24/03/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 TEST SERIES for NEET-2020 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Test - 2
Topics covered :
Physics : Laws of motion, Work, Energy and Power
Chemistry : Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure,
States of Matter: Gases and Liquids
Botany : Morphology of Flowering Plants, Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Zoology : Structural Organization in Animal, Biomolecules

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer :
1. A cubical block A of mass 10 kg and a block B of
mass 2 kg are connected via string-pulley system
as shown in the figure. If one end of the string is
pulled with a force 20 N as shown, then the
2. In which of the following cases, would the weight
of a body as recorded by a physical beam
balance be greater than the true weight of the
body?
(1) In an elevator accelerating upwards

acceleration of wedge will be (All surfaces are (2) In an elevator accelerating downwards
smooth. Pulley and strings are ideal) (3) In an elevator moving up with constant speed
(4) None of the above
3. Consider a hypothetical situation, where
electromagnetic interactions between the
charges do not exist. In such a situation, which of
the following would not be possible?
(1) 4 m/s2
(1) Sitting on a chair
(2) 2 m/s2
(2) Holding a pen
(3) 1 m/s2
(3) Climbing stairs
2
(4) 8 m/s (4) All of the above

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Test-2 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

4. A block of mass m is suspended through a 9. A ball of mass 2 kg, initially moving with a
vertical spring of spring constant k as shown in velocity (2iˆ  ˆj ) m/s collides with a ball of mass
the figure. If the block is pulled down by a
4 kg, initially at rest. If, after the collision, the
mg
distance from equilibrium position and lighter ball comes to rest, then the velocity of the
4k
released, then the initial acceleration of the block heavier ball after the collision is
will be  ˆj 
(1)  iˆ   m/s
 
2

(2) (iˆ  jˆ) m/s

(3) (2iˆ  ˆj ) m/s

(4) (iˆ  2 jˆ) m/s

(1) g/3 (2) g/4
(3) g/5 (4) g 10. A force F(t) = (6 – 8t) N varying with time (t) acts
5. A bullet of mass 40 g is fired from a gun with on a particle moving along x-axis. The magnitude
initial velocity of 40 m/s. If the mass of the gun is of impulse imparted to the particle from t = 0 to
3 kg, then the recoil velocity of the gun just after t = 10 s is
fire will be (1) 300 N-s (2) 340 N-s
(1) 3.6 m/s (2) 1.87 m/s (3) 210 N-s (4) 120 N-s
(3) 0.53 m/s (4) 1 m/s 11. Two blocks A and B of masses 2m and 4m
6. A spring of spring constant k is cut into three respectively are connected to each other by an
parts of lengths in ratio 1 : 2 : 1. The algebraic ideal spring. The whole system is suspended
addition of spring constants of these springs will
with the help of an inextensible string as shown
be
in the figure. If the system is initially in
(1) k (2) 10k equilibrium, then the acceleration of A just after
(3) 8k (4) 6k cutting the string, is
7. The tension in the string as shown in the figure is
[g = 10 m/s2] (All surfaces are smooth)

g
(1) (2) 2g
(1) 23.3 N (2) 50 N 2
(3) 30 N (4) 46.67 N (3) g (4) Zero
8. A block of mass 2 kg is placed on the top of a 12. The linear momentum (P) versus time (t) graph
block of mass 4 kg as shown in the figure. The for a particle is as shown in the figure. The
coefficient of friction between the blocks is particle will be in equilibrium at time (t) equal to
0.2, while the ground is smooth. The acceleration
of 2 kg block, with respect to ground is

(1) t1 (2) t2
(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 8 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2 (4) 2 m/s2 (3) t3 (4) Both (2) and (3)

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-2 (Code-A)

13. Which of the following potential energy curves 17. An engine lifts 90 tonne of coal per hour from a
can possible describe the elastic collision mine whose depth is 200 m. The power of the
between two billiard balls (r is distance between engine is (g = 9.8 m/s2)
centre of balls and R is radius of balls). (1) 176.4 kW (2) 22 kW
(3) 89 kW (4) 49 kW
18. A block of mass m is suspended by a light string
(1) (2) from an elevator. The elevator starts accelerating
downward from rest with uniform acceleration a.
The work done by tension in the string on the
block during first t second is (a < g)

(3) (4)

