RAU Polity MCQs

Revision MCQs
INDIAN POLITY
(260 MCQS)
May 2019 – March 2020
Rau’s IAS Study Circle| DNS Revision MCQs | Indian Polity | May 2019 – March 2020
Q1. Consider the following statements: 3. The chairperson of PCI by convention

1. Article 163 deals with the appointment has been a retired judge of the
of the Governor Supreme Court.
2. Article 11 gives powers to parliament Which of the above statements is/are
to enact laws regulating citizenship. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q5. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament (Prevention of
Q2. Consider the following statements with Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts
respect to clemency power of the several posts from disqualification on
President in India: the grounds of “Office of Profit’.
1. While adhering to principles of natural 2. The above-mentioned Act was
justice, President has to compulsorily amended five times.
allow for representation by the 3. The term “Office of Profit” is well
accused. defined in the Indian Constitution.
2. He has to give reasons if he arrives at Which of the statements given above is/are
a different decision than the court. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 and 2 only
correct? (b) 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q6. Which of the following agencies
publishes the “Freedom on Net” report
Q3. Consider the following statements: to measure the extent of Internet
1. Indra Sawhney judgment of 1992 Freedom across the World?
allowed reservation in promotion to (a) Freedom House
SC/STs in public services. (b) International Telecommunication
2. The Constitution (Seventy-Seventh Union
Amendment) Act, 1995 added the (c) Freedom of Information Advocates
provision enabling the state to make Network
reservation in matters of promotion in (d) Internet and Jurisdiction Project
public services for SC/STs in the
Indian Constitution. Q7. Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. The office of Chief Justice of India has
correct? been exempted from RTI disclosures
(a) 1 only under the section 8 of the Act.
(b) 2 only 2. Section 4 of the RTI Act provides for
(c) Both 1 and 2 automatic disclosure of by public
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 entities.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Q4. Consider the following statements correct?
about Press Council of India (PCI). (a) 1 only
1. PCI is a statutory body. (b) 2 only
2. It is the watchdog for all forms of media (c) Both 1 and 2
including social media in India. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Rau’s IAS Study Circle | DNS Revision MCQs| Indian Polity | May 2019 – March 2020 2
Q8. Which of the following terms have been (a) 1 0nly

added to the Preamble of Indian (b) 1 and 2 only
Constitution through the 42nd (c) 2 and 3 only
Amendment? (d) 1,2 and 3
1. Socialist
2. Secular Q12. Consider the following statements
3. Economic Justice regarding Article 25 of the Indian
Select the correct answer using the code given Constitution:
below: 1. It provides for freedom of conscience
(a) 1 only and free profession, practice and
(b) 1 and 2 only propagation of religion
(c) 1 and 3 only 2. These rights are available to all
(d) 1, 2 and 3 persons.
3. State cannot regulate or restrict any
Q9. Consider the following statements economic, financial, political or other
about Central Administrative Tribunal secular activity which may be
(CAT): associated with religious practice.
1. It is a constitutional body Which of the statements given above is/are
2. The proceedings of CAT are not judicial correct?
in nature. (a) 1 and 3 only
3. An appeal from decision of CAT lies (b) 1 and 2 only
directly to the Supreme Court of India (c) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) 1, 2 and 3
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only Q13. Which of the following do not come
(b) 3 only under the ambit of RTI?
(c) 1 and 2 only 1. BCCI
(d) None of the above 2. Intelligence Bureau
3. Office of CJI
Q10. Which of the following have been 4. Central Economic Intelligence Bureau.
included under basic structure of the 5. NGO’s substantially financed by state
constitution by the supreme court of government.
India? Select the correct answer using the code given
1. Supremacy of Constitution below:
2. Welfare State (a) 2, 3 and 5 only
3. Secularism (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Select the correct answer using the codes (c) 1, 2, and 4 only
given below: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only Q14. Which of the following rights are not
(c) 2 and 3 only conferred to Overseas Citizens of India
(d) 1,2 and 3 (OCI)?
1. Political rights on being registered as
Q11. Which of the following Articles of the voter.
Indian Constitution can be associated 2. Rights with regard to equality of
with imposition of President’s rule in opportunity in matters of public
states? employment under Article 16
1. Article 355 Select the correct answer using the code given
2. Article 365 below:
3. Article 356 (a) 1 only
Select the correct answer from the codes given (b) 2 only
below: (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?
Q15. Consider the following statements: (a) 1 only
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either (b) 2 only
to reject or to amend a Money Bill. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. The motive of the decision of the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Speaker in certifying of Money Bill
cannot be challenged in the Judiciary. Q19. Which of the following motions can
Which of the statements given above is/are only be introduced in Lok Sabha?
correct? 1. No Confidence Motion
(a) 1 only 2. Adjournment Motion
(b) 2 only 3. Closure Motion
(c) Both 1 and 2 4. Privilege Motion
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Q16. With reference to the constitution of (a) 1 and 2 only
India, which of the following is/are (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
correct? (c) 2 and 3 only
1. The number of seats in the Lok Sabha (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
can be altered only by a constitutional
amendment. Q20. Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019
2. Schedule 4 of the Indian Constitution provides for which of the following?
deals with the allocation of 1. Provides Indian Citizenship to all
Parliamentary seats to the states. minorities of Pakistan, Bangladesh
Which of the statements given above is/are and Afghanistan.
correct? 2. It also contains provision related to
(a) 1 only Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder.
(b) 2 only Select the correct answer using the code given
(c) Both 1 and 2 below:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Q17. Consider the following statements with (c) Both 1 and 2
respect to Anglo Indians: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Seats are reserved for them only in the
Lok Sabha. Q21. Consider the following statements:
2. They can join political party after 6 1. Impeachment process of President of
months of being nominated in Council United States of America can be
of States. initiated in either Senate or House of
Which of the statements given above is/are Representatives.
correct? 2. US President stands impeached if the
(a) 1 only House of Representatives passes the
(b) 2 only impeachment resolution by a majority
(c) Both 1 and 2 of not less than two third of the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 membership of the House.
3. Impeachment process of Indian
Q18. Consider the following statements with President can be initiated only in Rajya
respect to motions moved in Indian Sabha.
Parliament: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Passing of censure motion leads to correct?
resigning of the government. (a) 2 and 3 only
2. Privilege motion can be brought (b) 1 only
against a non member. (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) None of the above 4. Environment

Select the correct answer using the codes
Q22. Consider the following statements given below:
about Right to Information Act, 2005: (a) 1 and 2 only
1. It does not provide for voluntary (b) 1,2 and 4 only
disclosure of information by public (c) 2 and 3 only
authorities. (d) 1,2,3 and 4
2. Every application for RTI must disclose
reasons for the Information sought. Q26. With reference to the Good Governance
Which of the statements given above is/are Index which of the following is/are
incorrect? correct?
(a) 1 only 1. It has been published by NITI Aayog.
(b) 2 only 2. In the index, overall the southern
(c) Both 1 and 2 states have performed better than
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 northern states
Select the correct answer using the code given
Q23. Consider the following statements below:
about Digital Communications (a) 1 only
Commission: (b) 2 only
1. Minister of Telecommunications is the (c) Both 1 and 2
ex-officio chairman of Digital (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Communications Commission.
2. It is the highest decision making body Q27. Which of the following are restrictions
at the Department of on freedoms given under Article 19(1)?
Telecommunication (DoT). 1. Public order
Which of the statements given above 2. Contempt of court
is/are correct? 3. Security of state
(a) 1 only 4. Friendly relation with foreign
(b) 2 only countries
(c) Both 1 and 2 Select the correct answer using the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 code given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3only
Q24. Consider the following statements: (c) 1 ,2 and 4 only
1. National Register of Indian Citizens
(d) 1,2,3 and 4
(NRIC) will be made out of National
Population Register (NPR). Q28. Which of the following features of
2. NPR will comprise of only citizens and Indian constitution are said to be
will not include foreigners.
federal in nature?
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Supremacy of constitution
correct?
2. Independent Judiciary
(a) 1 only
3. Integrated Judiciary
(b) 2 only 4. 7th Schedule
(c) Both 1 and 2 5. All India Service
below.
Q25. Which of the following sectors have (a) 1 and 2 only
been taken into consideration by the (b) 1,2 and 3 only
Good Governance Index? (c) 1,2 and 4 only
1. Public Health (d) 1,2,4 and 5 only
2. Economic Governance
3. Development in Artificial Intelligence
Q29. A constitutional amendment related to 1. It provides reservation to members of

which of the following subjects economically weaker sections of
requires approval by state citizens for admission to educational
legislatures? institutions including private
1. Replacing the collegium system with educational institutions, whether
National judicial appointments aided or unaided by the State.
committee. 2. It provides reservation to members of
2. Formation of state of Telangana economically weaker sections of
3. Citizenship Amendment Act citizens for appointments or posts for
Select the correct answer using the code given employment in government office.
below. Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) 1 only below:
(b) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3only (b) 2 only
(d) 1,2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q30. With reference to All India Judicial

