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ANSWERS & EXPLANATION

APTITUDE TEST–Test 1 (3171) – 2020

1. (d)
Inference is a conclusion drawn from the facts, data and arguments made in the passage. In other
words, it is the ability of the reader to read in between the lines.
Option (a) cannot be inferred from the passage. The passage quotes the examples of President Rutherford
and his wife Lucy who happened to be teetotallers. From this we cannot establish that abstention from
alcohol increases the probability of being elected to the White House.
Option (b) is incorrect. The passage talks about drunk husbands beating their wives and children. Such
drunk husbands may comprise a minority of men. Also, there is a mention of women joining the campaign
against alcoholism. This suggests women benefit from prohibition. Still, we cannot compare the benefits
that prohibition accrues to men and women.
Option (c) is incorrect. The passage does not talk about the impact of prohibition on either labour force
participation rate of young women, or on their independence.
Option (d) is correct. First line of the passage says “Prohibition‟s history stretches back into the 19th
century when religious groups and social organizations, such as the American Temperance Society...”.
Further it is mentioned that “...drunk husbands would beat their wives and children. Temperance
advocates argued that alcohol abuse caused poverty.” From the above arguments it can be safely inferred
that alcohol abuse leads to violation of socio-religious norms and values. To address these violations,
many religious organisations join hands in the campaign against alcohol consumption.

2. (a)
Assumption is an unstated or hidden fact which supports the conclusion or arguments made in the
passage.
Statement 1 is a valid assumption. It is evident from the first line of the passage that alcoholism (a human
behaviour) does not conform to religious values. First part of the passage says “In the 1850s Maine and
other states experimented with laws banning alcohol...” The very fact that this experiment was carried out
suggests that laws are assumed to be capable of bringing about change in human behaviour (alcoholism in
this case). Whether such laws are actually successful or not is a different matter.
Statement 2 is invalid. The passage only talks about Woman‟s Christian Temperance Union (WCTU)
campaigning for prohibition. This does not say anything about whether campaigns by women are more
successful than that by men or not.

3. (d)
Message of a passage implies the intent of the author behind the passage. It gives a sense of the
motive of the author behind writing the passage.
Option (a) is not the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the passage. The passage says
“...humanist philosophy that inspires minority rights movements.” Humanist philosophy encourages the
minority to demand their rights. This does not necessarily imply a confrontation between the minority and
the majority.
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 Option (b) is incorrect. It is mentioned “...colossal state-to-state bloodlettings like World War II have been
replaced by smaller, longer, more complex, and bloody enough proxy wars.” It is possible that World War
II itself, and not the wars preceding it, witnessed the highest number of violent deaths and war crimes.
Also, we cannot make a sweeping generalisation about all wars preceding World War II.
Option (c) is incorrect. It is correct that terrorism is a kind of proxy war, and that terrorist acts might be
increasing. However, it is not the crucial message of the passage. The crucial message is changing nature
and frequency of violence.
Option (d) is correct. The passage mentions both sides of arguments on the decline in violence. Hence,
whether violence has actually decreased is questionable. Further, author begins by mentioning crude
forms of violence like violent deaths, homicide and chemical attacks; and moves on to proxy wars
towards the end of the passage. Hence, it would be correct to say that violence has changed its nature from
a cruder to a subtler form.

4. (c)
Corollary is a proposition deduced from a proposition or fact already stated in the passage.
Option (a) is not a correct corollary to the given passage. It is mentioned in the passage “...colossal state-
to-state bloodlettings like World War II have been replaced by smaller, longer, more complex, and bloody
enough proxy wars.” It would be an exaggeration to say that World War II like state-to-state bloodlettings
will not happen again.
Option (b) is incorrect. The passage does not say anything about international monitoring mechanism for
chemical attacks. It only mentions how massed chemical weapons attacks are gradually declining.
Option (c) is a correct corollary. That the violence is changing its form is a proposition already made in
the passage. Violence handling mechanisms should be prepared to handle this changing form of violence -
it is another proposition that can be safely deduced from the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect as it is a very extreme measure not indicated by the passage.

5. (d)
Option (d) matches the features of proxy wars as mentioned by the author.
Smaller: The Iran-Saudi scuffles are mostly limited to selected regions of the middle-east, unlike the
World War II, which engulfed almost the entire world.
Longer: Tension between these two countries has been raging on since long.
More complex: Each has its proxy war groups and militias and they engage each other frequently, e.g. in
Yemen. It speaks about the enormous complexity involved therein.
Bloody: Thousands of civilians and soldiers have lost their lives in the war - a testament to the bloody
nature of this war.
6. (c)
Statement 1 is an invalid assumption. The passage talks about sand being a scarce commodity. However,
there is no mention about whether non-Asian countries have found a viable alternative to sand.
Statement 2 is valid. First line of the passage says “In the popular imagination, sand is synonymous with
limitlessness.” However, countries like Indonesia, the United Arab Emirates and Vietnam are facing
serious shortage of sand, which is a ground reality. From the above two statements it can be safely
assumed that popular imagination can often be at divergence with the ground reality.
Statement 3 is invalid too. United Arab Emirates is importing sand because the kind available to it in its
desert is too fine to be made into cement. There is no indication whether it is preserving its reserve for
future use.
7. (d)
Statement 1 is an invalid assumption. It is mentioned in the passage “...according to Slovak historian
Pavol Mešťan, it was easier to get families to relinquish daughters than sons...” This act of favouritism
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 towards sons reeks of a patriarchal mind-set; however this mind-set can be of the family relinquishing
their children, not Slovak historians.
Statement 2 is also invalid. It is clearly mentioned that „resettled‟ is the Nazi euphemism for killing the
Jews. Hence, it would be incorrect to assume that the fascist government wanted the Jews to „resettle‟
outside Poland.
Hence, both statements are invalid assumptions.

8. (b)
Option (a) is not a correct inference. Before the earthquake, Haiti was on its path to recovery. However, it
was slowed down by political instability following the earthquake. It is a one-off case of Haiti. There can
be numerous other examples wherein political instability has not followed an earthquake, and the country
has smoothly recovered thereafter.
Option (b) is correct. The passage mentions how political instability in Haiti has dampened the investment
climate and slowed down the recovery process after the earthquake. The author goes on to mention the
complete shutdown of Haiti. Hence, it can be inferred that political stability is one of the preconditions
(not the sole precondition) for overall development of a country.
Option (c) is incorrect. Last line of the passage says “Public outcry over corruption resulted in a radical
display of discontent that, three times in 2019, led to a complete shutdown of the country.” Prevalence of
corruption might not compulsorily lead to shutdown of the affected country, as a norm. The specific
experience of Haiti cannot be generalised.
Option (d) is incorrect. Foreign investors were considering investment opportunities in Haiti before it was
struck by an earthquake. This changed after the earthquake. However, the change in investment mood
may also be due to political instability that followed the earthquake. Furthermore, it cannot be generalised
that foreign investors shy away from all earthquake prone regions on earth.

