Star Institute

MDCAT CRASH TEST TEST # 2

PHYSICS
1. Water waves in the sea are observed to have a wavelength of 300 m and a frequency of 0.07 Hz.The
speed of these waves is
A) 0.00021 m/s C) 2.1 m/s
B) 210 m/s D) 21 m/s
2. A standing wave:
A) Has motionless points that are closer than half a wavelength
B) Must be longitudinal
C) Must be transverse
D) Can be constructed from two similar waves traveling in opposite directions
3. The capacitor stores charge on its plates by
A) Electrostatic induction C) Electromotive induction
B) Electromagnetic induction D) Electromagnetism
4. If two objects are in thermal equilibrium with each other
A) They cannot be moving
B) They cannot be at different temperatures
C) They cannot be undergoing an elastic collision
D) They cannot have different pressures
5. The electric potential at a point 3.2 cm away from a singly ionized lithium atom will be
A) 4.5x10-8 V C) 4.5x10-6 V
B) 9x10-8 V D) 9x10-4 V
6. The direction of flow of heat between two bodies is determined by
A) Internal energy C) Kinetic energy
B) Total energy D) None of these
7. When a charge of 3 C is place in a uniform electric filed it experiences a force of 3000N, within this
field, potential difference between two points separated by 1 Cm is:
A) 10 V C) 90 V
B) 1000 V D) 3000 V
8. Heat is.
A) Energy transferred by virtue of a temperature difference
B) Energy transferred by macroscopic work
C) Energy content of an object
D) A temperature difference.
9. Two charges of 10 µC and 14.4 µC 12 cm apart. The force between them
A) 0.01 N C) 90 N
B) 9x103 N D) 9x105 N
10. A system undergoes an adiabatic process in which its internal energy increases by 20 J. Which
of the following statements is true?
A) 20 J of work was done by the system
B) The system received 20 J of energy as heat
C) The system lost 20 J of energy as heat
D) 20 J of work was done on the system
11. If the distance between two equal charges is reduced to half and the magnitude of charges is
also decreased to half, then the force between them will be:
A) Remain same C) Increased do double
B) Decreased to half D) Becomes foun time
12. If volume of gas is doubled without changing its temperature, the pressure of gas is
A) Doubled C) Reduced to half of original value
B) Reduced to one fourth of original value D) Not changed
13. In which process the P– –V indicator diagram is straight line parallel to volume axis?
A) Isobaric C) Isothermal
B) Adiabatic D) Isochoric
14. The units of electric potential is same as that of :
A) work C) Electric filed per unit charge
B) work per unit charge D) Electric force per unit charge
15. The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of a body of mass 1 kg through 1 K
is called:
A) Specific heat C) Heat capacity
B) Molar specific heat D) Heat of vaporization
16. When a charge +q is moving perpendicular to electric field, the force experienced is:
A) qE and along the field C) qE and perpendicular to the filed
B) qE and opposite to the filed D) Zero
17. A cycle tyre bursts suddenly. This represents an
A) Isothermal process C) Isobaric process
B) Isochoric process D) Adiabatic process
18. When a parallel plates capacitor is connected a source of constant potential difference,
A) The whole of the charge drawn from the source is stored in the capacitor.
B) The whole of the energy drawn from the source is stored in the capacitor.
C) The capacity of the capacitor is decreased
D) The potential difference across the capacitor becomes infinite.
19. In the process A to B to C, 20J of heat is supplied from A to B 20.5J of
heat has been removed from B to C and 2J of heat has been added
from C to A Calculate the value of work done from the given
conditions in the diagram.

A) 1.5 J C) -1.5 J
B) 4 J D) 0.5 J
20. A sphere of charge “+Q” is fixed in position. A smaller sphere of charge “+q” is placed near the
larger sphere and released from rest. The smaller sphere will move away from larger sphere
with velocity and slope of velocity time graph
A) Decreasing , increasing C) Increasing, Decreasing
B) Increasing , increasing D) increasing, Constant
21. If 315cal of heat is given to the system, and the system does 20cal of work, find the change in
internal energy.
A) 335cal C) 335J
B) 295ca D) 0 J
22. If 6 N is the force between two charges when dielectric is present. Now if that dielectric of
dielectric constant єr = is removed the new force will be:

A) 4 N C) 3 N
B) 9 N D) 16 N
23. In the figure curves AB and CD represent the relation between pressure P and volume V of an
ideal gas. One of the curves represents on isothermal expansion and the other repre
represents an
adiabatic expansion. Which curve represents an adiabatic expansion?
A) Curve AB C) Both “A” and “B”
B) Curve CD D) None of these
24. Internal energy of a system is defined as
A) The sum of kinetic energies of all molecules of the system
B) The sum of kinetic and potential energies of all molecules of the system
C) The sum of potential energies of the system
D) The average kinetic energy of all molecules
25. Capacitance of a capacitor does not depend upon:
A) Area of plate C) medium between plates
B) Distance between plates D) material of the plates
26. The heat capacity of sodium metal is 1500 JK-1, if the mass of the sodium metal is 75 kg, the
specific heat capacity would be
A) 20 J kg -1 °C-1 C) 10 J kg -1 °C-1
-1 -1
B) 40 J kg °C D) 80 J kg -1 °C-1
27. For an isothermal process heat added to an ideal system versus work performed by that system
is represented graphically