Services, consider the following Q33. Consider the following statements:
statements: 1. Model Code of Conduct comes into
1. The 44th Amendment Act has enabled effect on the date of notification of
the creation of an All India Judicial election by Election Commission of
Services by the Indian Parliament. India.
2. At least half of the State Legislatures 2. Model Code of Conduct prohibits
must agree to the creation of All India political parties from releasing their
Judicial Services. manifestos in the last 72 hours leading
Which of the statements given above is/are up to voting from 1st phase of polling.
correct? Which of the statement given above is/are
(a) 1 only incorrect?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q31. Consider the following statements about Q34. Consider the following statements
the Indian Constitution. about Privy Purse:
1. Article 30 gives rights only to religious
1. Privy Purse acted as a consideration
minorities to establish and administer for Rulers of former Indian Princely
educational institution.
States to sign Treaty of Accession with
2. Article 29 allows only minorities to
India.
conserve their distinct culture, 2. Constitution (Twenty Sixth
language and script. Amendment) Act, 1971 abolished Privy
Which of the statements given above is/are Purse in India.
correct? 3. Privy Purse was abolished during the
(a) 1 only
tenure of Mrs. Indira Gandhi as Prime
(b) 2 only
Minister.
(c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
Q32. Which of the statements about (b) 2 and 3 only
Constitution (One Hundred and Third (c) 1 and 3 only
Amendment) Act, 2019 is/are correct? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 15th Constitutional Amendment Act,

1963
Q35. Consider the following statements about
(b) 31st Constitutional Amendment Act,
“Crime in India 2018” Report released
1973
by NCRB:
(c) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act,
1. Crime against women has decreased 1976
as compared to 2017. (d) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act,
2. Cases of industrial riots and riots
1978
related to water disputes have
increased.
3. Maximum number of suicides was Q39. Consider the following statements
committed by Daily Wage Earners. related to Telecommunication
Which of the statements given above is/are Consumers Education and Protection
correct? Fund:
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. The Fund has been notified by Telecom
(b) 1 and 3 only Regulatory Authority of India.
(c) 2 and 3 only 2. The fund will be used to deposit any
(d) 1,2 and 3 excess charges revealed in the billing
audit and unclaimed funds of
consumers.
Q36. Which of the statements about
3. The income from the fund is utilized to
Constitution of India is/are correct?
undertake programmes and activities
1. The provision of citizenship are given relating to consumer education and
in Part III.
protection.
2. Only Parliament shall have powers to Which of the statements given above is/are
deal with the matters of citizenship.
correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given (a) 1 and 3 only
below:
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q40. Which of the following discretionary
powers of the Governor are explicitly
Q37. State can restrict freedom of provided in the Constitution?
conscience and free profession, 1. Governor’s Report in case of failure of
practice and propagation of religion
Constitutional machinery in States.
under Article 25 of the Indian 2. Dismissal of state Council of Ministers.
Constitution on which of the following
3. Administration of adjoining Union
grounds? territories.
1. Public order Select the correct answer using the
2. Morality code given below:
3. Health
(a) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code given (b) 1 and 3 only
below: (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Q41. Consider the following statements
about Electoral bonds:
1. All political parties in India can receive
Q38. Which among the following removed Electoral Bonds.
right to property from Part III and
added it under Article 300A?
2. The Electoral Bonds can be encashed Which of the statements given above is/are
only through Bank account. correct?
3. The Electoral Bonds shall be valid for (a) 1 only
fifteen calendar days from the date of (b) 2 only
issue. (c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only Q45. Which of the following information
is/are mandatory to be provided by the
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None of the above respective candidates to Election
Commission while filing nomination
papers for Lok Sabha Elections?
Q42. Consider the following statements: 1. Educational Qualification of the
1. Right to protest has been mentioned in candidate
Article 19 2. Income Tax Returns for the last two
2. Article 19(1) (b) contains the years
reasonable restrictions to the 3. Details of financial assets stashed
freedoms. abroad
Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code given
correct? below:
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1 only
Q43. Consider the following statements Q46. Which of the following can be said to
regarding Electoral Bonds: be grounds of disqualification of
1. Electoral Bonds do not have an expiry member of the Legislative Assembly or
date. Legislative Council of a State under
2. Electoral Bonds can be dematerialized “Article 191”?
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Holding Office of Profit
correct? 2. Being declared of Unsound Mind by
(a) 1 only competent Court
(b) 2 only 3. If a member is disqualified under
(c) Both 1 and 2 Tenth Schedule for Anti-defection
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 activities.
below:
Q44. Consider the following statements (a) 1 and 2 only
related to Anti-Defection as provided (b) 2 only
under the 10th Schedule of the Indian
(c) 1 and 3 only
Constitution: (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. It provides for the disqualification of
both nominated and independent
members upon joining any political Q47. Consider the following statements
party. regarding Legislative Councils:
2. The Indian Constitution imposes a 1. The provision for their creation and
time limit of 3 months on the Speaker abolition have been provided in the
to decide on the disqualification of the Constitution
members 2. Article 171 deals with the composition
of the Councils.
Which of the statements given above 1. Only Union territories of Delhi and
is/are correct? Puducherry have a separate Legislative
(a) 1 only Council.
(b) 2 only 2. Legislature of Delhi can legislate on all
(c) Both 1 and 2 items mentioned in state list.
(d) None of the above Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
Q48. Consider the following statements with (b) 2 only
reference to Assam:
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC) is (d) Neither 1 nor 2
an autonomous district council for
Bodoland region of Assam constituted
Q51. With respect to the dissolution of Lok
under Fifth Schedule of the Indian Sabha, which of the following
Constitution. statements is/are correct?
2. Area under BTC jurisdiction is
1. Passing of a no confidence motion
officially called Bodoland Territorial automatically leads to the dissolution
Area Districts (BTAD).
of the Lok Sabha.
3. The administrative unit has been 2. No confidence motion has been
created with a mission to accomplish
provided for under article 83 of the
development in the area of economy,
Indian constitution.
education, preservation of land right, Select the correct answer using the code given
linguistic aspiration, socio-cultural
below:
and ethnic identity of Bodos. (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above
(b) 2 only
is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
Q52. Consider the following statements
(d) 1, 2 and 3
about an Independent Candidate
contesting Lok Sabha elections:
Q49. Which of the following statements 1. Symbols are not allotted to such
about The Medical Termination of candidates.
Pregnancy Act, 1971 is/are correct? 2. Tenth Schedule of the Indian
1. Registered Medical Practitioners can Constitution is silent on independent
allow termination of pregnancy where candidates.
the length of pregnancy does not Which of the statements given above is/are
exceed 24 weeks. correct?
2. No suit for legal proceedings shall lie (a) 1 only
against any registered medical (b) 2 only
practitioner for their decision to (c) Both 1 and 2
terminate medical pregnancy in good (d) Neither 1 nor 2
faith if such termination causes any
damage to the mother as per this Act. Q53. Consider the following statements:
Select the correct answer using the code given 1. The minimum age prescribed for any
below: person to be a member of panchayat is
(a) 1 only 25 years.
(b) 2 only 2. A panchayat reconstituted after
(c) Both 1 and 2 premature dissolution continues only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 for the remainder period.
Q50. Consider the following statements: correct?
(a) 1 only Q57. Which of the following statements is

(b) 2 only /are correct about proxy voting in
(c) Both 1 and 2 India?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. It is available to members of the armed
forces and the NRIs
Q54. Consider the following statements 2. A proxy voter has to be registered as
about Protection of Plant Variety and voter in the same constituency as the
Farmer's Right Act 2001: service voter.
1. This act was enacted to comply with Select the correct answer using the
the WTO's Agreement on Trade related code given below:
aspects of Intellectual property Rights (a) 1 only
(TRIPS) (b) 2 only
2. Under this Act, farmers are entitled to (c) Both 1 and 2
exchange or sell their farm produces (d) Neither 1 nor 2
including seed of a registered variety
under another brand name. Q58. Collegium System for the appointment
Which of the statements given above is/are of Judges was introduced by?
correct? (a) 42nd Amendment Act
(a) 1 only (b) Kesavananda Bharti case 1973
(b) 2 only (c) 3rd Judges case
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1st Judges case
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q59. Number of Puisne Judges in the
Q55. Which of the following can be said to Supreme Court can be increased by?
be the responsibilities of Returning (a) President of India
Officer appointed by the Election (b) Parliament by amendment of
Commission? Constitution under Article 368
1. Scrutinizing of nomination forms of (c) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
candidates. (d) Parliament by amending constitution
2. Allotment of symbols by Simple Majority
3. Counting of votes
4. Declaration of results of election Q60. Consider the following regarding
Select the correct answer using the code given Appointment of Supreme Court judges:
below: 1. Judges of the Supreme Court of are
(a) 2 and 3 only appointed by the President.
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only 2. Executive has the primacy in
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only appointment of Judges.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Q56. Consider the following statements: (a) 1 only
1. The removal process of Chief Election (b) 2 only
Commissioner and other Election (c) Both 1 and 2
Commissioner is same. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Election Commissioners shall be
appointed by the Prime Minister. Q61. Ratna Prabha Committee is associated
Which of the statements given above is/are with which of the following State?
correct? (a) Karnataka
(a) 1 only (b) Haryana
(b) 2 only (c) Assam
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Rajasthan
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q62. With reference to Equality of Q66. With reference to the Payment and
Opportunity provided in Constitution Settlement Act, 2007, consider the
of India, consider the following following statements:
statements: 1. It authorises Reserve Bank of India to
1. Reservation of appointments cannot be constitute Board for Regulation &
made in favour of any backward class Supervision of Payment & Settlement
of citizens. Systems (BPSS)
2. There shall be equal opportunity for 2. BPSS is the highest policy making
citizens in matters relating to body on payment systems in the
“appointment to any office” under the country.
State. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
incorrect? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q67. Justice Srikrishna Committee (2018) is
Q63. MCA 21 is associated with which of the associated with?
following Ministry of Government of (a) Digital payments
India? (b) Banking Reform
(a) Ministry of Corporate Affairs (c) Data Protection
(b) Ministry of Human Resource (d) Western Ghats
Development
(c) Ministry of Agriculture & Farmer Q68. Consider the following statements
Welfare related to Opinion and Exit Polls in
(d) Ministry of External Affairs India:
1. The publication of Opinion Poll results
Q64. "Yukiva" is an initiative of which of the is completely prohibited in India.
following? 2. In a multi phase elections, the exit
(a) Min of HRD results can be published after the end
(b) Department of Science and technology of polling in the first phase.
(c) ISRO Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) CSIR correct?
(a) 1 only
Q65. With reference to the Election (b) 2 only
Commission of India, consider the (c) Both 1 and 2
following statements: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. It is a single member body.
2. Chief Election Commissioner cannot Q69. Consider the following statements:
be removed from his office except in 1. Article 340 empowers President for
same manner and on the same appointment of a Commission to
grounds as a judge of the Supreme investigate the conditions of backward
Court. classes.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. Justice G. Rohini Commission intends
correct? to examine the sub-categorization of
(a) 1 only Other Backward Classes.
(b) 2 only Which of the statement/s given above is/are
(c) Both 1 and 2 correct?
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. III Oath of Office

