Sl.No. BCGS/19 uBai [ 2019 Gung aipley A@UoPSsLUL Oster Con : 2 weal] [tongs nfisQusinacr : 200 Hands @se Poolagapar & passin sflajopamer sucmonscs Unssai pédus opPlaycorscr apa dtinnn Soin ie Ben aaigtin 5 Ads hinerhe tgimnbon Cicoiecprghatekis eapdoctctp Bias Bons Asnecnj 100 cflamésenenés GanainGenergy. sSlen_woflis Gsm rixgapen Bleveflems Asn ei credoor Blarés end cuflenswns Bib Qupperaancun cram engi Blan ued argyib Qoubpyspsncisc 2 siraneneur rem engu yh sAiLumiggya Aancroncyd. gpg GODUNO OGUIE, spoon uss) PAL tss(o5s Ger eopsensrenACurarfisd Opiichggs, efluns ecror Cudprg Hens Gsngideren Qupgs Gancror Cousm@ud. Cgiray Asm dus Den, Henne Hens Qpr@Ly wnpPAls smu womcngy. THOT Aeanssexseib Heorwchssaid. room Hamssepd sworn oP sAuarradr Qancineeu, PE EELW Uplal coroner Ops uss Alen vagy Coe epanarde sys pAsar somopgicrar G)_jBleo Grass eps Coucin Gib. Caugy cranguyt Slams Asn@UI cragss sncngy. 5. Blen_sanar fla) LL cron, Alan ETE Gen 2. IREHEG MeOMs seinsranfiCumargTe spILUDId. 6. atiimieneLW elennssm@s4 creirencer (Question Booklet Number) een sgnaflér @reim mb ussssle EHAso Kenwosgdrer 5H ford dog saw fy owwencus ui amis Guannaflennas Hiss StL, CaO” Copecn apap Sm sgtcha fuss @Os5h ang goBand Cpionaore MIE MEI GAAIC Gcrorasng B_ovy Sos CoHAsndrenuGw. 7. @ei@aungy eBermayio (A), (B), (C) ioxogp0 (D) cron pars; aBlom_senends Genin Qeivergy. frusct -monausatiky Gr cg efusnon Blo ens Cpicy Qaigy clam ganotic Eflegis am CaxsinGib. genpég Codi sfiunan Ban_sdr gu Gacrcileg, Botusres aeBams frusir st stuanensy crémy consé sageisiaCam bs Bere Ben senate Pegi am CavainO. Tiugumdgnd go; Cacreiike, @Cr G5 Boo cousgnc Gpipas Gas CavsinGid. © rise5a0Lu Cuomgys oS LA Letra Brust Bam sysiatco eBid Gud afiusmen eflan_satlea craimen sonarus GL mTpy ses. 8. Blan sgnaikes GaGaunG Cacrall craimenhngio aif A). @.© wigrd GD) ston pneengs eure rivet a steren. Ho Cacrellag, Bao wctés Siuscr sfiGuier agg Seow PCr GG UL FPS wi Gib far dag, seGo0 Bip Santen ie a Caneahans. lng ais Caen. Glan CaNIGA ge Cosa. CpipAsOig Aerggnaiko Gls CoucnGud. Cadre, Gomae GopULL Aorwalisgnd op ooo a SO BLLOD. ogrpemons Givscr cemLag ofuren Ber unss aePomd org Aeron enc. oar _ ®eo0o0 9, Pascr Hams Asreiier ope Udspmpud faoCan dog APssCan sings. Coiicy Corsa Bis Bants UpnguerarCuin 2105 cer spronarusr Cp tals mL forp ALO Gouctide aD sss Oedosmrngs Cpier opigngiter friusct emisionoiu Slo sgnnors senanafiivimafis QanGes1 fl Gorin Gio. Gaishamd ang iGinars Caio. any ssi a friedie maigs.c assis Qedwamb, 10. GPs TEDL UTIILEHG Hang Ipnguider so_AL VssPAG aodn a-crot usspars eUCUTApGE Aandreranb. Dogs sell, Hamp Asrguder aps QsSgd as Ap GAiysmanujd Qalwisorngs. Dis ePlojoy seirgiuins DénuppoUL Casein @. LL, ayfidla ang Gan eaciuc Gener @PlU\YRs gra apyamnansreld 12, Blaramcupnoiad cBlanwollésnod 2.drar Benrasaflen Gungp crinaisensenus lon ppreficn dsb 2-c SPs a fu LL gGo GA HyLUEHS. DpH mOpars és) HO Wacr apa 18. Gobscin. sPlaiconacie crrgunasgs BAlamd Cgianmarui GyIHSG pLaansseG5as wcrore GpAGid car ePlepssiuodogs ‘SEE BACKSIDE OF THIS BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH VERSION OF INSTRUCTIONS: B [Turn over| id BCGS/19 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKIn an elementary particles there are fundamental reactions 4 @) 5 © 3 @) 2 Sig.LiLenL gisele —————— 514 Lien flenenascr © craton. a 4 ®) 5 © 3 @) 2 Doppler broadening is proportional to (Tis the absolute temperature of the source). wor @) T* we Pumeid Comonafuisesien cpsdus aides epeysoanijid sco ADS GCamBlene ot gus pam (A) yen B) sféstw@ © asi (D) eeoqyyir 14. The ancient Kalinga is situated in which of the present state? (A) Bihar WT Orissa (©) Bengal (D) Bhutan Lenipis anogfio sSlrisib craigs 5HCLng: orbs wnBlarsBed o srargs? A) Gaont B) @ftevevr (©) auissramis D) gener 15. Vellore mutiny took place in the year (A) 1802 AD eT 1806 AD (©) 1808 AD (@) 1816 AD Gaugait sipsib pont. Quip cin (A) asig02 (B) 419.1806 (©) 9.1808 @) 91816 B 1 BOGS/19 [Turn over16. Match the following = Organisations Years (a) British India Association 1.1883 (b) . India League 2. 1876 (©) Indian Association 3. 1875 (@) National Conference 4. 1843 @ ® @ @ Wo 2 3 4 ws 3 2 1 © 2 1 4 3 @) 1 S 4 2 afin une pee 7 smiasonr expt @) GAigdy QiGus owed 1. 