A) C)

B) D)
28. Q Electric field lines between plates of a charged parallel plate capacitor are :
A) Unequally spaced C) Equally spaced
B) Curved ` D) any of these
29. Which one is not adiabatic process
A) Escape of air from burst tyre C) Slow expansion
B) Cloud formation D) None
30. The internal energy comprises of two types of energies, those are
A) Mechanical and electrical energy C) Kinetic and magnetic energy
B) Kinetic and potential energy D) Magnetic and electrical energy
31. The net charge on capacitor plates is if Q is magnitude of charge on either plate of a
parallel plate capacitor
A) 2Q C) Zero
B) Q D) 4Q
32. Heat energy added to a system under isothermal conditions appears as
A) Work done by the system C) Increase in internal energy
B) Work done on the system D) Increase in temperature
33. In the relation C= find capacitance of parallel plate capacitor, A is ?

A) Area of either plate C) Area of connected battery

B) Total area of both plates D) Area of dielectric
34. The area under a curve on P–V diagram represents
A) The state of a system C) The work done in a cyclic process
B) The work done on or by the system D) Internal energy of the system
35. A gas is compressed at a constant pressure of 50N/m2from a volume of 10m3 to a
volume of4m3. Energy of 100 J then added to the gas by heating. Its internal energy is
A) increased by 400 J C) increased by 100 J
B) increased by 200 J D) decreased by 200 J
36. The capacitance of capacitor increases by placing dielectric between its plates due to:
A) Electric polarization of dielectric
B) Magnetic polarization of dielectric
C) Increase in electric field by dielectric
D) Increase in potential difference by dielectric
37. Four students found set of CP and CV (in cal/deg mole) as given below. Which of the following
set is correct?
A) CV = 4, CP = 2 C) CV = 2, CP = 1
B) CV = 3, CP = 3 D) CP = 5, CV = 3
38. An ideal gas is taken around ABCA as shown in the above P-V diagram. The work done during a
cycle is

A) 2PV C) 1/2PV
B) PV D) Zero
39. The electronic flashguns in cameras is an application of:
A) Gauss’s law C) Ohm’s low
B) Capacitor D) inductor
40. An object attached to one end of a spring makes 20 vibrationsin 10 s. Its angular frequency is
A) 0.79 rad/s C) 6.3 rad/s
B) 12.6 rad/s D) 2.0 rad/s
41. The wavelength of sound in air is 10 cm. its frequency is, (Given velocity of sound = 330 m/s):
A) 330 cycles per second C) 3 × 105 cycles per second
B) 30 mega-cycles per second D) 3.3 kilo cycles per second
42. A capacitor which has a capacitance of 1 F will:
A) Be fully charged in 1 second by a current of 1A
B) Store 2 C of charge at a potential difference of 2 volt
C) Gain 1 joule of energy when 1 coulomb of charge is stored on it
D) Discharge in 1 second when connected across a resistor of resistance 3 ohm
43. What is phase difference between two successive troughs in the transverse wave?
A) 2 C) 2/2
B) 3 D) /2

44. Ohm x
farad =
?
A) Charge C) Current
B) Potential D) Time
45. A string fixed at both the ends forms standing waves with node separation of 5 cm. If the
velocity of waves travelling time string is 4 m/s, then the frequency or vibration of the string
will be
A) 20 Hz C) 40 Hz
B) 30 Hz D) 50 Hz
46. A capacitor is charged with a battery and then it is disconnected. A slab of the dielectric is now
inserted between the plates then:
A) The charge in the plates reduces and potential difference increases
B) Potential difference between the plates increases stored
stored energy decreases and charge remains the same
C) Potential difference between the plates decreases, stored energy decreases and charge remains
unchanged
D) None of these
47. A vibrating sonometer wire is in resonance with a tuning fork of frequency 150 Hz. If only one
loop is formed on the wire and the length of one loop is 40 cm, then the velocity of transverse
waves on the wire will be
A) 120 m/s C) 90 m/s
B) 240 m/s D) 60 m/s
48. What is the velocity of transverse waves travelling along a thin copper wire of length 50 cm and
mass1 gram, if it is stretched by a weight of 4 kg?
A) 60 m/s C) 110 m/s
B) 90 m/s D) 140 m/s
49. A 1 FF capacitor of a TV is subjected to 4000 V potential difference. The energy stored in
capacitor is :
A) 8 J C) 1x10-3 J
B) 16 J D) 2x10-3
50. An isochoric process is one which take place at
A) Constant internal energy C) Constant entropy
B) Constant volume D) Constant pressure
51. Heat leaves the system is taken as
A) Positive C) Negative
B) Neither negative nor positive D) Zero
52. A standing wave experiment is performed to determine the speed of waves in a rope. The
standing wave pattern shown below is established in the rope. The rope makes 90.0 complete
vibrational cycles in exactly one minute. The speed of the waves is m/s.