14. A particle is displaced from (1m, 2m) to (2m, 4m).

If work done by force F  2iˆ   jˆ is zero for this
m
displacement, then  is equal to (1) (a  g ) at 2 (2) m(a  g) at 2
2
(1) –1 (2) 1 m
(3) (g  a) at 2 (4) m(g  a) at 2
(3) 2 (4) –2 2
19. The potential energy stored in a spring with
15. A force (2iˆ  4 jˆ) N acts on a block of mass 4 kg compression x is U. The potential energy in the
as shown in the figure. The frictional force acting same spring when it has an extension of 2x is
on the block is (g = 10 m/s2) (1) U (2) 4U
(3) 3U (4) 10U
20. From the top of a tower of height h, a particle is
thrown with a speed v. The speed with which the
particle strikes the ground is
(1) Maximum if projected at an angle of 45° with
horizontal
(1) 3 N (2) 4 N (2) Maximum if projected at an angle of 60° with
horizontal
(3) 1 N (4) 2 N
(3) Maximum if projected vertically downwards
16. A bob of pendulum is released from a horizontal
(4) Same for all angles of projections
position A as shows in the figure. If the length of
21. When a ball collides head-on with a massive
the pendulum is 4 m, what is the speed with
wall, it loses one-fourth of its kinetic energy. The
which the bob arrives at lowermost point B, given
coefficient of restitution is
that 95% of its initial energy is dissipated against
1 1
air resistance. (1) (2)
2 4
1 3
(3) (4)
2 2
22. Consider a motion of particle with mechanical
energy E. If U denotes potential energy, K denote
kinetic energy and E denotes mechanical energy
then which of the following is not possible?
(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s
(1) U < E (2) U > E
(3) 3 m/s (4) 4 m/s
(3) K > E (4) K < E

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Test-2 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

23. Consider the following two statements. 28. A particle is dropped from a height. Taking g to
(a) Every force encountered in mechanics has be constant everywhere, the variation of net
an associated potential energy. mechanical energy of the particle as a function of
time before striking the ground is best
(b) Kinetic energy conservation in elastic
represented by (Neglect air resistance)
collision is valid at every instant during the
collision.
The correct statement(s) are (1) (2)
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only
(3) (a) and (b) both (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
24. The approximate energy required to turn a page
of an Aakash study package is 10–3 J. The (3) (4)
energy in electron-volt is
9 –22
(1) 1.88 × 10 eV (2) 1.6 × 10 eV
29. Two blocks of masses 3 kg and 4 kg respectively
16 15
(3) 3.46 × 10 eV (4) 6.25 × 10 eV are placed on a smooth horizontal surface. They
25. Graph between potential energy versus are connected by a light spring of force constant
deformation in a spring is a k = 200 N/m. Initially the spring is unstretched.
The indicated velocities are imparted to the
(1) Parabola (2) Circle
blocks. Find the maximum extension in the
(3) Straight line (4) Hyperbolic spring.
26. A small block of mass m is placed inside a
smooth hollow sphere of radius R at lowest
position. Initially system was at rest as shown in
the figure. Now the sphere is given a constant (1) 30 cm (2) 20 cm
horizontal acceleration g by an external agent. (3) 10 cm (4) 5 cm
The maximum angular displacement of block with 30. Consider the following two statements.
vertical, w.r.t. sphere is (a) Linear momentum of the system is zero.
(b) Kinetic energy of the system is zero.
Choose the correct statement.
(1) (a) implies (b) and (b) implies (a)
(2) (a) does not imply (b) and (b) does not
imply (a)
(3) (a) implies (b) and (b) does not imply (a)
(1) 60° (2) 30°
(4) (b) implies (a) and (a) does not imply (b)
(3) 45° (4) 90°
31. A particle is dropped from a height 100 m. If the
27. A rigid body of mass 4 kg is under the influence
coefficient of restitution of collision of the particle
of a force such that its displacement at any time t
1
t2 with the ground is , then the maximum height
(in second) is s  metre. The work done by 2
2 attained by the particle after three collisions with
the force in first two seconds will be the ground is
(1) 4 J (2) 6 J (1) 15.625 m (2) 31.25 m
(3) 8 J (4) 10 J (3) 1.5625 m (4) 3.125 m

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-2 (Code-A)

32. A small block of mass 4 kg is placed in (1) 15 kg (2) 30 kg

equilibrium inside a rough bowl which is
paraboloid in shape as shown in the figure. The
height of mass from the ground is 1.8 m. The net
contact force by the bowl on the mass has a
magnitude (g = 10 m/s2)
(3) 60 kg (4) Zero
37. Two masses A and B are suspended vertically
with help of two strings. The ratio of tension in
strings is  . If the whole apparatus is taken in an
elevator accelerating upwards, then this ratio

(1) 20 N (1) Increases (2) Decreases

(2) 40 N (3) Remains same (4) None of these
(3) 80 N 38. Two small balls A and B, of mass 2 kg and 4 kg
(4) Insufficient information are moving with velocity (2iˆ  4 jˆ)m/s and
33. Consider the system of blocks as shown in the
figure. The acceleration of 4 kg block, when the (2iˆ) m/s respectively. After the balls collide, the
2 kg block has an acceleration 4 m/s2 is velocity of ball A is (2iˆ  jˆ) m/s, then the velocity
of ball B will be

