these strange, flat creatures occurred inside the roots of ancient plants. Appar-
found in many shapes and sizes after the Ediacara ently, these fungi lived in a symbiotic partnership
Hills of Australia, where their fossils were first with plants like some kinds of fungus do today.
found. Some scientists believe that the Ediacarans These fungi live as microscopic underground threads,
went extinct when predators evolved. called hyphae.
b. Cambrian Explosion d. Animals

The Cambrian explosion was the geological time What makes an animal an animal? One defining
period of ten million years that began around 540 characteristic is a blastula stage (a hollow ball of
million years ago, in which suddenly all kinds of cells) during early embryonic development.
animals with hard parts (which is why they were Vertebrates evolved in the ocean as fish.
preserved) “exploded” into the fossil record. The Animal life came ashore during the Devonian
hard parts—shells of various types—used calcium period as fishlike creatures with four legs
from ocean water. Except for the absence of verte- (tetrapods). Besides the legs, lungs were another key
brates, the Cambrian explosion formed most of the development for what became amphibians.
basic body plans of animals. The action was all To become fully terrestrial, vertebrates had to
underwater, with arthropods (such as crustaceans solve the problem of living in the desiccating air.
called trilobites) and bizarre creatures crawling on Reptiles became terrestrial with adaptations like a
the sea floor while others swam and sported formi- water-retaining amnion (sac) in their embryo stages,
dable jaws. Scientists have not yet determined the a waterproof egg, and a watertight skin of scales.
trigger for this blossoming of life. Mammals evolved around 200 million years ago
from mammal-like reptiles, which had split off as a
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branch of reptiles about 260 million years ago. Iridium only occurs at such large concentrations
Adaptations of mammals include hair and nursing in meteorites. This discovery pointed to a large
the young with mammary glands. impactor (comet or asteroid) as the source of the
iridium and the cause of the mass extinction 65
5. Mass Extinctions MYA. Such an object would have smashed into
In just the last 20 years, we have discovered what Earth at a speed of 20 km/sec and is estimated to
caused the extinction of the dinosaurs. The answer have been about the size of Manhattan (10 km, or 6
has given scientists new understanding into what miles, in diameter).
factors contributed to the story of life. A few years later, evidence from gravity patterns
revealed a crater buried under sediments in the
a. Origin of the Dinosaurs Yucatan Peninsula of Mexico. About 200 km in
Dinosaurs are a diverse group of animals that diameter (about the estimated size of the crater
diverged from early reptiles 220 million years ago. made by a 10 km object), it dates to exactly 65 mil-
An important adaptation in dinosaurs was a new lion years ago, the end of what geologists call the
kind of hip joint that allowed many early (and late) Cretaceous (K) and the beginning of the Tertiary
dinosaurs to run bipedally. Species of dinosaurs (T). A wealth of other types of evidence for the K-
came and went over the course of more than one T impact has been found, including material
hundred and fifty million years, until their sudden ejected close to the impact and shocked minerals, as
extinction 65 million years ago. well as chemical evidence for worldwide fires and
other environmental disruptions.
b. Evidence for Impacts from Space At the K-T boundary, 65 million years ago,
Objects from space occasionally strike Earth—evi- many other types of life also went extinct on all
dence includes the meteor crater in northern Ari- scales, all the way down to the plankton. One
zona and the Sudbury crater in Canada. The longer group of creatures survived that had been alive at
the time period between impacts, the greater the the time of the K-T extinction and were directly
chance of a devastating impact. (Small objects enter descended from the dinosaurs: birds. And, fortu-
Earth’s atmosphere every night, and burn up, i.e., nately for us, mammals also survived, probably
shooting stars.) On the moon and Mars, where lit- because the mammals back then were only the
tle or no geological change occurs, scientists see evi- size of rats and could weather the catastrophe in
dence of large impacts (craters). On Earth, as wind underground burrows.
and water shift sediments, and continents rise and
fall, most craters are buried or erased. d. End of Permian
Another large extinction occurred 250 million
c. End of Cretaceous and End of Dinosaurs years ago at the end of the Permian era that marked
In the 1980s, an unusually large amount of a rare the beginning of the Triassic (the P-T boundary). It
element called iridium (Ir) was discovered in a came just before either dinosaurs or mammals
centimeter-thick clay layer in rocks in Italy, dating existed, during an age of giant amphibians and early
from the time of the dinosaur extinction. This reptiles. Some paleontologists have called this the
anomaly of iridium was subsequently found all “Great Dying.” What caused it is not yet known.
over the world.
253
e. Other Mass Extinctions b. Many Species of Hominids

Species are always going extinct. But once in a while Australopithecus is the genus that evolved in Africa
comes a mass extinction, which we know from the after the hominids’ divergence with chimps.
fossil record. In some cases, scientists name climate Australopithecus afarensis is the species thought
change or large impacts as the cause. to be a human ancestor; the fossil named “Lucy”
Though the stories of individual mass extinctions represents this species and lived about 3.2 million
are still being assembled from field data, the discov- years ago. It had a brain size equivalent to the mod-
ery of the K-T impact and the mass extinction of the ern chimp’s (humans’ famed evolutionary brain
dinosaurs has given us new insight into how precar- growth had not yet begun), but the species stood
ious life on Earth has been and how evolution has upright, and its legs, feet, spine, pelvis, and skull
been subjected to random shocks from space. What were adapted to upright living. Some paleontolo-
if the impact had been larger? And what if it had not gists suggest that living upright freed the hands to
taken place? Before the dinosaurs went extinct, mam- carry objects (although there were no real stone
mals had remained small for over a hundred million tools yet), which then caused selective pressure for
years. In the millions of years following the demise of more braininess.
the dinosaurs, mammals evolved into a huge variety Homo is the genus of the modern human, which
of species, some of them as big as hippopotamuses evolved 2.3 to 2.4 million years ago. An early impor-
and elephants. In terms of evolutionary biology, the tant species in the genus Homo is Homo erectus,
mammals radiated. Without the K-T extinction, this which evolved in Africa but spread over wide parts
radiation would not have occurred. of the world, as far as China and other parts of Asia.
Most paleontologists think a closely related species,
6. Human Evolution Homo ergaster, is more likely our direct ancestor.
Compared to Australopithecus, the brains and bod-
a. Gorillas, Chimps, and the Hominid Tree
ies of H. erectus and H. ergaster are larger. Scientists
of Life
have found evidence that these early hominids used
The molecular clock, the rate at which certain pro-
some of the first stone tools—crudely chipped
teins mutate over time, has been used to date the
rocks—which were likely made for cutting meat,
divergences of evolutionary lineages of humans
scraping, and pounding.
from the great apes: orangutans, gorillas, and
There were other species of genus Homo in the
chimpanzees.
time between 500,000 to 200,000 years ago. Paleon-
tologists are still sorting out (and discovering) evi-
At about 12–15 MYA, the lineage leading to
dence. Some of these species reached Europe and
orangutans diverges.
evolved, by 150,000 years ago, into Homo nean-
At about 8–10 MYA, the lineage leading to
derthalensis, the Neanderthals. They were large and
modern gorillas diverges.
powerfully muscular, with brow ridges above their
At about 5–7 MYA, humans and chimps share a
eyes and slightly bigger brains than humans have
common ancestor. Many lines of evidence—
today. Though the word Neanderthal is sometimes
from morphology to genetics—show that
used to mean “dumb,” these creatures are consid-
chimpanzees are our closest living animal
ered intelligent. Why did they go extinct? Was it
relative.
from competition with our species? Was it climate
change? They did survive in Europe and Russia dur-
ing a deep ice age. Scientists do not know for sure.
254
Homo sapiens, the species of modern humans, versial by some because scientists are limited in
originated in Africa about 200,000 years ago. Homo studying the minds and emotions of ancestral
sapiens migrated from Africa into the Middle East humans. No other mammal species wages war—
and even shared land with Neanderthals in some although male chimps have been observed in simi-
cases. Over this span of human evolution, from Aus- lar behavior, forming a band to kill a solitary
tralopithecus afarensis to Homo sapiens, brain size individual in a competing band. Humans also coop-
increased about threefold. Human brains (relative to erate to an unprecedented degree. In a central
body size) are much larger than the mammalian aver- African jungle lives another kind of ape called the
age and enormous even for the brains of primates. bonobo. Unlike the male-dominated chimp, the
bonobo has a female-bonded society and uses sex as
c. The Creative Explosion a social lubricant. Chimps and bonobos diverged
A creative explosion occurred between about 60,000 genetically 2 to 3 million years ago, after their shared
to 30,000 years ago and included complex tool mak- lineage diverged from the lineage that led to
ing (using animal bones for needles, harpoons, and humans. Evolutionary psychologists study chimps
other craft items), clothing, and elaborate burial and bonobos to investigate how the behavior of
practices. An early sculpture from Germany shows humans may have evolved.
what seems to be a standing man with a lion’s head. The human brain contains an organ, called
Was this a shaman? Does this signal the birth of the amygdala, that senses danger and creates the
myths? (Some scholars claim we will find evidence emotion of fear. Humans share this organ with
for art even earlier, when the time period of other mammals and most vertebrates. But humans
100,000 years ago is examined more carefully in can also project into the future more than any other
Africa.) By 30,000 years ago, we have evidence of creature. We know we are going to die. Evolutionary
elaborate color paintings of animals deep within psychologists investigate whether this knowledge is
caves, usually featuring the animals that were linked with the origin of religion.
hunted. Were these the sites for rituals? For initia-
tion ceremonies? You Should Review
A find in the Ukraine, dated at about 15,000 ■ cell evolution
years ago, shows that the people constructed dome ■ prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
homes out of mammoth bones and probably cov- ■ major events of evolution
ered them with mammoth hides. Thus, they had ■ major adaptations leading to new kinds of
architecture. organisms
What was their language? Scholars tend to ■ steps in human evolution
agree that by the time of cave art and elaborate bone ■ mass extinctions
tools and carvings, language was used to educate the
young and to organize complex social dynamics. But
did language come even earlier? Was the creative Questions
explosion due to a final genetic advance, or was it all
cultural? Scientists do not yet have the answers. 31. The four bases of DNA are
a. ACEG.
d. Evolutionary Psychology b. CMEP.
Evolutionary psychology is the study of the evolu- c. TAGC.
tion of human behavior, and is considered contro- d. MGPA.
255
32. Considering the question of the origin of life 37. The most direct ancestor of the mammals
on Earth, which is NOT a possible source of was a
organic molecules? a. mammal-like amphibian.
a. dissolution of rocks b. mammal-like reptile.
b. lightning in the atmosphere c. mammal-like fish.
c. deep sea vents d. mammal-like crocodile.
d. meteorites from space
38. Which animal today is the direct descendant of
33. Which cell type has a nucleus? the dinosaurs?
a. bikaryotic a. ostrich
b. prokaryotic b. white shark
c. eukaryotic c. African lion
d. postkaryotic d. humpback whale
34. For what fraction of the span of life’s existence 39. About how many times larger are the brains
on Earth was life only microbial? of humans today, compared to our
a. 11 Australopithecine ancestors about three
3 million years ago?
b.
4
1 a. 2 times
c.
2
1 b. 5 times
d.
5 c. 8 times
d. 3 times
35. A lichen is a symbiosis between which two
organisms?
40. Which is the second oldest, relatively, in terms
a. animal-plant
of evolution?
b. algae-fungi
a. Homo erectus
c. plant-fungi
b. Homo sapiens
d. animal-algae
c. Homo neanderthalensis
d. Australopithecus
36. What was the mass extinction that ended the
reign of the dinosaurs?
a. Cretaceous-Tertiary
b. Permian-Triassic
c. Triassic-Jurassic
d. Carboniferous-Permian
256
Answers of Wegener’s clues to the drift was the fact that the
east coast of South America could fit into the lower
31. c. The four DNA bases are thymine, adenine, half of the west coast of Africa, almost like two puz-
guanine, and cytosine. zle pieces. Wegener also pointed to evidence in
32. a. Dissolution of rocks creates ions in water, South America, Africa, India, and Australia for ice
but this has nothing to do with actually sheets at about the same time (300 million years
forming organic molecules. All the other ago), which made no sense with the continents in
choices are definite possibilities. their present positions because some of these sites
33. c. Eukaryotic cells have a nucleus. The word are at today’s equator.
means “good (or true) kernel.” Modern geologists have evidence that continents
34. b. Life became single celled nearly four billion have shifted positions radically throughout Earth’s
years ago, but multicellular life did not history. For example, if molten rock (magma) is
evolve until about one billion years ago. slightly magnetic when it cools to become solid
Therefore, the time period over which life rock, it takes on the magnetic field of Earth, which
was only microbial was 34 of the total span depends on latitude. Rocks near the poles have sig-
of life. natures of ancient latitudes near the equator and
35. b. A lichen on a rock is a working partnership vice versa.
(a symbiosis) between a green algae and a
nutrient-gathering fungi. b. Seafloor Spreading
36. a. The Cretaceous-Tertiary event caused the In the 1960s, new lines of evidence supported the
extinction of the dinosaurs about 65 million idea of shifting continents, but the focus changed to
years ago. (This is also called the K-T the spreading ocean floor. Ships drilled and brought
boundary—K for Cretaceous, in geologist’s to the surface cores from the ocean’s rocky floor and
terminology.) analyzed them for periodic reversals in Earth’s mag-
37. b. Because fish evolved into amphibians, netic fields in the lava that came to the surface.
which evolved into reptiles, the ancestor of On both sides of the Atlantic Ocean’s mid-ocean
mammals was a mammal-like reptile. ridge, stripes showed times when Earth’s magnetic
Crocodiles came much later. field was normal and reversed. The ocean’s floor had
38. a. The ostrich, like all birds, is a descendent of been growing over time, and the Atlantic Ocean is
the dinosaurs. slowly increasing in size. This ocean floor was like a
39. d. Human brains are 3 times larger than those tape recorder of the history of seafloor spreading.
of our Australopithecine ancestors. The Atlantic Ocean spreads at a rate of 1–2 inches
40. a. Homo erectus came after Australopithecus per year (consider that rate over tens of millions of
but well before Homo neanderthalensis and years). They also analyzed the seafloor to find out its
Homo sapiens. age at various points outward from the mid-ocean
ridge. They saw that the seafloor is very young close
E. Earth Works to the ridge and gets progressively older moving
outward from the ridge in both directions. This
1. Continental Drift and Plate Tectonics implies that new seafloor is being created at the
a. History ridge and is spreading outward from the ridge.
In 1912, German scientist Alfred Wegener proposed Finally, scientists had a mechanism for continen-
that continents could move around, or “drift.” One tal drift. It wasn’t that the continents drifted, but that
257
they were moved by changes in the ocean’s floor. The Pacific Ring of Fire occurs because the Pacific
Seafloor spreading replaced continents drifting. Ocean is ringed by many plate edges. The famous
San Andreas Fault in California, which is the origin
c. Subduction Zones and Plate Tectonics of California’s earthquakes, is a plate boundary
If the Atlantic Ocean is growing, what about the where the two plates are sliding past each other, nei-
other oceans? Because Earth is a constant size, the ther subducting nor spreading apart. The towering
other oceans cannot also be growing. However, there is Andes mountain chain along the western coast of
a north-south underwater volcanic ridge in the Eastern South America has been lifted up by a plate plung-
Pacific that is spreading even several times faster than ing under South America from the west, putting
the Mid-Atlantic Ridge. Eventually, the solution was pressure from below to lift the mountains up.
found in the discovery of what are called subduction
zones. These are regions where ocean crust disap- d. Earth Over Time and the Geologic
pears by diving down into the depths of Earth, or Time Scale
subducting. The loss of ocean floor in subduction Earth coalesced from planetary materials brought
zones balances the creation of new ocean floor in together by gravity about 4.6 billion years ago
mid-ocean ridges. (BYA). Geologic time is divided into segments of
The modern theory of plate tectonics was thus various length, with eons lasting half a billion years
born. Earth’s geological activities have always been or more and eras lasting several hundred million
called tectonism. What about the term plate? years.
Think of an egg shell with patterns of cracks in it, The Hadean Eon (4.6–3.8 billion years ago) was
creating zones of the shell, and that’s the crust of the earliest eon and means “time of hell.” Earth still
Earth. Earth’s surface is divided into a number of experienced many bombardments from space
major plates. Sometimes, continents ride within the throughout this eon.
areas of the plates; sometimes edges of continents The Archean Eon (3.8–2.5 BYA) was when single-
coincide with edges of other plates. From some of celled life originated.
the edges of the plates emerge new ocean crust from The Proterozoic Eon (about 2.5 BYA–545 MYA)
mid-ocean ridges and seafloor spreading. Into was the time of the first great rise in oxygen and
other cracks, ocean crust subducts (the western evolution of eukaryotic cell about 2 BYA. Near the
coast of South America and the ocean trench end of the eon, multicelled life evolved. There is also
regions of the western Pacific are examples). Plates evidence for massive ice ages, which came close to
grow and shrink in size with the geological ages. covering the entire Earth in ice sheets.
Thus, continents shift positions. The Phanerozoic is the current eon, which can be
South America, Africa, and Antarctica were all further divided into eras. The Paleozoic Era
joined as recently as 200 million years ago. (545–250 MYA) started with the Cambrian explo-
Plate tectonics is an overarching theory that solves sion of life and by its end, plants had evolved into
many separate mysteries about geology. What made tall trees. Giant amphibians and early reptiles were
mountain ranges? Why do earthquakes and volca- the dominant life on land.
noes occur where they do? Why is there a “Ring of The Mesozoic Era (250–65 MYA) is subdivided
Fire” around the outer edge of the Pacific Ocean, a into three main periods called the Triassic, Jurassic,
ring with huge numbers of earthquakes and volca- and Cretaceous. The Jurassic was the reign of
noes? It turns out that earthquakes and volcanoes dinosaurs. The mass extinction at 65 MYA ended the
tend to occur at the boundaries between two plates dinosaurs’ existence and the Mesozoic period.
because that is where geological activity happens.
258
The Cenozoic period (from 65 MYA to today) is about 250 km thick, is a layer of the mantle called the
the age of mammals. The Pleistocene epoch (a sub- aesthenosphere. This is crucial because although it is
division of the Cenozoic period) lasting from 2.5 made of rock, the aesthenosphere can move like
MYA to 12,000 years ago, was the time of the growth putty over long time periods. The circulation of the
and then retreat of giant ice sheets in cycles of about aesthenosphere is one main factor in plate tectonics.
100,000 years each. During the height of the last ice When Earth’s crust enters subduction zones, the
age, for example, ice sheets a mile thick covered all material sinks back down into the aesthenosphere,
of Canada and extended as far south as New York melting and joining with the deep Earth material of
City. Sea level was 100 meters lower, and the ocean the mantle.
was therefore far offshore of its present location. At
the final deglaciation, about 10,000 years ago, geol- b. Lithosphere
ogists end the Pleistocene and start a new epoch, Lithosphere (literally “rock-sphere”), the upper-
called the Holocene (for “wholly recent”). Because most and lightest layer of the Earth, consists of the
humans are perturbing so much of the planet, there outermost crust and a thin upper part of mantle.
has been the suggestion that we have inaugurated Below the lithosphere, the rock is malleable (the
what should be called a new epoch, perhaps the putty of the aesthenosphere). The lithosphere itself,
“anthropocene,” the “human-made recent.” being cooler, is brittle. The border between litho-
sphere and aesthenosphere is defined by this change
2. Earth’s Layers in behavior of the rock, from brittle to malleable.
The crust under the ocean’s water is thin, about
a. Core and Mantle
10 km deep.
When Earth formed 4.6 billion years ago, the heat
The crust under the continents is thick, about
generated from all the impacts that formed it, and
50 km deep.
heat emitted from the large amounts of radioactive
rock, put Earth into a molten state. Being molten,
c. Oceans
elements and minerals could separate according to
The average depth of the ocean is about 4 km.
their densities. The heavier materials sunk toward
Around the continents, the ocean is shallow, about
Earth’s center. The lighter materials floated nearer to
100 to 300 meters deep. This so-called continental
the surface.
shelf is really part of the continental mass. Heading
Earth’s metallic core is solid near the center and
seaward from the continental shelf, the bottom of
liquid farther out. It is about 1,200 kilometers thick
the ocean drops downward in a steep slope. This
and mostly made of iron, with smaller amounts of
region is called the continental slope.
nickel and other elements.
At its deepest, much of the ocean is between 3
Circulation of the liquid iron in the core gener-
and 5 km deep. Exceptions are the very deep
ates Earth’s magnetic field. This field is related to
trenches, which are formed where slabs of ocean
Earth’s spin, but the north and south magnetic poles
floor are subducting downward into the mantle at
are not in the same locations as the north and south
plate boundaries. Other exceptions are the mid-
poles of Earth’s spin axis.
ocean ridges, which are mountain ranges underwa-
Outside the core is the layer called the mantle.
ter where new crust is forming, as described above.
With a thickness of about 2,800 km, the mantle
In certain regions of the Earth, plumes of
reaches to 10 to 50 km below the surface. The upper
magma in semi-permanent tubes from the mantle
layer of the mantle belongs to the lithosphere (see the
rise into the lithosphere. These are hotspots. The
following section). Then, below the lithosphere and
259
Hawaiian islands have been formed by a hotspot. As when it cools and solidifies. Volcanoes create extrusive
the Pacific plate moves westward (its motion cre- igneous rock. Molten intrusions under the surface
ated by plate tectonics), the plate moves over the create intrusive igneous rock. The base of the ocean’s
hotspot (which remains approximately stationary). floor is igneous rock that emerged at mid-ocean
The Hawaiian islands have been formed, one by ridges. Types of igneous rock include granite, rhyolite,
one, sequentially, as the Pacific plate has moved over gabbro, and basalt.
the hotspot over tens of millions of years. Therefore, Igneous rocks have crystals of minerals that form
the oldest Hawaiian island is the one furthest to the when the magma cools and becomes rock. The
west, Kauai. The most recent Hawaiian island, with slower the cooling, the larger the crystals. Therefore,
active volcanoes, is the “big island,” called Hawaii crystals are larger in intrusive igneous rocks.
itself. Because new ocean floor (crust) is continually
being formed and then subducted, the average age b. Sedimentary
of the oldest ocean floor is about 100 million years. Sedimentary rock is formed by the processes of
weathering, erosion, and sedimentation. Over time,
d. Continents little pieces of rock and soil are broken down into
The continents are also part of the crust, but are even smaller pieces by the forces of wind, water, and
much thicker than the ocean-floor crust. Conti- living organisms. These pieces are called sediments.
nents that are elevated because of mountain ranges The sediments pile up and eventually become so
also have deep roots below. The continental masses, numerous that the weight of the sediments on top
in a sense, float on the heavier aesthenosphere. compacts those below into solid rock. Sedimentary
Continents form when relatively light magma rock may also be formed by the precipitation of
bursts from below to the surface, solidifying as rock. chemicals from seawater. This type of rock makes
Plate movements that rub bits of crust together can up most of Earth’s surface. Fossil evidence for the
cause continents to grow as the lightest material origin of life comes from sedimentary rocks
ends up staying on the surface. (3.5–3.9 BYA).
Geologists believe that early Earth had almost no Some types of sedimentary rock are made from
continents or, at most, very small ones. Continents physical particles cemented together: conglomerate
have generally been growing throughout time (from sedimented gravel), sandstone (from sedi-
because once the light rock reaches the surface, it mented sand), siltstone (from sedimented silt), and
tends to stay there. shale (from sedimented mud). Note that this
A distinctive feature of continents is mountain sequence progresses from coarse to fine particles.
ranges, which rise and then are eroded away over Some types of sedimentary rock are made pri-
tens of millions of years or more. Rocks on conti- marily from chemical precipitation: limestone
nents can be very old. Some of the oldest, more than (from the mineral calcite) and dolostone (from the
three billion years old, are found in Canada and mineral dolomite). Calcite and dolomite are cal-
Australia. cium carbonate and calcium-magnesium carbon-
ate, respectively. These precipitates are biogenic,
3. Rocks and Minerals created by organisms that precipitate shells. The
shells were later fused into rock. Examples of lime-
a. Igneous
stone are the white cliffs of Dover in England and
Igneous rock, which was once very hot and molten,
much of Indiana, Illinois, and Florida. Other types
makes up most of Earth’s crust. Molten magma
of sedimentary rock are created from precipitation
from under Earth’s surface becomes igneous rock
260
during the evaporation of seawater: halite (salt) and dissolved in water and then transported to the
gypsum (calcium sulfate). ocean. In this way, one kind of rock contributes to
the chemistry of future kinds of rock. Rocks are
c. Metamorphic thereby recycled and reformed.
Metamorphic rock is created when either igneous,
sedimentary, or another metamorphic rock is sub- 4. Structure of the Biosphere
jected to great heat and pressure. Rock already at The biosphere is the thin, dynamic upper layer of
Earth’s surface can be buried deep, creating heat and our planet that includes air, water, soil, and life.
pressure, or trapped in a mountain-building event,
which squeezes the rock and twists the sediments. a. Atmosphere
The mineral structure is changed although the rock The atmosphere contains a mixture of gases: nitro-
is not melted (which would turn it back into gen (N2, 78.08%), oxygen (O2, 20.95%), and argon
igneous rock). Some types of metamorphic rock (Ar, 0.93%). These three gases make up most of dry
include slate (from shale), marble (from limestone), air; all the other gases are only 0.04% of the total. Of
and quartzite (from sandstone). these, the most abundant is carbon dioxide or CO2
(0.037%). Water vapor is not included in the dry air
d. Element Abundances percentages because it varies with humidity, from
Rocks are made of specific minerals with definite 0.3% to 4%.
chemical compositions and crystal structures. The Clouds consist of huge numbers of condensed
minerals can be classed by hardness. Diamond, of water droplets, or microscopic aerosols. Clouds are
course, is the hardest—a number ten on Mohs Scale important to climate, not only as the sources of pre-
of Hardness. Talc is the softest, at number one on cipitation, but also as reflectors of sunlight. Globally,
the scale. Other examples include calcite (hardness clouds reflect about 30% of sunlight back into space.
of 3) and quartz (hardness of 7). The atmosphere has four layers:
What elements make up the crust of the conti-
nents? Here are the main elements and their abun- 1. Troposphere: the lowest layer, about 15 km
dance percentages, rounded off to whole numbers: high (varies with latitude and seasons).
oxygen (45%), silicon (27%), aluminum (8%), iron Weather takes place in the troposphere, and
(6%), calcium (5%), magnesium (3%), sodium almost all clouds are in the troposphere.
(2%), potassium (2%), and titanium (1%). Hydro- Temperature decreases with height in the
gen, manganese, phosphorus, and all the others troposphere.
make up the rest. 2. Stratosphere: next layer, up to about 50 km
The large amount of oxygen and silicon in the (between troposphere and stratosphere is a
crust means that many of its constituent minerals thin transition zone called the tropopause).
are silicon oxides, or silicates. Other elements join Temperature increases with height in the
in to create different kinds of silicates, such as stratosphere, primarily because in the upper
magnesium-iron silicates, magnesium-aluminum regions the ozone (O3) layer absorbs much of
silicates, and so forth. the ultraviolet energy in the sun’s spectrum.
Elements are shifted from rock to the ocean by 3. Mesosphere: layer up to about 80 km
two processes. In physical weathering, bits of rock (between stratosphere and mesosphere is a
are sloughed off and transported by rivers to the transition zone called the stratopause). Tem-
ocean. In chemical weathering, minerals are actually peratures again drop with increasing altitude.
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4. Thermosphere: in this layer, temperatures ing ocean water more salty. Saltier water is heavier
rise with altitude. The air in this zone is water, which also tends to sink. These two factors
extremely thin. create the densest water at certain high latitude
regions, particularly in winter in the north Atlantic
Air pressure drops exponentially with altitude. For and around Antarctica. This dense water plunges
example, at the top of Mount Everest, air pressure is downward, flooding the deep basins of the world’s
only about 40% that of the pressure at sea level. If one oceans with cold water. Thus, if one goes downward
were to compress the atmosphere to a uniform pres- from the hot water at the surface of the equator, one
sure equal to that at sea level, the atmosphere would will find near the ocean floor a thick layer of water
only be about 10 km thick (6 miles). that is just a couple degrees above freezing. This cold
The winds, which move air from surface regions water has come from the polar regions.
of high pressure to regions of low pressure, mix the Considering the surface gyres and the deep ther-
entire atmosphere, even between northern and mohaline circulation, the world’s oceans circulate in
southern hemispheres, in about a year. about 1,000 years. In that time period, all is mixed
The spinning of Earth creates the Coriolis effect, from surface to deep.
which makes winds around low pressure systems in Oceans cover about 71% of the Earth’s surface.
the northern hemisphere turn counterclockwise The dominant ions in seawater are chloride (55%
and winds around high pressure systems turn clock- by weight), sodium (30%), sulfate (8%), magne-
wise. The directions are reversed in the southern sium (4%), and calcium (1%). When precipitated,
hemisphere. the sodium and chloride form salt, though the other
elements are present as well.
b. Hydrosphere
The oceans are also mixed by surface currents, c. Soil
which are moved by the winds and tides. Large- Soil is derived from two factors: rock that has been
scale, ocean-wide gyres (circular ocean currents) physically weathered into small particles, and bio-
turn the water, and in places near certain western logical material such as dead leaves. The amount of
coasts of the ocean, the flow intensifies to true cur- organic matter in the soil (from leaves and parts of
rents: the Gulf Stream off the American Atlantic organisms, for example) decreases with depth. Soil
coast, the Pacific’s Kuroshio Current off Japan, and is typically about a meter thick, but this varies
the South Atlantic’s Brazil Current off Brazil. tremendously from place to place.
The large, basin-wide ocean gyres circulate The amount of organic matter in the soil
clockwise in the northern hemisphere (North depends on the vegetation and, most crucially, on
Pacific, North Atlantic) and counterclockwise in the the temperature. Bacteria and fungi in the soil feed
southern hemisphere (South Pacific, South Atlantic, upon, and thus break down, the organic matter.
Indian Ocean). Again, Earth’s spin and the resulting This rate of breakdown changes with temperature.
Coriolis effect are the cause of these patterns. At higher temperatures, the bacteria are more
The oceans have a second, different kind of circu- active, and at lower temperatures, less so. Because of
lation called thermohaline circulation (“tempera- this, some soils in cold areas, like northern Canada
ture” (thermo) + “salt” (haline)—the factors that and Siberia, are very thick and have a high percent-
determine the density of water). When water gets age of organic matter. Tropical soils, however, have
cold, it becomes more dense and tends to sink. very little organic matter because the breakdown
When sea ice forms, like in winter at high latitudes, (decomposition) by microbes is rapid. Organic
the freezing of fresh water into ice leaves the remain- matter plays a large role in making soils fertile, so
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maintaining organic matter is crucial for maintain- surface via currents and the thermohaline circula-
ing soil fertility and enabling plants to grow. The tion. Life, therefore, affects the chemistry of the
widespread cutting down of trees and removal of ocean.
vegetation in tropical areas robs the area of the vital Life also affects the atmosphere. Oxygen would
organic material needed to maintain high-nutrient be virtually nonexistent without photosynthesis.
soils. Other gases, such as carbon dioxide and methane,
Soils hold water, to greater or lesser degrees. This are also altered by the presence of life. Compared to
water dissolves elements from the mineral grains in the CO2-rich atmospheres of Mars and Venus (with
the soil (the material that came from parent rocks). hardly any oxygen), Earth’s atmosphere is low in
The resulting dissolved ions serve as new sources of CO2 and high in O2.
nutrients for plants. The dissolved ions can also
move away from the soil and into groundwater. You Should Review
These ions are carried by the flow of groundwater ■ basic geological structure of Earth
into streams and then rivers, which eventually ■ theory of plate tectonics
deposit them into the ocean. ■ geological time scale
The soil is key in the recycling of elements from ■ types of rocks
vegetation to ions and then back to vegetation. As ■ structure and composition of atmosphere, ocean,
bacteria and fungi feed on the detritus from vege- and soil
tation (leaves, dead roots, branches), they return
elements to their ionic forms in the soil water, mak-
ing these nutrients again available for the plants. Questions
Organisms in the soil must breathe. They can do
so because air circulates between the atmosphere 41. The Atlantic Ocean is
and soil via pores in the soil. a. growing at several kilometers per year.
b. shrinking at several kilometers per year.
d. Life c. shrinking at several centimeters per year.
Life is an active part of the biosphere, and it makes d. growing at several centimeters per year.
a huge difference to the surface state of the planet—
in fact, to soil, ocean, and atmosphere. 42. The San Andreas Fault in California is a
Without life, there would be no soil—only sand a. subduction zone.
piles here and there between large zones of bedrock. b. spreading ridge.
The roots of plants and the organic matter from the c. place of magnetic reversal.
detritus of plants create a matrix that holds soil d. site of plate slippage.
together and can retain water. Furthermore, the
acids put forth by certain forms of soil life increase 43. Key evidence for the modern theory of plate
the rate of chemical weathering of soil minerals. tectonics came from
Regarding the oceans, algae photosynthesize at a. the apparent fitting together of continents.
the surface where the sunlight hits. Other creatures b. mapping of depth contours on the ocean
feed on the algae. Their waste and the dead bodies bottom.
of the algae sink downward. This removes elements c. magnetic field stripes in the Atlantic Ocean’s
from the surface of the ocean and places them into floor.
deep water. The elements circulate back up to the d. chemical analysis of volcanoes.
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44. Earth has layers because Answers

a. all planets have layers when they form.
b. elements were in layers in the gas nebula 41. d. The Atlantic Ocean is growing in width, as
that formed the solar system. magma at the mid-ocean ridge spreads the
c. it was once molten. ocean floor at a very slow rate.
d. plate tectonics causes geological shifts. 42. d. At the San Andreas Fault, two continental
plates are slipping past each other. This
45. The Hawaiian Islands are in a chain because happens in occasional jolts, causing
a. the volcanism that made them came from a earthquakes in that region.
long crack. 43. c. Magnetic field stripes in the Atlantic Ocean’s
b. they were made over millions of years. floor show that the floor is growing in size,
c. the Pacific Plate has moved over a hotspot. spreading away from the Mid-Atlantic Ridge.
d. they are part of the East Pacific rise. 44. c. Earth, in its early “years,” was molten, which
caused heavier materials to sink toward the
46. Which type of rock emerges from a volcano? center, segregating Earth into layers.
a. igneous 45. c. The chain of Hawaiian Islands demon-
b. sedimentary strates what happens when a tectonic plate
c. metamorphic moves over a stationary plume of magma (a
d. hadean hotspot) in the underlying mantle.
46. a. Rock that solidifies from the molten state is
47. What kind of rock is marble?
igneous rock. Hadean (choice d) does not
a. igneous
apply here.
b. sedimentary
47. c. Marble is a classic metamorphic rock,
c. metamorphic
having been transformed from limestone.
d. hadean
48. c. The crystals grow relatively large when the
48. When magma cools slowly, magma cools slowly. Whether it has streaks
a. its mineral crystals are small. or bubbles cannot be determined from the
b. it has streaks. information given.
c. its mineral crystals grow large. 49. b. At about 21%, oxygen is number two, after
d. it has bubbles. nitrogen. Even under moist conditions, water
vapor does not become as highly concen-
49. Which is the second most abundant gas in trated as oxygen.
Earth’s atmosphere? 50. b. The thermohaline (referring to temperature
a. carbon dioxide and salt) creates dense water that sinks in
b. oxygen the polar regions of the ocean, thereby
c. nitrogen mixing the deep ocean.
d. water vapor
F. Biodiversity and Ecology
50. The thermohaline circulation is
1. Species and Biodiversity
a. the way the polar atmosphere mixes.
One can note biodiversity on a number of scales,
b. the way the deep ocean mixes.
from genes to ecosystems. But the focus at some
c. the way the lithosphere mixes.
point always comes down to the species.
d. the way the soil mixes.
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a. What Is a Species? Here are some different groups of organisms and