A) 3.0 C) 180
B) 6.0 D) 360
53. The distance between successive nodes in any standing wave pattern is equivalent to
wavelengths.
A) 1/4 C) ¾
B) 1/2 D) 2
54. CV of a gas is 8 calK-1mol-1. Find CP/CV. Assume R = 2 calK-1mol-1.
A) 1.4 C) 1.25
B) 1.33 D) 1.8
55. A 40 cm long plastic tube is open at both ends and resonating in its first harmonic The
wavelength of the sound which will produce this resonance is .
A) 20 cm C) 80 Cm
B) 40 cm D) 160 cm
56. A tight wire is clamped at two points 2 m apart. It is plucked near one end, what are the three
longest wavelengths produced on the vibrating wire:
A) 2 m, 1 m, 0.67 m C) 4 m, 2 m, 1 m
B) 4 m, 2 m, 1.33 m D) 1 m, 0.5 m, 0.33 m
BIOLOGY
57. Which bond provide stability to complex carbohydrates:
A) N - C C) P – O - C
B) C – O - C D) C – O - N
58. Glycylalanine is:
A) A polypeptide C) An amino acid
B) A dipeptide D) A tripeptide
59. Cellulose show which linkage:
A) 1,4 C) 1,5
B) 1,2 D) 1,1
60. Polypeptides bends and folds upon itself forming a globular shape in which structure?
A) Tertiary C) Secondary
B) Primary D) Quaternary
61. Nucleohistone is a:
A) Nucleoprotein C) Nucleopeptide
B) Nucleolipid D) All of these
62. Macrophages are formed by
A) Lymphocytes C) Phagocytes
B) Monocytes D) Pinnocytes
63. The chains in antibody molecule are joined by
A) H-S bridge C) C-S bridge
B) S-S bridge D) N-S bridge
64. Which cells, produced in bone marrow and matures in the thymus gland
A) T-cells C) Plasma cells
B) B-cells D) Memory cells
65. Identify A – D in the given figure.

A) A – plasma membrane, B – Plasmodesmata, C – epidermis, D – Casparian strip

B) A – Casparian strip, B – epidermis, C – plasmodesmata, D – Plasma membrane
C) A – plasmodesmata, B – Epidermis, C – Casparian strip, D – Plasma membrane
D) A – Epidermis, B – Plasma membrane, C – Casparian strip, D –
Plasmodesmata
66. When sugar is added at source water potential of sucrose and when sugar is removed
from sink, the water potential of sink .

A) es, es B) es, es C) es, es D) es, es

67. Identify A – E in the given figure.

A) A – Oesophagus, B – Pyloric, C – Fundus, D – Superior portion of duodenum, E – Cardiac

