1.

True of stye
a. ANSWER: Characterized by prominent tenderness and pain.
2. A 54-year-old male carpenter came in for a lodged nail penetrating over his left eye. What are
the proper steps in evaluating the patient?
a. ANSWER: Do non-contact examination first.
3. A 7-month-old child was brought in the outpatient department for frequent tearing and
discharged. Mother claimed she noted the symptoms while the child was 4 months old but
decided to self-medicate her child with her own breastmilk and observe. She would notice
occasional relief but the condition would frequently recur weekly. On examination, yellowish
discharged admixed with tears were seen on the right eye. No eye redness noted and no
palpable masses. Antibiotic ointment was prescribed and the mother was told to follow up a
week after. What other advice is appropriate to explain to the patients’ mother?
a. ANSWER: To avoid further infection, patients’ adnexa should not be touched.
4. An eye condition where images of distant objects focus in front of the retina in an
unaccommodated eye is known as:
a. ANSWER: Myopia.
5. This extraocular muscle has depression as its secondary function.
a. ANSWER: Superior oblique.
6. While doing your VA testing with a Snellen’s chart, you noted that the patient was unable to
read the largest letter at 20 feet. What is your next procedure?
a. ANSWER: Reduce the testing distance.
7. A patient with fibrillin gene mutation would frequently present with which ocular finding?
a. ANSWER: Lens dislocation.
8. Which among the following eye structure produces a blind spot?
a. ANSWER: Optic nerve.
9. The following are appropriate management for CRAO except:
a. ANSWER: Vitreous paracentesis.
10. The following are part of the lens except:
a. ANSWER: Stroma.
11. Which of the following is an accessory lacrimal gland?
a. ANSWER: Wolfring gland.
12. True of acidic chemical burn of the eye.
a. ANSWER: Rapidly cause cellular saponification and penetration of corneal stroma.
13. The most common ocular finding in a patient with elevated thyroid panel.
a. ANSWER: Eyelid retraction or Dalrymple sign.
14. IDK, a 52-year-old female, sough consult for irritation and burning sensation of both eye and
eyelids. Discharge was seen on the lashes of the red-rimmed eyelid margin. Eyelids weren’t
tender on palpation and a small bulbar conjunctival cyst was noted on the left eye. Other
external examination yielded unremarkable findings. What is your clinical impression?
a. ANSWER: Blepharitis.
15. The following are the 3 main types of age-related lens opacity changes except:
a. ANSWER: Congenital.
16. A star or stellate shaped posterior lens opacity is commonly associated with which condition?
a. ANSWER: Traumatic cataract.
17. Testing distance for near vision assessment?
a. ANSWER: 40 cm.
18. The following structures makes up the UVEA except:
a. ANSWER: Cornea.
19. An eye removal surgery that removes ocular contents while sparing the scleral shell.
a. ANSWER: Evisceration.
20. Which of the following bones is not part of the orbit?
a. ANSWER: Mastoid bone.
21. Refers to a description of cataract where cortical materials leak through a wrinkled capsule.
a. ANSWER: Hypermature.
22. The following are functions of the lens except:
a. ANSWER: Supply nutrition.
23. Based on Roppler hall classification for chemical burns, a patient with good prognosis due to
presence of corneal haze and a limbal ischemia of <1/3 is classified as:
a. ANSWER: Grade 1.
24. A 30-year-old female who had history of frequent recurrent bilateral eye itchiness associated
with stringy discharged was advised by her physician to maintain on combination eye drops to
treat her condition or over 10 years now. She sought consult with an ophthalmologist due to
progressive blurring of vision and glare on both eyes. Prolonged use of her combination
medication gives a possible risk of developing which type of cataract?
a. ANSWER: Posterior subscapular cataract.
25. Which of the following is an appropriate management for hyphema?
a. ANSWER: Bed rest with head elevation.
26. What is the most common surgical ophthalmologic procedure?
a. ANSWER: Phacoemulsification.
27. What is the safest method of refractive correction?
a. ANSWER: Spectacles.
28. Which among the following processes occurs in accommodation?
a. ANSWER: Increase in refractive power.
29. True of the lens
a. ANSWER: Lacks innervation and is avascular.
30. What is the method used to determine Relative Afferent Pupillary Defect?
a. ANSWER: Swinging penlight test.
31. What is the most common cause of orbital cellulitis?
a. ANSWER: Sinusitis.
32. The abducens nerve supplies which muscle?
a. ANSWER: Medial rectus muscle.
33. The part of the eye that serves as a barrier to the extrasavation of blood and spread of
inflammation.
a. ANSWER: Orbicularis Oculi.
34. Patients presents at the emergency room with subacute headache and nausea. Patient
complained of acute blurry vision OD, halos and eye pain. You noted eye redness, mid dilated
pupils which were poorly reactive and hard eye by palpation. What is the most probable cause
of this condition?
a. ANSWER: Pupillary block.
