THE MAHARASHTRA CONTROL OF ORGANIZED CRIME ACT, 1999

1. The. Maharashtr year

tra Control of Organised Crime Act was passed in the

2000

a.

b 1999

1998

1997

Ans. b

2. The Maharashtra Control of Organised Crime Act came into force from

a. 24th February 1999

b. 1st April, 2000 c. 26th February, 2000

d. 26th February, 1999.

Ans. a

3. The Maharashtra Control of Organised Crime Act, 1999 was passed with which of the
following purpose(s)?

To make special provisions for prevention of criminal activity by organized crime

syndicate or gang, and for matters connected there will or incidental thereto

a.

To make special provisions for control of criminal activity by organized crime syndicate
or gang, and for matters connected there will or incidental thereto

b.

lo make special provisions for coping with criminal activity by Organized crime syndicate
or gang, and for matters connected there will or incidental thereto

d. All of the above

Ans.d

4 nized ( ption s 1999, to whom of the following the authorisation of ie

Under section 14 of the Maharashtra Control of oro

wire, electronic or oral communication is given:

Additional Inspector General

b. Superintendent of Police

C.Deputy Superintendent of Police

d. Inspector of Police

Ans. b

5. The Maharashtra Control of Organised Crime Act, 1999 applies to?

a. To the whole State of Maharashtra

b. To the whole of India

C To the whole of india except Jammu and Kashmir

d. None of the above

Aus. a

6 Which section provides punishment for organized crime?

a. Section 2

b. Section 3

Section 4

Section 5

Ans. b

7. Whose decision shall be final where any question arises as to the

jurisdiction of any Special Court?

a. State Govermment

b.Central Government

District Magistrate

High Court

d.

Ans. a
8 nappeallies to which of the following authority from any judgement,

2.

nce or order, not being an interlocutory order of a Special Court? State Government

Central overnment

District Magistrate

d. High Court

Ans. d

9 ory appeal under section 12 of the Act shall be preferred within how 9.

a.thirty days
b. sixty days

C.ninety days d. forty-five days

Ans. a

10. The Special Court shall, for the purpose of trial of any offence under this Act have all
the powers of which Court?

a. District Court

b. High Court

c. Metropolitan Magistrate

d. Court of Sessions

Ans. d

11. Who can be appointed as the Competent Authority for the purpose of section 14 of
this Act?

d.Any officer not below the rank of Secretary to Government

b. High Court Judge
CDistrict Judge

d. Non the above

Ans. a
12. An application to the Competent Authority under s Act shall consist of which of the
following information of authorising or approving the interception of wire, clectroor
communication by the investigating officer when such iOr Or

may provide or has provided evidence of any offence involving an

organised crime?

the identity of the investigative or law entorcement officer mal the application, and the
head of the department authorizino3

a.

application

ZAng the

a statement as to whether or not other modes of enquiry of intelliegence gathering

have been tried and failed or why the reasonably appear to be unlikely to succeed if
tried or to be dangerous or is likely to expose the identity of those connected with the
operation of interception

ney

a stalement of the period of time for which the interception is required to be

maintained. If the nature of the enquiry is such that the authorization for interception
should not automatically terminate when the described type of communication has
been first obtained, a particular description of facts establishing probable cause to
believe that additional communications of the same type will occur thereafter

d. All of the above

Aus. d

13. If any person on behalf of a member of an organised crime syndicate | is, or, at any
time has been, in possession of movable or immovable property which he cannot
satisfactorily account for, he shall be punishable with? a. Imprisonment for a term which
shall not be less than three years but which may extend to ten years and shall also be
liable to fine

b. Imprisonment for a term which shail not be less than five years but which may extend
to ten years and shall also be liable to fine

He shall only be liable to fine

d. Imprisonment for a term which sShall not be less than three

years
ans. a

t,

14, arialCourlshatl be presided over by a judge to be appointed by

State Government, WIlh the cóncurrence of?

a. Chief Justice of India

b. Metropolitan Magistrate
c. Chief Justice of the Bombay High Court

d. Sessions Judge

ans. C

15. A person shall not be qualified for appointnment as a judge or an additional judge of
a Special Court, unless he immediately before

such appointment, is?

a. A Metropolitan Magistrate

b. A Sessions Judge or an additional sessions judge

c. A Judicial Magistrate of First Class

d. A Judicial Magistrate of Second Class

Ans. b

16. When trying any offence punishable under this Act, a Special Court may also try any
other offence with which the accused may, under thee Code, be charged at the same
trial, if the offence is connected with

such other offence.

True

a.

False

b.

C. Partly True

d. Partly False

Ans. a
17. he Competent Authority shall immedialely after passing the order under sub-section
(4), but in any case not later than PasSinE of the order, submit a copy of the same to the
keviewOmmittee constituted under section 15 alongwith all the relev ng papers, record
and his own findings, etc, in respect of the Order, for consideration and approval of the
order by the Keview Committee

days from

a. Seven

b. Five

Ten

C.

Six

Ans. a

18. A person shall not be qualified to be appointed as a Public Prosecule an Additional

Public Prosecutor or a Special Public Prosecutor unlec he has been in practice as an
Advocate for not less than how mane

ecutor,

years?

Two Years

Five Years

C. Ten years

d. Seven Years

ans. c

19. There shall be a Competent Authority under section 14.

Committee to review every order passed by the

Standing

a.

b. Review
Selection

C.

d. None of the above

Ans. b

20. The confession under this ACtsnall be recorded in a free atmosphere same language
in which tne person is examined and as narrated

by him.

a. True

False

b.

Partly True

C.

d. Partly False

ANS. a

21. been defined under which section?

1so term "organized crime and "organized crime syndicate" have

a. Section 2(g) and 2(b)

b. Section 2(a) and 2(b)

c. Section 2(c) and 2(d)

d. Section 2{e) and 2()

Ans.d

22. The term Special Court as defined u/s. 2(g) of the Act means?

a. Special Court constituted under section4.

b. Special Court constituted under section 5.

c.Special Court constituted under section 6

d. Special Court constituted under section 7

Ans. b

23. While summarily trying a case, Special Court may sentence an

imprisonment for a term not exceeding years

a. 3

b. 4
C.2

d.5

Ans. c

24. Which of the following is not a landmark rulings of the Courts on MCOCA?

. Hon ble Supreme Court of India in the case of State of NCT of Delhi v. Brijesh Singh,
[2017 SCC OnLine SC 1206]

bguib Abdul FHamidNachan u Superintendent, Central Jail, {2017 SCC OnLineBom 738)

CAjmalKasab Case

d Sushila Aggarwal v. State of NCT of Delhi (20205 SCC 1]

Ans. d

25. Which of the following is/are the salient features of Maharashtra Control of
Organised Crimes Act 1999?

The Act provides for the establishment of Special Courts for the purpose of effective
adjudication of cases pertaining to Organised Crime and Terrorism.

a.

b. Provides for the appointment of Competent Authority for the purpose of interception
of wires, and medium ot electronic or oral communication.