Schedule
Q70. With reference to National Security 3. IV Allocation of Seats in
Council, consider the following Schedule Rajya Sabha
statements: 4. V Schedule Languages recognised
1. It is presided over by the Union Home by Indian Constitution
Minister. Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
2. It’s recommendation are binding upon matched?
the Cabinet Committee on Security. (a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statement/s given above is/are (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
correct? (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 Q74. Which of the following provisions
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 highlight the secular nature of Indian
state?
Q71. Consider the following statements: 1. Equality of opportunity for all citizens
1. The Judges of the High Court of the in matters of public employment.
States in India are appointed by the 2. No religious instruction shall be
President. provided in any educational
2. The power to increase the number institution.
Judges in the Supreme Court is vested 3. The Preamble secures to all citizens of
in the Chief Justice of India. India liberty of belief, faith and
Which of the statements given above is/are worship.
correct? Select the correct answer using the codes
(a) 1 only given below:
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q72. Which of the following can be said to
be the duties of Prime Minister as per Q75. Who among the following administers
the Indian Constitution? the Oath of Office as well as Oath of
1. To communicate to the President all Secrecy?
decisions of the council of ministers 1. Prime Minister
relating to administration of the affairs 2. Central Council of Ministers
of the Union. 3. President
2. To furnish to the President all 4. Vice-President
proposals for legislation. Select the correct answer using the code given
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
below: (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 4 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q76. Which of the following states/UT have
Q73. Consider the following pairs: uniform family laws on lines of
Uniform civil code?
Schedule Provisions (a) Jammu and Kashmir
1. II Schedule Emoluments, (b) Goa
Allowances and (c) Puducherry
Privileges (d) Daman and Diu
1. It provides for free and compulsory

Q77. Consider the following statements: education to the children in the age-
1. Hindi in Devanagari script is the group (6-14) years.
national language of India. 2. It provides for minimum 33% seats to
2. There are 22 languages provided for be reserved in the private schools for
under the eighth schedule of the the benefit of the economically poor
Indian constitution. sections.
Which of the statements given above 3. It provides for guidelines for the school
is/are correct? infrastructure and teacher-student
(a) 1 only ratio.
(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 1 and 2 only
Q78. Consider the following statements (c) 1 and 3 only
about Crime and Criminal Tracking (d) 1, 2 and 3
Network System (CCTNS):
1. It’s implementation is monitored by Q81. Which of the recently constituted
National Crime Records Bureau cabinet committees is to be chaired by
2. CCTNS is a Mission Mode Project Prime Minister?
under the National e-Governance Plan 1. Committee in Investment & Growth
(NeGP) of Govt. of India. 2. Committee for Employment and Skill
Which of the statements given above Development
is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) 1 only below
(d) Neither 1 or 2
Q79. Which among the following could be
the implications of Drugs and Clinical Q82. In the recently constituted Cabinet
Trial Rules, 2019? Committees, the Prime Minister heads
1. It would lead to faster approval for the which of the following Cabinet
new drugs. committees?
2. The clinical drug trials for the drugs 1. Appointments Committee of the
approved and marketed in other Cabinet
countries may be exempted in India. 2. Cabinet committee on Economic
3. The patients undergoing clinical trials Affairs
would not be able to seek 3. Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary
compensation due to adverse impacts. Affairs
Select the correct answer using the code given 4. Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs
below: Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) 1 and 2 only below:
(b) 1 and 3 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
related to Right to Education Act, Q83. Consider the following statements with
2009: respect to National Testing Agency
(NTA):
1. NTA is an autonomous and self- (b) 2 and 3 only

sustained premier testing organization (c) 2 only
to conduct entrance examinations for (d) 1, 2 and 3
higher educational institutions.
2. NTA aims to undertake research on Q86. Which of the following are means to
educational, professional and testing acquire Citizenship of India?
systems to identify gaps in the 1. Registration
knowledge systems and take steps for 2. Citizenship by incorporation of
bridging them. territory
3. NTA is chaired by the Prime Minister of 3. Naturalization
India. Select the correct answer using the codes
Which of the statements given above is/are given below:
correct? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above
Q87. Which of the following are members of
Q84. With respect to recognition of a the Cabinet Committee on Security?
national party, consider the following 1. Prime Minster of India
statements: 2. National Security Advisor
1. Constitution has provided the 3. Minister of Finance & Corporate Affairs
conditions for recognition of a national 4. Minister of External Affairs
party. Select the correct answer using the
2. Any party recognised as a state party code given below:
in 2 or more states will be eligible to be (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
considered as a national party. (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
correct? (d) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only Q88. Consider the following statements
(c) Both 1 and 2 related to The Aadhaar and Other Laws
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (Amendment) Act, 2019:
1. It provides for the expanded definition
Q85. With regards to Citizenship provisions of Aadhaar to include the 16 Digit
provided in the Constitution of India, Virtual ID.
consider the following statements: 2. It introduces the concept of offline
1. Parliament has the power to make any verification of the Aadhaar number.
provision with respect to the 3. It does not allow the child to opt out of
acquisition and termination of Aadhaar upon attaining the age of 18
citizenship and all other matters years.
relating to citizenship. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Continuance of the rights of correct?
citizenship is subject to the provisions (a) 1 and 2 only
of any law that may be made by (b) 1 and 3 only
Parliament and/or State legislature. (c) 2 and 3 only
3. Changes to provisions of Citizenship (d) 1, 2 and 3
by Parliament is beyond the purview of
the Supreme Court of India. Q89. Consider the following statements
Which of the statements given above is/are related to Universal Service Obligation
incorrect? Fund (USOF):
(a) 1 only
1. It enjoys statutory status under the

Indian Telegraph (Amendment) Act Q93. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal
2003. Committee is constituted under the
2. It is a lapsable fund which is funded (Prelims 2015)
through universal access levy on the (a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
telecom operators. (b) Geographical Indications of Goods
Which of the statements given above is/are (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999
correct? (c) Environment Protection Act, 1986
(a) 1 only (d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 Q94. Which of the following have been
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 mentioned in Schedule of the Indian
Constitution?
Q90. With reference to Foreigners Tribunal, 1. All States of India
consider the following statements: 2. All Union Territories of India
1. They are currently functioning through Select the correct answer using the code given
the North Eastern States to expel below:
illegal foreigners (a) 1 only
2. They are constituted by the Chief (b) 2 only
Justice of India (c) Both 1 and 2
correct?
(a) 1 only Q95. Which of the following can be said to
(b) 2 only be the demerits of holding
(c) Both 1 and 2 simultaneous elections in India?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Premature dissolution of state
assemblies
Q91. Which among the following agencies 2. Emergence of national narrative over
publishes the Global Peace Index? regional issues
(a) International Peace Bureau 3. Uniformity in governance
(b) Global Peace Foundation 4. Reduction of massive expenditure of
(c) "Amnesty International” elections
(d) Institute for Economics and Peace Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Q92. Consider the following statements (a) 1 and 2 only
related to Leader of Opposition in the (b) 3 and 4 only
Lok Sabha: (c) 1 and 3 only
1. He/She must belong to the political (d) 2 and 4 only
party or an alliance of Parties which
wins at least 10% of the seats in Lok Q96. Consider the following statements:
Sabha. 1. President gives a special address only
2. The appointment and recognition of at the first session after the General
the Leader of Opposition has been election to House of People.
provided under Salary and Allowances 2. Defeat of motion of thanks lead to the
of leaders of Opposition in Parliament fall of government.
Act, 1977. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q97. Consider the following statements 2. It lends directly for projects

about National Human Rights undertaken by public housing
Commission: agencies for housing.
1. It is a statutory body. 3. It grants home loan directly to
2. Its members are removed on grounds individuals.
of proved misbehaviour and Which of the statements given above are
incapacity. correct?
3. It’s members are eligible to be (a) 1 and 2 only
appointed as governor of a state. (b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 1 and 3 only
correct? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only Q101. Which of the following statements with
(c) 2 and 3 only regards to Quality Council of India
(d) 1, 2 and 3 is/are correct?
1. It is both the National Standards Body
Q98. Which among the following criteria of India & the Accreditation Authority
is/are adopted by the 14th Finance in India
Commission for the horizontal 2. QCI directly receives any consumer
distribution of taxes among the states? complaints regarding any quality
1. Population (1971 Census) problem
2. Demographic Change (2011 Census) Select the correct answer from the codes given
3. Fiscal Discipline below:
4. Income Distance (a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code given (b) 2 only
below: (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only Q102. Which of the following are correctly
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 matched?
List under
Topic
Q99. Consider the following statements Schedule 7
related to Finance Commission: 1. Regulation and Union List
1. It is a permanent Constitutional body development of
set up under Article 280 of the Indian Inter-state rivers
Constitution. 2. Water Supplies State List
2. It has been set up to address the 3. Irrigation & canals Concurrent List
vertical and horizontal imbalances in Select the correct answer from the codes given
the finances of the Centre and States. below:
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 and 2 only
correct? (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q103. Consider the following statements
about PM-STAIC.
Q100. With reference to National Housing 1. It is headed by the Prime Minister of
Bank, consider the following India
statement: 2. It has replaced the scientific Advisory
1. It is a statutory organization wholly committee to the PM
owned by Reserve Bank of India. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are

