IBPS PO PRE_2022
English Language too) but 'job' is a singular noun (and countable as
1. Answer: (A)
The error is in part E. The adjective 'relative' needs
to be replaced with the adverb 'relatively' to make it
error-free. Noticeably, 'phenomenon' is a noun that
is preceded by the adjective 'new' as it is working
as a modifier and usually adjectives modify the
nouns. Similarly, adverbs modify the adjectives,
verbs, or other adverbs they precede or follow. So,
the adjective 'new' will be preceded by the adverb
'relatively' and not the adjective 'relative'.
2. Answer: (E)
The sentence is error-free. Hence, option (e) is
correct.
Note:
'None of' can be either followed by a plural verb or
a singular verb, depending upon the meaning it
intends to convey. This holds true, when 'none of'
is followed by a countable noun. When followed by
an uncountable noun, it always takes a singular
verb with it.
3. Answer: (D)
The error is in part C. The apostrophe (neighbour's
waste) is missing, to indicate the fact that the
waste belonged to the neighbour.
4. Answer: (B)
The error is in part E. The contraction 'it's' of 'it is'
should be replaced with pronoun 'its'. Here, a
social media company is talked about in the
sentence which is the subject as well as the noun
and similarly, the pronoun 'its' is used to refer to
the same noun.
5. Answer: (D)
The error is in part C. The phrase 'the benefits of'
is misplaced. The phrase as per its placement in
the sentence means that the fund could be used to
'spread awareness' about the 'usage' of benefits of
e-vehicles. We need to place the phrase 'the
benefits of' right before 'using e-vehicles' and doing
so will produce the meaning that the fund could be
used to 'spread awareness' about 'the benefits of
using e-vehicles'.
6. Answer: (C)
The sentence means to say that Japan has been a
producer of whiskey at least since the 1920s but it
gained an international popularity only over the last
10 years (past decade).
The phrase 'not before that' in option (a) contrasts
the meaning conveyed by the first clause of the
original statement. Hence, it is ruled out.
'Worldly' is not a correct synonym of 'global'. Hence
option (b) also cannot replace the bolded phrase.
Option (d) is correct grammatically in itself, but
when put in the sentence it alters the meaning of
the sentence and doesn't fit in grammatically as
well.
'Marketability' can be a working synonym for
'popularity' in the given context. Option (c) is the
correct replacement for the bolded phrase,
because it retains the meaning of the sentence and
is grammatically fit.
7. Answer: (C)
'A job lined up' would replace the highlighted
phrase 'a job line up' because 'had' is always
followed by a past participle but 'line' is a base
form of the verb and the same logic can be used to
eliminate option (b) because 'lines' is a third-
person singular present form of the verb. Options
(a) and (d) can also be eliminated because
quantifiers 'some' and 'few' are used with a plural
noun ('some' can be used with uncountable nouns
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well) here.
8. Answer: (A)
'Perceive them' would replace the highlighted
phrase 'perceives them' because plural verb should
be used with plural noun 'minds' but 'perceives' is a
singular verb and the same reason can help in
eliminating option (d). Option (b) can be eliminated
because pronoun 'it' is used to refer to a singular
noun but 'conversations' is a plural noun. Option (c)
can also be eliminated because pronoun 'they' is
used as the subject of the sentence while the
pronoun 'them' is apt to use here, as the object of
the sentence.
9. Answer: (B)
'As much effort by' would replace the highlighted
phrase 'as many effort by' because 'many' is used
with countable nouns but 'effort' is an uncountable
noun. Similarly, option (a) can be eliminated
because 'few' is also used with countable nouns.
Options (c) and (d) can also be eliminated because
usage of 'as' and 'like' is incorrect as the structure
'as..as' is used to compare things that are of similar
proportion (exercising and sprinting in this case).
10. Answer: (D)
The sentence talks of the existence of titanium
alloys in 3 forms and mentions the amount and
type of metal added. The blank requires a verb at
its place to depict the action. The word 'depending'
fits correctly in the blank as its use indicates that
the type of Titanium alloy formed is dependent on
the amount and type of metal added. Hence, option
(d) is the correct answer.
