1.

Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in

(a) the matter of creating new All India Services
(b) amending the Constitution
(c) the removal of the government
(d) making cut motions

Correct Answer : B

2. With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area

Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct?
1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure
for health, education, etc.
2. A specified portion of each MP's fund must benefit SC/ST populations.
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be
carried forward to the next year.
4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation
every year.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Correct Answer : D

3. Which one of the following categories of „Fundamental Rights incorporated against

untouchability as a form of discrimination?
(a) Right against Exploitation
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(d) Right to Equality

Correct Answer : D

4. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by

(a) the Preamble of the Constitution
(b) a Directive Principle of State Policy
(c) the Seventh Schedule
(d) the conventional practice

Correct Answer : B

5. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the
Parliament which include „The Macro Economic Framework Statement‟. The aforesaid
document is presented because this is mandated by
(a) Long standing parliamentary convention
(b) Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India
(c) Article 113 of the Constitution of India
(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003

Correct Answer : D

6. A constitutional government by definition is a

(a) government by legislature
(b) popular government
(c) multi-party government
(d) limited government

Correct Answer : D

7. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution
of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of
Human Rights (1948)?
1. Preamble
2. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Fundamental Duties

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : D

8. In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of

the following type of citizens?
1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs 1,00,000
2. Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs 2,00,000
3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than ₹
3,00,000
4. All Senior Citizens

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
 Correct Answer : A

9. A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which

(a) all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government
(b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it
(c) the Government is elected by the people and can be removed by them
(d) the Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by it before
completion of a fixed term

Correct Answer : B

10. Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of a Welfare State?
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Preamble
(d) Seventh Schedule

Correct Answer : A

11. Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India defines its „basic structure‟ in terms of federalism,
secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
2. The Constitution of India provides for „judicial review‟ to safeguard the citizens‟
liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : B

12. In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for
bureaucracy?
(a) An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy
(b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism
(c) An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth
(d) An agency for the implementation of public policy
 Correct Answer : D

13. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is

(a) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect
(b) not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either
(c) part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part
(d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts

Correct Answer : D

14. With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India,
which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. They shall be enforceable by courts.
2. They shall not be enforceable by any court.
3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the State.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer : D

15. Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a
minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of
that State.
2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a
criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently
disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : D

16. Consider the following statements:

 1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such a
place as he/she thinks fit.
2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year,
but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer : C

17. In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of G20?
(a) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey
(b) Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand
(c) Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam
(d) Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South Korea

Correct Answer : A

18. Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts
several posts from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : A

19. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime
ministership of
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Morarji Desai
 Correct Answer : A

20. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of
India as being violative of the independence of the judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : B

21. Consider the following statements:

1. The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot
be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry)
Act, 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes
'incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of the Judges of the Supreme Court of
India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme
Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law
requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and
supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than
two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Correct Answer : C

22. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one's right to marry the person of
one's choice?
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 25
(d) Article 29

Correct Answer : A
23. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions
contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional
powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its
duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws
made by the Parliament.
(c) In the event of a grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare
a Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence
of the Union Legislature.

Correct Answer : B

24. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following
statements:
1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the
commencement of the first session of the year.
2. When a State Legislature does' not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the
Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : A

25. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)
in India:
1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Correct Answer : C
26. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be
constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the
Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : D

27. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most
appropriate definition of liberty?
(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
(b) Absence of restraint
(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully

Correct Answer : B

28. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person
from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or
should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)

Correct Answer : C

29. Consider the following statements:

1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any
court during his term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be
diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : C

30. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the "Rule of Law"?
1. Limitation of powers
2. Equality before law
3. People's responsibility to the Government
4. Liberty and civil rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer : C

31. Consider the following statements:

1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly Shall vacate his/her office if he/she
ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her
immediately.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : A

32. Which one of the following reflects the nicest, appropriate relationship between law and
liberty?
(a) if there are more laws, there is less liberty.
(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
(c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.
 Correct Answer : B

33. In the federation established by The Government on India Act of 1935. Residuary
Power was given to the
(a) Federal Legislature
(b) Governor General
(c) Provincial Legislature
(d) Provincial Governors

Correct Answer : B

34. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following
statements:
1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of
MPs of the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the following statements given above is/are Correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 Or 2

Correct Answer : C

35. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal
Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and
appropriately imply the above statement?
(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part. III
(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution

Correct Answer : C

36. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary
Committees scrutinizes and reports to the Ilouse whether the powers to make regulations,
rules, sub-rules, by-laws,etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament
are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation ?
(a) Committee on Government Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory Committee

Correct Answer : B

37. Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India ?
1. Charter Act of 1813
2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : A

38. Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of
the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by
any court and no judgement can be made on it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : A

39. Consider the following statements:

1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the
Swatantra Party.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the Opposition" was recognised for the first time
in 1969.
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its
leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct? (a)1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : B

40. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the
Constitution in respect of a particular State, then
(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the
authority of the Parliament.
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.
(d) the President can make laws relating to that State.