In its classic sense, a species is a group of genetically the number of species currently known: plants
related organisms with the potential for mating and (320,000), insects (900,000), fungi (75,000), mam-
producing offspring who are themselves capable of mals (5,500), and birds (10,000).
successfully mating. For example, robins can only
reproduce with other robins. A species is thus repro- c. Classification
ductively isolated. Organisms are classified according to a nested hier-
Reproductive isolation is brought about by any archy of named groups. Each species has a double
number of evolved mechanisms: physical mating scientific name of genus and species. Humans are
apparatus, mating rituals, genetic compatibility. Geo- Homo sapiens. The word species gets applied in two
graphical separation often plays a role in allowing dif- different ways: the species is Homo sapiens, which
ferent populations of a species to genetically diverge consists of a genus (Homo) and species name (sapi-
and separate over time into two different species. ens). Within any genus, there can be many species.
A subspecies is a taxonomic level within a The ancient Neanderthals, Homo neanderthalensis,
species that is genetically distinct but not repro- are in the same genus as modern humans but are a
ductively isolated. In other words, members of dif- different species.
ferent subspecies can reproduce. For example, the Levels of classification (in increasing levels of
Florida panther is a subspecies of the mountain inclusivity):
lion, which lives in the western United States (but
formerly lived across the entire United States). species
In 1973, the Endangered Species Act was passed genus
to protect any species whose population is declining family
to such a level that the existence of the species is order
threatened. class
phylum
b. How Many Species? kingdom
Today, we have catalogued and defined about 1.6
million non-bacterial species. Total species esti- d. Tropical Biodiversity
mates range from 3 to 30 million. Most ecologists The tropics, and in particular their rain forests, are
think the number is somewhere in between, per- famed for their biodiversity. Maps of the numbers
haps ten or more million. Occasionally, a new pri- of species, from poles to tropics, for amphibians,
mate is discovered (for example, a new monkey trees, and others show species diversity increasing
species was discovered recently in South America), toward the tropics in almost all cases. A single for-
but most undiscovered species are insects. est plot in South America could have as many
Estimates are made by surveying regions where species of butterfly or tree as all of England. There
new species are found. One technique kills all the are many possible reasons for the high diversity in
insects on a specific tree. The insects are surveyed the tropics.
for new species that seem to be specific for that The high amount of sun in the tropics supplies
tree. Then, knowing how many trees are in the area, energy to plants, which, in turn, supports more ani-
one can estimate the number of unknown insects mals. The larger the amount of mass that can be
in that area. supported, the larger the potential number of
species.
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The stability of climate in the tropics allows to store water in their bodies for times of extended
species to enter into highly specific arrangements drought.
with each other. Species of fig tree, for instance, are Tropical seasonal forests and rain forests have
pollinated by a single species of fig wasp. Both wet and dry seasons. In these areas, many trees can
depend on each other. Also, during the recent ice also be deciduous because they lose their leaves dur-
ages, the tropical rain forests might have dried up ing the dry seasons. In the rain forests, large
into zones called refugia, where pressures to evolve amounts of rainfall support green vegetation all year.
produced many new species. Species diversity is at a maximum in this biome.
The high latitudes experience large seasonal
changes, which makes those species more adapted 2. Principles of Biodiversity
to wide geographical ranges, creating less diversity.
a. Island Biogeography
In the 1960s, MacArthur and Wilson developed the
e. Biomes
theory of island biogeography by studying the rela-
Biomes are large geographic regions within which
tionship between numbers of species and areas of
are relatively similar basic types of plant and ani-
islands. They found that larger islands held a greater
mals. A biome is larger than an ecosystem. The
number of species when specific groups were
main determining factors that give shape to biomes
examined, such as birds or amphibians.
are temperature and rainfall.
The theorists went farther. What determines the
Tundra is characterized by polar regions with
number of species on islands? Species die (go locally
tiny plants produced during short summer growing
extinct), and species originate (they migrate from
seasons. It has thick soils of peat because of slow
the mainland, fly over in the case of insects and
decomposition.
birds, are blown over by the winds in the case of
Boreal forest is characterized by evergreen trees
small insects, and come aboard from floating logs
such as spruce and fir across Canada and Russia. It
and other debris in the case of lizards).
has cold winters but warm summers.
For islands of the same size, islands closer to the
Temperate deciduous forest is characterized by
mainland have a greater number of species because
trees that lose their leaves each winter, such as
the immigration rate is higher. Islands with diverse
maple, birch, and oak. It has cold winters and hot
habitats (such as mountains and swamps) have a
summers with adequate rainfall for trees. Despite the
high number of species. All else being equal,
loss of their leaves, deciduous trees in these regions
smaller islands have a greater rate of extinction than
fare better than evergreen trees because flat leaves are
large islands because the smaller populations are
more efficient solar energy collectors than needles.
more susceptible to environmental stressors or dis-
Prairies and grasslands are characterized by
ease, which lead to a smaller number of species.
warmer summers than areas of deciduous forests,
For example, in the Caribbean, Cuba is the
but less rainfall. Hot dry summers create conditions
largest island and has the greatest number of reptile
for fires, which are an important part of the struc-
and amphibian species. Furthermore, plotting the
ture of these biomes. Clearing native grasslands has
sizes of islands versus their numbers of species
created some of the great “breadbasket” farmlands
shows a mathematical law, allowing scientists to
of the world.
count on some theory behind the distributions.
Deserts are very dry biomes with little rain.
Data compatible with the theory of island bio-
Plants and animals have special adaptations to sur-
geography have been collected from other regions
vive in this biome. Many plants are bulbous (cacti)
on continents and shows that the theory has some
266
applicability to what will happen to species as c. Sex

humans fragment the landscape more and more. Many creatures reproduce without sex between
The theory will help in the design of nature pre- males and females. Bacteria, for instance, can repro-
serves. For example, butterfly populations increase duce by cell splitting, creating two clones in a
in English woodlands as the sizes of the woodlands process called binary fission. Each daughter cell has
increase. the same DNA as the mother cell.
Many plants can reproduce by vegetative prop-
b. Predators and Prey agation (for example, taking a cutting from a
A key kind of interaction in nature is the food houseplant, rooting it in water, and then planting it
chain, or the chain of eating: mouse eats seed, snake in soil), making a clone of the original plant. Some
eats mouse, hawk eats snake. In real nature, we find trees, such as aspens, reproduce with underground
not simple chains but webs, which are more com- runners. So what looks like a patch of individual
plex networks because predators often feed upon trees is actually a family of clones. Certain inverte-
many different kinds of prey, and prey often can be brates, such as hydra, can also reproduce asexually
fed upon by many different kinds of predators. Are by budding off small replicas, which fall off or swim
there principles to the food webs? away to form new individuals. Some insects and
Trophic levels describe the position that an even some vertebrates (several species of lizards, for
organism occupies in a food chain. There are gen- example) are capable of asexual reproduction in
erally four or five trophic levels in any given food which the females lay unfertilized eggs that are
chain: capable of growing into new adults.
For the individual of an asexual species, repro-
Level 1—autotrophs can be distinguished duction is more efficient than in the sexual mode
because they turn sunlight, carbon dioxide, because in sex, each parent is only putting half its
and nutrients into the biomass and organic genes into the offspring. In the asexual mode, the
compounds upon which all other terrestrial sole parent is putting one hundred percent of its
life depends. genes into each offspring.
Level 2—herbivores are creatures such as deer However, sexual reproduction has the benefit of
and many insects that feed on plants mixing genes and creating variation, which is one
Level 3—carnivores that prey on the herbivores of the requirements in the recipe for evolution.
Level 4—also carnivores, which, in the ideal- Asexual reproduction relies on mutations for varia-
ized situation, feed on the carnivores of tion (except in some cases when bacteria exchange
level 3 genes, called conjugation), but sexual reproduction
creates variation by its very nature. Parasites and
As food passes from trophic level to trophic level diseases can evolve quickly, putting populations of
(from gut to gut), it is converted into new biomass clones at risk. But when sex mixes genes, the off-
with an efficiency that is typically about 10%. In spring are all different. There is good evidence that
other words, it might take 10 kg of plant matter to populations of sexual species have lower suscepti-
make 1 kilogram of herbivore, and then 10 kg of bility to parasites and other diseases than popula-
herbivore to make 1 kg of carnivore. This is why the tions of asexual clones. What is gained in
apex predators of ecosystems are rare and why producing lots of genetic variation seems to make
there will always be far fewer eagles, for example, up for what is lost in efficiency of gene transfer for
than mice. each individual during sex.
267
In higher organisms, such as plants and animals, duced in 1988 and can now be found all over the
sex cells (pollen and egg in plants, sperm and egg in Great Lakes of the United States and even up
animals) have half the chromosomes, and therefore stretches of the Missouri River. Its huge, dense pop-
half the genes, of the cells of the adults they derive ulations clog pipes of factories and power plants
from, due to a special process of cell division called and cause billions of dollars of damage each year.
meiosis. Introduced species can be successful invaders
when they come into an area with no natural pred-
d. Keystone, Umbrella, and ators and where the prey lacks evolved defenses
Invasive Species against them. Invasive species are a serious problem
Keystone species are species that play a key role for the world’s healthy maintenance of biodiversity
(like the keystone in an arch) by holding the struc- and economies.
ture of the ecosystem together. Many top predators Extinct species are a natural part of Earth’s past.
are keystone species because they affect the popula- But humans are causing extinctions at a far greater
tions of their prey, which affects the populations of rate than the “background” rate of nature (not
lower trophic levels. For example, the starfish along counting mass extinctions from impacts like the
rocky coastlines are a keystone species because one that took out the dinosaurs). The passenger
starfish affect the populations of many species of pigeon and the dodo bird are two bird species that
mollusks and barnacles. humans (or the animals that humans introduced)
Umbrella species are species that play an exag- caused to go extinct.
gerated role in conservation. Preserving an umbrella Endemic species are species that occur in a spe-
species that needs a particular habitat will automat- cific region and nowhere else. Islands often have
ically act like an umbrella to save many other species large numbers of endemic species. Lemurs, for
that also use that habitat. A classic example is the example, are endemic to the island of Madagascar.
northern spotted owl of the old growth forests of the Special regions where there are a large number of
Pacific Northwest. (An old growth forest is forest endemic species under threat (and which are
that has never been cut.) The owl requires holes in unusually rich in overall biodiversity) are called bio-
old growth trees for its nests and will not nest else- diversity hotspots.
where, so protecting the owl will protect the old
growth forest and, as a result, all other plant and ani- 3. Basics of Ecology
mal species in the forest. Ecology is the study of the interactions of organisms
A poster or flagship species is a particularly with each other and with their physical and chem-
charismatic species that people tend to naturally ical environments.
rally around for its preservation. The giant panda of
China is an example. a. Definitions
Invasive species are also called alien or intro- A population is the system of locally interacting
duced species because they come from other members of the same species. When individuals in
regions of the world and are usually transported by a local population have substantial interaction
humans. The introduction could have been inten- among themselves (say, as potential mates) but only
tional (such as European starlings into Central Park occasional links to other populations (say, in
in New York City), but it is often unintentional, as another valley), the two populations are said to be
species can hitch rides on ships or even in airplane metapopulations in the context of the larger, more
wheel cases. A classic example is the zebra mussel, loosely linked species system.
originally from waters in Russia, which were intro-
268
A community is the locally interacting system of b. Soil Ecology

organisms of different species, usually considered as When leaves die from trees in autumn or grasses die
the plants, animals, and fungi. But there can also be in winter, they fall to the ground. This material con-
soil communities that include species of bacteria. tains carbon and other elements that start to
An ecosystem consists of the community of decompose and become part of the soil.
creatures and the nonliving parts of the environ- The new material is called detritus. Organisms in
ment they are in contact with, such as water and the soil that perform decomposition are called detri-
soil. It usually does not have defined boundaries tus feeders and include various insects, worms,
and can be a pond, swamp, local area of prairie, fungi, and bacteria. Though we mainly know fungi
local woods, and so forth. as their visible forms of mushrooms (reproductive
Ecosystems can become disturbed by natural bodies), they normally occur as invisible threads
events such as volcanoes or by humans. If left to (called hyphae) throughout the soil.
restore themselves, they undergo a process of suc- Organisms in the soil breathe because air enters
cession. Colonizing species come in first, followed and leaves the soil through openings between its
by later species that often require the conditions grains. The deeper one goes in the soil, the less oxy-
created by the earlier species. Eventually, a stable gen there is because the oxygen has been used by
endpoint community of organisms, called a climax soil organisms.
community, is reached. Soil has layers. The uppermost, rich layer is called
Carrying capacity is the maximum number of topsoil, which is important to preserve in farm-
organisms of a particular species that an ecosystem lands. Farmers must beware of losing topsoil to ero-
can support. sion by wind and water.
Reserves are parts of nature set aside by humans
for the preservation of species or wilderness in gen- c. Marine Ecology
eral. Reserves include National Parks and National The continental shelf regions of oceans tend to be
Wildlife Refuges in the United States and various richer in life because they obtain increased nutrients
regions with different names in other countries. from rivers and from the winds and tides that stir
Fragmentation occurs when a force (primarily the shallow water, thereby mixing nutrients from
human) fragments the natural landscape into patches below up to the surface. The open ocean is some-
(examples: construction of interstate highways and times considered a marine desert because life is
other roads, housing and urban developments, more sparse there.
draining parts of wetlands, or cutting down parts of At the top of the ocean is a zone called the mixed
forests for farmlands). Habitat fragmentation can layer, which varies in depth but is usually about 100
be harmful to a species because it may disrupt meters thick. It is well mixed, having been stirred by
migration routes, leave individuals with fewer the winds. The upper part that receives light is
opportunities for mating and reproduction, and cut called the pelagic zone, which varies in depth
a population off from food and water sources. depending on how far light penetrates down. The
A watershed is a region that includes all of the deep parts are called the benthos. Thus, marine
drainage of tributaries that feed a larger stream or biologists distinguish organisms as pelagic species
river. For example, the very large Mississippi water- and benthic species.
shed would include the watershed of the Missouri Special areas called upwelling zones occur off
River because the Missouri River empties into the certain coasts, such as Chile and the coast of north-
Mississippi.
269
west Africa. Here, deep, nutrient-rich waters are The molecules of organisms are high energy
brought up and fish are hugely abundant. molecules because they can be burned by the
Tiny organisms in the ocean constitute the plank- metabolisms of organisms to maintain their bodies
ton, which generally drift with the currents. There are and exert force upon the environment for move-
phytoplankton, which are green because they have ment and food capture. The energy ultimately
chlorophyll and perform photosynthesis (eukaryotic comes from the sun. Thus, when we walk, we are
algae and prokaryotic cyanobacteria), and zoo- using transformed and stored solar energy. Life runs
plankton (“animal-plankton”). Zooplankton include on solar energy.
tiny multicellular swimming crustaceans as well as The mass of a living thing or a collection of liv-
the swimming larvae of creatures that will grow to ing things is called biomass, or biological mass. One
adult sizes out of the plankton range, such as jellyfish can ask about the biomass of trees in a forest or the
and mollusks. Zooplankton feed on phytoplankton, insect biomass of an ecosystem.
and all are fed upon by a variety of fish and other When plants convert their simple sugars made by
organisms, making a marine food web. photosynthesis into the more complex organic mol-
A fishery is a commercial entity engaged in har- ecules that they need, such as proteins and starches,
vesting fish in a particular region (examples: north- they use some of the sugar as a source of carbon for
west salmon fishery, the New England cod fishery). this next generation of organic molecules. They also
Many fisheries are in decline as the stocks of fish burn some of the sugar for energy to drive the
have been depleted. chemical reactions inside their cells that create the
Aquaculture is the commercial raising and next generations of molecules. This burning uses up
farming of aquatic organisms in tanks or fenced-off some of the sugars and requires oxygen, and it
areas of the ocean. results in the chemical products of carbon dioxide
and water, thus reversing the process of photosyn-
d. Ecology and Energy thesis. This is called respiration. Heterotrophs also
Sunlight is captured by plants using the pigment perform respiration (but not photosynthesis).
molecule chlorophyll. Plants are green because The amount of biomass created by the photo-
chlorophyll absorbs the red and blue wavelengths of synthesis in a plant is called gross primary pro-
light, reflecting some of the green. The energy cap- duction (GPP). It is usually expressed in terms of
tured is used to drive the process of photosynthesis, carbon. The carbon that actually goes into the full
which creates simple sugar molecules from carbon metabolism of molecules inside a plant is less—
dioxide and water. Plants get water from the soil called net primary production (NPP).
(through their xylem) and carbon dioxide from the
air, through pores in their leaves called stomata (or NPP = GPP – respiration
stomates). Marine algae are also green because of
chlorophyll, but they get carbon dioxide from the NPP can be calculated at the level of ecosystem
water. and biome, as well. It varies across ecosystems and
Terrestrial plants and marine algae are called biomes, being highest in tropical rain forests and
autotrophs, or “self-feeders,” because they create lowest in deserts.
their own food, in a sense, from inorganic mole- Limiting factors control the amount of net pri-
cules. Insects and humans are heterotrophs, requir- mary production. Depending on the ecosystem or
ing autotrophs for food. biome, limiting factors could include water, nitrate,
phosphate, and other nutrients. Farmers overcome
270
limiting factors—in particular, in soils—by adding the atmosphere (as N2 gas), in organisms (primarily in
fertilizers. proteins), in the soil (in the detritus), and in water (as
nitrate and ammonium ions). Fluxes describe the
4. Biogeochemical Cycles conversion of nitrogen from one form to another.
Biogeochemical cycles are the cycles of elements Nitrogen fixation occurs when soil or marine
essential to life. These cycles are thus biological (bio) bacteria take in nitrogen gas and convert it into the
and include geological processes (geo) and chemical useful ammonium ion for their bodies. Some eco-
reactions (chemical). logically and agriculturally important soil bacteria
live within the roots of plants in a symbiotic rela-
a. Carbon on Land tionship. When we say that bean plants or clover can
The most important biogeochemical cycle is that of fix nitrogen, it is really the bacteria in the nodules
carbon, the essential element in the organic mole- on their roots that perform that function, not the
cules of life. Carbon moves in and out of various plants themselves.
forms. Photosynthesis and respiration form a cou- Ammonification is also done by bacteria in the
pled pair of processes that convert carbon dioxide soil, as the bacteria process proteins in detritus and
into organic molecules and back again. Most respi- convert the organic nitrogen into ammonium ions.
ration takes place in the soil, as respiration from Nitrogen assimilation occurs when organisms
bacteria and fungi releases carbon dioxide. The cycle take up nitrogen as ammonium ions or nitrate ions
is more complex with other forms of carbon as well. from the environment in soil or water.
Some bacteria release waste carbon in the form of In denitrification, other kinds of bacterial spe-
methane (CH4). Other types of bacteria consume cialists convert nitrate ions in soil or water into
methane. nitrogen gas. Denitrifiers live in places of no or lit-
tle oxygen. Finally, nitrifying bacteria take ammo-
b. Carbon in the Biosphere nium ions and convert them into nitrate ions.
The atmosphere contains about 700 billion tons of
carbon, primarily in the form of carbon dioxide. d. Phosphorus in the Biosphere
The amount of carbon in all biomass is roughly Phosphorus is another crucial element for all living
equal. The carbon in the world’s soils is about three things. It also has a cycle, which is relatively simpler
times that amount. The oceans contain the largest than the cycles of carbon and nitrogen because
pool, or reservoir, of carbon because seawater also phosphorus does not have a gaseous form. It pri-
has carbon in other forms: bicarbonate and car- marily cycles between its ion (phosphate ions in soil
bonate ions. Atmosphere, plants, algae, soil, and and water) and its form in life (various molecules
ocean are all considered pools, between which car- inside cells). Phosphorus is used as part of the lad-
bon is shuffled in and out of various forms in der of DNA and is essential for energy molecules
amounts known as fluxes. Global net primary pro- inside cells, such as ATP.
ductivity is the flux of carbon from the atmosphere
into all photosynthesizers, for example. e. Bioessential Elements
All of the dozen or so elements that are essential to
c. Nitrogen in the Biosphere living things have biogeochemical cycles. The major
Nitrogen, which is important in protein synthesis, is elements and their approximate mass percentages in
another element that has a biogeochemical cycle. Like a typical plant are: carbon (C, 45%), oxygen (O,
carbon, there are pools (or reservoirs) of nitrogen in 45%), hydrogen (H, 6%), nitrogen (N, 1.6%), sulfur
271
(S, 0.1%), phosphorus (P, 0.2%), potassium (K, 1%), 53. Fire can be an important part of the structure
calcium (Ca, 0.5%), magnesium (Mg, 0.2%), and of an ecosystem. This is particularly true in
iron (Fe, 0.01%). The elements N, S, P, K, Ca, and Mg which of the following biomes?
are macronutrients because they occur in relatively a. tundra
large amounts. Iron and other elements not listed, b. chaparral
such as manganese, molybdenum, and copper, are c. boreal forest
micronutrients. Hydrogen and oxygen, though essen- d. prairie
tial elements, are not considered nutrients because
they occur abundantly in water. In humans, the per- 54. Food chains are parts of food webs, in which
centages change somewhat but not drastically (not so we go from plants at the first trophic level
much that iron is larger than phosphorus, for exam- (primary producers) to a second trophic level,
ple). More protein in humans means more nitrogen, and so on. Why do food chains in nature rarely
to cite one element’s differences between humans and exceed 4 or 5 levels?
plants. a. because evolution has not yet created that
degree of complexity
You Should Review b. because organisms die more easily at the
■ principles of biodiversity and ecology higher levels
■ numbers of species c. because of inefficiencies, the available
■ classification system energy becomes less and less at higher levels
■ biome types d. because food chains limit the levels of
■ food webs in ocean and on land food webs
■ interaction of predators and prey
■ asexual versus sexual reproduction 55. The California sea otter, native to the coast,
■ biogeochemical cycles of carbon and nitrogen controls the populations of starfish, which
control the populations of many other marine
creatures among the kelp beds. The otter is an
Questions example of a(n)
a. umbrellate species.
51. Which category contains the fewest number of b. invasive species.
species? c. keystone species.
a. birds d. mammal species.
b. primates
c. mammals 56. Consider the following food web: oak seedlings
d. fungi eaten by rabbits; rabbits eaten by wolves. What
happens to the oak seedlings if the wolf
52. Which one is NOT one of the possible theories population suddenly declines from a disease?
that at least partially explains the high diversity a. Seedlings decrease.
in the tropics, such as rain forests? b. Seedlings are eaten by something else.
a. high solar energy c. Seedlings increase.
b. Pleistocene refugia d. Seedlings are also hit by a disease.
c. low seasonal variability
d. Permian-Triassic extinction
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57. Which is NOT true about marine ecology? Answers

a. Phytoplankton are functionally equal to
land plants. 51. b. Compared to birds and fungi, mammals
b. Fish eat zooplankton. have the fewest species. Because only a small
c. Zooplankton grow up into plankton. fraction of all mammals are primates,
d. Fish are part of the food web. primates have the fewest number of species
on the list.
58. The term fragmentation refers to which of the 52. d. The Permian-Triassic extinction occurred
following? 250 million years ago and has nothing to do
a. invasive species that divide the structure of with the differences today between tropical
ecosystems and high-latitude biodiversity. The other
b. the dispersed nature of marine food webs answer choices are all possible contributing
c. successive waves of species as an ecosystem reasons to the diversity pattern.
develops 53. d. Prairies have dense vegetation and often
d. humans segregating nature into chunks long intervals of summer drought. Fires
started by lightning are a natural part of
59. In considering the pools of the biogeochemical these grasslands, and many plants have even
carbon cycle, which has the most carbon in it? become evolutionarily adapted by
a. ocean developing seeds that germinate after a fire.
b. soil 54. c. Typically, each level only converts 10% of
c. plants the energy of the previous level into
d. atmosphere biomass. As the levels progress, the energy
available is very small, thus limiting the
60. Which bacteria thrive in places in the ocean number of levels reached.
with low oxygen? 55. c. The otter is a keystone species because, like
a. nitrogen fixers the top stone in an arch, it holds much of
b. denitrifiers the rest of the ecosystem in its structure.
c. nitrifiers 56. a. If the wolves decline, the rabbits increase in
d. ammoniaficators population. If the rabbits increase, they eat
more seedlings, so the seedlings decline.
57. c. Zooplankton are a type of plankton; they do
not grow up into plankton.
58. d. Human activities fragment nature.
59. a. The ocean has about 10 to 50 times more
carbon than any of the other pools. In the
ocean, carbon is found mostly in the form
of the bicarbonate ion (with the carbonate
ion second).
60. b. Denitrifiers live in places of low oxygen, and
use nitrate as a source of oxygen, creating
nitrogen gas.
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G. Global Environmental Challenges Urbanized land: Globally, only about 1% of land

(about 140 million hectares) is considered urban-
1. Population and Land Use
ized, including highways. In some local areas, the
a. Population urbanized land approaches 100% coverage.
Prior to the invention of agriculture approximately Therefore, 14 billion hectares – 4.4 (unusable) –
10,000 years ago, humans in their hunting and gath- 4.7 (agriculture) – 0.14 (urbanized) = 4.8 billion
ering phase were limited to about ten million peo- hectares of potential usable land remains.
ple worldwide. But by the pyramid days of ancient This is about 34% of the total land, or about as
Egypt 5,000 years ago, global population had grown much as humans currently use for all agriculture.
tenfold, to about 100 million due to agriculture. However, much of the prime land for agriculture
By 1830, the population had reached its first has already been used, so what remains is not as
billion. high in quality.
By the late 1950s, the world held two billion
people. 2. Humans Alter the Biosphere
The third, fourth, and fifth billion marks were Unlike other species, humans deploy vast arrays of
reached by the late 1950s, the early 1970s, and the chemical processes (factories, residences, and forms
mid-1980s, respectively. of transportation). In our use of energy and in the
The six billion mark was reached in the late ways we process matter, we create substances that
1990s, and seven billion in 2011, due to a worldwide alter the chemistry of the biosphere.
growth rate of about 85 million people a year (ten
times the population of New York or Los Angeles). a. Carbon Dioxide and the
However, while the population continues to grow, Greenhouse Effect
the growth rate is starting to decline. Factors that Carbon dioxide (CO2) is typically measured in units
cause the growth rate to decline include a higher of ppm (parts per million) because there are only
standard of living and better education (for women, small amounts of it in the atmosphere. Million
in particular). Scientists expect the world popula- refers to a million randomly selected molecules of
tion to reach at least eight billion, but many vari- air. Today, CO2 is present in a concentration of
ables may influence how high the population somewhat more than 370 ppm (which is equal to
ultimately climbs. 0.037%).
CO2, though present in such a small amount of
b. Land Use the atmosphere, is of critical importance because it
Global land = 140 million square kilometers = 14 is a greenhouse gas. Oxygen and nitrogen gas are
billion hectares (about five acres per person). not. A greenhouse gas lets in visible radiation
Usable land: 31% of the world’s land (4.4 billion (light, short-wave radiation) from the sun, which
hectares) is unusable because it is rock, ice, tundra, enters the atmosphere and passes directly through
or desert, leaving 9.6 billion hectares for potential to the ground (therefore we can’t see the CO2). But
human use. a greenhouse gas absorbs infrared radiation.
Agricultural use: The major human land use is Infrared radiation (long-wave radiation) is what
for agricultural production, which currently covers Earth uses to cool to space and to balance the
4.7 billion hectares. Of that, 70% is permanent pas- energy received from the sun. Greenhouse gases are
ture and 30% is crop land. So agriculture (pasture + like one-way insulation, letting light in but block-
crops) takes 34% of the world’s land. ing the escape of infrared radiation. Earth’s surface
274
will warm up to compensate for any extra insula- to replace CFCs. As a result, the ozone decline has
tion in the atmosphere. been halted. Over the coming decades, the ozone
Without CO2, Earth would be very cold, below layer should be able to repair itself and return to its
the freezing point of water. So present conditions natural level.
require CO2.
But there can also be too much: CO2, emitted as c. Acid Rain
a waste gas from the combustion of fossil fuels Acid rain is yet another human perturbation to the
(coal, oil, natural gas), is rising. Data from bubbles atmosphere and is related to the combustion of fos-
trapped in Antarctic ice show that for 10,000 years sil fuels, particularly coal. Coal, the remains of
prior to the industrial revolution, CO2 was fairly ancient plants from hundreds of millions of years
constant at about 280 ppm. Now it is above 370 ago, contains sulfur, one of the bio-essential ele-
ppm and rising from human activities at the rate of ments. When the coal is burned in power plants to
1.5 to 2 ppm per year. obtain energy (most of which comes from convert-
ing carbon to CO2), the sulfur also combines with
b. Ozone and Ultraviolet Radiation oxygen to create sulfur dioxide (SO2) gas, which
Ozone is a molecule with three oxygen atoms (O3), then enters the atmosphere. The SO2 further com-
unlike the regular oxygen (O2) that makes up 21% bines with water vapor and ultimately becomes sul-
of Earth’s atmosphere. Ozone is made naturally by furic acid (H2SO4) in cloud droplets. The rain that
cosmic rays that cause chemical reactions in Earth’s falls from these clouds is acidic—acid rain.
stratosphere. Ozone readily absorbs the ultraviolet Nitrogen also contributes to acid rain as nitric
portions of the sun’s spectrum that enter Earth’s acid, which is derived from nitrogen oxides created
atmosphere. This absorption also destroys some of from the high temperature reactions with air in
the ozone, so a balance is reached between creation power plants and automobiles.
and destruction that results in a natural amount of Acid rain falls mostly in the regions downwind of
ozone that is constantly present. power plants. It has been responsible for ecological
Without this protective ozone layer, biologically damage to many streams and lakes.
damaging ultraviolet (UV) rays would reach the Laws governing the release of acids from power
surface of the planet. UV exposure is a main cause plants are in place, but could be strengthened fur-
of skin cancer. ther. Acid rain is a problem that potentially could be
Until recently, ozone was on a worrisome controlled with adequate environmental regulation.
decline. Human-made gases called chlorofluoro- Emissions of pollutants from automobiles have
carbons (CFCs, containing chlorine, fluorine, and been improved, for example, with better technology.
carbon) used in refrigerators, air-conditioners, and
some aerosol cans, when released, travel up into the d. Toxins
stratosphere. There, the CFCs act as a catalyst to Primary pollutants are chemicals released directly
destroy the ozone at a rate much faster than its nat- into the atmosphere.
ural rate of destruction. Humans had altered the Besides some of the gases already discussed, pri-
balance, and global ozone levels started dropping, mary pollutants include the following:
particularly in the area above Antarctica, endanger-
ing people in Australia and New Zealand. ■ Suspended particulate matter (PM) consists of
In 1987, many nations signed the Montreal Pro- all kinds of tiny particles from smog stacks
tocol, a global agreement to phase out the produc- and even metals.
tion and use of CFCs. Substitute gases were invented
275
■ Volatile organic compounds (VOC, hydrocar- cesium, plutonium, and other elements as waste.
bons) are organic gases from a variety of This material is secured and stored on the site of the
sources, such as leaks that you smell when you nuclear power plants, but plans are being created for
fill your car with gasoline and even gases from long-term, permanent storage. Many communities
lighter fluids used to start barbeques. oppose nuclear waste storage in their areas due to
■ Carbon monoxide (CO) derives from the fears of radioactive contamination.
incomplete combustion of fossil fuels (organic
carbon is oxidized to CO, rather than CO2, 3. Energy Systems
during complete combustion); CO is odorless Our lives are dependent on external sources of
and the leading annual cause of death by poi- energy as we burn fossil fuels at a total rate that is
soning in the United States. many times greater than the metabolisms of all
humans.
Primary pollutants can be altered chemically by
interactions with sunlight and become photo- a. Energy versus Power
chemical pollutants. Power is the rate of energy flow; unit is kilowatts
(kW, 1 kW = 1 kilojoule/second).
■ Tropospheric ozone is one such pollutant. Energy is the summation of power over time;
Different from the natural, stratospheric measured in kilowatt-hours or BTU (for
ozone, tropospheric ozone is ozone or pollu- British thermal unit, the energy it takes to raise
tion in an urban area. 1 pound of water by 1°F).
■ Photochemical smog, another secondary pol-
lutant, is created when car exhaust is acted b. Fossil Fuel Combustion
upon by sunlight to form a brown haze that is All fossil fuels contain carbon and hydrogen. When
highly irritating to the lungs. Smog is particu- a fossil fuel is reacted (burned) with oxygen from the
larly troublesome in cities that lie in valleys air, the chemical products are carbon dioxide and
and are subject to air inversions, in which a lid water vapor. Because the produced CO2 and H2O
of air sits over the city and does not move for a together have a lower molecular energy than the
long period of time. reactants of fossil fuel and oxygen, energy is released
in the reaction. Fossil fuels are the main source of
After cigarette smoke, radon gas is the second energy for all the processes of civilization.
leading cause of lung cancer. Radon, a daughter Types of fossil fuels differ in their relative
product of uranium in Earth’s rocks, is a radioactive amounts of carbon and hydrogen. The more carbon
gas that leaks from particular kinds of soils. It can a fossil fuel has, the more carbon dioxide it releases
accumulate indoors, as in basements. When for a given amount of energy. In this regard, coal is
breathed in, radon gas follows a nuclear decay path- the worst fuel and natural gas (which is primarily
way within the lungs, releasing radiation and ulti- methane, CH4) is the best fuel, with oil rating some-
mately leaving lead trapped within. where in the middle.
Scrap rocks from uranium mining are a form of Fossil fuels come from biological sources that
radioactive waste. Of even more concern are the lived many millions of years ago. Oil is from marine
waste byproducts from nuclear power plants. These algae, buried and transformed. Coal is from terres-
are daughter products of controlled nuclear fission, trial plants that lived in vast swampy environments,
which uses uranium but creates radioactive iodine, buried and transformed. Natural gas is mostly
276
derived as a breakdown product of either coal or oil. For fossil fuel power plants, a typical efficiency is
All occur underground and must be dug up or about 33%. Although better engineering can
piped to the surface, transported, and processed for improve this number, it cannot and will not ever be
human use. 100% because the Second Law of Thermodynamics
A significant factor in world politics is the limits how much of one kind of energy can be con-
uneven distribution of fossil fuels, especially oil. verted into a different kind of energy.
This shows how geological processes from hundreds All devices, from refrigerators to light bulbs to
of millions of years ago affect human life today. cars, can be quantified in terms of efficiency.
Improvements in energy efficiency can cut down on
c. Energy Today pollutants and the use of fossil fuels, which not only
The global primary energy supply consists of the are limited but produce the greenhouse gas carbon
following (total is 99% because numbers are dioxide.
rounded off):
e. Future Energy Technologies
■ oil (35%) Research continues on future energy technologies,
■ coal (23%) sources of energy that do not emit carbon dioxide
■ natural gas (21%) and are renewable.
■ wood and combustible wastes (11%) Hydrogen can be burned with oxygen to pro-
■ nuclear (7%) duce harmless water vapor. However, hydrogen does
■ hydroelectric (2%) not occur naturally. To have a hydrogen economy in
the future, we need to make hydrogen from the
How is energy used? Roughly one-third of it is splitting of water, which requires an energy source,
used for industry, one-third for transportation, and like fossil fuel or solar energy. (Hydrogen can also be
one-third for residential (this varies by country). made from natural gas, but this creates CO2, so to
Hydroelectric energy utilizes vertical drops in avoid the emission of CO2, it would have to be
rivers. Water is diverted, usually from behind dams, sequestered—see the next page.)
into turbines, which turn generators to produce Wind energy uses the pressure of moving air to
electricity. (All mechanical electricity-generating turn turbines to make electricity. Many large wind
power plants turn turbines to make electricity.) turbines are going up all over the world, particularly
Nuclear power plants generate intense heat from in northern Europe. These have blades 100 feet or
the controlled splitting (fission) of uranium atoms. more in length. Wind energy is site-specific. In the
The heat creates steam, which turns turbines to United States, for example, states such as the Dako-
make electricity. tas and the western part of Texas have particular
Fossil fuel power plants work the same way, potential for wind development. If set up in farm
except that the source of heat is the combustion of fields, only a small percent of the land is used, and
the fuel. farmers can still grow their crops under the tur-
bines; the land would do double duty.
d. Efficiency from Supply to Use Solar energy has two main types: solar thermal
Efficiency is output of useful work divided by the energy that uses sunlight to heat water or air for
input energy, measured in percent. For example, direct use, mainly for domestic water heating or
how much of the energy in oil goes into making the wintertime home heating, but also for heating water
automobile travel, and how much is wasted as heat to steam to turn turbines and generate electricity;
in the exhaust system and from cooling the engine? and solar photovoltaic energy that uses solar cells
277
(silicon cells, originally perfected by NASA for space ments remove debris and organic particles, respec-
use) to create electricity directly from the photons tively. Secondary treatment involves bacteria in
of the sun. Like wind electricity, photovoltaic elec- aqueous slurries. The bacteria consume the dis-
tricity’s use is increasing, but not as much because solved organics in the sewage. Before the treated
the costs are still quite high relative to conventional waste water is put back into a natural water system,
energy sources. it is disinfected. Many variations exist, and new
Nuclear fusion uses the energy released from technologies, often using more advanced biological
fusing hydrogen into helium (which is the process processes to help, are being explored. In sewage
that takes place in the center of the sun). Fusion treatment, we are mimicking (and using) the natu-
requires enormous temperatures and pressures in ral recycling capabilities of bacteria in nature, in the
the fusion reactor’s center, which will probably use soil, and in the deep ocean.
incredibly high-tech magnetic “bottles” to hold the
reactants (because nothing material could with- b. Deforestation
stand those conditions). Fusion has been accom- Deforestation is the cutting of areas of forest. This
plished in high-energy physics labs, but no fusion occurs at a rate of ten million hectares per year.
energy plants exist yet. Deforestation occurs to supply raw material for the
Carbon sequestration is a technology that stops lumber and paper industries, or it can also take
the emission of CO2 by trapping and disposing of place when trees are burned to create open land for
carbon dioxide waste, which would allow humans pasture or crops.
to continue burning fossil fuels, depending on sup- Clear-cutting is the term used when patches of
ply. One possibility is to pipe carbon dioxide deep forest are completely cut for industrial use. The
into the ocean, but this might make conditions other approach is selective cutting, when only cer-
intolerably acidic for some benthic marine life. tain trees (say large trees or a certain species) are
Another possibility is to pipe it into deep aquifers harvested, leaving the rest to grow for future har-
of salty, unusable water far beneath the land sur- vests or just remain as forest.
face. But would the CO2 leak back up into the Certain regions, such as the New England states,
atmosphere? A small industrial project off the are undergoing reforestation. Farming, which was
shores of Scandinavia is currently injecting CO2 a strong part of their economy up to a hundred
into the ocean. Much remains to be tested with years ago, eventually could not compete with the
these technologies. midwestern and western farms. Through reforesta-
tion, much of the land in New England is returning
4. Systems of Matter and Life to forest.
The biosphere is an interacting system of matter Deforestation usually releases CO2. If trees are
and energy, of humans and nature. burned, CO2 goes into the atmosphere. Even if the
trees are to be used for paper or lumber, the twigs
a. Waste Disposal and dead roots decay rapidly, and thus are a lesser,
Municipal solid waste describes general garbage. though still important, source of CO2 from these
Disposal methods include landfills, combustion, areas of deforestation. Reforestation, on the other
recycling, and the composting of organics. hand, removes CO2 from the atmosphere because it
Sewage describes liquid and solid body wastes puts living plants back into the environment.
treated in sewage treatment plants. A number of Through the process of photosynthesis, the plants
steps are involved: Preliminary and primary treat- take CO2 from the atmosphere and use it to make
278
their food. This can help mitigate the rising threat of ■ energy technologies
a greenhouse effect. ■ waste disposal and deforestation
■ renewable versus nonrenewable resources
c. Nature’s Services
Nonrenewable resources are resources that cannot
be renewed in anywhere close to the time in which Questions
we are depleting them. For example, though oil is
formed continuously during the geological ages, the 61. What is the global human population today?
rate is infinitesimal compared to our rate of extrac- a. between seven and eight billion
tion and burning. Minerals are also nonrenewable b. between four and five billion
resources, as are the fossil fuels oil, coal, and gas, as c. between five and six billion
they all take millions of years to form. d. between six and seven billion
Renewable resources, on the other hand, can be
regenerated by natural processes. For example, fresh 62. Which of the following statements about
water is reformed by the water cycle, in which water global land use is NOT true?
from the ocean is evaporated (leaving the salt a. Cropland is increasing.
behind) and then forms droplets in clouds, which in b. Old-growth forest is decreasing.
turn rain over land. Thus, the fresh water in rivers is c. Unusable land (rock, ice, desert) is greater
renewed. Of course, humans can still exert stress than urbanized land area.
upon the water systems when deep, underground d. Pasture is less common than cropland.
aquifers are pumped faster than they are being
renewed, or when water is drawn from watersheds 63. Considering the unit ppm as parts per million,
at rates that do not allow enough water for the fish how many ppm is oxygen in Earth’s atmos-
in the natural stream to survive. phere?
Trees would be considered a renewable resource a. 21 ppm
because they can regrow. However, old-growth b. 21,000 ppm
forests are nonrenewable because they take many c. 210,000 ppm
hundreds of years to develop to their full climax state. d. 2,100 ppm
Nature is our basic life support system. It is
important to preserve the services of nature. Much 64. Stratospheric ozone absorbs
is not yet understood, but it is clear that biodiversity a. infrared radiation.
is crucial for the healthy continuation of most nat- b. visible light.
ural systems. c. ultraviolet radiation.
d. green radiation.
You Should Review
■ human population 65. The Montreal Protocol limited
■ land use a. the production of carbon dioxide.
■ greenhouse effect b. the production of acid rain.
■ acid rain c. the production of dimethyl sulfide.
■ toxins d. the production of chlorofluorocarbons.
■ ozone depletion
279
66. Which of the following requires storage for Answers

thousands of years to be safe?
a. radon 61. a. The global human population reached
b. radioactive waste seven billion in late 2011 and will not be at
c. photochemical waste eight billion until about 2025.
d. greenhouse poisons 62. d. Pasture is about twice the area of cropland,
for the world average. The other statements
67. Which is mostly methane? are true.
a. oil 63. c. Oxygen gas is 21% of Earth’s atmosphere,
b. natural gas 210,000
which converts to 210,000 ppm; ( ,000 =
1,000
c. coal waste 0.21 = 21%).
d. propane 64. c. Stratospheric ozone is a natural protective
shield because it absorbs the ultraviolet
68. Which is not a future possibility as a primary wavelengths of solar radiation that would
source of energy? otherwise cause great damage to living
a. fusion things at the surface.
b. hydrogen 65. d. The Montreal Protocol was a global
c. wind agreement to phase out the production and
d. photovoltaic release of ozone-destroying chlorofluoro-
carbons.
69. A good future source of energy for farmers to 66. b. Radioactive waste from weapons produc-
consider as a source of profit is tion and nuclear power plants requires very
a. fission. long-term storage to allow the radioactivity
b. fusion. to decrease to safe levels.
c. wind. 67. b. Natural gas is predominantly methane,
d. hydrogen. piped up from underground reservoirs and
sometimes from gas domes at the top of oil
70. The systems in nature that help purify water do pools under Earth.
not include 68. b. Hydrogen cannot be a primary source of
a. solar energy. energy because there are no natural supplies
b. infrared radiation. of hydrogen. Hydrogen must be made by
c. clouds. splitting water (or using methane) via a
d. the ocean. primary energy source. Hydrogen is
therefore best considered a possible energy
storage material.
69. c. Wind energy could be particularly attractive
to farmers because the wind turbines take
up little space, and the land can still be used
for farming. Thus, the land does
double duty.
280
70. b. Infrared radiation is how Earth cools itself There are many textbooks on environmental sci-
to space, which of all the answers has least ence, and they all cover much of the same material
to do with the water cycle, whereby solar relevant to general science: some chemistry evolu-
energy evaporates water from the ocean. tion, biodiversity, the chemical cycles, human
The water vapor forms clouds, which impacts, some geology, and the science of the
shower purified water onto the land as rain. atmosphere and ocean. They are fairly expensive,
but you should be able to find used books or earlier
editions for a fraction of the new book price.
III. Suggested Sources Slightly older editions will be fine for your needs.
for Further Study Some popular texts include the following.
Bryson, Bill. A Short History of Nearly Everything Botkin, Daniel B., and Edward A. Keller. Environ-
(New York: Broadway, 2004). Bryson is a simply mental Science: Earth as a Living Planet, 8th Edi-
fabulous writer. This book focuses on the history tion (Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons, 2010).
of major discoveries, from physics to geology Raven, Peter H., and Linda R. Berg. Environment,
and evolution. You learn about the characters 8th Edition. (Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons,
who made history at the same time that you 2011).
learn much of the science. Skinner, Brian J., and Barbara W. Murck. The Blue
Mathez, Edmond A., and James D. Webster. The Planet: An Introduction to Earth System Science,
Earth Machine: The Science of a Dynamic Planet 3rd Edition. (Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons,
(New York: Columbia University Press, 2007). 2011).
An excellent book about geology and plate Wright, Richard T., and Dorothy Boorse. Environ-
tectonics. mental Science: Toward a Sustainable Future, 11th
Trefil, James. The Nature of Science: An A-Z Guide to Edition. (Boston: Addison-Wesley, 2010).
the Laws and Principles Governing our Universe
(Boston: Houghton Mifflin, 2003). Trefil is an
accomplished science writer as well as scientist.
This book contains many key concepts of sci-
ence, including how science works.
281
NursingSchoolExam_c10_283-338.qx_TestPrep 4/23/12 12:01 PM Page 283
10
C H A P T E R
PRACTICE EXAM II
CHAPT ER S UM M ARY
This is the second of three practice exams based on actual nursing
school entrance exams used today. Take this test to see how much
you have improved since you took the first exam.
T he practice test that follows is closely modeled on real entrance exams used to admit candidates to
nursing programs throughout the country. This test will help prepare you for admissions tests like
the NET, the APNE, the RNSAE, and other entrance tests. As with the first practice test in Chapter 3,
it covers four essential topics—Verbal Ability, Math, Science, and Reading Comprehension—and uses a multiple-
choice format with four answer choices, a through d. Although the practice tests in this book will prepare you
for any nursing school entrance exam, be sure to learn the specifics for the exam that you are facing—it may vary
somewhat in content and format (number of questions or sections) from this practice test.
For this second exam, simulate an actual test-taking experience as much as possible. First, find a quiet place
where you can work undisturbed for three hours. Keep a timer or alarm clock on hand to observe the time lim-
its specified in the directions. Time each section separately, according to the directions set out at the beginning
of each segment. Stop working when the alarm goes off even if you have not completed the section. Between sec-
tions, take five minutes to clear your mind, and take a 15-minute break after Section 3. These breaks, and the time
limits given for each section, approximate the testing schedule of commonly used entrance exams for nursing
programs.
283
– PRACTICE EXAM II –
Using a number 2 pencil, mark your answers on to it until you have completed the test. A section on
the answer sheet on the following page. The answer key how to score your test follows the answer key.
is located on page 323—of course, you should not refer
284

