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PORTFOLIO MANAGEMENT
PORTFOLIO CONSISTING OF PURCHASING, SELLING & BORROWING - POINT NO, (III) IS RECTIFIED
QUESTION NO.28A(Exam Question)(8 Marks) Mr. X owns a portfolio with the following characteristics:
Security A Security B Risk free Security
Factor 1 sensitivity (Beta) 0.80 1.50 0
Factor 2 sensitivity (Beta) 0.60 1.20 0
Expected Return 15% 20% 10%
It is assumed that security returns are generated by a two factor model.
(i)If Mr. X has `1,00,000 to invest and sells ` 50,000 of security B & purchases ` 1,50,000 of security A, what is the
sensitivity(Beta) of Mr. X's portfolio to the two factors?
(ii)Invest 3,00,000 in Security A by using 1,00,000 of own money, 1,00,000 borrowing at Risk Free Rate, 1,00,000
by selling Security B. What is the sensitivity of the portfolio to the factors? OR
If Mr. X borrows ` 1,00,000 at the risk free rate and invests the amount he borrows along with the original amount
of ` 1,00,000 in security A and B in the same proportion as described in part (i), what is the sensitivity of the
portfolio to the two factors ?
(iii)What is the expected return premium of factor 2?
Solution:
(i) Sensitivity of Mr. X to the two factors are as follows :
Factor 1 = 1.50 x 0.80 + (-0.50 x 1.50) = 0.45 ;Factor 2 = 1.50 x 0.60 + (-0.50 x 1.20) = 0.30
1,50 ,000 50 ,000
Calculation Of Weights : WA 1.5; WB .50
1,00 ,000 1,00,000
(ii) Sensitivity of Mr. X to the two factors are as follows :
Factor 1 = 3.0 x 0.80 + (-1 x 1.50) + (- 1 x 0) = 0.90 ; Factor 2 = 3.0 x 0.60 + (-1 x 1.20) + (-1 x 0) = 0.60
Calculation Of Weights :Security A : Rs. 300000 / Rs. 100000 = 3 ;Security B :-Rs. 100000 / Rs. 100000 = -1 ;
Risk free asset : -Rs. 100000 / Rs. 100000 = -1
[Additional Analysis: For taking weights in this case students must read the question clearly. It has been written
that "Invest the amount he borrows along with the original amount of Rs. 1,00,000 in security A and B in the same
proportion as described in part (i). By same proportion it means 1,00,000 in each case. That is we will invest Rs.
3,00,000 in Security A. Out of this Rs. 3,00,000, 1,00,000 will come from Risk Free Borrowing, Rs.1,00,000 will
come from Shorting Security B and Rs.1,00,000 from Mr. X itself.
(iii) This question can be solved in two manner:
One By Using Arbitrage Pricing Theory:
Return = Risk Free Rate + Beta x Risk Premium Of Each Factor
Security A : 15 = 10 + .80 x Risk Premium Factor 1 + .60 x Risk Premium Factor 2
Security B : 20 = 10 +1.50 x Risk Premium Factor 1 + 1.20 x Risk Premium Factor 2
By solving we get Risk Premium Factor 2 = 0 and also Risk Premium Factor 1 = 8.33
Accordingly, the expected risk premium for the factor 2 shall be Zero and whatever be the risk the same shall
be on account of factor 1.
One By Using This Equation : Risk Premium = Return - Risk Free Rate
Security A = 15% - 10% = 5%
Security B = 20% - 10% = 10%
Note: In exam students are required to give both the solution.
QUESTION NO.28B (8 Marks) Mr. Kapoor owns a portfolio with the following characteristics:
SecurityX Security Y Risk Free Security
Factor 1 sensitivity 0.75 1.50 0
Factor 2 sensitivity 0.60 1.10 0
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Beyond Expectations 3
INDA'S NO.1 SFM CLASS
In case of expansion of the company’s present business, the same rate of return i.e.17.00% will be used. However,
in case of diversification into new business the risk profile of new business is likely to be different.Therefore,different
discount factor has to be worked out for such business.
QUESTION NO.51B(8 Marks) Y has to remit USD $1,00,000 for his son’s education on 4th April 2018. Accordingly,
he has booked a forward contract with his bank on 4th January @ 63.8775. The Bank has covered its position in
the market @ ` 63.7575.
The exchange rates for USD $ in the interbank market on 4th April and 7th April were:
4th April 7th April
JulySpot USD 1= 63.2775/63.2975 63.1575/63.1975
Spot/April 63.3975/63.4275 63.2775/63.3275
May 63.5275/63.5675 63.4075/63.7650
June 63.7775/63.8250 63.6575/63.7275
July 64.0700/64.1325 63.9575/64.0675
Exchange margin of 0.10 percent and interest outlay of funds @ 12 percent are applicable. The remitter, due to
rescheduling of the semester, has requested on 7th April 2018 for extension of contract with due date on 14th
June 2018. Rates must be rounded to 4 decimal place in multiples of 0.0025. Calculate: (i)Cancellation Rate; (ii)
Amount Payable on $100,000; (iii)Swap loss; (iv)Interest on outlay of funds, (v)New Contract Rate; and (vi)Total
Cost
Solution:
(i)Cancellation Rate: The forward sale contract shall be cancelled at Spot TT Purchase for $ prevailing on the
date of cancellation as follows:
$/ ` Market Buying Rate ` 63.1575
Less: Exchange Margin @ 0.10% ` 0.0632
` 63.0943
Rounded off to ` 63.0950
(ii)Amount payable on $ 1,00,000
Bank sells $1,00,000 @ ` 63.8775 ` 63,87,750
Bank buys $1,00,000 @ ` 63.0950 ` 63,09,500
Amount payable by customer ` 78,250
(iii)Swap Loss: On 4th April, the bank does a swap sale of $ at market buying rate of ` 63.2775 and forward
purchase for April at market selling rate of ` 63.4275.