1883 . 0) @rducds 2. 1876 © Bpsus sired 3. 1875 @) pfu wmp@ 4 1843 (a) (by ©) @ a 1 2 3 4 ®) 4 3 2 1 © 2 1 4 3 ©) 1 3 4 2 17. Choose the incorrect pair regarding the Tribal revolts (A) The Ahom’s Revolt - 1828 (B)_ Khasi Rising - 1833 WT Santhal Risings — 1840 (©) Kol Risings = 1831 Apascim renerdg) Qaamsard amdinp wsasclen soaisenaié smipsea. QHo og soupren Qoam ang GAIAGs. « (A) xGanmbscrsmsd ~-, 1828 B) ard yeh - 1833 (© ange ayaa - 1840 D) Canes aragedt - 1831 BCGS/19 818. 19. 20. 21. If a car is moving at a speed of 100 km per hour. How much distance does it cover in one second? (A). 25.2m (B) 266m 278m D) 28.7 m 96 Sn alg 100 AS Cusp sle Aeddipgs. go Senmgule sig) seb guid crcnon? (A) 25.28 B) 26685 © 2788 ) 28.78 What is next? 12 +3, 2346, 3447, 45 +20, ... (A) | 56+30 ae 6+ 11 () 57 *30 (D) 58+13 AD HB Tere GuCHLd? 12 +3, 2346, 3447, 45 +20, (A) 56+30 (B) 56+11 (©) 57+30 (D) 58+13 A balloon in the shape of a sphere has volume V and surface area S. If the balloon is blown up so as to have a volume of 8 V without changing the spherical shape. What is the new surface area? (a) 8s SK 1s © 2s @ s Ganer augcied a.dror Ugadr sar siera) V, Gausfiyo upucra; S 2ooLwgs Lgytener Gard aun wonpmed 8 Ven s1onayie esrBlonra Lg aulgo8led Qouath.yp LupLiLsaray sre? @ 8s @®) 48 © 28 @) s 9 BCGS/19 [Turn over22. If + means x, — means +, x means + and + means - then the value of 6-9+8x3+20 is 10 ®) 6 © 2 @) 12 + erenagy x, — cremigy +, x renugy + WBgLd + erénigy— crafled 6-94 8x3+20 -Wer oy (A) 10 @®) 6 © 2 @ 12 23. A pine apple costs Rs. 7 each. A watermelon costs Rs. 5 each, X spends Rs. 38 on these fruits. ‘The number of pineapples purchased is “M2 B) 3 G4 (D) Data inadequate reMTAGupd QuGencagud 5. 7 yaad, sityserl QaGaurcngnd oH. 5 sy@ayid ecraren. X crarieuit QUupisotle (5. 38 smo OA cred, ravi eumisélus sjeronrA\cLyprscterggsoncn? “a 2 ®) 3 oO 4 (D) fund Gurguonengsreo 24, Which of the following is/are true (1) -2,-7) isa point in IV quadrant (2) (0,3) is a point on X axis (3) -€5, 2) lies to the left of Y axis (4) (6,2) and (-7, 2) are the points on the line parallel to ¥ axis (A) (2), (3) (3) only ©. @,@), 4) @) (0), 2) Glereugpevensupdgysn ergy/ crema Quoisusman ens? GQ) (-2,-7) aang IV snbugsenwe Coirbs eral (2) (0,3) eremigy X wisflen Bsns drat (3) (5, 2) eremugy ¥ 2164 p@ Qc cn yp sremops Lyeirefl (4) (5,2) wg (-7,2) gélwer Y 2681G Qeramuren GamLgwouops Ydrofladr (A) 2), @) B) (3) wc Go © @,@), @) @),@) BCGS/19 1025. 26. 27. If costs Rs. x each to make the first thousand copies of a compact disc and Rs. y to make each subsequent copy. If z is greater than 1000, how much it will cost to make z copies of the compact dise (A) zx-2y (B) 1000x + yz WO 1002-9) +32 ) 1000(2-y) +22 9G GHHsaLys (psd 1000 ApAadr sumflés QaGauncny —. x Agotsa aG5s IpBecr PAGaMeHsEGS G. ¥ Ssworsapd Gewaundlng,. z ASPs G4 Quflgnonnd, z ApHlacr aGSs eraveuerey Qeneungio? (A) zxnzy* (B) 1000x + yz (C) 1000(x-y)+92 (D) 10002 - y)+xz A fires 5 shots, to B's 3 but A kills only once in 3 shots while B kills once in 2 shots. When B has missed 27 times, A has killed WH 30 birds (B) 60 birds (© 72birds (D) 90 birds B Wer gaGang 3 gLunédls sOpQsed A. 5 siaa sOdpni. god, A gaGane 3 pL mass AG Sore! WIOld Up@ascoué GandApri vdgid B pang eaGang 2 sOsQeE 8G BLE WLOCo UnHAcUs Aerddoni. B, 27 goa saGPIGrGb ULssHeo, A Oésoon Upmarsenaré 64 @éépnit (A) 30 upmaisér (B) 60 upeauscr (©) 72upaeusér (D) 90 upeeiscr A.can do a piece of work in 7 days of 9 hours each and B can do it in 6 days of 7 hours each. How long will they take to dot, working together 8 hours a day? (A) 4 days (B) 5 days 3 days (@) 4% days A, @6 Gammon 9 wanfi ppd Ganeim. 