1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
8. a b c d 25. a b c d 42. a b c d
9. a b c d 26. a b c d 43. a b c d
10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d 46. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d 47. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d 48. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d 49. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d 50. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d

1. a b c d 16. a b c d 31. a b c d
2. a b c d 17. a b c d 32. a b c d
3. a b c d 18. a b c d 33. a b c d
4. a b c d 19. a b c d 34. a b c d
5. a b c d 20. a b c d 35. a b c d
6. a b c d 21. a b c d 36. a b c d
7. a b c d 22. a b c d 37. a b c d
8. a b c d 23. a b c d 38. a b c d
9. a b c d 24. a b c d 39. a b c d
10. a b c d 25. a b c d 40. a b c d
11. a b c d 26. a b c d 41. a b c d
12. a b c d 27. a b c d 42. a b c d
13. a b c d 28. a b c d 43. a b c d
14. a b c d 29. a b c d 44. a b c d
15. a b c d 30. a b c d 45. a b c d
285

1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
8. a b c d 25. a b c d 42. a b c d
9. a b c d 26. a b c d 43. a b c d
10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d 46. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d 47. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d 48. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d 49. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d 50. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d

1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
8. a b c d 25. a b c d 42. a b c d
9. a b c d 26. a b c d 43. a b c d
10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d 46. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d 47. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d 48. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d 49. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d 50. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d
286
Section 5: Biology
1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
8. a b c d 25. a b c d 42. a b c d
9. a b c d 26. a b c d 43. a b c d
10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d 46. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d 47. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d 48. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d 49. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d 50. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d
1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
8. a b c d 25. a b c d 42. a b c d
9. a b c d 26. a b c d 43. a b c d
10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d 46. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d 47. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d 48. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d 49. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d 50. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d
287
Section 1: Verbal Ability 8. a. concede

b. conceed
Find the correctly spelled word in the following ques- c. consede
tions. You have 15 minutes to answer the 50 questions d. conseed
in this section.
9. a. encouredging
1. a. worrying b. encouraging
b. worying c. incurraging
c. worreying d. incouraging
d. worriing
10. a. phenomina
2. a. impeed b. phenominna
b. impeede c. phenomena
c. impied d. phinomina
d. impede
11. a. compatibel
3. a. weery b. compatable
b. wearey c. compatible
c. weary d. commpatible
d. waery
12. a. receptacal
4. a. foxes b. receptacle
b. foxs c. recepticle
c. foxxs d. receptacel
d. foxen
13. a. pronounnced
5. a. openning b. pronounsed
b. oppening c. pronouncd
c. opening d. pronounced
d. oppenning
14. a. superviser
6. a. admitted b. supervizer
b. admited c. supervizor
c. addmitted d. supervisor
d. addmited
15. a. neumonia
7. a. spear b. pneumonia
b. speer c. pnumonia
c. spier d. newmonia
d. speir
289
16. a. annoid 24. a. viewpoint

b. anoyed b. veiwpoint
c. annoyed c. viewpointe
d. annoyd d. veiupoint
17. a. apperatus 25. a. agravated

b. aparatus b. agravaeted
c. apparatus c. aggravated
d. aparratus d. aggravatid
18. a. coedeine Find the misspelled word in the following questions.

b. codine
c. codeine 26. a. panicking
d. codiene b. licking
c. mimicing
19. a. acompany d. no mistakes
b. acommpany
c. accompeny 27. a. relys
d. accompany b. toys
c. lies
20. a. consistant d. no mistakes
b. consistent
c. consistint 28. a. immensly
d. concistent b. animosity
c. confound
21. a. assinement d. no mistakes
b. asignment
c. assignment 29. a. tribes
d. assignmant b. curiosity
c. spectacle
22. a. eficient d. no mistakes
b. eficeint
c. efficient 30. a. wreckage
d. efficeint b. ilegible
c. united
23. a. ameliorate d. no mistakes
b. amiliorate
c. amieliorate 31. a. pianos
d. amielierate b. heros
c. banjos
d. no mistakes
290
32. a. cried 40. a. ajournment

b. busier b. tournament
c. toyed c. confinement
33. a. lattitude 41. a. vague

b. attitude b. trepidation
c. rattled c. vengence
34. a. intrigued 42. a. tuition

b. hypnotized b. mediocre
c. fasinated c. tramendous
35. a. amendment 43. a. manufacture

b. phisique b. meander
c. melancholy c. masage
36. a. dissatisfied 44. a. terrice

b. disrespect b. reference
c. discrete c. vigilant
37. a. illuminate 45. a. skien

b. enlighten b. knobby
c. clarify c. blemished
38. a. abolish 46. a. brackets

b. forfit b. parenthisis
c. negate c. ellipsis
39. a. zoology 47. a. visionary

b. meterology b. virtuoso
c. anthropology c. wierd
291
48. a. language blood pressure rates drop, and thyroid function

b. philosophy slows. Excessive thirst and frequent urination
c. sonet may occur. Dehydration contributes to consti-
d. no mistakes pation, and reduced body fat leads to lowered
body temperature and the inability to with-
49. a. depo stand cold. Mild anemia, swollen joints, reduced
b. aisle muscle mass, and light-headedness also com-
c. knight monly occur in those having anorexia nervosa.
d. no mistakes Anorexia nervosa sufferers can exhibit
sudden angry outbursts or become socially
50. a. perscribe withdrawn. One in ten cases of anorexia nervosa
b. deviate leads to death from starvation, cardiac arrest,
c. plausible other medical complications, or suicide. Clinical
d. no mistakes depression and anxiety place many individuals
with eating disorders at risk for suicidal behav-
ior.
Section 2: People with bulimia nervosa consume
Reading Comprehension large amounts of food and then rid their bodies
of the excess calories by vomiting, abusing laxa-
Read each passage and answer the accompanying ques- tives or diuretics, taking enemas, or exercising
tions based solely on the information found in the pas- obsessively. Some use a combination of all these
sage. You have 45 minutes to complete this section. forms of purging. Individuals with bulimia
who use drugs to stimulate vomiting, bowel
Millions of people in the United States are movements, or urination may be in consider-
affected by eating disorders. More than 90% of able danger, as this practice increases the risk of
those afflicted are adolescent or young adult heart failure. Dieting heavily between episodes
women. While all eating disorders share some of binging and purging is common.
common manifestations, anorexia nervosa, Because many individuals with bulimia
bulimia nervosa, and binge eating each have binge and purge in secret and maintain normal
distinctive symptoms and risks. or above normal body weight, they can often
People who intentionally starve them- successfully hide their problem for years. But
selves, even while experiencing severe hunger bulimia nervosa patients—even those of nor-
pains, suffer from anorexia nervosa. The disor- mal weight—can severely damage their bodies
der, which usually begins around the time of by frequent binge eating and purging. In rare
puberty, involves extreme weight loss to at least instances, binge eating causes the stomach to
15% below the individual’s normal body rupture; purging may result in heart failure due
weight. Many people with the disorder look to loss of vital minerals such as potassium.
emaciated but are convinced they are over- Vomiting can cause the esophagus to become
weight. In patients with anorexia nervosa, star- inflamed and glands near the cheeks to become
vation can damage vital organs such as the swollen. As in anorexia nervosa, bulimia may
heart and brain. To protect itself, the body lead to irregular menstrual periods.
shifts into slow gear: menstrual periods stop, Psychological effects include compulsive steal-
292
ing as well as possible indications of obsessive- 2. Which of the following consequences do all the
compulsive disorder, an illness characterized by eating disorders mentioned in the passage have
repetitive thoughts and behaviors. Obsessive- in common?
compulsive disorder can also accompany a. heart ailments
anorexia nervosa. As with anorexia nervosa, b. stomach rupture
bulimia typically begins during adolescence. c. swollen joints
Eventually, half of those with anorexia nervosa d. diabetes
will develop bulimia. The condition occurs
most often in women but is also found in men. 3. People with binge-eating disorder are prone to
Binge-eating disorder is found in about 2% all of the following EXCEPT
of the general population. As many as one-third a. loss of control.
of this group are men. It also affects older b. depression.
women, though with less frequency. Recent c. low blood pressure.
research shows that binge-eating disorder d. high cholesterol.
occurs in about 30% of people participating in
medically supervised weight control programs. 4. Which of the following is NOT a true state-
This disorder differs from bulimia because its ment about people with anorexia nervosa?
sufferers do not purge. Individuals with binge- a. People with anorexia nervosa tend to be
eating disorder feel that they lose control of more socially withdrawn.
themselves when eating. They eat large quanti- b. People with anorexia nervosa can be prone
ties of food and do not stop until they are to anger.
uncomfortably full. Most sufferers are over- c. People with anorexia nervosa always end
weight or obese and have a history of weight their own lives.
fluctuations. As a result, they are prone to the d. People with anorexia nervosa suffer from
serious medical problems associated with obe- anemia.
sity, such as high cholesterol, high blood pres-
sure, and diabetes. Obese individuals also have 5. People who have an eating disorder but never-
a higher risk for gallbladder disease, heart dis- theless appear to be of normal weight are most
ease, and some types of cancer. Usually, they likely to have
have more difficulty losing weight and keeping a. obsessive-compulsive disorder.
it off than do people with other serious weight b. bulimia nervosa.
problems. Like anorexics and bulimics who c. binge-eating disorder.
exhibit psychological problems, individuals d. anorexia nervosa.
with binge-eating disorder have high rates of
simultaneously occurring psychiatric 6. Glandular functions of anorexia patients slow
illnesses—especially depression. down as a result of
a. lowering body temperatures.
1. Fatalities occur in what percent of people with b. excessive thirst and urination.
anorexia nervosa? c. protective measures taken by the body.
a. 2% d. the loss of essential minerals.
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 30%
293
7. The inability to eliminate body waste is related experts in aging-related issues. Some studies
to estimate a need for 36,000 geriatricians by
a. dehydration. 2030.
b. an inflamed esophagus. Many doctors today treat a patient of 75
c. the abuse of laxatives. the same way they would treat a 40-year-old
d. weight control programs. patient. However, although seniors are healthier
than ever, physical challenges often increase
8. Which of the following is true of binge-eating with age. By age 75, adults often have two to
disorder patients? three medical conditions. Diagnosing multiple
a. They feel discomfort after eating. health problems and knowing how they inter-
b. They binge to avoid obesity. act is crucial for effectively treating older
c. They should try weight control programs. patients. Healthcare professionals—often
d. They are in danger of brain damage. pressed for time in hectic daily practices—must
be diligent about asking questions and collect-
9. Which of the following represents up to two- ing information from their elderly patients.
thirds of the binge-eating disorder population? Finding out about a patient’s over-the-counter
a. older males medications or living conditions could reveal
b. older females an underlying problem.
c. younger males Lack of training in geriatric issues can
d. younger females result in healthcare providers overlooking ill-
nesses or conditions that may lead to illness.
The U.S. population is going gray. A rising Inadequate nutrition is a common, but often
demographic tide of aging baby boomers— unrecognized, problem among frail seniors. An
those born between 1946 and 1964—and elderly patient who has difficulty preparing
increased longevity have made adults age 65 meals at home may become vulnerable to mal-
and older the fastest growing segment of nutrition or another medical condition.
today’s population. In 30 years, this segment of Healthcare providers with training in aging
the population will be nearly twice as large as it issues may be able to address this problem
is today. By then, an estimated 70 million peo- without the costly solution of admitting a
ple will be over age 65. The number of “oldest patient to a nursing home.
old”—those age 85 and older—is 34 times Depression, a treatable condition that
greater than in 1900 and likely to expand five- affects nearly five million seniors, also goes
fold by 2050. undetected by some healthcare providers. Some
This unprecedented “elder boom” will healthcare professionals view depression as
have a profound effect on American society, “just part of getting old.” Untreated, this illness
particularly the field of healthcare. Is the U.S. can have serious, even fatal consequences.
health system equipped to deal with the According to the National Institute of Mental
demands of an aging population? Although we Health, older Americans account for a dispro-
have adequate physicians and nurses, many of portionate share of suicide deaths, making up
them are not trained to handle the multiple 18% of suicide deaths in 2000. Healthcare
needs of older patients. Today, we have about providers could play a vital role in preventing
9,000 geriatricians, or physicians who are this outcome—several studies have shown that
294
up to 75% of seniors who die by suicide visited 11. In the third paragraph, the author implies that
a primary care physician within a month of doctors who treat elderly patients as they
their deaths. would a 40-year-old patient
Healthcare providers face additional chal- a. provide equitable, high-quality care.
lenges to providing high-quality care to the b. avoid detrimental stereotypes about older
aging population. Because the numbers of eth- patients.
nic minority elders are growing faster than the c. encourage middle-age adults to think about
aging population as a whole, providers must the long-term effects of their habits.
train to care for a more racially and ethnically d. do not offer the most effective care to their
diverse population of elderly. Respect and older patients.
understanding of diverse cultural beliefs is nec-
essary to provide the most effective healthcare 12. In the fifth paragraph, the word vital most
to all patients. Providers must also be able to nearly means
communicate complicated medical conditions a. lively.
or treatments to older patients who may have a b. animated.
visual, hearing, or cognitive impairment. c. heavy.
As older adults make up an increasing d. crucial.
proportion of the healthcare caseload, the
demand for aging specialists must expand as 13. In the fifth paragraph, the author cites the
well. Healthcare providers who work with the example of untreated depression in elderly
elderly must understand and address not only people in order to
the physical but also the mental, emotional, and a. prove that mental illness can affect people of
social changes involved in the aging process. all ages.
They need to be able to distinguish between b. undermine the perception that mental ill-
“normal” characteristics associated with aging ness only affects young people.
and illness. Most crucially, they should look c. support the claim that healthcare providers
beyond symptoms and consider ways that will need age-related training.
help a senior maintain and improve his or her d. show how mental illness is a natural conse-
quality of life. quence of growing old.
10. The author uses the phrase going gray in order 14. According to the passage, which of the follow-
to ing is NOT a possible benefit of geriatric train-
a. maintain that everyone’s hair loses its color ing for healthcare providers?
eventually. a. Improved ability to explain a medical treat-
b. suggest the social phenomenon of an aging ment to a person with a cognitive problem
population. b. Knowledge of how heart disease and dia-
c. depict older Americans in a positive light. betes may act upon each other in an elderly
d. demonstrate the normal changes of aging. patient
c. Improved ability to attribute disease symp-
toms to the natural changes of aging
d. More consideration for ways to improve the
quality of life for seniors
295
Anthrax is an infectious disease caused by minum salt. A well-controlled clinical trial

spores of the bacterium Bacillus anthracis. B. using an anthrax vaccine similar to the licensed
anthracis spores are highly resistant to inactiva- anthrax vaccine was conducted in U.S. mill-
tion and may be present in the soil for decades, workers processing imported animal hair. Dur-
occasionally infecting grazing animals that ing the trial, 26 cases of anthrax were reported
ingest the spores. Goats, sheep, and cattle are at the mills—five inhalation and 21 cutaneous
examples of animals that may become infected. cases. Of the five inhalation cases, two individ-
Human infection may occur by three routes of uals had received the placebo, while three indi-
exposure to anthrax spores: cutaneous viduals were just in the observational group.
(through the skin), gastrointestinal (by inges- Four of the five people who developed inhala-
tion), and pulmonary (inhalation). In North tion anthrax died. No cases of inhalation
America, human cases of anthrax are infre- anthrax occurred in vaccine recipients. Based
quent. However, the United States military upon a comparison between the anthrax vac-
views anthrax as a potential biological terror- cine and placebo recipients, the authors calcu-
ism threat because the spores are so resistant to lated a vaccine efficacy level of 92.5 percent.
destruction and can be easily spread by release The licensed anthrax vaccine, termed
into the air. The development of anthrax as a Anthrax Vaccine Adsorbed (AVA), is recom-
biological weapon by several foreign countries mended for individuals who may come in con-
has been documented. tact with animal products that may be
Human anthrax cases can occur in three contaminated with anthrax spores, as well as
forms. Cutaneous infection is the most common for individuals engaged in diagnostic or investi-
manifestation of anthrax in humans, accounting gational activities that may bring them in con-
for more than 95% of cases. Ingestion of under- tact with anthrax spores. It is also
cooked or raw, infected meat can cause gastroin- recommended for persons at high risk, such as
testinal anthrax infection. Breathing in airborne veterinarians and others handling potentially
spores may lead to inhalation anthrax. The mor- infected animals. There is only a single anthrax
tality rates from anthrax vary depending on vaccine licensed in the United States. New
exposure and are approximately 20% for cuta- vaccines using current technology are under
neous anthrax without antibiotics and 25% to development.
75% for gastrointestinal anthrax; inhalation
anthrax has a fatality rate of 80% or higher. 15. Why did the author write this passage?
Cutaneous anthrax can usually be successfully a. To scare readers into getting tested for
treated with antibiotics, and some antibiotics anthrax poisoning frequently
have also been approved for postexposure b. To persuade the government to be more
prophylaxis. active about promoting AVA
The only known effective preexposure c. To inform about anthrax, its causes, and its
prevention against anthrax is the anthrax vac- possible prevention
cine. The vaccine was developed from a strain d. To scientifically prove the potential danger
of B. anthracis. The vaccine derives from the of anthrax poisoning when working with
cell-free culture filtrate of this strain and, in its animals
final formulation, is absorbed onto an alu-
296
16. Which of the following is NOT true, according 20. Which of the following people should use
to the passage? Anthrax Vaccine Adsorbed (AVA)?
a. The most fatal type of anthrax is gastroin- a. A woman who works on a farm with ani-
testinal anthrax. mals that have not been tested for anthrax
b. Bacillus anthracis spores can be transmitted b. A police officer who has received a call
through eating meat. about a possibly contaminated package
c. Pulmonary anthrax can usually be treated c. A man who is afraid he might become
with medicine. infected with cutaneous anthrax
d. Animals are often infected through tainted d. An FBI agent who has inspected a package
soil. found to be contaminated with anthrax
17. Based on paragraph three, what was a finding 21. What is the purpose of the third paragraph of
in the clinical trial of the millworkers? the passage?
a. The vaccine had no effect on the health of a. To further prove the fatality of inhalation
the millworkers. anthrax
b. The vaccine was effective in preventing b. To demonstrate how a controlled clinical
inhalation anthrax. trial is set up to test new drugs
c. The vaccine was effective in preventing gas- c. To introduce a possible prevention for
trointestinal anthrax. anthrax and prove its effectiveness
d. The vaccine was just as effective as the d. To explain the widespread search for an
placebo in preventing cutaneous anthrax. anthrax cure
18. What does the word strain mean as it is used in The dystonias are movement disorders in which
the passage? sustained muscle contractions cause twisting
a. subgroup and repetitive movements or abnormal pos-
b. stress tures. The movements, which are involuntary
c. injury and sometimes painful, may affect a single
d. exertion muscle; a group of muscles such as those in the
arms, legs, or neck; or the entire body. Dimin-
19. According to the second paragraph, which of ished intelligence and emotional imbalance are
the following is true? not usually features of the dystonias.
a. Gastrointestinal anthrax can result from Generalized dystonia affects most or all of
both ingestion and inhalation. the body. Focal dystonia is localized to a specific
b. Postexposure prophylaxis is easily treated body part. Multifocal dystonia involves two or
with antibiotics. more unrelated body parts. Segmental dystonia
c. Inhalation anthrax is considerably more affects two or more adjacent parts of the body.
dangerous than cutaneous anthrax. Hemidystonia involves the arm and leg on the
d. Cutaneous anthrax accounts for about half same side of the body.
of anthrax cases. Early symptoms may include a deteriora-
tion in handwriting after writing several lines,
foot cramps, and a tendency of one foot to
pull up or drag after running or walking some
297
distance. The neck may turn or pull involuntar- modic dysphonia involves the muscles of the
ily, especially when the person is tired. Other throat that control speech. Also called spastic
possible symptoms are tremor and voice or dysphonia or laryngeal dystonia, it causes
speech difficulties. The initial symptoms can be strained and difficult speaking or breathy and
very mild and may be noticeable only after pro- effortful speech. Meige’s syndrome is the combi-
longed exertion, stress, or fatigue. Over a period nation of blepharospasm and oromandibular
of time, the symptoms may become more dystonia, and sometimes spasmodic dysphonia.
noticeable and widespread and may be unre- Dopa-responsive dystonia (DRD) is a con-
lenting; however, sometimes there is little or no dition successfully treated with drugs. Typically,
progression. DRD begins in childhood or adolescence with
Torsion dystonia, previously called dysto- progressive difficulty in walking and, in some
nia musculum deformans or DMD, is a rare, cases, spasticity. In Segawa’s dystonia, the symp-
generalized dystonia that may be inherited, toms fluctuate during the day from relative
usually begins in childhood, and becomes pro- mobility in the morning to increasingly worse
gressively worse. It can leave individuals seri- disability in the afternoon and evening as well as
ously disabled and confined to a wheelchair. after exercise. Some scientists feel DRD is not
Spasmodic torticollis, or torticollis, is the only rare but also rarely diagnosed since it mim-
most common of the focal dystonias. In torti- ics many of the symptoms of cerebral palsy.
collis, the muscles in the neck that control the
position of the head are affected, causing the 22. A person who experiences contractions of the
head to twist and turn to one side. In addition, face, arms, and legs likely suffers from
the head may be pulled forward or backward. a. multifocal dystonia.
Torticollis can occur at any age, although most b. focal dystonia.
individuals first experience symptoms in middle c. segmental dystonia.
age. It often begins slowly and usually reaches a d. hemidystonia.
plateau. About 10% to 20% of those with torti-
collis experience a spontaneous remission; how- 23. An early symptom of blepharospasm might be
ever, the remission may not be lasting. a. blindness.
Blepharospasm, the second most common b. involuntary winking.
focal dystonia, is the involuntary, forcible clo- c. the urge to blink.
sure of the eyelids. The first symptoms may be d. difficulty swallowing.
uncontrollable blinking. Only one eye may be
affected initially, but eventually both eyes are 24. Genetics may be implicated in
usually involved. The spasms may leave the eye- a. torsion dystonia.
lids completely closed, causing functional b. torticollis.
blindness even though the eyes and vision are c. oromandibular dystonia.
normal. d. DRD.
Cranial dystonia is a term used to describe
dystonia that affects the muscles of the head, 25. Meige’s syndrome directly affects both
face, and neck. Oromandibular dystonia affects a. speech and mobility.
the muscles of the jaw, lips, and tongue. The b. mobility and vision.
jaw may be pulled either open or shut, and c. vision and speech.
speech and swallowing can be difficult. Spas- d. hearing and vision.
298
26. The symptoms of torticollis are most similar to feed three times (in the larva, nymph, and adult
those of stages) during a two-year life cycle, and feed-
a. cranial dystonia. ings can last up to several days. As many as
b. DRD. 3,000 eggs hatch into larvae, which is the first
c. blepharospasm. stage of the life cycle. The larvae then attach to
d. oromandibular dystonia. host organisms, such as mice. Human infection
by a tick at this stage is a rare occurrence.
27. A person with DRD usually Following the first blood meal, larvae molt
a. has difficulty verbalizing. into nymphs. These transformed organisms are
b. experiences writer’s cramp. about the size of a bread crumb. During this and
c. improves following exercise. subsequent stages of the life cycle, the tick
d. responds well to medication. chooses larger hosts on which to feed, including
humans. Because of their tiny size, nymphs pres-
28. All dystonia patients experience ent the greatest danger to humans. Some studies
a. uncontrolled movement. indicate that as many as 80% of humans are
b. progressive deterioration. infected by nymphs. As the life cycle progresses,
c. symptoms at an early age. nymphs engorged with blood become adults.
d. incessant discomfort. During this stage, adults will mate, assuring con-
tinuance of the life cycle. Ticks generally rely on
29. Cranial dystonia is an example of a humid conditions and temperatures above 40°
a. hemidystonia. Fahrenheit to survive.
b. multifocal dystonia. Human infection occurs when the tick
c. segmental dystonia. attaches itself to the body, feeding on blood while
d. generalized dystonia. transmitting bacteria. Since this process can take
up to 48 hours, it is possible for an individual to
30. The least common forms of dystonia men- remove the tick before infection occurs. When
tioned in the passage are infection does occur, one of the early visible signs
a. spasmodic and torsion dystonia. is a rash called erythema migrans, although in
b. dopa-responsive and cranial dystonia. some cases, there is no rash at all. The mark left
c. oromandibular and spasmodic dystonia. by the tick, often taking a bull’s-eye shape, can
d. torsion and dopa-responsive dystonia. range from the size of a quarter to one foot
across. Some rashes disappear temporarily and
Lyme disease is sometimes called the “great then return. This inconsistent symptom adds to
imitator” because its many symptoms mimic the perplexing nature of the disease.
those of other illnesses. When treated, this dis- Symptoms can materialize within a few
ease usually presents few or no lingering effects. days to a few weeks following bacterial trans-
Left untreated, it can be extremely debilitating mission and include flu-like aches and pains,
and sometimes fatal. fever, and weakness. As the illness progresses,
Lyme disease is caused by a bacterium problems such as respiratory distress, irregular
carried and transmitted by the Ixodes dammini heartbeat, liver infection, bladder discomfort,
tick. In 1982, the damaging microorganism was and double vision can occur. Infected individu-
identified as Borrelia burgdorferi. Ticks are par- als may experience all, none, or a combination
asites that require blood for sustenance. They of symptoms.
299
Early diagnosis and antibiotic treatment 35. Transmission of Borrelia burgdorferi to humans
of the earliest acute stage of Lyme disease gen- during the larva stage
erally leads to rapid recovery. An inaccurate a. accounts for the majority of infections.
diagnosis or lack of early treatment can lead to b. is a relatively infrequent phenomenon.
health problems such as heart muscle damage, c. generally occurs at temperatures below 40°F.
severe joint pain, and meningitis. Lyme disease d. lasts up to several days.
that reaches a chronic stage can lead to severe
arthritis, paralysis, brain infection, and nervous 36. One early symptom of Lyme disease is
system disorders; however, symptoms of a. arthritis.
chronic Lyme disease, despite lasting six b. meningitis.
months or longer, are generally treatable with c. fever.
antibiotics, and long-term illness is rare. d. difficulty breathing.
Researchers are working on a vaccine, but its
completion remains uncertain. Tai chi developed in China in about the twelfth
century A.D. It started as a martial art, or a
31. Lyme disease infection occurs practice for fighting or self-defense, usually
a. 48 hours after a tick attaches itself to the without weapons. Over time, people began to
human body. use tai chi for health purposes as well. Many
b. while ticks consume blood. different styles of tai chi, and variations of each
c. after the erythema migrans rash appears. style, developed. The term tai chi has been
d. when flu-like symptoms begin. translated in various ways, including “internal
martial art,” “supreme ultimate boxing,”
32. Lyme disease that reaches the chronic stage “boundless fist,” and “balance of the opposing
tends to exhibit symptoms for forces of nature.” While accounts of tai chi’s
a. 48 hours or less. history often differ, the most consistently
b. a few days. important figure is a Taoist monk (and semi-
c. six months or more. legendary figure) in twelfth-century China
d. at least two years. named Chang San-Feng. Chang is said to have
observed five animals—the tiger, dragon, leop-
33. It can be inferred from the passage that Ixodes ard, snake, and crane—and to have concluded
dammini ticks are LEAST likely to infect people that the snake and the crane, through their
in temperate zones during the movements, were the ones most able to over-
a. spring. come strong, unyielding opponents. Chang
b. summer. developed an initial set of exercises that imi-
c. fall. tated the movements of animals. He also
d. winter. brought flexibility and suppleness in place of
strength to the martial arts, as well as some key
34. Diagnosis of Lyme disease is made difficult philosophical concepts.
by the A person practicing tai chi moves his or
a. similarities between it and other ailments. her body in a slow, relaxed, and graceful series
b. changing shape of the erythema migrans. of movements. One can practice on one’s own
c. unpredictable life cycle of the tick. or in a group. The movements make up what
d. lack of prolonged effects produced. are called forms or routines. Some movements
300
are named for animals or birds, such as “White 37. From the passage it can be inferred that tai chi
Crane Spreads Its Wings.” The simplest style of a. is a very personal meditative act that is best
tai chi uses 13 movements; more complex styles performed alone.
can have dozens. b. is the ideal form of self-protection for
In tai chi, each movement flows into the women who are not very strong.
next. The entire body is always in motion, with c. is a simple practice that does not take a lot
the movements performed gently and at uni- of study to pick up.
form speed. It is considered important to keep d. helps maintain inner equilibrium for those
the body upright, especially the upper body— who practice.
many tai chi practitioners mimic the image of a
string that goes from the top of the head into the 38. Which of the following is NOT true, according
heavens—and to let the body’s weight sink to the to paragraph four?
soles of the feet. a. Meditation might be recommended for
In addition to movement, two other someone with stomach problems.
important elements in tai chi are breathing and b. Tai chi is best done in a quiet setting.
meditation. In tai chi practice, it is considered c. Snakes and cranes are highly meditative ani-
important to concentrate; put aside distracting mals.
thoughts; and breathe in a deep, relaxed, and d. Breathing exercises are a good idea for
focused manner. Practitioners believe that this someone in a high-stress job.
breathing and meditation have many benefits,
such as massaging the internal organs, aiding 39. What is the main idea of this passage?
the exchange of gases in the lungs, helping the a. Tai chi is an ideal way to lose weight while
digestive system work better, increasing calm- honing self-defense skills.
ness and awareness, and improving balance. b. Tai chi is a method through which people
Another concept in tai chi is that the can balance their yin and yang.
forces of yin and yang should be in balance. In c. Tai chi is a practice through which partici-
Chinese philosophy, yin and yang are two pants enjoy both physical and mental bene-
opposing principles or elements that make up fits.
the universe and everything in it. Yin is believed d. Tai chi is an ancient martial art used to
to have the qualities of water—such as cool- combat many health problems.
ness, darkness, stillness, and inward and down-
40. What is the best definition of the word ele-
ward directions—and to be feminine in
ments in paragraph four?
character. Yang is believed to have the qualities
a. forces of nature
of fire—such as heat, light, action, and upward
b. principles
and outward movement—and to be masculine
c. chemical building blocks
in character. In this belief system, an individ-
d. simple substances
ual’s yin and yang need to be in balance in
order for him or her to be healthy, and tai chi is 41. Which of the following is NOT an accepted
a practice that supports this balance. translation of tai chi?
a. boundless fist
b. internal martial art
c. supreme ultimate boxing
d. self-defense without weapons
301
42. Chang San-Feng derived the movements of tai Section 3:

chi from a snake and a crane because Quantitative Ability
a. their graceful style was effective in besting
their enemies. There are 50 questions in this section. You have 45
b. they had the strongest and most powerful minutes to complete this section.
upper bodies of all the animals he studied.
2 1 3
c. they were the most flexible of the animals 1. 4ᎏ5ᎏ + 3ᎏ2ᎏ + ᎏ8ᎏ is equal to
he studied. 3
a. 7ᎏ2ᎏ0
d. their temperament was an ideal balance of 2
b. 7ᎏ5ᎏ
yin and yang. 11
c. 8ᎏ4ᎏ0
7
43. Which of the following is most likely true d. 8ᎏ8ᎏ
about those who are longtime devotees to tai
chi? 2. The area of a rectangular examination table
a. They are Chinese. that is 150 cm long and 70 cm wide is
b. They are vegetarians. a. 1.05 square m.
c. They pay attention to their posture. b. 105 square m.
d. They are either very masculine or very c. 1,050 square m.
feminine. d. 10,500 square m.
44. Which of the following is not a characteristic 3. A licensed practical nurse has to lift four
of tai chi teachings? patients during his eight-hour shift. The
a. balance patients weigh 152 pounds, 168 pounds, 182
b. a kind personality pounds, and 201 pounds. Approximately how
c. flexibility many pounds will the nurse have to lift during
d. grace his shift?
a. 690 pounds
45. Which of the following is not one of the bene- b. 700 pounds
fits that practitioners of tai chi get from c. 710 pounds
breathing and meditation? d. 750 pounds
a. more efficient exchange of gases in the lungs
b. better functioning digestive systems 4. If x = 6, y = –2, and z = 3, what is the value of
c. increased calmness and awareness the following expression?
d. higher blood glucose levels xz – xy
ᎏᎏ
z2
a. 5
b. 3ᎏ13ᎏ
2
c. ᎏᎏ
3
d. –ᎏ23ᎏ
302
5. What is the area of a triangle with a height of 10. The track at a local high school is ᎏ14ᎏ of a mile
10 inches and a base of 2 inches? around. For a training run for a 10-mile race, a
a. 10 square inches competitor wants to run half the total distance
b. 12 square inches of the upcoming race. How many laps will she
c. 20 square inches have to run?
d. 22 square inches a. 10
b. 20
6. In a hospital emergency room last week, the c. 30
staff treated 33 patients on Sunday, 27 on d. 40
Monday, 13 on Tuesday, 22 on Wednesday, 18
on Thursday, 24 on Friday, and 31 on Saturday. 11. What is the area of the following figure?
During this week, what was the average num- 5 ft.
ber of patients treated per day? 2 ft.
a. 20
b. 24
7 ft.
c. 27
d. 30
7. There are only nine empty spots on a univer-

