Professional Documents
Culture Documents
-2
10
CBSE
2021-22
Social Science
(As per the Latest CBSE Syllabus Released in July 2021)
New Delhi-110002
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Preface
Social Science-10 (TERM-2) is based on the latest curriculum guidelines specified by the CBSE.
It will certainly prove to be a torch-bearer for those who toil hard to achieve their goal.
This Question Bank has been developed keeping in mind students’ requirements for Board Examination
preparations like learning, practising, revising and assessing their progress.
Salient Features of the Book:
● Each chapter is designed in a ‘Topicwise’ manner where every topic is briefly explained followed by
Exercise to that topic.
● Topics presented in easy-to-understand points that help in memorising and retention.
● Answers are written in lucid language and according to the student’s level of understanding.
● Every exercise covers all possible varieties of questions with answers in the form of Objective Type
Questions, Very Short Answer Type Questions, Short Answer Type Questions, Long Answer Type
Questions, Picture/Figure Based Questions, Case Based Questions, Map Based Questions, etc.
● All important NCERT Textbook questions are covered with answers.
● Previous Years’ Board Questions and latest CBSE Board Questions with answers are also included.
● Chapter Chart and Quick Revision Notes have been given for student’s benefit.
● Three Sample Papers are given for student’s benefit.
● The book has been well prepared to build confidence among students.
We earnestly hope that this book will prove to be highly useful for students.
uggestions for further improvement of the book, pointing out printing errors/mistakes which might have
S
crept in spite of all efforts, will be thankfully received and incorporated in the next edition.
–Publishers
(iii)
CBSE CIRCULAR 2021-22
(iv)
● The paper will be of 2 hours duration and have questions of different formats (case-based/ situation based, open
ended- short answer/ long answer type).
● In case the situation is not conducive for normal descriptive examination a 90 minute MCQ based exam will be
conducted at the end of the Term II also.
● Marks of the Term II Examination would contribute to the final overall score.
5. Assessment / Examination as per different situations
A. In case the situation of the pandemic improves and students are able tocome to schools or centres for taking
the exams.
Board would conduct Term I and Term II examinations at schools/centres and the theory marks will be distributed
equally between the two exams.
B. In case the situation of the pandemic forces complete closure of schools during November-December 2021,
but Term II exams are held at schools or centres.
Term I MCQ based examination would be done by students online/offline from home - in this case, the weightage of this
exam for the final score would be reduced, and weightage of Term II exams will be increased for declaration of final
result.
C. In case the situation of the pandemic forces complete closure of schools during March-April 2022, but Term
I exams are held at schools or centres.
Results would be based on the performance of students on Term I MCQ based examination and internal assessments.
The weightage of marks of Term I examination conducted by the Board will be increased to provide year end results of
candidates.
D. In case the situation of the pandemic forces complete closure of schools and Board conducted Term I and
II exams are taken by the candidates from home in the session 2021-22.
Results would be computed on the basis of the Internal Assessment/Practical/Project Work and Theory marks of Term-I
and II exams taken by the candidate from home in Class X / XII subject to the moderation or other measures to ensure
validity and reliability of the assessment.
In all the above cases, data analysis of marks of students will be undertaken to ensure the integrity of internal assessments
and home based exams.
(v)
Syllabus
TERM - II
Unit 1: India and the Contemporary World – II
Themes Learning Objectives
Section 1: Events and Processes
2. Nationalism in India • Recognize the characteristics of Indian nationalism through
• The First World War, Khilafat and Non-Cooperation a case study of Non-Cooperation and Civil Disobedience
• Differing Strands within the Movement Movement.
• Towards Civil Disobedience • Analyze the nature of the diverse social movements of the time.
• The Sense of Collective Belonging • Familiarize with the writings and ideals of different political
Section 2: Livelihoods, Economies and Societies groups and individuals.
Note: Any one theme of the following. The theme selected should • Appreciate the ideas promoting Pan Indian belongingness.
be assessed in the Periodic Test only and will not be evaluated in
the Board Examination: • Show that globalization has a long history and point to the shifts
3. The Making of a Global World within the process.
• The Pre-modern world • Analyze the implication of globalization for local economies.
• The Nineteenth Century (1815-1914) • Discuss how globalization is experienced differently by different
• The Inter war Economy social groups.
• Rebuilding a World Economy: The Post-War Era • Familiarize with the Pro-to-Industrial phase and Early – factory
4. The Age of Industrialization system.
• Before the Industrial Revolution • Familiarize with the process of industrialization and its impact
• Hand Labour and Steam Power on labour class.
• Industrialization in the colonies • Enable them to understand industrialization in the colonies
• Factories Come Up with reference to Textile industries.
• The Peculiarities of Industrial Growth
• Market for Goods
Unit 2: Contemporary India – II
Theme Learning Objectives
5. Minerals and Energy Resources
• What is a mineral? • Identify different types of minerals and energy resources and
• Mode of occurrence of Minerals places of their availability
• Ferrous and Non-Ferrous Minerals • Feel the need for their judicious utilization
• Non-Metallic Minerals
• Rock Minerals
• Conservation of Minerals
• Energy Resources
• Conventional and Non-Conventional
• Conservation of Energy Resources
Note: The theoretical aspect of chapter ‘Minerals and Energy
Resources’ to be assessed in the Periodic Test only and will not be
evaluated in Board Examination. However, the map items of this
chapter as given in the Map List will be evaluated in the Board
Examination.
6. Manufacturing Industries
• Importance of manufacturing • Bring out the importance of industries in the national economy
• Contribution of Industry to National Economy as well as understand the regional disparities which resulted
• Industrial Location due to concentration of industries in some areas.
• Classification of Industries • Discuss the need for a planned industrial development and
• Spatial distribution debate over the role of government towards sustainable
• Industrial pollution and environmental degradation development.
• Control of Environmental Degradation
6. Life Lines of National Economy
• Transport – Roadways, Railways, Pipelines, Waterways, • Explain the importance of transport and communication in the
Airways ever-shrinking world.
• Communication • Understand the role of trade and tourism in the economic
• International Trade development of a country.
• Tourism as a Trade
Unit 3: Democratic Politics – II
Themes Learning Objectives
6. Political Parties
• Why do we need Political Parties? • Analyze party systems in democracies.
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• How many Parties should we have? • Introduction to major political parties, challenges faced by them
• National Political Parties and reforms in the country.
• State Parties
• Challenges to Political Parties
• How can Parties be reformed?
7. Outcomes of Democracy
• How do we assess democracy’s outcomes? • Evaluate the functioning of democracies in comparison to
• Accountable, responsive and legitimate government alternative forms of governments.
• Economic growth and development • Understand the causes for continuation of democracy in India.
• Reduction of inequality and poverty • Distinguish between sources of strengths and weaknesses of
• Accommodation of social diversity Indian democracy.
• Dignity and freedom of the citizens
Unit 4: Economics
Themes Learning Objectives
3. Money and Credit
• Money as a medium of exchange • Understand money as an economic concept.
• Modern forms of money • Understand the role of financial institutions from the point of
• Loan activities of Banks view of dayto-day life.
• Two different credit situations
• Terms of credit
• Formal sector credit in India
• Self Help Groups for the Poor
4. Globalization and the Indian Economy
• Production across countries • Explain the working of the Global Economic phenomenon.
• Interlinking production across countries
• Foreign Trade and integration of markets
• What is globalization?
• Factors that have enabled Globalization
• World Trade Organization
• Impact of Globalization on India
• The Struggle for a fair Globalization
(vii)
Contents
Unit-1: History (India and the Contemporary World-II)................................................................ 9-76
1. Nationalism in India.................................................................................................................................. 9
2. The Making of a Global World (This Chapter to be assessed in the Periodic Test only)......................... 35
3. The Age of Industrialisation (This Chapter to be assessed in the Periodic Test only)............................ 54
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Unit-1
History (India and the Contemporary World-II)
1 Nationalism in India
Topics covered
1. The First World War, Khilafat and Non-Cooperation. 2. Differing Strands within the Movement
3. Towards Civil Disobedience 4. The Sense of Collective Belonging
chapter Chart
Different Social
Effects of the Satyagraha Movements
groups joined the
First World War Organised by Gandhiji
movement
Prices doubled
• Leading to extreme In 1917 • Business class for
hardship for common • Kheda district of Gujarat protection against the
people between 1913- • To support the peasants, import of foreign goods.
1918. affected by crop failure • Rupee sterling exchange
could not pay the revenue ratio.
demanding, revenue collec-
tion be relaxed.
Forced recruitment • Working class was
• Villagers were called upon against low wages and
to supply soldiers caused poor working conditions.
widespread anger. In 1918
• Ahmedabad in Gujarat
• To organise movement
among mill workers for Women were participated
rop failed
C in protest marches and
good working conditions
• It resulted in acute shortage and high wages. went to jail.
of food crop.
• 12 and 13 million people died
due to famines and epidemic.
A spirit of nationalism
was spread through:
New leaders
• The hardship of the people
did not end after the war.
• New leaders suggested The image Indian Tricolour Vande
of
new mode of struggle. Folklore Flag Mataram
Bharat Mata
9
Main Events
1906 :
The All-India Muslim League was formed.
1914 :
The First World War was started.
Jan. 1915 : Mahatma Gandhi arrived in India from South Africa.
1917, 1918 : Mahatma Gandhi organized Satyagraha movement in Champaran (Bihar), Kheda (Gujarat)
and Ahmedabad (Gujarat)
1918–1920 :
Peasant movement in Awadh.
1919 : The Rowlatt Act; Jallianwalla Bagh Massacre; Hartal (Strike) against the Rowlatt Act;
Khilafat Committee was formed
Sep. 1920 : Calcutta Congress session; Non-Cooperation was decided.
1920 : Congress session at Nagpur and the Non-Cooperation Movement was adopted.
1921 : The Non-Cooperation Movement was launched; A militant Guerilla Movement in Andhra
Pradesh.
1922 :
Chauri Chaura incident; withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement.
1924 :
Sitaram Raju was executed.
1927 :
FICCI was founded.
1928 :
Bardoli Satyagraha; Simon Commission was set up in India; Lala Lajpat Rai was injured
during a demonstration against the Simon Commission and died.
1929 : Lahore Congress adopted demands for Purna Swaraj.
1930 : The Civil Disobedience Movement was started by breaking salt law at Dandi; Gandhiji
sent a letter to Lord Irwin.
1931 : Gandhi-Irwin Pact took place; End of the Civil Disobedience Movement;
1932 : Poona Pact signed; Civil Disobedience Movement was relaunched.
1934 : Civil Disobedience Movement was called off.
1942 : The Quit India Movement was started.
10 Social Science-10
• People reacted like workers went on strike in railway workshops. The British government arrested local
leaders of Amritsar. Mahatma Gandhi was barred from entering Delhi. On 10th April, Police fired upon a
peaceful procession, provoking widespread attacks on banks, post offices and railway stations. Martial law
was imposed by General Dyer.
• On 13th April, people assembled in Jallianwalla Bagh to protest against repression and to attend the annual
Baisakhi fair. General Dyer opened fire on the crowd, killing hundreds to create terror in the minds of
Satyagrahis; public reactions took a violent turn in many north Indian towns. Government responded with
brutal repression. Satyagrahis were humiliated. Seeing violence spread, Mahatma Gandhi called off the
movement.
• While the Rowlatt Satyagraha had been a widespread movement, it was still limited mostly to cities and
towns. Now Gandhiji felt that no such movement could be organised without bringing the Hindus and
Muslims together.
• The First World War had ended with the defeat of Ottoman Turkey. There were rumours that a harsh
peace treaty was going to be imposed on the Ottoman emperor, the spiritual head of the Islamic world (the
Khalifa).
• To defend the Khalifa’s temporal power, a Khilafat Committee was formed in Bombay in March 1919 by
Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali. Mahatma Gandhi saw this as an opportunity to bring Muslims under the
umbrella of a unified national movement. At Calcutta session of Congress in September 1920, a resolution
was passed to launch a Non-Cooperation Movement in support of Khilafat as well as for Swaraj.
Non-Cooperation Movement
• Mahatma Gandhi in his famous book ‘Hind Swaraj’ declared that British rule was established in India with
the cooperation of Indians. If Indians refused to cooperate, British rule in India would collapse within a year,
and Swaraj would come.
• Gandhiji proposed that the movement should unfold in stages–
(1) Surrender of the titles which were awarded by the British government.
(2) Boycott of civil services, army, police, courts, and Legislative Councils.
(3) Boycott foreign goods, schools and colleges.
• Some Congress leaders were reluctant to boycott the council elections because they feared that movement
might lead to popular violence. Finally, at the Congress session at Nagpur in December 1920, a compromise
was worked out and the Non-Cooperation programme was adopted.
Exercise 1.1
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) When was the Khilafat Committee founded?
(a) 1919 (b) 1920 (c) 1927 (d) 1922
(ii) The Non-Cooperation programme was adopted in the
(a) Lahore Session (b) Nagpur Session
(c) Gujarat Session (d) Second Round Table Conference
(iii) Satyagraha is also called
(a) Active resistance (b) Neutral resistance
(c) Passive resistance (d) All of these
2. Correct the following statements and rewrite
(i) To defend the Khalifa’s temporal powers, a Non-Cooperation Committee was formed in Bombay in
March 1919.
(ii) The Non-Cooperation movement was called off in 1934.
3. Arrange in following in correct sequence
(i) Mahatma Gandhi returned to India (ii) First World War
(iii) Champaran Satyagraha (iv) Rowlatt Act
15.1. Identify the motive behind the passive resistance from the following options–
(a) It is not a physical force.
(b) A Satyagrahi does not inflict pain on the adversary.
(c) Non-violence is the supreme dharma.
(d) All of the above
15.2. Which of the following is not the concept of Satyagraha?
(a) It emphasises the power of truth and the need to search of truth.
(b) With an aggression a satyagrahi could win the battle.
(c) Gandhiji believed that this dharma of non-violence could unite all Indians.
(d) If the struggle is against injustice then physical force is not necessary to fight.
12 Social Science-10
15.3. What does correctly describe the Satyagrahi?
15.4. Who started the idea of Satyagraha?
V. Long Answer Type Questions (5 Marks)
16. Describe the incidence of Jallianwalla Bagh Massacre. [Foreign 2015, CBSE SP 2019-20]
17. Explain the new economic and political situation created during the First World War in India.
OR
How the First World War helped in the growth of the National movement in India? [NCERT]
OR
What was the impact of the World War-I on the National movement in India? OR
Explain any five major problems posed by the First World War in India.
18. How did Non-Cooperation movement start with participation of middle class people in the cities?
Explain its impact on the economic front. [CBSE 2018]
Answers
1. (i) (a), (ii) (b), (iii) (c)
2. (i) To defend the Khalifa’s temporal powers, a Khilafat committee was formed in Bombay in March
1919.
(ii) The Civil Disobedience Movement was called off in 1934.
3. (a)
4. A process by which the colonial state forced people to join the army.
5. In 1917, Mahatma Gandhi travelled to Champaran to inspire the peasants to struggle against the
oppressive plantation system.
6. At Nagpur session in December 1920, a compromise was worked out and the Non-Cooperation was
adopted.
7. The idea of Satyagraha was started by Mahatma Gandhi. He emphasized the power of truth and the
need to search for truth. If the cause is true, if the struggle is against injustice then physical force is
not necessary to fight the oppressor.
Without being aggressive a satyagrahi could win the battle through non-violence. Gandhiji believed
that this dharma of non-violence could unite all Indians.
The growth of nationalism was intimately connected to the anti-colonial movement. People began
discovering their unity in the process of their struggle with colonialism.
8. Mahatma Gandhi successfully organised Satyagraha movements in various places:
(i) In 1917 he travelled Champaran in Bihar to inspire the peasants to struggle against the oppressive
plantation system.
(ii) In 1917, he organised a Satyagraha to support the peasants of the Kheda district of Gujarat
affected by crop failure and could not pay the revenue and demanded that revenue collection be
relaxed.
(iii) In 1918, Mahatma Gandhi went to Ahmedabad to organise a Satyagraha movement amongst
cotton mill workers.
9. The Rowlatt Act empowered the government to imprison a person without a trial. It was passed in
1919 by the British government despite the united opposition of the Indian members. It gave enormous
powers to the government. Now, the British government could suppress the political activities, and
allow detention of political prisoners without trial for two years.
Indian people reacted to it stoutly. Under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi, they decided to launch
a nationwide Satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act (1919).
It was organised through the ways – (i) Rallies were organised in various cities, (ii) Workers went on
strike in railway workshops, (iii) Shops closed down.
10. (i) Rallies were organized in various cities, workers went on strike in railway workshops and shops
closed down.
(ii) The British administration decided to clamp down on nationalists.
(iii) Local leaders were picked up from Amritsar and Mahatma Gandhi was barred from entering
Delhi.
14 Social Science-10
(ii) The import of foreign cloth halved between 1921 and 1922, its value dropping from ` 102 Crore
to ` 57 Crore. In many places merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance
foreign trade.
(iii) As the boycott movement spread, and people began discarding imported clothes and wearing only
Indian ones, production of Indian textile mills and handlooms went up.
In Andhra Pradesh:
• In the Gudem hills a militant guerrilla movement spread in the early 1920s because they were prevented from
entering the forest to graze cattle, to collect fruits and firewood. The forest laws were a threat to livelihood of
tribal peasants. When the government forced them to do begar on road constructions, they revolted under the
leadership of Alluri Sitaram Raju.
• The Gudem rebels attacked police stations, attempted to kill British officials and carried on guerrilla warfare
for achieving Swaraj. Raju was captured and executed is 1924, and over time became a folk hero.
Swaraj in the Plantations
In Assam:
• For plantation workers in Assam, freedom meant retaining a link with the village from which they had
come.
• Plantation workers revolted against the Inland Emigration Act of 1859, which did not permit the workers
to leave the tea gardens without permission and they were rarely given such permissions.
• When they heard of the Non-Cooperation Movement, thousands of workers defied the authorities, left the
plantations and headed home. They believed that Gandhi Raj was coming and everyone would be given land
in their own villages. However, they never reached their destination.
In 1922, at Chauri-Chaura in Gorakhpur, a peaceful demonstration in a bazaar turned into a violent clash
with the police, in which 22 policemen were burnt alive. Hearing this violence Gandhiji called off the Non-
Cooperation Movement.
