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0 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER (TERM I)
2
2021-22 CLASS XII BIOLOGY
Time : 90 Minutes
1

B
I
O General Instructions
L
O 1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
G
Y 2. Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
S 3. Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
A
M 4. Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.
P
L 5. All questions carry equal marks.
E
6. There is no negative marking.
P
A
P
E
R
2
0 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER (TERM I)
2
2021-22 CLASS XII BIOLOGY
Time : 90 Minutes
1

B
I
O
L
O
G
Y
SECTION - A
S
A
Section – A consists of 24 questions.
M
P
Attempt any 20 questions from this section.
L
E The first attempted 20 questions would be evaluated.

P
A
P
E
R
1. Seed is a result of

A Meiotic division occurring in an unfertilised ovule

B Mitotic division occurring in a fertilised egg

C Mitotic division occurring in an unfertilised ovule

D None of the above

1. Seed is a result of

A Meiotic division occurring in an unfertilised ovule

B Mitotic division occurring in a fertilised egg

C Mitotic division occurring in an unfertilised ovule

D None of the above

2. Identify A, B and C given in the figure of an embryo sac by choosing
correct labelling from the options given below.

A A-Synergids, B-Polar nuclei, C-Egg cell

B A-Synergids, B-Central cell, C-Polar nuclei

C A-Antipodals, B-Polar nuclei, C-Synergids

D A-Antipodals, B-Central cell, C-Egg cell

2. Identify A, B and C given in the figure of an embryo sac by choosing
correct labelling from the options given below.

A A-Synergids, B-Polar nuclei, C-Egg cell

B A-Synergids, B-Central cell, C-Polar nuclei

C A-Antipodals, B-Polar nuclei, C-Synergids

D A-Antipodals, B-Central cell, C-Egg cell

3. From among the situations given below, choose the one that prevents
both autogamy and geitonogamy.

A Monoecious plant bearing unisexual flowers

B Dioecious plant bearing only male or female flowers

C Monoecious plant with bisexual flowers

D Dioecious plant with bisexual flowers

3. From among the situations given below, choose the one that prevents
both autogamy and geitonogamy.

A Monoecious plant bearing unisexual flowers

B Dioecious plant bearing only male or female flowers

C Monoecious plant with bisexual flowers

D Dioecious plant with bisexual flowers

4. To achieve 3-celled stage in angiosperms, which cell of the pollen grain
divides to form two male gametes?

A Vegetative cell

B Generative cell

C Microspore mother cell

D None of the above

4. To achieve 3-celled stage in angiosperms, which cell of the pollen grain
divides to form two male gametes?

A Vegetative cell

B Generative cell

C Microspore mother cell

D None of the above

5. Which of the following statements are true for the given structures X and Y.
I. Structure X is syncarpous and structure Y is apocarpous.
II. Structure X is apocarpous and structure Y is syncarpous.
III. Structure X and Y both are multicarpellary.
IV. Structures X and Y both are monocarpellary.

A I and II

B III and IV

C II and III

D I, II and IV
5. Which of the following statements are true for the given structures X and Y.
I. Structure X is syncarpous and structure Y is apocarpous.
II. Structure X is apocarpous and structure Y is syncarpous.
III. Structure X and Y both are multicarpellary.
IV. Structures X and Y both are monocarpellary.

A I and II

B III and IV

C II and III

D I, II and IV
6. Read the following statements.
I. Spermatogonia and spermatids are diploid.
II. The extrusion of second polar body from nucleus occurs after the entry of sperm and
completion of fertilisation.
III. Spermatogenesis and sperm differentiation under and control of FSH and testosterone.
IV. A change in ovum after penetration of sperm is the formation of second polar body.
V. The secondary oocyte in the Graafian follicle forms a new membrane celled zona
pellucida surrounding it.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A I, II, III and IV

B I and III

C Only III

D II, III, IV and V

6. Read the following statements.
I. Spermatogonia and spermatids are diploid.
II. The extrusion of second polar body from nucleus occurs after the entry of sperm and
completion of fertilisation.
III. Spermatogenesis and sperm differentiation under and control of FSH and testosterone.
IV. A change in ovum after penetration of sperm is the formation of second polar body.
V. The secondary oocyte in the Graafian follicle forms a new membrane celled zona
pellucida surrounding it.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A I, II, III and IV

B I and III

C Only III

D II, III, IV and V

7. The figure given below represents embryonic development, select from
the options given below, the correct explanation for the labelled parts A,
B, C and D.

