10

1
Time : 3 Hours Stream-SA Maximum Marks : 100
INSTRUCTIONS
1. There are 80 questions in this paper.
2. The question paper contains two parts; Part–I (1 Mark Questions) and Part–II (2 Marks
Questions). There are four sections; Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Biology in each part.
3. There are four options given with each question, only one of them is correct.
4. For each incorrect answer 0.25 Mark in Part–I and 0.5 Mark in Part–II will be deducted.

PART-I (1 MARK QUESTIONS)

MATHEMATICS ratio of ar (DDPE) to (trapezium ABCD)

(a) 1 : 8 (b) 1 : 16
2 f (n ) + 1 (c) 1 : 32 (d) 1 : 27
1. If f ( n + 1) = , n = 1, 2, ...... a nd
2 5. N is the product of first 100 multiple of K. If N is
f (1) = 2, then f (101) = ____________. divisible by 10100 then find the minimum number
(a) 53 (b) 52 of zeros at the end of N
(a) 24 (b) 124
(c) 51 (d) 50
(c) 97 (d) 121
2. When 648 is added or 739 subtracted from a
6. Let X be any point on the side BC of a triangle
number N result in both the cases is a perfect
ABC. If XM, XN are drawn parallel to BA and CA
cube then which one of the following is correct
about N? meeting CA. BA in M, N respectively, MN meets
(i) N is an even number CB produced in T. Then
(ii) N is divisible by 3
(iii) N is divisible by 5
(a) Only (i) & (ii) (b) Only (i) & (iii)
(c) Only (ii) & (iii) (d) None of these
3. The numbers a, b, c are the digits of a three digit
number which satisfy 49a + 7b + c = 286. Then,
the value of 100a + 10b + c is
(a) 556 (b) 256
(c) 356 (d) 286
4. In a trapezium ABCD, P and Q are points on AD
DP CQ 1
and BC respectively such that = = . (a) TB2 = TX × TC (b) TC2 = TX × TX
AP BQ 3
(c) TX2 = TB × TC (d) TX2 = 2(TB × TC)
If the diagonal BD intersect PQ at E, find the
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7. Let ABC be an acute angled triangle and CD be time of flight increased by 30 minutes, then the
the altitude through C. If AB = 8 and CD = 6, duration of flight is
then the distance between the mid-points of AD
(a) 1 hr. (b) 2 hrs.
and BC (i.e. EF) is
(c) 3 hrs. (d) 4 hrs.
12. Find 6th root of 99 + 70 2

(a) 1 + 2 (b) 2 + 3
(c) 3 + 5 (d) 2 + 5
13. What is the last 3 digit number of 1223334444
…… 1000 digit.
(a) 212 (b) 414
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 373 (d) 323
(c) 6 (d) 4 14. Let n! = 1 × 2 × 3 × … × n for integer n.
8. A circle is inscribed in a square and the square If p = 1! + (2 × 2!) + (3 × 3!) + … + (10 × 10!), then
is circumscribed by another circle. What is the p + 2 when divided by 11! Leaves a remainder of
ratio of the areas of the inner circle to the outer (a) 10 (b) 0
circle? (c) 7 (d) 1
15. In how many ways Ram can distribute 40 apples
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1: 2
in his six children named A, B, C, D, E and F
(c) 2 :4 (d) 1: 3 such that A gets two more than B, C gets 3 more
9. P, Q and R are respectively the mid–points of than F and D gets five less than E and every one
sides BC, CA and AB of a triangle ABC. PR and must have atleast one fruit
(a) 101 (b) 91
BQ meet at X. CR and PQ meet at Y. Then
(c) 96 (d) 136
1 2
(a) XY= BC (b) XY = BC PHYSICS
3 3
16. A river is flowing with a velocity of 1 m/s towards
1 2
(c) XY = BC (d) XY = BC east directions. When the boat runs with a
4 5
velocity of 3 m/s relative to the river is the
10. In the figure, ABCD is a semicircle. ÐCAD =
direction of the river flow, the flag on the boat
flutter in north direction. If the boat runs with
the same speed but in north direction relative to
river, the flag flutters towards north-east
direction. The actual velocity of the wind should

be : ( $i ® east direction and $j ® north direction).

(a) 25° (b) 40°
$
(c) 45° (d) 50° (a) 4 $i + 6 j (b) 6 $i + 4 $j
11. In a flight of 600 km an aeroplane was slowed
down due to a bad weather. If the average speed (c) 4 $i – 6 $j (d) 6 $i – 4 $j
for the trip was reduced by 200 km/h and the
 MOCK TEST-10 89

17. A U-tube is of non uniform cross-section. The

area of cross-sections of two sides of tube are
A and 2A (see fig.). It contains non-viscous
liquid of mass m. The liquid is displaced slightly
and free to oscillate. Its time period of
oscillations is
2l 2 2l
m A 2A (a) 2p (b) 2p
(a) T = 2p 3g 3g
3rgA
2l l
m (c) 2p (d) 3p
(b) T = 2p 3g 3g
m
2rgA
20. Resistance of a given wire is obtained by
measuring the current flowing in it and the
m voltage difference applied across it. If the
(c) T = 2p
rgA percentage errors in the measurement of the
current and the voltage difference are 3% each,
(d) None of these
then error in the value of resistance of the wire
18. Variation of radiant energy emitted by Sun, is :
filament of tungsten lamp and welding arc as a (a) Zero (b) 1%
function of its wavelength is shown in figure. (c) 3% (d) 6%
Which of the following option is the correct
21. Consider the following statements :
match ? A gas can be liquefied by increasing the pressure
1. above the critical pressure only
2. Only when the temperature of the enclosed
gas is below the critical temperature
3. Only when the volume of the enclosed gas
is below the critical volume
Which of the statements given above is / are
(a) Sun-T3 , tungsten filament - T1, welding
correct :
arc - T2 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(b) Sun-T2 , tungsten filament - T1, welding (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3
arc - T3 22. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum
(c) Sun-T3 , tungsten filament - T2, welding
arc - T1 L
is T = 2p . Measured value of L is 20.0 cm
(d) Sun-T1 , tungsten filament - T2, welding g
arc - T3 known to 1 mm accuracy and time for 100
19. A system of two identical rods (L-shaped) of oscillations of the pendulum is found to be 90 s
mass m and length l are resting on a peg P as using a wrist watch of 1s resolution. The
shown in the figure. If the system is displaced accuracy in the determination of g is :
in its plane by a small angle q, find the period of (a) 1% (b) 5%
oscillations (c) 2% (d) 3%
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23. A wire is bent in the form of circle of radius 2 m. 26. Velocity of the centre of a small cylinder is v.
Resistance per unit length of wire is 1/p W/m. There is no slipping anywhere. The angular
Battery of 6V is connected between A and B. velocity of the centre of the larger cylinder is
ÐAOB = 90°. Find the current through the (a) 2v
battery. (b) v 2R
R
v
(a) 8 A I 3v
B
(c)
(b) 4 A 2
(d) None of these
(c) 3 A 27. The refractive index of a material of a prism of
A
(d) 9 A angles 45°, 45°, 90° is 1.5. The path of the ray of
6V
light incident normally on the hypotenuse side
24. A black coloured solid sphere of radius R and is shown in figure
mass M is inside a cavity with vacuum inside.
A A
The walls of the cavity are maintained at
90° 90°
temperature T0. The initial temperature of the (a) (b)
45° 45° 45° 45°
sphere is 3T0. If the specific heat of the material B C B C
of the sphere varies as aT3 per unit mass with
the temperature T of the sphere, where a is a A A
90° 90°
constant, then the time taken for the sphere to
(c) (d)
cool down to temperature 2T0 will be (s is Stefan B 45° 45°
C B 45° 45°
C
Boltzmann constant)
28. A graph of the square of the velocity against the
Ma æ 3ö Ma æ 16 ö square of the acceleration of a given simple
(a) ln ç ÷ (b) ln ç ÷
4pR s è 2 ø
2
4pR s è 3 ø
2 harmonic motion is

