Kingdom of Heaven vs God Explained

11/25/21, 5:35 AM matthew - What is the difference in the Kingdom of Heaven and the Kingdom of God?
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Biblical Hermeneutics
What is the difference in the Kingdom of Heaven and the Kingdom

of God?
Asked
8 years, 9 months ago Active
9 months ago Viewed
56k times
Some assert the Kingdom of Heaven and the Kingdom of God refer to the same thing while
others say they are different. Which is accurate?
27
For example: Luke 17:21 uses Kingdom of God while Matthew 11:11 uses Kingdom of Heaven.
Inspired by this question: Is synoptic parallelism a valid hermeneutic?
6
matthew luke mark synoptics gospels
Share Improve this question edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:47 asked Feb 20 '13 at 17:29
Follow Community Bot Frank Luke

1 21.5k 15 77 132
The "Kingdom of Heaven" is the inauguration of the New Covenant on earth without the activation of
the visible theocracy of God on earth. The "Kingdom of God" is the visible theocracy of God on earth,
whether in the past (under the Old Covenant) or yet in the future (under the New Covenant).
– Joseph
Feb 27 '13 at 4:48
Jonathan Pennington has a monograph on the topic. He argues against the widely accepted idea that it
is merely a circumlocution. Here is a condensed summary he wrote as well.
– Soldarnal
Jun 13 '15 at
20:36
Thi id " " h h di i d h

https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/4251/what-is-the-difference-in-the-kingdom-of-heaven-and-the-kingdom-of-god
h " 1/23
11/25/21, 5:35 AM matthew - What is the difference in the Kingdom of Heaven and the Kingdom of God? - Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange
This commentary provides a cogent "argument" that the two terms are distinct and that the term "son
of man" is used in particular contexts as well: amazon.com/Matthew-Anchor-Bible-Commentaries-
Volume/dp/…
– user10231
Oct 4 '15 at 19:37
8 Answers Active Oldest Votes
The phrases “the kingdom of God” (ἡ βασιλεία τοῦ θεοῦ) and “the kingdom of Heaven” (ἡ
βασιλεία τῶν οὐρανῶν) occur eighty-six (86) times in the Textus Receptus (1550) Greek
32 manuscript of the gospels.
+50
The phrase “kingdom of Heaven” occurs thirty-two (32) times and only in the Gospel of
Matthew. The phrase “kingdom of God” occurs thirty-two (32) times in the Gospel of Luke, the
most of any book in the Bible.
An examination of Synoptic parallels will demonstrate that the two phrases refer to the same
idea.
“the kingdom of Heaven is at hand” (Matt. 4:17) || “the kingdom of God is at hand” (Mark
1:15)
“Blessed are the poor in spirit, for theirs is the kingdom of Heaven” (Matt. 5:3) || “Blessed
are the poor, for yours is the kingdom of God” (Luke 6:20)
“Among those born of women there has not risen a greater than John the Baptist,
t ith t di h h i l t i th ki d fH i t th hi
https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/4251/what-is-the-difference-in-the-kingdom-of-heaven-and-the-kingdom-of-god
” (M tt 2/23
notwithstanding he who is least in the kingdom of Heaven is greater than him.” (Matt.
11:11) || “Among those born of women there is not a greater prophet than John the
Baptist, but he who is least in the kingdom of God is greater than him.” (Luke 7:28)
“the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven” (Matt. 13:11) || “the mysteries of the kingdom of
God” (Mark 4:11 cp. Luke 8:10)
“the kingdom of Heaven is like a grain of mustard seed” (Matt 13:31) || “the kingdom of
God...is like a grain of mustard seed” (Mark 4:30-31 cp. Luke 13:18-19)
“The kingdom of Heaven is like leaven” (Matt. 13:33) || “the kingdom of God...is like
leaven” (Luke 13:20)
“Except you be converted, and become as little children, you shall not enter into the
kingdom of Heaven” (Matt. 18:3-4) || “Whosoever shall not receive the kingdom of God as
a little child, he shall not enter therein” (Mark 10:15)
“Allow little children, and do not forbid them to come to me, for of such is the kingdom
of Heaven.” (Matt. 19:14) || “Allow the little children to come to me, and do not forbid
them, for of such is the kingdom of God.” (Mark 10:14 cp. Luke 18:16)
“a rich man shall hardly enter into the kingdom of Heaven” (Matt. 19:23) || “How hardly
shall they who have riches enter into the kingdom of God!” (Luke 18:24)
In other words, “kingdom of God” = “kingdom of Heaven.” If this is so, then “God” = “Heaven,”
which leads us into my next point.
“Heaven” as a Circumlocution or Substitute for “God”

