ISTQB GURU STUDY GUIDE

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Full Practice Test - 2020080602

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JULY 26, 2021

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This is a full-length practice test with 40 questions.

Use a timer and try to finish answering the questions within 60 minutes.

Correct Answers is not included in this package. You can find the answer at

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Use the password: istqb.guru to open the page

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1. Which of the of the following metrics is commonly used as a test metric?
A. Percent of overly long test cases
B. The average length of test cases'
C. Avenge number of test cases
D. Percent of executed test cases

2. Which of the below is NOT a factor that influences the testing effort?
A. Project and product risks
B. The stability and maturity of the organization
C. Adding test-ware in configuration management tool
D. The required level of detail for test documentation

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3. Which of the following statements about effort estimation techniques correctly describes the difference the
between the metrics-based technique and the expert-based technique?
A. Metrics-based techniques are based on the estimation of the result of planning poker while expert based
techniques are based on burndown charts

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B. Expert-based techniques are based on volumes of defects and time to remove them, while in metrics-
based techniques experts provide estimates based on their experience.
C. Expert-based techniques use an estimation of the test effort based on the size of the project and

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metrics-based techniques are based on defect removal efficiency.
D. Metrics-based techniques are based on metrics of former similar projects, while expert-based
techniques are based on the experience of the testing
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4. A test team has no experience implementing performance tests. For a new project, they are requested to do
performance testing. The test manager needs to estimate how much effort will be involved. Which of the
following is the best approach to get estimation?
A. Collect defects from performance testing teams who are running such tests
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B. Run a performance testing proof of concept on a small program to learn how much time such effort
takes
C. Use the metric-based techniques for effort estimation based on available project data from the team
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D. Consult with experts in the company who are doing performance testing on other products

5. During testing of a web-based insurance application, when you enter the data in a different order from the
natural flow, in one specific instance, the software becomes unresponsive and you need to restart the browser.
You open a defect report, using the new corporate template that follows the ISO/IEEE 29119 standard. You
provided a short title; a reference to the requirement being tested; the software under test and its version and
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the browser’s version.

Upon review, the developer returns the ticket as “Cannot Reproduce”.

What information is MOST likely missing from your defect report?

A. The “Analysis” field is missing the detailed analysis of the defect root cause
B. The “Description” field is missing the steps taken when encountering the problem
C. The “Date & Time” field is missing the time, which the developer needs in order to check the log files
D. The “Setup” field is missing which test environment the problem occurred

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6. Isolation from the development might lead to partial testing of a feature. Why?
A. Testers may gain only partial knowledge of where and how to best test a feature
B. Testers will not report minor bugs to avoid deteriorating the relations between teams
C. Testers might pay less attention to information from remote development team
D. Testers may worry that they will be blamed for delaying the release if they test too much

7. Consider the following test case list, with priorities (1 BEING LOWEST) and the dependencies:

Test Case Number Name of the test case Priority Dependency

T.001 Visualizing the elements 3 None
T.002 Putting the elements into 3 T.001
the basket
T.003 Paying for purchases 1 T.002

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T.004 Keeping the basket 4 T.002
without paying
T.005 Going back to the shop, 4 T.004
fetching a kept basket

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paying

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Which of the following execution sequences considers priorities and dependencies at the same time?
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A. T.004, T.005, T.001, T.002, T.003
B. T.001, T.002, T.004, T.005, T.003
C. T.002, T.002, T.004, T.003, T.001
D. T.003, T.001, T.002, T.004, T.005
B

8. While performing system testing a defect was identified, fixed and re-tested. One release later the same
defect is discovered again. This represents a problem in which of the following aspects?
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A. Confirmation tests
B. Configuration management
C. Traceability
D. Regression test
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9. Which of the following is NOT an example of entry criteria to SYSTEM test?

A. All unit test cases have been approved by the dev manager
B. All the test cases for the redesign of the website have been approved
C. All the required test accounts have been created in the testing environment
D. All the application required in the testing environment have been installed and are available

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10. Which one of the following best describes testware?
A. A software developed specifically for a set of users or customers
B. A test tool to platform automated test comparison of actual result to expected results
C. The ability to link between requirements and the test cases that verify the requirements were implemented
correctly
D. Artifacts produced during the test process required to plan, design and execute tests

11. Which of the following is used during the test implementation phase?
A. Test procedures and test suites
B. Test result of executing test cases and sets of test cases
C. Defined and prioritized test conditions and execution schedule
D. Documentation of the status of individual test cases and defect reports

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12. How does involving the testers contribute to success for each of the below software lifecycle points?

