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2019 GI BECCARIANS

PRETEST IN CRIME DETECTION, INVESTIGATION AND PREVENTION

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking
the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use
pencil no. 1 only.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A criminal investigator who is discreetly listening to the conversation of the subjects while the former is seated on a table near
the subject’s table is applying :
A. Eavesdropping C. discreet listening
B. Bugging D. wiretapping

2. The word investigation is taken from the Latin word “investigare” which means to :
A. determine C. trace
B. prove D. all of the above

3. The person ho popularized the employment of “a thief to catch a thief” was :

A. William Henry Talbot C. Thomas Byrnes
B. Charles Dickens D. Jonathan Wild

4. Which of the following best describes corpus delicti :

A. The body of the victim in case of homicide or murder.
B. Essential parts of the body of the crime or the body of the crime itself
C. The recovered stolen properties incase of theft or robbery.
D. Any recovered weapon, either firearm or bladed weapon

5. All but one govern Criminal Investigation as an art:

A. Intuition C. rigid rules
B. Chance of luck D. none of these

6. What type of reasoning is used in reconstruction of the crime whereby the detective assumes a theory based on collected
evidence
A. deduction C. inductive approach
B. logical reasoning D. positive approach

7. The following are authorized to issue a valid search warrant, except

A. Court f Appeals C. presiding judge of MCTC
B. Chief Prosecutor D. presiding judge of RTC

8. Physical evidence which identifies the criminal by means of clues, personal properties or the characteristics pattern of
procedure deduced from the arrangement of objects as the crime scene is referred to as :
A. Circumstantial evidence C. modus operandi
B. Associative evidence D. corpus delicti

9. If the purpose of the informer in giving information to the police is merely to gain a pecuniary material, then his motive is
A. Remuneration C. repentance of sins
B. Revenge D. vanity

10. Which of these is a statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his criminal guilt?
A. Admission C. confession
B. Acknowledgement D. deposition

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11. The New York Chief of Detectives who introduce the Modus Operandi system in the field of Criminal Investigation was :
A. Thomas Byrnes C. Sir Richard Henry
B. Sir Francis Galton D. Dr. Paul Kirk

12. The lowest section of an extension ladder is known as :

A. heel C. butt
B. bed ladder D. fly ladder

13. What is the simpler method of computing the distance between the heel of the ladder and the building?
A. Divide the length of ladder by 4 and add 2
B. Divide the length of the ladder by 4
C. Divide the ladder by 5 and add 2
D. Divide the ladder by 6 and add 2.

14. Which of the following restrictions the spread of the fire to the point of origin or at least to the area involved?
A. Extinguishments C. suppression
B. Confinement D. Control

15. The techniques used in clearing a building of smoke and with the use of smoke ejector is :
A. Smoke ejector C. forced ventilation
B. Horizontal ventilation D. control

16. The clearing of smoke and heated gases at the highest point of the roof is referred to as :
A. Vertical ventilation C. Cross ventilation
B. Forced ventilation D. Combination of cross horizontal

17. Which of the following occurs when a room is heated enough that flame sweep over the entire surface?
A. Backdraft C. flashover
B. Oxidation D. combustion

18. Who was the French Chemist who proved in 1777 that burning is the result of rapid combination of oxygen with other
substance?
A. Antoine Lavoisier C. Thomas Alva Edison
B. John Walker D. Gabriel Daniel Farenheit

19. The piece of metal or an electrical conductor used to bypass a safety device in an electrical system is called
A. jumper C. damper
B. explosive D. wiring

20. The sudden burning of accumulated radical gases resulting to the production of a fireball is called :
A. flash fire C. bite back
B. back draft D. explosion

21. A blue flame is an example of

A. laminar C. luminous
B. non-luminous D. diffusion

22. Which of the following items enumerated below is a good indicator of the intensity of the fire and an important factor in
determining nature of incendiary?
A. size of fire C. smoke marks
B. color of flame D. color of smoke

