02.03.
16 | CLINICAL PATHOLOGY
1. The most important source of papsmear
specimen is from:
 D. cervical external os
2. Cancer of the cervix is most likely suspected
when infected from what specific HPV type?
 C.16
3. This lesion is characterized by the morphologic
evidence indicative as hpv infection
 B. it is lowgrade
4. The most important histologic finding in the
earliest detection of preneoplastic lesion is?
 B. Atypical koilocytes.
5. High grade equivalent is
 C. CIN 2 AND CIN 3
6. CIS is characterized by all of the following except?
 A. With invasion
7. The benign lesion that is indicative of infection by
low risk HPV
 A. Condyloma acuminata
8. Papsmear sample is best obtained when
 A. Before menstruation (doc’s answer)
 D. after menstruation (our answer)
9. The best site to obtain papsmear sample for
hormonal evaluation is
 C. Lateral vaginal wall
10. Infectious is entertained, it is best to get sample
form
 B. Posterior fornix
11. Papsmear examination is recommended to start
when
 C. Sexually active
12. The ff condition predispose to cervical cancer
EXCEPT
 C. previously with normal papsmear
results
13. If the papsmear result showed ascus, it is
indicative of squamous cell with unknown
significance which of the following is the best
course of action
 A. Treat and repeat the papsmear
14. If the papsmear reported positive for malignancy
the usual course of action is
 B. do a biopsy
15. In the Bethesda system of reporting, the most
commonly detected cervical cancer is
 A. Squamous cell carcinoma
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16. If the cervical epithelial cells are atypical nuclei
but still with cytoplasm as much of the superficial
cells, it is still classified as
 B. low grade
17. a parabasal type of squamous cells with large
bizarre nuclei is equivalent of
 A. High grade
18. Flagellated infection agent commonly detected in
papsmear
 B. Trichomonas
19. The patient is said to be menopausic when the
predominant cell in the papsmear is
 A. Parabasal cell
20. The presence of which cell in the papsmear is
always abnormal in menopausic women
 D. Endometrial cell
21. Liquid based cytology PRIMARILY eliminates
which of the following
 A. Wbc and rbc
22. In the absence of cervical spatula for papsmear
sampling, cotton swab may be used provided
 C. wet the cotton first
23. To obtain papsmear sample from a bleeding site
you should
 C. Wipe the site of bleeding first
24. Warty lesions in the cervix is usually due to HPV
infection
 B. HPV 6 n 11
25. Atypical koilocytes is characterized as
 D. all of the above
26. In choosing an ideal for GFR which of the
following is not a part of the criteria
 B. UNSTABLE IN THE URINE
SPECIMEN
27. Which of the following clearance test enables
visualization of the kidney…
 C. INJECTION OF CONTRAST MEDIA
28. What is the main disadvantage of creatinine as a
substance being measured in clearance test
 D. AFFECTED BY MUSCLE MASS AND
DIET
29. 66-year-old male presented with oliguria,
hypertension, and bipedal edema. The patient is
a known diabetic. Urinalysis showed sugar +2,
protein +3. What specific protein is measured in
the test…
 A. ALBUMIN
30. Ideal specimen for creatinine clearance…
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  D. 24-HOUR URINE COLLECTION  A. FATTY ACIDS
31. In a patient with renal failure, what is the most life 43. Precipitation of urinary salts are dependent on
threatening significant complication… urinary pH and seen in urine specimen are
 B. HYPERKALEMIA (TREATMENT: called…
PUSH POTASSIUM INTO THE CELL  B. CRYSTALS
BY GIVING INSULIN AND GLUCOSE) 44. What is the best routine urine specimen…
32. Early renal involvement with systemic disease  B. EARLY MORNING
can be determined by what renal function test… 45. The type of cast correlated with the presence of
 D. TUBULAR REABSORPTION urine failure and stasis is…
33. Inulin is an ideal substance for clearance  C. BROAD AND WAXY CASTS
however, there is a disadvantage… 46. Patient presented with on and off flank pain.
 C. EXOGENOUS Given the following urinalysis finding: greater than
34. Among the electrolytes, which is the most 30% RBC crenated (dysmorphic) with
convincing marker of renal failure… hematuria…
 B. POTASSIUM  D. URINARY STONE
35. A patient is complaining of recurrent UTI. The 47. 22-year-old female routine PE presented with the
physician recommended urine culture. Which of following urinalysis result: hematuria, and mild
the following is the ideal specimen? WBC 2-5. Which of the following is most likely…
 C. MID-STREAM  A. PRESENCE OF CONTAMINATION
36. A 7-year-old with bipedal edema, peri-orbital 48. Which of the following test is not routinely
edema, and hyperlipidemia. Patient also performed in synovial fluid…
complains of oliguria. Urinalysis showed the  A. GLUCOSE DETERMINATION
following findings: hematuria, WBC, high protein. 49. 45-year-old male, athlete, complained of tender,
This is consistent with… swollen knee joint. Arthrocentesis revealed 4 ml
 C. MINIMAL CHANGE DISEASE (MOST of turbid synovial fluid. The most common cause
COMMON CAUSE OF NEPHROTIC of change in clarity…
DISEASE IN CHILDREN) (DIAGNOSED  C. PRESENCE OF WBC
BY ELECTRON MICROSCOPY NOT 50. Function of synovial fluid except…
BIOPSY)  B. REMOVAL OF CARTILAGINOUS
37. Diabetic wanted to monitor the presence of early DEBRIS
renal involvement. Which routine test would you 51. Which of the following is the function of
request? synoviocytes?
 C. MICRAL TEST (PRESENCE OF  D. it is the main source of hyaluronic acid
MICROALBUMIN) 52. Which of the following crystals show a negative
38. Patient with dysuria, fever, and flank pain. Given birefringence under a polar microscope
the following ua finding: turbid, wbc clump 2-5,  D. monosodium urate
wbc more than 30/hpf. This may be consistent 53. Which of the following crystals is associated with
with… pseudogout
 C. UTI  Calcium pyrophosphate
39. Presence of significant amount of renal tubular 54. Highest WBC count can be detected to be seen
cells in the urine in a patient with history of with?
hypovolemic shock and acute renal failure may  C. Septic arthritis
indicate which of the following… 55. Increase in the amount of serous fluid is called
 B. ACUTE TUBULAR NECROSIS  C. Effusion
40. Chemical test used to detect presence of 56. According to WHO guide, the normal sperm
bacteria… concentration is
 D. NITRITE TEST  b. >15million/ml
41. What is the most abundant urinary ketone… 57. Enzymes for the coagulation and the liquefaction
 D. 3-HYDROXYBUTYRIC ACID of semen is produced by the
42. Ketones are derived from the metabolism of…  b. prostate gland