C. Constitution of Review Committee to review every order of

Competent Authority in relation to authorisation of interception etc.

d. All of the above

Ans. d

26. What are the presumptions as to offences committed under the MCOCA?
a. That any unlawful arms and other material including documents or papers were
recovered from the possession of the accused and there is reason to believe that the
same have been used in the commission

of the offence;

b. That the evidence of the expert shows that the fingerprint of the

accused was found from the crime scene and materials used in
C. That the accused has rendered any financial support or aid to the person accused or
any suspect of offence committed under this Act.

d non of the above

ans. d

Ans 27. Which of the following actts) 1s/are punishable under McoCA2?

commission of the ofence under this Act; and d. None of the above

Conspiring or attempts to commit or abet or knowingly facilitates

any organized crimne

b. Harboring or concealing or attempt thereon any member of an

organized crime

Member of an organized crimne

Holding of any property derived or obtained

d.

commission of an organized crime

e. All of the above

Ans, e

28. Organized Cri1e means?7

a. Continuing unlawiul activity by an individual, singly or jointly, either as a member

of an organized crime syndicate or on behalf of such syndicate, by use of volence
or threat of violence or intimidation or coercion, or other unlawful means, with
thhe objective of gaining pecuniary benetils, or gaiing undue economic or other
advantage for himself or any person or promoling insurgency.

b. unlawful aclivity by an individual, singly or jointly, either as a member of an organized

crime syndicale or on behalf of such syndicale, by use of violence or threat of violence or
intimidation or coercion, or otlierunlawlul means, with the objective of gaining
pecuniary benelits, or gaining unduc economic or other advantage for himself or any
person or promoting insurgency.

c. continuing unlawful activily by an individual, singly, as a member of an organized

crime syndicate, by use of non-violence or threat of non-violence or intimidation or
coercion, or olher unlawful means,

with the objective of gaining pecuniary bencfits, or gaining undue

economicorolheradvanlage for himself or any person or promoting

nsurgency.

d. None of the above

Ans. a

29. What docs continuing unlawful activity mean?

a. an actívity prohibited by law for the time being in force, which is a cognizable offence
punishable with imprisonment of three years or morc, undertaken cither singly or
jointly, as a member of an organized crime syndicate or on behalf of such, syndicate in
respect of which more than one charge-sheets have been field before a competent
Court in the preceding period of ten years and that Court has taken cognizance of such
offence

b.

an activity allowed by law for the time being in force, which is a cognizable offence
punishable with imprisonment of three years or more, undertaken either singly or
jointly, as a member of an organized crime syndicate or on behalf of such, syndicate in
respect of which more than one charge-sheets have been field before a competent Ourt
in he preceding period of ten years and that CCourt has taken Cognizance of such
offence

an activity prohibited by law for the time being in force, which is on-Cognizable offence
punishable with imprisonment of iive

years or more, undertaken either singly or jointly, as a an organized crime syndicate or

on behalf of such, respect of which more than one charge-sheets have been fieldi a
competent Court in the preceding period of ten years and thate has taken cognizance of
such offence. an activity prohibited by law for the time being in force is a non-cognizable
and non bailable offence punishable imprisonment of five years or more, undertaken
either sina jointly, as a member of an organized Crime syndicate or on bel of such,
syndicate in respect of which more than one charge-sheets have been field before a
competent Court in the preceding period of ten years and that Court has taken
cognizance of such offence

Ans. a
30. Continuing unlawful activity' is a/an condition to establish the offence of organized
crime.

a. optional

b. prerequisite

C. volitional

d. all of the above

e. none of the abovee

Ans. b

31. What is the punishment for the offence of organised crime if such offence has
resulted in the death of any person?

a. punishable with imprisonment for life and shall also be liable toa fine, subject to a
minimum fine of rupees two lacs

b. punishable with imprisonment for a term not less than ten years and shall also be
liable to a ne, subject to a minimum fine of rupees

two lacs

c, unishable with death or imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to a fine, subject
to a minimum fine of rupees one lac

Dunishable with imprisonment for a term not less than five years d. and shall also be
liable to a ne, subject to a minimum fine of rupees

pees

one lac

ans. c

32 What is the punishment tor the offence of organised crime if such offence has not
resulted in the death of any person? punishable with imprisonment for life and shall
also be liable to a fine, subject to a minimum fine ot rupees two lacs

a.

b. punishable with imprisornment for a term not less than ten years and shall also be
liable to a fine, subject to a minimum fine of rupees
two l lacs punishable with death or imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to a
fine, subject to a minimum fine of rupees one lac

d. punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than five years but
which may extend to imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to a fine, subject to a
minimum fine of rupees five lacs.

Ans. d
33. What is the punishment for attempting or abetting the offenee of

organised crime?

a. imprisonment for a term which shall be not less than five years but which may extend
to imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to a fine, subject to a minimum fine of
rupees five lacs.

imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to a fine, subject to a minimum fine of
rupees two lacs

b.

C. imprisonment for a term not less than ten years and shall also be liable to a fine,
subject to a minimum fine of rupees two lacs d. death or imprisonmernt for life and
shall also be liable to a fine, subject to a minimum fine of rupees one lac

Ans. a

34. What is the punishment for the offence of harbouring or concealing OF attempts to
harbour or conceal, any member of an organised crime syndicate?

a.

mprisonment for a term which shall be not less than five years but which may extend to
imprisonment for life and shall also be liable O a fine, subject to a minimum fine of
rupees five lacs. imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to a fine, subject to a b.
minimum fine of rupees two lacs

prisonment for a term not less than ten years and shall aisO DE

a fine, subject to a minimum fine of rupees two lacs

d. death or imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to a fine, subin. to a minimum
fine of rupees one

Ans. a

35. What is the punishment for the who is a memmber of an organised crime syndicate?

a. imprisonment for a term which shall be not less than five years hut which may extend
to imprisonment for lite and shall also be liable to a fine, subject to a minimum fine of
rupees five lacs.
b. imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to a fine, subject toa

minimum tine of rupees twO lacs

imprisonment for a term not less than ten yeais and shall also be liable to a fine, subject
to a minimum fine of rupees two lacs

d. death or imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to a fine, subject to a minimum
fine of rupees one lac

Ans. a

36. What is the punishment for a person who holds any property derived or obtained
from commission of an organised crime or which has been acquired through the
organised crime syndicate funds?

a. which may extend to imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to a fine, subject to
a minimum fine of rupees five lacs.

b. imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than three years but which may
extend to imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to fine, subject to a
minimum 11ne ot rupees two lacs.

imprisonment for a term not less than ten years and shall also be liable to a fine, subject
to a minimum ane of rupees two lacs

death or imprisonment tor hieanashal also be liable to a fne, subject

to a minimum fine of rupees one lac

Ans. b

37. Whatis the punishment fora person who on behalf of a member of an

organised crime syndicate iS, Or, at any time

of movable or immovable property which he cannot possession satisfactorily

account for?

a. which may extend to imprisonment tor life and. lacs.

to a fine, Subject to a minimum fine of rupees all also be liable

ans. c

39 The Maharashtra ContrniOrgznised Crime Bat, 1999 epesleiwrich of the

folliowinzOrdinancedsi?

a The MaheresktraCmtuh od rzznisedCrhnendirarice, 1999

b. The eharasktraCtrch oi rzgrássdCrizerdinarcz, 19 The MahaashtraCnttci of
OrzzrásedCeizeCrdinace, 1997

d oe of freaiorre

hich á the follrwing is/are correciy matched pzir: 1. SecialCout

2 ca i end 2

Ans . a

INTRODUCTION TO CYBER CRIMES-RELEVANT PROV 2000

UNDER THE INFORMATÍON TELHNOLOGY ACT

41. information on Technology {IT} Act 2103 Came in to force on

4 nfom

1 ctoker 21000

.9June 200 jurse 20033

d. 17 October 2000

Ans. d

2The use of the internst of otheteiectennitmeas to atalk or haras individual, a group of

individuais, or an organisationía termed: a. Cybenpaox . Cybet stalking

Poerongrapbry

Note haesie

Ans. b

43. Which of the following is a cybezerime?

a. Hachng

b. Worm attack

c Virsattaci

d All of tise

Ans. d

44. The United Nationsommissioi on Tnternational Trade 1aw TRAL) Adopted the Model
Law on c-commerce i

a. 1997
1998

1996

d. 20i3

Ans. a

45. Chapter 2, Information Technology Act, 2000 which was originally

pigital Signature was renamed as in IT (Amendment) Act, 2008. "Digital Signature and
blectronic Signature" Digital Signature and E-Signature" C"Digital and Electronic
Signature"

d None of the above

Ans. d

46. Which among the following are the digital signature certifying authorities in India?

a. M/s Safescript

b. M/sNCERT

C. M/s MTL

d. All of the above

ans. a

47. Section 43, Information Technology Act deals with

a. criminal liabilityy b. civil liability

C. both the above

d. none of the above

Ans. b

48. "Where a body corporate is negligent in implementing reasonable security practices

and thereby causes wrongful loss or gain to any person, such body corporate shall be
liable to pay damages by way of compensation to the person so affected." Which
section of the Information Technology Act, 2008 envisages so?
a. Section 43
b. Section 43-A
c. Section 43-B
d.Section 43-C