(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Q104. Consider the following statements (d) Neither 1 nor 2
about National food Security Act,
2013. Q108. Government of India Act, 1935
1. The responsibility to identify eligible provided for which of the following?
households is of the Central 1. Public Service Commission.
government. 2. Establishment of Federation and
2. It has subsumed the Antyodaya Anna Accession of Indian States.
Yojana. 3. Power of Governor to issue
Which of the statements given above is/are proclamations in case of failure of
correct? constitutional machinery.
(a) 1 only 4. Chief Commissioner’s Provinces
(b) 2 only Select the correct answer using the
(c) Both 1 and 2 code given below:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Q105. ‘Economic Justice’ as one of the (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
objectives of Indian Constitution has (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
been provided in which of the
following? Q109. Consider the following statements:
(a) Preamble and Fundamental Rights 1. The article 239A was added by 14th
(b) Preamble and Directive principles of Constitutional amendment.
state policy 2. Article 239AA deals with the
(c) Fundamental Rights and Directive governance of National Capital
principles of state policy Territory of Delhi.
(d) None of the above Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Q106. Consider the following statements (a) 1 only
related to Other Backward Classes (b) 2 only
1. 27% reservation to them has been (c) Both 1 and 2
provided on the basis of the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
recommendation of First Backward
Class Commission. Q110. Consider the following statements
2. Inadequate representation is a related to Inner Line Permit:
criterion for identification of OBCs 1. It is provided under the Foreigners
Which of the statements given above is/are (Restricted Area) order 1963.
correct? 2. It is applicable in Nagaland, Mizoram
(a) 1 only and Tripura.
(b) 2 only
Q107. Consider the following statements (c) Both 1 and 2
about Scheduled Castes: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. List of scheduled castes are provided in
the constitution itself. Q111. With reference to Special Provisions
2. Only parliament can modify the list of relating to Scheduled Caste in Indian
scheduled castes in India.
Constitution, consider the following (b) Kesavananda Bharti vs Union of India

statements: (c) M. C Mehta vs Union of India
1. The President is bound by the (d) Kedarnath vs State of Bihar
recommendation of the Government in
a State in specifying the castes to be Q115. Tehseen Poonawalla judgement is
deemed to be Scheduled Castes in related to which of the following?
relation to that State (a) Mob lynching
2. Governor may by law exclude from the (b) Cyber Crimes
list of Scheduled Castes in a State after (c) Maratha Reservation
receiving authorization from the (d) Environmental Impact Assessment
President
Which of the statements given above is/are Q116. Consider the following statements:
correct? 1. Interstate River water dispute act 1956
(a) 1 only has created a single permanent
(b) 2 only tribunal for resolution of interstate
(c) Both 1 and 2 disputes.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Concerned states can approach
Supreme Court even when the matter
Q112. With reference to Article 341, consider is under the course of proceeding with
the following statements: at the River Water tribunal
1. Castes, races or tribes can be deemed Which of the statements given above is/are
to be Scheduled Castes correct?
2. Parliament may by law include in or (a) 1 only
exclude from the list of Scheduled (b) 2 only
Castes (c) Both 1 and 2
correct?
(a) 1 only Q117. With reference to the PM Gram Sadak
(b) 2 only Yojana (PMGSY), consider the
(c) Both 1 and 2 following statements:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. The nodal ministry for implementation
is Ministry of Road Transport and
Q113. Which of the following are reasonable Highways.
restrictions to freedom of speech and 2. PMGSY I provided for all-weather road
expression, under Article 19(2)? connectivity to unconnected
1. Interests of the sovereignty and habitations of designated population
integrity of India. size based on the Census of 2011.
2. Friendly relations with foreign States, Which of the statements given above is/are
3. Public order, decency or morality correct?
4. In relation to contempt of court, (a) 1 only
defamation or incitement to an offence. (b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code given (c) Both 1 and 2
below: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only Q118. With reference to Inter State River
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only Water disputes, consider the following
(d) All of the above statements:
1. Parliament may by law provide for
Q114. Which of the following cases is related adjudication of any dispute in the any
to sedition? inter state river.
(a) JP Unnikrishnan vs state of Andhra
Pradesh
2. Supreme court does not have original

Jurisdiction regarding Inter State River Q121. India enacted protection of Plant
Water Disputes. Variety and Farmer's Right Act 2001 to
Which of the statements given above is/are comply with agreements of which of
correct? the following organisation?
(a) 1 only (a) UNCTAD
(b) 2 only (b) FAO
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) WTO
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) UNFCCC
Q119. The Tenth Schedule provides an Q122. Consider the following statements
exemption wherein a person shall not about Protection of Plant Variety and
be disqualified if he by reason of his Farmer's Rights Act 2001:
election to such office, voluntarily gives 1. India enacted this Act to comply with
up the membership to his political the TRIPS agreement of WTO
party. What are the exempted Offices 2. It grants Intellectual property Rights to
under Tenth Schedule? Plant breeders and researchers only,
1. Speaker of the House of the People for developing new plant varieties.
2. Deputy Chairman of the Council of Which of the statements given above is/are
States correct?
3. Chairman of the Legislative Council of (a) 1 only
a State (b) 2 only
4. Speaker of the Legislative Assembly of (c) Both 1 and 2
a State (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below: Q123. With reference to Law Commission,
(a) 1 and 4 only consider the following statements:
(b) 2 and 3 only 1. Constitution on India does not provide
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only for creation of a Law Commission
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 2. It is currently constituted through an
Executive Order
Q120. With reference to Tenth Schedule, Which of the statement/s given above is/are
consider the following statements: correct?
1. The Chairman or the Speaker of a (a) 1 only
House may direct that any wilful (b) 2 only
contravention by any person of the (c) Both 1 and 2
rules may be dealt in the same manner (d) Neither 1 nor 2
as a breach of privilege of the House.
2. If any question arises over Q124. Consider the following statements:
disqualification, the decision of the 1. The advisory of the Law Commission is
Chairman or the Speaker of such non-binding on the Government
House shall be final. 2. It is neither a permanent body nor a
3. No court shall have any jurisdiction in statutory body
respect of any matter connected with Which of the statement/s given above is/are
the disqualification of a member of a correct?
House (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 2 only
correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only Q125. Consider the following statements:
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. National Register of Citizens is (b) 1 and 2 only

currently being formed throughout the (c) 2 and 3 only
North Eastern States to expel illegal (d) 1, 2 and 3
foreigners
2. Foreigners Tribunal are constituted in Q129. Consider the following statements:
a State by the Chief Justice of a High 1. Chief Information Commissioner shall
Court based on recommendation by hold office for a term of five years.
the Governor of that State 2. He/she shall be eligible for re-
Select the correct answer from the codes given appointment.
below: Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q126. Which of the following correctly
describes the Securities and Exchange Q130. Consider the following statements:
Board of India (SEBI)? 1. A bill pending the Lok Sabha lapses on
(a) It is a statutory body that regulate the its prorogation.
securities market 2. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the
(b) It is a non-statutory body that power to adjourn the House sine-die
regulates the Non-Banking Finance 3. On prorogation, it is only the President
Companies who can summon the Lok Sabha
(c) It is a constitutional body that is Which of the statements given above are
empowered to audit all expenses of the correct?
union or state governments (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) It is a regulatory body that regulates (b) 1 and 3 only
the chit funds, Nidhi companies and (c) 2 and 3 only
securities market (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q127. Which of the following are correct Q131. Consider the following statements:
about the EVMs? 1. Election Commission is a
1. They are manufactured in both public Constitutional body while Central
as well as private sector. Information Commission is a statutory
2. VVPAT slips are collected by the voters body
as proof of voting. 2. The Election Commission of India is
Select the correct answer using the codes exempted from the purview of the Right
given below: to Information Act, 2005
(a) 1 only 3. The decision of the Central Information
(b) 2 only Commission is binding
(c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
Q128. Which of the following are financial (b) 1 and 3 only
Committees of the parliament? (c) 2 and 3 only
1. Public Accounts committee (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Estimates committee
3. Committee on Public sector Q132. Which of the following Directive
Undertakings principle was added by the 42nd
Select the correct answer using the codes Constitution Amendment act?
given below: (a) Providing equal justice and free legal
(a) 1 only aid
(b) To organize Village panchayats Responsibility (CSR) norms under the