sity bowling team. If 60 people try out, what 2 ft.
percentage of those who try out will not make a. 19 sq. ft.
the team? b. 20 sq. ft.
a. 15% c. 24 sq. ft.
b. 16% d. 38 sq. ft.
c. 17%
d. 85% 12. What is 7ᎏ15ᎏ% of 465, rounded to the nearest
tenth?
8. 75 is 60% of what number? a. 32.5
a. 45 b. 33
b. 80 c. 33.5
c. 125 d. 34
d. 135
13. 3ᎏ170ᎏ – 2ᎏ38ᎏ is equal to
9. 33.33 ⫹ 3.3 ⫹ 0.333 ⫹ 333 is equal to a. 1ᎏ1430ᎏ
a. 69.963 b. 1ᎏ270ᎏ
b. 339.963 c. 1ᎏ1118ᎏ
c. 366.933
d. 2ᎏ810ᎏ
d. 369.963
303
14. On the following number line, point L is to be 19. At a carnival, a merry-go-round ride costs 2
located halfway between points M and N. What tickets and a roller coaster ride costs 3 tickets.
number will correspond to point L? If you have 24 tickets and spend them on only
M N one type of ride, how many more merry-go-
round rides than roller coaster rides can you
–3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 get?
a. 1
a. –ᎏ14ᎏ b. 2
b. –ᎏ12ᎏ c. 3
c. –1ᎏ14ᎏ d. 4
d. 0 20. Serena planted ᎏ14ᎏ of the tulip seeds in the

packet. Her mother planted ᎏ13ᎏ of the remaining
15. If two angles of a triangle measure 47° and 86°, seeds. If there are 30 seeds left in the packet,
what is the measure of the third angle? how many were there to begin with?
a. 39° a. 40
b. 43° b. 60
c. 47° c. 90
d. 86° d. 180
16. Which of the following is equivalent to 2y2? 21. There are 25 students in a first-grade class. If ᎏ25ᎏ
a. 2y(y) of the class is in Reading Group A and 20% of
b. 2(y + y) the class is in Reading Group B, how many
c. y2 + 2 total students are in Groups A and B com-
d. y + y + y + y bined?
a. 10
17. 367.08 ⫻ 0.15 is equal to b. 15
a. 22.0248 c. 18
b. 55.051 d. 20
c. 55.062
d. 540.62 22. Mary’s average time to run a mile is 9 minutes
36 seconds. How long will it take her to run
18. (–10) + (–4) + (ᎏ12ᎏ) – (–ᎏ14ᎏ) is equal to 10 miles?
a. –5ᎏ34ᎏ a. 1 hour 6 minutes
b. –6ᎏ14ᎏ b. 1 hour 32 minutes
c. 1 hour 36 minutes
c. –13ᎏ14ᎏ d. 1 hour 46 minutes
d. –13ᎏ34ᎏ
304
23. Forty-eight cookies are provided at a meeting. 27. A first-year family medicine resident earns
During the meeting, ᎏ58ᎏ of the cookies are eaten. $50,000 a year. In her second year of residency,
Andrew takes ᎏ13ᎏ of the remaining cookies to her salary increases to $51,500 a year. By what
share with his department. Lia takes 5 cookies percent does her salary increase?
for her officemates. How many cookies are left? a. 3%
a. 1 b. 10%
b. 4 c. 15%
c. 6 d. 30%
d. 7
28. Which of the following hospital rooms has the
24. Dried mango costs $6.30 per pound at the local greatest perimeter?
market. If Kendra wants to buy 2.5 pounds and a. a rectangular room 12 feet ⫻ 8 feet
has only a $20 bill, how much change will she b. a rectangular room 14 feet ⫻ 7 feet
receive? c. a square room 10 feet ⫻ 10 feet
a. $4.25 d. a square room 11 feet ⫻ 11 feet
b. $5.00
c. $5.45 29. A person can be scalded by hot water at a tem-
d. $15.75 perature of about 122°F. At about what tem-
perature Centigrade could a person be scalded?
25. Of the 1,125 nurses who work in the hospital, C = ᎏ59ᎏ(F – 32)
135 speak fluent Spanish. What percentage of a. 35.5°C
the nursing staff speaks fluent Spanish? b. 50°C
a. 7.3% c. 55°C
b. 8.3% d. 216°C
c. 12%
d. 14% 30. New nursing staff have to buy shoes to wear on
duty at the full price of $84.50, but nurses who
26. A hospital emergency room receives an admis- have worked in the hospital at least a year can
sion on August 3 at 10:42 P.M. and another get a 15% discount at a local shoe store, and
admission at 1:19 A.M. on August 4. How much nurses who have worked at least three years get
time has elapsed between admissions? an additional 10% off the discounted price.
a. 1 hour 37 minutes How much does a nurse who has worked at
b. 2 hours 23 minutes least three years have to pay for shoes?
c. 2 hours 37 minutes a. $63.78
d. 3 hours 23 minutes b. $64.65
c. $71.83
d. $72.05
305
31. In the medical-surgical unit of a hospital, the 35. A doctor can treat four Alzheimer’s patients
ratio of certified nurse assistants (CNAs) to per hour; however, stroke patients need three
nurses during a shift cannot be less than 3 to 2. times as much of the doctor’s time. If the doc-
During the day shift, 6 nurses are on duty. For tor treats patients six hours per day and has
this shift, which of the following is an accept- already treated ten Alzheimer’s patients and
able number of CNAs on duty? three stroke patients today, how many more
a. 3 stroke patients will she have time to treat
b. 6 today?
c. 8 a. one
d. 10 b. two
c. three
32. Body mass index (BMI) is equal to weight in kg d. five
divided by (height in m)2. A man who weighs
64.8 kg has a BMI of 20. How tall is he? 36. A medical evacuation helicopter can transport
a. 0.9 m a patient 100 miles to the hospital in 37.5 min-
b. 1.8 m utes. What is the speed of the helicopter in
c. 2.16 m miles per hour?
d. 3.24 m a. 100
b. 160
33. A patient’s hospice stay costs one-fourth as c. 225
much as his visit to the emergency room. His d. 267
home nursing costs twice as much as his hos-
pice stay. If his total health care bill was 37. What is the value of x in the following figure?
$140,000, how much did his home nursing
cost? 10
1
a. $10,000
b. $20,000
c. $40,000 x
d. $80,000 a. 2
b. 3
34. An insurance policy pays 80% of the first c. 5
$20,000 of a certain patient’s medical expenses, d. 9
60% of the next $40,000, and 40% of the 3ᎏ19ᎏ
$40,000 after that. If the patient’s total medical 38. ᎏ is equal to
1ᎏ16ᎏ
bill is $92,000, how much will the policy pay? 4
a. ᎏᎏ
9
a. $36,800 2
b. ᎏᎏ
3
b. $49,600
c. $52,800 c. 1ᎏ13ᎏ
d. $73,600 d. 2ᎏ23ᎏ
306
39. Ron is half as old as Sam, who is three times as 44. What is the value of x in the following figure?
old as Ted. The sum of their ages is 55. How
old is Ron?
a. 5
x
0
b. 10
15
c. 15
d. 30
90 160
40. At a certain school, one-half of the students are
female and one-twelfth of the students are a. 200
from outside the state. If there are equal num- b. 210
bers of male and female students from outside c. 240
the state, what proportion of the students d. 270
would you expect to be females from outside
the state? 45. Angle k is complementary to angle j. If angle j
a. ᎏ214ᎏ measures 72°, what is the measure of angle k?
1
a. 18°
b. ᎏᎏ
12 b. 81°
1
c. ᎏᎏ
6 c. 108°
d. 1
ᎏᎏ d. 180°
3
41. 54ᎏ12ᎏ% is equal to 46. Based on the following information, estimate

a. 0.545 the weight of a person who is 5'5" tall.
b. 5.45 HEIGHT WEIGHT
c. 54.5
5' 110 lbs.
d. 545
6' 170 lbs.
42. If 兹(2x+2)
苶 ⫽ 4, what does x equal?
a. 125 lbs.
a. 1
b. 130 lbs.
b. 2
c. 135 lbs.
c. 7
d. 140 lbs.
d. 10
47. Alena has $10 and wants to buy 12 oranges at

43. A man turns on his daughter’s nightlight at
$0.40 each and 11 apples at $0.60 each. If there
7:15 P.M., right before he puts her to bed. When
is no sales tax, how much more money does
he wakes her up at 8 A.M., he turns off the night-
she need?
light. In total, how many minutes was the light
a. $1.40
on?
b. $1.60
a. 720 minutes
c. $11.40
b. 735 minutes
d. $13.00
c. 765 minutes
d. 775 minutes
307
48. What is the value of 3xy when y = ᎏ2xᎏ and Section 4: General Science
x = 34?
a. 5 There are 50 questions in this section. You have 45
b. 6 minutes to complete this section.
c. 51
d. 204 1. Considering the four fundamental forces of
physics, this one governs beta decay of radio-
49. To lower a fever of 105°, ice packs are applied active atoms.
for 1 minute and then removed for 5 minutes a. strong nuclear force
before being applied again. Each application b. electromagnetism
lowers the fever by half a degree. How long will c. gravity
it take to lower the fever to 99°? d. weak nuclear force
a. 1 hour
b. 1 hour 12 minutes 2. What important event happened in 1957?
c. 1 hour 15 minutes a. first human to orbit Earth
d. 1 hour 30 minutes b. first landing a rover on Mars
c. first human landing on the Moon
50. Fifteen milliliters of a solution separates into d. first satellite to be put in orbit
two liquids as shown in the following figure.
The lighter liquid makes up what percentage of 3. What table would you set not with plates and
the total solution? forks but with rows of types of atoms?
a. periodic table
b. molecular table
c. valence table
15 d. bonding table
4. The parts of an atom that create the chemical

bonds with other atoms are
10 a. valence shells.
b. nuclei.
c. quark triplets.
5 d. isotopes.
5. In what kind of atomic bond between atoms

are electrons shared in pairs?
0
a. ionic
a. 33%
b. hydrogen
b. 40%
c. van der Waals
c. 60%
d. covalent
d. 66%
308
6. Consider the chemical reaction for photosyn- 11. The idea that Earth’s continents were once all
thesis: 6CO2 + 6H2O Æ C6H12O6 + ___ O2. joined together and later drifted apart in a
How many molecules of oxygen (O2) are made “continental drift” was first proposed by
on the right-hand side (what number goes in a. Alfred Wegener.
the blank space)? b. Niels Bohr.
a. 6 c. James Watson.
b. 1 d. Erwin Schrodinger.
c. 12
d. 4 12. In a scientific investigation, which variable is
the one you consciously manipulate or change
7. In photosynthesis, the charge on the carbon in over time?
the reactant carbon dioxide is +4, and the a. control
charge on the carbon in the resulting carbohy- b. dependent
drate product is –4. In this reaction, the carbon c. independent
is said to have been d. analytical
a. stripped.
b. oxidized. 13. Crude oil originates from
c. neutralized. a. ancient fossilized organic materials.
d. reduced. b. the natural metabolic processes of plants
and organisms.
8. Applying an amount of energy less than the c. minerals subjected to high temperatures
heat of fusion to a liquid at the melting point and pressures.
of a particular substance does what? d. coal deposits that have liquefied.
a. settles the liquid
b. warms the liquid 14. Albert Einstein developed the
c. starts to solidify the liquid a. wave theory of light.
d. evaporates the liquid b. general theory of relativity.
c. three laws of motion.
9. The basic building blocks of proteins are d. theory of universal gravitation.
a. amino acids.
b. nucleic acids. 15. Which of the following is a drawback of using
c. carbohydrates. hydrogen gas as an alternative fuel source?
d. lipids. a. It cannot be made from any natural product.
b. It is extremely polluting.
10. Which is an example of an inorganic com- c. It is not found naturally.
pound? d. It is too heavy to use in cars.
a. blood hemoglobin
b. quartz 16. All forms of energy can be converted at maxi-
c. DNA mum efficiency into
d. wood a. mechanical motion.
b. electricity.
c. potential energy.
d. heat.
309
17. When entropy decreases, what else must be 23. Penicillin is a group of antibiotics derived from
true? a. bacteria.
a. Entropy must increase on some larger scale. b. fungi.
b. The decrease must be at the level of the c. plants.
universe. d. animals.
c. A mistake was made in the calculation.
d. Entropy is adjusted to a flow of heat. 24. In the ribosomes, which all cells have, what
important cell process occurs?
18. Which scientist, often called the “Father of a. DNA is duplicated.
Modern Science,” was tried for heresy by the b. Proteins are assembled.
Roman Inquisition and forced to spend the rest c. Cell membranes are synthesized.
of his life under house arrest? d. Cell nuclei are degraded.
a. Sir Isaac Newton
b. Johannes Kepler 25. Groups of DNA bases that code for types of
c. Galileo Galilei amino acids occur as
d. Nikola Tesla a. quintuplets.
b. doublets.
19. When a crane at a building site lifts a beam to c. triplets.
its top height, what type of energy is created? d. quadruplets.
a. kinetic energy
b. potential energy 26. In the universal tree of life, derived from com-
c. chemical energy paring the rRNA possessed by all living forms,
d. electrical energy what does the r stand for?
a. rhizocyclic
20. Your body operates with b. retrospiral
a. gravitational potential energy. c. recentible
b. electrical energy. d. ribosomal
c. chemical potential energy.
d. nuclear energy. 27. Liposomes formed from lipids might be natu-
rally occurring structures that formed the pre-
21. Entomology is the study of cursors for what later structure of cells?
a. birds. a. immune systems
b. plants. b. enzymes
c. insects. c. nuclei
d. mammals. d. membranes
22. Approximately when did life begin? 28. Which of the following modern-day life forms
a. 3.7 million years ago is most closely related to Tyrannosaurus rex, in
b. 37 million years ago terms of closeness in the evolutionary sense?
c. 370 million years ago a. rattlesnakes
d. 3,700 million years ago b. pigeons
c. lobsters
d. frogs
310
29. If a cell has an organelle called a chloroplast, 35. During which era did single-celled life origi-
which type of cell is it? nate?
a. bikaryotic a. Archean
b. prokaryotic b. Hadean
c. eukaryotic c. Paleozoic
d. postkaryotic d. Holocene
30. The scientific study of bones is called 36. In plants, which type of vascular tissue takes
a. osteology. food made in the leaves down to the roots?
b. ornithology. a. xylem
c. entomology. b. trachea
d. histology. c. capillaries
d. phloem
31. Sodium chloride is commonly known as
a. baking powder.
37. We know that the Cretaceous-Tertiary mass
b. table salt.
extinction, which killed off the dinosaurs and
c. baking soda.
many other species, including many species of
d. bleach.
ocean algae, was caused by the impact of a
giant object from space because of
32. Burmese pythons are a type of snake not nor-
a. a worldwide clay layer that contains unnatu-
mally found in Florida, but pet owners have
rally high levels of the element iridium.
brought them to the state and sometimes set
b. charcoal evidence of worldwide forest fires.
them free in the wild. Once in the wild, the
c. chemical signatures of massive amounts of
snakes reproduce and cause harm to the natu-
sulfuric acid aerosols in the atmosphere.
ral Florida ecosystem. In Florida, Burmese
d. mutations in the surviving organisms
pythons are an example of a(n)
caused by UV radiation after the ozone layer
a. keystone species.
was destroyed.
b. invasive species.
c. umbrella species.
38. The acid used in car batteries is
d. flagship species.
a. sulfuric acid.
33. The bifocal lens was invented by b. ferulic acid.
a. Thomas Edison. c. citric acid.
b. Benjamin Franklin. d. hydrochloric acid.
c. Albert Einstein.
d. John Isaac Hawkins. 39. The intensity of an earthquake is measured by
what instrument?
34. The type of rock that is formed by changes to a. altimeter
another rock through extreme heat and/or b. electrometer
pressure is known as c. seismometer
a. igneous. d. spectrometer
b. sedimentary.
c. metamorphic.
d. biogenic.
311
40. What was the mass extinction that came just 46. Which of the following was the first to evolve?
prior to the evolution of the dinosaurs? a. reptiles
a. Cretaceous-Tertiary b. mammals
b. Permian-Triassic c. amphibians
c. Triassic-Jurassic d. dinosaurs
d. Carboniferous-Permian
47. Electricity is the movement of
41. The first American to orbit the Earth was a. heat.
a. John Glenn. b. electrons.
b. Neil Armstrong. c. light.
c. Buzz Aldrin. d. protons.
d. Mike Adams.
48. Which of the following drives electrical cur-
42. If you were a scientist investigating the origin of rent?
human social bonding, you would be in the field a. voltage
of b. resistance
a. evolutionary psychology. c. amperage
b. reversible geology. d. gravity
c. physical anthropology.
d. revolutionary biology. 49. Which of the following best represents veloc-
ity?
43. Of the organisms listed, which is the most a. distance per unit force
recent, in terms of evolution? b. force per unit distance
a. Australopithecus c. distance per unit time
b. Cyanobacteria d. distance times force
c. Fungi
d. Lichen 50. If emission spectra from a distant galaxy are
shifted toward the red, then they must have
44. Considering human ancestry, which one of the a. shorter wavelengths.
following is farthest from humans, in terms of b. longer wavelengths.
how long ago the lineage that led to us c. no electromagnetic radiation.
diverged from the lineage that led to this ape? d. fewer light photons.
a. bonobo
b. chimp
c. gorilla
d. orangutan
45. If an aqueous solution is alkaline, it is

a. acidic.
b. basic.
c. neutral.
d. ionic.
312
Section 5: Biology 6. Swelling that is due to excess fluid accumulat-

ing in interstitial spaces is known as
There are 50 questions in this section. You have 45 min- a. effusion.
utes to complete this section. b. erythema.
c. edema.
1. Autotrophs are most likely to have which d. progenesis.
organelle?
a. Golgi apparatus 7. Pyruvate is converted to carbon dioxide and
b. chloroplasts ethanol during which of the following
c. lysosomes processes?
d. mitochondria a. photosynthesis
b. glycolysis
2. In most flowering plants, water moves upward c. alcohol fermentation
from the roots via which of the following d. oxidation
structures?
a. sieve tubes 8. Self-fertilization may also be referred to as
b. phloem a. syngamy.
c. stomata b. autogamy.
d. xylem c. allogamy.
d. incompatibility.
3. A third copy of a chromosome is an example of
a. haploidy. 9. The embryological process by which a fertil-
b. diplody. ized ovum divides is known as
c. polyploidy. a. the G2 phase.
d. aneuploidy. b. the M phase.
c. cleavage.
4. The reproductive organ of a plant that is d. cytokinesis.
responsible for pollen production is known as
the 10. What diatomic molecule is important in bio-
a. carpel. logical processes, including neurotransmission,
b. pistil. vasodilation, and the immune response?
c. stamen. a. O2
d. stigma. b. N2
c. NO
5. In mammals, which of the following are d. N2O
cell fragments that play a key role in blood
clotting? 11. Which of the following does not encourage
a. platelets natural selection?
b. neutrophils a. traits learned by parents
c. red blood cells b. traits helpful to survival
d. monocytes c. harsh climates
d. competition for limited resources
313
12. If a cell lacks energy to transport material 17. Blood from the lungs travels to the left atrium
through its cell membrane, which process of the heart through the
would it NOT use? a. aorta.
a. osmosis b. superior vena cava.
b. active transport c. pulmonary artery.
c. filtration d. pulmonary veins.
d. diffusion
18. A person with phenylketonuria should limit
13. In a cell with 16 chromosomes, how many intake of what amino acid?
gametes with how many chromosomes each a. tyrosine
would be present after meiosis? b. phenylalanine
a. 2 with 8 chromosomes each c. histidine
b. 2 with 16 chromosomes each d. asparagine
c. 4 with 4 chromosomes each
d. 4 with 8 chromosomes each 19. Transfusion of incorrect blood types results in
a. excess production.
14. Essential amino acids b. chemical reduction of hemoglobin.
a. must be supplied by diet. c. agglutination of erythrocytes.
b. are not endogenously synthesized. d. lymphocytosis.
c. include phenylalanine, threonine, and
valine. 20. Which of the following is not an aromatic
d. all of the above amino acid?
a. tyrosine
15. Membranes in cells are used for all of the b. tryptophan
following EXCEPT c. threonine
a. providing rigid support. d. phenylalanine
b. regulating transport of substances.
c. containing cytoplasm. 21. In an organism, the allele Q is dominant over
d. containing DNA. q. If one parent is homozygous dominant
(QQ) and the other is homozygous recessive
16. About how much blood does the average per- (qq), what percentage of their offspring will
son have in his or her body? express the recessive trait?
a. 2.5 to 3 liters a. 0%
b. 4.5 to 5 liters b. 25%
c. 6 to 7 liters c. 50%
d. 8 to 9.5 liters d. 100%
314
22. A bacteriophage can be described as 28. A cell experiences a genetic mutation and is
a. a bacterium that causes illness. unable to deliver the appropriate amino acids
b. a virus that infects bacteria. according to the genetic code. Which of the
c. a bacteria-fighting organelle. following is affected?
d. an inner membrane of bacteria. a. DNA
b. mRNA
23. A gene expressed more in males than in females c. rRNA
is d. tRNA
a. linked to the Y chromosome.
b. linked to non-sex chromosomes. 29. Which of the following glands make up part of
c. linked to the gene for testosterone. the exocrine system?
d. not possible to determine the chromosome a. thyroid
link. b. pituitary gland
c. hypothalamus
24. What is the codon responsible for the third d. sweat gland
amino acid in the sequence represented in the
genetic code UAUUUCGCUGCA? 30. More than 90% of dietary fat is in the form of
a. U a. triglycerides.
b. UAU b. phospholipids.
c. UUC c. cholesterol.
d. GCU d. lipase.
25. Secondary consumers interact with primary 31. The ventricles are actively filled during which
consumers through phase of the cardiac cycle?
a. commensalism. a. atrial systole
b. trophic levels. b. atrial diastole
c. mutualism. c. ventricular systole
d. natural selection. d. valvular stenosis
26. What is the main function of the cerebellum? 32. In humans, which of the following is the only
a. to control respiration and heartbeat layer of skin that contains actively dividing cells?
b. to coordinate skeletal movements a. subcutaneous cuticle
c. to determine personality b. basement membrane
d. to act as a relay center between the cere- c. stratum corneum
brum and the medulla d. stratum basale
27. The myelin sheath covers 33. Which of the following is the site of protein
a. the lungs. synthesis within a eukaryotic cell?
b. the retina of the eye. a. the ribosomes
c. tendons. b. the nucleus
d. the axons of neurons. c. the mitochondria
d. the Golgi apparatus
315
34. Hypertension is commonly known as 39. What are the tiny air sacs where exchange of
a. high blood pressure. respiratory gases occurs in mammals and rep-
b. diabetes. tiles?
c. high cholesterol. a. the bronchioles
d. arthritis. b. the bronchi
c. the sinuses
35. Nutrients, wastes, and gases are exchanged d. the alveoli
between maternal and fetal blood via the
a. placenta. 40. Bioluminescence, which occurs in deep-sea
b. amnion. fish, bacteria, and fireflies, occurs during the
c. yolk sac. oxidation of which of the following sub-
d. fallopian tube. stances?
a. chlorophyll
36. The gene for blue eyes is recessive. If your b. hemoglobin
mother has blue eyes and your brown-eyed c. luciferin
father has one gene for blue eyes and one for d. melanin
brown eyes, what are your chances of having
blue eyes? 41. Which of the following is the bony material
a. 100% perforated by tiny canals containing nerve cells
b. 75% in human teeth?
c. 50% a. gingiva
d. 25% b. pulp
c. enamel
37. On some invertebrates, which of the following d. dentin
are the bristle-like, hollow, or chitinous out-
growths of the epidermis? 42. Macular degeneration is a condition affecting
a. the setae what organ?
b. the cilia a. the kidney
c. the hair b. the liver
d. the whiskers c. the eye
d. the brain
38. A low hematocrit is a symptom of
a. anemia. 43. Which of the following is an attribute of
b. atherosclerosis. prokaryotes?
c. type I diabetes. a. They have a defined nucleus.
d. arthritis. b. Their DNA is formed into chromosomes.
c. They have membrane-enclosed mitochon-
dria.
d. They are unicellular.
316
44. Which of the following is considered an acces- 48. Which adaptation do protists and plants share
sory organ in the digestive system? that separate them from fungi?
a. the anus a. chloroplasts
b. the liver b. cell walls
c. the esophagus c. specialized tissue
d. the pharynx d. nucleus
45. Which of the following would be considered an 49. Groups of three nucleotides that specify a par-
acquired characteristic? ticular amino acid to be added in a protein
a. the large muscles of a weight lifter sequence are known as
b. the appendix of a human being a. base pairs.
c. the nocturnal vision of an owl b. chromosomes.
d. the large ears of a rabbit c. genes.
d. codons.
46. If a plant is in an environment that depletes all
available oxygen, how will it get its energy? 50. One parent has genotype nn for a recessive
a. photosynthesis trait, and the other parent has an unknown
b. transpiration genotype and does not show the recessive trait.
c. fermentation What is the genotype of their offspring that do
d. cellular respiration NOT show the recessive trait?
a. NN
47. In the following pedigree, the recessive trait is b. Nn
shaded and is not sex-linked. What is the proba- c. nn
bility that children 3 and 4 carry the recessive d. cannot be determined
allele?
1 2
There are 50 questions in this section. You have 45

minutes to complete this section. Use the periodic
3 4 5 6 table on the next page when necessary to help you
answer the following questions.
7 8
a. 0%
b. 50%
c. 100%
d. not possible to determine
317
IA VIIA VIIIA
1 1 2
H H He
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.941 9.012182 10.811 12.0107 14.00674 15.9994 18.9984032 20.1797
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
39.0983 40.078 44.955910 47.867 50.9415 51.9961 54.938049 55.845 58.933200 58.6934 63.546 65.39 69.723 72.61 74.92160 78.96 79.904 83.80
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
85.4678 87.62 88.90585 91.224 92.90638 95.94 (98) 101.07 102.90550 106.42 107.8682 112.411 114.818 118.710 121.760 127.60 126.90447 131.29
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
132.90545 137.327 138.9055 178.49 180.9479 183.84 186.207 190.23 192.217 195.078 196.96655 200.59 204.3833 207.2 208.98038 (209) (210) (222)
87 88 89 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118
(223) (226) (227) (261) (262) (263) (262) (265) (266) (269) (281) (285) (286) (289) (289) (289) (294) (293)
* Lanthanide 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
140.116 140.90765 144.24 (145) 150.36 151.964 157.25 158.92534 162.50 164.93032 167.26 168.93421 173.04 174.967
** Actinide 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103

232.0381 231.03588 238.0289 (237) (244) (243) (247) (247) (251) (252) (257) (258) (259) (262)
1. The best example of a strong acid is 4. The reaction Fe2O3 + 2Al Æ 2Fe + Al2O3 is best
a. KOH. classified as what type of reaction?
b. HNO2. a. double displacement reaction
c. H2SO4. b. oxidation-reduction reaction
d. Ca(OH)2. c. acid-base reaction
d. decomposition reaction
2. CuO ⫹ H2SO4 Æ CuSO4 ⫹ H2O
The reaction shown here is best described by 5. Balance the following reaction:
which of the following? AlBr3 ⫹ K2SO4 Æ KBr ⫹ Al2(SO4)3.
a. base ⫹ acid Æ salt ⫹ water a. 2AlBr3 ⫹ 2K2SO4 Æ 4KBr ⫹ Al2(SO4)2
b. metal ⫹ acid Æ salt ⫹ hydrogen b. 2AlBr3 ⫹ 3K2SO4 Æ 4KBr ⫹ Al2(SO4)3
c. metal oxide ⫹ acid Æ salt ⫹ water c. 2AlBr3 ⫹ 2K2SO4 Æ 6KBr ⫹ Al2(SO4)3
d. metal carbonate ⫹ acid Æ salt ⫹ carbonate d. 2AlBr3 ⫹ 3K2SO4 Æ 6KBr ⫹ Al2(SO4)3
acid (unstable)
6. Which of the following functional groups is
3. How many moles of hydrogen are in 18.0 g of found in all aldehydes?
H2O? a. NH2
a. 1 b. COOH
b. 2 c. C=O
c. 9 d. OH
d. 18
318
7. What is the formula for cobalt (II) phosphate? 12. What is the formula for bismuth (III) hydrox-
a. CoPO4 ide?
b. Co2PO4 a. Bi3OH
c. Co3(PO4)2 b. Bi(OH)3
d. Co2(PO4)3 c. Bi(OH)2
d. BiOH
8. Which of the following choices best describes
the structure of the class of molecules that is 13. What are the products of the reaction between
the major constituent of cell membranes? sodium metal and water?
a. a carboxylic acid bonded to an amino group + + OH–
a. NaH(aq) (aq)
b. one molecule of glycerol bonded to three b. NaOH(aq) + H2(g)
fatty acids c. Na(s) + H2(g) + O2(g)
c. one molecule of glycerol bonded to two d. NaOH(aq) + H2(g) + O2(g)
fatty acids and one phosphate group
d. one molecule of glycerol bonded to one 14. Which best describes the following redox reaction:
fatty acid and two hydroxyl groups Br–(aq) + MnO4–(aq) Æ Br2(l) + Mn+2
(aq)?
a. Br and Mn are both reduced.
9. Osmotic pressure is defined as b. Br is oxidized and Mn is reduced.
a. the change in pressure of a liquid undergo- c. Br is oxidized and O is reduced.
ing osmosis. d. Br is reduced and Mn is oxidized.
b. pressure that must be applied to prevent net
diffusion of pure solvent through a semi- 15. Rank the following atoms in order of increas-
permeable membrane into solution. ing atomic size: Cs, F, Li, N.
c. the combined pressure of gases in the exter- a. Li < Cs < N < F
nal atmosphere of a system undergoing b. F < N < Li < Cs
osmosis. c. F < Li < Cs < N
d. pressure that is proportional to osmotic d. Cs < F < N < Li
potential.
16. Which of the following is a weak acid?
10. Which of the following is classified as an alde- a. HCl
hyde? b. HNO3
a. CH4 c. H2SO4
b. CH2Cl2 d. H2CO3
c. CH3C(O)CH3
d. CH3CH2C(O)H 17. What is the molecular formula of a compound
with empirical formula CH2O and molar mass
11. The nuclear process 238
92 U→ 234
90
Th! + ! 42 He is an 90 g?
example of a. CH2O
a. adecay. b. C3H3O3
b. bdecay. c. C3H6O3
c. gemission. d. C6H14O
d. nuclear fusion.
319
18. Which of the following has the largest atomic 24. A trans fat describes fatty acids that contain
radius? a. no C–C double bonds.
a. K b. multiple C–C double bonds and some C–C
b. Rb single bonds.
c. Ca c. at least one C–C double bond with a trans
d. Sr geometry.
d. only C–C double bonds.
19. In which of the following states of matter are
molecules most likely to move freely? 25. Which of the following are the general prod-
a. solid ucts of a combustion reaction?
b. liquid a. C(s), O2, and H2
c. gas b. C(s), H2O, and O2
d. All have similar freedom of movement. c. CO2 and H2
d. CO2 and H2O
20. Which of the following species is being oxi-
dized in this redox reaction? 26. Compounds have a set volume but an unset
2+ Æ Zn2+ + Cu
Zn(s) + Cu(aq) shape when they are
(aq) (s)
a. Zn(s) a. solid.
b. Cu2+
(aq) b. liquid.
c. Zn2+
(aq) c. gas.
d. Cu(s) d. Molecules always behave this way.
21. Which of the following is the strongest acid? 27. For every three moles of P2O5 produced by the
a. H2PO4– following reaction, how many molecules of P
b. KOH are required?
c. NH+4 4P ⫹ 5O2 Æ 2P2O5
d. H3PO4 a. 6.02 ⫻ 1023
b. 1.20 ⫻ 1024
22. In which of the following solutions is Ag2CO3 c. 3.01 ⫻ 1023
most soluble? d. 3.61 ⫻ 1024
a. 0.2 M Na2CO3
b. 0.3 M KCl 28. LiOH + HBr Æ LiBr + H2O
c. 0.1 M Na2CO3 How many grams of lithium hydroxide will
d. 0.01 M AgNO3 you need to add to your reaction to produce
exactly 72.6 grams of lithium bromide?
23. bdecay results in the emission of a(n) a. 10
_______ from a heavy atom. b. 20
a. helium nucleus c. 30
b. electron d. 40
c. proton
d. high energy photon
320
29. Which of the following is a transition metal? 35. Carbon dating involves the decay of a carbon-
a. Lithium 14 isotope with a beta particle. Which of the
b. Iron following equations describes this decay?
c. Aluminum a. 146 C Æ 135 B + 11H
d. Tin b. 14 C Æ 14 N + 0 ␤
6 7 –1
c. 14 C Æ 13 B + 1n
6 5 0
30. Give the number of valence electrons for a sul- 14 N + 1 n Æ 14 C + 1H
d. 7 0 6 1
fur atom (S).
a. 2
36. A dating technique involves electron capture
b. 4
by potassium-40 isotope according to the fol-
c. 6
lowing equation: 40 0 40
19 K +–1 e Æ 18 Ar. If the half-
d. 16
life of potassium-40 is 1.2 ⫻ 109 years, how long
does it take for only 10 g to remain of the origi-
31. Which of the following is the electron configu-
nal 40 g of potassium-40 in a rock sample?
ration of a neutral atom of Ca?
a. 1.2 ⫻ 109 years
a. [Ar] 3s2
b. 0.6 ⫻ 109 years
b. [Ar] 3d2
c. 2.4 ⫻ 109 years
c. [Ar] 4p2
d. 1.8 ⫻ 109 years
d. [Ar] 4s2
37. Which of the following elements is a member
32. Which of the following bonds is the most
of the actinide series?
polar?
a. Uranium
a. Cl2
b. Terbium
b. NaCl
c. Tellurium
c. F2
d. Radon
d. HF
38. Which of the following is the symbol for the
33. Which of the following is the correct name for
isotope with 18 protons and 22 neutrons?
Li2SO3?
a. 40
18 Ar
a. lithium sulfite 22
b. 18 Ar
b. lithium sulfide
c. 40 Ti
c. lithium sulfate 22
d. 90 Zr
d. lithium disulfate 40
34. What is the oxidation number of sodium in the

following reaction?
Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2NaI(aq) Æ PbI2(s) + 2NaNO3(aq)
a. +1
b. +2
c. –1
d. –2
321
H O 43. Which of the following is the name of the oxy-

acid HClO4?
a. perchloric acid
CH3
b. chloric acid
O O c. chlorous acid
OH
d. hypochlorous acid
39. Vanillin, the above molecule responsible for