23. The presence of chlorine is indicated by

A. black smoke C. biting smoke
B. reddish smoke D. white smoke

24. What is the lowest temperature of liquid in an open container at which vapors are evolved fast enough to support continuous
combustion?
A. boiling point C. vapour pressure
B. flashpoint D. fire point

25. Spontaneous heating is an example of what kind of reaction?

A. exothermic reactions C. flame
B. endothermic reactions D. oxidation

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26. A person who burns a building and pretends to discover it or turn the alarm or make some works to appear as the center of
attraction is a form
A. alcohol and addicts C. pyromania
B. sexual perverts D. hero types

27. The rising movement of heat, which is also deemed as the normal behavior of fire is called :
A. thermodynamics C. wavering
B. thermal balance D. thermal imbalance

28. What is the law amending the law on arson?

A. PD No. 1613 C. R.A. 1813
B. R. A. 6975 D. R.A. 8551

29. If the offender had tried to burn the premises by gathering jute sacks laying this inside the room. He lighted these, and as soon
as the jute sacks began to burn, he ran away. The occupants of the room put out the fire, what crime is committed?

A. attempted arson C. consummated arson

B. frustrated arson D. malicious mischief

30. What is the act that when performed will neutralize a fire hazard?
A. Offense C. incendiary act
B. Abatement D. delinquent act

31. DNA stands for

A. DEOXYREBONUCLEIC ACID C. DEOXIRIBONOCLIEC ACID
B. DEOXYRIBUNOCLIEC ACID D. DEOXYRIBONUCLEIC ACID

32. A burned body found was subjected to autopsy; however examination of lungs and blood showed no abnormal quantity of
carbon monoxide or dioxide, what will be you interpretation under such circumstance?
A. The person died because of the burning
B. The person died of asphyxia
C. The person was killed before it was burned
D. The person died not of fire but because of suffocation

33. The official inquiries made by the police on the facts and circumstance surrounding the death of a person that is expected to be
unlawful is referred to as
A. official investigation C. homicide investigation
B. death investigation D. post-mortem investigation

34. Legally, in order to establish a case of arson -

A. The fire must have been started by the suspect with his own hand
B. The property does not belong to the suspect of the crime
C. The evidence of incendiarism must be direct and positive, not circumstantial.
D. The presumption that the fire was accidental in origin must be overcome.

35. In arson case, it is necessary to introduce evidence to prove all but one of the following is not necessary to prove-
A. That the fire actually occurred at a specified time and within the jurisdiction of the court
B. That the building was burned by a criminal design and by a person who is criminally responsible
C. That the fire was applied by the hand of the defendant of the case.
D. None of the above is applicable.

36. The different changes that take place in the body after death are referred to as
A. Post-mortem C. post-mortem rigidity
B. Post-mortem changes D. post-mortem flaccidity

37. The part of the body most affected to by heavy drinking are :
A. Digestive system and nervous system B. Brain and veins of the body
C. The lungs and heart D. Respiratory system

38. The stage of alcohol addition where there is the loss of control becomes more complete is known as :
A. slight inebriation C. trouble on the road
B. crucial phase D. alcoholic

39. Which alcohol is also known as wood alcohol?

A. ethyl C. ethanol
B. methanol D. A or C

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40. A kind of beverage which are fermented from fruits such as grapes and contain from 8% to 12 % when fortified by adding
alcohol is called
A. Tapey C. beer
B. Wine D. gold eagle

41. These are also known as the selective prostitute. These are called
A. Professional C. call girl
B. pick-up girls D. street girls

42. The annual crime prevention week is celebrated every 1 st week of

A. August C. July
B. April D. September

43. The state of psychic a physical dependence or both an dangerous drugs arising in a person following the use of drugs on
periodic or continuous basis is known as
A. Physical dependence C. drug dependence
B. Physical sickness D. psychological dependence

44. The physical characteristics brought about by the repeated use of drugs having the tendency to increase the dosage is called
A. Convulsion C. delirium
B. Tolerance D. over dose