Correct Answer : B

41. Indian Constitution is called a living document because

1. Indian Constitution is open to changes as per the changing needs of the society.
2. The constitution provides enough flexibility of interpretation for both political class
and the Judiciary.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : C

42. Which of the following functions is/are performed by the National Commission for
Scheduled Castes?
1. To inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and
safeguards of the scheduled castes.
2. To determine an increase or decrease in quantum of reservation of scheduled
castes in government jobs.
3. To prepare and update the list of schedule caste government employees and
recommend their names for promotion through reserved quota.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : A

43. The Directive Principles of State Policy under the Constitution of India prescribe:
1. certain policies that the government should adopt.
2. the goals and objectives that we as a society should adopt.
3. certain rights that individuals should enjoy apart from the Fundamental Rights.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : D
44. Consider the following statements regarding 'federation' in India:
i. It is characterised by independent judiciary and bicameralism.
ii. The term „Federation‟ has been nowhere been used in the Indian
Constitution.
iii. It has been described as quasi-federal in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 only

Correct Answer : A

45. Consider the following statements with reference to High Courts:

i. It can withdraw a case pending in a subordinate court if it involves a
substantial question of law that require the interpretation of the
Constitution.
ii. It has the power to review and correct its own judgement or order or
decision.
iii. It has the power to adjudicate inter-state dispute matters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : A

46. The rights enlisted under the „Right to freedom of religion' can be restricted on the
grounds of :
i. Public Order
ii. Health
iii. Morality
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

Correct Answer : D

47. Which of the following has been described as the „horoscope of our sovereign
democratic republic‟?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Preamble
(d) Fundamental Duties

Correct Answer : C

48. Article 20 of the Indian Constitution grants protection against self-incrimination.

However, this protection does not extend to:
i. Oral evidence
ii. Production of material objects
iii. Blood specimens
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : C

49. The power of the State to make any provision for the reservation of posts in favour of
any backward class of citizens in the services under the State is constitutionally protected
under
(a) Right to Freedom
(b) Cultural and Educational Rights
(c) Right against Exploitation
(d) Right to Equality
 Correct Answer : D

50. Consider the following statements regarding Article 33 of the Indian Constitution:
i. The power to make laws under Article 33 is conferred only on Parliament and not
on the state legislatures.
ii. The laws made under Article 33 cannot be challenged in any court for violation of
any of the fundamental rights.
iii. Laws made under Article 33 cover only combatant employees and officers of
armed forces.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : A
51. Which of the following employees / Officers are covered under the jurisdiction of
'Central Administrative Tribunals'?
I. Officers and servants of the Supreme Court
II. The secretarial staff of the Parliament
III. Officers of All India Services
IV. Civilian employees of defense services Select the correct answer using
the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Correct Answer : C

52. If a National Emergency is declared on the ground of armed rebellion:

i. Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended.
ii. President can suspend the right to move the Court for the enforcement
of fundamental rights.
iii. the enforcement of the fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 21
and 22 cannot be suspended.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : B

53. Right to contest elections to a Panchayat in India is a:

(a) Constitutional Right
 (b) Statutory Right
(c) Natural Right
(d) Fundamental Right

Correct Answer : A

54. Which of the following are the characteristics of parliamentary form of the
government of India?
i. The sovereignty of the Indian Parliament
ii. Presence of nominal and real executives
iii. Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : C

55. Consider the following statements regarding ' Election Commission':

i. The Constitution has prescribed qualifications and terms of the members of the
Election Commission.
ii. Retiring election commissioners are debarred from any further appointment by
the government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : D
56. Which of the following are the constitutional provisions with regard to enactment of
the budget?
1. Parliament can reduce or abolish a tax but cannot increase it.
2. The budget shall distinguish receipts on revenue account from other receipts.
3. No demand for a grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the
President.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : C

57. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Council of Ministers’:

1. Ministers are not legally responsible for any act passed by the Parliament.
2. President can remove a minister only on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : C

58. Consider the following statements regarding the Cabinet committees:

i. They are extra-constitutional in nature.
ii. Establishment or discontinuation of any of cabinet committees must be
approved by the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : A

59. With reference to the duration of Panchayat, consider the following statements:
i. The tenure of every Panchayat shall be for five years from the date of its first
meeting.
ii. The panchayat is dissolved in accordance with the procedure defined under the
Constitution 73rd Amendment.
iii. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution shall continue only for the
remainder of the term.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : B

60. In the context of polity, who among the following can be termed as the 'Permanent
Executive'?
(a) Council of Ministers
(b) Cabinet
(c) President
(d) Bureaucracy