ANs. b

49. With reference to cyber eriimes, worn attack

a revdsthhe virus to attach

b, do not need the virus to attach

C.eeds the host to attach

d. do not need the host lo attach

AnS d

50. An attempt to acquire sensitive inforvmation such as username pasnwords, and

eredit card details (and sometimes, indirectly, money)br masquerading as a trust worthy
cntity in an clectronic com-municałlio

is known As:

, Salani attacks

b. P'hishing

c. Data diddling

d.

forgery

Ans, b

51. Section 43-A, Information Technology Act deals with

a. compensation for failure to protect data b. punishnent for sending offensive mes-
sages

c. identity theft

d. impersonation

Ans. a

52. The Act to provide legal recognition for transactions carried out py means of
electronic data interchange and other means of electronie communication, commonly
referred to as "Electronic Commerce",

dealt under?

a. the Insormation Technology Act

b. the nformation and Communication lechnology Act

the Infornation Communication Act

dthe Information and Cyber Space Act

Ans a

53. asymmetric crypto system under the information technology act means a system
creating a digital signature and an individual key to verify the digital signature

key pair consisting of a private key for

of a secure

b. a lock to veriíy the digital signature

c. a public key to veriky the digital signa-ture

d. a government key to verity the digital signature

Ans. C

54, The Controller of Certifying Authorities in India must maintain a

database of the dis-closure records of

1. Certifying Authority 2. Cross Certifying Authority 3. Foreign Certifying Authority

a.
1 and 2

2 and 3

C3 and 1

d. 1,2 and 3

Ans. a

55. Under Section 3Z IT Act, 2000, the certifying authority can suspend the digital
signature certificate if the subscriber is found guilty of mal--practice the subscriber is
involved in cyber terrorism

3. the subscriber requests for the same the authority is of opinion that it is in public
interest 1 and 2 2 and 3
c 3 and 4
. and i

Ans. C

:.

56. In the cases before Appellate Tribunal, the appellant

a. cannot appear in person without a legal practitioner b. cannot authorise a legal

practitioner to appear on his behali

cannot authorise his officer to appear on his behalf

officer nor a legal

d. cannot authorise his relative who is neither his officerr practitioner to appear on
his behalf

Ans. d

57. In India which of the following authorities has the power to block

websites?

a. CERT-in

MCIIPC

C-DAC

C.

d. Ministry of IT

Ans. a

58. Which among the following is authorised under the Information Technology Act,
2000 to prescribe the security procedures and practices for the purpose of Sections 14
and 15 of the Act?

a. Central Government

State Government

D.

CCertihying authority d. 1ssuing authorityy

-

Ans. a

59. Indian Computer Emergency esponse Team to serve as national agency for incident
response is constituted under Section

a. 71, 1T Act

b. 70, TTAct

c. 70-A, IT Act

d. 70-B, IT Act

Ais. d

60, Information lechnolo8y Act was enacted in

1988

1996

b.

C. 2000

d.

2004

Ans. C

61, The Government of India passed the Information Technology Act in 2000 with the
objective

a. to provide legal sanction to all transac-tions for e-commerce

b. to facilitate the electronic filing of all documents to the government

to amend IPC, Indian Evidence Act, to punish cyber crimes

C.

d. all of the above

Ans. d

62. Which chapter of Cyber Law provides the legal recognition to Electronic Signature?
 a. Chapter III

Chapter IV

D.

Chapter IX

d. Chapter IX and IX

Ans. a

63. Which Act is covering cyber crimes?

(a) Indian Telecommunications Act

a.

b.

(b) Indian Penal Code

(c)

Indian Evidence Act

d. (d) Information Technology Act

Ans. d

64, the authentication to be affected by the use of Asymmetric Crypto System and hash
function is known as:
a. Public Key

Private Key

Electronic Signature

C. Electronic Governance

Ans. c

65. Punishment for Cyber Terrorism under Section 66-F, information

Technology Act, 2000 shall be punishable: With imprisonment which may extend to
three years or with fine not exceed-ing two lakh rupees or with both.

a.

With imprisonmment for a term which may extend to seven years and shall also be
liable to fine.
.

c With imprisonment which may extend to inmprisonment for life.

d.

With imprisonment of either descrip-tion for a term which may extend to ten years and
shall also be liable to fine.

Ans. C

66. Many Cyber Crimes comes under Indian Penal Code Which one of the following is an
example?

Sending Threatening message by Email

a.

b.

Forgery of Electronic Record

C. Bogus Website

d. All of above

Ans. d

67. The Information Technology ACt Z00U 1s an Act of Indian Parliament

notified on

a. 27th October 2000

b. 15th December 2000

C. 17th November 2000

d 17th October 2000

Ans. d

68. Digital signature, Certificate is various applications

requirement under

a. Statutory
b. Legislative

c. Governmental
Voluntary

d.

Ans. a

69. Assessing Computer without prior authorization is a cyber crime that comes under

a. Section 65

b. Section 66

c. Section 68

d. Section 70

Ans. b

70.

means a person who has been granted a licence to issue

a electronic signature certificate.

a. Certifying Authority
b. Certifying Private Key Authority C.Certifying system controller

d. Appropriate Authority

Ans. a

71.

1S a data that has been organized or presented in a meaningful

manner.

A process

Software C. Storage

b.

d information

Ans. d

72
is an application of information and communication fechnology (ICT) for delivering
Government Service.
a. Governance

b Electronic Governance

Governance and Ethics Risk and Governance

C.

d.

Ans.b

73. The Altering of data so that it is not usable unless the changes are

undone is

a. Biometrics

b. Encryption

Ergonomics

C.

Compression

d.

Ans. b

74. Authentication is

a. To assure identity of user on a remote systemn a

Insertion

b.

Modification

d. Integration

Ans. a

75. The following cannot be explolteuDyassgning or by licensing the rights of others

a. Patent

Design

C. Trademark
d. All of the above

ans. c

76. Which of the following is rnot a type of cyber črime?

a. Data theft

b. Forgery
c. Damage to data and systems

d. Installing antivirus for protection

ANS. d

77. Cyber-crime can be categorized into

-Ypes.

b.

C. 2

d.

Ans. C

78. Which of the following is not done by cyber criminals?

a. Unauthorized account access

b. Mass attack using Trojans as botnet

c.E-mail spoofing and spamming

d. Report vulnerability in any system

Ans. d

79. What is the punishment in India for stealing computer documents, assets or any
software's source code from any organization, individual, or from any other means?

a 6 months of imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 50,000

b 1 year of imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 100,000
C.2 years of imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 250,000
d.3 years of imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 500,000

Ans.d

80 controller of Certifying Authorities (CCA) work under ?

a. Prime Minister office
b. Reserve Bank of India

CMinistry of Communication & I1

dautonomous body

Ans C

81. What type of cyber-crime, its laws and punishmenic

does sectin

the Indian IT Act holds?

a. Cracking or illegally hack into any system

b.

b. Putting antivirus into the victim

Stealing data

C.

d. Stealing hardware components

Ans.a

82. Under which section of IT Act, stealing any digital asset or informair is written a
cyber-crime.

a. 65

b.

65-D

67

C.
70

ans. a

83. Which of the following is not a type of peer-to-peer cyber-crme

Phishing

a.

Injecting Trojans to a target victim

MiTM

d. Credit card details leak in deep web

Ans.d

84. Which section of IT Act was invalidated by Supreme Court of Indla

Section 66F

Section 6B

Section 66D

d. Section 66A

Ans. d

85. Which are the sections of t Act applicable før Cyber pornography?

a66, 66A, 66B

b.67,67A, 67B

67, 67C, 67D

d.None of the above

Ans. b

86. What is the time limit for filing appeal against the order of Cyber

appellate tribunal?
a. 30 days

b. 60 days

45 days

90 days

d.

Ans. b

87. . refers to email that appears to have been originated from one source when it was
actually sent from another source.