45. Generally, the drugs that produces a relaxing state without impairment of high facilities or the inducement of sleep are known
as
A. Barbiturates C. tranquilizers
B. Stimulants D. narcotics

46. What is the first natural stimulant discovered?

A. Nicotine C. caffeine
B. Ephedrine D. epinephrine

47. What is the term used to described the intoxicating effect of a drug in the lingo of the drug users?
A. Stoned C high
B. Rush D. trip

48. What is the method of introduction of drugs into the deeper layer of the skin by means of special electric current?
A. Topical method C. injection method
B. iontophoresis D. oral method

49. Among the following, who was the German pharmacist who discovered the morphine drug?
A. Allan Heithfield C. Troy Mcweigh
B. Freidrich Serturner D. Alder Wright

50. What is the chemical name of the heroin drug?

A. Amphetamine sulfate C. Diacetylmorphine
B. Acetonyl Dioxidide D. Methamphetamine

51. The drug heroin was chemically synthesized from

A. Morphine C. codeine
B. Opium juice D. coca paste

52. What country in Middle East became the transit point for cocaine from South America to European illicit drug markets?
A. Lebanon C. Kuwait
B. Iraq D. none of these

53. What part of the globe is the principal source of all forms of cocaine?
A. South East Asia C. South America
B. Middle East D. South West Asia

54. Shabu originated in China while Cocaine originated in

A. Columbia C. Mexico
B. India D. France

55. All of the following are narcotics, except :

A. Sedatives C. Morphine
B. Hypnotic D. None of these

56. What is the group of drugs that are considered to be mind altering and gives the general effect of mood distortion?

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 A. Sedatives C. Hallucinogens
B. Hypnotic D. Tranquillizers

57. Cocaine is a stimulant drug while LSD is a

A. Hallucinogen C. Solvent
B. Narcotic D. Depressant

58. What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”?

A. Heroin C. cocaine
B. Marijuana D. shabu

59. Which of the following refers to acute cases of withdrawal of drugs that causes serious physical illness?
A. Psychological dependence C. Physical dependence
B. Addiction D. withdrawal syndrome

60. The drug addict who shows many “tracks” from injection of hypodermic needles is mostly addicted to
A. Liquid amphetamine C. shabu
B. Heroin D. freebase cocaine

61. What is the psychological desire to repeat the use of drugs intermittently or continuously?
A. Addiction C. Habituation
B. potency D. tolerance

62. Psychologically speaking, in terms of motives and functions of drug use, the more a drug is used the more it tends to
A. Reduce the need for the drug
B. Satisfy more than one motive or need
C. Increase the satisfaction of use
D. Give sense of well being

63. The presence of the symptom of alcohol intoxication with out smell of alcohol breath is a sign that the suspected person is
under the influence of
A. Amphetamine drug C. hallucinogens
B. Barbiturates D. narcotics

64. Which of the following drugs produces the effect of mood elevation, heightened alertness, and increase energy?
A. Sovents C. shabu
B. LSD D. narcotics

65. The death penalty is imposed upon a person who sell or possess any of the following, except
A. 200 grams of shabu C. 38 grams of heroin
B. 40 grams of cocaine D. 800 grams of Marijuana

66. One of the following statements is that best indicates the main purpose of traffic law enforcement is to
A. Reduce traffic by punishing violators of traffic rules
B. Keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid bottlenecks
C. Control the speed limited in densely populated area
D. Prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow of traffic

67. In the examination of the scene of accident, which of the following evidence will show how the accident happened?
A. Hole on the road pavement
B. Point of impact
C. The driver under the influence of liquor
D. Vehicle has break failure

68. The occurrence in a sequence of events which usually produces unintended injury, property damage or even death is called
A. accident C. damage
B. key event D. fatal

69. The traffic sign that is triangular in shape and have a red colored border is known as :
A. Information sign C. instruction sign
B. Direction sign D. caution sign

70. Mr. Cruz was issued a student driver’s permit on January 25, 2001. When can he be qualified to apply for a Non-professional
driver’s license?
A. After June 25, 2001 C. on or after June 25, 2001
B. After May 25, 2001 D. after February 25, 2001

71. The minimum age for professional driver’s license applicant is :

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 A. 16 C. 18
B. 17 D. 21

72. Professional driver’s are those who operate cars

A. With excellent maneuvering and controlling skills
B. With professional driver’s license
C. With excellent maneuver and controlling skills whether his/her license is non-professional or professional
D. For purpose of earning a living.