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58. Which of the following is/are true of the A- 1,2,3 are correct
epididymis? B- 1 and 3 are correct
 B. produce majority of fluid in the semen C- 2 and 4 are correct
(doc bryan’s answer) D- only 4
 C. storage of sperm prior to ejaculation E- all are correct
(TRUE ANSWER) 74. Bacterial meningitis would most likely show
59. 20 year old MALE, sexually active complained of 1. WBC >1oooo
dysuria and yellowish urethral discharge.all of the 2. glucose: 20
ff are considerations EXCEPT 3. increased neutrophil
 C. HPV and D. bacterial vaginosis 4. decreased pressure
60. the ff sexually transmitted diseases are correctly  Answer: A. 1,2,3 are correct
matched with their causative agents except 75. 22 year old medicine student admitted due to
 B. chancroid- trichomonas vaginosis seizure, CSF glucose: 15 WBC count: 5000, 90%
(BONUS) neutrophil and protein of 80 mg. This is
61. 33 yo female with multiple genital ulcer. Which of suggestive of:
the ff is the most likely causative agent? 1. Viral meningitis
 A. HSV 2. tuberculous meningitis
62. Which of the ff is the primary stage of syphilis 3. fungal meningitis
 B. chancre 4. bacterial meningitis
63. Hematogenous spread of spirochete in secondary  Answer: D. 4 only
stage, resolves in how many weeks or months? 76. Which of the ffg lab tests are routinely
 B. 2-6 weeks recommended tests for CSF?
64. Painless, genital ulcer caused by the ff 1. Glucose
 C. granuloma inguinale 2. Protein electrophoresis
65. causes of non gonococcal urethritis except 3. Differential count
 D. Treponema pallidum 4. Cytology
66. The most common cause of PID  Answer: B. 1 and 3 are correct
 B. chlamydia trachomatis and D. 77. Which of the ffg are causes of elevated protein
Neisseria gonorrhea in CSF?
67. Which of the ff is a complication of PID 1. Rapid CSF production
2. Primary CNS tumor
 B. ectopic pregnancy
3. Water intoxication
68. the most common clinical manifestation of
4. Meningitis
bacterial vaginosis is
 Answer: C. 2 and 4 are correct
 B. fishy malodorous discharge
78. Which is/are responsible for the production of
69. What serotypes of HPV are high risk?
CSF?
 A. 16 and 18
1. Meninges
70. Perianal wart are associated with what HPV
2. Ventricular ependymal cells
serotypes
3. Arachnoid villi
 C. 6
4. Choroid plexus
71. Body fluids with high concentration of HIV and
 Answer: C. 2 and 4 are correct
high potential of transmission of virus are all the ff
79. Most important indication/s of CSF analysis
EXCEPT
is/are?
 C. saliva
1. CNS tumor
72. HIV enzyme responsible for conducting RNA to
2. Degenerative
DNA
3. Intracranial hemorrhage
 B. reverse transcriptase
4. Infectious meningitis
73. the part of HIV responsible for uncoiling the virus
 Answer: D. 4 only
to the CD4
80. Xanthochromic CSF, presence of what?
 A. gp120
1. Erythrocyte
74- 90
2. Bilirubin