Email bombing

a.

b. Email spoofing

c. Email spamming

d. None of these

Ans. c

88. In cyber law terminology 'DoS' meAns.

a. Denial of Service

b. Disc operating System

C.Distant operator Service

d. None of these

ANs, a

89, India's first cyber police station

Delhi

b.Bangalore C. Chennai

d. Mumbai
Ans..b

THE JUVENILE JUSTICE (CARE AND PROTECTION OF CHILDREN) ACT, 2015

90.Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act was passed by the Government
of India in?

2016

a.

b.2015

C. 20188

d. 2019

ans . b

91. The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 came into force from

a. 15th January, 2016

b 15th May, 2015

b.

I5th May, 2016

C.

d. 15th December, 2015

Ans. a

92. The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015

extends its application to?

a. The whole of India

The whole of India except Jammu & Kashmir

b.

C. The whole of State of Maharashtra

d. None of the above.

Ans. A

93. The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015

repealed

a. Juveniles Act, 1986

b. Children's Act, 1905

c. Some Provisions of Human Rights Act, 1993

d.The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2000

Ans. d

94. the Juvenile Justice (Care anarotection of Children) Act, 2015 is based o which
among the following international Conventions?

d on

a. UNO Convention on Rights of Child, 1989

b. UNO Standard Minimum Rules for Administration of Juvenile

Justice, 1985
c. UNORules for Protection of Juveniles Deprived of their Liberty, 1990

d. All the above

Ans. d

95. "Juvenile" or "Child" under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act,
2015 means

a. a child below the age of 18 years

b. child below the age of 16 years

c child below the age of 15 years

d. a child below the age of 12 years

Ans. a

96. Under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 which
authority is empowered to establish "Children's Home"?

a. Central Government

b. State Governments
C. Juvenile Board

d.NGOs.

Ans. b

97 Guardian" under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015
means

a natural guardian of child

b.any other person who is in actual charge of the child-

c only (a)
d both (a) and (b)

Ans d

98. Which authority establishes the "Observation

Home

Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015? unde

et the

a. State Governments

b. Central Government

C. Union Child Welfare Ministry

d.NGOs.

ANs.a

99. Which authority establishes "Juvenile Justice Board" under th Juvenile Justice (Care
and Protection of Children) Act, 2015?

a. State Governments

Central Government

b.

c.NGOs

d. Social Activists

Aus. a
100. What is the maximum penalty for damage to Computer, Computer systems,
unauthorized access, download of data, infecting with virus, denial of access etc as per
Section 43

a. Rs. 50 lakh
b. Rs.5 crore

C. Rs.1 crore

d. Rs,75 lakh

Aus. d

101. Which authority establishes the "Special Homes" under the Juvene Justice (Care
and Protection of Children) Act, 2000?

a. State Governments

b.CentralGoveriument

C.NGOs

d Juvenile Justice Board.

Ans. a

102. proceeding under whleh Chapter of Code of Criminal Procedure is not competent
againat a child na defined under thin Act?

a. Chapter VIlI
b.

b. Chapler IX Chapter X

d. Chapter XI.

Ans. a

103. Where an offencc under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act,
is punishable with imprisonment for a term more than

seven years, then, such offence shall be

a. Bailable

b. Non-bailable
C. Cognizable and non-bailable

d. Non-Cognizable

Ans. c

104. Under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 the
punishment for alternative punishment amounts to

a. highest punishment under the Act

b.

b. lowest punishment under the Act

either higher punishment or lowest punishment depends upon

C.

circumstances of the issue

none of the above.

Ans. a

105. Under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 which
authority constitutes the'"Child Welfare Committee'"?
a.Central Government
b. State Government

c. NGOs

d. Juvenile Justice Board.

Ans. b

106. The provisions of the Juvenile Justice (Care and p,

Protection of Chil

Act, 2015, shall apply to all natters concerning children

children in

nd

a. in need of care and protection; conflict with lawy

b. who need attention; prison

c who are abandoned; need of care and protection

ans. a
107. To co-ordinate all functions of police related to children, the in each district and
city.

in need of rehabilitation; need of re-integration

Government shall constitute_

Juvenile Police Units

b. Special Juvenile Police Units

Juvenile Justice Board

d. None of the above

Ans.b

108. The police officer heading the Special Juvenile Police Units shall not be below the
rank of?

a. Deputy Superintendent of Police or above

Director General of Police or above

b.

Inspector

d.

None of the above

Ans. A

109. An institution established by a State Government or by a voluntay or non-

governmental organisation, registered under section 48, 1 housing and providing
rehabilitative services to children in contn with law, who are found, through inquiry, to
have committed a offence and are sent to such institution by an order of the Board
is/are

called?

Juvenile house

Juvenile hostel

C Borstal institution

d. special home
.

ans. d

110. Child is defined in section 2, sub-section (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015

of the Juvenile Justice

a. 12

b. 14

16

C.

18

d.

Ans. a

111. As per the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 child means
a person who at the time commission of an offence has not attained the age of .

years

a. Fourteen years

b. Sixteen years

c. Eighteen years

None of above

anS.C

112. As per the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 "Code"
means

a. Juvenile Code 2015

b. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898

C.Indian penal Code, 1860

d. None of the above

Ans. b
113. Placement of a child, by the Committee for the purpose of alternate Care in the
domestic environment of a family, other than the child's biological family, that has been
selected, qualified, approved and Supervised for providing such care is called?
a foster care

bguardian
C.Borstal institution
dspecial home

ANS. A

114. Section 3 of the Juvenile Jusfice (Care and Protectiom 2015, deals with

n of Children) Aa

a. General principles and protection of children

Legal assistance to State

b.

c. Legal assistance to Juvenile offender or victim

d. None of above
ans. a
115. Any person aggrieved by an order made by the Committee or the Board under this
Act may, within_ prefer an appeal.

from the date of such order,

a. thirty days

b. Twenty days

Forty Five days

C.

Ninety Days

Ans. a

116. Any person aggrieved by an order made by the Committee or tne Board under this
Act may prefer an appeal to?

a. High Court

b.Children's Court

Juvenile Justice Board

C.

None of the above

Ans.
b.

117. An appeal against decisions by the Committee related to Fosteraánd Sponsorship

shall lie to?

are

a.High Court
b. Children's Court

c Juvenile Justice Board

d. District Magistrate

AnS. d

18. No appeal shall lie from which of the following?

a. any order of acquittal made by the Board in respect of a child alleged to have
committed an offence other than the heinous offence by a child who has completed or
is above the age of sixteen years

b. any order made by a Committee in respect of finding that a person

is not a child

c. care and protection

d. Both (a) and (b)

None of the above

Ans.C

119. No second appeal shall lie from any order of which Court, passed in appeal under
section 101 of the Act?

a. Court of Session

b. Children's Court

c Juvenile Justice Board

d. None of the above

Ans. a

120. Which Court may, at any time, either on its own motion or on an application
received in this behalf, call for the record of any proceeding in which any Committee or
Board or Children's Court, or Court has passed an order, for the purpose of satisfying
itself as to the legality or propriety of any such order and may pass such order in relation
Ehereto?

a. High Court

b. Children's Court

c Juvenile Justice Board

d District Magistrate

Ans. a
121. The Child Welfare Committee shall meet at least

days in a

month and shall observe such rules and procedures with regard to the ransaction of
business at its meetings.
a. thirty days
b. b. Twenty days
c. Forty Five days
d. d. Ninety Days

Ans.b

122. Which of the following statement is true with respect to the rol State Government
for Protection of Juvenile in Conflict with law?

There is an arrangement for the constitution of a Low Committee to survey the

pendency of cases in the Juvenile justice

i.evel

Board.

b. The State Governments have to enlist all establishments inside a half year of the
initiation of the Jj Act, 2015 whether such foundations ate controlled by the
Government or by a NGO and are implied either completely or haifway to house
youngsters.

b.

Under Section 35 of the Act, 2015 Child Welfare Committees are

required upon to submit annuai reports to the District Magistrate with respect to
pendency and nature of transfer of cases.

None of the above

d.