The words 'managing', 'influenced, 'irrelevant', and
'peripheral' do not fit in the blank as they are not
used in combination with the preposition 'on'.
Hence, options (a), (b), (c) & (e) are eliminated.
11. Answer: (E)
The sentence talks of the ongoing liquidity crisis
and the risk associated with the prolonged supply
of low-cost funds to NBFCs. The blank requires an
adjective at its place to modify the noun 'bubble'.
The word 'unsustainable' fits correctly in the blank
as it conveys that the prolonged supply of low-cost
funds to the NBFC sector may end up creating
bubbles that are harmful to the economy. Hence,
option (e) is the correct answer.
'Bubble' here refers to a good or fortunate situation
that is isolated from reality or unlikely to last.
The words 'irrational' and 'untenable' {(especially of
a position or view) not able to be maintained or
defended against attack or objection} render the
sentence meaningless. Hence, options (a) & (c) are
eliminated. The words 'endurable' (bearable) and
'enjoyable' contradict the above stated context of
the sentence. Hence, options (b) & (d) are
eliminated.
12. Answer: (B)
The sentence talks of return of 'A Midsummer
Night's Dream' and the remounting of (something).
The blank requires a noun at its place as it is
preceded by the possessive form 'Wheeldon's'. The
word 'rendition' (a performance or interpretation,
especially of a dramatic role or piece of music) fits
correctly in the blank as its use conveys that the
play is being produced again. Hence, option (b) is
the correct answer.
The words 'renegade' (a person who deserts and
betrays an organization, country, or set of
principles), 'renunciation' (the formal rejection of
something, typically a belief, claim, or course of
action), 'reparation' (the action of making amends
for a wrong one has done) and 'repentance' (the
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IBPS PO PRE_2022
action of repenting; sincere regret or remorse) are
all irrelevant to the context of the sentence and
thus, their use in the sentence renders it
meaningless. Hence, options (a), (c), (d) & (e) are
eliminated.
13. Answer: (C)
The sentence talks about the perception of reality
and the fact that it gave our ancestors an edge.
The blank requires an adjective at its place to
modify the noun 'outside world'. The word 'attuned'
(able to understand or recognize something) fits
correctly in the blank as its use conveys that the
ability to understand the outside world provided an
advantage to our ancestors. Hence, option (c) is
the correct answer.
The words 'attested' (witness or certify formally.),
'atrocious' (horrifyingly wicked), and 'abated' (less
intense or widespread) do not fit in the blank as
these qualities don't provide an edge to ancestors.
Hence, options (a), (b), & (e) are eliminated. The
word 'attenuated' (having been reduced in force,
effect, or value) contradicts the above-stated
context. Hence, option (d) is eliminated.
14. Answer: (D)
The sentence talks of trade tensions and the rolling
back of tariffs. The verb 'to be' is used as an
auxiliary to denote the progressive or continuous
aspect of an action; thus, be is followed by a
present participle. The word 'easing' fits correctly in
the blank as its use indicates that the tensions
between the countries are soothing as hinted by
the fact that the countries have decided to roll back
tariffs on each other. Hence, option (d) is the
correct answer.
The words 'ameliorate' and 'alleviates' are not
present participles; the blank requires a present
participle (as explained above). Hence, options (a)
& (c) are eliminated. The words 'aggravating'
(make a problem worse or more serious) and
'exasperating' (irritate and frustrate (someone)
intensely) contradict the above-stated context.
Hence, options (b) & (e) are eliminated.
15. Answer: (C)
The first and fifth emboldened words are incorrectly
used in the sentence. The word 'recent' needs to
be used with 'years' as the initial part of the
sentence talks about developments in current
years. 'Closer' should be used after 'work' as the
latter part of the sentence talks about Belarus's
interest in working with the West. So, A and E
interchange each other.
16. Answer: (E)
All the emboldened words in the given sentence
are correctly placed in the sentence.