9. (c)
English alphabet series = A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
Opposite letters: -
Opposite letters in alphabets are those letters whose sum of place value is always 27. For example:
AZ, BY, CX etc.
A + Z = 1 + 26 = 27
B + Y = 2 + 25 = 27
Opposite letters of English alphabets are shown below-

After arranging the alphabets according to question:

Now,
DISCOUNT = WJTDPVMG
Hence, option (c) is correct.

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10. (a)
Let the parents be M and F and their three sons be S 1 (eldest son), S2 (2nd eldest son) and S3 (youngest son)
respectively.
S1 + S2 + S3 + M + F = 20 × 5 = 100 years …(i)
S2 + M + F = 24 × 3 = 72 years … (ii)
(M + F) – S2 = 48 years
or M + F = 48 + S2 … (iii)
Putting this value of (M + F) in equation (ii), we get:
S2 + 48 + S2 = 72
or 2S2 = 72 – 48 = 24
or S2 = 24/2 = 12
Since, S2 : S1 = 2 : 3
or S2/S1 = 2/3
or 12/S1 = 2/3
or 2S1 = 36
or S1= 18
∴ S1 = 18 years
∴ M + F = 48 + S2 = 48 + 12 = 60 years
Now from equation (i), we get:
S1 + S2 + S3 + M + F = 100 years
Or 18 + 12 + S3 + 60 = 100 years
Or S3 = 10 years
Hence, the age of the youngest son is 10 years.

11. (a)
Time from 12 p.m. on Friday to 2 p.m. on the following Friday = 7 days + 2 hours = 170 hours.
Time that the watch gained in 170 hours = 2 + 4 + (48/60) = 34/5 minutes
Now, the watch gains (34/5) minutes in 170 hours
∴ The watch gains 1 minute in 170 / (34/5) hours
∴ The watch gains 2 minutes in (170 × 5 × 2)/ 34 = 50 hours
Hence the watch will show correct time after 50 hours or 2 days and 2 hours.
Hence, showed correct time on Friday + 2 days and 2 hours = Sunday 2 p.m.
Hence, he reached Bhopal at 2 p.m. on Sunday.

12. (d)
We know that, speed is inversely proportional to time. It means that if speed increases then time will
decrease.
According to statement 1- speed of A is twice of that of B and A is eight times faster than D. If B‟s speed
is 2x, then A‟s speed will be 4x and D‟s speed will be 0.5x.
According to statement 2- B takes half as much time as taken by C. It means B‟s speed is double of C‟s
speed. If B‟s speed is 2x, then C‟s speed will be x.
Hence, ratio of speeds of A, B, C and D = 4x : 2x : x : 0.5x = 8 : 4 : 2 : 1
Ratio of time taken will be inverse of the ratio of speeds.
Hence ratio of time taken by A, B, C and D = 1/8 : 1/4 : 1/2 : 1 = 1 : 2 : 4 : 8
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 Let time taken by A, B, C and D be x, 2x, 4x and 8x respectively.
Now, difference between time taken by C and D = 1 hour (given in the question)
⇒ 8x - 4x = 1 hour = 60 minutes
∴ 4 x = 60 minutes
∴ x = 15 minutes
Time taken by B = 2x = 2 × 15 = 30 minutes or half an hour.
Hence, both 1 and 2 are necessary to answer the question.

13. (d)
In the given sequence-
23, A, 49, Z, 16, E, 81, W, 121, O, 9, D, 25, U, 784, Y
Here by looking at the given sequence, we observe that four perfect square numbers (49, 81, 9 and 784)
are there which are immediately preceded by a vowel and immediately followed by a consonant.

14. (c)
Required sequence is-

Here we have taken squares of all consecutive prime numbers and subtracted 2.
Hence, the value of X is 2.

15. (d)
By statement 1 and 2, the value of N can be
N = 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 25, 29, 31, 35, 37, 41, 43, 47, 49 etc.
We can say that, N = 6k ± 1 {where k is any integer and N > 3}
Now considering given statements-
(a) N may be a prime number as N can be written as (6k ± 1).
For example- 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37 etc. are prime numbers.
But every number in (6k ± 1) format is not necessarily prime number. For example- 25, 35, 49, 91 etc. are
not prime numbers.
Hence, option (a) is not necessarily true.
(b) N may be divisible by 5, 7, 11 and 13 as N can be written as (6k ± 1).
For example - 35, 49, 55, 65 etc. are respectively divisible by 5, 7, 11 and 13.
But every number in (6k ± 1) format is not necessarily divisible by 5, 7, 11 and 13.
For example- 23, 37, 47, 97 etc. are not divisible by 5, 7, 11 and 13.
Hence, option (b) is not necessarily true.
(c) N may be a perfect square as N can be written as (6k ± 1). For example – 49, 121 etc.
But every number in (6k ± 1) format is not a perfect square.
For example- 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 35, 37 etc. are not a perfect square.
Hence, option (c) is not necessarily true.
Hence, option (d) is correct.

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16. (d)

Remaining amount for auto fare = 350 - (25 + 75 + 80) = 350 – 180 = Rs. 170
Total notes spent = 10 + 1 + 3 + 4 + 2 + 3 + 1 = 24 notes
Remaining notes = 36 - 24 = 12 notes
Now, he can spend Rs. 170 by using 12 notes in different ways.

Hence, he can pay the fare of auto in more than 5 ways.

17. (b)
Given: 70 **5 @@2 @12 ###20
Changing signs according to the given conditions, we get:
70 **5 @@2 @12 ###20 = 70 ÷ 5 × 2 + 12 - 20
= 14 × 2 + 12 - 20
= 28 + 12 - 20
= 40 - 20
= 20

18. (a)
Considering series of the inner circle –
0, 1, y, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13
The above series is a Fibonacci sequence. In Fibonacci sequence each number is the sum of the two
preceding ones, starting from 0 and 1.
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 Hence, y = 0 + 1 = 1
Considering series of the outer circle -
0, 8, 8, 16, 24, 40, 64, x
Here, each term is the sum of two preceding ones.
Hence, x = 40 + 64 = 104
Now, x + y = 104 + 1 = 105

19. (d)
One letter from the beginning and one letter from the end of the term are removed, one by one, in alternate
steps.
EXISTENTIAL, E XISTENTIAL, E XISTENTIA L, E X I S T E N T I A L, E X ISTENTI A L
Hence, require answer is option (d), i.e. ISTENTIA.

20. (a)
Total number of outcomes possible when a die is rolled = 6
Hence, total number of outcomes possible when a die is rolled twice = 6 × 6 = 36
Number of ways we can get a sum of 8 when dice is rolled twice ={(2,6),(3,5),(4,4),(5,3),(6,2)}
So, number of possible ways = 5
Required probability = 5/36

21. (b)
Statement 1 is an invalid assumption. Refer to these lines: “Unbundling of tasks and business functions
may have increased the opportunities for developing countries in particular to participate in global value
chains...” Thus, it can be said that developing countries are benefitting from improvements in information
and communications. However, developed are also benefitting as they are able to outsource work to more
cost-effective regions. This lowers their input costs. Hence, it would be incorrect to say that only
developing countries are benefitting.
Statement 2 is also invalid. Second line of the passage says “Fragmentation and internationalisation of
production chains are not new but have grown substantially in recent decades.” Hence, some amount of
fragmentation existed in the past as well, though it has grown substantially now. Therefore, it is incorrect
to assume that entire production process was carried out at a specific location in the past.
Statement 3 is valid. Author begins by underscoring improvements in communications and information
availability which is an integral part of globalisation. Further, it is mentioned how developed countries
outsource work to developing countries who benefit by becoming a part of the global value chain. Thus, it
can be safely assumed that globalisation leads to better inter-connectedness among different regions of the
world.