16 Social Science-10
Answers
1. (i) Begar, (ii) Swatantra Bharat 2. (d)
3. Baba Ramchandra (a sanyasi) and Jawaharlal Nehru.
4. A form of demonstration or protest by which people block the entrance to a shop, factory or office.
5. A peaceful demonstration in a bazaar in Chauri Chaura, Gorakhpur turned into a violent clash with the
police. Hearing of the incident Mahatma Gandhi decided to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement:
6. (i) The colonial government had closed large forest areas preventing people from entering the forest
to graze their cattle or to collect fuelwood and fruits.
(ii) This enraged the hilly people because they felt their traditional rights were being denied.
(iii) When the government began forcing them to contribute begar for road building, they revolted.
7. Mahatma Gandhi believed in a non-violent struggle against the British oppression. But the Non-
Cooperation Movement took a violent turn at Chauri Chaura in Gorakhpur district of Uttar Pradesh
in 1922.
Here the police fired upon a group of demonstrators. The agitated mob set a police station on fire and
burnt 22 policemen alive. This violent incident shocked Gandhiji and he called off the Non-Cooperation
Movement.
8. Gandhiji proposed that the movement should unfold in stages:
1st Stage – Surrender of titles that the government awarded.
2nd Stage – Boycott of civil services, army, police, courts and legislative councils, schools, and foreign
goods.
3rd Stage – If the government used repression, a full civil disobedience campaign would be launched.
9. (i) The movement started with middle class participations in the cities.
(ii) Thousands of students left government controlled schools and colleges.
(iii) Headmasters and teachers resigned and lawyers gave up their legal practices.
(iv) The council elections were boycotted in most provinces, except Madras.
(v) Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops were picketed, foreign clothes were burnt in bonfires.
10. The effects of the Non-Cooperation on the economic front were more dramatic.
(i) The import of foreign cloth halved between 1921 and 1922, its value dropping from ` 102 crore to
` 57 crore.
(ii) In many places merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods and finance foreign trade.
(iii) People began discarding imported clothes and wearing only Indian ones.
11. The movement slowed down for a variety of reasons:
(i) Khadi cloth was more expensive than mass-produced mill cloth and poor people could not afford
to buy it.
(ii) The boycott of British institutions posed a problem as alternative Indian institutions had to be set
up in place of British ones. These were slow to come up.
(iii) Students and teachers began joining back to schools and lawyers joined government courts.
12. Role of Alluri Sitaram Raju in the Gudem hills of Andhra Pradesh:
(i) Alluri Sitaram Raju claimed that he had a variety of special powers like making astrological
predictions, healing people and surviving bullet shots.
(ii) The rebels proclaimed him as an incarnation of God.
(iii) Raju was inspired by Gandhiji’s Non-Cooperation Movement.
(iv) Persuaded people to wear khadi and gave up drinking.
13. In Awadh, Peasants movement was led by Baba Ramchandra, a Sanyasi, who had been to Fiji as an
indentured labour.
The movement was against talukdars and landlords who demanded from peasants high rents and a
variety of other cesses.
Peasants had to do begar and work at landlord’s farms without any payment. They had no security of
tenure and no right over the leased land.
The peasant movement demanded – (a) Reduction of revenue, (b) Abolition of begar,
(c) Social boycott of oppressive landlords
In many places, nai-dhobi bandhs were organized by panchayats to deprive landlords of the services of
even barbers and washermen.
14. (i) Plantation workers too had their own understanding of Mahatma Gandhi and the notion of Swaraj.
(ii) For plantation workers, freedom meant the right to move freely in and out of the confined space
18 Social Science-10
(ii) Through the summer of 1920 Mahatma Gandhi and Shaukat Ali toured extensively, mobilising
popular support for the movement.
(iii) The Non-Cooperation-Khilafat Movement began in January 1921. Various social groups
participated in this movement, each with its own specific aspiration.
(iv) Thousands of students left government-controlled schools and colleges, headmasters and teachers
resigned, and lawyers gave up their legal practices.
(v) The council elections were boycotted in most provinces. In many places merchants and traders
refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade.
Exercise 1.3
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) Which of the following was the reason for calling off ‘the Non-Cooperation Movement’ by Gandhiji?
[CBSE S.P. 2020-21]
(a) Pressure from the British Government
(b) Second Round Table Conference
(c) Gandhiji’s arrest
(d) Chauri-Chaura incident
(ii) Identify the appropriate reason for the formation of the Swaraj Party from the options given below:
[CBSE SP 2019-20]
(a) Wanted members of Congress to return to Council Politics
(b) Wanted members of Congress to ask for Poorna Swaraj for Indians
(c) Wanted members of Congress to ask Dominion State for India
(d) Wanted members of Congress to oppose Simon Commission
(iii) Why did the Simon Commission come to India? Identify the correct reason from the following
options. [CBSE 2020]
(a) To control the campaign against the British in cities.
(b) To look into the functioning of the British.
(c) To initiate salt law in India.
(d) To suggest changes in the functioning of the constitutional system in India.
(iv) Identify the appropriate reason from the following options, for the non-participation of industrial
workers in the Civil Disobedience Movement. [CBSE 2020]
20 Social Science-10
(a) Industrialist were close to the Congress.
(b) British offered them good salaries.
(c) They were reluctant towards the boycott of foreign goods.
(d) Growth of socialism
2. Assertion and Reasoning Type Question
In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read
the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Gandhiji found salt a powerful symbol that could unite the country.
Reason (R): Salt was important, consumed by both rich and poor alike.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
II. Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Mark)
3. What was Poona Pact?
4. What were Gandhiji’s views on women’s participation in the national movement?
5. What were the views of Mahatma Gandhi regarding untouchables?
6. What was Muhammad Ali Jinnah’s proposal for Muslims?
7. Who formed Swaraj Party? What was the reason for forming Swaraj Party?
8. Who raised the slogan ‘do or die’?
9. Why did Indians oppose the Simon Commission? [CBSE 2020]
10. Name the association formed by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar for Dalits in 1930.
[CBSE 2020]
III. Short Answer Type Questions (3 Marks)
11. What resolution was passed in Congress Lahore session in December 1929? OR
What was the significance of Congress Lahore session of 1929?
12. Who was Sir John Simon? Why was Simon Commission rejected in India, and how?
13. Discuss the role of Lala Lajpat Rai in protest of the Simon Commission.
14. “British rule in India would have collapsed if Indians had not cooperated”. How did this statement help
in starting a mass movement in India against the British rule? [CBSE 2015]
15. Write a short note on the Dandi March.
16. Mention violent clashes that took place during the movement.
17. “When the Civil Disobedience Movement started there was an atmosphere of suspicion and distrust
between communities.” Why was it so? [HOTS]
18. How did Mahatma Gandhi uplift the condition of untouchables?
19. Why did some Muslim organisations not participate in the Civil Disobedience Movement?
OR
Why were Muslim organisations in India also give lukewarm response to the Civil Disobedience
Movement?
IV. Long Answer Type Questions (5 Marks)
20. Write a newpaper report on the Simon Commission. [NCERT]
21. Distinguish between the Non-Cooperation Movement and the Civil Disobedience Movement. [HOTS]
22. When and why did Gandhiji go on fast unto death? What was its outcome?
23. How did people and the colonial government react to the Civil Disobedience Movement? Explain.
OR
How did the colonial government repress the Civil Disobedience Movement? Explain.
24. Under what circumstances did Mahatma Gandhi start the Quit India Movement? What were its
consequences? [HOTS]
25. Why was Congress reluctant to allow women to hold any position of authority within the organisation?
How did women participate in Civil Disobedience Movement? Explain. [CBSE 2018]
26. The Civil Disobedience Movement saw the participation of different social classes and groups. Give
reasons for the participation of the following: (a) rich peasants (b) poor peasants (c) business classes
(d) industrial working classes and (e) women. [CBSE SP 2018-19]
27. Who had organised the dalits into the ‘Depressed Classes Association’ in 1930? Describe his achievements.
[Delhi 2019]
22 Social Science-10
17. (i) Alienated from the Congress, large section of Muslims could not respond to the call for a united
struggle.
(ii) Many Muslim leaders and intellectuals expressed their concern about the status of Muslims as a
Minority within India.
(iii) They feared that the culture and identity of minorities would be submerged under the domination
of a Hindu majority.
18. Mahatma Gandhi called them Harijans which means children of God. He organise Satyagraha for them
to secure their entry into temples, public wells, tanks, roads and schools. He himself cleaned toilets to
dignify the work of the bhangi. He requested the upper caste Hindus to give up the sin of untouchabil-
ity.
19. Large section of Muslims could not respond to the call for a united struggle because:
(i) Large section of Muslims feel ignored from the Congress after the Non-Cooperation Movement.
(ii) From 1920, Congress was associated with Hindu religious, nationalists group Hindu Mahasabha.
(iii) Hindu-Muslim riots were spread in various cities, so the Muslims did not cooperate the Congress.
20. 4 February 1928, Bengal (By TOI Correspondent)
The Statutory Commission under Sir John Simon set up in India in 1928 is in response to the nationalist
movement and to look into the functioning of the constitutional system in India and suggest
changes. But the Commission has only British members, no Indian members. Also the clauses of
this Commission did not contain any hope of ‘Swaraj’ for the Indians. This was followed by a strike
in Bengal on February 3rd, 1928. So when the Simon Commission arrived in India in 1928, it was
greeted with the slogan ‘Go back, Simon’. To pacify Indians, the Viceroy Lord Irwin, announced in
October 1929 ‘dominion status’ for India in an unspecified future, and a Round Table Conference
was held to discuss a future Constitution.
21. Non-Cooperation Movement Civil Disobedience Movement
(i) The Rowlatt Act, Jallianwalla Bagh (i) Rejection of Gandhiji’s eleven demands was
Massacre and injustice done to Khilafat the main cause for launching the movement.
were the basic causes for the movement.
(ii) People were asked not to cooperate with (ii) People broke the colonial laws and refused
the British. to pay taxes.
(iii) Tribal peasants, common people in (iii) Rich peasants, poor peasants, business
towns, plantation workers participated classes and women participated the
the movement. movement.
(iv) This movement was launched in 1920 in (iv) This movement was launched in 1930 in a
a peaceful way. violent way.
22. Many dalit leaders stressed on demanding reserved seats in educational institutions, and a separate
electorate that would choose dalit members for legislative councils. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar organised
the dalits into the Depressed Classes Association in 1930 and supported dalit’s demands. When the
British government conceded Ambedkar’s demand, Gandhiji began a fast unto death. He believed that
separate electorates for dalits would slow down the process of their integration into society.
Ambedkar ultimately accepted Gandhiji’s point and it resulted in the Poona Pact of September 1932.
It gave the Depressed Classes (later to be known as the Scheduled Castes) reserved seats in provincial
and central legislative councils, but they were to be voted in by the general electorate.
23. The Civil Disobedience Movement started in 1930 against the salt law. The people of India and the
colonial government reacted to the movement in their own way.
Reaction of the Indian people:
(i) Thousands of Indians in different parts of the country broke the salt law, manufactured salt and
demonstrated in front of government salt factories.
(ii) As the movement spread, foreign cloth was boycotted and liquor shops were picketed.
(iii) Peasants refused to pay revenue and chaukidari taxes, village officials resigned, and in many
places forest people violated forest laws – going into Reserved forests to collect wood and graze
cattle.
Reaction of the government:
(i) Worried by the developments, the colonial government began arresting the Congress leaders one
by one. First of all, they arrested Abdul Ghaffar Khan, a devout disciple of Mahatma Gandhi.
24 Social Science-10
28. On 31 January 1930, Mahatma Gandhi sent a letter to Viceroy Irwin stating eleven demands. Some
of these were of general interest; others were specific demands of different classes, from industrialists
to peasants. The most stirring of all was the demand to abolish the salt tax. Irwin was unwilling to
negotiate. That is why Gandhi ji started the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Mahatma Gandhi found salt as a powerful symbol that could unite the nation. So Mahatma Gandhi
started his famous salt march accompanied by 78 of his trusted volunteers from Gandhi ji’s ashram in
Sabarmati to the Gujarati coastal town of Dandi. Thousands came to hear Mahatma Gandhi wherever
he stopped, and he told them what he meant by swaraj and urged them to peacefully defy the British.
Thousands in different parts of the country broke the salt law, manufactured salt and demonstrated
in front of government salt factories. As the movement spread, foreign cloth was boycotted, and liquor
shops were picketed. Peasants refused to pay revenue and chaukidari taxes, village officials resigned,
and in many places forest people violated forest laws.
Exercise 1.4
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Fill in the blanks
(i) Nationalism spreads when people begin to believe that they are all part of the same ______________.
(ii) In ______________, Rabindranath Tagore himself began collecting ballads, nursery rhymes and
myths.
2. State whether the following statements are true or false
(i) A tricolour flag (red, green and blue) was designed during the Swadeshi movement in Bengal.
(ii) Gandhiji had designed the Swaraj flag a tricolour, had a spinning wheel in the Centre, representing
the Gandhian ideal of self-help.
3. Match the following
(i) Anandamath (a) Abanindranath Tagore
(ii) Bharat Mata (b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(iii) Eight lotuses (c) Hindus and Muslims
(iv) Crescent moon (d) provinces
13.1. How was the idea or feeling of nationalism created through reinterpretation or revival of Indian
history?
(a) The British always described Indians as backwards, uncivilised and incapable of ruling
themselves.
(b) In response many Indian writers wrote about the development of India in the field of art,
architecture, science, mathematics, religion, culture and trade.
(c) These nationalist historians urged the readers to take pride in India’s great achievements and
struggle to change the miserable conditions of India.
(d) All of the above
13.2. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) By the end of the 19th century, there developed a feeling of sense of pride in the nation and
this could be done through interpreting history of India in a different way.
(b) The British considered Indians as backward, but capable of governing the country.
(c) It was realised that glorious past of India was neglected with the coming of the British power.
(d) The readers were urged to read history and take pride in great achievements of India in the
past and struggle to change the miserable conditions of life under the British rule.
13.3. What was the response of Indians when British saw Indians backward and primitive?
13.4. What was the main factor in the emergence of modern nationalism in India?
Answers
1. (i) nation, (ii) Bengal
2. (i) False (ii) True
3. (i)–(b), (ii)–(a), (iii)–(d), (iv)–(c)
4. Nationalism spread when people began to believe that they all are parts of the same nation, when they
discovered some unity that bound them together.
26 Social Science-10
5. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
6. (i) Tricolour flag (ii) Image of Bharat Mata (iii) Vande Mataram (iv) Indian folklore (v) Indian History
7. Abanindranath Tagore
8. Rabindranath Tagore and Natesa Sastri
9. (i) He wrote ‘Vande Mataram’ as a hymn to motherland.
(ii) It was included in his novel ‘Anandamath’.
(iii) This song was widely sung during the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal, which united the people and
created the spirit of nationalism.
10. (i) Abanindranath Tagore printed the image of Bharat Mata as a calm, composed, divine and pure.
(ii) Different artists painted the image in different ways and circulated in popular prints.
(iii) Devotion to this mother figure came to be seen as evidence of one’s nationalism.
11. History and fiction, folklore and songs, popular prints and symbols, all played a part in making of
nationalism. In the 19th century, nationalist toured village to village and collected folktales sung by
local singers. These tales gave a true picture of our traditional culture and created a sense of pride in our
past traditions. In Bengal, Rabindranath Tagore began collecting nursery rhymes and folk tales. In
Madras, Natesa Sastri published collections of folk tales and published “The Folklore of Southern
India”. Bankim Chandra Chatopadhyay wrote ‘Vande Mataram’ as a hymn to the motherland.
12. By 1921 Mahatma Gandhi had designed the ‘Swaraj flag’.
Main features of the Swaraj flag:
(i) It was a tricolour flag of red, green and white.
(ii) It had eight lotuses representing eight provinces of British India and a crescent moon, representing
Hindus and Muslims.
(iii) It had a spinning wheel in the centre representing the Gandhian ideal of self-help.
(iv) Carrying the flag during marches became a symbol of defiance.
13. 13.1 (d) 13.2 (b)
13.3 Indians started looking into the past to discover India’s great achievements. They wrote about
the glorious development in ancient times when art and architecture, science and mathematics,
religion and culture, land and philosophy, craft and trade had florished.
13.4 Anti-colonial movement.
(C)
(A)
28 Social Science-10
(B)
(C)
(A)
(A) (B)
Ans. (A) Kheda (B) Calcutta (C) Chauri Chaura
30 Social Science-10
• Mahatma Gandhi returned to India in January 1915 from South Africa where he had fought the racist re-
gime with a novel method of mass agitation, which he called Satyagraha.
• After arriving in India, Mahatma Gandhi successfully organised Satyagraha movements in various places
such as in Champaran, Bihar in 1917, Kheda district of Gujarat in 1917, Ahmedabad, Gujarat in 1918.
• Emboldened with this success, Gandhiji in 1919 decided to launch a nationwide Satyagraha against the
proposed Rowlatt Act (1919).
• Mahatma Gandhi wanted non-violent civil disobedience against such unjust laws, which would start with
a Hartal on 6 April, 1919. On 13 April the infamous Jallianwalla Bagh incident took place where General
Dyer ordered to open fire on a large crowd gathered there, killing hundreds.
• Gandhiji proposed that the movement should unfold in stages. It should begin with the surrender of titles
that the government awarded, and boycott of civil services, army, police, courts and legislative councils,
schools, and foreign goods.
• The Non-Cooperation-Khilafat Movement began in January 1921. Various social groups participated in the
movement.
• The movement began with middle-class participation in the cities, which affected the economy of the Brit-
ish. The import of foreign cloth halved between 1921 and 1922. As the boycott movement spread and people
began discarding imported clothes and started wearing only Indian ones, production of Indian textile mills
and handlooms went up.
• But the movement in the cities gradually slowed down for several reasons.
• From the cities, the Non-Cooperation Movement spread to the countryside. In Awadh, peasants were led by
Baba Ramchandra, a Sanyasi.
• In June 1920, Jawaharlal Nehru approached villagers to understand their grievances.
• The peasant movement developed in forms that Congress leadership was unhappy with. As the movement
spread in 1921, the houses of talukdars and merchants were attacked, bazaars were looted, and grain
hoards were taken over.
• Tribal peasants interpreted the message of Gandhiji and the idea of Swaraj in another way.
• Plantation workers in Assam who were not permitted to leave the tea gardens without permission, thought
Swaraj meant—the right to move freely in and out of the restricted space, retaining a link with the village
from where they had come and everyone getting land in their own villages.