v2 v2
Ma æ 16 ö Ma æ 3ö
(c) ln ç ÷ (d) ln ç ÷
16pR s è 3 ø
2
16pR s è 2 ø
2
(a) (b)
a2 a2
25. A heater is designed to operate with a power of
1000 watts in a 100 volt line.
v2 v2

Heater (c) (d)

10W R a2 a2

29. Which one of the following statements is true?

100V (a) Both light and sound waves in air are
It is connected in a combinations with a transverse
resistance of 10 ohms and a resistance R to a 100 (b) The sound waves in air are longitudinal
volts mains as shown in the figure. What should while the light waves are transverse
be the value of R so that the heater operates (c) Both light and sound waves in air are
with a power of 62.5 watts. longitudinal
(a) 25 W (b) 0.05 W (d) Both light and sound waves can travel in
(c) 5 W (d) 65 W vacuum
 MOCK TEST-10 91

30. A box of mass 1 kg is mounted with two cylinders 34. When PbO2 reacts with conc. HNO3 the gas
each of mass 1 kg, moment of inertia 0.5 kg m2 evolved is:
and radius 1m as shown in figure. Cylinders are (a) NO2 (b) O2
mounted on their control axis of rotation and
(c) N2 (d) N2O
this system is placed on a rough horizontal
surface. The rear cylinder is connected to battery 35. Which of the following pair will give
operated motor which provides a torque of displacement reaction?
100N-m to this cylinder via a belt as shown. If (a) ZnSO4 solution and Aluminium metal.
sufficient friction is present between cylinder (b) MgCl2 solution and aluminium metal.
and horizontal surface for pure rolling, find
(c) FeSO4 solution and silver metal.
acceleration of the vehicle in m/s2. (Neglect mass
of motor, belt and other accessories of vehicle). (d) AgNO3 solution and copper metal.
Electric 36. Which of the following is not aromatic?
(a) 20 m/s2 motor
(a) Benzene
(b) 10 m/s2 m (b) Naphthalene
(c) 25 m/s2 (c) Pyridine
(d) 30 m/s2 (d) 1,3,5 Heptatriene
37. For which one of the following sets of four
CHEMISTRY quantum numbers, an electron will have the
31. The maximum number of molecules are present in highest energy?
(a) 15 L of H2 gas at STP n l m s
(b) 5 L of N2 gas at STP (a) 3 2 1 1/2
(c) 0.5 g of H2 gas
(b) 4 2 –1 1/2
(d) 10 g of O2 gas
32. Which of the following will be most easily (c) 4 1 0 –1/2
attacked by an electrophile? (d) 5 0 0 –1/2
38. I, II, and III are three isotherms, respectively, at
Cl OH
T1, T2 and T3. Temperature will be in order:

(a) (b)

CH3
P

(c) (d)
I
II
33. Which of the following statement is incorrect? III
(a) Alkali metal hydroxide are hygroscopic.
(b) Dissolution of alkali metal hydroxide is V3 V2 V1
endothermic.
(c) Aqueous solution of alkali metal hydroxides (a) T1 = T2 = T3 (b) T1 < T2 < T3
are strongly basic.
(c) T1 > T2 > T3 (d) T1 > T2 = T3
(d) Alkali metal hydroxides form ionic crystals.
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39. Standard reduction potentials of the half BIOLOGY

reactions are given below : 46. The branches of the nodal tissue, which give
F2(g) + 2e– ® 2F– (aq); E° = + 2.85 V rise to minute fibres throughout the ventricular
Cl2(g) + 2e– ® 2Cl–(aq); E° = + 1.36 V musculature of the respective sides are called:
Br2(l) + 2e– ® 2Br–(aq); E° = + 1.06 V (a) SA node (b) AV node
(c) Purkinje fibre (d) bundle of His
I2(s) + 2e– ® 2I–(aq); E° = + 0.53 V
47. Peroxisomes are rich in:
The strongest oxidising and reducing agents (a) DNA
respectively are : (b) RNA
(a) F2 and I– (b) Br2 and Cl– (c) Catalytic enzymes
(c) Cl2 and Br– (d) Cl2 and I2 (d) Oxidative enzymes
48. The threshold of a neuron is:
40. 0.45 g acid of molecular weight 90 is neutralised
(a) the amount of inhibitory neurotransmitter
by 20 mL of 0.5N caustic potash. The basicity of
required to inhibit an action potential.
acid is: (b) the membrane voltage at which an axon
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 potential will be suppressed.
41. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric in (c) the amount of excitatory neurotransmitter
character? required to elicit an action potential.
(d) the membrane voltage at which the
(a) SnO2 (b) SiO 2
membrane potential develops into an action
(c) CO2 (d) CaO potential.
42. The highest boiling point is expected for : 49. The lacunae in vascular bundles of monocot
stems are:
(a) iso-octane
(a) Metaxylem
(b) n-octane (b) Mucilage canal
(c) 2, 2, 3, 3-tetramethylbutane (c) Lysigenous water cavity
(d) n-butane (d) Large-sized vessel
43. Pressure of a mixture of 4 g of O2 and 2 g of H2 50. Nutrient enrichment of water body is:
(a) Eutrophication
confined in a bulb of 1 litre at 0 °C is
(b) Stratification
(a) 25.22 atm (b) 31.20 atm (c) Biomagnification
(c) 45.21 atm (d) 15.21 atm (d) None of these
44. Diacidic base is: 51. Energy pyramids are used to represent energy
transfer in an ecosystem because energy is
(a) CH2(OH)2 (b) Ca(OH)2 _______ at each trophic level.
(c) CH3CH(OH)2 (d) All of these (a) Gained
45. For which of the following process, DS is (b) Lost
(c) Conserved
negative?
(d) Either conserved or gained
(a) H2 (g) ¾¾
® 2 H(g) 52. Vaccines are
(b) 2SO3 (g) ¾¾
® 2SO2(g) + O2 (g) (a) treated bacteria or viruses or one of their
proteins.
compressed
(c) N 2 (4L) ¾¾¾¾¾® N 2 (2L) (b) MHC (major histocompatibility complex)
proteins.
(d) C(diamond) ¾¾
® C (graphite)
(c) curative medicines.
(d) monoclonal antibodies.
 MOCK TEST-10 93