B) A – Pyloric, B – Cardiac, C – Fundus, D – Oesophagus, E – Superior protein of duodenum
C) A Superior protein of duodenum, B – Oesophagus, C – Cardiac, d – Fundus, E – Pyloric
D) A – Oesophagus, B – fundus, C – Pyloric, D – Superior protein of duodenum, E – Cardiac
68. Large intestine consists of.
A) Caecum C) Rectum
B) Colon D) All
69. Which of the following is the outermost histological layer of alimentary canal?
A) Serosa (thin mesothelium) C) Sub mucosa
B) Mucosa D) Muscularis
70. Where does the oblique muscle layer situated in human alimentary canal.
A) Esophagus C) Large intestine
B) Stomach D) Small intestine
71. The narrow distal end of stomach is called.
A) Cardiac C) Pharynx
B) duodenum D) Pylorus
72. Mixed gland (endocrine + exocrine) from the following is.
A) Liver C) Pancreas
B) Parotid D) Adrenal
73. C—O—C linkage is found in
A) Carbohydrates, Nucleic acid C) Proteins, carbohydrates
B) Lipids, Water D) Carbohydrates, lipids
74. Phospholipids are different from neutral lipids as they have
A) Phosphate C) Glycerol
B) Fatty acids D) Non-polar region
75. Animals have fatty acids with
A) Straight chain C) Branch chains
B) Rings D) Rings and branches
76. Incorrect about Sickle cell hemoglobin
A) Do not carry sufficient O2 C) Do not fold properly
B) Have abnormal beta chain D) Have less number of amino acid
77. major function performed by buccal cavity si.
A) Mastication of food C) Both
B) Facilitation of swallowing D) None
78. The bolus formed in buccal cavity conveyed into pharynx and then esophagus by the process
called.
A) Peristalsis C) Deglutination/ swallowing
B) Emesis D) Dysglutination
79. Gastric glands are situated in.
A) Sub mucosa C) Muscularis
B) Mucosa D) Serosa
80. Trypsinogen is activated by.
A) Enterokinase C) Rennin
B) Chymotrypsin D) Acidic pH
81. Which enzyme activates other enzymes in pancreatic juice.
A) Enterokinase C) Trypsin
B) Chymotrypsin D) Lipase
82. bile juice contains all except.
A) Bilirubin and Bili verdin C) Phospholipids
B) Bile salts and cholesterol D) Enzymes
83. Absorption of digested food is carried out by.
A) Passive method C) Facilitated transport
B) Active transport D) All
84. chylomicrons are concerned with the.
A) Digestion of fats C) Digestion of protein
B) Absorption of protein D) Absorption of fat
85. Jaundice occurs due to increase level of.
A) CaCO3 C) Bile pigments
B) HCO3 D) CO2
86. Lipids with little oxygen are in water than most carbohydrates.
A) More soluble C) Insoluble
B) Much less soluble D) Very much soluble
87. The most abundant lipids is living things are the.
A) Phospholipids C) Acylglycerol
B) Waxes D) Terpenes
88. Fibrous proteins show.
A) Primary structure C) Tertiary structure
B) Secondary structure D) Quaternary structure
89. Which class of molecule is the major component of cell membrane?
A) Phospholipid C) Wax
B) Cellulose D) Triglyceride
90. Glycolipids and lipoprotein are important components of.
A) Proteins C) Bone structure
B) Nucleic acids D) cellular membranes
91. Choose the pair of terms that correctly completes this sentence. Nucleotide are to - as
are to proteins.
A) Nucleic acids, amino acids C) Glycosidic linkages. Polypeptide linkages
B) Amino acids polypeptides D) Polymers. Polypeptides
92. The urease converts urea into.
A) Ammonia C) H2O
B) CO2 D) Ammonia and CO2
93. The rate of enzymatic reaction is measured by the.
A) Amount of enzyme C) Amount of product formed
B)Amoun of substrate and product changed D) Counting the products
94. If temperature is reduced to near below freezing point enzymes are.
A) Activated C) Very much activated
B) Denatured D) Inactivated
95. Normally of enzyme can catalyze large quantity or conc. Of substrate.
A) Large quantity C) Very large quantity
B) Small quantity D) Very small quantity
96. It is competitive inhibitor.
A) Succinate C) Melonate
B) Fumarate D) Cyanide
97. In noncompetitive inhibitor the inhibitor molecule binds to an enzymes but .
A) Active site C) Not bind
B) Allosteric site D) At any site
98. Antibody secreting cells are
A) Helper T-lymphocyte C) Plasma cells
B) Bone marrow cells D) Killer cells
99. Histamine is released from
A) Monocytes C) Basophils
B) Lymphocytes D) Neutrophils
100. Enzymes exist in the cells as.
A) Solid C) Solution
B) Crystals D) Colloids
101. The specificity of enzyme is due to them.
A) Surface configuration C) Hydrogen bonding
B) pH D) High molecular weight
102. An essential feature of a competitive inhibitor is its ability to.
A) Activate an operator gene C) Modify a substrate
B) Combine with prosthetic group D) Occupy an active site
103. How does an enzyme increase the rate of a reaction?
A) By bringing the reacting molecules into precise orientation
B) By increasing the rate of random collisions of molecules
C) by shifting the point of equilibrium of the reaction
D) By supplying the energy required ot start the reaction
104. A protein which consists of a single polypeptide chain may reach up to, which level of protein
A) Primary C) Tertiary
B) Secondary D) Quaternary
105. Which one of the following reactions results in the conversion of amino acids to polypeptide?
A) Condensation C) Esterification
B) Hydrolysis D) Translation
106. All of the following are keto sugars except:
A) Ribulose C) Glucose
B) Dihydroxyacetone D) Fructose
107. How many water molecules are required for synthesis of a triglyceride molecule?
A) 1 C) 3
B) 2 D) zero
108. Incorrect statement about Starch is
A) Amylose has 1,4 & 1,6 glycosidic linkage C) Give blue color the iodine
B) Homopolymer D) Main source of food for animals
109. Number of peptide bonds in a molecule of hemoglobin is:
A) 574 C) 572
B) 573 D) 570
110. Which of the following statement is in correct for trypsin and pepsin?
A) Pepsin is produced by gastric gland and trypsin is secreted by pancreas
B) Both are secreted in inactive form
C) Pepsin work in basic medium and trypsin work in acidic medium
D) Pepsin work in stomach and trypsin work in Pancreases
111. Function of the tongue including all except
A) Mixing of food C) Selection of food
B) Lubrication of food D) Mastication of food
112. Which of the following statement is true about hunger pangs?
A) Uncomfortable burning sensation in chest C) antiPeristaltic contractions in stomach
B) Increased by low levels of glucose in stomach D) Begin twelve to twenty-four days after previous
meal
113. Which of the following parts of digestive system are involve in mechanical and chemical
digestion of food?
A) Small and large intestine C) Oral cavity and stomach
B) Stomach and small intestine D) Esophagus and colon
114. Many humans become ill by consuming milk and milk products because they lack:
A) Lipase C) Lactase
B) Maltase D) Sucrase
115. Anus consists of:
A) Two sphincters C) Two types of muscles
B) Two sphincters with two types of muscles D) One sphincter only
116. Stomach is involved in the following, except:
A) Digestion C) Churning
B) Storage D) Assimilation
117. Hydrochloric acid is secretion of which cells?
A) Mucous C) Parietal
B) Zymogen D) Chief cells
118. Fats are digested in:
A) Buccal cavity C) Small intestine
B) Stomach D) Large intestine
 119. The antibodies are also called as:
A) Immunoglobulins C) Immunogens
B) Immunosuppressors D) Antisera
120. Constant amino acid sequences are the same for all the:
A) Antibodies C) Antibodies of one class
B) Antibodies of the invertebrates D) All the antibodies of vertebrates
121. Pick up the choice not correct with respect to antibodies:
A) Special type of protein C) Immunoglobulins
B) Synthesized by vertebrates D) Immunogens
122. B-lymphocytes have been named due to their relationship with:
A) Lymphoid masses C) Lymph nodes
B) Bursa of Fabricius D) Adenoid
123. The uptake of water and minerals takes place at
A) Stem C) Root hairs
B) Pericycle D) Rootcap
124. The xylem water tension is strong enough to pull water upto
A) 600 m C) 1000 feet
B) 600 feet D) 100 m
CHEMISTRY
125. The melting of ice at body temperature is an endothermic process:
1
H O  H O ΔH = +6.0 kJmol
2 (S) 2 (1)
Thus eating ice counteracts the exothermic processes of metabolizing food How much ice (in
grams) would you have to eat to counteract the energy gained by eating 28.3g of peanuts (13
kJ/g)?
A) 78 g C) 110 g
B) 370 g q D) 1100 g
126. All of the following chemical reactions are endothermic except
A) H O
2 (s)
H O 2 (l)
C) H O
2 (l )
H O 2 ( g)