• After Chauri Chaura incident in 1922, Gandhiji decided to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement.
• The Simon Commission arrived in India in 1928. It was greeted with the slogan ‘Go back Simon’.
• All parties, including the Congress and the Muslim League, participated in the demonstrations. In 1929, a
Round Table Conference was held, but it did not satisfy the Congress leaders.
• In 1929, under Jawaharlal Nehru, the Lahore Congress solemnised the demand of Purna Swaraj or full in-
dependence for India. It was declared that 26 January, 1930 would be celebrated as the Independence Day.
• Mahatma Gandhi found in salt a powerful symbol that could unite the nation.
• He started his famous Dandi March. This marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
• On 6 April Gandhiji with his accompanied reached Dandi and ceremonially violated the law, manufacturing
salt by boiling sea water.
• In the countryside, rich peasant communities became enthusiastic supporters of the Civil Disobedience
Movement.
• Many poor peasantry were refused to participate.
• Prominent industrialists and the industrial workers supported the movement.
• Women also participated the movement on large scale.
• The nation’s untouchables did not participate in the movement due to Congress policy. Many dalit leaders
stressed on their demands.
• Some of the Muslim political organisations in India were also lukewarm in their response to the Civil Dis-
obedience Movement.
• Nationalism spreads when people begin to believe that they are all part of the same nation, when they
discover some unity that binds them together. This sense of collective belonging came partly through the
experience of united struggles.
• History and fiction, folklore and songs, popular prints and symbols, all played a part in the making of
nationalism.
Read the sources (1 to 4) given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate
option.
1. The movement started with middle-class participation in the cities. Thousands of students left
government-controlled schools and colleges, headmasters and teachers resigned, and lawyers gave up
their legal practices. The council elections were boycotted in most provinces except Madras, where the
Justice Party, the party of the non-Brahmans, felt that entering the council was one way of gaining
some power–something that usually only Brahmans had access to. The effects of non-cooperation on the
economic front were more dramatic. Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops picketed, and foreign
cloth burnt in huge bonfires. The import of foreign cloth halved between 1921 and 1922, its value
dropping from Rs. 102 crore to Rs. 57 crore. In many places merchants and traders refused to trade in
foreign goods or finance foreign trade. As the boycott movement spread, and people began discarding
imported clothes and wearing only Indian ones, production of Indian textile mills and handlooms went
up.
1.1. Which of the following statements correctly explains the role of ‘Justice Party’ in boycotting of council
elections?
(a) Justice Party felt that entering the council was one way of gaining some power.
(b) Justice Party of Madras was not boycotted the council elections.
(c) The Party wanted power that usually only Brahmans had access to.
(d) All of the above
1.2. Which among the following is/are the effect(s) of Boycott movement on foreign textile trade? Select the
appropriate option.
(a) The import of foreign cloth halved.
(b) Merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade.
(c) Indian textile mills and handloom went up.
(d) All of the above
1.3. Mention the effects of ‘Non-Cooperation on the economic front dramatic.
1.4. Name the form of demonstration by which people block the entrance to a shop, factory or office?
Ans. 1.1. (d) 1.2. (d)
1.3. Foreign goods were boycotted. Liquor shops were picketed, and foreign cloths were burnt in huge
bonfires.
1.4. Picket is that form of demonstration by which people block the entrance to a shop, factory or office.
2. Mahatma Gandhi returned to India in January 1915. As you know, he had come from South Africa where
he had successfully fought the racist regime with a novel method of mass agitation, which he called
satyagraha. The idea of satyagraha emphasised the power of truth and the need to search for truth. It
suggested that if the cause was true, if the struggle was against injustice, then physical force was not
necessary to fight the oppressor. Without seeking vengeance or being aggressive, a satyagrahi could
win the battle through non-violence. This could be done by appealing to the conscience of the oppressor.
People – including the oppressors – had to be persuaded to see the truth, instead of being forced to
accept truth through the use of violence. By this struggle, truth was bound to ultimately triumph.
Mahatma Gandhi believed that this dharma of non-violence could unite all Indians. After arriving in
India, Mahatma Gandhi successfully organised satyagraha movements in various places. In 1917 he
travelled to Champaran in Bihar to inspire the peasants to struggle against the oppressive plantation
system. Then in 1917, he organised a satyagraha to support the peasants of the Kheda district of Gujarat.
Affected by crop failure and a plague epidemic, the peasants of Kheda could not pay the revenue, and
were demanding that revenue collection be relaxed. In 1918, Mahatma Gandhi went to Ahmedabad to
organise a satyagraha movement amongst cotton mill workers.
32 Social Science-10
2.1. In which among the following years Gandhiji returned to India, and from where?
(a) 1910, England (b) 1915, South Africa
(c) 1915, Sweden (d) 1910, South Africa the above
2.2. Identify the place where Gandhiji organised a Satyagraha against the oppressive plantation system.
(a) Champaran (b) Chauri-Chaura (c) Patna (d) Ahmedabad
2.3. Where did Gandhiji successfully organise the Satyagraha movement in 1917 and 1918 respectively?
2.4. Which of the following statements correctly describes the idea of Satyagraha?
(a) It emphasises the power of truth and the need to search for truth.
(b) It is a religion of many communities in India.
(c) It is based on the aggression of Indian against British.
(d) All of the above
Ans. 2.1. (b) 2.2. (a) 2.3. Kheda and Ahmedabad
2.4. It emphasised the power of truth and the need to search for truth.
3. Satyagraha is not physical force. A satyagrahi does not inflict pain on the adversary; he does not seek
his destruction … In the use of satyagraha, there is no ill-will whatever. ‘Satyagraha is pure soul-force.
Truth is the very substance of the soul. That is why this force is called satyagraha. The soul is informed
with knowledge. In it burns the flame of love. … Non-violence is the supreme dharma … ‘It is certain
that India cannot rival Britain or Europe in force of arms. The British worship the war-god and they can
all of them become, as they are becoming, bearers of arms. The hundreds of millions in India can never
carry arms. They have made the religion of non-violence their own …’
3.1. What does Satyagraha mean?
(a) Complete independence (b) Fight against justice
(c) Following the path of truth and non-violence (d) Tribals’ independence
3.2. Mahatma Gandhi launched Kheda Satyagraha to support the
(a) Rowlatt Act (b) mill workers (c) rich people (d) peasants
3.3. Why did Gandhiji organise Satyagraha in Champaran in 1916?
3.4. Who worship the war-god?
Ans. 3.1. (c) 3.2. (d) 3.3. To oppose the plantation system.
3.4. The British worship the war-god.
4. In 1930, Sir Muhammad Iqbal, as president of the Muslim League,reiterated the importance of separate
electorate for the Muslims as an important safeguard for their minority political interests. His statement
is supposed to have provided the intellectual justification for the Pakistan demand that came up in
subsequent years. This is what he said: ‘I have no hesitation in declaring that if the principle that the
Indian Muslim is entitled to full and free development on the lines of his own culture and tradition in his
own Indian home-lands is recognised as the basis of a permanent communal settlement, he will be ready
to stake his all for the freedom of India. The principle that each group is entitled to free development
on its own lines is not inspired by any feeling of narrow communalism... A community which is inspired
by feelings of ill-will towards other communities is low and ignoble. I entertain the highest respect for
the customs, laws, religions and social institutions of other communities. Nay, it is may duty according
to the teachings of the Qurn, even to defend their places of worship, if need be. Yet I love the communal
group which is the source of life and behaviour and which has formed me what I am by giving me its
religion, its literature, its thought, its culture and thereby its whole past as a living operative factor in
my present consciousness... ‘Communalism in its higher aspect, then, is indispensable to the formation of
a harmonious whole in a country like India. The units of Indian society are not territorial as in European
countries... The principle of European democracy cannot be applied to India without recognising the fact
of communal groups. The Muslim India within India is, therefore, perfectly justified... ‘The Hindu thinks
that separate electorates are contrary to the spirit to true nationalism, because he understands the word
“nation” to mean a kind of universal amalgamation in which no communal entity ought to retain its
private individuality. Such a state of things, however, does not exist. India is a land of racial and religious
variety. Add to this the general economic inferiority of the Muslims, their enormous debt, especially in
the Punjab, and their insufficient majorities in some of the provinces, as at present constituted and you
will begin to see clearly the meaning of our anxiety to retain separate electorates.’
34 Social Science-10
This chapter to be assessed in the Periodic Test only
Topics covered
1. The Pre-Modern World 2. The Nineteenth Century (1815–1914)
3. The Inter-War Economy 4. Rebuilding a World Economy : The Post-War Era
chapter Chart
35
Main Events
1820-1914 : World trade is estimated to have multiplied 25 to 40 times
1845-1849 : Potato famine in Ireland. During this famine about 1,000,000 people died of starvation in
Ireland.
1885 : The big European powers met in Berlin to complete the division of Africa between
themselves.
1890s : The US became the colonial power; Rinderpest (cattle plague) had a terrifying impact on
livelihoods of the African people and the local economy.
1892 : Rinderpest reached Africa’s Atlantic coast.
1900s : Indian nationalist leaders started opposing the system of indentured labour migration as
abusive and cruel.
1914-1918 : Period of the First World War
1921 : Indentured labour was abolished.
1923 : US resumed exporting capital to the rest of the world and became the largest overseas
lender.
1929 : The Great Depression was began.
1939-1945 : Period of the Second World War
1944 : The United Nations Monetary and Financial Conference was held; the Bretton-Woods
Agreement was signed.
1947 : The IMF and the World Bank commenced financial operations.
1949 : The Chinese Revolution.
36 Social Science-10
expeditions set off in search of EL Dorado, the Fabled city of gold.
• By the mid-16th century, Europe defeated America. The European conquest was with the germs of smallpox
that they carried on their person that killed America’s original inhabitants on a large scale.
• Because of their long isolation, America’s original inhabitants had no immunity against smallpox spread by
Spanish conquerors.
• It spread deep into the continent. It killed and decimated whole communities, paving the way for conquest.
• Poverty and hunger were common in Europe untill the 19th century and cities were crowded and deadly
deadly diseases were widespread. Religious conflicts were common, and religious dissorders were presecuted.
Therefore, thousands field Europe for America.
• Untill well into the 18th century, China and India were among the world’s richest countries. They were
also pre-eminent in Asian trade. From 15th century, China is said to have restricted overseas contacts and
retreated into isolation. Therefore, America rose it importance in the world trade in westwards. Europe now
emerged as the centre of World trade.
Exercise 2.1
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) Around 3000 BCE an active coastal trade linked the which of the following civilisations?
(a) Indus valley (b) China valley
(c) Egyptian valley (d) Puga valley
(ii) The name ‘silk routes’ points to the importance of West-bound from which of the following countries
silk cargoes along this route?
(a) Indian (b) Chinese
(c) American (d) Portuguese
2. Fill in the blanks
(i) ______________ emerged from eastern India and spread in several directions through intersecting
points on the silk routes.
(ii) Noodles travelled west from ______________ to become spaghetti.
3. State whether the following statements are true or false
(i) Perhaps British traders took pasta to fifth-century Sicily.
(ii) Sicily which is an island, that is now in Italy.
4. Match the following
(i) Great Irish Potato Famine (a) The first governor of the Massachusetts Bay Colony
(ii) El Dorado (b) The fabled city of gold
(iii) Smallpox (c) Biological warfare
(iv) John Winthrop (d) 1845 to 1849
5. Assertion and Reasoning Type Question
In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read
the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): The pre-modern world shrank greatly in the 16th century.
Reason (R): European sailors found a sea route to Asia and also successfully crossed the Western
Ocean to America.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
II. Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Mark)
6. What goods were exported and imported from silk routes?
Answers
1. (i) (a), (ii) (b)
2. (i) Buddhism, (ii) China
3. (i) False, (ii) True
4. (i)–(d), (ii)–(b), (iii)– (c), (iv)–(a)
5. (a)
6. Chinese pottery, textiles and spices from India were exported to South East Asia and precious metals
like gold and silver, flowed from Europe to Asia.
7. Poor people in Europe began to eat better and live longer with the introduction of the humble potato.
Ireland’s poorest peasants became so dependent on potatoes that when disease destroyed the potato
crops in the mid 1840s, hundreds of thousands died of starvation.
8. Smallpox. It proved a deadly killer. Once introduced it spread deep into the continent. It killed and
decimated whole communities, paving the way for conquest.
9. Because:
(i) Until the 19th century poverty and hunger was common in Europe.
(ii) Cities were overcrowded and deadly diseases were widespread.
(iii) Religious conflicts were common and religious dissenters were persecuted. Thousands fled Europe
for America to work in plantations to grow cotton and sugar for European markets.
10. Europeans were attracted towards Africa due to the following reasons. Three examples are as follows:
(i) Many common foods, e.g., potatoes, soya, tomatoes, maize, etc., were introduced to Europe from
America. These crops made a difference between life and death. The poor began to eat better and
live longer in England with the introduction of potatoes.
(ii) Religious dissenters from Europe fled due to the fear of persecution in Europe and migrated to
America.
(iii) Slave trade was started. European traders captured where they worked on plantations. Europe
became the centre of the world trade.
(iv) Precious metals, e.g., silver from mines located in present day Peru and Mexico also enhanced
Europe’s wealth and financed its trade. (Any three)
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012]
11. (i) Africa had abundant land and a relatively small population. For centuries, land and livestock
sustained African livelihoods and people rarely worked for a wage.
(ii) In the late-nineteenth century Africa there were a few consumer goods that wages could buy.
Europeans got attracted to Africa due to its vast resources of land and minerals.
(iii) They came to Africa hoping to establish plantations and mines to produce crops and minerals for
export to Europe. But there was an unexpected problem—a shortage of labour. Africans had no
reason to work for wages and this posed a problem to Europeans.
38 Social Science-10
12. (i) It was an ancient network of trade routes through regions of the Asian continent connecting the
East and West and the stretching from the Korean Peninsula and Japan to the Mediterranean
sea.
(ii) Chinese pottery, textiles and spices from India were exported to South East Asia and precious
metals like gold and silver, flowed from Europe to Asia.
(iii) Christian missionaries travelled through these routes to Asia. Muslim preachers also used these
routes. Buddhism too spread to other Asian countries through intersecting points on the silk
routes.
40 Social Science-10
• This trade surplus used in paying the private remittances home by British officials and traders, interest
payments on India’s external debut, and pensions of British officials in India, these were called as home
charges.
Exercise 2.2
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) Which of the following laws was referred to Corn Laws?
(a) Import restriction (b) Export restriction
(c) Restriction on balance of trade (d) None of these
(ii) Nearly 50 million people emigrated from which of following continents to America and Australia in
the nineteenth century?
(a) Africa (b) Europe (c) Asia (d) Greenland
(iii) In which of the following years was the system of indentured labour abolished?
(a) 1920 (b) 1921 (c) 1922 (d) 1923
2. Match the following
(i) Sir Henry Morton Stanley (a) Transvaal
(ii) A disease of cattle plague (b) New York Herald
(iii) Wilge river (c) Rinderpest
3. Fill in the blanks
(i) The areas irrigated by the new canals were called ______________ .
(ii) One of the oldest livestock markets in ______________was at Smithfield.
4. Correct the following statements and rewrite
(i) In Rajasthan, the British Indian government built a network of irrigation canals to transform
semi-desert wastes into fertile agricultural lands.
(ii) In 1780 the big European powers met in Berlin to complete the carving up of Africa between them.
II. Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Mark)
5. Why did people migrate from Europe to America and Australia?
6. What was paper partition?
7. How did Rinderpest reach Africa?
8. What was the Law of Inheritance?
9. How did British manage opium trade with China?
10. Why were big European powers met in Berlin in 1885? [CBSE 2018]
III. Short Answer Type Questions (3 Marks)
11. How did the global agricultural economy take shape by 1890?
12. Why were poor people forced to work as indentured labourers?
13. How did Britain have a ‘trade surplus’ with India?
14. Mention any three effects of the British Government’s decision for the abolition of the Corn Laws.
[CBSE Sample Paper 2016-17]
15. Why did the industrialists and people living in cities of Britain forced the government to abolish Corn
Laws in the 18th century? Give two reasons.
16. Describe the impact of ‘Rinderpest’ on people’s livelihoods and local economy in Africa in the 1890s.
[CBSE 2018]
17. Explain any three effects of population growth in England in the late eighteenth century. [CBSE 2020]
18. Why did the export of Indian textile decline at the beginning of nineteenth century? Explain any three
reasons. [CBSE 2020]
19. Why did the inflow of fine Indian cotton began to decline?
20. What was the role of Indian entrepreneurs abroad?
IV. Long Answer Type Questions (5 Marks)
21. Explain the three types of flows within international economy in exchanges. [CBSE 2014]
Or
Mention the three types of flows within international economic exchanges during the 19th century.
[CBSE 2012]
Answers
1. (i) (a), (ii) (b), (iii) (b)
2. (i)–(b), (ii)–(c), (iii)–(a)
3. (i) the canal colonies, (ii) London
4. (i) In West Punjab, the British Indian government built a network of irrigation canals to transform
semi-desert wastes into fertile agricultural lands.
(ii) In 1885, the big European powers met in Berlin to complete the carving up of Africa between them.
5. Demand for food increased in Europe and there was need of capital and labour in America and Australia.
Since there was unemployment in Europe, people migrated to America and Australia in search of a
better future.
6. In 1885, the big European powers met in Berlin to divide the countries of Africa between them. The
countries borders run straight as if they were drawn using a ruler. This event was called paper partition.
7. It was carried by infected cattle imported from British Asia to feed the Italian soldiers invading Eritrea
in East Africa. Entering Africa in the east, it moved west like the forest fire.
8. It means only one member of the family was allowed to inherit land and the others were pushed into
the labour market.
9. British grew opium in India and exported it to China and with the money earned through this sale, it
financed its tea and other imports from China.
10. In 1885 the big European powers met in Berlin to complete the carving up of Africa
between them.
11. (i) Food no longer came from a nearby village or town, but from thousands of miles away.
(ii) It was not grown by a peasant tilling his own land, but by an agricultural worker.
(iii) It was transported by railways and by ships, by low paid workers from Southern
Europe, Asia, Africa and the Caribbean.
(iv) In west Punjab, the British Indian government built a network of irrigation canals to transform
semi desert wastes into fertile agricultural lands that could grow wheat and cotton for export. The
canal colonies were settled by peasants from other parts of Punjab.