73. When cruising on a four-lane two-way highway, slow moving vehicles should use the
A. Lanes 2 and 3 C. outer lanes.
B. Inner lanes D. either the inner or outer lanes

74. As a general rule, you should overtake on the left side, except when
A. The oncoming traffic is free from any obstruction
B. The opposite traffic is free from any obstruction.
C. Traversing on a two-way two-lane highway
D. Cruising along a four-lane highway

75. The double solid white line:

A. Doesn’t allow lane changing C. allows overtaking
B. Allows lane changing D. allows parking

76. Which of the following is a safe place for overtaking :

A. Commercial places C. rural highways
B. Expressways D. dry paved

77. When sketching traffic accident, the point of reference on the road should be anything which are fixed or permanent in nature,
while for the motor vehicles involved, the point of reference should be:
A. Corner of the edge of the vehicle
B. Corner of the rear and front bumper
C. Edge of the rear and front bumper
D. Center of the axle

78. When the vehicles in the collision are damaged, the photograph should emphasize the
A. The direction of the motor vehicles
B. Close-up view of the damage
C. The general view of the road or intersection
D. None of the above

79. As a traffic investigator, what is the immediate action to be undertaken at the scene:
A. Check for casualties C. check for hazards
B. Interview witness D. call for assistance

80. The marks left on the road surface left by metal parts of the vehicle and may serve as a clue in investigation are referred to as
A. Scuff marks C. scratches and gouges
B. Skid marks D. flat tire skid marks

81. What term refers to the distance traveled before applying the brakes?
A. Braking distance C. reaction distance
B. Reaction time D. braking reaction

82. The color of the background for regulatory sign is :

A. Blue B. green C. Yellow D. white

83. The color of the traffic light which is on after the green light is
A. Amber B. red C. Brown D. green

84. When the facts in the report are presented with appropriate words and is free of propaganda, it said to be
A. Complete C. relevant
B. Factual D. accurate

85. Which of these modifies a verb?

A. noun C. adjective
B. pronoun D. adverb

86. “Ibid” means

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 A. In the same place C. in the work cited
B. In the place cited D. none of these

87. “Loc. Cit.” means

C. In the same place C. in the work cited
D. In the place cited D. none of these

88. What should be used after salutation?

A. Coma C. colon
B. Semi-colon D. period

89. What is the record needed to keep all members of the force informed concerning police operation, assignments, and
administrative instructions?
A. Accident report C. technical report
B. Daily record of event D. continuation report

90. To avoid repetitions of nouns, we use a

A. Verb C. pronoun
B. Common noun D. proper noun

91. SPO1 Solomon Matiyaga was promoted to the next rank by his Commanding Officer, on the strength of his recommendation.
He was gave a blow-out to his friends. Three months passed and he was still receiving the salary. What form of communication
is missing?
A. Memorandum C. special order
B. Approval by his CO D. written confirmation

92. Which of these have the same meaning, but of different sound and spelling?
A. Vocabularies C. homonyms
B. Synonyms D. antonyms

93. What is the safest practice to use if fire occurs in a flow of liquefied petroleum gas storage tank and the flow cannot be
checked?
A. Use foam to put off the fire
B. Permit the fire to burn itself
C. Use fog to extinguish the fire
D. Use of sand to smother the flame

94. How many percent of air is needed to sustain combustion?

A. 20 C. 30
B. 10 D. 15

95. Which of the following is considered the most scientific approach of noticing that there is loss of public funds?
A. By inspection and audit
B. By information
C. By accident
D. Disappearance of the embezzler

96. If the crime committed was homicide, search for physical evidence will be centered on which of the following?
A. Undercarriage and hood of car
B. Tool marks
C. Fingerprints nail and clothing
D. Weapon and other types of evidence left as a result of contact between victim and assailant.