17. Answer: (A)
Option (a) is incorrect. Refer to the third and fourth
sentences of the second paragraph, they convey
that excessive intake of water makes it difficult for
the body to absorb electrolytes such as sodium and
potassium. Refer to rest of the sentences of the
second paragraph only for rest of the options which
are correct.
18. Answer: (E)
Option (e) is incorrect. The passage cannot be
seen talking about vitamins. Refer to the third
sentence of the third paragraph for options (a) and
(c). Refer to last sentence of the last paragraph for
option (b). Refer to fifth sentence of the first
paragraph for option (d).
19. Answer: (D)
'Fatal' means 'causing death'; so, 'deadly' can
replace the word 'fatal' because rest of the words
are antonyms of 'fatal'.
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20. Answer: (B)
Option (b) is untrue. Refer to the third sentence of
the third paragraph, it conveys that people who
sleep for nine to eleven hours are at increased risk
of diseases like diabetes and heart problems.
Refer to rest of the sentences of the third
paragraph only for rest of the options, which are
correct.
21. Answer: (E)
Refer to the second last sentence of the first
paragraph which mentions some of the protein
sources but 'cheese' is not mentioned as one of
them.
22. Answer: (B)
'Holy Grail' means a thing which is eagerly pursued
or sought after.
23. Answer: (A)
Option (a) is incorrect. Refer to the fourth and the
fifth sentences of the last paragraph which conveys
that athletes require more amount of protein than
common people. Refer to rest of the sentences of
the last paragraph only for the rest of the options
which are correct, except option (d), the veracity of
which can be confirmed from the last sentence of
the penultimate paragraph of the passage.
24. Answer: (B)
Refer to the second sentence of the second
paragraph which states that consumption of water
in excess is termed as water intoxication.
25. Answer: (A)
'Halo' means 'a circle of light around
someone/thing to represent their holiness' and
'glory' means 'a thing that is impressive or worthy
of praise' so 'glory' can act as the synonym of the
word 'halo' while rest of the words are antonyms of
the 'halo'.
Direction (26-30): The correct sequence is BDECA.
The introduction of the topic should be given in an
independent sentence. Out of all the sentences,
sentence B is introducing the topic of sunscreens.
So, it is 1 st sentence of the passage. Sentence D
gives more details about the sunscreen's protection
against UV rays mentioned in sentence B. So, it
must be the 2nd sentence. Out of remaining
sentences, sentence E discusses the chemicals
that the products have and what are their harmful
effects on the body; 'also contain' mentioned in
sentence C shows that it is in continuation with the
sentence E; so EC is a pair in that order. And 'all
this makes it risky' given in sentence A shows that
it should be a concluding statement. So, sentence
A is the last sentence of the paragraph.
26. Answer: (D)
As per the rearrangement, the second sentence is
D.
27. Answer: (C)
As per the rearrangement, the first sentence is B.
28. Answer: (E)
As per the rearrangement, the last sentence is A.
29. Answer: (A)
As per the rearrangement, the fourth sentence is
C.
30. Answer: (B)
As per the rearrangement, the third sentence is E.
Quantitative Aptitude
Direction (31-35): Number of trousers sold from store C
and number of shirts sold from store D are in the
ratio 9: 10 respectively and their sum is 836.
Then,
Number of trousers sold from store C = 836 × 9/(9
+ 10) = 396
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IBPS PO PRE_2022 TEST ID - IPP - 891102808
Number of trousers sold from store D 50t - 50 = 40t
= 836 - 396 = 440 t= 5 hours. So, she must leave her home at 04.30
Average of number of trousers and shirts taken a.m.
together sold from store C is 468. Then, Distance travelled = 40 × 5 = 200km
Number of shirts sold from store C Therefore, to cover 200 km in 2.5 hours, she has to
= 2 × 468 - 396 = 540 drive her scooty at 200/2.5 i.e. 80 km/hr
Number of shirts sold from store A are 75% of the 38. Answer: (D)
number of shirts sold from store B. Difference Let Rs. P be the sum of money and R be the rate
between number of shirts sold from store A and B of interest.
