Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Question 1.
Object 1
Question 2.
The technique called Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those
females
(a) who cannot produce an ovum
(b) who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus
(c) who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilisation
(d) all of these
Answer:
(a) who cannot produce an ovum
Question 3.
Which method can be used for women that cannot produce ovum but can provide suitable
environment ?
(a) IUD
(b) GIFT
(c) IUI
(d) ICSI
Answer:
(b) GIFT
Question 4.
Which of these can be used to cure infertility in couples where male partner has very low
sperm count ?
(a) IUD
(b) GIFT
(c) IUI
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) IUI
Question 5.
The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in assisted reproductive technology is
called
(a) GIFT
(b) ZIFT
(c) ICSI
(d) ET
Answer:
(c) ICSI
Question 6.
Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population will
(a) cause rapid increase in growth rate
(b) result in decline in growth rate
(c) not cause significant change in growth rate
(d) result in an explosive population.
Answer:
(b) result in decline in growth rate
Question 7.
Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the
(a) suppression of gonadotropins
(b) hypersecretion of gonadotropins .
(c) suppression of gametic transport
(d) suppression of fertilisation.
Answer:
(a) suppression of gonadotropins
Question 8.
A national level approach to build up a reproductively healthy society was taken up in our
country in
(a) 1950s
(b) 1960s
(c) 1980s
(d) 1990s
Answer:
(a) 1950s
Question 9.
Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within,
(a) 72 hrs of coitus
(b) 72 hrs of ovulation
(c) 72 hrs of menstruation
(d) 72 hrs of implantation.
Answer:
(a) 72 hrs of coitus
Question 10.
From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned below, identify the one which does not
specifically affect the sex organs.
(a) Syphilis
(b) AIDS
(c) Gonorrhea
(d) Genital warts
Answer:
(b) AIDS
Question 11.
Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives because of the following reasons.
(a) These are effective barriers for insemination.
(b) They do not interfere with coital act.
(c) These help in reducing the risk of STDs.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above
Question 12.
The correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive method is
(a) ovariectomy
(b) hysterectomy
(c) vasectomy
(d) castration.
Answer:
(c) vasectomy
Question 13.
RCH stands for
(a) routine check-up of health
(b) reproduction cum hygiene
(c) reversible contraceptive hazards
(d) reproductive and child health care.
Answer:
(d) reproductive and child health care.
Question 14.
Amminocentesis is a technique used to
(a) determine errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo
(b) pin point specific cardiac ailments in embryo
(c) determine any hereditary genetic abnormality in embryo
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(a) determine errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo
Question 15.
Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ?
(a) Jaundice
(b) Down’s syndrome
(c) Cystic fibrosis
(d) Colourblindness
Answer:
(a) Jaundice
Question 16.
In which of the following weeks of pregnancy CVS is done ?
(a) 12th – 14th week
(b) 8th – 10th week
(c) 5th – 7th week
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) 8th – 10th week
Question 17.
Causes for increased population growth in india is/are
(a) increase in birth rate
(b) decrease in death rate
(c) lack of education
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(d) all of these.
Question 18.
Which of the following pairs contributes to an increase in population ?
(a) Natality and immigration
(b) Mortality and emigration
(c) Natality and emigration
(d) Mortality and immigration
Answer:
(a) Natality and immigration
Question 19.
Which of the following is correct regarding the consequences of lower population ?
(a) It increases the poverty of a country.
(b) It leads to shortage of food supply.
(c) It results in unemployment
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these
Question 20.
The best way to decrease population of a country is
(a) to educate people
(b) to have better houses
(c) to kill people on a large scale
(d) to practice and implement familay planning.
Answer:
(d) to practice and implement familay planning.
Question 21.
Which of the following correctly describes the measures
that can be used to control over-population ?
(a) Educating people about the advantages of a small family
(b) Raising the age of marriage
(c) Encouraging family planning programme
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these
Question 22.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ideal contraceptive ?
(a) User-friendly
(b) Irreversible
(c) Easily available
(d) Least side-effects
Answer:
(b) Irreversible
Question 23.
Which of the following is correct regarding HIV, hepatitis B, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis ?
(a) Trichomoniasis is an STD whereas others are not.
(b) Gonorrhoea is a viral disease whereas others are bacterial.
(c) HIV is a pathogen whereas others are diseases.