B) 2H O 2H O D) 2Al  Fe O  Al O  2Fe

2 (g) 2( g ) 2(g) ( s) 2 3( s) 2 3(l) (l)

127. For which of the followings liquid mixture, H for the solution is positive?
A) CH3OH + H2O C) C6H5Cl + C6H5Br
B) C2H5OH + H2O D) Benzene and water
128. Which one is possible for a chemical reaction:
A) spontaneous and Endothermic C) nonspontaneous and Endothermic
B) spontaneous and Exothermic D) All of these
129. It is not a spontaneous process:
A) Dissolution of CuSO4 in water C) Reaction between H2 and O2 to form water
B) Mixing of NaOH and HCl D) Water flowing downhill
130. Oxidation number of oxygen in O3F2 is:
A) Zero C) 2
B) 1 D) +2/3
131. Oxidation state of C in carbon suboxide (C3O2) is:
4 1
A) 2 B) +2 C) D) 
3 2
132. Which metal dissolves when following cell works Cu/Cu+2 // Ag+1/Ag?
A) Cu C) Both (a) and B)
B) Ag D) Any one
133. Cell potential depends upon:
A) Temperature C) Concentration of ions
B) Nature of electrolyte D) All of above
134. Sugar is non-electrolyte
electrolyte in:
A) Solid state C) Both
B) Aqueous solution D) It is electrolyte
135. Four statements are given below. The correct statement is
A) oxidation state of N in NO and N2O5 is +5 and +2 respectively
B) oxidation state of N in NO and N2O5 is +2 and +5
respectively
C) oxidation state of N in NO and N2O5 is +1 and +5 respectively
D) oxidation state of N in NO and N2O5 is +2 and +4 respectively
136. What is enthalpy of atomization of potassium?
Reactions H kJmol-1 Reactions H kJmol-1
K(s) + ½ Br2(g)  KBr(s) -392 K(s)  K+ g) + 1e- +420
(
K+(g) + Br-(g)  KBr (s) ½ Br2(g) + 1e-  Br(g)
-672 +112
Br(g) + 1e-  Br- (g) -342
A) +110 C) -110
B) +90 D) –90
137. Born Haber cycle is used to measure, which of the following?
A) ΔH°f C) ΔH°Soin
B) ΔH°latttic D) Nothing can be measured by Born Haber cycle
138. All of the following chemical reactions are endothermic except
A) H O
2 (s)
H O 2 (l)
C) 2H O
2 (g)
2H 2( g)
O
2(g)

