DEPARTMENT OF THE FIRST TERM TEST The supervisor's Number code

EDUCATION AND TRAINING ENGLISH 9 signature

OF BINH TAN DISTRICT Duration: 60 minutes
School: ____________________ Date: .................
Name: _____________________ Paper No.
Class: 9 _______

The examiner’s remark Scores The examiner’s signature Number code

Paper No.

I.Listen to the recording and decide the statements True or False (1,0 pt)
1. The bus picked Liz, Ba and his family up at Ba’s house. _________
2. The bus stopped at the gas station to get some more water. _________
3. It turned lelf to a smaller road westward. _________
4. People counldn’t see anything from the bus. _________
II. Choose the word or phrase (A, B,C, D) that best fits the blank in each sentence. (2 pts)
5. Quiet, please. The headmaster would like to _________________ a few words.
A.talk B. say C. tell D. mention
6. Our cultures are not __________those in some Asian countries.
A. the same as B. same as C. as same as D. familiar as
7. My mom has to learn English ________________her work.
A.in B. to C.at D.for
8. There may be as ___________as six guests to the dinner.
A.much B.many C.many more D.very much
9. The teacher asked me _________ I could use a computer.
A. where B. if C. why D. that
10. “I’m taking my final exam next week.” _ “___________________!”
A. Cheers B. Come on C. Good Luck D. Congratulations
11. I'd rather _____ at home than _____ to see that film.
A. stay/ to go B. staying/ going C. to stay/ to go D. stay/ go
12. Rosy saw the advertisement of studying Vietnamese on the website, ______________?
A. is she B. does she C. didn’t she D. did she
III.Look at the signs. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) for each sign: (0.5pt)
13. What does the sign mean?
A. No planes B. Danger
C. Railway D. Quayside
14. What does the sign mean?
A. Bends B. Road narrow
C. Bump D. Your priority
IV. Use the correct form of the word given in each sentence. (1,0 pt)
15. I think chatting on the internet is time - _______________. (consume)
16. Reading is her good _______________. (habitual)
17. Mike is happy because his application for a ________________ has been accepted (scholar)
18. My speaking skill is _____________. (terribly)
V. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank, in the following passage. (1,5 pts)
Last month, I got a(n) (19)________ to take part in an English speaking contest in America. It was my first
international trip, which was exciting, but I was a little bit nervous. I joined a team (20)_____ two students
from Japan and France. There were so (21)________ interesting activities in our club. We learned and
practiced vocabulary through games and activities. We could also practice listening and speaking skills by
 Please don’t write in this frame
because it will be cut out.

doing presentations or small chats. We listened to each other and (22)______ the mistakes. It was really
exciting. In the evening, my team and I went to a market to meet local people (23)______ practice speaking
English. On the day of the contest, our group talked about (24)_________to learn English from movies and
we won the first prize. I will never forget that contest. The trip was like a holiday, but I also learned new
things about learning English.
19. A. chance B. exchange C. change D. occasion
20. A. to B. with C. about D. for
21. A. much B. lot of C. little D. many
22. A. corrected B. got C. did D. broke
23. A. as much as B. as well C. as well as D. as long as
24. A. what B. who C. when D. how

Reading comprehension: Read the passage then finish the tasks below. (1,5 pts)
The English language is considered as a universal language, mainly because it is the most spoken language
worldwide. One of the reasons why it’s the universal language is because it’s the ‘business language’. For
example if a company is dealing with a foreign company with a different mother tongue, they will use
English, the universal language to communicate to each other.
English is one of the most studied language all across the world. Most of the countries teach it as a second
language from primary school.
It is such an important language worldwide, that 80% of the information that we find on the internet is in
English. Take this into consideration because the internet is one the most used and effective sources of
communication across the world.
 Read the passage, then decide if these sentences (21-24) are True or False.
25. English is a global language because many people speak it. ________
26. A company deals with a foreign company by means of English. ________
27. English is a compulsory second language in all countries. ________
28. We don’t need to study English to use the internet. ________
 Read the passage, then choose and circle the best option to complete the sentences below.
29. _________ of the information and material sold or given to us are in English.
A. Lot B. Main C. Majority D. Minority
30. It is______ to communicate to each other.
A. compulsorily B. unnecessary C. needed D. necessary
VI. Rearrange the words or phrases to make complete sentences. (0,5 pt)
31.to send / Would / you like / about your school? / some information
____________________________________________________________________
32.as much as possible. / advised me / She / to read / English books
____________________________________________________________________
VII. Rewrite the following sentences with words given. (2,0 pts)
33. People know that English is an international language
→ English is _____________________________________________
34. “Don’t touch anything in this room”, the man said to the children.
→ The man ordered ___________________________________________
35. Label things around your house and it’ll help you remember new words
→ If you _______________________________________________________
36. It takes him ten years to study abroad.
 He spends_______________________________________________________
KEYS
I.Listen to the recording and decide the statements True or False (1,0 pt) - UNIT 3
1. The bus picked Liz, Ba and his family up at Ba’s house. ___TRUE______
2. The bus stopped at the gas station to get some more water. ___FALSE______
3. It turned left to a smaller road westward. ___TRUE______
4. People counldn’t see anything from the bus. ___FALSE______
II. Choose the word or phrase (A, B,C, D) that best fits the blank in each sentence. (2.5 pts)
5. Quiet, please. The headmaster would like to _________________ a few words.
A.talk B. say C. tell D. mention
6. Our cultures are not __________those in some Asian countries.
A. the same as B. same as C. as same as D. familiar as
7. My mom has to learn English ________________her work.
A.in B. to C.at D.for
8. There may be as ___________as six guests to the dinner.
A.much B.many C.many more D.very much
9. The teacher asked me _________ I could use a computer.
A. where B. if C. why D. that
10. “I’m taking my final exam next week.” _ “___________________!”
A. Cheers B. Come on C. Good Luck D. Congratulations
11. I'd rather _____ at home than _____ to see that film.
A. stay/ to go B. staying/ going C. to stay/ to go D. stay/ go
12. Rosy saw the advertisement of studying Vietnamese on the website, ______________?
A. is she B. does she C. didn’t she D. did she
III.Look at the signs. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) for each sign: (0.5pt)
13. What does the sign mean?
A. No planes B. Danger
C. Railway D. Quayside