Correct Answer : D

61. The powers of the Rajya Sabha are equal to that of the Lok Sabha for which of the
following matter(s)?
 i. Introduction and passage of Constitutional Amendment Bills
ii. Election of the Vice-President
iii. Approval of proclamation of all three types of emergencies
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : D

62. Consider the following passage:

"It refers to the termination of a sitting of a House without naming a day for
reassembly. This power lies with the Presiding officer of the House. The Presiding
officer can still call a sitting of the House even after exercising this power."
Which of the following is being referred to in the above passage?
(a) Adjournment
(b) Dissolution
(c) Prorogation
(d) Adjournment Sine Die

Correct Answer : D

63. Which of the following Veto powers are available to President of India?
i. Absolute Veto
ii. Qualified Veto
iii. Suspensive Veto
iv. Pocket Veto
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
 Correct Answer : C

64. The minimum number of members required to be present in the House before it can
transact any business is:
(a) one-tenth of the total number of members in the House excluding the Presiding
officer.
(b) one-tenth of the total number of members in the House excluding the nominated
members of the House.
(c) one-eighth of the total number of members in the House including the Presiding
officer.
(d) one-tenth of the total number of members in the House including the Presiding
officer.

Correct Answer : D

65. Which of the following can be considered as the discretionary powers of the
President?
i. President can ask the Council of ministers to reconsider the advice given to him.
ii. He can refuse to give assent to ordinary bills passed by the Parliament.
iii. Appointment of Prime minister in case of a hung assembly.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : D

66. Consider the following statements regarding the Council of Municipal Corporation:
i. Council consists of the Councillors directly elected by the people, as well as a
few nominated persons
ii. The Council is headed by a Mayor whose tenure is coterminous with the
council.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : A

67. With reference to safeguards to ensure the independence of the Supreme Court,
consider the following statements:
i. Judges of Supreme Court are appointed by Collegium of Supreme Court.
ii. The salaries and pensions of the judges of the Supreme Court are charged on
the Consolidated Fund of India.
iii. The Parliament is not authorised to curtail the jurisdiction and powers of the
Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer : D

68. Which of the following committees recommended a three-tier Panchayati Raj system
in India?
i. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
ii. Ashok Mehta Committee
iii. Gadgil Committee
iv. P. K. Thungon Committee
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Correct Answer : C

69. Which of the following fall(s) under the purview of Charged expenditure of Union
Budget?
 i. Salaries and allowances of the high court judges
ii. Administrative expenses of both the Supreme Court and the office of
Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)
iii. Salary of the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : A

70. Consider the following statement regarding the office of Governor:

i. Constitution of India specifies the term of five years for the office of
Governor.
ii. Governor shall immediately vacate his office after the expiration of his
term.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : A

71. Which of the following are functions of a constitution?

1. To provide a set of basic rules that allow for minimal coordination
amongst members of a society.
2. To specify who has the power to make decisions in a society.
3. To set some limits on what a government can impose on its citizens.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

i. 1 only
ii. 2 and 3 only
iii. 1 and 3 only
 iv. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : D
72. Consider the following statements regarding Bill of Rights
1. A list of rights mentioned and protected by the constitution is called the ‘bill of
rights’.
2. A bill of rights ensures a remedy in case there is violation of these rights.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

i. 1 only
ii. 2 only
iii. Both 1 and 2
iv. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : C
73. Consider the following statements regarding fundamental rights
1. Fundamental Rights are protected and enforced by ordinary law.
2. The word fundamental suggests that these rights are so important that the
Constitution has separately listed them and made special provisions for their
protection.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
74. Production-linked incentive (PLI) scheme is associated with

i. Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS)

ii. National Policy on Electronics
iii. National Policy on Biofuels
iv. National Food Processing Policy

Correct Answer : B

75. Right to education is a part of

i. Right against Exploitation

ii. Right to Equality
 iii. Right to Freedom
iv. Right to Constitutional Remedies

Correct Answer : C
76. Consider the following statements regarding democracy
1. A direct democracy is one where the citizens directly participate in the day-to-
day decision making and in the running of the government.
2. Many consider gram sabhas to be the closest examples of direct democracy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : C
77. Consider the following statements regarding First past the post (FPTP)
1. Under FPTP, more than one representative may be elected from one constituency.
2. Under FPTP, Candidate who wins the election may not get majority (50%+1) votes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : B

78. India’s first seaplane service began at

i. Gujarat
ii. Maharashtra
iii. West Bengal
iv. Andhra Pradesh

Correct Answer : A

79. Consider the following statements regarding Executive

1. Executive is the branch of government responsible for the implementation of laws
 and policies adopted by the legislature.
2. The executive is often involved in framing of policy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : C
80. Consider the following statements regarding bicameral legislature
1. A bicameral legislature makes it possible to have every decision reconsidered.
2. Countries with large size and much diversity usually prefer to have two houses of
the national legislature to give representation to all sections in the society.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : C
81. Which of the following are features of parliamentary government?
1. Presence of nominal and real executives
2. Majority party rule
3. Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : D