12. In many Indian states, people worked as indentured labourers because–
(i) Cottage industries declined. (ii) Land rent rose.
(iii) Lands were cleared for mines and plantations.
(iv) Poor people failed to pay their rents.
(v) Poor people become deeply indebted so they migrated in search of jobs.
13. Trade Surplus. If a country exports a greater value than its imports, it has a favourable balance. It
represents a net inflow of domestic currency from foreign markets.
The British manufactures flooded the Indian market. Food grains and raw material exports from India
to Britain and the rest of the world increased.
(i) The value of British exports to India was much higher than the value of British imports from
India.
(ii) So Britain used this surplus to balance its trade deficits with other countries from which Britain
was importing more than it was selling to.
14. (i) Food could be imported into Britain at much cheaper rate than it would be produced within the
country.
(ii) British agriculture was unable to compete with imports. Vast areas of land were left uncultivated
42 Social Science-10
and people started migrating to cities or other countries.
(iii) As food prices fell, consumption in Britain rose. Faster industrial growth in Britain also led to
higher incomes and therefore more food imports.
(iv) Around the world in Eastern Europe, Russia, America and Australia–lands were cleared and food
production expanded to meet the British demand.
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2016]
15. (i) Population growth from the late 18th century had increased the demand for food grains in Britain
pushing up the prices. Under pressure from farmers, the government restricted the import of
corn. These laws were commonly known as the ‘Corn Laws’.
(ii) On the other hand the industrialists and people living in cities forced the government to abolish
the Corn Laws. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2016]
16. (i) Rinderpest is a fast spreading disease of cattle plague spread in Africa. It killed 90 percent of the
cattle and destroyed African livelihoods.
(ii) Planters, mine owners and colonial governments now successfully monopolised to strengthen
their power and to force Africans into the labour market.
(iii) Control over the scarce resource of cattle enabled European colonisers to conquer and subdue
Africa.
17. (i) Increase the demand for food grains.
(ii) Under the prssure from landed groups, the government also restricted the import of corn.
(iii) Unhappy with high food prices, industrialist and urban dwellers forced the abolition of the Corn
Laws.
18. Three reasons:
(i) With the industrialisation, British cotton manufacture began to expand and industrialists
pressurised the government to restrict cotton imports and protect local industries.
(ii) Tariffs were imposed on cloth imports into Britain.
(iii) British manufactures also began to seek overseas markets for their cloth They were excluded
from the tariff barriers.
19. Shikaripuri Shroffs and Nattu Kottai Chettiar were among the many group of bankers and traders
who financed export agriculture in Central and South East Asia, using their own funds or the
borrowed money from European banks.
(i) They had a good system to transfer money over large distance and even developed their own
corporate organisations.
(ii) Hyderabadi Sindi traders ventured beyond European colonies.
(iii) They had established emporia at busy ports, selling local and imported artifacts to tourists.
20. With the growth of industrialisation, the British increased their manufacture of cotton. The Indian
industrialists put pressure on the government to control the imports of British manufactured imports
and protect local industries.
(i) Tariffs restrictions were imposed on clothes imported into Britain.
(ii) Indian textiles now faced stiff competition in other international markets.
(iii) The exports from India declined from 30% around 1800 to below 3% by the 1870s.
21. (i) Flow of Trade: Trade in goods, e.g., cloth or wheat, giving shape to a global agricultural economy
where food no longer came from a nearby village or town, but from thousands of miles away.
(ii) Flow of Labour: The migration of people in search of employment is called ‘Flow of Labour’.
Nearly 50 million people emigrated from Europe to America and Australia in the 19th century.
All over the world some 150 million are estimated to have left their homes, crossed oceans and
vast distances over land in search of a better future.
(iii) Flow of Capital Investment: Long-term or short-term Investments over long distances is called
flow of capital investment. Capital flowed from financial centres such as London to build railways
and other buildings.
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012]
22. (i) Britain began to import food grains from rest of the world. British agriculture was unable to
compete with imports.
(ii) Vast areas of land were now left uncultivated.
44 Social Science-10
• It lasted more than four years from 1914–18.
• It was the first modern industrial war, which used machine guns, tanks, aircraft, chemical weapons, etc. on
a massive scale.
• Millions died, reducing the able-bodied work force in Europe and household incomes declined after the war.
• Britain borrowed large sums of money from US banks as well as the US Public.
• The war transformed the US from being an international debtor to an international creditor.
Post-War Recovery
• Britain was leading world’s economy before the war, but after the war faced problems.
• When Britain was busy in the war, industries developed in India and Japan.
• After the war, Britain could not recapture Indian market and could not compete with Japan.
• Britain was burdened with huge external debt and unemployment increased. Anxiety and uncertainty about
work became an enduring part of the post-war scenario.
• Before the war, eastern Europe was a major supplier of wheat in the world market. When the supply
disrupted, wheat production in Canada, America and Australia expanded.
• Grain prices fell, rural incomes declined and farmers fell deeper into debt.
Rise of Mass Production and Consumption
• After the war, the US economy resumed its strong growth in the early 1920s with mass production.
• A car manufacturer Henry Ford adapted the assembly line of a Chicago slaughterhouse to his new car plant
in Detroit.
• He realised that assembly line method would allow a faster and cheaper way of producing vehicles. This was
a way of increasing the output per worker by speeding up the pace of work.
• The T-Model Ford was the world’s first mass-produced car.
• Mass production reduced the cost and prices of engineered goods.
• There was an increase in the purchase of refrigerators, washing machines, radios, gramophone players and
home ownership through a system of loans.
• Large investments in housing and household goods seemed to create a cycle of higher employment and
incomes, rising consumption demand, more investments, and yet more employment and incomes.
• The US resumed exporting capital to the rest of the world and became the largest overseas lender by 1923.
• By 1929 the world would be plunged into a depression such as it had never experienced before.
The Great Depression
• The Great Depression began around 1929 in US and lasted till the mid-1930s.
• Most parts of the world experienced decline in production, employment, incomes and trade.
• Agricultural regions and communities were badly affected because of fall in agricultural prices were greater
than the price of industrial goods.
• Many countries got financed through loans from US banks over $ 1 billion.
• In Europe it led to the failure of major banks and the collapse of currencies.
• The US attempt to protect its economy in depression by doubling import duties.
• Farms could not sell their harvest, households were ruined and business collapsed.
• Faced with falling incomes, many households in the US could not repay and were forced to give up their
homes, cars and other goods.
• Unable to recover investments, thousands of banks went bankrupt and were forced to close. But by 1935, a
modest economic recovery was under way inmost industrial countries.
India and the Great Depression
• In the nineteenth century colonial India had become an exporter of agricultural goods and importer of
manufactures.
• As international prices crashed, the wheat prices in India reduced by 50%. Peasant and farmers suffered
more than urban dwellers.
• Colonial government refused to reduce revenue demands. The jute producers of Bengal fell deeper and
deeper into debt.
• Industrial investment also grew as the government extended tariff protection to industries.
46 Social Science-10
V. Long Answer Type Questions (5 Marks)
11. “One important feature of the US economy in the 1920s was mass productions.” Prove this with an
example.
12. Describe in brief the economic conditions of the post-First World War period. [HOTS]
13. Mention the two key lessons learnt from the inter-war economic experiences by the economists and
politicians after the Second World War.
14. Describe the impact of Great Depression on Indian economy. [CBSE Sample Paper 2018-19]
15. Describe the impact of Great Depression on Indian economy.
16. Describe the impact of the First World war on Indian industries. [CBSE Sample Paper 2018-19]
Answers
1. (i) (b), (ii) (d), (iii) (a), (iv) (b), (v) (a)
2. (i) True, (ii) False, (iii) True
3. (i) Allied Powers: Britain, France, Russia, later on joined by the US.
(ii) Central Powers: Germany, Austria-Hungary and Ottoman Turkey.
4. To finance war expenditures Britain had borrowed liberally from the US. Post-war economic recovery
period proved very difficult. So, at the end of war Britain was burdened with huge external debts.
5. Due to higher wages, the workers could now afford to purchase of more goods like
(a) refrigerators (b) washing machines (c) radios (d) gramophone players.
6. Peasants indebtedness increased and started selling their land, jewellery and precious metals.
7. The Great Depression was caused by a combination of several factors:
(i) Agricultural overproduction was a major factor. As a result, agricultural prices fell.
(ii) As prices fell and agricultural incomes declined, farmers tried to expand production.
(iii) This increased the volume of goods in the market. The situation got worsened in the market.
(iv) Prices fell down further. Farm produce began to rot due to the lack of buyers.
8. Henry Ford doubled the daily wages to $ 5 in January 1914.
(i) He banned trade unions from operating in his plants.
(ii) He recovered the huge wage by repeatedly speeding up the production line and forcing workers
to work even harder.
(iii) He soon described his decision to double the daily wage as the ‘best cost cutting decision’.
9. (i) The jute producers of Bengal grew raw jute that was processed in factories for export in the form
of gunny bags.
(ii) But as gunny exports collapsed, the price of raw jute crashed more than 60%.
(iii) Peasants who borrowed in the hope of better times or to increase output in the hope of higher
incomes faced even lower prices. They fell deeper and deeper into debt.
10. 10.1 (c) 10.2 (d) 10.3 Japan 10.4 USA
11. A well known pioneer of mass production was the car manufacturer ‘Henry Ford’.
(i) He adopted an assembly line technique of a slaughter house.
(ii) He realised that the assembly line method would allow faster and cheaper way of producing
vehicles.
(iii) This method forced workers to repeat a single task mechanically and continuously.
(iv) This was a way of increasing the output per workers by speeding up the pace of work.
(v) Later on, this system of mass production was followed by many other countries. In the US, with
this system car production rose from two millions to above five millions.
12. Post-First World War period economic conditions:
(i) Britain which was world’s leading economy in the pre-war period faced a prolonged crisis.
(ii) Indian and Japanese industries were developed as Britain was occupied with war.
(iii) After the war, it was difficult for Britain to recapture its earlier position in the Indian market.
(iv) Britain was burdened with huge external debts from the US.
(v) Government reduced bloated war expenditure. This led to huge job loses and unemployment.
(vi) Grain prices witnessed a steep fall as wheat supply was disrupted during the First World War.
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012]
13. The two lessons learnt by the economists and politicians during the Second World War were:
First: An industrial society based on mass production needs mass consumption. For mass consumption,
48 Social Science-10
• International Monetary Fund (IMF) was established to deal with external surpluses and deficits of its
member nations.
• The World Bank was established to set up to finance post-war constructions.
The Early Post-War Years
• The Bretton Woods system inaugurated an era of unprecedented growth of trade and incomes for the
Western Industrial nations and Japan.
• The period between 1950 and 1970 witnessed the worldwide spread of technology and enterprise.
Decolonisation and Independence
• When the Second World War ended, most colonies in Asia and Africa became free, independent nations.
• IMF and World Bank could not overcome the challenge of development and poverty in their colonies.
• So, Bretton Woods System shifted their attention towards developing countries. Because the resources of
developing countries were still exploited.
• So the developing countries organised themselves in Group 77 (G-77) to demand a new economic order
(NIEO), to control over their natural resources.
End of Bretton Woods and the Beginning of Globalisation
• By 1960s US dollar lost its command in world’s currency, which led to collapse of system of Fixed Exchange
Rates and introduction of a system of floating exchange rates.
• Developing countries like Africa and Latin America faced periodic debt crisis, lower incomes and increased
poverty.
• Cheap labour in China became attractive destination for MNCs to manufacture and capture the world
market.
• With globalisation, India, China and Brazil have undergone great economic transformations.
Exercise 2.4
I. Objective Type Question (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) The Second World War was fought between the Axis powers and:
(a) the Allies (b) the neighbouring countries
(c) the Africans (d) the Europeans
(ii) About how many per cent of the world’s 1939 population are believed to have been killed during the
Second World War?
(a) 2 per cent (b) 3 per cent
(c) 4 per cent (d) 5 per cent
(iii) Stalingrad is in which country?
(a) China (b) Japan
(c) Soviet Russia (d) Vietnam
(iv) The United Nations Monetary and Financial Conference held in …………. at Bretton Woods in New
Hampshire, USA.
(a) July 1944 (b) August 1945 (c) March 1947 (d) December 1949
II. Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Mark)
2. Name the axis and allies powers.
3. What was the main aim of the post-war international economic systems?
4. Why was the World Bank set up?
5. What do you mean by G-77?
6. Name the famous products of China which captured the world’s market.
7. Name the countries that have affected with globalisation.
8. What does tariff mean?
III. Short Answer Type Questions (3 Marks)
9. What are MNCs? Why did China become attractive destination for MNCs?
10. What was the estimated loss of the Second World War?
11. What did the economists mean by ‘mass productions, mass consumption’?
12. Why was NIEO formed?
Answers
1. (i) (a), (ii) (b), (iii) (c), (iv) (a)
2. Axis powers—Germany, Japan and Italy.
Allied powers—France, Soviet Union, US and Britain.
3. The main aim was to preserve economic stability and full employment in the industrial world. This
framework was agreed upon at the United Nations Monetary and Financial Conference held in July
1944 at Bretton Woods.
4. To finance post-war reconstructions.
5. Most developing countries did not benefit from the fast growth of western economies in the 1950s and 1960s.
They organised themselves as a group G-77 or the group of 77 to demand a new international order.
6. They are televisions, mobile phones and toys.
7. India, China and Brazil have undergone rapid economic transformations with globalisations.
8. Tax imposed on a country’s imports from the rest of the world are called tariffs. They are levied at the point of
entry, i.e. at the border or the airport.
9. Multinational Corporations (MNCs) are large companies that operate in several countries at the same
time. Wages were low in countries like China. So because of the low-cost structure of the Chinese
economy helps in competing to capture world’s market. So most of the MNCs attracted towards Chinese
markets.
10. Death and destruction was enormous.
(i) Vast parts of Europe and Asia were devasted.
(ii) Several cities were destroyed by aerial bombardment and military attacks.
(iii) At least 60 million people died and millions were injured.
50 Social Science-10
11. The economists believed that an industrial society based on mass production could not be sustained
without mass consumption.
(i) But to ensure mass consumption, there was a need for high and stable incomes.
(ii) Stable incomes requires steady, full employment. Therefore, governments would have to step into
minimize influctuations of price, output and employment.
(iii) The goal of full employment could only be achieved, if government had power to control flows of
goods, capital and labour.
12. NIEO would help the developing countries in the following ways:
(i) To control their natural resources,
(ii) More development assistance,
(iii) Fairer prices for raw material, and
(iv) Better access for their manufactured goods in developed countries’ markets.
13. 13.1 (d) 13.2 (a) 13.3 (c) 13.4 (b)
14. (i) In order to preserve economic stability and full employment in the industrial world, the post-
war international economic system was established. To execute the same, the United Nations
Monetary and Financial Conference was held in July 1944 at Bretton Woods in New Hampshire,
USA.
(ii) The Bretton Woods Conference established the International Monetary Fund (IMF) to deal with
external surpluses and shortages of its member-nations.
(iii) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (popularly known as the World
Bank) was set up to finance post-war reconstruction and they started the financial operations in
1947.
(iv) Decision-making authority was given to the Western industrial powers. The US was given the
right of veto over key IMF and the World Bank decisions.
(v) The Bretton Woods system was based on fixed exchange rates. The Bretton Woods system opened
an era of unique growth of trade and incomes for the Western industrial nations and Japan. The
World trade grew annually.
15. The rising costs of its overseas involvements weakened the finances of US and competitive strength.
(i) The US dollar now no longer commanded confidence as the world’s Principal currency.
(ii) It eventually led to the collapse of the system of fixed exchange rates and the introduction of a
system of floating exchange rates.
(iii) International financial system changed and developing countries were forced to borrow from
western commercial banks and private leading institutions.
(iv) Unemployment in industrial countries.
(v) Changes in China.
52 Social Science-10
Periodic Test for Internal Assessment
Time Allowed : 1 hour Max. Marks : 20
Topics covered
1. Before the Industrial Revolution 2. Hand Labour and Steam Power
3. Industrialisation in the Colonies 4. Factories Come Up
5. The Peculiarities of Industrial Growth 6. Market for Goods
chapter Chart
• Industrialisation started in the 17th century. • Industrialisation started much later in the
• Cotton industries dominated the phase. 18 century.
• With expansion of railways demand for the • Suffered a lot due to British monopoly of right
iron and steel industry increased. to trade.
• Lives of workers were pitiful. • The first cotton mill in Bombay came up in
• Workers were hostile to the introduction of 1854.
new technology. • Many rich Indian businessmen like
• Established a monopoly right to trade. Dwarkanath Tagore, Dinshaw Petit, Seth
• Import duties on cotton textiles were imposed. Hukumchand and Tata developed industrial
enterprises in India.
• Machine-made goods were comparatively
cheaper and finer. • The colonial control over Indian trade stiffened
the growth of Indian merchants.
• Indian weavers failed to compete them.
• After the First World War, Manchester failed
• Established tea and coffee plantations and
to regain its old position in the Indian market.
they invested in mining, indigo and jute for
Cotton production collapsed and exports of
export trade.
cotton cloth from Britain fell dramatically.
• Through advertisements people were
persuaded to buy new products.
Conclusion
• The age of industries has meant significant technological changes, growth of factories, and
the making of a new industrial labour.
• Hand technology and small-scale production remained a major part of the industrial
landscape.
54
Main Events
1600 : The East India Company was established.
1730 : The earliest factories in England were set up.
1760 : Britain imported new cotton to feed its cotton industry.
1764 : Spinning Jenny was devised by James Hargreaves.
1767 : Richard Arkwright created the cotton mill.
1781 : James Watt improved upon the steam engine and patented it.
1785 : Cartwright invented the powerloom which used steam power for spinning and weaving.
1830s-1840s : Dwarkanath Tagore set up six joint-stock companies in Bengal.
1840s : Cotton was the leading sector in the first phase of industrialisation in Britain.
1850 : Railway stations started coming up all over London.
1854 : The first cotton mill was established in Bombay.
1855 : The first jute mill was set up in Bengal.
1860 : Elgin Mill was started in Kanpur.
1861 : The first cotton mill was set up in Ahmedabad.
1863 : London Underground Railway began operation.
1873 : Britain exported iron and steel.
1874 : The first spinning and weaving mill of Madras began its production.
1900 : Music publisher E.T. Paull produced a music book.
1912 : J.N. Tata set up the first iron and steel works in India at Jamshedpur.