14. What does the sign mean?

A. Bends
B. Road narrow
C. Bump
D. Your priority
III. Use the correct form of the word given in each sentence. (1,0 pt)
15. I think chatting on the internet is time - _CONSUMING______________. (consume)
16. Reading is her good _HABIT______________. (habitual)
17. Mike is happy because his application for a _SCHOLARSHIP___ has been accepted (scholar)
18. My speaking skill is _TERRIBLE____________. (terribly)
VI. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank, in the following passage. (1,5 pts)
Last month, I got a(n) (19)________ to take part in an English speaking contest in America. It was my first
international trip, which was exciting, but I was a little bit nervous. I joined a team (20)_____ two students
from Japan and France. There were so (21)________ interesting activities in our club. We learned and
practiced vocabulary through games and activities. We could also practice listening and speaking skills by
doing presentations or small chats. We listened to each other and (22)______ the mistakes. It was really
exciting. In the evening, my team and I went to a market to meet local people (23)______ practice speaking
English. On the day of the contest, our group talked about (24)_________to learn English from movies and
we won the first prize. I will never forget that contest. The trip was like a holiday, but I also learned new
things about learning English.
19. 27. A. chance B. exchange C. change D. occasion
20. 28. A. to B. with C. about D. for
21. 29. A. much B. lot of C. little D. many
22. 30. A. corrected B. got C. did D. broke
23. 31. A. as much as B. as well C. as well as D. as long as
24. 32. A. what B. who C. when D. how
Reading comprehension: Read the passage then finish the tasks below. (1,5 pts)
The English language is considered as a universal language, mainly because it is the most spoken language
worldwide.
One of the reasons why it’s the universal language is because it’s the ‘business language’. For example if a
company is dealing with a foreign company with a different mother tongue, they will use English, the
universal language to communicate to each other.
English is one of the most studied language all across the world. Most of the countries teach it as a second
language from primary school.
It is such an important language worldwide, that 80% of the information that we find on the internet is in
English. Take this into consideration because the internet is one the most used and effective sources of
communication across the world.
 Read the passage, then decide if these sentences (21-24) are True or False.
25. English is a global language because many people speak it. _TRUE_______
26. A company deals with a foreign company by means of English. _TRUE_______
27. English is a compulsory second language in all countries. _FALSE______
28. We don’t need to study English to use the internet. _FALSE_______
 Read the passage, then choose and circle the best option to complete the sentences below.
29. _________ of the information and material sold or given to us are in English.
A. Lot B. Main C. Majority D. Minority
30. It is______ to communicate to each other.
A. compulsorily B. unnecessary C. needed D. necessary

IV. Rearrange the words or phrases to make complete sentences. (0,5 pt)
31.to send / Would / you like / about your school? / some information
WOULD YOU LIKE TO SEND SOME INFORMATION ABOUT YOUR SCHOOL?
32.as much as possible. / advised me / She / to read / English books
SHE ADVISED ME TO READ ENGLISH BOOKS AS MUCH AS POSSIBLE.

VII. Rewrite the following sentences with words given. (2,0 pts)
33. People know that English is an international language
→ English is KNOWN TO BE AN INTERNATIONAL LANGUAGE.
34. “Don’t touch anything in this room”, the man said to the children.
→ The man ordered THE CHILDREN NOT TO TOUCH ANYTHING IN THAT ROOM.
35. Label things around your house and it’ll help you remember new words
→ If you LABEL THINGS AROUND YOUR HOUSE, YOU WILL REMEMBER NEW WORDS.
36. It takes him ten years to study abroad.
 He spends TEN YEARS STUDYING ABROAD.
 FIRST - TERM TEST PLAN