97. What kind of driver is one who shows a complete disregard for others, aggressive, impatient, demanding and thoroughly selfish.
A. Vociferous C. Defensive
B. Egoistic D. emotionals

98. In hostage survival, how do we increase the odds for hostage takers?
A. Stay alert, collect and store information
B. All of these
C. Control of instinctive behavior and get small or non-threatening
D. Analyze route of travel and don’t volunteer information

99. What is called of that self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of an acknowledge of guilt?
A. Admission C. confession
B. Informant D. deposition

100. How can a wound caused by bomb explosion be identified?

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 A. Bloods are present in the body C. Sharpnels are found all in inner the body
B. Presence of powder burns in the body D. Severe tearing of clothing

101. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible in a court of law if it was made in the presence of a
counsel of his own choice and must be in
A. the presence of a fiscal C. writing
B. the presence of a police investigator D. front of a judge

102. Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the control and supervision of the
A. National Bureau of Investigation C. Supreme Court
B. Department of Interior and Local Government D. Department of Justice

103. The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way and is most often used to question criminal suspects to
determine their probable guilt or innocence.
A. Inquiry C. polygraph examination
B. Interview D. interrogation

104. A form of investigation in which the investigator assume a different and unofficial identity.
A. Tailing C. espionage
B. Casing D. undercover work

105. A type of surveillance in which extreme precautions and actions are taken in not losing the subject.
A. loose tail C. pony tail
B. casing D. close tail

106. A type of shadowing employed when a general impression of the subject’s habits and associates is required.
A. loose tail C. pony tail
B. casing D. close tail

107. A surveillance activity for the purpose of waiting the anticipated arrival of a suspect or observing his actions from a fixed
location.
A. Casing C. stake out
B. Tailing D. espionage

108. An examination of an individual’s person, houses, or effects or a building, or premises with the purpose of discovering
contrabands or personal properties connected in a crime.
A. Search C. investigation
B. Raid D. seizure

109. A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence of a different character to the same point.
A. corroborative evidence C. direct evidence
B. circumstantial evidence D. real evidence

110. The process of bringing together in a logical manner all evidence collected during the investigation and presents it to the
prosecutor.
A. case preparation C. crime prevention
B. order maintenance D. public service

111. Ways and means are resorted for the purpose of trapping and capturing the law breaker during the execution of a criminal
act.
A. Instigation C. Buy bust operation
B. Inducement D. Entrapment

112. A special qualification for an undercover agent.

A. excellent built C. excellent looks
B. excellent eyesight D. excellent memory

113. The discreet observation of places, persons and vehicles for the purpose of obtaining information concerning the identities
or activities of suspects.
A. close observation C. tailing
B. espionage D. surveillance

114. The questioning of a person by law enforcement officers after that person has been taken into custody.
A. preliminary investigation C. custodial investigation
B. interrogation D. cross examination

115. As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at

A. day time C. any day and at any time of the day or night

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 B. night time D. weekdays

116. Measures through which police seek to detect crimes, or attempt to be present when they are committed, through the use of
the undercover agents, electronic devices for wiretapping or bugging, and stakeouts.
A. preventive measures C. pro-active measures
B. countermeasures D. tape measures

117. A police activity directed toward the identification and apprehension of alleged criminals and the accumulation,
preservation, and presentation of evidence regarding their alleged crimes.
A. police patrol C. criminal procedure
B. police intelligence D. criminal investigation