44. Which of the following is an example of a
vanilla’s taste and smell, possesses all of the fol-
decomposition reaction?
lowing functional groups except
a. C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) Æ 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(l)
a. aldehyde.
b. N2(g) + 3H2(g) Æ 2NH3(g)
b. ketone.
c. CaCO3(s) Æ CaO(s) + CO2(g)
c. alcohol.
d. CaO(s) + H2O(l) Æ Ca(OH)2(s)
d. ether.
45. Which of the following does NOT have the
40. What is the effect of the addition of a catalyst
electron configuration [Ne]3s23p6?
to a reaction in equilibrium?
a. Cl
a. The reaction favors the formation of the
b. S2–
products.
c. K+
b. The reaction favors the formation of the
d. Ca2+
reactants.
c. There is no change in composition of the
46. Which of the following classes of molecules
reaction.
does NOT have a carbonyl group?
d. The rate of the reaction slows.
a. ester
b. amide
41. Which of the following pairs are allotropes?
c. aldehyde
a. O2 and O3
d. amine
b. Fe2+ and Fe3+
c. OH– and H3O+
47. Write the correct answer, including correct sig-
d. H2O2 and H2O
nificant figures, for the following calculation:
4.12 ⫻ 10–3 + 9.54 ⫻ 10–5
42. A gas is held in a rigid 4 L container at 1 atm
a. 4.22 ⫻ 10–3
and 27°C. If the temperature is raised to 117°C,
b. 4.22 ⫻ 10–8
what will the pressure in the container be?
c. 1.37 ⫻ 10–8
a. 4.3 atm
d. 13.66 ⫻ 10–2
b. 0.77 atm
c. 1.3 atm
d. 0.23 atm
322
48. What is the formula for thallium (III) hydroxide? Answers

a. TlOH3
b. Tl(OH)3 Section 1: Verbal Ability
c. Tl3(OH) 1. a. worrying
d. Tl3(OH)3 2. d. impede
3. c. weary
49. H2PO4– ⫹ OH⫺ ¨ Æ HPO4–2 ⫹ H2O 4. a. foxes
Part of the blood’s buffer system is shown 5. c. opening
above. What is the conjugate acid in this sys- 6. a. admitted
tem? 7. a. spear
a. H2PO4– 8. a. concede
b. OH 9. b. encouraging
c. HPO4–2 10. c. phenomena
d. H2O 11. c. compatible
12. b. receptacle
50. Balance the following reaction: 13. d. pronounced
C3H8 ⫹ O2 Æ CO2 ⫹ H2O 14. d. supervisor
a. C3H8 ⫹ 5O2 Æ 3CO2 ⫹ 4H2O 15. b. pneumonia
b. C3H8 ⫹ 6O2 Æ 3CO2 ⫹ 2H2O 16. c. annoyed
c. C3H8 ⫹ 6O2 Æ 4CO2 ⫹ 3H2O 17. c. apparatus
d. C3H8 ⫹ 4O2 Æ 3CO2 ⫹ 4H2O 18. c. codeine
19. d. accompany
20. b. consistent
21. c. assignment
22. c. efficient
23. a. ameliorate
24. a. viewpoint
25. c. aggravated
26. c. The correct spelling is mimicking.
27. a. The correct spelling is relies.
28. a. The correct spelling is immensely.
29. d. no mistakes
30. b. The correct spelling is illegible.
31. b. The correct spelling is heroes.
32. d. no mistakes
33. a. The correct spelling is latitude.
34. c. The correct spelling is fascinated.
35. b. The correct spelling is physique.
36. d. no mistakes
37. d. no mistakes
38. b. The correct spelling is forfeit.
39. b. The correct spelling is meteorology.
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40. a. The correct spelling is adjournment. 8. a. The final paragraph of the passage states
41. c. The correct spelling is vengeance. that binge-eating disorder patients eat large
42. c. The correct spelling is tremendous. quantities of food and do not stop until they
43. c. The correct spelling is massage. are uncomfortably full.
44. a. The correct spelling is terrace. 9. d. See the second sentence of the sixth
45. a. The correct spelling is skein. paragraph. If as many as one-third of the
46. b. The correct spelling is parenthesis. binge-eating disorder population are men,
47. c. The correct spelling is weird. it stands to reason that up to two-thirds are
48. c. The correct spelling is sonnet. younger women, given that about 90% of all
49. a. The correct spelling is depot. eating disorder sufferers are adolescent and
50. a. The correct spelling is prescribe. young adult women.
10. b. The author uses the phrase going gray as a
Section 2: Reading Comprehension metaphor for growing older. It describes the
1. b. See the third paragraph: One in ten (10% phenomenon of a large segment of a
of) cases of anorexia end in death. population growing older.
2. a. See the second and third paragraphs for 11. d. The passage emphasizes the need for age-
reference to heart problems with anorexia, specific care.
the fourth and fifth paragraphs for 12. d. In this context, vital most nearly means
discussion of heart problems with bulimia, critical or crucial. The sentence implies that
and the last paragraph, where heart disease healthcare providers will be very important in
is mentioned as a risk in obese people who helping to avoid suicide deaths in older
suffer from binge-eating disorder. Americans, which is a growing issue.
3. c. Near the end of the last paragraph, the 13. c. Although choices a and b may be correct
passage indicates that binge-eating disorder statements, they do not reflect the author’s
patients experience high blood pressure. purpose in citing the example of untreated
4. c. The final sentence of the third paragraph depression in the elderly. Choice d is
states that individuals with eating disorders incorrect.
are at risk for suicidal behavior, but not that 14. c. According to the passage, geriatric training
people with anorexia always end their own improves a healthcare provider’s ability to
lives. distinguish between “normal” characteristics
5. b. The first sentence of the fifth paragraph tells associated with aging and illness.
us that bulimia sufferers are often able to 15. c. This is an informative passage, neutral in
keep their problem a secret, partly because tone, which explains what anthrax is, what
they maintain a normal or above-normal causes it, and what is being done to find a
weight. preventative vaccine.
6. c. In the second paragraph, the thyroid gland 16. c. According to paragraph two, pulmonary
function is mentioned as slowing down— anthrax, or inhalation anthrax, has a fatality
one effort on the part of the body to protect rate of 80% or higher. It is cutaneous
itself. anthrax that can usually be treated
7. a. According to the second paragraph, successfully with antibiotics.
dehydration contributes to constipation.
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17. b. According to paragraph three, although 26. a. Both torticollis and cranial dystonia affect
four of the five people who contracted the neck and head, as indicated in the fifth
inhalation anthrax died, no cases of and seventh paragraphs.
inhalation anthrax occurred in vaccine 27. d. The first sentence of the last paragraph
recipients. states that DRD patients can be successfully
18. a. In paragraph three, strain is a noun that treated with drugs.
means a subgroup, breed, or type of the 28. a. The second sentence states that dystonia-
bacterium. related movements are involuntary.
19. c. The second paragraph states that mortality 29. c. Cranial dystonia affects muscles in the head,
rates are approximately 20% for cutaneous face, and neck. Since it affects two or more
anthrax without antibiotics, while inhalation adjacent body parts, cranial dystonia is a
anthrax has a fatality rate of 80% or higher. segmental dystonia.
20. d. According to the final paragraph of the 30. d. In the fourth paragraph, torsion dystonia is
passage, Anthrax Vaccine Adsorbed (AVA) is referred to as a rare ailment. Dopa-
recommended for . . . individuals engaged in responsive dystonia is also labeled rare in
diagnostic or investigational activities that the last sentence of the passage.
may bring them in contact with anthrax 31. b. See the first sentence of paragraph four.
spores. The police officer in choice b may 32. c. See the last paragraph of the passage.
not inspect the package her/himself, so AVA 33. d. The end of the third paragraph says that
may not be necessary. ticks prefer humid, relatively warm weather.
21. c. The introduction of the clinical trial is used 34. a. See the first sentence of the passage.
to show that there is a vaccine available for 35. b. The end of the second paragraph says that
anthrax and that it proved successful when larval infection of humans is a rare
tested. occurrence.
22. a. The third sentence of the second paragraph 36. c. After the rash, which may or may not
states that multifocal dystonia involves two appear, the next symptoms are the flu-like
or more unrelated body parts. symptoms listed in the fifth paragraph.
23. b. The third sentence of paragraph six states 37. d. The passage states several times that tai chi
that only one eye may be affected initially by is used to maintain balance through
blepharospasm. The passage does not breathing, meditation, and concentration.
suggest that blindness occurs in the early 38. c. Paragraph four states that meditation helps
stages of blepharospasm (choice a), while the digestive system and increases calmness.
the word “urge” suggests a conscious desire It also states that in tai chi practice, it is
rather than an involuntary movement important to concentrate and put aside
(choice c). Difficulty swallowing is a distraction, so a quiet setting would be
symptom of oromandibular dystonia ideal. It says nothing about the tempera-
(choice d). ment of animals.
24. a. According to the fourth paragraph, torsion 39. c. The passage, when taken as a whole,
dystonia may be inherited. introduces tai chi and talks about its
25. c. Meige’s syndrome combines symptoms of influences on the minds and bodies of its
blepharospasm (affecting the eyes) and participants.
oromandibular dystonia (affecting the lips
and tongue).
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40. b. Two important elements of tai chi, or 2. a. Be careful with the units in this problem,
principles that define it, are breathing and since the answer choices are given in meters,
meditation. not centimeters as in the question. First,
41. d. The first paragraph states that the term tai convert the dimensions of the examination
chi has been translated in various ways, table into meters: 150 cm × 1 m/100 cm =
including “internal martial art,” “supreme 1.5 m and 70 cm × 1 m/100 cm = 0.7 m.
ultimate boxing,” “boundless fist,” and The area of a rectangle is length × width,
“balance of the opposing forces of nature.” so the area of the table is 1.5 m × 0.7 m
42. a. According to the first paragraph, Chang = 1.05 square m.
concluded that the snake and the crane, 3. b. Add all four weights for a total of 703; 703
through their movements, were the ones most rounded to the nearest ten is 700.
able to overcome strong, unyielding 4. b. Substitute the values into the given
6(3) − 6( −2)
opponents. expression: 2 then becomes
(3)
43. c. Paragraph three discusses the importance of 18 – (–12)
ᎏᎏ =30 1
ᎏᎏ, or 3ᎏᎏ.
9 9 3
posture in longtime tai chi devotees and 5. a. The formula to use here is A = ᎏ12ᎏbh or
how important it is to keep the body A = ᎏ12ᎏ(10)(2) = 10 square inches.
upright. 6. b. To find the average number of patients
44. b. The passage mentions the importance of treated per day, add up the patients treated
maintaining the balance of yin and yang, during the week and divide by the number
Chang's introduction of flexibility to of days:
martial arts, and the gracefulness of the 33 + 27 + 13 + 22 + 18 + 24 + 31 168
7
= 7 = 24 .
sport. Nothing is mentioned about the 7. d. If 60 people try out and only nine can make
personalities of tai chi participants. the team, then 60 – 9 ⫽ 51 people who will
45. d. According to paragraph four, practitioners not make the team: ᎏ % 51 5,100
ᎏ ⫽ ᎏᎏ, ᎏᎏ ⫽ 85.
100 60 60
of tai chi believe that breathing and 8. c. 60% of some number n equals 75, so
meditation have many benefits, such as 0.60n = 75. Divide both sides by 0.60 to
massaging the internal organs, aiding the find the answer: 0.60 n 75
= 0.60 , n = 125.
0.60
exchange of gases in the lungs, helping the 9. d. Line up your decimal points carefully when
digestive system work more efficiently, adding.
increasing calmness and awareness, and 33.330
improving balance. 3.300
0.333
Section 3: Quantitative Ability 333.000
1. c. 4ᎏ25ᎏ + 3ᎏ12ᎏ + ᎏ38ᎏ can be rewritten: 369.963
4 + 3 + ᎏ25ᎏ + ᎏ12ᎏ + ᎏ38ᎏ. To add the fractions, find 10. b. If the runner wants to travel half the total
the least common multiple of 5, 2, and 8, distance, she wants to run five miles. In
which is 40. Next, rewrite the problem: order to run one mile, she would have to
7 + ᎏ1460ᎏ + ᎏ2400ᎏ + ᎏ1450ᎏ = 7ᎏ5410ᎏ = 8ᎏ1410ᎏ. run around the track four times around, so
in order to run five miles, she would have to
run 4(5) ⫽ 20 times around.
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11. b. To solve this problem, find the area of two 20. b. Use the answers provided and work
rectangles and then add the results. Use an backward. Start with choice c. If there were
imaginary line to block off the first 90 seeds and Serena planted ᎏ14ᎏ of them,
rectangle at the top of the figure. This then she planted 22.5 Already, this answer
rectangle measures 5 feet by 2 feet. Using doesn’t make sense. Try choice b. If they
the formula A = lw, this comes to 10 square started with 60 and Serena planted ᎏ14ᎏ, then
feet. The second rectangle is also 5 feet by 60 ⫺ ᎏ640ᎏ or 60 ⫺ 15 or 45 remained. If her
2 feet. Add the two together for a total of mother then planted ᎏ13ᎏ of the remaining,
20 square feet. then 45 ⫺ ᎏ435ᎏ or 45 ⫺ 15 or 30 remained.
12. c. Change the percent to a decimal and then This matches the question, so choice b is
multiply: 0.072 ⫻ 465 = 33.48, which, correct.
rounded to the nearest tenth, is 33.5. 21. b. If ᎏ25ᎏ of the students are in Group A, then
2
13. a. First, find the least common denominator, ᎏᎏ ⫻ 25 ⫽ 10 are in Group A. If 20% of the
5
40, and rewrite the problem as 3ᎏ2480ᎏ – 2ᎏ1450ᎏ. class is in Group B, then .20(25) ⫽ 5
Subtract the whole numbers, then the students are in Group B: 10 ⫹ 5 ⫽ 15.
fractions, and then add the results to get 22. c. Multiply both parts of the time by 10, then
1ᎏ1430ᎏ. fix your units: 9 minutes ⫻ 10 ⫽ 90
14. a. The halfway point on the number line is minutes; 36 seconds ⫻ 10 ⫽ 360 seconds.
between 0 and –ᎏ12ᎏ, which is –ᎏ14ᎏ. Next, change the seconds into minutes:
15. c. The three angles of a triangle always add up 360 seconds ⫼ 60 ⫽ 6 minutes;
to 180°, so the third angle of this triangle 90 minutes ⫹ 6 minutes ⫽ 96 minutes;
equals 180° − (47° + 86°) = 180° − 133° 96 minutes ⫽ 1 hour (60 of the minutes)
= 47°. 36 minutes.
16. a. To square y, multiply y times y. 23. d. During the meeting, ᎏ58ᎏ(48) = 30 cookies
17. c. This is a simple multiplication problem as were eaten, leaving 48 − 30 = 18 cookies.
long as you keep the decimal values straight. Andrew takes ᎏ13ᎏ(8) = 6 of these cookies,
First, ignore the decimal points and leaving 18 − 6 = 12 cookies. Lia takes
multiply the two numbers: 36708 × 15 = 5 cookies, leaving 12 − 5 = 7 at the end.
550620. Because there are a total of four 24. a. If Kendra wants to buy 2.5 pounds and
decimal digits in 367.08 and 0.15, count off mango costs $6.30 per pound, her purchase
four places from the right in 550620, will cost $6.30(2.5) = $15.75. $20.00 – $15.75
placing the decimal point to the left of the = $4.25.
last four digits to get the answer: 55.0620, or 25. c. Divide 135 (the number of Spanish-speaking
55.062. nurses at the hospital) by 1,125 (the total
18. c. Do the operations in order from left to right: numbers of nurses at the hospital) to arrive
–10 + (–4) = –14. Next, –14 + ᎏ12ᎏ = –13ᎏ12ᎏ. at 0.12 or 12%.
Then, –13ᎏ12ᎏ – (–ᎏ14ᎏ) = –13ᎏ12ᎏ + ᎏ14ᎏ = –13ᎏ14ᎏ. 26. c. From 10:42 to 12:42, two hours have elapsed.
19. d. With 24 tickets, you can get ᎏᎏ24 2 = 12 merry-
ᎏᎏ From 12:42 to 1:00, another 18 minutes
24
go-round rides or ᎏᎏ3ᎏᎏ = 8 roller coaster rides. have elapsed (60 – 42 = 18). Next, between
So, you can get 12 − 8 = 4 more merry-go- 1:00 and 1:19, there is another 19 minutes,
round rides than roller coaster rides for for a total of 2 hours 37 minutes.
24 tickets.
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27. a. To find the percent increase, first subtract 33. c. Let E = emergency room cost; H = hospice
the original salary from the new salary: cost; N = home nursing cost; H = ᎏ14ᎏE, and
$51,500 − $50,000 = $1,500. The percent N = 2H = 2(ᎏ14ᎏE) = ᎏ12ᎏE. The total bill is
increase is the difference divided by the E + H + N = E + (ᎏ14ᎏ) E + (ᎏ24ᎏ)E = $140,000.
original amount: $50, $1, 500
000
= 0.03 = 3%. So (ᎏ74ᎏ)E = $140,000. Multiplying both sides
28. d. First, you have to determine the perimeters by ᎏ47ᎏ yields E = $80,000. Therefore,
of all four rooms. This is done by using the N = ᎏ12ᎏE = $40,000.
formula for a square (P = 4s), or for a 34. c. You must break the $92,000 into the
rectangle (P = 2l + 2w), as follows: (2 ⫻ 12) amounts mentioned in the policy: $92,000
+ (2 ⫻ 8) = 40 for choice a; (2 ⫻ 14) + = $20,000 + $40,000 + $32,000. The
(2 ⫻ 7) = 42 for choice b; 4 ⫻ 10 = 40 for amount the policy will pay is (0.8)($20,000)
choice c; 4 ⫻ 11 = 44 for the correct + (0.6)($40,000) + (0.4)($32,000) =
choice, d. $16,000 + $24,000 + $12,800 = $52,800.
29. b. Convert Fahrenheit to Centigrade using the 35. a. Each Alzheimer’s patient takes ᎏ14ᎏ hour. Each
formula given: C = ᎏ59ᎏ(122 – 32); that is, stroke patient thus takes ᎏ34ᎏ hour. The doctor
C = ᎏ59ᎏ ⫻ 90; so C = 50°. has already spent 10(ᎏ14ᎏ) + 3(ᎏ34ᎏ) = ᎏ140ᎏ + ᎏ94ᎏ =
19 3
30. b. You cannot just take 25% off the original ᎏᎏ = 4ᎏᎏ hours with patients today. Her six-
4 4
price, because the 10% discount after three hour schedule minus 4ᎏ34ᎏ hours leaves 1ᎏ14ᎏ
years of service is taken off the price that hours left to see patients. Since each stroke
has already been reduced by 15%. Figure the patient takes ᎏ34ᎏ hour, the doctor has time to
problem in two steps: After the 15% treat only one more stroke patient in the 1ᎏ14ᎏ
discount, the price is $71.83. Ninety percent hours remaining.
of that—subtracting 10%—is $64.65. 36. b. The question asks for the speed in miles per
31. d. Let n be the number of CNAs that are hour, so first convert the time it takes to get
present. Since the ratio of CNAs to nurses to the hospital to hours: 37.5! min! × ! 60!1! min hr
on a given shift has to be at least 3 to 2, = 0.625 hr. Then divide the number of miles
ᎏᎏᎏ ≥ ᎏᎏ. Cross-multiply to get 2n ≥ 18. Divide
n 3
6 2 traveled by the time to get the answer:
both sides by 2 to see that n ≥ 9. The only 100! miles
0.625! hr = 160 mph.
answer choice that is greater than or equal 37. b. Use the Pythagorean theorem:
to 9 is d, so this is the correct answer. 12 + x2 = (兹10 苶)2; 1 + x2 = 10, so x2 = 9.
32. b. Substituting known quantities into the BMI Thus, x = 3.
64.8
formula yields 20 = ᎏ x2 . Next, multiply
ᎏ 38. d. First, convert the mixed numbers to
3ᎏ19ᎏ 28
ᎏ9ᎏ
both sides by x to get 20x2 = 64.8, and then
2 improper fractions: ᎏ1 = ᎏ 7
. Next, invert
1ᎏ6ᎏ ᎏ6ᎏ
divide through by 20 to get x2 = 3.24. Now the denominator and multiply, canceling
take the square root of both sides to get where possible: ᎏ298ᎏ ⫻ ᎏ67ᎏ = ᎏ83ᎏ = 2ᎏ23ᎏ.
x = 1.8.
328
39. c. Let T = Ted’s age; S = Sam’s age = 3T; 45. a. Complementary angles add up to 90°, so
R = Ron’s age = ᎏ2Sᎏ = ᎏ32Tᎏ. The sum of the ages j + k = 90°, and k = 90° − 72° = 18°.
is ᎏ32Tᎏ + 3T + T = ᎏ32Tᎏ + ᎏ62Tᎏ + ᎏ22Tᎏ = ᎏ11T
2 , which
ᎏ 46. c. A foot in height makes a difference of 60
is equal to 55. Now multiply both sides of lbs., or 5 lbs. per inch of height over 5'. A
11T
the resulting equation, 55 = ᎏ 2 , by 2 to get
ᎏ person who is 5'5" is (5)(5 lbs.) = 25 lbs.
110 = 11T. Divide through by 11 to get heavier than the person who is 5', so add 25
10 = T. That is Ted’s age, so Ron is ᎏᎏ3T 2 = 2
30
ᎏᎏ ᎏᎏ lbs. to 110 lbs. to get 135 lbs.
= 15 years old. 47. a. Twelve oranges at $0.40 each is 12($0.40) =
40. a. If half the students are female, then you $4.80. Eleven apples at $0.60 each is
would expect half of the out-of-state 11($0.60) = $6.60. $6.60 + $4.80 = $11.40.
students to be female. One-half of ᎏ112ᎏ ⫽ If Alena has only $10, she needs $1.40 more.
(ᎏ12ᎏ)(ᎏ112ᎏ) ⫽ ᎏ214ᎏ. 48. b. When x ⫽ 34, then y = ᎏ324ᎏ. (3)(34)(ᎏ324ᎏ) ⫽
41. a. 54ᎏ12ᎏ% is the same as 54.5%. Move the (3)(2) ⫽ 6.
decimal point two places to the left to get 49. b. The difference between 105° and 99° is 6°.
0.545. Application of the ice pack plus a resting
42. c. First, get rid of the square root sign by period of five minutes before reapplication
squaring both sides of the equation: 2x ⫹ means that the temperature is lowered by
2 ⫽ 16. Subtract 2 from both sides to find half a degree every six minutes, or 1° every
that 2x ⫽ 14. Divide both sides by 2 to find 12 minutes. Six degrees times 12 minutes
that x ⫽ 7. per degree is 72 minutes, or 1 hour 12
43. c. Calculate the distance of both times from minutes.
midnight, then add them together. 7:15 is 50. b. The lighter liquid is ᎏ165ᎏ, or ᎏ25ᎏ, of the total
4 hours 45 minutes from midnight. 8 A.M. solution; ᎏ25ᎏ = 0.4, or 40%.
is 8 hours from midnight. The total is
12 hours 45 minutes: 12 hours ⫽ 12(60) Section 4: General Science
minutes or 720 minutes; 720 ⫹ 45 ⫽ 1. d. The weak nuclear force determines beta
765 minutes. decay, which occurs when a neutron converts
44. a. First, find the length of the side that is to a proton with the ejection of an electron.
common to both of the right triangles in 2. d. Sputnik 1 was the first satellite to be put into
the figure. Call that side y. Apply the Earth’s orbit in 1957 by the Soviet Union.
Pythagorean theorem to the triangle on the 3. a. The periodic table has rows of elements
left: 902 + y2 = 1502, so that y2 = 1502 – 902 arranged by their properties, which are
= 22,500 – 8,100 = 14,400. If y2 = 14,400, derived mainly from the patterns of electrons
then y = 120. Now you know the lengths of inside their atoms.
the two legs of the triangle on the right, so 4. a. The valence shell either gains or loses
apply the Pythagorean theorem again: 1202 electrons to create atomic bonds with other
+ 1602 = x2, which means that 14,400 + atoms. Valence means strength (think value).
25,600 = x2. Thus, 40,000 = x2, and x is 5. d. The covalent bond is a shared pair of
therefore 200. (If you realize that both electrons, which “spend time” in both
triangles are 3-4-5 triangles, your work will atoms, though often in one more than the
be easier.) other.
329
6. a. The number 6 brings the total number of 16. d. Though all forms of energy can be
oxygen atoms on the right-hand side to 18, converted into all other forms, the efficiency
the same as the total on the left-hand side, varies and is sometimes very low. Heat, the
thereby balancing the reaction. most degraded form of energy, according to
7. d. Reduction of an element in a chemical the law of entropy, can be made from the
reaction occurs when its charge is other forms with a conversion rate that is
numerically lowered (in this case, from theoretically 100%.
+4 to –4). 17. a. Entropy can decrease only if the decrease is
8. b. The liquid is warmed. The heat of fusion is strictly local and is more than balanced by
the amount of energy is takes to melt a an increase on some larger scale.
solid, or to turn it into liquid at the same 18. c. Galileo Galilei was called the “Father of
temperature. Because our example is Modern Science.” The Roman Inquisition
already liquid, applying any heat at all only investigated him and believed that his work
warms it up. This may or may not also challenged the Catholic Church. He was
evaporate the liquid; we don’t know without found guilty of heresy and ordered to live
more information. the rest of his life under house arrest.
9. a. Amino acids combine to form proteins. 19. b. Potential energy is created at the top, when
Nucleic acids combine to form DNA and the crane stops. Kinetic energy would occur
RNA. were the beam dropped.
10. b. Only quartz contains no carbon, a necessary 20. c. Chemical potential energy is released from
condition for an organic molecule. the food we eat, when combined with
Therefore, quartz is an inorganic molecule. oxygen in the air.
11. a. Wegener first proposed the idea of 21. c. Entomology is the scientific study of insects.
continental drift. Bohr gave us the Bohr The word comes from the Greek entomos
model of the atom; Schrodinger developed which means “that which is cut into pieces
wave mechanics to help explain the or segmented” (meaning insects).
structure of atoms, and Watson studied the 22. d. 3,700 million years ago (equal to 3.7 billion
structure of DNA. years ago) is right between the two kinds of
12. c. The independent variable is the one you evidence for the origin of life, from fossils
change. The dependent variable then and from carbon isotopes.
changes in response. 23. b. Penicillin is derived from the fungi
13. a. The breakdown of plant and animal matter Penicillium. Penicillin antibiotics were the
over long periods of time under special first drugs to cure serious bacterial
conditions leads to the formation of oil. infections and are still widely used today.
14. b. Albert Einstein published the general theory 24. b. Proteins are assembled at ribosomes, from
of relativity in 1916. It describes gravity as a amino acids brought to the ribosomes by
geometric property of space and time. transfer molecules and according to the
15. c. Hydrogen gas does not occur naturally; it genetic code.
can be made from splitting water molecules.
330
25. c. Triplets of bases—for example AAT or CGT 34. c. Metamorphic rocks are formed when a
or GAC—code for amino acids. This was preexisting rock is changed through
discovered by, among others, English extreme heat and/or pressure. Igneous rocks
biologist Francis Crick, who, many years are formed by the cooling and solidification
earlier, first discovered the double helix of magma, and sedimentary rocks are
structure of DNA. formed by the compaction of sediments.
26. d. The r in rRNA stands for ribosomal. 35. a. Single-celled life originated in the Archean
Ribosomal RNA is used to construct the Era.
universal tree of life because all organisms 36. d. Phloem is the special tube-like tissue in
possess ribosomes. plants that transports food downward.
27. d. Liposomes are hollow spheres of lipid Xylem conducts water and minerals up
molecules, which are similar to (though from the soil. The other choices are found
simpler than) cell membranes. Liposomes in animals.
might have played a role in the origin of life 37. a. The evidence of a worldwide clay layer that
and the evolution of cells. contains unnaturally high levels of the
28. b. Perhaps, strangely, it is modern-day pigeons element iridium was found first in Italy, and
that descended from ancestral birds, which then in many parts of the world. Iridium at
descended directly from bipedal dinosaurs. those concentrations must have come from
29. c. Eukaryotic cells have organelles; prokaryotic an impactor from space.
cells do not. The other answers are not types 38. a. Lead-acid car batteries are made up of lead
of cells. and lead dioxide plates that are submerged
30. a. Osteology is the study of bones, including in a solution that is 35% sulfuric acid and
skeletal elements, disease, pathology, teeth, 65% water.
the structure of bones, and any other details 39. c. A seismometer (or seismograph) measures
that help to determine age, sex, death, and motions of the ground, including those
development. It is a sub-discipline of caused by earthquakes and volcanoes. The
anthropology and helps with the identifica- term comes from the Greek seismos,
tion of human remains. meaning “shaking or quaking,” and metron,
31. b. Sodium chloride, or NaCl, is commonly meaning “measure.”
known as table salt. It is the major 40. b. An older mass extinction than the one that
ingredient in edible salt, but is also did away with the dinosaurs came at the
responsible for the salinity of the ocean, end of the Permian stage of geological time,
among other things. the Permian-Triassic boundary, about 250
32. b. The pythons are invasive species because million years ago.
they have been placed in an environment in 41. a. John Glenn orbited the Earth in 1962 in
which they do not normally occur. Friendship 7. He was the first American to
33. b. Benjamin Franklin is credited for inventing do so.
the bifocal lens and was one of the first to 42. a. The field that studies the evolution of
use them. The term “bifocal” was coined in human behavior and the evolution of the
1824 by John Isaac Hawkins, the creator of human mind as it originated back in time is
trifocals, but the invention was credited to called evolutionary psychology.
Franklin by Hawkins.
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43. a. Australopithecus, a human ancestor (or 7. c. Alcohol fermentation occurs during

hominid), is the most recent by far. anaerobic respiration and produces ethanol
44. d. The orangutan is most distantly related to and carbon dioxide.
us, of those on the list. 8. b. Remember that the prefix auto- means self.
45. b. Alkaline is another term for basic, which is Autogamy is a common method of
defined by a pH > 7. fertilization used in plants. Syngamy is the
46. c. Amphibians evolved first, then reptiles, and union of male and female gametes also
then mammals. known as fertilization, and allogamy is
47. b. Electricity is the movement of electrons. cross-fertilization.
48. a. Voltage drives electrical current. It is the 9. c. A single fertilized egg cell divides and
difference in electrical potential between becomes multicellular during cleavage. The
two objects. other answers are all stages that a cell passes
49. c. Velocity is distance per unit time, or v = ᎏdtᎏ. through during the four-staged cell cycle:
50. b. Spectra shifted toward the red have longer G2 phase, M phase (mitosis and cytokine-
wavelengths. sis), G1 phase, and S phase.
10. c. Nitric oxide, NO, is an important molecule
Section 5: Biology in biological systems. O2 and N2 are
1. b. Autotrophs generate energy from sunlight common gases and N2O is not diatomic (it
rather than consuming other sources of contains 3 atoms).
energy. Chloroplasts contain the photosyn- 11. a. Natural selection occurs through genetic
thetic machinery necessary for harvesting traits passed on to offspring that are
solar energy. beneficial to survival, like adapting to harsh
2. d. Xylem tissue conducts water and minerals climates or living with limited resources.
from the roots to the rest of the plant, while Traits learned by parents are not passed on
phloem tissue carries sugars from the leaves to future generations of offspring.
down to other parts of the plant. Sieve tubes 12. b. Active transport requires energy to
are components of phloem. Stomata are transport a substance through the
minute openings in leaves that allow air to membrane. Diffusion and osmosis rely on
enter. concentration differences, and filtration
3. d. Aneuploidy describes extra individual relies on pressure differences.
chromosomes, while polyploidy describes 13. d. Meiosis results in four haploid gametes with
extra sets of homologous chromosomes. half the number of chromosomes as their
4. c. Pollen released by the stamen is captured by parent. This is unlike mitosis, which results
the stigma and reaches the carpels, where in two daughter cells with the same number
the ovum cells are located. of chromosomes.
5. a. Platelets are cell fragments (with no 14. d. Essential amino acids cannot be synthesized
nucleus) that release serotonin and other by the body and must be ingested. The
chemicals, thus instigating the blood- complete list of essential amino acids
clotting process. contains Phe, Val, Thr, Trp, Ile, Met, Leu,
6. c. Edema, also known as dropsy, is the Lys, and His.
interstitial collection of watery fluid.
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15. a. Membranes are not rigid and do not 24. d. Genetic code is broken down into codons of
provide support like cells walls do. The cell three base-pairs. It is helpful to separate the
membrane is responsible for transporting codons as follows: UAU UUC GCU GCA.
substances and forming structures to 25. b. Secondary consumers eat primary
contain cytoplasm and DNA. consumers for energy. This transfer of
16. b. Every person’s body contains an average of energy is represented by trophic levels.
4.5 to 5 liters of blood. 26. b. The cerebellum coordinates impulses sent
17. d. Oxygen-rich blood collects into venules and out from the cerebrum. Its main function is
finally into a pulmonary vein from each to coordinate skeletal movements.
lung. Veins return blood to the heart, while 27. d. The myelin sheath is the outer layer that
arteries carry blood away from the heart. encloses the axons of many neurons.
18. b. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a hereditary 28. d. tRNA is responsible for delivering amino
disease that results in loss of function of the acids to the ribosome according to the
enzyme that converts phenylalanine to sequence on mRNA. If the mutation
tyrosine. Build-up of phenylalanine can affected tRNA, its anticodons may not be
cause many deleterious effects, and so only able to read the sequence of codons, or it
limited amounts may be safely consumed may not be able to attach to the appropriate
for those with PKU. amino acid.
19. c. If incorrect blood types are transfused (for 29. d. The sweat glands form part of the exocrine
example, if type B blood is injected into a system. The other glands form part of the
person with type A blood), red cells will endocrine system.
clump together. This process is called 30. a. Triglycerides are the major constituent in
agglutination. dietary fat. To a lesser extent, phospholipids
20. c. Threonine does not contain any aromatic and cholesterol are also present in dietary
rings. It contains a hydroxyl group. fat. Lipase is an enzyme in vertebrates that
21. a. The homozygous dominant parent has a catalyzes the breakdown of fats into fatty
genotype of QQ and will always give Q to acids and glycerol.
its offspring. The homozygous recessive 31. b. The diastole phase of a heartbeat occurs
parent has a genotype of qq and will always between two contractions of the heart,
give q to its offspring. Therefore, all the during which the heart muscles relax and
offspring will have the genotype Qq, and the ventricles fill up with blood.
the chance of offspring expressing the 32. d. The Malpighian layer—synonymous with
recessive trait is 0%. stratum basale—is the only layer of the skin
22. b. Bacteriophages are viruses that infect in which mitosis occurs.
bacteria. 33. a. Ribosomes, located on the endoplasmic
23. d. The gene appears to be sex-linked, but reticulum (ER) and in the cytoplasm, are
without more information about the where protein synthesis occurs.
genotype of an individual’s parents or 34. a. Hypertension is the medical term for
offspring it is not possible to determine to increased blood pressure.
which chromosome the gene is linked. 35. a. The placenta is the organ in viviparous
animals which connects the embryo to its
mother’s uterus.
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36. c. Draw a Punnett square diagram. Blue eye 45. a. Acquired characteristics are features that
color (b) is a recessive trait, and brown (B) develop within the lifetime of an individual
is dominant. Your mother must be organism, as do large muscles in a weight
homozygous recessive to have blue eyes lifter. The large ears of rabbits and
(bb), and your father is heterozygous (Bb). nocturnal vision of owls have developed
Therefore, your chances of having blue eyes over generations to help these animals
is 50%. survive. The human appendix is a vestigial
37. a. Setae (singular seta) are the bristle-like organ.
projections on some invertebrates. Hair 46. c. Fermentation is an anaerobic process that
only occurs on mammals, and whiskers are uses glucose for energy without oxygen.
a type of hair. Choice a uses light energy to make glucose.
38. a. Hematocrit describes the percentage of Choice d uses glucose for energy when
blood volume occupied by red blood cells. oxygen is used.
Anemia is a condition characterized by too 47. c. Individual 1 definitely has two recessive
few healthy red blood cells. alleles, say rr. Therefore, each of his
39. d. The alveoli, where carbon dioxide and offspring will receive an “r” from him,
oxygen are exchanged, are located at the making all of the offspring carriers of the
ends of pulmonary tubes called bronchioles. recessive trait.
40. c. Light is produced without heat in 48. a. Fungi and plants evolved from protists.
bioluminscent animals when luciferin is Some protists are autotrophs and contain
oxidized. chloroplasts like plants. Fungi are not
41. d. Dentin is the thick, bony layer underneath autotrophic. Protists do not have specialized
the calcium phosphate deposit that makes tissue.
up the enamel of teeth. 49. d. Codons are three-letter codes of either DNA
42. c. The macula is a spot near the center of the or mRNA that code for a specific amino
retina in the eye. Macular degeneration acid that is added during translation.
results in loss of central vision. 50. b. The first parent showing the recessive trait
43. d. Prokaryotes include only unicellular has genotype nn and will always give its
organisms: bacteria and archaea. All of the offspring n. The second parent not showing
other characteristics listed are seen only in the recessive trait has at least one N (the
eukaryotic cells. possible genotypes are Nn and NN). If the
44. b. Digestive organs called accessory organs offspring do not show the recessive trait,
contribute to the digestive process, but food then they received N from the second
does not pass through them. Choice b, the parent and the first parent gave n, making
liver, is an example. The other choices are the genotype Nn.
part of the alimentary canal or gastroin-
testinal tract, which is the tube through
which food passes as it is digested.
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Section 6: Chemistry 12. b. Bismuth (III) has an oxidation number of