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 3. Carotene
4. Melanin
 Answer: E. all of the above
81. Clot formation on CSF may be seen in which of
the ffg?
1. Traumatic
2. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
3. Tuberculous meningitis
4. Normal CSF
 Answer in the key: E. all of the above
BUT subject to correction Dr. Santos
said it should be 1 & 3 (B).
82. In collecting CSF, tube 3 is used for?
1. Chemistry
2. Cytology
3. Serology
4. Cell count
 Answer: C. 2 and 4 are correct
83. Which of the following cells increase in the
CSF of a patients with viral meningitis?
1. Neutrophils
2. Monocyte
3. Plasma cell
4. Lymphocyte
 Answer: C. 2 and 4 are correct
84. Which of the following is true in collecting
specimen for semen analysis?
1. Abstinence of no longer than 5 days
2. Transported at body temp
3. Specimen collected may be used by a
special condom
4. First portion should be discarded. 
 Answer: A. 1,2,3 are correct
3. Correlated with testicular volume
4. Influenced by the volume of the
secretions from the prostate and
seminal vesicles
 Answer: C. 2 and 4 are correct
88. Patient presented to you with history of
diabetes and renal failure. Clearance test
requested is indicated for the ffg:
1. Determine extent of nephron damage
2. Monitor effectiveness of treatment
3. Determine the feasibility of
administering medications
4. Determine an early renal involvement
 Answer: A. 1,2,3 are correct
89. Hyperkalemia in a patient with renal failure
is/are due to:
1. Decrease filtration
2. Increase secretion
3. Decrease secretion
4. Leakage of and increase filtration
 Answer: C. 2 and 4 are correct
90. Patient presented with urine findings, the
pertinent are hematuria, WBC >15-20 with RBC
casts. Which are possible considerations?
1. Goodpasture
2. Post-strep GN
3. IgA nephropathy
4. Minimal change disease
 Answer: A. 1,2,3 are correct

85. Normal seminal fluid:

1. Gray-white in color
2. Translucent
3. Liquefies within 30-60 mins
4. Pours in droplets
 Answer: E. all of the above

86. Decrease semen volume is associated with

1. More frequently assoc with infertility
2. <2 mL
3. Improper function of seminal vesicle
4. Prolonged abstinence
 Answer: A. 1,2,3 are correct
87. True of a sperm concentration:
1. Total number of sperm per ejaculate
2. More related to fertilization and
pregnancy rates

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