118. An extension or continuation of the preliminary investigation.

A. initial investigation C. secondary investigation
B. custodial investigation D. follow-up investigation

119. To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose of

A. Interview C. investigation
B. Surveillance D. interrogation

120. Such facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably discreet and prudent man to believe that an offense has been
committed and that the object sought in connection with the offense are in the place sought to be searched.
A. prima facie evidence C. prejudicial question
B. probable cause D. res ipsa loqkuitur

121. A search warrant shall be valid for ___ days from its date. Thereafter, it shall be void.
A. 10 C. 30
B. 15 D. 45

122. It means that a specific crime was committed at a specified time, date and place, and that the person named in his report
committed the crime.
A. corpus delicti C. stare decisis
B. sufficiency of evidence D. parens patriae

123. Police seek to prevent crime by being present in places where crimes might be committed and by alerting citizens to refrain
from practices that make them or their property vulnerable.
A. opportunity denial C. criminal investigation
B. order maintenance D. police intelligence

124. A statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt.

A. Admission C. deposition
B. Confession D. accusation

125. It may be a direct acknowledgement of the truth of the guilty fact as charge or of some essential part of the commission of
the criminal act itself.
A. Admission C. deposition
B. Confession D. accusation

126. It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of an acknowledgement of guilt.
A. Admission C. deposition
B. Confession D. accusation

127. The simplest type of interview which concerns with the gathering of information regarding the personal circumstances of a
person who is the subject of investigation.
A. background interview C. intimate interview
B. personal interview D. pre-game interview

128. It means method of operation

A. corpus delicti C. stare decisis
B. parens patriae D. modus operandi

129. It is one which induces the criminal to act and need not be shown in order to obtain conviction.
A. Intent C. opportunity
B. Motive D. inducement

130. The three tools in criminal investigation, whereby their application varies in proportion on their necessity to establish the
guilt of the accused in a criminal cse.
A. information, interrogation, instrumentation

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 B. detection, apprehension, conviction
C. inquiry, observation, conclusion
D. magnifying glass, pencil, tape measure

131. The simple questioning of a person who is cooperating in the investigation.

A. Interview C. interrogation
B. Inquiry D. instrumentation

132. It involves a number of persons who might have handled evidence between the time of the commission of the alleged
offense and the disposition of the case, should be kept to a minimum.
A. chain of command C. evidence tracking
B. chain of custody D. tracing evidence

133. A kind of evidence which may link the suspect to the crime scene or offense. Examples are fingerprints, impressions,
blood, etc.
A. physical evidence C. tracing evidence
B. associative evidence D. factual evidence

134. Articles and materials which are found in connection with an investigation and which help in establishing the identity of the
perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was committed or which in general, assist in the prosecution of the
criminal.
A. physical evidence C. tracing evidence
B. documentary evidence D. testimonial evidence

135. The following are different techniques in interrogation except one:

A. sympathetic approach C. financial assistance
B. emotional appeal D. friendliness

136. This may be applicable to a crime scene which is approximately circular or oval. The searchers gather at the center and
proceed outward along radii or spokes.
A. strip method C. spiral method
B. wheel method D. zone method

137. The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each searcher is assigned to one quadrant.
A. strip method C. spiral method
B. wheel method D. zone method

138. The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene beginning in the outside and circling around a central point.
A. strip method C. spiral method
B. wheel method D. zone method

139. A kind of gathering information whereby a subject is being followed.

A. Convoy C. tailing
B. Caravan D. surveillance

140. Another term for tailing.

A. Impersonating C. supporting
B. Backing D. shadowing

141. A person who gives necessary information to the investigator. He may give the information openly and even offer to be a
witness or he may inform the investigator surreptitiously and request to remain anonymous.
A. Witness C. hostile witness
B. expert witness D. informant

142. The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly conversions of other people.
A. Bugging C. mimicking
B. Dubbing D. tapping

143. The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a crime, but who knows about the crime or individuals
involved in it.
A. Interrogation C. interview
B. rumor mongering D. inquiry