The reason why Matthew uses the phrase “kingdom of Heaven” more often than “kingdom of
God” (which he uses only five (5) times in his gospel, although there are textual variants) is
because he wrote to a Jewish audience, and the Jews did not pronounce the Tetragrammaton
‫( ַיְה ֶוה‬Yahveh), and sometimes not even the word ‫( ֱא ֹלִה ים‬elohim). For example, today, Jews do
not say ‫( ֱא ֹלִה ים‬elohim), but rather, ‫( ֱא ֹלִק ים‬elokim), and certainly never the Tetragrammaton.
Rather than pronouncing those, they used “substitutes.” Some of these substitutes include:
‫( ָמ קֹום‬makom), i.e. “Place”
Jastrow, p. 830, on Hebrew ‫ָמ קֹום‬:
https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/4251/what-is-the-difference-in-the-kingdom-of-heaven-and-the-kingdom-of-god 3/23
‫( ְּג בּוָר ה‬gevurah), i.e. “Power”
Jastrow, p. 205, on Hebrew ‫ְּג בּוָר ה‬:
‫( ָׁש ַמ ִים‬shamayim), i.e. “Heaven”
Jastrow, p. 1595, on Hebrew ‫ָׁש ַמ ִים‬:
Jastrow, p. 1595, on Aramaic ‫ְׁש ַמ ָּיא‬:
The Hebrew word ‫( ָׁש ַמ ִים‬shamayim), which is translated into English as “heaven,” is used on
certain occasions as a ‫( ִּכ ּנּוי‬kinnui), or a “substitute,” "nickname.”
For example, when the prophet Daniel wrote 1,‫ ַׁש ִּל ִט ן ְׁש ַמ ָּיא‬it doesn’t mean that “the heavens
rule,” but that “Heaven rules,” for the Aramaic ‫ְׁש ַמ ָּיא‬, like the Hebrew ‫ָׁש ַמ ִים‬, was used by
Daniel as a substitute for the Tetragrammaton. Thus, there is evidence that this practice began
in the Babylonian captivity, long before the 1st century A.D.
On the Greek word οὐρανός, the equivalent of the Hebrew word ‫ָׁש ַמ ִים‬, Joseph Henry Thayer
wrote,2
In his commentary on Matt. 3:2, John Lightfoot wrote,3
Textual Variants
In the King James Version, 1769 edition, the phrase "kingdom of God” occurs five (5) times in
the Gospel of Matthew:
Matt. 6:33
Matt. 12:28
Matt. 19:24
Matt. 21:31
Matt. 21:43
On Matt. 6:33, Constantin Tischendorf noted,4
There are many witnesses that lack τοῦ θεοῦ and instead have τῶν οὐρανῶν, including Justin
Martyr (2nd c. A.D.) in his Apology on behalf of Christians to Antoninus Pius (a.k.a. First
Apology):5
But seek the kingdom of Heaven, and all these things shall be added to you.
ζητεῖτε δὲ τὴν βασιλείαν τῶν οὐρανῶν, καὶ ταῦτα πάντα προστεθήσεται ὑμῖν.
On Matt. 19:24, Constantin Tischendorf noted,6
Again, he notes many witnesses which have τῶν οὐρανῶν (or its Latin equivalent) rather than
τοῦ θεοῦ, including the Vulgate, Clement of Rome, Origen, Eusebius, Jerome, and Augustine.
There are no relevant textual variants on Matt 12:28, 21:31, or 21:43, but that does not mean
the original manuscript did not have τῶν οὐρανῶν rather than τοῦ θεοῦ. It only means that
we’ve not found any manuscripts that contain it, and we may never will. It’s evident that the
“kingdom of Heaven” phrases in Matthew’s gospel match the “kingdom of God” phrases in the
other Synoptics. Personally, I don’t think any of the occurrences of vkingdom of God” in
Matthew’s gospel are legitimate; I believe they eventually crept into the text through
emendations from scribes who were not familiar with the circumlocution. More importantly,
the two phrases are identical, and it’s a fact that the Jewish people spoke or wrote the word
“Heaven” (it’s Hebrew or Greek equivalent) as a circumlocution for the Tetragrammaton or
other words specifically referring to God (i.e., like the word "God” itself).
References
Jastrow, Marcus. A Dictionary of the Targumim, the Talmud Babli and Yerushalmi, and the
Midrashic Literature. London: Luzac; New York: Putnam, 1903.
Justin Martyr. “Apology on Behalf of Christians to Antoninus Pius” (Ἀπολογία ὑπὲρ