1917 : Seth Hukumchand, a Marwari businessman, set up the first Indian jute mill in Calcutta.
Exercise
I. Objective Type Question (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) The countries to the east of the Mediterranean, usually referring to Asia called:
(a) Orient (b) Anglo (c) Axis power (d) Colonies
(ii) T
he term Orient arises out of a western viewpoint that sees this region as:
(a) pre-modern (b) traditional (c) mysterious (d) All of these
(iii) In 1900, E.T. Paull was a popular publisher in which of the following fied?
(a) Book (b) Music (c) Art (d) Craft
II. Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Mark)
2. Name the book published by E.T. Paull.
3. Whose pictures were shown on the trade magazine?
4. What did the picture of goddess represent?
5. What does Orient mean?
Exercise 3.1
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) A person who ‘staples’ or sorts wool according to its fibre called
(a) Proto (b) Stapler (c) Fuller (d) Carding
(ii) The process in which fibres, such as cotton or wool, are prepared prior to spinning
(a) Carding (b) Proto (c) Stapler (d) Fuller
(iii) Which of the following is not a step of the production process?
(a) carding (b) twisting (c) ingot (d) spinning
2. State whether the following statements are true or false
(i) In the late eighteenth century, the number of factories multiplied in England.
(ii) James Watt improved the steam engine produced by Newcomen and patented the new engine in
1881.
3. Assertion and Reasoning Type Question
In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read
the statements and choose the correct option:
56 Social Science-10
Assertion (A): The proto-industrial system was the part of a network of commercial exchanges.
Reason (R): It was controlled by merchants and the goods were produced by a vast number of producers
working within their family farms, not in factories.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
II. Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Mark)
4. Who created the cotton mill?
5. Which were the first dynamic industries of Great Britain?
6. Whose invention was improved by James Watt?
7. Why were merchants from towns in Europe began to move countryside in seventeenth and eighteenth
centuries? [CBSE 2018]
8. Define the term carding.
[CBSE 2020]
9. How did new inventions increase the efficiency of the production process?
III. Short Answer Type Questions (3 Marks)
10. How proto-industrial system was part of a network of commercial exchanges?
11. Explain what is meant by proto-industrialisation. Why was it successful in the countryside in England
in the 17th century? [CBSE 2012]
12. How did proto-industrialisation affect the rural peasants and artisans? [CBSE 2012, 15]
13. Why did London come to be known as a finishing centre ?
14. How did the cotton production boom in the late 19th century?
15. How did introduction of cotton mill make supervision of workers easy?
16. Why did the technological changes occur slowly? Or
What was the drawback of new technology for the industrialists?
17. Why did upper classes in Victorian Britain p refer things made by hands?
18. Why was the cotton textile industry concentrated in the cotton growing belt in the early years? Explain.
[CBSE 2018]
IV. Long Answer Type Questions (5 Marks)
19. Why did the merchants from the towns of Europe began moving to the countryside in the 18th century?
20. ‘Industrialization gave birth to ‘Imperialism’. Justify the statement with three arguments.
[CBSE Sample Paper 2016-17]
21. Describe any five major problems faced by New European merchants in setting up their industries
burns before the Industrial Revolution. [CBSE 2012]
22. Analyse the causes leading to the decline of the Indian weaving industry in the 19th century.
[CBSE 2012]
Answers
1. (i) (b), (ii) (a), (iii) (c)
2. (i) True, (ii) False
3. (a)
4. Richard Arkwright
5. Cotton and metals followed by iron and steel industries.
6. Newcomen engine was improved by James Watt and Mathew Boulton manufactured the new model in
1781.
7. In the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, merchants from the towns in Europe began moving
to the countryside, supplying money to peasants and artisans, persuading them to produce for an
international market.
8. The process in which fibres, such as cotton or wool, are prepared prior to spinning.
9. The new inventions of cording, twisting, spinning and rolling enhanced the output per worker. Now
each worker was able to produce more. They produced stronger thread and gain yarn.
58 Social Science-10
(iv) Faced with the problem of finding new markets for their products, the producer nations chose such
countries where industrialization had not yet reached.
(v) Hence, a race for bringing those areas under their effective occupation or effective influence started
among the various industrialized nations.
(vi) As a consequence, Britain, France, Germany, Japan, etc. set up their colonies in Asia, Africa, South
America, etc. These colonies served their two purpose of being the suppliers of cheap raw materials
and any market for their finished goods.
(vii) Hence, a race of bringing those areas under their effective occupation or effective influence started
among the various industrialized nations. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2016]
21. (i) Due to the expansion of world trade, the merchants wanted to expand their production.
(ii) They could create money problem for the merchants in their town.
(iii) Rulers had granted different guilds and the monopoly rights to produce and trade in specific
products. So merchants were handicapped in towns.
(iv) Guilds regulated competition and prices.
(v) In the countryside, peasants and artisans were available for work.
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012]
22. (i) Factories in Manchester began producing cotton textiles for the domestic market.
(ii) The government put more import duties on the textile coming from India to encourage the local
industries. Hence, the Indian weavers lost their overseas market.
(iii) Simultaneously, the Manchester goods began flooding the Indian markets also and it became
difficult for the Indian weavers to complete with the low cost Manchester cloth.
(iv) The British Government in India also levied more taxes on the handloom units which made the
Indian textiles costlier in Indian markets in comparison to the Manchester textiles.
(v) Due to the Civil War in USA the British had to purchase more raw cotton from India for their
Manchester textile industries. It created an acute shortage of raw material for the weavers and
Indian handloom industry collapsed. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015]
Exercise 3.2
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) Poor peasants and vagrants moved to the cities in large numbers in search of:
(a) Water (b) Metals (c) Agriculture (d) Jobs
(ii) In which of the following seasons, at the waterfront was the time that ships were repaired and
spruced up?
(a) Winter (b) Summer (c) Spring (d) Monsoon
Answers
1. (i) (a), (ii) (a), (iii) (b)
2. (i) Gas works and breweries were specially busy through the cold months.
(ii) In Britain the upper classes preferred hand-made goods and machine-made goods were exported to
the colonies.
3. Book binding, printers, catering to Christmas, ship repair.
4. America and Britain.
60 Social Science-10
5. They used mechanical power so that the need for human labour can be minimised.
6. The women workers attacked the Spinning Jenny in the woollen industry because they fear that these
machines will deprive them of jobs, and they would be unemployed again. This conflict continued for a
long time.
7. Due to the Napoleonic wars–
(i) The earning of the workers decreased.
(ii) Workers could buy a few things with the same wages.
(iii) The income of the workers depend upon the number of the days they work, not on the wage rate.
(iv) About 10 per cent of the urban population was very poor.
(v) In 1830s the unemployment increased between 35 and 75 per cent in different regions.
8. Spinning Jenny was invented by James Hargreaves in 1794. This machine could set in motion a number
of spindes and spin several threads at the same time. It speeded up the spinning process and hence
reduced the demand of the labour.
9. 9.1 (b) 9.2 (d) 9.3 (c) 9.4 (b)
10. Some industrialists were reluctant to introduce new machines and preferred hand labour over machines
because of the following reasons:
(i) There was no shortage of human labour during nineteenth century Europe. Poor peasants moved
to the cities in huge numbers in search of work.
(ii) In many industries such as gas works and breweries the demand for labour was seasonal. So
industrialists usually preferred hand labour, employing workers for the season.
(iii) A range of products could be produced only with hand labour. Machines were oriented to produce
uniforms, standardised goods for a mass market. But the demand in the market was often for
goods with intricate designs and specific shapes. These things could be produced only manually.
(iv) The upper classes consisted of the aristocrats and bourgeoises preferred things produced by hand.
(v) Hand-made products came to symbolise refinement and class. They were better
finished and carefully designed.
(vi) Maintaining modern industries was an expensive affair. The wear and tear of machines was
costly. They were not as effective as they were declared by their inventors and manufacturers.
Hence, industrialists were cautious about using them.
11. Workers migrated to the cities in search of new jobs.
(i) Jobs depend upon the network of friends and relatives.
(ii) Those without social connections had to wait for the jobs for weeks.
(iii) Workers had to stay in night refuges or casual wards maintained by the poor law authorities.
(iv) As the busy season over, the poor were on the streets again, looking for the odd jobs.
After 1840s the lives of the workers improved as:
(i) Roads were widened.
(ii) New railway stations and railway lines were extended.
(iii) Tunnels dug
(iv) Drainage and sewers laid
(v) Rivers embanked.
Exercise 3.3
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) Merchants who took the goods from Punjab to Afghanistan, eastern Persia and Central Asia were
(a) Armenian (b) Persian
(c) German (d) Both Armenian and Persian
(ii) Which of the following coastal regions of Gujarat connected India to the Gulf and Red Sea Ports?
(a) Gandhinagar (b) Dandi (c) Surat (d) Rajkot
(iii) Which among the following on the Coromandel Coast had trade links with Southeast Asian ports
along with Hoogli in Bengal?
(a) Masulipatam (b) Kochi
(c) Vishakhapatnam (d) Tuticorin
(iv) Which of the following is correct about the cotton weavers of India?
(a) Their export market collapsed.
(b) The local market shrank.
(c) Weavers could not easily compete with the mill made clothes.
(d) All of the above
2. Fill in the blanks
(i) Before the age of machine industries, silk and cotton goods from _______________dominated the
international market in textiles.
(ii) At the port, the big shippers and export merchants had ________________who negotiated the price
and bought goods from the supply merchants operating inland.
3. Assertion and Reasoning Type Question
In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read
the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): The East India Company gave advance loans to the weavers to buy raw materials.
Reason (R): The Company permanently engaged weavers and fell in the trap of debt.
62 Social Science-10
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
II. Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Mark)
4. Name the fine variety of the Indian cotton.
5. How did the Indian cotton travel to Central Asia?
6. Name the old ports from where local traders operate their trade. Also name the new ports controlled
by European countries.
7. Who was a Gomastha?
III. Short Answer Type Questions (3 Marks)
8. From which pre-colonial ports was vibrant sea trade operated?
9. How did Indian merchants and bankers help in the export of trade?
10. Why did the port of Surat decline by the end of the 18th century? [HOTS]
11. How did the Company dominate the weavers through the system of advances?
12. How did the weavers suffer due to European policies?
13. What steps were taken by the weavers of Carnatic and Bengal?
14. Explain new problem faced by the weavers in 1850s. [CBSE Sample Paper 2016-17]
15. Explain any three causes which led to the decline of Indian cotton textiles in the early nineteenth
century. [CBSE Sample Paper 2016-17]
16. Name the sea routes that connected India with Asian countries. [CBSE Sample Paper 2016-17]
IV. Case Based Questions (4 Marks)
17. Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate
option.
As cotton industries developed in England, industrial groups began worrying about imports from
other countries. They pressurised the government to impose import duties on cotton textiles so that
Manchester goods could sell in Britain without facing any competition from outside. At the same time
industrialists persuaded the East India Company to sell British manufactures in Indian markets as
well. Exports of British cotton goods increased dramatically in the early nineteenth century. At the
end of the eighteenth century there had been virtually no import of cotton piece-goods into India.
But by 1850 cotton piece-goods constituted over 31 per cent of the value of Indian imports; and
by the 1870s this figure was over 50 per cent. Cotton weavers in India thus faced two problems
at the same time: their export market collapsed, and the local market shrank, being glutted with
Manchester imports. Produced by machines at lower costs, the imported cotton goods were so cheap
that weavers could not easily compete with them. By the 1850s, reports from most weaving regions
of India narrated stories of decline and desolation. By the 1860s, weavers faced a new problem. They
could not get sufficient supply of raw cotton of good quality. When the American Civil War broke out
and cotton supplies from the US were cut off, Britain turned to India. As raw cotton exports from
India increased, the price of raw cotton shot up. Weavers in India were starved of supplies and forced
to buy raw cotton at exorbitant prices. In this, situation weaving could not pay.
17.1. Which of the following cities of England was better known as a finishing centre for textiles?
(a) London (b) Manchester
(c) Cambridge (d) Birmingham
17.2. Koshtis were
(a) farmers (b) landless labourers
(c) community of weavers (d) None of these
17.3. Which of the following problems was not faced by Indian cotton weavers?
(a) They did not have fine quality cotton.
(b) There were frequent strikes in Indian Industries.
(c) Export market collapsed.
(d) Local market shrank.
Answers
1. (i) (d), (ii) (c), (iii) (a), (iv) (d)
2. (i) India, (ii) brokers
3. (a)
4. Coarser cotton.
5. Bales of fine textile were carried on camel back via the north-west frontier, through mountain passes
and across deserts. Armenian and Persian merchants took the goods from Punjab to Afghanistan,
Eastern Persia and Central Asia.
6. Old ports – Surat and Hoogly.
New ports – Bombay and Calcutta.
7. A paid servant appointed by the Company–
(i) To supervise weavers (ii) To collect supplies (iii) To examine the quality of cloth
8. (i) Surat on the Gujarat coast connected India to the Gulf and Red Sea ports.
(ii) Masulipatnam on the Coromondal coast.
(iii) Hoogly in Bengal had trade links with South-East Asian ports.
9. (i) Indian merchants and bankers were involved in the network of export trade by financing production,
carrying goods and supplying exporters.
(ii) They gave advances to the weavers to get woven cloth and carried the supply to the ports.
(iii) They also negotiated the price by the big shippers and export merchants.
10. (i) European leading companies gained power by acquiring trade concessions from local rulers.
(ii) The local trade from the old ports of Surat and Hoogly declined.
(iii) The local bankers slowly became bankrupt.
(iv) By the 1740s the value of trade dropped from ` 16 million to ` 3 million.
11. (i) Once the order was placed, the weavers were given loans to purchase the raw material for their
production.
(ii) Those who took loans had to handover the woven clothes only to the Gomastha, appointed by the
Company.
(iii) Weavers could not sell their products to any other trader.
12. When the demand of fine textile expanded, the weavers took the advances and hope to earn more. Along
with weaving, many poor weavers cultivate a small plot of land to fulfil their family needs. But now
64 Social Science-10
weaving required more time and the labour of the entire family. So all family members were engaged
in different stages of the weaving process but earning was very less.
13. (i) In Carnatic and Bengal many weavers left their homes and migrated to other villages.
(ii) They set up looms in other villages where they had friends or relatives.
(iii) Some weavers revolted against the Company and its officials.
(iv) Many weavers began refusing loans, closing down their workshops and started working as
agricultural labours.
14. (i) By the 1860s, weavers faced a new problem. They could not get sufficient supply of raw cotton of
good quality.
(ii) When the American Civil War broke out and cotton supplies from the US were cut off, Britain
turned to India.
(iii) As raw cotton exports from India increased, the price of raw cotton shot up. Weavers in India were
starved of supplies and forced to buy raw cotton at exorbitant prices. In this situation weavers
couldn’t pay. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2016]
15. (i) The British cotton manufacture began to expand.
(ii) British manufacturers pressurized the Government to restrict cotton imports.
(iii) Manufacturers began to search the overseas markets for selling their cloth.
(iv) Indian textiles faced stiff competition in other international market.
(v) There was a decline in the share of the textile.
(vi) Tariffs were imposed on cloth imports into Britain. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2016]
16. (i) A vibrant sea trade operated through the main pre-colonial ports.
(ii) Surat on the Gujarat coast connected India with the Gulf and the Red Sea ports.
(iii) Masulipatnam on the Coromandal Coast and Hooghly in Bengal had trade links with the southeast
Asian ports. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2016]
17. 17.1 (a) 17.2 (c) 17.3 (b) 17.4 (d)
18. Indian cotton weavers faced the following problems in nineteenth century:
(i) Their export market collapsed and the local market shrank, being glutted with Manchester imports.
Produced by machines at lower costs, the imported cotton goods were so cheap that weavers could
not easily compete with them.
(ii) By the 1860s, they could not get the sufficient supply of raw cotton of good quality. When the
American Civil War broke out and cotton supplies from the US were cut off, Britain turned to India.
As raw cotton export from India increased, the price of raw cotton shot up. Weavers in India were
starved of supplies and forced to buy raw cotton at exorbitant prices. In this situation weaving could
not pay.
(iii) By the end of the nineteenth century, weavers and other craftsmen faced yet another problem.
Factories in India began to production, flooding the market with machine goods.
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2018]
19. On getting the political power, the East India Company established a monopoly right to trade and
developed a system of management and control that would eliminate competition, control costs, and
ensure regular supplies of cotton and silk goods. The Company took several measures in this connection:
(i) To eliminate the traders and brokers connected with the cloth trade, the Company established
a direct control over the weavers. It appointed paid servants called the gomasthas to supervise
weavers, collect supplies, and examine the quality of cloth.
(ii) It prevented the Company weavers from dealing with other buyers. The Company introduced the
system of advances. Once an order was placed, the weavers were given loans to purchase the raw
material for their production. Those who took loans, had no choice but to hand over the cloth to the
gomastha. This prevented the weavers from going to any other trader. They were bound to weave
only for the Company.
(iii) The weavers lost the space to bargain for prices and sell to different buyers. The price they received
from the Company was low, and the loans they had accepted tied them to the Company.
All the above facts made it easy for the East India Company to procure regular supplies of cotton
and silk textiles from Indian weavers.
20. (i) Earlier the gomasthas lived within the weaving villages and had a close relationship with the
weavers. They helped the weavers in times of crisis.
66 Social Science-10
4. Factories Come Up
• The first cotton mill was setup in Bombay in 1854 and it went to production two years later. By 1862 four
other mills where setup.
• The first jute mill was setup in 1855 in Bengal and another one seven years later in 1862.
• In north India, the Elgin Mill was started in Kanpur in the 1860s and a year lates the first cotton mill of
Ahmedabad was setup. By 1874, the first spinning and weaving mill of Madras began production.
The Early Entrepreneurs
• Indian traders worked with British traders. Some Indian businessmen were provided finance procured
supplies and shipping consignments.
• Early entrepreneurs of India were Dwarkanath Tagore, Dinshaw Petit, Jamshedjee Tata, Seth Hukumchand
and GD Birla, traded with China and set companies in India.
• Some commercial group of traders carried goods from one place to another, did banking, transferred funds
between cities and financed the traders.
• Till the First World War the European managing agencies controlled a large sector of Indian industries.
Where Did the Workers Come from?
• In most of the industrial regions the workers came from nearby districts.
• In Bombay cotton mills, they came from Ratnagiri.
• From United Provinces, they went to work in Bombay and Calcutta.
• Industrialists employed a paid servant, Jobber, who arrange the labour for mills.