7 Gaueow priscfigns, Baits Camas 7 war Corio Osren 6 Cuma priscigns CpyssimOb. gated Gough Caing oo sronaéG 8 fa) Cond Carma Aavignd, Camm epyds srseeray sob QLunitedr? (A) 4 pnt ser : (B) 5 prLadr (CC) 3. pniacr (D) 4% pmisdr at BCGS/19 [Turn over28, The inner circumference of a circular race track, 14 m wide, is 440 m. Find the radius of the outer circle @& 85m Sw 841m ©) 80m C) 7m 14 BCL aBaQp@Lu QG atLioren gGunnpidr 2dr sHpera, 440 ELLE yed. Aah ail pBlen ayysengé snaines @ 855 ®) 848 © ws @) 808 29." If P% of P is 36. Then find P. A) 15 of 60 (© 600 () 3600 P-cin P% -syongy 36 crated P sain. (A) 15 ®) 60 (©) 600 @) 3600 30. The least whole number which when subtracted from both the terms of the ratio 6: 7 gives a ratio less than 16 : 21 is @ 2 Ms © 4 @) 6 6: TAA SEAS OE -MjssAAG SGI s PSs LUG Gung, 16 : 21 AASSSidG GonaTar GO AAs SOs SEHId 5EAlgy Cpe oraiot a 2 ®) 3 @ 4 @) 6 BCGS/I19 2 B31. Which is the lowest ladder of the Panchayat Raj? (A) ‘Gram Samithi (®) _ Nyay Panchayat WO Gram Sabha (D) Zilla Parishad Lagyamugs omg steno Bip Blane or? (A) Aono sa B) Surwugsmugs © Amo seu ©) Gaaruifiss 32. ‘The women-representation on the Panchayats is (A) 25% (B) 30% (© 35% WF 33% ecromn AS GpigMlad Quainsensanan Or EeED canis (A) 25% (B) 30% (C) 35% @) 33% 38. Which of the following part of the Constitution deals with the fundamental duties? @®) XIVA © IKA @) XA STPUM@iDIIA ap UGA siqtLEL sLowvsst UPS mpAng? @ WA ®) XIVA © KA @) XA B 13 BCGS/19 [Turn over34, 35, Match List I (Fundamental Rights) with List IT Articles of Indian constitution : List I List I (a) Right to Equality 1. Article 14-18 (6) Right to Freedom 2 Article 25 (©) Right to Freedom of religion 3. Article 82 (@ Right to Constitutional Remedies 4. Article 19 @ ®© © @ aM. 3 2 4 ®) 2 af, 1 3 wr 4 2 3 @) 2 3 1 4 Gune pars ucigiu F uted IT (a) awsgyas afens L offfi14 - 18 ) a5587 2 feo 2. a 125 © wp sppSgefew 3. AG 32 @) spAwosoty slow 4. fff. 19 @ ®% © @ 1 3 2 4 (B) 2 4 1 3 ©1 4 2 3 @) 2 3 di 4 ‘The Chairman and the members of National Human Rights Commission are appointed by the President and the recommendations of the Committee which consist of ————__— members (A) Five members WI Six members (©) Ten members (D) Eighteen members Gefu vals eflero yoamusPer geoat opp egidentsdr GRuTHs seeITe BunHstnsGrd Carcnevdé: —————— Gust Gamer @cty seuteener Uiflagieng Geuuy>? be Gui (B) ao Guir ©) uggs Gur D) upaen.@ Gut BCGS/19 4 836. 38, (A) Public Account Committee NABARD was established on the recommendation pf OF ciaion Committee (©) Narasimhan Committee (D) None of the above ‘pruni@ ated! oH GLY UMldgienpund Qanein@ oupCigs? (A) Gung semis, GUD B) Aaugmodr Gey © prBibwer ep D) Copasugs sgpSererm Who is the First Indian Economist to write the book about, “poverty of India? (A) YS. Pondit (By) SS. Mill (©). Adam Smith MH Dadabhai Naoroji “@pSuncier apenio” cron LUssasos asc psc creogu MS Hu apse Aumwemnsy Byemh wii? (A) gi ae. uoimge ®B) Gy. adv. we (C) pd dois, D) — prpmumis reno NDC refers to (A) National Defence Council (By. National Demographic Commission MF National Development Council (D) National Development Commission NDC ercnugy A) Gséu ungemninyé sen B) - Gsfus vdscrsros GW (© Gp8us verte soo D) Cssw evorirssl Gop 18 BCGS/9 [Turn over39. 40. In which year the Iron and Steel Industry was started in the pre-independence period in Indig? 2 1905, (B) 1903 (C) 1904 () 1902 SEATEDIS cpen DaPunle ahs aGr Qmoy wHNd o.6 AsrPeroo ndIssUCL gi? (A) 1905 (B) 1903 (©) 1904 (D) . 1902 Which states are below than National level of HDI (2011 report of UNDP) I Tamilnadu ~ 0.544 IL Kerala y 0.625 TM. Karnataka = 0.508 7 IV. Andhra Pradesh 0.485 (A) 1, Wand II (B) , Wand Iv Iv ©) 1,1, MlandIv ap onflarisetien HDI yereGand reroysaies Qs Au (ws Hw -sjarey) serayGanene oA (2011) Geopauna 9 crags, L | pipsro - 0.544 TL. Caer - 0.625 TL. sfiprusib - 0.508 IV. ayi@omiGyGpa 0.485 @) 1 Uusgo lll o.@o @B) Ml vpgio IV wc oa © Wee . ©) 11, Ml eppw IV wc @o BCGs/9 16 B41. 42. 43. ‘The team that lifted the Vijay Hazare Trophy in 2017 is (A) . West Bengal Tamilnadu (©) Maharashtra @) Karnataka 2017-2 olga ananGy Gamiienuienw Geucnp wonflexd A) Gopg eursenend B®) pdigoro (©) wangmeigig gr ©) sipm_sm ‘The country that has joined Feb. 2017, as the 7" member in the South Asia Sub regional Economic Cooperation Program, is (A) Manila (B) | Maldives Myanmar @) India “AsdG Au grew semciscia Gungamsny gsgepLL GWMG" Adgeufl 2017- Qovamigs, qTpTELg) HTD 1g)? (A) wafer @B) wraséa, (C) Buinénoir ©) @ifur ‘The.2018 National Immunisation Day is celebrated on OF 28 January . @®) 29January (© 30 January (D) 31 January 2018-8 Cafu SOLA Pend crdagy axguaMiimciic g1? (A) 2B garauf B) 29 gaeuh © \genafi D) 31 genau uw BCGSI19 [Turn over44. 