1. Test objectives: Students are able to master what they have learned from unit 1 to unit 5 including
vocabularies, grammar points, structures.
2. Language area/skills:
A. speaking
o Make and respond introduction. (unit 1)
o Ask and respond to questions on personal preferences. (unit 2)
o Ask for and give information. (unit 3)
o Seek information (unit 4)
o Express opinions (unit 4)
o Ask for and give opinions. (unit 5)
o Agree and disagree. (unit 5)
B. Structures /grammar:
- Simple past tense with Wish (unit 1+3)
- Present perfect and simple past (unit 1+2)
- Passive (unit 2)
- Prepositions of time (unit 3)
- Adverb clauses of result –so (unit 3)
- Modal verbs with if (unit 4)
- Direct and reported speech and reported questions (unit 4)
- Tag questions (unit 5)
- Gerunds after some verbs (unit 5)
o Reading skill: Scan for specific information.
o Writing skill: Rearrange (unit 4) and rewrite the sentences without changing their meanings.
3. Timing: 60 minutes
4. Number of test items: 36
5. Scoring scheme: 10

Questions Tested aspects/areas Score Weight

I/ 1-4 Listening (4x0.25) 1.0 10%

II/ 5-12 Language/speaking (8x0.25) 2.0 20%

III/ 13-14 Sign (2x0.25) 0.5 5%

IV/ 15-18 Word form (4x0.25) 1.0 10%

V/ 19-24 Cloze reading (6x0.25) 1.5 15%

VI/ 25-30 True or False (6x0.25) 1.5 15%

VII/ 31-32 Arrange the given words (2x0.25) 0.5 5%

VIII/ 33-36 Transformation/rewriting (4x0.5) 2.0 20%

 6. Matrix
Knowledge comprehension Application Analysis,
Ord. objectives Synthesis Weight
Writing MC Writing MC Writing MC Writing MC

I Listening 3 1 1.0

= 10%

2,0
II Multiple choice 3 3 1 1
(4 options) = 20%

0,5
III Sign 2
= 5%

IV Word form 3 1 1,0

= 10%
Read the
V 1,5
passage 1 1 2 2 1
= 15%
(4 options)
Read the
1,5
VI passage 2 1 1 1 1
= 15%

0,5
VII Rearrange 2
= 5%

Transformation 2,0
VIII 3 1
/ rewriting = 20%

10,0
Total 1 6 9 5 5 3 2
5 = 100%
7. Table of test specifications (matrix):

Q Content Areas Objectives Task

1 Listening (L&R) Listening Unit 3 Comprehension T/F

2 Listening (L&R) Listening Unit 3 Comprehension T/F

3 Listening (L&R) Listening Unit 3 Application T/F

4 Listening (L&R) Listening Unit 3 Application T/F

5 Vocabulary Unit 4 Application MC

6 Vocabulary Unit 3 Application MC

7 Preposition Unit 4 Knowledge MC

8 Structure Unit 3 Comprehension MC

9 Structure Unit 4 Comprehension MC

10 Conversation Unit 4 Knowledge MC

11 Verb form Unit 1 Comprehension MC

12 Verb form Unit 5 Comprehension MC

13 signal traffic Knowledge MC

14 signal traffic Knowledge MC

15 Word form Unit 5 Analysis WF

16 Word form Unit 2 Analysis WF

17 Word form Unit 3 Analysis WF

18 Word form Unit 4 Analysis WF

19 Reading : Fill in the blank Unit 5: Reading 1 (4 options) Comprehension MC

20 Reading : Fill in the blank Unit 5: Reading 1 (4 options) Knowledge MC

21 Reading : Fill in the blank Unit 5: Reading 1 (4 options) Comprehension MC

22 Reading : Fill in the blank Unit 5: Reading 1 (4 options) Analysis MC

23 Reading : Fill in the blank Unit 5: Reading 1 (4 options) Comprehension MC

24 Reading : Fill in the blank Unit 5: Reading 1 (4 options) Analysis MC

25 Reading: True / False task Unit 3: Reading 2 Application T/F

26 Reading: True / False task Unit 3: Reading 2 Comprehension T/F

27 Reading: True / False task Unit 3: Reading 2 Application T/F

28 Reading: True / False task Unit 3: Reading 2 Comprehension T/F

29 Reading: True / False task Unit 3: Reading 2(4 options) Application MC

 30 Reading: True / False task Unit 3: Reading 2 (4 Analysis MC
options)
( main idea)
31 Rearrangement Unit 4: write Comprehension RW

32 Rearrangement Unit 5: Listen & read Comprehension RW

33 Passive voice Unit 2 ( Transformation ) Analysis RW

34 Reported speech Unit 4 (Transformation) Application RW

35 If clause ( type 1) Unit 4 ( Transformation ) Analysis RW

36 Structure: It take sb + time Unit 3 ( Transformation ) Application RW

to do sth

I. Listen and write True/ False (1.0 pt):

II. Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence: (2.0 pts)

III. Look at the signs. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) for each sign: (0.5pt)

IV. Supply the correct word forms: (1.0 pt)

V. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in the following passage: (1.5 pts)
Read the following passage. Decide if the statements are True or False: (1.5 pts)

VI. Rearrange these words into the right order: (0.5pt)

VII. Rewrite the following sentences, beginning with words given (2.0 pts)