A A-represents the fertilised zygote.

B B-represents stage of morula formation

C C-represents blastocyst

D D-represents blastocyst implantation

7. The figure given below represents embryonic development, select from
the options given below, the correct explanation for the labelled parts A,
B, C and D.

A A-represents the fertilised zygote.

B B-represents stage of morula formation

C C-represents blastocyst

D D-represents blastocyst implantation

8. Cleavage is the rapid mitotic division occurring on the way through
isthmus to oviduct. It occurs in

A Gametes

B Zygote

C Sperm

D Ova
8. Cleavage is the rapid mitotic division occurring on the way through
isthmus to oviduct. It occurs in

A Gametes

B Zygote

C Sperm

D Ova
9. Mammary glands are considered to be the part of reproductive system
in the female because

A Mammary glands are the secondary sexual charcaters

B They are well-developed in female and vestigial in male

C After puberty, breast size increases due to the secretion of oestrogen

D All of the above

9. Mammary glands are considered to be the part of reproductive system
in the female because

A Mammary glands are the secondary sexual charcaters

B They are well-developed in female and vestigial in male

C After puberty, breast size increases due to the secretion of oestrogen

D All of the above

10. Observe the diagram shown below. Now, identify Method-X, Type of
reproductive system-Y, Name of operated parts-Z

A X - Tubectomy, Y - Male, Z - Fallopian tubes

B X - Vasectomy, Y - Female, Z - Vas deferens

C X - Tubectomy, Y - Female, Z - Vas deferens

D X - Tubectomy, Y - Female, Z - Fallopian tubes

10. Observe the diagram shown below. Now, identify Method-X, Type of
reproductive system-Y, Name of operated parts-Z

A X - Tubectomy, Y - Male, Z - Fallopian tubes

B X - Vasectomy, Y - Female, Z - Vas deferens

C X - Tubectomy, Y - Female, Z - Vas deferens

D X - Tubectomy, Y - Female, Z - Fallopian tubes

11. The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum is assisted by
reproductive technology is called

A GIFT

B ZIFT

C ICSI

D ET
11. The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum is assisted by
reproductive technology is called

A GIFT

B ZIFT

C ICSI

D ET
12. Which among the following cannot be detected in a growing foetus
with the help of amniocentesis?

A Down’s syndrome

B Tetanus

C Colour blindness

D Cystic fibrosis
12. Which among the following cannot be detected in a growing foetus
with the help of amniocentesis?

A Down’s syndrome

B Tetanus

C Colour blindness

D Cystic fibrosis
13. Which of the following statements are false?
I. A dominant allele determines the phenotype when paired with a recessive
allele.
II. A recessive allele is weaker than a dominant allele.
III. A recessive allele do not shows its effects when paired with a dominant allele.
IV. A dominant allele is always better for an organism.

A I, II and IV C I, II and III

B II, III and IV D I, III and IV

14. Identify the incorrect statement for sex-determination in humans.

A Humans contain 23 pairs of autosomes

B Females produce only one type of ovum

C Genetic makeup of sperm determine the sex of the child

D In males, two types of gametes are produced

14. Identify the incorrect statement for sex-determination in humans.

A Humans contain 23 pairs of autosomes

B Females produce only one type of ovum

C Genetic makeup of sperm determine the sex of the child

D In males, two types of gametes are produced

15. A colourblind man, whose parents had normal vision and whose
paternal and maternal grandparents had normal vision, probably he
inherited the gene for colour blindness from his

A Maternal or paternal grandmother

B Maternal or paternal father

C Father

D Mother
15. A colourblind man, whose parents had normal vision and whose
paternal and maternal grandparents had normal vision, probably he
inherited the gene for colour blindness from his

A Maternal or paternal grandmother

B Maternal or paternal father

C Father

D Mother
16. What is the genetic disorder in which an individual has an overall
masculine development, gynaecomastia and is sterile?