• Jobber got people from his village, ensured them jobs, helped them to settle in cities and provided money in
crisis.
• Slowly and slowly they became powerful and started demanding money for jobs.
Exercise 3.4
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) The first cotton mill in Bombay came up in which year?
(a) 1854 (b) 1857 (c) 1761 (d) 1793
(ii) In which of the following years the first jute mill came up in Bengal?
(a) 1755 (b) 1855 (c) 1947 (d) 1950
(iii) In 1912, J.N. Tata set up the first iron and steel works in India at _____________ .
(a) Kanpur (b) Allahabad (c) Jamshedpur (d) Lucknow
2. Match the following
(i) Seth Hukumchand (a) Bird Heiglers & Co.
(ii) J.N. Tata (b) chambers of commerce
(iii) European Managing Agency (c) to get new recruits
(iv) European merchant-industrialists (d) Marwari businessman
(v) jobber (e) first iron and steel works
II. Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Mark)
3. When did the first spinning and weaving mill begin production?
4. How did Indian industrialists establish their empire in Bombay?
5. How did commercial groups operate within India?
6. Where did the workers come from to work in cotton mills?
III. Short Answer Type Questions (3 Marks)
7. How did Indian industrialists accumulate huge wealth?
8. How did European agencies control Indian industries?
9. How did the workers get job in the industrial cities?
IV. Long Answer Type Questions (5 Marks)
10. Who was a jobber? Mention any four functions of a jobber? [CBSE 2011, 15]
Answers
1. (i) (a), (ii) (b), (iii) (c)
2. (i)–(d), (ii)–(e), (iii)–(a), (iv)–(b), (v)–(c)
3. Madras in 1874.
4. In Bombay, Parsis like Dinshaw Petit and J.N. Tata built huge industrial empires in India. They
created their wealth from export to China and from raw cotton shipments to England.
5. (i) They carried goods from one place to another, (ii) Banking money, (iii) Transferring funds between
cities, (iv) Financing traders.
6. In Bombay cotton industries workers came from the neighbouring district of Ratnagiri. The mills of
Kanpur got most of their workers from the district of Kanpur.
7. (i) They accumulated wealth through other trade network.
(ii) Some merchants from Madras traded with Burma.
(iii) Some others had links with the Middle East and East Africa.
8. (i) These agencies mobilised capital, set up joint-stock companies and managed them.
(ii) In most instances, Indian financiers provided the capital while European agencies made all
investment and business decisions.
(iii) The European merchants, industrialists had their own chambers of commerce, which did not allow
Indian businessmen to join them.
9. The number of mills and demand for the workers increased but
(i) Getting jobs was always difficult.
(ii) The number of workers were always more than the jobs.
(iii) Entry into mills was also restricted.
(iv) Poor villagers were employed through jobber.
10. (i) The jobber was an old and trusted worker, employed by the industrialist.
(ii) He got people from the villages, ensured them jobs.
(iii) He helped the workers to settle in the cities.
(iv) He provided them money in the times of crisis. He was a person with some power and authority.
Functions
(i) The jobber got people from his village.
(ii) He ensured them jobs.
(iii) He helped the workers to settle in the cities.
(iv) He provided money in times of crisis.
11. Jobber was employed to get new recruits for the factories or industrialists.
The jobber misused his position and power in the following ways:
(i) Initially jobber cured people from the village ensuring them jobs. He also helped them settle in the
city and lent them money in the times of crisis.
(ii) Gradually, jobbers got position and power.
(iii) They started demanding money and gifts for all the favours.
(iv) They also started to control the lives of the workers.
(v) Jobbers got people from his own village and restricted entries of others in the mills.
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2013]
12. Series of changes affected the pattern of industrialisation in India by the earth twentieth century. Some
of these changes were: In the early twentieth century the growth of nationalism resulted in Indians
moving twoards Swadeshi and boycotting foreign cloth. Industrialists pressurised the government to
safeguard their interests. The number of industries in India was increased after the two world wars.
During the wars, the mills and factories in Britain were busy producing leather gods, bags, uniforms
etc. for the wars. Imports into India increased. Now, Indian industrialists were left to supply to the
Indian markets. New industries were established. Like USA and Japan Britain could not compete with
the emerging economics after the two world wars. Indian exports to Britain also fell with the collapse of
68 Social Science-10
the British economy. Now the newly established industries in India had to observe for newer domestic
and industrial markets and consolidate their position.
13. The history of many business groups goes back to trade with China. From the late eighteenth century,
the British in India began exporting opium to China and took tea from China to England. Many Indians
became junior players in this trade, providing finance, procuring supplies, and shipping consignments.
Having earned through trade, some of these businessmen had visions of developing industrial
enterprises in India. In Bengal, Dwarkanath Tagore made his fortune in the China trade before he
turned to industrial investment, setting up six joint-stock companies in the 1830s and 1840s. Tagore’s
enterprises sank along with those of others in the wider business crises of the 1840s, but later in the
nineteenth century many of the China traders became successful industrialists. In Bombay, Parsis
like Dinshaw Petit and Jamsetjee Nusserwanjee Tata who built huge industrial empires in India,
accumulated their initial wealth partly from exports to China, and partly from raw cotton shipments to
England. Seth Hukumchand, a Marwari businessman who set up the first Indian jute mill in Calcutta
in 1917, also traded with China. So did the father as well as grandfather of the famous industrialist
G.D. Birla.
Exercise 3.5
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) Which of the following statements is correct about the European Managing Agencies?
(a) They established tea and coffee plantations.
(b) They acquired land at cheap rates from the colonial government.
(c) They invested in mining, indigo and jute.
(d) All of the above
(ii) Indian factories were called upon to supply war needs such as
(a) jute bags (b) cloth for army uniforms
(c) tents and leather boots (d) All of these
2. State whether the following statements are true or false
(i) Cotton piece goods production in India declined between 1900 and 1912.
Answers
1. (i) (d), (ii) (d)
2. (i) False, (ii) True, (iii) True
3. They established tea and coffee plantations, acquiring land at cheap rates from the colonial government
and they invested in mining, indigo and jute.
4. (a) Jute bags (b) Cloth for army uniform
(c) Tents and leather boots (d) Horse and Mule Saddles
5. In the 20th century, almost doubling between 1900 and 1940.
6. A mechanical device used for weaving. It helps weaver to operate large looms and weave wide pieces of
cloth.
(a) Fly shuttle increased productivity for weavers.
(b) Speeded up production.
(c) Reduced labour demand.
Weavers used fly shuttle in Madras, Mysore, Cochin, Bengal and Travancore.
7. As cotton industries developed in England, industrial groups began worrying about imports from other
countries.
(i) They pressurised the government to impose import duties on cotton textile so that man-crafted
goods could sell in Britain, without facing any competition from outside.
(ii) Industrialists persuaded the East India Company to sell British manufactured in Indian market
as well.
(iii) Export of British cotton goods increased in the early 19th century.
8. (i) When Indian businessmen began setting up industries. They avoided competing with Manchester
goods in the Indian market.
(ii) Since yarn was not imported by British in India, early cotton mills in India started producing coarse
cotton yarn rather than fabric.
(iii) The yarn produced in Indian spinning mills was used by handloom weavers in India or exported to
China.
(iv) In 1906 the export of Indian yarn to China declined so industrialists in India began shifting from
yarn to cloth production.
70 Social Science-10
9. During the Swadeshi Movement, nationalists mobilised the people to boycott foreign cloth and
pressurised the Indians to use the goods made in India.
(i) Industrial groups organised themselves to protect their collective interests.
(ii) They pressurised the government to increase tariff protections and grant other concessions to
support the Indian industries.
(iii) So, industrialists in India began shifting from yarn to cloth production.
(iv) As a result, cotton piece goods production in India doubled between 1900 and 1912.
10. (i) Because Manchester was unable to modernise and compete with US, Germany and
Japan.
(ii) Export of cotton cloth from Britain fell dramatically.
(iii) Within the colonies, local industrialists consolidate their position and capturing the home market.
11. (i) Among weavers some produced coarse cloth while others wove finer varieties demanded by the
well-to-do families.
(ii) The rich could buy these even when the poor starved.
(iii) Famines did not affect the sale of Banarasi or Baluchari saris, because mills could not copy their
specialised saris.
(iv) The beautiful designs of handwoven cloth could not be easily copied by the mills.
(v) Saris with woven borders, lungis and handkerchiefs of Madras could not be easily replaced by mill
production.
12. Large industries formed only a small segment of the economy. Over the rest of the country small-scale
production continued to predominate.
(i) Only a small proportion of the total industrial labour force worked in registered factories the rest
worked in small workshops and house had units.
(ii) Handicrafts people adopted new technology if that helped them to improve production without
pushing up costs. So weavers began to use loons with a fly shuttle.
(iii) Even famines did not affect the scale of Banarasi or Baluchori Saris.
(iv) Mills could not imitate specialised weavers so the saris with woven benders or the famous Lungis
and handkerchiefs of Madras could not be easily displaced by mill production.
13. The workers were traditional craft-persons because –
(i) The large portion of the textile was produced within domestic units, not within factories.
(ii) In Britain, 500 varieties of hammers and 45 kinds of axes were produced. These required human
skill not mechanical technology.
(iii) The rich people, aristocrats preferred things produced by hand, which symbolised refinement and
class.
(iv) Handmade products were better finished, individually produced and carefully designed.
(v) So even the most powerful new technology that enhanced the productivity of labour manifold was
slow to be accepted by industrialists.
14. (i) The First World War created a dramatically new situation. Till then industrial production had
been slow.
(ii) British mills were busy with war production to meet the needs of the army. Manchester imports
into India declined.
(iii) Indian mills now had a vast home market for supply.
(iv) As the war prolonged, Indian factories were called upon to supply war needs, jute bags, cloth for
army uniforms, tents, leather boots, horse and mule saddlers and many other items.
(v) Many workers were employed as new factories were set up and old ones ran in multiple shifts.
(vi) Over the war years, industrial production boomed Manchester was unable to capture its old
position in the Indian market after the war. Cotton production collapsed and export of cotton cloth
from Britain fell dramatically. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2014]
15. (i) The early industrialists avoided a direct competition with the British factories.
(ii) The cotton mills started to produce coarse cotton yarn and this was exported to China.
(iii) As Swadeshi Movement gathered momentum industrialist pressurised government to increase
tariff protection.
Exercise 3.6
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) Which of the following images was most commonly used to popularise baby products?
(a) Baby Ganesha (b) Baby Balram
(c) Baby Rama (d) Baby Krishna
(ii) Which of the following Indian gods and goddesses were shown in imported cloth labels?
(a) Kartika (b) Lakshmi
(c) Saraswati (d) All of these
(iii) Which of the following figures were used to create respect for the product?
(a) Historic figures (b) Numeric figures
(c) Cultural figures (d) All of these
2. Fill in the blanks
(i) ________________ try to shape the minds of people and create new needs.
(ii) The label was needed to make the place of ________________ and the name of the company familiar
to the buyer.
3. Match the following
(i) Manchester labels (a) 1934
(ii) Maharaja Ranjit Singh (b) advertisements
(iii) Hoardings (c) imported cloth labels
(iv) Sunlight soap calendar (d) historic figures
II. Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Mark)
4. Why do the figures of Nawabs and Emperors appear on the advertisement and calendars?
5. How did advertisement become a vehicle of the naturalist message of Swadeshi?
6. How did the British sell their products in Indian market? Or
Mention the methods adopted by producers in India to expand their goods in 19th century.
III. Short Answer Type Questions (3 Marks)
7. Why did manufacturers use printing calendars to popularise their products?
8. Name the images of gods and goddesses that were shown on imported cloth label. Why did these images
appear on the labels?
9. How did the advertisements play an important role in expanding the markets for products?
Or
How did advertisements shape a new consumer culture?
72 Social Science-10
10. Why did the manufacturers use bold labels on the cloth bundles?
11. Give some differences between earlier and present-day advertisements. [HOTS]
IV. Long Answer Type Questions (5 Marks)
12. Explain with examples the importance of advertisement in the marketing of the goods.
[CBSE Sample Paper 2016-17]
13. Describe the techniques which were adopted by the Manchester industrialists to sell their goods in
India. Or [CBSE 2015]
How did the Indian and British merchants and manufacturers advertise their products in India to
promote their sale? [CBSE 2012]
Answers
1. (i) (d), (ii) (d), (iii) (a)
2. (i) Advertisements (ii) manufacture
3. (i)–(c), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(a)
4. The images of royal figures seem to say that if you respect the royal figure, then respect this product.
When the product was being used by kings or produced under royal command, its quality could not be
questioned.
5. The Indian manufacturers advertised the naturalist message and persuaded the people to buy Indian
products. The goddess is shown offering cloth produced in an Ahmedabad mill and asking people to use
things made in India. They advertised the message of ‘Be Indian and Buy Indian’.
6. Various methods adopted by the produces were– (i) Advertisements, (ii) Bold Labels, (iii) Images of
Gods & Goddesses, (iv) Image of royal figures, (v) Printing calendars.
7. (i) Calendars were used even by the people who could not read.
(ii) They were hung in tea shops, in poor people’s home and middle class apartments to make the
products famous.
(iii) Those who hung the calenders had to see the advertisement day after day through the year.
8. (a) Images of Kartika, Krishna, (b) Lakshmi, (c) Saraswati, etc. were shown on imported cloth label.
Images of Indian gods and goddesses regularly appeared on the labels as it gave divine approval to the
goods being sold. These images of Lord Krishna or Saraswati intended to make the manufacture from
a foreign land appear familiar to Indian people.
9. Consumers were attracted by the advertisements:
(i) They made products appear necessary.
(ii) They tried to shape the minds of people and create new needs.
(iii) They helped in spreading awareness of the product.
10. (i) The label was needed to make the place of manufacturers and the name of the company familiar
to the buyer.
(ii) They were also to be a mark of quality.
(iii) When buyer saw a label ‘MADE IN MANCHESTER’ written in bold, they felt confident in buying
the cloth.
11. The earlier advertisements mostly used the figures but today brand is important.
(i) Earlier advertisement explored the respect for royal personages but today celebrities endorse the
products.
(ii) Nowadays there are many things which advertise the products like newspapers, hoardings,
pamphlets, televisions, cell phones, internet online shopping, etc.
Hence, the whole mechanism of advertising product has gone through complete change.
12. (i) Advertisements play a very vital role in the marketing of any product. One way in which new
consumers are created is through advertisements.
(ii) Advertisements make products appear desirable and necessary.
74 Social Science-10
• European companies now began to control trade through these new ports. This resulted in the collapse of
several old trading houses.
• By the turn of 19th century, Indian cotton weavers faced several problems.
• The East India Company of Britain found it difficult to buy women cloth. So it established monopoly through
various steps.
• Eventually, at many places in Carnatic and Bengal, weavers left villages and settled at new places.
• There was a decline of textile exports from India by 1850-51. In England, import duties on cotton textiles
were imposed so that Manchester goods could sell in Britain without facing any competition from outside.
• The first cotton mill in Bombay came up in 1854.
• Jute mills came up in Bengal in 1855 and in 1862.
• The Elgin Mill was started in Kanpur in the 1860s. A year later the first cotton mill of Ahmedabad was set
up.
• By 1874, the first spinning and weaving mill of Madras began production.
• In Bengal, Dwarkanath Tagore set up six joint-stock companies in the 1830s and 1840s.
• In Bombay, Parsis like Dinshaw Petit and Jamsetjee Nusserwanjee Tata built huge industrial empires in
India.
• European Managing Agencies established tea and coffee plantations, acquiring land at cheap rates from the
colonial government; and they invested in mining, indigo and jute for export trade and not for sale in India.
• Till the First World War, industrial growth in India was very slow but changed the situation.
• After the war, Manchester failed to regain its old position in the Indian market. Cotton production collapsed
and exports of cotton cloth from Britain fell dramatically.
• In the 20th century due to technical changes the weavers began using looms with a fly shuttle which speeded
up production and reduced labour demand.
• When Manchester industrialists started selling cloth in India, they put labels on the cloth bundles like made
in Manchester.
• The age of industries has meant major technological changes, growth of factories, and the making of a new
industrial labour force.
2. In 1912, J.N. Tata set up the first iron and steel works in India at _____________ . 1
3. Why were merchants from towns in Europe began to move countryside in seventeenth and eighteenth
centuries? 1
4. Why do the figures of Nawabs and Emperors appear on the advertisement and calendars? 1
5. How did the Swadeshi Movement responsible for the growth of Indian production? 3
7. Explain with examples the importance of advertisement in the marketing of the goods. 5
8. Industrialization gave birth to ‘Imperialism’. Justify the statement with three arguments. 5
76 Social Science-10
Unit-2
Geography (Contemporary India-II)
The theoretical aspect of chapter to be assessed in the Periodic Test only. Only the Map items of
this chapter as given in the Map List will be evaluated in the Board Examination.
Topics Covered
1. Importance and Mode of Occurrence of Minerals
2. Metallic Minerals – Ferrous and Non-Ferrous
3. Non-metallic Minerals and Conservation of Minerals
4. Energy Resources, Conventional Sources of Energy
5. Non-Conventional Sources of Energy and Conservation of Energy Resources
Chapter Chart
Minerals
Metallic Non-Metallic
Energy
Conventional Non-Conventional
Types of Coal
77
1. Importance and Mode Of Occurrence of Minerals
•• Mineral refers to a homogenous, naturally-occuring substance with a definable internal structure.
•• Mineral ore is an accumulation of any mineral mixed with other elements.
•• Minerals generally occur in igneous and metamorphic rocks, it may occur in the cracks, crevices, faults or
joints. The smaller occurences are called veins and the larger are called lodes.
•• In sedimentary rocks minerals occur in beds or layers.
•• Sedimentary minerals such as gypsum, potash salt and sodium salt are formed as a result of evaporation
in arid regions.
•• The decomposition of surface rocks, and the removal of soluble constituents, leaving a residual mass of
weathered material containing ores.
•• Some minerals may occur as alluvial deposits in sands of valley floors and the base of hills, these are called
placer deposits.
•• Common salt, magnesium and bromine are largely derived from ocean waters.
•• Rat-hole mining is a coal mining done by individuals or communities in the form of long narrow tunnel.
Exercise 4.1
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) Where are minerals usually found?