53. The rate of photosynthesis of a freshwater plant (a) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
is measured using five spectral colours. Which (b) Thyroxine
sequence of colours would give an increasing (c) Oxytocin
photosynthetic response? (d) Insulin
Smallest Largest response 57. When a piece of bread is chewed, it tastes sweet
(a) Blue Green Yellow Orange Red because
(b) Green Yellow Orange Red Blue (a) the sugar contents are drawn out.
(c) Red Orange Yellow Green Blue (b) saliva converts starch into maltose.
(d) Yellow Green Orange Blue Red (c) the taste buds are stimulated by chewing.
54. All but one of the following chemicals are (d) None of the above
neurotransmitters that function in the human 58. Resting membrane potential will be greater in:
brain. Select the exception. (a) Large size fibre (b) Small size fibre
(a) Dopamine (b) Glycine (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
(c) Atropine (d) Glutamic acid 59. Substance that accumulates in a fatigued muscle is:
55. Purkinje fibres are present in: (a) Pyruvic acid
(a) Left auricle (b) Carbon dioxide
(b) Right auricle (c) ADP
(c) Ventricular myocardium (d) Lactic acid
(d) SA node 60. Inhaled air passes through which of the
56. Injections of which hormone are sometimes given following in the last?
to strengthen contractions of the uterus during (a) Bronchiole (b) Larynx
childbirth? (c) Pharynx (d) Trachea

PART-II (2 MARKS QUESTIONS)

MATHEMATICS 63. In the figure ABC is a triangle, D is mid point of

AB. P is any point on BC. Line CQ is drawn
61. ABCD is a parallelogram. Any line through A parallel to PD to intersect AB at Q. PQ is joined.
cuts DC at a point P and BC produced at Q. Then choose the correct option.
Then,
(a) Area (DBPC) = Area (DDPQ)
1
(b) Area (DBPC) = Area (DACB)
4
1
(c) Area (DDPQ) = Area (DADP)
4
(d) None of these 1
(a) ar (DBPQ) = ar (DABC)
4
ì 2 p - 2ü
62. If A = íx : - £ x £ ý, 2
î 5 5 þ (b) ar (DBPQ) = ar (DABC)
B = {y : – 1 £ y £ 1|} and f (x) = cos (5x + 2), 3
then the mapping f : A ® B is 1
(a) one-one but not onto (c) ar (DBPQ) = ar (DABC)
3
(b) onto but not one-one
(c) both one-one and onto 1
(d) ar (DBPQ) = ar (DABC)
(d) neither one-one nor onto 2
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64. There is a right circular cone of height h and 68. Two soap bubbles A and B are kept in a closed
vertical angle 60º. A sphere when placed inside chamber where the air is maintained at pressure
the cone, it touches the curved surface and the 8 N/m2. The radii of bubbles A and B are 2 cm
base of the cone. The volume of sphere is and 4 cm, respectively. Surface tension of the
soap-water used to make bubbles is 0.04 N/m.
4 3 4
(a) ph (b) ph3 Find the ratio nB / nA where nA and nB are the
3 27
number of moles of air in bubbles A and B,
4 3 4 3 respectively. [ Neglect the effect of gravity].
(c) ph (d) ph
9 81 (a) 2 (b) 9
65. In a set of 2n distinct observations, each of the (c) 8 (d) 6
observations below the median of all the 69. A beaker contains a fluid of density r kg / m3,
observations is increased by 5 and each of the specific heat S J/kgºC and viscosity h. The
remaining observations is decreased by 3. Then beaker is filled upto height h. To estimate the
the mean of the new set of observations: rate of heat transfer per unit area (Q/A) by
(a) increases by 1 (b) decreases by 1 convection when beaker is put on a hot plate, a
(c) decreases by 2 (d) increases by 2 student proposes that it should depend on h ,
PHYSICS
æ S Dq ö and æ 1 ö when Dq (in ºC) is the
çè ÷ çè rg ø÷
66. The time taken by the earth to travel over half its h ø
orbit, remote from the sun, separated by the minor
difference in the temperature between the bottom
axis is about 2 days more than half the year, then
and top of the fluid. In that situation the correct
the eccentricity of the orbit is
option for (Q/A) is:
(a) 1/30 (b) 1/60
(c) 1/15 (d) 1/70
æ S Dq ö æ 1 ö æ S Dq ö æ 1 ö
67. A 2 m wide truck is moving with a uniform speed (a) h ç (b) ç
è h ÷ø çè rg ø÷ è hh ÷ø èç rg ø÷
v0 = 8 m/s along a straight horizontal road. A
pedestrian starts to cross the road with a uniform
speed v when the truck is 4 m away from him. S Dq S Dq
(c) (d) h
The minimum value of v so that he can cross the hh h
road safely is 70. Two particles of masses m1 and m2 moving in
coplanar parabolas round the sun, collide at right
angles and coalesce when their common distance
from sun is R. The subsequent path of the
combined particles is an ellipse of major axis