(d) Hepatitis B is eradicated completely whereas others are not.
Answer:
(c) HIV is a pathogen whereas others are diseases.
Question 24.
Which one of the following groups includes sexually transmitted diseases caused by
bacteria only ?
(a) Syphilis, gonorrhoea, chancroid
(b) Syphilis, chlamydiasis, chancroid
(c) Syphilis, gonorrhoea, scabies
(d) Syphilis, scabies, pediculosis
Answer:
(a) Syphilis, gonorrhoea, chancroid
Question 25.
Confirmatory test for STDs is
(a) ELISA
(b) PCR
(c) DNA hybridisation
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(d) all of these.
Question 26.
Hepatitis B is transmitted through
(a) blood transfusion
(b) intimate physical contact
(c) sexual contact
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these
Question 27.
The common means of transmission of AIDS is
(a) sexual intercourse
(b) blood transfusion
(c) placental transfer
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(d) all of these.
Question 28.
Which of the following STDs are not completely curable ?
(a) Chlamydiasis, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis
(b) Chancroid syphilis, genital warts
(c) AIDS, syphilis, hepatitis B
(d) AIDS, genital herpes, hepatitis B
Answer:
(d) AIDS, genital herpes, hepatitis B
Question 29.
World AIDS day is
(a) December 21
(b) December 1
(c) November 1
(d) June 11
Answer:
(b) December 1
Question 30.
In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into
the fallopian tube ?
(a) Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
(b) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
(c) Embro of 32 cell stage
(d) Zygote only
Answer:
(b) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
Question 31.
The test-tube baby programme employs which one of the following techniques ?
(a) Zygote intra Fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
(b) Intra uterine insemination (IUI)
(c) Gamete intra Fallopian transfer
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Zygote intra Fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
Question 32.
The first case of IVF-ET technique success, was reported by
(a) Louis joy Brown and Banting Best
(b) Patrick Steptoe and Rebert Edwards
(c) Robert Steptoe and Gilbert Brown
(d) Baylis and Starling Taylor.
Answer:
(b) Patrick Steptoe and Rebert Edwards
Question 33.
On which of the following facts does the method of periodic abstinence is based ?
(a) Ovulation occurs on about the 14th day of menstruation.
(b) Ovum remains alive for about 1-2 days.
(c) Sperms survive for about 3 days.
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these
Question 34.
Which of the following is a non-medicated intrauterine device (IUD) ?
(a) CuT
(b) Lippes Loop
(c) Cu7
(d) LNG-20
Answer:
(b) Lippes Loop
Question 35.
Multiload device contains
(a) manganese
(b) iron
(c) copper
(d) calcium
Answer:
(c) copper
Question 36.
Which of the following is not an intrauterine device ?
(a) Progestasert
(b) Multiload-375
(c) Norplant
(d) Lippes loop
Answer:
(c) Norplant
Question 37.
What is the work of copper-T ?
(a) To inhibit ovulation
(b) To inhibit fertilisation
(c) To inhibit implantation of blastocyst
(d) To inhibit gametogenesis
Answer:
(b) To inhibit fertilisation
Question 38.
IUDs prevent pregnancy by
(a) inhibiting physiological and morphological uterine changes required for implantation.
(b) increasing phagocytosis of spermatozoa within uterus
(c) suppressing motility of sperms as well as their fertilising capacity
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(d) all of these.
Question 39.
Cu ions released from copper releasing intrauterine devices (IUDs)
(a) prevent ovulation
(b) make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(c) decrease phagocytosis of sperms
(d) suppress sperm motility.
Answer:
(d) suppress sperm motility.
Question 40.
The birth control device used by women is
(a) diaphragm
(b) vault
(c) copper T
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(d) all of these.
Question 41.
The most important component of oral contraceptive pills is
(a) progesterone-estrogen
(b) growth hormore
(c) thyroxine
(d) luteinising hormone.
Answer:
(a) progesterone-estrogen
Question 42.
Progesterone pill helps in preventing pregnancy by not allowing
(a) ova formation
(b) fertilisation
(c) implantation
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(a) ova formation
Question 43.
What is true about “Saheli” ?
(i) Developed at the CDRI, Lucknow
(ii) Contains a steroidal preparation
(iii) “Once-a-weak” pill
(iv) Many side effects
(v) High contraceptive value
(vi) Very few side effects value
(vii) Low contraceptive value
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (vi)
(b) (i), (iii), (v), (vi), (vii)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(d) (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
Answer:
(d) (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
Question 44.