(a) On rocks (b) On earth crust
(c) On ores (d) On earth core
(ii) When mining is done by family members in the form of a long narrow tunnel it is known as
(a) narrow tunnel mining (b) rat-hole mining
(c) snake mining (d) killer mining
(iii) Minerals occur in igneous and metamorphic rocks in
(a) the veins and the lodes (b) layers
(c) alluvial deposits (d) the decomposed surface rocks
(iv) Which one of the following is the softest mineral?
(a) Talc (b) Toothpaste
(c) Salt (d) Cement
(v) Which of the following minerals are obtained from veins and lodes?
I. Zinc II. Copper
III. Coal IV. Bauxite
(a) Only (I) and (II) (b) Only (II) and (III)
(c) Only (III) and (IV) (d) All of these
2. Identify Type Question
Identify the following with the help of the following features.
• From tiny pins to big ships, all are made from them.
• Most of the means of transport are manufactured from them.
• An indispensable part of human lives.
3. Fill in the blanks
(i) ______________ are an indispensable a part of human lives.
(ii) ______________ is formed due to evaporation.
(iii) Toothbrush and toothpaste are made of ______________ .
(iv) Geologists define ______________ as a homogenous naturally occurring substance with a definable
internal structure.
(v) Minerals are usually found in ______________ .
II. Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Mark)
4. What is a mineral?
[NCERT]
5. How many minerals have been identified so far?
78 Social Science-10
6. Why are there a wide range of colours, hardness, crystal forms, lustre and density found in minerals?
[Delhi 2016]
7. What properties are used by the geologists to classify the minerals?
8. What are ore, veins and lodes?
9. Where do the minerals occur in sedimentary rock? How are they formed?
10. What are placer deposits?
11. What is rat-hole mining?
III. Short Answer Type Questions (3 Marks)
12. What factors decide the properties of minerals?
13. Differentiate between the study of minerals by geographers and geologists.
[HOTS]
14. Classify the minerals with examples.
15. What are the factors which decide the extraction of minerals?
16. How are minerals formed in igneous and metamorphic rocks?
[NCERT]
17. When does mineral deposit or reserve turn into mine?
18. Explain any three different forms in which minerals generally occur.
[CBSE 2012]
IV. Long Answer Type Questions (5 Marks)
19. Why are minerals important for us? Explain with examples. OR
Minerals are an indispensable part of our lives? Support the statement with examples. [CBSE 2016]
20. Discuss the different mode of occurrence of minerals with examples.
21. India is fortunate to have fairly rich and varied mineral resources. Justify the statement. [HOTS]
Answers
1. (i)–(c), (ii)–(b), (iii)–(a), (iv)–(a), (v)–(a)
2. Minerals
3. (i) Minerals, (ii) Gypsum, (iii) Petroleum, (iv) mineral, (v) Ores
4. Mineral is a homogenous, naturally occurring substance with a definable internal structure.
5. Over 2000 minerals have been identified.
6. Because a particular mineral that will be formed from a certain combination of elements depends upon
the physical and chemical conditions under which the material forms.
7. Geologists use colours, hardness, crystal forms, lustre and density that a particular mineral possesses
to classify the minerals.
8. Ore is an accumulation of any mineral mixed with other elements. Veins are the small occurence of
minerals in the cracks, crevices, faults or joints in the igneous and metamorphic rocks, whereas the
larger ones are called lodes.
9. In sedimentary rocks, minerals occur in beds or layers. They have been formed as a result of deposition,
accumulation and concentration in horizontal strata.
10. Alluvial deposits of valley floors and the base of hills are called placer deposits.
11. It is a coal mining done by individuals or communities in the form of long narrow tunnel in Jowai and
Cherapunjee in Meghalaya.
12. (i) A particular mineral that will be formed from a certain combination of elements depends upon the
physical and chemical conditions under which the material forms.
(ii) This results in a wide range of colour, hardness, crystal forms, lustre and density that a particular
mineral possess.
(iii) Geologists use these properties to classify the minerals.
13. (i) Geographers study minerals as part of the earth’s crust for a better understanding of landforms.
(ii) The distribution of mineral resources and associated economic activities are of interest to
geographers.
(iv) A geologist, however, is interested in the formation of minerals, their age and physical and chemical
composition.
14. Minerals are broadly classified into three categories:
(i) Metallic minerals: It is further classified into ferrous e.g. iron ore, manganese, nickel, cobalt etc.
Non-ferrous e.g. copper, lead, tin, bauxite, etc. and precious metals e.g. gold, silver, platinum, etc.
(ii) Non-Metallic minerals: Minerals that do not contain metals are known as non-metallic, e.g. mica,
salt, potash, sulphur, limestone, sandstone, etc.
(iii) Energy minerals: Minerals from which energy resources are obtained, e.g. coal, petroleum, natural
gas.
80 Social Science-10
2. Metallic Minerals – Ferrous and Non-Ferrous
•• Metallic minerals which contain iron are known as ferrous minerals e.g. iron ore, manganese, nickel, cobalt,
etc.
•• Ferrous minerals account for about three-fourths of the total value of the production of metallic minerals.
•• Iron-ore is the basic mineral and the backbone of industrial development.
•• Magnetite is the finest iron ore with high content of iron, Hematite is the most important industrial iron
ore in terms of quantity used.
•• The major iron ore belts in India are: Odisha-Jharkhand belt, Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur belt, Bellari-
Chitradurga-Chikkamangaluru-Tumakuru belt, Maharashtra-Goa belt.
•• Manganese is used in the manufacturing of steel and ferro-manganese alloy, bleaching powder, insecticides
and paints.
•• Metallic minerals which does not contain iron are known as non-ferrous minerals e.g. bauxite, copper,
lead, zinc, gold, etc. These minerals play an important role in a number of metallurgical, engineering and
electrical industries.
Exercise 4.2
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) Which of the following minerals is obtained from bauxite?
(a) Mica (b) Copper (c) Aluminium (d) Iron
(ii) Which is the basic mineral and the backbone of industrial development?
(a) Coal (b) Bauxite (c) Copper (d) Iron ore
(iii) Which metal has a very high content of iron up to 70 per cent?
(a) Magnetite ore (b) Limonite ore (c) Hematite ore (d) Siderite ore
(iv) Which of the following minerals is formed by decomposition of rocks, leaving a residual mass of
weathered materials?
(a) Bauxite (b) Mica (c) Zinc (d) Coal
2. Fill in the blanks
(i) Ferrous minerals account for about ______________ of the total value of the production of metallic
minerals.
(a) one-fourth (b) three-fourth (c) one-fifth (d) one-third
(ii) Ferrous mineral: Iron ore, Non-ferrous mineral: Copper, __________: Platinum
(a) Non-metallic mineral (b) Energy resource
(c) Precious mineral (d) Mineral
3. Identify Type Questions
(i) Identify the minerals with the help of the following features.
• Ferrous minerals account for about three-fourths of the total value of the production of metallic
minerals.
• They provide a strong base for the development of metallurgical industries.
• India exports substantial quantities of ferrous minerals after meeting her internal demands.
(ii) Identify the belt of iron ore with the help of the following features.
• In Odisha high grade hematite ore is found.
• It is found in Badampahar mines in the Mayurbhauj and Kendujhar districts.
• In the adjoining Singbhum district of Jharkhand hematite iron ore is mined in Gua and
Noamudi.
(iii) Identify the metallic mineral with the help of the following features.
• Formed due to decomposition of wide variety or rocks rich in aluminium silicates.
• Combines the strength of metals such as iron with good conductivity and great malleability.
• Contributes about one-third of the total production of India
4. State whether the following statements are true or false.
(i) Odisha is the largest producer of manganese ores in India.
(ii) The mineral ore from which aluminium mainly obtained is copper.
82 Social Science-10
Answers
1. (i)–(c), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(a), (iv)–(a)
2. (i)–(b), (ii)–(c)
3. (i) Ferrous minerals, (ii) Odisha: Jharkhand belt, (iii) Bauxite
4. (i) True, (ii) False
5. Iron ore is the basic mineral and the backbone of industrial development.
6. Metallic minerals which contains iron are known as ferrous minerals.
7. Kudre in Kannada means horse. Kudremukh mines are known to be one of the largest mines in the
world. The iron ore is transported as slurry through a pipeline to a port near Mangaluru.
8. Metallic minerals which does not contain iron are known as non-ferrous minerals e.g. bauxite, copper,
etc.
9. Aluminium is an important metal because it combines the strength of metals such as iron, with extreme
lightness and also with good conductivity and great malleability.
10. Manganese is used to harden steel during manufacturing.
11. (i) Magnetite is the finest iron ore with a very high content of iron up to 70%.
(ii) It has excellent magnetic qualities, expecially valuable in the electrical industry.
(iii) Hematite ore is the most important industrial iron ore in terms of the quantity used, but has a
slightly lower iron content than magnetite.
12. (i) Iron ore is the basic mineral and the backbone of industrial development.
(ii) India is endowed with fairly abundant resources of iron ore.
(iii) India is rich in good quality iron ores like magnetite and hematite.
13. (i) Bellari-Chitradurga-Chikkamagaluru- Tumakuru belt in Karnataka has large reserves of iron ore.
(ii) The Kudremukh mines located in the Western Ghats of Karnataka are a 100% export unit.
Kudremukh deposits are known to be one is trasported as slurry through a pipeline to a port near
Mangaluru.
14. Characteristics of Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur iron ore belt in India:
(i) The region lies in Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra.
(ii) Very high grade hematite ores are found in the famous Bailadila ranges of hills in the Bastar
district.
(iii) The range of hills comprises of 14 deposits of super high grade hematite iron ore.
(iv) It has the best physical properties needed for steel making.
(v) Iron ore from these mines is exported to Japan and South Korea via Vishakhapatnam port.
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2017]
15. (i) Manganese is mainly used in the manufacturing of steel and ferro-manganese alloy.
(ii) Nearly 10 kg of manganese is required to manufacture one tonne of steel.
(iii) It is also used in manufacturing bleaching powder, insecticides and paints.
16. (i) India is critically deficient in the reserve and production of copper.
(ii) Being malleable, ductile and a good conductor, copper is mainly used in electrical cables, electronics
and chemical industries.
(iii) The Balaghat mines in Madhya Pradesh, Khetri mines in Rajasthan and Singhbhum district of
Jharkhand are leading producers of copper.
17. Uses of copper:
(i) In manufacturing electrical cables.
(ii) In electronic industries.
(iii) In chemical industries.
The two leading copper producing states of India are Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2011]
18. (i) Bauxite.
(ii) Aluminium is gaining importance because of its extreme lightness, good conductivity and great
malleability. It combines the strength of metals such as iron.
(iii) It is mainly found in Amarkantak Plateau, Maikal Hills and the plateau region of Bilaspur-Katni.
Koraput district in Odisha has large deposits. Odisha is the largest bauxite producing state.
Others are Gujarat, Maharashtra and Jharkhand. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012]
19. 19.1 (d) 19.2 (c) 19.3 Odisha 19.4 Aluminium
Exercise 4.3
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) Which of the following is the basic raw material for the cement industry and essential for smelting
iron ore in the blast furnace?
(a) Gypsum (b) Limestone (c) Potash salt (d) Sodium salt
(ii) Koderma in Jharkhand is the leading producer of which one of the following minerals?
(a) Iron ore (b) Copper (c) Mica (d) None of these
(iii) In which rocks is limestone found?
(a) Metamorphic (b) Igneous (c) Sedimentary (d) None of these
2. Fill in the blanks
(i) Limestone is found in association with ______________ composed of calcium carbonates or calcium
and magnesium carbonates.
84 Social Science-10
(ii) Namrup : Thermal power plant, Narora: Nuclear power plant,____________: Wind power plant
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Rawat Bhata
(c) Kakrapara (d) Ramagundam
3. Identify Type Questions
(i) Identify the non-metallic mineral with the help of the following features.
• A most indispensable mineral used in electric and electronic industry
• Made up of a series of plates or leaves
• It can be clear, black, green, red, yellow or brown.
(ii) Identify the plateau with the help of the following features.
• A storehouse of minerals
• Has very high grade hematite iron ore
• Most of the mica deposits are found in its northern edge.
Answers
1. (i)–(b), (ii)–(c), (iii)–(c)
2. (i) rocks, (ii)–(a)
3. (i) Mica, (ii) Chota Nagpur plateau
4. Mica is a mineral made of a series of plates or leaves.
5. Due to its excellent di-electric strength, low power loss factor, insulating properties and resistance to
high voltage, mica is one of the most indispensable minerals used in electric and electronic industries.
Jharkhand is the leading mica producer.
86 Social Science-10
4. Energy Resources, Conventional Sources of Energy
•• Energy is required to cook, to provide light and heat, to propel vehicles and to drive machinery in industries.
•• Energy can be generated from fuel minerals like coal, petroleum, natural gas, uranium to produce electricity.
•• Energy resources can be classified as conventional and non-conventional sources.
•• Firewood, cattle dung cake, coal, petroleum, natural gas and electricity are conventional source of energy.
•• Wind, tidal, geothermal, biogas and atomic energy, are non-conventional sources of energy.
•• Coal is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India. It is formed due to compression of plant material
over millions of years.
•• Coal is found in a variety of forms. Decaying plants in swamps produce peat.
•• Conventional sources of energy include firewood, cattle dung cake, coal, petroleum, natural gas and electricity.
•• Lignite is a low grade brown coal, which is soft with high moisture content.
•• Coal that has been buried deep and subjected to increased temperatures is bituminous coal.
•• Anthracite is the highest quality hard coal.
•• Petroleum is the major energy source in India after coal.
•• Petroleum refineries act as a nodal industry for synthetic textile, fertiliser and numerous chemical industries.
•• Natural gas is an important clean energy resource. It is used as a resource of energy and industrial raw
material in the petrochemical industry.
•• Electricity is generated mainly in two ways-hydro electricity, and thermal power.
•• Hydro electricity is generated by fast flowing water, which drives hydro turbines to generate hydroelectricity.
•• Thermal electricity is generated by using coal, petroleum and natural gas.
•• There are over 310 thermal power plants in India.
•• The electricity which is generated by burning fuel such as coal, petroleum and natural gas to drive turbines
to produce thermal power.
•• Electricity which is generated by running water which drives hydro turbines to generate hydro electricity.
Exercise 4.4
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) Low quality brown coal is known as
(a) lignite (b) peat (c) anthracite (d) bituminous
(ii) Thermal electricity is generated by using
(a) Coal (b) petroleum (c) natural gas (d) All of these
(iii) Natural gas is found in association with or without
(a) Coal (b) Iron (c) petroleum (d) None of these
(iv) Jharia is famous for
(a) Iron mines (b) Coal mines (c) Nickel (d) Copper mines
(v) Which one is not a conventional source of energy?
(a) Coal (b) Biogas (c) Firewood (d) Petroleum
(vi) The full form of CNG is
(a) Compound Natural Gas (b) Complex Natural Gas
(c) Compound New Gas (d) Compressed Natural Gas
(vii) Which one of the following fuels is considered environment-friendly?
(a) Coal (b) Petroleum (c) Natural gas (d) Firewood
II. Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Mark)
2. What are the uses of energy resources?
3. How can energy be generated?
4. Give examples of conventional sources of energy.
5. Name the highest quality and lowest quality of coal.
6. Why are heavy industries and thermal power stations located on or near the coalfields?
7. What are the uses of petroleum or mineral oil?
88 Social Science-10
V. Long Answer Type Questions (5 Marks)
25. Which is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India? How is it formed? Describe its main
characteristics and uses. OR
Which is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India? Assess the importance of its different
forms.
26. Highlight the importance of petroleum. Explain the occurrence of petroleum in India.
[Delhi 2016]
27. Why is the natural gas considered the fuel for the present century? What are its uses? Give an account
of distribution and production of natural gas in India.
28. Bring out the differences between thermal power and hydel power projects.
Answers
1. (i)–(a), (ii)–(b), (iii)–(c), (iv)–(b), (v)–(b), (vi)–(d), (vii)–(c)
2. Energy is needed to cook, to provide light and heat, to propel vehicles and to drive machinery in
industries.
3. Energy can be generated from fuel minerals like coal, petroleum, natural gas, uranium and from
electricity.
4. Firewood, cattle dung cake, coal, petroleum, natural gas and electricity.
5. Anthracite is the highest quality of coal. Peat is the lowest quality of coal.
6. Coal is a bulky material, which loses weight on use as it is reduced to ash. Hence, heavy industries and
thermal power stations are located on or near the coalfields.
7. Petroleum or mineral oil provides fuel for heat and lighting, lubricants for machinery and raw materials
for a number of manufacturing industries.
8. Petroleum refineries act as nodal industry for synthetic textile industry, fertilizer and numerous
chemical industry.
9. Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) for vehicles to replace liquid fuels is gaining wide popularity in the
country.
10. Hydro electricity is generated by fast flowing water which drives hydro turbines to generate electricity.
11. Multi-purpose projects like the Bhakra Nangal, Damodar Valley Corporation, the Kopili Hydel project,
etc. are producing hydro electric power.
12. Thermal electricity is generated by burning fuels such as coal, petroleum and natural gas to drive
turbines to produce thermal power.
13. (i) The 1700 km long Hazira-Vijaipur-Jagdishpur cross country gas pipeline links Mumbai High and
Bassien with fertilizer, power and industrial complexes in western and northern India.
(ii) This artery has provided an impetus to India’s gas production.
(iii) The power and fertilizers industry are the key uses of natural gas.
14. Energy resources can be classified as conventional and non-conventional sources.
(i) Conventional sources include firewood, cattle dung cake, coal, petroleum, natural gas and
electricity.
(ii) Non-Conventional sources include solar, wind, tidal, geo-thermal, biogas and atomic energy.
15. (i) Firewood and cattle dung cake are most common in rural India.
(ii) Around 70 per cent energy requirement in rural household are met by firewood and cattle dung
cake.
(iii) Their use are becoming difficult due to decreasing forest area, using dung cake too is being
discouraged because it consumes most valuable manure which could be used in agriculture.
16. (i) Bituminous coal has been buried deep and subjected to increased temperatures.
(ii) It is the most popular coal in commercial use.
(iii) It is a high grade metallurgical coal which has special value for smelting iron in blast furnaces.
17. (i) In India coal occurs in rock series of two main geological ages:
(a) Gondwana a little over 200 million years in age and
(b) Tertiary deposits which are only about 55 million years old.
90 Social Science-10
Its occurrence:
(i) Most of the petroleum occurrences in India are associated with anticlines and fault traps.
(ii) In regions of folding, anticline or domes, it occurs where oil is trapped in the crest of the upfold.