( m1 + m2 ) 2 ( m1 - m2 ) 2
(a) R (b) R
2 m1m2 2m1 m2

(a) 2.62 m/s (b) 4.6 m/s ( m1 + m2 ) 2 ( m1 + m2 ) 2

(c) R (d) R
(c) 3.57 m/s (d) 1.414 m/s m1m2 3m1 m2
 MOCK TEST-10 95

CHEMISTRY CH 3
|
71. In hydrogen atom, energy of first excited state is (c) CH3 – CH2–CH–CH2Br + NH3 ¾¾®
–3.4 eV. Find out KE of the same orbit of hydrogen
atom: CH3
|
(a) + 3.4 eV (b) + 6.8 eV ¾¾® CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH2NH2
(c) – 13.6 eV (d) + 13.6 eV
72. The addition of Br2 to (E)-but-2-ene gives: (d) CH3CHO + HCN ¾¾
® CH3CH (OH) CN
(a) (R,R)-2,3-dibromobutane
(b) (S,S)-2,3-dibromobutane BIOLOGY
(c) (R,S)-2,3-dibromobutane
(d) A mixture of (R,R) and 76. Plant cell ‘A’ has an osmotic pressure of 12 atm
(S,S)-2,3-dibromobutane and is immersed in solution of 10 atm osmotic
73. Consider the following changes : pressure. Another cell ‘B’ has 10 atm osmotic
pressure and is immersed in solution of osmotic
® M (g)
(1) M ( s ) ¾¾ pressure of 8 atm. Both the cells are allowed to
come to equilibrium, then removed from their
® M 2 + ( g ) + 2e -
(2) M ( s ) ¾¾ solution and brought in intimate contact.
Assuming that there is no external influencing
force, what will be the result?
® M + ( g ) + e-
(3) M ( g ) ¾¾
(a) There will be a net flow of water from ‘A’to ‘B’.
(b) There will be net flow of water from ‘B’ to ‘A’.
+
® M 2+ ( g ) + e -
(4) M ( g ) ¾¾ (c) There will be no net flow of water.
(d) Water will freely pass from ‘A’ to ‘B’ but
® M 2 + ( g ) + 2e -
(5) M ( g ) ¾¾ not from ‘B’ to ‘A’.
77. A female with normal genotype (XX, 44) showed
The second ionization energy of M could be the presence of testis determining factor
calculated from the energy values associated (TDF) gene on the X chromosome. This is most
with : likely a result of:
(a) 1 + 3 + 4 (b) 2 – 1 + 3 (a) X chromosome inactivation
(c) 1 + 5 (d) 5 – 3 (b) Dosage compensation effect
74. The oxidation states of Cr in [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3, (c) Mutation
[Cr(C6H6)2], and K2[Cr(CN)2(O)2(O2)(NH3)] (d) Meiotic recombination
respectively are : 78. Two alleles are found in Calico cats for coat
(a) +3, +4, and +6 (b) +3, +2, and +4 colour and are located on the X chromosome.
(c) +3, 0, and +6 (d) +3, 0, and + 4 One allele is responsible for black colour while
75. Which one is a nucleophilic substitution the other for orange colour. Which of the
reaction among the following ? following is correct about the phenotype of
(a) CH3 – CH = CH2 + H2O Calico cats?
H+ (a) All male cats will have the same coat colour.
¾¾¾
® CH3 - CH - CH 3 (b) Female cats can have mosaic pattern.
|
OH (c) All females will show intermediate coat
colour.
(b) RCHO + R¢MgX ¾¾® R – CH – R¢
| (d) All female cats born to mothers with black
OH coat colour will have black coat colour.
 EBD_783
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79. The critical day lengths for 4 plants are as 80. Which of the following pathways depicts the
follows: generalised glycolytic scheme most accurately?
Plant A – 15.5 hrs Plant B – 15.5 hrs (a) Glucose ® a ® b ® c ® d ® f ® g ® h ® Pyruvate
Plant C – 10.0 hrs Plant D – 9.5 hrs
e
Plant A flowers when it receives 8.5 or more
hours of darkness. (b) Glucose « a « b « c « d « f « g « h « Pyruvate
Plant B flowers when it receives a minimum of e
15.5 hrs of light.
(c) Glucose ® a « b ® c « d « f « g « h ® Pyruvate
Plant C flowers when it receives less than 10 hrs
e
of light.
Plant D flowers when it receives less than 9.5 (d) Pyruvate ® Glucose ® a ® b ® c
hrs of light.
Which one is a long day plant? h ¬ g ¬ f ¬ e ¬ d
(a) Plant A (b) Plant A and C
(c) Plant D (d) Plant B

ANS W ER KEYS
Part-I Part-II
1 (b ) 11 (a) 21 (d ) 31 (a) 41 (a) 51 (b ) 61 (a) 71 (a)
2 (c) 12 (a) 22 (d ) 32 (b) 42 (b) 52 (a) 62 (c) 72 (c)
3 (a) 13 (d) 23 (a) 33 (b ) 43 (a) 53 (b ) 63 (d ) 73 (d)
4 (c) 14 (d) 24 (c) 34 (b ) 44 (b) 54 (c) 64 (d ) 74 (c)
5 (b ) 15 (b) 25 (c) 35 (d ) 45 (c) 55 (c) 65 (a) 75 (c)
6 (c) 16 (a) 26 (b ) 36 (d ) 46 (c) 56 (c) 66 (b ) 76 (b)
7 (b ) 17 (a) 27 (a) 37 (b ) 47 (d) 57 (b ) 67 (c) 77 (d)
8 (a) 18 (a) 28 (d ) 38 (c) 48 (d) 58 (a) 68 (d ) 78 (b)
9 (c) 19 (b) 29 (b ) 39 (a) 49 (c) 59 (d ) 69 (d ) 79 (d)
10 (b ) 20 (d) 30 (a) 40 (b ) 50 (a) 60 (a) 70 (a) 80 (c)
 MOCK TEST-10

PART – I 3. (a) Q 49 a + 7b + c =286

MATHEMATICS Þ 7 (7a + b) + c = 286
Q c is single digit positive number
2f ( n ) + 1
1. (b) Given f (n + 1) = \ possible value of c = 6.
2
\ 7 (7a + b) = 280
and f (1) = 2 then f (101) = 2 \ 7a + b = 40
2f (1) + 1 5 also, b is a single digit positive number,
for n = 1, f (2) = = \ possible value of b = 5.
2 2
\ 7a = 35 Þ a = 5.
2f ( 2 ) + 1 \ we have a = 5, b = 5, c = 6.
for n = 2, f (3) = =3
2 \ 100a +10b + c = 500 + 50 + 6 = 556.

2f ( 3) + 1 6 + 1 7
f (4) = = = 4. (c)
2 2 2

5 7
So, f (1), f (2), f (3), f (4), ……, 2, ,3 ,
2 2

3+ n 3 + 101
f(n) = f(101) = = 52
2 2 DP 1
\ =
2. (c) From the given condition N + 648 and AP 3
N – 739 is a perfect cube.
ar DDPE 12 1
We can assume N + 648 = a3 and \ ar DDAB = =
N – 739 = b3
(1 + 3) 16
2

Or a3 – b3 = 1387 or (a – b)(a2 + ab + b2)

= 1387 = 1 × 1387 = 19 × 73 \ ar DDPE = 1 × R = R
Case (i) if (a – b)(a2 + ab + b2) = 1 × 1387 and ar DDAB = 16R
then a – b = 1 or a = 1 + b then
QC 1
(a2 + ab + b2) = 1387 also, =
BQ 3
Hence (1 + b)2 + b(1 + b) + b2 = 3b2 + 3b + 1
= 1387 or 3b(1 + b) = 1386 or b(1 + b) = 462
ar DBCD (1 + 3) 2 16
or b = 21 \ = =
ar DBQE 12 1
Hence b3 = 213 = 9261 hence N = 9261 + 739 =
10000, so statement (i) and (iii) are correct. \ ar DBCD = 16R
Case (ii) if we take (a – b)(a2 + ab + b2) ar of Trap ABCD = ar DBCD + ar DABD
= 19 + 73 then a = b + 19 and (a2 + ab + b2) = 16R + 16R = 32R
= 73 but a2 must be more than 192 hence ar DDPE R 1
this case is not possible. \ = =
ar of Trap ABCD 32 R 32
 EBD_783
208 KVPY-SA

5. (b) From the given condition N = K100 (100!) In DBDC and DBRF
Since 100! has the highest power of 2 and 5 ÐD = ÐR = 90º
as 97 and 24, but N is divisible by 10100 i.e.
& ÐB = ÐB (common)
2100 and 5100. Hence K must be the multiple of
2 and 5. \ DBDC ~ DBRF (by AA similarity)
For the minimum value K = 10, then N = 10100 Q F is mid point of BC
(1001). Hence the minimum number of zeros by converse of BPT, R is mid point of BD.
at the end of N is 124 also, E is mid point of AD, and R is mid
point of BD.
\ AE + RB = ED + DR
6. (c)
1
\ ER = AB = 4
2

Similarly, by BPT
1
FR = CD = 3
2
\ in DEFR, applying pythagoreous
theorem
Q NB || MX we get EF2 = 32 + 42
\ DTNB ~ DTMX Þ EF = 5

TB TN
\ = ...(1)
TX TM
also we have NX || MC
\ DTNX ~ DTMC

TN TX
\ = ...(2)
TM TC
From (1) and (2)

TB TX
We get, = Þ TX2 = TB . TC
TX TC
7. (b) Let E & F be the mid points of AD and BC. 8. (a)
Draw FR perpendicular to AB

Let the side of square be a.