22. (b)
The passage mentions how outsourcing of work by developed countries enables developing countries to
become a part of global value chain. This is possible due to improvements in communications and
information availability. The sentence “Unbundling of tasks and business functions may have increased
the opportunities for developing countries in particular to participate in global value chains as firms in
developed countries outsource to more cost-competitive regions” supports this argument. It is best
captured in option (b).

23. (b)
Statement 1 is a valid assumption. First line of the passage says, “The Great Recession and the subsequent
period of subdued GDP growth in most advanced economies have highlighted the need for

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 macroeconomic forecasters to account for sudden and deep recessions...” It is then mentioned how
changes to Markov-Switching Dynamic Factor Model (MS-DFM) are being proposed. Thus, it can be
safely assumed from these arguments that robust economic models can help forecast future recessions.
Statement 2 is invalid. Though in real world scenario massive infrastructure investments can help recover
from recession, the passage nowhere talks about infrastructure. Hence, this statement is beyond the scope
of this passage.
Statement 3 is also a valid assumption. This statement is related to statement 1. Extensions to Markov-
Switching Dynamic Factor Model are being proposed. These changes capture the current state of the US
economy and relate it to that during the Great Recession. Thus, it is correct to assume that dynamic nature
of economic models helps them capture the changing reality.

24. (d)
Option (a) is incorrect. The MS-DFM model, as mentioned in the passage, tries to capture and explain the
fluctuations in trend GDP growth. It does not recommend any sustainable GDP growth rate.
Options (b) and (c) are also incorrect. India‟s growth rate before the 1991 economic reforms, and the
growth rate of Asian countries after the 2008 economic crisis are beyond the scope of this passage.
Hence, none of the given options is correct.

25. (d)
Statement 1 is an invalid assumption. It is mentioned in the passage “...overly protective regulation for
incumbent firms will strongly impact the potential for minerals rich countries to develop a mining services
sector...” Thus, already established firms may try to prevent competition from emerging firms through
protective legislation. It is an unethical business practice, because all eligible firms should get a level-
playing field. However, it is rather an extreme assumption. Overly protective regulation for incumbent
firms may itself end up creating an uneven field.
Statement 2 is valid. It is mentioned in the passage “Countries interested in leveraging their mineral
resources for economy-wide growth should not shy away from foreign inputs.” Author makes an implicit
suggestion to mineral rich countries to consider seeking foreign inputs. This is based on an assumption
that some countries are apprehensive of seeking foreign inputs.
Statement 3 is also valid. Refer to first line of the passage: “Countries wishing to support their mining
services sectors should ensure that firms in these sectors do not face overly burdensome regulation.” Thus,
if regulations are friendly, it would be easier for firms to carry out their businesses smoothly. Hence, it
can be safely assumed that regulations have a bearing on the ease of doing business in a country.

26. (b)
Corollary is a proposition deduced from a proposition or fact already stated in the passage.
Option (a) is not a correct corollary. It is mentioned that SMEs form a substantial share of mining services
firm, and that they are less prepared to handle difficult business environments. The author recommends
easing regulations for them so that they can contribute to the economic growth of mineral rich countries.
Therefore, reducing the share of SMEs in mining sector is out of question.
Option (b) is a correct corollary. The passage opens with the sentence “Countries wishing to support their
mining services sectors should ensure that firms in these sectors do not face overly burdensome
regulation.” Hence, there is a proposition to ease regulatory environment. Furthermore, statistical
evidence is given to prove the benefits of foreign inputs in mining sector.
Option (c) is incorrect. The passage says “Countries interested in leveraging their mineral resources for
economy-wide growth should not shy away from foreign inputs.” Author wants mineral rich countries not
to be completely averse to foreign inputs in mining sector. S/he does not want them to outrightly abandon
domestic value addition. Hence, it would be an exaggeration to say that domestic value addition in mining
should be replaced by its foreign counterpart.

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 Option (d) is also incorrect. Author recommends easing business regulatory environment that is friendly
to SMEs in mining sector. Acquisition of SMEs by incumbent firms threatens the very existence of small
and medium enterprises. It cannot be a logical corollary to this passage.

27. (c)
Implication is information or argument that is not directly stated in the passage but can be inferred from
the information given in the passage.
Option (a) is an incorrect implication. When products especially in restaurants etc. are bundled, the price
is cheaper for consumers. Furthermore, it is mentioned that product bundling helps e-commerce websites
increase sales. From these arguments, we cannot comment on the profit/loss of e-commerce giants in
India.
Option (b) is also incorrect. The passage mentions various benefits of bundling services with goods. These
include a long-lasting relationship with the customer, potential to improve product quality and a stable
source of revenue for the firm. Services, here, mean services associated with a product - e.g. repair,
maintenance, exchange of old products for new ones etc. It does not have much correlation with the
service sector of the economy like banking, communication, tourism etc. which are beyond the scope of
this passage.
Option (c) is a correct implication. Multiple benefits of bundling services and goods, rather than only
goods, are mentioned in the passage. Long-lasting relationship is one of the benefits. Governance is also
about building trust (long-lasting relationship) between citizens and government. Also, the government is
a provider of a range of goods and services like education, health services, food grains, LPG cylinders etc.
Hence, this is a valid implication of the passage.

28. (b)
Statement 1 is a valid assumption. Bundling products, may it be two or more goods, or two or more goods
and services, comes under the ambit of innovative business practice. Author quotes the example of e-
commerce websites to suggest how product bundling can help increase sales. Hence, it is safe to assume
that innovation can drive the growth of business enterprises.
Statement 2 is invalid. It is clear from the tone of these lines of the passage - “Product bundling can also
be used to introduce to the consumer new products that she may have not initially thought about buying.
E-commerce websites, for example, often suggest products that are bought together with the one picked
by the customer to encourage further sales.” Customers are introduced to products hitherto unknown to
them; they are not being forced to buy new products. Thus, it is not aligned with the ethos of consumerism
which means the preoccupation of society with the acquisition of consumer goods.
Statement 3 is also invalid. The domain of this passage is restricted to benefits of product bundling for
consumers and business firms. Product bundling helps firms increase their sales, and introduces
consumers to new products. The passage does not venture into establishing any inter-relationship between
materialistic possessions and social status of consumers.