(1) 3 m/s2 (2) 4 m/s2 (1) (2iˆ  2 jˆ) m/s (2) (2iˆ  1.5 jˆ) m/s
(3) 1 m/s2 (4) 2 m/s2
(3) (iˆ  jˆ) m/s (4) (iˆ  2 ˆj ) m/s
34. A man standing on a rough horizontal disc
rotating with constant angular velocity of 39. A horizontal force of 20 N is necessary to just
10 rad/s. The distance from the centre of disc hold a block stationary against a wall. The
where he should stand so he does not slip on the coefficient of friction between the block and the
disc is (coefficient of friction between disc and
wall is 0.4. The weight of the block is
man feet is 0.4)
(1) R  0.04m (2) R  0.02m
(3) R  0.04m (4) R  0.02m
35. A railway carriage is moving on a horizontal track
with an acceleration a. A passenger sitting in the
carriage drops a stone. The acceleration of (1) 8 N (2) 16 N
stone, relative to the railway platform
(3) 4 N (4) 10 N
(1) a (2) g
40. The position-time graph of a body of mass
(3) a2  g2 (4) Zero 12 kg is given in the figure. What is the impulse
36. Two masses of 15 kg each are suspended on the body at t = 4 second.
through two strings tied to a spring balance after
passing over frictionless pulleys. The reading of
the balance will be

(1) 34 kg m/s (2) 28 kg m/s

(3) 12 kg m/s (4) 25 kg m/s

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Test-2 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

41. In the arrangement shown in the figure, all strings (1) 30 J (2) 15 J
and pulleys are ideal and surface are smooth. (3) 25 J (4) 20 J
The acceleration of the block is
44. A block of mass 4 kg falls on a spring from a
height of 15 cm. If the spring constant of spring is
2000 N/m, then maximum compression in spring
is

(1) 10 m/s2 (2) 20 m/s2

(3) 40 m/s2 (4) 5 m/s2
42. A uniform thick rope of length 10 m is kept on a
frictionless surface and a force of 10 N is applied
to one of its end. The tension in the rope at a
distance 1 m from this end will be
(1) 1 N (2) 5 N (1) 14 cm (2) 18.2 cm
(3) 9 N (4) 10 N (3) 12.6 cm (4) 10 cm
43. The relationship between the force F and position 45. A small bob of mass m is attached to one end of
X of a body is as shown in figure. The work done a light rigid rod, of length l, whose other end is
in displacing the body from X = 0 to X = 6 m is hinged so that it can rotate in vertical plane. The
minimum horizontal speed that must be imparted
to the bob (when the bob is vertically suspended)
such that the bob just completes circular path is

(1) 5gl (2) 4gl

(3) 2gl (4) 6gl

CHEMISTRY
46. According to modern periodic law, the physical 51. Minimum ionic radii among the following is of
and chemical properties of the element are (1) K
+
(2) Al
3+
periodic function of 2– 2–
(3) O (4) S
(1) Atomic number
52. Correct order of decreasing negative electron
(2) Atomic mass
gain enthalpy is
(3) Mass number
(1) S > Se > Te > O (2) S > O > Se > Te
(4) Number of neutrons
(3) O > S > Se > Te (4) Te > S > Se > O
47. Atomic number of element Uns is
53. Electronegativity value of Cl on Pauling scale is
(1) 115 (2) 106 similar to
(3) 107 (4) 119 (1) C (2) N
48. In which period, Lanthanoid series is present? (3) O (4) S
(1) 3 (2) 4 54. Neutral oxide among the following is
(3) 5 (4) 6 (1) CO (2) NO
49. General electronic configuration of d-block (3) N2O (4) All of these
elements is
55. Correct order of ionisation enthalpies is
(1) nd1–10 ns0–2 (2) (n – 1) d1–10 ns0–2
(1) Li < Be < B < C (2) Li < B < Be < C
(3) nd1–10 (n – 1) s2 (4) nd1–10 (n – 1) s1–2 (3) Li < C < B < Be (4) Be < Li < B < C
50. Maximum atomic radius among the following is of 56. Which one of the following is a metalloid?
(1) Be (2) Mg (1) As (2) Ge
(3) B (4) Al (3) Te (4) All of these

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-2 (Code-A)

57. The hybridisation of Cl in ClF3 is 67. Select the incorrect statement regarding
(1) sp3d (2) sp3d2 molecular orbital theory.
(1) The number of molecular orbitals formed is
(3) sp3 (4) dsp2
equal to the number of atomic orbitals
58. Formal charge on N in is combining
(1) Zero (2) –1 (2) The bonding molecular orbital has lower
energy than corresponding antibonding
(3) +1 (4) +3 molecular orbital
59. Which among the given molecules does not (3) Molecular orbitals follow Hund’s rule
contain a central atom with expanded octet? (4) Molecular orbitals do not follow Aufbau rule
(1) PF5 (2) SF6 68. Which of the following molecular orbitals does not
contain nodal plane?
(3) H2SO4 (4) NH3
(1)  1s (2) *1s
60. Ease of electrovalent bond formation increases
(3)  * 2px (4)  * 2pz
with
(1) High ionisation enthalpy 69. Which of the following species contains only
 bond?
(2) Low negative electron gain enthalpy
(1) H2 (2) C2
(3) High ionisation and negative electron gain
(3) N2 (4) O2
enthalpy
70. Paramagnetic species among the following is
(4) Low ionisation and high negative electron
gain enthalpy (1) N2 (2) N2

