fn (a) → 0. We may therefore take f(a)=0.This proves the point-
wise convergence of fn to the constant function 0.
Is the convergence uniform? Look at Figure 7.10 .The picture shows
that it is not.
Figure 7.10: Graph of fn (x) in item 1 of Example 7.3.5
Let us prove this rigorously. Let us assume that the convergence is uniform.Let =1/2. Then there exists N ∈ N such that for all x ∈ R , we have |fk (x)| < 1 if k ≥ N . In particular, if we take k=N and x=N+1, then fN (N + 1) = N > 1/2 , a contradiction. Hence the convergence is not uniform.