82. INS Kavaratti is a

i. Scorpene-class submarine Vela

ii. Coast Guard Offshore Patrol Vessel
iii. Anti-submarine warfare (ASW) ship
iv. Hydrographic Survey Ship of Indian Navy
 Correct Answer : C
83. Consider the following statements regarding Universal Adult Franchise
1. Every citizen who is not less than 18 years of age has a right to vote.
2. The voting age was reduced to 18 years from 21 years by the 44st Constitutional
Amendment Act of 1978.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : A
84. Which of the following are envisaged by the Constitution as the bulwarks of the democratic system of
Government in India?
1. Election Commission
2. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
3. Union Public Service Commission
4. State Public Service Commission

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer : D
85. Consider the following statements regarding Preamble
1. The British Constitution was the first to begin with a Preamble.
2. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the Objectives Resolution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : B
86. Consider the following statements regarding 73rd amendment act of 1992
 1. The act has given a practical shape to Article 40 of the Constitution.
2. It has brought the Panchayati raj institutions under the purview of the
justiciable part of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

i. 1 only
ii. 2 only
iii. Both 1 and 2
iv. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : C
87. Which of the following is/are the compulsory provisions under Part IX of the Constitution?
1. Organisation of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages.
2. Endowing the Gram Sabha with powers and functions at the village level.
3. Granting financial powers to the Panchayats.

4. Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of Panchayats at the

intermediate and district levels.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

i. 1 and 4 only
ii. 2 and 3 only
iii. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : A

88. Consider the following statements regarding Jute

1. It thrives in tropical lowland areas with humidity of 60% to 90% and it is a rain-fed
crop with little need for fertilizer or pesticides.
2. India is the world’s largest producer of raw jute and jute goods.
3. At present, 20% of the food grains and 100% of the sugar shall be mandatorily
packed in diversified jute bags.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : A

89. Which of the following functions were endowed to Gram Sabha under PESA Act?
1. The power to enforce prohibition or to regulate or restrict the consumption of any
intoxicant
 2. The ownership of minor forest produce
3. The power to manage village markets

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

i. 1 and 2 only
ii. 2 and 3 only
iii. 1 and 3 only
iv. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : D
90. Under 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, at the Central level, the subject of ‘urban local government’
is dealt by which of the following three ministries?
1. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
2. Ministry of Defence
3. Ministry of Home Affairs

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : D
91. Consider the following statements regarding Municipalities
1. All the members of a municipality shall be elected indirectly by the people of the
municipal area.
2. The state legislature may provide for the manner of reservation of offices of
chairpersons in the municipalities for SCs, STs and women.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : B
92. Consider the following statements regarding Township
1. This type of urban government is established by state legislature.
2. The township form of urban government has no elected members.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : B
93. Consider the following statements regarding Administration of union territories
1. Every union territory is administered by the President acting through an
administrator appointed by him.
2. An administrator of a union territory is head of union territory like a governor.
3. The Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists (including the State
List) for the union territories.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : C
94. Consider the following statements regarding Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project
1. Financial Assistance for this project is being provided by the World Bank (WB) and
Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB).
2. Its objective is to strengthen the dam safety institutional setup of participating
States / Implementing Agencies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : C

95. Consider the following statements regarding Sixth Schedule

1. Each autonomous district has a district council consisting of 20 members.
2. The autonomous districts fall outside the executive authority of the state concerned.
3. The governor is empowered to organize and re-organize the autonomous districts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
 B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : C
96. Consider the following statements regarding Election commission
1. According to the Constitution, Election Commission shall consist of the chief
election commissioner and a maximum of two election commissioners.
2. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner
and/or two other election commissioners, the matter is decided by the
Commission by majority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : B
97. Consider the following statements regarding Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
1. The Supreme Court held that a selection by the UPSC does confer a right to the post
upon the candidate.
2. Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions has power to reject the
advice of the UPSC.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : D
98. Consider the following statements regarding State Public Service Commission
1. All the members of the commission should be such persons who have held office for
at least ten years either under the government of India or under the Government of
a state.
2. The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term of six years
or until they attain the age of 62 years.
3. The chairman or any other member can be removed by the president on same
grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : A
99. Consider the following statements regarding Operation Meri Saheli
1. It was launched by Ministry of Education.
2. Its objective is to promote menstrual hygiene among adolescent girls.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : D

100. The qualifications of the chairman of the Finance Commission as specified by Parliament is

i. A judge of high court or one qualified to be appointed as one.

ii. A person who has special knowledge of economics.
iii. A person who has wide experience in financial matters and in
administration.
iv. A person having experience in public affairs.

Correct Answer : D