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Irwin Prudence and Morality
Irwin Prudence and Morality
Author(s): T. H. Irwin
Source: Ethics , Jan., 1995, Vol. 105, No. 2 (Jan., 1995), pp. 284-295
Published by: The University of Chicago Press
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access to Ethics
T. H. Irwin
* I commented on earlier versions of Annas's and White's papers when they were
presented at the annual meeting of the American Pacific Philosophical Association, San
Francisco, March 1993. I benefited from their replies, from remarks by the chair, David
Reeve, and from comments by participants in the lively discussion on that occasion.
1. Plato Republic 352d5-6.
2. Ibid., 344e 1- 3.
284
II
3. When White speaks of "modern" ethical views, he has in mind Butler and later
moral philosophers. I would guess that this is roughly what Annas counts as "modern"
too. When White speaks of modern interpretations of Greek ethics, he has in mind the
ones put forward in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.
wisdom itself becomes dearer to us than are those things from which
we came to it."4 Annas believes that the Stoics are describing the second
discovery, abandoning the prudential point of view. But how can we
tell that they are not simply describing the first discovery? It is clear
from the passage and its context that the Stoics describe the discovery
that practical reason has more than purely instrumental value; but I
do not see where they imply that this discovery involves the rejection
of the prudential point of view.
We may well agree, then, with Anna's claim that for the Stoics
"reasoning has its own characteristic aim, which the agent values for
itself, and is not just valued for the results it assures for the agent"
(p. 251). But we need not infer, as she does, that this fact raises a
difficulty for the prudential interpretation. In order to show that it
raises such a difficulty, Annas would have to show that the discovery
of the noninstrumental value of reason also requires the rejection
of the self-regarding point of view; and I do not see that she has
shown that.
I will not consider a further question that naturally arises-
whether Annas could have cited other Stoic sources that would have
supported her claim better than this passage does. This is a difficult
question to settle. I simply want to suggest that Annas's account of
the Stoic position should not simply be accepted without further
discussion.
III
One might argue that the mere reference to one's own good does not
show that Greek moralists really appeal to prudence; perhaps the
broad view of prudence is too broad to constitute a genuine conception
of prudence, as we understand it. This is a reasonable objection; I will
simply sketch an answer.
In book 2 of the Republic Glaucon and Adeimantus, restating
Thrasymachus's objections to justice, clearly assume that there is such
a thing as a person's interest and that it is reasonable to pursue it.
They assume that it is in a person's interest not to be tortured or
imprisoned, to possess health, physical security, wealth, and so on,
and, on the other hand, that it is difficult to see how beingjust could fit
into a person's interest when it involves a large loss of these recognized
goods. The whole trouble abontjustice is that it appears to be "another
person's good," and a harm to the just person.5
6. This claim is disputed. I discuss the dispute in Plato's Ethics (Oxford: Oxford
University Press, in press), chap. 18.
7. Aristotle Nicomachean Ethics 1141b33- 1142alO, hereafter abbreviated EN.
8. Ibid., 1168bl-5.
9. Ibid., 1168a28-35.
This is a good reason for supposing that Plato and Aristotle start
out by taking for granted the rationality of a prudential outlook, and
by regarding it as an open question whether the moral virtues, and in
particular justice, can be defended from the point of view of this
prudential outlook. It seems to me, therefore, that the tradition re-
ferred to by Annas, which sees prudential reasoning in Greek ethical
theories, is correct.
Is it, however, perhaps a purely verbal issue whether we call the
type of reasoning found in Greek moralists 'prudential' or not? Given
that many people are used to a narrower conception of prudence,
would it be better to avoid speaking of it in connection with Greek
arguments about the character of eudaimonia?
I am not convinced that the issue is purely verbal. I will simply
mention a historical example to support this claim. When Machiavelli,
for instance, uses prudence with a much narrower reference than Aqui-
nas gives to the term, he does so because of a substantive disagreement
with Aquinas.'0 He rejects Aquinas's view about what many compo-
nents of the human good actually are. And of course Aquinas's use
of the term prudentia is intended to match Aristotle's use of phrone^sis;
he denies, for instance, that bad people can be prudent, because they
have the wrong conception of their good.'1
I doubt, then, whether we would be tempted to take a narrow
view of prudential reasoning unless we were influenced by moralists
who disagreed with most Greek and medieval moralists about the na-
ture of a person's own good. If we choose to think of prudence in
these narrow terms, we are making it more difficult for ourselves to
understand what most Greek moralists and many medieval moralists
have to tell us.