A Klinefelter’s syndrome

B Edward’s syndrome

C Down’s syndrome

D Turner’s syndrome
16. What is the genetic disorder in which an individual has an overall
masculine development, gynaecomastia and is sterile?

A Klinefelter’s syndrome

B Edward’s syndrome

C Down’s syndrome

D Turner’s syndrome
17. Mother and father of a person with ‘O’ blood group have ‘A’ and ‘B’
blood groups respectively. What would be the genotype of both
mother and father?

A Mother - Homozygous for ‘A’ blood group, Father - Heterozygous for ‘B’ blood group

B Mother - Heterozygous for ‘A’ blood group, Father - Homozygous for ‘B’ blood group

C Mother - Heterozygous for ‘A’ blood group, Father - Heterozygous for ‘B’ blood group

D Mother - Homozygous for ‘A’ blood group, Father - Homozygous for ‘B’ blood group
17. Mother and father of a person with ‘O’ blood group have ‘A’ and ‘B’
blood groups respectively. What would be the genotype of both
mother and father?

A Mother - Homozygous for ‘A’ blood group, Father - Heterozygous for ‘B’ blood group

B Mother - Heterozygous for ‘A’ blood group, Father - Homozygous for ‘B’ blood group

C Mother - Heterozygous for ‘A’ blood group, Father - Heterozygous for ‘B’ blood group

D Mother - Homozygous for ‘A’ blood group, Father - Homozygous for ‘B’ blood group
18. Which of the following statements about Griffith’s experiment are correct?
I. S-strain have mucus (polysaccharide) coat.
II. S-strain are virulent and cause pneumonia infection, while R-strain do not.
III. Transforming principle is associated with genetic material of R-strain.
IV. Transformation of R-strain into S-strain can take place in a test tube.

A I and III

B III and IV

C I, II and IV

D II, III and IV

18. Which of the following statements about Griffith’s experiment are correct?
I. S-strain have mucus (polysaccharide) coat.
II. S-strain are virulent and cause pneumonia infection, while R-strain do not.
III. Transforming principle is associated with genetic material of R-strain.
IV. Transformation of R-strain into S-strain can take place in a test tube.

A I and III

B III and IV

C I, II and IV

D II, III and IV

19. UTRs present on mRNA refer to

A Untranscribed regions at both 5’ end and 3’ end

B Untranslated regions at 5’ end

C Untranslated regions at both 5’ end and 3’ end

D Untranslated regions at 3’ end

20. If double stranded RNA is produced during transcription, it

A Would prevent RNA from being translated into protein

B Would not prevent RNA from being translated into protein

C Will lead to continuous synthesis of RNA

D Will give rise to double stranded RNA with lower stability

20. If double stranded RNA is produced during transcription, it

A Would prevent RNA from being translated into protein

B Would not prevent RNA from being translated into protein

C Will lead to continuous synthesis of RNA

D Will give rise to double stranded RNA with lower stability

21. Gene regulation governing lactose operon of E. coil that involves the
lac i gene products is

A Positive and inducible because it can be induced by lactose

B Negative and inducible because its repressor protein prevents transcription

C Negative and repressible because its repressor protein prevents transcription

D Feedback inhibition because excess of 𝞫-galactosidase can switch off transcription

21. Gene regulation governing lactose operon of E. coil that involves the
lac i gene products is

A Positive and inducible because it can be induced by lactose

B Negative and inducible because its repressor protein prevents transcription

C Negative and repressible because its repressor protein prevents transcription

D Feedback inhibition because excess of 𝞫-galactosidase can switch off transcription

22. Mendel selected pea plant to carry out his experiments because pea
plant has all characters. Identify and choose from the options below,
the character that is not Mendelian.