61. Which among the given pairs does not have (3) O2 (4) All of these
identical bond order? 71. Which of the following molecules does not exist?
(1) O22 and F2 (2) CO and NO (1) He2 (2) H2

+
(3) Be2 (4) Both (1) and (3)
(3) N2 and CO (4) N2 and NO
72. Total number of electrons present in antibonding
62. Polar molecule among the following is molecular orbitals in N2 are
(1) BF3 (2) CO2 (1) 2 (2) 4
(3) BeF2 (4) H2O (3) 6 (4) 8
73. Strongest H-bonding takes place in
63. Shape of SF4 molecule is
(1) HF (2) H2O
(1) See saw (2) Tetrahedral
(3) NH3 (4) CH3OH
(3) Square planar (4) Octahedral
74. For linear shape, central atom must have
64. Zero overlap takes place between which of the (1) Two bond pairs only
following, if x-axis is the inter-nuclear axis?
(2) Two bond pairs and two lone pairs
(1) 1s and 2s (2) 2px and 2s (3) Two bond pairs and three lone pairs
(3) 2px and 2py (4) 2px and 1s (4) Both (1) and (3)
* 75. Minimum bond length is in
65. In the given compound CH3  CH  C  CH2 ,
(1) O2 (2) O2
hybridisation of the marked carbon atom is
(1) sp (2) sp2 (3) O2 (4) O22

(3) sp3 (4) dsp2 76. In London force, the interaction energy is
inversely proportional to the (r = distance
66. Number of 90° angle(s) in PCl5 is between two particles)
(1) Zero (2) 3 (1) r (2) r2
(3) 5 (4) 6 (3) r3 (4) r6
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Test-2 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

77. Which of the following is not a characteristic of 83. van der Waal’s equation for 1 mol gas at low
pressure is
gaseous state?
 a 
(1) Gases are highly compressible (1) P   V  RT
 V2 
(2) Gases exert pressure in all directions equally (2) P(V – b) = RT
(3) Gases cannot mix evenly and completely in  1
(3) P   (V  b)  RT
all proportions without any mechanical aid  V2 
(4) The volume and shape of gases are not fixed (4) PV = RT
78. Select the incorrect graph regarding Boyle’s law 84. If compressibility factor for a real gas at STP is 2
then the volume occupied by 1 mole of real gas is
(1) 11.2 L (2) 22.4 L
(1) (2) (3) 44.8 L (4) 2.24 L
85. Select the incorrect statement regarding kinetic
theory of gases
(3) (4) (1) There is no interparticle force of attraction
(2) Particles of a gas are always in constant and
random motion
79. If volumes of a gas at 0°C and t°C respectively (3) Different particles of the gas, have different
are V0 and Vt then select the correct relation speeds
V0 (4) Collision of gas molecules are inelastic
(1) Vt 
273.15 86. Unit of van der Waal constant ‘a’ is
V t atm L2 atmmol2
(2) Vt  0 (1) (2)
273.15 mol2 L2
 t  atm2 mol
(3) V0  Vt 1  (3) (4)
atmmol
 273.15  L2 L2
 t 
(4) Vt  V0 1 87. Maximum critical temperature among the
 273.15  following is of
80. Equal masses of O2 and SO2 are mixed in an (1) H2 (2) He

empty container at 25°C. If total pressure of the (3) N2 (4) NH3

container is 9 atm then the partial pressure of O 2 88. Different gases at same temperature must have
gas is (1) Same volume
(2) Same mass
(1) 1 atm (2) 3 atm
(3) Same pressure
(3) 4.5 atm (4) 6 atm
(4) Same average kinetic energy
81. Mass of 11.2 L CH4 gas at S.T.P. is
89. Maximum density of CO2 gas is at
(1) 4 g (2) 8 g (1) 300 K and 2 atm
(3) 16 g (4) 32 g (2) 300 K and 1 atm
82. Real gas behaves as ideal gas at (3) 300 K and 4 atm
(4) 200 K and 4 atm
(1) Low temperature and high pressure
90. Under identical conditions rate of diffusion of CH4
(2) Low temperature and low pressure
is twice the rate of diffusion of
(3) High temperature and low pressure (1) O2 (2) O3
(4) High temperature and high pressure (3) SO2 (4) SO3