Ans. b
123. The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2013 classifies the
offenses based on the gravity of offenses into how many categories?

a. two
b.three
c. four
d. five
Ans. b

124. Which among the tollowing 1s not a category of classification o offenses based on
their gravity?
a.Petty

Serious

D.C Heinous

d. None of the above

Ans. d

125. the juvenile Justice Board constituted for every district, to discharge 125 duties
under this Act must consist of which of the following?

a. aMetropolitan Magistrate

b. Chief Metropolitan Magistrate

c. Chief Judicial Magistrate

d. All of the above

Ans. a

126. The Juvenile Justice Board shall be constituted for every

a. State
b. District
c. Town
d. Village
Ans. b

127. Which among the following is a criteria to be eligible for selection as a member of
the Juvenile Justice Board Board?

a. havinga past record of violation of human rights or child rights

b. has been convicted of an offence involving moral turpitude, and such conviction has
not been reversed or has not been granted full pardon in respect of such offence

C. has been removed or dismissed from service of the Central

Government or a State Government or an undertakingor corporation owned or

controlled by the Central Government or a State
Government

d. has never indulged in child abuse or employment of child labour or any other
violation of human rights or immoral act.

Ans. d

128. Child Welfare Committe is constituted under which section

a. Section 27 of the Act

b. Section 12 of the Act
c. Section 24 of the Act
d. Section 32 of the Act

Ans. a

129, Any person, who has completed, eighteen years

the age of eighteen years, then, such person shall be treated as?

a.child in conflict with law

delinquent

b.

c child during the process of inquiry

d. an adult

Ans.c

130. "Child in need of care and protection" means a child?

who is found without any home or settled place of abode and without any ostensible
means of subsistence

a.

b. who is found working in contravention of labour laws for the time being in force or is
found begging, or living on the street

C.who does not have parents and no one is willing to take care of, or whose parents
have abandoned or surrendered him

d. who is missing or run away child, or whose parents cannot DE tound after making
reasonable inquiry in such manner as may be prescribed;

e. All of the above

Ans. e
131. Which of the following is/are function(s) and responsibility(ies) of tne

Board?

a ensuring the informed participation of the child and the parent or guardian, in every
step ot the process;

b. ensuring that the child'S rights are protected throughout the process of apprehending
the child, inquiry, aftercare and rehabilitation; ensuring availabiliy of legal aid for the
child through the legal

services institutions

adjudicate and dispose of cases or Children in conflict with law in accordance with the
process of inquiry Specified in section 14;

e. all of the above

ans. e

132. The Child Welfare Committee shall consist of a Chairperson, and how

many other memebers as the state Government may thinbk fit?

a Two
b Five
c Four
d Six
Ans. c

133, The Child Welfare Committee shall consist of how many woman/

women memberls)

a. Two

b. One

c. Three

d. None

Ans. b

134. Find the correctly matchedpair:

a. Foster Home

Section 42 of the JJ Act

b. Childrens Home -Section 50 of the JJ Act

Open Shelter
Section 20 of the J Act Section 36 of the J] Act

d. Observation Home

Ans. b

135. What shall be the prime objective of any Children's Home, Specialised Adoption
Agency or open shelter

a. restoration and protection

b. Adomination and detention

Crestoration and detention

restorationn and fixation

Ans. a

136. UN Standard Minimum Rules for the administration of Juvenile Justice is also called
as?
a. Doha Rules
b Tokyo Rules
c Beijing Rules

d. None of the above

Ans.c

137. What type of cases does Juvenile Justice Board deal with?

a. A child in conflict with law

b. run-away child
C. vagrant child

d. children living by street

Ans.a

138. Who reviews the pendency of cases of the Juvenile Justice Board once in every
three months?

a. The Chief Judicial Magistrate

b. Metropolitan Magistrate

C. District Judge

d.None of the above

Ans.. a

139. Section 2 sub-section (13) of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015 defines
a. Borstal institutions

b. Borstal buses
C. Child in conflict with law
d. None of above
Ans. c

140. Match the following

G)"child in need of | (a) Any benaviour, conduct, practice, process,

care and protection

attitude, environment or treatment that is humane, considerate and in the best interest
of the child

(ii) "child friendly"(b) One who is found vulnerable and is

likely to be inducted into drug abuse or trafficking

(ii) child in conflict|(C)Chudren Home, open shelter, observation|

with iaw

home, special home, place of safety, Specialised Adoption Agency and a fit facility
recognised under this Act for| providing care and protection to children, Who are in
need of such services

iv) "child care (d) A child who is alleged or found to have committed an offence and who
has not

institution"

completed eighteen years of age on the

date of commission of such offence

a. (i-b) ii-a) (iü-d) (iv-c)

b. (i-b) i-c) (i-a) (iv-d)

c. (i-a) (i-d) (ii-b) (iv-)

d. (i-a) (i-b) (Gii-c) (iv-d)

Ans. a

THE PREVENTION OF CORRUPTION ACT, 1988

-
141. The Prevention of Corruption Act was passed in the year_

a 1986
b 1988
c 1989

d. 1987

Ans.b

142. The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, was passed with which of the following
purpose/s?

a. to consolidate and amend the law relating to the prevention ot corruption

to amend the law reilating to the promotion of corruption.

c. to consolidate and amend the law relating to the prevention of Corruption and
for matters connected therewith

None of the above

ans, C

143. The Prevention of Corruption Act was passed on?

a 9th September, 1988

b, 9th May, 1988
c.21st December 1987
d. 20th March 1989

Ans. a

144. The Prevention of Corruption Act extends to

a the whołe of India except J&K

b. the whole of India

certain specified parts of Jndia

d. None of the above

ans. b

145. What is the Prevention of Corruption Act 1988?

a. It is a law enacted by the Indian Parliament to prevent and fight corruption by public
servants,

b. It is a law enacted by the Indian Parliament to prevent and ngtcorruplion by citizens

of India.
C. It is a law enacted by the Indian Government to prevent and fignt corruption by
citizens of India.

d. Jt is a law enacted by the Indian Parliament to promote awarenes and fight

corruption by public servants.

Ans.a

146. Who is a public servant?

a. any person in the service or pay of the Government or remuneratc by the

Government by fees or commission for the performance o any public duty;
b. any person in fhe service or pay of a locał authority
c. any Judge, including any person empowered by 1aw to discharge whether by himscif
or as a meniber of any body of persons, any acljudicatory functions
d. All of the above
ans. d

147. What is "public duty"?

a. Public duty" meansa duty in the discharge of which the State, the public or the
community at large has an interest.
b. Public duty" means a duty in the discharge of the Country, the public or the
community at large has an interest.
c. "Public duty" means discharge of duty towards the public or the community at large
has an interest.

d. None of the above

Ans.a

148. The Prevention of Corruption Act applies to?

a. citizens of India in India

b. To all citizens of India and outside India

c. To foreigners

d. None of the above

Ans.b

149. Section 5 of the Prevention of Corruption Act relates to

a. Public duty

b. .Public servant

c. .Procedure and powers of a special judge

d. .Power to appoint special judges

Ans.c
150. How is corruption defined?

a. Acts taking gratification other than legal remuneration in the performance of an

official act.
b.Acts not taking gratification but only legal remuneration in the performance of an
official act.
c. Acts taking only legal remunerationi in the performance of an officialact.

d. None of the above

AnS. a

151. Does gratification mean money?

a. It includes but is not restricted to taking or asking for

mone.

b.It includes but is restricted to taking or asking for money

c. It means just taking or asking for money

d. None of the above

Ans.a

152. Which courts can try cases under this Act?

a. The Central/State Governments may appoint Special Judges to tr offences under the
Prevention of Corruption Act.

b.The prevention of Corruption Tribunal

c. Judicial Magistrate of Second Class
d. TheCentral/State Governments may appoint Judicial Magistrate of First Class to try
offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act.

ans.A

153. A person shall not be qualified for appointment as a special Judge under this Act
unless he is or has been

under the Code of

Criminal Procedure, 1973

a. a Sessions Judge
b. an Additional Sessions Judge
c. an Assistant Sessions Judge
d. Any of the above

Ans.d

154. What is the punishment for those found. guilty of offences under
section 7?

a. Imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than 6 months but which may extend
to five years and shall also be liable to fine. Imprisonment for a term which shall not be
less than three years but which may extend to seven years and shall also be liable to
fine.

b.Imprisonment for a term which shall not be Jess than two years but which may extend
to seven years and shall also be liable to fine.