B) H O H O D) 2Al( s)  Fe2O 3( s)  Al O 2 3(l)

 2Fe (l)
2 (l) 2 ( g)
139. Oxidation process can be defined as
A) Gain of electrons C) Addition of H2
B) Loss of electrons D) Removal of O2
140. Which is not a redox reaction?
A) 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O C) Cu + 4HNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO2 + H2O
B) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2 D) MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O
141. A oxidizing agent is a substance which undergoes itself
A) Electron donation C) Reduction
B) Oxidation D) Hydrolysis
142. In the graph shown below the yield of the reaction is
A) 50 % C) less than 50 %
B) more than 50 % D) None of the above
143. The graph show that, The rate of reaction

A) increases as the reaction proceeds

B) decreases as the reaction
proceeds
C) remains the same as the reaction proceeds
D) may decrease or increase as the reaction proceeds
144. Heat of formation of water H2O(l) is -260.8 kJ, in standard state the difference of heat for
changing vapours into liquid water is -40.0 kJ. H for the reaction H2(g) + ½ O2 (g)→ H2O(g)
will be (in kJ)
A) 242.8 C) 323.8
B) -220.8 D) 329.8
145. Gain of Hydrogen atom is called
A) Oxidation C) Dehydration
B) Reduction D) Dehydrogenation
146. When aqueous solution of silver nitrate is electrolyzed, what is correct for it?
Options At Anode At Cathode Solution
A H2 gas is O2 gas is Becomes Basic
collected collected
B O2 gas is Ag is Becomes
collected deposited Acidic
C Ag is H2 gas is Remains
deposited collected Neutral
D NO2 gas is NO2 gas is Slightly Basic
collected collected
147. Identify which is not a redox reaction
V O
2 5
1 H
A) 2SO +O    2SO C) CH CHO + O   CH COOH
2(g) 2(g) 3(g) 3 2 3
2
B) 4NH + 5O V
2 O5
  4NO+6H O Na O + H O 
2NaOH
3 2 2 D) 2 2
148. Four aqueous solutions have the PH values shown below:
P = 2, Q = 6, R = 8, S = 10
If pair of solutions are mixed, which pair most produce an acidic mixture:
A) P and Q C) P and R
B) Q and R D) R and S
149. N2 and O2 react in a 5 dm3 of flask as follows:
N2 + O2 2NO + Heat
For which system does the equilibrium constant Kc has units of (concentration)1?
A) N2 + 3H2 2NH3 C) H2 + I2 2HI
B) 2NO2 N2O4 D) 2HF H2 + F2
150. For the reaction, 2NO + Br2  2NOBr, the proposed mechanism is:
Slow Fast
(i) NO + Br2 NOBr2 (ii) NOBr2 + NO 2NOBr
The rate law for this reaction is:
A) Rate = K[NOBr2][NO] C) Rate = K[NO][Br2]
B) Rate = K[NO]2 [Br2] D) Rate = K[NO][Br2]2
151. Which statement about the effect of a catalyst on a reversible?
A) It increase the equilibrium constant of the forward reaction
B) It increases the yield of the product in equilibrium
C) It increases the rate constant for both the forward and the reverse reaction
D) It increases the rate constant of the forward reaction but not that of the reverse reaction
152. A B H = 20 kJ mol1
If Ea for the forward reaction is 70 kJ mol1. What is Ea for the backward reaction?
A) 90 kJ mol1 C) 110 kJ mol1
B) 70 kJ mol1 D) 50 kJ mol1
153. The rate equation for reaction is: Rate = k [ A ][ B ]
If concentration units are mol dm3 what are units of rate constant?
A) mol dm3 s1 C) s1
B) mol1 dm3 s1 D) mol1 s1
 154. The reaction A + 2B  C + D is at equilibrium, concentration of reactants and products are
[ A ] = 0.2 [ B ] = 0.1 [ C ] = 0.3 [ D ] = 0.5 what is Kc?
A) 75 C) 7.5
B) 1.50 D) 4
155. Which of the following is reversible process?
A) Melting of ice at 10C
B) Mixing of two gases by diffusion
C) Evaporation of water at 100C and 1 atm. Pressure
D) Flow of water downward
156. By adding 0.02 moles of NaOH in basic buffer the amount:
A) Salt 0.02 moles decreases C) Base 0.02 moles decreases
B) Salt 0.02 moles increases D) May vary
157. What would be the pH when amount of salt is 10 times lesser than acetic acid?
A) 4.74 C) 5.74
B) 3.74 D) 4.64
158. X + Y  Z
[X] [Y] Rate
1.0 1.0 0.25
.0 1.0 0.50
1.0 2.0 0.25
1.0 3.0 0.25
Which of the following is the rate equation?
A) Rate = K[ X ][ Y ] C) Rate = K[ X ]0 [ Y ]1
B) Rate = K[ X ][ Y ]0 D) Rate = K [ X ][ Y ]2
159. Which change will never happen in a catalyst during reaction?
C) Appearance C) Surface area
D) Chemical composition D) Physical state
160. The order of reaction CH3COOC2H5 + H2O CH3COOH + C2H5OH.
A) Pseudo first B) Two C) Three D) Zero
161. The rate of reaction is 0.5 molL–1s–1 then by increasing temp from 20°C to 60°C, expected rate of
reaction at 60°C is?
A) 8.00 molL–1s–1 C) 4.00 molL–1s–1
B) 0.0125 mol3L–3s–3 D) 0.05 mol3L–3s–3
162. Pick the correct order of reaction if unit of the rate constant is dm3mol–11s–1
A) 1st order reaction C) 2nd order reaction
B) Zero order reaction D) 3rd order reaction
163. If “X” moles of Ag2Cr2O7 are dissolved in water to produce a saturated solution then Ksp will be
A) 2X2 B) 4X3 C) 2X3 D) X3
164. A salt was dissolved in water. It was found that ionic product is greater than the solubility
product. It means that the
A) Solution is unsaturated
B) Solution is saturated
C) Solution is supersaturated
D) We cannot predict the saturation or unsaturation of the solution for this data
165. Consider the following buffers
A) Al(NO3)3 + Al2(SO4)3 C) Fe(OH)3 + FeCl3
B) NH4Cl + Na2SO4 D) NaOH + Na2SO4
166. (CH 3 ) 3 CCl  OH 
HO
 