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Beyond Expectations 6
INDA'S NO.1 SFM CLASS
Since the current market price of December-15 is ` 1,22,500 (` 100 x 1225) it is overpriced.
Note: 91 Days Calculation : Count Days Between Date From 15th September to 15th December
(ii) Actual Future Price = 1,22,500 > Fair Future Price = 1,21,437
Since the actual future is overpriced, the arbitrage is possible i.e. sell the future contract and borrow to
buy the stock.
(iii)Action Taken As On September 15
Transaction As On Today :
Buy (`1195 x 100 shares) = ` 1,19,500 worth of Stocks and
Borrow ` 1,19,500 @ 9.50% for 91 days
Sell a Future Contract @ 1225
Note: Assume Current Cash Market Price of NSE-50 Index is ` 1,19,500
As On Expiry :
(a)If on December 15, the Index closes at 1260
Cash Market
Buy 119500 + 119500 + 9.50/100 +91/365 = -1,22,330.35
Sell : 1,26,000
Dividend Earned @ 3% 91 x 1,19,500 x 3%
365
+ 893.79_
Profit 4563.44
Future Market
Sell 122500
Buy 126000
Loss 3500
Overall :Gain due to Arbitrage + 1,063.44
(b) If on December 15, the Index closes at 1175
Cash Market
Buy 119500 + 119500 + 9.50/100 +91/365 = -1,22,330.35
Sell : 1,17,500
Dividend Earned @ 3% 91 x 1,19,500 x 3%
365
+ 893.79_
Loss - 3936.56
Future Market
Sell 122500
Buy 117500__
Loss +5,000.00
Overall :Gain due to Arbitrage +1063.44
NOTE: IN SOME BOOK ITS SOLUTION WAS PRINTED PROPERLY.VALUATION OF SECURITY - DIVIDEND
QUESTION NO.26A Following are details regarding three companies A Ltd., B Ltd. and C Ltd.:
Details A Ltd. B Ltd. C Ltd.
Rate of Return (r) 15% 5% 10%
Cost of Equity Capital (Ke) 10% 10% 10%
Earning Per Share (EPS) `8 `8 `8
Calculate the value or price of an equity share of each of these companies applying Walter’s formulae when (D/
P ratio) is (i)25 % (ii)50% and (iii)75%
Solution:
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Beyond Expectations 9
INDA'S NO.1 SFM CLASS
r
DPS + (EPS – DPS)
As per Walter's Model we have : Po = Ke
Ke
A Ltd :
.15 .15
2+ (8 – 2) 4+ (8 – 4)
(i) When D/P Ratio is 25%: Po = .10 = Rs. 110 ;(ii) When D/P Ratio is 50%: Po = .10 = Rs. 100
.10 .10
.15
6+ (8 – 6)
(iii) When D/P Ratio is 75%: Po = .10 = Rs. 90
.10
B Ltd :
.05 .05
2+ (8 – 2) 4+ (8 – 4)
(i) When D/P Ratio is 25% Po = .10 = Rs. 50 ;(ii) When D/P Ratio is 50% Po = .10 = Rs. 60
.10 .10
.05
6+ (8 – 6)
(iii) When D/P Ratio is 75% Po = .10 = Rs. 70
.10
C Ltd :
.10 .10
2+ (8 – 2) 4+ (8 – 4)
(i) When D/P Ratio is 25% Po= .10 = Rs. 80 ;(ii) When D/P Ratio is 50% Po = .10 = Rs. 80
.10 .10
.10
6+ (8 – 6)
(iii) When D/P Ratio is 75% Po= .10 = Rs. 80
.10
RISK MANAGEMENT
QUESTION NO.12 ABC Ltd. is considering a project X, which is normally distributed and has mean return of Rs. 2
crore with Standard Deviation of Rs. 1.60 crore.
In case ABC Ltd. loses on any project more than Rs. 1.00 crore there will be financial difficulties. Determine the
probability the company will be in financial difficulty.
Given: Standard Normal Distribution Table (Z-Score) providing area between Mean and Z score
Z Score Area
1.85 0.4678
1.86 0.4686
1.87 0.4693
1.88 0.4699
1.89 0.4706
Solution:
For calculating probability of financial difficulty, we shall calculate the area under Normal Curve corresponding to
the Z Score obtained from the following equation (how many SD is away from Mean Value of financial difficulty):
Corresponding area from Z Score Table by using interpolation shall be found as follows:
Z Score Area under Normal Curve
1.87 0.4693
1.88 0.4699
0.01 0.0006
0.0006
The corresponding value of 0.005 Z score = 0.005 x = 0.0003
0.01
Thus the Value of 1.875 shall be = 0.4693 + 0.0003 = 0.4696
Thus the probability the company shall be in financial difficulty is 50% - 46.96% = 3.04%
Additional Analysis:Why 50% is used ? Because area from mean to left tail is 50% ; Remember Total Area is
100%.Why 46.96% is deducted from 50% ? This will be understood from the following graph.We need shaded
region area because the word in the question is like this:"In case ABC Ltd. loses on any project more than Rs.
1.00 crore there will be financial difficulties"
50%
46.96%