Χριστιανῶν πρὸς Ἀντωνῖνον τὸν Eὐσεβῆ). Patrologiæ Cursus Completus: Series Græca. Ed.
Migne, Jacques Paul. Vol. 6. Petit-Montrouge: Imprimerie Catholique, 1857.
Lightfoot, John. Horae Hebraicae et Talmudicae (Hebrew and Talmudical Exercitations). Vol. 2.
Trans. Gandell, Robert. Oxford: UP of Oxford, 1859.
Wilke, Christian Gottlob. A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament: Being Grimm Wilke’s
Clavis Novi Testamenti. Trans. Thayer, Joseph Henry. Ed. Grimm, Carl Ludwig Wilibald. Rev. ed.
New York: American Book, 1889.
Tischendorf, Constantin. Novum Testamentum Graece. Vol. 1. Lipsiae: Giesecke, 1869.
Footnotes
1
Dan. 4:26
2
p. 465
3
p. 48-49
4
Vol. 1, p. 24
5
Ch. XV, p. 352
6
Vol. 1, p. 119
Share Improve this answer Follow edited Jun 17 '20 at 9:51 answered Feb 20 '13 at 18:06
Community Bot user862
1
1 Just curious, would your argument be strengthened or weakened by the idea that Matthew, or at least
an early version of it, was first written in Hebrew or Aramaic? My limited understanding suggests to me
this would support that idea and that Luke writing first in Greek would have been more likely to use
this would support that idea and that Luke, writing first in Greek would have been more likely to use
Theos. Is that fair?
– Joshua
Jun 18 '16 at 15:38
2 @SimplyaChristian In addition to the 5 uses of God in Kingdom there are 52 other uses of God in
Matthew. If Matthew used Kingdom of Heaven to avoid using God then why does he use God in other
places? For example, why is the throne of God (5:34 & 23:22) acceptable? Or the things of God (22:21)?
Or the power of God (22:29)? Or children of God (5:9)? What is the rationale for Matthew's
inconsistency? Kingdom of heaven and kingdom of God may be synonymous but given the number of
times God is used in other contexts, it seems unlikely kingdom of heaven is used to avoid offending
their sensibilities.
– Revelation Lad
Nov 29 '16 at 7:44
@RevelationLad—Good point.
– user862
Nov 29 '16 at 8:09
Great outline! - but ... “parallels will demonstrate that the two phrases refer to the same idea.”. Yes, right,
BUT just because the ‘idea’ is the same, does not mean that they are the same. This is an assumption -
not a fact. And, from this you then extrapolate ... ‘In other words, “kingdom of God” = “kingdom of
Heaven.” If this is so, then “God” = “Heaven,”*’. You fail to consider the numerous uses of the term
‘Kingdom of God’ in John, Acts, and Paul’s letters. These would [arguably] highlight a difference,
namely, same idea, but different. Just start by referencing John 3:3-5!
– Dave
Jan 29 at 17:42
Some say the "Kingdom of Heaven" refers to the a physical/political kingdom on earth while
the "Kingdom of God" is the spiritual, coming reign of Christ.
13 Arguments against the two being the same often come down to hair splitting and
misinterpretation of verses. For example, the site listed above relies on a single verse in an
attempt to say they are different. In Luke 17:21, Jesus says "the kingdom of God is within you"
(KJV). They then argue that since Matthew 11:12 says the Kingdom of Heaven suffers violence
and is taken by force that the two cannot be the same (who can take the kingdom from within
you?). The site only addresses where the terms are used interchangeably to blow them off by
saying "they will be the same in the future."
However, it can be seen that Kingdom of Heaven and the Kingdom of God refer to the same
thing. "Kingdom of Heaven" is found 31 times, only in the Gospel of Matthew. "Kingdom of
God" is found 62 times in ten books of the New Testament (Matthew, Mark, Luke, John, Acts,
Romans, 1 Corinthians, Galatians, Colossians, and 2 Thessalonians).
When the parallel accounts in the synoptic gospels are compared, whenever Matthew uses
Kingdom of Heaven, the other will use Kingdom of God. Given the Jewish nature of Matthew's
Gospel (Matthew never explains Jewish customs and traces the genealogy of Christ to
Abraham where Luke, written for a gentile audience, continues back to Adam) and the Jewish
habit of circumlocution in references to God*, "Kingdom of Heaven" would be preferable for
the author and his intended audience.
*See especially the note about ultra-orthodox Jews never pronouncing the names.
Compare the following verses (all taken from the NET Bible):
Matthew 11:11 “I tell you the truth, among those born of women, no one has arisen
greater than John the Baptist. Yet the one who is least in the kingdom of heaven is
greater than he is. 11:12 From the days of John the Baptist until now the kingdom of
heaven has suffered violence, and forceful people lay hold of it.
Luke 7:28 I tell you, among those born of women no one is greater than John. Yet the
one who is least in the kingdom of God is greater than he is.”
Matthew 13:11 He replied, “You have been given the opportunity to know the secrets
of the kingdom of heaven, but they have not.
Mark 4:11 He said to them, “The secret of the kingdom of God has been given to
you. But to those outside, everything is in parables,
Luke 8:10 He said, “You have been given the opportunity to know the secrets of the
kingdom of God, but for others they are in parables, so that although they see they
may not see, and although they hear they may not understand.
Matthew 13:24 He presented them with another parable: “The kingdom of heaven is
like a person who sowed good seed in his field.
Mark 4:26; He also said, “The kingdom of God is like someone who spreads seed on
the ground.
Matthew 13:31 He gave them another parable: “The kingdom of heaven is like a
mustard seed that a man took and sowed in his field.
Mark 4:30, 31 He also asked, “To what can we compare the kingdom of God, or what
parable can we use to present it? It is like a mustard seed that when sown in the
ground,
Luke 13:18, 19; Thus Jesus asked, “What is the kingdom of God like? To what should I
compare it? It is like a mustard seed that a man took and sowed in his garden.
Matthew 13:33 He told them another parable: “The kingdom of heaven is like yeast
that a woman took and mixed with three measures of flour until all the dough had
risen.”
Luke 13:20, 21; Again he said, “To what should I compare the kingdom of God? It is
like yeast that a woman took and mixed with three measures of flour until all the
dough had risen.”
Matthew 18:3 and said, “I tell you the truth, 1 unless you turn around and become
like little children, you will never enter the kingdom of heaven!
Mark 10:15 I tell you the truth, whoever does not receive the kingdom of God like a
child will never enter it.”
Luke 18:17; I tell you the truth, whoever does not receive the kingdom of God like a
child will never enter it.”
In each instance, Matthew used the phrase “kingdom of heaven” while Mark and/or Luke used
“kingdom of God.” The obvious conclusion is that the two phrases refer to the same thing.
Within Matthew, the terms are used interchangeably on occasion. After the rich young ruler
has left, Jesus says to the disciples, 19:23 Then Jesus said to his disciples, “I tell you the truth, it
will be hard for a rich person to enter the kingdom of heaven! 19:24 Again I say, it is easier
for a camel to go through the eye of a needle than for a rich person to enter into the
kingdom of God.” Clearly, even Matthew considers the terms parallel.
Share Improve this answer Follow edited Jun 17 '20 at 9:51 answered Feb 20 '13 at 17:29
Community Bot Frank Luke
1 21.5k 15 77 132
@H3br3wHamm3r81, I removed the reference to "within/among." Interesting article. Just in reference