In brief, it seems to me no less plausible to claim that phrone^sis is
prudence than to claim that areti is virtue and that eudaimonia is happi-
ness. In each case the claim needs a bit of explanation if it is not to
be misleading, but a worse error is involved in rejecting the claim than
in accepting it.
10. Two passages from The Prince (trans. J. B. Atkinson [Indianapolis: Bobbs-
Merrill, 1976]) will illustrate the relevant aspect of Machiavelli's view: "I know everyone
will admit that it would be most laudable for a prince to be endowed with all the qualities
mentioned above that are considered good. But since he is unable to possess them, or
comply with them, entirely-the human condition does not permit it-he must be
prudent enough to know how to escape the opprobrium of those vices that do cost him
his power" (chap. 15, p. 257). "Hence a prudent ruler cannot and should not respect
his word, when such respect works to his disadvantage and when the reasons for which
he made his promise no longer exist. If all men were good, this precept would be
invalid; but since they are bad and do not respect their own word, you need not respect
your word either" (chap. 18, p. 281).
11. Aquinas Summa theologiae 2-2.q47.aI3. Aquinas is influenced by Aristotle's dis-
cussion of cleverness, deinotes (EN 1144a20-29).
Now perhaps Mill means to commit himself to the general claim that
desiring X for its own sake is always the same as desiring X as a part
of happiness. If he does mean this, then his view is different from
Aristotle's; on this point I agree with White. But disagreement with
Mill on this point does not require us to reject his first claim-that it
is possible to desire some things for their own sakes as parts of happi-
ness; for we might believe that Mill is right about this even if we also
12. EN 1097a34-b6.
believe that it is possible to desire some things for their own sakes
without desiring them as parts of happiness. It seems to me that for
purposes of interpreting Aristotle Mill's first suggestion is more plausi-
ble than his second suggestion.13
White remarks quite fairly that since Aristotle actually distin-
guishes choosing X for X's own sake from choosing X for the sake of
happiness, he probably does not endorse Mill's second suggestion.
This does not show, however, that Aristotle does not agree with Mill's
first suggestion. To settle this question we must ask, Does Aristotle
suppose that we can choose some things both for their own sakes and
for the sake of happiness because we choose them as parts of happi-
ness, and not just as instrumental to happiness?
White seems to give an affirmative answer to this question, since
he takes Aristotle to hold that "these things are desired both as parts
of happiness and for themselves." To take this view, however, is not
to imply that we ought to be concerned for friendship, say, partly for
its own sake and partly for its contribution to happiness. For the very
features of it that make it choiceworthy for its own sake also make it
a part of happiness; in choosing it for the features that make it a part
of happiness we are also choosing it for its own sake. There are some
features of friendship that would make it choiceworthy even if it did
not belong to a life that achieved happiness; when we choose it for
the sake of happiness, we choose it for the sake of those features.
Can we be sure that Aristotle believes that choosing an intrinsic
good for the sake of happiness is so closely connected with choosing
it for its own sake? We can understand his position better if we remem-
ber that these issues do not arise simply in trying to interpret his claims
about happiness (presented esp. in EN, bk. 1); they also arise if we
try to interpret his claims about virtue. He claims that it is characteristic
of the virtuous person to decide on (prohaireisthai) the virtuous action
for its own sake. 14 Some readers have found this claim difficult, because
decision is concerned, according to Aristotle's own explicit account in
book 3, with things that contribute to ends, and not with the ends
themselves.15 We can solve this familiar problem by arguing that wh
Aristotle speaks of decision in connection with virtue, he is not using
the term in his technical sense. Alternatively, we can avoid this rather
desperate solution by arguing that when we decide on something as
a constituent of happiness, and regard it as contributing to happiness
for this reason, we thereby decide on it for its own sake, choosing it
13. White cites me (Plato's Moral Theory [Oxford: Clarendon, 1977], p. 341) among
the interpreters who have used Mill's suggestion in explaining Plato and Aristotle. None
of the passages cited by White, however, endorses or exploits Mill's second suggestion.