Then, radius of inner circle = half of side
a
square =
2
 SOLUTIONS – MOCK TEST-10 209

Therefore, the area of inner circle 1

[QBP = BC, as P is the mid-point of BC]
= p (radius ) 2 2
\ BPQR is a parallelogram.
2 2
æ aö a Since the diagonals of a parallelogram
= pç ÷ = p
è 2ø 4 always bisect each other
\ X is the mid-point of PR.
Since, the diagonal of the square = 2a Similarly, Y is the mid-point of PQ.
Then, radius of outer circle = half of In DPQR, XY is the line segment joining
2a the mid-points of sides PQ and PR.
diagonal of square =
2 1
\ XY = RQ
Hence, the ar ea of outer circle 2
But, in DABC, RQ is a line segment joining
2
æ 2a ö 2a 2 the mid-points of sides AB and AC.
= pç ÷ = p .
è 2 ø 4
1
\ RQ = BC
2
Hence, the required ratio of the areas of
inner circle to outer circle is = 1 1 æ1 ö 1
Hence, XY = RQ = çè BC÷ø = BC
2 2 2 4
a 2 2a 2 10. (b) Const: Join C to D,
: = 1: 2
4 4

A
9. (c)

Q AD is diameter,
\ ÐACD = 90°, also AB = BC
R Q \ ÐBCA = ÐBAC = 25°
Q ABCD is cyclic quad.
\ ÐBAD + ÐBCD = 180°
X Y Þ (25° + ÐCAD) + (25° + 90°) = 180°
Þ ÐCAD = 40°
B P C 11. (a) Let Speed of flight = x km/hr
Time duration of flight = y hours
Join R and Q. xy = 600 ...(1)
RQ is a line segment joining the mid-points
( x - 200) æçè y +
30 ö
of two sides AB and AC of DABC. ÷ = 600 ...(2)
60 ø
1 From eq. (1) & (2),
\ RQ || BC and RQ = BC
2 æ 1ö
Þ RQ || BP and RQ = BP xy = ( x - 200) ç y + ÷
è 2ø
 EBD_783
210 KVPY-SA

Þ xy = xy +
x
- 200 y - 100 (
Also 7 + 5 2 = )
2

(a + b )
3
x = a3 + 3ab + 3a 2 b + b b
Þ 200 y + 100 =
2
Equating rational and irrational parts
Þ x = 400y + 200
Put value of x in eq. (1) a 2 + 3ab = 7 and ( )
b 3a 2 + b = 5 2
(400y + 200)y = 600
On solving we will get a = 1, b = 2.
Þ (2y + 1)y = 3 Þ 2y2 + y – 3 = 0
Þ (2y + 3)(y – 1) = 0 (
Hence required 6th root is 1 + 2 )
3 13. (d) First consider the single digit number:
y = - , y = 1 hr.
2 122333…….99…..9 times
Here total number of digits used
-3
As y = is not possible, thus y = 1 hrs. = 1 + 2 + 3 + ………… + 9 = 45
2 Remaining digits = 1000 – 45 = 955
12. (a) In order to find 6th root first we will Now consider two digit numbers
calculate its square root and then cube 101010….10 times 111111…..11 times
root or vice– versa. (20 digits) (22 digits)
Let square root of 99 + 70 2 is p + q Let while writing down nth number we
get 955th digit then
Hence ( p + Ö q) 2 = 99 + 70 2 20 + 22 + ………… n terms e” 955’!
n/2[40 + (n – 1)2] = n(19 + n) e” 955
Or p + p + 2 pq = 99 + 70 2 From trial & error n = 20,n(n + 19)
Equating rational and irrational parts we = 20 × 39 = 780
will get p + q = 99 n = 21, n(n + 1) = 21 × 40 = 840
pq = 2450 n = 22, n(n + 1) = 22 × 41 = 902
On solving these two equations we will n = 23, n(n + 1) = 23 × 42 = 986
get p = 50, q = 49, Hence when n = 22 the number = 31 will
be written 31 times. We will use 902 digits
Hence square root of 99 + 70 2 hence after we will write 32 times.
= 49 + 50 = 7 + 5 2 Remain digits = 955 – 902 = 53
Now we have to find cube root of Hence to get 955 digits when we write 26
times 32 and one 3 of next 32.
7+5 2 Hence last 3 digit number will be 323
Let it be a + b then cube root of 7 – 5 14. (d) since p = 1! + (2 × 2!)+ (3 × 3!) +...+ (10 × 10!)
We can write 1! = 1 × 1! = (2 – 1)1!
2 is a – b While 2 × 2! = (3 – 1)2! = 3! – 2! and so on
Hence given expression is p = (2–1)1! +
(
Hence 3 7 + 5 2 7 - 5 2 )( ) (3–1)2! + (4–1)3! + …… + (11–1)10!
Or p = 2! –1! + 3! – 2! –2! + 4! –5! + - - -
(
= a+ b a- b )( ) 11! –10!= 11! –1! = 11! – 1
Or p + 2 = 11! + 1
= ( 49 - 50 )
1/ 3
= ( -1)
1/3
=–1 Hence (p + 2) leaves a reminder of 1 when
divided by 11!
= a 2 - b or a 2 = 1 - b
 SOLUTIONS – MOCK TEST-10 211

15. (b) Let n(B) = x n(A) = x + 2 2

n( F ) = y n(C) = y + 3 On comparing with, a = -w y , we get
n(D) = z n(E) = z + 5
3rgA m
x + y + z + x + 2 + y + 3 + z + 5 = 40 w= and T = 2p
x + y + z = 15 but x ³ 1, y ³ 1 and z ³ 1. So
m 3rgA
total ways of distribution is 14C2 = 91 18. (a) According to Wein’s displacement law
PHYSICS lm × T = constant

r Here , l m3 < l m2 < l m1

16. (a) The velocity of wind, v = vx $i + vy $j Þ T3 > T2 > T1
Velocity of boat w.r.t. bank vb = 3 + 1 = 4 m/s
r r r
Now éë v w ùû b = v w – vb = (vx – 4) $i + vy $j

The temperature of Sun is higher than that

of welding arc which in turn is greater than
tungsten filament.
19. (b) The given rod system is equivalent to as
Given; vx – 4 = 0 Þ vx = 4 m/s. shown in figure.
r 0 r r
( )
And éëv w ùû = v w – vb = v x $i + v y $j - 3j$
b

(
= v x $i + v y - 3 $j )
vy - 3
Given; tan 45° = Þ vy = vx + 3 = 3 + 3 = 6 m/s
vx
17. (a) Suppose the liquid in left side limb is
trest = -2mg ´ é l sin qù / 2
displaced slightly by y, the liquid in right
limb will increase by y/2. The restoring force ê 2 ú
ë û

1
2 mg l(-q)
trest 2
and a = ;
é (2m) ( 2ù
l/ 2) ú
I
ê
ë 3 û

3 g
æ 3y ö = (-q)
F = –PA = –rg ç ÷ ´ 2 A = 3rgA( - y) . 2 2 l
è 2ø
Comparing with , a = -w2q we get
F
a= = 3rgA( - y ) / m
m 3g 2 2l
w= and T = 2p .
2 2l 3g
 EBD_783
212 KVPY-SA

