Solved SNAP 2020 Paper With Solutions

SNAP
2020
Previous Year Question Papers
with Solutions
www.jaipuria.ac.in
SNAP 2020
Analytical & Logical Reasoning
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Question 1
Which is the seventh number in the sequence 5, 9, 16, 29, 54,
A 300
B 200
C 330
D 103
Answer: B
Explanation:
5, 9, 16, 29, 54,__, ?
5x2-1=9
9x2-2=16
16x2-3=29
29x2-4=54
54x2-5=103
103x2-6=200
Answer 200
Question 2
Which of the below pendulums will move the slowest, if each one of them is displaced by an angle of 60∘
from the center?
B
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Answer: B
Explanation:
l
g
The time period of a pendulum(T) =2 π .
The time period is directly proportional to the length of the pendulum.
More the time period, lesser will be the speed of the pendulum.
So Option B is correct.
Question 3
Lectures by industry experts have to be scheduled in Marketing, Finance, Operations, Organisational

Behaviour and Information Systems. This has to be scheduled on a weekday (Monday to Friday). Only one
lecture can be scheduled per day. Marketing cannot be scheduled on Tuesday as it is inconvenient for the
expert. Expert for Finance is available only on Tuesday. As Information Systems and Finance are always
considered important, Information Systems has to be scheduled immediately on the day following the
Marketing lecture. The Dean has decided that Organisational Behaviour lecture has to be scheduled
immediately before the day of Marketing lecture. Finally the schedule is prepared which satisfies all
conditions.
Which lecture is scheduled on Monday?
A Finance
B Marketing
C Information Systems
D Operations
Answer: D
Explanation:
The following information can be gathered:
=> Marketing cannot be scheduled on Tuesday as it is inconvenient for the expert.
=> Expert for Finance is available only on Tuesday.
Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday
______ Finance
=> Information Systems has to be scheduled immediately on the day following the Marketing lecture.
=> Organisational Behaviour lecture has to be scheduled immediately before the day of Marketing lecture.
Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday

Operations-Finance-Organisational Behaviour- Marketing-Information Systems
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Option D
Question 4
If Golu is son of Molu, Molu and Polu are sisters, Pillu is Polu's mother, Gannu is son of Pillu, which of the
following statements is definitely true?
A Golu and Gannu are cousins
B Golu's nephew is Gannu
C Golu's maternal uncle is Gannu
D None of the option is correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
From the information given in the question, we can make the following diagram.
Option C is correct
Question 5
If Pig: Farrow and Lion : Cub, then Bear :
A Goat
B Cygnet
C Cub
D Foal
Answer: C
Explanation:
Baby Pig is called a Farrow.
Baby Lion is called a Cub.
Baby bear is also called a Cub.
Question 6
A fast train leaves Chennai to Bengaluru and at the same point in time a slow train leaves from Bengaluru
to Chennai. The fast train moves at a speed of 60 km /hr and the slow train moves at half of the speed of
the fast train. Both these trains meet at a point after some time. Which of these trains are further away
from Chennai when they meet? (Do not consider the length of the train)
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A The fast train is further from Chennai
B The slow train is further from Chennai
C Both the trains are equidistant from Chennai
Answer: C
Explanation:
The moment they will meet they will be equidistant from the two cities.
Option C is correct.
Question 7
Given the series Z, Y, X, V, S, the next alphabet will be?
A N
B 0
C L
D K
Answer: A
Explanation:
Fibonacci Series = 1,1,2,3,5,8.....
Z-Y=1
Y-X=1
X-V=2
V-S=3
N-S=5
Option A is correct.
Question 8
If PUNE / GOA = 1 and CHENNAI / GOA = 1.5, then MUMBAI / PUNE = ?
A 1.25
B 1
C 1.5
D 1.75
Answer: C
Explanation:
No of vowels in PUNE=2
No of vowels in GOA=2
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2/2=1
No of vowels in PUNE=3
No of vowels in MUMBAI=2
3/2=1.5
Option C
Question 9
Find the missing number (?)
A 26
B 28
C 32
D 34
Answer: B
Explanation:
3+5+7+9=24........242
11+12+13+14=50......502
66= 7+10+21+x
x=28
Option B
Question 10
Find the missing number (?)
A 13
B -70
C 15
D -60
Answer: B
Explanation:
11=2x3+5
-12= (-5)x2+(-2)
(-10)x6 + (-10)=-70
Option B is correct
Question 11
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If A and B are represented by the above diagrams as two circles then shaded area is represented as?
A A∩B
B (A ∪ B) − A
C (A ∩ B) ∪ A
Answer: D
Explanation:
A∩B
(A ∪ B) − A
(A ∩ B) ∪ A
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Option D is correct.
Question 12
Unmesh is facing Jayesh and when he hears a bell ring he turns towards Rajesh by making 90 shift. He
continues to do this every time the bell rings. If the bell rang 3926 times, whom will Unmesh be facing?
A Rajesh
B Mahesh
C Suresh
D layesh
Answer: B
Explanation:
After the bell will ring four times Umesh will again face Jayesh.
So after 3924 turns, it will face Jayesh.
After 3926 turns he will face Mahesh.
Option B
Question 13
Ram places three identical cones of radius on a table in such a way that each cone base touches the other
two, also the altitude of the cone is perpendicular to the table. The radius
of the circle drawn through the cone vertices would be?
A Smaller than r
B Equal to r
C Larger than r
D Cannot be determined
Answer: C
Explanation:
The top view of the three cones can be seen in the figure below.
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The three centres will form an equilateral triangle. R= 2/3* 3r
R= 2/ 3*r
R is larger than r.
Option C
Question 14
Three lamps A, B and C as shown in the figure above are burning using oil as its source of energy. Three
incense sticks, E, F and G are taken. E is dipped in oil, F is dipped in petrol and G is dipped in water and
are immediately placed over the wick of A, B and C respectively. Then
A A will glow bright, B will glow bright and C will be put off
B A will be put off, B will glow bright and C will be put off
C A, B and C will keep glowing
D C will be put off and the status of A and B be cannot determined
Answer: B
Explanation:
Oil and water will put off the flame while petrol will increase the flame.
Option B
Question 15
Find the missing number in the series:

16, _ , 68, 88
A 06
B 08
C 36
D 46
Answer: A
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Explanation:
16, _ , 68, 88
The mirror image of each sequence will be
19, __ , 98, 88
Invert the digits
91, __, 89, 88
90 inverted digits will be 06.
Question 16
A Men Singles Tennis Tournament is being held out at Mumbai. 30 players participated in the tournament.
There is a rule that is implemented, the rule states that, if a player loses a match then he is eliminated
from the tournament. How many matches have to be played to decide the winner of the tournament?
A 30
B 15
C 29
D 10
Answer: C
Explanation:
30 players participated in the tournament.
In the first elimination round, 15 players will be eliminated. ( 15 matches )
In the second elimination round, 7 players will be eliminated. (7matches)
In the third elimination round, 4 players will be eliminated. (4matches)
In the fourth elimination round, 2 players will be eliminated. (2matches)
Final Match (1 match)
Total matches= 1+2+4+7+15 matches
=29 matches
Question 17
1
Ramu has several friends and all of them are well settled in India. 5 th of Ramu's friends went to Mumbai
1
and 3 rd of his friends went to Delhi, three times the difference of these two went to Chennai and only one
went to Pune. How many of his friends went to Mumbai?
A 15
B 3
C 10
Answer: B
Explanation:
Let the total number of friends be T
The total number of friends went to Chennai= 3 (T/3-T/5)= 2T/5
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Number of friends went to Pune= T-T/5-2T/5-T/3
= T-14T/15
=T/15=1
T=15
The number of friends who went to Mumbai=T/5 =15/5=3
Question 18
There are 3 closed cartons in a room. One of the cartons contains cash. There is a printed message that is
displayed outside each carton. Only one message is True and the other two messages are False. The first
carton has the message: Cash is not in the Carton. The second carton has the message: No cash in the
Carton. The third carton has the message: Cash is in the second carton. Which carton has the cash?
A First
B Second
C Third
Answer: A
Explanation:
Only one message is True and the other two messages are False.
The first carton has the message: Cash is not in the Carton.
The second carton has the message: No cash in the Carton.
The third carton has the message: Cash is in the second carton
If the second carton has the cash, then there will be 2 true messages i.e. First and Third.
If the third carton has the cash, then there will be 2 true messages i.e. First and Second.
If the first carton has the cash, then there will be 1 true message i.e. of second.
Option A
Question 19
The figure below has been made by folding paper as given in one of the options, choose the correct option.
A
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Answer: D
Explanation:
None of these paper combinations can form the figure given in the question.
Question 20
The figure given has been made by folding paper as given in one of the options, choose the correct option
B
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Answer: D
Explanation:
The following diagram will explain the basic structure of the paper:
None of the above figures can make the given shape.
Option D
Question 21
Four classes Rural Marketing, Digital Marketing, International Marketing and Service Marketing were
taught in four consecutive periods of one hour each starting from 8.00 am on a week day.
Read the statements and find out the probable option which can be sufficient to answer the question:
At what time was the Digital Marketing class scheduled?
Statement I. International marketing class ended at 10.00 am which was preceded by Service Marketing.
Statement II. Rural Marketing was scheduled as the last class.
Statement III. International Marketing was immediately followed by Digital Marketing.
A I only
B II only
C I and II together or I and III together
D II and III together
Answer: C
Explanation:
Four classes Rural Marketing, Digital Marketing, International Marketing and Service Marketing were taught in four
consecutive periods of one hour each starting from 8.00 am on a week day.
Digital Marketing class was scheduled:
Statement I. International marketing class ended at 10.00 am which was preceded by Service Marketing.
We can make the following schedule
8.00 am- 9.00 am: Service Marketing
9.00 am- 10.00 am: International Marketing
10.00 am- 11.00 am: ____________
11.00 am- 12.00 noon: ____________
Statement II. Rural Marketing was scheduled as the last class.

Statement III. International Marketing was immediately followed by Digital Marketing.
We can subsequently find the exact time when Digital Marketing is scheduled from both the statements.
Hence the correct answer is Option C

Question 22
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Read the statements and find out the probable option which can be sufficient to answer the question:
What is the total monthly salary of Kakade?
Statement I. Kakade‘s basic salary is Rs.100/- more than Madan’s salary, who also serves in Kakade’s
company.
1
Statement II. Other allowance taken by Madan besides his basic salary is 10 th of Kakade’s salary.
Statement III. Madan’s basic salary is Rs.15000/- per month.
A II and III together
B I and III together
C I, II and III together
D Data insufficient
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement I. Kakade‘s basic salary is Rs.100/- more than Madan’s salary, who also serves in Kakade’s company.
Statement II. Other allowance taken by Madan besides his basic salary is 1/10th of Kakade’s salary.
Statement III. Madan’s basic salary is Rs.15000/- per month.
From all the three statements we can find the basic monthly salary of Kakade but we cannot calculate the allowance he
gets, thus the data is insufficient.
Question 23
Babu is younger than Gopu. Somu is older than Pappu. Read the statements and find out the probable
option which can be sufficient to answer the question:
Who among them is the oldest?
Statement I. Somu is older than Babu.
Statement II. Gopu is older than Somu.
Statement III. Pappu is the youngest of all.
A I and II together
B III Only
C I, II and Ill together
D II Only
Answer: D
Explanation:
Babu is younger than Gopu. Somu is older than Pappu. Babu < Gopu & Pappu < Somu
Statement I. Somu is older than Babu. ....Gopu can still be older than Somu, so we cannot find the oldest among all.
Statement II. Gopu is older than Somu. Here Gopu will definitely be the oldest
Statement III. Pappu is the youngest of all. Cannot find the oldest among all.
Hence Option D is correct.
Question 24
If in a coded language, MASTER is written as 79 7 115 121 31 109 then LAUGH will be written as
(Note: - Do NOT include any spaces in your answer)
Answer:7371274349
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Explanation:
MASTER is written as 79 7 115 121 31 109
In the alphabetical order M=13, A=1, S=19, T=20, E=5, R=18
The sequence is (n x 6)+1: 79= 13x6+1 7= 1x6+1 115= 19x6+1
.....
Thus the sequence for LAUGH will be
L= 12x6+1 =73
A=1x6+1=7
U=21x6+1= 127
G=7x6+1= 43
H=8x6+1= 49
Answer: 7371274349
Question 25
There were 12 friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K, & L. In the year 1996, A celebrated his birthday on
January 11 and it was Thursday. B celebrated his birthday on February 20, which was a Tuesday and C, D,
E, F, G, H and I, celebrated on April 05 (Friday), May 05 (Sunday), June 05 (Wednesday), July 05 (Friday),
August 05 (Monday), September 05 (Thursday) and October 05 (Saturday) respectively. J, K and L
celebrated their birthday on November 15 (Friday), March 15, (Friday) and December 15 (Sunday)
respectively. Before the year 2025, when will all of them celebrate their birthdays again on the same day
as they did in 1996?
(Note:- DO NOT include spaces in your answer)
Answer:2024
Explanation:
Every non-leap year have 365 days. i.e (7x52+1 days.
Leap year have 366 days i.e ( 7x52+2 days
A cycle of four years will have 1+1+1+2 days i.e 5 days shift
For the days to repeat, the shift should be a multiple of 7.
A cycle of four years if repeated 7 times will have a 35 days shift. Every day will repeat after 4x7 (28 years.
After 1996 the cycle will be in 1996+28 = 2024
Question 26
If January = 10125, June = 10605, then July = ?
Answer:10725
Explanation:
January: 10125: [10] [1] [25] : [ J ] [ 1st month ] [Y] : [First letter] [Month of the calender] [ Last letter]
June: 10605: [10] [6] [05] : [ J ] [ 6th month ] [E] : [First letter] [Month of the calender] [ Last letter]
July : [ J ] [ 7th month ] [Y] : [10] [7] [25] 10725
Answer 10725
Question 27
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In the figure given above there are maximum ........... number of triangles that can be identified
Answer:12
Explanation:
Following triangles are possible:
AFB, AFE, FED, FCD, FCB .......5
ABC, ABE, ACD, BED, AFD, BFD.......6
ABD......1
Total of 12 triangles possible.
Question 28
Rohan (Coded as 1), Pawan (Coded as 2), Mohan (Coded as 3), Sohan (Coded as 4)are waiting for a group
photo to be taken. The photographer arrives to take the photo. They decide to stand in a straight row and
inform the photographer to take photo by facing them. Mohan is to the left of Pawan and Sohan is to the
right of Pawan. Rohan is between Sohan and Pawan.
The code of the person who would be second from the left for the photographer is ?
Answer:1
Explanation:
Let's consider the photographer to be facing south, and Rohan, Pawan, Mohan and Sohan will be facing north.
As we can see that Rohan(1) is the second from the left for the photographer.
Take a NMAT free mock test

Instructions
Please read the following information and answer the questions.
There are 12 seats in total which are arranged as 6 in a row facing each other. Ten people have occupied the seats in
SNAP 2020
such a way that 5 are seated in each row and there is equal distance between adjacent seats. In row 1, Sadhana, David,
Lakshmi, Sonal and Anu are seated and all of them are facing south. In row 2, Lily, Suresh, Deepika, Mahesh and Arvind
are sitting and all of them are facing north. One seat is vacant in each row. In the given seating arrangement described
above, each person seated in a row faces another member of the other row or a vacant seat. Each member likes only
one activity or sport namely, kabaddi, Cricket, Baseball, Chess, Wrestling, Boating, walking, Running, Swimming and
Skating. Mahesh sits third to the right of Deepika and likes Chess. Only 2 people sit between Suresh and the vacant
seat. Suresh sits at one of the extreme end. Deepika does not like Kabbadi and Running. Suresh does not like Wrestling
and Baseball. Ann is not an immediate neighbor of Lakshmi. David likes Skating. The one who likes Baseball faces the
other one who likes Running. Vacant seat of row 1 does not face Mahesh and he does not sit at any extreme ends. The
one who likes baseball sits opposite to the one, who sits third right of the one, who sits opposite to Mahesh. Lakshmi is
not an immediate neighbor of Sonal. Arvind, who neither likes Wrestling nor Boating does not face vacant seat and sits
opposite to the person who likes Kabaddi. Deepika does not sit at extreme ends. Sonal faces Deepika. Vacant seats are
not opposite to each other. Two seats are there between Lakshmi and David. David sits third right of the one who likes
Walking. The one who likes swimming faces the one who likes chess. The person who likes kabaddi and running are
adjacent to each other. Vacant seat of the row 1 is not an immediate neighbor of Sonal. Lakshmi is located at an
extreme end.
Question 29
What sport does Lily like?
A Cricket
B Baseball
C Wrestling
D Boating
Answer: C
Explanation:
We have the following details of Row 2.
1. Mahesh sits third to the right of Deepika and likes Chess.
2. Only 2 people sit between Suresh and the vacant seat.
3. Suresh sits at one of the extreme ends.
4. The vacant seat of row 1 does not face Mahesh and he does not sit at any extreme ends.
5. Arvind, who neither likes Wrestling nor Boating does not face vacant seat and sits opposite to the person who likes
Kabaddi.
6. Deepika does not sit at extreme ends.
7. The one who likes baseball sits opposite to the one, who sits third right of the one, who sits opposite to Mahesh.
8.Vacant seats are not opposite to each other.
9.Sonal faces Deepika.
Thus we can make the following arrangement:

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Further information:
Ann is not an immediate neighbour of Lakshmi.
Lakshmi is not an immediate neighbour of Sonal.
Two seats are there between Lakshmi and David.
The vacant seat of row 1 is not an immediate neighbour of Sonal. Lakshmi is located at an extreme end.
David likes Skating.
David sits third right of the one who likes Walking.

The person who likes kabaddi and running are adjacent to each other.
The one who likes Baseball faces the other one who likes Running.
Deepika does not like Kabbadi and Running.
Suresh does not like Wrestling and Baseball.
The one who likes swimming faces the one who likes chess.
We can make the following table:
Option C
Question 30
What sport does Deepika like?
A Cricket
B Baseball
C Wrestling
D Boating
Answer: B
Explanation:
Kabaddi.

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Option B
Question 31
Who is between David and Sadhana?
A Lakshmi
B Sonal
C Anu
D Vacant Seat
Answer: D
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Explanation:
Kabaddi.


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Correct Option D
Question 32
Who among the following sits to the immediate right of the person who faces the vacant seat?
A The person who likes running
B The person who likes walking
C The person who likes boating
D The person who likes Cricket
Answer: A
Explanation:
Kabaddi.

SNAP 2020

Correct Option A
Question 33
Find the statement which is false
A Sadhana likes boating
B Mahesh likes chess
C Deepika likes baseball
D Sonal likes running

Answer: A
Explanation:
Kabaddi.

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Correct Option A
Question 34
Who face vacant seats?
A David, Lakshmi
B David, Lily
C Ann, David
D Lily, Sadhana
Answer: B
Explanation:
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Kabaddi.


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Correct Option B
Question 35
Which sports do Arvind, Suresh, Sadhana and Ann like?
A baseball, boating, swimming, kabbadi
B cricket, boating, kabbadi, swimming
C cricket, swimming, boating, kabbadi
D cricket, boating, swimming, kabbadi
Answer: D
Explanation:
Kabaddi.

SNAP 2020

Option D
Quantitative, Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency

Instructions
Question 36
1 1 1 4 −7
2 2 ×3 3
×43 4 3 3 −3
×5 5
{ 10 ×5 5 }×2 =
−1
5
÷ 4 5 ×6
A 10
B 20
C 30
D 40
Answer: B
Question 37
SNAP 2020
In the figure given below L1 ∣∣ L2 then x = ______________.
A 30
B 45
C 60
Answer: B
Question 38
If h, c, v, are the height, the curved surface area and the volume of a cone, then 3πvh2 is
A 9v2 − c2 h3
B c2 h2 − 9v2
C c2 h2 − 9v3
D c2 h2 − 16v2
Answer: B
Question 39
ABC Paints Ltd. is planning to create different combination of dyes. The research team has decided they
will be using five different green dyes, three different red dyes and four different blue dyes. How many
combinations of dyes can be created by ABC Paints Ltd., by including at least one blue and one green dye?
A 5720
B None of the option is correct
C 60
D 31
Answer: B
Explanation:
Number of green dyes = 5
Number of blue dyes = 4
Number of red dyes = 3
5 4 3
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The no of ways of choosing of at least one green and one blue is = (25 − 1) (24 − 1) 23
=31*15*8
= 3720
B is the correct answer.
Question 40
The expression (a − b)3 + (b − c)3 + (c − a)3 can be factorized as
A (a − b)(b − c)(c − a)
B 3(a − b)(b − c)(c − a)
C 3(a + b)(b − c)(c + a)
Answer: B
Explanation:
If X+ Y+Z = 0 , then X 3 + Y 3 + Z 3 = 3XY Z
Let a-b = X, b-c = Y, c-a = Z
We can see that X+Y+Z=0

so (a − b)3 + (b − c)3 + (c − a)3 = 3(a-b)(b-c)(c-a)
Question 41
1
Sonal and Meenal appear in an interview for same post having two vacancies. If 7 is Sonal's probability of
1
selection and 5 is Meenal's probability of selection then what is the probability that only one of them is
selected?
1
A 7
B 2
7
3
C 5
1
D 5
Answer: B
Explanation:
1
Probability of Sonal's selection = 7
1
Probability of Meenal's selection = 5
1 4 6 1
The probability that only one of them is selected = 7 * 5 + 7 * 5
10
= 35
2
= 7
Question 42
1
If log10 11 = a then log10 ( 110 ) is equal to
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A −a
B (1 + a)−1
1
C 10a
D −(a + 1)
Answer: D
Explanation:
1
log10 ( 110 )
loga ( y)
x
= loga x − loga y
1
log10 ( 110 ) = = log10 1 − log10 110
= 0 − log10 110
= − log10 11 × 10
= − (log10 11 + log10 10)
= -(a+1)
D is the correct answer.
Question 43
A man purchased a TV and fridge. If the price of TV is 150% of price of fridge then price of fridge is what
percentage of the total cost of TV and fridge?
A 30
B 40
C 45
D 50
Answer: B
Explanation:
Let the cost of the fridge = 100x
The price of the TV = 150x (Since the cost of TV is 150% of the cost of the fridge)
100x
The price of the fridge 100x+150x times the price of TV and fridge
The price of the fridge =40% of the price of TV and fridge
Question 44
During the placement season of a class, 21 students got shortlisted for company A, 26 got shortlisted for
Company B and 29 got shortlisted for company C and 14 students got shortlisted for both A and B, 12
students got shortlisted for A and C and 15 for both B and C. All the companies shortlisted 8 students from
the class. Then what is the ratio of number of students who got shortlisted for only B and number of
students who got shortlisted for only C?
A 1:1
B 1:2
2:3
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C
D 3:2
Answer: B
Question 45
Pune taxi services has a fixed charge plus a variable charge based on the distance covered. For travelling
10km the total fare paid by Somu is Rs.150 and for a journey of 15km the total fare paid by Ramu is
RS220. Then Tomy will pay _as the total fare for travelling a distance of 25 km.
A Rs. 350
B Rs. 380
C Rs. 360
D Rs. 400
Answer: C
Explanation:
Let the fixed charge be Rs. x and variable charge/km is Rs. y.
As per the question,
x- 10y= 150 and x+ 15y = 220
On solving both the equations, we get 5y = 220-150= 70
y = Rs. 14/km and x = Rs. 10
Charge for 25 km = x+ 25y
= 10+25*14 = Rs. 360
C is the correct answer.
Question 46
In the following diagram there are four semi circular arcs and a shaded region. The diameter of largest
semi circle is 28cm and of the smallest is 7cm. The area of shaded region is
A 98.75 π
B 120.5 π
C 105.5 π
D 110.25 π
Answer: D
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Question 47
An umbrella is made by stitching 10 triangular pieces of cloth of two different colours each piece
measuring 30cm, 60cm, 60cm. How much cloth of each colour is required for Umbrella?
A 1015 45
B 1125 15
C 1220 45
D 1235 15
Answer: B
Explanation:
a+b+c 30+60+60
s= 2 = 2 cm =75 cm
Using Heron's formula
Area=√[s(s-a)(s-b)(s-c)]
=√[75(75-60)(75-60)(75-30)]
= 225 15 cm
There are total 10 pieces
First colour=5*( 22515) = 1125 15 cm

Second colour=5*(225 15) = 1125 15 cm
Question 48
Rm
If Rc = mln (1 + m ) then Rm is equal to
Rc
A Rm = ln (1 + m)
B Rc
Rm = ln (1 + e )
R m = m (e m − 1 )
Rc
C
Answer: C
Explanation:
Rm
Rc = mln (1 + m)
Rc Rm
m = ln (1 + m)
Rm Rc
m + 1 = e m
Rm Rc
m −1
m = e
R m = m ( e m − 1)
Rc
Question 49
If a labour output function for laundry service is described by the following equation: O = (a ∘ − 4L∘ )6 ,
where L denotes Labour and O denotes output. Then, output ..........
SNAP 2020
A Increases as labor increases
B Decreases as labor increases
C Remains constant irrespective of the amount of labor
Answer: C
Explanation:
Here a 0 and L0 are both constants.
So, the output is independent of Labour.
Question 50
Assume that the taxes on petrol is 125% of the price of petrol per litre as received by the retailer minus
the taxes. If in the last week, the petrol prices per litre as received by the retailer minus the taxes was 35,
34, 35.5, 37, 37.5 and 38, the average amount of tax collected per litre of petrol is
A 45.2
B 46.1
C 44
Answer: A
Explanation:
Sum of all (Petrol price per litre - taxes) in the last week = 35+34+35.5+37+37.5+38
= 217
Taxes on petrol = 1.25 times (the price of petrol - taxes)
2.25* taxes on petrol = 1.25 times the price of petrol
The price of petrol = 1.8 times the taxes on petrol.
1.8 times the taxes on petrol - taxes on petrol = 217
0.8 times the taxes on petrol = 217

217
Taxes on petrol = 0.8 = 271.25
271.25
The average amount of tax collected = 6
= 45.2
A is the correct answer.
Question 51
Big Bang Theory cast wishes to find out the number of ways in which the word ASTRONAUT can be
scrambled. They find that the number of ways in which it can be put in an unscrambling puzzle is?
A 362880
B 181440
C 60480
D 90720
Answer: D
SNAP 2020
Explanation:
Number of letters in ASTRONAUT = 9
Here A and T are repeated twice.

9!
So the number of ways of arrangement = 2!× 2!
= 90720
Question 52
Students of an MBA school have got together to constitute a fund where each student has contributed Rs.
10000. This group of 20 students laid down certain rules for investment where it was agreed that 50
percent of the fund would be invested in riskless government securities while the rest 50 percent would be
invested in equities. At the end of the year the group realizes that the crash in the stock market has left
them with zero return on equities but 1 percent dividend gain on the shares bought. The return on the
riskless government
security has been 7.8 percent in the last year. If the gains are to be divided equally, the gain per student
is
A 2.2 percent
B 4.4 percent
C 6.6 percent
Answer: B
Explanation:
Total fund collected by 20 students = 20*10000 = 2,00,000
50
Investment in riskless government securities = 2,00,000* 100 = 100000
Investment in equities = 2,00,000 - 1,00,000 = 1,00,000

1
Gain by equities = 1,00,000* 100 = 1000
7.8
Gain by riskless government securities = 1,00,000* 100 = 7800
Total gain = 1000+7800 = 8800

8800
gain/student = 20 = 440
440
Gain% = 10000 × 100
= 4.4%

Question 53
SNAP 2020
In the figure given below, a Cylinder is inserted into a cone and the vertical height of the cone is 30 cm.
The diameter of the cylinder is 8 & radic is 3 cm. What is the volume of the cone? The base of the cylinder
and the base of the cone are on the same plane.
A 3000 πcm3
B 4860 πcm3
C 2800 πcm3
Answer: A
Question 54
Nisha went to buy three types of stationery products, each of them were priced at Rs. 5, Rs, 2 and Rs. 1
respectively. She purchased all three types of products in more than one quantity and gave Rs. 20 to the
shopkeeper. Since the shopkeeper had no change with him/her; he/she gave Nisha three more products of
price Rs. 1 each. Find out the number of products with Nisha at the end of the transaction.
A 8
B 12
C 11
D 10
Answer: D
Explanation:
Let x, y, z be the number of items purchased by Nisha of price Rs. 5, 2, 1 respectively.
5x+2y+z = 20
Since the shopkeeper had no change with him/her; he/she gave Nisha three more products of price Rs. 1 each i.e Nisha
purchased items of Rs. 17
5x+2y+z =17
She purchased all three types of products in more than one quantity,
If she purchases three items of Rs. 5, she cannot purchase 2 items of Rs 2 and 1
So Nisha purchases 2 items of Rs. 5.
If Nisha purchases 3 items of Rs 2., then she cannot purchase more than 1 item of Rs. 1.
Hence she must have purchased 2 items of Rs. 2 and 3 items of Rs. 1.
The number of items Nisha will have at the end of the transaction = 2+2+3+3(due to no change)
= 10
SNAP 2020
Question 55
If the ratio of sides of a rectangle is 2 : 7 and perimeter is 360 m, then find out its length and breadth.
A 140m, 40m
B 144m, 36m
C 160m, 20m
D 135m, 45m
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let the sides of the rectangle be 2x, 7x
It is given that the perimeter = 360m
2(2x+7x) = 360
x= 20m
Length = 7*20 = 140m, breadth = 2*20 = 40m
Question 56
If the price of Sugar increases by 20%, and Salman intends to spend only an additional 5% on Sugar, then
find out the percentage decrease in his sugar consumption.
A 5.25
B 12.5
C 11.75
D 10.25
Answer: B
Explanation:
Let the initial price and expenditure of sugar be 100p, 100e respectively.
Expenditure
Consumption = Pr ice
e
= p
The increased price of sugar = 120p
Increased expenditure on sugar = 105e

105 e
Changed consumption = 120p
e
=0.875 p
(0.875−1)
Percentage decrease in consumption = 1 *100
=12.5

Question 57
SNAP 2020
A man lends some money to his friend at 5% per annum of interest rate. After 2 years, the difference
between the Simple and the compound interest on money is Rs. 50. What will be the value of the amount
at the end of 3 years if compounded annually?
A 21325.6
B 24512.5
C 22252.7
D 23152.5
Answer: D
Explanation:
If P is the principal and r is the rate of interest, then the difference between simple interest and compound interest for 2
Pr2
years = 100 2
It is given that the difference is Rs 50 and the rate of interest is 5% per annum.
Principle P = Rs. 20000

5 3
Amount at the end of 3 years = P (1 + 100 )
5 3
= 20000 (1 + 100 )
= Rs.23152.5
Question 58
Sham is trying to solve the expression:

log tan 1∘ + log tan 2∘ + log tan 3∘ + ........ + log tan 89∘ .
The correct answer would be?
A 1
1
B 2
C 0
D -1
Answer: C
Explanation:
log tan 1∘ + log tan 2∘ + log tan 3∘ + ........ + log tan 89∘ .
= log tan 1∘ + log tan 89∘ + log tan 2∘ + log tan 88∘ ........ + log tan 45∘ .
= log (tan 10 ⋅ tan 890 ) × log (tan 20 ⋅ tan 880 ) ........................... log (tan 450 )
tan 450 = 1
log (tan 450 ) = 0

∴ log tan 1∘ + log tan 2∘ + log tan 3∘ + ........ + log tan 89∘ = 0
Question 59
Sumit was doing a multiplication, but by mistake instead of taking 25 as one of the multiplier, he took 34.
Now, because of this mistake, the answer was 405 more than the correct answer. Find out the answer that
Sumit arrived at.
SNAP 2020
A 1530
B 1450
C 1350
D 1620
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let the other multiplier be p
Instead of calculating 25*p, he calculated 34*p
It is given that because of the mistake, the answer was 405 more than the correct answer.
34p-25p=405
9p = 405
405
p= 9
Now we have to find the value of 34p

405
=34* 9
=1530
Question 60
How many different words can be formed with the word CUSTOM with a condition that the word should
begin with M?
A 720
B 540
C 120
D 180
Answer: C
Explanation:
Number of different words that can be formed using the letters of the word CUSTOM and starting with M are
M,_, _, _, _, _.
These 5 blanks have to be filled with the remaining 5 letters in 5*4*3*2*1 = 120 ways.
Question 61
The number of ways that 5 Marathi, 3 English and 3 Tamil books be arranged if the books of each language
are to be kept together is
A 25920
B 9250
C 5920
7480
SNAP 2020
D
Answer: A
Explanation:
Marathi, English and Tamil books can be arranged in 3! ways.
All the Marathi books can be arranged among themselves in 5! ways.
Similarly, the English and Tamil books can be arranged among themselves in 3! ways.
The total number of ways in which the books can be arranged = 3!*5!*3!*3!
=25920
Question 62
Excluding the halts, the speed of the bus is 50 km/ hr and including the halts it is 40 km/hr. For how many
minutes does the bus stop per hour?
A 12
B 10
C 15
D 11
Answer: A
Explanation:
Due to stoppages, the bus will cover 10 km less.
10
Time taken to cover 9 km = 50 × 60 min
=12 min
Question 63
A is able to do a piece of work in 10 days and B can do the same work in 15 days. If they can work together
for four days, what is the fraction of work left?
A 1
2
B 2
3
3
C 2
1
D 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
It is given that A can do a piece of work in 10 days and B can do the same work in 15 days.
Let the total work be LCM of (10, 15) = 30 units

30
Amount of work done by A in one day = 10 = 3 units
30
Amount of work done by B in one day = 15 = 2 units
Amount of work done by A and B together in one day = 3+2=5 units
So, together will complete 5*4 units i.e 20 of work in four days.
The amount of work left out = 30-20=10 units

10 1
10 1 SNAP 2020
The fraction of work left out = 30 = 3
Question 64
If 20% of x = y, then y% of 20 is same as
A 10% of x
B 20% of x
C 15% of x
D 4% of x
Answer: D
Explanation:
It is given 20% of x = y
x=5y
y
We have to find y% of 20 = 100 × 20
y
= 5
x
= 25
= 4% of x
Question 65
In a running race, when one runner allows another runner to stay ahead at the start of the race, then it is
termed as startup and when runners reach the finishing line at the same time, then it is termed as dead
heat. In a race of 4 km distance, Anu wins by 600m over Binu. Binu can give a startup of 200m to Caira in a
4 km race. By how much distance should Caira get startup so that the race between Anu and Caira ends in
dead heat in the same race of 4 km?
A 700m
B 750m
C 770m
D 725m
Answer: C
Explanation:
Let Anu finishes the race in t hours.
4000
Speed of Anu = t m/hour
(4000−600 )
Speed of Bhanu = t m/hour Since Anu wins the race by 600m
Time taken by Bhanu to finish the race = Time taken by Caira to cover 3800m.
4000
3400 20
Time taken by Bhanu = t = 17 t
3800
20 3230
Speed of Caira = 17t = t m.hr.
To finish the race at the same time Anu should give Caira a headstart of 4000-3230 = 770m

Question 66
SNAP 2020
Mr. Sandeep was placing an order with his carpenter to make wooden boxes to pack his cotton toys which
were to be delivered to his friend. Sandeep wanted 2 types of boxes. The larger one with a dimension of
25cm x 20cm x 5cm and the smaller box with a dimension of 15cm x 12cm x 5cm. Sandeep also told the
carpenter that 5% of total surface area is required as extra to cover the overlaps. If the cost of the wood is
Rs.4/- cmz, the cost of wood required for supplying 250 boxes of each type would be Rs. ______.
[Note:-D0 NOT include spaces in your answer)
Answer:2184000
Question 67
David is trying to solve the expression :-

(4)2 ×2 n+1 −4×2 n
(4)2 ×2 n+2 −2×2 n+2
And you help him to do the same and finally arrive at the answer with correct to one decimal which would
be -
Answer:0.5
Explanation:
(4)2 ×2 n+1 −4×2 n
(4)2 ×2 n+2 −2×2 n+2
(2)4 ×2 n+1 −2 2 ×2 n
(2)4 ×2 n+2 −2×2 n+2
(2)3 ×2 n∗2−2×2 n
(2)3 ×2 n∗2 2 −2 n∗2 2
2 3 × 2−2
2 3 ⋅2 2 −2 2
14
28
=0.5
Question 68
Mahesh has a toy which has the shape of a trapezium. The two sides which are parallel have a length of 60
cm and 77 cm and the other sides are 25 cm and 26 cm. He requests you to calculate the area and you
help him to arrive at the correct answer which is sq.cm.
[Note:- DO NOT include spaces in your answer)
Answer:1644
Question 69
Ramesh is trying to Simplify the expression

(p + q)3 − (p − q)3 − 6q(p2 − q2 ) and if q = 1-
You helped him and the solution arrived was..........
Answer:8
Explanation:
(p3 + 3p2 q + 3pq2 + q3 ) - (p3 − 3p2 q + 3pq2 − q3 ) - (6q(p2 − q2 ))
= 6p2 q + 2q3 − 6q(p2 − q2 )
= 8 q3
=8 (Since q = 1)
8 is the correct answer.