A Characters - Flower position, Dominant - Axillary, Recessive - Terminal

B Characters - Seed-shape, Dominant - Round, Recessive - Wrinkled

C Characters - Pod-shape, Dominant - Inflate, Recessive - Constricted

D Characters - Leaf-shape, Dominant - Ovale , Recessive - Elongated

22. Mendel selected pea plant to carry out his experiments because pea
plant has all characters. Identify and choose from the options below,
the character that is not Mendelian.

A Characters - Flower position, Dominant - Axillary, Recessive - Terminal

B Characters - Seed-shape, Dominant - Round, Recessive - Wrinkled

C Characters - Pod-shape, Dominant - Inflate, Recessive - Constricted

D Characters - Leaf-shape, Dominant - Ovale , Recessive - Elongated

 23. Observe the diagram given below and answer the questions that follows.
Hershey and Chase used 35S and 32P to prove that DNA is the genetic
material. Their experiments proved that DNA is genetic material because

A Progeny viruses retained 32P, but not 35S

Retention of 32p in progeny viruses indicated

B that DNA was passed on

Loss of 35S in progeny viruses indicated

C that proteins were not passed on

D All of the above

 23. Observe the diagram given below and answer the questions that follows.
Hershey and Chase used 35S and 32P to prove that DNA is the genetic
material. Their experiments proved that DNA is genetic material because

A Progeny viruses retained 32P, but not 35S

Retention of 32p in progeny viruses indicated

B that DNA was passed on

Loss of 35S in progeny viruses indicated

C that proteins were not passed on

D All of the above

 24. Given below are steps of DNA replication
I. Exposure of DNA strand
II. Pairing of bases
III. Synthesis of RNA primer
IV. Activation of deoxyribonucleotides.
V. Formation of chain
VI. Proofreading and DNA repair
VII. Attachment of DNA polymerase enzyme at the ori site.
Select the correct arrangement of events occurring during replication

A III → I → VII → II → V → IV →VI C VII → III → I →II → V → IV → VI

B VII → IV → I → III → II → V → VI D I → III → II → VII → IV → V → VI

 24. Given below are steps of DNA replication
I. Exposure of DNA strand
II. Pairing of bases
III. Synthesis of RNA primer
IV. Activation of deoxyribonucleotides.
V. Formation of chain
VI. Proofreading and DNA repair
VII. Attachment of DNA polymerase enzyme at the ori site.
Select the correct arrangement of events occurring during replication

A III → I → VII → II → V → IV →VI C VII → III → I →II → V → IV → VI

B VII → IV → I → III → II → V → VI D I → III → II → VII → IV → V → VI

2
0
2
1 SECTION - B
B Section - B consists of 24 questions (Sl. No.25 to 48).
I Attempt any 20 questions from this section.
O
The first attempted 20 questions would be evaluated.
L
O
G
Y Question No. 25 to 28 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
S Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
A
M A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
P
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
L
E C. A is true but R is false
D. A is False but R is true
P
A
P
E
R
The consist of two statements - Assertion(A) and Reason(R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below.

A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

C A is true, but R is false

D A is false, but R is true

25. Assertion (A): Only cross-pollination occurs in unisexual flowers.
Reason (R): The only way to prevent self-pollination in bisexual flowers is
self sterility.

A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

C A is true, but R is false

D A is false, but R is true

25. Assertion (A): Only cross-pollination occurs in unisexual flowers.
Reason (R): The only way to prevent self-pollination in bisexual flowers is
self sterility.

A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

C A is true, but R is false

D A is false, but R is true

26. Assertion(A): Vigorous contraction of the uterus at the end of pregnancy
causes in expulsion.
Reason(R) : Stimulatory reflex between the uterine contraction and
oxytocin secretion results in stronger contractions.