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-2 (Code-A)

BOTANY
91. Radial and bilateral symmetry is found 99. Find the odd one out w.r.t. androecium.
respectively in flowers of (1) Androecium is outermost whorl of the flower
(1) Pea and tomato (2) Sem and chilli and it is a male reproductive system
(3) Chilli and pea (4) Bean and Pea (2) Stamen consists of a filament and anther
92. Inferior ovary is found in (3) A sterile stamen is called staminode
(1) Cucumber and ray florets of sunflower (4) When stamens are free then they are called
polyandrous
(2) Brinjal and peach
100. Pneumatophores in Rhizophora are
(3) Mustard and brinjal (1) Modified stem and helpful in respiration
(4) China rose and rose (2) Modified root and helpful in photosynthesis
93. Prop roots found in banyan trees (3) Modified root and helpful in respiration
(1) Are responsible for photosynthesis (4) Modified leaves and perform respiration
(2) Provide mechanical support 101. Aggregate fruits are found in
(3) Enter the soil obliquely for storage of food (1) Cucumber (2) Strawberry
(4) Are modified for respiration (3) Guava (4) Sunflower
94. Region of meristematic activity in root 102. Fruits which develop from entire inflorescence
are called
(1) Is also called zone of maturation
(1) Aggregate fruits (2) Composite fruits
(2) Is found few millimetres above the root cap
(3) Multiple fruits (4) Both (2) and (3)
(3) Is the part of root cap and protects the tender
103. Aleurone layer in monocotyledonous seeds is
apex
(1) Triploid and is part of scutellum
(4) Contains root hair and thus help in absorption
of water (2) Diploid and is part of endosperm
95. Modified stem, bulb is found in all, except (3) Diploid and proteinaceous
(4) Triploid and is part of endosperm
(1) Onion (2) Lily
104. Micropyle of dicot seed
(3) Zaminkand (4) Garlic
(1) Develops from integuments and forms the
96. Stem tendrils seed coat
(a) Are long, thin thread like structures (2) Consists of embryonal axis and two
(b) Provide support to weak and tender stem cotyledons
(c) Are found in Pistia and Eichhornia (3) Formed as the result of double fertilization
Correct statements are (4) Found above the hilum as a small pore
(1) (a), (b) and (c) 105. Find the incorrect match.
(2) (a) and (c) (1) Runner – Grass
(2) Food storing fleshy leaves – Onion
(3) (a) and (b)
(3) Stolon – Water hyacinth
(4) (b) and (c)
(4) Tuber – Potato
97. Phyllode of Australian Acacia is
106. In Primrose
(1) Modified stem (2) Modified leaflet
(1) Ovules are borne on central axis and septa
(3) Modified petiole (4) Modified root are absent in the ovary
98. In insectivorous plant such as Nepenthes (2) Ovary is one-chambered but false septum is
(1) Leaves modified for storage of food present
(2) Lamina of leaves modified into pitcher (3) Placenta is present in axial position and
ovules are attached to it
(3) Stem is modified to trap insects
(4) Placenta forms a ridge along the ventral
(4) Petiole of leaves modified into pitcher suture of ovary

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Test-2 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

107. Find the odd one out about epipetalous stamen
(1) In this condition stamen is attached to petal
(2) Stamen is attached to tepals
(3) This condition is present in chilli
(4) Potato and tomato also have epipetalous
androecium
108. Find the incorrect match w.r.t. symmetry of
flower.
Symmetry Example
114. Which of the following is wrong statement?
(1) Hypodermis of dicot stem is made up of
collenchymatous cells
(2) General cortex is parenchymatous in both
stem and roots
(3) Hypodermis of monocot stem is made up of
collenchymatous cells
(4) Endodermis is located around the pericycle
and composed of compactly arranged cells

(1) Actinomorphic Mustard 115. Pericycle is not seen in

(2) Zygomorphic Cassia (1) Monocot stems and dicot stems
(3) Asymmetric Canna (2) Monocot roots and dicot roots
(4) Actinomorphic Bean (3) Monocot stems only
109. Read the statements and select the correct
(4) Dicot stems only
option.
116. When protoxylem is formed towards centre and
(A) Pericarp is the fruit wall and can be
metaxylem towards the periphery, then this
differentiated into endocarp, mesocarp and
condition is called
epicarp.
(B) Nucellus remains persistent in the seeds of (1) Endarch or centripetal
black pepper and is called perisperm. (2) Exarch or centrifugal
(1) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect (3) Exarch or centripetal
(2) Only (A) is correct
(4) Endarch or centrifugal
(3) Only (B) is correct
117. Which of the following is not true about
(4) Both (A) and (B) are correct isobilateral leaf?
110. The largest posterior petal in pea flowers is called
(1) Stomata present on both surfaces are equal
(1) Standard (2) Wings in numbers
(3) Keel (4) Stipule (2) Lower epidermis contain bulliform cells which
111. Find the correct match. helps in rolling of leaves
Plant Type of fruit (3) Mesophyll is not differentiated into the
(1) Litchi Drupe palisade and spongy parenchyma
(2) Apple Pome (4) Each vascular bundle is surrounded by a
(3) Pear Berry layer of thin walled cells called bundle sheath