What is the figure given below showing in particular ?
Question 45.
Which of the following birth control measures can be considered as the safest ?
(a) The rhythm method
(b) The use of physical barriers
(c) Termination of unwanted pregnancy
(d) Sterilisation techniques
Answer:
(d) Sterilisation techniques
Question 46.
Which of the following is the most widely accepted method of contraception in India at
present ?
(a) Cervical caps
(b) Tubectomy
(c) Diaphragms
(d) IUDs (Intra uterine devices)
Answer:
(d) IUDs (Intra uterine devices)
Question 47.
Which of the following is a full proof method contraception ?
(a) Implantation
(b) Lactational amenorrhea
(c) Condoms
(d) Sterilisation
Answer:
(d) Sterilisation
Question 48.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding vasectomy ?
(a) It prevents the production of sperm in the testes.
(b) It prevents the production of semen.
(c) It prevents the movement of sperm into the urethra.
(d) It prevents a man from having an erection.
Answer:
(c) It prevents the movement of sperm into the urethra.
Question 49.
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the medical termination of
pregnancy (MTP) ?
(a) These help in getting rid of unwanted pregnancies.
(b) These help in aborting the pregnancies which may be harmful to either mother of
foetus or both.
(c) These contribute in decreasing the human population.
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(d) None of these.
Question 50.
Which of the following represents the correct match of a sexually transmitted disease with
its pathogen ?
(a) Syphilis-Treponema pallidum
(b) Gonorrhoea-Entamoeba histolytica
(c) Urethritis-Bacillus anthracis
(d) Softsore-Bacillus brevis
Answer:
(a) Syphilis-Treponema pallidum
Question 51.
The sexually transmitted disease, that can affect both the male and the female genitals
and may damage the eyes of babies born of infected mothers is
(a) AIDS
(b) syphilis
(c) gonorrhoea
(d) hepatitis
Answer:
(c) gonorrhoea
Question 52.
A sexually transmitted disease symptomised by the development of chancre on the
genitals is caused by the infection of
(a) Treponema pallidum
(b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
(c) human immunodeficiency virus
(d) hepatitis B virus
Answer:
(a) Treponema pallidum
Reproductive Health Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers
Question 1.
Amniocentesis is a technique to
Question 2.
Question 3.
(a) Diaphragm
(c) Nirodh
(d) Copper T
Question 4.
(a) Laproscopy
(b) Amniocentesis
(c) Abstinence
(a) Zygote is taken from the oviduct cultured and then implanted.
(c) Sperms and ovum are fused and zygote grown in a test tube.
Question 7.
(a) GIFT
(b) HJF
(c) IVF-ET
(d) lUDs
Question 8.
(b) Tubecjomy
(c) Vasectomy
Question 9.
Copper-T prevents
(a) Ovulation
Question 11.
(a) Contraceptive
(d) Mutagen
Question 12.
(a) Abortion
(b) Oral pills
(c) Abstinence
(d) Sterilization
Question 13.
(a) Mala D
(c) Saheli
(d) Condoms
Question 14.
(c) Vasectomy
Question 15.
(n) Gonorrhoea
(b) AIDS
(c) Trichomoniasis
(d) Syphillis
Question 1.
Answer: venereal
Question 2.
Question 3
………………. means healthy reproductive organs with normal functions.
Question 4.
Answer
Answer: England
Question 5.
Answer: Non-invasive
Question 6.
Answer
Answer: barriers
Question 7.
Sperms are viable for ………………. days and egg is alive for about ………………. days.
Answer
Answer: 3, 1-2
Question 8.
Answer
Question 9.
Answer
Answer: irreversible
Question 10.
Answer: lactic acid, citric acid, potassium permagnate and zinc sulphate.
Question 1.
Answer: False
Question 2.
Answer: True
Question 3.
Amniocentesis is a non invasive technique for determining the sex of the foetus.
Answer: False
Question 4.
Poverty and illiteracy play a major role towards the population explosion.
Answer
Answer: True
Question 5.
Answer
Answer: False
Question 6.
Answer
Answer: False
Question 7.
Answer
Answer: True
Question 8.
Answer
Answer: False
Question 9.
Answer
Answer: False
Question 10.