SNAP 2020
Question 70
In Roman Numerals, a number has been written as MMXVIII. In Arabic numbers it will be ............
Answer:2018
Explanation:
In Roman numerals,
The values of M = 1000, D = 500, C = 100, L=50, X = 10, V = 5, 1 = 1.
The value of MMXVIII = 1000+1000+10+5+1+1+1 = 2018
2018 is the correct answer.
General English
Instructions
Question 71
Find the odd man out
A bemuse
B reuse
C bewilder
D confuse
Answer: B
Question 72
Find the odd man out
A epicurean
B gourmet
C gastronomist
D hideous
Answer: D
Instructions
Choose the appropriate words from the options given to fill in the blanks in the given sentence.
Question 73
The young man said that he had no riches.

SNAP 2020
A desire of
B desire for
C desirous of
D desire on
Answer: B
Question 74
She kept all her in the bank locker.
A jewelery
B jewelries
C jewellery
D jwellery
Answer: C
Question 75
I wish that Harish was ill, I would have gone to see him.
A I was knowing
B I had known
C I know
D I would have known

Answer: B
Instructions
Choose the correct meaning of the following idiom:
Question 76
Mea Culpa
A I love you
B I'm capable
C I will do it
D I'm to blame
Answer: D
Question 77
SNAP 2020
Find a correct match of grammatical function with the usage of the word STILL
A 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-3
B 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
C 1-b 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
D 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
Answer: C
Question 78
Find a correct match of grammatical function with the usage of the word WELL
A 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
B 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b
C 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
D 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
Answer: A
Instructions
Question 79
Select the pair that best expresses the relationship similar to that expressed in this pair - turmoil:
confusion
A caustic : sarcastic
B metamorphosis: transformation
C assassination : murder
D chaos : disorder
Answer: D
Instructions
Directions for questions 80 and 81: Choose the correct conjunction:
SNAP 2020
Question 80
Do not eat the cake, wait your friends come.
A when
B for
C till
D as
Answer: C
Question 81
Study hard _ you will not pass the exam.
A for
B else
C then
D still
Answer: B
Instructions
Question 82
Choose the synonym of : Usurp
A Abdicate
B Capitulate
C Adjudge
D Encroach
Answer: D
Question 83
Choose the synonym of : Flagrant
A Meek
B Sweet smelling
C Blatant
D Flagship
Answer: C
SNAP 2020
Question 84
Choose the antonym of : Ostentatious
A Modest
B Pretentious
C Flamboyant
D Obtrusive
Answer: A
Question 85
Change the speech: "I have won the race!"
A He said that he had won the race
B He said that he has won the race
C He said he have won the race
D He said that the race has been won
Answer: A
Question 86
Change the speech: "Wait there till I get back please." she told the boys.
A She requested the boys to wait there till she would return
B She asked the boys to wait till I come back
C She requested the boys to wait there till she got back
D She requested the boys to wait there till she comes back
Answer: C
Instructions
: The options given below combine to form a meaningful sentence. Identify the erroneous statement from among the
options:
Question 87
1. I am fully aware that

2. my wife is one of those
3. who is totaly committed
4. to the family and its wellbeing.
A 1 is incorrect
B 2 is incorrect
3 is incorrect
SNAP 2020
C
D 4 is incorrect
Answer: C
Question 88
1. He made me to wait
2. for him, while he
3. changed his coat,
4. as it was cold.
A 1 is incorrect
B 2 is incorrect
C 3 is incorrect
D 4 is incorrect
Answer: A
Instructions
Look at the underlined part of the sentence below. The sentence is given three possible substitutes for the underlined
part. If one of them is better than the underlined part, mark that as the answer. If none of the substitutions improve the
sentence, mark no improvement as your answer.
Question 89
The winter was such severe that even water in the taps was frozen and this created a lot of inconvenience
to everyone in the family.
A severe so much
B so severe
C severe such
D no improvement
Answer: B
Question 90
The members of his family are coming in this train and I am sure that it will be a memorable trip for all of
them.
A on
B by
C with
D no improvement
Answer: B
Instructions
Question 91
SNAP 2020
Some words are given below. In which order should they be arranged to give an affirmative sentence, so
that the part of the day comes last?
AT / EVENING / AGAIN / LAST / MET / WE / HER / HOSPITAL / THE
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
(Note:— DO NOT include spaces in your answer)
Answer:657319842
Question 92
In a class, Roll No 101 states that the plural of the word CRISIS is CRISES. Roll No 102 states that the plural
is CRISISES, and Roll No 103 states that the plural is CRISIS itself. The Roll No of the student who gave the
correct answer is
[Notez- DO NOT include spaces in your answer)
Answer:101
Question 93
There are 4 boards in a business school which have displayed the meaning of the term that means "A
process in which an independent person makes an official decision that ends a legal disagreement without
the need for it to be solved in court."
Board 1: ARBITRATION
Board 2: ARBITERATION
Board 3: ARBETRATION
Board 4: ARBITATION
The board that has displayed the correct spelling of the term is Board No:
Answer:1
Question 94
In an English Test, Column A gives a word, Column B gives its past participle and Column C gives the code
of the pair as below:
Which Code should Shamu choose, if he is asked to choose the correct pair of word and its corresponding
past participle?
Answer:3
Question 95
SNAP 2020
Four friends 1, 2, 3 and 4 are arguing on who is right in stating an English proverb.
1. states that the correct proverb is "A swarm in May is worth a load of hay; a swarm in June is worth a full
moon; but a swarm in July is not worth a fly."
2. states that the proverb is "A swarm in May is worth a load of hay; a swarm in June is worth a looney
toon; but a swarm in July is not worth a fly."
3. states the proverb as "A swarm in May is worth a load of hay; a swarm in June is worth a silver spoon ;
but a swarm in July is not worth a fly."
4. states that the proverb actually is "A swarm in May is worth a load of hay; a swarm in June is worth a
golden boon; but a swarm in July is not worth a fly."
Who is correct in stating the proverb?
Answer:3
Instructions
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
ASSOCIATED PRESS
San Francisco August 13 2018
Google wants to know where you go so badly that it records your movements even when you explicitly tell it not to. An
Associated Press investigation found that many Google services on Android devices and iPhones store your location data
even if you've used privacy settings that
say they will prevent it from doing so. Computer science researchers at Princeton confirmed these findings at the AP's
request For the most part, Google is upfront about asking permission to use your location information. An app like
Google Maps will remind you to allow access to location if you use it for navigating. If you agree to let it record your
location over time, Google Maps will display that history for you in a "timeline" that maps out your daily movements.
Storing vour minute-bv—minute travels carries orivacv risks and has been used bv police to determine the location of
suspects - such as a warrant that police in North Carolina, served on Google last year to find devices near a murder
scene. So the company will let you "pause' a setting called Location History. Google says this will prevent the company
from remembering where you have been. Google’s support page on the subject states. "You can turn off Location History
at any time. With Location History off, the places you go are no longer stored”. That isn’t true. Even with Location History
paused, some Google apps automatically store time — stamped
location data Without asking. For example, Google stores a snapshot of where you are when you merely open its Maps
app. Automatic daily weather updates on Android phones pinpoint roughly where you are. And some searches that have
nothing to do with location, like “chocolate chip cookies" or "kids science kits," pinpoint your precise latitude and
longitude — accurate to the square foot and save it to the Google account. The privacy issue affects some two billion
users of devices that run Google's Android operating software and hundreds of millions of world wide iPhone users who
rely on Google for maps or search. Storing location data in violation of a user’s preferences is wrong, said Ionathon
Mayer, a Princeton computer scientist. A researcher from Mayer’s lab confirmed the AP's findings; the AP conducted its
own tests on several iPhones that found the same behaviour. “If you are going to allow users to turn off something
called ‘Location History‘, then all the places where you maintain ‘Location History' should be turned off," Mayer said.
"That seems like a pretty straightforward position to have”. Google says it is being perfectly clear. "There are a number
of different ways that Google may use location to improve people’s experience, including: Location History, Web and
App activity and through device-level Location Services" a Google spokesperson said. "We provide clear descriptions of
these tools, and robust controls, so people can turn them on and off, and delete their histories at any time." To stop
Google from saving these location markers, the company says, users can turn off another setting, one that does not
specifically reference location information. Called "Web and App activity" and enabled by default, that setting stores a
variety of information from Google apps and websites to your Google account. When paused, it will prevent activity on
any device from being saved to your account But leaving "Web and App activity” on and turning "Location History" off
only prevents Google from adding your movements to the "timeline", its visualization of your daily travels. It does not
stop Google’s collection of other location markers.
Question 96
For the most part, Google is upfront about asking permission to use your location
information. This sentence means:
A Google is not secretive about recording your movements

Google is tracking your movements even if you don't want it to
SNAP 2020
B
C Google is quite candid about asking you to allow it to show you where you are located
Answer: C
Question 97
When the author says : ‘That isn't true' to Google's claim that "you can turn off Location History at any
time....and the places you go are no longer stored" ...he means
Altnougn boogie aec1ares that the places are no longer stored, they automatically store time stamped location data
A
without asking.
B Google asks permission every time it stores data
C Google tracks your movements and tells you about it
D The author is paranoid.
Answer: A
Question 98
How many users does the privacy issue affect?
A Half the world population
B Two billion users and hundreds of millions of iPhone users
C Data not available
D Everyone who owns a phone
Answer: B
Question 99
What does the author mean when he says: ‘It does not stop Google’s collection of other location markers?
A Google only informs you of your location
B If Location history is off, Google does not collect the location markers
C If you leave 'Web and App Activity‘ on and turn ‘Location History’ off, Google can still collect the location markers
Answer: C
Question 100
An appropriate title to this passage would be:
A Android iPhones and Google
B Google snapshot
SNAP 2020
Google tracks you, with or without your permission
C
D Smart phones are a boon
Answer: C
Instructions
Frederic Bastiat, who was that rarest of creatures, a French free-market economist, wrote to this newspaper in 1846 to
express a noble and romantic hope: ”May all the nations soon throw down the barriers which separate them." Those
words were echoed 125 years later by the call of John Lennon, who was not an economist but a rather successful global
capitalist, to "imagine there's no countries”. As he said in his 1971 song. it isn't hard to do. But despite the spectacular
rise in living standards that has occurred as barriers between nations have fallen, and despite
the resulting escape from poverty by hundreds of millions of people in those places that have joined the world economy,
it is still hard to convince publics and politicians of the merits of openness. Now, once again, a queue is forming to
denounce openness—ie, globalisation. It is
putting at risk the next big advance in trade liberalisation and the next big reduction in poverty in the developing
countries. The world will find out, to some extent, next month when ministers from the 148 countries in the WTO meet in
Hong Kong. The last time they gathered for such a
crucial meeting was in September 2003 in Cancun, and the result was a shambles. There was a bitter row between rich
countries and poor ones, and the meeting broke up in acrimony. At that stage, however, there was still plenty of time to
repair the damage. For in effect, the deadline for
the Doha round comes in june 2007, when the trade-negotiating authority granted by Congress to President Bush
expires. But, although that leaves more than a year and a half after Hong Kong, the complexity of a negotiation
involving 148 countries and scores of highly technical issues means that the deal really needs to be done during 2006,
with the political framework for it set early on—which essentially means in Hong Kong. The case for selfish generosity
Trade- liberalisation rounds are arcane affairs about which free-traders are often thought to cry wolf. The previous talks,
known as the Uruguay round, went through lots of brinkmanship and delays before they were completed. The result was
still disappointing in many ways, especially to developing countries, and yet, since the round's completion in 1993, the
world economy has grown lustily and the biggest developing countries, China, India and Brazil, have all burst on to the
global trading scene. Would the world really be hurt if the EU merely refuses to expose its farmers to more competition?
The likeliest outcome both from the Hong Kong meeting and the eventual Doha agreement is a compromise—as always.
The European position is feeble but not risible, for it has offered an overall average cut in its farm tariffs of 39%, up from
25% only a month ago, though with rather a lot of loopholes that could severely limit the benefits. France, and other
European farm protectionists, may prove more flexible than they currently imply: this is hardly the first time they have
promised to man the barricades shortly before striking a deal. Yet though some sort of fudge in Hong Kong must be
likely, with the Americans lowering their ambition and the Europeans raising theirs a little, such an outcome would still
represent both a missed opportunity and a risk. The missed opportunity is that Doha has offered the first proper chance
to involve developing countries in trade negotiations—they now make up two- thirds of the WTO members—but also
thereby to use a full exchange of agricultural, industrial and service liberalisations to make a big advance in free trade
that could benefit a wide range of countries. Some of that progress may still be made, even in a fudged deal: Brazil, for
example, stands to benefit hugely from freer trade in agriculture, so it should be willing to promote other concessions in
return. India is reluctant to cut its own farm tariffs but has a big interest in liberalising trade in services, wanting more
freedom in everything from finance to health care to entertainment But if the rich world could gird itself to be more
ambitious on agriculture, the gains would be even greater: help for the poorest countries, making the rich look
generous; better access to the biggest and richest developing countries for western companies; and a rise in global
income in a decade's time of $300 billion a year (says the World Bank), which would thus help everyone. The risk is that
failure to agree on a new wave of openness during a period [the past two years) in which the world economy has been
growing at its fastest for three decades, with more countries sharing in that grth than ever before, will set a sour
political note for what may well be tougher times ahead. A turn away from trade liberalisation just ahead of an American
recession, say, or a Chinese economic slowdown, could open up a chance not just for a slowdown in progress but for a
rollback Currently, for example, the Schumer bill to put a penal tariff on Chinese goods looks unlikely to pass. If
American unemployment were
rising and world trade talks had turned acrimonious, that might change. So might the political wind in many developing
countries. If so, that would be a tragedy for the whole world. Although the case for reducing poverty by sending more aid
to the poorest countries has some merit, the
experience of China, South Korea, Chile and India shows that the much better and more powerful way to deal with
poverty is to use the solution that worked in the past in America, western Europe and japan: open, trading economies,
exploiting the full infrastructure of capitalism (including financial services) amid a rule of law provided by government In
other words, globalisation. To paraphrase Samuel johnson, anyone who is tired of that, is tired of life.
Question 101
SNAP 2020
According to the article, why is Frederic Bastiat called the "rarest of creatures"?
A Because he was a German industrialist
B Because he was a French who promoted a free market economy
C Because he wrote to a newspaper
D Because he was a friend of john Lennon
Answer: B
Question 102
Who was John Lennon?
A A writer
B An economist
C A singer
D An industrialist
Answer: C
Question 103
According to the article, the better way to deal with poverty is:
A By giving more aid to poor countries
B By reducing interest rates
C By moving away from democracy

D By exploiting the full infrastructure of capitalism
Answer: D
Question 104
"Trade-liberalisation rounds are arcane affairs". The adjective arcane means:
A Well known
B International
C lncomprehensible
D Transparent
Answer: C
Question 105
As per the article, India’s position with respect to the talks is:
SNAP 2020
A Reduced taxes for agriculture and liberalisation for manufacturing sector
B Reduced taxes for agriculture and liberalisation for services sector
C Higher tariff for agriculture and liberalisation for manufacturing sector
D Higher tariff for agriculture and liberalisation for services sector
Answer: D
General knowledge
Instructions
Question 106
The Statue of Unity, built as a tribute to the first was inaugurated on Oct 31, 2018.
A Deputy Prime Minister of India
B Deputy Chief Minister of Gujarat
C President of India
D Vice President of India
Answer: A
Question 107
In August 2018, Intel was overtaken by as the world's largest chipmaker, has made a major move into the
autonomous driving space, with its acquisition of Israeli visual sensor company Mobileye.
A Google
B Samsung
C AMD
D Qualcomm
Answer: B
Question 108
In 2017, Facebook acquired the video editing technology company named
A Fayteq
B BenQ
C Instagram
D Survival Vision
Answer: A
SNAP 2020
Question 109
In October 2018, , the ex-director of Amazon joined as a Chief Technology and Product Officer (CTPO) for
Chqbookcom., the Gurgaon based financial technology startup.
A Sachin Arora
B Prakash Malhotra
C Rohit Bansal
D Suresh Wadhwani
Answer: A
Question 110
Recently the of the RBI Act came into spotlight amid the war between the Central government and the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The provision in the RBI Act empowers the government to issue directions to
the RBI.
A Section 8
B Section 7
C Section 9
D Section 10
Answer: B
Question 111
The Prime Minister of India, on September 23, 2018, rolled out the , touted as the world's largest
healthcare scheme. The insurance scheme provides an annual health cover of Rs 5 lakhs per family for
secondary and tertiary care hospitalization.
A Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Ian Aarogya Yojana
B Ayushman Desh - Pradhan Mantri Ian Aarogya Yojana
C Ayushman jeevan - Pradhan Mantri Ian Aarogya Yojana
D Ayushman Parivar - Pradhan Mantri Ian Aarogya Yojana
Answer: A
Question 112
Recently, Tata Motor's, first SUV built on Land Rover's D8 architecture was developed in collabration with
jaguar Land Rover. It is called
A Tata Harrier
B Tata Sierra
C Tata Hexa
D Tata Crux
Answer: A
SNAP 2020
Question 113
In September 2018, and were all set to acquire Aditya Birla Groups Food and grocery retail chain, even as
investment bank exited the consortium.
A Samara Capital, Amazon, Goldman Sachs
B Samara Capital, Alibabamazon, Barclays
C Soft Bank, Amazon, JP Morgan
D Softbank, Amazon, DeutscheBank
Answer: A
Question 114
The world's first holographic screen phone has a holographic screen that produces 3-D visuals without
needing special glasses.
A Hydrogen One
B Nitrogen One
C Carbon One
D Oxygen One
Answer: A
Question 115
Almost six months after chief economic advisor Arvind Subramanian left the finance ministry, the
government has recently appointed to the post.
A Krishnamurthy Subramanian
B Krishnan Subramanian
C Krishnakumar Subramanian
D Shaktikanta Das
Answer: A
Question 116
Assembly Polls were held in between November 2018 to December 2018.
A Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Chattisgarh, Mizoram and Telangana only
B Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Chattisgarh and Mizoram only
C Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Chattisgarh only
D Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Chattisgarh and Telangana only

Answer: A
SNAP 2020
Question 117
The Political party floated by the actor turned politician Kamal Haasan is
A Makkal Needhi Maiam
B Makkal Munnetra Maiam
C Makkal Munnetra Kazhagam
D Makkal Kazhagam
Answer: A
Question 118
In lune 2018, was appointed MD and CEO of IDBI Bank in place of who took
charge as Deputy Governer of Reserve Bank of India.
A B Sriram, Mahesh Kumar Iain
B R Raghuram, Vinnnet Kumar Iain
C D Shriram, Rahul Kumar Iain
D K Sridharan, Shyam Kumar Iain
Answer: A
Question 119
In October 2018, received the Champions of the Earth, a top United Nations honour that recognises
contribution in the field of environment and environment protection.
A Shri Narendra Modi
B Shri James Hansen
C Shri Bill McKibben
D Smt. Vandana Shiva
Answer: A
Question 120
In September 2018, was appointed as the Vice Chairman of the University Grants
Commission.
A Prof. Satish Chandra
B Prof. B. Ramachandra Rao
C Prof. Rais Ahmed
D Prof. Bhushan Patwardhan
Answer: D
Question 121
SNAP 2020
In December 2017, bought Foodpanda India from its German parent Delivery
in a stock deal pegged at about $30 Million, entering a resurgent food-delivery market that has matured
and become more competitive.
A 01a, Hero
B Swiggy, Siemens
C Zomato, BOSCH
D Uber, Volkswagen
Answer: A
Question 122
In October 2018, Dish TV— India's first and largest direct-to-home (DTH) company, signed up as its brand
ambassador as it is planning to woo the younger audience with its largest brand campaign.
A Ranveer Singh
B Sharukh Khan
C Ayshman Khurana
D Tiger Shroff
Answer: A
Question 123
Who is the person shown in the picture below who won the Ramon Magsaysay Award 2018?
A Sonam Wangchuk
B Tenziz Ragbay
C Rinzin Wangmo
D Namgutzbhutia Dorji
Answer: A
Question 124
The Nobel Peace Prize 2018 was awared jointly to and for their efforts to end
the use of sexual violence as a weapon of war and armed conflict;
A Denis Mukwege, Naida Murad

Denis Margo, Naida Moralis
SNAP 2020
B
C Denis Gurang, Nadia Posche
D Denis Levis, Naida ]ohnes
Answer: A
Question 125
From the beginning of 2018 which of these sectors has been allowed for automatic hundred per cent
foreign direct investment (FDI) in India?
A Multi Brand Retailing
B Defence Manufacturing
C Banking
D Single Brand Retailing
Answer: D
Question 126
The 2018 Asian Games were held in how many cities of Indonesia?
Answer:2
Question 127
The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmer Welfare launched the Krishi Kalyan Abhiyan from the _th month of
2018 which could lead and advise farmers on the means to improve their farming techniques.
Answer:6
Question 128
What was the rank of India in 2018 United Nation World Happiness Index Report?
Answer:133
Question 129
.......... was the number of seats won by the party who got majority in Chhatisgarh in recent 2018 Vidhan
Sabha elections.
(Note:-DO NOT include spaces in your answer)
Answer:68
SNAP 2015
General Awareness
Instructions
Question 1
The full form of CSIRO is
A Comprehensive Scientific and Industrial Research Organization
B Cross-cultural Scientific and Industrial Research Organization
C Commonwealth Scientific and Industrial Research Organization
D Council of Scientific and Industrial Research Organization
Answer: C
Question 2
The full form of UNRISD is
A United Nations Research Institute for Soviet Development
B United Nations Research Institute for Scientific Development
C United Nations Research Institute for Socio-economic Development
D United Nations Research Institute for Social Development
Answer: D
Question 3
Bhaona is a presentation of the Ankia Naat of Assam. In Bhaona the cultural glimpses of __________ is/ are
reflected.
A Assam and Orissa
B Bengal
C Mathura and Brindavan
D All of the above
Answer: D
Question 4
Under which Act does the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) protect monuments, sites and remains of
national importance ?
A AMASR Act, 1958
B AMASR Act, 1968
C AMASR Act, 1978
D AMASR Act, 1948

Answer: A
SNAP 2015
Question 5
In 2015 the President of India approved conferment of Padma Awards to all of the following but for
_________
A Kharag Singh Valdiya
B Mohammad Yusuf Khan
C Lakshmi Gopala Naidu
D Saichiro Misumi
Answer: C
Question 6
In Grammy Awards 2015 the best folk album was won by _______
A Pharrell Williams - "Happy"
B Old Crow Medicine Show - Remedy
C Rosanne Cash - The River & the Thread
D None of the above
Answer: B
Question 7
Scientists discovered a new species in the human family tree which is a small creature with a tiny brain.
The new species has been named as ______
A Homo Naledi
B Dwarf Sapein
C Dwarf Homo Sapein
D None of the above
Answer: A
Question 8
The ministry of external affairs has recently decided to change the nomenclature of Indian Based
Domestic Assistance (IBDA) to ___________
A Government Serving Based Domestic Assistance (GSBDA)
B Swadesh Swatcha Domestic Assistance (SSDA)
C Service Staff (SS)

Bharath Based Service Assistance (BBSA)
SNAP 2015
D
Answer: C
Question 9
The foreign exchange reserve of India consists of _________
A The foreign currency assets held by RBI and the gold holding of RBI
B The gold holding of RBI and special drawing rights
C The gold holding of RBI, the foreign currency assets held by RBI and special drawing rights
D Only the foreign currency assets held by RBI
Answer: C
Question 10
_________ is a charge for converting bullion into coins where free coinage is permitted. This charge is equal
to the cost of bullion to coins transformation.
A Bull-Coin
B Brassage
C Bit Coin
D Coin Levy
Answer: C
Question 11
Microsoft introduced several new products for education customers, this includes a notetaking app called
________
A Office Note classroom
B Micro Note class Notebook
C Soft note for classroom
D One Note class Notebook
Answer: D
Question 12
The National Merit Scholarship Scheme, which provided financial assistance to meritorious students
from Class XI to Post- Graduation level in Government Schools/Colleges/Universities has been
discontinued from the year _________
A 2009
B 2008
C 2007
None of the above
SNAP 2015
D
Answer: C
Question 13
The Symbol used for reusable microwaveable plastic ware is ________
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
Answer: B
Question 14
The agency that estimates national income in India is
A RBI
B Central Statistics Organisation
C Planning commission
D Central Statistic Organisation
Answer: B
Question 15
Super Blood Moon, which is a rare astronomical phenomenon hasn't happened since ___________, and won't
happen again until __________
A 1982 , 2033
B 1980 , 2035
C 1978 , 2032
D 1975 , 2031
Answer: A
Question 16
The galaxy __________ was initially discovered with NASA's Spitzer Space Telescope in infrared light and is
believed to be at least 9 billion years old.
A ANDROMEDA
B COSMOS REDSHIFT
SAGE0536AGN
SNAP 2015
C
D SUNFLOWER
Answer: C
Question 17
In the year 2014 Facebook bought Whatsapp for _________ US Dollars.
A 17 billion
B 18 billion
C 19 billion
D 20 billion
Answer: C
Question 18
Shri Narendra Modi was sworn in as the Prime Minister of India on _________ at the Rashtrapati Bhavan in
New Delhi.
A 25th May 2014
B 19th May 2014
C 26th May 2014
D 27th May 2014

Answer: C
Question 19
Where is the doldrums belt located ?
A Near the Equator
B Near the Poles
C Near the Tropic of Cancer
D Near the Tropic of Capricorn
Answer: A
Question 20
The air quality in Singapore deteriorated to a hazardous level in September 2015, forcing the city-state
to shut its schools for the first time in 12 years. This was due to
A Haze created mainly due to companies in Malaysia

Haze created mainly due to companies in Indonesia
SNAP 2015
B
C Haze created mainly due to companies in Philippines
D Haze created mainly due to companies in Vietnam
Answer: A
Question 21
In 1347 during the reign of Muhammed Tuglak an Afghan officer named ____________setup an independent
kingdom called Bahmani Kingdom.
A Mahmud Gawan Bahmani
B Mohammad Yusuf Bahmani
C Hasan Gangu Bahmani
D Khwaja Tuglak Bahmani
Answer: C
Question 22
The task of consolidating Mughal Kingdom was left to Akbar who was only _________ years old at the time
of his accession of the throne.
A Eleven Years
B Twell Years
C Thirteen Years
D Fourteen Years
Answer: C
Question 23
Smoking in public places was prohibited nationwide from ________
A 15th August 2008
B 2nd October 2008
C 15th August 2009
D 2nd October 2009
Answer: B
Question 24
A constitutional right can be ________ recognized and established by a sovereign State or union of States.
A a prerogative or a duty or a restraint of power
B a prerogative or a duty, a power or a restraint of power

a prerogative or a duty, a power but not a restraint of power
SNAP 2015
C
D a power but not a prerogative or a duty
Answer: C
Question 25
In Nepal the festival of lights i.e. Diwali is celebrated by some Buddhists as _______
A Tihar
B Swanti
C Both options a and b
D Neither of the options above
Answer: C
Question 26
The term "Vrajapati" used in Indian Mythology denoted _______
A The Head of the Village
B The Head of the Family
C The Head of a Society
D The Head of a City
Answer: A
Question 27
One of India's most distinguished constitutional lawyers who had received brickbats for arguing in favor
of Dow Chemicals in the Bhopal gas disaster case is _________
A Ram Jethmalai
B Fali Nariman
C Mukul Rohatgi
D Pramila Nesargi
Answer: B
Question 28
The Nobel Peace Prize winner who gave up .freedom and a life with her family in Britain, to protest
against the military rule at another country, who is also the Chair of the National League for democracy
is ___________
A Angela Merkel
B Christine Lagarde
C Brito Polman
Aung San Suu Kyi
SNAP 2015
D
Answer: D
Question 29
In September 2015 it was revealed that is the country which was exporting drone components worth
hundreds of millions to countries that include Saudi Arabia and South Korea, to regain lost ground in a
global arms race.
A France
B United Kingdom
C Japan
D USA
Answer: B
Question 30
In the Indian general assembly elections 2014 the BJP-led NDA won __________________seats out of________
Lok Sabha seats that were announced
A 335546
B 334545
C 336543
D 331544
Answer: C
Question 31
The BS EN 16001 solutions from BSI is applicable for
A Energy Management Systems
B Environment Management Systems
C Energy Process Systems
D Environment Standard Systems
Answer: A
Question 32
The WEEE (Waste from Electrical and Electronic Equipment) is a directive that controls ______
A how electric and electronic equipment is handled and recycled
B how electric and electronic equipment is manufactured and handled

how electric and electronic equipment is recycled
SNAP 2015
C
D how electric and electronic equipment is manufactured, handled and recycled
Answer: C
Question 33
The Sensex and Nifty are both indices. The base years for the BSE Sensex and Nifty are_________ and
__________ respectively.
A 1980-81 and 1990
B 1990-91 and 2000
C 1978-79 and 1995
D 2000-01 and 2004
Answer: C
Question 34
The artist who painted Irises, Sunflowers, Red Poppies, Pink Roses was _________
A Vincent van Gogh
B Sandro Botticelli
C Leonardo da Vinci
D Michelangelo
Answer: A
Question 35
Which Indian satellite was launched that has a fantastic timing and records 1000th of a second ?
A GSAT - 16
B IRNSS - ID
C GSAT - 6
D Astrosat
Answer: C
Question 36
W3C stands for __________
A Triple Web Consortium
B Triple Web Consolidation Council
C World Wide Web Consortium
D World Wide Web Company

Answer: C
SNAP 2015
Question 37
The country/countries that has/have resorted to Quantitative easing in the last decade is/are
A United States of America
B United Kingdom
C Japan
D All of the above
Answer: D
Question 38
Who is the Indian badminton player who after spending an year after his shoulder injury earned a final
appearance at the Korean Open in 2015 ?
A Chetan Anand
B AjayJayaram
C Parupalli Kashyap
D Sameer Verma
Answer: B
Question 39
Tamaasha, the traditional folk theatre form of Maharashtra has evolved from the folk forms of
A Gondhal, Jagran and Kirtan
B Only Kirtan
C Only Gondhal, Jagran
D Only Gondhal
Answer: A
Question 40
The last series of wall painting in India are from near Hindupur belonging to 16th century A.D.
A Lepakshi temple
B Shiva temple
C Sri Venkateswara Swami Temple
D Ganesh Temple
Answer: A
SNAP 2015
Reasoning
Instructions
Question 41
A bungalow has one of its room located on the first floor and there are three identical 100 watt electrical
bulbs fixed in the room. Each bulb is connected to a specific switch located at the basement. There are
only three switches in the basement. All the bulbs are switched off at present and you are also at the
basement area. The first floor cannot be seen from the basement area. If you are allowed to use your
common prudence, what is the minimum number of times that you will have to go from basement to first
floor to identify which switch goes to which bulb?
A 3 times
B 20 times
C 1 time
D 6 times
Answer: C
Question 42
Shyam is running a start-up. His initial investments are high and he is trying hard to manage and
increase his cash flow. The sundry expenses that his firm incurs is negligible. He found from his
accountant that the amount of pre-paid expenses in the balance sheet,
which were booked from the previous year to the current year was increased. Shyam also ensured that
his cash funded by the venture capitalists did not reduce when compared to the previous year. The
interest that he gets from his fixed deposits increases, which is in tune with his sundry expenses. The
final effect on cash for this year would be _____________.
A Cash flow marginally increases
B Cash flow exponentially increases
C Cash flow remains the same
D None of the above
Answer: D
Question 43
A producer of a drama theatre is creating his weekend schedule. The producer has six plays to choose
from: "Made in India", "Laugh for a while", "The Life is your choice", "MBA - Maha Budhiman Aadmi",
"Placements -my goal", "MBA Go Getters". The producer sets a schedule based upon the following
criteria.
I. "Made in India" must be shown before "The Life is your choice" and "Laugh for a while"
II. "Laugh for a while" must be shown before "MBA - Maha Budhiman Aadmi"
III. "Placements - my goal" must be shown after "The Life is your choice" and "MBA Go Getters"
Which of the following weekend schedules are consistent with the producer's criteria ?
SNAP 2015
A Made in India, Laugh for a while, The Life is your choice, MBA - Maha Budhiman Aadmi, Placements - my goal and
MBA Go Getters.
MBA Go Getters, Made in India, Laugh for a while, The Life is your choice, Placements - my goal and MBA - Maha
B
Budhiman Aadmi.
Made in India, MBA Go Getters, Placements - my goal, Laugh for a while, MBA - Maha Budhiman Aadmi and The
C
Life is your choice.
Made in India, MBA Go Getters, MBA - Maha Budhiman Aadmi, The Life is your choice, Placements - my goal and
D
Laugh for a while
Answer: B
Question 44
Mr. Peter gave his eldest son David a bag with 1000 gold coins. David took 230 gold coins from the bag
and gave the rest to his younger brothers John, Joe and Jonathan, and advised them to distribute the
balance left in the bag amongst themselves in proportion to their age which together amounted to 17.5
years. After a lot of deliberation and discussion John, Joe and Jonathan came to a conclusion to distribute
the gold coins. Their methodology was as follows: As often John took 4 gold coins, Joe took 3. As often
John took 6 gold coins Jonathan took 7. What was the age of John, Joe and Jonathan ?
A 6 years, 4.5 years and 7 years respectively
B 5 years, 5.5 years and 7 years respectively
C 6 years, 5 years and 6.5 years respectively
D 5 years, 6.5 years and 6 years respectively
Answer: A
Question 45
Mohan has an antique clock which strikes and makes loud gong sound every hour. It strikes the exact
number of times indicating the time of the day or night. His clock takes seven seconds to strike Seven O'
clock, how many seconds will his clock take to strike Eleven O'clock?
A 11.22222227 seconds
B 11 seconds
C 11.66666667 seconds.
D None of the above
Answer: C
Question 46
Find the missing number : 2, 6, 20, 42, 110 __________
A 126
B 156
C 176
196
SNAP 2015
D
Answer: B
Question 47
Fifteen years back, Ms. Kalpana had three sons Ramesh, Suresh and Rajesh. The sum of the age of
Ramesh, Suresh and Rajesh was equal to half of the age of their mother. It was during the next five
years when Mahesh was born. Then the age of Ms. Kalpana was equal to the sum of the ages of all her
children. Time went on and years passed and Dinesh was bom and age of Ramesh equaled the sum of the
ages of Rajesh and Mahesh. Now, it so happened that the sum of the ages of Ramesh, Suresh, Rajesh,
Mahesh and Dinesh was double the age of their mother and was also equal to the sum of the ages of
Suresh and Ramesh. Also Ramesh's age was equal to sum of the ages of Mahesh and Dinesh. What is the
age of Ms. Kalpana?
A 39 years
B 42 years
C 41 years
D none of the above
Answer: C
Question 48
Find the missing number: -1, 0, 0, ____, 8
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
Answer: B
Question 49
Ceiling Fan : Table Fan :: abcdefg :
A abcdefg
B abcdgfe
C gfedcba
D None of these
Answer: C
Instructions
There is a statement followed by two arguments. Choose the correct option which gives the decision on the
arguments, which is derived from the statement.
Question 50
SNAP 2015
Given Statement: The new amendment of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) in India refers to bringing
an overall positive impact on the communities, cultures, societies and environments. The fundamentals
of CSR rest on the fact that not only public policy but even corporate should be responsible enough to
address social issues.
Argument I: Government should not enforce companies to take up CSR.