(4) Tomato Pepo 118. Dicot leaf

112. Find the odd one out w.r.t. intercalary meristem. (1) Contains bulliform cells
(1) It is intercalated between meristematic (2) Usually has parallel venation
tissues
(3) Has middle prominent vein called midrib
(2) They are separated from the apex of organ
by mature tissues (4) Has conjoint and open vascular bundle
(3) They add to the length of plants or its organs 119. Secondary growth does not occur in
(4) They are also found in grasses to regenerate (1) Roots of dicot
the parts removed by grazing herbivores
(2) Stem of dicot
113. Simple permanent tissue does not include
(3) Stem and roots of gymnosperms
(1) Parenchyma (2) Xylem vessels
(3) Chlorenchyma (4) Sclerenchyma (4) Monocot stems and roots

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-2 (Code-A)

120. A , B and C are lateral meristems that 125. Find the odd one out w.r.t. lenticel
participate in secondary growth of dicots. (1) Small portion of periderm produced due to
(1) A = Intrafascicular cambium activity of phellogen

B = Interfascicular cambium (2) Formed as a result of primary growth of plant

C = Intercalary meristem (3) Lens-shaped opening present on the bark

(2) A = Apical bud (4) Occurred in most woody trees and permit the
exchange of gases
B = Lateral bud
126. Cork cambium is
C = Cork cambium
(1) A meristematic tissue arises as a result of
(3) A = Primary phloem
division of pith cells
B = Primary xylem
(2) Formed from pericycle cells and gives rise to
C = Secondary xylem periderm
(4) A = Intrafascicular cambium (3) More active in monocot stem than dicot stem
B = Interfascicular cambium (4) Collenchymatous tissue responsible for
C = Cork cambium protection
121. Interfascicular cambium in stem is formed from 127. Dumb-bell shaped and bean-shaped guard cells
(1) Dedifferentiation of medullary rays respectively are found in

(2) Pericycle cells (1) Tomato and grasses (2) Grasses and potato

(3) Endodermis cells (3) Tomato and maize (4) Tomato and potato

(4) Hypodermal cortex cells 128. All are true for trichomes, except

122. All given features are of early woods, except (1) They may be branched or unbranched

(1) Lighter in colour (2) They may be soft or stiff

(2) Lower density (3) They help in transpiration as well as

respiration
(3) Fewer xylary elements
(4) They are epidermal hair of stem
(4) Formed in spring season
129. Find the incorrectly matched pair.
123. Heartwood in dicot stems is
Organ Character
(1) Hard, durable and sensitive to microbial
attacks (1) Dicot stem – Radial vascular bundles
(2) Non-functional due to deposition of tannis, (2) Monocot root – Polyarch xylem
oils, resins and aromatic substances (3) Monocot stem – Endodermis absent
(3) Found in outer regions of stems (4) Dicot root – Exarch xylem
(4) Lighter in colour due to absence of organic 130. Outermost layer of monocot root is
compounds
(1) Cuticularized and called epidermis
124. During secondary growth, vascular cambium in
(2) Non-cuticularized and called endodermis
dicot stem is
(3) Non-cuticularized and called epiblema
(1) More active on the inner side forming more
amount of secondary xylem (4) Non-cuticularized and called pericycle
(2) More active on outer side forming more 131. Collenchyma differ from sclerenchyma as former
primary phloem outer side (1) Is complex tissue
(3) More active on inner side forming more (2) Is living
primary xylem inner side
(3) Is thick walled
(4) More active on outer side forming primary
(4) Provides mechanical support
xylem inner side

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Test-2 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

132. Sclereids are commonly found in 134. Sieve cells

(1) Young stem of monocot and dicot (1) Possess a peripheral cytoplasm and present
in angiosperms
(2) Seed coat of peas and beans
(2) Posses sieve plates and present in
(3) Meristematic tissue of monocot plant angiosperms
(4) Fruit wall of grapes (3) Are not arranged distinctly in linear rows and
present in gymnosperms
133. All are true about vessels, except
(4) Are food conducting elements of bryophytes,
(1) Each vessel member has lignified cell wall pteridophytes and gymnosperms
and large central cavity 135. Phloem fibres has all characteristics, except
(2) They are devoid of protoplasm and are dead (1) Sclerenchymatous

(3) Vessel is a long single cell and has tapered (2) Elongated fibres and do not have branches
ends (3) Provide mechanical support to the plant
(4) They are exclusively present in angiosperms (4) Has protoplasm at maturity