C.

d. None of the above

Ans. b

155. which of the following officers are entitled to investigate any offence Dunishable
under this Act without the order of a Metropolitan Magistrate or a Magistrate of the
first class, as the case may be, or make any arrest therefor without a warrant? a. in the
case of the Delhi Special Police Establishment, an Inspector of Police;

b. in the metropolitan areas of Bombay, Calcutta, Madras and Ahmedabad and in any
other metropolitan area notified as such under sub-section (1) of section 8 of the Code
of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), the Assistant Commissioner of Police;

c. elsewhere, of a Deputy Superintendent of Police or a police officer of equivalent rank,

d All of the above

Ans. d

156. What is "legal remuneration"?

a. It is not restricted to remuneration paid to a public servant, but includes all

remuneration which he is permitted by the Government or the organisation,
which he serves, to receive
b.It is restricted to remuneration paid to a public servant, but excludes all remuneration
which he is permitted by the Government or the organisation, which he serves, to
receive

c. It is not restricted to remuneration paid to a public servant, but excludes all

remuneration which he is permitted by the Government or the organisation, which he
serves, to receive

d. None of the above

Ans.a

157. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true

a. Whoever convicted of an offence under this Act subsequently comnits an offence

punishable under this Act, shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which shali
not be less than five years but which may extend to tern years and shall also be liable to
fine Any public servant who commits criminal misconduct. shall be Punsnabie with
imprisonment for a terin which shall be not less

than four years but which may extend to ten yearsa

whethe Whoever abets any offence punishable under this Act. not that offence is
committed in consequence of that abehrma

liable to fine.

and shall alsb

be punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not than three years, but which
may extend to seven years and

also be liable to fine

d. All of the above

None of the abovve

e.

Ans.d

158. A public servant is said to commit the offence of criminal misconduct

a. if he dishonestly or fraudulently misappropriates or otherwise Converts for his own

use any property entrusted to him as a pubic

servant

b. if he dishonestly or fraudulently misappropriates or otherwise converts for his own

use any any property under his control as a public servant;

c if he intentionally enriches himself illicitly during the period of hs office

d. All of the above
e.None of the above
ans. d
159. Which section provides for the definition of 'public servant'?

a. Section 2a)
b. Section 2(c)
c. Section 2(d)
d. Section 2(aa)

Ans. b
160. Which of the follow section provides for appointment of special Act for dealing
with corruption cases?Judges under this
a. Section 5(1)
b Section 3(1)

c. Section 4(2)

d. Section 6(1)

Ans.b

161. Which of the following section provides for criminal misconduct by a public
servant?

ESA

a. Section 13

al miscond:s

b. Section 11

c. Section 12
Section 19
Ans.a

162. Punishment for attempt is given under which section of the Prevention of
Corruption Act, 1988?

s or otherw his contrelsi

Section 14

a.

b. Section 15

e period ul

Section 18

C.

d. Section 16
Ans.b

63. Any public servant who commits criminal misconduct shall be

punishable with?

a. Imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than 6 months but which may
extend to five years and shall also be liable to fine.
 b. imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than three years but which may
extend to seven years and shal also be liable to fine
c. Imprisonment for a term which shali not be less than four years but which may
extend to ten years and shalaiso be liable to fine
d. dNone of the above

ANs.c

164, Which of the following sectuon gives power to the t carrying out the provisions of
this Act?

rules fn

a Section 27

b. Section 30

c Section 29

d. Section 29A

Ans.d

165. What is the punishment for a person who gives bribe to any public

Servant?

a. Imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years

b. Imprisonment for a term which may extend to five years

C. Imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years

d.A simple fine

Ans.a

166. Which of the following section provides punishment for giving briDe to a public
servant?

a. Section 9
b Section 7A
c. Section 8(1)
d. Section 11

Ans. c

167, Which of the following section provides punishment for giv5 bribe to a public
servant by a commercial organisation

Section 9(1)

Section 7A
c. Section 8(1
d. Section 11(1)
.

Ans. c

168.. Which of the following section provides punjsi

n provides punishment for abetment DiOfences?

a. Section 9(1)

b. Section 7A

C. Section 12

d. Section 11(1)
Ans.c

169. Which of the following Section provides punishment for habitual

offenders?

a. Section 13

b. Section 14

C. Section 15

d. Section 16

Ans.b

170. Attachment of property has been prescribed under which Chapter?

a. Chapter IV
b. Chapter IVA

CChapter V

Chapter VI
Ans. a

171. "M" was dismissed from the service as a result of the findings of a aepartmental
enquiry by the Competent Authority. He was prosecuted der Provisions of the
Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988. Whether nisfantamount to "Double jeopardy" as
envisaged under Article 20(2)?

a. It is a double jeopardy

b. it is not double jeopardy as the departmental proceedings operate on a different

plane and not prosecution
Mhas been harassed twice by holding departmental proceedings d prosecution under
Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 MCannot be prosecuted under the Prevention of
Corruption Act due to the departmental enquiry
Ans.b

THE NARCOTIC DRUGS AND PSYCHOTROPIC SUBSTANG

ACT, 1985

172. Narcotic drugs and Psychofropic Substances Act was passed year?

the

a. 1970

b. 1985

1999

d. 1991

ans. .b

173. The main object of the Act was

a. To consolidate and amend the law relating to narcotic drugs

b. To make stringent regulations for the control and regulation of operations relating
narcotic drugs and psychotropic Substances

C. Both a and b

None of the above

Ans. C

174. A person habitual to regular consumption of any narcotic drug " psychotropic
substance is known as

a. Guardian

b.Minor

c. Addict

d. None of the above

Ans. C

175. Cannabis includes

a Charas

b Ganja

c Both a arnd b

d None of the above

Ans. c

176. Coca derivatives include

a Preparation containing less than 0.1% of cocaine
b Preparation containing less than 0.2% of morphine
CPreparation containing more than 0.1% of cocaine
d. Preparation containing more than 0.2% of morphine
Ans. c

177. Opium derivatives include

a. All preparations containing less than 0.2% of morphine

b. All preparations containing more than 0.2% of morphine

C.All preparations containing less than 0.2% of cocaine

d. All preparations containing more than 0.2% of cocaine

Ans. b

178. Opium derivatives include

a Medical opium and prepared opium

b.Phenanthrene alkaloids such as morphine, codeine, thebaine and their salts

c Diacetyl morphine and its salts

d All of the above

Ans. d

179. Diacetyl morphine is also known asS

a. Hemp

b. Cannabis

c Charas

d. Heroin

Ans. d

180. Medicinal cannabis is also knoWn as

a Opium

b Heroín

c hemp
dGanja
Ans. c

181. Opium poppy includes

a Plant of erythroxylon cocoa

b.Plant of papaversomniferum

c Ecogonine

d All of the above

Ans. b

182. Opium means

a. Coagulated juice of opium, poppy and its mixture including preparation containing
less than 0.2 cocaine
b. Coagulated juice of opium, poppy and its mixture excluding preparation containing
less than 0.2% morphine

c Coagulated juice of opium, poppy and its mixture excluding preparation containing
less than 0.2% cocaine

d Coagulated juice of opium, poppy and its mixture including preparation containing less
than 0.2% morphine

Ans b

183. Coca derivates include

a. Ecogonine

b Cocaine

c Both a and b

None of the above

Ans. c

184. The NDPS consultative committee consists of

a. 20 members

b. 30 members

C 40 members
d. 50 members

Ans. a

185. Under the provisions of NDPS act, the central government may

appoint:

a. Police commissioner

b. Drug inspector

c Drug control officer

d. Narcotic commissioner

Ans. d

186. Extract or tincture of cannabis is called as:

a. medicinal hemp

b medicinal opium
c medicinal cannabis

d both a and c

Ans. c

187. NDPs Act 1985 provides licensing system to regulate- Narcotics and Psychotropic
substances.

of

a. Manufacturing

b. Cuitivation

c Transportation
d All of the above
Ans. d

188. Section 8 of this Act

a Permits certain operations

b. Prohibits certain operations

CRegulates certain operations

d. None of the above

ANS. a
189. Section 9 of this Act

a, Permits certain operations

b. Prohibits certain operation

CRegulates certain operations

d. None of the above

Ans.a

190. Punishment for contravention in relation to cannabis plant an

a. rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to and shall also be liable to fine
which may extend to one lakh ri year,t and cannabisend to ten years,rupees

b rigorous imprisonment tor a term which may extend to one v rupees

and shall also be liable to fine which may extend to one lakh ru

c rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to five years, and shall also be
liable to fine which may extend to ten lakh rupees
d. imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to
fine which may extend to ten lakh rupees