45, 46. ‘The 2017 Shanghai Cooperation Organisation summit meeting was held at (A) Beijing (B) Vientiane (©) Islamabad Astana 2017 agmmamd pagionpriy senor wonETO crs Bor QUdOg? (A) Gui (B) Swienguiner ©) Qevamoungs ©) yeoiter Yash Chopra Memorial Award 2018 is awarded to (A). Lata Mangeshkar WT Asha Bhosle (©) Shah Rukh Khan (D) Rekha winev Gacy Benenay Gg, 2018 Qa winGdg aupwsLUCig? (A) ast waiCasgait (B) yagrGunesCar © agneeanet ©) Créer Which city has been named as the World Book Capital for 2019 by UNESCO? (A) Athens ee Sharjah (C) Bangkok (D) Montreal 2019 ad yaimaperor DOs YEBS SHADED créng WiencrCsrand sheASs weld «1g? A) a@pcrev (B) agiigge © unssnds D) vrcng Aue BCGS/19 1847. 48, 49. India’s first full time Women Defence Minister, who took the charges on September 2017 is \Yf Ms. Nirmala Sitharaman (B) Ms. Indira Gandhi (©. Ms. Menaka Gandhi (D) Ms. Sushma Swaraj Qaciibuit 2017a Use gdp MSSuncAler apse eowpGor ungisnLiy HAI" Bout spounr. (A) Bloor ésrpmoer ®) Bisons (©) Goean angi (D) acqor aeupngy Who is the new State Bank of India (SBI) Chairman appointed in Oct 2017? OP Mer. Rajnish Kumar (B) Mrs. Arundhati Bhattacharya (© Mr. Pratip Chaudhuri (D) Mr. TCA Ranganathan eG 2017 SwPsssUl wing curusludler Gainoeer wrt? A) BG. seats Gumi ®B) Sqw08. e968 ULL néeriwe © Bq. GrGcs Qeorssin ©) fq TCArHaprpar ‘The first women President of Singapore selected in Sep 2017 is YT Ms. Halimah Yacob @®) Ms. Jean Vip (©) Ms. Irene Ang ©) Ms. Olivia Lum ArwscyMer cpgd Guaw gamAu~uns Gacn tout 2017 CpipOsGéaciua Laut — Bat A) plein wines ®) gas © suite send D) esr gud 19 BOGS/19 [Turn over50. Which of the following pair of elements different from the other? LiMg ®B) Nak © CaMg @) BAL Spasrentd Qenen schoissald onguce Geran galwotiecr cena? (A) LiMg @) Nak © CaMg ©) BA 51. ‘The reaction in, which picric acid is formed from chlorobenzene is called as (A) Acylation FF Nitvation (C) Sulphonation (D) Halogenation GComBmAudnsahe erg) IMG sorb sumflé gb oflenenerri————— sienpaaciiQAngs (A) m@sCarppin ®B) @pGmepno © — saGunGendod D) porargGanpprb 52. The electromagnetic radiation are used in MRI instrument is, (A) X-rays (B) - microwaves WM radiowaves () infra-red rays MRI sqycfsafé Uweri@SeUUOi Klersnbs slovoed A) X-sfliedr (B) gieir steomesr (© CrgGur sioner (D) 2188 Aeuciy Bias 53. The important heat-trapping gas in the atmosphere is (A) oxygen (B) nitrogen (©) ammonia SOM carbon dioxide aching ope Aeuciudeng Blew Haba psu euruy (A) aysadiger CB) apc agen (©) siiCorefun (D) sriusse-one-yena0@ BCGS/19 20 B54. What is taking place actually during an ammonification? we proteins are broken into ammonium ions + (B) urea alone changed into ammonia (C) ammonium ions are return to atmosphere (D) ammonium ions are denatured” GHuTE odGwTaAlAGsager poo Qugnd Gungs créren Alaipaysdr por QupAleypgy? A) Ys obCor@fun qweflums 2 Apgy B) yur swGrafuineuns wngdlenngy (©) HC orefiun qwelldsgyacracr oC oncvidunig, GadAngy D) SrdCorefum querer Gouclssings 55. Pick out the mismatch of the followings (A). SARS - Lungs @®) AIDS Immunity © ELISA ‘Treatment MALT Oncogenes ApacineviGle seupren Qeramenus seis (A) . SARS = geome ®) AIDS = Spm afin 268 © ELISA = Samtudseisd @). MALT UppGpmis Bemeser 56. . Which ratio is constant for DNA? WH AtGIT+C @) A+T/G#E © AtciutG @) A+U/C+G LHe arg) i. creir.cF ofl 2 cre Haneousran als Dd (A) A+G/T+C (B) A+T/G+C @ Atcru+e @) A+UIC+G 8 21 BCGS/19 [Turn over57. Find out the wrong statement (A) The phloem in gymnosperms lacks companion cells (B)_ Pollination is one mophilous in gymnosperms ‘The ovules are protected by the carpels in gymnosperms (D) Vessels are usually absent from the xylem of gymnosperms Epéscin_ a@agidacta saiprenaig ais aneimAeaat A) *oComaduidsal sramsuGid yGemd spepaci Cgmpeine Aadiadr sramiuGagdsera B) AoCameouindsclid wanes Gaiden sndy (pawns p_adenps) (CO) GdCorndvundsafen @eoacr miudrmand umgysnsacl Gerenrgy D) eneord ahanpsatier Durgiouns Gousssci ghhbdCanneivutdesahes sirens u@eusldaneo 58. Consider the statement Assertion (A) Omega-3 fatty acids reduce the LDL cholesterol which may thus reduce risk if coronary heart disease. Reason (R) : People with problems of blood circulation such as varicose veins benefit from consumption of omega-3 fatty acids since they stimulate blood circulation and help to breakdown fibrin (clot) Choose the correct answer (A). Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (©) (Ajis true but (R) is false (D) (Aj is false but (R) is true Sipéarepid ainBusriecosr saved pa (A) g@oan-3 Bangg LDL Aenacoc prema Gongs Qeosui Gomis agen Geondnds nig igs sngami (R) Qiés QtL AH GepunG-Gailanco prend acter wellgtadr gCoen-3 Asnypcions ec Aencinnd Ors eLisms FUOED. Qysp sLigsonar 2m seb. sflunar uslonw GripOsOaaayd A) A) wdmw (R) @yerOGw &ff Cognd (R) crénagy (A) ofly eflusren Benda (B) (A) wignd (R) Qyan@Cw ff, Cognd (R) erénugy (A) ADS sflumen aflerdaud © Ayal gona ®) sag D) (A) gag gears (R) aff BCGS/19 22, B59. 60. Match the following and choose the correct answer. (@) b) © @ @ © © @ a 4 3 ®) © (@) Railway zones Date of formation North eastern zone 1. 5-11-1951 Eastern zone 2. 15-01-1958 Western zone 3. 01-08-1955 North eastern frontier 4. 14-04-1952 3 1 2 3 2 4 1 2 1 3 4 1 2 4 3 Epasdn_asdenp GunG sD, sfunen Pore CpipAgOes @) (b) © @ @ ®) () ©) Qm96Co: wen eoisadr a@arésiucr G8 a Apig waned 1. 5-11-1951 B\p56 waim_onb 2. 15-01-1958 G06 were 3. 01-08-1955 aLApsg rome weirLaid 4. 14-04-1952 (a) (b) © @) 4 3 1 2 3 5 4 1 2 1 3 4 1 a 4 3 ‘The region which consists of about 90% iron ore reserves of India is @ B) Ranchi Sambhalpur WA Cuttack @) Purulia BsAu Doody 61g) QGUI aon 90 sschgsorge AsneinGaror UGA ) @®) ©, @) ames sbudyT ues 23 BCGS/19 [Turn over61. 62, 63, From whom did the English obtain the lease of Madras in 1639 (A) The ruler of Goleunda (B) The ruler of Carnatic (C) The ruler of Mysore WM The ruler of, Chandragiri FAC 6 9196 1639-< Qacronencnus Gps wn Kes QudpE (A) Gancbescin_e 2 But 8) sipms ove © moi ac Auit D) — aiprdill oxpei Who condemned the Muslim social system Piri and Muridi through his magazine Tahdhib-ul Aklaq? (A) Mauli Chirag Ali WI Sir Syed Ahamed Khan (C) Abul Kalam Azad (D) Mirza Ghulam Ahamed p520s-2.8 band orgud gong) seAmsuen eporid 9M wipid aod crab apcrad eeps epeoponus sci. S50uit win? : (A) Quoored signs 4c B) sir nsws oisogeren (©) chiigis seoma goons (D) Biavr Gand sigs Where did the Sepoys break out in open revolt on May, 10 1857? (Dum Dum (B) Barrackpore SY Meerut @) Kanpur Acumis saad 10-05-1857-a ering Qary S58)? @ ubLb B) ungayyi © bye D) ans BCGS/19 24 864. 65. Consider the following statements: I ‘The nationalist movement and Hindu-Muslim unity took giant steps forward after World War I , Il. : The entire country resounded to the cry of “Hindu-Muslims Ki Jai” (A) Lonly is correct (B) only is correct oH Land II are correct (D) Land I are wrong Sipéscim_ cunédhsiisenar seusflésa4t I (YRS ras GuNGHE Deront Dos-cosvod gmenouyd GpAlus Gump sasepd eugaucnpger ” W “Bis ord Aig Agu” acy rYssdise5as BIO Has Grd eQQUULULL gs. A loc@bet ®) TwcoosA (© Loyd Il afi ©) Tvsgo I sap Which Hindu National leader supported and led the Khilafat movement? (A) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (B) _ Rajendra prasad Mahatma Gandhi (D) Jawaharlal Nehru 96S OSH CeAUs somout Nous QUsasAHG myevey oAlssCpr@ og Sonerenro griésdlemaii? (A) signi adaumis uGad - B) . m@gpAiy Arengs © wangor amps ) gaaniend Goo 25 BCGS/19 [Turn over66. Consider the following statements : Assertion (A) : The Ghadar party was determined to wage war against the British in India. Reason (R) There was a political activity in Maharashtra Choose the correct answer from the options given below (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A) WF Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explain (A) (©) Adis true but (R) is false (D) (A) is false but (R) is true Sipdangpid cundDusrusener seve mip (A): @psunehd -&8Cowsny oPlidg Gun agent oA Sironaeggs sngemd (R): wanpnegqg ned sud Owe DGSES (A) (A) wbgrd R) OyeinGrd fl Gogo (R) crdsgy (A) fd #flusmen eAlersssid B) (A) wAgd R) QraaxGw af Cognd (R) crérugy (A) ADE eflusren Bordssndm © Adah genre (R) say, D) A) sag gonna (R) 5A Consider the following statements and choose the correct code I Rabindranath Tagore stood for a national scheme of education I. In 1901, a school was established at Shanti Niketan Choose the correct answer from the options given below (A) _ Lis correct IT is wrong (B) Tis correct I is wrong VW Land IL are correct (D) both Tand ILare wrong Epéacin eppascoe scsallégy sflusran GPUSLIgneH o1UQs) 1. gSbAypRs prea Cou Sood PLL soos eyeAépnit I. 1901-6 enpf AlGagahe o@ Lcrafleous Hyer Qaim A) LefIl sau @®) Hef Ipaq (©) Lwpgrd I QvenGe of D) Lwppw Ul QreinGa sug BCGS/19 26 B68. 