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1. Validation and verification
2. Requirements review
3. Code Review
4. Architecture definition

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Reducing the risk of developing unstable functionality
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b) Increasing the understanding of how the system work and how to test it
c) Reducing the risks of introducing defects within the code
d) Detecting failures in the product
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A. 1d, 2a, 3c and 4b

B. 1c, 2d, 3b and 4a
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C. 1a, 2d, 3c and 4b

D. 1c, 2a, 3d and 4b

13. A software testing team maintains traceability between risks, requirements and tests. Which of the following
is NOT the benefit that the team will gain because of this traceability?
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A. It will help the team select appropriate regression tests on the basis of changes made in the system
B. It will help the testing team execute non-functional tests
C. It will help the testing team to choose the appropriate test cases for confirmation testing
D. It will help testing team understand coverage for the purpose of reporting test progress

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14. Which of the following is NOT an objective of testing?
A. To build confidence in the level of quality of the test object
B. To make sure the released software is defect free
C. To reduce the level of risk of inadequate software quality
D. To evaluate various work product such as the system requirements

15. Which of the following test activities DO NOT contribute to higher quality of the product?
A. Preparing test data and executing use cases that mimic real life situations
B. Non-adherence to quality assurance processes
C. Root cause analysis to remove causes of defects
D. Compliance with legal and regulatory requirements

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16. Which of the following mistakes is a defect that is LEAST likely to cause a failure?
A. The range of support screen resolutions fails to account for screens with 16:9 aspect ratio

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B. Debug-support code was not removed from the code of a website for sharing cooking recipes
C. The code interprets a certain input parameter as the length instead of the width of an object
D. Not enough time allocated in the algorithm to complete a certain operation

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17. Which of the following statements BEST describes the application of the test principles?
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A. Test principles apply to test preparation
B. Test principles apply to all forms of testing
C. Test principles apply to static testing (e.g. reviews)
D. Test principles apply to Confirmation testing (re-test)
B

18. Which of the following BEST matches the Test Levels with the test environment?
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1. Component testing
2. Integration testing
3. System testing
4. Acceptance testing

A. The test environment simulates a production like environment

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B. The test environment is identical to the development environment with some drivers and stubs
C. The test environment is likely to be individual developer’s computer and uses drivers and stubs
D. The test environment corresponds to the final target or production environment

A. 1D, 2A, 3C and 4B

B. 1C, 2B, 3A and 4D
C. 1B, 2C, 3D and 4A
D. 1A, 2D, 3B and 4C

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19. Normally, which type integration often ends up with a large number of defects that are difficult to isolate
quickly?
A. Top-down integration
B. Neighborhood integration
C. Bottom-up integration
D. Big-bang integration

20. Which of the following test types is most likely to reveal that the tested software is performing slowly?
A. Non-functional testing
B. Static analysis
C. Functional testing
D. Reliability and white-box testing

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21. Which of the following is the major difference between confirmation and regression testing?

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A. Regression testing is about testing the bug fixes whereas confirmation testing in about existing features
work properly after a chance was done
B. Regression testing is about testing bug fixes and confirmation testing about confirmation that the bug exists

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C. Regression testing is about testing that existing features work properly after a change was done whereas
confirmation testing is about testing the bug fixes
D. Regression testing is about confirmation that the bug exists and confirmation testing is about testing the bug
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fixes

22. Consider the following statement:

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“Tests for a given test level should be written down during the corresponding development phase”

To which software development life-cycle model does it fit best?

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A. The statement is relevant to incremental model

B. The statement is relevant to any development model
C. The statement is relevant to sequential (V) model
D. The statement is relevant to iterative model
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23. Company A has an implementation design for project XYZ but they would like to consider alternative
implementation approaches and evaluate conformance to standards and specification.

Which type of review should they conduct?

A. Technical Review
B. Inspection
C. Informal Review
D. Walkthrough

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24. What is the main difference between dynamic and static testing?
A. Static testing finds defects whereas dynamic testing identifies failures
B. Static testing is performed by a developer whereas dynamic testing is performed by a tester
C. Static testing is focused on identifying failures whereas dynamic testing finds errors
D. Static testing is performed with the help of tools whereas dynamic testing is performed manually

25. What is the role of management in a formal review?

A. Decides on the execution of review
B. Organizes when and where the review will take place
C. Ensure effective running of review meetings
D. Creates the work product under review

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26. Which of the following contribute to the success of a review?
A. The review is scheduled by E-mail or Calendar

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B. The review objectives are defined during the review itself
C. The reviewers use checklist that are up to date
D. The review participants agree on the identified defects

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27. A web page selling travel insurance limits the sake to people between the ages of 16 to 65. The customers are
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prompted for their age by a pop-up window.

The following test cases were designed to ensure the age limit is enforced by the website code:

Action Age Expected Result

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Popup appears Continue to next step in the process

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Popup appears For ages below 16, please contact our office
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Popup appears For ages above 65, please contact our office
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The tests are reviewed using a test-case review checklist. The checklist contains the following questions:

I. Are input values clearly specified?

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II. Are Expected Results clearly specified?

III. Are all boundary values tested?
IV. Are all equivalent partitions tested?

Which of the above checklist questions would cause the review to note a defect in the test cases?

A. III
B. II
C. IV
D. I

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28. Income tax is calculated by the following assumptions

• An employee having salary up to Rs. 250,000 (inclusive) - Tax value is zero

• Next Rs. 250,000 is taxed at 5%
• Next Rs. 500,000 is taxed at 20%
• Further amount is taxed at 30%

Which of following groups of numbers fall into DEFFERENT equivalence classes?