144. An objective of criminal investigation.

A. determine the motive C. rehabilitate criminals
B. identify criminals D. prevent crimes

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145. A term used to describe a transition which occur in the development of a fire, when, for example, most of all the
combustible surfaces within a room are heated above their ignition temperature at the same time.
A. Intensity C. flash over
B. Ignition D. starter

146. A term of the start of the combustion, its detailed process of a solid is very complicated, since the proportion of different
flammable vapours varies from one material to another and contact with oxygen must take place before combustion can begin.
A. Intensity C. flash over
B. Ignition D. starter

147. The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum in a similar way to that of light.
A. Ignition C. radiation
B. Convection D. conduction

148. The transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to cooler parts.
A. Ignition C. radiation
B. Convection D. conduction

149. The greatest concern of the firearm at the fire/crime scene is to

A. interview witnesses C. preserver the fire/crime scene
B. view the site of the crime D. photo opportunity in the fire crime scene

150. Most malicious fire are set by individuals secretly; it is either set for revenge or self aggrandizing; or set by psychotic fire
setter, or for sexual gratification.
A. group fire setter C. fire starter
B. arson for profit D. solitary fire setter

151. The primary course of action in case of a fire.

A. pack up and flee C. call an ambulance
B. run for your life D. raise the alarm

152. The main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not poisonous but is an asphyxia which lowers the proportion of
oxygen available for breathing.
A. carbon oxide C. carbon paper
B. carbon monoxide D. carbon dioxide

153. A normal product of combustion, and is poisonous, especially when the air supply to the fire is restricted.
A. carbon oxide C. carbon paper
B. carbon monoxide D. carbon dioxide

154. The fire resisting property of structural elements and the behavior or a building material in a fire, it is used to predict how
long it will resist the effect of a fire before it fails.
A. fire resistance C. fire proof
B. fire duration D. fire strength

155. A type of fire that is the result of the combustion of certain metals in finely divided forms; magnesium, potassium, zinc,
etc…..
A. class A C. class C
B. class B D. class D

156. A type of fire which results from burning of wood, paper, textiles, and other carbonaceous materials. Extinguishment of this
fire is by quenching and cooling.
A. class A C. class C
B. class B D. class D

157. The following are components of fire except one:

A. Gas C. oxygen
B. Fuel D. heat

158. It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator of the fire travel and point of origin.
A. Charring C. V pattern
B. Alligatoring D. pour pattern

159. A pattern or network of fine, irregular lines in glass and wood.

A. Crazing C. light bulbs
B. Spalling D. charring

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160. A tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of the fire and allow him to establish an alibi.
A. Accelerants C. timing device
B. delaying tactic D. stopper

161. It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors, and the most common examples are gasoline, turpentine and kerosene.
A. Accelerants C. timing device
B. Trailers D. stopper

162. This catalytic combustion device is the most common means employed to detect flammable vapors.
A. Accelerant C. timing device
B. Sniffer D. stopper

163. The irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire and experience gratification and satisfaction from it.
A. fire starter syndrome C. pyromania
B. pyrotechnic disease D. pyrophobia

164. It is known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines.”

A. PD 1108 C. PD 1081
B. PD 1017 D. PD 1185

165. Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used to set off explosives.
A. blasting agent C. gun powder
B. blasting cap D. explosive primer

166. These are description of materials or compounds that are easily set on fire except one:
A. Combustible C. flammable
B. Corrosive D. inflammable

167. Any material having a flash point at or above 37.80 degree Celsius or 100 degree Fahrenheit.
A. combustible liquid C. inflammable liquid
B. flammable liquid D. corrosive liquid

168. Any liquid that causes fire when in contact with organic matter.
A. combustible liquid C. inflammable liquid
B. flammable liquid D. corrosive liquid

169. An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the passage of an electric current across the space between two conductors.
A. electrical arc C. duct system
B. damper D. ember

170. The active principle of burning, characterized by the heat and light combustion.
A. Explosion C. combustion
B. Arson D. fire