to your final statement, I used to be astonished by how indisputable things were disputed by people
disputed but am no longer surprised.
– Frank Luke
Feb 20 '13 at 19:02
@SimplyaChristian The link for the article you posted is no longer active do you have another link?
– mrhobbeys
Nov 29 '16 at 4:27
@mrhobbeys - http://citeseerx.ist.psu.edu/viewdoc/download?
doi=10.1.1.553.4678&rep=rep1&type=pdf.
– user862
Nov 29 '16 at 4:33
Kingdom of heaven is found only in Matthew and it is normally said that Matthew used that
phrase because he was writing to a Jewish audience. Two reasons are given why the nature of
3 the audience is significant.
One is linguistic as George Eldon Ladd says:
The difference between the two phrases is to be explained on linguistic grounds. The
Kingdom of Heaven is the Semitic form and the Kingdom of God is the Greek form of
the same phrase. Our Lord taught in Aramaic, a language very similar to Hebrew,
whereas our New Testament is written in Greek. Jesus, teaching Jews, probably spoke
of “the Kingdom of the Heavens”1 which would be the natural Jewish form of
expression. We have extensive evidence from Jewish rabbinic literature that this
phrase was in common use. To the Greek ear, these words would be meaningless; and
when the phrase was translated in our Greek Gospels for Greek readers, it was
uniformly rendered “the Kingdom of God.” In the Gospel of Matthew, which was
probably written to Jewish believers, the original phrase "the Kingdom of the
Heavens" was usually retained. The terminology in Matthew 19:23-24 makes it quite
clear that the two phrases are interchangeable and that no difference of meaning is
clear that the two phrases are interchangeable and that no difference of meaning is
to be sought between them. 2
Matthew 19:23-24 cited by Ladd states:
And Jesus said to his disciples, “Truly, I say to you, only with difficulty will a rich person
enter the kingdom of heaven. Again I tell you, it is easier for a camel to go through the
eye of a needle than for a rich person to enter the kingdom of God.” 3
While this passage indicates the two kingdoms are interchangeable, it is obvious either
Matthew or Jesus chose to make a distinction and recorded them differently. In fact, the
passage is purposeful to make the point there is something of significance which is different
between the two.
A second reason offered is that Matthew substituted Heaven for God to avoid offending the
Jewish people who do not use “God” or His Name. A thorough analysis of this reason is found
in this answer: [“Heaven” as a Circumlocution or Substitute for “God”] This approach fails to
explain why Matthew still uses “God” (frequently) and in some cases where “Heaven” should
be used:
But I say to you, Do not take an oath at all, either by heaven, for it is the throne of God,
(5:34 also found in 23:22)
Not only is God used (offending the audience), the instruction is not to take an oath by
heaven (singular) not heavens (plural) which seemingly misplaces the throne of God in heaven
not in His Kingdom (of the Heavens).
This suggests there is at least some measure of difference between the two kingdoms.
Differences do not preclude similarities. As Ladd notes:
The Kingdom of God is basically the rule of God…The Kingdom of God is, then the
realization of God’s will and the enjoyment of the accompanying blessing, However, it
is a clear teaching of the New Testament that God’s will is not to be perfectly realized
in this age. 4
Hence the prayer, “…thy will be done on earth as it is in heaven…” The will of the Father is not
always done on the earth as it is in heaven.
Other passages mark differences between the two Kingdoms:
For I tell you, unless your righteousness exceeds that of the scribes and Pharisees, you
will never enter the kingdom of heaven. (5:20)
But seek first the kingdom of God and his righteousness, and all these things will be
added to you. (6:33)
Righteousness:
Ki d fh i ht f th ib d Ph i
Kingdom of heaven - righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees.
Kingdom of God - the righteousness of God.
The consequence of righteousness:
Kingdom of heaven - enter the kingdom.
Kingdom of God - all things will be added to you.
Required response to each Kingdom:
Kingdom of heaven - have righteousness that exceeds that of the scribes and
Pharisees.
Kingdom of God - Seek first...
In the fourth Gospel Jesus teaches:
Jesus answered, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he
cannot enter the kingdom of God. (3:5)
The Gospel delineates two means of entrance into a kingdom:
Matthew: Kingdom of heaven - righteousness that exceeds that of the scribes and
Pharisees.
John: Kingdom of God - be born of water and the Spirit.
A good picture to understand the difference is that the Kingdom of God encompasses all
creation, while the Kingdom of the Heavens encompasses less. That is, the Kingdom of the
Heavens is a smaller kingdom within the Kingdom of God. As Genesis 1 states, man has some
measure of authority over the earth and life on the earth (part of the Kingdom of God). The
unchanging nature of God accounts for the similarities and man’s rebellious nature with what
God has given man dominion explains the differences.
Simply, the earth (at present) is outside the Kingdom of the Heavens but remains a part of the
Kingdom of God. One day there will be a new heaven and a new earth on which the Father's
will will be done. Essentially the Kingdom of the Heavens will cease to exist it that it will no
longer be distinguishable from the Kingdom of God.
Notes:
1. The correct translation is Kingdom of the Heavens (plural) not Heaven (singular).
2. George Eldon Ladd, The Gospel of the Kingdom 1959, p. 32
3. All Scripture using the English Standard Version.
4. Ibid p 24
Share Improve this answer Follow edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:47 answered Nov 29 '16 at 21:45
Community Bot Revelation Lad
1 12.2k 4 28 79
TWO KINGDOMS SIMILAR
2 In the Bible, there are two different kingdoms that are mentioned. These two kingdoms are
the kingdom of heaven and the kingdom of God.
(Matthew 3:1-2 [KJV])

1 In those days came John the Baptist, preaching in the wilderness of
Judaea, 2 And saying, Repent ye: for the kingdom of heaven is at hand.
(Mark 1:14-15 [KJV])
14 Now after that John was put in prison, Jesus came into Galilee, preaching the gospel of the
kingdom of God,
15 And saying, The time is fulfilled, and the kingdom of God is at hand:
repent ye, and believe the gospel.
(Matt 13:11 [KJV])

He answered and said unto them, Because it is given unto you to know the
mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it is not given.
(Luke 8:10 [KJV])
And he said,
Unto you it is given to know the mysteries of the kingdom of God: but to others in parables;
that seeing they might not see, and hearing they might not understand.
(Matt 13:33 [KJV])

Another parable spake he unto them; The kingdom of heaven is like unto
leaven, which a woman took, and hid in three measures of meal, till the whole was leavened.
(Luke 13:20-21 [KJV])
And again he said, Whereunto shall I liken the kingdom of God?
It is like
leaven, which a woman took and hid in three measures of meal, till the whole was leavened.
Although the statements are similar, it is very important that you understand these two
kingdoms are NOT the same!
DIFFERENCES BETWEEN THE KINGDOMS

Kingdom of God:
(Luke 17:20-21 [KJV])
And when he was demanded of the Pharisees, when
the kingdom of God should come, he answered them and said, The kingdom of God cometh
not with observation:
Neither shall they say, Lo here! or, lo there! for, behold, the kingdom of
God is within you.
(Rom 14:17 [KJV])