Ans. a

191. is the resin obtained from the cannabis plant

a Charas

b Ganja

c Both a and b

d None of the above

Ans. a

192. Dangerous Drugs Act was established in.

a 1898

b.1948

c 1878

d.1930

Ans. d

193. Cultivation of cannabis plant is a controlled operation govt as per the narcotics and
psychotropeofSubstances Act.

.
,.

a Central

b State.

c Both a and b C

d None of the above

Ans, b

194. The prevention of illicit traftic in Narcotic drugs and Psychotropic substances
ordinance was passed in:

a. 1985
b. 1988
c. 1987
d. 1986

Ans. a

195. Which of the following is comprises of flowering or fruiting tops of the cannabis
plant?

a Ganja

b Cocaine
c Charas

d. None of the above

Ans. a

196. Chemically, Cocaine is:

a methyl ester of benzoyl ecogonine

b. propyl ester of benzoyl ecogonine

C.butyi ester of benzoyl ecogonine

d. None of the above

Ans. a

197. Diacetyl Morphine is also known as:

a. Cocaine b. Ganja

C.Charas
d Heroin

Ans. d

198. Prepared opium

a is an extract suitable for smoking

is any medicine containing opium

is also called as hemp

has undergone the processes to adaptit for medicinal Co

Ans. a

199. Who has the power to fix the ceiling price of scheduled formulatinn.s

a. State Government
b. Centrai Government
c. Lok Sabha
d. Rajya Sabha
ans. b

200. The narcotics that are derived from opium are

a codeine and morphine

b morphine and endorphin
c tetracycline and morphine
d Panadol and codeine

Ans. a

201. Whicdh of the folowing is derived from the hemp plant "cannabis sativa

a Opium
b. Marijuana
c. MDM

d. Crack

Ans. b

202 AS Per the Act, the cultivation, manufacture, production of narcou and
psychotropic drug is supervised by
a Narcotic analyst

b. Narcotic consultative

c Drug control officer

d. Narcotic commissioner
Ans. d

203. The narcotics drugs such as codeine and morphine act directly on

a. lungs and kidneys

b. central nervous system

C. kidneys and livers heart and lungs

Ans. b

204. Are the offences under NDPS Act bailable?

Yes

a.
b. No

Ans. b

205. Which of the following act/acts were repealed by the NDPS Act?

a. (1) The Opium Act, 1857 (13 of 1857)

b. The Opium Act, 1878 (1 of 1878))

c. The Dangerous Drugs Act, 1930 (2 of 1930)

d None of the above

e All of the above

Ans. e

206. The provisions of this Act or the rules made thereunder shall be in addition to, and
not in derogation of, .

or the rules made

thereunder

a The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 (23 of 1940)

b. Dangerous Drugs Act, 1930 (2 of 1930)

c the Opium Act, 1878 (1 of 1878)

d None of the above

e all of the above

Ans. a
.

207. U/s. 79 of the NDPS Act, all prohibitions and restrictions

imposed by or under this Act on the import into India, the export from India

transhipment of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substancesnd

deemed to be prohibitions and restrictions imposed by or unde the

a. Customs Act, 1962 (52 of 1962)

b. The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 (23 of 1940)

C.Dangerous Drugs Act, 1930 (2 of 1930)

d. the Opium Act, 1878 (1 of 1878)

Ans. a

208. Which Section of the NDPS Act puts a bar to jurisdiction of Civil

Court under this Act?

a. Section 79

b. Section 73

Section 81

Section 86

d.

Ans. b

209. Any person aggrieved by an order of the competent authority made under section
68F, section 68-, sub-section (1) of section 68K or section 68L, may, within how many
days prefer an appeal?

twenty

d.

b. Ninety

Thirty

C.

d. Forty-five
Ans. d

210. Any person aggrieved by an order of the competent authority under section 68F,
section 68-1, sub-section (1) of section 68K or sec 68L, may prefer an appeal to?

a District magistrate

b. Narcotic Commissioner

c Appellate Tribunal

d. High Court
ans . c

211. Punishment for contravention in relation to poppy straw:

a 10-20 years imprisonment and 1-2 Jakh rupees fine

b. 10-15 years imprisonment and 1-2 lakh rupees fine

c 10-20 years imprisonment and 2-4 lakh rupees fine
d. Only 10-20 years imprisonment

Ans. a

212. Punishment for contravention in relation to Ganja:

a 2 years imprisonment and fifty thousand rupees fine

b 10-20 years imprisonment and 1-2 lakh rupees fine

c 5 years imprisonment and fifty thousand rupees fine

d None of the above

Ans. b

213. On second and every subsequent conviction of offences:

a. Rigourous imprisonment of 15-30 years with fine 1-2 lakh rupees

b Rigourous imprisonment of 15-30 years with fine 1.5-3 lakh rupees

c imprisonment for a term which may ex tend to one and one-half times of the
maximum term of imprisonment, and also be liable to fine which shall extend to one
and one-half times of the maximum

amount of fine

Rigourous imprisonment of 10-15 years with fine 1.5-3 lakh rupees

Ans. c

214. Punishment for offence for which no punishment is provided under this act:
a Imprisonment upto six months or fine or both
b. imprisonment upto 10 months

Only fine upto 1000 rupees

None of the above

Ans. a

215. Which of the following is a psychotropic substance Drugs and Psychotropic

Susbtances Act?
a Barbilal (barbiturate)
b.Ampicillin (antibiotic)
cAlbendazole (anti parasitic)
d. Chloroquine (anti malarial)

Ans.a

THE MAHARASHTRA POLICE ACT

216. The Maharashtra Police Act was passed in the year_

a. 1956

b.1951

c 1961
d.1965
ans . b

217. The Maharashtra Police Act came into force on?

a 1st May, 1960

b.

1st June, 1951

11th June 1951

C.

d. 1st June, 1955

Ans: a

218. The Maharashtra Police Act extends to

.the whole of India except J&zk

b. the whole of India

whole of the State of Bombay whole of the State of Maharashtra

Ans: b
219 The Maharashtra P'olice Act was previously known as

a. The Bombay Police Act, 1956

b. The Bombay State Police Act, 1951

c.The Maharashtra State Police Act, 1956

d. The Bombay Police Act, 1951

Ans: d

220. The term 'Constabie' is defined under section?

a. 2(2)
b. 2(3)

c 2(4)

d. 2(4A-1)

Ans:C

221. Constable means a police officer of the_ grade

highest

medium

c lowest.

d top

Ans: c

222. The Maharashtra Police Act consists of how many chapters and

sections?

a 8 chapters and 168 sections

b. 7 chapters and 176 sections

6 chapters and 180 sections

9 chapters and 166 sections

d.
Ans: a

223. Constabulary means?

Police Constable

b Police Naik Police Head Constable

d. Assistant Sub-Inspector

e All of the above

Ans: e

224. The term dancing school has been defined u/s.

2(2)

23)

24)

d. 2(4A-1)

Ans: d

225. There shall be Police Force(s) for the whole of the State of Maharashtra

a. One

two

three

C.

four
Ans: a

226. The Police Force shall include every Police Officer referred to in clause

(6) of section

a3
b4
c2

Ans: c
227 the provisions relating to superintendence, control and organisation of the Police
Force are contained which Chapter?