29. (c)
Statement 1 is incorrect. Additional expenditure incurred by a firm would be a negative impact of product
bundling. And, the passage does not mention any negative impact of product bundling on customers or
business firms.
Statement 2 is correct. Refer to these lines: “Through services, the idea is also to establish a long-lasting
relationship with the customer rather than a one-off sale of multiple products. Accompanying the
customer through the product life cycle can create loyalty.” The long-lasting relationships and loyalty
builds trust between the consumer and the firm.
Statement 3 is correct. The passage says, “It (bundling goods and services) also provides information to
the manufacturer that can be used to improve products.” This information is procured from direct
interaction with the consumers, therefore it is reliable. Also, it provides important feedback on
performance of products, which can be used to improve the quality of upcoming variants.
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30. (c)
Divisibility rule of 11 - If the difference between the sum of the odd-numbered digits and the sum of the
even-numbered digits, counted from left to right, is either 0 or divisible by 11, then the number is divisible
by 11.
Since 4A7B3C is divisible by 11. Hence, difference between (A + B + C) and (4 + 7 + 3) should be either
0 or divisible by 11.
Therefore, A+B+C = 4+7+3 = 14 or 14 + 11 = 25 or 14 – 11 = 3
Hence, as per the options, A+B+C = 14
Alternate method:
If a number is divisible by 7, 11 and 13, the number will be divisible by 1001 (L.C.M of 7, 11 and 13).
Any 6-digit number divisible by 1001 is like xyzxyz (for example 123123) and it is formed by multiplying
a three-digit number xyz by 1001.
Now, comparing the given number 4A7B3C with xyzxyz, we get
x = 4, y = 3, z = 7
Hence the given number is 437437.
Hence, A = 3, B = 4, C = 7
Now, A + B + C = 3 + 4 + 7 = 14

31. (d)
Let the two- digit number be (10x+y), where y is the unit place digit and x is the tenth place digit.
After reversing, the number will be (10y+x).
Now, according to the question,
(10x+y) - (10y+x) = 27
or 9x - 9y = 27
or (x- y) = 3
Possible values of x and y are (1, 4), (2, 5), (3, 6), (4, 7), (5, 8), and (6, 9).
Hence, possible two digits numbers are 14, 25, 36, 47, 58 and 69.
Least number = 14
Highest number = 69
The required sum = 14 + 69 = 83

32. (c)
Given conditions-
a3 + b3 = 1; c2 + d2 = 1 and ac + bd = 0
To satisfy the above given conditions we can assume values of a, b, c, and d as
Case (i): a = 1, b = 0, c = 0, d = 1 or
Case (ii): a = 0, b = 1, c = 1, d = 0
Now checking the given statements by both cases.

1. a2 d2 + b2c2 = 1
Case (i): a = 1, b = 0, c = 0, d = 1
1 × 1 + 0 × 0 = 1 {satisfied}
Case (ii): a = 0, b = 1, c = 1, d = 0
0 × 0 +1 × 1 = 1 {satisfied}
Hence, Statement 1 is true.
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 2. a3 + d3 = 2
Case (i): a = 1, b = 0, c = 0, d = 1
1 + 1 = 2 {satisfied}
Case (ii): a = 0, b = 1, c = 1, d = 0
0 + 0 = 0 {not satisfied}
Hence, Statement 2 is not always true.

3. ab + cd = 0
Case (i): a = 1, b = 0, c = 0, d = 1
1 × 0 + 0 × 1 = 0 {satisfied}
Case (ii): a = 0, b = 1, c = 1, d = 0
0 × 1 + 1 × 0 = 0 {satisfied}
Hence, Statement 3 is true.
Hence, only Statements 1 and 3 are true.

33. (a)
3 * 4 $ 5 = [{3 × 4 + 3 × 5} × (5 - 3)] = 27 × 2 = 54
Similarly,
2 * 3 $ 5 = [{2 × 3 + 2 × 5} × (5 - 2)] = 16 × 3 = 48
Similarly,
5 * 6 $ 7 = [{5 × 6 + 5 × 7} × (7 - 5)] = 65 × 2 = 130

34. (a)
Four different subjects Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Biology are taught in five days starting from
Monday to Friday and only one subject is taught per day.
Statement 1: If Mathematics is taught on Monday and Friday, then the other three subjects will be taught
on the rest three days. Hence, we can determine exactly that any two different subjects are taught on
consecutive days.

Hence, statement 1 alone is sufficient.

Statement 2:
If different subjects are taught on Tuesday and Thursday, then we cannot say that any two different
subjects are taught on consecutive days.

Hence, statement 2 is not sufficient.

Statement 3:
If different subjects are taught on Wednesday and Friday, then we cannot say that any two different
subjects are taught on consecutive days.

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 Hence, statement 3 is not sufficient.
Statement 2 and 3 together:
If different subjects are taught on Tuesday and Thursday and different subjects are taught on Wednesday
and Friday, then also we cannot say that any two different subjects are taught on consecutive days.

Hence, statement 2 along with statement 3 is not sufficient.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

35. (c)
From the given statements we can draw following possible diagrams.
Case 1:

Case 2:

Case 3:

By looking at the diagrams in the above three cases we can say that only conclusion III is true.
Hence, only conclusion 3 is true.
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36. (b)
We know that total probability of any event is one.

Probability of selection of only Golu = Golu gets selected AND Bholu gets rejected
= (1/3) × (6/7) = 2/7
Probability of selection of only Bholu = Bholu gets selected AND Golu gets rejected.
= (1/7) × (2/3) = 2/21
Probability of selection of only one = {only Golu gets selected} OR {only Bholu gets selected}
= (2/7) + (2/21)
= 8/21
[Note: ‘AND’ means multiply, ‘OR’ means addition]

37. (d)
A÷B×C+D–F
On drawing the blood relation chart according to question, we get:

Now,
Statement-1: On seeing the blood relation chart, we can say that A is the mother of F. Hence statement 1
is correct.
Statement-2: On seeing the blood relation chart, we can say that D is father of B. Hence statement 2 is
correct.
Statement-3: On seeing the blood relation chart, we can‟t say that F is the son of A because the gender of
F is not given. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Statement-4: On seeing the blood relation chart, we can say that B and C are sisters of F. Hence statement
4 is correct.
Hence, option (d) is correct.

38. (b)
Let there be 1000 mobiles manufactured by the company.
According to question,
Number of Q1 type mobiles manufactured = (40/100) × 1000 = 400
Number of Q2 type mobiles manufactured = (30/100) × 1000 = 300
Number of Q3 type mobiles manufactured = 1000 – (400 + 300) = 300
Defective mobiles of type Q 1 = 3 % of Q1 type mobiles
= 3 % of (400) = (3/100) × 400 = 12 mobiles

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 Defective mobiles of type Q 2 = 1 % of Q2 type mobiles
= 1 % of (300) = (1/100) × 300 = 3 mobiles Telegram Channel
Defective mobiles of type Q 3 = 5 % of Q3 type mobiles http://t.me/Upsc_4_EveryOne
= 5 % of (300) = (5/100) × 300 = 15 mobiles
Total defective mobiles = 12 + 3 + 15 = 30 mobiles
Required percentage of defective mobiles = (30/1000) × 100 = 3%

39. (b)
There are a total of 343 identical cubes (7 × 7× 7).

The centre cubes on each of the six faces will have their one face painted.
Number of such centre cubes on each face = 5 × 5 = 25
∴ Total number of cubes with only 1 face painted = 6 × 25 = 150 cubes.