69. n. ‘The HCF of 924, 105 and 525 is 2 (B) 84 (©) 105 ) 25 924, 105, 525-@edn 6.Qur.eu (a) 21 B) 84 (© 105 ) 25 Find the least number which when divided by 5, 6, 7 and 8 leaves a remainder 3 but when divided by 9 leaves no remainder (A, 848 (B) 843 1683 () 1688 5, 6, 7 oppib 8 creitserrd UGSELUGH GUuMYs) 3 @ BEuTEaub, 9 yo aGestiuGid Aureos BA Qaonogd ocrar BEAGw cainerams sneins (A) 848 B) 843 (1683 @) 1688 Least common multiple of a*, a", a’? where ke N is @ at @ a OG uo a aaa, REN ghlucup ple Bap Dungy wig orgy? (@) a" @) as © a @) a? Fill in the blanks : 1, 1, 4, 13, 40, 121, __ vf 364 (B) 382 ° © 256 (@) 312 Came Organs mcs: 1, 1, 4, 13, 40, 121, __ (A) 364 (B) 382 © 256 @) 312 27 BCGS/19 [Turn over8 Which is the largest number in 15 15, (A) a (B) 19 15, 1b © 8 Se es Quis ereér wigs? 15, 15 w B m 2 io 15 » 2B p 3 © 23 © 17 73. Find the remainder when 4x° ~5x* +6x-2 is divided by x-1 A 4 (®) 0 @ 2 3 4x° — 5x? + 6x -2 aw (X-1) Yo aUBsGid Gung, Hoo 4 Gib HS sein a 4 @®) 0 @ 2 () 3 74. Find the value of @ (B) «© Neier wie ¥729 -¥27 —alir wBL seir era ¥eag OM (A) (B) toler wien euine one? © @) BCGS/19 2871. A wheel makes 1000 revolutions in covering a distance of 88 km. Find the radius of the wheel @) 13m ®) 12m © um YF lim 88 AS Opronwey Gedapie HG sé5rb 1000 aimasdi cOsgHeercrdlng. dséorshen yb snare. @ Bb (B) 128 © us @) 148 A man invested + of his capital at'7%, + at 8% and the remainder at 10%. If his annual income is Rs. 561, the capital is (A) Rs. 5,400 ®) Rs. 6,000 WO Bs. 6,600 (D) Rs. 7,200 9G wallgen song pasens pa 5 risen 7% aniig Bg esguid t Lurene: 8% aiss Aland, Bsaperercns, 10% of Aland ESO AaWwApmi. sourg AGL auguomend ¢, 561 crafhed siaurg epargsemd (A). 5,400 ®) 6,000 ©) 6,600 ©) © 7,200 ‘The height and area of the trapezium are 12 cm and 102 em* respectively. If one of the parallel side is 8 em then the other parallel side is (A) Bem * dem © Tem . ©) 6em 96 sfluss Ber ound wig UpLY gpenpGus 12 em wogd 102 cm?. abs sflaisdélen Qe Geran udspplen Bond 8 em cate ppg Dona usspsBlen ford A 8cem (B) 9em () Tom @) 6em 29 BCGS/19 [Turn over78. At what rate percent of compound interest per annum will Rs. 640 amount to Rs. 774.40 in 2 years, when interest is being compounded annually? “ 11.5% @B) 12% (© | 8% PF 10% ©. 640 searengs 2 geinGachd a6 mG ay BAssHO 6. 774.40 yo wagud mc Qay BTS UGH ANG OG Hep samsA_OUGAng) A) 11.5% (B) 12% "8 ©) 10% 79. If the diagonal of a rectangle is 17 em long and the perimeter of the rectangle is 46 em, then the area of the rectangle is WT 200m? (B) 152em? © 12cm () 289m? OG Asciasssler gomach sper ore 17 Geb ysaub ope spore 46 Qe ysajd QE, syst upLioTey orden? (A) 120em? @) 152 em? (©) 112 cm? (D) 289 cm? 80. Who is regarded on the “Father of All India Services”? (A) Lord Macaulay (B) Lord Cornwallis (©). BR. Ambedkar PF Sardar Patel 28le DiS Ueniaoilen sing cron’ SGpOUGLEIT (A) GossnGa Goy B) singer aura Gry (©) BR. sibGugent ©) signi uGLe BCGS/19 30 . B81. 82, 83. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment states that the appointment of the same person as a governor for two or more states? O77 7 Constitutional Amendment (B) 12% Constitutional Amendment (C) 42"! Constitutional Amendment © (D) 56" Constitutional Amendment GC pul Qran® dmg 296 CopULL wnflomscd mL serps PuBdscucond crn Spsnapd os SAG Ss mpApgs? A) Tagsrssigisb B) Lager. sA@ isd (CO) ager sh@ssd (@D) Sbagisrsdasstd Which of the following Constitutional Amendment provided Delhi a special status? (A) 42>! Amendment (B) 54% Amendment SH 69" Amendment (D) 74% Amendment Epésrend abs LAGS ydsG Api Hibscdg) ape duensé oydngs? A) ag sciédgisd B) Stag sci. gAqssd O Lagat sdass ©) Haga shossd ‘The Kapu Reservation Bill, 2017 is related to the state of (A) Odisha (B) Bihar (©) Gujarat WM Andhra Pradesh 5m GHE8H 6¢.Ltd-20176 orig oNPlosCpn@ Qgm yon wg? (A) eqs B) Sanit © egos D) 687 SoCssm 31 BCGS/19 [Turn over84. In which year the constituent