V V ± DV M a 27T04 J
20. (d) R= Þ R ± DR =
I I ± DI Þ dt =
s 4pR 2 ´ 80T04

æ ö Solving we get,
æ DR ö V ç 1 ± DV / V ÷
R ç1 ± = ç
è R ÷ø I ç 1 ± DI
÷
÷
Time taken for the sphere to cool down
è I ø temperature 2T0,

Ma æ 16 ö
æ DR ö æ DV ö æ DI ö t= ln ç ÷
ç R ÷ =ç ÷ + ç ÷ = (3 + 3)% = 6% 16pR s è 3 ø
2
è ø è V ø è I ø
21. (d) The real gas cannot be liquefied above 25. (c) The resistance of the heater is
critical temperature by applying pressure.
l V 2 100 ´ 100
2 R= = = 10 W
22. (d) As, g = 4p P 100
T2
The power on which it operates is 62.5 m
Dg Dl DT
So, ´ 100 = ´ 100 + 2 ´ 100 \ V = R ´ P ' = 10 ´ 62.5 = 625 = 25
g l T
Since the voltage drop across the heater is
0.1 1 25m hence voltage drop across 10W resistor
= ´100 + 2 ´ ´ 100 = 2.72 ; 3%
20 90 is (100 – 25) = 75 m.
23. (a) R = (2 p r) (1/p) = 4 p A B Heater
Here 1 ohm and 3 ohm will now be in parallel R
\ Reff = (3/4) p Þ V/Reff = 8 A.
24. (c) In the given problem, fall in temperature of
100 V
sphere,
dT = (3T0 – 2T0) = T0 V 75
\ The current in AB = I = = = 7.5 A
Temperature of surrounding, Tsurr = T0 R 10
This current divides into two parts. Let I1
Initial temperature of sphere, Tinitial = 3T0
be the current that passes through the
Specific heat of the material of the sphere heater. Therefore
varies as, 25 = I1 × 10 Þ I1 = 2.5 A
C = aT3 per unit mass (a = a constant) Thus current through R is 5A.
Applying Ohm's law across R, we get
Applying formula,
25 = 5 × R Þ R = 5W
26. (b) In fig, C1 and C2 are IC (instantaneous
dT
=
sA 4
dt McJ
( 4
T - Tsurr ) centre of rotation) of the two cylinders. The
cylinder can be considered as rotating
about C1 and C2. In the absence of slipping
T0 s 4 pR 2 é
Þ = (3T )4 - ( T0 ) 4 ùúû
dt M a ( 3T )3 J êë 0
between the plank and the cylinders, points
0 A1 and A2 have the same velocity.
SOLUTIONS – MOCK TEST-10 213

Angular velocity of the larger cylinder is CHEMISTRY

2v v 31. (a) No. of molecules in different cases
=
4R 2R (a) Q 22.4 litre at STP contains
A2 A1 = 6.023 × 1023 molecules of H2
2v
R \ 15 litre at STP contains
2R v
15
= ´ 6.023 ´ 10 23
22.4
C1
= 4.03×1023 molecules of H2
C2 (b) Q 22.4 litre at STP contains
= 6.023×1023 molecules of N2
æ v ö
v CM = ( 2R ) ç =v
è 2R ÷ø \ 5 litre at STP contains
27. (a) According to given conditions TIR must 5
= ´ 6.023 ´ 10 23
take place at both the surfaces AB and AC. 22.4
Hence only option (a) is correct. = 1.344 × 1023 molecules of N2
28. (d) v2 = w2(A2 – x2) … (i) (c) Q 2 g of H2= 6.023×1023 molecules of H2
and a2 = (w2x)2 = w4x2 … (ii)
From above equations, we have 0.5
\ 0.5 g of H2= ´ 6.023 ´10 23
2
a2
v2 = - + w2 A2 Þ Y = mX + c = 1.505 × 1023 molecules of H2
w2
It represents straight line with negative (d) Similarly 10 g of O2 gas
slope.
29. (b) Sound waves in air are longitudinal while 10
= ´ 6.023 ´ 10 23 molecules of O2
light waves are transverse. Sound waves 32
require material medium to propagate but = 1.88 × 1023 molecules of O2
transverse waves do not require any
material medium. Thus (a) will have maximum number of
30. (a) For whole system molecules.
f1 - f 2 = 3 (1)a ... (i) 32. (b) Due to mesomeric effect (+M) of –OH
group the electron density on benzene ring
increases. So the electrophile easily attack
on these electron rich center.
m
33. (b) During the dissolution of alkali metal
hydrides energy is released in large amount,
////////////////////////////////////// i.e., it is exothermic in nature.
f1 f2
34. (b) PbO2 is a powerful oxidizing agent and
For rear cylinder
liberate O2 when treated with acids.
100 – f1 = 0.5 (a) ... (ii)
For front cylinder 2PbO 2 + 4HNO 3 ¾¾
®
f2 = 0.5 (a) ... (iii) 2Pb(NO3 ) 2 + 2H 2 O + O 2 ­
From (i), (ii) and (iii)
100 = 4a 35. (d) Copper is more reactive than silver hence
a = 20 m/s2 displaces silver from silver nitrate solution.
 EBD_783
214 KVPY-SA

36. (d) A compound is said to be aromatic if it is Þ P = 1.125 ´ .0821 ´ 273

planar and there is complete delocalization
P = 25.22 atm
of p-electrons, which is only possible if it is a
44. (b) Diacidic base has two replaceable hydroxyl
conjugated cyclic system and number of p
groups.
electrons used in delocalization is (4n + 2).
–OH groups present in compounds (a) and
1, 3, 5-heptatriene is not an aromatic
(c) represent alcoholic group, not base.
c om pou n d because comp l et e
45. (c) When gas is compressed its entropy
delocalization of p-electrons, is not
decreases, so, DS is negative.
possible in it.
37. (b) The sub-shells are 3d, 4d, 4p and 5s; among BIOLOGY
these 4d has highest energy as n + l value 46. (c) SA (sinoatrial) node lies in the wall of right
is maximum for it.
atrium near the opening of superior vena
38. (c) Draw a line at constant P parallel to volume
cava. It initiates the electrical impulse to
axis. Take volume corresponding to each
stimulate contraction. From SA node,
temperature.
From volume axis, V1 > V2 > V3 cardiac impulse travels to AV node
Hence, T1 > T2 > T3. (atrioventricular node, which lies between
39. (a) Higher the value of reduction potential right atrium and ventricle), then passes to
higher will be the oxidising power whereas AV bundle (also called bundle of His) and its
lower the value of reduction potential branches reaches to the Purkinje fibres in
higher will be the reducing power. ventricles. Purkinje fibres conducts the
40. (b) Eq. of acid = Eq of base, impulses five times more rapidly than
surrounding cells. It forms a pathway for
0.45 20 ´ 0.5
\ = , = E.Wt = 45 conduction of impulse that ensures that the
E.Wt 1000
heart muscle contracts in the most efficient
M.Wt 90 manner.
Basicity = = =2 47. (d) Peroxisomes contain oxidative enzymes
E.Wt 45
such as catalase.
41. (a) CaO is basic as it forms strong base
48. (d) For an action potential to occur in an axon,
Ca(OH)2 on reaction with water.
the membrane must be depolarised above a
CaO + H2O ¾® Ca(OH)2
certain level. This level is known as the
CO2 is acidic as it dissolves in water forming
unstable carbonic acid. threshold.
H2O + CO2 ¾® H2CO3 49. (c) In monocot stem, vascular bundles are
Silica (SiO2) is insoluble in water and acts scattered. Each bundle is surrounded by a
as a veryweak acid. thick-walled bundle sheath.
SnO2 is amphoteric as it reacts with both Due to disintegration of protoxylem
acid and base. elements, a lysigenous water cavity is
SnO2 + 2H2SO4 ¾® Sn(SO4)2 + 2H2O formed.
SnO2 + 2KOH ¾® K2SnO3 + H2O 50. (a) Excessive nutrients run off from the land
42. (b) For isomeric alkanes, the one having into water body. These nutrients such as
longest straight chain has highest b.p. nitrates, phosphates and urea act as
because of larger surface area. nutrients and accelerate the growth of algae
43. (a) Total moles that may form a mat on water surface. This
process of enrichment of water body with
4 2
= + = 1.125; PV = nRT nutrients is called entrophication.
32 2
 SOLUTIONS – MOCK TEST-10 215