(c) To minimize inequalities in income and Companies Act 2013?
status 1. Net worth of 500 crores
(d) State to provide early childhood care 2. 1000 crore turn over
and education for all children until 3. 50 crore net profit
they complete the age of six years Select the correct answer using the code given
below
Q133. Which of the following are part of (a) 1 only
Fundamental Duties under article 51 A (b) 1 and 2 only
of the Indian Constitution? (c) 2 and 3 only
1. To strive for excellence in spheres of (d) All of the above
individual and collective activity
2. To pay taxes by all citizens Q137. Consider the following statements
3. To safeguard public property and about National Financial Reporting
adjure violence Authority (NFRA):
Select the correct answer using the codes 1. NFRA has been constituted under the
given below: Securities and Exchange Board of
(a) 1 only India Act, 1992.
(b) 1 and 3 only 2. It monitors and enforces compliance
(c) 2 and 3 only with accounting standards and
(d) 1, 2 and 3 auditing standards.
3. It oversees the quality of service of the
Q134. Which of the following statements professions associated with ensuring
about the office of Whip is/are correct? compliance with such standards and
1. Office of Whip has been specified suggest measures for improvement in
under the Lok Sabha Rules. the quality of service.
2. Only the ruling party has an office of Which of the statements given above is/are
Whip. correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes (a) 1 and 2 only
given below: (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q138. Consider the following statements
related to Minorities in India.
Q135. Consider the following statements 1. The term minorities has been defined
related to Anti-defection laws. in the constitution of India.
1. A member disqualified under anti- 2. National Commission for Minorities is
defection cannot contest election for a statutory body.
the entire pending during of the House. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. A member can be disqualified for correct?
disobeying the whip of his party. (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 2 only
correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 Q139. Bal Patil case is associated with which
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 of the following?
(a) Sedition
Q136. Which of the following companies have (b) Reservation in promotion for SC/ST
to abide by Corporate Social (c) Identification of Minorities
(d) None of the above
1. Only the Scheduled Tribes are eligible

Q140. Which of the following is/are correctly to claim rights under the Act.
matched? 2. The process for recognition of rights is
Data Releasing Authority initiated at the level of Gram Sabha.
1. Sample Office of Registrar Which of the statements given above is/are
Registration General and Census correct?
System Commissioner of (a) 1 only
India (b) 2 only
2. National International (c) Both 1 and 2
Family Health Institute for
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Survey Population Science
Select the correct answer form the codes given
below:
related to Institute of Eminence (IOE)
(a) 1 only
tag:
(b) 2 only
1. All IOE will be given 1000 Crore funds
(c) Both 1 and 2
over 5 year period to develop into world
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
class institute.
2. Greenfield institutes are eligible for
IOE tag.
regarding Article 35A.
1. It was incorporated through the
correct?
Presidential Order based on Article
(a) 1 only
370.
(b) 2 only
2. It talks about the Permanent residents
(c) Both 1 and 2
of the states and the special rights
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
accruing to them.
Q145. Consider the following statements:
correct?
1. The Constitution of India does not
(a) 1 only
mention the Seat of Supreme Court
(b) 2 only
and the city where it shall sit.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. Chief Justice of India with the approval
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
of the President can decide place of
seat of Supreme Court outside Delhi.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are
regarding the erstwhile state of Jammu
correct?
and Kashmir (J&K):
(a) 1 only
1. As per Article 370, Article 1 applied to
(b) 2 only
state of J&K.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. As per Article 370, certain provisions of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Indian Constitution can be extended to
erstwhile state of J&K through an Act
Q146. The Jammu and Kashmir
of Parliament but with the concurrence
Reorganisation Act, 2019 provides for
of State government of Jammu and
which of the following?
Kashmir.
1. Amendment in Schedule 1 and 4 of the
Indian Constitution.
correct?
2. No discretionary power for Lieutenant
(a) 1 only
Governor with respect to aid and
(b) 2 only
advise of Council of Minister of Union
(c) Both 1 and 2
Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Nomination of 2 women members to
legislative Assembly of Union Territory
of Jammu and Kashmir in case of
related to Forest Rights Act 2006.
inadequate women representation of

women. Q150. Which of the following districts are part
Select the correct answer using the code given of Union Territory of Ladakh?
below: 1. Leh
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. Kargil
(b) 1 and 3 only 3. Pulwama
(c) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given
(d) 1, 2 and 3 below:
(a) 1 only
Q147. Consider the following statements: (b) 2 only
1. Constitution (Application to Jammu (c) 1 and 2 only
and Kashmir) Order, 2019 has been (d) 1 and 3 only
provided under Article 370 of the
Indian Constitution. Q151. Consider the following statements
2. Jammu and Kashmir (Reorganisation) regarding Central Consumer
Act, 2019 provides for creation of two Protection Authority (CCPA):
Union Territories. 1. CCPA has been constituted through an
Which of the statements given above is/are Executive Order of the Central
correct? Government.
(a) 1 only 2. It will regulate matters related to
(b) 2 only violation of consumer rights, unfair
(c) Both 1 and 2 trade practices, and misleading
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 advertisements.
Q148. Consider the following statements: correct?
1. There has been no mention of (a) 1 only
Instrument of Accession under Article (b) 2 only
370 of the Indian Constitution. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Article 370 is a temporary provision (d) Neither 1 nor 2
under Part XXI of the Indian
Constitution. Q152. Consider the following statements
Which of the statements given above is/are regarding Consumer Dispute
correct? Redressal Commission:
(a) 1 only 1. It will be established at District, State
(b) 2 only and National level.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. Complaints relating to unfair contracts
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 will be heard only by the National
Commission.
Q149. Consider the following statements Which of the statements given above is/are
about Jammu and Kashmir correct?
Reorganisation Bill, 2019: (a) 1 only
1. There shall be two Administrators for (b) 2 only
Union Territories of Ladakh and (c) Both 1 and 2
Jammu and Kashmir. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. It provides for amendment of
Representation of People Act, 1950. Q153. With respect to Medical Termination of
Which of the statements given above is/are Pregnancy Act 1971, which of the
correct? following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only 1. It provides time limit for termination of
(b) 2 only pregnancy till 20 weeks.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. AYUSH doctors are allowed to conduct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 abortions under this Act.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
below: Q157. In reference to the Special provisions
(a) 1 only for the State of Sikkim provided in the
(b) 2 only Constitution of India, consider the
(c) Both 1 and 2 following statements:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. The Governor of Sikkim shall have
special responsibility for an equitable
Q154. Consider the following statements: arrangement for ensuring the social
1. All states have equal number of seats and economic advancement of
in the Rajya Sabha. different sections of the population of
2. Legislative Assembly of Delhi has Sikkim
powers to legislate on all the subjects 2. The President may extend to the State
under the State list. of Sikkim any enactment which is in
Which of the statements given above is/are force in a State in India
correct? 3. Supreme Court shall not have
(a) 1 only jurisdiction in respect of any dispute
(b) 2 only arising in relation to Sikkim
(c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above are
(a) 1 and 2 only
Q155. Special Provision for which of the (b) 2 and 3 only
following states has been provided (c) 1 and 3 only
under Article 371 of the Indian (d) 1, 2 and 3
Constitution?
1. Rajasthan Q158. Which among the following are the
2. Karnataka features of “asymmetric federalism” in
3. Goa India?
Select the correct answer using the codes 1. Representation of States in the Rajya
given below: Sabha.
(a) 1 only 2. Administration of Tribal Areas.
(b) 1 and 2 only 3. Article 371 of Indian Constitution.
(c) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given
(d) 1, 2 and 3 below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
Q156. With reference to Article 371F of the (b) 1 and 3 only
Indian Constitution, consider the (c) 2 and 3 only
following statements: (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. It provides for special provisions for the
State of Sikkim. Q159. Consider the following statements
2. Legislative Assembly of the State of related to POCSO Amendment Bill
Sikkim shall consist of not less than 2019:
thirty members 1. It has provided for death penalty for
3. Parliament may for the protection of a aggravated penetrative sexual assault
particular section of society in Sikkim 2. Failing to report a child pornographic
provide reservation of seats in the material has been made an offence.
Legislative Assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above are correct?
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3 Naresh National
Q160. Which one of the following objectives is Chandra Security
not embodied in the Preamble to the Task Force
Constitution of India?
(a) Liberty of Thought Select the correct answer from the codes given
(b) Economic Liberty below:
(c) Liberty of Expression (a) 1 only
(d) Liberty of Belief (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
Q161. Consider the following statements (d) All of the Above
about the delimitation process for Lok
Sabha constituencies: Q164. With reference to Article 371H,
1. There is uniformity of representation consider the following statements:
between different states 1. The Governor of Arunachal Pradesh
2. Uniformity is also maintained between shall have special responsibility for law
different constituencies of the same and order in the State.
state. 2. Governor will provide final decision in
Which of the statements given above is/are all State responsibilities based on his
correct? individual judgement
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Q162. Consider the following statements (d) Neither 1 nor 2
related to Corporate Social
responsibility (CSR) norms in India: Q165. Consider the following statements
1. It has been provided under the related to Article 370.
Companies Act, 2013 and is presently 1. It was an important provision of the
applicable to all the companies. instrument of accession of Kashmir.
2. The violation of CSR norms may be 2. It provides for certain privileges to only
considered as a criminal offence and the permanent residents of J&K.
may attract imprisonment. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q163. Which of the following pairs is/are 1. A person disqualified to contest
correctly matched? elections on grounds of corruption may
not be allowed to contest polls for a
Sr. Report Purview period of 6 years.
No. 2. Election Commission has power to
1 D.B. Defence reduce the term of disqualification
Shekatkar Expenditure under Representation of People Act,
Committee 1951.
2 Madhav Western Which of the statements given above is/are
Gadgil Ghats correct?
Committee (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 Select the correct answer from the codes given
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
Q167. Which of the following are principles of (b) 2 and 3 only
Indian Nuclear Doctrine? (c) 1 and 3 only
1. Minimum Credible Deterrence (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. No First Use
3. 2nd Strike Retaliation Q171. Consider the following statements with
Select the correct answer from the codes given respect to President's rule:
below: 1. President can assume on to himself the
(a) 1 and 2 only legislative and executive power of the
(b) 2 and 3 only state but not the judicial power.
(c) 1 and 3 only 2. It can be imposed if the constitutional
(d) 1, 2 and 3 direction by the centre is disregarded
by the state.
Q168. Consider the following statements Which of the statements given above is/are
about National food Security Act 2013: correct?
1. It made right to food a constitutional (a) 1 only
right (b) 2 only
2. Under it only rice, wheat and coarse (c) Both 1 and 2
grain are provided. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct? Q172. Justice K.S Puttaswamy v. Union of
(a) 1 only India case is with respect to?
(b) 2 only (a) Right to Privacy
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Validity of Aadhar
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Data Protection
(d) Sabarimala Temple
Q169. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention)
Amendment Act, 2019 provides for Q173. Consider the following statements:
which of the following changes? 1. Only the Supreme Court is empowered
1. Disallowing National Investigation within the Constitution to issue writ of
Agency to investigate cases of lone wolf Habeas Corpus.
terrorism. 2. Citizens have right to move to the
2. Designating individuals as terrorists. Supreme Court for enforcing right to
Select the correct answer using the code given Constitutional Remedies.
below: Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q170. Which of the following is a correct
feature of Indian Federalism? Q174. Which of the following objectives has
1. India is union of states and union not been mentioned in the preamble of
territory. the constitution of India?
2. Executive powers of the centre are (a) Liberty of thought
superior to the executive powers of the (b) Liberty of expression
States. (c) Liberty of belief
3. Asymmetric capability of power among (d) Economic liberty
States
1. Minimum number of Judges in the