Argument II: Companies moral responsibility is to take up CSR for a long run benefit.
A Argument II is correct but Argument I is wrong
B Argument I is correct but Argument II is wrong
C Both the arguments are false
D Both the arguments are correct
Answer: A
Question 51
LPG subsidy is a stand taken by the government. Linking of Aadhar card to a bank account has been
made mandatory for receiving the subsidy.
Argument I: All people should give up LPG subsidies.
Argument II: To fill the gap between poor and rich.
A Argument II is the output of Argument I
B Argument I is a byproduct of Argument II
C Argument I and Argument II are complementing to each other
D No logical link between Argument I and Argument II
Answer: D
Instructions
Question 52
If CAB is coded as 723 - 5 58 in a coded language then how will DAD be coded ?
A 4023 -5 4023
B 4090 -5 4090
C 1024 -5 1024
D 1246 -5 1189
Answer: B
Question 53
If MONEY is coded as 144 200 171 0 600 then DOLLAR is coded as ________
A - 9 200 199 119 - 24 299

- 8 200 106 106 - 20 200
SNAP 2015
B
C 122 200 102 102 10 154
D 120 200 101 101 08 156
Answer: A
Question 54
There are 100 MBA aspirants in a classroom and 99% of them are engineers. How many engineers must
leave the classroom in order to reduce the percentage of engineers in the classroom to 98% ?
A 1
B 2
C 50
D 90
Answer: C
Question 55
Vikas was showing a photograph to his friend and pointed to a boy and told the following statement "His
name is Atul and his maternal grandfather's brother is my maternal grandfather's sister's son." How is
Atul related to Vikas ?
A They are brothers
B Vikas is the uncle of Atul
C They are distant cousins
D None of the above
Answer: B
Question 56
There was a party organized and the following members attended the party : Sheela, Amruta, Rohit,
Rahul, Ajey, Ranveer and Gauri. Sheela is mother-in-law of Amruta, who is sister-in-law of Rohit. Rahul is
the father of Ajey. Ajey is the brother of Rohit. Ranveer is the only brother of Rahul and the father-in-law
of Gauri. Gauri was married to Rohit. How is Sheela related to Ranveer ?
A cousin
B mother
C sister
D none of the above
Answer: D
Instructions
sing the information given below answer the questions:
SNAP 2015
A chef is trying a recipe for a tasty ice cream using four ingredients. He can choose from three liquids for taste which
are labeled A, B and C which are stable in nature and the choice for flavor can be from four liquids which are labeled
W, X, Y and Z. For the new ice cream recipe to be tasty, there must be two liquids from the taste giving liquids. Also
certain liquids cannot be mixed because of their reactions which makes it unhealthy for human consumption and the
same is given below B cannot be mixed with W C cannot be mixed with Y Y cannot be mixed with Z
Question 57
If the chef calculated that Y is the most important flavor and must be used in the recipe, which other
ingredients must be part of the recipe ?
A A, B and W
B A, B and X
C A, B and Z
D B, C and X
Answer: B
Question 58
'If the chef rejected B because of its possible side effects but decided to use Z, which is a possible
combination of the four ingredients in the recipe ?
A A, C, W and Z
B A, X, Y and Z
C A, W, X and Z
D A, C, Y and Z
Answer: A
Question 59
Which of the following combination of liquids is impossible ?

I. Using Y and W together
II. Using B and C together
III. Using W, X and Z together
A I only
B II only
C III and I only
D II and I only
Answer: C
Question 60
Which of the following must always be true ?

I. If C is used W must be added
II. If Y is used B must be added
III. If C is not used W cannot be added
SNAP 2015
A I and II only
B II and III only
C I, II and III only
D II only
Answer: B
Instructions
Question 61
Which letter from the options given will replace the " ? " in the table given below
A MAN
B GIFT
C PAN
D SOFT
Answer: B
Question 62
Which word from the given options will replace the “?” in the table given below
A MALEVOLENCE
B JOIN
C LINK
D DRIP
Answer: D
Question 63
Which word from the given options will replace the " ? " in the table given below
SNAP 2015
A 48
B 168
C 64
D 132
Answer: D
Question 64
What is the least number of straight lines needed to draw the following diagram?
A 39
B 40
C 42
D none of the above
Answer: A
Question 65
SNAP 2015
Answer the following by referring to the image.
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
Answer: C
Instructions
Based on the information given below answer the questions:
Ten friends Matt, Sam, Pat, Tom, Sid, Alex, Kat, Jim, Jane and John are having dinner on a rectangular table. Eight
facing each other along the length of the table while two facing each other along the smaller side of the table. Pat is
sitting diagonally opposite to Kat, Alex is facing Jim, John is to the right of Jane, Tom is sitting between Sam and Jim,
Pat is to the extreme left of Jane who is sitting on the extreme right along the length of the table. Sid is facing Tom and
Matt is on the right of Sam.
Question 66
Who do you think is sitting in front of each other along the small sides of the table ?
A Matt and John
B Matt and Sam
C Matt and Kat

John and Sam
SNAP 2015
D
Answer: A
Question 67
Sid is sitting between which of the following two ?
A Sam and Kat
B Pat and Alex
C Alex and Jane
D Kat and Jane
Answer: B
Question 68
Who are sitting diagonally opposite to each other ?
A Sid and Tom
B Sam and Jane
C Alex and Jim
D Jane and Kat
Answer: B
Question 69
Who is sitting to the immediate right of Jim
A Sam
B Jane I
C Alex
D Tom
Answer: D
Question 70
Who is sitting two places left to Jane ?
A Pat
B Alex
C Sid
D Sam
Answer: C
SNAP 2015
General English
Instructions
Question 71
"To catch a tartar" means ___________
A To trap wanted criminal with great difficulty
B To catch a-dangerous person
C To catch a person who is more than one's match
D To meet with disaster
Answer: B
Question 72
A leopard can't change its ____________
A dots
B stripes
C color
D none of the above
Answer: D
Question 73
"So sober sometimes serious Sam smiles on silly things" is a /an _______.
A hyperbole
B assonance
C anaphora
D alliteration
Answer: A
Question 74
"The strength given by my mother is bigger than the cosmic energy in this cosmos" is ___________
A rhyme
B metaphor
C personification
hyperbole
SNAP 2015
D
Answer: B
Question 75
The buzzing of bees is an example of __________
A simile
B metonymy
C onomatopoeia
D paradox
Answer: C
Question 76
The word CACTI is of Latin origin. It can also be replaced by ___________
A cactus
B cats
C cactuses
D cactusas
Answer: A
Question 77
The word TROUSSEAUX is of French origin. It can also be replaced by ______
A Troussers
B Trousseaus
C Troussears
D None of the above
Answer: D
Question 78
The singular of the word SCARVES is spelt as _________
A scarve
B scarfe
C scarv
D none of the above
Answer: D
SNAP 2015
Question 79
The "Drawing Pins" in British English is referred to as __________ in American English.
A thumb pins
B board pins
C broad pins
D thumbtacks
Answer: A
Question 80
"Aubergine" in Britain is referred to as in United States of America.
A Migraine
B eggplant
C margarine
D egg
Answer: B
Question 81
Base ball in American English is commonly referred to as ___________ in British English.
A run ball
B strike ball
C rounders ball
D rounders
Answer: D
Question 82
Complete the collocation words __________ weapon
A nuclear
B atomic
C molecular
D electronic
Answer: A
Question 83
SNAP 2015
Complete the collocation words Seminal __________
A news
B river
C nuance
D research
Answer: D
Question 84
Complete the collocation words _________ Percentage
A huge
B big
C more
D large
Answer: D
Question 85
The idiom "Against the clock" means
A Break the Rules
B Rushed and short on time.
C Go back to the Past
D Look at the Past
Answer: B
Question 86
The idiom "Buy a lemon" means ___________
A A superstitious way to say 'good luck'
B A lie which is propaganda for people to believe
C An unbelievable story which is told for people to believe
D To purchase a vehicle that constantly gives problems or stops running after you drive it away.
Answer: A
Question 87
SNAP 2015
Kedar uses the following sentence to introduce himself. Choose the correct option.
A Myself Kedar, I belong to Mumbai
B Myself Kedar and I am from Mumbai
C Myself Kedar from Mumbai
D None of the above
Answer: D
Question 88
Ram uses the following sentence to tell the time of the day to Shyam. Which one is the correct sentence ?
A It is 2 pm in the afternoon
B It is 2 pm
C It is 2 pm in the noon
D It is 2 o'clock in the afternoon
Answer: D
Instructions
In the following questions parts have been underlined. If any rule of correct English is violated then it could be only
in the UNDERLINED part, marked as 1, 2, 3 or 4. Choose the option, which violates usage of correct English.
Question 89
My Parents/1 are Indians but/2I am/3 born in Sydney/4.
A only 1
B 1 and 3
C only 3
D only 4
Answer: B
Question 90
Standing/1 on the top of the tower the whole city could be seen/3.
A only 1
B only 2
C 1 and 2
D None of the above
Answer: D
Question 91
SNAP 2015
Ganesh is taller than/1 Ramesh but/2 Anoop is/3more taller/4.
A only 1
B only 2
C only 3
D only 4
Answer: D
Instructions
Read the following passage and answer the questions:
"There are several factors that contribute to wisdom. Of these I should put first a sense of proportion; the capacity to
take account of all the important factors in a problem and to attach to each its due weight. This has become more
difficult than it used to be owing to the extent and complexity of the specialized knowledge required of various kinds of
technicians. Suppose, for example, that you are engaged in research in scientific medicine. The work is difficult and is
likely to absorb the whole of your intellectual energy. You have no time to consider the effect which your discoveries or
invention may have outside the field of medicine. You succeed (let us say), as modern medicine has succeeded, in
enormously lowering the infant death-rate, not only in Europe and America, but also in Asia and Africa. This has the
entirely unintended result of making the food supply inadequate and lowering the standard of life in the most populous
parts of the world. To take aneven more spectacular example, which is in everybody's mind at the present time- you
study the composition of the atom from a disinterested desire for
knowledge and incidentally place in the hands of powerful lunatics the means of destroying the human race. In such
ways the pursuit of knowledge may become harmful unless it is combined with wisdom; and wisdom in the sense of
comprehensive vision is not necessarily present in specialists in the pursuit of knowledge. Comprehensiveness alone,
however, is not enough to constitute wisdom. There must be, also, certain awareness of ends of human life. This may
be illustrated by the study of history. Many eminent historians have done more harm than good because they viewed
facts through the distorting medium of their own passions. Hegel had a philosophy of history which did not suffer from
any lack of comprehensiveness, since it started from earliest time and continued into an indefinite future. But the chief
lesson of history which he sought to inculcate was that from the year A.D. 400 down to his own time, Germany had
been the most important nation and the standard bearer of progress in the world. Perhaps one could stretch the
comprehensiveness that constitutes wisdom to include not only intellect but also feeling. It is by no means uncommon
to find men/ women whose knowledge is wide but those feelings are narrow. Such men / women lack what I am calling
wisdom. I think the essence of wisdom is emancipation, as far as possible, from the tyranny of the here and the now.
We cannot help the egoism of our senses. Sight, sound and touch are bound up with our own bodies and cannot be
made impersonal. Our emotions start similarly from ourselves. An infant feels hunger or discomfort; gradually with the
years his horizon widens, and, in proportion as his thoughts and feelings
become less personal and less concerned with his own physical states, he achieves growing wisdom. This is of course
a matter of degree. No one can view the world with complete impartiality; however, it is possible to make a continual
approach towards impartiality, on the one hand, by knowing things somewhat remote in time or space, and, on the
other hand, by giving to such things their due weight in our feelings. It is this approach towards impartiality that
constitutes growth in wisdom. Perhaps in this sense the wisdom can be taught. I think that this teaching should have a
larger intellectual element than has been customary in what has been thought of as moral instruction. I think that the
disastrous result of hatred and narrow mindedness to those who fed them can be pointed out incidentally in the course
of giving knowledge. Knowledge and morals ought not to be too much separated. It is true that the kind of specialized
knowledge which is required for various kinds of skills has very little to do with wisdom. But it should be supplemented
in education by wider surveys calculated to put it in its place in the totality of human activities. Even the best
technicians should also be good citizens, i.e. citizens of the world and not of any one nation.
With every increase of knowledge and skill, wisdom becomes more necessary for every such increase augments our
capacity of realizing our purposes, and therefore augments our capacity for evil, if our purposes are unwise. The world
needs wisdom as it has never needed it before; and if knowledge continues to increase, the world will need wisdom in
the future even more than it does now.
Question 92
According to the author what results in growth of wisdom ?

SNAP 2015
A Widening Knowledge and narrowing feelings
B Acquiring specialized knowledge which is required for various kinds of skills
C Viewing the world with complete impartiality
D None of the above
Answer: C
Question 93
According to the author the essence of wisdom is ______
A Deliverance from the oppression of here and now
B Subduing from the oppression of here and now
C Captivity from the oppression of here and now
D All of the above
Answer: B
Question 94
What according to the author is the relationship between knowledge and wisdom ?
A As human wisdom increases there is increase in knowledge created
B As knowledge keeps on increasing there is lesser need of wisdom
C As knowledge keeps on increasing there is a higher need for wisdom
D As growth in wisdom stops, knowledge creation stagnates.
Answer: C
Question 95
The example used by the author to explain the ways in which the pursuit of knowledge can be harmful,
unless combined with wisdom, is
A the space mission
B medicine that lowers infant mortality across the world.
C the progress of Germany.
D none of the above.
Answer: B
Question 96
What factors according to the author, contribute to wisdom ?

SNAP 2015
A a sense of proportion, giving knowledge, study of history, emancipation
B a sense of proportion, dignity, knowledge, skill
comprehensiveness, a sense of proportion, awareness of the end of human life, emancipation from the tyranny of
C
the present
D none of the above.
Answer: C
Instructions
Read each of the components of the given sentences and mark the component with grammatical error.
Question 97
I. He is capable at
II. twisting any fact
III. without any suspicion
IV. at any time
A Only I
B Only II
C Only III
D Only IV
Answer: A
Question 98
I. My cousin brother, who lives

II. in Goa, is eager to visit us
III. in Mumbai and aspires to have
IV. a glimpse of the city
A Only I
B Only II
C Only III
D Only IV
Answer: A
Instructions
Choose the correct word which best fits for the sentence to be complete and grammatically correct.
Question 99
It was no wonder that after the roads were closed with continuous snow fall, hotels started__________ off
the tourists.
A ranking
taking
SNAP 2015
B
C beating
D looting
Answer: A
Question 100
When the penalty corner was saved, the players __________ in toward the goal keeper to congratulate him.
A closed
B went
C crashed
D pooled
Answer: C
Instructions
Question 101
The synonym for the word "Inclement" is
A stormy
B intimate
C advocacy
D immediate
Answer: A
Question 102
The antonym for the word "Taciturn" is _______
A garrulous
B energetic
C ephemeral
D enigmatic
Answer: A
Question 103
Complete with the appropriate collocation word ________ activism.
A judicial
B legal
prosecutional
SNAP 2015
C
D lawful
Answer: A
Question 104
If Propensity : Tendency then ______
A Prologue : Epilogue
B Master : Slave
C Audacity : Impudence
D Conduct : Immortality
Answer: C
Question 105
If Tepid: Hot then ________
A Jealousy : Envy
B Hatred : Antipathy
C Unity : Harmony
D Joy : Ecstasy
Answer: D
Question 106
From the following words pick the odd word out.
A lampoon
B satire
C ridicule
D parable
Answer: D
Question 107
A euphemism
B maxim
C aphorism
D dictum
Answer: A
SNAP 2015
Question 108
A force
B intimidation
C shakedown
D bleak
Answer: D
Instructions
The following questions have sentences which are incomplete. Pick up one phrase / clause from the options given, that
will complete the sentence logically.
Question 109
To ensure success in a difficult task___________
A one needs to be persistent
B persistence is needed
C you need a person of persistence
D persistence is what one needs
Answer: B
Question 110
The more we looked at the piece of modern art _________
A we liked it less
B better we liked it
C the less we liked it
D we liked it more and more
Answer: B
Quantitative Aptitude
Instructions
Question 111
A batsman was having 32 runs per innings as his average after 15th innings. His average increased by 2
runs after 16th inning. Then what was his score in the 16th inning?
SNAP 2015
A 64
B 60
C 46
D 62
Answer: A
Question 112
The least number which is a perfect square and is divisible by each of the numbers 14, 16, 18 is
A 6048
B 7056
C 1008
D 2046
Answer: B
Question 113
Four people clap after every 20 minutes, 30 minutes, 40 minutes and 50 minutes respectively. All of them
clapped together at 10.00 am. Then they will again clap together at ________
A 3 pm
B 5 pm
C 6 pm
D 8 pm
Answer: D
Question 114
Three candidates "A", "B", "C" participated in an election. "A" gets 40% of the votes more than "B". "C"
gets 20% votes more than "B". "A" also overtakes "C" by 4000 votes. If 90% voters voted and no invalid
or illegal votes were cast, then what will be the number of voters in the voting list?
A 72000
B 80000
C 70000
D 78500
Answer: B
Question 115
SNAP 2015
In a competitive exam there were 5 sections. 10% of the total number of students cleared the cut off in
all the sections and 5% cleared none of the sections. From the remaining candidates 30% cleared only
section 1, 20% cleared only section 2, 10% cleared only section
3 and remaining 1020 candidates cleared only section 4. How many students appeared in the competitive
exam ?
A 2550
B 2800
C 3000
D 3200
Answer: C
Question 116
3
A man sold 5 th of his articles at a gain of 20% and the remaining at cost price. Find the gain earned in the
transaction.
A 8
B 10
C 12
D 14
Answer: C
Question 117
A trader sells 20 articles at Rs. 54 per article after giving 10% discount and gains 50% profit. If the
discount is not given, the profit gained is ______
A 56.76%
B 66.66%
C 62.66%
D 63.66%
Answer: B
Question 118
A bottle contains 50 liters of milk. From this bottle 5 liters of milk was taken out and replaced the water.
This process was repeated further for three times. How much milk is now contained in the bottle ?
A 32.8 litres
B 34.4 litres
C 36.8 litres
46.5 litres
SNAP 2015
D
Answer: A
Question 119
4
A ball is dropped from a height of 200 meters. After striking the floor it re-bounces to 5 th of the height
from where it fell. The total distance it travels before coming to rest is _____
A 1200 meters
B 1600 meters
C 1800 meters
D 1820 meters
Answer: C
Question 120
The sum of all two digit numbers that give a remainder 2 when they are divided by 7 is _______
A 552
B 654
C 658
D 684
Answer: B
Question 121
A man covers half of his journey by train at 90 km/hr, one-third of the remainder by bus at 30 km/hr and
the rest by cycle at 10 km/hr. The average speed during the entire journey is ______
A 22.5 km/hr
B 28.5 km/hr
C 30.0 km/hr
D 32.5 km/hr
Answer: A
Question 122
John's grandfather was five times older to him 5 years ago. He would be two times of his age after 25
years from now. What is the ratio of John's age to that of his grandfather ?
A 7 : 11
B 5 : 11
C 3 : 11
D 4 : 11
Answer: C
SNAP 2015
Question 123
A number when successively divided by 5 and 6 gives remainders 3 and 2 respectively. What will be the
remainders if the number is successively divided by 3 and 4 ?
A 2, 3
B 2, 1
C 1, 2
D 3, 4
Answer: C
Question 124
How many zeros would be there in 1024!
A 240
B 248
C 256
D 252
Answer: D
Question 125
1
If x = 3 + 22 what will be the value of X 2 + ( X 2 )?
A 35
B 32
C 36
D 34
Answer: D
Question 126
The unit digit in the final solution when, 13*27*63*51*98*46 is ...........
A 4
B 8
C 2
D none of the above
Answer: A
SNAP 2015
Question 127
A dishonest seller sells his grocery items using a false weight and thus gains 5% for a kilogram, he uses
the weight of approximately ________
A 940.251
B 943.123
C 948.238
D 952.381
Answer: D
Question 128
A, B and C can do a work in 6, 8 and 12 days respectively. If they do the work together and earn Rs.
2700, what is the share of C in that amount ?
A 600
B 900
C 1000
D 700
Answer: A
Question 129
How many words each of two vowels and three consonants can be formed from the letters of the word
"UNIVERSAL" ?
A 7000
B 7200
C 7400
D 7800
Answer: B
.
Question 130
Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank in 12 hours. All the pipes started working together and after 3
hours, C is closed. If A and B can fill the remaining part in 10 hours, then the number of hours taken by C
alone to fill the tank is .
A 100 hours
B 110 hours
C 120 hours
130 hours
SNAP 2015
D
Answer: C
Question 131
If the numbers between 1 to 65 which will be divisible by 4 are taken and then if the number present in
the units places and tens places is swapped, post which they are written in ascending order, then which
of the following number will be at 10th place from the last ?
A 40
B 24
C 44
D 25
Answer: A
Question 132
Ajit, Ravi and Hari were trying to hit a target. If Ajit hits the target 5 times in 8 attempts, Ravi hits it 3
times in 5 attempts and Hari hits it 2 times in 4 attempts. What is the probability that the target is hit by
at least 2 persons ?
A 40
B 24
C 44
D 25
Answer: B
Question 133
1 1
If 2 log x + 2 log y + log 2 = log(x + y), then ..............
A x = −y
B x=y+1
C x=y
D y = x+1
Answer: C
Question 134
log5 25 + log2 (log3 81) is
A 1
B 2
C 3
4
SNAP 2015
D
Answer: D
Question 135
Peter was standing on the top of a rock cliff facing the sea. He saw a boat coming towards the shore. As
he kept seeing time just flew. Ten minutes less than half of an hour, the angle of depression changed
from 30 to 60. How much more time in minutes will the boat take to
reach the shore ?
A 5
B 10
C 15
D 20
Answer: B
Question 136
In a school where there was a compulsion to learn at least one foreign language from the choice given to
them, namely German, French and Spanish. Twenty eight students took French, thirty took German and
thirty two took Spanish. Six students learnt French and
German, eight students learnt German and Spanish, ten students learnt French and Spanish. Fifty four
students learnt only one foreign language while twenty students learnt only German. Find the number of
students in the school.
A 60
B 62
C 70
D none of the above
Answer: A
Question 137
Sonali can solve 70% of the problems in a competitive exam and Nirali can solve only 60% in the same
exam. What is the probability that at least one of them will solve a problem, provided selection of
questions is done randomly from the same exam ?
A 0.82
B 0.88
C 0.62
D 0.72
Answer: B
Question 138
Rs. XYZ was deposited at simple interest at a specific rate for 3 years. Had it been deposited at 2%
higher rate, it would have fetched Rs. 360 more. Find Rs. XYZ.
SNAP 2015
A Rs. 5500
B Rs. 5000
C Rs. 6000
D Rs. 4500
Answer: C
Question 139
A man invests certain amount at 6% per annum simple interest and another amount at 7% per annum
simple interest. His income from the interest after 2 years was Rs. 348. The ratio of first amount to
second is 4:5. Find the total amount invested.
A Rs. 2600
B Rs. 2900
C Rs. 2700
D none of the above
Answer: C
Question 140
A person has a bag which contains 9 bulbs out of which 2 are fused and cannot be used to lighten the
room. Two bulbs are selected at random. What is the probability that all the two bulbs chosen can be
used to lighten the room ?
5
A 12
7
B 12
9
C 12
10
D 12
Answer: B
Question 141
The value of (p-a) * (p-b) * (p-c)………….* (p-z) is ____________
A A complex polynomial which starts with p24
B Zero
C A complex polynomial which starts with p26
D A complex polynomial which has several variables including p26 and p24
Answer: D
SNAP 2015
Question 142
There are nine humans in a ship, each human has nine cages and each cage has nine huge lions and each
lion has nine cubs. How many legs are there in the ship ? (Human have two legs, lions have four legs,
cubs have four legs.)
A 747
B 3258
C 29178
D 26561
Answer: C
Question 143
As shown in the figure, there is a square of 24 cm. A circle is inscribed inside the square. Inside the circle
are four circles of equal radius which are inscribed. The total area of the shaded region in the figure
given below is ________
A 576 - 196 π
B 584 - 196 π
C 864 - 196 π
D none of the above
Answer: D
Question 144
In the figure given below the value of x and y would be __________

SNAP 2015
A 10 and 15
B 15 and 10
C 06 and 12
D 12 and 06
Answer: A
Question 145
Mr. Suresh went into a restaurant and had a happy lunch for Rs.162. He paid for the same using a 500
rupee note. He was so happy with the meal and hence purchased a mini snack box for Rs. 37 and paid for
the same using a 100 rupee note. Mr. Suresh ensured that he collected the balance from the cashier in
both cases. Although he was satisfied with the service, he did not pay any tips to the server. The next
day when the cashier went and deposited the money in the bank, it was found by the banker that only
the two currency notes which were given by Mr. Suresh were counterfeit notes. As per policy, the bank
immediately tore both the notes using their shredding machine. What is the total loss to the restaurant
in this transaction ?
A 1200
B 600
C 7991
D none of the above
Answer: B
Question 146
If 2x + 2x+1 = 48, then the value of xx is
A 4
B 64
C 256
D 16
Answer: C
Instructions
Following table shows the percentage population of six states below poverty line and proportion of male and female.
SNAP 2015
Question 147
If the total population of state A is 5000 then what is the no. of females above poverty line in state A?
A 2000
B 2400
C 2600
D data inadequate
Answer: B
Question 148
If the population of C&D together is 20000 what is the total no. of females below poverty line in the
above states?
A 5000
B 6000
C 7200
D NOTA
Answer: D
Question 149
If the population of males below poverty line in state C is 6000 & state E 1000 then what is the ratio of
the total population of state C& E is
A 2:1
B 3:5
C 11 : 5
D NOTA
Answer: A
SNAP 2014
Instructions
Question 1
How many different letter arrangements can be made from the letter of the word EXTRA in such a way
that the vowels are always together?
A 48
B 60
C 40
D 30
Answer: A
Question 2
The radius of the incircle in the given diagram will be
A 1.8 cm
B 2 cm
C 2.5 cm
D 3.6 cm
Answer: B
Question 3
If tan θ + sin θ = m and tan θ − sin θ = n, then the value of m2 − n2 is equal to
A 4 mn
B 2√(mn)
C 4√(mn)
D 2√(m/n)
Answer: C
Question 4
SNAP 2014
If A and B are two mutually exclusive and exhaustive events with P (B) = 3P (A), then what is the value
of P (B)?
3
A 4
1
B 4
1
C 3
2
D 3
Answer: B
Question 5
A and B entered into a partnership investing `16,000 and `12,000 respectively. After 3 months, A
withdrew `5000 while B invested `5000 more. After 3 more months, C joins the business with a capital of
`21,000. The share of B exceeds that of C, out of a total profit of
`26,400 after one after by:
A '2400
B '3000
C '3600
D '4800
Answer: C
Question 6
An aeroplane takes off 30 minutes later than the scheduled time and in order to reach its destination
1500 km away in time, it has to increase its speed by 250 km/h from its usual speed. Find its usual
speed.
A 1000 km/h
B 750 km/h
C 850 km/h
D 650 km/h
Answer: B
Question 7
What smallest number should be added to 4456 so that the sum is completely divisible by 6?
A 4
B 3
C 2
1
SNAP 2014
D
Answer: A
Question 8
If two tangents inclined at an angle 60∘ are drawn to a circle of radius 3 cm, then length of each tangent
is equal to
3
A 2 √2 cm
B 6 cm
C 3 cm
D 3√3 cm
Answer: D
Question 9
Find the value of log3 2 54 × log5 2 34
A 5
B 3
C 4
D 2
Answer: C
Question 10
Find the value of 1% of 1% of 25% of 1000 is
A 0.025
B 0.0025
C 0.25
D 0.000025
Answer: A
Question 11
SNAP 2014
C is the mid-point of PQ, if P is (4, x), C is (y, -1) and Q is (-2, 4), then x and y respectively are
A -6 and 1
B -6 and 2
C 6 and -1
D 6 and -2
Answer: A
Question 12
In a given race the odds in favour of three horses A, B, C are 1 : 3; 1 : 4; 1 : 5 respectively. Assuming that
dead head is impossible the probability that one of them wins is
7
A 60
37
B 60
1
C 5
1
D 8
Answer: B
Question 13
A and B rent a pasture for 10 months; A puts in 80 cows for 7 months. How many can B put in for the
remaining 3 months, if he pays half as much again as A?
A 120
B 180
C 200
D 280
Answer: D
Question 14
A property dealer sells a house for ` 6,30,000 and in the bargain makes a profit of 5%. Had he sold it for `
5,00,000, then what percentage of loss or gain he would have made?
1
A 2 4 % gain
B 10% loss
1
C 12 2 % loss
2
D 16 3 % loss
Answer: D
SNAP 2014
Question 15
The average of 11 numbers is 10.9. If the average of the first six numbers is 10.5 and that of the last six
numbers is 11.4, then the middle number is :
A 11.5
B 11.4
C 11.3
D 11.0
Answer: A
Question 16
A can do a piece of work in 25 days and B in 20 days. They work together for 5 days and then A goes
away. In how many days will B finish the remaining work ?
A 17 days
B 11 days
C 10 days
D 15 days
Answer: B
Question 17
At a simple interest ` 800 becomes ` 956 in three years. If the interest rate, is increased by 3%, how
much would ` 800 become in three years?
A ` 1020.80
B ` 1004
C ` 1028
D Data inadequate
Answer: C
Question 18
The jogging track in a sports complex is 726 metres in circumference. Pradeep and his wife start from
the same point and walk in opposite directions at 4.5 km/h and 3.75 km/h, respectively. They will meet
for the first time in
A 5.5 min
B 6.0 min
C 5.28 min
D 4.9 min
Answer: C
SNAP 2014
Question 19
What number must be added to the expression 16a 2 − 12a to make it a perfect square?
9
A 4
11
B 2
13
C 2
D 16
Answer: A
Question 20
The monthly salaries of A and B together amount to ` 40,000. A spends 85% of his salary and B, 95% of
his salary. If now their savings are the same, then the salary (in `) of A is
A 10,000
B 12,000
C 16,000
D 18,000
Answer: A
Question 21
The difference of two numbers is 1365. On dividing the larger number by the smaller, we get 6 as
quotient and 15 as remainder. What is the smaller number ?
A 240
B 270
C 295
D 360
Answer: B
Question 22
SNAP 2014
In the adjoining figure, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral. If AB is a diameter, BC = CD and ∠ABD = 40∘ , find
the measure of ∠DBC .
A 65
B 25
C 45
D 60
Answer: B
Question 23
A bag contains 5 white and 3 black balls, and 4 are successively drawn out and not replaced. What’s the
chance of getting different colours alternatively?
1
A 6
1
B 5
1
C 4
1
D 7
Answer: D
Question 24
What is the value of x in the following expression?
x + log10 (1 + 2x) = x log10 5 + log10 6
A 1
B 0
C -1
D 3
Answer: A
Question 25
Which of the following functions is an odd function?

SNAP 2014
A 2−x.x
B 2x−x.x.x.x
C Both (a) and (b)
D Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: D
Question 26
The cost of the paint is ` 36.50 per kg. If 1 kg of paint covers 16 square feet, how much will it cost to
paint outside of a cube having 8 feet each side?
A ` 692
B ` 768
C ` 876
D ` 972
Answer: C
Question 27
1
A horse take 2 2 seconds to complete a round around a circular field. If the speed of the horse was 66
m/sec, then the radius of the field is,
22
[Given π = 7 ]
A 25.62 m
B 26.52 m
C 25.26 m
D 26.25 m
Answer: D
Question 28
One litre of water is evaporated from 6 litres of a solution containing 5% salt. The percentage of salt in
the remaining solution is
4
A 4 (9 ) %
5
B 5 (7 ) %
C 5%
D 6%
Answer: D
SNAP 2014
Question 29
The last two-digits in the multiplication 122 × 123 × 125 × 127 × 129 will be
A 20
B 50
C 30
D 40
Answer: B
Question 30
If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and the denominator is increased by 200%, then
4
resultant fraction is 2 5 . What is the original fraction?
4
A 7
13
B 12
11
C 12
D None
Answer: D
Question 31
1 1 1 1 1 1
The value of 2 : 2 of 2 devided by 2 + 2 of 2 is
2
A 3
B 2
4
C 3
D 3
Answer: A
Question 32
On a journey across Kolkata, a taxi averages 40 kmph for 60% of distance, 30 kmph for 20% of the
distance, and 10 kmph for the remainder. The average speed of the whole journey is
A 25 kmph
B 26 kmph
C 24 kmph
D 30 kmph
Answer: C
Question 33
SNAP 2014
Two numbers are such that the square of greater number is 504 less than 8 times the square of the
other. If the numbers are in the ratio 3 : 4. Find the number.
A 15 and 20
B 6 and 8
C 12 and 16
D 9 and 12
Answer: D
Question 34
A bag contains 100 tickets numbered 1, 2, 3, .... 100. If a ticket is drawn out of it at random, what is the
probability that the ticket drawn has the digit 2 appearing on it?
21
A 100
19
B 100
32
C 100
23
D 100
Answer: B
Question 35
A train passes a station platform in 36 seconds and a man standing on the platform in 20 seconds. If the
speed of the train is 54 km/h, then find the length of the platform.
A 225 m
B 235 m
C 230 m
D 240 m
Answer: D
Instructions
Study the pie chart and table carefully to answer the questions that below:
SNAP 2014
Question 36
What is the number of women in the accounts department ?
A 86
B 102
C 80
D 92
Answer: D
Question 37
What is the total number of employees working in the IT department and HR department together ?
A 1628
B 1742
C 1766
D 1646
Answer: D
Question 38
What is the ratio of the total number of men to the total number of women working in all the
departments together ?
SNAP 2014
A 63 : 41
B 41 : 27
C 53 : 47
D 27 : 19
Answer: C
Question 39
The number of women in the merchandising department forms what per cent of the total number of
employees in the organization ?
A 3%
B 6%
C 1%
D 12%
Answer: A
Question 40
What is the ratio of the number of men in the production department to the number of men in the
marketing department ?
A 7:3
B 9 : 11
C 13 : 7
D 11 : 9
Answer: B
Reasoning
Instructions
In each of the following questions, there are two words / set of letters / numbers to the left of the sign :: which are
connected in some way. The same relationship obtains between the third words / set of letters / numbers and one of
the four alternatives under it. Find the correct alternative in each question.
Question 41
DRIVEN : EIDRVN :: BEGUM : ?
A EUBGM
B MGBEU
C BGMEU
D UEBGM
Answer: B
SNAP 2014
Question 42
Shout : Whisper :: Run : ?
A Stay
B Stand
C Walk
D Hop
Answer: C
Instructions
Question 43
Question below has a three statement, followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have
to consider every given statement as true, even if it does not conform to the well known facts. Read the
conclusions and then decide which of the conclusions can be logically derived.
Statements:
I. Some toys are pens.
II. Some pens are papers.
III. Some papers are black.
Conclusions:
I. Some toys are black.
II. No pen is black.
III. No toy is black.
IV. Some pens are black.
A None follows
B Either II or IV
C Either I or III and either II or IV
D Either I or IV
E All of the above
Answer: C
Question 44
A fibres 5 shots to B’s 3 but A kills only once in 3 shots while B kills once in 2 shots. When B has missed
27 times, A has killed
A 30 birds
B 60 birds
C 72 birds
D 90 birds
Answer: A
SNAP 2014
Question 45
At what time between 9PM and 10PM minute hand and hour hand will be opposite to each other?
4
A 9:15 11
4
B 9:16 11
4
C 9:12 11
D None of these
Answer: B
Question 46
Read the following information and answer the questions given below it :
‘A + B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’;
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the son of B’;
‘A - B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’;
If P × Q - S, which of the following is true ?
A S is wife of Q.
B S is father of P.
C P is daughter of Q.
D None of these
Answer: B
Instructions
In a school students at Pioneer career Kolkata wrote Mock test which has three subjects DI, VA and QA, here is the
result of these students. 80 students cleared cut off in DI, 70 in VA and 60 in QA. Only 40 students cleared all the three
subjects. 10 students failed to clear cut off even in one subjects. 50 students cleared cut off in VA and QA. 5 students
cleared in cut off in only QA.
Question 47
What is the minimum number of students who appeared in the Mock test.
A 105
B 110
C 115
D None of these
Answer: A
Question 48
What is the minimum number of students who did not clear cut off in exactly two subjects?
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A 5
B 15
C 20
D None of these
Answer: C
Question 49
What is the ratio of number of students who didn’t clear cut off DI, but cleared cut off in QA to the
number of students who didn’t clear cut off in exactly 1 subject.
A 3:1
B 3:2
C 1:3
D None of these
Answer: B
Question 50
If number of students who didn’t clear cut off in at least two subjects is maximum possible then find the
number of students who failed in exactly one subject?
A 5
B 15
C 20
D None of these
Answer: A
Instructions
Question 51
Five persons with names P, M, U, T and X live separately in any one of the following: a palace, a hut, a
fort, a house or a hotel. Each one likes two different colors from among the following: blue, black, red,
yellow and green. U likes red and blue. T like black. The person
living in a palace does not like black or blue. P likes blue and red. M likes yellow. X lives in a hotel. M
lives in a:
A Hut
B Palace
C Fort
D House
Answer: B
SNAP 2014
Question 52
Sangeeta remembers that her father’s birthday was certainly after eighth but before thirteenth of
December. Her sister Natasha remembers that their father’s birthday was definitely after ninth but
before fourteenth of December. On which date of December was their father’s birthday ?
A 10th
B 11th
C 12th
D Data inadequate
Answer: D
Question 53
Rohit walked 25 metres towards South. Then he turned to his left and walked 20 metres. He then turned
to his left and walked 25 metres. He again turned to his right and walked 15 metres. At what distance is
he from the starting point and in which direction?
A 35 metres east
B 35 metres north
C 40 metres east
D 60 metres east
Answer: A
Question 54
In the following question, a statement is given followed by two conclusions I and II. Give answer :
Statement :
The best way to escape from a problem is to solve it.
Conclusions :
I. Your life will be dull if you don’t face problem.
II. To escape from problem, you should always have some solutions with you.
A if only conclusion I follows;
B if only conclusion II follows;
C if either I or II follows;
D if neither I nor II follows;
Answer: D
Instructions
Read the following information and answer the questions that follow:
Mr. Mansingh has five sons - Arun, Mahi, Rohit, Nilesh and Saurav, and three daughters - Tamanna, Kuntala and Janaki.
Three sons of Mr. Mansingh were born first followed by two daughters. Saurav is the eldest child and Janki is the
youngest. Three of the children are studying at Trinity School and three are studying at St. Stefan. Tamanna and Rohit
study at St. Stefan School. Kuntala, the eldest daughter, plays chess. Mansorover school offers cricket only, while
Trinity school offers chess. Beside, these schools offer no other games. The children who are at Mansorover School
have been born in succession. Mahi and Nilesh are cricketers while Arun plays football. Rohit who was born just before
Janki, plays hockey.
Question 55
Arun is the _________ child of Mr. Mansingh.
A 2nd
B 3rd
C 6th
D 5th
Answer: C
Question 56
Saurav is a student of which school?
A Trinity
B St. Stefan
C Mansarover
D Connot be determined
Answer: A
Question 57
What game does Tamanna play?
A Cricket
B Hockey
C Football
Answer: D
Question 58
Which of the following pairs was not born in succession (ignore the order)?
A Mahi and Nilesh
B Kuntala and Arun
C Rohit and Janki
D Arun and Rohit
Answer: B
Instructions
SNAP 2014
Question 59
Read this question based on the information given below:

Wendy, a student, is an avid backgammon player. All students play either chess or checkers, but some
checkers players do not play chess because they do not understand chess strategy. Backgammon players
never play checkers, because they do not find checkers challenging. Therefore, Wendy must understand
chess strategy.
Which of the following must be true for the conclusion drawn above to be logically correct?
A All chess players understand chess strategy
B Backgammon is more challenging than checkers
C Chess is more challenging than backgammon
D All students who find backgammon challenging play checkers
Answer: A
Question 60
In the following question, a statement is given followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III.
Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit.
Statement :
India’s economic growth has come at a terrible price of increased industrial and vehicular pollution.
Assumptions :
I. Pollution is a part of industrial society.
II. Indian economic growth is based on only industrial growth.
III. A country desires economic growth with manageable side-effects.
A Only I is implicit
B Only II is implicit
C Only I and III are implicit
D Only III is implicit
Answer: C
Question 61
In a joint family, there are father, mother, 3 married sons and one unmarried daughter. Of the sons, two
have 2 dauthers each, and sone has a son. How many female members are there in the family ?
A 2
B 3
C 6
D 9
Answer: D
Instructions
In the following letter series, some of the letters are missing, which are given below it. Choose the correct alternative.
Question 62
SNAP 2014
D_F_DEE_D_EF_DE_F
A EFFDED
B EFFDDF
C EFFDFE
D None of the above
Answer: C
Question 63
If every 2 out of 3 ready made shirts need alterations in the sleeves, and every 4 out of 5 need it in the
body, how many alterations will be required for 60 shirts?
A 88
B 123
C 133
D 143
Answer: C
Instructions
Question 64
In the following question, a statement is given followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III.
Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit.
Statement :
“Smoking is injurious to health”-a warning printed on the cigarette packets.
Assumptions :
I. People read printed matter on the cigarette packet.
II. People take careful note of warning.
III. Non-smoking promotes health.
A Only I is implicit
B Only I and II are implicit
C Only II is implicit
D All are implicit
Answer: B
Instructions
Read the following information answer the question that follow:

Some people enter a conference room and get seated around a circular table.
The following is known about them.
(i) The first to enter sits opposite to one who belongs to Durgapur but right of Ranchi.
(ii) Teacher belongs to Kolkata and is right to IT professional.
(iii) The guy from Durgapur is adjacent to teacher and architect and opposite to doctor.
(iv) The guy from Ranchi is opposite to architect who is not from Dharbhanga.
SNAP 2014
(v) The doctor belongs to Chennai and sits adjacent to those who came at 3rd and 6th positions.
(vi) The guy from Burdwan is adjacent to guys who came at 3rd and 5th positions.
(vii) Professor who didn’t come at 5th position is equidistant from guys from Ranchi and Durgapur.
Question 65
Professor is opposite to-
A Teacher
B IT professional
C Dancer
D None of these
Answer: A
Question 66
Guy from Burdwan is adjacent to-

(1) Professor and architect
(2) Guys from Dharbhanga and Durgapur
(3) Architect and IT professional
A Only 1
B Only 2
C Only 2 and 3
D None of these
Answer: B
Question 67
The guy from Burdwan sitting opposite to guy from Ranchi came at which position?
A 2nd
B 4th
C 5th
D None of these
Answer: D
Question 68
The dancer is from-
A Ranchi
B Dharbhanga
C Durgapur
None of these
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D
Answer: A
Instructions
Question 69
In a queue, A is eighteenth form the front while B is sixteenth from the back. If C is twentyfifth from the
front and is exactly in the middle of A and B, then how many persons are there in the queue ?
A 45
B 46
C 47
D 48
Answer: C
Question 70
Efficiency is all right in its place, in the shop, the factory, the store. The trouble with efficiency is that it
wants to rule our play as well as our work; it won’t be content to reign in the shop, it follows us home.
It can be inferred from the above passage that:
A Efficiency can become all - pervading
B Efficiency does not always pay
C Efficiency can be more of a torture than a blessing
D None of these
Answer: A
General English
Instructions
Choose the correct antonym for the word below from the options provided.
Question 71
'Native'
A Endemic
B Indigenious
C Genuine
D Foreign
Answer: D
SNAP 2014
Question 72
'Attenuate'
A Contract
B Expand
C Mitigate
D Disable
Answer: B
Question 73
'Cajole'
A Deceive
B Mislead
C Build up
D Bully
Answer: D
Instructions
Question 74
Choose the correct synonym for the word below from the options provided.
'consanguinity'
A Illegitimate
B Adoptive
C Nonbiological
D Kin
Answer: D
Question 75
Choose the word spelt correctly:
A Demurrage
B Dimurrage
C Demurage
D Demerage
Answer: A
SNAP 2014
Question 76
From the option below,choose the word with the incorrect spelling:
A Allotted
B Generous
C Deprive
D Prenicious
Answer: D
Instructions
Which of phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the grammatically
correct? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark 'd' as the answer.
Question 77
The long or short of it is that I do not want to deal with that new firm.
A The long and short of it
B The long and short for it
C The long or short for it
D No correction required
Answer: A
Question 78
Most of the Indian workers are as healthy as, if not healthier than, British workers.
A as if healthy as not healthier
B healthier but not as healthy
C as healthy, if not healthier
D No correction required
Answer: D
Instructions
Question 79
Choose the correct options for the given blanks.

You would _______ surprised to get this letter.
A doubtless be somewhat
B doubtlessly be somewhat
somewhat doubtlessly be
SNAP 2014
C
D doubtlessly somewhat be
Answer: B
Question 80

If you had been a little more proactive, this golden opportunity would not have____
A Escaped your fingers
B Slipped through your fingers
C Slipped through your head
D Escaped your hands
Answer: B
Question 81

Although the rival cricket team was quite competitive it did not ______ against our team of veterans.
A Stand a ground
B Stand a chance
C Stand a stead
D None of these
Answer: B
Question 82

I told him that I could invest some money in a joint venture with him, but as I was busy with my own
projects I could only be a ____
A Visiting partner
B Half partner
C Sleeping partner
D Inactive partner
Answer: B
Question 83

We must always ______ people who indulge in anti-social activities.
A Steer clear of
B Stay away
Stick out of
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C
D Steer clear
Answer: C
Question 84

Are you telling the truth or just ____ ?
A Spinning a tale
B Spinning a yarn
C Spinning a story
D None of these
Answer: A
Question 85

There is a _______ amount of fatty acids and carbohydrates in some of the imported chocolates
A neglecting
B negligent
C negligible
D neglected
Answer: B
Question 86

Some people ___ themselves into believing that they are indispensable to the organisation they work for.
A force
B denigrate
C delude
D fool
Answer: C
Question 87

Many Tamil Speaking Sri Lankans _______ from the island to escape the military and its atrocities.
A flown
flee
SNAP 2014
B
C fled
D flew
Answer: C
Question 88

These essays are intellectually ____ and represent various levels of complexity.
A revealing
B modern
C demanding
D superior
Answer: C
Question 89

How do you expect that country to progress when her government is corrupt, ______ and still largely
feudal.
A devalued
B dwindling
C despotic
D demeaning
Answer: C
Question 90

The teacher must ________ the unique style of a leaner in order to ________ it to desired knowledge.
A advocate ________ direct
B perpetuate ________ develop
C appreciate ________ focus
D absorb ________ maintain
Answer: C
Question 91

He was an ________ musician, had been awarded the George medal during the second world war and _____
with the title of Rai Bahadur .
SNAP 2014
A outstanding ________ popularise
B underestimate ________ declared
C accomplised ________ honoured
D impressive ________ assigned
Answer: C
Question 92

Management can be defined as the process of ________ organizational goals by working with and through
human and non-human resources to ________ improve value added to the world.
A getting ________ deliberately
B managing ________ purposefully
C targeting________ critically
D reaching ________continuously
Answer: D
Instructions
Read the following Passage and answer the questions below:
The World Trade Organisation (WTO) was created in the early 1990s as a component of the Uruguay Round
negotiation. However, it could have been
negotiated as part of the Tokyo Round of the 1970's, since that negotiation was an attempt at a ‘constitutional reform’
of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT). Or it could have been put off to the future, as the US
government wanted. What factors led to the creation of the WTO in the early 1990s? One factor was the pattern of
multilateral bargaining that developed late in the Uruguay Round. Like all complex international agreements, the WTO
was a product of a series of trade-offs between principal actors and groups. For the United States, which did not want
a new organization, the dispute settlement part of the WTO package achieved its long-standing goal of a more
effective and more legal dispute settlement system.
For the Europeans, who by the 1990s had come to view GATT dispute settlement less in political terms and more as a
regime of legal obligations, the WTO package was acceptable as a means to discipline the resort to unilateral
measures by the United States. Countries like Canada and other middle and smaller trading partners were attracted
by the expansion of a rules based system and by the symbolic value of a trade organization, both of which inherently
support the weak against the strong. The developing countries were attracted due to the provisions banning unilateral
measures. Finally, and perhaps most important, many countries at the Uruguay Round came to put a higher priority on
the export gains than on the import losses that the negotiation would produce, and they came to associate the WTO
and a rules-based system with those gains. This reasoning replicated in many countries - was contained in U.S.
Ambassador Kantor’s defense of the WTO, and it amounted to a recognition that international
trade and its benefits cannot be enjoyed unless trading nations accept the discipline of a negotiated rules-based
environment.
A second factor in the creation of the WTO was pressure from lawyers and the legal process. The dispute settlement
system of the WTO was seen as a victory of legalists over pragmatists but the matter went deeper than that. The
GATT, and the WTO, are contract organizations based on rules, and it is inevitable that an organization created to
further rules will in turn be influenced by the legal process. Robert Hudec has written of the ‘momentum of legal
development’, but what is this precisely? Legal development can be defined as promotion of the technical legal values
of consistency, clarity (or, certainty) and effectiveness; these are values that those responsible for administering any
legal system will seek to maximize. As it played out in the WTO, consistency meant integrating under one roof the
whole lot of separate agreements signed under GATT auspices; clarity meant removing ambiguities about the powers
of contracting parties to make certain decisions or to undertake waivers; and
SNAP 2014
effectiveness meant eliminating exceptions arising out of grandfather-rights and resolving defects in dispute
settlement procedures and institutional provisions.
Concern for these values is inherent in any rules based system of co-operation, since without these values, rules would
be meaningless in the first place. Rules, therefore, create their own incentive for fulfillment. The momentum of legal
development has occurred in other institutions besides the GATT, most notably in the European Union (EU).
Over the past two decades, the European Court of Justice (ECJ) has consistently rendered decisions that have
expanded incrementally the EU’s internal market, in which the doctrine of ‘mutual recognition’ handed down in the
case Cassis de Dijon was a key turning point. The Court is now widely recognized as a major player in European
integration, even though arguably such a strong role was not originally envisaged in the Treaty of Rome, which
initiated the current European Union. One means the Court used to expand integration was the ‘teleological method of
interpretation’ whereby the actions of member states were evaluated against ‘the accomplishment of the most
elementary community goals set forth in the Preamble to the [Rome] treaty.
The teleological method represents an effort to keep current policies consistent with stated goals, and it is analogous
to the effort in GATT to keep contracting party trade practices consistent with stated rules. In both cases legal
concerns and procedures are an independent force for further co-operation. In large part, the WTO was an exercise in
consolidation. In the context of a trade negotiation that created a near-revolutionary expansion of international trade
rules, the formation of the WTO was a deeply conservative act needed to ensure that the benefits of the new rules
would not be lost. The WTO was all about institutional structure and dispute settlement, these are the concerns of
conservatives and not revolutionaries, which is why lawyers and legalists took the lead on these issues. The WTO
codified the GATT institutional practice that had developed by custom over three decades, and it incorporated a new
dispute settlement system that was necessary to keep both old and new rules from becoming a sham. Both the
international structure and the dispute settlement system were necessary to preserve and enhance the integrity of the
multilateral trade regime that had been built incrementally from the 1940s to the 1990s.
Question 93
What could be the closest reason why the WTO was not formed in the 1970s?
A The US government did not like it.
B Important players did not find it in their best interest to do so.
C Lawyers did not work for the dispute settlement system
D The Tokyo round negotiations was an attempt at constitutional reform
Answer: B
Question 94
The most likely reason for the acceptance of the WTO package by nations was that
A it had the means to prevent the US from taking unilateral measures.
B they recognized the need for a rule-based environment to protect the benefits of increased trade.
C it settles disputes more legally and more effectively.
D its rule-based system leads to export gains.
Answer: B
Question 95
According to the passage, WTO promoted the technical legal values partly through
A integrating under one roof the agreements signed under GATT.
B rules that create their own incentive for fulfillment
C grandfather-rights exceptions and defects in dispute settlement procedures.

ambiguities about the powers of contracting parties to make certain decisions.
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D
Answer: A
Question 96
In the method of interpretation of the European Court of Justice
A current policies needed to be consistent with stated goals
B contracting party trade practices needed to be consistent with stated rules.
C enunciation of the most elementary community goals needed to be emphasized.
D actions of member states needed to be evaluated against the stated community goals
Answer: D
Question 97
In the statement ‘.... it amounted to a recognition that international trade and its benefits cannot be
enjoyed unless trading nations accept the discipline of a negotiated rules-based environment’, ‘it’ refers
to
A Ambassador Kantor’s defence of the WTO
B the higher priority on export gains placed by many countries at the Uruguay Round
C the export gains many countries came to associate with a rule-based system
D the provision of a rule-based system by the WTO.
Answer: C
Question 98
The importance of Cassis de Dijon is that it
A gave a new impetus to the momentum of legal development at the European Court of Justice.
B resulted in a decision that expanded incrementally the EU’s internal market
C strengthened the role of the Court more than envisaged in the Treaty of Rome.
D led to a doctrine that was a key turning point in European integration.
Answer: D
Instructions
Read the following Passage and answer the questions below:
A TED talk (the acronym stands for Technology, Entertainment, and Design) is one of the routes to academic stardom
that didn’t exist a decade ago. (The 30th anniversary celebration aside, curators only began posting fame-making free
online videos in 2006.) Although TED plays an inordinate role in setting the tone for how ideas are conveyed—not only
because of the reach of its videos but also through spinoffs like regional “TEDx” events and the TED Radio Hour, one
of the few places nonpolicy intellectuals get substantial on-air time—it’s just one of a number of platforms that are
changing the ecology of academic celebrity. These include similar ideas-in-nuggets conclaves, such as the Aspen
Ideas
Festival and PopTech, along with huge online courses and—yes, still—blogs. These new, or at least newish, forms are
upending traditional hierarchies of academic visibility and helping to change which ideas gain purchase in the public
discourse. In a famous essay, “The Unbearable Ugliness of Volvos,” first published in the early 90s, the literary scholar
Stanley Fish wrote that “the flourishing of the lecture circuit has brought with it new sources of extra income ... [and]
an ever-growing list of stages on which to showcase one’s talents, and geometric increase in the availability of the
commodities for which academics yearn, attention, applause, fame, and ultimately, adulation of a kind usually
reserved for the icons of popular culture.” Fish was Exhibit A among professors taking advantage of such trends, and
his trailblazing as a lit-crit celebrity inspired the dapper, globe-trotting lit theory operator Morris Zapp, a character in
David Lodge’s academic satire Small World. But the world Fish was describing, where no one could live-tweet the
lectures, let alone post the talks for worldwide distribution, now seems sepiatoned. “If David Lodge’s Morris Zapp were
alive and kicking today,” observes John Holbo, an associate professor of philosophy at the National University of
Singapore, and blogger at Crooked Timber and the Valve, “he’d be giving a TED talk, not an MLA talk. Which is to say:
He wouldn’t be doing Theory. He probably wouldn't be in an English department.
Question 99
The passage is mainly about:
A Technology, Entertainment, and Design
B Turning over the conventional.
C Gaining popular adulation.
D Changing presentations.
E Worldwide metamorphosis
Answer: B
Question 100
The phrase “sepia-toned” implies :
A The end of an era.
B The way things were.
C The brown pigment.
D The time bound nature of things
E The decadence of ideas.
Answer: A
Question 101
Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?
A TED is the future
B Theory can no longer be counted on.
C Philosophy is best understood through demos.
D TED is irreplaceable
Answer: D
Instructions
SNAP 2014
In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the beginning. The
middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the
proper order for the four sentences.
Question 102
S1: In the middle of one side of the square sits the Chairman of the committee, the most important
person in the room.
P : For a committee is not just a mere collection of individuals.
Q : On him rests much of the responsibility for the success or failure of the committee.
R : While this is happening we have an opportunity to get the 'feel' of this committee.
S : As the meeting opens, he runs briskly through a number of formalities.
S6: From the moment its members meet, it begins to have a sort nebulous life of its own.
The Proper sequence should be:
A RSQP
B PQRS
C SQPR
D QSPR
Answer: D
Question 103
S1: All the land was covered by the ocean.

P : The leading god fought the monster, killed it and chopped its body in to two halves.
Q : A terrible monster prevented the gods from separating the land from the water.
R : The god made the sky out of the upper part of the body and ornamented it with stars.
S : The god created the earth from the lower part, grew plants on it and populated it with animals.
S6: The god moulded the first people out of clay according to his own image and mind.
A PQRS
B PQSR
C QPSR
D QPRS
Answer: D
Question 104
S1: And then Gandhi came.

P : Get off the backs of these peasants and workers, he told us, all you who live by their exploitation.
Q : He was like a powerful current of fresh air, like a beam of light, like a whirlwind that upset many
things.
R : He spoke their language and constantly dre their attention to their appalling conditions.
S : He didn't descent from the top, he seemed to emerge from the masses of India.
S6: Political freedom took new shape and then acquired a new content.
A QSRP
B SRQP
C RSQP
PRSQ
SNAP 2014
D
Answer: B
Instructions
In each of the following questions a related pair of words or phrases is followed by five lettered pairs of words or
phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a relationship that is least similar to the one expressed in the
original pair.
Question 105
XENOPHOBIA : FOREIGNERS
A claustrophobia : foreigners
B anglophobia : Englishmen
C bibliophobia : book
D hemophobia : blood
Answer: A
Question 106
SAIL : SHIP
A propeller : dog
B radar : satellite
C hydrogen : balloon
D accelerator : car
Answer: A
Question 107
CANINE : DOG
A feline : cat
B acquatic : parrot
C serpentine : cobra
D vulpine : fox
Answer: B
Instructions
In each of the following questions there are sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of
sentence(s) that is/are correct in terms of grammar and usage (including spelling, punctuation and logical
consistency). Then, choose the most appropriate option.
Question 108
SNAP 2014
A. In 1849, a poor Bavarian imigrant named Levi Strauss.
B. landed in San Francisco, California,
C. at the invitation of his brother-in-law David Stern.
D. owner of dry goods business.
E. This dry goods business would later became known as Levi Strauss & Company.
A B only
B B and C
C A and B
D A only
E A, B and D
Answer: A
Question 109
A. In response to the allegations and condemnation pouring in,

B. Nike implemented comprehensive changes in their labour policy.
C. Perhaps sensing the rising tide of global labour concerns,
D. from the public would become a prominent media issue,
E. Nike sought to be a industry leader in employee relations.
A D and E
B D only
C A and E
D A and D
E B, C and E
Answer: D
Question 110
A. Charges and countercharges mean nothing.

B. to the few million who have lost their home.
C. The nightmare is far from over, for the government.
D. is still unable to reach hundreds who are marooned.
E. The death count have just begun.
A A only
B C only
C A and C
D A, C and D
E D only
Answer: B
SNAP 2014
General Awareness
Instructions
Question 111
Which of the following is not correct with regard to RTI Act, 2005?
A An officer as public officer shall be designated to provide information to citizens by every public authority
The aids provide for the penalty of upto Rs 25,000 on the public information officers is to be fails to divulge the
B
information fought by the citizen.
C The Act provides for setting up of central information and state information commission
D The information sought shall be made available within 90 days
Answer: D
Question 112
Who estimated national income in India first?
A Dadabhai Naoroji
B R.C. Dutt
C V.K. R.V. Rao
D D.R. Gadgil
Answer: A
Question 113
The banks are required to maintain a certain ratio between their cash in hand and total assets. This is
called
A Statutory Bank Ratio (SBR)
B Statutory Liquid Ratio (SLR)
C Central Bank Reserve (CBR)
D Central Liquid Reserve (CLR)
Answer: B
Question 114
Dwarf wheat (mexican) is introduced in India by
A Dr. N. E. Borlang
B Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
C Dr. Subramanian
D Dr. B. P. Pal
Answer: A
SNAP 2014
Question 115
Russian space craft established a new record by reaching the International Space Station (ISS) in only 6
hours, while earlier the space crafts used to take two or three days to reach the ISS. Which is this space
craft ?
A Sputnik - II
B Soyuz
C Zond
D Venera
Answer: B
Question 116
What contribution has been made by Ernest Binfield Havell (E.B. Havell) in the Indian art and culture?
A E.B. Havell was a official of East India company, whose efforts led to establishment of Asiatic Society
B E.B. Havell made efforts in establishing the Bengal school of art
C E.B. Havell was a famous indologist who translated several Sanskrit dramas in English
D E.B. Havell was a teacher at Pune who established the National Archives of India
Answer: B
Question 117
The India Human Development award in association with UNDP instituted in
A 2010
B 2011
C 2012
D 2013
Answer: C
Question 118
The book ‘The Audacity of Hope’ is written by
A Nayantara Sehgal
B Aravind Adiga
C Vikram Seth
Barrack Obama
SNAP 2014
D
Answer: D
Question 119
In which Olympic Games, Hockey was introduced for the first time
A London, 1908
B Stockholm, 1912
C St. Louis, 1904
D Paris, 1900
Answer: B
Question 120
Larry page and Sergey Brin are well known as
A Creators of Bluetooth device
B Founders of Google
C Stem cell researchers
D Scientists
Answer: A
Question 121
Environmental Kuznets curve
A a semi-circle curve suggesting increase in per-capita income increases the pollution
B a U-shaped curve suggesting the level of development and carbon emission
C suggest a U-shaped relationship between the carbon emission and Ozone layer depletion
D suggest a bell-shaped relationship between the concentration of certain pollution emission and per-capita real GDP
Answer: D
Question 122
Which of the following are correctly matched?

1. Viena : protection
convention : of ozone layer
2. Stockholm : Hazardous wastes
convention and their disposal
3. Rotterdam : Hazardous
convention chemicals
4. Basel : persistent organic
convention pollutants
A 1 and 2
1 and 3
SNAP 2014
B
C 2, 3 and 4
D 1, 2 and 4
Answer: B
Question 123
Which of following statement is true about the Primary deficit?
A It is difference between Revenue Receipts and Revenue Expenditure
B It is difference between Capital Receipts and Interest Payment
C It is difference between the Fiscal Deficit and Interest Payment
D It is addition of Fiscal Deficit and Interest Payment
Answer: C
Question 124
The slogan of ‘poverty abolition’ was given in which Five Year Plan?
A Second plan
B Fourth plan
C Fifth plan
D Sixth plan
Answer: C
Question 125
REDD Plus Programme is concerned with which of the following ?
A Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)
B Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
C Millennium Development Goals (MDG)
D Earth Summit
Answer: B
Question 126
Which is the largest stock exchange in the world ?
A The New York Stock Exchange (NYSE)
B The Swiss Stock Exchange (SWX)
C The London Stock Exchange (LSE)

The National Stock Exchange (NSE)
SNAP 2014
D
Answer: A
Question 127
Between which two countries was the battle of Stalingard fought in 1942-43 ?
A Russia and Germany
B Russia and Japan
C Germany and Italy
D Italy and Russia
Answer: A
Question 128
International Day for Disaster Reduction is observed on
A 9th August
B 13th October
C 24th November
D 11th December
Answer: B
Question 129
Name the India-China joint military exercise that started in Pune recently?
A Surya-Kiran 2014
B Hand-in-Hand 2014
C Mitra-Maitri 2014
D Yudh Abhyas 2014
Answer: B
Question 130
What would you study if you were a speleologist ?
A Mineral deposits
B Tress
C Birds
D Caves
Answer: D
SNAP 2014
Question 131
In a swap transaction where two fixed-floating currency swaps are combined to form a fixed to fixed
currency swap is known as
A Roller-coaster swap
B Amortized swap
C Amortizing swap
D Circus swap
Answer: D
Question 132
In monetary terminology, what is called the 'monetary base' or 'high powered money' ?
A the total assets of RBI
B the total liability of RBI
C the total debt of the government
D the total foreign exchange of RBI
Answer: B
Question 133
Which is considered as the mother of all Central Banks ?
A Bank of England
B Risks Bank of Sweden
C Federal Reserve Bank
D Reserve Bank of India
Answer: A
Question 134
The catch-line 'American dream, Indian soul' was of the film....?
A American Desi
B Aa Ab Laut Chalein
C Indian
D Pardes
Answer: D
Question 135
SNAP 2014
The words 'secular' and 'socialist' were added to the Indian Constitution in 1975 by amending the
A All of the above
B Directive Principles
C Preamble
D Fundamental Rights
Answer: C
Question 136
Who declared that his ultimate aim was to wipe 'every tear from every eye'?
A Rajendra Prasad
B Sardar Patel
C Jawaharlal Nehru
D Mahatma Gandhi
Answer: C
Question 137
Amnesty International is an organisation associated with which of the following fields ?
A Protection of Cruelty to animals
B Environment protection
C Protection of human rights
D Protection of historic monuments
Answer: C
Question 138
Google's main shopping service is called
A Froggle
B Cragle
C Doudle
D Ibibo
E Google+
Answer: A
SNAP 2014
Question 139
The branch of medical science which is concerned with the study of disease as it affects a community of
people is called
A epidemiology
B oncology
C paleontogy
D pathology
Answer: A
Question 140
Which of the following ports of system unit can be used to attach an external storage media/peripheral
devices ?
A VGA port
B USB port
C Parallel port
D Serial port
Answer: B
Question 141
This personality is the father of radio science and has pioneered Bengali science fiction in the country.
He invented the crescograph, a device that measures growth in plants. Identify him.
A Homi Bhabha
B Jagadish Chanddra Bose
C CV Raman
D Govind Khurana
Answer: A
Question 142
The Union Cabinet approved signing of three SAARC agreements that is to be signed at 18th SAARC
Summit scheduled to be held recently. Which one of the following is not one of the SAARC agreements ?
A SAARC Regional Railays Agreement
B SAARC Motor Vehicles Agreement
C SAARC Framework Agreement for Energy Cooperation (Electricity)

SAARC Inter governmental Transport Connectivity
SNAP 2014
D
Answer: D
Question 143
The scientific term Fallstreak Hole Cloud was in news recently because
A It appeared in the sky cover Gippsland in eastern Victoria of Britain
B It appeared in the sky over Gippsland in eastern Victoria of Burma
C It appeared in the sky over Gippsland in eastern Victoria of Australia
D It appeared in the sky over Gippsland in eastern Victoria of New Zealand
Answer: C
Question 144
Hyderabad recently found an intelligent way to manage the traffic problems in the city in a smart way be
using H-TRIMS. What is the full form of H-TRIMS?
A Hyderabad Traffic Integrated Maintenance System
B Hyderabad Traffic Integrated Management System
C Hyderabad Traffic Integrated Manipulation System
D Hyderabad Traffic Inked Management System
Answer: B
Question 145
Which international organisation recently passed a resolution of sports autonomy and sports as means
to promote peace and development ?
A International Olympic Committee
B Commonwealth Games Federation
C United Nations
D Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
Answer: C
Question 146
Liberty Medal is annually given to honour men and women of courage and conviction who strive to
secure the blessings of liberty to people around the globe. It was established in ?
A 1987, to commemorate the bicentennial of the US Constitution
B 1988, to commemorate the bicentennial of the US Constitution
C 1990, to commemorate the bicentennial of the US Constitution
D 1997, to commemorate the bicentennial of the US Constitution

Answer: B
SNAP 2014
Question 147
The Union Commerce Ministry recently cancelled approvals of nine special economic zones (SEZs).
I. Hindalco Industries
II. Chennai Business Park
III. Essar Jamnagar
IV. Adani Townships and Real Estate Company
Which option is correct?
A I, II and III
B I, III and IV
C II and III
D I, II, III and IV
Answer: D
Question 148
World Wildlife Fund on released the Living Planet Report 2014. In this context, consider the following
statements
I. The theme of the report is Species and Spaces, People and Places.
II. Populations of fish, birds, mammals, amphibians and reptiles have declined by 52 percent since 1970
III. Freshwater species have declined by 76 percent
IV. The report's measure of humanity's Ecological Footprint is provided by the Global Footprint Network
Which is/are correct?
A I, II and III
B I, III and IV
C II and III
D I, II, III and IV
Answer: D
Question 149
Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana (VKY) was launched by Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs to
A Lift human development indices of tribal people
B ensure that forest dwellers are not deprived of their due
C promote Tribal language
D establish a National Research Centre in the Tribal Research Institute
Answer: A
Question 150
Name the player who won the IBSF World Billiards Championship in 2014.
SNAP 2013
Instructions
Question 1
Average of five numbers is 61. If the average of first and third number is 69 and the average of second
and fourth number is 69, what is the fifth number ?
A 31
B 29
C 25
D 35
Answer: B
Explanation:
Let the five numbers be a, b, c, d, e in the given order.
a+b+c+d+e = 61*5=305 ----- Eq 1
a+c = 69*2 = 138
b+d = 69*2 = 138
From eq 1: e=305-(138+138) =305-276 =29
Question 2
Kajal spends 55% of her monthly income on grocery, clothes and education in the ratio of 4 : 2 : 5
respectively. If the amount spent on clothes is Rs.5540/-, what is Kajal’s monthly income?
A Rs.55,400
B Rs.54,500
C Rs.55,450
D Rs.55,650
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let the monthly income of Kajal be 100k
It is given that she spent 55% of the monthly income on grocery, clothes and education in the ratio of 4 : 2 : 5
respectively
i.e she spent 55k on grocery, clothes and education in the ratio of 4 : 2 : 5 respectively.
2
Amount spent on clothes = 11 × 55k
10k = 5540 (given)
So 100k = 55400
Monthly income = 100k = 55400

Question 3
SNAP 2013
The simple interest accrued on a sum of certain principal in 8 years at the rate of 13% per year is
Rs.6500. What would be the compound interest accrued on that principal at the rate of 8% per year in 2
years?
A Rs.1040
B Rs.1020
C Rs.1060
D Rs.1200
Answer: A
Explanation:
P⋅T ⋅r
Simple Interest = 100 where P is the principal, T is the time period and r is the rate of interest.
The simple interest accrued on a sum of certain principal in 8 years at the rate of 13% per year is Rs.6500
P× 8× 13
6500= 100
P = Rs. 6250
8 2
Compound Interest on 6250 for 2 years at 8% rate of interest = 6250 (1 + 100 ) - 6250
= Rs. 1040
Question 4
8 men and 4 women together can complete a piece of work in 6 days. The work done by a man in one day
is double the work done by a woman in one day. If 8 men and 4 women started working and after 2 days
4 men left and 4 new women joined, in how many more days will the work be completed?
A 5 days
B 8 days
C 6 days
D 4 days
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let the work done by a woman in one day = x units
The work done by a man in one day = 2x units
8 men and 4 women together can complete a piece of work in 6 days.
Total work = (8*2x+4*x)6 = 120x units
Amount of work done by 8 men and 4 women in 2 days = (8*2x+ 4*x)2 = 40x units
The remaining 80x units will be done by 8 women and 4 men

80x
Number of days taken by 8 women to complete 80x units of work = 16x
=5 days

Question 5
SNAP 2013
The cost of fencing a circular plot at the rate of Rs.15 per m is ` 3300. What will be the cost of flooring
the plot at the rate of Rs.100 per sq m?
A Rs.385000
B Rs.220000
C Rs.350000
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let r be the radius of the circular plot
Perimeter of the plot = 2π r

Cost of fencing the circular plot at Rs 15 per meter = 2π r *15
2π r *15 = 3300
r = 35m
Cost of flooring per sq m = Rs 100
Area of the circular plot = π r2

= 3850 sq m
Cost of flooring the circular plot = 3850*100 = Rs.385000
Question 6
In an examination, Raman scored 25 marks less than Rohit. Rohit scored 45 more marks than Sonia.
Rohan scored 75 marks which is 10 more than Sonia. Ravi's score is 50 less than, maximum marks of the
test. What approximate percentage of marks did Ravi score in the examination, if he gets 34 marks more
than Raman ?
A 90
B 70
C 80
D 60
Answer: B
Explanation:
Marks obtained by Rohan =75
Marks obtained by Sonia = 65
Marks obtained by Rohit = 65+45=110
Marks obtained by Raman = 110-25 = 85
Marks obtained by Ravi = 85+34 = 119
Maximum Marks = 119+50 = 169
119
Required percentage = 169 × 100
=70%
SNAP 2013
Question 7
An aeroplane flies with an average speed of 756 km/h. A helicopter takes 48 h to cover twice the
distance covered by aeroplane in 9 h. How much distance will the helicopter cover in 18 h? (Assuming
that flights are non-stop and moving with uniform speed.)
A 5010km
B 4875km
C 5760km
D 5103km
Answer: D
Explanation:
Speed of the aeroplane = 756 km/h.
It is given that twice the distance covered by the aeroplane in 9 hrs is equal to the distance covered by the helicopter
in 48 hrs.
Distance covered by the aeroplane in 9 hrs = 756*9 = 6804 km.