51. (b) Only 10 percent of the energy is transferred PART – II

between trophic levels. MATHEMATICS
52. (a) Vaccine contains dead, attenuated form or
antigen of a pathogen which can be injected 61. (a) Here in quadrilateral APCB, AB || CP
to provide immunity towards that pathogen. Since triangles on the same base and
Monoclonal antibodies are homogeneous between same parallel lines are equal in
immunological reagents of defined area.
specificity, so that these can be utilised for Þ Area (DAPC) = Area (DBPC) .....(i)
diagnosis and screening with certainty. Also in quadrilateral ADQC, AD || CQ
53. (b) Photosynthesis occurs most efficiently with \ Area (DDCQ) = Area (DACQ)
red or blue light because the chlorophyll or Area (DDPQ) + Area (DPCQ)
pigments can absorb light maximally at these = Area (DAPC) + Area (DPCQ)
wavelengths and the least at green light. Þ Area (DDPQ) = Area (DAPC) .....(ii)
54. (c) Atropine is a substance that blocks the
From (i) & (ii)
inhibitory effects of muscarinic receptors
Þ Area (DBPC) = Area (DDPQ)
in muscle tissue, especially the heart.
55. (c) Purkinje fibres are a vital component of the
system of blood circulation in humans.
These fibres are present at both ventricular
myocardium for the proper contraction of
ventricles. They receive conductive signals
originating at the atrioventricular node
(AVN), and simultaneously activate the left
and right ventricles by directly stimulating
the ventricular myocardium.
56. (c) Oxytocin stimulates muscle contractions
62. (c) Let t = 5x + 2, then A = {t : 0 £ t £ p}
during childbirth and milk letdown. \ f (t) = cos t which is bijective in [0, p].
57. (b) The enzyme salivary amylase present in Hence, f (x) is bijective.
saliva, converts starch into maltose. It is
the maltose that tastes sweet. Maltase 63. (d)
secreted by the intestine converts maltose
into glucose.
58. (a) Resting membrane potential is greater in a
large size nerve fibre than in a small size
nerve fibre. In larger nerve fibres, it can go
up to –80mV and in small size fibre it is
–60mV.
59. (d) Lactic acid is a three-carbon organic acid
formed in muscle resulting in fatigue. Construction: Join D to C.
60. (a) Inhaled air passes from bronchi into Q DP || QC
bronchioles that lead to alveolar ducts, \ ar DDPC = ar DQDP
which terminate at alveoli.
 EBD_783
216 KVPY-SA

(same base DP, and between two parallel Hence, the required volume of sphere
lines DP and QC)
3
Q D is mid point, 4 3 4 æ hö 4ph3
= pr = p ç ÷ =
\ DC is median, 3 3 è 3ø 81

1
\ ar (DBDC) = ar (DABC) 65. (a) There are 2n observations x1, x2, ..., x2n.
2
2n
1 x
Þ ar (DBDP) + ar (DDPC) =
2
ar (DABC) So, mean = å 2ni .
i =1

1 Let these observations be divided into two

\ ar (DBDP) + ar (DQDP) = ar (DABC)
2 parts x1, x2, ..., xn and xn+1, ..., x2n
Each in 1st part 5 is added, so total of first
1
\ ar (DBQP) = ar (DABC) n
2 part is å xi + 5n .
i =1
64. (d) Since vertical angle of the cone = 60º
In second part 3 is subtracted from each
P 2n
So, total of second part is å xi - 3n.
i = n +1
6 0°
Total of 2n terms are
l l
60° S h
r n 2n 2n
O
å xi + 5n + å xi - 3n = å xi + 2n
i =1 i =n +1 i =1
Q R
2n 2n
xi + 2 n x
Mean = å 2n = å 2ni + 1
i =1 i =1
3 2h
h= l Þl= So, it increase by 1.
2 3

Q ÐOPS = 30° PHYSICS

66. (b) Remote half from the sun is the arc B'A'B.
l h
\ In DOPS, PS = = ...(1) B
2 3

OS A A'
In DPOS, tan 30° = S C
PS

1 OS PS h h B'
Þ = Þ OS = = =
3 PS 3 3 3 3 Let t be the time of description of the arc
B'A'B, therefore rate of description of the
Therefore, the radius of sphere is
sectorial area SB'A'BS
h area SB ¢A¢BS
r = OS = =
3 t
SOLUTIONS – MOCK TEST-10 217

Since the whole area of the ellipse is -8(2 cos q - sin q)

described in a year, therefore rate of or = 0 or 2 cos q – sin q = 0
(2 sin q + cos q) 2
description of the sectorial area is
or tan q = 2
area of the ellipse From equation (i),
=
a year
8 8
vmin = = = 3.57 m/s
¢ ¢
Hence, area SB A BS = area of the ellipse æ 2 ö 1
2ç ÷ +
5
t a year è 5ø 5
t area SB¢A¢BS 68. (d) From, PV = nRT, we have
or =
year area of the ellipse PAVA n
Þ = A
PBVB nB
1
area of the ellipse + D SBB¢
2
= æ 4T ö 4 3
pab
çè 8 + r ÷ø ´ 3 prA nA
A
1 1 Þ = n
pab + .2bae æ 4T ö 4 3 B
=
2 2 1 e
= + çè 8 + r ÷ø ´ 3 prB
pab 2 p B
nB
After substituting values, we get = 6.
æ1 eö 1 e nA
\ t = ç + ÷ year = year + year
è2 pø 2 p b c
Q æ S Dq ö æ 1 ö
69. (d) Let = ha ç
=
1
year + 2 days nearly A è h ÷ø çè rg ø÷
2
Solving e = 1/60 Using dimensional method
67. (c) Let the man starts crossing the road at an [MT–3] = [ML–1T–1]a [LT–2]b [M–1L2T2]c
angle q as shown in figure. For safe
or, [MT–3] = [Ma–cL–a + b + 2c T –a – 2b + 2c]
crossing the condition is that the man must
cross the road by the time the truck Equating powers and solving
describes the distance 4 + AC or 4 + 2cotq. we get, a = 1, b = 1, c = 0
4 + 2 cot q 2 / sin q Q S Dq
\ = or v \ =h
8 v A h
8
= ... (i) 70. (a) Let P be the common point of the two
2sin q + cos q parabolas where the two particles collide.
dv Let v1, v2 be the velocities of m1 and m2 at
For minimum v, =0 the time of collision.
dq