assembly elected its permanent Chairman? (A) 1945 (By 1947 a 1086 D) 1950 DPAw opPumonoiy fire sonden Pirbsr soveut obs ano CpiPAsGsssULL mi? (a) 1945 (B) 1947 (C) 1946 (D) 1950 85. Which of the following cases deals with the Fundamental Duties? (A) Kesavanandha Bharathi Case OP Ramsharan Case (©) Golaknath Case (D) Minerva Mills Case Epascin arp Pe orqtuer 6LenosGem@ Qpm Ayoorw pss (A) Gasaunenig ung aupig (B) gmbsyein eupirs, © Gonandprd apis (D) lowiour Wes apse 86. Untouchability has been abolished by the constitution of India under (A) Article 14 (B) Article 15 (©) Article 16 PT Article 17 BiG opdwomoiyé stig Sein neninew GPSS ec LiGAay (A) oAlfii4 (B) G15 © apis () agi7 87. As per the Budget estimate 2011 ~ 12 the over all Public Debt. of the Government of India was (A) Rs. 31,10,618 Crores ofl te 32,81,465 Crores (©) Rs. 30,11,548 Crores ()_ Rs. 31,19,460 Crores 2011-12 gyeimgdr aiga, - Asao; HSA er Ly Qshwu ssrssAer gO Gongs son Agronswnengy. (A) .31,10,618 Gamg By @ 32,81,465 Cam, (C) 30, 11,548 Gamg @) @& 31,19,460 Gama BCGS/19 32. 888. Match List I with List II : List 1 Councils (a) National Planning Council (b) National Development Council (©) Research Programe Committee (@) Planning Commission of India ® ® © @ 2 1 4 3 @) 4 3 2 1 © 2 3 1 4 @) 2 1 3 4 Ucywe Tg Uc guid TT ever Quneggie uciquid I wenpisast (a) + GpAw ic wep ©) pfu eniéA wep © gay ScLrsgy @ @sdu AL-sGy (a) (by © @ (A) 2 1 4 3 @ 4 3 2 1 © 2 3 1 4 @) 2 1 3 4 List II Members Prime Minister, Chief Ministers and Central Ministers Scientist, Engineers, Economist and other Experts Prime Minister, Chief Ministers and Economist Leading Economist and Research Scientist ucqweé IT aminGentecr Dogw WEA, Epo opsflscr opps wssu Lop Sede oPAud agmisMumariecr, Qungaucd siigiedr, Apay Ing HAscr G75 wbAM, Gps willed wohgId Guin gpafused i jemmicscir Gungatud —— Plyamisci, ——-oylefluscd eqylieumeniiedr BCGS/9 [Turn over89. Which year MTNL was set up by the Government of India? (A) 1985 wo 1986 (C) 1987 (D) 1988 Gifu oenuesgnd aig vGL MTNL Ayeuducigs? (A) 1985 (B) 1986 (C) 1987 () 1988 90. ‘Mission XI Million’ programme is related to (© Space travel (D) Power supply “Wager XI WaSwer” MLL apGonn® Asm iyorwgs? A) sndbuigs (B) Qveneeis (©) Aenea uwemd D) Ber Qeremiy 91. The advanced Surface to Air Missile system (SAM), defence deal was signed between India and Israel B) South Korea (© Bangladesh (D) Syria CobULL seaNIS Gg TA FALUO gasoar suns GsSun 1s pm Gren gLuyppid Asiigicrongs? A) QwGre B) Ager emf (©) urea epoig ) Aur BCGS/19 34 B92. 93. 94. B ‘The first State in India to switch over to Jan — Dec Financial Year format is (A) Bihar ®) laharashtra (©) Karnataka OF Madhya Pradesh onal - qadui HAuneor® apenpae wnfler apse wnflovid ergy? (A) Sarit B) wasnpeigign © signer ©) vg fu Ose Who succeeded G. Kalyanakrishnan as the Chief Executive of Nuclear Fuel Complex? Dinesh Srivastava (B) Kiran Kumar AS. © Sivank (D) Radhakrishnan K 2ENSHG cHIALNg Er omapPen epsreow oud aPlsniuns G. scumomdlegcgoncn crenicu Gag pg PurBéstue east wm? (A) AGency Aiflarcopour B) Againguoni AS. © AeucsK D) ongrdlgcqancs K Who was sworn in as Chief Minister of Manipur on Maich 15, 2017? YM Nongthombam Biren Singh (B) Raj Kumar Ranbir Singh (©) Okram Ibobi Singh (D) Raj Kumar Jaichandra Singh LaRue oMPlasPar eppw wpAfuns wmié 15,2017 Ba ugelGuppast win? (A) Gpri@gmbuib eouige As B) onggguonir pearSie Ss © gdb OEumd Aes (D) ongquont Aegusasspir Bris 35 BCGS/19 [Turn over95. The mountaineer to Scale Mount Everest twice within five days in May-2017 (A) Anuradha Devi Thokehom (B) . Chekrovolu Swuro A Anshu Jamsenpa (D) Gohela Boro Bw 2017 & mig prLsad eqpenp carAyeve. wea 2441 glen were gpVid Symone win? (A) siguomgn Cpof CraGamd (B) QesGynGangy saiGpr (©) 2dr gnb@senun ) Gandien GunGon 96. Swachch Bharat Abhiyan (Clean India Campaign) is to accomplish the vision by the year. (A) 2017 (B) 2018 Ww 2019 ©) 2020 sexe Une’ Sumer (aspioren QsSuin Arend) ser GH&Ganonar aS ysirn Heer HepGarprs Gundlpgs? (a) 2017 @®) 2018 © 2019 (D) 2020 97. ‘The 14" Pravasi Bhartiya Divas was hosted by (A), Chennai Bengaluru (C) Mumbai () Delhi Usamérsraugy Ayana unigsu Seus p sSw pam og)? (A) Qscienes B) QuaseG © youn D) vad BCGS/19 36 : B98. As