2× 6804
Speed of the helicopter = 48 = 283.5
Distance covered by the helicopter in 18 hrs = 283.5*18 = 5103 km.
Question 8
Average weight of 19 men is 74 kgs, and the average weight of 38 women is 63 kgs. What is the average
weight (rounded off to the nearest integer) of all the men and the women together?
A 59kg
B 65kg
C 69kg
D 67kg
Answer: D
Explanation:
The average weight of 19 men is 74 kgs
The average weight of 38 women is 63 kgs

74× 19+63× 38
The average weight of all the men and women together = 19+38
3800
= 57
= 66.66 kg
=approx 67 kg

Question 9
SNAP 2013
Mr Giridhar spends 50% of his monthly income on household items and out of the remaining he spends
50% on transport, 25% on entertainment, 10% on sports and the remaining amount of Rs. 900 is saved.
What is Mr Giridhar's monthly income?
A Rs.6000
B Rs.12000
C Rs.9000
Answer: B
Explanation:
Let the total monthly income of Mr Giridhar be 100g
The proportion of income he spends on household items = 50% i.e 50g
Of the remaining 50%, the proportion of income he spends on transport, entertainment and sports are 50%, 25%,
10%
15% of 50g = Amount saved
7.5g = 900(given)
100g = 12000
The monthly income of Mr Giridhar = Rs.12000
Question 10
A and B together can complete a task in 20 days. B and C together can complete the same task in 30
days. A and C together can complete the same task in 40 days. What is the respective ratio of the
number of days taken by A when completing the same task alone to the number of days taken by C when
completing the same task alone ?
A 2:5
B 2:7
C 3:7
D 1:5
Answer: D
Explanation:
Let a, b, c be the amount of work done by A, B, C in 1 day and the total work be W units
(a+b) 20 = (b+c) 30 = (a+c) 40 = W
(a+b) 2 = (b+c) 3 = (a+c) 4
2a+2b = 3b+3c
b = 2a-3c
2a+2b = 4a+4c
2b = 2a+4c
2(2a-3c) = 2a+4c
2a=10c
a=5c
W
Number of days taken by A to complete the work = a
W
W SNAP 2013
Number of days taken by C to complete the work = c
w
a
w
Required ratio = c
= 1:5
Question 11
A certain amount was to be distributed among A, B and C in the ratio 2 :3 :4 respectively, but was
erroneously distributed in the ratio 7:2:5 respectively. As a result of this, B got Rs.40 less. What is the
amount ?
A Rs.210
B Rs.270
C Rs.230
D Rs.280
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let the amount be. Rs x
3 x
B's share in the ratio 2:3:4 = 9 of x= 3
2 x
B's share in the ratio 7:2:5 = 14 of x = 7 , therefore
x x
3 - 7 = 40
4x
21 = 40
x = (40×21)/4 = Rs 210
Question 12
Last year there were 610 boys in a school. The number decreased by 20 percent this year. How many
girls are there in the school if the number of girls is 175 percent of the total number of boys in the school
this year?
A 854
B 848
C 798
D 782
Answer: A
Explanation:
Number of boys in the school last year = 610
Number of boys in the school in the present year = 610*0.8 (It is given that the boys decreased by 20% this year)
= 488
Number of girls in the class = 1.75* Number of boys
=1.75*488
=854
SNAP 2013
Question 13
Rs.73,689/- are divided between A and B in the ratio 4 :7. What is the difference between thrice the
share of A and twice the share of B?
A Rs.36,699
B Rs.46893
C Rs.20,097
D Rs.13,398
Answer: D
Explanation:
Rs.73,689/- are divided between A and B in the ratio 4 :7.
4
Share of A = 11 × 73689 /- = 26796
7
Share of B = 11 × 73689 /- = 46893
Now, we have to find the difference between thrice the share of A and twice the share of B
= 3*26796 - 2*46893 =Rs. 13398
Question 14
The average marks in English subject of a class of 24 students is 56. If the marks of three students were
misread as 44, 45 and 61 of the actual marks 48, 59 and 67 respectively, then what would be the correct
average?
A 56.5
B 59
C 57.5
D None of these
Answer: D
Explanation:
Given,
Sum of the marks misread = 44+45+61 = 150
Actual marks of the students = 48, 59 and 67
Actual marks sum = 48+59+67 = 174
Difference = 174-150 = 24
24
Cporrect average = 56+ 24
= 57

Question 15
SNAP 2013
The respective ratio between the present age of Manisha and Deepali is 5 : X. Manisha is 9 years younger
than Parineeta. Parineeta's age after 9 years will be 33 years. The difference between Deepali's and
Manisha's age is same as the present age of Parineeta. What will come in place of X?
A 23
B 39
C 15
D none of these
Answer: D
Explanation:
Let the present age of Manisha be 5a
The present age of Deepali = Xa
The present age of Praneeta = 5a+9
Praneeta's age after 9 years = 5a+18=33
5a=15
a=3
The difference between Deepali's and Manisha's age is the same as the present age of Parineeta
Xa-5a=5a+9
3X-15=15+9
3X=39 ==> X=13
Question 16
Anand travelled 300 km by train and 200 km by taxi. It took him 5 h and 30 min. However, if he travels
260 km by train and 240 km by taxi, he takes 6 min more. The speed of the train is
A 100km/h
B 120km/h
C 80km/h
D 110km/h
Answer: A
Explanation:
1st case :
Distance travelled by train = 300km and by taxi = 200km
Let the speed of train be x km/hr and that of taxi be y km/hr.
Time taken by train = 300/x and time taken by taxi = 200/y hr

300 200
x = y
Total time taken = 5hrs 30 mins = 5 1/2 hrs

300 200 1
x + y =5 2
On solving we get : 600y + 400x = 11xy ----- Eq (1)

2nd case :
SNAP 2013
Distance travelled by train = 260 km and by taxi = 240 km
The speed of train and taxi will remain the same.

260 240
Time taken by train = x hr and by taxi = y hr
260 240
x + y = 5hrs 36 mins
260 240 3
x + y = 5 5 on solving we get,
1300y + 1200x = 28xy ---- Eq (2)
Solving 1 and 2 we get:
x=100 km/hr
Speed of the train = 100km/hr
Question 17
A certain number of people were supposed to complete a work in 24 days. The work, however, took 32
days, since 9 people were absent throughout. How many people were supposed to be working originally?
A 32
B 27
C 36
D 30
Answer: C
Explanation:
Let the total work be W units and the number of people employed to do it were 'x'
24*x = 32*(x-9)
3x = 4(x-9)
x=36
∴ Number of people who were supposed to work originally = 36

Question 18
Profit earned by an organisation is distributed among officers and clerks in the ratio of 5 : 3. If the
number of officers is 45 and the number of clerks is 80 and the amount received by each officer is
Rs.25,000, what was the total amount of profit earned?
A Rs.22 lakh
B Rs.18.25lakh
C Rs.18 lakh
D Rs.23.25lakh
Answer: D
Explanation:
Profit received by each officer= Rs.25000
SNAP 2013
3
Therefore, Profit received by each clerk= 5 ×25000 = Rs.15000
Therefore, Total earned profit
= Rs. (45×25000+80×15000)
= Rs.(1125000+1200000)
= Rs.23.25 lakh
Question 19
A shopkeeper labelled the price of his articles so as to earn a profit of 30% on the cost price. He,then
sold the articles by offering a discount of 10% on the labelled price. What is the actual per cent profit
earned in the deal?
A 18%
B 15%
C 20%
D none of these
Answer: D
Explanation:
Let the cost price of the article be Rs.100x.
Marked price = Rs.130x
130x× 90
S.P. of the article = 100 = Rs.117x
117−100
Actual percent profit = 100 × 100
=17%
Question 20
There are five boys and three girls who are sitting together to discuss a management problem at a round
table. In how many ways can they sit around the table so that no two girls are together?
A 1220
B 1400
C 1420
D 1440
Answer: D
Explanation:
The five boys can be arranged on a round table in (5-1)! ways i.e 24
Now there will be five spaces created between two boys.
So three girls can be seated in 5 C3 ways*3! = 10*6=60
Total number of ways in which five boys and three girls can be seated = 24*60 = 1440

Question 21
SNAP 2013
A pump can be operated both for filling a tank and for emptying it. The capacity of tank is 2400 m3 .The
emptying capacity of the pump is 10 m3 per min higher than its filling capacity. Consequently, the pump
needs 8 min less to empty the tank than to fill it. Find the filling capacity of the pump.
A 45 m3 /min
B 30 m3 /min
C 50 m3 /min
D 55 m3 /min
Answer: C
Explanation:
Let the filling capacity of the pump be x m3 /min
Then the emptying capacity of the pump = (x+10) m3 /min

2400
The time required for filling the tank = x
2400
The time required for emptying the tank = x+10
The pump needs 8 min less to empty the tank than to fill it.
2400 2400
x - x+10 = 8
300 300
x - x+10 = 1
300(x+10) - 300(x) = x(x+10)
x2 + 10x − 3000 = 0
(x+60)(x-50) = 0
x = 50 or -60
Since x cannot be negative, x = 50
Filling capacity of the pump = 50 m3 /min
Question 22
A plane left 30 min later than its scheduled time to reach its destination 1500 km away. In order to reach
in time it increases its speed by 250 km/h. What is its original speed?
A 1000km/h
B 750km/h
C 600km/h
D 800km/h
Answer: B
Explanation:
Let the usual speed of the plane be v kmph and the time taken by the plane to cover 1500m = t hrs
To reach the destination on time, the increased speed of the plane = v+250 kmph
1
Since he started 30 min later, the time taken should be t- 2 hr
1
v*t = (v+250)(t- 2 )
v = (250t-125)2
SNAP 2013
1500 1
v+250 = t− 2
1500 1
500t−250+250 = t− 2
3 1
t = t− 2
On solving for t, we get
t= 2 hrs
1500
His original speed = 2 = 750 kmph
Question 23
Mrs. X spends Rs. 535 in purchasing some shirts and ties for her husband. If shirts cost Rs. 43 each and
the ties cost Rs.21 each, then what is the ratio of the shirts to the ties, that are purchased ?
A 1:2
B 2:1
C 2:3
D 3:4
Answer: B
Explanation:
Given,
Cost of each shirt = Rs. 43
Cost of each tie = Rs. 21
Let x, y be the number of shirts and ties purchased
x*43+ y*21 = 535

535−43x
y= 21
when x = 10, y is an integer i.e y =5
ratio of shirts to ties purchased = 10:5 =2:1
Question 24
A mixture of 12 kg of wheat flour costing Rs.16 per kg and 4 kg of corn flour costing Rs. 2 per kg is sold
at Rs.16 per kg. What is the profit made in selling 40 kg of the mixture ?
A Rs.140
B Rs.280
C Rs.300
D Rs.420
Answer: A
Explanation:
12× 16+4× 2
12× 16+4× 2 SNAP 2013
The cost price of the mixture per kg = 12+4
= Rs. 12.5
Selling price of the mixture per kg = Rs 16
Profit made on selling 1 kg of mixture = 16-12.5=Rs. 3.5
Profit made o selling 40 kg of mixture = 40*3.5=Rs. 140
Question 25
The number of ways in which a committee of 3 ladies and 4 gentlemen can be appointed from a meeting
consisting of 8 ladies and 7 gentlemen, if Mrs. X refuses to serve in a committee if Mr. Y is its member, is
A 1960
B 3240
C 1540
D none of these
Answer: D
Explanation:
Here we have two cases:
Case 1: If Y is a member of the committee
We have to select 3 other gentlemen and 3 ladies from 8 ladies and 5 gentlemen (Since If Y is a member of the
committee, X will not be a member of the committee)
= 8 C3 × 5 C3 = 56*10=560
Case 2: If Y is not a member of the committee
We have to select 4 gentlemen and 3 ladies from 8 ladies and 6 gentlemen (Since Y is a member of the committee)
= 8 C3 × 6 C4 = 56*15=840
Total cases = 560+840 = 1400
Question 26
A family consists of a grandfather, 5 sons and daughters and 8 grandchildren. They are to be seated in a
row for dinner. The grandchildren wish to occupy the 4 seats at each end and the grandfather refuses to
have a grandchild on either side of him. The number of ways in which the family can be made to sit is
A 11360
B 11520
C 21530
D none of the these
Answer: D
Explanation:
Total no. of seats = 1 grandfather+ 5 sons and daughters + 8 grandchildren
= 14.
8
SNAP 2013
The grandchildren can occupy the 4 seats on either side of the table in 8 P 4 *4! ways
The grandfather can occupy a seat in (5-1)= 4 ways (4 gaps between 5 sons and daughter).
The remaining seats can be occupied in 5!= 120 ways (5 seats for sons and daughter).
Total number of required ways = 8!*4*120
=8!*480
Question 27
After distributing the sweets equally among 25 children, 8 sweets remain. Had the number of children
been 28, 22 sweets would have been left after equally distributing. What was the total number of sweets
?
A 328
B 348
C 358
D Data inadequate
Answer: C
Explanation:
Let the total number of chocolates be C
let chocolates received by each child = x
After distributing the sweets equally among 25 children, the number of chocolates left = 8
25x+8=C - Eq 1
Had there been 28 children, the number of chocolates that would be required = 22
25x+8-22 should be divisible by 28 - Eq 2
25x-14 should be divisible by 28
28x-(3x+14) should be divisible by 28
(3x+14) should be divisible by 28.
==> x=14
The total number of chocolates = 25x+8 = 25*14+8=358
Question 28
I have to reach a certain place at a certain time and I find that I shall be 15 min too late, if I walk at 4 km
an hour, and 10 min too soon, if I walk at 6 km an hour. How far have I to walk?
A 25 km
B 5 km
C 10 km
D none of these
Answer: B
Explanation:
Let the distance he has to travel to reach the place = x km
and the time given to reach the place = y minutes.

If he walks 4 km in an hour he is 15 minutes late ie if he walks with a speed 4 km/hour (4km/60min)he will take y+15
minutes
distance = time*speed
4
ie x= 60 *(y+15)
60 x = 4* (y+15)
15 x = y+15 -- Eq (1)
if he walks 6km in an hour he is 10 minutes early ie if he walks with a speed of 6km/hour he will take y-10 minutes.
6
x= 60 * (y-10)
10x = (y-10) -- Eq (2)
On solving Eq 1, 2, we get
y = 60 minutes , x = 5 km
Question 29
In the triangle ABC, MN is parallel to AB. Area of trapezium ABNM is twice the area of triangle CMN. What
is ratio of CM : AM ?
1
A (√3+1)
(√3−1)
B 2
(√3+1)
C 2
D none of these
Answer: C
Question 30
If ABCD is a square and BCE is an equilateral triangle, what is the measure of the angle DEC?
A 15∘
∘
SNAP 2013
B 30∘
C 20∘
D 45∘
Answer: A
Explanation:
∠ DCB = 900 (Since each angle in a square is 90)
∠ BCE = 600 (Since each angle in an equilateral triangle is 60)
∠ DCE = 900 + 600 = 1500
In △ DCE , the sides DC and CE are equal, so the angles opposite to them are equal.
180−150
∠ DCE = ∠ CDE = 2
= 150
Question 31
log 27 9×log 16 64
what is the value of log 4 2 ?
1
A 6
1
B 4
C 8
D 4
Answer: D
Explanation:
log 27 9×log 16 64
log 4 2 ?
log 3 3 3 2 × log 2 4 2 6
4
log ( 2 ) 2
=
2 6
3× 4
1
= 4
=4
Question 32
4 1
At a college football game, 5 of the seats in the lower deck of the stadium were sold. If 4 of all the
2
seating in the stadium is located in the lower deck, and if 3 of all the seats in the stadium were sold,
then what fraction of the unsold seats in the stadium was in the lower deck?
3
A 20
1
B 6
1
1 SNAP 2013
C 5
1
D 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let the number of seats in the stadium = x
Number of seats in the lower deck = a and the number of seats in the upper deck be b
x=a+b
x 3x
a= 4 and b = 4
4a a
Now in the lower deck 5 seats were sold and 5 seats were unsold.
2x
Number of total seats sold in the stadium = 3
a x
Number of unsold seats in the lower deck = 5 = 20
x
Number of unsold seats in the stadium = 3
x
20
x
Required fraction = 3
3
= 20
Question 33
A train starts from Delhi at 6 : 00 AM and reaches Ambala Cantt at 10 AM. The other train starts from
Ambala Cantt at 8 AM and reaches Delhi at 11:30 AM. If the distance between Delhi and Ambala Cantt. is
200 km, then at what time did the two trains meet each other ?
A 8 : 56 AM
B 8 : 46 AM
C 7 : 56 AM
D 8 : 30 AM
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let t be the start time
A starts at t, while B starts at (t-2)
Total distance covered = 200 km
As they are travelling in the opposite direction,
Relative distance covered i,e 200=((200/4)*t )+((400/7)*(t-2))
t=176min i.e 2hrs 56min from start (6 am)
Therefore they meet at 8.56 am.
Question 34
A ship, 40 km from the shore, springs a leak which admits 3 3/4 tonnes of water in 12 min. 60 tonnes
would suffice to sink her, but the ship’s pumps can throw out 12 tonnes of water in one hour. Find the
average rate of sailing, so that it may reach the shore just as it begins to sink.
A 1
1 2 km/h
1
1 SNAP 2013
B 2 2 km/h
1
C 3 2 km/h
1
D 4 2 km/h
Answer: D
Explanation: 3
3 4
Quantity of water let in by the leak in 1 minute = 12 tonens
15
= 18 tonnes
12
Quantity of water thrown out by the pumps in 1 minute = 60 tonnes
1
= 5 tonnes
15 1
Net quantity of water filled in the ship in 1 min =( 18 - 5 ) tonnes
27
= 240 tonnes
27
Amount of water filled in one minute = 240 tonnes
240
60 tonnes water is filled in = 27 * 60
80
= 9 hrs
40
80
Required speed = 9
9
= 2 kmph
1
= 4 2 km/h
Question 35
Three persons start walking together and their steps measure 40 cm, 42 cm and 45 cm respectively.
What is the minimum distance each should walk so that each can cover the same distance in complete
steps?
A 25 m 20 cm
B 50 m 40 cm
C 75 m 60 cm
D 100 m 80 cm
Answer: A
Explanation:
Minimum distance will be LCM of 40 cm, 42 cm and 45 cm
40 = 2 3 x 5
42 = 2 x 3 x 7
45 = 3 2 x 5
LCM = 2 3 x 3 2 x 5 x 7 = 2520 cm
=25 m 20cm
SNAP 2013
Question 36
Let x denote the greatest 4-digit number which when divided by 6, 7, 8, 9 and 10 leaves a remainder of
4, 5, 6 7 and 8 respectively. Then, the sum of the four-digits of x is
A 25
B 18
C 20
D 22
Answer: A
Explanation:
The least number which when divided by 6, 7, 8, 9 and 10 leaves a remainder of 4, 5, 6 7 and 8 respectively is LCM(6,
7, 8, 9, 10) -2
=2520-2= 2518
The number will be in the form of k * LCM(6, 7, 8, 9, 10) -2
When k = 3, the value of x =7558
When k = 4, the value of x =10078
So the value of x = 7558
Sum of the digits of x = 7+5+5+8= 25
Question 37
1
What is the maximum sum of the terms in the arithmetic progression 25, 24 2 , 24, ..............?
1
A 637 2
B 625
1
C 662 2
D 650
Answer: A
Explanation:
It is a decreasing AP 25,24.5,24,23.5,...
The sum will be largest, if nth term is zero then
25 + (n-1)*(-.5) = 0
=> n = 51
after 51 terms AP contains -ve terms
so, max sum will be obtained upto 50/51th term

51
S = 2 *(25+0) = 637.5
Instructions
In a team there are 240 members (males and females). Two-third of them are males. Fifteen percent of males are
graduates. Remaining males are nongraduates. Three-fourth of the females are graduates. Remaining females are
non-graduates
Question 38
What is the difference between the number of females who are non-graduates and the number of males
who are graduates?
A 2
B 24
C 4
D 116
Answer: C
Question 39
What is the sum of the number of females who are graduates and the number of males who are non-
graduates?
A 184
B 96
C 156
D 196
Answer: D
Explanation:
Total members = 240
2
Number of males = 3 × 240 = 160
85
Number of males who are non-graduates = 100 × 160 = 136
1
Number of females = 3 × 240 = 80
3
Number of females who are graduates = 4 × 80 = 60
Sum of male non graduates and female graduates = 136+60=196
Question 40
What is the ratio between the total number of males and the number of females who are non-graduates?
A 6:1
B 8:1
C 8:3
D 5:2
Answer: B
Explanation:
Total members in the team = 240
2
Males = 3 × 240 = 160
1
1 SNAP 2013
Females = 3 × 240 = 80
1
Number of females who are non graduates = 4 × 80 = 20
ratio between the total number of males and the number of females who are non-graduates
= 160:20
=8:1
Reasoning
Instructions
Question 41
In a certain code language, ‘DRINK’ is coded as ‘JMHQC’ and ‘BLOTS’ is coded as ‘RSNKA’. In the same
code language, ‘HONEY’ will be coded as ‘..............’
A XDMOG
B GNMDX
C XDMNG
D DXMGN
Answer: C
Explanation:
The pattern is as follows:
Previous alphabets of DRINK is CQHMJ respectively, now they have reversed the order, interchanged the first term
with last, the second term with second last and so on.
So the term "DRINK" will be=JMHQC
Similarly, HONEY will be XDMNG.
Option C
Instructions
Twenty students are standing in a straight line facing north. Rina is standing sixth from the left end. There are only
three students between Rina and Shweta. Radha is standing exactly between Shweta and Rina. Tina is standing sixth
to the right of Radha. Anita is standing fourth from the right end of the line. There are more than four students
between Rina and Tina.
Question 42
How many people are standing between Anita and Tina
A one
B two
C three
D none
Answer: B
SNAP 2013
Explanation:
We can make the following diagram:
2 people are standing between Anita and Tina.
Option B
Question 43
What is Shweta’s position with respect to Anita?
A Sixth to the left
B Eighth to the left
C Seventh to the left
D Ninth to the left
Answer: C
Explanation:
We can make the following diagram:
Instructions
What number will replace the question mark (?) in the questions below :
Question 44
choose the correct answer for figure 2
A 36
117
SNAP 2013
B
C 52
D 26
Answer: A
Explanation:
5x4=20
3x8=24
9x4=36
Option A
Question 45
choose the correct answer for figure 1
A 5
B 11
C 13
D 8
Answer: C
Explanation:
Sum of each column:
4, 9, 16,__, 36....
Thus the sum of column 4 = 25
2+10+x=25
x=13
Thus, Option C is correct.
Instructions
Question 46
A cube has six sides each of a different colour. The red side is opposite black. The green side is between
red and black. The blue side is adjacent to white and the brown side is adjacent to blue. The red side is
face down. The side opposite brown is
A red
B black
C white
D green
Answer: C
Explanation:
The red side is opposite black.
The green side is between red and black.
SNAP 2013
The blue side is adjacent to white and the brown side is adjacent to blue.
The red side is face down.
We can draw the following figure:
The side opposite brown is white.
Option C
Question 47
Rajesh walked 25 metres towards South. Then he turned to his left and walked 20 metres. He then
turned to his left and walked 25 metres. He again turned to his right and walked 15 metres. At what
distance is he from the starting point and in which direction?
A 60 metres - East
B 35 metres - East
C 35 metres - North
D 40 metres - East
Answer: B
Explanation:
The final distance will be 35m.
OPTION B
Question 48
SNAP 2013
In these questions, there are four groups of letters, words or numbers listed as (a), (b), (c) and (d). One
of the groups does not belong to the same category as others. Find the odd one out. Unscramble the
letters in the given words and find the odd one out
A UMRSME
B EIWNTR
C PIGRSN
D LCUOD
Answer: D
Explanation:
UMRSME=Summer
EIWNTR= Winter
PIGRSN= Spring
LCUOD=cloud
The last word is the odd one out.
Option D
Question 49
Shyam's house, his office and his gym are all equidistant from each other. The distance between any 2 of
them is 4 km. Shyam starts walking from his gym in a direction parallel to the road connecting his office
and his house and stops when he reaches a point directly east of his office. He then reverses direction
and walks till he reaches a point directly south of his office. The total distance walked by Shyam is
A 9 km
B 6 km
C 16 km
D 12 km
Answer: D
Instructions
In each of the questions below, one term in the given number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term
Question 50
11, 5, 20, 12, 40, 26, 74, 54
A 5
B 20
C 40
D 26
Answer: C
Explanation:
Every even term increases by 7,14,28...subsequently.
Similarly, every odd term will increase by 9,18,36... if the fifth term is replaced by 38.
SNAP 2013
Option C
Question 51
8, 14, 26, 48, 98, 194, 386
A 14
B 48
C 98
D 194
Answer: B
Explanation:
Every subsequent term is two less than the double of the previous term.
So
14=2x8-2
26=2x14-2
50=2x26-2
Option B
Instructions
In each of these questions two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Consider the two
given statements to be. True even if they seem to be absurd. Mark answer as
Question 52
Statements: All bulbs are birds. Some birds are butterflies.

Conclusions:
I. All butterflies are bulbs.
II. Some bulbs are butterflies.
A if only conclusion II follows
B if only conclusion I follows
C if either conclusion I or II follows
D if neither conclusion I nor II follows
Answer: B
Explanation:
Here Statements: No coin is a dollar. Red token is a coin.
SNAP 2013
I. Red token is not a dollar: This statement is definitely true.

II. Red token may not be a dollar: Ambiguous statement
Option B
Question 53
Statements: No coin is a dollar. Red token is a coin.

Conclusions:
I. Red token is not a dollar.
II. Red token may not be a dollar
A if only conclusion II follows
B if only conclusion I follows
C if either conclusion I or II follows
D if neither conclusion I nor II follows
Answer: B
Explanation:
Here Statements: No coin is a dollar. Red token is a coin.
I. Red token is not a dollar: This statement is definitely true.

II. Red token may not be a dollar: Ambiguous statement
Option B
Instructions
Staff employed in a UNESCO office in Paris are represented by four intersecting circles as in the given diagram. Each
circle represents people who can read and write English, French, Spanish and Russian. Strength of people in each
circle is also shown alongside. Study the diagram to answer the questions that follow.
Question 54
How many people know only Spanish ?
A 10
B 20
C 40
D 60
Answer: B
Explanation:
e is the set of people who only know Spanish.
1
e= 2 a
e=20
Option B
Question 55
How many people can read and write any one language except French ?
A 100
B 160
C 140
D 120
Answer: C
Explanation:
People who can read and write any one language except French= a+c+e
a= 40
c= 2a
e= (1/2)a
i.e 40+80+20=140
Option C
Question 56
SNAP 2013
People who can read and write all the language except Spanish, are represented by
A k
B g
C b
D i
Answer: D
Explanation:
'i' can read and write only in Spanish.
Option D
Question 57
People who cannot read and write Russian, English and French, are represented by :
A I
B j
C h
D e
Answer: D
Explanation:
'e' represents the staff who speak & write only Spanish
Option D
Question 58
People who cannot read and write Spanish and French but are conversant with English and Russian are
represented by:
A b
B j
C m
D k
Answer: A
Explanation:
b represents the staff who can speak & write English and Russian but cannot in Spanish and French
Option A is correct.
Instructions
Question 59
SNAP 2013
A watch is a minute slow at 1 p.m. on Tuesday and 2 minutes fast at 1 p.m. on Thursday. When did it
show the correct time ?
A 1:00 a.m. on Wednesday
B 5:00 a.m. on Wednesday
C 1:00 p.m. on Wednesday
D 5:00 p.m. on Wednesday
Answer: B
Explanation:
A watch is a minute slow at 1 p.m. on Tuesday and 2 minutes fast at 1 p.m. on Thursday.
So the watch gains 3 minutes in 48 hours.
It will show the exact time when it would have gained 1 minute from the initial state.
1/3=x/48
x=16 hours.
i.e at 5:00 am Wednesday
Option B
Question 60
If NOR is coded as 2-3-6, then how should REST be coded in the same code language?
A 6-19-6-7
B 5-19-5-8
C 6-19-7-8
D 6-18-5-8
Answer: C
Explanation:
NOR is coded as 2-3-6, then how should REST
M=1
N=2
O=3
P=4
..
..
REST=6-19-7-8
Question 61
In a certain code language, ‘3a, 2b, 7c’ means ‘Truth is Eternal’, ‘7c, 9a, 8b, 3a’ means ‘Enmity is not
Eternal’ and ‘9a, 4d, 2b, 8b’ means ‘Truth does not perish’. Which of the following means ‘Enmity’ in that
language?
SNAP 2013
A 3a
B 7c
C 8b
D 9a
Answer: C
Explanation:
‘3a, 2b, 7c’ means ‘Truth is Eternal’
‘7c, 9a, 8b, 3a’ means ‘Enmity is not Eternal’
‘9a, 4d, 2b, 8b’ means ‘Truth does not perish’.
Eternal= 7c
is = 3a
not = 9a
'Enmity’ in that language 8b
Option C
Question 62
If ‘CONSTABLE’ is coded as 91, what will be the code number for ‘STABLE’ ?
A 97
B 59
C 79
D 75
Answer: B
Explanation:
The sum of the alphabetical order of CONSTABLE =91
STABLE= 19+20+1+2+12+5= 59
Option B
Question 63
Ravi has Rs 3 more than Ramu, but then Ramu wins on the horses and triples his money so that he now
has Rs 2 more than the original amount of money that the two boys had between them. How much
money did Ravi and Ramu have between them before Ramu’s win?
A Rs 9
B Rs 11
C Rs 13
D Rs 15
Answer: C
Explanation:
Ramu has x rupees.
SNAP 2013
Ravi has x+3 rupees.
Total =2x+3
Ramu wins on the horses and triples his money so that he now has Rs 2 more than the original amount of money that
the two boys had between them.
3x = 2x+5
=> x=5
Total =13
Option C
Question 64
A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the man related to the woman
?
A Nephew
B son
C cousin
D uncle
Answer: C
Explanation:
Brother of her mother will be Uncle.
Son of Brother of her mother will be Cousins.
Option C
Instructions
In a school the periodical examinations are held every month. In a session during April 'X'- March 'X + 1', Rakesh a
student of class IV, section B appeared for each of the periodical exams. The maximum total marks in each periodical
exam is 50. The aggregate marks obtained by him in each periodical exam are given below.
Question 65
The total marks obtained in December X is what per cent more than the total marks obtained in June X ?
A 12.8%
B 20.05%
C 24.05%
D 21.05%
Answer: D
Explanation:
Total marks obtained in December X = 46
The total marks obtained in June X = 38
Per cent increase= (46-38)/38= 21.05%
Option D
SNAP 2013
Question 66
(In which periodical exams did Rakesh obtain the highest percentage increase in marks over the previous
periodical exams?
A May
B October
C December
D September
Answer: A
Explanation:
The highest percentage increase in marks over the previous periodical exams:
May: 2/35
October:2/43
December:1/45
September:2/41
So may have the highest percentage increase.
Option A
Instructions
India is a multi-religion, multi-language and multi-cultural country where people belonging to different religions join in
celebrating the festivities together. The Indian Government declares such big occasions as public holidays to enable
the citizens to enjoy and foster the feelings of brotherhood.Five broad-minded persons belonging to different religions
were asked to give their preferences of four such festivals which they would like to enjoy with likeminded brethren.
Their options are
A. Holi, Dussehra, Diwali, Guru Nanak Birthday
B. Shivratri, Christmas, Onam, Eid
C. Holi, Shivratri, Christmas, Diwali
D. Holi, Dussehra, Guru Nanak Birthday, Eid
E. Christmas, Diwali, Onam, Guru Nanak Birthday
Question 67
Which pair celebrates Christmas and Onam but not Dussehra and Holi?
A A and C
B A and E
C B and D
D B and E
Answer: D
Explanation:
Among the given option Pair B and C celebrates Christmas and Onam but not Dussehra and Holi.
SNAP 2013
Option D
Question 68
Which pair does not participate in Eid and Onam but joins in Holi?
A A and B
B A and C
C C and D
D D and E
Answer: B
Explanation:
A and C does not participate in Eid and Onam but joins in Holi.
Question 69
Who enjoys Holi and Eid but not Diwali and Christmas?
A B
B C
C D
D E
Answer: C
Explanation:
D enjoys Holi and Eid but not Diwali and Christmas
Instructions
Question 70
Which of the following expressions will be true if the expression R > O = A > S < T as definitely true?
A O>T
B S<R
C T < A
SNAP 2013
D S=O
Answer: B
Explanation:
From the given series R > O = A > S part will be R>S is a true statement.
General English
Instructions
Read the following Passage carefully and answer the questions below:
A TED talk (the acronym stands for Technology, Entertainment, and Design) is one of the routes to academic stardom
that didn’t exist a decade ago. (The 30th anniversary celebration aside, curators only began posting fame-making free
online videos in 2006.) Although TED plays an inordinate role in setting the tone for how ideas are conveyed—not only
because of the reach of its videos but also through spinoffs like regional “TEDx” events and the TED Radio Hour, one
of the few places nonpolicy intellectuals get substantial on-air time—it’s just one of a number of platforms that are
changing the ecology of academic celebrity. These include similar ideas-in-nuggets conclaves, such as the Aspen Ideas
Festival and PopTech, along with huge online courses and—yes, still—blogs. These new, or at least newish, forms are
upending traditional hierarchies of academic visibility and helping to change which ideas gain purchase in the public
discourse.
In a famous essay, “The Unbearable Ugliness of Volvos,” first published in the early 90s, the literary scholar Stanley
Fish wrote that “the flourishing of the lecture circuit has brought with it new sources of extra income ... [and] an ever-
growing list of stages on which to showcase one’s talents, and geometric increase in the availability of the
commodities for which academics yearn, attention, applause, fame, and ultimately, adulation of a kind
usuallyreserved for the icons of popular culture.” Fish was Exhibit A among professors taking advantage of such
trends, and his trailblazing as a lit-crit celebrity inspired the dapper, globe-trotting littheory operator Morris Zapp, a
character in David Lodge’s academic satire Small World. But the world Fish was describing, where no one could live-
tweet the lectures, let alone post the talks for worldwide distribution, now seems sepiatoned. “If David Lodge’s Morris
Zapp were alive and kicking today,” observes John Holbo, an associate professor of philosophy at the National
University of Singapore, and blogger at Crooked Timber and the Valve, “he’d be giving a TED talk, not an MLA talk.
Which is to say: He wouldn’t be doing Theory. He probably wouldn’t be in an English department.”
Question 71
The passage is mainly about:
A Technology, Entertainment, and Design
B Turning over the conventional.
C Gaining popular adulation.
D Changing presentations
Answer: B
Question 72
The phrase “sepia-toned” implies:
A The end of an era.
B The way things were.
C The brown pigment

The time bound nature of things.
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D
Answer: A
Question 73
Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?
A TED is the future
B Theory can no longer be counted on
C Philosophy is best understood through demos
D TED is irreplaceable.
Answer: D
Instructions
Read the following Passage carefully and answer the questions below:
A spectre is haunting the world, just as Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels wrote in the Communist Manifesto of 1848. This
time, however, it is not the spectre of communism but that of neoliberalism. Just as Marx and Engels reported of ‘a
holy alliance to exorcise this spectre,’ there is once again an alliance, whether holy or unholy, that has formed to
chase the ghost of neoliberalism from the world stage. In any case, it is a curious alliance that has committed to
fighting neoliberalism: Religious leaders and artists, environmental activists and globalisation critics, politicians of the
left and the right as well as trade unionists, commentators and academics. They all share a passion to unmask
neoliberalism
as an inhuman, anti-social, and potentially misanthropic ideology or as a cynical exercise by strangely anonymous
forces that wish to exploit the world to their own advantage.
The members of this colourful alliance against neoliberalism are as united in their opposition to neoliberalism as they
are diverse. This suggests that neoliberalism cannot be too clearly defined as a concept. Rather, it is a broad umbrella
under which very different groups with various points of view can meet. In the church of anti-neoliberalism, there is a
place for anyone who believes that neoliberalism stands in the way of reaching his or her political goals. This may also
explain the lack of any clear and coherent definition of neoliberalism among its dissenters.
Yet the most curious characteristic of neoliberalism is the fact that these days hardly anyone self-identifies as a
neoliberal. In former times, ideological debates were fought between, say, conservatives and socialists, collectivists
and individualists. While there may not have been any other agreement between these opposing groups, at least they
would have agreed about their respective identities. A socialist would not have felt offended by a conservative calling
him a socialist and vice-versa. In present-day debates around neoliberalism, on the other hand, most accused of
holding ‘neoliberal’ views would not accept being called ‘neoliberal.’ Either they would insist on being something else
(whether it is
‘liberal,’ ‘classical liberal,’ or ‘libertarian’), or they would simply claim to be misunderstood by their opponents. In any
case, scarcely anybody wants to be a ‘neoliberal’ any more. For example, in an online survey of the readers of Andrew
Norton’s blog, out of more than 1,200 participants not a single person selfidentified with the term, while ‘classical
liberal,’ ‘conservative,’ and ‘libertarian’ were strong responses. These are strange debates indeed when the enemy
you are fighting claims he does not exist.
Question 74
According to the passage, the spectre, is being chased by all except which one of the following:
A Religious leaders and artists
B Environmental activists and globalisation critics.
C Communists and socialists.
D Politicians and trade unionists
Answer: C
SNAP 2013
Question 75
Why, according to the passage, is there an association against the phenomenon of neoliberalism?
A Because they cannot face it alone
B Because it is easy to collaborate against it.
C Because they resent its spread.
D Because they fear the misuse of the world.
Answer: D
Question 76
The author implies:
A That neoliberalism defies conceptualization
B That neoliberalism is vague
C That neoliberalism has not been accepted
D That neoliberalism has not been understood by people
Answer: D
Question 77
The word ‘libertarian’ used in the passage can be best substituted with
A neoliberal
B libertine- immoral
C conservative
D liberal- favouring individual liberty
Answer: D
Instructions
Each of the following items is followed by four words or group of words. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate word or
group of words.
Question 78
His remarks were filled with _____ , which sounded lofty but presented nothing new to the audience.
A aphorisms
B platitudes
C bombast
D adages
Answer: B
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Question 79
When indecision grips a nation, free men feel the need for an _____ruler and are prepared to throw
democracy overboard
A optimistic
B autocratic
C eccentric
D energetic
Answer: B
Question 80
A great literary or artistic work is known as______.
A par excellence
B bete noire
C peccadillo
D magnum opus
Answer: D
Question 81
The carriage foundered in a snowdrift and it took two hours to_____ it.
A exert
B pillage
C exacerbate
D extricate
Answer: D
Question 82
The influence of the environment on man is revealed by an_____ study
A anthropological
B ecological
C epigraphic
D numismatic
Answer: B
Question 83
SNAP 2013
Alexander Solzhepitsyn’s works will be_______ by every lover of liberal thought and they will bring home
to him how restrictive freedom is in the Russian system.
A rejected
B skimmed
C compiled
D perused
Answer: D
Instructions
Select the most appropriate set of words from the given choices to fill in the blanks
Question 84
The flood of brilliant ideas has not only ___ us, but has also encouraged us to ___ the last date for
submission of entries.
A overwhelmed, extend
B enjoyed, stretch
C dismayed, decide
D scared, scrap
Answer: A
Question 85
The high cutoff marks this year have ___ college admissionseekers to either ___ for lesser known colleges
or change their subject preferences
A cajoled, ask
B pressured, sit
C forced, settle
D strained, compromise
Answer: C
Instructions
Choose the option which is similar in meaning to the word given below:
Question 86
FURLOUGH
A Soldiers holiday
B Wild growth
Wooden plough
SNAP 2013
C
D Till
Answer: A
Question 87
PUNCTILIOUS
A Prude
B Wasteful
C Meticulous
D Timid
Answer: C
Question 88
ENCOMIUM
A Verve
B Eulogy
C Doggerel
D Force
Answer: B
Instructions
Choose the option which is nearly opposite in meaning to the word given below:
Question 89
TRITE
A Hackneyed
B Correct
C Original
D Certain
Answer: C
Question 90
COMPASSIONATE
A Indecisive
Unsympathetic
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B
C Unlawful
D Untrustworthy
Answer: B
Question 91
RESTIVE
A Buoyant
B Placid
C Resistant
D Insolent
Answer: B
Instructions
Choose the word that does NOT match with the two given words
Question 92
Inordinate, Huge
A Excessive
B Considerable
C Insatiable
D Enormous
Answer: C
Question 93
Laconic, Succinct
A Terse
B Brief
C Concise
D Abrupt
Answer: D
Instructions
Each of the questions below consists of statements having four phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of the phrases is
grammatically incorrect. Identify the incorrect phrase
Question 94
SNAP 2013
(a) However, the advantages of teamwork can be minimized
(b) and the benefits increased
(c) if members (particularly those who lead them)
(d) is aware of the methods for improving performance and making decisions
A a
B b
C c
D d
Answer: D
Question 95
(a) When assertion is used with the win-win approach

(b) and with others who also uses the win-win approach
(c) each party can consider the needs of the other and
(d) move towards a solution that satisfies as many needs as possible
A a
B b
C c
D d
Answer: B
Question 96
(a) It is always
(b) been hard to change
(c) the Indian car buyer’s perception
(d) When it comes to designs
A a
B b
C c
D d
Answer: A
Question 97
(a) In a conflict, speak in a pleasant way

(b) send appropriate non-verbal messages to the other person
(c) and match your non-verbal behaviour
(d) to the spoken message
A a
b
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B
C c
D d
Answer: C
Question 98
(a) To live, to love

(b) to serve, and
(c) also admiration are what
(d) I aspire for
A a
B b
C c
D d
Answer: C
Instructions
Each questinon has a sentence that has been scrambled and the scrambled parts have been marked A, B, C, D and E.
Find the correct order of the parts to reconstruct the sentence.
Question 99
A. in different regions of that federation

B. that was Yugoslavia
C. the fundamental came has been the very large difference in the quality of life
D. although the dismemberment of the federation
E. is seem more as the result of an ethnic conflict
A ABCDE
B CEBDA
C BCEDA
D ABDEC
Answer: D
Question 100
A. but there is same merit in it

B. as distinct from consumption
C. bifurcation of plan and non-plan funds
D. in sofar as it focuses attention on development expenses
E. in the budget is artificial
A ABCDE
B CDBEA
C CEABD
DEACB
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D
Answer: C
Question 101
A. like the industrialized countries

B. as if they are to be suffered as relics of a backward post
C. we have specially driven attention to the non-motorized transport modes
D. because they are completely overlooked in transport planning
E. till replaced by faster petroleum fuelled transport
A DEACB
B CDEBA
C CBADE
D CDBEA
Answer: D
Instructions
In each of these questions, each sentence has four words or phrases in braces marked A, B, C and D. Choose one word
or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.
Question 102
Drug abuse {have} (A) become {one of} (B) our {most} (C) serious social {problems}. (D)
A A
B B
C C
D D
Answer: A
Question 103
Alexander Calder, who was {originally} (A) interested {in} (B) mechanical engineering {later} (C)
became {a sculpture}. (D)
A A
B B
C C
D D
Answer: D
Instructions
A sentence has been broken into four parts. Choose the part that has an error
Question 104
SNAP 2013
(a) The sound was taken up by another dog, and then another and another,
(b) till, borne on the wind which now sighed softly through the pass,
(c) a wild howling began, which seemed to come from all over the country,
(d) as far as the imagination could grasp them through the gloom of the night.
A a
B b
C c
D d
Answer: B
Question 105
(a) At last there came a time when the driver went

(b) further afield than he had yet gone,
(c) and during its absence, the horses began to tremble
(d) worse than ever and to snort and scream with fright
A a
B b
C c
D d
Answer: C
Question 106
(a) The house was silent when we got back,

(b) save for some poor creature who was
(c) screaming away in one of the distant ward,
(d) and a low, moaning sound from Vinod's room
A a
B b
C c
D d
Answer: B
Instructions
In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect Speech. Out of the four alternatives
suggested select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech
Question 107
He said, “Where shall I be this time next year?”