For the kingdom of God is not meat and drink; but righteousness, and
peace, and joy in the Holy Ghost.
Paul said the kingdom of God is not physical like meat and drink, but rather this kingdom is
concerning spiritual things like righteousness, peace, and joy which you cannot see!
Kingdom of Heaven:
(Matt 11:12 [KJV])
And from the days of John the Baptist until now the
kingdom of heaven suffereth violence, and the violent take it by force.
The kingdom of heaven
is a piece of land that has a man ruling over it as king somewhere on this earth.
THE TWO KINGDOMS DEFINED
The kingdom of heaven is an earthly kingdom with a man as its king that is doing the will of
God. Notice what Jesus says about the kingdom of heaven in Matthew 6:10. There Jesus said,
“Thy kingdom come. Thy will be done in earth, as it is in heaven.” In the millennium, God will
establish the kingdom of heaven. Then Jesus Christ will be the King of the world and God’s will
shall be done on earth as it is currently done in heaven.
The kingdom of God is a spiritual kingdom that is present when the righteousness of God is
present, thus allowing God to have control. Matthew 6:33, “But seek ye first the kingdom of
God, and his righteousness; and all these things shall be added unto you.”
ENTRANCE TO THE KINGDOMS

Kingdom of God:
(John 3:3 [KJV])
3Jesus answered and said unto him, Verily, verily, I say unto
thee, Except a man be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God.
Kingdom of Heaven:
(Matt 25:31-33 [KJV])
31 When the Son of man shall come in his glory, and all the holy angels
with him, then shall he sit upon the throne of his glory:
32 And before him shall be gathered
all nations: and he shall separate them one from another, as a shepherd divideth his sheep
from the goats:
33 And he shall set the sheep on his right hand, but the goats on the left.
These are the survivors of the tribulation no new birth required to enter the kingdom of
heaven.
POPULATION OF THE KINGDOMS

Kingdom of God:
(John 3:3 [KJV])
3Jesus answered and said unto him, Verily, verily, I say unto
thee, Except a man be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God.
Kingdom of Heaven:
(Matt 13:41-43 [KJV])

41 The Son of man shall send forth his angels, and they shall gather out
of his kingdom all things that offend, and them which do iniquity;
42 And shall cast them into
a furnace of fire: there shall be wailing and gnashing of teeth.
43 Then shall the righteous
shine forth as the sun in the kingdom of their Father. Who hath ears to hear, let him hear.
Here
some people who are in the kingdom of heaven but get cast into the Lake of fire because of
iniquity.
If both kingdoms are the same everyone is subject to possibly losing their salvation.
THE DURATION OF THE KINGDOMS

Kingdom of God:
(Heb 1:8-12 [KJV])
8 But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for
ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom.
9Thou hast loved
righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, even thy God, hath anointed thee with the
oil of gladness above thy fellows.
10 And, Thou, Lord, in the beginning hast laid the
foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of thine hands:
11 They shall perish;
but thou remainest; and they all shall wax old as doth a garment;
12 And as a vesture shalt
thou fold them up, and they shall be changed: but thou art the same, and thy years shall not
fail.
Kingdom of Heaven:
(Rev 20:4 [KJV])
4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and
judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the
witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither
his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived
and reigned with Christ a thousand years.
THE PURPOSE OF THE KINGDOM OF HEAVEN

(1Cor 15:24-25 [KJV])
24 Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom
to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.
25
For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet.
Share Improve this answer Follow answered Feb 19 '14 at 3:23

Jon Lansing
61 4
The phrases "Kingdom of God" and "Kingdom of Heaven" originate from the same OT
passage. They are found in the synoptic Gospels, but rarely in the Gospel of John.
2
As others have already said Matthew's Gospel was originally designed for Jews, Papius telling
us it was originally written in Aramaic, and "Kingdom of God" was not acceptable to Jews
because of their (excessive) fear of taking God's name in vain. In addition "Kingdom of
Heaven" was more often used in Matthew because it helps to emphasise to its Jewish readers
that this coming kingdom is a spiritual kingdom not a fleshly kingdom like the empires of the
world (such as the Roman, Greek, Babylonian, etc). This was an emphasis that Matthew's
Jewish readers greatly needed to hear.
And "Kingdom of Heaven" was not used for Gentile readers, for whom Luke and Mark's Gospel
were written, because it is slightly ambiguous.. does it mean in this world or the next world?
For Gentiles "Kingdom of God" is more straightforward and obvious.
The other phrase that could have been used for Gentile readers was "the Kingdom of the God
of Heaven", but maybe this phrase was not used because it has problems too. Jews had grown
up knowing that there is only one God, but Gentiles had not had that benefit, and "the God of
Heaven" might suggest to a Gentile reader that there are other gods too, that the god of
Heaven is just one of many gods. Much better that Gentiles just read "Kingdom of God". It is
plain and obvious what is meant.
In the first century there was great hope and anticipation of the coming of an independent
kingdom of the Jews. The Jews believed that this kingdom was prophesied in the Old
Testament and they thought/hoped it would be a physical, earthly kingdom in which the Jews
would be free from foreign oppression, and maybe in which they themselves would rule the
world. Some of them may have also believed that once this kingdom had started it would
never end... the Jews would rule forever.
Their great longing for the coming of this kingdom is witnessed by some of the most common
names they gave to their sons: such as Simon, John, Jonathan, Judas, Matthew: all of these are
names derived from the ruling family of the Maccabbean Dynasty of 150 years before when
the Jews were last an independent nation. The giving of these names to newborn baby boys
shows they longed for those glory days again. (For more on this see "Jesus and the
Eyewitnesses - The Gospels as Eyewitness Testimony" by Richard Bauckham.)
When Jerusalem was badly damaged and its Temple was destroyed in 70 AD these hopes were
given a great blow, though they did not fizzle out until the after the Jewish-Roman War of
132-136 AD.
In Mark's Gospel we read how our Lord began his ministry:-
Now after that John was put in prison, Jesus came into Galilee, preaching the
gospel
of the kingdom of God, and saying, "The time is fulfilled, and the kingdom of God is
at hand: repent ye, and believe the gospel." (Mark 1:14,15).
What should strike us about this beginning of our Lord's preaching is that he speaks of the
kingdom of God as if it is something which his hearers are already anticipating, and with which
they already have some familiarity. It is also striking that this kingdom of God seems to be
predicted as to its timing. The only place in the Old Testament which makes predictions
concerning the timing of a coming kingdom is the book of Daniel where it says that this
kingdom shall be set up during the empire of the fourth kingdom, the kingdom of iron:
"And in the days of these kings shall the God of heaven set up a kingdom, which shall
never be destroyed, and the kingdom shall not be left to other people, but it shall
break in pieces and consume all these kingdoms, and it shall stand forever." (Daniel
2:44).
It is this national hope of the Jews, which has its roots mainly in the book of Daniel, spoken of
in this passage, and expanded on in later passages of Daniel (e.g. Daniel 7:14), to which our
Lord is referring. Our Lord made full use of this great desire amongst his hearers to hear about
this kingdom: his hearers had been brought to a state of great anticipation concerning it, by
the book of Daniel and by their realization that the time must be fast approaching. Seeing
that, according to Daniel, "the God of heaven" would set up this kingdom, the full title of this
kingdom would therefore be "the Kingdom of the God of Heaven".
But when John wrote his Gospel after the destruction of the Temple, in about 70-90 AD, I
suppose that the Jewish earthly hopes of a kingdom could no longer be taken advantage of
for the presentation of the gospel because those earthly hopes had deteriorated since the
destruction of the Temple in 70 AD. So John did not make much use of our Lord's preaching
about the kingdom in his Gospel.
The use of the terms "Kingdom of God" and "Kingdom of Heaven" is yet another marker that
the synoptic Gospels were written sometime prior to 70 AD, before the destruction of the
Temple while Jewish hopes of a kingdom were high.
Every time we read of our Lord preaching about "the kingdom" we ought to realize that our
Lord Jesus was claiming to be a fulfilment of the Messianic prophecies of the book of Daniel:
he was and is the "Son of Man" of Daniel 7:13, and he warned of the destruction of the Temple
as described (after the Messiah's death) in Daniel 9:26, which Jesus said would happen just as
Daniel had described (Mark 13:14) and after his own death.
When the High Priest asked Jesus
"Art thou the Christ the son of the Blessed?"