Constitutional Bench is 5. Q179. Which among the following are the
2. The purview of the Constitutional constitutional requirements for the
bench is only for the interpretation of appointment of Governor?
the constitution. 1. He should be citizen of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. He should be more than 30 years of
correct? age.
(a) 1 only 3. He should be appointed by the
(b) 2 only President after consultation with Chief
(c) Both 1 and 2 Minister.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 4. He should be a person from outside the
State.
Q176. Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer using the code given
1. The number of Judges in the Supreme below:
Court can be increase by a (a) 1 only
constitutional amendment under (b) 1 and 2 only
article 368. (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
2. Originally the number of Judges in the (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Supreme Court was 15.
Which of the statements given above is/are Q180. President of India can be impeached by
correct? the Indian Parliament under Article 61
(a) 1 only on which of the following grounds?
(b) 2 only 1. Violation of constitution.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. Proved Misbehaviour
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Incapacity
Q177. Consider the following statements: below:
1. Judges of the High Court are (a) 1 only
appointed by the Governor. (b) 1 and 2 only
2. Pension of the Judges of the High (c) 1 and 3 only
Court is charged upon the (d) 1, 2 and 3
Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are Q181. Which among the following committees
correct? recommended for the introduction of
(a) 1 only impeachment of Governor on the lines
(b) 2 only of impeachment of President?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) Sarkaria Committee
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Punchhi Committee
(c) National Commission to review the
Q178. Who among the following are working of Constitution
considered to be part of the State (d) None of the Above
Executive?
1. Governor Q182. Which of the following statements
2. Chief Minister about Motor Vehicles Amendment Act
3. State Council of Ministers 2019 is correct?
4. Advocate General of State. 1. A motor vehicle accident fund has to be
Select the correct answer using the code given established at the central and state
below: level.
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. Compensation will be disbursed in
(b) 2 and 3 only monthly instalments.
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only Select the correct answer using the codes
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 given below:
(a) 1 only 2. Its decision is binding on the member

(b) 2 only states.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Select the correct answer using the codes
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 given below:
(a) 1 only
Q183. Which of the following are released by (b) 2 only
Economist Intelligence Unit? (c) Both 1 and 2
1. Democracy Index (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. World Liveability Index
3. Inclusive Internet Index Q187. Consider the following statements:
Select the correct answer using the 1. Under the Mines Act, women cannot
code given below: work between 7 pm to 6 am.
(a) 2 only 2. As per the Factories Act 1948, a
(b) 1 and 2 only bipartite committee will be formed for
(c) 2 and 3 only every unit dealing with hazardous
(d) 1, 2 and 3 process or chemicals.
Q184. Which among the following benefits correct?
have been given to the Institutes (a) 1 only
declared as "Institutes of Eminence"? (b) 2 only
1. Autonomy to recruit certain (c) Both 1 and 2
percentage of foreign faculties. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Autonomy to offer certain percentage
of online courses. Q188. Consider the following statements with
3. Financial Assistance to both Public respect to Sixth Schedule of the Indian
and Private Sector Universities. Constitution:
Select the correct answer using the code given 1. All members of District Council are
below: nominated by the Governor
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. Governor is empowered to alter name
(b) 2 and 3 only and size of autonomous districts and
(c) 1 and 3 only autonomous regions.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Q185. Consider the following statements (a) 1 only
about Article 371: (b) 2 only
1. It provides for special responsibilities (c) Both 1 and 2
to the Governor of particular states (d) Neither 1 nor 2
through an order of the President.
2. It provides special provisions for north Q189. Consider the following statements
eastern states only. about National Commission for
Which of the statements given above is/are Scheduled Tribes:
correct? 1. It was added in the Indian Constitution
(a) 1 only by Constitution Seventy Third
(b) 2 only Amendment.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. The Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 and Members of National Commission
for Scheduled Tribes are appointed by
Q186. Which of the following are correct Prime Minister of India.
about North Eastern Council? 3. It has power to investigate and
1. It was created by an executive order of monitors matters related to safeguards
the Cabinet. provided for Scheduled Tribes under
Indian Constitution and other laws 2. Their manner of removal has been
under the government. provided under the Judges Inquiry Act
Which of the statements given above is/are 1968.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 3 only correct?
(b) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) 2 only (b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q190. Under the PESA Act 1996, Gram
Sabha has which of the following Q194. Consider the following statements with
powers? respect to appointment of judges of
1. Power to manage major water bodies. higher judiciary?
2. Licensing lease for all minerals. 1. First Judges Case made opinion of CJI
Select the correct answer using the code given binding on the government.
below: 2. A Chief Justice of a High Court has to
(a) 1 only belong to the same state.
(c) Both 1 and 2 incorrect?
(b) 2 only
Q191. Which among the following states has (c) Both 1 and 2
recently unveiled "Jan Soochna Portal" (d) Neither 1 nor 2
for proactive disclosure of Information
under RTI act by the Government Q195. Consider the following statements
departments? related to the Fundamental Rights:
(a) Uttar Pradesh 1. The Fundamental Rights are
(b) Madhya Pradesh permanent and sacrosanct since they
(c) Rajasthan cannot be amended by the Parliament.
(d) Haryana 2. All the Fundamental Rights can be
suspended during the Operation of
Q192. Consider the following statements: National Emergency.
1. Finance Commission is a Which of the statements given above is/are
Constitutional Body. correct?
2. 15th Finance Commission will use the (a) 1 only
data of 2011 census to make (b) 2 only
recommendations. (c) Both 1 and 2
correct?
(a) 1 only Q196. Which of the following are correct
(b) 2 only about Classical Language Status?
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. It is a constitutional status accorded to
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 ancient languages.
2. Odia is one of the recognised classical
Q193. Consider the following statements with languages.
respect to Judges of the Supreme Select the correct answer using the code given
Court: below:
1. The process and manner of their (a) 1 only
appointment has been given under (b) 2 only
Article 124 of the Indian Constitution. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q197. Which of the following languages are (a) The intelligence of and character of
included in the Eighth schedule of ordinary men and women
Indian constitution? (b) The methods for strengthening
1. Santhali executive leadership
2. Pali (c) A superior individual with dynamism
3. Nepali and vision
Select the correct answer using the codes (d) A band of dedicated party workers
given below:
(a) 1 only Q202. Consider the following statements
(b) 1 and 3 only related to The Representation of The
(c) 2 and 3 only People Act, 1951:
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. It bars the members convicted of
offences from contesting the election
Q198. Which of the following is not a classical for a period of 6 years from the date of
Indian Language recognised by the conviction.
Government of India? 2. Only the Supreme Court of India has
(a) Tamil been empowered to reduce the term of
(b) Sanskrit disqualification of the convicted
(c) Prakrit members.
(d) Malayalam Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Q199. Which of the following are exceptions (a) 1 only
provided under section 8 of the RTI (b) 2 only
Act? (c) Both 1 and 2
1. NGO's financed by the government. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Cabinet papers.
3. Information including IPRs which will Q203. Which among the following is/are
harm the competitive position of a considered as corrupt practices under
third party. The Representation of The People Act,
Select the correct answer using the code given 1951?
below: 1. Appeal by the Candidate on grounds of
(a) 1 and 2 only religion, race, caste, community or
(b) 2 only language.
(c) 2 and 3 only 2. Propagation of Sati or its glorification.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Getting Assistance from Gazetted
Officer to enhance the prospects of
Q200. Consider the following statement winning election.
about the National Population Register Select the correct answer using the code given
(NPR): below:
1. Its legality is grounded in the Census (a) 1 only
Act, 1948. (b) 1 and 2 only
2. It includes both biometric and (c) 1 and 3 only
demographic details of the residents. (d) 1, 2 and 3
correct? Q204. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only 1. The Prime Minister of India must
(b) 2 only compulsorily be a member of the Lok
(c) Both 1 and 2 Sabha and not Rajya Sabha.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. A Person cannot be appointed as
Minister without being a Member of
Q201. Democracy's superior virtue lies in the Parliament.
fact that it calls into activity