A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

C A is true, but R is false

D A is false, but R is true

26. Assertion(A): Vigorous contraction of the uterus at the end of pregnancy
causes in expulsion.
Reason(R) : Stimulatory reflex between the uterine contraction and
oxytocin secretion results in stronger contractions.

A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

C A is true, but R is false

D A is false, but R is true

27. Assertion (A): In barrier methods, ovum and sperms are prevented from
meeting physically.
Reason (R) : Barrier methods can be used during intercourse to prevent the
entry of ejaculated semen into the reproductive tract of the female.

A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

C A is true, but R is false

D A is false, but R is true

27. Assertion (A): In barrier methods, ovum and sperms are prevented from
meeting physically.
Reason (R) : Barrier methods can be used during intercourse to prevent the
entry of ejaculated semen into the reproductive tract of the female.

A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

C A is true, but R is false

D A is false, but R is true

28. Assertion (A): Pairing and segregation of a pair of chromosomes
would lead to the separation of a pair of factors that they carry.
Reason (R) : Two alleles from a pair of genes are located on similar sites
of non-homologous chromosomes

A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

C A is true, but R is false

D A is false, but R is true

28. Assertion (A): Pairing and segregation of a pair of chromosomes
would lead to the separation of a pair of factors that they carry.
Reason (R) : Two alleles from a pair of genes are located on similar sites
of non-homologous chromosomes

A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

C A is true, but R is false

D A is false, but R is true

29. Consider the figure given below.
Choose the incorrect pair.

B-Antrum is fluid-filled cavity found

A in it

C-Primary oocyte completes its 1st

B meiotic division inside it

F-Haploid cell formed after 1st

C meiotic division

D-Mature tertiary follicle which

D ruptures during ovulation
29. Consider the figure given below.
Choose the incorrect pair.

B-Antrum is fluid-filled cavity found

A in it

C-Primary oocyte completes its 1st

B meiotic division inside it

F-Haploid cell formed after 1st

C meiotic division

D-Mature tertiary follicle which

D ruptures during ovulation
30. A particular species of plant produces light, non-sticky pollen in large
numbers and its stigmas are long and feathery. These modifications
facilitate pollination by

A Insects

B Water

C Wind

D Animals
30. A particular species of plant produces light, non-sticky pollen in large
numbers and its stigmas are long and feathery. These modifications
facilitate pollination by

A Insects

B Water

C Wind

D Animals
31. A pregnant women recently visited a gynaecologist and was
suggested to get a blood test. Which of the following hormones will
be increased in blood due to gonadotropin activity in a normal
pregnant female.

A High levels of FSH and LH stimulate the thickening of endometrium

B High levels of FSH and LH facilitate implantation of the embryo

C High level of hCG stimulate the synthesis of oestrogen and progesterone

D High level of hCG stimulate the thickening of endometrium

31. A pregnant women recently visited a gynaecologist and was
suggested to get a blood test. Which of the following hormones will
be increased in blood due to gonadotropin activity in a normal
pregnant female.

A High levels of FSH and LH stimulate the thickening of endometrium

B High levels of FSH and LH facilitate implantation of the embryo

C High level of hCG stimulate the synthesis of oestrogen and progesterone

D High level of hCG stimulate the thickening of endometrium

32. A married couple want to follow a birth control measure which is easy
to use and have less side effects and effects are reversible.
Which of the following birth control measure can be considered as the
most effective and reliable in this case?

A Oral method

B Use of physical barriers

C Intrauterine devices

D Sterilisation techniques
32. A married couple want to follow a birth control measure which is easy
to use and have less side effects and effects are reversible.
Which of the following birth control measure can be considered as the
most effective and reliable in this case?

A Oral method

B Use of physical barriers

C Intrauterine devices

D Sterilisation techniques
33. Implants (the progesterone or progesterone-oestrogen combination)
are used by the females usually under the

A Skin of the inner arm above elbow.