a Chapter I
b Chapter II
c Chapter III
.d Chapter IV
AnS: b

228. Subordinate ranks u/s.2(16) means members of the Police Force below

the rank of the

a. Constable

b. Deputy Commissioner

C Inspector General of Police

d Inspector

Ans: d

229. The terms "Director General and Inspector General", "Additional Director General
and Inspector General", "Special Inspector General", "Commissioner", "Joint
Commissioner", "Additional Commissioner", "Deputy Inspector General", "Deputy
Commissioner', "Assisfant Commissioner", "Superintendent", "Additional
Superintendent", "Assistant Superintendent" and "Deputy Superintendent" have been
defined under.

a Section 2(6)

b Section 2(5)

Section 2(6A)

Section 2(6B)

Ans: a

230. The terms "Director General and Inspector General" mean?

a. Additional Director General and Inspector General of Police

b. The Special Inspector General of Police

c the Director General and Inspector General of Police

d None of the above

Ans: c

231. The Superintendence of the Police Force throughout the State of Maharashtra
vests in and exercisable by the Government
a Central

b State

c Central and State

d. None of the above

Ans: b

232. For the direction and supervision of the Police Fo Government shall appoint an .
and perform such functions and dulies and have such and such authority as may be
provided by or under this Ae ti made by the State Government

a. Director-General and InspectorGeneral of Police

b. Additional Director General and Inspector General of Police
C The Special Inspector General of Police
d. Deputy Inspector General

Ans: a

233. The Director General and Inspector General of Police shall be selecied by the
Central Government from amongst the two senior most Police Officers from the Cadre,
on the basis of their length of service, very good record, range of experience, integrity
and professional ability for heading the Police Force.

a True

b False
c Partly true

d. Partly False

Ans: b

234. Who appoints a Police Officer to be the Commissioner of Police ioGreafer Bombay
or any other area specified in a notification issue by the state Government in this behalf
and publíshed in the Oficial

Gazette?

a. Central Government

b.State Government

c.Central and State Government

d. None of the above

Ans: b
235, The State Goverment may appoint for each

a Superintendent of Police and one or more Additional,

Assistant and Deputy Superintendents of Police.

a. District

b. State

C.City

d. Municipal Corporation

Ans: a

236. The State Government may appoint any Police Officer not below the rank of .

to be the Principal of the Police Training College,

Nashik, or any other Police Training College established by it.

a. The Special Inspector General of Police

b. Deputy Inspector General
C. Superintendent

d None of the above

Ans: c

237. The Superintendent and the Police Force of a district shall be under the control of
the

a Sessions Judge

b. Judicial Magistrate of First Class

C.Judicial Magistrate of Second Class

d. District Magistrate

Ans: d

238. Which one of the following is not an offence under Maharashtra Police

Act?

a. Taking pledge from child not appearing above the age of 14 years

b. Cheating at games

c Gambling in street

d Impounding of stray cattie by a person

Ans:d

239, Which one of the following topics has not been Maharashtra Políce Act?

a Superintendence control and organization of tkhe police f

b Regulation control and discipline of the police force

c.Offences against human body

d. Special measures for maintenance ot public order and safetuotty of stale

Ans:c

240. Which of the following is the duty of a police officer?

a. To serve summons and execute warrants

b.To prevent the commission of public nuisances

c. Both (1) and (2)

d. Neither (1) nor (2)

Ans:c

241. Section 2(10) of Maharashtra Police Act defines

a. eating home
b. public place
C.place of public amusement
d. place of public entertainment

Ans . d

242. As per section. empowered to take charge of unclaimed property.

of the Maharashtra Police Act the políce are

a 80
b81
c 82
d 87

Ans: c

243 Section 115 of the Maharashtra Police Act deals with provision relating

to

a Obstructing passengers in the street.

b. Committing nuisance in or near street

c Disregard of notice in public building
d. Prohibition against flying kite

Ans: b

244. Section of Maharashtra Police Act declares that the Police

Officer are deemed to be always on duty

a 15

b. 16

c 28

d. 29

Ans: C

245. An Inspector is appointed by which of the following?

a The Commissioner for the area for which he is appointed and the Director General and
Inspector-General for other areas

b The Assistant Commissioner for the area for which he is appointed and the Deputy
Commissioner for other areas

District Magistrate

d. None of the above

Ans: a

246. Which Chapter deals with offences and penalties under this Act?

a. Chapter IV
b. Chapter V

c Chapter Vi1

d. Chapter VIl

ans . d
217 The Prohibitory Orders are issued under which Maharashtra Police Act?

section of he

a Section 32

b Section 37

c Section 26

d Section 21
Ans:b

248. Prohibitory orders under section 37 are issued to prohibit which of the following
activityties)?

a Assembly of 5 or more persons,

b Processions of any kind,

c Use of loudspeakers, amplifying instruments, musical band and bursting of crackers,
d Carrying of arms, unlicensed guns or any other articles capable of being used for
causing physical harm or violencedgels, sticks or lathis, swords, spears, knives,

e All of the above

Ans: e

249. Which section provides penality for contravention/breach of prohibitory orders

under section 37 of the Act?

a Section 90

b Section 135

c Section 72

d Section 81

Ans: b

250. it the movement or encampment of any gang or body of perso1 1S causing or is

calculated to cause danger or alarm or reason Suspicion that unlawful designs are
entertained by such gang. or D members thereof, then such gangs/ bodies of persons
can be dispersea and ordered that they remove themselves outside the area. This
process is called externment of gangs.

a True
b False

c Partly True

d. Partly False

Ans: a

251. The Order relating to externment of gangs can be passed by which of the
following?

a. Sub Divisional Magistrates in Districts

b. DCsP in Commissionerates

c. Both a and b

d None of the above

Ans: C

252. It is the duty of a Police officer to obey and execute promptly every process or
other order lawfully issued to him by a competent authority and by all lawful means to
give effect to the commands of lhis superior.

a True
b False
c. Partly True

d. Partly False

Ans: a

253. Which provision in the Act provides for penalising public nuisances?

a Section 37

b. Sectíon 33

c Section 35

d None of the Above

Ans: b

254. Which provision of the Act provides for duties of Police Oificerss towards the
public?

Section 6l

b. Section 66

Section 65

d. None of the Above

Ans:b

255. Which provision of the Act provides tor arrest of Polico without warrant?

a Section 62

b. Section 66

C. Section 72

d. None of the Above

Ans: c
256. Any Police Officer may, without any order from a Magistrate and without a
warrant, arrest any person who has been concermed in an offence punishable under
section 121 or against whom reasonable complaint has been made or credible
information has been received or a reasonable suspicion exists, of his having been
concerned in suchoffence

a True
b.False

c Partly True

d. Partly False

Ans: a

257. Which of the following is correctly matched:

a. Dutyof Police Officer towards to use his best endeavours to ave public

any accident or danger to the puDIIC to prevent to the best of his ability| the
commission of public nuisance to keep order in the streets and at and within public
bathing, washing and landing places, fairs, temples and all other places ot public resort

b. Duty of Police Officer

C. 1o regulate Trafic etc.

d. All of the above

ANS: a

258, What is the punishment for cruelty to animals under this Act?

a. Imprisonment which may extend to one month or with fine which may extend to two
thousand five hundred rupees, or with both

b. Imprisonment which may extend to one year or with fine which may exlend to two
thousand five hundred rupees, or with both

c. Imprisonment which may extend to one year

d. Fine which may extend to two thousand five hundred rupees

Ans: a

259. Whoever not being a member of the armed forces of the Union and acting as such
or a Police Officer, goes armed with any sword, spear, bludgeon, gun or other offensive
weapon or with any explosive or corrosive substance in any street or public place unless
so authorised by lawful authority, shall be liable to be disarmed by any Police Officer,
and the weapon or substance so seized shall be forfeited to the State Government,
unless redeemed within two months by payment of such fine not exceeding thousand
five hundred rupees as the Commissioner or the District Magistrate in areas under their
respective charges imposes.
a five

b.ten

C.twelve

d SiX

Ans: C

260. Which Section of the Act deals with emergency duties of Police?

a. Section 90

b.Section 98

c Section 85

d None of the Above

Ans: b

261. Which is the highest Police rank in the State of Maharashtra under

this Act?

a. Inspector General of Police

b Director General of Police

c.Superintendent of Police

d. Deputy Commissioner of Police

Ans: b