1. c. Sulfuric acid (H2SO4) is a strong acid. The +3, and the hydroxide ion has an oxidation
other acid given, HNO2, is a weak acid. The number of –1. Therefore, three hydroxide
other choices are bases. ions must bond to each bismuth atom to
2. c. Copper oxide, a metal oxide, forms copper form an uncharged compound.
sulphate, a salt, and water when combined 13. b. When an alkali metal such as sodium reacts
with sulphuric acid. with water, an explosive reaction takes
3. b. There is 1 mole of H2O in 18.0 g of water. place, and the result is a metal hydroxide
Each mole of water contains 2 moles of and hydrogen gas.
hydrogen. 14. b. When an atom loses electrons, it is said to
4. d. In this reaction, the iron is reduced from be oxidized; and when an atom gains
Fe (III) to Fe (0), and the aluminum is electrons, it is said to be reduced. In this
oxidized from Al (0) to Al (III). reaction, Br goes from negatively charged to
5. d. This is the only balanced option. neutral, thus losing an electron and being
6. c. Aldehydes consist of a central carbon atom oxidized. Mn goes from a charge of +7 to a
bonded to a lone hydrogen atom and a charge of +2, gaining electrons in the
carbon chain, and double bonded to an process and becoming reduced.
oxygen. Thus, choice c is correct. 15. b. Atoms decrease in radius across rows of the
7. c. Phosphate has a charge of –3, and cobalt periodic table to the right. For any row, the
(II) has a charge of +2. To balance the outermost orbital of electrons is the same
charges, they must be combined into for all elements in the row, and each added
Co3(PO4)2. electron fills that orbital. However, each
8. c. Phospholipids, the major components of atom gains a proton as well, which increases
cell membranes, are made up of one the attraction between the nucleus and
molecule of glycerol bonded to two fatty electrons, thus reducing the atomic radius.
acids and one phosphate group. Choice a Atoms increase in radius going down a
describes a peptide bond, and choice b column because each successive atom adds
describes a fat. an orbital of electrons. Since Li, N, and F are
9. b. Choice b is the definition of osmotic in the same row, and Li is the leftmost atom,
pressure. Osmotic potential, mentioned in it is the largest of the three. However, Cs is
choice d, is inversely proportional to below Li and is therefore the largest.
osmotic pressure and is the Gibbs free 16. d. Carbonic acid, H2CO3, has a pKa of 6.35,
energy value for the osmosis reaction. making it the weakest acid of the choices.
10. d. An aldehyde is a molecule containing a 17. c. The mass of the empirical compound
carbonyl group, C=O, a hydrogen atom, and CH2O = (1C ⫻ 12 g) + (2H ⫻ 1 g) + (1O ⫻
an alkyl group. The only choice that fits this 16 g) = 30 g. Since the molar mass of the
definition is choice d. compound is 90 g, the multiplier is ᎏ9300ᎏ = 3,
11. a. adecay is the decay process where a helium yielding a molecular formula of C3H6O3.
nucleus is released. 18. b. As a general rule, atomic radius increases as
you go down and to the left in the periodic
table. Rb is the farthest down and to the left.
335
19. c. Gases move more freely compared with 27. d. The coefficients in the balanced reaction
solids and liquids. show that for every four P molecules
20. a. In redox reactions, atoms that lose electrons reacted, there are two P2O5 molecules
are being oxidized. The half reaction produced—a ratio of 2:1, as shown by the
Zn(s) Æ Zn2+(aq) + 2e– shows that Zn(s) is coefficients. If three moles of P2O5 are to be
losing two electrons in this reaction. produced by this reaction, twice as many
21. d. Both KOH and NH4+ are basic, leaving only moles of P are required: six moles. Using
H3PO4 and H2PO4–. Because acidic Avogadro’s number to calculate the number
compounds are generally H+ donors, and of molecules, this means:
H2PO4– has already lost one H+, H3PO4 is 6.02 ⫻ 1023 molecules/mole ⫻ 6 moles of
the more acidic. P ⫽ 3.61 ⫻ 1024 molecules P required.
22. b. Because there are already either Ag2+ or 28. b. The first comparison finds that the given
CO32– ions in the solutions in choices a, c, amount of LiBr is 0.836 moles:
and d, AgCO3 will be apt to form some (1 mol LiBr)
72.6g LiBr ⫻ ᎏ g LiBr) ⫽ 0.836 mol LiBr
(86.841ᎏ
solid. However, neither of these ions exist in
the solution of KCl, allowing AgCO3 to The molar ratio for LiBr and LiOH is 1:1, so
dissolve. if 0.836 mol LiBr is a reactant, then 0.836
23. b. bdecay results in the conversion of a mol LiOH is the product. The next step
neutron into a proton and an electron, with converts 0.836 mol LiOH to grams LiOH in
expulsion of the electron from the nucleus. order to calculate the mass necessary:
24. c. Trans fats are fatty acids with at least one 20.01g.
trans C–C double bond. These fats are 0.836! mol! LiOH! × ! (23.941g! LiOH)
=
(1! mol! LiOH)
found in partially hydrogenated oils and
20.01g LiOH
have been associated with many negative
health effects. 29. b. Transition metals are those with partially
25. d. Combustion reactions produce CO2 and filled d orbitals. Iron is the only element on
H2O. the list that fits that criterion.
26. b. A liquid will change shape according to the 30. c. Sulfur is in group VI, so it has six valence
container it is in, whereas a gas will spread electrons.
out to fill its container, and a liquid will sit at 31. d. Ca has two valence electrons, which occur
the bottom of its container, retaining the in the 4s shell.
same volume. A solid always retains the same 32. d. Choices a and c are not polar bonds.
shape and volume. Fluorine will always form more polar bonds
than chlorine in covalent compounds.
33. a. The SO32– anion is named sulfite; Li is
lithium.
34. a. The oxidation numbers of NO3– and I– are
generally both –1; to make the net charge
zero, the oxidation number for Na must be
+1.
35. b. Choice b is the only one involving a beta
particle.
336
36. c. It will take one half-life to decay from 40 g to 48. b. The weak base thallium (III) hydroxide has
20 g; it will take another half-life to decay a formula of Tl(OH)3, which only changes
from 20 g to 10 g. This will take a total of to TI3+ in a very strong acid.
2.4 ⫻ 109 years. 49. a. The conjugate acid, or proton donor, in the
37. a. Uranium is an actinide. Actinides are system shown here is H2PO4–.
elements with partially filled 5f orbitals 50. a. This is the only balanced option.
(elements 89–103).
38. a. The number of protons is the atomic
number, or the lower number; the upper Scoring
number is the sum of the protons and
neutrons, or the atomic mass number. After you take your nursing school entrance exam, a
39. b. A ketone features a carbonyl group (C=O) complicated formula will be used to convert your raw
with 2 carbons bound to either side of it. score on each section of the test into a percentile. The
40. c. The only effect of the addition of a catalyst raw score is simply the number you get right on each
is to increase the rate of reaction. There is section; wrong answers don’t count against you. A per-
no change in the reaction’s composition. centile is a way of comparing your score with that of
41. a. Allotropes are two different formats of an other test takers; this number indicates what percent of
element. Ozone and O2 are two different other test takers scored lower than you did on this section.
formats for the element oxygen. First, count the number of questions you got
42. c. For an ideal gas in a fixed volume, right in each section, and record them in the following
temperature and pressure are directly blanks:
proportional. The temperature must be
converted to Kelvin (27°C = 300 K and Section 1: of 50 questions right
117°C = 390 K). The temperature increased Section 2: of 45 questions right
by 390
300
= 1.3, and so the new pressure must Section 3: of 50 questions right
be 1 atm × 1.3 = 1.3 atm. Section 4: of 50 questions right
43. a. Oxyacids of halogens are named by the Section 5: of 50 questions right
number of oxygens attached. HClO is Section 6: of 50 questions right
hypochlorous acid, HClO2 is chlorous acid,
HClO3 is chloric acid, and HClO4 is Next, convert your raw score into a percentage for
perchloric acid. each section of the exam. (Remember that this per-
44. c. A decomposition reaction involves a single centage is not the same as a percentile.) By now, your
molecule breaking down into two separate quantitative ability should be good enough to tell you
molecules. how to arrive at a percentage, but if you’ve forgotten,
45. a. The electron configuration for Cl is refer back to the Scoring instructions in Chapter 3.
[Ne]3s23p5. Now, you can compare your scores on this test
46. d. Amines are organic molecules with an NR3 with those on the first practice exam. Chances are,
(R = alkyl or hydrogen) group. your scores went up. If they didn’t, it’s probably
47. a. 4.12 ⫻ 10–3 ⫹ 9.54 ⫻ (10–3 ⫻ 10–2) = because you took the first practice exam without hav-
(4.12 ⫹ 9.54 ⫻ 10–2) ⫻10–3 = 4.22 ⫻ 10–3 ing to worry about time, whereas in this exam, you had
(two decimal places as in 4.12 and 9.54) some fairly tight time limits to meet.
337
So if your scores went down between the first ■ For sections on which you scored 50–70%, more
practice exam and this one, the problem is not so much review and practice is in order. Find a tutor, or
the limits of your knowledge as your ability to work form a study group with other students who are
quickly without sacrificing accuracy. In that case, preparing for the nursing school entrance exam.
reread Chapter 2, “LearningExpress Test Prep System,” Go to the library or bookstore for other books
for tips on how to improve your time management that review the relevant areas; if those books also
during the exam. Then, practice your time manage- contain practice test questions, all the better.
ment skills on the sample exam in the next chapter. When you’ve done a fair amount of review, go
Before you begin each section, figure out the average back to the appropriate chapters of this book to
amount of time allotted for each question by dividing review the practice questions and strategies.
the number of minutes allowed by the number of ■ For sections on which you scored 70–80%,
questions. Then, as you work through the section, keep you’re on your way to a score that will look good
yourself moving according to the schedule you’ve to the admissions department of your chosen
worked out. Remember to rack up the easy points by program, but a little more work wouldn’t hurt.
answering the easiest questions first, leaving the harder Start by reviewing the appropriate chapters in
questions for last. this book. If you feel at all shaky about the mate-
On the other hand, if your scores went up, you’re rial, use other resources: additional books, a
probably wondering if they went up enough and, if friend who’s good at the appropriate subject, a
not, what you should do about it. First of all, remem- study group, or a peer tutor.
ber that no one is expected to score 100% on a section, ■ For sections on which you scored more than 80%,
so don’t be too hard on yourself. Here’s what you you’re in pretty good shape. But you should keep
should do, based on your percentage scores on this studying and practicing up to the day before the
practice exam: test, so you’ll know that you’re as prepared as pos-
sible to score as well as you can. Keep reviewing
■ For sections on which you scored less than 50%, Chapters 4–9 of this book right up until test day,
you need some concentrated work in those areas. and use additional resources whenever you can.
(If you scored under 50% on all five sections, you
might have to postpone taking the exam while One of the biggest keys to your success on the
you work on your skills.) If biology and chem- exam is your self-confidence. The more comfortable
istry were your problem areas, more work with you are with your ability to perform, the more likely
your textbooks and other materials might be you are to do well on the exam. You know what to
enough, especially if you weren’t very conscien- expect, you know your strengths and weaknesses, and
tious about reviewing before you took this prac- you can work to turn those weaknesses into strengths
tice exam. For other areas, and for biology and before the actual exam. Your preparedness should give
chemistry if you did review your textbooks, an you the confidence that you’ll need to do well on
extra college course is your best bet. If you don’t exam day.
have time or money for a complete course, find a
tutor who will work with you individually. Most
colleges have free or low-cost peer tutorial pro-
grams, or you may be able to get help from a pro-
fessional teacher for a reasonable hourly fee.
338
11
C H A P T E R
PRACTICE
EXAM III
CHAPT ER S UM M ARY
How ready are you? This is the last of the three practice exams pre-
sented in this book. Use this test for extra practice and to determine
the areas where you should concentrate your attention in the time
leading up to exam day.
T his practice test will give you additional preparation and help you focus your study in the final days
before the exam. As with the two earlier practice exams, this multiple-choice test is designed to reflect
the topics and format of the entrance exams used by nursing programs. The four test areas include
Verbal Ability, Reading Comprehension, Math, and Science. Although this practice test is general enough to pre-
pare you for any nursing school entrance exam, be sure to investigate the specifics of the test you will be taking.
The more you know, the better prepared you will be.
Before you take this third exam, find a quiet place where you can work undisturbed for three hours. Set a
timer, stopwatch, or alarm clock to time yourself according to the directions in each section. Work as quickly as
you can to meet the time limits, but do not sacrifice accuracy. Stop working when you run out of time, even if
you have not answered all of the questions. Allow yourself a five-minute break between each section, and a 15-
minute break after Section 3.
Using a number 2 pencil, mark your answers on the answer sheet on page 341. The answer key is located
on page 380—refer to this only once you have completed the test. A section about how to score your exam fol-
lows the answer key.
339

1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
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1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
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17. a b c d 34. a b c d

1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
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Section 5: Biology
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10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d 46. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d 47. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d 48. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d 49. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d 50. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d
1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
8. a b c d 25. a b c d 42. a b c d
9. a b c d 26. a b c d 43. a b c d
10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d 46. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d 47. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d 48. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d 49. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d 50. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d
343
– PRACTICE EXAM III –
Section 1: Verbal Ability 8. a. porcelain

b. porcelin
Find the correctly spelled word in the following ques- c. porcilin
tions. You have 15 minutes to complete 50 questions. d. porcilain
1. a. compete 9. a. delirious
b. compeet b. delerious
c. compeete c. delireous
d. compet d. dilerious
2. a. audable 10. a. pleed

b. audible b. plede
c. audiable c. plead
d. auddable d. plaed
3. a. entirity 11. a. inundated

b. entirrety b. innundated
c. entirety c. inondatted
d. intirety d. inundatid
4. a. gradually 12. a. funnyer

b. gradualy b. funier
c. gradualely c. funyer
d. gradualey d. funnier
5. a. preambel 13. a. obediant

b. preamble b. obeddient
c. priambel c. obedient
d. priamble d. obedeint
6. a. stomacheache 14. a. prosecuted

b. stomacache b. prossecuted
c. stomachache c. prosecutted
d. stomackache d. prosecuited
7. a. madness 15. a. counterfiet

b. maddness b. counterfit
c. maddnes c. countirfit
d. madnesse d. counterfeit
345
16. a. symetricaly 24. a. penicillen

b. symetrically b. penicillin
c. symmetricully c. penicillen
d. symmetrically d. penicilin
17. a. dalaying 25. a. adolescense

b. delaing b. adolessents
c. deleying c. adolescence
d. delaying d. adolscence
18. a. vacuum Find the misspelled word in the following questions.

b. vaccuum
c. vacum 26. a. eloquent
d. vacume b. eased
c. cheesey
19. a. acomodate d. no mistakes
b. acommodate
c. acommedate 27. a. potatoes
d. accommodate b. sopranoes
c. albinos
20. a. incredulus d. no mistakes
b. incredulous
c. increduluos 28. a. aggitate
d. incredulis b. pigment
c. vault
21. a. trauma d. no mistakes
b. trouma
c. troma 29. a. trophy
d. trama b. replenish
c. simultaneus
22. a. marrigeable d. no mistakes
b. marrageable
c. marriageable 30. a. coughing
d. mariageable b. oasis
c. laughable
23. a. ilegible d. no mistakes
b. illegible
c. ilegable 31. a. encapsulate
d. illegable b. thesisis
c. braided
d. no mistakes
346
32. a. debateable 40. a. judge

b. enviable b. ilegal
c. despicable c. magistrate
33. a. flys 41. a. correspondent

b. business b. corrosivness
c. acquisition c. coronation
34. a. border 42. a. acrobat

b. bullitin b. somersault
c. magazine c. gymnist
35. a. recoyle 43. a. tenacious

b. perspiration b. consequence
c. fumble c. glorify
36. a. marginal 44. a. inept

b. syllable b. plentiful
c. fraudelent c. shawl
37. a. problematic 45. a. panicy

b. questionniare b. jittery
c. controversial c. nervous
38. a. pungaent 46. a. spiteful

b. aromatic b. hungrier
c. spicy c. crazyness
39. a. hybrid 47. a. yellowish

b. hypnosis b. spoiled
c. hygeinic c. returnable
347
48. a. chiase indicate that excess cortisol released over a long

b. lounge span of time may have many negative health
c. seat consequences. Excess cortisol may cause
d. no mistakes shrinking of the hippocampus, a brain
structure required for the formation of certain
49. a. extremly types of memory.
b. abundance In experiments with animals, scientists
c. dancing have shown that a well-defined period of early
d. no mistakes postnatal development may be an important
determinant of the capacity to handle stress
50. a. spiteful throughout life. In one set of studies, rat pups
b. freindly were removed from their mothers each day for a
c. laughing period as brief as 15 minutes and then returned.
d. no mistakes The natural maternal response of instinctively
licking and grooming the returned pup was
shown to alter the brain chemistry of the pup in
Section 2: a positive way, making the animal less reactive to
Reading Comprehension stressful stimuli. While these pups are able to
mount an appropriate stress response in the face
Read each passage and answer the accompanying ques- of threat, their response does not become
tions based only on the information found in the pas- excessive or inappropriate. Rat mothers who
sage. You have 45 minutes to complete this section. spontaneously lick and groom their pups with
the same intensity even without human
It is well known that the early months and years handling of the pups also produce pups that
of life are critical for brain development. But have a similarly stable reaction, including an
the question remains: Just how do early appropriate stress hormone response.
influences act on the brain to promote or Striking differences were seen in rat pups
challenge the developmental process? Research that were removed from their mothers for
has suggested that both positive and negative periods of three hours a day, a model of
experiences, chronic stressors, and various maternal neglect, when compared to pups that
other environmental factors may affect a young were not separated. After three hours, the
child’s developing brain. And now, studies mother rats tended to ignore the pups, at least
involving animals are revealing in greater detail initially, upon their return. In sharp contrast to
how this may occur. those pups that were greeted attentively by their
One important line of research has mothers after a short absence, the “neglected”
focused on brain systems that control stress pups were shown to have a more profound and
hormones—cortisol, for example. Cortisol and excessive stress response in subsequent tests. This
other stress hormones play an important role in response appeared to last into adulthood.
emergencies: they help our bodies make energy It is far too early to draw firm
available to enable effective responses, conclusions from these animal studies about
temporarily suppress the immune response, the extent to which early life experience
and sharpen attention. However, a number of produces a long-lived or permanent set point
studies conducted in people with depression for stress responses or influences the
348
development of the cerebral cortex in humans. 4. What is the main idea of this passage?
However, animal models that show the a. to prove via a clinical study that parental
interactive effect of stress and brain neglect leads to significant turmoil and
development deserve serious consideration stress as an adult
and continued study. b. to introduce the concept that significant
stress when young can permanently alter
1. As used in paragraph five, what does the word brain functions
draw mean? c. to show via animals that parents should not
a. attract leave a child alone for more than 15 minutes
b. sketch d. to prove that good parenting will lead to
c. make children who do not easily get stressed
d. tie
5. Which of the following is true, according to
2. Which of the following is true of rat pups that paragraphs 3 and 4?
were removed from their mothers for periods a. The animals removed from their parents for
of three hours a day in the study? only 15 minutes did not show signs of
a. They helped to prove the validity of the stress.
study. b. Scientists found that the pups removed for
b. They displayed relatively normal stress three hours had heightened levels of cortisol
response levels. compared with those removed for 15
c. They received little attention when first minutes.
returned to their mothers. c. Rat pups are used to being licked and
d. They developed physical problems that groomed by their mothers.
lasted into adulthood. d. The goal of the experiment was to eliminate
stress levels from the pups in order to apply
3. What was the overall point of the study their findings to humans.
discussed in the passage?
a. to show that rats facing stressful experiences 6. What is the best definition of the word promote
when young remained distressed as they in paragraph 1?
aged a. endorse
b. to study how the parenting skills of rats b. advance
differ from the parenting skills of humans c. affect
c. to prove that parental neglect can occur in d. hinder
animals as much as it can in humans
d. to measure the amount of separation time
between parent and child that will lead to
distress
349
7. According to the passage, which of the BMI correlates significantly with total body fat
following is NOT true about stress? content. It is calculated by dividing a person’s
a. Parents should avoid exposing their children weight in pounds by height in inches squared
to any stress at the critical early ages. and multiplied by 703. Use of VLCDs in
b. Stress helps drive the body during an patients with a BMI of 27 to 30 should be
emergency situation. reserved for those who have medical conditions
c. Stress can help delay physical response to due to being overweight, such as high blood
stimuli during a crisis. pressure. In fact, all candidates for VLCDs
d. Excessive stress as a toddler may permanently undergo a thorough examination by their
alter the brain. healthcare provider to make sure the diet will
not worsen preexisting medical conditions.
A very low-calorie diet (VLCD) is a doctor- These diets are not appropriate for children or
supervised diet that typically uses commercially adolescents, except in specialized treatment
prepared formulas to promote rapid weight loss programs.
in patients who are obese. These formulas, Very little information exists regarding
usually liquid shakes or bars, replace all food the use of VLCDs in older adults. Because
intake for several weeks or months. VLCD adults over age 50 already experience depletion
formulas need to contain appropriate levels of of lean body mass, use of a VLCD may not be
vitamins and micronutrients to ensure that warranted. Also, people over 50 may not
patients meet their nutritional requirements. tolerate the side effects associated with VLCDs
Some physicians also prescribe VLCDs made because of preexisting medical conditions or
up almost entirely of lean protein foods, such the need for other medicines. Doctors must
as fish and chicken. People on a VLCD evaluate on a case-by-case basis the potential
consume about 800 calories per day or less. risks and benefits of rapid weight loss in older
VLCD formulas are not the same as the meal adults, as well as in patients who have
replacements you can find at grocery stores or significant medical problems or are on
pharmacies, which are meant to replace one or medications. Furthermore, doctors must
two meals a day. Over-the-counter meal monitor all VLCD patients regularly—ideally
replacements, such as bars, entrees, or shakes, every two weeks in the initial period of rapid
should account for only part of one's daily weight loss—to be sure they are not
calories. experiencing serious side effects.
When used under proper medical A VLCD may allow a patient who is
supervision, VLCDs may produce significant moderately to extremely obese to lose about
short-term weight loss in patients who are three to five pounds per week for an average
moderately to extremely obese. VLCDs should total weight loss of 44 pounds over 12 weeks.
be part of comprehensive weight-loss treatment Such a weight loss can rapidly improve obesity-
programs that include behavioral therapy, related medical conditions, including diabetes,
nutrition counseling, physical activity, and/or high blood pressure, and high cholesterol. The
drug treatment. rapid weight loss experienced by most people
VLCDs are designed to produce rapid on a VLCD can be very motivating. Patients
weight loss at the start of a weight-loss program who participate in a VLCD program that
in patients with a body mass index (BMI) includes lifestyle treatment typically lose about
greater than 30 and significant co-morbidities. 15% to 25% of their initial weight during the
350
first three to six months. They may maintain a 11. According to the passage, which of the
5% weight loss after four years if they adopt a following is true about people on a VLCD?
healthy eating plan and physical activity habits. a. They may eventually start feeling excessively
Many patients on a VLCD for four to 16 weary.
weeks report minor side effects, such as fatigue, b. They always suffer permanent negative side
constipation, nausea, or diarrhea. These effects.
conditions usually improve within a few weeks c. They will not see results until six months
and rarely prevent patients from completing after starting the diet.
the program. The most common serious side d. They enjoy health benefits such as a
effect is gallstone formation. Gallstones, which decrease of gallstones
often develop in people, especially women, who
are obese, are even more common during rapid 12. According to the passage, what is true of a
weight loss. Research indicates that rapid person’s BMI level?
weight loss may increase cholesterol levels in a. A person who is 200 pounds and 6 feet tall
the gallbladder and decrease its ability to will have a lower BMI than a person who is
contract and expel bile. Some medicines can 200 pounds and 5.5 feet tall.
prevent gallstone formation during rapid b. BMI takes your age into account.
weight loss. A healthcare provider can c. A person with obese parents will have a
determine if these treatments are appropriate. higher BMI than a person with parents of a
normal weight.
8. What is a good title for this passage? d. You should start a VLCD if your BMI level
a. VLCDs: An Easy Path to Weight-Loss Success is over 30.
b. The Risks of a VLCD Diet
c. An Option for Combating Obesity in Adults 13. What can be inferred from the passage about
d. What Your BMI Says about Your Health the specifics of a VLCD?
a. Maintaining a successful VLCD is a simple
9. According to the passage, which of the matter of exact calories.
following is often related to obesity? b. Patients on VLCDs eat only about two times
a. nausea a day.
b. diabetes c. VLCDs work best if they are comprised only
c. body mass depletion of liquid shakes that contain all the
d. diarrhea appropriate nutrients.
d. VLCDs must be rich in vitamins in order to
10. A person of which age would likely have the work to their full potential.
least lean body mass?
a. 11 A government report addressing concerns
b. 21 about the many implications of genetic testing
c. 41 outlined policy guidelines and legislative
d. 61 recommendations intended to avoid
involuntary and ineffective testing and protect
confidentiality.
The report identified urgent concerns,
such as quality control measures (including
351
federal oversight for testing laboratories) and Prenatal testing can pose the most
better genetics training for medical difficult issues. The ability to diagnose genetic
practitioners. It recommended voluntary disorders in the fetus far exceeds any ability to
screening, urged couples in high-risk treat or cure them. Parents must be fully
populations to consider carrier screening, and informed about risks and benefits of testing
advised caution in using and interpreting procedures, the nature and variability of the
presymptomatic or predictive tests, as certain disorders they would disclose, and the options
information could easily be misused or available if test results are positive. Obtaining
misinterpreted. informed consent—a process that would
About three in every 100 children are include educating participants, not just
born with a severe disorder presumed to be processing documents—would enhance
genetic or partially genetic in origin. Genes, voluntary participation. When offered testing,
often in concert with environmental factors, are parents should receive comprehensive
being linked to the causes of many common counseling, which should be nondirective.
adult diseases, such as coronary artery disease, Relevant medical advice, however, is
hypertension, various cancers, diabetes, and recommended for treatable or preventable
Alzheimer’s disease. Tests to determine conditions.
predisposition to a variety of conditions are Genetics also can predict whether certain
under study, and some are beginning to be diseases might develop later in life. For single-
applied. gene diseases, population screening should only
The report recommended that all be considered for treatable or preventable
screening, including screening of newborns, be conditions of relatively high frequency.
voluntary. Citing results of two different voluntary Children should be tested only for disorders for
newborn screening programs, the report said which effective treatments or preventive
that these programs can achieve compliance measures could be applied early in life.
rates equal to or better than those of mandatory
programs. State health departments could 14. Based on how it is used in the passage, the
eventually mandate the offering of tests for word prenatal most nearly means
diagnosing treatable conditions in newborns; a. newborn.
however, careful pilot studies for conditions b. genetic disorder.
diagnosable at birth need to be conducted first. c. before birth.
Although the report asserted that it would d. undisclosed.
prefer all screening to be voluntary, it did note
that if a state requires newborn screening for a 15. Out of 300 children, about how many are likely
particular condition, the state should do so to be born with severe genetic disorders?
only if there is strong evidence that a newborn a. 3
would benefit from effective treatment at the b. 9
earliest possible age. Newborn screening is the c. 30
most common type of genetic screening today. d. 100
More than four million newborns are tested
annually so that effective treatment can be
started in a few hundred affected infants.
352
16. How many infants are treated for genetic regions in the lungs but provide poor soft-
disorders as a result of newborn screening? tissue contrast and no clear view of air
a. dozens passages. Computed tomography, a cross
b. hundreds sectional X-ray scan, can provide high-
c. thousands resolution images of the walls of the lungs and
d. millions its airways but gives no measure of function.
Conventional MRI, because it images water
17. One intention of the policy guidelines was to protons, provides poor images of the lungs,
a. implement compulsory testing. which are filled with air, not water.
b. minimize concerns about quality control. The new MRI technique detects not water,
c. endorse the expansion of screening but inert gases whose nuclei have been strongly
programs. aligned, or hyperpolarized, by laser light. Ini-
d. preserve privacy in testing. tially, this technique seemed to have no practical
application, but exhaustive research has proven
18. According to the report, states should its potential. Scientists plan to further refine this
implement mandatory infant screening only technology with animal and human studies, in
a. if the compliance rate for voluntary part because they have yet to produce a viable
screening is low. 3-D image of human lungs (as of this editing).
b. for mothers who are at high risk for genetic By 1995, researchers had produced the first
disease. 3-D MRI pictures of a living animal’s lungs. In
c. after meticulous research is undertaken. the first human test, a member of the research
d. to avoid the abuse of sensitive information. team inhaled hyperpolarized helium-3. His
lungs were then imaged using a standard MRI
19. The most prevalent form of genetic testing is scanner that had been adjusted to detect helium.
conducted on The results were impressive, considering that the
a. high-risk populations. system had yet to be optimized and there was
b. adults. only a relatively small volume of gas with which
c. fetuses prior to birth. to work.
d. infants shortly after birth. When a standard MRI is taken, the patient
enters a large magnet. Many of the body’s
Scientists have developed an innovative hydrogen atoms (primarily the hydrogen atoms
procedure that reveals details of tissues and in water) align with the magnetic field like tiny
organs that are difficult to see by conventional bar magnets, and the nucleus at the center of
magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). By using each atom spins constantly about its north-
“hyperpolarized” gases, scientists have taken south axis. Inside the MRI scanner, a radio
the first clear MRI pictures of human lungs and pulse temporarily knocks the spinning nuclei
airways. Researchers hope the new technique out of position, and as their axes gradually
will aid the diagnosis and treatment of lung realign within the magnetic field, they emit
disorders and perhaps lead to improved faint radio signals. Computers convert these
visualization of blood flow. faint signals into an image.
The air spaces of the lungs have been The new gas-based MRI is built around
notoriously difficult for clinicians to visualize. similar principles. But circularly polarized light,
Chest X-rays can detect tumors or inflamed rather than a magnet, is used to align spinning
353
nuclei, and the inert gases helium-3 or xenon- 24. Use of which of the following is substituted for
129 (rather than hydrogen) provide the nuclei use of a magnet in one of the MRI techniques?
that emit the image-producing signals. The a. light
laser light polarizes the gases through a b. hydrogen
technique known as spin exchange. Helium-3 c. helium-3
and xenon-129 are ideal for gas-based MRI d. X-rays
because they take hours to lose their
polarization. Most other gases readily lose their 25. An image lacking in clarity is likely to be the
alignment. The clarity of an MRI picture depends result of
in part on the volume of aligned nuclei. a. a high number of aligned nuclei.
b. hydrogen being replaced with xenon.
20. The MRI innovation is different from the c. an abbreviated period of alignment.
standard MRI in that it d. nuclei regaining their aligned position.
a. distinguishes gases rather than water.
b. uses magnets rather than light. Once people wore garlic around their necks to
c. has a range of useful applications. ward off disease. Today, most Americans would
d. provides better images of blood circulation. scoff at the idea of wearing a necklace of garlic
cloves to enhance their well-being. However,
21. The inability to generate satisfactory images of you might find a number of Americans willing
air routes is a deficiency of to ingest capsules of pulverized garlic or other
a. computed tomography. herbal supplements in the name of health.
b. the spin exchange process. Complementary and alternative medicine
c. 3-D pictures. (CAM), which includes a range of practices
d. chest X-rays. outside of conventional medicine, such as
herbs, homeopathy, massage, yoga, and
22. Which of the following is a flaw of conven- acupuncture, holds increasing appeal for
tional MRI? Americans. In fact, according to one estimate,
a. It cannot detect water. 42% of Americans have used alternative
b. It provides poor images of the lungs. therapies. A Harvard Medical School survey
c. It only visualizes blood flow. found that adults born between 1965 and 1979
d. It polarizes gases. are the most likely to use alternative treatments,
whereas people born before 1945 are the least
23. The word that can best be interchanged with likely to use these therapies. Nonetheless, in all
hyperpolarization in the passage is age groups, the use of unconventional
a. visualization. healthcare practices has steadily increased since
b. alignment. the 1950s, and the trend is likely to continue.
c. emission. CAM has become a big business as
d. tomography. Americans dip into their wallets to pay for
alternative treatments. A 1997 American
Medical Association study estimated that the
public spent $21.2 billion for alternative
medicine therapies in that year, more than half
of which were “out-of-pocket” expenditures,
354
meaning they were not covered by health So what about those who swear by the
insurance. Indeed, Americans made more out- health benefits of the “smelly rose,” garlic?
of-pocket expenditures for alternative services Observational studies that track disease
than they did for out-of-pocket payments for incidence in different populations suggest that
hospital stays in 1997. In addition, the number garlic use in the diet may act as a cancer-
of total visits to alternative medicine providers fighting agent, particularly for prostate and
(about 629 million) exceeded the number of stomach cancer. However, these findings have
visits to primary care physicians (386 million) not been confirmed in clinical studies. And, yes,
in that year. reported side effects include garlic odor.
However, the public has not abandoned
conventional medicine for alternative 26. The author describes wearing garlic as an
healthcare. Most Americans seek out alternative example of
therapies as a complement to their conventional a. an arcane practice considered odd and
healthcare, whereas only a small percentage of superstitious today.
Americans rely primarily on alternative care. b. the ludicrous nature of complementary and
Why have so many patients turned to alternative alternative medicine.
therapies? Frustrated by the time constraints of c. a scientifically tested medical practice.
managed care and alienated by conventional d. a socially unacceptable style of jewelry.
medicine’s focus on technology, some feel that a
holistic approach to healthcare better reflects 27. As it is used in the second paragraph, the word
their beliefs and values. Others seek therapies practices most nearly means
that will relieve symptoms associated with a. businesses.
chronic disease, symptoms that mainstream b. routines.
medicine cannot treat. c. usages.
Some alternative therapies have crossed d. studies.
the line into mainstream medicine as scientific
investigation has confirmed their safety and 28. The author most likely uses the Harvard survey
efficacy. For example, today physicians may results in the second paragraph to imply that
prescribe acupuncture for pain management or a. as people age, they always become more
to control the nausea associated with conservative.
chemotherapy. Most U.S. medical schools teach b. people born before 1945 view alternative
courses in alternative therapies, and many therapies with disdain.
health insurance companies offer some c. the survey did not question baby boomers
alternative medicine benefits. Yet, despite their (those born between 1945 and 1965) on the
gaining acceptance, the majority of alternative topic.
therapies have not been researched in d. many younger adults are open-minded to
controlled studies. New research efforts aim at alternative therapies.
testing alternative methods and providing the
public with information about which ones are
safe and effective and which ones are a waste of
money or possibly dangerous.
355
29. The statistic in the third paragraph comparing exercise, but bone loss caused by reduced
total visits to alternative medicine practitioners gravity cannot. Scientists can measure certain
with those to primary care physicians is used to flight-related hormonal changes and obtain
illustrate the animal bone biopsies immediately after flights,
a. popularity of alternative medicine. but they do not completely understand how
b. public’s distrust of conventional healthcare. gravity affects the bones or what happens at the
c. accessibility of alternative medicine. cellular level.
d. affordability of alternative therapies. Even pounding the bones or wearing a
suspender-like pressure device does nothing to
30. In paragraph four, complement most nearly avert loss of calcium from bones. Researchers
means say that after a three-month or longer stay in
a. tribute. space, much of the profound bone loss may be
b. commendation. irreversible. Some argue that protracted
c. replacement. missions should be curtailed. They are
d. addition. conducting a search for the molecular
mechanisms behind bone loss, and they hope
31. The information in the fourth paragraph these studies will help develop a prevention
indicates that Americans believe that strategy to control tissue loss associated not
conventional healthcare only with weightlessness but also with
a. offers the best relief from the effects of prolonged bed rest.
chronic diseases. Doctors simulate bone-depleting
b. should not use technology in treating microgravity conditions by putting volunteers
illness. to bed for long time periods. The bed support
c. combines caring for the body with caring of the supine body decreases the load on it
for the spirit. significantly, thus simulating reduced gravity.
d. falls short of their expectations in some One study involves administering either
aspects. alendronate, a drug that blocks the breakdown
of bone, or a placebo, a look-alike substance
In space flight, there are the obvious hazards of without medical effects, to volunteers for two
meteors, debris, and radiation; however, weeks prior to and then during a three-week
astronauts must also deal with two vexing bed rest.
physiological foes—muscle atrophy and bone Prior to bed rest, alendronate-treated
loss. Space shuttle astronauts undergo minimal volunteers excreted only about one-third as
wasting of bone and muscle because they spend much calcium as did the persons receiving the
only about a week in space. But when longer placebo. Bed rest increased urinary calcium
stays in microgravity or zero gravity are excretion in both groups, but in alendronate-
contemplated, as in the space station or a two- treated persons, the urinary calcium levels were
year round-trip voyage to Mars, these problems even lower than those in the placebo group
are of particular concern because they could before bed rest. Blood levels of parathyroid
become acute. hormone and vitamin D, which are involved in
Some studies show that muscle atrophy regulation of bone metabolism, were also
can be kept largely at bay with appropriate significantly elevated in drug recipients.
356
Although these results suggest that alendronate 36. What is the minimum amount of time
inhibits bone loss and averts high urinary someone would have to be in space in order to
calcium concentrations that can cause kidney lose an amount of bone that may never be
stones, they do not point to the precise regained?
molecular mechanisms at work. a. about 15 days
b. about 30 days
32. Astronauts who exercise regularly can c. about 60 days
a. expect bone loss to be temporary. d. about 90 days
b. greatly reduce the amount of muscle
atrophy. About three million Americans have open-
c. use special implements that maintain angle glaucoma, the most common form of
calcium levels. glaucoma in the United States. For unknown
d. minimize the percentage of bone loss. reasons, small changes within the eye gradually
interfere with the normal flow of fluids that
33. Compared to volunteers who received a feed tissues in the front of the eye. If these
placebo, volunteers who received alendronate fluids do not drain properly, the resulting
experienced higher pressure inside the eye can damage the
a. lower levels of parathyroid hormone. optic nerve and narrow the field of vision. This
b. lower levels of hormonal changes. change happens so slowly that many people are
c. more elevated levels of vitamin D. not diagnosed with glaucoma until they have
d. higher levels of calcium excretion. significant loss of vision.
Laser therapy is a safe and effective alterna-
34. Specialized equipment for astronauts in tive to eye drops as a first-line treatment for
weightless conditions patients with newly diagnosed primary open-
a. reduces the amount of calcium in their angle glaucoma. This finding comes from a
bones. follow-up study undertaken to learn if early laser
b. makes lengthy space flights more feasible. treatment is safe and whether it offers any med-
c. enables scientists to better comprehend ical advantages over eye drops for newly diag-
molecular mechanisms. nosed open-angle glaucoma. A total of 271
d. has a negligible impact on bone loss. patients were enrolled in the initial study. Each
patient had laser treatment in one eye and med-
35. The passage suggests that the bone-loss studies ication in the other eye. Over two hundred
may yield information that could aid the patients were followed for an average of seven
treatment of years after treatment.
a. kidney stones. Post-study analysis revealed that all
b. muscular atrophy. measures used to evaluate the two treatments
c. thyroid disease. showed that the “laser-first” eyes and the
d. urinary infections. “medication-first” eyes had a similar status on
all measures used to evaluate the two
treatments. Researchers assessed changes in the
patient’s visual field, visual acuity, intraocular
pressure, and optic nerve. The results suggested
357
that initial treatment with laser surgery is at 39. Greater pressure within the eye results from
least as effective as initial treatment with eye a. a disruption of fluid concentration.
drops. However, researchers cautioned that b. the rapid accumulation of fluids.
neither treatment method is a “magic bullet” c. a gradual broadening of the field of vision.
for long-term control of glaucoma. They noted d. initial treatment with eye drops.
that two years after the start of treatment, 56%
of “laser-first” eyes and 70% of “medication- 40. The study concluded that, compared with
first” eyes needed new or extra medications to medication, laser therapy is
control pressure inside the eye. a. slightly more effective.
Researchers noted that both treatments b. significantly more effective.
caused side effects. However, the side effects of c. just as effective.
laser treatment were temporary or made no d. less effective.
apparent difference in the long run, whereas the
side effects of eye drops were troublesome for 41. The study was conducted on patients who were
some patients for as long as the drops were a. in the initial stages of open-angle glaucoma.
used. Eye drops used for glaucoma treatment b. experiencing a rare form of glaucoma.
can cause discomfort in the eye, blurry vision, c. given eye drop medication in both eyes.
headaches, and fast or slow heartbeat. d. in the late stages of open-angle glaucoma.
In 34% of “laser-first” eyes, the laser
treatment caused a temporary jump in Almost 50% of American teens are not
intraocular pressure for the first few days after vigorously active on a regular basis,
treatment. Also, about 30% of the “laser-first” contributing to a trend of sluggishness among
eyes developed peripheral anterior synechiae— Americans of all ages, according the U.S.
adhesions that form when the iris sticks to part Centers for Disease Control (CDC). Adolescent
of the cornea. female students are particularly inactive—29%
are inactive compared with 15% of male
37. Over half the patients in the study discussed in students. Unfortunately, the sedentary habits of
the passage required supplemental treatment for young “couch potatoes” often continue into
a. optic nerve damage. adulthood. According to the Surgeon General’s
b. intraocular pressure. 1996 Report on Physical Activity and Health,
c. visual field weakness. Americans become increasingly less active with
d. lack of visual acuity. each year of age. Inactivity can be a serious
health risk factor, setting the stage for obesity
38. The primary purpose of the passage is to and associated chronic illnesses like heart
a. advocate the use of glaucoma medication. disease or diabetes. The benefits of exercise
b. define the needs of glaucoma patients. include building bone, muscle, and joints;
c. defend the safety of laser treatment for controlling weight; and preventing the
glaucoma. development of high blood pressure.
d. weigh the effects of glaucoma treatments. Some studies suggest that physical activity
may have other benefits as well. One CDC
study found that high school students who take
part in team sports or are physically active
358
outside of school are less likely to engage in 45. The primary purpose of the passage is to
risky behaviors, such as using drugs or a. refute an argument.
smoking. Physical activity does not need to be b. make a prediction.
strenuous to be beneficial. The CDC c. praise an outcome.
recommends moderate, daily physical activity d. promote a change.
for people of all ages, such as brisk walking for
30 minutes or 15 to 20 minutes of more intense
exercise. A survey conducted by the National Section 3:
Association for Sport and Physical Education Quantitative Ability
questioned teens about their attitudes toward
exercise and what it would take to get them Choose the correct answer for each problem. You have
moving. Teens chose friends (56%) as their 45 minutes to complete this section.
most likely motivators for becoming more
active, followed by parents (18%) and 1. How many inches are there in 313 yards?
professional athletes (11%). a. 120
b. 126
42. The first paragraph of the passage serves all of c. 160
the following purposes EXCEPT d. 168
a. to provide statistical information to support
3
the claim that teenagers do not exercise 2.
4 + 57 is equal to
enough. a. 8
11
b. to list long-term health risks associated with
lack of exercise. b. 167
c. to express skepticism that teenagers can c. 114
change their exercise habits. d. 11238
d. to show a correlation between inactive
teenagers and inactive adults. 3. 0.97 is equal to
a. 97%
43. In the first paragraph, sedentary most nearly b. 9.7%
means c. 0.97%
a. slothful. d. 0.097%
b. apathetic.
c. stationary. 4. In triangle ABC, angle A is 70° and angle B is
d. stabilized. 30°. What is the measure of angle C?
a. 90°
44. Which of the following techniques is used in b. 70°
the last sentence of the passage? c. 80°
a. explanation of terms d. 100°
b. comparison of different arguments
c. contrast of opposing views
d. illustration by example
359
5. Rectangle QRST is divided into two congruent 8. In Lake City, the average time it takes a fire
triangles by line segment QS. What is the area engine to travel from the firehouse to the scene
of triangle QRS? of a fire is 6 minutes. If the fire engine travels at
Q T a speed of 58 miles per hour, what is the
average distance of a fire from the firehouse?
10
a. 5.8 miles
b. 6.0 miles
c. 9.7 miles
R 8 S
d. 10.3 miles
a. 24 units2
b. 40 units2 9. A hospital waiting room is 8 feet wide and
c. 48 units2 10 feet long. What is the area of the waiting
d. 80 units2 room?
a. 18 square feet
6. With Ace Insurance, the co-payment for a visit b. 40 square feet
to Dr. Patel’s office is $20. If the co-payment is c. 60 square feet
1313% of the full price, how much does Dr. d. 80 square feet
Patel charge for an office visit, rounded to the
nearest dollar? 10. Mr. Beard’s temperature is 98°F. What is his
a. $133 temperature in degrees Celsius?
b. $150 C = 59(F – 32)
c. $200 a. 35.8°
d. $267 b. 36.7°
c. 37.6°
7. The nursing assistants give baths to the d. 31.1°
patients every morning at 7:00. NA Garcia
2
gives Ms. Rogers her bath in 20 minutes. NA 11.
5 37 is equal to
West gives Mr. Taft his bath in 17 minutes, and 6
a. 35
NA Owens gives Ms. Johnson her bath in 14
14 minutes. What is the average time for the b.
15
5
three baths? c. 12
a. 20 minutes 29
d.
35
b. 17 minutes
c. 14 minutes
12. 12 + (14 7) is equal to
d. 12 minutes
a. 98
b. 266
c. 110
d. 100
360
13. Which of the following is 14% of 232? 18. At a local clinic, there are twice as many nurses
a. 3.248 as doctors on staff. There are also three fewer
b. 32.48 medical technicians than nurses. If the total
c. 16.57 number of staff equals 37, how many doctors
d. 165.7 are there?
a. 8
14. One side of a square bandage is 4 inches long. b. 19
What is the perimeter of the bandage? c. 25
a. 4 inches d. 34
b. 8 inches
c. 12 inches 19. The radius of a circle is 13. What is the
d. 16 inches approximate area of the circle?
a. 81.64
15. What is the value of x if 38 = x2 − 11? b. 1,666.27
a. 3 3 c. 530.66
b. 7 d. 169
c. 27
7
d. 49 20.
8 – 35 is equal to
11
a.
40
16. If Marisol orders her textbooks at least two
weeks before the semester starts, she will save b. 113
1
15% on her order. Unfortunately, she does not c. 10
have a chance to order her textbooks until a d. 11490
week after the semester starts and spends $385.
How much money would she have saved if she 21. How many hours are in 416 days?
had been able to order her textbooks two a. 86
weeks before the semester started? b. 96
a. $25.67 c. 100
b. $57.75 d. 102
c. $327.25
d. $370.00 22. 0.15% of what number is equal to 0.5?
a. 623
17. 945.6 ÷ 24 is equal to b. 1313
a. 3,940 c. 33313
b. 394 d. 1,33313
c. 39.4
d. 3.946 23. What is the value of 5x 3y 6xy when x
2 and y 3?
a. 31
b. 55
c. 57
d. 60
361
24. What is the diameter of a circle with an area of 30. 12(84 – 5) – (3 54) is equal to
121p? a. 54,000
a. 11 b. 841
b. 12 c. 796
c. 21 d. 786
d. 22
31. 43 (–5) – 12 – (–2) 12 is equal to
25. There are three different-colored candies in a a. 36
bag. If 13 of the candies are red and 14 of the b. 40
candies are blue, what fraction of the candies is c. 46
green? d. 50
a. 152
1 32. After four books were put on a shelf, there were
b.
2
c. 7
three times as many books on the shelf as
12
6 before. How many books were on the shelf
d.
7
before the addition?
a. one
26. If Tyrone can type 62 words per minute, how
b. two
many words can he type in 118 hours?
c. three
a. 6712
d. four
b. 6943
c. 3,720 33. The value of 2x 1 is how much greater than
d. 4,185 the value of x 2?
a. x 1
27. What percentage of 18,000 is 234? b. x 3
a. 1,300% c. x 3
b. 130% d. 2x 1
c. 13%
d. 1.3% 34. When Gary left the house on his way to work,
he saw that the mileage gauge on his car
28. How many minutes are in 716 hours? registered 10,59345 miles. When he arrived at
a. 430 minutes work, he noted that the gauge registered
b. 2,580 minutes 10,61015 miles. How far does Gary live from
c. 4,300 minutes work?
d. 258 minutes a. 1625 miles
b. 17 miles
29. 72.687 + 145.29 is equal to c. 1725 miles
a. 87.216 d. 18 miles
b. 217.977
c. 217.877
d. 882.16
362
35. 234 38 is equal to 41. 172 0.56 is equal to

a. 1312 a. 9.632
b. 6 b. 96.32
c. 713 c. 963.2
d. 16 d. 0.9632
36. 415 + 125 + 3130 is equal to 42. There are 16 patients in the waiting room.
a. 9110 After an hour, the number of waiting patients
b. 8190 is reduced by 62.5%. After another hour, the
c. 845 number of patients is reduced by 6623%. How
many patients are left in the waiting room after
d. 8165
2 hours?
a. 2
37. What is the reciprocal of 878?
b. 4
a. 64