B Vagina

C Upper skin of stomach

D Cervix
33. Implants (the progesterone or progesterone-oestrogen combination)
are used by the females usually under the

A Skin of the inner arm above elbow.

B Vagina

C Upper skin of stomach

D Cervix
34. Filiform apparatus is characteristic

A Cellular thickening at antipodal cell

B Cellular thickening at micropylar end

C Cellular thickening at synergid cells

D Cellular thickening at nuclear end

34. Filiform apparatus is characteristic

A Cellular thickening at antipodal cell

B Cellular thickening at micropylar end

C Cellular thickening at synergid cells

D Cellular thickening at nuclear end

35. Small, inconspicuous flowers which are colourless and without nectar
are the characteristics of

A Anemophilous flowers

B Ornithophilous flowers

C Chiropterophilous flowers

D Entomophilous flowers
35. Small, inconspicuous flowers which are colourless and without nectar
are the characteristics of

A Anemophilous flowers

B Ornithophilous flowers

C Chiropterophilous flowers

D Entomophilous flowers
36. A cross between pure tall pea plant with green pods and dwarf pea
plant with yellow pods will produce _________ tall F2 plants out of 16.

A 15

B 7

C 12

D 13
37. Rrrr (progeny) Red (dominant) flowered (heterozygous) were crossed
with white flower (rrrr). The result will be

A 350 red : 350 white

B 450 red : 250 white

C 380 red : 320 white

D None of these
37. Rrrr (progeny) Red (dominant) flowered (heterozygous) were crossed
with white flower (rrrr). The result will be

A 350 red : 350 white

B 450 red : 250 white

C 380 red : 320 white

D None of these
38. When a tall and red flowered individual is crossed with a dwarf and
white flowered individual, phenotype in the progeny is dwarf and
white. What will be the genotype of tall and red flowered individual?

A TTRR

B TtRR

C TtRr

D TTrR
38. When a tall and red flowered individual is crossed with a dwarf and
white flowered individual, phenotype in the progeny is dwarf and
white. What will be the genotype of tall and red flowered individual?

A TTRR

B TtRR

C TtRr

D TTrR
39. If a genetic disease is transferred from a phenotypically normal, but
carrier female to only some of the male progeny, the disease is

A Autosomal dominant

B Autosomal recessive

C Sex-linked dominant

D Sex-linked recessive
39. If a genetic disease is transferred from a phenotypically normal, but
carrier female to only some of the male progeny, the disease is

A Autosomal dominant

B Autosomal recessive

C Sex-linked dominant

D Sex-linked recessive
40. There are five daughters and no son in a family. It may be due to

A Father produced only X containing sperms

B Father produced no sperms at all

C Y type sperms are weaker and not effective

D By chance each time X sperm fertilised the egg

40. There are five daughters and no son in a family. It may be due to

A Father produced only X containing sperms

B Father produced no sperms at all

C Y type sperms are weaker and not effective

D By chance each time X sperm fertilised the egg

41. Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chromosomal linkage
map of maize plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridised, the F 2
segregation will show

A Segregation in the expected 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio

B Segregation in 3 : 1 ration

C Higher number of the parental types

D Higher number of the recombinant types

41. Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chromosomal linkage
map of maize plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridised, the F 2
segregation will show

A Segregation in the expected 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio

B Segregation in 3 : 1 ration

C Higher number of the parental types

D Higher number of the recombinant types

42. In a DNA, percentage of thymine is 20% then what will be the
percentage of guanine?

A 20 %

B 40 %

C 30 %

D 60 %
42. In a DNA, percentage of thymine is 20% then what will be the
percentage of guanine?

A 20 %

B 40 %

C 30 %

D 60 %
43. If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the
total number of base pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian
cell is 6.6 x 109 bp, then the length of the DNA is approximately

A 2.5 m

B 2.2 m

C 2.7 m

D 2.0 m
43. If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the
total number of base pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian
cell is 6.6 x 109 bp, then the length of the DNA is approximately

A 2.5 m

B 2.2 m

C 2.7 m

D 2.0 m
44. Identify the labels A, B, C and D is the given diagram of mRNA.