A. Rs. 0 । Rs. 250,000 । Rs. 500,000 । Rs. 1,000,000

B. Rs. 249,000 । Rs. 250,000 । Rs. 251,000 । Rs. 252,001
C. Rs. 250,001 । Rs. 500,000 । Rs. 1,000,001 । Rs. 1,250,000
D. Rs. 250,000 । Rs. 451,000 । Rs. 965,500 । Rs. 1,456,500

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29. A vendor sells milk cartons online. A customer can order a minimum of 10 packets.

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• There is a 10% discount for orders of more than 25 and less than or equal to 50 cartons.
• There is a 20% discount for order of more than 50 cartons.

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Below are the partial lists of test inputs for testing the ordering code.

Which of the lists contain only test inputs generated by Boundary Value Analysis?
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A. 5, 9, 49, 50
B. 0, 10, 25, 50
C. 9, 10, 25, 51
B

D. 10, 24, 50, 51

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30. Which one of the following is TRUE about Error guessing?

A. Error guessing involves dynamic test design and evaluation during test execution
B. Error guessing is most useful in the early phases of the software development lifecycle
C. Error guessing involves designing tests based on assumptions of where error could be
D. Error guessing is conducted within time-boxed sessions
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31. You are tasked with testing the Order Wizard of an online shopping website. The flow that customer’s takes as
they select cloths, provide shipment information and pay can be described by a state transition diagram.

Which of the following describes transitions that may take place during execution of a valid state-transition test?

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A. Select Item -> Move to Shopping Cart -> Move to shipping -> Move to payment -> Move to select Items
B. Select Item -> Move to Shopping Cart -> Move to shipping -> Move to select Item

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C. Select Item -> Move to Shopping Cart -> Move to shipping -> Move to payment-> Move to Shipping
D. Move to Shopping Cart -> Move to shipping -> Move to Shopping Cart

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32. Which of the following statement is true with respect to decision testing?
A. Decision coverage and Statement coverage are independent of each other and one doesn’t ensure the other
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B. 100% Statement coverage results in 100% Decision coverage
C. Statement coverage includes Decision coverage
D. 100% Decision coverage ensure 100% Statement coverage
B

33. A program accepts two numbers between -- 100 and 100 and uses them in various arithmetic calculations.
Which of the following test techniques is more likely to find a Divide by Zero bug caused by these inputs?
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A. Boundary value analysis

B. Error guessing
C. Equivalence partitioning
D. Decision table testing
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34. A program accepts two inputs. One between 190 and 230 (inclusive) and the other between 170 and 230
(inclusive). Which of the following is a VALID boundary value for ONLY ONE of the input classes?
A. 169
B. 230
C. 190
D. 189

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35. An online user can
• Connect to a web site
• Authenticate in a secure way
• Perform administrative functions if the user has Admin permissions.

To have full decision coverage, you design the following test causes.

Test cases T1 T2 T3 T4 T5 T6 T7 T8
Conditions
Condition 1 Connected Yes No Yes No Yes No Yes No
Condition 2 Authenticated Yes Yes No No Yes Yes No No
Condition 3 Authorized Yes Yes Yes Yes No No No No

Actions Access Granted Yes No No No No No No No

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Which of the tests can be eliminated to collapse the table?

A. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7

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B. 2, 4, 6, 8
C. 4, 6, 7, 8
D. Six out of the seven tests 2-8 (does not matter which)

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36. Which of the following is MOST likely to be considered when selecting test techniques?
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A. The need to ensure very high quality to the system under development, independent of the time and the
budget
B. The test techniques used on the last project
C. Availability of open-source tools to run the test generated by the technique
B

D. The identified risk levels and types of risk for the system under development
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37. Which of the following statement is true about exploratory testing?

A. Exploratory testing involves running pre-defined test cases within a defined time box
B. Exploratory testing does not involve designing, executing, logging or evaluating test results
C. Exploratory testing can be combined with other formal test techniques
D. Exploratory testing is most useful when there are well-defined requirements
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38. Which one of the following statements about Boundary Value Analysis IS NOT correct?
A. A structure-based technique
B. A black-box technique
C. A specification-based technique
D. An extension of equivalence partitioning

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39. Which of the following is a benefit of using a test automation tool?
A. Reduced effort in manual regression testing
B. Traceability between tests and requirements
C. Ease of deployment
D. Reduced effort of test maintenance

40. Which test tool BEST matches the test activity they support?
1. Defect management tools
2. Monitoring tools
3. Test execution tools
4. Test data preparation tools

A. Performance measurement and dynamic analysis

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B. Confirmation tests
C. Test design and implementation
D. Test execution and logging

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A. 1B, 2A, 3D, 4C
B. 1D, 2C, 3B, 4A
C.
D.
1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
1A, 2D, 3C, 4B
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B

The correct answers are available at

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