SNAP 2013
A He asked that where should he be that time next year
B He wondered where he should be that time the following year
C He contemplated where shall he be that time the following year.
D He wondered where he would be that time the following year
Answer: D
Question 108
She said to him, “Why don’t you go today?”
A She said to him that why he don’t go today
B She asked him if he was going that day
C She asked him why he did not go today
D She asked him why he did not go that day.
Answer: D
Instructions
In the following quesitons groups of four words are given. In each group one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly
spelt word
Question 109
(a) rennassance
(b) renassance
(c) rennaiscence
(d) rennaissance
A a
B b
C c
D d
Answer: B
Question 110
(a) irrepairable
(b) irreparable
(c) irreparrable
(d) irepairable
A a
B b
C c
D d
Answer: B
SNAP 2013
General knowledge
Instructions
Question 111
How many members can be nominated to both the Houses of the Parliament by the President ?
A 14
B 16
C 10
D 12
Answer: A
Question 112
Under which Article of the Constitution can an individual move to the Supreme Court directly in case of
any violation of Fundamental Rights ?
A Article 31
B Article 32
C Article 28
D Article 29
Answer: B
Question 113
The Dandi March of Gandhi-is an example of
A Non-Coopefation
B Direct Action
C Boycott
D Civil Disobedience
Answer: D
Question 114
Inflation is caused by
A decrease in production
increase in money supply and decrease in production
SNAP 2013
B
C increase in money supply
D increase in production
Answer: B
Question 115
Dumping is a form of price discrimination at
A local level
B within industry
C national level
D international level
Answer: D
Question 116
The equilibrium of a firm under perfect competition will be determined when
A Marginal Cost > Average Cost
B Marginal Revenue > Average Cost
C Marginal Revenue > Average Revenue
D Marginal Revenue = Marginal Cost
Answer: D
Question 117
Match correctly the following, deserts and their location by choosing the correct response: Desert
Location
A A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
B A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
C A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
D A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
Answer: A
Question 118
SNAP 2013
Which one of the following institutes in List I is wrongly matched with its location indicated in List II ?
A Central Institute of Mining Dhanbad and Fuel Research
B Central Building Research Roorkee Institute
C Central Arid Zone Jodhpur Research Institute
D Central Drug Research Kanpur Institute
Answer: D
Question 119
In which one of the following films did Pran act as a character artist and not in the role of a villain?
A Himalaya Ki Godh Mein
B Ram aur Shyam
C Zanjeer
D Madhumati
Answer: C
Question 120
Who was the first posthumous recipient of Bharat Ratna?
A M.G. Ramachandran
B B.R. Ambedkar
C K. Kamraj
D Lal Bahadur Shastri
Answer: D
Question 121
Which country won the ICC Women’s World Cup held in February 2013 ?
A India
B New Zealand
C England
D Australia
Answer: D
Question 122
Which country’s currency is Ngultrum ?

SNAP 2013
A Bhutan
B Laos
C Bangladesh
D Nepal
Answer: A
Question 123
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Indian economy ?
A Primacy of agriculture
B Balance between heavy industry and wage goods
C Population pressure
D Low per capita income
Answer: B
Question 124
Term 'Federal' has been used in the Indian Constitution in:
A Part-III
B Article-368
C Nowhere in the Constitution
D Preamble
Answer: C
Question 125
An employment situation where the marginal productivity of agricultural labour is zero is known as :
A Seasonal unemployment
B Cyclical unemployment
C Disguised unemployment
D Disguised employment
Answer: D
Question 126
Which one of the following National Park/Sanctuary is not in Rajasthan ?
A Sariska National Park
B Sambar Wildlife Sanctuary

Rajaji National Park
SNAP 2013
C
D Rhanthambore National Park
Answer: C
Question 127
The National Income of a country is
A the annual revenue of the Government
B sum total of factor incomes
C surplus of PSU’S
D export minus Import
Answer: B
Question 128
Inflation in India is measured on which of the following indexes / indicators?
A Cost of Living Index (CLI)
B Consumer Price Index (CPI)
C Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
D Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
Answer: D
Question 129
TRIPS (Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights) agreement is administered by
A UNCTD
B UNO
C WTO
D World Bank
Answer: C
Question 130
Which one of the following Institutions publishes the report of ‘World Economic Outlook’ ?
A IMF
B World Bank
C RBI
UNCTAD
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D
Answer: A
Question 131
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the countries having foreign Exchange Reserve
from high to low ?
A China - Russia - India - France
B China - France - India - Russia
C France - China - Russia - India
D France - China - India - Russia
Answer: A
Question 132
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
A Kospi Index: South Korea
B TSEC Weighted Index: Thailand
C SET Index: China
D All of the above
Answer: A
Question 133
Which of the following is not a chief organ of the United Nations Organisations?
A International Labour Organisation
B Security Council
C International Court of Justice
D General Assembly
Answer: A
Question 134
Permanent Secretariat to coordinate the implementation of SAARC programme is located at
A Dhaka
B Kathmandu
C Colombo
D New Delhi
Answer: B
SNAP 2013
Question 135
Which of the following describe correctly the Group of Seven Countries (G-7)?
A They are industrialised countries
B They are developing countries
C They are holding Atomic Bomb technology
D They are countries who can launch their own satellites
Answer: A
Question 136
Which of the following countries is not a member of Group 15 developing countries?
A Mexico
B Brazil
C Malayasia
D Bolivia
Answer: D
Question 137
The headquarters of Food and Agriculture Organisation is in
A Madrid
B Rome
C Washington
D Paris
Answer: B
Question 138
The headquarters of the UNESCO is at
A Geneva
B Rome
C Paris
D New York
Answer: C
Question 139
SNAP 2013
Amnesty International is an organisation associated with which of the following fields?
A Protection of Cruelty to animals
B Protection of human rights
C Protection of historic monuments
D Environment protection
Answer: B
Question 140
The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) is located at which of the following
places?
A Vienna
B Geneva
C Rome
D Paris
Answer: B
Question 141
'Dans le harem de Kadhafi' is a book written by:
A Lewis Hamilton
B Annick Cojean
C Barak Obama
D Vladimir Putin
Answer: B
Question 142
12th Five year plan will be for the period of
A 2010-2015
B 2015-2020
C 2011-2016
D 2012-2017
Answer: D
Question 143
SNAP 2013
Which one of the following is an important historical novel written during the latter half of the
nineteenth century?
A Rast Goftar
B Durgesh Nandini
C Maratha
D Nibandhamala
Answer: B
Question 144
The river Sone is a tributary of which one of the following rivers ?
A Ganga
B Yamuna
C Narmada
D Mahanadi
Answer: A
Question 145
When you travel in certain parts of India, you will notice red soil. What is the main reason for this colour?
A Abundance of magnesium
B Accumulated humus
C Presence of ferric oxides
D Abundance of phosphates
Answer: C
Question 146
Ankaleshwar and Navagaon are two oil fields in
A Gujarat
B Bihar
C West Bengal
D Assam
Answer: A
Question 147
The award is given in the field of agriculture

SNAP 2013
A Bhatnagar Award
B Bourlog Award
C Dhanwantari Award
D Kaling Award
Answer: B
Question 148
Name the Tennis Legend who has been honoured with her name inclusion in Tennis hall of fame
A Tracy austin
B Martina Hingis
C Hana Mandlikova
D Bjorn Borg
Answer: B
Question 149
The Golden Globe Awards are presented by
A National Academy of Recording Arts and Sciences
B Hollywood Foreign Press Association (HFPA)
C American Theatre Wing and The Broadway League
D Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences
Answer: B
Question 150
Which one of the following is not a football tournament?
A I-League
B Irani Trophy
C Bardoloi Trophy
D Durand Cup
Answer: B
SNAP 2011
General Awareness
Instructions
Question 1
“Swayamsidha” is a scheme launched by the Government of India to help
A School Children only
B Health workers only
C Senior citizen without any regular income
D Women only
Answer: D
Question 2
What is ‘Share swap’?

A. A business takeover in which acquiring company uses its own stock to pay for the acquired company.
B. When a company uses its own share to get some short term loan for working capital requirement
C. When companies are require to float a new issue to earn capital for their expansion programmes, each
shareholder gets some additional preferential share. The process is known as Share Swap.
A Only A
B Only A and B
C Only C
D None of the above
Answer: A
Question 3
Regarding “carbon credits” which of the following statements is not correct?
A The carbon credits system was ratified in conjunction with Kyoto Protocol
Carbon credits are awarded to those countries or groups who have reduced the green house gases below their
B
emission quota
C The goal of carbon credit system is to reduce carbon dioxide emission
D Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to time by the United Environment Programme
Answer: D
Question 4
Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are related to investment in
a country. Which one of the following statements best represents an important difference between the
two?
A FII helps bring better management skills and technology while FDI only bring capital
SNAP 2011
B FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets specific sectors
C FDI flows only into secondary markets while FII targets primary markets
D FII is considered to be more stable than FDI
Answer: B
Question 5
In context of global oil prices, “Brent crude oil” is frequently referred to in the news. What does this
term imply?
1) It is a major classification of crude oil
2) It is sourced from North sea
3) It does not contain sulphur
Which of the statement given above is /are correct?
A 2 only
B 1 and 2 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Question 6
With reference to “Look East Policy” of India consider the following statements:
1. India wants to establish itself as an important regional player in the East Asian affairs.
2. India wants to plug the vacuum created by the termination of Cold war.
3. India wants to restore the historical and cultural ties with its neighbors in Southeast and East Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Question 7
Recently “oilzapper” was in news. What is it?
A It is eco friendly technology for the remediation of oily sludge and oil spills
B It is the latest technology developed under sea oil exploration
C It is genetically engineered high biofuel - yielding maize variety
D It is the latest technology to control accidentally caused flames from oil wells.
Answer: A
SNAP 2011
Question 8
Why is the offering of “teaser loans” by commercial banks a cause of economic concern?
1. The teaser loans are considered to be an aspect of sub - prime lending and banks may be exposed to
the risk of defaulters in future.
2. The teaser loans are given to inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up manufacturing or export units.
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Question 9
Why is the government of India disinvesting its equity in the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSE)?
1. The Government intends to use the revenue earned from disinvestment mainly to pay the External
debt
2. The Government no longer intends to retain the management control of CPSEs
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Question 10
The book “Unto this Last” which influenced Gandhiji, was authored by
A Boris Yeltsin
B Pushkin
C Ruskin Bond
D John Ruskin
Answer: D
Question 11
Besides USA, India has signed, with which of the following countries the agreement being named as
“Cooperation Agreement on the development of Peaceful Uses of Nuclear Energy”?
A Italy
SNAP 2011
B Germany
C France
D Australia
Answer: C
Question 12
Which of the following country is not a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)?
A Russia
B USA
C Italy
D Irans
Answer: D
Question 13
Many times we read in the newspaper that several companies are adopting the FCCBs route to raise
capital. What is the full form of FCCB?
A Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds
B Foreign Convertible Credit Bonds
C Financial Consortium and Credit Bureau
D None of these
Answer: A
Question 14
As per the reports published in various newspapers, RBI has asked banks to make plan to provide
banking services in villages having population of 2000. This directive issued by the RBI will fall in which
of the following categories?
A Plan for financial inclusion
B Efforts to meet Priority sector lending
C Extension of Internet and Branchless banking
D None of these
Answer: A
Question 15
Which of the following is/ are treated as artificial currency?
A ADR
B GDR
SNAP 2011
C Both GDR and ADR
D SDR
Answer: D
Question 16
Which of the following terms indicates a mechanisms used by commercial banks to provide credit to the
Government?
A Cash Credit Ratio
B Debit Service Obligation
C Liquidity Adjustment Facility
D Statutory Liquidity Ratio
Answer: D
Question 17
Who among the following was not part of the drafting committee of the Lokpal Bill?
A Salman Khurshid
B Anna Hazare
C Arvind Kejriwal
D Kiran Bedi
Answer: D
Question 18
Criminal procedure is a subject of which of the following lists?
A State List
B Concurrent List
C Union List
D Both 1 and 3
Answer: B
Question 19
One of the world’s biggest Uranium resources was recently found in
A Andhra Pradesh
B Maharashtra
C Jharkhand
D Uttarakhand
SNAP 2011
Answer: A
Question 20
Which of the following was the first venture of Kishore Biyani
A Pantaloons
B Big Bazaar
C Central
D Future Capital Holdings
Answer: A
Question 21
Who among the following is often referred to as father of India’s “Green Revolution”?
A Dr. Verghese Kurien
B Dr. Amrita Patel
C M. S. Swaminathan
D Gurudev Khush
Answer: C
Question 22
Who among the following directed the movie Peepli Live?
A Ashutosh Gowarikar
B Kiran Rao
C Anusha Rizvi
D Seema Chisti
Answer: C
Question 23
The point at which soild, liquid and gaseous forms of a substance co - exist is called
A sublimation
B distillation point
C triple point
D melting point
Answer: C
SNAP 2011
Question 24
The limit beyond which the stars suffer internal collapse is called the
A Raman Effect
B Chandrashekhar limit
C Aurora Borealis
D Quasan Zone
Answer: B
Question 25
UNDP reports publishes every year the Human Development Index. Which of the following is not a criteria
used to measure the Human Development Index?
A Health
B Education
C Living Standards
D Human Rights
Answer: D
Question 26
The software company I - flex Solutions was originally a division of which famous financial services
company?
A Citicorp
B ICICI
C HSBC
D ABN Amro Bank
Answer: A
Question 27
Which of the following is not a member of SAARC?
A Bhutan
B Bangladesh
C Burma
D Maldives
Answer: C
SNAP 2011
Question 28
Which article of the Indian constitution recognizes Hindi in Devanagari Script as the official language of
India?
A Art 345
B Art 343
C Art 348
D Art 334
Answer: B
Question 29
India has finally woken up to the needs of the country’s elderly. With the number of people in the 60 -
plus age group in India expected to increase to 100 million in 2013 and to 198 million in 2030, the health
ministry is all set to roll out the
A National Programme for Health care of the Elderly
B National Programme for Senior Citizens
C National Programme for Old Aged
D Rashtriya Vriddha Swasthya Yojana
Answer: A
Question 30
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Non - resident Indians (NRIs) can now cast votes in their home constituencies in India.
2. The NRI can cast his vote by postal balloting.
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Question 31
In a landmark move, which of these State governments has set up a Savarna Aayog, a commission to
identify the deprived and underprivileged families among upper castes?
A Uttar Pradesh
B Bihar
C Madhya Pradesh
D Rajasthan
SNAP 2011
Answer: B
Question 32
Which of these countries has announced one billion US dollar aid for the reconstruction of Nalanda
University?
A Japan
B Singapore
C Malaysia
D China
Answer: D
Question 33
What is the name of the in - house magazine to be published by the Indian Railways, to be distributed to
the passengers on high end trains?
A Rail Vishwa
B Rail Bandhu
C Rail Mail
D Rail Patra
Answer: B
Question 34
The government, in February 2011, set up a task force to create a way to provide direct subsidies to the
ultimate beneficiaries on petroleum working gas and fertilizers. The task force will be headed by -
A Nandan Nilekani
B Apoorva Sinha
C Sangam Chitra
D All of these
Answer: A
Question 35
Which of these countries has been added in the ‘BRIC’ (Brazil - Russia - India - China) groupin of
emerging economies?
A South Korea
B Venezuela
SNAP 2011
C South Africa
D Malaysia
Answer: C
Question 36
Which of the following countries was the host of First Asian Yoga Championship held recently?
A Thailand
B Cambodia
C Vietnam
D Laos
Answer: A
Question 37
Who among the following has been defeated by Saina Nehwal, who has won the Swiss Open Grand Prix
Gold title recently, becoming the First Indian to do so?
A Ji Hyun Sung
B Wang Lin
C Kamilla Rytter Juhl
D Shinta Mulia Sari
Answer: A
Question 38
On March 6, 2011, the Supreme Court held that has ample powers to enact legislation with respect to
extra - territorial aspects for the security of India?
A President
B Prime Minister
C Supreme Court
D Parliament
Answer: D
Question 39
Which country has appointed Brigadier General Ravinder Singh as its next Army chief, the first Sikh in
nearly 30 years to be given the force’s batton
A Thailand
B Singapore
C Malaysia
SNAP 2011
D Indonesia
Answer: B
Question 40
Anant Pai, better known as ‘Uncle Pai’, who recently died was the creator of which among the following
comic series?
A Chacha Chaudhary
B Chandamama
C Indrajaal
D Amar Chitra Katha
Answer: D
Reasoning
Instructions
Each question consists of a set of numbered statements. Assume that each one of these statements is individually
true. Each of the four choices consists of a subset of these statements. Choose the subset as your answer where the
statements therein are logically consistent among themselves:
Question 41
A. Only if the water level in the coastal areas rises, then the people change their lifestyle.
B. People change their lifestyle only if they are rewarded.
C. If people are rewarded, then they will not change their lifestyle.
D. If the temperature rises, then the water level in the coastal areas rises.
E. Whenever the water level in the coastal area rises, then the temperature rises.
F. Unless the people change their lifestyle, temperature rises.
G. People are rewarded.
H. Water level in the coastal areas does not rise.
A C, D, F, G and H
B G, F, D, B and H
C E, F, G, H and B
D None of the above
Answer: C
Question 42
A. If Kumar sings, then the audiences sleep.

B. If Kumar sings, then the audiences dance.
C. Unless audience do not dance, the concert will be successful.
D. Only if the audience dance, the concert will be successful.
E. If Vina dances, then Kumar sings.
F. Kumar sings only if Vina dances.
G. Vina dances
H. The concert is successful.
SNAP 2011
A C, F, G, B and H
B A, C, F, G and H
C E, C, G, B and H
D Both (2) and (3)
Answer: C
Instructions
These questions are based on the data given below.

There are only four members of a family viz., A, B, C and D and there is only one couple among them. When asked
about their relationships, following were their replies:
a: A: B is my son. D is my mother.
b: B: C is my wife. Dis my father.
c: C: D is my mother - in - law. A is my daughter.
d: D: A is my grand - daughter. B is my daughter - in - law
Question 43
Who always speaks the truth?
A A
B B
C C
D D
Answer: D
Explanation:
From the statement of A, we cannot state any information about C. Similarly B and C are also providing partial details.
We can find out that Dis the grandfather and A is the grandson, and CB are the couple, thus statement B is a complete
truth.
We are able to set the relationship.
OptionD
(SNAP 2011)
Question 44
How is B related to C?
A Father
SNAP 2011
B Mother
C Wife
D Husband
Answer: C
Explanation:
truth.
Option C
(SNAP 2011)
Question 45
Which of the following statements must be true?
A A’s grandmother alternates between the truth and lie.
B C’s wife always speaks the truth.
C A’s grandfather always speaks the truth.
D B’s daughter always tells lies.
Answer: D
Explanation:
truth.

SNAP 2011
Both the statements of B are false.
Option D
(SNAP 2011)
Instructions
These questions are based on the following information.

A cube of 7cm × 7cm × 7cm is kept in the corner of a room and painted in three different colours, each face in one
colour. The cube is cut into 343 smaller but identical cubes.
Question 46
How many smaller cubes do not have any face painted?
A 125
B 180
C 144
D 216
Answer: D
Explanation:
Three faces are painted as given in the figure.
Total number of cubes= 343
Total number of painted cubes=7x7+7x6+6x6=49+42+36=127
Number of cubes which are colourless = 343-127=216
Option D
SNAP 2011
Question 47
How many smaller cubes have exactly one colour on them?
A 108
B 72
C 36
D 24
Answer: A
Explanation:
The number of cubes with only one color on them: Blue= 6x6
Green= 6x6
Red=6x6
=3x36
=108
Option A
Question 48
How many smaller cubes have at the most two faces painted?
A 343
B 342
C 256
D 282
Answer: B
Explanation:
SNAP 2011
Faces with three sides painted =1

Answer= 343-1=342
Option B
Instructions
Amit was driving in New Town, where all roads either north - south or east - west forming a grid. Roads were at a
distance of 1 km from each other in parallel.
Question 49
Amit started at the intersection of streets no. 7 and 8. He drove 3 km north, 3 km west and 4 km south.
Which further route could bring him back to his starting point?
I. 3 km east, then 2 km south
II. 1 km north, then 3 km east
III. 1 km north, then 2 km west
A I only
B II only
C I and II only
D II and III only
Answer: B
Explanation:
We can draw the following diagram for its initial movement:
To return to its original position it can move along the path II, mentioned above.
SNAP 2011
Option B is correct.
Question 50
After driving as stated in question no. 49 above, Amit did not return to his starting point but instead
drove 4 km east and 1 km north. How far is he from his starting point?
A 5 km
B 4 km
C 1 km
D 7 km
Answer: C
Explanation:
We can draw the following diagram for its initial movement:
Further, it moves 4 km east and 1 km north.
He is 1km from the starting point.

Option C
Instructions
Refer to the following data and answer the questions that follow:
A numerical machine accepts two values X and Y. Then it updates these values as X = XY and Y = Y + 1 in every step.
SNAP 2011
The machine stops at X ≥ N.
Question 51
For X = 3, Y = 2 and N = 100, how many steps are performed before the machine stops?
A 2
B 3
C 4
D 5
Answer: C
Explanation:
X = 3, Y = 2 and N = 100
Step 1. X=6 Y=3
Step 2. X=18 Y=4
Step 3. X=72 Y=5
Step 4. X=360 Y=6
Hence Option C is correct.
Question 52
In the above question (51), what is the final value of X?
A 6
B 20
C 72
D 360
Answer: D
Explanation:
X = 3, Y = 2 and N = 100
Step 1. X=6 Y=3
Step 2. X=18 Y=4
Step 3. X=72 Y=5
Step 4. X=360 Y=6
Option D
Question 53
In the above question (51), what is the final value of Y?
A 4
B 5
C 6
D 20
Answer: C
SNAP 2011
Explanation:
X = 3, Y = 2 and N = 100
Step 1. X=6 Y=3
Step 2. X=18 Y=4
Step 3. X=72 Y=5
Step 4. X=360 Y=6
Hence Option C is correct.
Question 54
If the value of N is changed to 500, what would be the final value of X?
A 360
B 500
C 560
D 2160
Answer: D
Explanation:
X = 3, Y = 2 and N = 100
Step 1. X=6 Y=3
Step 2. X=18 Y=4
Step 3. X=72 Y=5
Step 4. X=360 Y=6
Step 5. X=2160 Y=7
Question 55
If X = 2 and Y = 3, what should be the minimum value of N such that final value of Y is 7?
A 300
B 360
C 720
D 860
Answer: A
Explanation:
1. X=2, Y=3
X = XY and Y = Y + 1
2. X=6, Y=4
3.X=24, Y=5
4. X=120, Y=6
SNAP 2011
5. X= 720, Y=7
Hence X can take any value above 120
Hence among the given values Option A is the correct choice.
Instructions
Refer to the following statements and answer the questions:

Seven students Priya, Ankit, Raman, Sunil, Tony, Deepak and Vicky take a series of tests. No two students get similar
marks. Vicky always scores more than Priya. Priya always scores more than Ankit. Each time either Raman scores the
highest and Tony gets the least, or alternatively Sunil scores the highest and Deepak or Ankit scores the least.
Question 56
If Sunil is ranked sixth and Ankit is ranked fifth, which of the following can be true?
A Vicky is ranked first or fourth
B Raman is ranked second or third
C Tony is ranked fourth or fifth
D Deepak is ranked third or fourth
Answer: D
Explanation:
The following arrangement is possible:
1.Raman
2.
3.
4.
5.Ankit
6.Sunil
7.Toni
Deepak can rank any among 2nd, 3rd, 4th respectively.
Question 57
If Raman gets the highest, Vicky should be ranked not lower than:
A Second
B Third
C Fourth
D Fifth
Answer: C
Explanation:
Lowest position for Vicky which satisfy the above conditions is:
1.Raman
2.
SNAP 2011
3.
4.Vicky
5.Priya
6.Ankit
7. Toni
Vicky cannot get the position lower than this.
Option C
Question 58
If Raman is ranked second and Ankit is ranked first, which of the following must be true?
A Sunil is ranked third
B Tony is ranked third
C Priya is ranked sixth
D None of these.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Priya always scores more than Ankit......Hence there is a logical error.
Option D
Question 59
If Sunil is ranked second, which of the following can be true?
A Deepak gets more than Vicky
B Vicky gets more than Sunil
C Priya gets more than Raman
D Priya gets more than Vicky
Answer: A
Explanation:
It is given in the question: Vicky always scores more than Priya. Priya always scores more than Ankit.
If Sunil ranked second, then Raman scored the highest and Tony scored the least.
Raman -1
Sunil -2
...
Tony -7
Hence only statement A is possible, all the other options are incorrect.
SNAP 2011
Question 60
If Vicky is ranked fifth, which of the following must be true?
A Sunil scores the highest
B Raman is ranked second
C Tony is ranked third
D Ankit is ranked second
Answer: A
Explanation:
Vicky ranked fifth then Priya and Ankit should be sixth and seventh respectively.
Sunil scores the highest and Deepak or Ankit scores the least.
Thus Sunil will score the highest.
Option A
Instructions
Question 61
In 2002, according to a news poll, 36% of the voters had leaning towards party “Y”. In 2004, this figure
rose to 46%. But in another survey the percentage was down to 40%. Therefore, the party “Z” is likely to
win the next election. Which of the following, if true, would seriously weaken the above conclusion?
A People tend to switch their votes at the last minute.
It has been showed that 85% of the voters belonging to the party “Y” vote in an election as compared to 80% of
B
the voters belonging to party ”Z”.
C 35% of people favour party “Z”.
D No one can predict how people will vote.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Conclusion: the party “Z” is likely to win the next election
Option A: People tend to switch their votes at the last minute, still they can give vote to any party, thus the party Z
might win the election.
Option B: Even if the given scenario turnout, still party X will have the majority.
Option C: This statement will weaken the main argument of the passage as it contradicts the prediction of the chances
of winning.
Option D: Still election can turn out in any direction.
Question 62
Inflation rose by 5% over the second quarter, by 4% during the first quarter and higher than 3% recorded
during the same time last year. However, the higher price index did not seem to alarm National stock
Index as stock prices remain steady.
Which of the following, if true, could explain the reaction of National stock Index?
A RBI announced that it will take necessary corrective measures
B Stock prices were steady because of a fear that inflation would continue.
SNAP 2011
C Economists warned that inflation would continue.
D Much of the quarterly increase in the price level was due to a summer drought effect on food price.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Inflation rose by 5% over the second quarter, by 4% during the first quarter and higher than 3% recorded during the
same time last year. However, the higher price index did not seem to alarm the National stock Index as stock prices
remain steady.
Option A: The option might be true, but cannot guarantee that National stock Index will remain steady.
Option B and C cannot explain the reaction of National stock Index, they are opposite of what the index expects.
Option D is correct, as it will confirm the inflation to be temporary because of the external factors.
Question 63
Pick up the appropriate analogy.

Birth : Dirge
A Sunset : sunrise
B security check : arrival
C marriage : alimony
D welcome address : vote of thanks
Answer: C
Explanation:
dirge: a lament for the dead, especially one forming part of a funeral rite.
The two are related as the second is the act performed on the antonym of the first.
Option A: Sunset : sunrise are just antonyms.
Option B: security check : arrival , even at the arrival a security check is done.
Option C:marriage : alimony, Alimony is a provision for a spouse on divorce.
Option D: welcome address: vote of thanks, not related
Hence Option C is correct
Question 64
Beautiful beaches attract people, no doubt about it. Just look at this city’s beautiful beaches, which are
among the most over crowded beaches in the state. Which of the following exhibits a pattern of
reasoning most similar to the one exhibited in the argument above?
Moose and bear usually appear at the same drinking hole at the same time of day. Therefore, moose and bear
A
must grow thirsty at about the same time.
Children who are scolded severely tend to misbehave more often than other children. Hence if a child is not
B
scolded severely that child is less likely to misbehave.
This software programme helps increase the work efficiency of its users. As a result, these users have more free
C
time for other activities.
During weather my dog suffers from fleas more than during cooler weather. Therefore, fleas must thrive in a warm
D
environment.
SNAP 2011
Answer: D
Explanation:
Beautiful beaches attract people, no doubt about it. Just look at this city’s beautiful beaches, which are among the
most overcrowded beaches in the state. The pattern of reasoning exhibited in the argument above It generalised one
model to all over the world. The similar generalisation is in Option D, the extent spread of fleas is generalised by
taking an example of a particular dog.
Question 65
No national productivity measures are available for underground industries that may exist but remain
unreported. On the other hand, at least some industries that are run entirely by self - employed
industrialists are included in national productivity measures. From the information given above, it can be
validly concluded that
A there are at least some industries run entirely by self - employed industrialists that are underground industries
B no industries that are run entirely by self - employed industrialists operate underground.
there are at least some industries other than those run entirely by self - employed industrialists that are
C
underground industries.
D there are at least some industries run entirely by self - employed industrialists that are not underground industries
Answer: D
Explanation:
No national productivity measures are available for underground industries that may exist but remain unreported.
Underground industries: No national productivity measures
At least some industries that are run entirely by self - employed industrialists are included in national productivity
measures.
Some self - employed industrialists industries: national productivity measures
Only Option D is correct.
Question 66
Nilu has never received a violation from the Federal Aviation Administration during her 16 - year flying
career. Nilu must be a great pilot.
Which of the following can be said about the reasoning above?
A The definitions of the terms create ambiguity
B The argument uses circular reasoning
C The argument is built upon hidden assumptions
D The argument works by analogy

SNAP 2011
Answer: C
Explanation:
Nilu has never received a violation from the Federal Aviation Administration during her 16 - year flying career. Nilu
must be a great pilot.
We cannot infer the argument "Nilu must be a great pilot." on the basis of a single premise, there must be major
hidden assumptions to state this argument.
Question 67
Many people argue that the death penalty deters murder. However, the notorious killer Tom Hanks
deliberately moved to a state that imposes the death penalty just before embarking on a series of
ferocious murders. Thus, it seems clear that the existence of the death penalty does not serve as a
deterrent to murder. The argument above may best be characterized as:
A an appeal to emotion.
B a flawed analogy.
C a general conclusion based on a specific example.
D circular reasoning.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Premise:
1. people argue that the death penalty prevents murder.
2. notorious killer Tom Hanks deliberately moved to a state that imposes the death penalty just before embarking on a
series of ferocious murders.
Argument: "the existence of the death penalty does not serve as a deterrent to murder"
The argument is drawn on a specific example, hence, Option C is correct.
Question 68
What number should replace the question mark?
A 1
B 4
C 12
D 6
Answer: D
Explanation:
SNAP 2011
The values in the middle column are the average of the sum of values on both sides.
(4+2)/2 = 3
(5+3+1+1)/2 = 5
(6+1+2+3+3+1)/2 = 8
.....
(9+3)/2=6
Option D
Question 69
The fewer restrictions there are on the advertising of legal services, the more lawyers there are who
advertise their services, and the lawyers who advertise a specific service usually charge less for that
service than lawyers who do not advertise. Therefore if the state removes any of its current restrictions,
such as the one against advertisements that do not specify fee arrangements, overall consumer legal
costs will be lower than if the state retains its current restrictions.
If the statements above are true, which of the following must be true?
Some lawyers who now advertise will charge more for specific services if they do not have to specify fee
A arrangements in the advertisements.
B More consumers will use legal services if there are fewer restrictions on the advertising of legal services.
If the restrictions against advertisements that do not specify fee arrangements is removed, more lawyers will
C advertise their services.
If more lawyers advertise lower prices for specific services, some lawyers who do not advertise will also charge
D
less than they currently charge for those services.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Premise (facts) -
1. "The fewer restrictions on the advertising of legal services ------ the more lawyers there are who advertise their
services"
which imply: Lesser restrictions will lead to more advertisements by the lawyers
2. The lawyers who advertise a specific service charge less for that service than lawyers who do not advertise.
: The one who advertise charges lesser fee for their services.
Argument-
"Therefore if the state removes any of its current restrictions, such as the one against advertisements that do not
specify fee arrangements, overall consumer legal costs will be lower than if the state retains its current restrictions.
Argument: If the state removes restrictions on advertisements, the consumer legal costs will decrease.
Option A: It is against the argument as if some lawyers start charging more for their services, will increase the legal
cost for consumers.
Option B: The statement is far-fetched, we cannot state that more consumers will use legal services if we remove
restrictions.
Option C: It is the unstated inference between the facts and the main argument. Hence the correct option.
"If the restrictions [are] ..... removed, more lawyers will advertise their services."
Option D: This statement is also far-fetched. More number of lawyers will advertise but whether other lawyers will
decrease their fees is an overstatement.
Question 70
The fewer restrictions there are on the advertising of legal services, the more lawyers there are who
advertise their services, and the lawyers who advertise a specific service usually charge less for that
service than lawyers who do not advertise. Therefore if the state removes any of its current restrictions,
such as the one against advertisements that do not specify fee arrangements, overall consumer legal
costs will be lower than if the state retains its current restrictions.
Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the argument concerning overall consumer
legal costs?
A The state is unlikely to remove all of the restrictions that apply solely to the advertising of legal services.
Lawyers who do not advertise generally provide legal services of the same quality as those provided by lawyers
B
who do advertise.
Most lawyers who now specify fee arrangements in their advertisements would continue to do so even in the
C
specification were not required.
Most lawyers who advertise specific services do not lower their fees for those services when they begin to
D
advertise.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Premise (facts) -
1. "The fewer restrictions on the advertising of legal services ------ the more lawyers there are who advertise their
services"
which imply: Lesser restrictions will lead to more advertisements by the lawyers
2. The lawyers who advertise a specific service charge less for that service than lawyers who do not advertise.
: The one who advertise charges lesser fee for their services.
Argument-
"Therefore if the state removes any of its current restrictions, such as the one against advertisements that do not
specify fee arrangements, overall consumer legal costs will be lower than if the state retains its current restrictions.
Argument: If the state removes restrictions on advertisements, the consumer legal costs will decrease.
Option A & Option B do not attack the main argument that the consumer legal cost will decrease.
Option C does not weaken the argument.
Option D: If the lawyers will not lessen the fees even after the state removes the restrictions, then the consumer still
has to bear the higher legal costs.