A A-Methylated cap, B - Initiation codon, C - Termination codon, D - Poly A tail

B A - Poly A tail, B - Termination codon, C - Initiation codon, D - Methylated cap

C A - Methylated cap, B - Non-coding region, C - Coding region, D - Poly A tail

D A - Methylated cap, B - coding region, C - Non-coding region, D - Poly A tail

44. Identify the labels A, B, C and D is the given diagram of mRNA.

A A-Methylated cap, B - Initiation codon, C - Termination codon, D - Poly A tail

B A - Poly A tail, B - Termination codon, C - Initiation codon, D - Methylated cap

C A - Methylated cap, B - Non-coding region, C - Coding region, D - Poly A tail

D A - Methylated cap, B - coding region, C - Non-coding region, D - Poly A tail

45. In Hershey and Chase experiment, radioactive 32P was used to culture
bacteriophage which resulted in radioactive

A Viral DNA

B Bacterial capsule

C Viral protein

D Plasma membrane of bacteria

45. In Hershey and Chase experiment, radioactive 32P was used to culture
bacteriophage which resulted in radioactive

A Viral DNA

B Bacterial capsule

C Viral protein

D Plasma membrane of bacteria

46. It took ____ years to study the human genome project entirely and it
was completed in _____ .

A 12, 2013

B 13, 2003

C 10, 2000

D 3, 1993
46. It took ____ years to study the human genome project entirely and it
was completed in _____ .

A 12, 2013

B 13, 2003

C 10, 2000

D 3, 1993
47. A mechanism that can cause a gene to move from one linkage group
to another is

A Translocation

B Inversion

C Crossing over

D Duplication
47. A mechanism that can cause a gene to move from one linkage group
to another is

A Translocation

B Inversion

C Crossing over

D Duplication
48. Identify the RNA strand transcribed from the below transcription unit
along with its polarity.

A C

B D
48. Identify the RNA strand transcribed from the below transcription unit
along with its polarity.

A C

B D
2
0 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER (TERM I)
2
2021-22 CLASS XII BIOLOGY
Time : 90 Minutes
1

B
I
O SECTION -C
L
O
G Section-C consists of one case followed by 6 questions linked to this
Y
case (Q.No.49 to 54).
S
A Besides this, 6 more questions are given.
M
P Attempt any 10 questions in this section. The first attempted 10
L
E questions would be evaluated.
P
A
P
E
R
Observe the diagram given below and answer the questions that follows
49. The labelled part of gynoecium that determines the compatible nature
of pollen is

A X

B Y and W

C Z

D X and Y
Observe the diagram given below and answer the questions that follows
49. The labelled part of gynoecium that determines the compatible nature
of pollen is

A X

B Y and W

C Z

D X and Y
 50. Which of the following best describes the function of Z?

A It acts as a nourishment medium for the newly formed zygote

B It acts as a conduit to transport male gametes from stigma to ovule

C It acts as a conduit to transport male gametes from ovule to stigma

D It stores the digested parts of the degraded tissues of stigma and style
 50. Which of the following best describes the function of Z?

A It acts as a nourishment medium for the newly formed zygote

B It acts as a conduit to transport male gametes from stigma to ovule

C It acts as a conduit to transport male gametes from ovule to stigma

D It stores the digested parts of the degraded tissues of stigma and style
51. Structure present inside W is a

A Differentiated megasporangium

B Dedifferentiated megasporangium

C Integumented megasporangium

D Dedifferentiated megasporangium
51. Structure present inside W is a

A Differentiated megasporangium

B Dedifferentiated megasporangium

C Integumented megasporangium

D Dedifferentiated megasporangium
52. Starting from the innermost part, the correct sequence of parts in an
ovule is