correct? Q208. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only 1. Governor can pardon death sentence.
(b) 2 only 2. Judicial Review is not available on
(c) Both 1 and 2 judicial functions of the executive.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Power of Pardon by the President can
be taken independently as per his/her
Q205. Representation of People Act, 1950 discretion.
deals with which of the following? Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Qualification of Voters correct?
2. Qualification and Disqualification of (a) 1 and 2 only
Members of Parliament (b) 2 only
3. Preparation of Electoral Rolls (c) 1 and 3 only
4. Delimitation of Constituencies (d) None of the above
below: Q209. Consider the following statements with
(a) 1 and 2 only respect to The Citizenship Act 1955:
(b) 1 and 3 only 1. A person needs to reside in India for 6
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only years before applying for citizenship
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 through naturalization.
2. Section 6A was added to accommodate
Q206. Consider the following statements with provisions of Assam Accord.
respect to The Scheduled Caste and Which of the statements given above is/are
Scheduled Tribe (Prevention of correct?
Atrocities) Act, 1989: (a) 1 only
1. It prevents commission of atrocities on (b) 2 only
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled (c) Both 1 and 2
Tribes. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. For speedy justice, Special Courts have
been constituted for trial of crimes Q210. Consider the following about The
against Scheduled Castes and Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act,
Scheduled Tribes. 2019:
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. It has led to higher fines on traffic
correct? violations
(a) 1 only 2. It provides for protection of Good
(b) 2 only Samaritans in case of accidents.
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. It empowers Central Government to
(d) Neither 1 and 2 develop National Transportation
Policy.
Q207. Which among the following can be Which of the statements given above is/are
considered as Public Authority under correct?
the RTI Act? (a) 1 and 2 only
1. Constitutional Body (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Statutory Body (c) 1 and 3 only
3. Body substantially funded by the (d) 1, 2 and 3
Government
Select the correct answer using the code given Q211. Consider the following statements:
below: 1. The Legislative Council of a State in
(a) 1 only India can be larger in size than half of
(b) 1 and 2 only the Legislative Assembly of that
(c) 2 and 3 only particular State.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The Governor of a State nominates the Q215. Which among the following
Chairman of Legislative Council of that ministries/government agencies has
particular State. unveiled the "Urban Green Mobility
Which of the statements given above is/ are Scheme 2017"?
correct? (a) Ministry of Road Transport and
(a) 1 only Highways
(b) 2 only (b) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) NITI Aayog
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Q212. Which of the following are core

principles of Indian criminal justice Q216. In the recent Puttaswamy Judgment,
systems? the Supreme Court recognised Right to
1. Presumption of innocence until proven Privacy to be a part of Fundamental
guilty Right under which of the following
2. Protection against double jeopardy. provisions of the constitution?
3. Burden of proof on accused. 1. Article 14
Select the correct answer using the code given 2. Article 15
below: 3. Article 19
(a) 1 and 3 only 4. Article 21
(b) 1 and 2 only Select the correct code given below:
(c) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
Q213. Consider the following statements (d) 4 only
related to Electoral Bonds:
1. The Electoral Bonds can be bought Q217. Which of the following special powers
only by the Companies and not have been conferred on the Rajya
Individuals. Sabha by the Constitution of India?
2. The Electoral Bonds can be bought to (2012)
donate money to any political Party in (a) To change the existing territory of a
India. State and to change the name of a
3. The Electoral Bonds remain in the State
custody of the Election Commission (b) To pass a resolution empowering the
until they are redeemed by the Parliament to make laws in the State
concerned political party. List and to create one or more All India
Which of the statements given above is/are Services
incorrect? (c) To amend the election procedure of the
(a) 1 only President and to determine the
(b) 1 and 2 only pension of the President after his/her
(c) 2 and 3 only retirement
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) To determine the functions of the
Election Commission and to determine
Q214. The Mulla Committee, which was the number of Election Commissioners
recently in news deals with which
among the following? Q218. Consider the following statements
(a) Development of Backward Classes regarding electoral bonds:
(b) Prison Reforms 1. The electoral bonds can be purchased
(c) Dealing with Naxalite Movement from the RBI after completing the KYC
(d) Electoral Reforms norms.
2. The electoral bonds can be transferred
to any political party.

correct?
(a) 1 only Q222. Consider the following statements:
(b) 2 only 1. Basic Structure Doctrine is a part of
(c) Both 1 and 2 Indian Constitution.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Any part of Indian Constitution cannot
be amended by simple Majority of the
Q219. Consider the following statements: parliament.
1. Article 77 (3) deals with the power of Which of the statements given above is/are
President to take advice of specialists correct?
on the matter of importance. (a) 1 only
2. Cabinet Secretariat is the (b) 2 only
administrative institution to regulate (c) Both 1 and 2
Transfer of Business Rules-1961and (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Allocation of Business Rules-1961
Which of the statements is/are correct? Q223. Consider the following statements
(a) 1 only related to the Finance Commission of
(b) 2 only India:
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. It is constituted by the President every
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 5 years or earlier.
2. The Chairman of the Finance
Q220. Consider the following statements: Commission is usually retired Judge of
1. All executive action of the Government the Supreme Court.
of India shall be expressed to be taken 3. The recommendations of the Finance
in the name of the Prime Minister. Commission are always binding on the
2. The Speaker of Lok Sabha shall make Government.
rules for the more convenient Which of the statements given above is/are
transaction of the business of the correct?
Government of India, and for the (a) 1 only
allocation among Ministers of the said (b) 1 and 2 only
business. (c) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements is/are correct? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only Q224. Consider the following statements
(c) Both 1 and 2 about “Annual Financial Statement” as
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 provided in the Constitution of India.
1. It shall be presented only in House of
Q221. Consider the following statements: People.
1. Protection provided under Article 22 2. It provides statements of estimated
against arrest and detention does not receipts and expenditure of
apply to enemy alien and those Government of India.
detained under preventive detention Which of the statements given above is/are
law. correct?
2. Persons detained under preventive (a) 1 only
detention law need not be presented (b) 2 only
before judicial magistrate within (c) Both 1 and 2
twenty four hours. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct? Q225. Which of the statements about the
(a) 1 only finance commission are correct?
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. It is a constitutional body and it’s 5. Chief Justice of India

recommendations are binding on the Select the correct answer using the code given
government. below:
2. The establishment of finance (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
commission weakens the fiscal (b) 1, 2 and 5 only
federalism in India. (c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
Select the correct answer using the code given (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
below:
(a) 1 only Q229. Consider the following statements
(b) 2 only about Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM):
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. JJM is to provide functional household
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 tap connection to every rural
household with service level at the rate
Q226. Consider the following statements: of 55 litres per capita per day.
1. Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) has 2. The fund sharing pattern between
provided Drinking Water Centre and State is 90:10 for
Specifications whereby it has Himalayan and North-Eastern States,
mentioned specifications about pH 100:0 for Union Territories and 50:50
value and limits for Total Dissolved for rest of the States.
Solids in water. Which of the following statements given above
2. Bureau of Indian Standards has been is/are correct?
constituted through an executive order (a) 1 only
of Union Government. (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Both 1 and 2
correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only Q230. Which of the following can be said to
(c) Both 1 and 2 be the proposed aim of Pesticides
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Management Bill, 2020?
1. Make safe and effective pesticides
Q227. Consider the following statements with available for farmers.
respect to Scheduled Tribes (ST): 2. Provide compensation by pesticide
1. Constitution specifies the parameters manufacturers for ill-effects of
to be considered while declaring a pesticides on crops.
community as ST. 3. Promote organic pesticides in India.
2. The President of India can amend the Select the correct answer using the code given
ST list only after consulting the below:
governors of the concerned states. (a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 1 and 3 only
correct? (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 Q231. Tripura Tribal Areas Autonomous
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 District Council (TTAADC) has passed
resolutions to codify the customary
Q228. Which of the following are included in laws of three tribal clans to address
the selection committee for the their long standing demands. These
chairperson and members of Lokpal? three tribal clans are:
1. Prime Minister 1. Mizo
2. Speaker 2. Kaipeng
3. Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha 3. Malsom
4. Leader of Opposition in Rajya Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code given 1. Right to Freedom
below: 2. Right against exploitation
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. Right to Freedom of Religion
(b) 2 and 3 only 4. Cultural and Educational Rights
(c) 1 and 3 only 5. Right to Constitutional Remedies
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Q232. Consider the following statements: (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
1. The Central Drugs Standard Control (b) 2, 4 and 5 only
Organisation (CDSCO) regulates (c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
safety, efficacy and quality of notified (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
medical devices.
2. The Central Drugs Standard Control Q236. Consider the following statements:
Organisation (CDSCO) under 1. Law and order is listed under the
Directorate General of Health Services Union list in the 7th Schedule of India
is the National Regulatory Authority Constitution.
(NRA) of India. 2. Central Armed Police forces function
Which of the statements given above is/are under the National Security Adviser.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
about wildlife protection in India: Q237. Which of the following can be said to
1. The matter is covered in List II of VIIth be the benefits of directly elected
Schedule. Mayors in India?
2. There is no mention of Wildlife in 1. It can improve political accountability
Directive Principles of State Policy. which will help in increasing efficiency
Which of the statements given above is/are in urban governance.
correct? 2. A direct mandate from urban residents
(a) 1 only adds to the legitimacy and
(b) 2 only accountability of the mayor’s office.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the following statements
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
Q234. Consider the following articles: (b) 2 only
1. 102 (c) Both 1 and 2
2. 191 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. 103
4. 192 Q238. Consider the following statements:
Which of them deals with disqualifications of 1. The supervision and control of
the people's representative? panchayat elections is done by State
(a) 1 and 2 only Election Commission.
(b) 3 and 4 only 2. No panchayat by polls have to be held
(c) 1 and 3 only if the duration left for the next term is
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 1 year.
Q235. Which of the following can be correct?
categorised as fundamental rights (a) 1 only
provided by the Indian Constitution? (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q239. Consider the following: Q243. Consider the following statements