A C P
90°

2m Truck v0 v S

q
B
4m
 EBD_783
218 KVPY-SA

Since the two paths are parabolic, therefore Now substituting for v12 from (1), we have

2m m12 + m22 2m æ2 1ö
v12 = = v22 (at the point P) ... (i) =mç - ÷
R ( m1 + m2 ) 2 R
è R a¢ ø

é m ù 1 ìï m2 + m22 üï 2 2m1m2 2
ê acc. = \ = í1 - 1 ý× = ×
2ú a¢ îï ( m1 + m2 )2 þï R (m1 + m2 )2 R
ëê (distance) ûú

After collision the two masses combine (m1 + m2 )2

i.e. 2a¢ = .R
into one, let V be the velocity after 2 m1m2
impact of the single mass (m1 + m2 ).
By th e principle of conservation of ( m1 + m2 ) 2
That is, major axis = ×R
momentum the resultant momentum must 2m1m2
be the same after and before the impact : CHEMISTRY
2 2
\ ( m1 + m2 ) V = m12 v12 + m22 v22 ... (ii) 71. (a) Total energy (En) = K.E + P.E
Because v1 and v2 are at right angles. in first excited state
From (i) it is seen that v2 = v1 and then from
1 é Ze 2 ù 1 Ze 2 Ze2
(ii), we have E = mv 2 + ê - ú =+ -
2 êë r úû 2 r r
(m1 + m2 )2 V 2 = (m12 + m22 )v12
1 Ze2
m12 + m22 -3.4 eV = -
i.e. V 2 = v12 ... (iii) 2 r
( m1 + m2 ) 2
1 Ze2
It is seen from (iii) that after the collision \ K.E = = +3.4 eV
2 r
the (velocity)2 becomes less than v12, that
2m 72. (c)
is less than , which is the condition for
R
describing an ellipse.
So after the collision the path will be an
ellipse. Let 2a' be its major axis.
For the path to be an ellipse,

æ2 1 ö
v2 = m ç - ÷
è r a¢ ø
+
At the point P, just after the collision v = V C
H3
and r = R.

So, V 2 = m æç
2 1ö
- ÷
èR a¢ ø

Substituting for V2 from (3), we have

m12 + m22 æ2 1ö
v2
2 1
=mç - ÷
( m1 + m2 ) è R a¢ ø
 SOLUTIONS – MOCK TEST-10
73. (d) Second ionization energy is amount of
energy required to take out an electron from
the monopositive cation.
® M 2 + (g) + 2e- ... (5)
M (g) ¾¾
® M + (g) + e - ... (3)
M (g) ¾¾
Hence I.E. from (5) – I.E. from (3) will be
I.E.2 of M.
74. (c) (i) [Cr(H 2 O)6 ]Cl3 :
x + 6 × 0 + (–1) × 3 =0
x =+3
(ii) [Cr(C6H6)2]:
y+ 2× 0 = 0
y=0
(iii) K2[Cr(CN)2(O)2 (O2)(NH3)] :
2 × 1 + z + 2 × (–1) + 2 × (–2) + (–2) + 0
=0
z = +6
The oxidation states of Cr in given
compounds are +3, 0 an d + 6
respectively.
75. (c) Because of high electronegativity of the
halogen atom, the carbon halogen (C – X)
bond is highly polarised covalent bond.
Thus, the carbon atom of the C – X bond
becomes a good site for attack by
nucleophiles (electron rich species).
Nucleophilic substitution reactions are the
most common reactions of alkyl halides.
BIOLOGY
76. (b) Water moves from lower osmotic pressure
to higher osmotic pressure. So, when a
plant cell ‘A’ is kept in solution of 10 atm
osmotic pressure, endosmosis will occur
till equilibrium is achieved that is, both the
solution and plant cell has 11 atm osmotic
pressure. When a plant cell ‘B’ is kept in
solution of 8 atm osmotic pressure,
endosmosis will occur till both solution and
plant cell ‘B’ has 9 atm osmotic pressure.
219
When plant cell ‘A’ with 11 atm osmotic
pressure is kept in intimate contact with
plant cell ‘B’ with 9 atm osmotic pressure,
water will move from plant cell ‘B’ to ‘A’.
77. (d) Human beings have 44 autosomes and
2 sex chromosomes in each cell. Females
have two X chromosomes (46, XX) while
males have one X chromosome and one Y
chromosome (46, XY). Females receive one
X chromosome from their mother and the
other X chromosome from their father.
Males receive X chromosome from their
mother and Y chromosome from father. So,
the female has received her X chromosome
having TDF gene from her father. Though
TDF gene is found on the Y chromosome
but this gene is moved to X chromosome
due to pairing (synapsis) of the X and Y
ch romosomes and cr ossing over
(recombination) between them.
78. (b) Allele for black coat colour = XB
Allele for orange coat colour = Xb
Since males have only one X chromosome,
they can either have allele XB or Xb for
black or orange coat colour, respectively.
In cont ra st, fema les h ave t wo X
ch romosomes so thr ee di fferent
genotypes - XBXB, XBXb, XbXb with black,
calico and orange coat colour, respectively
are possible. But, due to X inactivation,
females heterozygous for alleles can have
mosaic pattern i.e., patches of both black
and orange coat colour.
79. (d) Plant B is a long day plant because it needs
a minimum of 15.5 hrs of light to flower.
Plant A with critical day length of 15.5 hrs,
requires 8.5 or more hours of darkness to
flower. So, it is a short day plant. Plant C
and D are also short day plants because
they flower when they receive light less
than critical day length of 10 hrs and
9.5 hrs, respectively.
 EBD_783
220 KVPY-SA

80. (c) The steps in glycolysis are as follows:

Glucose
first
priming 1 ATP
reaction
ADP
Glucose 6-phosphate (a)

Fructose 6-phosphate (b)

second
priming 3 ATP
reaction ADP
Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate (c)
cleavage
of 6-carbon
sugar
phosphate to 4
two 3-carbon
sugar
phosphates
Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (d)
+
Dihydroxyacetone phosphate (e)
5

Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (2) (f)

2P
oxidation and 2NAD+
6
phosphorylation +
2 NADH + H
1, 3-Bisphosphoglycerate (2) (g)
first ATP- 2ADP
forming reaction
7
(substrate-level
phosphorylation) 2 ATP
3-Phosphoglycerate (2)

2-Phosphoglycerate (2)

9 2H2O

Phosphoenol pyruvate (2) (h)

second ATP- 2ADP
forming reaction
10
(substrate-level 2 ATP
phosphorylation)
Pyruvate (2)