ZOOLOGY
136. The cells of areolar tissue that secrete fibres and 141. Read the following statements.
matrix are
A. Ligaments consist of dense regular
(1) Fibroblasts (2) Histiocytes connective tissue that connects skeletal
(3) Chondroblasts (4) Mast cells muscle to bone.
137. Cells of ciliated epithelium can be B. Adipose tissue is the most abundant loose
(1) Squamous and cuboidal connective tissue in human body.
(2) Squamous and columnar Choose the correct option.
(3) Cuboidal and columnar (1) Only statement A is correct
(4) Squamous and possess microvilli (2) Only statement B is correct
138. Epithelium consisting of single thin layer of
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
flattened cells with irregular boundaries can be
found in (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(1) Pharynx 142. Read the features given in the box.
(2) Inner surface of bronchi
Branched, Striated, Involuntary, Fusiform,
(3) Air sacs of human lungs Cylindrical, Uninucleated, Intercalated
(4) Inner surface of trachea disc, Structural syncytium
139. The type of junctions that facilitate adjacent
neurons to communicate with each other, in an How many of the above are characteristics of
cardiac muscle fibres?
electrical synapse are
(1) Tight junctions (1) 3 (2) 5
(2) Adhering junctions (3) 6 (4) 7
(3) Gap junctions 143. The part of neuron that carries messages away
(4) Desmosomes from cyton always lacks
140. The matrix of all the following connective tissues (1) Neurilemma (2) Axolemma
is fibrous except (3) Nissl’s granules (4) Myelin sheath
(1) Blood
144. Bone ash lacks all the following except
(2) Cartilage
(1) Collagen fibres (2) Osteocytes
(3) Adipose tissue
(3) Bone marrow (4) Mineral matter
(4) Areolar tissue

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-2 (Code-A)

145. A section of a human tissue was stained and In the given figure A, B and C represent
studied under the microscope. Upon observation, respectively
numerous yellow elastic fibres were found (1) Transition state, activation energy with
scattered between chondrocytes in lacunae but enzyme, activation energy without enzyme
lamellae were absent. Few white fibres were also
present. This tissue could have been taken from (2) Transition state, activation energy without
enzyme, activation energy with enzyme
(1) Intervertebral disc (2) Tracheal wall
(3) Activation energy with enzyme, activation
(3) Articular cartilage (4) Pinna of ear
energy without enzyme, transition state
146. Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium is present in
(4) Activation energy with enzyme, transition
(1) Gastric mucosa (2) Trachea state, activation energy without enzyme
(3) Fallopian tube (4) PCT of nephron 153. Enzymes that catalyse the linking together of
147. Match column A and column B and choose the two compounds by expenditure of energy are
correct option.
(1) Lyases (2) Ligases
Column A Column B
(3) Hydrolases (4) Transferases
a. Lectin (i) Morphine
154. All the given statements are true in light of
b. Alkaloids (ii) Abrin dynamic state of body constituents except
c. Toxin (iii) Vinblastin (1) All the biomolecules present in the body have
d. Drugs (iv) Concanavalin A a turnover rate
(v) Ricin (2) Metabolic pathways may be linear or circular
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(v), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (3) All metabolic reactions are catalysed
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(v), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(v), c(ii), d(i) reactions
148. Which of the following will not be present in acid (4) Flow of metabolites is random and
insoluble fraction? directionless in these metabolic pathways
(1) Fructose (2) Collagen 155. Triglycerides contain
(3) RNA (4) Starch (1) Three glycerols esterified with three fatty
149. The energy currency of cell is a acids
(1) Nucleic acid (2) Nucleotide (2) Three glycerols esterified with one fatty acids
(3) Nucleoside (4) Nuclease (3) One glycerol esterified with three fatty acids
150. The blood concentration of glucose in a normal (4) One glycerol esterified with one fatty acid
healthy individual is 156. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. essential
(1) 4.5 – 5.0 nM (2) 5.5 – 6.0 nM amino acids
(3) 4.5 – 5.0 mM (4) 5.5 – 9.0 mM (1) They are substituted methanes
151. An incorrect feature of Watson and Crick’s (2) They are not synthesised by our body
B-DNA model is (3) They join to form a homopolymeric structure
(1) Rise per base pair is 3.4 Å (4) Dietary proteins are their source for the body
(2) Pitch of helix is 34 Å 157. The biomolecule present in least quantity, among
following, in a living cell are
(3) Strand turns 34° at each step of ascent
(1) Proteins (2) Lipids
(4) Rise per base pair is 0.34 nm
(3) Carbohydrates (4) Nucleic acids
152. Study the following figure.
158. Choose the odd one w.r.t. polymeric compounds.
(1) Collagen (2) Cellulose
(3) Chitin (4) Cholesterol
159. Palmitic acid is a/an ___ fatty acid with ___
carbon atoms.
The option that fills the blanks correctly
respectively is
(1) Unsaturated, 16 (2) Saturated, 18
(3) Unsaturated, 18 (4) Saturated, 16