Jesus answered, "I am , and ye shall see
the Son of man, sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of
heaven." (Mark 14:61,62).
Here, our Lord is, once again, referring back to what Daniel saw:-
Here, our Lord is, once again, referring back to what Daniel saw:
"I saw in the night visions and, behold, one like the Son of man came with the
clouds
of heaven.." (Daniel 7:13).
These were almost his last words before his death. So His ministry began with a reference to
the book of Daniel ("the kingdom of God is at hand"), and ended with a reference to the book
of Daniel, and in preaching often about "the kingdom" he was often speaking of things which
related to the book of Daniel.
In short, by all these means Jesus of Nazareth was claiming to be the Messiah promised in the
book of Daniel. [Of course, He must be, because the Temple and city could only be destroyed
after the Messiah had been cut off (Daniel 9:26). So the Messiah must have come before 70
AD, and Jesus of Nazareth is the only realistic candidate.]
"The Kingdom of Heaven" and "the Kingdom of God" are synonyms which have their origin in
Daniel 2:44 and the King of this Kingdom is the one who said
My kingdom is not of this world: if my kingdom were of this world then would my
servants fight that I should not be delivered to the Jews: but now is my kingdom not
from here. (John 18:36).
Share Improve this answer Follow edited Apr 21 '19 at 11:46 answered Apr 20 '19 at 22:36
Andrew Shanks
420 3 11
The Kingdom of God (KOG) implies a person or group of people --the church-- who do the
will of God in complete submission. (The individual is the smallest unit of KOG.) No one can do
-1 the will of God without the Holy Ghost. So a person or group of people who have the Holy
Ghost in him/them and listen to His voice comprise the KOG. In short you are the kingdom of
God.
Thus when Jesus taught us to pray "thy kingdom come," the thought is, "make me thy
kingdom." In other words, "may I accept you as my king and do only what you want me to do.
* At the same time please note that you are not the kingdom of Heaven * , The kingdom of
Heaven awaits you after death because Kingdom of Heaven is what God the father has
promised and planned for you. That is why it is important to differentiate both.
In the Old Testament, the Kingdom of God had referred to Israel whereas in the New
Testament it is the believer or the church. Please note that a believer or the church is the new
Israel.
Matt 21:43 (KJV)

43
Therefore I tell you that the kingdom of God will be taken away from you and given
y g y y g
to a people who will produce its fruit.
Therefore the New Testament Kingdom of God is the believer or the church.
Rom 14:17 (KJV)
17 For the kingdom of God is not meat and drink; but righteousness, and peace, and
joy in the Holy Ghost.
Matt 6:33 (KJV)
33
But seek ye first the kingdom of God , and his righteousness; and all these things
shall be added unto you.
On the other hand, the Kingdom of Heaven (KOH) is used by Jesus when he wanted to
reveal the plan of salvation of the Father, or His character. For example -
Matt 11:12 (KJV)

12
And from the days of John the Baptist until now the kingdom of heaven suffereth
violence, and the violent take it by force.
The Father's plan of salvation was for the Jews. When Jesus came, many people (besides Jews)
had believed in Him for salvation. "Violent people" therefore are those with great faith.
Matt 22:1 (KJV)
1
The kingdom of heaven may be compared to a king who gave a wedding banquet
for his son. He sent out his slaves to summon those invited to the banquet, but they
didn't want to come. Again, he sent out other slaves, and said, Tell those who are
invited: Look, I've prepared my dinner; my oxen and fattened cattle have been
slaughtered, and everything is ready. Come to the wedding banquet. But they paid no
attention and went away, one to his own farm, another to his business. And the
others seized his slaves, treated them outrageously and killed them. The king was
enraged, so he sent out his troops, destroyed those murderers, and burned down
their city. Then he told his slaves, The banquet is ready, but those who were invited
were not worthy. Therefore go to where the roads exit the city and invite everyone
you find to the banquet. So those slaves went out on the roads and gathered
everyone they found, both evil and good. The wedding banquet was filled with
guests. But when the king came in to view the guests, he saw a man there who was
not dressed for a wedding. So he said to him, Friend, how did you get in here without
wedding clothes?' The man was speechless, then the king told the attendants, Tie him
up hand and foot, and throw him into the outer darkness, where there will be
weeping and gnashing of teeth. For many are invited, but few are chosen.
The parable discusses the wedding of the son and all whom the father (king) is planning to
invite. Please note that it is the father (king) who decides the attendees.
Of course in some parables the kingdom of heaven and Kingdom of God are interchanged by
the Gospel writers. Kingdom of God can be interchanged with Kingdom of Heaven because
the holy spirit life also is a part of the fathers plan,
Matt 04:17 (KJV)