A Egg, nucellus, embryo sac, integument

B Egg, embryo sac, nucellus, integument

C Embryo sac, nucellus, integument, egg

D Egg, integument, embryo sac, nucellus

52. Starting from the innermost part, the correct sequence of parts in an
ovule is

A Egg, nucellus, embryo sac, integument

B Egg, embryo sac, nucellus, integument

C Embryo sac, nucellus, integument, egg

D Egg, integument, embryo sac, nucellus

53. Micropyle exists in

A Seed

B Ovule

C Both (a) and (b)

D Fruit
53. Micropyle exists in

A Seed

B Ovule

C Both (a) and (b)

D Fruit
54. In a flower, if the megaspore mother cell forms megaspores without
undergoing meiosis and if one of the megaspores develops into an
embryo sac, its nuclei would be

A Haploid

B Diploid

C A few haploid and a few diploid

D With varying ploidy

54. In a flower, if the megaspore mother cell forms megaspores without
undergoing meiosis and if one of the megaspores develops into an
embryo sac, its nuclei would be

A Haploid

B Diploid

C A few haploid and a few diploid

D With varying ploidy

55. ‘A’ is a sex-linked recessive disorder which occur due to mutation in
certain genes present in the X-chromosome. Identify ‘A’

A Klinefelter

B Haemophilia

C Phenylketonuria

D Thalassemia
55. ‘A’ is a sex-linked recessive disorder which occur due to mutation in
certain genes present in the X-chromosome. Identify ‘A’

A Klinefelter

B Haemophilia

C Phenylketonuria

D Thalassemia
 56. The given figure represents karyotype of an individual who inflicts with this
chromosomal disorder. Choose the correct statement regarding those who
suffer from this chromosomal disorder.

This disorder occurs due to failure of

A segregation of chromatids during cell division
which results in the gain of chromosome
This disorder occurs when cytokinesis does not
B take place after telophase stage. Resulting in
an increase in a complete set of chromosome

This disorder results in sterility among

C individuals

D Both (a) and (c)

 56. The given figure represents karyotype of an individual who inflicts with this
chromosomal disorder. Choose the correct statement regarding those who
suffer from this chromosomal disorder.

This disorder occurs due to failure of

A segregation of chromatids during cell division
which results in the gain of chromosome
This disorder occurs when cytokinesis does not
B take place after telophase stage. Resulting in
an increase in a complete set of chromosome

This disorder results in sterility among

C individuals

D Both (a) and (c)

57. Observe the cross shown below
From the above cross it is clear that colour blindness is a

A Autosomal trait

B X-linked recessive trait

C X-linked dominant trait

D None of these
57. Observe the cross shown below
From the above cross it is clear that colour blindness is a

A Autosomal trait

B X-linked recessive trait

C X-linked dominant trait

D None of these
58. Match column I with column II.

Column I Column II
A Helicase (i) RNA priming
B DNA polymerase III (ii) Unwinding of DNA
C Gyrase (iii) Opening of DNA
D Primase (iv) Joining of nucleotides

A A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii) B A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)

C A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i) D A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)

58. Match column I with column II.

Column I Column II
A Helicase (i) RNA priming
B DNA polymerase III (ii) Unwinding of DNA
C Gyrase (iii) Opening of DNA
D Primase (iv) Joining of nucleotides

A A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii) B A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)

C A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i) D A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)

59. Given below is a sequence of steps of transcription in a eukaryotic
cell. What would be the result if step (D) does not occur during this
process?

A Transcription is halted/ affected

B Translation is affected

C Translation is increased

D None of these
59. Given below is a sequence of steps of transcription in a eukaryotic
cell. What would be the result if step (D) does not occur during this
process?

A Transcription is halted/ affected

B Translation is affected

C Translation is increased

D None of these
60. Study the figure given below
Name the technique depicted in figure

A DNA fingerprinting

B DNA replication

C Transcription

D Translation
60. Study the figure given below
Name the technique depicted in figure

A DNA fingerprinting

B DNA replication

C Transcription

D Translation