Answer
Answer: False
One Word Answers
Question 1.
Answer
Question 2.
Answer
Question 3.
Answer
Answer: Father.
Question 4.
Answer
Question 5.
Answer
Answer: Acne.
Question 6.
Name a mental disorder in which a person believes himself to be fat and develops an
aversion to food.
Answer
Answer
Question 8.
Answer
Question 9.
Answer
Question 10.
Name the condition in which a couple is unable to have offsprings inspite of having
unprotected coitus.
Answer
Answer: Infertility.
Column I Column II
Answer
Answer:
Column I Column II
Question 47.
Which of the following is a full proof method contraception ?
(a) Implantation
(b) Lactational amenorrhea
(c) Condoms
(d) Sterilisation
Answer:
(d) Sterilisation
Question 48.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding vasectomy ?
(a) It prevents the production of sperm in the testes.
(b) It prevents the production of semen.
(c) It prevents the movement of sperm into the urethra.
(d) It prevents a man from having an erection.
Answer:
(c) It prevents the movement of sperm into the urethra.
Question 49.
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the medical termination of
pregnancy (MTP) ?
(a) These help in getting rid of unwanted pregnancies.
(b) These help in aborting the pregnancies which may be harmful to either mother of
foetus or both.
(c) These contribute in decreasing the human population.
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(d) None of these.
Question 50.
Which of the following represents the correct match of a sexually transmitted disease with
its pathogen ?
(a) Syphilis-Treponema pallidum
(b) Gonorrhoea-Entamoeba histolytica
(c) Urethritis-Bacillus anthracis
(d) Softsore-Bacillus brevis
Answer:
(a) Syphilis-Treponema pallidum
Question 51.
The sexually transmitted disease, that can affect both the male and the female genitals
and may damage the eyes of babies born of infected mothers is
(a) AIDS
(b) syphilis
(c) gonorrhoea
(d) hepatitis
Answer:
(c) gonorrhoea
Question 52.
A sexually transmitted disease symptomised by the development of chancre on the
genitals is caused by the infection of
(a) Treponema pallidum
(b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
(c) human immunodeficiency virus
(d) hepatitis B virus
Answer:
(a) Treponema pallidum
Reproductive Health Class 12 Biology
MCQs Pdf
1. Which of the following is hormonereleasing?
(a) Multiload 375
(b) LNG-20
(c) Lippes loop
(d) Cu 7
Answer
Answer: b
4. Surgical methods, also called sterilisation techniques are fool-poof methods be prevent
pregnancy. But, it is the last option for many couples, because
(a) it is nearly irreversible.
(b) of lack of sufficient facilities in many parts of the country.
(c) of fear that it will reduce sexual drive.
(d) all of these
Answer
Answer: d
6. Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives because of the following reasons [NCERT
Exemplar]
(a) these are effective barriers for insemination.
(b) they do not interfere with coital act.
(c) these help in reducing the risk of STDs.
(d) all of the above.
Answer
Answer: d
7. Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) suppression of gonadotropins.
(b) hyper secretion of gonadotropins.
(c) suppression of gametic transport.
(d) suppression of fertilisation.
Answer
Answer: a
8. The method of directly injecting a spenn into ovum in assisted reproductive, technology is called
[NCERT Exemplar]
(a) GIFT
(b) ZIFT
(c) ICSI
(d) ET
Answer
Answer: c
10. Diaphragms are the contraceptive devices used by females. Choose the correct option about
them.
(a) They are reusable.
(b) They block the entry of sperms.
(e) They are placed to cover the cervix.
(d) All of these.
Answer
Answer: d
14. The incidences of STPs are reported to be very high among persons in the age group of _____
years.
Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explaination: 15 – 24.
16. According to the 2001 census report, the population growth rate in India is ______ per year.
Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explaination: 17/1000 or 1.7 per cent.
17. ______ methods work on the principle of avoiding the chances of meeting of ovum and sperm.
Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explaination: Barrier.
18. ______ is the oral contraceptive for female containing non-steroidal preparation.
Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explaination: Saheli.
19. The statutory ban on _____ is to legally check the female foeticide.
Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explaination: Amniocentesis.
20. Day ______ of the menstrual cycle are called fertile period.
Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explaination: 10-17.
21. Embryo with more than 32 blastomeres is transferred into the _______ .
Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explaination: Uterus.