2
 (CH3 3) COH  Cl
The above reaction has the order……
A) Pseudo First order C) Pseudo 2nd order
B) Fractional order D) Zero order
167. Pick the correct order of reaction if unit of the rate constant is dm3mol–11s–1
A) 1st order reaction C) 2nd order reaction
B) Zero order reaction D) 3rd order reaction
168. The study of chemical kinetics becomes highly complicated if there occur
A) Reversable Reaction
B) Side Reaction
C) Surface Reaction
D) Any or all of the above--mentioned categories of reactions
169. The reaction which may proceed slowly with measurable rate is called
A) Slow reaction C) Fast reaction
B) Moderate reaction D) None of above
170. The figure shown below one can infer that the formula of the compound is having

A) lone pairs and bond pairs both C) AB2 Type

B) Only lone pais D) Only bond pairs and AB3 type
171. Which of the molecules has zero dipole moment?
A) NH3 C) H2O
B) CHCl3 D) BF3
172. Trigonal Planar geometry of molecules is due to
A) Sp3 hybridization C) Sp hybridization
B) Sp2 hybridization D) P – P overlap
173. Which one of the following trend is correct regarding to 1st ionization energy of particular species?
A) Be<B<C<N C) Li>Be>B>C
B) B<Be<C<N D) Li<Be<B<C
174. Metals lose electrons more easily then non-metals due to
A) Low ionization Potential C) High ionization potential
B) High electron affinity D) Low electron affinity
175. Correct about the electron affinity of Chlorine atom is
A) high than Fluorine C) Low than Bromine
B) lower than fluorine D) low than Iodine
176. Which graph correctly describes a trend of Bond energy (B)E.) of halogen group versus bond
length (x)

A) B) C) D)
177. A pair which cannot form Co-ordinate covalent bond with each other is
A) NH3, AlCl3 C) BF3, F–
+
B) NH 3 , H D) BF3, H+
178. CO2 is iso-structural with
A) SO2 C) H2S
B) OF2 D) C2H2
179. An enthalpy which is endothermic as well as exothermic:
A) Hsolution C) Hatomozation
B) Neutralization D) HCombustion
180. The first six ionization energies of our elements, A to D, are
given. Which elements is most likely to be in Group lV of the
Periodic Table?
1st 2nd 4th 5th 6th
A) 494 4560 6940 1340 16600
B) 736 1450 7740 13600 18000
C) 1090 2350 4610 37800 47000
D) 1400 2860 4590 9400 53200