40. (c)
Let total percentage of people in India be 100%, out of which 10 % did not travel abroad.
Percentage of people who went to Europe = n(A) = 60 %
Percentage of people who went to Russia= n(B) = 50 %
Percentage of people who visited abroad = n (A U B) = 100% –10% = 90%
We know,
n (A U B) = n(A) + n(B) – n (A ∩ B)
90% = 60% + 50% – (A ∩ B) = 110% – (A ∩ B)
n (A ∩ B) = 110% – 90% = 20%
Therefore, 20% of people went to Europe as well as Russia.
Percentage of people who went to Russia only = 50% - 20% = 30 %
Hence, statement 1 and statement 2 both are correct.

41. (d)
Option (a) is an incorrect inference. The passage mentions “Shortly before Christmas, America enacted its
first big reform to the retirement system in over a decade.” It can be a one-off case of America launching
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 the reform before Christmas. From this we cannot generalise that festive seasons are the right time to
launch big bang reforms.
Option (b) is also incorrect. Refer to this line of the passage - “...they will probably have to rely on Social
Security (public pensions) in their dotage.” It is highly possible that public pension is one of the several
provisions, not the sole provision, under America‟s social security arrangement.
Option (c) is also incorrect. Unemployment rate in America is currently low, which is satisfactory. Author
further says, “The median balance held in retirement accounts is $60,000 per family, enough for only a
pitiful income in old age.” Also, the safety net provided by public pensions is thin (inadequate). Thus, it
cannot be conclusively inferred that public pensions prevent ANY change in living standards post
retirement.
Option (d) is a correct inference. The passage says, “Americans could certainly do with additional
retirement security. The median balance held in retirement accounts is $60,000 per family, enough for
only a pitiful income in old age.” Saving from an early age can help increase this median balance. Also,
since around 40% of working Americans do not have a retirement savings account, more Americans
should develop savings habit.

42. (d)
Option (a) is an incorrect corollary. The passage restricts its domain to the condition of American
workers. India‟s socio-economic conditions might be different from that of other countries. Hence, it
would be imprudent to replicate NOAPS in other countries.
Option (b) is also incorrect. It is clearly mentioned “...there are plans afoot to improve workers‟ prospects
once they have laid down their tools.” Hence, it is incorrect to say that there is not much scope to improve
the lot of workers after they retire.
Option (c) is also incorrect. Refer to this line of the passage: “The Setting Every Community Up for
Retirement Enhancement Act of 2019, better known as the secure Act, is a good start. But much more is
needed.” From this we can INFER that statutory backing is necessary but not sufficient. So, it is an
inference, not a corollary. Corollary is a proposition deduced from a proposition or fact already stated in
the passage.
Option (d) is a correct corollary. Social issues like high rates of old-age poverty need multi-pronged
approach to address them. They can include an effective law, inculcating a culture of saving, robust social
security net etc. Hence, a comprehensive mechanism is required.

43. (d)
Statement 1 is an invalid assumption. Last line of the passage talks about resistance from air force which
saw the creation of the post of CDS as a power grab by the already-dominant army. It can be a matter of
circumstances that the army in India is dominant. Also, it might just be a perception of air force. We
cannot assume that army is by nature more dominating than navy and air force. Navy or air force might be
more dominating in other countries. We cannot generalize.
Statement 2 is also invalid. Jawaharlal Nehru abolished the post of commander-in-chief as a gesture of
civilian supremacy over the military. It seems more of a figment of one‟s imagination that India would
have witnessed a military coup had the post of commander-in-chief not been abolished.
Statement 3 is also invalid. The last two lines talk about resistance to the creation of the post of CDS from
civilians and air force. There is no mention of resistance from navy. It might be possible that navy resists
govt. moves more intensely in other domains. Hence, it would be premature to assume that navy is more
subservient to political leadership than civilians and air force.
Therefore, none of the three statements is a valid assumption.
44. (c)
Statement 1 is a correct implication. Refer to this line: “The creation of such a post had been mooted for
decades, especially after the army and air force squabbled during a war against Pakistan in 1999.”
Squabble: a noisy altercation or quarrel usually over petty matters
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 Hence, the creation of the post of CDS can help ensure better coordination in future, as CDS would have
more authority than the chiefs of army, navy and airforce.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The passage only talks about a plush house being handed over to Bipin Rawat.
There is no mention of Flagstaff House in this context.
Statement 3 is also incorrect. Statements 3 and 4 are close. Jawaharlal Nehru abolished the post of
commander-in-chief to convey a wider message of civilian supremacy. It is possible that the civilian
authority enjoyed supremacy even in those days. Also, the circumstances now are different from that
during the times of Jawaharlal Nehru. Hence, it cannot be said that the creation of the post of CDS would
eventually lead to the end of civilian supremacy in India.
Statement 4 is also incorrect. One of the aims of creating the post of CDS is ensuring a better synergy
among the three services of armed forces. Just because Bipin Rawat happens to be an ex-army chief, it
cannot be conclusively said that the domination of army will increase.

45. (d)
Statement 1 is incorrect. Refer to the first few words of the passage: “Like the popular fitness apps...”
Author outlines the similarity between Evocco and other fitness apps. Hence, it would be incorrect to
deduce that fitness apps are no longer required.
Statement 2 is also incorrect. The passage focusses on one of the several ways to address climate change -
balancing nutritional value and climate impact of what we eat. It is highly likely that the actual culprits of
climate change are also being pursued seriously, something which does not fall within the scope of this
passage.
Hence, both statements 1 and 2 do not appropriately capture the implication of the passage.
46. (b)
In the given Venn diagram the number of students who failed in Hindi are shown as A and the number of
students who failed in English are shown as B.
Total number of students = 35

Number of students who passed in both the subjects = 8

Remaining students that failed in atleast one subject = n (A ∪ B) = 35 – 8 = 27
n (A ∪ B) = n(A) + n(B) – n (A ∩ B)
27 = 17 + 18 – n (A ∩ B)
n (A ∩ B) = 8
Hence, out of 27 students, number of students who failed in both subjects = 8

So, Number of students who passed in exactly one subject = 9 + 10 = 19

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 Alternate Method
Total number of students in the class = 35
Number of students that passed in both the subjects = 8
Number of students failed in Hindi = 17
Therefore, number of students passed in Hindi = 35 – 17 = 18
Number of students failed in English = 18
Therefore, number of students passed in English = 35 – 18 = 17
Number of students passed in only Hindi = 18 – 8 = 10
Number of students passed in only English = 17 – 8 = 9
Hence, number of students who passed in exactly one subject = 9 + 10 = 19
Hence, option (b) is correct.

47. (c)
On drawing the direction diagram as per the question, we get:

Hence by Pythagoras theorem,

Required distance = √ (92 + 122) = 15 km
Hence, the school is 15 km in the north-west direction from his house.

48. (d)
Let the total length of all three scales be 100x cm.
By Statement 1: If scale C is removed, then length will be decrease by 10% and will become 90x cm.
Hence, scale C is 10x cm long.
By Statement 2: If scale B is removed, then length will be decrease by 40% and will become 60x. Hence,
scale B is 40x cm long.
By statements 1 and 2,
Length of A = 100x – (10x + 40x) = 50x cm
By Statement-3:
100x = 400 cm
Hence, x = 400/100 = 4 cm
Length of scale A = 50x = 50 × 4 = 200 cm
Hence, statement 1, along with statement 2 and statement 3, is sufficient to answer the question.