SNAP 2011
Instructions
Question 71
A train travelling at 36 kmph crosses a platform in 20 seconds and a man standing on the platform in 10
seconds. What is the length of the platform in meters?
A 240 meters
B 100 meters
C 200 meters
D 300 meters
Answer: B
Explanation:
Speed of the Train = 36 km/hr.
= 36 × 5/18 [Changing into m/s]
=2×5
= 10 m/s.
Time taken to cross the Platform = 20 seconds.

Time taken to cross the man = 10 seconds.
∵ Speed of the Train = Length of the Train/Time to cross the Man
∴ Length of the Train = Speed of the Train × Time to cross the Man.
= 10 × 10
= 100 m.
Sum of the Length of Platform and train = Speed of the Train × Time taken by the Train to cross the Platform.
= 10 × 20
= 200 m.
∵ Length of the Train + Length of the Platform = 200
∴ 100 + Length of the Platform = 200
∴ Length of the Platform = 200 - 100
= 100 m.
∴ Length of the Platform is 100 m.
Question 72
4
By walking at 5 th of his usual speed, a man reaches office 10 minutes later than usual. What is his usual
time?
A 20 min
B 40 min
C 30 min
D 50 min
Answer: B
Explanation:
Let the usual speed and the time taken by the man = 5v, 4t respectively.
4
If the man walks at 5 th of his usual speed, a man reaches office 10 minutes later than usual
5
5 SNAP 2011
i.e the time taken by the man = 4 of the usual time (Speed and time are inversely proportional to each other)
=5t
5t-4t = 10 minutes.
t = 10 minutes.
Usual time taken by the man = 4t = 40 minutes
Question 73
A man and a woman 81 miles apart from each other, start travelling towards each other at the same
time. If the man covers 5 miles per hour to the women’s 4 mile per hour, how far will the woman have
travelled when they meet?
A 27
B 36
C 45
D None of these
Answer: B
Explanation:
Dis tan ce between them
Time taken to meet = Relative speed
Relative Speed = 5 +4 = 9 miles per hour.

81
Time take to cover 81 miles = 9 = 9 hours.
Woman travelled in 9 hours = 9*4 = 36 miles.
Question 74
Two people were walking in opposite directions. Both of them walked 6 miles forward then took right and
walked 8 miles. How far is each from starting positions?
A 14 miles and 14 miles
B 10 miles and 10 miles
C 6 miles and 6 miles
D 12 miles and 12 miles
Answer: B
Explanation:
1 person :
62 + 82 = OB2
√(36+64) = OB
SNAP 2011
√(100)= OB
10 = OB...
The distance of the first person from his starting point is 10 miles.
Similarly, the distance of the second person from his starting point is 10 miles.
B is the correct answer
Question 75
Four men and three women can do a job in 6 days. When 5 men and 6 women work on the same job, the
work gets completed in 4 days. How long will 2 women and 3 men take to do the job?
A 18
B 10
C 8.3
D 12
Answer: C
Explanation:
(4M+ 3W)6 = (5M+6W)4 = W
4M = 6W
2M = 3W
let x be the number of days taken by 2 women and 3 men take to do the job
(4M+3W)6=(2W+3M)x
9W*6=6.5W*x
x=8.3 days
Question 76
Ram completes 60% of a task in 15 days and then takes the help of Rahim and Rachel. Rahim is 50% as
efficient as Ram is and Rachel is 50% as efficient as Rahim is. In how many more days will they complete
the work?
121
A 3
51
B 7
40
C 7
65
D 7
Answer: C
Explanation:
Let the total work be 25x units
Ram completes 60% of the task in 15 days.
Ram's efficiency = x units per day
Rahim is 50% as efficient as Ram is and Rachel is 50% as efficient as Rahim is
Efficiency of Rahim = 0.5x units per day

SNAP 2011
Efficiency of Rahim = 0.25x units per day
Ram will come 15x units in 15 days.
The remaining 10x units of work will be done by Ram, Rahim, Rachel.
10x
= x+0.5x+0.25x
10
= 1.75
1000
= 175
40
= 7
Question 77
A and B can do a piece of work in 21 and 24 days respectively. They start the work together and after
some days A leaves the work and B completes the remaining work in 9 days. After how many days did A
leave?
A 5
B 7
C 8
D 6
Answer: B
Explanation:
Let the total work be LCM of (21, 24) = 168 units.
168
Amount of work done by A on 1 day = 21 = 8 units
168
Amount of work done by B on 1 day = 24 = 7 units
Let p be the number of days for which they worked together.
In P days, the amount of work done by A and B = 15p
Remaining work = 168x-15p, which is completed by B in 9 days.
168x-15p=9*7
p=7
So A left after 7 days.
Question 78
A trader makes a profit equal to the selling price of 75 articles when he sold 100 of the articles. What %
profit did he make in the transaction?
A 33.33%
B 75%
C 300%
D 150%
Answer: C
SNAP 2011
Explanation:
It is given that profit on 100 articles = SP of 75 articles
100(SP-CP) = 75*SP
4(SP-CP) = 3SP
SP = 4CP
SP−CP
Profit = CP × 100
4CP−CP
= CP × 100
=300%
Question 79
In a 100 M race, if A gives B a start of 20 meters, then A wins the race by 5 seconds. Alternatively, if A
gives B a start of 40 meters the race ends in a dead heat. How long does A take to run 200 M?
A 10 seconds
B 20 seconds
C 30 seconds
D 40 seconds
Answer: C
Explanation:
Let us consider A covers 100 m in t sec.
100
Speed of A = t
Since A gave B a headstart of 20m, B covers 80m in (t+5) sec (Given)

80
Speed of B = t+5
If A gives head start of 40m to B, then the time taken by A to cover 100m is the same as the time taken by B to cover
60m
100
100
60
80
t = t+5
n solving for t, we get
t = 15 sec
100
Speed of A = 15 m/sec
Time taken by A to cover 200m(x) =

100
200=time * 15
x = 30 sec
Question 80
A 4 cm cube is cut into 1cm cubes. What is the percentage increase in the surface area after such
cutting?
A 4%
B 300%
SNAP 2011
C 75%
D 400%
Answer: B
Explanation:
Initial surface area of the cube = 6 (side)2
= 6 (4)2
= 96 cm2
V olume of older cube
No. of new cubes = V olume of 1 new cube
4× 4× 4
= 1× 1× 1
=64 cubes
Newer surface area of 64 cubes = 64*6 (1)2 = 384 cm2

384−96
Percentage increase in surface area = 96 *100
28800
= 96
= 300%
Question 81
A number G236G0 can be divided by 36 if G is:
A 8
B 6
C 1
D More than one values are possible.
Answer: A
Explanation:
36 = 9*4 Since 9 and 4 are co-prime to each other, we can say that for a number to be divisible by 36 it must be
divisible by both 9 and 4.
For G236G0, to be divisible by 4, last two digits should be divisible by 4.
Hence G0 should be a multiple of 4.
Possible values of G are 2, 4, 6, 8, 0
For the number to be divisible by 9, the sum of the digits should be a multiple of 9
G+2+3+6+G+0 = 11+2G should be multiple of 9
If G = 0, 11+2G is not a multiple of 9
If G = 8, 11+2G is a multiple of 9.
Hence 8 is the correct answer.

SNAP 2011
Question 82
Amit can do a work in 12 days and Sagar in 15 days. If they work on it together for 4 days, then the
fraction of the work that is left is:
3
A 20
3
B 5
2
C 5
2
D 20
Answer: C
Explanation:
Let the total work be LCM of (12, 15) = 60 units.
60
Amount of work done by Amit on one day = 12 = 5 units
60
Amount of work done by Sagar on one day = 15 = 4 units
Amount of work completed by them on 4 days = (5+4)*4 = 36 units
The amount of work left out = 60-36 = 24 units.

24
Fraction of work left out = 60
2
= 5
Question 83
A rectangular park 60 m long and 40 m wide has two concrete crossroads running in the middle of the
park and rest of the park has been used as a lawn. If the area of the lawn is 2109 sq. m, then what is the
width of the road?
A 2.91 m
B 3m
C 5.82 m
D None of these
Answer: B
Explanation:
Area of the park = (60 x 40) m 2 = 2400 m 2.

2
Area of the lawn = 2109 m 2.
SNAP 2011
Area of the crossroads = (2400 - 2109) m 2 = 291 m 2.
Let the width of the road be x metres.
Then, 60x + 40 x - x2 = 291
x2 - 100 x + 291 = 0
(x - 97)(x - 3) = 0
x = 3.
Question 84
A bag contains 5 white and 3 black balls; another bag contains 4 white and 5 black balls. From any one of
these bags a single draw of two balls is made. Find the probability that one of them would be white and
another black ball.
275
A 504
5
B 18
5
C 9
D None of these
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let P(B1) and P(B2) denote the probabilities of the events of drawing balls from the bag I or bag II.
1
Since both the bags are equally likely to be selected, P(B 1) = P(B 2) = 2
Let E denote the event of drawing two balls of different colours from a bag.
The required probability

E E
= P(B1)P( B1 )+ P(B2)P( B2 )
E
P( B1 ) denote the probability of drawing the two balls from bag I and as that from bag II.
5
1 C1 × 3 C1 5
C1 × 1 C1
= 2 [ 8C
2 + 9C
2 ]
1 15 5
= 2 [ 28 + 9]
275
= 504
Instructions
Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The following bar graph gives the production, exports and per capita consumption of rice in country A, for the five
years from 2006 to 2010.
SNAP 2011
Consumption = Production - Exports
Per Capita Consumption = (Consumption) ÷ (Population)

Question 85
In which year was the percentage increase in the consumption of rice over the previous year, the
highest?
A 2007
B 2008
C 2009
D 2010
Answer: B
Explanation:
From the above table, it is clear that the percentage increase in the consumption of rice over the previous year was
highest in 2008
Question 86
What is the population of country A in the year 2008 (in million)?
A 2.64 million
B 2.72 million
C 2.79 million
SNAP 2011
D 2.85 million
Answer: C
Explanation:
Consumption
Population = Percapita consumption
230−138
In 2008, the population of A = 38.7 = 2.79 million
Question 87
The ratio of exports to consumption in the given period was the highest in the year
A 2006
B 2007
C 2008
D 2009
Answer: A
Question 88
In which of the given years was the population of country A, the highest?
A 2007
B 2008
C 2009
D 2010
Answer: D
Explanation:
Consumption
Population = Percapita consumption
The population of country A was the highest in the year 2010.
Instructions
The following pie chart shows the hourly distribution (in degrees) of all the major activities of a student.
SNAP 2011
Question 89
The percentage of time which he spends in school is:
A 38%
B 30%
C 40%
D 25%
Answer: B
Explanation:
The time spent in school corresponds to $105^0 $$
105
Percentage of time spent in school = 360 × 100
= Approx 30%
Question 90
How much time (in per cent) does he spend in games in comparison to sleeping?
A 30%
B 40%
C 25%
D None of these
Answer: C
Explanation:
Time spent on games corresponds to 400 and on sleeping to 1200
40
Required ratio = 120 × 100
=25%

SNAP 2011
Question 91
If he spends the time in games equal to the home work and remains constant in other activities, then the
percentage decrease in time of sleeping:
A 15%
B 12.5%
C 20%
D None of these
Answer: B
Explanation:
The time spent in playing games and in doing homework corresponds to 30° and 45° respectively.
If the time spent in playing games is equal to that spent on doing homework, then there should be an increase of 15°
in the time spent in games.
If this 15 ° is obtained by decreasing the time spent in sleeping (with the other activities remaining constant),
15 0
The percentage decrease in the time spent in sleeping = 120 0 × 100
= 12.50
Question 92
What is the difference in time (in hours) spent in school and in home work?
A 2
B 3
C 4
D 8
Answer: C
Explanation:
School corresponds to 1050 and homework corresponds to 450
Difference = 1050 - 450
= 600
60
= 360 × 24
= 4 hrs
Question 93
1
If he spends 3 rd time of homework in Mathematics then the number of hours he spends in rest of the
subjects in home work:
A 1
B 2
SNAP 2011
C 3
D 4
Answer: B
Explanation:
The total number of hours = 24
Time spent on homework = 450

45
= 360 × 24 = 3 hrs
1
It is given that she spent 3 rd time of homework in Mathematics.
1
The time she spent on Mathematics = 3 × 3
=1 hr
The time she spent on the rest of the subjects = 3-1 = 2 hr
Instructions
Question 94
Three parallel lines are cut by two transversals as shown in the given figure. If AB = 2 cm, BC = 4 cm and
DE = 1.5 cm, then the length of EF is:
A 2 cm
B 3 cm
C 3.5 cm
D 4 cm
Answer: B
Explanation:
AD is parallel to BE is parallel to CF
AB DE
BC = EF [Basic proportionality theorem]
2 1.5
4 = EF
EF = 3 cm
Question 95
Find the value of log10 10 + log10 102 + ..... + log10 10n
A n2 + 1
2
SNAP 2011
B n2 − 1
(n2 +n) n(n+1)

C 2 . 3
(n2 +n)
D 2
Answer: D
Explanation:
log10 10 + log10 102 + ..... + log10 10n
Since loga a = 1
log10 10 + log10 102 + ..... + log10 10n = 1+2+....n

n(n+1 )
= 2
(n2 +n)
= 2
Question 96
The sum of a number and its reciprocal is thrice the difference of the number and its reciprocal. The
number is:
A ±√2
1
B ± √2
1
C ± √3
D ±√3
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let the number be a
It is given that sum of a number and its reciprocal is thrice the difference of the number and its reciprocal.
1 1
a+ a = 3(a- a )
4
2a = a
2
a= a
a2 = 2
a= ±√2
Question 97
The total number of Natural numbers that lie between 10 and 300 and are divisible by 9 is
A 32
B 30
C 33
SNAP 2011
D 34
Answer: A
Explanation:
The first natural number between 10 and 300 which is divisible by 9 is 18
The last natural number which is divisible by 9 and is less than 300 is 297
This is an AP with first term 18, the last term 297 and common difference = 9
297=18+(n-1)9
279=(n-1)9
n-1 = 31
n=32
Question 98
If nCx = 56 and nPx = 336, then Find n and x?
A 7, 3
B 8, 4
C 8, 3
D 9, 6
Answer: C
Explanation:
nP = nC *r!
r r
nP
x = 336
x∗
nC x! = 336
336
x!= 56
x!=6
x=3
nC
x = 56
n!
(n−x)!× x! = 56
n!
(n−3 )!× 3! = 56
n=8
∴ n= 8, x=3
Question 99
One side of an equilateral triangle is 24 cm. The midpoints of its sides are joined to form another triangle
whose midpoints are in turn joined to form still another triangle. This process continues indefinitely. Find
the sum of the perimeters of all the triangles.
A 144 cm
SNAP 2011
B 72 cm
C 536 cm
D 676 cm
Answer: A
Explanation:
Side of an equilateral triangle= 24 cm
The mid-points of its sides are joined to form another triangle whose mid-points are joined to form another triangle.
This process continues indefinitely.
Side of 2nd equilateral triangle=12 cm [ Line segment joining midpoint of two sides of a triangle is parallel to the third
side and half of it.]
Similarly, Side of third equilateral triangle=6 cm
Sides are 3, 1.5,3/4,....
Perimeter of 1st triangle=24+24+24=72 cm
Perimeter of 2nd triangle=12+12+12=36 cm
Perimeter of 3rd triangle=6+6+6=18 cm
..........
The sum of the perimeter of all the triangles=72+36+18+9+9/2+9/4+........
This is a geometric progression having a common ratio =36/72=1/2
Sum of an infinite G.P=
= 72 × 2
=144 which is the sum of the perimeter of all triangles.
Question 100
The probability that a leap year selected at random contains either 53 Sundays or 53 Mondays, is:
17
A 53
1
B 53
3
C 7
D None of these
Answer: C
Explanation:
Total number of days in a leap year = 366
It will contain 52 weeks and 2days
These two days can be (Sunday, Monday); (Monday, Tuesday); (Tuesday, Wednesday); (Wednesday, Thursday);
(Thursday, Friday); (Friday, Saturday); (Saturday, Sunday)
2
For 53 Sundays, probability = 7
2
Similarly for 53 Mondays, probability = 7
This includes one way where Sunday and Monday occur simultaneously (i.e) Sunday, Monday
1
Probability for this = 7
2 2 1
Hence required probability = 7 + 7 - 7
3
3 SNAP 2011
= 7
Question 101
Find the intercepts made by the line 3x + 4y - 12 = 0 on the axes:
A 2 and 3
B 4 and 3
C 3 and 5
D None of these
Answer: B
Explanation:
x y
The intercept form of the line = a + b = 1 where a is x-intercept and b is y-intercept.
3x + 4y - 12 = 0
3x + 4y = 12
3x 4y
12 + 12 = 1
x y
4 + 3 = 1
So the intercepts are 4 and 3.
Question 102
The average of 4 distinct prime numbers a, b, c, d is 35, where a < b < c < d. a and d are equidistant
from 36 and b and c are equidistant from 34 and a, b are equidistant from 30 and c and d are equidistant
from 40. The difference between a and d is:
A 30
B 14
C 21
Answer: B
Explanation:
Given,
The average of the four prime numbers = 35.
a + b + c + d = 35 * 4 = 140.
Since a and d are equidistant from 36.
a + d = 72 --- Eq (1)
b + c = 68 --- Eq (2)
a + b = 60 --- Eq (3) and c + d = 80 --- Eq (4)
Using the equation (3) let us look for the prime values of a and b and the corresponding values of c and d using Eq 2
and 1.
SNAP 2011
Also given that a < b < c < d.
(a, b, c, d) = 29, 31, 37, 43
d - a = 43 - 29 = 14
Question 103
Ramsukh bhai sells rasgulla(a favourite Indian sweets) at Rs. 15 per kg. A rasgulla is made up of flour
2
and sugar in the ratio 5 : 3. The ratio of price of sugar and flour is 7 : 3 (per kg). Thus he earns 66 3 profit.
What is the cost price of sugar?
A Rs. 10/kg
B Rs. 9/kg
C Rs. 18/kg
D Rs. 14/kg
Answer: D
Explanation:
SP of 1kg rasgulla= Rs.15
200
Profit= 3 %
15×100
500
CP of 1 kg rasgulla = ( 3 ) = Rs. 9
CP of 1 kg of sugar= 7x
CP of 1 kg of floor= 3x
3x 7x
9
7x-9 9-3x
7x−9 5
9−3x = 3
x=2
CP of sugar= 7x= 14 per kg
Question 104
A reduction of 20% in the price of sugar enables a person to purchase 6 kg more for Rs. 240. What is the
original price per kg of sugar?
A Rs. 10/kg
B Rs. 8/kg
C Rs. 6/kg
D Rs. 5/kg
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let the initial price of 100 kg Sugar was Rs. 100.
Now, a 20% decrease in rate then rate of 100 kg sugar would be Rs. 80.
SNAP 2011
So, Rs. 80 = 100 kg sugar.
100
Rs. 100 = 100× 80 = 125 Kg sugar.
Increment in sugar = 25 kg.
125−100
% increment = 100 × 100 = 25%.
25% increment = 6 kg of sugar
total sugar initially = 6*4 =24 kg

240
Original price of the sugar = 24
= Rs. 10 per kg
Question 105
A solid sphere is melted and recast into a right circular cone with a base radius equal to the radius of the
sphere. What is the ratio of the height and radius of the cone so formed?
A 4:3
B 2:3
C 3:4
D None of these
Answer: D
Explanation:
Let the radius of solid sphere be r.
4
The volume of sphere Vs= 3 πr³
It is melted and recast into a right circular cone of radius r and height h.
1
The volume of cone Vc= 3 πr²h
The same volume of material is used for recasting. Therefore,
Vs = Vc
4 1
3 πr³ = 3 πr²h
h = 4r
h
r =4
Question 106
The speed of scooter, car and train are in the ratio of 1 : 4 : 16. If all of them cover equal distance then
the ratio of time taken/velocity for each of the vehicle is:
A 256 : 16 : 1
B 1 : 4 : 16
C 16 : 4 : 1
D 16 : 1 : 4
Answer: A
SNAP 2011
Explanation:
Since distance is constant.
The ratio of speeds of scooter car and train =1:4:16

16 4 1
And therefore, the ratio of time taken = 1 : 4 : 16
1
=16:1: 16 =256:16:1
Question 107
B is twice efficient as A and A can do a piece of work in 15 days. A started the work and after a few days
B joined him. They completed the work in 11 days, from the starting. For how many days did they work
together?
A 1 day
B 2 days
C 6 days
D 5 days
Answer: B
Explanation:
A can do a piece of work in 15 days.
B is twice as efficient as A.
So B can do the same piece of work in 7.5 days.
Assume the total work to be 15 units
A does 1 unit per day and B does 2 units per day.
For the first x days, A worked alone and hence work done per day is
1 * x = x units.
For the next (11 - x) days, A and B worked together. In 1 day, they will do (1 + 2) = 3 units.
So in 11 - x days, they will do 33 - 3x units.
33 - 3x + x = 15
2x = 18 and x = 9.
Thus A worked alone for 9 days the A and B worked together for 2 days.
Question 108
A, B, C and D purchased a restaurant for Rs. 56 lakhs. The contribution of B, C and D together is 460%
that of A, alone. The contribution of A, C and D together is 366.66% that of B’s contribution and the
contribution of C is 40% that of A, B and D together. The amount contributed by D is:
A 10 lakhs
B 12 lakhs
C 16 lakhs
D 18 lakhs
Answer: D
Explanation:
A+B+C+D = 56 -- Eq 1
B+C+D = 4.6A -- Eq 2
11B
A+C+D = 3 --- Eq 3
SNAP 2011
A+B+D = 2.5C --Eq 4
Using Eq 1 and 2, we get A = 10
Using Eq 1 and 4, we get C = 16
Using Eq 1 and 3, we get B = 12
On substituting the values of A, B, C in Eq 1, we get D = 18
Question 109
The salary of Raju and Ram is 20% and 30% less than the salary of Saroj respectively. By what percent is
the salary of Raju more than the salary of Ram?
A 33.33%
B 50%
C 15.18%
D 14.28%
Answer: D
Explanation:
Let the salary of Saroj be 100x
The salary of Raju = 80x
The salary of Ram = 70x

80x−70x
the percent by which the salary of Raju more than the salary of Ram = 70x × 100
1
= 7 × 100
=14.28%
Question 110
The radius of a wire is decreased to one - third and its volume remains the same. The new length is how
many times the original length?
A 2 times
B 4 times
C 5 times
D 9 times
Answer: D
Explanation:
We know that wire is in the shape of a cylinder.
So, the volume of wire = π r2 h
r
π r2 h1 = π ( 3 )2 h2
Cancelling π on both sides,

r2
r2 h1 = 9 h2
9h1 = h2
length is increased by 9 times

SNAP 2011
General English
Instructions
Passage:
D. H. Lawrence - 1885 - 1930: The Supreme Triumph For man, the vast marvel is to be alive. For man as for flower and
beast and bird, the supreme triumph is to be most vividly, most perfectly alive. Whatever the unborn and the dead
may know, they cannot know the beauty, the marvel of being alive in the flesh. The dead may look after the
afterwards. But the magnificent here and now of life in the flesh is ours, and ours alone, and ours only for a time. We
ought to dance with rapture, that we should be alive and in the flesh, and part of the living, incarnate cosmos. I am
part of the sun as my eye is the part of me. That I am part of the earth my feet below know the perfectly, and my blood
is part of the sea. My soul knows that I am a part of the human race, my soul is an inorganic part of the great human
soul, as my spirit is a part of my nation. In my own very self, I am part of my family. There is nothing of me that is
alone and absolute except my mind, and we shall find that the mind has no existence by itself, it is only the glitter of
the sun on the surface of the waters. - Apocalypse, 1931.
Question 111
By triumph the author means-
A sin
B loss
C sorrow
D victory
Answer: D
Question 112
When the dead look after the afterwards the living should look at life
A forever
B for some months
C for only a short while
D in the past
Answer: C
Question 113
By rapture the author means an emotion involving great
A trepidation
B thrill
C fear
D joy
Answer: D
SNAP 2011
Question 114
By the last line “It ……………… waters”, the author means that the mind is only
A a mirage
B an illusion
C magic
D a reflection
Answer: D
Question 115
The tone of this passage is
A social
B moral
C reflective
D philosophical
Answer: D
Question 116
The most suitable title for this passage would be -
A The Surface of the Waters
B My Mind
C The Human Race
D Alive and Kicking
Answer: D
Instructions
Question 117
Choose the correct option.

The repetition of messages or the use of superfluous expressions is called ………….......……
A redundancy
B hyperbole
C alliteration
D allegory
Answer: A
SNAP 2011
Question 118

Ink : pen : paper
A watch : dial : strap
B book : paper : words
C farmer : plough : field
D colour : brush : canvas
Answer: D
Question 119

Choose the correct option for realia
A theoretical constructs
B fabricated examples
C objects from real life
D based on reality
Answer: C
Question 120
Choose the grammatically correct option from the following
A ‘Are these gloves belonging to you?’ she asked.
B ‘Does this gloves belong to you?’ she asked.
C ‘Do these gloves belongs to you?’ she asked.
D ‘Do these gloves belong to you?’ she asked.
Answer: D
Question 121
I live in a house in a street in the countryside. The street is called “Bear Street” and the house is old - more than
A
100 years old!
I live in the house in the street countryside. The street is called “Bear Street” and the house is old - more than 100
B
years old!
I live in a house in the street in the countryside. The street is called “Bear Street” and the house is old - more than
C
100 years old!
I live in a house in a street in the countryside. The street is called “Bear Street” and a house is old - more than 100
D years old!
Answer: A
Question 122
A The teachers will be able to visit our schools and compare our teaching methods to their own.
B The teachers will be able to pay a visit to our schools and compare teaching methods for their own.
C The teachers will be able to visit our schools and compare our teaching methods with their own.
D The teachers will be able to visit our school and compare their teaching method with their own.
Answer: C
Question 123
A Could you give me the amount that you filled out in the check which was sent?
B Could you give me the amount what you filled out in the check you sent?
C Could you give me the amount for which you filled out in the check you sent?
D Could you give me the amount wherein you filled out in the check you sent?
Answer: A
Question 124
A I have completed the work yesterday.
B I did completed the work yesterday.
C I have had completed the work yesterday.
D I completed the work yesterday.
Answer: D
Question 125
A The train couldn’t stop in time and crashed with the truck.
B The train couldn’t stop in time and crashed into the truck.
C The train couldn’t stop in time and crashed against the truck.
D The train couldn’t stop in time and crashed before the truck.
Answer: B
SNAP 2011
Instructions
Choose the correct synonymous word or description for each qouted (" ") word
The Jan Lokpal Bill, also "referred to" (126) as the citizens’ ombudsman bill, is a proposed "independent" (127) anti -
corruption law in India. Anti - corruption social activists proposed it as a more effective improvement on the original
Lokpal Bill, which is currently being proposed by the government of India. The Jan Lokpal Bill aims to effectively "deter"
(128) corruption, redress "grievances" (129) of citizens, and protect whistle - blowers. If made into law, the bill would
create an independent "ombudsman" (130) body called the Lokpal. It would be empowered to register and investigate
complaints of corruption against politicians and bureaucrats without prior government approval. (Source: Wikipedia)
Question 126
Choose the correct option
A described as
B included in
C supported for
D reformed as
Answer: A
Question 127
Choose the correct option
A self - centered
B impartial
C self - seeking
D self - possessed
Answer: B
Question 128
Choose the correct option-
A swell
B prevent
C propel
D lucubrate
Answer: B
Question 129
A complaints
B dishonesty
SNAP 2011
committees
C
D opinions
Answer: A
Question 130
A a government appointee who investigates complaints by private persons against bureaucrats and/or politicians.
B a government appointee who investigates complaints by government against common citizens.
C a government appointee who investigates complaints by citizens against citizens.
D a government appointee who investigates complaints by government against government officials.
Answer: A
Instructions
In the following sentences, one word or a phrase is used wrongly. Choose the word that must be changed or modified
or deleted to make the sentence correct. There are sentences without any errors too.
Question 131
The committee came to a decision to discuss in detail about assorted problems that people have been
facing for a long time.
A came to
B to discuss
C about
D a long time
Answer: C
Question 132
I know you must not see eye to eye with the philosophy of Ramkrishna but you must admit that he had
had tremendous influence over a great many followers.
A see eye to eye
B had had
C influence over
D no error
Answer: B
Question 133
The Principal inquired with the students if they would like their teacher to repeat the lesson again.
SNAP 2011
A inquired with
B to repeat
C again
D no error
Answer: C
Question 134
One of the security guards rushed forward; unlocked the gate and asked whether I had anything
objectionable.
A security guards
B forward
C objectionable
D no error
Answer: D
Instructions
Rearrange the following sentence fragment (P, Q, R and S) to make meaningful sentences.
Question 135
I always told them ………… and consideration for me.

P. How for me she
Q. Always exuded warmth
R. Was like a family’s
S. Elder and how she has
A PRSQ
B PQSR
C PRQS
D SQPR
Answer: A
Question 136
A year or ………… foreign languages

P. I picked up a liking for learning
Q. the largest urban area and primary
R. so after leaving Bangkok
S. city of Thailand and a place of unique beauty
A RPQS
B RQSP
SNAP 2011
RSPQ
C
D SPQR
Answer: B
Instructions
Question 137

This book …………… five sections
A comprises of
B comprises
C consists
D comprises to
Answer: B
Question 138

My grandfather left most of his money to an NGO; the rest went directly to my daughter and
……………......
A I
B me
C myself
D myself too
Answer: B
Question 139

Parts of a country behind the coast or a river’s banks
A Isthumus
B Archipelago
C Hinterland
D Swamps
Answer: C
Instructions
In the questions below, the sentences have been given in Active/Passive voice. From the given alternatives, choose the
one which best expresses the given sentence in Passive /Active voice
SNAP 2011
Question 140
Who is creating this mess?
A Who has been created this mess?
B By whom has this mess been created?
C By whom this mess is being created?
D By whom is this mess being created?
Answer: D
Question 141
You should open the wine about three hours before you use it.
A Wine should be opened about three hours before use.
B Wine should be opened by you three hours before use.
C Wine should be opened about three hours before you use it.
D Wine should be opened about three hours before it is used.
Answer: D
Instructions
Question 142
In the questions below, the passage consist of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given.
(S1, S6 The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled as P,
Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.
S1: Metals are today being replaced by polymers in many applications.
P: Above all, they are cheaper and easier to process making them a viable alternative to metals.
Q: Polymers are essentially a long chains of hydrocarbons molecules.
R: Today polymers as strong as metals have been developed.
S: These have replaced the traditional chromium - plated metallic bumpers in cars.
S6: Many Indian Institutes of Science and Technology run special programmes on polymer science.
The proper sequence should be:
A QRSP
B RSQP
C RQSP
D QRPS
Answer: A
Question 143
Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
FRUGALITY
SNAP 2011
A Foolishness
B Extremity
C Enthusiasm
D Economy
Answer: D
Question 144
Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
HARBINGER
A Massenger
B Steward
C Forerunner
D Pilot
Answer: C
Question 145
Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given words.
EXODUS
A Influx
B Home - coming
C Return
D Restoration
Answer: A
Question 146
Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given words.
EQUANIMITY
A Resentment
B Dubiousness
C Duplicity
D Excitement
Answer: D
Question 147
Find the Odd one out from the group of words.

SNAP 2011
A Bludgeon
B Dragon
C Black Jack
D Order
Answer: D
Question 148
Each pair of capitalized words given is followed by four pair of words. Select the pair that DOES NOT
expresses a relationship similar to that expressed by the capitalized pair.
KERNAL : SHELL
A Caterpillar : Pupa
B Larva : Cacoon
C Lassitude : Syncope
D Passenger : Car
Answer: D
Question 149
Both of them ……………. since their childhood.
A are working here
B work here
C have been working
D are liking to work
Answer: C
Question 150
Although initial investigations pointed towards him ………………….....
A the preceding events corroborated his involvement in the crime.
B The additional information confirmed his guilt
C the subsequent events established that he was guilty
D the subsequent events proved that he was innocent
Answer: D
SNAP 2010
Instructions
Question 1
In a retail outlet, the average revenue was Rs.10,000 per day over a 30 day period. During this period,
the average revenue on weekends (total 8 days) was Rs. 20,000 per day. What was the average daily
revenue on weekdays?
A 6364
B 5250
C 6570
D 8060
Answer: A
Question 2
Two different prime numbers X and Y, both are greater than 2, then which of the following must be true?
A X - Y = 23
B X + Y is not equal to 87
C Both 1 and 2
D None of the above.
Answer: B
Question 3
It takes 6 hours for pump A, used alone, to fill a tank of water. Pump B alone takes 8 hours to fill the
same tank. A, B and another pump C all together fill the tank in 2 hours. How long would pump C take,
used alone, to fill the tank?
A 4.8
B 6
C 5.6
D 3
Answer: A
Question 4
A swimming pool can be filled by pipe A in 3 hours and by pipe B in 6 hours, each pump working on its
own. At 9 am, pump A is started. At what time will the swimming pool be filled if pump B is started at 10
am?
A 11:20 a.m.
B 11:05 a.m.
11:10 a.m.
SNAP 2010
C
D 10:50 a.m.
Answer: A
Question 5
The sum of prime numbers that are greater than 60, but less than 70 is :
A 128
B 191
C 197
D 260
Answer: A
Question 6
Find out the appropriate next number in the series from the options below :
0, 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, ?
A 56
B 62
C 49
D 5
Answer: A
Question 7
A bakery opened with its daily supply of 40 dozen rolls. Half of the rolls were sold by noon, and 60% of
the remaining rolls were sold between noon and closing time. How many dozen rolls were left unsold?
A 6
B 8
C 10
D 12
Answer: B
Question 8
Stuart Jack and Leo are colleagues working in a plant. Stuart and Jack can do a work in 10 days, Jack and
Leo can do the same work in 15 days while Stuart and Leo can do it in 12 days. All of them started the
work together. After two days, Leo was shifted to some other work. How many days will Stuart and Jack
take to finish the rest of the work?
SNAP 2010
A 9
B 12
C 8
D 7.5
Answer: D
Question 9
The missing numbers in the below series would be

1 : 1, 8 : 4, 9 : 27, 64 : 16, 25 : 125, ? : ?, 49 : 343
A 36 : 316
B 216 : 36
C 316 : 16
D 32 : 316
Answer: B
Question 10
The difference between the value of a number increased by 25% and the value of the original number
decreased by 30% is 22. What is the original number?
A 70
B 65
C 40
D 90
Answer: C
Question 11
Running at the same constant rate, 6 identical machines can produce a total of 180 bottles per hour.
How many bottles could 15 such machines produce in 30 minutes?
A 225
B 300
C 250
D 350
Answer: A
Question 12
A number whose fifth part increased by 4 is equal to its fourth part diminished by 10, is :
SNAP 2010
A 240
B 260
C 270
D 280
Answer: D
Question 13
Which of the following numbers will completely divide (461 + 462 + 463 + 464)?
A 3
B 10
C 11
D 13
Answer: B
Question 14
Is 'b' positive?
(I) a + b is positive.
(II) a - b is positive.
A Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
B Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
C Both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
D Both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Answer: D
Question 15
In a general body election, 3 candidates, p, q and r were contesting for a membership of the board. How
many votes did each receive?
(I) p received 17 votes more than q and 103 votes more than r.
(II) Total votes cast were 1703.
C Both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Answer: C
Question 16
SNAP 2010
If C1 and C2 are the circumferences of the outer and inner circles respectively. What is C1 : C2?
(I) The two circles are concentric.
2
(II) The area of the ring is 3 the area of greater circle.
C Both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Answer: B
Question 17
What is the middle number of 7 consecutive whole numbers?