7
c. 6
b. 778
7
d. 7
c. 6
4
56
d.
8 43. A nurse administering medication to the
patients on her floor spends 30 seconds
14
38.
25 is equal to traveling from one patient to the next and 1
a. 0.056 minute with each patient while they take their
b. 0.56 medication. If there are 22 patients on the
c. 5.6 floor, how long does it take the nurse to
d. 56.0 administer medication to all the patients on
the floor?
39. 5.9 – 4.166 is equal to a. 22 minutes 30 seconds
a. 1.844 b. 32 minutes
b. 1.843 c. 32 minutes 30 seconds
c. 1.744 d. 33 minutes
d. 1.734
44. 35% of what number is equal to 14?
40. A truck is 16 feet 2 inches long and a car is a. 4
13 feet 6 inches long. How much longer is the b. 40
truck? c. 49
a. 2 feet 6 inches d. 400
b. 2 feet 8 inches
c. 3 feet 4 inches 45. A piece of gauze 3 feet 4 inches long was
d. 3 feet 8 inches divided into five equal parts. How long was
each part?
a. 1 foot 2 inches
b. 10 inches
c. 8 inches
d. 6 inches
363
46. There were three robberies in Glenville this Section 4: General Science
month, down 25% from the previous month.
How many robberies were there in Glenville There are 50 questions in this section. You have 45
last month? minutes to complete this section.
a. 4
b. 5 1. The Earth’s core is
c. 6 a. divided into two parts.
d. 7 b. also called the mantle.
c. largely composed of lead.
47. Myrna’s Beauty Salon is open from 8:45 A.M. to d. located 400 miles beneath the surface.
7:30 P.M. and is closed from 12:15 P.M. to
1:00 P.M. for lunch. How many total hours is 2. When did Earth form?
the salon in business? a. 4.6 billion years ago
a. 9 hours 15 minutes b. 3.5 billion years ago
b. 10 hours c. 4.6 hundred million years ago
c. 10 hours 30 minutes d. 3.5 hundred million years ago
d. 10 hours 45 minutes
3. The lithosphere is
48. If 4x 8 40, then what is 3x 4? a. relatively light and deep.
a. 2 b. relatively light and uppermost.
b. 8 c. relatively heavy and deep.
c. 12 d. relatively heavy and uppermost.
d. 20
4. Most weather phenomena occur in the
49. A certain faucet can fill a 255-gallon tank in 15 a. lithosphere.
minutes. At this rate, how many more minutes b. troposphere.
would it take to drain a full 340-gallon tank? c. thermosphere.
a. 5 d. stratosphere.
b. 523
c. 723 5. The average depth of the ocean is about
d. 20 a. 0.5 km.
b. 10 km.
50. A gymnast earned the following scores from c. 2 km.
the judges: 8.7, 8.9, 9.1, 9.0, 8.7. What was her d. 4 km.
average score?
a. 8.70 6. Earth’s mantle
b. 8.88 a. is between the crust and the core.
c. 8.95 b. is under the core and the crust.
d. 11.10 c. is heavier than the core.
d. contains both crust and core.
364
7. Most of the rock at the Earth’s surface is 13. What ultimately drives the circulation of the
a. sedimentary. atmosphere and ocean?
b. metamorphic. a. the biosphere
c. igneous. b. the sun
d. bedrock. c. volcanism
d. the lithosphere
8. 49% of natural diamonds originate from
a. North America. 14. The atmospheres of Venus and Mars, unlike
b. Central and Southern Africa. that of Earth, are mainly composed of what
c. Australia. gas?
d. Russia. a. carbon dioxide
b. oxygen
9. The four planets in the Solar System known as c. nitrogen
the gas giants are Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune, and d. argon
a. Mars.
b. Uranus. 15. The timescale for the entire ocean to mix is
c. Mercury. about
d. Venus. a. one year.
b. one decade.
10. What kind of rock is obsidian? c. one thousand years.
a. sedimentary d. one hundred thousand years.
b. igneous
c. metamorphic 16. If you have 106 grams of a metal, how many
d. mantle grams do you have?
a. 1,000 (one thousand)
11. In which century did the world see the biggest b. 100,000 (one hundred thousand)
population increase? c. 1,000,000 (one million)
a. 13th d. 1,000,000,000 (one billion)
b. 20th
c. 19th 17. Which type of chemical reaction is responsible
d. 17th for the radiation emitted by stars?
a. nuclear fission
12. How long does it take the global atmosphere to b. nuclear fusion
circulate? c. oxidation-reduction
a. one day d. acid-base
b. one year
c. one decade 18. Which trait best describes the nucleus of an
d. one century atom?
a. contains the electrons of the atom
b. has an overall positive charge
c. has no mass
d. cannot be altered
365
19. Which of the following contributes to acid 25. The special type of cell division that creates
rain? gametes (cells with half the number of
a. deforestation chromosomes) from an individual male or
b. burning fossil fuels female in a sexual species is called
c. invasive species a. mitosis.
d. carbon sequestration b. symbiosis.
c. parthenogenesis.
20. After cigarette smoking, what is the second d. meiosis.
leading cause of lung cancer?
a. carbon monoxide 26. Carbon monoxide is a primary air pollutant
b. acid rain that is derived from
c. ozone a. incomplete combustion of fossil fuels.
d. radon gas b. deforestation.
c. burning hydrogen gas.
21. In which biome are the solar collecting organs d. photochemical smog.
of the net primary producers particularly
tough due to large amounts of the chemical 27. The upper part of the ocean that receives light
called lignin? is the
a. tundra a. benthos.
b. tropical dry forest b. heterotrophic zone.
c. deciduous forest c. hyphae.
d. boreal forest d. pelagic zone.
22. Which of the following is true in biological 28. Which of the following biomes is characterized
classification? by short growing seasons and small plants that
a. Family is equal to genus. reproduce quickly?
b. A genus has many families. a. boreal forest
c. Genus is equal to species. b. deciduous forest
d. A genus has many species. c. deserts
d. tundra
23. Uranus and Neptune are composed mainly of
a. rocks. 29. Which of the following levels of classification is
b. metals. most inclusive?
c. various ices. a. class
d. hydrogen. b. kingdom
c. order
24. High-temperature magma behaves much like d. family
a. running water.
b. rubber.
c. thick oil.
d. a sponge.
366
30. Dolly the sheep was involved in what scientific 35. Bacteria that live in nodules attached to the
achievement? roots of certain plants perform the chemical
a. the first genetically modified animal transformation called
b. the first animal-to-human organ transplant a. denitrification.
c. the first cloned mammal b. ammonification.
d. the first animal-human hybrid c. nitrification.
d. nitrogen fixation.
31. The limit to a population of a species in a
community, determined by environmental 36. Negative population growth in some countries
conditions or species interactions, is called the is due to
a. ultimate yield. a. sub-replacement fertility rates.
b. maximum sustainable yield. b. overpopulation.
c. carrying capacity. c. high fertility rates.
d. deadlock number. d. medical technology.
32. A source of marine protein that is increasing in 37. The main supply of phosphorus to the ocean
supply is (and thus to marine life in the ocean) is carried
a. aquaculture. as phosphate ions via
b. upwelling zones. a. wind.
c. pelagic fishing. b. undersea volcanoes.
d. benthic fishing. c. rain.
d. rivers.
33. In addition to performing photosynthesis,
plants also perform respiration for an internal 38. From most to least, in terms of mass, the four
function. They do this when most abundant elements in the human body
a. animals eat them. are
b. capturing sunlight. a. H, C, Fe, P.
c. creating photosynthesized molecules. b. H, C, P, Fe.
d. building other molecules from simple c. C, H, P, Fe.
sugars. d. C, P, Fe, H.
34. Two gases that contain carbon and are released 39. Which is NOT a macronutrient?
by bacteria are a. copper
a. sulfuric acid and methane. b. magnesium
b. carbon dioxide and methane. c. nitrogen
c. sulfuric acid and water. d. sulfur
d. water and carbon dioxide.
367
40. During the hunting and gathering period of 46. The burning of a fossil fuel does not create
human history, prior to agriculture, the global a. greenhouse gases.
population was about b. stratospheric ozone.
a. ten thousand. c. carbon dioxide.
b. ten billion. d. acid rain.
c. one hundred thousand.
d. ten million. 47. Methane in Earth’s atmosphere is a greenhouse
gas, as is CO2. A greenhouse gas
41. How does the seafloor change as you move a. absorbs shortwave radiation and is
outward from the mid-ocean ridge? transparent to longwave radiation.
a. It gets older. b. absorbs shortwave radiation and reflects
b. It gets younger. longwave radiation.
c. It gets rockier. c. absorbs longwave radiation and is
d. It gets thinner. transparent to shortwave radiation.
d. absorbs longwave radiation and reflects
42. Toxicology is the study of shortwave radiation.
a. viruses.
b. transportation. 48. The chemical formula for ozone is
c. poisons. a. O.
d. cancers. b. O2.
c. O3.
43. The Cambrian Explosion refers to a time when d. O4.
a. Earth became populated with many new
forms of life. 49. Nitrates and sulfates in Earth’s atmosphere
b. the universe began expanding outward. create
c. Earth’s tectonic plates began splitting apart. a. polar melting.
d. the seafloor began spreading. b. acid rain.
c. the greenhouse effect.
44. Which of the following parts of a cell convert d. equilibrium clouds.
food nutrients into high-energy molecules?
a. chloroplasts 50. The most poisoning deaths annually occur due
b. microtubes to
c. lipids a. carbon monoxide poisoning.
d. mitochondria b. carbon trioxide poisoning.
c. ozone poisoning.
45. What is removed from water in the process of d. hydroxide poisoning.
desalination?
a. salt
b. lead
c. electrolytes
d. pollution
368
Section 5: Biology 6. A defect in an organism’s alveoli would affect

which function of what organ system?
There are 50 questions in this section. You have 45 min- a. constant blood pressure by the circulatory
utes to complete this section. system
b. air exchange by the respiratory system
1. Which of the following vitamins prevents c. nutrient absorption by the digestion system
scurvy, aids in the production of collagen, and d. enzyme secretion by the endocrine system
may boost the immune system?
a. vitamin K 7. Organisms with greater diversity and more
b. vitamin C adaptations typically utilize
c. vitamin A a. asexual reproduction.
d. vitamin D b. meiosis.
c. natural selection.
2. What is another term for the meat preserva- d. mitosis.
tives that contain the NO2– ion?
a. nitrites 8. The resulting single cell from an egg fertilized
b. nitrates by a sperm is called a(n)
c. sodium chloride a. monomer.
d. sodium hydrochloride b. embryo.
c. fetus.
3. Which of the following actions is controlled by d. zygote.
smooth muscles?
a. running 9. A flowering plant relies on fruit for all of the
b. heartbeat following EXCEPT
c. peristalsis a. protection of the embryo.
d. movement of bones and joints b. pollination.
c. seed dispersal.
4. The resting potential of a neuron is d. propagation.
a. –70 mV.
b. +70 mV. 10. Instead of providing nutrients to the embryo
c. –50 mV. in the form of an egg, mammalian mothers
d. 0 mV. provide nutrients to the developing embryo
through the
5. An important function of a plant’s root system a. fallopian tubes.
is to b. uterus.
a. produce glucose through photosysnthesis. c. placenta.
b. break down organic compounds. d. ovaries.
c. release carbon dioxide.
d. absorb minerals and water from the soil.
369
11. Which of the following groups of organisms 17. For the DNA segment 5¢ AAT-GAC-TGG 3¢,
produces flowers? what mRNA segment will be generated by
a. angiosperms transcription?
b. mosses a. 5¢ TTA-CTG-ACC 3¢
c. gymnosperms b. 5¢ UUA-CUG-ACC 3¢
d. fungi c. 5¢ CCA-GUC-AUU 3¢
d. 5¢ CCA-GTC-ATT 3¢
12. Which of the following is NOT an effect of the
hormone adrenaline? 18. In what organelle does most protein synthesis
a. enhancement of the effects of sympathetic occur?
nerves a. the nucleus
b. decrease in blood sugar b. the ribosome
c. increase in heart rate c. the cytoplasm
d. inhibition of the movement of smooth d. the lysosome
muscles in the stomach and intestines
19. Which of the following best defines an antigen?
13. A disease related to the thyroid gland is a. a chemical that prevents blood clotting
a. diabetes mellitus. b. a chemical extracted from a living microbe
b. Addison’s disease. c. an antibody that attaches itself to a toxin
c. rickets. and renders the toxin harmless
d. goiter. d. a substance that stimulates the production
of antibodies
14. To which specialist would a patient with a
suspected tumor most likely be referred? 20. Cell membranes generally have which of the
a. an oncologist following structures?
b. a urologist a. phospholipid bilayer
c. a podiatrist b. amino acid monolayer
d. a cardiologist c. amino peptide bilayer
d. phosphopeptide monolayer
15. All of the following bones are found in the
human leg EXCEPT the 21. Which of the following is a vertebrate?
a. fibula. a. a sponge
b. ulna. b. a starfish
c. patella. c. an octopus
d. femur. d. a snake
16. Which of the following parts of the brain 22. In genetics, what kind of diagram indicates all
controls breathing rates? of the possible genotypes in the offspring
a. the medulla oblongata generation of a Mendelian cross?
b. the cerebellum a. Punnett square
c. the thalamus b. flow chart
d. the temporal lobe c. periodic table
d. test square
370
23. Which of the following is the function of a 29. A plant expresses yellow flowers (Y) over white
ligament? flowers (y) and tall stalks (T) are dominant
a. to connect bones over short (t). Two of these plants are crossed
b. to connect muscles and the results recorded in the table below.
c. to attach muscle to bone What must the genotypes of the parents be?
d. to serve as a cushion between vertebrae
Yellow/Tall 30
24. Which of the following plants lacks a vascular Yellow/Short 25
system?
White/Tall 27
a. a moss
b. a fern White/Short 20
c. a fir tree
a. YYTT yytt
d. a peanut plant
b. YyTt YyTt
c. YyTt yytt
25. An energy-rich molecule found in cells is
d. yytt yytt
a. adrenaline.
b. adenosine triphosphate.
30. Blood type is determined by the three alleles A,
c. acetylcholine.
B, and i. Type AB blood results from having
d. amino acids.
both the A and B alleles. What will the
genotype be for type O blood?
26. Processes that have encouraged genetic
a. ii
diversity include all of the following EXCEPT
b. AB
a. sexual reproduction.
c. Ai
b. cross linking.
d. Bi
c. mitosis.
d. genetic recombination.
31. What molecule is the terminal source of
electrons during photosynthesis?
27. Mutations are favored when they lead to
a. H2O
adaptations. However, which of the following
b. O2
does NOT cause a beneficial mutation?
c. CO2
a. a toxin
d. C6H12O6
b. a carcinogen
c. gene linkage
32. Which of the following structures prevents the
d. codons
rupture of the tympanic membrane when a
person changes altitude?
28. Which of the following is an example of an
a. the cochlea
exocrine gland?
b. the ossicles
a. pineal
c. the Eustachian tube
b. pituitary
d. the pinna
c. salivary
d. adrenal
371
33. An osteocyte is a 39. In messenger RNA, a codon contains how

a. muscle cell. many nucleotides?
b. blood cell. a. one
c. nerve cell. b. two
d. bone cell. c. three
d. four
34. Bat wings and bird wings are an example of
a. homologous structures. 40. Which of the following is another word for the
b. vestigial structures. digits in the hands and feet of vertebrates?
c. analogous structures. a. carpals
d. divergent structures. b. tarsals
c. phalanges
35. In the scientific name for the emperor d. metacarpals
penguin, Aptenodytes forsteri, the word
Aptenodytes indicates the 41. Fungi eating the nutrients of a dead plant is an
a. phylum. example of
b. genus. a. mutualism.
c. species. b. commensalism.
d. order. c. parasitism.
d. decomposition.
36. Which of the following substances is NOT an
enzyme? 42. Which of the following is an example of a
a. lactase predator-prey relationship?
b. lactose a. a goat grazing grass
c. sucrase b. a tick feeding off of a deer
d. amylase c. a scorpion eating a spider
d. a caterpillar eating leaves
37. The human appendix and the coccyx are
examples of 43. All of the following are forms of connective
a. homologous structures. tissue EXCEPT
b. vestigial structures. a. tendons.
c. analogous structures. b. adipose tissue.
d. convergent structures. c. blood.
d. nerves.
38. A chemical signal emitted by one animal to
stimulate a specific response in another animal 44. The specialized organ system that is responsi-
of the same species is called a(n) ble for filtering out impurities from the blood
a. hormone. and excreting them is the
b. pheromone. a. respiratory system.
c. antigen. b. renal system.
d. receptor. c. circulatory system
d. endocrine system
372
45. Sickle-cell anemia is a recessive genetic 48. A genetic disorder caused by a mutation on the
disorder that decreases the amount of oxygen X chromosome
carried by red blood cells. Individuals have a. will only affect men.
painful attacks, and their life expectancy is b. will only affect women.
shortened. Which of the following statements c. is more likely to affect men.
is true? d. is more likely to affect women.
a. Both parents must pass the defective allele
to offspring with the disease. 49. In humans, the ossicles, utricle, and cochlea are
b. The allele should disappear from the gene all part of which organ?
pool in the future. a. the stomach
c. One parent must show symptoms of the b. the heart
disorder. c. the ear
d. The mutation is not useful at all. d. the brain
46. Which of the following is the region between 50. Which of the following drugs is NOT a
two nerve cells across which electrical and stimulant?
chemical signals are transmitted? a. cocaine
a. neuron b. nicotine
b. myelin sheath c. alcohol
c. synapse d. amphetamines
d. axon
47. When egg cells are created and grow in an

animal ovary, the process is called
a. oogenesis.
b. oocyte.
c. oogonia.
d. ova.
373
Section 6: Chemistry 2. Iodine-123, which is used in tumor scans, has

a half-life of 13 hours. If the hospital currently
There are 50 questions in this section. Use the periodic has 110 grams of iodine-123, how long will
table on this page when necessary to help you answer it be before the sample decays to less than
the questions. You have 45 minutes to complete this 12 grams?
section. a. about 6.5 hours
b. about 13 hours
c. about 22 hours
1. Which of the following has the greatest mass? d. about 44 hours
a. 0.5 moles of uranium (U)
b. 5 moles of electrons 3. What is the formula for the compound
c. 10 molecules of C6H12O6 copper (II) oxide?
d. 20 molecules of protons a. CuO
b. Cu2O
c. CuO2
d. Cu2O2
IA VIIA VIIIA
1 1 2
H H He
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.941 9.012182 10.811 12.0107 14.00674 15.9994 18.9984032 20.1797
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
39.0983 40.078 44.955910 47.867 50.9415 51.9961 54.938049 55.845 58.933200 58.6934 63.546 65.39 69.723 72.61 74.92160 78.96 79.904 83.80
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
85.4678 87.62 88.90585 91.224 92.90638 95.94 (98) 101.07 102.90550 106.42 107.8682 112.411 114.818 118.710 121.760 127.60 126.90447 131.29
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
132.90545 137.327 138.9055 178.49 180.9479 183.84 186.207 190.23 192.217 195.078 196.96655 200.59 204.3833 207.2 208.98038 (209) (210) (222)
87 88 89 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118
(223) (226) (227) (261) (262) (263) (262) (265) (266) (269) (281) (285) (286) (289) (289) (289) (294) (293)
* Lanthanide 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
140.116 140.90765 144.24 (145) 150.36 151.964 157.25 158.92534 162.50 164.93032 167.26 168.93421 173.04 174.967
** Actinide 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103

232.0381 231.03588 238.0289 (237) (244) (243) (247) (247) (251) (252) (257) (258) (259) (262)
374
4. 2Al(s) + Fe2O3(s) ¨ Al2O3(s) + 2Fe(l) 8. Balance the following redox reaction:

Æ
If a reaction produces 1.2 moles of Fe, how Mg(s) + H2O(g) Æ Mg(OH)2(s) + H2(g)
much Fe2O3 was consumed in the reaction? a. Mg(s) + H2O(g) Æ Mg(OH)2(s) + H2(g)
a. 0.6 moles b. Mg(s) + 4H2O(g) Æ Mg(OH)2(s) + H2(g)
b. 0.6 grams c. Mg(s) + 2H2O(g) Æ Mg(OH)2(s) + H2(g)
c. 1.2 moles d. Mg(s) + H2O(g) Æ Mg(OH)2(s) + 12H2(g)
d. 1.2 grams
9. Classify the following reaction as a combina-
5. H
tion, decomposition, or single or double
HO
displacement reaction:
N
Cr(NO3)3(aq) + Al(s) Æ Al(NO3)3(aq) + Cr(s)
O
O a. combination
Capsaicin, the molecule shown above, is b. decomposition
responsible for the spicy taste of chilies. It c. single displacement
possesses all of the following functional d. double displacement
groups except
a. amide. 10. Classify the following reaction as a combina-
b. alcohol. tion, decomposition, or single or double
c. ether. displacement reaction:
d. carboxylic acid PF3(g) + F2(g) Æ PF5(g)
a. decomposition
6. What is the product when an acid and a base b. combination
combine? c. single displacement
a. water and a salt d. double displacement
b. hydrogen and a salt
c. an oxidant and a reductant 11. Balance the following equation:
d. no reaction occurs Ba(OH)2(aq) + HNO3(aq) Æ Ba(NO3)2(aq) +
H2O(l)
7. Identify the oxidizing agent and the reducing a. Ba(OH)2(aq) + 2HNO3(aq) Æ
agent in the following reaction: Ba(NO3)2(aq) + 2H2O(l)
+ + 6Cl– –
8H(aq) (aq) + Sn(s) + 4NO3 (aq) Æ b. Ba(OH)2(aq) + 2HNO3(aq) Æ
SnCl62–(aq) + 4NO2(g) + 4H2O(l) Ba(NO3)2(aq) + 4H2O(l)
+ , reducing agent: Sn
a. oxidizing agent: 8H(aq) c. Ba(OH)2(aq) + 2HNO3(aq) Æ
(s)
b. oxidizing agent: 4NO3–(aq), reducing agent: Ba(NO3)2(aq) + H2O(l)
Sn(s) d. Ba(OH)2(aq) + HNO3(aq) Æ
c. oxidizing agent: 4NO3–(aq), reducing agent: Ba(NO3)2(aq) + H2O(l)
4NO2(g)
d. oxidizing agent: 4NO3–(aq), reducing agent:
+
8H(aq)
375
12. What is the chemical formula for the 17. Which of the following is an element?
polyatomic ion nitrite? A) NO B) Ca C) Na D) Xe
a. N2O– a. A, B, and C
b. NO2– b. B, C, and D
c. NO2– c. A and D
d. NO3– d. B and C
13. Which reactant is oxidized and which is 18. When vinegar (acetic acid, CH3COOH) is
reduced in the following reacton? combined with baking soda (sodium
C2H4(g) + 3O2(g) Æ 2CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) bicarbonate, NaHCO3) a gas is released.
a. oxidized: C2H4(g), reduced: 3O2(g) What is the identity of the gas?
b. oxidized: C2H4(g), reduced: 2H2O(g) a. O2
c. oxidized: C2H4(g), reduced: 2CO2(g) b. H2
d. oxidized: 2CO2(g), reduced: C2H4(g) c. CO2
d. CO
14. Which one of the following compounds is a
nonelectrolyte when dissolved in water? 19. What ions form NaCl?
a. KOH a. Na and Cl
b. NH3 b. Na+ and Cl+
c. NaBr c. Na+ and Cl–
d. CaCl2 d. Na– and Cl+
15. Which of the following solutions will have the 20. The density of acetic acid is 1.05 g/mL. What is
highest electrical conductivity? the volume of 275 g of acetic acid?
a. 0.1M AlCl3 a. 275 mL
b. 0.15M SrBr2 b. ⬃262 mL
c. 0.2M NaBr c. ⬃100 mL
d. 0.25M Mg(NO3)2 d. 22.4 L
16. A precipitate will form when an aqueous 21. The correct formula for converting Fahrenheit
solution of Ba(NO3)2 is added to an aqueous to Celsius is given by: °C = 59(°F – 32). Convert
solution of Na2SO4. How many moles of 72 °F into degrees Celsius.
sodium sulfate are required to produce 10.0 g a. 72°C
of the precipitate? b. 40°C
a. 1 mole c. 25°C
b. 10.0 mole d. 22.2°C
c. 0.04 mole
d. 0.4 mole 22. Which of the following compounds is held
together by ionic bonds?
a. CaCl2
b. CCl4
c. SiO4
d. H2O
376
23. Convert 4.50 102 nm into m. 25. Find all the enantiomeric (i.e., mirror-image)
a. 4.50 102 m pairs among the sets of stereoisomers (a), (b),
b. 4.50 1011 m (c), (d), (e), (f), (g), (h) shown below.
c. 4.50 10–7 m a. (a), (b), (c), (e), (h)
d. 4.50 108 m b. (b), (c), (d), (h)
c. (a), (c), (f)
24. What is the concentration of ions when 47.6 g d. (d), (e), (g)
of magnesium chloride is dissolved in 2 L of
water? 26. Find all the diastereomeric pairs among the
a. 0.250 M sets of stereoisomers shown below.
b. 0.500 M a. (b), (d), (g)
c. 0.750 M b. (b), (d)
d. 1.50 M c. (g)
d. (h)
(a) (b)
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
H OH HO H H OH HO H
H OH HO H HO H H OH
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
(c) (d)
CH2 OH CH2OH CH3 CH3
H OH HO H H OH Br H
H OH HO H Br H H OH
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
(e) (f)
CH3 CH3
CH3 Br
H OH H OH
(R) (R)
HO H HO H Br H 3C
Cl H H Cl
CH3 CH3
(g) (h)
H H H CH3
CH3 CH3 CH3 H
(R) (R) (R) (S)
(S) (R) (R) (S)
H H 3C H 3C H
CH3 H H CH3
377
27. Write the correct answer (with the correct 33. AgNO3 NaCl ´ AgCl NaNO3
number of significant figures) for the following The reaction shown here is best described as a
calculation: 3.33 10–5 + 8.13 10–7 a. synthesis reaction.
a. 3.41 10–5 b. decomposition reaction
b. 11.46 10–7 c. single replacement reaction.
c. 11.46 10–5 d. double replacement reaction.
d. 11.46 10–12
34. When linoleic acid, an unsaturated fatty acid,
28. Express 0.05620 in exponential notation. reacts with hydrogen, it forms a saturated
a. 0.057 10–3 fatty acid.
b. 57 10–3 C18H32O2 + 2H2 Æ C18H36O2
c. 563 10–4 Is linoleic acid oxidized, reduced, or hydro-
d. 5.62 10–2 genated in the reaction?
a. oxidized
29. How many neutrons does 131I have? b. reduced
a. 53 c. hydrogenated
b. 78 d. choices b and c
c. 131
d. 262 35. When linoleic acid, an unsaturated fatty acid,
reacts with hydrogen, it forms a saturated
30. What is the atomic number of an ion with a –1 fatty acid.
charge and the following electron configura- C18H32O2 + 2H2 Æ C18H36O2
tion: 1s2 2s2 2p5? How many moles of hydrogen (H2) are
a. 2 required to hydrogenate 5.0 g of unsaturated
b. 5 linoleic acid?
c. 8 a. 1 mol
d. 9 b. 10 mol
c. 15 mol
31. What volume of a 0.5 M solution of NaOH is d. 218 mol
required to fully neutralize a 100 mL solution
of 1 M H2SO4? 36. Valence electrons are those in the outermost
a. 50 mL shell of an atom. Indicate the number of
b. 100 mL valence electrons for Sc (Scandium).
c. 200 mL a. 1
d. 400 mL b. 2
c. 4
32. How many significant figures are there in the d. 3
value 0.00250?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 6
378
37. What are the names of the orbitals in the 2nd 41. When a chemical reaction occurs between two
atomic shell? atoms, their valence electrons are reorganized
a. 1s, 2s so that an attractive force, called a chemical
b. 2s, 2p bond, occurs between the atoms. Name the
c. s, p, d type of bond that is formed when electrons are
d. px, py, pz transferred from one atom to another.
a. molecular bond
38. In an atom, how many orbitals have a principle b. covalent bond
quantum number, n, of 2? c. ionic bond
a. 1 d. transfer bond
b. 2
c. 3 42. When CO2 is processed by plants during
d. 4 photosynthesis, what happens to the carbon?
a. It is oxidized.
39. Knowing the group of an element in the b. It is reduced.
periodic table, how would you find the number c. It undergoes a-decay.
of valence electrons for an atom of that d. It is expelled as waste.
element?
a. The group number is equal to the number 43. In bonding, what would happen between the
of valence electrons for that element. electrons of K and Br?
b. The group number is equal to the number a. transfer
of bonds an atom of that element can form. b. sharing
c. The group number indicates the number of c. neither of the above
orbitals for an element. d. both transfer and sharing
d. The group number is equal to the number
of shells in an atom of that element. 44. From the periodic table, which is larger,
K or Br?
40. Knowing the period of an element in the a. K is larger.
periodic table, what could you say about the b. Br is larger.
number of electron shells of an atom of that c. They are the same size.
element? d. We cannot know which one is larger.
a. The period number indicates the number of
bonds an atom of that element can form. 45. Give the number of valence electrons for
b. The period number is equal to the number boron (B).
of valence electrons for that element. a. 5
c. The period number is equal to the number b. 3
of electron shells in an atom of that c. 2
element. d. 13
d. The period number changes from left to
right of the periodic table.
379
46. What is the maximum number of electrons in Answers