35. What is the most common eyelid malignancy?
a. ANSWER: Basal cell carcinoma.
36. What is the best way to manage chemical burns?
a. ANSWER: Copious irrigation to affected eye with the readily available fluid.
37. Which among the following statement is true for Thyroid Eye Disease?
a. ANSWER: Patients with hypothyroidism may also develop TED.
38. Congenital nasolacrimal duct obstruction is often due to an imperforate membrane at?
a. ANSWER: Valve of hasner.
39. What is the most common benign tumor of the orbit and periorbital area in children?
a. ANSWER: Capillary hemangioma.
40. All rectus muscles originate from:
a. ANSWER: Annulus of Zinn.
41. True of cornea.
a. ANSWER: Corneal clarity decreases by becoming more compact throughout the age.
42. The nerve responsible for closing the eyelids.
a. ANSWER: Facial nerve.
43. A 12-year-old patient with periorbital swelling of the right eye associated with reduced vision,
chemosis and limited EM was diagnosed as orbital cellulitis by you and your co-clerks. How is
the patient managed?
a. ANSWER: Give oral antibiotics and advised the patient to follow up daily.
44. A condition which presents with sudden, painless, severe unilateral loss of vision.
a. ANSWER: Central retinal artery occlusion.
45. True of the human lens.
a. ANSWER: Clear in the young and becomes yellowish to amber in adults.
46. A condition which could affect lens clarity and produce a snow flake cataract.
a. ANSWER: Diabetes mellitus.
47. The best imaging examination to evaluate the bones for a patient involved in a motor crash.
a. ANSWER: CT scan.
48. What is the most refractive surface of the eye?
a. ANSWER: Cornea.
49. KK, an 18-year-old male student, sought consult with an optometrist and was told to have a
myopic and hyperopic error on his eyes. Correction of his condition is complicated by.
a. ANSWER: Aniseikonia.
50. What is the first sign of cortical cataract formation?
a. ANSWER: Vacuole and water cleft formation.
51. True regarding pupillary reaction except
a. ANSWER: Pupil constriction is controlled by CN 7.
52. What is the most common identifiable infectious cause of ophthalmia neonatorum?
a. ANSWER: Chlamydia.
53. Which is not part of the classic triad of congenital glaucoma?
a. ANSWER: Buphthalmos
54. What is a possible etiology for a patient who comes in for unilateral eye pain, extraocular muscle
movement limitation and dilated pupils?
a. ANSWER: Aneurysm.
55. A patient affected by rubella virus can present with a retina appearance described as?
a. ANSWER: Salt and pepper.
56. Which is not part of the function of optic nerve?
a. ANSWER: Eye movement.
57. True of papilledema.
a. ANSWER: Bilateral but may be asymmetric.
58. A patient with intracranial aneurysm would most likely present with the following except.
a. ANSWER: Horizontal abduction deficit.
59. What produces a physiologic blind spot?
a. ANSWER: Optic nerve.
60. Which glaucoma medication has the highest IOP lowering percentage?
a. ANSWER: Beta blockers.
61. A sensory phenomenon wherein a child has diminished sensitivity within the visual field of the
deviating eye under binocular viewing condition to avoid double vision.
a. ANSWER: Diplopia.
62. Which statement is false with regards to conjunctivitis?
a. ANSWER: Endogenous causes are common etiology.
63. Which of the following symptoms of red eye is least concerning?
a. ANSWER: Itching.
64. MP is a 52-year-old male who complained of gradual eye redness and eye pain of the right eye
after going to the field a week prior. On examination, you note decreased vision of the right eye
associated with central corneal opacities with multiple dot opacities distant from the main
lesion. What is your primary impression?
a. ANSWER: Fungal keratitis.
65. What is the correct sequence of Aqueous humor production and outflow?
a. ANSWER: Ciliary body > pupils > trabecular meshwork > Schlemm’s canal.
66. Which corneal layer is affected by birth trauma?
a. ANSWER: Descemet’s membrane.
67. Why are women more prone in developing primary angle closure glaucoma?
a. ANSWER: Females have smaller eye than men on average.
68. What is the most common type of strabismus?
a. ANSWER: Esotropia.
69. What is the normal IOP range?
a. ANSWER: 10-21 mmHg.
70. O.R a 51-year-old male, hypertensive and diabetic, with no history of trauma complained of
gradual progressive BOV which began as floater over OS. Upon VATEF, OD 20/70 J16 OS HM
with the rest of the ocular exam unremarkable and appropriate for age aside from a very poor
view of the left fundus. Which of the following would be the best management?
a. ANSWER: Do imaging of the left eye with an A and B scan ultrasound.
71. What is the 2nd most common type of retinal detachment?
a. ANSWER: Traction.
72. Acute painful red eye is caused by the disruption of which corneal layer?
a. ANSWER: Epithelium.