(I) Product of number is 702800.
(II) Sum of the number is 105.
Answer: D
Question 18
Total marks obtained by P, Q, R and S in Mathematics is 360. How many marks did P secure in
Mathematics?
(I) P secured one-third marks of the total of Q, R and S.
(II) Average marks obtained by Q and R are 20 more than that secured by S.
Answer: A
Question 19
How many ice cubes can be accommodated in a container?

(I) The length and breadth of the container is 20 cm and 15 cm respectively.
(II) The edge of the ice cube is 2 cm.

Both statements I and Ii together are necessary to answer the question.
SNAP 2010
C
Answer: D
Question 20
Ram got Rs. 1,500 as dividend from a company. What is the rate of interest given by the company?
(I) The dividend paid last year was 10%.
(II) Ram has 350 shares of Rs. 10 denomination.
Answer: B
Instructions
Refer to the given bar diagram showing the sales (in Rs. crores) of top market brands among pain killers in India and
answer the questions.
Question 21
What is the difference between the sales of Voveran in 2006 and those of Calpol in 2005 (in Rs. lacs)?
A 1000
B 50
C 100
500
SNAP 2010
D
Answer: A
Explanation:
The sales of Voveran in 2006 = 23 Crore
The sales of Calpol in 2005 = 13 Crore
Difference= 10 Crore
i.e 1000 lakhs
Question 22
Percentage of increase in sales from 2005 to 2006 is the highest for which brand of a pain killer?
A Voveran
B Volini
C Dolonex
D Sumo
Answer: C
Explanation:
Percentage of increase in sales from 2005 to 2006:
Voveran: (23-16)/16= 43.75
Volini: (9.5-6.5)/6.5=46.15
Dolonex:(10-6)/6= 66.66
Sumo:(7-5)/5=40
Question 23
Percentage increase in sales from 2005 to 2006 is the lowest for which brand of a pain killer?
A Voveran
B Volini
C Moov
D Nise
Answer: D
Explanation:
Voveran: (23-16)/16= 43.75%
Volini: (9.5-6.5)/6.5=46.15%
Moov: 1/4= 25%
Nise: (18-15)/15=20%
Option D
Question 24
SNAP 2010
What is the approximate percentage of increase in the sales of Voveran from 2005 to 2006?
A 35%
B 40%
C 45%
D 50%
Answer: B
Explanation:
Voveran: (23-16.5)/16.5= 39.39% ..(nearly) 40%
Option B
Instructions
Question 25
Which of the designs best completes the following sequence?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option A is correct,
In the centre region, the dots and stripes are alternating, thus the centre will now be "dots".
Hexagon and circles will alternate in twos.
SNAP 2010
Question 26
What is the number that is one half of one-quarter of one-tenth of 400?
A 2
B 5
C 8
D 10
Answer: B
Explanation:
one-tenth of 400 = 40
one-quarter of 40 = 10
one half of 10 = 5
Option B
Question 27
Consider a square ABCD with midpoints E, F, G and H of sides AB, BC, CD and DA. Let L denote the line
passing through F and H. Consider points P and Q on the line L inside the square such that the angles
APD and BQC are both equal 120 degrees. What is the ratio ABQCDP to the remaining area of ABCD?
( 2)
A 4+ 3
B 2( 3) - 1
C 2+( 3)
(10−3( 3 )
D 9
Answer: B
Explanation:
We can make the following figure from the information given in the question:
Suppose the side of the square ABCD = 2a
∘
SNAP 2010
Angle HAP= 30 ∘
HA= a
a
HP= 3
a2
Area HAP = 2 3
a2
Remaining Area = 4* 2 3
a2
Area of the shaded region= 4a 2 - 4* 2 3
Ratio= Shaded/ Remaining = 2 3-1

Question 28
The price of Darjeeling Tea (in rupees per kilogram) is 100 + 0.1n, on the nth day of a nonleap year (n =
1, 2, 3, ... 100) and then remains constant. On the other hand the price of Ooty tea (in rupees per
kilogram) is 85 + 0.15n, on the nth day (n = 1, 2, ..., 365). On which date of that year will the prices of
these two varieties of the tea be equal?
A 27th October
B 16th June
C 15th June
D 28th October
Answer: B
Question 29
Triangle ABC and Triangle PQR are congruent.

(I) Area of triangle ABC and triangle PQR are same
(II) Triangle ABC and triangle PQR are right angle triangles.
Data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question but the data in Statement II alone is not sufficient to
A
answer the question.
Data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question but the data in Statement I alone is not sufficient to
B
C Data in statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
D Data in statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Answer: D
Question 30
Salary of A and B is in the ratio 3 : 4 and expenditure is in the ratio 4 : 5. What is the ratio of their
savings?
(I) B's saving is 25% of his salary.
(II) B's salary is Rs. 2500.
A
B answer the question.
C Data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
D Data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Answer: A
Question 31
What is the average height of the class?

(I) Average height of the class decreases by 1 cm if we exclude the tallest person of the class whose
height is 56 cm.
(II) Average height of the class increases by 1 cm if we exclude the shortest person of the class whose
height is 42 cm.
A
B
C Data in statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
D Data in statements I and II together is not sufficient to answer the question.
Answer: C
Question 32
Ram is taller than Shyam and Jay is shorter than Vikram. Who is the shortest among them?
(I) Ram is the tallest.
(II) Shyam is taller than Vikram.
A
B
C Data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
D Data in both statements I and II together is not sufficient to answer the question.
Answer: B
Question 33
In September 2009, the sales of a product were (2/3)rd of that in July 2009. In November 2009, the sales
of the product were higher by 5% as compared to September 2009. How much is the percentage of
increase in sales in November 2009 with respect to the base figure in July 2009?
A +40%
B -20%
C -30%
+25%
SNAP 2010
D
Answer: C
Question 34
2
For what range of values of 'x', will be the inequality 15x − ( x ) > 1?
A x > 0.4
1
B x< 3
−1 15
C 3 < x < 0.4, X > 2
−1 2
D 3 < x < 0, X > 5
Answer: D
Question 35
How many litres of a 30% alcohol solution should be added to 40 litres of a 60% alcohol solution to
prepare a 50% solution?
A 30
B 20
C 24
D 32
Answer: B
Question 36
66 cubic centimetres of silver is drawn into a wire of 1mm diameter. The length of the wire in metres will
be :
A 84
B 90
C 168
D 336
Answer: A
Question 37
A train 108 m long moving at a speed of 50 km/hr crosses a train 112 m long coming from opposite
direction in 6 seconds. The speed of the second train is,
A 48 km/hr
B 54 km/hr
C 66 km/hr
82 km/hr
SNAP 2010
D
Answer: D
Question 38
R is a positive number. It is multiplied by 8 and then squared. The square is now divided by 4 and the
square root is taken. The result of the square root is Q. What is the value of Q?
A 3R
B 4R
C 7R
D 9R
Answer: B
Question 39
If the length, breadth and height of the room are in the ratio 3:2:1. The breadth and height of the room
are halved and length of the room is doubled. Then area of the four walls of the room will,
A decrease by 13.64%
B decrease by 15%
C decrease by 18.75%
D decrease by 30%
Answer: D
Question 40
A survey was conducted of 100 people whether they have read recent issues of 'Golmal', a monthly
magazine. Summarized information is presented below :
Only September: 18
September but not August: 23
September and July: 8
September: 28
July: 48
July and August: 10
None of the three months: 24
What is the number of surveyed people who have read exactly for two consecutive months?
A 7
B 9
C 12
D 14
Answer: B
SNAP 2010
Instructions
Question 41
Four children A, B, C and D are having some chocolates each.

A gives B as many as he already has, he gives C twice of what C already has and he gives D thrice of
what D already has.
Now, D gives (1/8)th of his own chocolates to B.
Then A gives 10% chocolates he now owns to C and 20% to B.
Finally, all of them have 35 chocolates each. What is the original number of chocolates each had in the
beginning?
A A - 110, B - 10, C - 10, D - 10
B A - 90, B - 20, C - 20, D - 10
C A - 70, B - 25, C - 25, D - 20
D A - 125, B - 5, C - 5, D - 5
Answer: A
Question 42
There are two similar figures below with some numbers. The left one is complete where as one number is
missing in the right one. Find a suitable number to fill in place of the question mark.
A 280
B 303
C 362
D 382
Answer: A
Question 43
Complete the following series by replacing the ? :

(TBLD, VEPI, XHTN, ?)
A ZJVP
B ZVJP
C ZKXS
ZKXP
SNAP 2010
D
Answer: C
Question 44
In a cricket team, three batsmen Ricky, Sachin and Brian are the top three run-scorers in any order. Each
of them gives two replies to any question, one of which is true and the other is false, again, in any order.
When asked about who the top scorer was, following were the replies they gave:
Sachin : I got the top score. Ricky was second.
Brian : I got the top score. Sachin was second.
Ricky : I got the top score. Sachin was third.
Which of the following is the correct order of batsmen who got the top score, second best and third best
score respectively?
A Brian, Ricky, Sachin
B Brian, Sachin, Ricky
C Ricky, Sachin, Brian
D Sachin, Brian, Ricky
Answer: A
Question 45
60 employees in an office were asked about their preference for tea and coffee. It was observed that for
every 3 people who prefer tea, there are 2 who prefer coffee. For every 6 people who prefer tea, there
are 2 who drink both of tea and coffee. The number of people who drink both is the same as those who
drink neither.
How many people drink both tea and coffee?
A 10
B 12
C 14
D 16
Answer: B
Question 46
A clock strikes once at 1 o'clock, twice at 2 o'clock and so on. If it takes 6 seconds to strike at 3 o'clock,
how much time will it take to strike at 9 o'clock?
A 24 seconds
B 18 seconds
C 20 seconds
D None of these
Answer: A
Instructions
E-1, E-2 and E-3 are three engineering students writing their assignments at night. Each of them starts at a different
time and completes at a different time. The digit in their name and the order of their starting and completing the
assignment is certainly not the same. The last student to start is the first to complete the assignment.
Question 47
Who is the first student to start writing the assignment?
A E-1
B E-2
C E-3
D Cannot be decided
Answer: C
Question 48
Who is the last student to complete the assignment?
A E-1
B E-2
C E-3
D Cannot be decided
Answer: A
Instructions
A, B and C are three students from Don School and P, Q and R are three students fro Elite School. Q is brighter than R
but duller than the Don School student who is brighter than A. The same Don School student is duller than P but is
brighter than C.
Question 49
Who is brightest amongst all?
A B
B P
C R
D Cannot be decided
Answer: B
Question 50
Who is the dullest amongst the three students from Elite School?
A P
B Q
C R
Cannot be decided
SNAP 2010
D
Answer: C
Instructions
Question 51
When Rafael entered the class, there were already 10 students in the class. 5 students entered the class
between Roger and Rafael. Total 10 students entered after Roger. Exactly how many students are in the
class finally?
A 15
B 25
C 27
D Cannot be decided
Answer: D
Instructions
Arijit, Biplab, Chintan, Debashish, Elangovan, Frederick, Gautam and Himadri are sitting around a circular table, Some
information about the order in which they are sitting is available as follows:
(1) Debashish is sitting opposite to Himadri and to the immediate right of Gautam.
(2) Elangovan is sitting to the immediate right of Biplab.
(3) Arijit is sitting opposite Chintan who is not immediately next to Frederick on either side.
Question 52
Who is sitting to the immediate right of Himadri?
A Arijit
B Debashish
C Elangovan
D Frederick
Answer: A
Question 53
Who is sitting opposite Biplab?
A Arijit
B Debashish
C Frederick
D Himadri
Answer: C
Question 54
SNAP 2010
Who is to the immediate right of Chintan?
A Arijit
B Biplab
C Elangovan
D Himadri
Answer: B
Instructions
Question 55
Select the alternative that logically follows the two given statements:
Some rocks are not tables.
Some rocks are balloons.
A Some tables are not balloons
B Some tables are balloons
C Some balloons are not tables
D None of the above
Answer: D
Instructions
A, B, C, D and E sit on a long bench. C does not sit next to A or E. A and E have three persons sitting between them.
Question 56
Who is sitting in the middle of the bench?
A B
B C
C D
D None of these
Answer: B
Question 57
Who are sitting at the extreme ends of the bench?
A A&E
B B&D
C C&E
None of these
SNAP 2010
D
Answer: A
Instructions
Observe the chart and answer the following questions.
Question 58
In the year 1994, the commission earned by salesman D was approximately what percent more of the
commission earned by A?
A 18
B 82.5
C 21
D 17
Answer: C
Question 59
In the year 1993, the commission of B was approximately what per cent of the total commission earned
by five salesmen that year?
A 30
B 20
C 40
D 80
Answer: B
Instructions
Question 60
Find the missing numbers in the following set

SNAP 2010
A 30
B 62
C 42
D 78
Answer: B
Question 61
There are 6 volumes of books on a rack kept in order (such as, vol. 1, vol. 2 and so on). After some
readers used them, their order got disturbed. The changes showed as follows:
Vol.5 was directly to the right of vol. 2
Vol 4 has vol. 6 to its left and both were not at Vol.3's place.
Vol.1 has Vol.3 on right and Vol.5 on left.
An even numbered volume is at Vol.5's place.
Find the order in which the books are kept now, from the four given alternatives:
A 6, 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
B 4, 6, 3, 5, 1, 2
C 3, 4, 1, 6, 5, 2
D 2, 5, 1, 3, 6, 4
Answer: D
Question 62
All German philosophers, except for Marx, are idealists. From which of the following can the statements
above be most properly inferred?
A Except for Marx, if someone is an idealist philosopher, then he or she is German.
B Marx is the only non-German philosopher who is an idealist.
C If a German is an idealist, then he or she is a philosopher, as long as he or she is not Marx.
D Marx is not an idealist German philosopher.
Answer: C
Question 63
Ramaswami was studying for his examinations and the lights went off. It was around 1:00 a.m. He
lighted two uniform candles of equal length but one thicker than the other. The thick candle is supposed
to last six hours and the thin one two hours less. When he finally
went to sleep, the thick candle was twice as long as the thin one. For how long did Ramaswami study in
candle light?
A 2 hours
B 3 hours
C 2 hours 45 minutes
4 hours
SNAP 2010
D
Answer: B
Question 64
The numerator and denominator of a fraction is in the ratio 2:3. If 6 are subtracted from the numerator
2
the value of the fraction becomes 3 of the original fraction. The numerator of the original fraction is,
A 16
B 21
C 18
D 30
Answer: C
Question 65
A person wanted to withdraw X rupees and Y paise from the bank. But cashier made a mistake and gave
him Y rupees and X paise. Neither the person nor the cashier noticed that. After spending 20 paise, the
person counts the money. To his surprise, he has double the amount he wanted to withdraw.
Find X and Y. (1 Rupee = 100 Paise)
A X = 3, Y = 6
B X = 26, Y = 53
C X = 15, Y = 30
D X = 9, Y = 36
Answer: B
Question 66
A drawer contains 10 black and 10 brown socks which are all mixed up. What is the fewest number of
socks you can take from the drawer without looking and be sure to get a pair of the same color?
A 7 pairs
B 7 pieces only
C 10 pieces only
D 3 pieces only
Answer: D
Question 67
A placement company has to assign 1000 SW personnel who are skilled in Java and Dot Net to a
prospective outsourcing company. He finds that 750 are having Dot Net skills and 450 have Java skills.
Some have skills in both Java and Dot Net. Find the numbers who have skills in both Java and Dot Net.
A 250
200
SNAP 2010
B
C 350
D 100
Answer: B
Question 68
All good athletes who want to win are disciplined and have a well balanced diet. Therefore, athletes who
do not have well balanced diets are bad athletes. Based on the sentence above which of the statement
below strongly supports the view :
A No bad athlete wants to win.
B No athlete who does not eat a well balanced diet is good athlete.
C Every athlete who eats a well balanced diet is good athlete.
D All athletes who want to win are good athletes.
Answer: B
Question 69
The numbers in these series are arranged in a triangle which has a logic as shown. Find the missing
numbers shown as (?) from the choices given below:
A {16, 32, 64}
B {8, 1024, 32}
C {24, 1024, 64}
D {16, 320, 64}
Answer: B
Question 70
17x
If for a particular value of the variable x, the following holds good, 17 = (1−x) , then compute the value of
(2x)*x.
A 17
B 1
C 2
1
1 SNAP 2010
D 2
Answer: D
General Awareness
Instructions
Question 71
Name the failed Chinese pro-democracy activist who won this year's Nobel Peace Prize for his 'long and
non-violent struggle for fundamental human rights in China.'
A Went Xiabo
B Wen Jiabao
C Liu Jiabao
D Liu Xiaobo
Answer: D
Question 72
Which government is behind the 'The Nalanda Proposal' proposing Nalanda as an ideal site for
establishing a 21st century learning institution.
A Singapore
B India
C U.K
D China
Answer: A
Question 73
Jimmy Wales and Larry Sanger are known for founding
A Facebook
B Orkut
C Wikipedia
D Google
Answer: C
Question 74
The year 2010 is represented in Roman Numerals as

SNAP 2010
A LX
B MMX
C IIXX
D CCXX
Answer: B
Question 75
In which country is the seat of the United Nations International Court of Justice?
A France
B Norway
C Britain
D Netherlands
Answer: D
Question 76
In 1965 Gordon Moore, Co-founder of Intel, made a prediction about the future of computer processing.
What does his prediction, known as Moore's Law say?
A As technology continues to advance, computer chips will become obsolete.
B Computer processing power will double every 18 months to two years.
C There will eventually be no need for transistors in high-tech electronics.
D As the number of transistors increases, computer processing power will be reduced by half in every two years.
Answer: B
Question 77
'At 60 miles an hour the loudest noise in this new Rolls-Royce comes from the electric clock.' Who wrote
this famous advertising headline?
A David Ogilvy
B Walter Thompson
C Leo Burnett
D Salman Rushdie
Answer: A
Question 78
SNAP 2010
His lie's motto was 'simple living and high thinking'. He was one of the greatest intellectuals and
activists of the 19th century and one of the pillars of the Bengal Renaissance. He was a polymath.
Sanskrit pundit, educator, social reformer writer and philanthropist. Due to his relentless efforts, on
26th July 1856, widow re-marriage was legalized by the then Government of India. Who is this towering
personality?
A Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
B Raja Ram Mohan Roy
C Rabindranath Tagore
D Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
Answer: A
Question 79
Eastace Fernandes who passed away in 2010 was the much admired creator of
A Tom and Jerry
B Amul Girl
C Air India Maharaja
D Snow White
Answer: B
Question 80
Find the mismatch
A Somdev Devvaman - Badminton
B Gagan Narang - Shooting
C Arjun Atwal - Golf
D Anita Sood - Swimming
Answer: A
Question 81
Who designed the new rupee symbol?
A Dilip Chhabria
B D. Udaya Kumar
C Tarun Tahiliani
D S. Arun Kumar
Answer: B
Question 82
SNAP 2010
What exactly is cloud computing/
A A way to organize desktop computers.
B Lightweight software that takes up little space on a hard drive
C Computing resources that can be accessed on demand, like electricity from a utility
D The World Wide Web.
Answer: C
Question 83
What is NDM-1?
National Defence Missile 1, developed by Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO) as a part of
A
the comprehensive missile shield for India.
A bacterial gene called New Delhi Metallolactamase-I, dubbed the 'superbug' because of it being resistant to most
B
antibiotics.
New Directions in Management I - the first among a series of international conferences on Management, to be
C
inaugurated by Bill Gates in Mumbai in January 2012.
D A vision document on Disaster Management, released by Planning Commission.
Answer: B
Question 84
'Niyamgiri Hills'was in the news because of
A Vedanta's failed mining proposal in the area inhabited by Dongria Kondh tribals.
B The helicopter crash and death of Y.S. Rajasekhara Reddy.
C Headquarters of the Naxalite Red corridor.
D Condé Nast Traveller magazine selected it as the best trekking holiday spot in the world.
Answer: A
Question 85
Match the following husband-and-wife team with the awards they have received for exemplary work:
A 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv

1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii
SNAP 2010
B
C 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i
D 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-iii, 4-iv
Answer: B
Question 86
What is Renminbi?
A It is the official currency of the People's Republic of China (PRC), whose principal unit is the Yuan.
B Low cost car being developed by Volkswagen in China, at prices lower than the Nano.
C New aircraft Company floated by Brazil to challenge Boeing and Airbus.
D New currency mooted for the entire ASEAN region like Euro for Europe.
Answer: A
Question 87
Embraer is one of the world leaders in the manufacturing of corporate/business jets. Embraer belongs to
which country?
A Germany
B Japan
C Brazil
D France
Answer: C
Question 88
The Unique Identification (UID) Project, headed by Nandan Nilekani has been renamed as
A Adhaar
B Sambhav
C Sambandh
D Alekh
Answer: A
Question 89
India's first Special Economic Zone dedicated to the Aerospace Industry has been launched at
A Hyderabad
B Hallargi
C Shimla
Ahmedabad
SNAP 2010
D
Answer: B
Question 90
The prime purpose of WTO is to promote
A Financial Support
B Global Peace
C Unilateral Trade
D Multilateral Trade
Answer: D
Question 91
On March 5, 2010, which of the following personalities from India is among 19 members chosen by UN
chief Ban Ki-moon for a high-level advisory group on Climate Change Financing tasked with mobilizing
funds pledged during the Copenhagen meet to tackle global warming?
A Shyam Saran
B Montek Singh Ahluwalia
C Chandhrashekhar Dasgupta
D Pradipto Ghosh
Answer: B
Question 92
Prime Minister Manmohan Singh has termed the 11th Five Year Plan as:
A India's health plan
B India's poverty eradication plan
C India's rural prosperity plan
D India's education plan
Answer: D
Question 93
Which of the following milestones was achieved by New Zealand Cricket Team Captain Daniel Vettori
recently?
A 2,000 runs and 200 wickets in Test Cricket
B 3,000 runs and 300 wickets in One Day Internationals (ODI)

3,000 runs and 300 wickets in Test Cricket
SNAP 2010
C
D 2,000 runs and 200 wickets in One Day Internationals (ODI)
Answer: C
Question 94
What is the full form of the term 'NPA' as used in banking environment?
A Not Profitable Assets
B New Potential Assets
C Non Performing Assets
D Net Performing Assets
Answer: C
Question 95
Which of the following contributes to the highest share of revenue earned by the Government of India?
A Income Tax
B Excise Duty
C Value Added Tax
D Corporate Tax
Answer: D
Question 96
Which country was world's largest exporter with merchandise exports worth Rs. 1.47 trillion in 2008,
according to the World Trade Organization?
A USA
B China
C Germany
D Russia
Answer: C
Question 97
Where in India, recently has the Clinton Foundation, founded by former US President Bill Clinton, firmed
up its plans to set up world's largest solar park (3,000 to 5,000 MW capacity)?
A Bihar
B Orissa
C Gujarat
Rajasthan
SNAP 2010
D
Answer: C
Question 98
Which three public sector lenders have entered recently into a joint venture agreement for setting up a
banking subsidiary, India BIA Bank (Malaysia) Bhd, in Malaysia?
A Bank of India, Indian Overseas Bank and Andhra Bank
B Bank of Baroda, Indian Overseas Bank and Bank of india
C Bank of Baroda, Indian Overseas Bank and Andhra Bank
D Bank of Baroda, Indian Bank and Andhra Bank
Answer: C
Question 99
What is the campaign of Union and State Governments against the Naxalite movement called?
A Operation Red Alert
B Operation Green Hunt
C Operation Cobra Den
D Operation Clean Corridor
Answer: B
Question 100
The instrument used to measure the speed of the wind is
A Altimeter
B Anemometer
C Chronometer
D Dosimeter
Answer: B
Question 101
Which of the following countries is the first in the world to propose a carbon tax for its people to address
global warming?
A Finland
B Japan
C Germany
D Australia
Answer: A
SNAP 2010
Question 102
Amino acids are found in
A Carbohydrates
B Fats
C Proteins
D Vitamins
Answer: C
Question 103
Which among the following is the world's largest milk producing country?
A India
B China
C The US
D Germany
Answer: A
Question 104
A group of words that share the same spelling and the same pronunciation but have different meanings;
e.g. left (opposite of right) and left (past tense of leave)
A Synonyms
B Homonyms
C Heteronyms
D Acronyms
Answer: B
Question 105
The National Flag of India was designed by
A Mahatma Gandhi
B Jawaharlal Nehru
C Rabindra Nath Tagore
D Pingali Venkayya
Answer: D
SNAP 2010
Question 106
In 1679, Denis Papin, a French physicist, who assisted Robert Boyle, used the latter's scientific
discoveries and invented what is today one of the most commonly found kitchen equipment. His
invention earned him a membership of the Royal Society of England. What was the invention?
A Knife
B Fork
C Pressure Cooker
D Stove
Answer: C
Question 107
Mr. Ratan Tata refused a job with one of the following companies to join Tata Steel in 1962. Which
company was it?
A IBM
B HUL
C Seimens
D SKF International
Answer: A
Question 108
Which of the following have owned Land Rover brand before Tata Motors?
A BMW
B British Leyland
C British Aerospace
D All of the above
Answer: D
Question 109
Who is known as 'The Man Who Broke the Bank of England' after he made a reported $1 billion during
the 1992 Black Wednesday UK currency crisis?
A George Soros
B George W Bush
C Paul Volcker
D Ben Bernanke
Answer: A
SNAP 2010
Question 110
Who is the current dean of Harvard Business School?
A Nitin Nohria
B Deepak Jain
C Kim Clark
D None of these
Answer: A
General English
Instructions
Read the passage and then determine the best choice for an answer from the questions given below. Base your choice
on what this passage states directly or implies, not on any information you may have got from else where.
"The emancipation of women", James Joyce told one of his friends, "has caused the greatest revolution in our time."
Other modernists agree: Virginia Woolf, claiming that in a about 1910 "human character changed" and illustrating the
new balance between the sexes, urged, "Read the 'Agamemon' and see whether your sympathies are not almost
entirely with Clytemnestra". D.H. Lawrence wrote "perhaps the deepest fight for 200 years and more has been the
fight for women's independence".
But if modernist writers considered women's revolt against men's domination as one of their "greatest" and "deepest"
themes, only recently, perhaps in the past 15 years has literary criticism begun to catch up with it. Not that the
images of sexual antagonism that abound in modern literature have gone unremarked - far from it. We are able to see
in literary works the perspective we bring to them and now that women are enough to make a difference in reforming
canons and interpreting literature, the landscapes of literary history and the features of individual books have begun
to change.
Question 111
According to the passage, modernists are changing literary criticism by :
A Noting instances of hostility between men and women
B Seeing literature from fresh points of view
C Studying the works of early twentieth-century writers
D Reviewing books written by feminists
Answer: B
Question 112
The author quotes James Joyce, Virginia Woolf and D.H. Lawrence primarily in order to show that:
A These were feminist writers
B Although well-meaning, they were ineffectual

Before the twentieth century, there was little interest in women's literature
SNAP 2010
C
D None of the above
Answer: C
Question 113
The author's attitude towards women's reformation of literary canons can best be described as one of:
A Ambivalence
B Antagonism
C Indifference
D Endorsement
Answer: D
Question 114
Which of the following titles best describes the contents of the passage?
A Modernist Writers and the Search for Equality
B The meaning of Literature from 1910 onwards
C Transforming Literature
D None of the options
Answer: A
Instructions
Question 115
Choose the correct sentence
A A anthropologist by profession, he is also a trained classical singer.
B The anthropologist by profession, he is also a trained classical singer.
C As anthropologist by profession, he is also a trained classical singer.
D An anthropologist by profession, he is also a trained classical singer.
Answer: D
Question 116
Fill in the blanks and choose the correct definition for the punctuation.
______ is used to indicate possession.
A Hyphen
B Apostrophe
Semi colon
SNAP 2010
C
D Period
Answer: B
Question 117
______ is used to mark the end of declarative and imperative sentences.
A Semicolon
B Comma
C Dash
D Period
Answer: D
Question 118
When a subordinate clause is followed by the main clause, ______ is required.
A Dash
B Semi-colon
C Comma
D Colon
Answer: C
Question 119
When no connecting word is used to connect two independent clauses, one should use ________.
A Comma
B Semi-colon
C Period
D Colon
Answer: B
Question 120
Which is the correct proverb?
A Sleeping dogs tell lies.
B Dogs sleeping lie till late.
C Lie sleeping dogs till the dawn comes.

Let the sleeping dogs lie.
SNAP 2010
D
Answer: D
Question 121
Which is the correct proverb?
A A fool is always parted from his money.
B A fool and his money are parted easily.
C Money and the fool must part ways.
D You can always part a fool from his money.
Answer: B
Instructions
Choose the correct meaning of the following idiom.
Question 122
If someone said, "You are the bomb!" she or he probably would be telling you:
A You have a bad temper.
B You are a war weapon.
C You are exceptional and/or wonderful.
D You are dangerous.
Answer: C
Question 123
When someone is described as being "flighty", the person described is probably:
A Light.
B Indecisive and irresponsible.
C Someone who loves flying.
D Someone who flies kites.
Answer: B
Question 124
What does "to take down the enemy" mean?
A To take the enemy's pictures off the wall.
B To kill the enemy.

To make friends with the enemy.
SNAP 2010
C
D To ignore the enemy.
Answer: C
Question 125
What does, "Dime a dozen" mean?
A For one dime you get a dozen
B All dozens cost a dime
C Anything that is common and easy to get.
D It is difficult to get people.
Answer: B
Question 126
"Throw the baby out with the bath water" means,
A Clean out everything
B Throw out the good things with the unwanted.
C Being thorough
D Create the impression of an accident
Answer: B
Question 127
"Bark up the wrong tree" means,
A Skin of another animal
B Behave like a dog
C Purposely make an error
D Make the wrong choice
Answer: D
Instructions
Question 128
I _______ my bike yesterday, so my legs are sore.
A road
B rode
C rhode
ride
SNAP 2010
D
Answer: B
Question 129
Insulation was fitted to _____ further heat loss from the building.
A guard
B protect
C save
D prevent
Answer: D
Question 130
A _______ rate of inflation makes exports difficult.
A great
B high
C large
D tall
Answer: B
Question 131
My boat has two _______.
A sales
B sails
C sailes
D sells
Answer: B
Question 132
Can you give me ______ details, please?
A faster
B further
C farther
D furthur
Answer: B
SNAP 2010
Question 133
A baby deer is called a _____.
A Foal
B Fawn
C Calf
D Joe
Answer: B
Instructions
Complete the sentence by choosing the correct words from the given alternatives.
Question 134
The greatest ______ of my generation is that a human being can alter his life by _____ his attitude.
A gift ... gifting
B discovery ... altering
C misgiving ... elevating
D thing ... flaunting
Answer: B
Question 135
When it comes to staying ______, a mind-lift beats a ______ any day.
A young ... face-lift
B at home ... egg
C light ... elevator
D away ... sleep
Answer: A
Question 136
None are so ______ as those who are full of themselves.
A empty
B important
C vital
D indispensible
Answer: A
SNAP 2010
Question 137
Your most unhappy customers are your greatest source of ______.
A earning
B irritation
C worry
D learning
Answer: D
Instructions
Question 138
Choose the correct antonym for the word below from the options provided.
'Eulogize'
A Extol
B Criticize
C Emulate
D Amulet
Answer: B
Question 139
Correct synonym for Pedantic is,
A Referring to small children
B Teaching Methodology
C Finicky
D Angry
Answer: C
Question 140
Pyrophobia mean
A Fear of pythons
B Fear of funeral pyres
C Fear of fever
D Fear of fire
Answer: D
SNAP 2010
Instructions
Choose the kangaroo word that carries a small version of the word with a very similar meaning:
Question 141
A Masculine
B Woman
C Man
D Child
Answer: A
Question 142
A Sleep
B Respite
C Walk
D Talk
Answer: B
Instructions
Question 143
Choose the word that completes the first and begins the second word.
Paper _______ and ________ lifter.
A cone
B weight
C light
D fly
Answer: B
Question 144
Choose the word that cannot be coupled with the given word to form a new word. Out
A Shine
B Number
C Bug
D Run
Answer: C
SNAP 2010
Question 145
Choose the word that cannot be coupled with the given word to form a new word.
News
A Letter
B Week
C Stand
D Paper
Answer: B
Question 146
I did not see you _____ the office party.
A in
B for
C at
D on
Answer: C
Question 147
Fill in the blanks with the correct simile.

As cool as
A a cucumber
B the winter night
C an ice cream
D a rock star
Answer: A
Question 148
Fill in the blanks with the correct simile.

As fresh as
A a daisy
B a rose
C milk
D dew
Answer: A
SNAP 2010
Question 149
Choose the option that does not belong with the rest:
A Consort
B Spouse
C Partner
D Clear
Answer: D
Question 150
Nerd means
A Genius
B Uninteresting person
C Worm
D Arthropod
Answer: B

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SNAP

Which is the seventh number in the sequence 5, 9, 16, 29, 54,

The time period is directly proportional to the length of the pendulum.

Lectures by industry experts have to be scheduled in Marketing, Finance, Operations, Organisational

Which lecture is scheduled on Monday?

=> Marketing cannot be scheduled on Tuesday as it is inconvenient for the expert.

=> Expert for Finance is available only on Tuesday.

Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday

Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday

A Golu and Gannu are cousins

B Golu's nephew is Gannu

C Golu's maternal uncle is Gannu

D None of the option is correct

If Pig: Farrow and Lion : Cub, then Bear :

Baby Lion is called a Cub.

Baby bear is also called a Cub.

B The slow train is further from Chennai

C Both the trains are equidistant from Chennai

D None of the option is correct

Given the series Z, Y, X, V, S, the next alphabet will be?

If PUNE / GOA = 1 and CHENNAI / GOA = 1.5, then MUMBAI / PUNE = ?

Find the missing number (?)

Find the missing number (?)

D None of the option is correct

So after 3924 turns, it will face Jayesh.

After 3926 turns he will face Mahesh.

The three centres will form an equilateral triangle. R= 2/3* 3r

C A, B and C will keep glowing

D C will be put off and the status of A and B be cannot determined

Find the missing number in the series:

The mirror image of each sequence will be

Invert the digits

91, __, 89, 88

90 inverted digits will be 06.

In the first elimination round, 15 players will be eliminated. ( 15 matches )

In the second elimination round, 7 players will be eliminated. (7matches)

In the third elimination round, 4 players will be eliminated. (4matches)

In the fourth elimination round, 2 players will be eliminated. (2matches)

Final Match (1 match)

Total matches= 1+2+4+7+15 matches

The number of friends who went to Mumbai=T/5 =15/5=3

The second carton has the message: No cash in the Carton.

D None of the option is correct

D None of the option is correct

None of the above figures can make the given shape.

C I and II together or I and III together

D II and III together

We can make the following schedule

8.00 am- 9.00 am: Service Marketing

9.00 am- 10.00 am: International Marketing

10.00 am- 11.00 am: ____________

11.00 am- 12.00 noon: ____________

Statement II. Rural Marketing was scheduled as the last class.

Hence the correct answer is Option C

A II and III together

B I and III together

C I, II and III together

C I, II and Ill together

Hence Option D is correct.

(Note: - Do NOT include any spaces in your answer)

In the alphabetical order M=13, A=1, S=19, T=20, E=5, R=18

The sequence is (n x 6)+1: 79= 13x6+1 7= 1x6+1 115= 19x6+1

Thus the sequence for LAUGH will be

Leap year have 366 days i.e ( 7x52+2 days