17
From that time on Jesus began to preach, "Repent, for the kingdom of heaven has
come near."
It means God (the Father's) plan of salvation for his people has come and for he had sent
Jesus and the holyspirit. The same way Kingdom of God is near means the Holy Spirit is going
to be given to the people of this world and the Holy Spirit is going to dwell in us.
But wherever Jesus wanted to talk about the fathers plan alone we will find that Kingdom of
Heaven cannot be interchanged with Kingdom of God . the above instances are examples.
One may take any parable based on KOG (Kingdom of the Holy Ghost) or KOH (God the
Father's plan & His nature) and try to interpret them in both ways: either what Jesus reveals
concerning the Holy Ghost and/or what He wants to tell us about the Father's nature and plan
for us. However the specific ones concerning the Kingdom of Heaven are only to describe the
Father's plan of salvation for man.
Share Improve this answer Follow edited Jun 24 '14 at 13:21 answered Jun 16 '14 at 10:54
Anoop Koshy
19 1
While I do not agree with your summary, I did made some edits to improve the diction and provide the
format and links to Bible references. Please use this format in the future. Also, please write with as little
assumptions as possible, since many people with different opinions view this site. In other words, please
make your statements as "tight" as possible with as little assumptions and conjecture as possible.
Thanks!
– Joseph
Jun 16 '14 at 14:21
@Joseph , I have tried to explain further . Let me know your thoughts.

– Anoop Koshy
Jun 24 '14 at
12:45
I made some edits to improve the diction, but you need to tighten the flow of thought - can you edit
again to make the thoughts more smooth? I need to eat the food without chewing. Thanks!
– Joseph
Jun 24 '14 at 12:59
I'm pretty sure the use of abbreviation form KOG/KOH is working against you here. Given that you
explain them in full in every instance, they are not saving the reader any time and since they are
completely non-standard I really just thing they confuse the issue. Just use the full phrases and make
this easier to read. As @Joseph pointed out the logic is also hard to follow so you can work on that too,
but I suggest making it easier to read in the process by ditching the abbreviations.
– Caleb
Nov 29 '16
at 8:54
We can now say that the Gospels of Matthew and Luke were substantially based on Mark's
Gospel and that additional material the Gospels of Matthew and Luke have in common have
-1 come from the hypothetical 'Q' document. John Dominic Crossan, in The Birth of Christianity,
page 110-111, speaks of a massive consensus among scholars in favour of Markan priority. He
says there is a smaller, but still substantial majority of scholars who believe that the
hypothetical 'Q' document was the source of other material on which Matthew and Luke agree.
We can therefore compare the three gospels and look for passages where other gospels use
'kingdom of God' where Matthew uses 'kingdom of heaven'. If such passages exist, they will
point to there being no material difference between the two terms, with the choice of
'kingdom of heaven' simply being a stylistic difference.
One parallel in which Mark was the original for the passage in Matthew is Matthew 13:11,
which uses 'kingdom of heaven', while the original in Mark 4:11 uses 'kingdom of God':
Matthew 13:11: He answered and said unto them, Because it is given unto you to
know the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it is not given.
Mark 4:11: And he said unto them, Unto you it is given to know the mystery of the
kingdom of God: but unto them that are without, all these things are done in
parables:
One parallel in which Matthew and Luke have similar passages, from the 'Q' document (where
minor differences in wording exist, most scholars believe Luke is closer to the original in Q):
Matthew 5:3: Blessed are the poor in spirit: for theirs is the kingdom of heaven.
Luke 6:20: And he lifted up his eyes on his disciples, and said, Blessed be ye poor: for
yours is the kingdom of God.
Examples such as these show that the author of Matthew chose to use 'kingdom of heaven'
even when copying a passage that used the term 'kingdom of God'.
However, sometimes our author chose to use 'kingdom of God', in line with his sources, for
example:
Matthew 19:24: And again I say unto you, It is easier for a camel to go through the
eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God.
Mark 10:25: It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich
man to enter into the kingdom of God.
Having copied passages that referred to 'kingdom of God', Matthew's author sometimes
chose to use the term 'kingdom of heaven' and sometimes stick with 'kingdom of God',
without defining a clear distinction between his use of one term or the other. It seems to be
simply a stylistic choice made at the time.
Share Improve this answer Follow edited Jun 17 '20 at 9:51 answered Mar 30 '15 at 3:54
Community Bot Dick Harfield
1 12k 4 21 56
In rightly dividing the truth, some seek a literal & political Kingdom on earth, while others seek
a spiritual realty; hopefully all believers seek the two – spiritual first. For the physical will pass
-4 away -
"Heaven and earth will pass away (Physical), but my words will never pass away." Matt
24:35
An example, Judas sought a physical empire, and when his dreams were dashed after the
saviors sentence…his internal tortures lead to finding some rope and a tree.
Matt 3:33 states: “But seek ye first the kingdom of God (Spiritual), and his
righteousness; and all these things (Physical) shall be added unto you.”
Luke wrote Acts in order to understand the 'Physical' churches beginnings as he stated of his
gospel...
“The former treatise have I made, O Theophilus, of all that Jesus began both to do
and teach, until the day in which he was taken up" Acts 1:1-2.
Further, eyewitness (not Luke / Mark) accounts have seen and touched the Christ, conversely
2nd hand accounts have not. respective each accounts minds are most likely centered on
different aspects of earthly and heavenly realms. This does not negate the need or desire to
understand both from all gospel writers, but should giveaway to the necessity to amply
prescribe clairvoyance to spiritual matters. The basis for my finding's is below.
Matthew is a:
1st hand account of Christ’s life
Written circa: A.D. 50
Jewish
Writes having seen the physical (living, dead, & resurrected Christ) & desires to see the
"Spiritual-kingdom"
Example 1: “ …your kingdom come, your will be done on earth (acknowledges the
physical) as it is in heaven. (looks for the spiritual)” (Matthew 6:10 NIV)
Luke is a:
2nd hand account to Christ’s life