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Test-2 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

160. The dry weight of a living tissue includes the 166. Read the following statements.
weight of all except A. Inorganic catalysts are similar to enzymes in
(1) Stored starch being specific for a reaction.
(2) Stored glycogen B. Inorganic catalysts are always more efficient
than enzymes as they can work at high
(3) Water molecules temperatures and have faster reaction rates.
(4) Proteins Choose the correct option.
161. In primary structure of protein, the first amino acid (1) Only statement A is correct
is called
(2) Only statement A is incorrect
(1) N-terminal amino acid
(3) Both statements are correct
(2) C-terminal amino acid (4) Both statements are incorrect
(3) S-terminal amino acid 167. Read the following statements w.r.t. Lecithin
(4) H-terminal amino acid (a) It is a phospholipid
162. A common feature of peptide and glycosidic bond (b) It is found in cell membranes
is that they (c) It reduces surface tension in lung alveoli
(1) Connect carbohydrate moieties (d) It is a completely hydrophobic compound at
(2) Are formed by dehydration its both ends
(3) Are present in chitin Choose the option with correct statements.
(1) (a) and (d) only (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) Connect amino acids
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c)
163. Which of the following happens if zinc is removed
from carboxypeptidase? 168. A basic amino acid among the following is
(1) Valine (2) Methionine
(1) Its catalytic activity is lost
(3) Lysine (4) Tryptophan
(2) Its catalytic efficiency increases
169. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. catalytic
(3) It gets denatured action of enzyme
(4) No effect on the activity of enzyme (1) The first step is binding of substrate to active
164. The formation of active site in an enzyme for the site of enzyme
binding of substrate takes place when the protein (2) The substrate always binds irreversibly with
attains the enzyme and prevents the latter from
breaking down its bonds
(1) Primary structure
(3) The binding of substrate with enzyme leads
(2)  helical structure to the formation of transient enzyme
(3) - pleated structure substrate complex
(4) After the product is formed, the free enzyme
(4) Tertiary structure
can bind to another molecule of substrate
165. The given structure represents a nitrogenous
170. The presence of a competitive inhibitor
base
(1) Increases Km of enzyme for a given substrate
(2) Decreases Km of enzyme for a given
substrate
(3) Increases the maximum velocity of the
reaction

An incorrect statement w.r.t. the above is (4) Decreases the maximum velocity of the
reaction
(1) It is heterocyclic and dicyclic purine
171. Which of the following is not a tyrosine
(2) It is present in DNA and RNA derivative?
(3) It is present in guanosine (1) Epinephrine (2) Thyroxine
(4) It is a component of adenylic acid (3) Melanin (4) Melatonin

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-2 (Code-A)

172. Choose the odd one w.r.t. storage 176. Enzymes which catalyse a reaction mainly by the
polysaccharides transfer of electrons are grouped under category
(1) Glycogen named
(1) Hydrolases (2) Oxidoreductases
(2) Starch
(3) Lyases (4) Ligases
(3) Chitin
177. Competitive inhibitors are often used in the
(4) Inulin control of bacterial pathogens because
173. Read the following statements. (1) They can bind covalently with the active site
A. In an exothermic reaction, the energy level of of crucial metabolic enzymes
product is lower than that of substrate. (2) They speed up the metabolic reactions of
B. The difference in the average energy content bacteria due to which it runs out of energy
of product from that of the transition state is and dies.
called activation energy. (3) They compete with the substrates of vital
Choose the correct option. enzymes and inhibit the reaction
(1) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect (4) They do not compete with the substrate but
bind to another site of the same enzyme
(2) Statement B is correct but A is incorrect
178. Association of co-enzyme with apoenzyme is
(3) Both statements are incorrect usually
(4) Both statements are correct (1) Permanent and loose
174. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. proteins (2) Transient and tight
(1) The alpha helix is always left handed (3) Transient and loose
(2) The tertiary structure is necessary for many (4) Permanent and tight
biological activities of proteins 179. The most abundant protein in the animal world is
(3) The quaternary structure is exhibited by (1) Collagen (2) Albumin
proteins with more than one polypeptide (3) RuBisCO (4) Haemoglobin
(4) The primary structure provides the positional 180. Select the incorrect statement.
information of protein
(1) There are mainly 20 types of amino acids that
175. Cellulose is help form proteins
(1) A heteropolymer (2) Enzymes enhance the rate of reaction
(2) Source of food in potato (3) Ribozymes are nucleic acids with catalytic
power
(3) Highly helical in structure
(4) All biomicromolecules are strictly polymeric
(4) A - D glucan

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