ENGLISH
CHOOSE THE GRAMMATICALLY CORRECT SENTENCE.
181.
A) A decently career, decently closed; three cheers for old Chips, they all shouted.
B) A decent carrier, decently closed; three cheers for old Chips, they all shouted.
C) A decent career, decent closed; three cheers for old Chips, they all shouted.
D) A decent career, decently closed; three cheers for old Chips, they all
shouted.
182.
A) Something nearly good enough. Something almost worth the honor of belonging to Jim.
B) Something near good enough. Something almost worth the honor of belonging to Jim.
C) Something nearly enough good. Something almost worth the honor of belonging to Jim.
D) Something nearly good enough. Something worth almost the honor of belonging to Jim.
183.
A) Although Mandy is younger than her sister, Mandy is the tallest of the two.
B) Although Mandy is younger than her sister, Mandy is the taller of the
two.
C) Although Mandy is younger than her sister, Mandy is the more tall of the two.
D) Although Mandy is younger than her sister, Mandy is a tall of the two.
184.
A) The Malay is the country on South China Sea.
B) The Malay is a country on South China Sea.
C) Malay is a country on the South China
Sea.
D) Malay is the country on the South China Sea.
185.
A) A row of trees was planted in front of house that is across the road.
B) A row of trees were planted in front of the house that is across the road.
C) A row of trees was planted in front of the house that is across the
road.
D) A row of trees was planted in front of the house that is across a road.
186.
A) He became authority on the theater and its great personalities.
B) He became an authority on the theater and its great personalities.
C) He became an authority on a theater and its great personalities.
D) He became a authority on the theater and its great personalities.
 SPOT THE ERROR.
187. The enrollment in professional courses has dropped considerable due to overall slump in the economy and
A B C
poor employment prospects for recent college graduates.
D
188. The novel, written by the author when he was barely 12 years old, is a big hit among teenagers and have
A B C D
sold over a million copies.

189. The roof of the house collapsed due to heavy snowfall; lucky no one was at home when the incident occurred.
A B C D

CHOOSE THE CORRECT OPTION TO COMPLETE THE SENTENCE.

190. I heard the children over something and went to see what it was.
A) being fought C) fought
B) fighting D) having fought

191. my work on the report, I locked my office and went home.

A) Being finished C) Having been finished
B) Finished D) Having finished

192. The weather pleasantly warm, we stayed in the park all day.
A) been C) having been
B) being D) is

193. “Remember to go your answers carefully if you have time,” She told us.
A) above C) beneath
B) against D) over

194. The river abounds fish and crocodiles.

A) with C) at
B) of D) on
195. I must ........ my deficiency in English.
A) make out C) make after
B) make up D) make beyond

CHOOSE THE MOST NEAREST WORD IN MEANING.

196. EXPANSIVE
A) moderate C) biased
B) spacious D) barbaric
197. GLARED
A) stir up C) fill
B) glowered D) injure

198. HAGGARD
A) flourish C) harvest
B) fatigued D) airstrike

CHOOSE THE MOST OPPOSITE WORD IN MEANING.

199. INTOLERABLE
A) costume C) admit
B) Painful D) clearance

200. KINDRED
A) Courageous C) uncultured
B) Altered D) speedy
 LOGICAL REASONING
201. 9, 11, 17, 35, 89,
A) 251 C) 151
B) 351 D) 97
202. ZYY, WUT, TQO, QMJ,
A) NJE C) MIF
B) MIE D) NIE
203. Statements: No magazine is cap; All caps are cameras. Conclusions: I. No camera is magazine; II.
Some cameras are magazines.
A) If only conclusion I follows C) If either conclusion I or II follows
B) If only conclusion II follows D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
204. Statement: Five terrorists were caught with illegal explosives in city.Actions:
1. The police should be on high alert to avoid any untoward incident.
2. The five terrorists should be set free and their movements should be watched to infiltrate
the terror syndicate.
A) If only 1 follows C) Either 1 or 2 follows
B) If only 2 follows D) Neither 1 nor 2 follows
205. Rover weighs less than Fido. Rover weighs more than Boomer.
Of the three dogs, Boomer weighs the least.
If the first two statement are true, the third statement is
A) True C) Uncertain
B) False
206. Fact 1: Pictures can tell a story. Fact 2: All storybooks have pictures.
Fact 3: Some storybooks have words.
If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact?
I. Pictures can tell a story better than words can.
II. The stories in storybooks are very simple.
III. Some storybooks have both words and pictures.
A) I only C) III only
B) II only D) None of the statements is a known fact.
207. The high school math department need to appoint a new chair person, which will be based on seniority.
Ms. West has less seniority than Mr. Temple, but more than Ms. Brody. Mr. Rhodes hasmore seniority
than Ms. West, but less than Mr. Temple. Mr. Temple does not want the job. Whowill be the new math
department chair person.
A) Mr. Rhodes C) Ms. West
B) Mr. Temple D) Ms. Brody
208. Statement: Should the admission to professional courses in India be given only on merit withoutany
concession to any particular group of students?
Arguments:
I. Yes. This will improve the quality of the professionals as they will be able to complete the
courses successfully.
II. No. This will keep a large number of socially and economically backward students out of the
reach of the professional courses.
A) if only argument I is strong C) if either I or IT is strong
B) if only argument II is strong D) if both I and II are strong.
209. Statement: Sealed tenders are invited from competent contractors experienced in executingconstruction
jobs.
Conclusions:
I. Tenders are invited only from experienced contractors
II. It is difficult to find competent tenderers in construction jobs
A) if only conclusion I follows; C) if either I or II follows:
B) if only conclusion II follows: D) if neither I nor II follows
210.

A) 1 C) 3
B) 2 D) 4