171. A type of fire, of flammable liquid and gasses.

A. class A C. class C
B. class B D. class D

172. A mass movement in a fluid, an example a liquid or a gas where fluid at one temperature and density moves under the
influence of gravity at different temperatures.
A. Conduction C. radiation
B. Convection D. combustion

173. The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted to vapor.

A. burning point C. freezing point
B. melting point D. boiling point

174. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a collision course or to avoid hazard.
A. point of no return C. start of evasive action
B. point of no escape D. final position

175. The movement of vehicles, and pedestrians in a road or highway.

A. Traffic C. trip
B. Flight D. journey

176. A method of locating a spot in the area by measurements from two or more reference points.
A. traffic report C. triangulation
B. spot report D. accident investigation

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177. The force that tends to pull all objects to the center of the earth.
A. Inertia C. energy .
B. Friction D. gravity

178. Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death, but only injuries to one or more persons.
A. Fatal C. non fatal
B. Chronic D. injurious

179. The “Traffic and Land Transportation Code of the Philippines”

A. RA 7160 C. RA 6425
B. RA 8551 D. RA 4136

180. An occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually produces unintended injury, death or property damage.
A. traffic incidents C. traffic hazards
B. traffic accidents D. traffic events

181. Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way.

A. non motor vehicle traffic accident C. motor vehicle non-traffic accident
B. non motor vehicle D. motor vehicle traffic accident

182. An order wherein a violator is commanded to appear in court, but without detaining him.
A. traffic citation C. traffic warrant
B. traffic request D. traffic violation

183. The first accidental touching of an object collision course or otherwise avoid a hazard.
A. primary contact C. disengagement
B. secondary contact D. initial contact

184. The following are the three E’s of Traffic Management and operation except one:
A. Engineering C. Enforcement
B. Education D. Evaluation

185. The “ Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002”

A. RA 9870 C. RA 1017
B. RA 9165 D. RA 6195

186. Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotional change, thought disruption and ego distortion. They are called
psychedelics.
A. Tranquilizers C. Stimulants
B. Hallucinogens D. Depressants

187. Drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or dullness of the mind with delusions.
A. Stimulants C. depressants
B. Narcotics D. Hallucinogens

188. The practice or profession of having sexual intercourse for money or profit.
A. Gynaecology C. white slavery
B. Prostitution D. sex trade

189. The scientific name of Indian hemp plant.

A. cannabis sativa L C. deoxyribonucleic acid
B. papaver somniferum D. methamphetamine HCL

190. The original components of heroin and morphine.

A. Codeine C. opium
B. Caffeine D. methamphetamine

191. An inter department agency that enforce and carry out the law against illegal drugs.
A. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency C. Dangerous Drug Board
B. Bureau of Foods and Drugs D. Food and Drug Administration

192. A harmful conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind and body.
A. Vice C. addiction
B. Abuse D. virtue

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193. The most common form of stimulant.
A. Heroin C. morphine
B. Codeine D. shabu

194. It is chemically known as methamphetamine hydro chloride.

A. Heroin C. morphine
B. Codeine D. none of these

195. A derivative of opium which is used a cough reliever.

A. Codeine C. morphine
B. Heroin D. caffeine

196. Any part of the plant of the papaver somniferum, including the seeds.
A. opium poppy C. caffeine components
B. marijuana D. codeine

197. Another term for psychological drug addiction.

A. drug habituation C. drug pushing
B. drug net consciousness D. drug dependence

198. Commercially produced drugs that can be legally sold or dispensed only by a physician’s order.
A. illegal drugs C. regulated drugs
B. prohibited drugs D. prescription drugs

199. Any chemical substance that by virtue of its chemical nature alters the structure and functioning of living organism.
A. Alcohol C. drug
B. Poison D. vice

200. It is, in most cases, the initial step for obtaining information to determine the origin and cause of fire.
A. evidence collection C. interview witnesses
B. laboratory examination of evidence D. interrogation of suspects

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