is 150. Then, Amount paid by Pooja = P(1 + R/100) 2
Number of shirts sold from store A = 30240 ---(1)
= 75% of number of shirts sold from store B Amount paid by Usha = P(1 + R/100) 3
= (3/4) × number of shirts sold from store B = 36288 ---(2)
Then, number of shirts sold from store A Dividing (2) by (1), we get
= 150 × 3/(4 - 3) = 450 (1 + R/100) = 36288/30240 = 1.2
And, number of shirts sold from store B => R = 20%
= 450 + 150 = 600 39. Answer: (E)
Number of trousers sold from store A are 36 less Let P, Q and R can finish the job in P, Q and R
than the number of trousers sold from store C and respectively.
160 less than the number of trousers sold from Here, R = 60 hours
store D. And (1/Q) + (1/R) = 1/20
Number of trousers sold from store A (1/Q) + (1/60) = 1/20
= 396 - 36 = 360 1/Q = (3 - 1)/60
And, number of trousers sold from store D Q = 30 hours
= 360 + 160 = 520 Now, (1/P) + (1/Q) = 1/24
Total 945 trousers sold from store B and D. Then, (1/P) + (1/30) = 1/24
Number of trousers sold from store B 1/P = (5 - 4)/120
= 945 - 520 = 425 P = 120 hours
In tabular form: Therefore, part of job done by P in 40 hours
Store Number of Number of = 40/120 = 1/3rd part
trousers sold shirts sold 40. Answer: (C)
A 360 450 3√5866 ~18
B 425 600 18 + 8 +? =46
? = 20
C 396 540
41. Answer: (C)
D 520 440 Anuj's investment = 26000
31. Answer: (B) Praveen's investment = 65000
Here, number of trousers sold from store B and C Both invested for same period. So, profit ratio,
taken together = 425 + 396 = 821 Anuj: Praveen = 26000: 65000 = 2: 5
And, number of shirts sold from store B and C Total profit earned = P
taken together = 600 + 540 = 1140 Profit earned by Anuj and Praveen together
Therefore, difference = 1140 - 821 = 319 = (100 - 25)% of P
32. Answer: (A) = (75/100) × P
Number of shirts sold from store A = 450 = 3P/4
Number of shirts sold from store D = 440 Then, share of Anuj in profit = (3P/4) × 2/(2 + 5)
Then, number of shirts sold from store = 2400
= 3 × 420 - 450 - 440 = 370 P = 2400 × (7/2) × (4/3)
33. Answer: (D) P = 11200
Here, number of trousers sold from store A = 360 42. Answer: (D)
And, number of shirts sold from store C = 540 Go on subtracting 24, 21, 18, 15, 12, 9 from the
Therefore, ratio = 360: 540 = 2:3 numbers to get the next number.
34. Answer: (B) 43. Answer: (B)
In store D: Let CP of watch for A be '8x' rupees
Number of trousers sold = 520 So, SP of watch for A = CP of watch for B
Number of shirts sold = 440 = 125% of '8x' = '10x' rupees
Price of each trousers = 200 And SP of watch for B = CP of watch for C
Price of each shirt = 150 = 90% of '10x' = '9x' rupees
Therefore, total earnings = 200 × 520 + 150 × 440 If A had sold the watch to C at 25% profit directly.
= Rs.170000 CP of watch for C would have been
35. Answer: (A) = 125% of '8x' = '10x' rupees
Here, the average number of shirts sold from So, required percent = [(10x - 9x)/9x] × 100
stores A, B, and C taken together = 11.11%
= (450 + 600 + 540)/3 44. Answer: (A)
= 530 Let present age of Uma and Maya are (7x - 3)
36. Answer: (B) years and (5x + 2) years, respectively.
Using approximation So, present age of Seema = 8(7x - 3)/3 years
12 × 32 ÷ 20 – 47 + 32 = 19 – 47 + 32 = 4 The sum of present age of Uma, Maya, and Seema
37. Answer: (B) = 3 × 83/3
Let the time taken by Mahima to reach office at a => (7x - 3) + (5x + 2) + 8(7x - 3)/3 = 83
speed of 40 km/hr be 't hours'. => x = 3
Now time taken by her to reach office at 08:30 will So, present age of Seema = 8 (7 × 3 - 3)/3
be 't-1 hours'. = 48 years
So, 50 × (t-1) = 40 × t (since distance is same) 45. Answer: (B)
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IBPS PO PRE_2022 TEST ID - IPP - 891102808
Go on multiplying with 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 to get next
number.