an atom that can be described by a principal
quantum number of 3 and an orbital quantum Section 1: Verbal Ability
number of 2? 1. a. compete
a. 1 2. b. audible
b. 2 3. c. entirety
c. 5 4. a. gradually
d. 10 5. b. preamble
6. c. stomachache
47. What is the formula for lead (II) hydroxide? 7. a. madness
a. PbOH 8. a. porcelain
b. Pb(OH)2 9. a. delirious
c. Pb2OH 10. c. plead
d. Pb2(OH)2 11. a. inundated
12. d. funnier
48. Which of these bonds involves the sharing of 13. c. obedient
electrons? 14. a. prosecuted
a. ionic 15. d. counterfeit
b. proton 16. d. symmetrically
c. covalent 17. d. delaying
d. hydrogen 18. a. vacuum
19. d. accommodate
49. Unlike most compounds, water is at its densest 20. b. incredulous
when it is 21. a. trauma
a. solid. 22. c. marriageable
b. liquid. 23. b. illegible
c. gas. 24. b. penicillin
d. changing from a liquid to a gas. 25. c. adolescence
26. c. The correct spelling is cheesy.
50. A group of students learning to use a triple- 27. b. The correct spelling is sopranos.
beam balance measures a child who weighs 28. a. The correct spelling is agitate.
13.0 kg. Which of these groups of measure- 29. c. The correct spelling is simultaneous.
ments shows the greatest precision? 30. d. no mistakes
a. 12.9, 13.5, 14.2, 14.0 31. b. The correct spelling is thesis.
b. 12.9, 13.6, 13.0, 13.4 32. a. The correct spelling is debatable.
c. 14.5, 13.0, 13.6, 15.8 33. a. The correct spelling is flies.
d. 15.2, 15.0, 15.1, 15.2 34. b. The correct spelling is bulletin.
35. a. The correct spelling is recoil.
36. c. The correct spelling is fraudulent.
37. b. The correct spelling is questionnaire.
38. a. The correct spelling is pungent.
39. c. The correct spelling is hygienic.
380
40. b. The correct spelling is illegal. 7. a. Paragraph two explains that stress is as
41. b. The correct spelling is corrosiveness. much a good thing as it is a bad one—
42. c. The correct spelling is gymnast. cortisol and other stress hormones play an
43. d. no mistakes important role in emergencies: they help our
44. d. no mistakes bodies make energy available to enable
45. a. The correct spelling is panicky. effective responses, temporarily suppress the
46. c. The correct spelling is craziness. immune response, and sharpen attention.
47. d. no mistakes 8. c. The passage goes into detail discussing the
48. a. The correct spelling is chaise. pros and cons of VLCDs, one option for
49. a. The correct spelling is extremely. very obese individuals. It doesn't necessarily
50. b. The correct spelling is friendly. say that it’s an easy path (choice a).
9. b. Paragraph five states, such a weight loss can
Section 2: Reading Comprehension rapidly improve obesity-related medical
1. c. It is too early to make, or draw, conclusions conditions, including diabetes, high blood
about early life experiences based on the pressure, and high cholesterol.
animal studies described in the passage. 10. d. According to paragraph four, adults over age
2. c. According to paragraph four, the mothers of 50 already experience depletion of lean body
the rat pups that were separated for three mass.
hours tended to ignore the pups, at least 11. a. According to the first sentence of the final
initially, upon their return. paragraph, many patients on a VLCD for
3. a. The author introduced the study to show a four to 16 weeks report minor side effects such
clinical example of the long-term effects of as fatigue, which means excessive weariness.
stress on the young, as recreated in a lab 12. a. Paragraph three states that BMI is
setting. calculated by dividing a person’s weight by
4. b. The passage presents the idea that excessive height and then multiplying by a constant.
distress on a young child can have If two people are the same weight and one is
permanent effects on his or her brain taller, then the shorter person will have the
function as the child ages. The author later larger BMI.
backs up this notion with a clinical 13. d. The passages states from the very beginning
example. that VLCD formulas need to contain
5. c. Paragraph three states that the natural appropriate levels of vitamins and micronu-
maternal response of instinctively licking and trients to ensure that patients meet their
grooming the returned pup was shown to nutritional requirements. Since there are
alter the brain chemistry of the pup in a many physical side effects, nutrients are key
positive way. Later, paragraph four explains to keeping the body healthy during a VLCD.
the negative effects on the rat pup when 14. c. According to paragraph six, prenatal testing
licking and grooming did not occur. is performed on fetuses, which are
6. b. The author wants to know how early developing mammals still in the womb.
influences either promote or challenge 15. b. According to paragraph three, about three in
developmental processes. The two words are every 100 children are born with a severe
opposites, so an opposite to “challenge” is disorder presumed to be genetic. 300 is 100
advance. multiplied by three, and nine is three
multiplied by three.
381
16. b. See the last sentence of the fifth paragraph, 28. d. Choice a is overly general, and choice b is
which states that effective treatment can be too negative to be inferred from the survey’s
started in a few hundred infants. findings. Choice c is incorrect—the author
17. d. The first paragraph says that the report does not mention the “baby boom” age
addressed concerns about protecting group, but that does not imply that the
confidentiality. survey does not include it.
18. c. The last sentence of the fourth paragraph 29. a. The statistic illustrates the popularity of
states that careful pilot studies . . . need to be alternative therapies without giving any
conducted first. specific information as to why.
19. d. See the fifth paragraph: Newborn screening is 30. d. The author states that Americans are not
the most common type of genetic screening replacing conventional healthcare but are
today. adding to or supplementing it with alterna-
20. a. According to the first sentence of the third tive care.
paragraph, the new MRI detects not water, 31. d. The shortcomings of conventional
but inert gases. healthcare mentioned in paragraph four are
21. d. See the second sentence of the second the time constraints of managed care, focus
paragraph, which states that X-rays cannot on technology, and inability to relieve the
provide a clear view of air passages. symptoms associated with chronic disease.
22. b. The last sentence of paragraph two states 32. b. The second paragraph states that muscle
that conventional MRI, because it images atrophy can be kept largely at bay with
water protons, provides poor images of the appropriate exercise.
lungs, which are filled with air, not water. 33. c. According to the fifth paragraph, levels of
23. b. The first sentence of the third paragraph vitamin D were elevated in drug recipients.
states the equivalency: nuclei are aligned, or 34. d. According to information in the third
hyperpolarized. paragraph, a pressure device does nothing to
24. a. The last paragraph says that light, rather avert loss of calcium from bones.
than a magnet, is used to align nuclei, 35. a. The last paragraph states that high urinary
suggesting that the two serve equivalent calcium concentrations can cause kidney
purposes in the two MRI processes. stones. Treatment that inhibits urinary
25. c. See the last sentence of the passage. Since discharge of calcium, such as use of
lesser gases lose their alignment more alendronate, could therefore help the
quickly, a shorter period of alignment treatment of kidney stones.
would lead to poorer clarity. A higher 36. d. According to paragraph three, after a three-
number of aligned nuclei would theoreti- month or longer stay in space, much of the
cally lead to a better image. profound bone loss may be irreversible.
26. a. The author contrasts the public’s dismissal Since three months is about 90 days,
of the arcane practice of wearing garlic with choice d is correct.
its increasing acceptance of herbal remedies. 37. b. The last sentence of the third paragraph
27. a. In this context, practices refer to unconven- states that 56% of “laser-first” and 70% of
tional healthcare businesses. “medication-first” patients needed new or
extra medications to control pressure inside
the eye.
382
38. d. The passage focuses primarily on the effects 5. a. Since quadrilateral QRST is a rectangle, we
of both laser and medication treatments. It know that angle R is a right angle and
does not advocate either method. triangle QRS is a right triangle. The area of
39. a. See the second and third sentences of the a triangle is 12 (base height) but we are
first paragraph. only given the base of triangle QRS. Since
40. c. The third sentence of the third paragraph this is a right triangle, we can find the
states that initial treatment with laser surgery height h using the Pythagorean theorem.
is at least as effective as initial treatment with h2 + 82 = 102; h2 + 64 = 100; h2 = 36; h = 6.
eye drops. The area of triangle QRS is 12(6)(8) = 12(48)
41. a. The second paragraph says that the patients = 24 units2.
were newly diagnosed. 6. b. First, convert 1313% to a decimal: 1313% ª
42. c. Nowhere in the passage does the author 0.1333. If p is the full price of an office visit,
speculate about whether teenagers can then 0.1333p = $20. Divide both sides by
change their exercise habits. 0.1333 and round to the nearest dollar to
$20
43. c. One meaning of sedentary is settled; get the answer: p = 0.1333 = $150.04 ª $150.
another meaning is doing or requiring 7. b. To find the average time for the three baths,
much sitting. Stationary, defined as fixed in you must add the times for all the baths and
a course or mode, is closest in meaning. divide by the number of baths: 20 + 17 + 14
44. d. The last sentence illustrates factors that = 51; 51 ÷ 3 = 17 minutes.
motivate teenagers to exercise by using the 8. a. The formula to use to solve this problem is
results of a national survey to provide distance = rate × time. Rate and time must
specific examples. be in the same units to get the correct
45. d. The passage promotes change in teenagers’ answer, so first convert the time to hours:
exercise habits by emphasizing the benefits 6 min × 601 min hr
= 0.1 hr. Then multiply
of exercise, the moderate amount of to get the answer:
exercise needed to achieve benefits, and distance = (0.1 hr)(58 miles/hr) = 5.8 miles.
some factors that may encourage teenagers 9. d. The area of a rectangular space is the width
to exercise. times the length—in this case, 10 8, or
80 square feet.
Section 3: Quantitative Ability 10. b. Use the formula beginning with the operation
1. a. To solve this problem, you must first in parentheses: 98 – 32 = 66. After that,
convert yards to inches. There are 36 inches multiply 66 by 59, first multiplying 66 by 5 to
in a yard. 36 313 = 120 inches. get 330; 330 divded by 9 is 36.6苶, which is
2. d. The least common denominator is 28. rounded up to 36.7.
When the fractions are converted, the 11. a. To multiply fractions, you must multiply
problem becomes 2218 + 2208 = 4218. When the the numerators to reach the numerator of
answer is reduced, it is 11238. the answer (2 3 = 6) and multiply the
3. a. 0.97 multiplied by 100 is 97; therefore, the denominitors to reach the denominator of
correct answer is 97%. the answer (5 7 = 35), so the answer is 365.
4. c. The sum of the measures of the angles in a 12. c. Perform the operation in parentheses first:
triangle is 180°; 70° + 30° = 100°; 180° – 14 7 = 98, and then add 12 to get 110.
100° = 80°. Therefore, angle C is 80°. 13. b. Convert the percentage to a decimal and
multiply: 232 0.14 = 32.48.
383
14. d. The perimeter is the total length of all sides. 23. b. Carefully plug in the given values. 5x + 3y +
In a square, all four sides are of equal 6xy = 5(2) + 3(3) + 6(2)(3) = 10 + 9 + 36 =
length, so the perimeter is 4 + 4 + 4 + 4, 55.
or 16. 24. d. The question is asking you to find the
15. b. First, add 11 to both sides to isolate x: diameter. In order to find the diameter, you
x2 = 38 + 11 = 49. Then, find the square will first have to find the radius. The
root of both sides to solve for x: x 2 = 49; formula for the area of a circle is A = pr2.
x = 7. Plug in the given values: 121p = pr2
16. b. Read the question carefully: it asks how ;
much she would have saved, not how much 121 = r2; r = 11. Don’t stop there! d = 2(r);
she would have spent, if she had ordered her d = 2(11); d = 22.
books early. The amount she would have 25. a. The fractions of red, blue, and green candies
saved is the discount amount: 15%. So, she must add up to 1, so the number of green
would have saved (0.15)($385) = $57.75. candies equals 1 −  13 + 14  = 12 − 4 − 3 = 5.
  12 12 12 12
17. c. It is important to keep the decimal values
26. d. Note that Tyrone’s typing speed is given in
straight. Divide as usual, and then bring the
words per minute, but the question is asking
decimal point straight up into the answer in
for words typed in 118 hours. First convert
order to get 39.4.
the number of hours to minutes:
18. a. Let n equal the number of nurses, d equal
1 18 hr × 601 hr
min
= 98 × 60 = 67 12 min. Then
the number of doctors, and t equal the
multiply by the typing speed to get the
number of technicians. There are twice as
answer: 67 12 min × 62 words = 135 × 62 == 135 × 31 = 4,185 w
many nurses as doctors, so 2d = n, or d = 2n min 2
135 × 31 = 4,185 words.
There are three fewer medical technicians x
27. d. A percentage is a portion of 100, or 100 . The
than nurses, so t = n – 3. The total number x 234
equation here is = , or 234 100 =
of staff is 37, so n + 2n + (n – 3) = 37. Collect 100 18,000
18,000x; 23,400 ÷ 18,000 = 1.3.
like terms to get 5n
2 = 40; 5n = 80; n = 16. To

28. a. There are 60 minutes in an hour. Multiply
solve for d, divide n by 2, so d = 162 = 8.

60 716 by multiplying 60 7 = 420 and
19. c. The formula for finding the area of a circle
60 16 = 10. Then add 420 + 10 to get
is A = r2. First, square the radius: 13 13
430 minutes.
= 169. Then, multiply by the approximate
29. b. Think of 145.29 as 145.290, and then line
value of , 3.14, to get 530.66.
up the decimal points and add the numbers
20. a. In order to subtract fractions, you must first
to get the correct answer, 217.977.
find the least common denominator, in this
30. d. Perform the operations in parentheses first,
case, 40. The problem is then 3450 – 2440, or 1410.
left to right: 84 – 5 = 79. Next, do the other
21. c. There are 24 hours in a day: 24 416 =
parenthetical operation: 3 54 = 162. Now,
24 265 4 25 100 hours.
x is multiply 12(79) = 948. Now, do the final
22. c. Use the formula: 100 = of
0.15 0.5 operation: 948 – 162 = 786.
=
100 x 31. b. Take the time to make sure you are
0.5 100

0.15 =x performing the correct operations: 43
x = 333.33 or 33313 (–5) = 43 – 5 = 38; 38 – 12 = 26; 26 – (–2) =
26 2 = 28; 28 12 = 40.
384
32. b. Use the answers provided and work 41. b. The correct answer has only two decimal
backward. Start with choice c. If three books places: 96.32.
were on the shelf and four are added, there 42. a. First, figure out how many patients are left
are now seven books on the shelf. 3(3) does after the first hour: 16 − 16(0.625) = 16 −
NOT equal 7, so choice c is incorrect. Try 10 = 6. Then calculate how many patients
choice b. If two books were on the shelf and are left after the second hour: 6 – 6(0.6623) =
four are added, there are now six books. 6 − 4 = 2.
2(3) = 6. Choice b is correct. 43. c. The nurse will spend 1 minute with each
33. c. Subtract the equations as you would any patient while he or she take his or her
other normal values: 2x 1 – (x – 2) = medication, so she will spend 22 × 1 min =
2x 1 – x 2 = x 3. 22 min total giving medication to patients.
34. a. One way to solve is to change the fractions She will also need to travel from the first
into decimals: 10,59354 = 10, 593.80; patient to the second patient, from the
10,61051 = 10,610.20. second to the third, and so on, but will not
10,610.20 have to travel from the last patient to
10,593.80 another. That means she will be making the
16.40 30-second trip from one patient to another
16.40 = 1625 22 − 1 = 21 times. So, she will spend
35. c. Change the first fraction into an improper 21 × 30 sec = 630 sec or 60630 sec
sec/min = 10.5 min
fraction so it is easier to work with: 234 141. = 10 min 30 sec traveling between patients.
To divide, multiply by the reciprocal: Add the time spent with patients with the
11 3 11 8 2 22 1
11 7. time spent traveling to get 32 minutes
4 8 4 3 3 3 3
36. b. The correct answer is 8190. Incorrect answers 30 seconds.
include adding both the numerator and the 44. b. To find the answer, divide 14 by 0.35 to
denominator and not converting fifths to get 40.
tenths properly. 45. c. Three feet 4 inches equals 40 inches;
37. c. First convert 887 into an improper fraction: 40 inches divided by 5 is 8 inches.
64 7
. The reciprocal of this fraction is 6
7 4. 46. a. To save time, use the given answers here and
38. b. You can estimate that 14 is a little more than work backward. Start with choice b. If there
half of 25, so the answer should be a little were five robberies last month, a 25%
more than 0.5, or 0.56. You can also decrease would mean .25(5) 1.25 fewer
calculate the answer by dividing 14 by 25 robberies this month. That does not make
and getting 0.56. sense, so choice b is incorrect. Try choice a.
39. d. This is a simple subtraction problem with If there were four robberies last month, a
decimals. The correct answer is 1.734. 25% decrease would mean 0.25(4) 1
40. b. To subtract the length of the car from the fewer this month. 4 3 1, so this choice
truck, you have to “borrow” 12 inches from is correct.
the feet of the truck and add them to the
inches, since 6 is greater than 2. This gives
you (16 − 1) feet (2 + 12) inches, or 15 feet
14 inches for the truck. Subtract to get the
answer: 15 feet 14 inches − 13 feet 6 inches
= 2 feet 8 inches.
385
47. b. Calculate the total time in chunks. The total 6. a. The mantle is the thick zone beneath Earth’s
time from opening at 8:45 A.M. to noon is 3 crust but not as deep as the inner core.
hours 15 minutes. The time from noon to 7. a. Most of Earth’s surface is sedimentary rock,
lunch is 15 minutes. The time from 1:00 P.M. or recycled rock. Bedrock is simply surface
to closing is 6 hours 30 minutes. 3 hours rock as a definition, so that answer contains
15 minutes 15 minutes 6 hours 30 no content and makes no sense.
minutes 10 hours. 8. b. Central and Southern Africa are home to
48. d. Solve for x and then plug your answer into 49% of all natural diamonds. Natural
the second equation. First, subtract eight diamonds have caused controversy in this
from both sides to get 4x 32. Divide both part of the world due to African paramili-
sides by 4 to get x 8. Don’t stop there! tary groups selling “blood diamonds,” or
3(8) 4 24 4 20. diamonds mined in war zones and sold to
49. a. Remember the formula total rate ¥ time. fund a warlord’s activities.
225 r(15), so the rate 17 gallons per 9. b. Uranus is the fourth planet in the Solar
minute. Now, plug this rate into a new System known as a gas giant—a large planet
formula using the new total. 340 17t, so not composed primarily of rock or solid
t 20. Don’t stop there; you need to find matter.
how many more minutes the second tank 10. b. Obsidian is igneous rock, formed by lava
will take: 20 15 5 more minutes. that has cooled rapidly.
50. b. To find the average, add all of the scores and 11. b. The 20th century had the world’s largest
divide by the total number of scores: 8.7 population increase. This is due to medical
44.4
8.9 9.1 9.0 8.7 44.4; 5 8.88. advances and improved agricultural

technology.
Section 4: General Science 12. b. In about one year, the entire atmosphere
1. a. The Earth’s core is divided into two parts – mixes, even between Northern and
the solid inner core and the liquid outer Southern Hemispheres.
core. 13. b. The energy of the sun that falls upon the
2. a. The Earth formed 4.6 billion years ago, land and ocean creates differences in
which we know from radioactive dating of temperature that drive the circulation of the
meteorites. atmosphere and ocean.
3. b. The lithosphere has a light density and 14. a. Earth’s atmosphere has only a tiny amount
“floats” on the more dense layers of Earth of the greenhouse gas carbon dioxide. In the
that are below. atmospheres of Mars and Venus, carbon
4. b. The troposphere is the lowest portion of the dioxide is the dominant gas.
Earth’s atmosphere, where most weather 15. c. The mixing time for the entire ocean is
phenomena takes place. The word comes about one thousand years.
from the Greek tropos, meaning “turning or 16. c. 106 is equal to one million in scientific
mixing,” since the troposphere’s structure notation.
and behavior are caused by mixing. 17. b. Nuclear fusion is the process responsible for
5. d. The deepest parts of the ocean are the energy emitted by stars. In this type of
remarkably uniform in depth, from 3 to reaction, light nuclei fuse together into
5 km deep, for an average of 4 km, or about heavier ones.
2.5 miles.
386
18. b. The nucleus contains protons and neutrons. 29. b. The kingdom level is the most inclusive.
Since protons are positive and neutrons are 30. c. In 1996, Dolly became the first mammal to
neutral, the nucleus has an overall positive be cloned using a process called nuclear
charge. transfer.
19. b. Burning fossil fuels contributes to acid rain 31. c. The carrying capacity is the limit asked for
because such burning emits the acid- in the question. Terms with “yield” usually
forming elements sulfur and nitrogen into refer to the human harvesting of creatures,
the atmosphere. such as fish.
20. d. Radon gas is the second leading cause of 32. a. The only supply of marine protein that is
lung cancer and occurs naturally in some growing is aquaculture, or “farms” of fish
areas. and other aquatic organisms.
21. d. Boreal forests, with their evergreens of fir 33. d. Photosynthesis creates simple sugars, but to
and pine, sport tough needles with lots of create more complex molecules needed for
lignin to give them strength to endure the their tissues, plants must also perform
winds and freezing of winter in very high respiration.
latitudes. 34. b. Various types of bacteria release carbon
22. d. A genus consists of many species (in rare dioxide and methane as wastes from their
cases, a genus might have only one living metabolisms.
species, but it would have had more in the 35. d. Bacteria in root nodules are nitrogen fixers.
past). A family consists of many genera. 36. a. Negative population growth in some
23. c. Uranus and Neptune are mostly composed countries is due to sub-replacement fertility
of ammonia, water, and methane molten rates (less than 2.1 children per woman in
ices, and are often referred to as “ice giants.” developed countries).
24. c. Magma is a high-temperature fluid 37. d. Rivers carry the most phosphorus to the
substance that behaves like thick oil. sea. There is some phosphorus in the dust
25. d. Meiosis is the process in which parent cells carried by wind, which is less than the
from males and females create four gametes phosphorus in rivers. Regardless, the
(eggs or sperm in the case of animals) with phosphorus in dust is not in the dissolved
half the genes and chromosomes of the ion form, which is what the question asked
parents. (Note that it’s not a simple process for.
of splitting in half.) 38. c. Although you wouldn’t be expected to
26. a. Carbon monoxide is derived from the memorize numbers, it should be noted that
incomplete combustion of fossil fuels. carbon is the most abundant, and that iron
Carbon dioxide, on the other hand, comes is a micronutrient. In between these two,
from complete combustion. hydrogen is in all organic molecules, while
27. d. The upper part of the ocean that receives phosphorus has specialized uses in cells.
light is the pelagic zone. The benthos is the Therefore, it is logical that carbon is first,
deeper layer. followed by hydrogen, then phosphorus,
28. d. The tundra has a short growing season and then iron.
small plants that reproduce quickly. They 39. a. Copper is needed by cells in only trace
reproduce quickly because the climate is so amounts; it is therefore not a macronutri-
severe for most of the year. ent, but a micronutrient.
387
40. d. Estimates place the preagricultural Section 5: Biology

worldwide population at about ten million. 1. b. Vitamin K is important in the clotting of
The other answers are either definitely too blood, vitamin A is important in vision,
small or too big. and vitamin D is important in the
41. a. The seafloor gets older as you move formation of bone.
outward from the mid-ocean ridge. This is 2. a. Any salts or esters with the NO2– ion are
evidence of seafloor spreading and called nitrites and can be found in such
continental drift. cured meat products as bacon and hot dogs.
42. c. Toxicology is the study of poisons and the 3. c. The other actions are controlled by skeletal
adverse effects of chemicals on living muscles (choices a and d) or cardiac
organisms. It comes from the Greek toxicos, muscles (choice b).
which means “poisonous.” 4. a. The resting potential of a neuron is –70
43. a. The Cambrian Explosion refers to a time in millivolts (mV).
Earth’s history when many new forms of life 5. d. Glucose production (glycolysis) is done
appeared in the fossil record. primarily in the leaf chloroplasts, and
44. d. Mitochondria convert food nutrients into breakdown of organic compounds is
energy. primarily done in the mitochondria. Roots
45. a. Desalination is the process of removing salt do not release carbon dioxide.
from water. It is done to convert salt water 6. b. Alveoli are found in the lungs and are the
into fresh water that is suitable for human site of oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange
use. by the respiratory system.
46. b. The burning of fossil fuels creates all of 7. b. Meiosis results in daughter cells that are
those items except stratospheric ozone. genetically different than their parent cells.
Natural processes high in the Earth’s This leads to greater diversity when
atmosphere create that type of ozone. compared to reproduction through mitosis
47. c. A greenhouse gas traps heat because it or asexual reproduction.
absorbs outgoing longwave radiation and is 8. d. After sexual reproduction leads to
transparent to incoming shortwave fertilization, the first stage of development
radiation. is a single-celled zygote. Choices b and c are
48. c. Ozone has three oxygen atoms in a single later stages in development; the zygote
molecule. becomes an embryo, which then becomes a
49. b. Acid rain occurs when nitrates and sulfates fetus.
in clouds fall to Earth as nitric and sulfuric 9. b. Fruits serve the functions of choices a, c,
acids in rainwater. and d, but are formed after pollination.
50. a. Carbon monoxide, an odorless gas that is 10. c. The placenta is specialized tissue that
lethal in very small quantities, is the provides nutrients to the developing
number one cause of poisoning deaths embryo in the mother’s uterus.
annually. 11. a. Gymnosperms produce pine cones with
seeds, not flowers; mosses are not vascular
plants and do not produce flowers; fungi are
not plants and produce spores from fruiting
bodies, not flowers.
388
12. b. Adrenaline causes an increase in blood 22. a. The Punnett square is a grid that represents
sugar by releasing stored carbohydrates. all of the possible genotypic combinations
Choice d is incorrect because adrenaline in the offspring generation produced by a
does inhibit these muscles, even though it male (gametes listed horizontally) and a
stimulates muscles in the spleen, hair female (gametes listed vertically).
follicles, and eyes. 23. a. Ligaments are the dense parallel bundles of
13. d. Goiter is an enlargement of the thyroid collagen fibers that hold bones together at a
gland. joint.
14. a. Oncology is the study and treatment of 24. a. Mosses are bryophytes, which are character-
cancer and tumors. ized by their lack of a vascular system.
15. b. The ulna is a bone in the lower arm. 25. b. Adrenaline is a hormone, acetylcholine is a
16. a. The medulla oblongata controls many neurotransmitter, and amino acids are the
involuntary responses, including heart and building block molecules of proteins.
breathing rates. 26. c. Mitosis results in daughter cells with genes
17. c. DNA is transcribed into mRNA by pairing identical to their parent cell. This is used by
AÆU, TÆ A, GÆC, and CÆG. The 5¢ end the simplest living organisms, as well as
of DNA aligns with the 3¢ end of mRNA, so advanced life forms, but it does not result in
the DNA is read in reverse when starting at genetic diversity.
the 5¢ end. 27. b. Carcinogens cause mutations that lead to
18. b. The ribosomes are the sites of protein cancerous growth, which is unhealthy in
synthesis within the cell. The nucleus most cases.
houses the genetic material, the lysosomes 28. c. The salivary glands have ducts and are
manage waste, and the cytoplasm is the called exocrine glands. The others are
fluid inside the cell membrane. endocrine glands, which are ductless and
19. d. Antigens are chemicals that are recognized pour their secretions directly into the blood.
as foreign by the immune system, thus 29. c. The proportions of offspring are relatively
stimulating the production of antibodies. equal. Choice a is eliminated, because since
Viruses and bacteria are typically antigenic the recessive traits showed up in the
because of their structure. offspring, then the offspring must have
20. a. Cell membranes are generally composed of received recessive alleles from both parents.
phospholipids—molecules arranged in two Choice d is eliminated because dominant
layers, with the phosphate ends pointing in traits were also present. Of the remaining
toward the cell’s center in one layer and to possibilities, choice c would produce equal
the outside environment in the other layer. numbers of offspring. One parent will
The lipid ends of the molecules are always give yt, and the other has equal
sandwiched in the middle of the membrane. chances of providing YT, Yt, yT, and yt.
21. d. The snake is the only vertebrate listed—it is
the only one of the four animals that has a
backbone.
389
30. a. Type O results from the recessive genotype, 41. d. Fungi are decomposers that return
without alleles for type A or type B. Types A nutrients into the soil by breaking them
and B are codominant, so they can be down from decaying organic matter. Fungi
expressed together. rely on dead organisms, like the dead plant
31. a. Photosynthesis oxidizes water into O2 and in the question, for nutrients, but this is not
protons (H+). These electrons and protons a form of symbiosis, which is considered a
are ultimately used in the Calvin Cycle to relationship between living organisms.
reduce CO2 into more complex molecules. Choices a through c are examples of
32. c. The Eustachian tube allows the air pressure symbiosis.
in the middle ear to remain equal to that on 42. c. This is the only example of a true predator-
the outside of the tympanic membrane. prey dynamic. The other choices are all
33. d. Osteocytes are living cells within the examples of consumption, but choice c is an
minerals of bone. Osteo is the combining interaction that results in the death of the
form meaning bone. prey organism, which is a requirement of
34. c. Analogous structures describe traits that the act of predation.
independently evolved in two unrelated 43. d. Nerves are composed of nervous tissue, not
species. The closest common ancestor of connective tissue.
birds and bats did not have wings, yet each 44. b. The renal system, also called the excretory
group evolved them. system, consists of the kidneys and
35. b. In binomial nomenclature, the genus name excretory accessory organs.
(Aptenodytes) precedes the species name 45. a. Because the trait is recessive, an individual
(forsteri). must be homozygous recessive for the
36. b. The correct answer is lactose. Most enzymes disease to present the disorder. Even with a
are named according to the substance that shortened life expectancy, the gene is not
they act on plus the suffix -ase. For example, expected to leave the gene pool, eliminating
choice c is incorrect because sucrase is an choice b. Choice c is not true because a
enzyme that degrades sucrose. parent carrying one recessive gene is a
37. b. Vestigial structures are structures within an carrier and will not show symptoms. Choice
organism that have lost their original d is not true because carriers are resistant to
function through evolution. The appendix malaria, which is extremely useful in parts
was part of the digestive system of a human of the world where malaria is a risk.
ancestor, and the coccyx is the remnant of a 46. c. The junction of two nerve cells is called a
tail. synapse.
38. b. Pheromones are chemical signals that may 47. a. Oogenesis is the name of the process in
be released either in a secretion or as an which the ova (egg cells) are produced and
odor. grow in the ovary. Special ovarian cells
39. c. A codon is a triplet of nucleotides that called oogonia divide repeatedly to make
usually represents a genetic code for an large numbers of prospective eggs called
amino acid added during protein synthesis. oocytes.
40. c. Vertebrate digits are also referred to as
phalanges.
390
48. c. Men are more likely to be affected by an 10. b. Combination of PF3(g) and F2(g).
X-linked disorder as they possess only one 11. a. Ba(OH)2(aq) + 2HNO3(aq) Æ
copy of the gene, whereas women possess Ba(NO3)2(aq) + 2H2O(l)
two. X-linked recessive disorders are often The number of each atom on the left side of
inherited through the mother when she is a the equation must equal the number on the
carrier and shows no symptoms because she right side of the equation:
also has a second, functional allele. 1 Ba [in Ba(OH)2] for 1 Ba [in Ba(NO3)2],
49. c. The ossicles, utricle, and cochlea are all 2 N [in 2 HNO3] for 2 N [in Ba(NO3)2],
components of the human ear. 8 O [2 in Ba(OH)2 and 6 in 2HNO3] for
50. c. Alcohol acts as a depressant, not as a 8 O [6 in Ba(NO3)2 and 2 in 2H2O]
stimulant. 4 H [2 in Ba(OH)2 and 2 in 2HNO3] for
4 H [4 in 2H2O]
Section 6: Chemistry 12. c. The chemical formula for nitrite is NO2–.
1. a. Protons and C6H12O6 have mass, but not 13. a. C2H4(g) + 3O2(g) Æ 2CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)
enough to matter in such small quantities as Oxidation: increase of the oxidation # of C
20 molecules. Electrons have almost no mass from [–2] in C2H4(g) to [+4] in CO2(g).
regardless of how much you have, so the Reduction: decrease of the oxidation # of O
greatest mass is 0.5 moles of uranium (U). from [0] in O2(g) to [–4] in CO2(g).
2. d. Three half-lives, or 39 hours, leave 18 of the 14. b. Only NH3 is not ionic and cannot be
iodine-123 undecayed: 13.75 grams. A few broken into ions.
more hours, a total of about 44, leaves less 15. d. 3 ions: 2 NO3– and 1 Mg2+: 3 0.25M =
than 12 grams. 0.75M, which is greater than 0.4M (Al3+ and
3. a. The correct formula for copper (II) oxide 3 Cl–), 0.45M (Sr2+ and 2 Br–), 0.4M (Na+
is CuO. and Br–).
4. a. The molar ratio of Fe2O3 to Fe is 1:2, so the 16. c. In the equation Ba(NO3)2 + Na2SO4 Æ
number of moles of Fe produced is twice BaSO4 (sol) + 2NaNO3, 1 mole of sodium
the number of moles of Fe2O3 used. sulfate produces 1 mole of the precipitate
5. d. Capsaicin is not a carboxylic acid. barium sulfate [137.3 (Ba) + 32 (S) +
Carboxylic acids contain a –COOH group. [4 16 (4O)] = 233.3 g]. So, to produce
10.0
6. a. Acids and bases neutralize each other, 10.0 g of barium sulfate, only ( 233.3 ) 1
creating water and a salt. mol= 0.04 mol of sodium sulfate is needed.
(HA + BOH Æ H2O + AB). 17. b. Only NO is not an element.
7. b. Oxidation: increase of the oxidation # of Sn 18. c. CH3COOH + NaHCO3 Æ NaCH3COO +
from Sn [0] to SnCl62– [+4]. Oxidizing H2CO3 is an acid-base reaction. Carbonic
agent: 4NO3–(aq), while Sn(s) is the reducing acid decomposes to H2O and CO2 which is
agent (because it is oxidized). released as a gas.
8. c. Balance Mg first [1 in Mg(s) for 1 in 19. c. Na+ and Cl– combine to form NaCl.
Mg(OH)2], then O [2 in 2H2O for 2 in 20. b. d = mv implies that v = md = 1.05275g/mL
g
⬃
Mg(OH)2], and finally H [4 in 2H2O for 2 262 mL.
in Mg(OH)2 and 2 in H2]. 21. d. 59 (72 – 32) = 59 40 = 22.2°C
9. c. Cr in Cr(NO3)3 is displaced by Al.
391
22. a. Ionic compounds are formed from 25. b. Mirror-images are two structures that are not
combinations of metals and nonmetals held superposable (upon rotation/flipping of the
together by ionic bonds. All other choices structure or not). In (a), (e), (f), we have the
contain only nonmetals, which form same structure: On rotating the second
covalent bonds with each other. structure (in plane strictly for (a) and (e)
23. c. 4.50 102 10–9 m= 4.50 10–7 m since these are Fischer projections and out of
24. c. 47.6 g MgCl2 is equivalent to 0.500 mol. plane for (f)) by 180°, we obtain the first
0.500 mol/2.00 L = 0.250 M MgCl2. In structure: (a), (e), (f) are not constituted by
solution, MgCl2 dissociates into 3 ions pairs of enantiomers or mirror-images. Set
(1 Mg2+ and 2 Cl–), so the total concentra- (g) is labeled (R),(S) for one and (R),(R) for
tion of ions is 0.750 M. the other structure, and cannot therefore
constitute a set of enantiomers (in which
absolute configuration shouldn’t be the same
for the same chiral carbon of the structures).
(b), (c), (d), (h) are sets of enantiomers or
mirror-images by the same procedure, (h)
showing (R),(R) and (S),(S) that is
characteristic of enantiomeric pairs.
(a) (b)
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
H OH HO H H OH HO H
H OH HO H HO H H OH
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
(c) (d)
CH2 OH CH2OH CH3 CH3
H OH HO H H OH Br H
H OH HO H Br H H OH
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
(e) (f)
CH3 CH3
CH3 Br
H OH H OH
(R) (R)
HO H HO H Br H 3C
Cl H H Cl
CH3 CH3
(g) (h)
H H H CH3
CH3 CH3 CH3 H
(R) (R) (R) (S)
(S) (R) (R) (S)
H H 3C H 3C H
CH3 H H CH3
392
26. c. Since (g) is labeled (R),(S) for one structure 40. c. The period number of an element is equal
and (R),(R) for the other and cannot to the number of electron shells in an atom
therefore constitute a set of enantiomers, it’s of that element.
a set of diastereomers. 41. c. An ionic bond forms when electrons are
27. a. 3.33 10–5 + 8.13 (10–5 10–2) = transferred from one atom (now a cation)
(3.33 + 8.13 10–2) 10–5 = 3.41 10–5 to another (which becomes an anion).
(2 decimal digits as in 3.33 and 8.13). 42. b. In CO2, carbon has a +4 oxidation state.
28. d. 0.05620 = 0.5620 10–1 = 5.620 10–2. During photosynthesis, it is reduced to a
29. b. The number of neutrons can be found by lower oxidation state as it is converted into
subtracting the atomic number for iodine, carbohydrates to be used as fuel.
53, from the mass number, 131. That 43. a. K is transferring its valence electron
number is 78. (1 electron) to Br (which becomes Br– with
30. c. If an ion has a charge of 1, it has 1 more 8 valence electrons, a complete octet).
electron than it has protons. The ion shown 44. a. The size of atoms decreases from left to
has 9 electrons so it has 8 protons. right in the same period and increases from
31. d. The acid concentration of H2SO4 is 2 M top to bottom in the same group of the
(2 H+ per H2SO4). The acid is neutralized periodic table.
when it has been reacted with an equimolar 45. b. Boron is in group III, so it has 3 valence
amount of base. Using M1V1 = M2V2: electrons.
(2 M)(0.1 L) = (0.5 M)(x L) Æ 46. d. An orbital quantum number of 2 corre-
x = 0.4 L (400 m L). sponds to a d orbital. There are 5 d orbitals,
32. b. Significant figures include all nonzero digits each of which can hold 2 electrons, for a
and trailing zeroes in a number that total of 10 electrons that can have these
contains a decimal point. In the number quantum numbers.
0.00250, the bolded digits are significant. 47. b. The formula for lead (II) hydroxide is
33. d. The reactants are both replaced, making this Pb(OH)2.
a double replacement reaction. 48. c. The ionic bond involves the exchange of
34. c. Hydrogen atoms have been incorporated, electrons, the hydrogen bond involves
i.e., hydrogenation. electrostatic attraction between polar
35. d. 2 mol of H2 react with 1 mol (280 g) of molecules, and there is no such thing as a
linoleic acid. To hydrogenate 5.0 g of “proton bond.” The covalent bond involves
linoleic acid, the required amount of H2 is the sharing of valence electrons.
5.0 1
( 0 ) 2 mol = 28 mol.
28 49. b. While most compounds become slightly
36. d. Sc has 3 valence electrons (3d14s2) and is denser upon solidifying, water’s crystalline
therefore in group IIIB (transition metals). structure causes it to expand upon freezing,
37. b. 2nd shell: 2 for “second” (s and p are the making it less dense as a solid than as a liquid.
types of orbitals found in the second shell). 50. d. Precision is the degree to which the
38. d. For a principle quantum number of 2, there measurements are replicated, regardless of
are four orbitals: 2s, 2px, 2py, and 2pz. how close those measurements are to the
39. a. The group number of an element true value. The group of measurements
corresponds to the number of valence closest to each other, though not necessarily
electrons for an atom of that element. to 13.0, is 15.2, 15.0, 15.1, and 15.2.
393
Scoring answer or got wrong don’t count; only count the ones
Your scores on the six sections of the exam and on the you got right. Then add up the total number of ques-
test as a whole will be reported both as scaled scores tions you got right.
and as percentiles. A scaled score is a way of convert-
ing the number you got right on this test to a number Section 1: of 50 questions right
that can be compared with the number other people Section 2: of 45 questions right
got right on other forms of the test, which may have Section 3: of 50 questions right
been harder or easier. A percentile is a comparison of Section 4: of 50 questions right
your scaled score with the scaled scores of other test Section 5: of 50 questions right
takers. If your percentile score is 60, you scored higher Section 6: of 50 questions right
than 60% of all test takers; if your percentile score is 84,
you scored higher than 84% of all test takers. By defini- To figure the percentages for each section and for
tion, a scaled score of 200 is a percentile score of 50. your total, divide your raw score by the number of
There is no “passing” scale or percentile score. questions, and then move the decimal point two places
Individual schools set their own standards, and it’s to the right to arrive at a percentage.
worth your while to find out what scores the schools Now that you know what percentage of the ques-
you want to apply to will accept. tions on each section you got right, you can diagnose
The testing agency uses complicated formulas to your strengths and weaknesses. The sections on which
come up with scaled and percentile scores. A more you got the lowest percentages are the ones you should
meaningful way for you to look at your performance plan on studying hardest. Sections on which you got
on this practice test is to convert your scores to per- higher percentages may not need as much of your
centages so that you will be able to compare how you time. However, unless you scored over 90% on a given
did on the six sections of the test. A percentage is not section, you can’t afford to skip studying that section
the same as the percentile that will appear on your altogether. After all, you want the highest score you can
score report. The percentage is simply the number you manage in the time left before the exam.
would have gotten right if there had been 100 ques- Having taken this practice exam is one important
tions in the section; it will enable you to compare your step toward that high score. Simply knowing what to
scores among the various sections. The percentile com- expect is a big help in taking a standardized exam. You
pares your score with that of other candidates. are now familiar with the format and content of nurs-
In order to find your percentage scores, first add ing school entrance exams. Make the most of this
up the number you got right in each section and write advantage by using your scores to help you focus your
it in the following blanks. Questions you didn’t additional study.
394

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CHAPTER 1 Nursing School Entrance Exam Planner 1

CHAPTER 2 The LearningExpress Test Preparation System 9

CHAPTER 3 Practice Exam I 29

CHAPTER 4 Verbal Ability 87

CHAPTER 5 Reading Comprehension 95

CHAPTER 6 Math Review 107

CHAPTER 7 Biology Review 157

CHAPTER 8 Chemistry Review 191

CHAPTER 9 General Science Review 225

CHAPTER 10 Practice Exam II 283

CHAPTER 11 Practice Exam III 339

ADDITIONAL ONLINE PRACTICE 395

– NURSING SCHOOL ENTRANCE EXAM PLANNER –

– NURSING SCHOOL ENTRANCE EXAM PLANNER –

CHECK YOUR BASIC SKILLS

■ show caring and sympathy

– NURSING SCHOOL ENTRANCE EXAM PLANNER –

■ Diploma Programs are run by hospitals and usu- Selecting a Program

– NURSING SCHOOL ENTRANCE EXAM PLANNER –

– NURSING SCHOOL ENTRANCE EXAM PLANNER –

Test Overview Registered Nursing School Aptitude

– NURSING SCHOOL ENTRANCE EXAM PLANNER –

Educational Resources, Inc.

■ Being unfamiliar with the format of the exam

– THE LEARNINGEXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM –

What’s the common denominator in all these Step 1: Get Information

– THE LEARNINGEXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM –

Part B: What’s on the Test Stress Management Before the Test

TEST ANXIETY QUIZ

Your Test Anxiety Score

– THE LEARNINGEXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM –

– THE LEARNINGEXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM –

SECTION SCORE ANALYSIS

– THE LEARNINGEXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM –

– THE LEARNINGEXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM –

Schedule A: Six Months to Exam

– THE LEARNINGEXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM –

Schedule B: Three to Six Months to Exam

– THE LEARNINGEXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM –

Schedule C: One to Three Months to Exam

– THE LEARNINGEXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM –

Schedule D: Two to Four Weeks to Exam

– THE LEARNINGEXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM –

– THE LEARNINGEXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM –

USING THE PROCESS OF ELIMINATION

Use the process of elimination to answer the following questions.

USING THE PROCESS OF ELIMINATION (continued)

YOUR GUESSING ABILITY

1. September 7 is Independence Day in 4. American author Gertrude Stein was born in

YOUR GUESSING ABILITY (continued)

– THE LEARNINGEXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM –

Activity: Complete the Physical Preparation Checklist. Rest