14. Aristotle EN 1105a32.
15. Ibid., 111lb26-30.
I come now to White's main reason for believing that Aristotle does
not appeal to prudence to defend morality. Before reading White's
paper, I would have been inclined to assume that in Nicomachean Ethics,
book 9, chapter 8, on self-love and the good of others, Aristotle sets
out to show that if we correctly understand the components of our
own good, we will pursue the good of others in the ways required by
morality. I was surprised, then, to see that White cites this chapter for
exactly the opposite purpose, claiming that in Aristotle's view virtuous
people are self-seeking in the sense that they try to outdo other people
in grabbing more of a scarce resource for themselves. In this case
the scarce resource is noble action. Aristotle says virtuous people will
sometimes allow their friends to do fine actions, because it is sometimes
finer to be responsible for one's friend's doing a fine action than to
do it oneself."6 White suggests that Aristotle is representing this a
competitive situation in which virtuous people seek to outdo their
friends in grabbing noble action for themselves; in this case, if you
can induce me to do the noble action myself, you have outwitted me
and won the contest in nobility because you have managed to do
something nobler than I have done.
I cannot find a basis in the text for this picture of friends engaged
in a cutthroat competition in nobility.17 First, it does not fit Aristotle's
aim in this chapter. He is seeking to show that the best type of self-
love is not open to the common criticism that self-lovers cannot be
trusted to show the appropriate sort of concern for their friends or
(more generally) for the fine.8 This common criticism would not be
doing it himself: "It is possible that being responsible for his friend's
doing it is finer than doing it himself. In all praiseworthy actions, then,
the virtuous person evidently assigns more of the fine to himself."22 To
see what sort of "competition" Aristotle endorses here, we must con-
sider what is meant by "assigns more of the fine to himself." We might
take this to mean either (1) A assigns to A more of the fine than A
assigns to B (A does a finer action than B and causes B to do less a
fine action than B would otherwise have done), or (2) A assigns to A
more of the fine than of any other goods, or (3) A assigns to A more
of the fine than A would have assigned to A by any other course of
action. If Aristotle's point is (1), he endorses the sort of competition
that White describes; otherwise he does not endorse it.
I see no reason to ascribe (1) to Aristotle in this passage. When
he says that A does the finer thing, he need not mean that A will do
a finer thing than B will do. He may simply mean that A will do a
finer thing than A would do if A insisted on doing the fine action that
in fact A lets B do. Let us suppose that B does a fine action X and A
does a fine action Y (where Y is allowing one's friend to do a fine
action). In this case A's choosing to do Y is A's choosing the finer
action that is open to A, but it does not follow that B is forced to do
a less fine action than A does, or a less fine action than B would
otherwise have done. For if B agrees to do X, B thereby also allows
A to do the finer thing (Y) that is open to A, and (by the principle
already employed) that is sometimes finer for B than it would be if B
insisted on doing Y (by allowing A to do X). Hence there is no reason
why both A and B should not do the finest thing available, and there
is no reason why either action has to be finer than the other.
Aristotle's point may be illustrated by an example. Suppose we
are both going to a debate in the Athenian Assembly, and there is
time for only one of us to make an elaborate speech opposing, say,
the summary execution of the citizens of a captured city. If we are
equally good speakers, it would be inappropriate for me to insist on
making the speech myself, and inappropriate for you to insist on
making it yourself. It would be finer, as Aristotle says, for me to help
you to make an even better speech, and you would have the same
reason to help me rather than make the speech yourself. This does
not mean, however, that neither of us will give the speech. For we
both recognize that one of us ought to; and it would be wrong for
either of us to insist on having the enabling rather than the speaking
role. If there is no other reason for one rather than the other to make
the speech, we should probably just toss a coin to decide who does it
and who helps. In any case, each of us will have done the finest thing
by causing the other to do a fine action.
VI
I have focused on White's view of this chapter, because he raises an
important question about whether Aristotle is doing what we would
expect him to do if he is attempting to justify morality by appeal to
prudence. It seems to me that Aristotle says what we would expect a
eudaemonist to say; he wants to show that some initially plausible
reasons for believing that eudaemonism conflicts with the appropriate
commitment to morality are in fact not good reasons.
In this section of the Ethics, then, Aristotle develops the sort of
argument that the "traditional view" attributes to him. Plato and Aris-
totle do not begin with a concept of happiness that is totally flexible
and hospitable to everything that might be regarded as good from
some point of view or other; it is confined to goods for the agent. To
decide whether some good or other is really part of my happiness, I
must form some conception of what is good for me, and I must decide
whether that good really satisfies my conception of what is good for
me. Any putative part of my happiness has to be shown to meet
appropriate conditions for prudential value.
This brief statement of the traditional view may easily be mis-
leading; the view needs to be further explained and articulated. In
this article I have simply argued that it is this view, not some different
view, that needs to be articulated if we are to understand some central
arguments in Greek ethics.