Written circa: A.D. 63
Non-Jewish
Writes in hopes to understand a physical eye witness testimony, & desires to see the
“Physical-Kingdom”
Example 2: “…your kingdom come. (desires to see the physical - no mention of the
spiritual)” (Luke 11:2 NIV)
From the Judicial side: The US federal rules of evidence requires lay witnesses to have personal
knowledge of the matters they testify about. It is an affidavit that is based on personal
knowledge, unless the affiant makes clear that a statement relies on “information and belief”.
Share Improve this answer Follow edited Feb 25 '13 at 19:19 answered Feb 20 '13 at 18:01
Derek Scott
187 2 2 9
4 Are you saying Luke has no interest in spiritual matters? That's not the case.
tupamahu.blogspot.com/2007/09/… For example, Luke has 17 references to the Holy Spirit while
Matthew only has 12. Just before the Ascension, Jesus tells the disciples they will be clothed with power
from on high (24:49). See also Acts 1:1-28:30 for more of Luke's spiritual interest. Luke wrote a whole
book on how the Spirit empowers believers.
– Frank Luke
Feb 20 '13 at 20:02
Of course Luke is concerned with spiritual items - It’s ludicrous to think otherwise. My implication takes
the text and implies the writers, both 1st and 2nd hand accounts, express different positions from their
vantage point. As stated above, "the US Judicai/Federal rules of evidence requires lay witnesses to have
personal knowledge of the matters they testify about.
– Derek Scott
Feb 21 '13 at 19:35
1 Can you explain more clearly how your answer relates to the question? What shows that these
kingdoms are the same or different?
– Frank Luke
Feb 22 '13 at 3:29
I believe this is as strong a point as possbile, as this is taken directly from the writer Luke. Luke wrote
Acts in order to understand the 'Physical' churches beginnings as he stated of his gospel...“The former
treatise have I made, O Theophilus, of all that Jesus began both to do and teach, until the day in which
he was taken up" Acts 1. Note changes above too.
– Derek Scott
Feb 25 '13 at 19:20
2 -1. Luke's explanation for how the Church has grown is centered around the empowerment of the Holy
Spirit. See Acts 2, 8, 9, 10, 11, and 19. And you shouldn't hang your findings on Luke 11:2 when Luke's
Gospel speaks more of the Holy Spirit and it's actions than Matthew.
– Frank Luke
Feb 25 '13 at 21:18
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Kingdom of Heaven vs God Explained

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11/25/21, 5:35 AM matthew - What is the difference in the Kingdom of Heaven and the Kingdom of God?

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What is the difference in the Kingdom of Heaven and the Kingdom

Inspired by this question: Is synoptic parallelism a valid hermeneutic?

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Thi id " " h h di i d h

8 Answers Active Oldest Votes

“Heaven” as a Circumlocution or Substitute for “God”

‫( ָמ קֹום‬makom), i.e. “Place”

Jastrow, p. 830, on Hebrew ‫ָמ קֹום‬:

‫( ְּג בּוָר ה‬gevurah), i.e. “Power”

Jastrow, p. 205, on Hebrew ‫ְּג בּוָר ה‬:

‫( ָׁש ַמ ִים‬shamayim), i.e. “Heaven”

Jastrow, p. 1595, on Hebrew ‫ָׁש ַמ ִים‬:

Jastrow, p. 1595, on Aramaic ‫ְׁש ַמ ָּיא‬:

In his commentary on Matt. 3:2, John Lightfoot wrote,3

On Matt. 6:33, Constantin Tischendorf noted,4

On Matt. 19:24, Constantin Tischendorf noted,6

Justin Martyr. “Apology on Behalf of Christians to Antoninus Pius” (Ἀπολογία ὑπὲρ

Tischendorf, Constantin. Novum Testamentum Graece. Vol. 1. Lipsiae: Giesecke, 1869.

@H3br3wHamm3r81, I removed the reference to "within/among." Interesting article. Just in reference

One is linguistic as George Eldon Ladd says:

Matthew 19:23-24 cited by Ladd states:

Other passages mark differences between the two Kingdoms:

Kingdom of God - the righteousness of God.

The consequence of righteousness:

Kingdom of heaven - enter the kingdom.

Kingdom of God - all things will be added to you.

Required response to each Kingdom:

Kingdom of God - Seek first...

In the fourth Gospel Jesus teaches:

The Gospel delineates two means of entrance into a kingdom:

John: Kingdom of God - be born of water and the Spirit.

2. George Eldon Ladd, The Gospel of the Kingdom 1959, p. 32

3. All Scripture using the English Standard Version.

TWO KINGDOMS SIMILAR

(Matthew 3:1-2 [KJV])

(Matt 13:11 [KJV])

(Matt 13:33 [KJV])

DIFFERENCES BETWEEN THE KINGDOMS

(Rom 14:17 [KJV])

THE TWO KINGDOMS DEFINED

ENTRANCE TO THE KINGDOMS

POPULATION OF THE KINGDOMS

(Matt 13:41-43 [KJV])

THE DURATION OF THE KINGDOMS

THE PURPOSE OF THE KINGDOM OF HEAVEN

Share Improve this answer Follow answered Feb 19 '14 at 3:23

In Mark's Gospel we read how our Lord began his ministry:-

When the High Priest asked Jesus

"Art thou the Christ the son of the Blessed?"

Matt 21:43 (KJV)

Rom 14:17 (KJV)

joy in the Holy Ghost.

Matt 6:33 (KJV)

Matt 11:12 (KJV)

Matt 22:1 (KJV)

Matt 04:17 (KJV)

@Joseph , I have tried to explain further . Let me know your thoughts.