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49. (d)
Let total votes be 100x.
Votes secured by Rohan = 30% of 100x = 30x
Remaining votes = 100x – 30x = 70x
Votes secured by Mohan = 60% of 70x = 42x
Remaining votes that were secured by Sohan = 100x – (30x + 42x) = 28x
Given that, Sohan secured 84000 votes.
∴ 28x = 84000
or x = 84000/28 = 3000 votes
So, Total votes = 100x = 100 × 3000 = 300000 votes
Votes secured by Rohan = 30x = 30 × 3000 = 90000 votes
Votes secured by Mohan = 42x = 42 × 3000 = 126000 votes
Winning margin or difference of votes between Mohan and Rohan (i.e. winner and runner-up) = 126000 –
90000 = 36000 votes

50. (b)
Let the original selling price of item be Rs.300x.
New selling price = 300x × 33.33% = 300x × 1/3 = Rs. 100x
He suffers a loss of 33.33% if he sells the item at Rs.100x.
Then, cost price = 100x × (3/2) = Rs.150x
60% of original selling price = 60% of 300x = Rs.180x
Profit % = [(180x – 150x)/ 150x] × 100 = 20%

51. (c)
Let the transportation cost be X, distance be D and weight of goods be W.
Now from question,
X1 ∝ √D1 × ∛W1
Or X1 = K √D1 × ∛W1 …. (i) {K is a constant}
According to question,
X2 ∝ √4D1 × ∛W2
Or X2 = 2K√D1 × ∛W2 …. (ii) {K is a constant}
On making X1 and X2 equal, because transportation cost is same in both cases.
√D1 × ∛W1 = 2√D1 × ∛W2
∛W1 = 2 ∛W2
On cubing both sides, we get
W1 = 8W2
Or W2 = (1/8)W1
So, W2 = 12.5% of W1
Hence, 12.5 % of the original weight can be transported at same cost.

52. (c)
Let the weight of the first, second and third pieces be A, B and C respectively.
Weight of first piece = sum of the first 4 prime numbers
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 ∴ A = 2 + 3 + 5 + 7 = 17 units ….. (i)
Weight of second piece = average of first three odd numbers + half of third piece
∴ B = (1+ 3 + 5)/3 + C/2
⇒ B = 3 + C/2 ….. (ii)
Weight of third piece = sum of first and second piece
∴C=A+B
From equation (ii) and (iii), we get:
∴ C = 17 + 3 + C/2
⇒ C - C/2 = 20
⇒ C/2 = 20
⇒ C = 40 units
From equation (ii), we get:
∴ B = 3 + 40/2 = 23 units
So, Weight of the whole cake = A + B + C = 17 + 23 + 40 = 80 units

53. (d)
Let the total steps in escalator be N.
Since the ratio of speeds of Ajeet and Sujeet is 9 : 5 and the ratio of distance covered by both is 30 : 20,
the ratio of the time in which they reach the top is (30/9) : (20/5), i.e. 5 : 6.
Thus, the escalator covers the balance (N – 30) and (N – 20) steps in time intervals in the ratio 5 : 6.
Since speed of escalator is same in both the cases, the ratio of distances covered is same as ratio of time,
i.e. (N – 30) : (N – 20) will be in the ratio of 5 : 6.
∴ (N – 30)/ (N – 20) = 5/ 6
∴ 6 (N – 30) = 5 (N – 20)
∴ 6N – 180 = 5N – 100
∴ N = 80 steps

54. (c)
Let speed of the runner up be x and that of winner be 2x.
Let d be the distance covered by the runner up in 5 minutes.
Then the distance covered by the winner in 5 min = (d + 1) km
Since time taken is same for first meeting,
d/x = (d + 1)/2x
or 2d – d = 1
or d = 1 km
Hence, winner covers 2 km in 5 minutes.
Therefore, required time taken to cover 4 km = (4/2) × 5 = 10 minutes

55. (b)
Let after x months Rakesh joined Ambuj in business.
Rakesh invested 33.33% more amount than Ambuj.
33.33% = 1/3
Ratio of amounts of Ambuj and Rakesh is 3 : 4.
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 Ratio of time period of investment of Ambuj and Rakesh is 12 : (12 - x).
Ratio of amount of Ambuj and Rakesh = 3 × 12 : 4 × (12 - x) = 9 : (12 - x)
Total profit = Rs.8704
Ambuj‟s profit = Rs.4608
So, Rakesh‟s profit = Rs.8704 - Rs.4608 = Rs.4096
So, 9/(12 - x) = 4608/4096
or 12 – x = 8
or x = 4 months
Hence, ratio of time period of investment of Ambuj and Rakesh = 12 : (12 - 4) or 3 : 2

56. (d)
Let the radius of bigger sphere be R, radius of small sphere be r and side of cube be a.
The following diagram shows the bigger sphere, small sphere and cube.

We know that,
Diagonal of cube of maximum side in a sphere is equal to the diameter of sphere.
Diagonal of cube = √3 side = a√3
or a√3 = 2R
or R = (a√3)/ 2 …. (i)
We know that the diameter of sphere of maximum radius inscribed in a cube is equal to the side of cube.
Diameter of smaller sphere = side of cube
or 2 r = a
or r = a /2 ….(ii)
From equations (i) and (ii), we get:
Ratio of radius of smaller sphere and that of bigger sphere = r : R
∴ r : R = (a /2) : (a√3)/2 = 1 :√3

57. (b)
Pipe X can fill the tank in 24 hours. Original rate of pipe X = 1/24
Rate of pipe X after 16 hours = 1/18
Work done by pipe X in 16 hours at original rate = 16/24 = 2/3
Remaining work = 1 - (2/3) = 1/3
Time taken to fill the remaining part of tank by pipe X with the new rate after 16 hours = (1/3) / (1/18) = 6
hours
So, Time taken by pipe X to fill the tank = 16 + 6 = 22 hours

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 Required time = 24 – 22 = 2 hours
Hence, the tank will take 2 hours less time to fill the tank than earlier.

58. (a)
Let the price of the purse that Jethalal purchased be Rs. X.
Selling price of purse = Rs. 875
Profit = 875 - X
According to question,
{(875 –X)/X} × 100 = X
or 87500 –100X = X2
or X2 + 100X – 87500 = 0
or X2 + 350X – 250X - 87500 = 0
or X (X + 350) – 250 (X + 350) = 0
or (X - 250) (X + 350) = 0
∴ X = 250 {on taking positive value as price can’t be negative}
Hence, Jethalal purchased that purse at Rs.250.