So, 96 is wrong.
46. Answer: (B)
Let the ten's digit be 'x' and one's digit be 'y'
The number = 10x + y So, wrong term = 204
xy = 24 52. Answer: (E)
(x, y) can be {(4,6), (6,4), (3,8), (8,3)} The pattern is as follows:
From Statement I: (17 - 1) x 2 = 32
x + y = 11 (32 - 1) x 2 = 62
(x, y) can be {(3,8), (8,3)} (62 - 1) x 2 = 122
So the number can either be 38 or 83 (122 - 1) x 2 = 242
From Statement II: (242 - 1) x 2 = 482
Since, (x, y) can be {(4,6), (6,4), (3,8), (8,3)} (482 - 1) x 2 = 962
Only prime number that can be formed is 83 53. Answer: (C)
Statement II alone is sufficient. From equation I:
47. Answer: (D) x 2 +12x +27 = (x + 3)(x + 9)= 0
By using Either I or II alone, we cannot get the => x = -3, -9
values related to both persons. From equation II:
By using both statements together: y 2 -8y -33 = (y + 3)(y -11) = 0
I. Raghav's investment = (60,000 × 6 + 30,000 × 6) => y = -3, 11
= 540000 X = -3 X = -9
II. Punit joined four months after the start of Y = -3 x = y x<y
business, Punit's amount was 60% of Raghav's Y = 11 x < y x<y
amount during the last six months. So, x ≤ y
By using both, 54. Answer: (D)
Punit's investment = 60% of Raghv's amount From equation I:
during the last six months. x 2 -32x + 240 = (x -20)(x -12)= 0
= 60% of 30,000 = 18,000 => x = 20, 12
Punit joined four months after the start of business From equation II:
then Punit's investment y 2 -22y +120 = (y -12)(y -10) = 0
= 18,000 × 8 = 144000 => y = 12, 10
Raghav:Punit = 15:4 X = 20 X = 12
But the total profit is not given, so data is Y = 12 x > y x=y
insufficient. Y = 10 x > y x>y
48. Answer: (D)
So, x ≥ y
Let the present ages of P, Q and R is 'P', 'Q' and
55. Answer: (D)
'R' respectively.
From equation I:
From I:
x 2 +x - 20 = (x + 5)(x -4)= 0
Average of present ages of all the three persons is
=> x = -5, 4
given:
From equation II:
So, we can find the sum of P, Q and R.
y 2 +26y +105 = (y + 21)(y + 5) = 0
P + Q + R = Known ....... (1)
=> y = -21, -5
Q = Known ...... (2)
X = -5 X = 4
From (1) and (2):
Y = -21 x > y x>y
P + R = Known ....... (3)
We can't calculate the present age of person R. Y = -5 x=y x>y
Statement I alone is not sufficient. So, x ≥ y
From II: 56. Answer: (A)
Since, P is eldest among all three and difference From equation I:
between the present age of person P and R is x 2 +x -240 = (x + 16)(x -15)= 0
given. => x = -16, 15
P - R = Known ........ (4) From equation II:
We can't calculate the present age of person R. y 2 -35y +304 = (y -16)(y -19) = 0
Statement II alone is not sufficient. => y = 16, 19
From I and II: X = -16 X = 15
From statement I we get: Y = 16 x < y x<y
P + R = Known ....... (3) Y = 19 x < y x<y
From statement II we get: So, x < y
P - R = Known ........ (4) 57. Answer: (E)
From (3) and (4) we can calculate the present ages From equation I:
of P and R. x 2 +24x +95 = (x + 19)(x + 5)= 0
Statements I and II together are sufficient. => x = -19, -5
49. Answer: (D) From equation II:
Let the given numbers be A, B, C, D, E, F, G. y 2 +27y +92 = (y + 23)(y + 4) = 0
Then, A, A x 1 + 1, B x 2 + 2, C x 3 + 3, D x 4 + 4, => y = -23, -4
E x 5 + 5, F x 6 + 6 are the required numbers. X = -19 X = -5