per the 3" list announced on June 2017, how many cities in Tamilnadu are to be upgraded as smart city under PM’s Smart City Mission? A, 3 @ 5 a 4 @) 2 gran 2017 @ AarehAL Cul Bppw wpSABH “civiowine ALi” HL sHee Sp epenmmd uLiqwuedld siOippm qa orgsener paymsdr sori. ALgUITs CObUDssUUL 2 crengy? (A) 3 ‘ (B) 5 @ 4 (@) 2 99. | Who among the following is a recipient of Dan David Prize — 2017? (A) Amitav Ghosh (B) Leonard Kleinrock (©). James Hansen r WF Shrinivas Kulkarni 2017 Linda Gof ufone Quugyioutt wii? (A) onBlapei Canciy CB) Suen Menerenynds (©) Cader aprenscn (D) AiflaRauns Gaara 100. Which one of the following is not a federal feature? (A) Dual government (B) Division of powers (©), Rigid constitution Single citizenship Sipe ap Hla gy ex Ln Auer Gwsedry wo? A @rte suena B) sPargpe WiflBenen © Apaigr si7Fuson0ciy D) epans Gqujfenw B 37 BCGS/19 [Turn overSPACE FOR ROUGH WORK BCGS/19 38SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 39 BCGS/19 [Turn overBCGS/19 Register Number 2019 GENERAL STUDIES ‘Time Allowed : 2 Hours] [Maximum Marks : 200 13, Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions. IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS, ‘The applicant will be supplied with Question Booklet 15 minutes before commencement of the examination. ‘This Question Booklet contains 100 questions. Prior to attempting to answer, the candidates are requested to check whether all the questions are there in series and ensure there are no blank pages in the question booklet. In case any defect in the Question Paper is noticed, it shall be reported to the Invigilator within first 10 minutes and get it replaced with a complete Question Booklet. If any defect is noticed in the Question Booklet after the commencement of examination, it will not be replaced. Answer all questions. All questions carry equal marks. You must write your Register Number in the space provided on the top right side of this page. Do not write anything else on the Question Booklet. An answer sheet will be supplied to you, separately by the Room Invigilator to mark the answers. You will also encode your Question Booklet Number with Blue or Black ink Ball point pen in the space provided on the side 2 of the Answer Sheet. If you do not encode properly or fail to encode the above information, action will be taken as per Commission's notification. Each question comprises four responses (A), (B), (C) and (D). You are to select ONLY ONE correct response and mark in your Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there are more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each question. Your total marks will depend on the number of correct responses marked by you in the Answer Sheet. In the Answer Sheet there are four circles @).@.@© and @ against each question, To answer the questions you are to mark with Blue or Black ink Ball point pen ONLY ONE circle of your choice for each question. Select one response for each question in the Question Booklet and mark in the Answer Sheet. If you mark more than one answer for one question, the answer will be treated as wrong. eg. If for any item, @) is the correct answer, you have to mark as follows @e@o0 You should not remove or tear off any sheet from this Question Booklet. You are not allowed to take this Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet out of the Examination Hall during the time of examination, After the examination is concluded, you must _hand over your Answer Sheet to the Invigilator, You are allowed to take the Question Booklet with you only after the Examination is over. Do not make any marking in the question booklet except in the sheet before the last page of the question booklet, which can be used for rough work. This should be strictly adhered. Inalll matters and in cases of doubt, the English version is final. Applicants have to write and shade the total number of answer fields left blank on the boxes provided at side 2 of OMR Answer Sheet. An extra time of 5 minutes will be given to specify the number of answer fields left blank. Failure to comply with any of the above instructions will render you liable to such action or penalty as the Commission may decide at their discretion.