1. Law Commission of India is an regarding the New Delhi International
executive body. Arbitration Act 2019:
2. The Chairman of the Law Commission 1. It aims to establish an independent
has to be a retired Judge of Supreme and autonomous Arbitration
court. institution.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. New Delhi International Arbitration
correct? Centre will take over the undertakings
(a) 1 only of the International centre for Alternate
(b) 2 only Dispute Resolution (ICADR)
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. It is based on the recommendations of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Justice B.N SriKrishna Committee.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Q240. Consider the following statements: (a) 1 and 2 only
1. NOTA provides for Right to reject (b) 1 and 3 only
candidates in election of Lok Sabha. (c) 2 only
2. If NOTA secures the highest vote, re - (d) 1, 2 and 3
elections take place in that
constituency in Lok Sabha Elections. Q244. Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. The selection committee for Both CVC
correct? and CIC is the same.
(a) 1 only 2. The criteria for removal of both CVC
(b) 2 only and CIC is the same.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only
Q241. Which of the following states have (b) 2 only
implemented Inner Line Permit? (c) Both 1 and 2
1. Manipur (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Mizoram
3. Arunanchal Pradesh Q245. Recently Supreme Court of India has
4. Assam revoked the ban on Cryptocurrencies
Choose the correct answer from the code given by the Reserve Bank of India as it failed
below: the test of proportionality under which
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only of the following articles of the Indian
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only constitution?
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (a) Article 21
(d) All of the above (b) Article 14
(c) Article 19
Q242. Which of the following statements (d) Article 32
is/are correct about the Fundamental
Duties of an Indian citizen? Q246. Which of the pairs given below is
1. A legislative process has been provided correctly matched?
to enforce these duties. 1. Democracy Index - Economist
2. They are correlative to legal duties. intelligence Unit
Select the correct answer using the code given 2. Press Freedom Index - Reporters
below: without Borders
(a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code given
(b) 2 only below:
(a) 1 only (a) Disinvestment of Air India

(b) 2 only (b) Classification of Schedule Tribe as a
(c) Both 1 and 2 special category
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Tax Reforms
(d) Higher education in India
regarding suspension of a Member of Q251. Consider the following statement
Parliament (MP): regarding No Confidence Motion:
1. Chairman of Rajya Sabha can suspend 1. It is not mentioned in the Constitution.
a MP on his own without a motion 2. A special majority is needed to pass
being passed by the House. this motion.
2. Speaker of Lok Sabha cannot suo moto Which of the statements given above is/are
revoke the suspension. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q252. The authorization for the withdrawal
from the consolidated fund of India
Q248. Which of the following statements must come from which of the
regarding 104th Constitutional following?
Amendment Act 2020 is correct? (a) The President of India
1. It extended the reservation for the (b) The Parliament of India
SC/ST for another 10 years. (c) The Prime Minster of India
2. It ended the representation of Anglo- (d) The Finance Minister of India
Indian Community in the Legislatures.
Select the correct option from the code given Q253. Which of the following ensures Judicial
below: Independence in India?
(a) 1 only 1. Unified Judiciary
(b) 2 only 2. Mode of Appointment
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. Removal of Judges
below
Q249. Which of the following can receive (a) 1 and 2
foreign contributions under The (b) 1 and 3
Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, (c) 2 and 3
2010? (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. A candidate for elections
2. Publisher of a registered newspaper Q254. Consider the following statements:
3. Member of any Legislature 1. University Grant Commission
4. Organisations which actively determines standards of education in
participates in politics Central and State Universities.
Select the correct answer using the code given 2. Education has been mentioned in the
below: Concurrent List under Seventh
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only Schedule.
(c) 1 and 2 only correct?
(d) None of the above (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Q250. Debhar Commission is related to which (c) Both 1 and 2
of the following? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q258. Which of the following Article(s)

Q255. Which of the following statements ensures Parliamentary system of
about National Human Right governance at the Union level?
Commission is/are correct? 1. Article 74
1. It is constituted under The Protection 2. Article 75
of Human Rights Act, 1993. 3. Article 76
2. It's recommendations are binding on Choose the correct answer from the code given
the government. below:
3. It has the power of Civil Court to (a) 1 and 2only
summon witness for examination on (b) 2 and 3 only
oath. (c) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given (d) All of the above
below:
(a) 1 and 3 only Q259. Consider the following statements
(b) 2 and 3 only about The Epidemic Diseases Act,
(c) 1 and 2 only 1897:
(d) None of the above 1. The legislation was introduced by
British to counter bubonic plague
Q256. Consider the following statements: which had spread in the erstwhile
1. Speaker of Lok Sabha must be a Bombay Presidency.
member of the House of People. 2. Only state has powers under the Act to
2. Decision of Speaker of Lok Sabha in provide for necessary measures in case
cases of anti-defection is final and of an epidemic disease outbreak.
cannot be judicially reviewed. Which of the statements given above is/are
3. Speaker of Lok Sabha while deciding correct?
cases of anti-defection functions as a (a) 1 only
Quasi-judicial authority. (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Both 1 and 2
correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only Q260. Consider the following statements
(c) 2 and 3 only about Prime Minister’s National Relief
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Fund (PMNRF):
1. PMNRF has not been constituted by
Q257. Which of the following is/are not part the Parliament.
of Justice Verma Committee 2. PMNRF accepts voluntary
recommendations? contributions from Individuals,
1. Criminalization of marital rape Organizations, Trusts, Companies and
2. Criminalization of stalking Institutions etc.
3. Continuance of death penalty in rape 3. All contributions towards PMNRF are
cases exempt from Income Tax under section
Select the correct answer from the code given 80(G).
below: 4. Funds donated to PMNRF will be
(a) 1 and 2 only considered as expenditure towards
(b) 3 only Corporate Social Responsibility.
(c) 2 only Select the correct option –
(d) None of the above (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
20
1 b 36 b 71 a 106 b 141 c 176 d 211 d 246 c

2 d 37 d 72 c 107 b 142 a 177 b 212 b 247 b
3 b 38 d 73 b 108 d 143 b 178 d 213 d 248 c
4 c 39 d 74 d 109 c 144 b 179 a 214 b 249 d
5 a 40 d 75 a 110 d 145 b 180 a 215 b 250 b
6 a 41 b 76 b 111 d 146 b 181 b 216 c 251 a
7 b 42 d 77 b 112 c 147 c 182 d 217 b 252 b
8 b 43 d 78 c 113 d 148 b 183 d 218 d 253 c
9 d 44 d 79 a 114 d 149 b 184 a 219 b 254 c
10 d 45 b 80 c 115 a 150 c 185 a 220 d 255 a
11 d 46 d 81 c 116 d 151 b 186 d 221 c 256 b
12 b 47 c 82 c 117 d 152 a 187 c 222 d 257 c
13 c 48 c 83 a 118 c 153 a 188 b 223 a 258 a
14 c 49 b 84 d 119 d 154 d 189 a 224 b 259 a
15 a 50 a 85 b 120 a 155 c 190 d 225 d 260 d
16 d 51 d 86 d 121 c 156 d 191 c 226 a
17 d 52 d 87 b 122 a 157 a 192 c 227 d
18 b 53 b 88 a 123 c 158 d 193 b 228 c
19 a 54 a 89 a 124 c 159 c 194 c 229 c
20 b 55 d 90 d 125 d 160 b 195 d 230 d
21 d 56 d 91 d 126 a 161 c 196 b 231 d
22 c 57 d 92 d 127 d 162 b 197 b 232 c
23 b 58 c 93 c 128 d 163 d 198 c 233 d
24 a 59 d 94 c 129 a 164 a 199 c 234 d
25 b 60 a 95 a 130 b 165 d 200 b 235 d
26 b 61 a 96 b 131 b 166 c 201 a 236 d
27 d 62 a 97 d 132 a 167 d 202 a 237 c
28 c 63 a 98 c 133 b 168 b 203 d 238 a
29 a 64 c 99 b 134 d 169 b 204 d 239 a
30 d 65 b 100 a 135 b 170 b 205 c 240 d
31 a 66 c 101 d 136 b 171 b 206 c 241 a
32 c 67 c 102 a 137 c 172 a 207 d 242 d
33 c 68 d 103 b 138 b 173 b 208 d 243 d
34 d 69 c 104 b 139 c 174 d 209 b 244 b
35 c 70 d 105 b 140 c 175 a 210 d 245 c
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Q1. Consider the following statements: 3. The chairperson of PCI by convention

Q8. Which of the following terms have been (a) 1 0nly

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above is/are

(d) None of the above 4. Environment

Q29. A constitutional amendment related to 1. It provides reservation to members of

Q30. With reference to All India Judicial

(a) 15th Constitutional Amendment Act,

(a) 1 only Q57. Which of the following statements is

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. III Oath of Office

1. It provides for free and compulsory

1. NTA is an autonomous and self- (b) 2 and 3 only

1. It enjoys statutory status under the

Q97. Consider the following statements 2. It lends directly for projects

(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are

Constitution, consider the following (b) Kesavananda Bharti vs Union of India

2. Supreme court does not have original

1. National Register of Citizens is (b) 1 and 2 only

(b) To organize Village panchayats Responsibility (CSR) norms under the

1. Only the Scheduled Tribes are eligible

inadequate women representation of

1. Minimum number of Judges in the

(a) 1 only 2. Its decision is binding on the member

Which of the statements given above is/are

Q212. Which of the following are core

Which of the statements given above is/are (d) Neither 1 nor 2

1. It is a constitutional body and it’s 5. Chief Justice of India

(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2

Q239. Consider the following: Q243. Consider the following statements

(a) 1 only (a) Disinvestment of Air India

Q258. Which of the following Article(s)

1 b 36 b 71 a 106 b 141 c 176 d 211 d 246 c

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