59. (c)
Since child is 10 years old, so we will go through first table (age group 6 to 14)
Let’s consider the percentage of mineral:
If we mix A and B, percentage of mineral = [(10 gm + 0 gm)/200 gm] × 100 = 5%
Hence, percentage of mineral will not be 10%. The same will happen if we mix B and C or B and D.
Hence, these cases (involving B) are eliminated.
If we mix A and C, then the percentage of mineral will be more than 10%.
If we mix A and D, then the percentage of mineral will be 10%.
If we mix C and D, then the percentage of mineral will be more than 10%.
If we mix A, C and D, then the percentage of mineral will be more than 10%.
If we mix A, B, C and D, then the percentage of mineral will be less than 10%. Hence, this case is
eliminated.
Now consider the percentage of protein:
If we mix A and C, then the percentage of protein will be more than 25%.
If we mix A and D, percentage of protein will be 25%.
If we mix C and D, the percentage of protein = [(25 gm + 20 gm)/200 gm] × 100 = 22.5%. Hence, the
percentage of protein will be less than 25%. Hence, this case is eliminated.
If we mix A, C and D, then the percentage of protein will be 25%.
Now, consider the percentage of Vitamin:
If we mix A and C, then the percentage of vitamin will more than 10%.
If we mix A and D, then the percentage of vitamin will more than 10%.
If we mix A, C and D, then the percentage of vitamin will be more than 10%.
Hence, there are three possible ways to prepare a diet.
60. (b)
Since child is 8 years old, so we will go through first table (age group 6 to 14).
Solving this question by tabular method and using the options –

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 Hence, only three diet combinations are possible.
Now on checking their price:
A + B = (100 + 40)/2 = Rs. 70
B + C = (40 + 80)/2 = Rs. 60
A + B + C = (100 + 40 + 80)/3 = Rs. 220/3
Here, we can see that combination of B and C is the cheapest suitable diet.

61. (d)
Since child is 16 years old, so we will go through second table (age group 15 to 22).
The maximum mineral percentage is in W (15%), and this is also the minimum mineral percentage
required. If we mix it with any other diet the mineral percentage will fall below 15%.

Hence, there are no such combination possible.

62. (c)
Option (a) does not capture the main idea of the passage. The passage touches upon the relative trade
openness of different countries. It does not establish any relationship between this openness and the
overall prosperity of a country. Countries like Australia, Canada and Chile are quite open to trade,
however, there is no mention about their prosperity levels.
Option (b) is also incorrect. It is mentioned that Australia, Canada and Chile are quite open to trade.
Among these, Australia and Chile are in the Southern Hemisphere, and Canada is in Northern
Hemisphere. Hence, we cannot say that countries in the Southern Hemisphere are more open to trade than
those in Northern Hemisphere.
Option (c) captures the main idea of the passage. The author argues that openness to foreign inputs can
benefit the receiving country. However, the degree and nature of openness can vary from case to case.
Author quotes the examples of America, South Africa, Brazil, Chile etc. to lend support to this argument.
Hence, there is no fixed blueprint that decides the nature and extent of trade openness.
Option (d) is incorrect. That India‟s decision to open up its coal mining sector would reduce import
dependence might be factually correct. However, even if we remotely infer it from this passage, still it is
not the MAIN IDEA of this passage.
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63. (d)
Statement 1 is incorrect. Last line of the passage talks about America opening up its digital sector to
foreign services. Hence, we cannot say that openness to trade benefits only the mining sector of a country.
Statement 2 is also incorrect. Firstly, we cannot conclusively deduce whether South Africa is among the
most developed African countries. Secondly, the passage says, “South Africa is fairly open to foreign
services providers.” It might have relatively more restriction in mining sector as compared to other
sectors. Lastly, openness to trade is not the sole driver of prosperity. South Africa might be developed (if
that‟s factually correct) due to other more important factors.
Statement 3 is also incorrect. The passage does not make even a passing reference to WTO. It is beyond
the scope of this passage.

64. (b)
Statement 1 is a valid assumption. The passage talks about antitrust suit which is a type of market
regulation. The suit was brought against Xerox because its new photocopier had a dominant market
position. The new product put other firms like Kodak and IBM at a disadvantaged position. The suit
enabled them to have a more active presence in the new photocopying segment, thus promoting healthy
competition in the market.
Statement 2 is also a valid assumption. The plain paper photocopier introduced by Xerox was around six
times more expensive than other photocopiers in the market, though it used paper which was a less
expensive supply. It also had complex mechanical parts. As a workaround Xerox came up with an
innovative practice of leasing out the machine on monthly rental. The rent also included maintenance
services. This innovative pricing model eventually led to Xerox securing a dominant market position.
Hence, it can be said that innovative pricing model is an important driver of the sales of a company.
Statement 3 is invalid. The passage does not make any reference to copyright violations of literary works
like books, novels, dissertations etc. Hence, it is clearly beyond the scope of this passage.

65. (b)
Refer to this line of the passage: “Most companies in the sector had a „razor and razor blade‟ business
model with a low margin on the photocopier itself (to ensure a low price) and higher mark-ups on the
supplies (ink and paper).”
Let us consider the options now.
Option (a) is incorrect. Companies in other sectors (other than photocopying industry) can also adopt
„razor and razor blade‟ business model. They just need to have the wherewithal to compensate for the low
price of main product through higher price of the regular supplies required by the product.
Option (b) is correct. Under „razor and razor blade‟ model, companies keep the price of their main product
(photocopier machine in this case) low. This reduced price is compensated by higher price of regular
supplies required by the main product. Now, if the cost of regular supplies (or raw material) dips,
companies won‟t be able to compensate for the low price of their main product. Hence, the applicability
of „razor and razor blade‟ model might come under question.
Option (c) is incorrect. Minimum government, maximum governance implies making procedures simpler,
abolishing unnecessary laws, reducing red-tapism in government offices etc. On the other hand, „razor and
razor blade‟ model is a business model. Establishing a relationship between the two would be too far-
fetched.
Option (d) is also incorrect. It is clearly mentioned that antitrust suit was brought against Xerox due to its
dominant market position. It has nothing to do with whether or not Xerox followed „razor and razor blade‟
business model.

66. (d)
Statement 1 is not a valid assumption. The protestors sing local folk songs and use local musical
instruments like conch. All these do not require the participants to be literate. Moreover, they are victims
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 of social evils like domestic violence, unruliness etc. Hence, they might even be illiterate, yet they are
participating actively in the campaign.
Statement 2 is also not a valid assumption. Even if the argument is factually true, Green Revolution is
nowhere within the domain of this passage. It focuses on creative protests against social evils in
Purvanchal.
Statement 3 is a valid assumption. It is a typical example of women‟s campaign against social evils. The
campaign has a leader who blows the conch. Green sari is a symbol of their campaign. And, the way they
walk briskly in a line reflects their confidence level. All these leave no doubt on the potential of women to
fight social evils despite their disadvantaged position in society.

67. (d)
Option (a) is not a correct corollary. Conch is a musical instrument used by the protestors in Purvanchal.
Its use lends an element of creativity to the campaign. However, we cannot conclusively say that it has its
origin in Purvanchal. Moreover, the issue of awarding GI tag is nowhere within the ambit of this passage.
Option (b): The protestors leverage local folk songs, musical instruments and green sari as different tools
and symbols of their protest. There is no indication towards the financial health of their campaign. Let us
consider other options before rejecting it.
Option (c): This option is close. Women face domestic violence and abuse from alcoholic men. Hence, a
blanket ban on production, sale and consumption of alcohol might solve their problem. However, a
blanket ban is an extreme measure as the passage talks about women's issues only in Purvanchal, not the
entire state. Let‟s put this option on hold as well.
Option (d) is a more pragmatic corollary. The creative protest helps raise awareness among women who
are the victims of alcoholism. A parallel awareness drive among alcoholic men, who are the perpetrators
of violence against women, would complement the efforts of these women. These men might be
untouched by the women‟s campaign. It is also more practical than the extreme step of blanket ban.
Hence, it is the most appropriate corollary to the above passage.