Clearly, 228 is wrong. Y = -23 x > y x>y
50. Answer: (A) Y = -4 x<y x<y
? = (85 × 25/17) 1/3 So, relationship cannot be established between x
=5 and y
51. Answer: (E) 58. Answer: (A)
Logic for the given series: From the rule of alligation:
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Reasoning Aptitude
Directions (66-70):
So, A: B = 8: 16 = 1: 2 10 Blue
Again, from the rule of alligation: 9 White
8 Black
7 Red
6 White
So, B: C = 20: 8 = 5: 2 5 Blue
Now, A: B: C = 5: 10: 4 4 Blue
Required percentage = [(5 + 4)/10] × 100 = 90% 3 Red
59. Answer: (B) 2 Black
Using Approximation 1 Blue
20% × 375 ÷ 4 = ? ÷ 3 66. Answer: (C)
75 ÷ 4 × 3 = ? 4 blue boxes are there.
? = 56 67. Answer: (B)
60. Answer: (C) White is kept 2 nd from top.
1728 + 4096 = 4913 + ? 68. Answer: (B)
5824 = 4913 + ? Blue boxes = 1+4+5+10 = 20
? = 911 69. Answer: (C)
Directions (61-65): For the year 2016: Two blue boxes are kept between the two black
Total no. of applicants = 2400 boxes.
Number of candidates who did not clear the written 70. Answer: (E)
exam = 1500 The maximum possible number of boxes between
So, no. of candidates who cleared the written exam any two blue boxes is eight boxes as they are kept
= 2400 - 1500 = 900 at bottom and top.
Percentage of candidates selected from the Directions (71-75):
interview = 15% MAY JUNE JULY
No. of candidates selected from the interview 14 Blackberry Nokia Realme
= 15% of 900 = 135 17 Samsung Asus Redmi
We tabulate the given data as follows: 23 Apple Motorola Lenovo
Year Applicants Not Percentage 71. Answer: (C)
cleared of selected 4 phones were launched between Lenovo and
written Nokia phone.
exam 72. Answer: (B)
2016 2400 1500 15% Blackberry phone was launched immediately
2017 2400 1800 8% before Samsung phone.
2018 2400 2000 25% 73. Answer: (A)
The apple phone was launched on 23 rd May.
2019 2400 1400 6% 74. Answer: (B)
61. Answer: (C) Statement b is true.
Number of candidates who cleared the written 75. Answer: (D)
exam in 2018 = 2400 - 2000 = 400 All phones are launched on an odd date except
Number of candidates in the year 2018 who were Realme.
selected for the post = 25% of 400 = 100 Directions (76-78): M is the daughter in law of S and
62. Answer: (A) mother of V. U is the father of K who is the only
Number of candidates who cleared the written brother of V.
exam in 2016 = 2400 - 1500 = 900
Number of candidates who cleared the written
exam in 2019 = 2400 - 1400 = 1000
Ratio = 900:1000 = 9:10
63. Answer: (E)
Number of candidates selected in 2019 = 6% of
(2400 - 1400) = 60
Percentage = 60/2400 × 100% = 2.5%
64. Answer: (D)
Number of candidates who cleared the written T is married to S and is the only brother of J.
exam in 2017 = 2400 - 1800 = 600
Number of candidates selected for the post in 2016
= 15% of (2400 - 1500) = 135
Difference = 600 - 135 = 465
65. Answer: (B)
Number of candidates who did not clear the written
exam in 2018 = 2000
Number of candidates selected for the post in 2017
= 8% of (2400 - 1800) = 48
Ratio = 2000:48 = 125:3
76. Answer: (A)
K is the grandson of T.
77. Answer: (D)
Since the gender of V is unknown, hence it cannot
be determined.