22. Surgical methods of contraception are highly effective but their _______ is poor.
Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explaination: Reversibility.
Directions (Q23 and Q24): Match the items of Column I with those of Column II.
23.
Column 1 Column 11
A. Copper – releasing IUD 1. Sterilisation in males.
B. Hormone – releasing IUD 2. Progesterone- estrogen combination.
C. Vasectomy 3. Progestasert.
D. Oral contraceptive 4. Multiload 375.
Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explaination: A – 4, B – 3, C – 1, D – 2
24.
Column I Column II
A. Lactational amenorrhoea 1. Directly injecting a sperm into the ovum.
B. ICSI 2. Suppressing ovulation and implantation.
C. Tubectomy 3. Suppression of gonadotropins.
D. Oral contraceptive 4. Blocking the transport of gametes.
5. Implant under the skin.
Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explaination: A – 3, B – 1, C – 4, D – 2
26. MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first 18 weeks of pregnancy. [True/False]
Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explaination: False.
27. Hepatitis-B, AIDS and genital herpes are the STDs that can be cured. [True/False]
Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explaination: False.
28. Sterilisation process in males, is called vasectomy and that in females, is called tubectomy.
[True/False]
Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explaination: True.
Directions (Q30 to Q33): Mark the odd one in each of the following groups.
30. Diaphragm, Vaults, Progestasert, Cervical caps
Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explaination: Progestasert.
35. Mention one positive and one negative application of amniocentesis. [Delhi 2010]
Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explaination:
Positive application:
– Any genetic disorder of the foetus can be detected.
Negative application:
– It is misused for sex determination and female foeticide.
36. Government of India has raised the marriageable age of female to 18 years and of males to 21
years. Suggest any two more measures adopted by Government for the purpose. [CBSE Sample
Paper 2016]
Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explaination:
The other methods include:
– Motivation to have smaller families by using various contraceptive methods.
– Advertisements in the media and posters showing a happy couple with two children with a slogan
‘Hum Do, Hamare Do’.
– Incentives given to the couples with small families. (any two)
37. State one reason why breast feeding the baby acts as a natural contraceptive, for the mother?
[AI2014C; HOTS]
Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explaination:
(i) The events of menstrual cycle are absent during the period of intense lactation.
(ii) In the absence of ovulation, there is no question of fertilisation and conception.
38. Why is the period between day 10 and 17 of the menstrual cycle, called ‘fertile period’?
[HOTS]
Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explaination: Ovulation occurs during this period and chances of fertilisation are high; hence this
period is called ‘fertile period’.
39. What is the principle behind the barrier methods of birth control?
Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explaination: In these methods, the ovum and sperms are prevented from physically meeting each
other.
40. Name any two barriers used by human females for birth control.
Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explaination: Cervical caps, diaphragms, vaults, (any two)
42. Name an IUD that you would recommend to promote the cervix hostility to the sperms. [Delhi
2014C]
Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explaination: Hormone-releasing IUDs like LNG-20 or progestasert.
43. Mention any two events that are inhibited by the intake of oral contraceptive pills to prevent
pregnancy in humans.
Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explaination: Ovulation and implantation.
44. How can pregnancy due to rape or casual unprotected intercourse be prevented?
Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explaination:
Pregnancy due to rape or casual unprotected intercourse can be prevented by
(i) administration of progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combination within 72 hours of coitus.
(ii) administration of IUDs within 72 hours of coitus.
48. Our government has intentionally imposedstrict conditions for MTP in our country. Justify
giving a reason. [Delhi 2017]
Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explaination: The restrictions are mainly to check the indiscriminate and illegal female foeticides.
50. Name two STDs which can be transmitted through contaminated blood.
Or
Name two sexually transmitted diseases that do not specifically affect the reproductive organs.
Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explaination: Hepatitis B and AIDS.
51. Give two reasons why a person infected with a venereal disease does not go for timely detection
and treatment of it.
Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explaination:
(i) The early symptoms of venereal diseases are less significant and cannot be detected.
(ii) The social stigma attached to the disease.
52. Mention the age group where STDs are reported to be very high.
Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explaination: 15-24 years is the age group.
55. Name any two assisted reproductive technologies that help infertile couples to have children.
[Delhi 2012C]
Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explaination:
(i) Test Tube Baby Programme
(ii) Gamete Intra-Fallopian Transfer (GIFT)
(iii) Intra-Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)
(iv) Artificial Insemination. (any two)