68. (b)
Option (a) is incorrect. The passage mentions the enormity of megafires via examples of such fires in the
United States, Congo, Australia etc. It also highlights the necessity of climate action to control such
catastrophic fires. However, it would be incorrect to say that it is impossible to control and prevent
megafires just because they engulf vast areas.
Option (b) captures the message conveyed by the passage. Congo, Russia, America etc. witnessed
unprecedented megafires in 2019. Now, Australia is facing one of the worst bushfires. This shows quick
fixes are not working, and comprehensive climate action measures are required.
Option (c) is incorrect. That Australian aboriginal population has been suppressed in its homeland might
be factually true. However, it is nowhere within the scope of this passage. Also, there is no indication
towards any relationship between bushfires and suppression of aborigines.
Option (d) is also incorrect. Refer to this line: “The twin weather extremes of drought and heat waves,
driven by climate change, only increase the risk of recurring catastrophic fire seasons for Australia.”
Drought and heat waves combined with climate change increases the risk of bushfires in Australia. We
cannot conclusively say that these measures will help control forest fires GLOBALLY. There might be
different reasons of forest fires in other parts of the world.

69. (b)
The passage talks about people suffering and dying, however, there is no reference to marginalised
sections per se. This rules out statement 1.
Statement 2 is also incorrect. Refer to the line: “We are in the beginning of a mass extinction, and all you
can talk about is money and fairy tales of eternal economic growth.” There is a hint towards catastrophic

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 environmental impacts of haphazard economic growth. Hence, the excerpt is related to an environmental
issue, not an economic one.
Statement 3: Refer to these lines: “Entire ecosystems are collapsing. We are in the beginning of a mass
extinction...” It suggests that the excerpt is related to environmental damage and climate change.
Also, refer to these lines:
“I shouldn't be up here. I should be back in school...”
“This is all wrong”
“How dare you continue to look away...”
These are all tell-tale signs of an anguished youth‟s speech, rather than a diplomat‟s.

Explanation for Questions 70 to 73:

Only two students go between A and B and C goes just after B. As five students go before C, five students
will go after C because there are 11 students in hostel. So, possible arrangements will be-

Now, 2 students go after D and only two students go before F. Since three students go between C and E,
so there will be two possible cases for case (II) -

Since, number of students who go after J and before K is same and K went before C but after H. So, in
cases (II) and (III), do not satisfy this criteria. Hence, case (II) and (III) will be eliminated.
So the final arrangement where G goes before I will be –

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 Note: The information that „H goes before B.‟ is redundant. The puzzle can be solved without this
information.

70. (b)

71. (c)

72. (b)

73. (d)

74. (d)
Date on Indian Republic day = 26 January
In 2002 (ordinary year), there will be 1 odd day. So, one day will be added next year.
Hence on 26th January 2003, it will be Sunday.
In 2003 (ordinary year), there will be 1 odd day. So, one day will be added next year.
Hence on 26th January 2004, it will be Monday.
In 2004 (leap year), there will be 2 odd days. So, two days will be added next year.
Hence on 26th January 2005, it will be Wednesday.
In 2005 (ordinary year), there will be 1 odd day. So, one day will be added next year.
Hence on 26th January 2006, it will be Thursday.
So in 2006, Republic day will be celebrated on Thursday i.e. the day before Friday.

75. (b)
We know that, simple interest = [Principal sum × rate × time] / 100
Time for which Kalidas lends money to Shakuntala = (3/2) of 20 months = 30 months
Rate for which Kalidas lends money to Shakuntala = 4%
Interest earned from Vidyawati = [12000 × 1 × (20/12)]/100 = Rs. 200
Interest earned from Shakuntala = [12000 × 4 × (30/12)]/100 = Rs. 1200
Total interest earned by Kalidas = Rs. 200 + Rs. 1200 = Rs. 1400

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76. (b)
Total number of words made from the word ANNUAL = {6!/(2! × 2!)} = 180
Total number of words where N‟s are always together = 5!/2! = 60
So, Total number of words where N‟s are never together = 180 – 60 = 120 words

77. (c)
Given: Price of the car = Rs. 4,00,000
Money that Rohan has = 90% of 400000 = Rs. 3,60,000
Now, price of motorbike in 2016 = Rs. 50,000
Since, price of motorbike depreciates by 10% of its original value every year.
∴ Depreciated value of motorbike after 3 years = 50000 – (30% of 50000) = 50000 – 15000 = Rs. 35,000
Total amount that Rohan has = 3,60,000 + 35,000 = Rs. 3,95,000
Hence, he is short by only Rs. 5,000
Hence, only option (c) is correct.

78. (c)
Profit on selling A = [(12 - 10)/10] × 100 = 20%
Profit on selling B = [(20 - 15)/15] × 100 = 33.33%
Profit on selling C = [(22 - 20)/20] × 100 = 10%
Profit on selling D = [(28 - 25)/25] × 100 = 12%
Profit on selling E = [(39 - 30)/30] × 100 = 30%
Profit on selling F = [(42 - 35)/35] × 100 = 20%
Profit on selling G = [(49 - 40)/40] × 100 = 22.5%
Profit on selling H = [(62 - 50)/50] × 100 = 24%
Hence, there are four items, on which the shopkeeper gets a profit of more than 20%.
Hence, option (c) is correct.

79. (c)
Given that: Total aspirants = 150
Number of graduates = 50% of total aspirants = (50/100) × 150 = 75
Number of aspirants who are non- graduates = 150 – 75 = 75
Number of selected aspirants = 60% of 150 = 90 aspirants
Number of aspirants who are not selected = 150 - 90 = 60 aspirants
Statement (1): At least 20% graduates are selected.
20% of graduates = 20% of 75 = 15 graduates
If all non-graduates are selected, even then 15 selected aspirants (∵ 90 – 75 = 15) are left, who will be
graduates.
Hence, we can say that at least 20% i.e. 15 graduates are selected.
Hence statement (1) is true.
Statement (2): At least 15 selected aspirants are non- graduates.

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 If all graduates are selected, even then 15 selected aspirants (·: 90- 75 = 15) are left, who will be non­
graduates.
Hence, we can say that, at least 15 selected aspirants are non-graduates.
Hence, statement (2) is correct.
Hence, both statements are correct.

80. (c)
Statement 1: We know that multiplication of odd numbers results in odd numbers. So statement 1 is true.
Statement 2: We know that subtraction of 2 odd numbers results in an even number. Also, addition of two
odd numbers results in an even number. Therefore, statement 2 is true.
Statement 3: First part of the third statement will result in odd number and 2 nd part will result in even
number. Multiplication of odd and even number results in an even number. Therefore, statement 3 is false.
Hence, statement 3 is necessarily false.

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