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IBPS PO PRE_2022 TEST ID - IPP - 891102808
78. Answer: (E) Directions (87-90): The logic followed in obtaining the
Since the gender of J is not known hence it cannot steps is as follows:
be determined. Words are picked according to the alphabetical
79. Answer: (C) There are 5 such pairs. order of last letters of the words and placed in the
CORONAVIRUS extreme left. And the numbers are picked in
CORONAVIRUS ascending order and placed in the extreme right
CORONAVIRUS end.
CORONAVIRUS Input: date 25 408 words beeper 19 book xerox
CORONAVIRUS 37 61
80. Answer: (E) The given statements are, So, in step I, 'date' is the first word to be picked as
Only a few cycles are trucks. No trucks are cars. e comes first among e, k, r, s and x (the last letters
Only a few buses are cycles. of the given words) and the smallest number
The basic minimum overlapping diagram is, among the given numbers is 19.
So, steps will be:
Step I: date 25 408 words beeper book xerox 37 61
19
Step II: date book 408 words beeper xerox 37 61
19 25
Step III: date book beeper 408 words xerox 61 19
25 37
Step IV: date book beeper words 408 xerox 19 25
37 61
Here, all cycles cannot be trucks and some cycles Step V: date book beeper words xerox 19 25 37 61
are not cars. 408
Hence, the conclusion I does not follow and the Step V is the last step of the input.
conclusion II follows. 87. Answer: (A) Step III: date book beeper 408 words
81. Answer: (A) The given statements are, xerox 61 19 25 37
Only plants are grass. Only a few bushes are trees. '61' is the fourth term from the extreme right in step
Some plants are trees. III.
The basic minimum overlapping diagram is, 88. Answer: (B) The term 'words xerox 61' appear in
the same order only in step III.
89. Answer: (B) Step IV: date book beeper words 408
xerox 19 25 37 61
One word 'xerox' is in between the numbers '25'
and '408'.
90. Answer: (C) Step V: date book beeper words
xerox 19 25 37 61 408
xerox : 19 :: beeper : 37
xerox is the 5 th term from left while 19 is the
Here, no grass is a tree and no grass can be bush. 5 th term from right.
Hence, the conclusion I follows and conclusion II Similarly, beeper is the 3rd term from left while 37
does not follow. is the 3rd term from right.
82. Answer: (C) Directions (91-95):
Person Day Instrument
83. Answer: (C) For A ≤ B > C = D ≥ E ≥ F, B > E & C E MONDAY GUITAR
≥ F both are true. F TUESDAY SITAR
84. Answer: (E) The given expression X<Z and R ≥ U A WEDNESDAY FLUTE
are definitely true only if the expression is:
U=S≤X≤R<P<Z C THURSDAY DRUMS
Or D FRIDAY PIANO
U=S≤X=R<P<Z B SATURDAY VIOLIN
Therefore, Either = or ≤ will replace the question
mark. G SUNDAY TABLA
85. Answer: (B) There are different groups of 4 91. Answer: (C) 5 people went after F.
alphabets each: 92. Answer: (A) B plays Violin
D__A__X__U 93. Answer: (D) D went on Friday is true.
B__Y__V__S 94. Answer: (E) The person learning flute went on
Z__W__T__Q Wednesday.
X... 95. Answer: (D) 3 people went between the person
86. Answer: (E) "light song music" is coded as "41 48 learning Tabla and A.
44"..(i) Directions (96-100):
"writer movie song" is coded as "47 44 45"..(ii)
"movie light music" is coded as "41 48 45"..(iii) 96. Answer: (D) 16 people were seated in the row.
From I and iii: 97. Answer: (B) 9 people were seated to the left of N.
Song = 44 98. Answer: (C) 10 people were seated between J and
Movie = 45 W.
From ii: 99. Answer: (B) The number of people seated between
Writer = 47 J and S is same as the number of people seated
the code for music and light cannot be determined. between D and V.
Hence the code for "music song movie" cannot be 100. Answer: (D) There are two people between each
determined. pair except J and W.

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