73. What is the hallmark of proliferative diabetic retinopathy?
a. ANSWER: Growth of new blood vessels.
74. What is the definitive management of acute angle closure?
a. ANSWER: Laser iridotomy.
75. Nutritional optic neuropathy may occur in the following individuals except.
a. ANSWER: On PB treatment.
76. Segment of the optic nerve commonly involved in traumatic injuries?
a. ANSWER: Intracanalicular.
77. An obese patient came in for sudden painless unilateral loss of vision OD. Condition started 12
hours prior. Relative afferent pupillary defect was present in a setting of a diffusely pale retina
and a very prominent brown macula. What is your initial impression?
a. ANSWER: Central retinal artery occlusion.
78. What is the hallmark of angle closure glaucoma?
a. ANSWER: Peripheral iris adhesion.
79. True of the management of Optic Neuritis.
a. ANSWER: Visual prognosis is the same with or without treatment.
80. Which of the following is true of capillary hemangioma?
a. ANSWER: It is the most common benign tumor of the orbit in children.
81. Monocular visual field defect is caused by?
a. ANSWER: Optic nerve pathology.
82. FL 39-year-old-female presents at the emergency room with subacute headache and eye pain of
right eye after prolonged hours of using digital devices in the dark. Patient also complained of
blurry vision OD and haloes. You noted eye redness, shallow chamber, mid dilated pupils which
were poorly reactive and hard eye by palpation. Fundus was slightly visible showing orange disc
and CDR 0 4, AV ratio 2:3 with no hemorrhages or exudate seen. Left eye was unremarkable.
Patient has paternal family history of glaucoma. What is your initial diagnosis?
a. ANSWER: Acute angle closure.
83. Which examination is useful in the evaluation of a macular disease?
a. ANSWER: Amsler grid.
84. 50-year-old male came in to the clinic for double vision. Pertinent findings on your PE were
ptsosis and weakness of EOMS for superior, down and medial gaze. Pupils were briskly reactive,
no lens opacities and normal fundus exam. You instructed the patient to rest while your
complete examination of other patients. Forty-five minutes later, you saw some improvement of
patient’s eyelid and eye movement. What is the hallmark of this disease?
a. ANSWER: Fatigability with improvement after rest.
85. Metamorphopsia is a symptom associated with which structure of the eye?
a. ANSWER: Macula.
86. A child with anisometropia can develop what type of amblyopia?
a. ANSWER: Refractive.
87. Gonococcal conjunctivitis is managed through the following methods except:
a. ANSWER: Treating both patient and sexual partner.
88. A 5-year-old patient has hypertrophic eye on the right on your initial inspection. By doing
extraocular muscle examination, the patient’s left eye is unable to follow your finger
superolaterally. What is the probable muscle affected?
a. ANSWER: Right superior rectus.
89. Which of the following disease is a least likely diagnosis for patients presenting with a cat’s eye
reflex?
a. ANSWER: glaucoma.
90. The most common predisposing factor of bacterial keratitis in the Philippines is?
a. ANSWER: Contact lens.
91. True of pingecula.
a. ANSWER: It is a degenerative lesion of the palpebral conjunctiva due to chronic sunlight
exposure.
92. This chronic eyelid margin inflammation is commonly cause by S. aureus.
a. ANSWER: Blepharitis.
93. What muscle is supplied by cranial nerve 4?
a. ANSWER: Superior oblique.
94. What is the pathologic mechanism in the development of primary open angle glaucoma?
a. ANSWER: Increase resistance to aqueous outflow.
95. Which statement is false for a relative afferent pupillary defect?
a. ANSWER: Cataract is a common cause of a RAPD.
96. Refers to the method of differentiating between an open and closed angle glaucoma.
a. ANSWER: Gonioscopy.
97. A mother brought her first child to your clinic due to intermittent tearing and discharge on the
left eye. The patient is 8 months old. Patient was born term via NSVD and mother had an
unremarkable pre-natal history. Condition started when the patient was 3 months old and the
pediatrician prescribed an unrecalled antibiotic ointment to treat the condition. Condition
recurs monthly and the mother would apply the ointment until it resolved. Scared of the
monthly recurrence of the condition, the mother decided to sought further consult. What would
be your advice for patient’s condition?
a. ANSWER: Prescribed antibiotic + steroid ointment as treatment.
98. KK is an avid anime fan. Despite her busy schedule, she finds time to attend conventions and
cosplays as much as she can through ingenious costumes, make up, contact lens and props.
Often doing it too much to a point she immediately sleeps after coming home and cleans up
whenever she wakes up. This behavior can be a risk factor to which disease?
a. ANSWER: Microbial keratitis.
99. The gold standard for measuring intra-ocular pressure is through:
a. ANSWER: Goldmann applanation tonometer.
100. Which among the following statements is correct for herpes simplex keratitis?
a. ANSWER: Lab tests are very necessary.