(iii) Petroleum is also found in fault traps between porous and non-porous rocks.
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2016]
27. Due to low carbon dioxide emissions natural gas is considered an eco-friendly fuel and the fuel for the
present century. Natural gas is used as a source of energy as well as an industrial raw material in the
petroleum industry.
Production and Distribution:
(i) Large reserves of natural gas have been discovered in the Krishna-Godavari basin.
(ii) Along the west coast the reserves of Mumbai High and allied fields are supplemented by finds in
the Gulf of Combay.
(iii) Andaman and Nicobar islands are also important areas having large reserves of natural gas.
28. The differences between thermal power and hydel power projects are given below:
Thermal Power Hydel Power
(i) It is generated by using coal, petroleum and (i) It is generated by fast flowing water.
natural gas.
(ii) Thermal power stations use non-renewable (ii) Hydel power stations use renewable sources
fossil fuels for generating electricity. of energy.
(iii) They can be set up at any place. (iii) They are usually set up near the sources of
energy.
(iv) They affect environment badly because they (iv) They are eco-friendly because they do not
cause air pollution. cause any pollution.
Exercise 4.5
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) The principal lignite reserves are used for
(a) generation of wind power (b) generation of electricity
(c) generation of thermal power (d) None of these
(ii) Where is the largest wind farm cluster located in India?
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Kerala
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Karnataka
(iii) Which of the following is fast becoming popular in rural and remote areas?
(a) Atomic energy (b) Solar energy
(c) T idal energy (d) Atomic energy
(iv) Which of the following is not non-conventional sources of energy?
(a) Solar energy (b) Wind energy (c) Hydroelectricity (d) Biogas
Answers
1. (i)–(a), (ii)–(a), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(c)
2. (i)–(c), (ii) electricity
3. (i)–(c), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(a), (iv)–(b)
4. Nuclear energy is obtained by altering the structure of atoms. When such an alteration is made, energy
is released in the form of heat which is used to generate electricity.
5. Uranium and thorium are used to generate nuclear energy.
92 Social Science-10
6. Solar energy is produced by tapping solar energy through photovoltaic technology which converts
sunlight directly into electricity.
7. The largest wind farm cluster is located in Tamil Nadu from Nagarcoil to Madurai.
8. Shrubs, farm waste, animal and human waste are used to produce biogas. Decomposition of organic
matter yields gas.
9. In India the gulf of Khambhat, the gulf of Kuchchh in Gujarat on the western coast and Gangetic delta
in Sunderban regions of West Bengal provide ideal conditions for utilising tidal energy.
10. Two experimental projects have been set up in India to harness geothermal energy. One is located in
the Parvati valley near Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh and the other is located in the Puga valley,
Ladakh.
11. Promotion of energy conservation and increased use of renewable energy sources are the twin planks
of sustainable energy.
12. (i) The growing consumption of energy has resulted in the country becoming increasingly dependent
on fossil fuels such as coal, petroleum and gas.
(ii) Rising prices of petroleum and natural gas and their potential shortages have raised uncertainities
about the security of energy supply in future, which in turn has serious repercussions on the
growth of the national economy.
(iii) Increasing use of fossil fuels also causes serious environmental problems. Hence there is a pressing
need to use renewable energy sources.
13. The earth grows progressively hotter with increasing depth. Where the geothermal gradient is high,
high temperatures are found at shallow depths. Groundwater in such areas absorbs heat from the rocks
and becomes hot.
It is so hot that when it rises to the earth’s surface, it turns into steam. This steam is used to drive
turbines and generate electricity. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015]
14. Potential sources of biogas are shrubs, farm wastes, animal, human waste, etc.
Four benefits of biogas are:
(i) Its calorific value is high.
(ii) It burns without smoke, causing no pollution.
(iii) It is the cheapest gaseous fuel.
(iv) Its plants provide twin benefits to the farmer in the form of energy and improved quality of
manure. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012]
15. India has great potential of wind power. It can be justified in following points.
(i) The largest wind farm cluster is located in Tamil Nadu from Nagarcoil to Madurai.
(ii) Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Gujarat, Kerala, Maharashtra and Lakshadweep have important
wind farms.
(iii) Nagarcoil and Jaisalmer are well known for effective use of wind energy in the country.
16. Tidal energy is produced by oceanic water.
(i) Oceanic tides can be used to generate electricity by building floodgate dams across inlets.
(ii) During high tide, water flows into the inlet and gets trapped when the gate is closed.
(iii) After the tide falls outside the floodgate, the water retained by the floodgate flows back to the sea
via a pipe that carries it through power-generating turbine.
17. Biogas to solve energy problem basically in rural area:
(i) It is a renewable source of energy.
(ii) It is eco-friendly.
(iii) It reduces the burden on conventional sources of energy.
(iv) Biogas or gobar gas has higher thermal efficiency in comparison to kerosene, cow dung cake and
firewood.
(v) These provide twin benefits to the farmer in the form of energy and improved quality of manure.
(vi) It improves the quality of manure and also presents the loss of trees and manure due to burning
of fuel wood and cow dung cakes.
94 Social Science-10
Narora
Namrup
Singrauli
Kakrapara
∆ Tarapur
Ramagundam
Kalpakkam ∆
REFERENCES
∆ Nuclear power plants
• Thermal power plants
1. Namrup : Thermal power plant, Narora: Nuclear power plant,____________: Wind power plant 1
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Rawat Bhata
(c) Kakrapara (d) Ramagundam
2. Identify the metallic mineral with the help of the following features, and write its name. 1
• Formed due to decomposition of wide variety or rocks rich in aluminium silicates.
• Combines the strength of metals such as iron with good conductivity and great malleability.
• Contributes about one-third of the total production of India
3. How is solar energy produced? 1
4. Why are there a wide range of colours, hardness, crystal forms, lustre and density found in minerals? 1
5. What are the uses of copper? Name the two leading copper producing states of India. 3
6. Why is mica considered the most important mineral in electric and electronic industries? Give three
reasons. 3
7. Why is energy needed? How can we conserve energy resources? Explain. 5
8. Highlight the importance of petroleum. Explain the occurrence of petroleum in India. 5
96 Social Science-10
5 Manufacturing Industries
Topics Covered
1. Importance of Manufacturing, Contribution of Industry to National Economy, Industrial Location and Classification of
Industries
2. Agro-Based Industries
3. Mineral-Based Industries
4. Industrial Pollution, Environmental Degradation and Control of Environmental Degradation
chapter Chart
97
1. Importance of Manufacturing, Contribution of Industry to National Economy,
Industrial Location and Classification of Industries
•• Production of goods in large quantities after processing from raw materials to more valuable products is
called manufacturing.
•• Manufacturing industries fall in the secondary sector and consider as the backbone of economic development.
•• Manufacturing industries help in modernising agriculture and reduce the dependence of people on agriculture
by providing jobs.
•• Industrial development aimed at bringing down regional disparities by establishing industries in tribal and
backward areas.
•• Export of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce, and brings in much needed foreign exchange.
•• Countries that transform their raw materials into a wide variety of finished goods of higher value are
prosperous.
•• Over the last two decades, the share of manufacturing sector is much lower in comparison to some East
Asian economies.
•• With appropriate policy interventions by the government and renewed efforts by the industry to improve
productivity, economists predict that manufacturing can achieve its target over the next decade.
•• Industrial locations are influenced by availability of raw material, labour, capital, power and market etc.
•• It is rarely possible to find all these factors available at one place.
•• Many industries tend to come together to make use of the advantages offered by the urban centres known
as agglomeration economies.
•• Classification of industries are based on the availability of sources such as raw material, capital investment,
ownership and bulk and weight of raw material and finished goods.
•• On the basis of source of raw materials used industries are classified as—agro based: cotton, woolen, jute,
etc. and mineral based: iron and steel, cement, etc. Further these industries are divided according to their
role.
•• Those industries which supply their products as raw materials to manufacture other goods e.g., iron and
steel and copper smelting, aluminum smelting called as basic or key industries. Those industries which
produce goods for directly used by consumers e.g., sugar, toothpaste, paper, sewing machines, fan, etc are
called as consumer industries.
•• On the basis of capital investment, industries are established. The maximum investment allowed to these
industries is rupees one crore.
•• On the basis of ownership, industries are classified as public sector such as BHEL, SAIL, etc. private sector
such as TISCO, Ambani group, etc., join sector such as Oil India Ltd (OIL), cooperative sector such as sugar
industry in Maharashtra, the coir industry in Kerala.
•• On the basis of bulk and weight of raw material and finished goods, industries are classified as heavy
industries such as iron and steel and light industries those produce light goods such as electrical goods
industries.
Exercise 5.1
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) Manufacturing comes under which of the following sectors?
(a) Quaternary (b) Primary (c) Secondary (d) Tertiary
(ii) On the basis of ownership industries are categorised as
98 Social Science-10
(a) Large-scale and small-scale industries
(b) Public sector, private sector, joint and cooperative sectors
(c) Basic/key and consumer industries
(d) Agro-based and Mineral-based industries
(iii) Which of the following industries is owned both by the state and some private industrialists?
(a) Cooperative sector industries (b) Public sector industries
(c) Private sector industries (d) Joint sector industries
(iv) Which one of the following is a private sector industry? [CBSE 2020]
(a) BHEL (b) SAIL (c) TISCO (d) OIL
2. Fill in the blanks
(i) People employed in the ___________ activities manufacture the primary materials into finished
goods.
(ii) Sugar: Consumer industry, BHEL: Public sector industry, _____________ : Joint sector industry
(a) Toothpaste (b) Coir (c) Tisco (d) Oil
II. Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Mark)
3. What is manufacturing?
[NCERT]
4. Give some examples of manufacturing.
5. Which sector is considered to be the backbone of development?
6. How have the agro-based industries in India given a major boost to agriculture?
7. By which factors are industrial locations influenced?
8. What is the ideal location of an industry?
9. Why has the National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council been set up?
[AI 2015]
10. What is agglomeration economies?
11. Where was the most manufacturing units located in the pre-Independence period?
12. Name any three physical factors for the location of an industry.
[NCERT]
13. Name any three human factors for the location of an industry.
[NCERT]
14. What are basic industries? Give an example.
[NCERT]
15. What are consumer industries? Give an example. Define small scale industry.
16. Define small-scale industry. What is the limit of maximum investment allowed in a small scale industry?
17. How is Public Sector different from Private sector?
[Delhi 2020]
c. Banking 3. Secondary
d. Mining 4. Quaternary
Answers
1. (i)–(c), (ii)–(b), (iii)–(d), (iv)–(c)
2. (i) secondary, (ii)–(d)
3. Production of goods in large quantities after processing from raw materials to more valuable products
is called manufacturing.
4. Paper is manufactured from wood, sugar from sugarcane, iron and steel from iron ore and aluminium
from bauxite.
5. Manufacturing sector.
6. The agro-based industries in India have given a major boost to agriculture by raising its productivity.
7. Industrial locations are influenced by availability of raw materials, labour, capital, power, market,
transport and government policies.
2. Agro-Based Industries
•• Industries which obtained their raw material from agricultural products are known as agro-based industry.
•• Cotton, jute, silk, woollen textiles, sugar and edible oil, etc. industries come under the agro-based industries.
•• Textile industry is the only industry in the country which is self-reliant and complete in the value chain i.e.,
from raw material to the highest value added products.
•• In ancient India, cotton textiles were produced with hand spinning and handloom weaving techniques.
•• The first successful textile mill was established in Mumbai in 1854.
•• There are over 1900 cotton and human-made fibre textile mills in India.
•• The handspun khadi provides large-scale employment to weavers in their homes as a cottage industry.
•• India has the second largest installed capacity of spindles in the world, with 43.13 million spindles after
China.
•• India is the largest producer of raw jute and jute goods and stands at second place as an exporter after
Bangladesh.
Exercise 5.2
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) Which of the following industries are based on agricultural raw materials?
(a) Silk or woollen textiles (b) Sugar, cotton and jute
(c) Sugar and edible oil (d) All of these
(ii) Where was the first textile mill established in India?
(a) Kolkata (b) Mumbai (c) Delhi (d) Indore
(iii) Powerlooms came into use after–
(a) 17th century (b) 18th century (c) 19th century (d) 20th century
2. Fill in the blanks
(i) India has the ______________ largest installed capacity of spindles in the world.
(ii) ______________ is the largest producer of raw jute and jute goods and stands at second place as an
exporter after Bangladesh. [Delhi 2020]
3. Identify Type Question
Identify the industry with the help of the following features.
• The industry has close links with agriculture.
• It provides a living to farmers.
• It creates demands that support many other industries such as chemical and dyes, packaging
materials.
4. Arrange the following in correct sequence
(i) Transporting cloth to the workshops (ii) Sale in shops and showrooms
(iii) Spinning the yarn (iv) Weaving of the fabric
Options:
(a) (i) – (iv) – (iii) – (ii) (b) (iii) – (iv) – (ii) – (ii)
(c) (iv) – (i) – (ii) – (iii) (d) (iii) – (iv) – (ii) – (i)
II. Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Mark)
5. What is agro-based industry?
6. How were cotton textile produced in ancient India?
7. What happened to our traditional industries during the colonial period?
8. When was the first textile mill established in India?
9. Which cottage industry provides large scale employment to weavers?
10. Name the countries to whom India exports yarn and other cotton goods.
11. What are the problems of cotton textile industry in India?
12. Where are the most of jute mills located in India? When and where was the first jute mill set up in
India?
13. What factor has opened the opportunity for jute products?
14. What is the position of India in the production of sugar, gur and khandsari in the world?
15. By what means does handspun Khadi provide large scale employment to weavers?
[CBSE 2017]
16. Suggest any one way to promote jute textile industry in India.
[CBSE 2020]
Answers
1. (i)–(d), (ii)–(b), (iii)–(b)
2. (i) second (ii) India
3. Cotton Textile Industry
4. (b)
5. Industry which obtained its raw material from agriculture is known as agro-based industry.
6. In ancient India, cotton textile was produced with hand spinning and handloom weaving techniques.
7. Our traditional textile industries suffered a setback during the colonial period because they could not
compete with the mill-made cloth from England.
8. The first textile mill was established in Mumbai in 1854.
9. The handspun khadi provides large scale employment to weavers in their homes as a cottage industry.
10. India exports yarn to Japan and other cotton goods to USA, UK, Russia, France, East European countries,
Nepal, Singapore, Sri Lanka and African countries.
11. (i) Power supply is erratic.
(ii) Low output of labour and stiff competition with the synthetic fibre industry, are other problems of
the textile industry in our country. The first jute mill was set up near Kolkata at Rishra in 1855.
12. Most of the jute mills are located in West Bengal, mainly along the banks of the Hugli river.
13. The growing global concern for environment friendly, biodegradable materials has once again opened
the opportunity for jute products.
14. India stands second as a producer of sugar and occupies the first place in the production Gur and
Khandsari.
15. Our spinning mills are competitive at global level. India has largest working handlooms in comparison
with the Indo-Pacific region. The rising demand for khadi exports has provided large scale employment
to weavers.
16. To increase the demand and market for jute and jute textile as well as jute-allied products research has
been initiated so that besides the traditional jute bags, ropes, gunny bags etc new products are made e.g.,
paper, jute textile, carpet, decorative items, etc.
17. (i) Textile industry contributes 14 per cent industrial production, 35 million persons directly employed
in the industry, it earns about 24.6 per cent of foreign exchange.
(ii) It contributes 4 per cent towards GDP.
3. Mineral-Based Industries
•• Industries that use minerals and metals as raw materials are called mineral based industries.
•• The iron and steel industry is the basic industry since all other industries depend on it for their machinery.
•• Most of the public sector undertakings market their steel through Steel Authority of India Ltd.
•• Chhotanagpur plateau region has the maximum concentration of iron and steel industries.
•• Production and consumption of steel is often regarded as the index of a country’s development.
•• Aluminium smelting is the second most important metallurgical industry in India.
•• It is light, resistant to corrosion, a good conductor of heat, malleable and becomes strong when it is mixed
with other metals.
•• Bauxite is the main raw material used in smelters. It is very bulky, dark reddish coloured rock.
•• The chemical industry in India is the third largest in Asia and twelfth place in the world in term of its size.
•• It comprises both large and small scale manufacturing units.
•• The fertiliser industry is centred around the production of nitrogenous fertilisers (mainly urea), phosphatic
fertilisers and ammonium phosphate (DAP) and complex fertilisers which have a combination of nitrogen
(N); phosphate (P), and potash (K).
•• Cement is essential for construction activity such as building houses, factory, bridges, roads, airports, dams
and for other commercial establishments.
•• Cement industry needs bulky and heavy raw materials like limestone, silica and gypsum.
•• Automobiles provide vehicles for quick transport of goods, services and passengers.
•• Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) brought in new technology and aligned the automobile industry with
global developments.
•• The electronic industry produces from transistor sets to television, telephones, cellular telecom, radars,
computers and many other equipments required by the telecommunication industry.
•• Bengaluru has emerged as the electronic capital of India.
•• By 2010-11 Software Technology Parks of India (SIPI) hare come up across 46 locations at different centres
of India. The continuing growth in the hardware and software is the key to the success of IT industry in
India.
Exercise 5.3
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) Public sector industries mostly market their steel through
(a) BHEL (b) TISCO (c) SAIL (d) None to these
(ii) Industries i.e., light, heavy and medium depends on this industry for their machinery–
(a) Shipbuilding Industry (b) Aluminium Industry
(c) Automobile Industry (d) Iron and Steel Industry
22.1. Which among the following is best suited title for the passage?
(a) Concentration of Iron and Steel Industries
(b) Concentration of Cheap Labour
(c) Potential of Mineral Ore
(d) Potential of Energy Resources
22.2. On the basis of above passage identify the location of iron and steel plants from the following
options–
Plants Location
(a) Bokaro Steel Plant 1. Jharkhand
(b) Salem Steel Plant 2. Tamil Nadu
(c) Bhilai Steel Plant 3. Chhattisgarh
(d) Burnpur Steel Plant 4. West Bengal
Answers
1. (i)–(c), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(a)
2. (i) Production, (ii) Aluminium smelting, (iii) Information Technology, (iv) fertilizer
3. (b) 4. (a) 5. Aluminium Smelting
6. Industries that use minerals and metals as raw materials are called mineral based industries.
7. Production and consumption of steel is regarded as the index of a country’s development.
8. Mini steel plants are smaller, have electric furnaces, use steel scrap and sponge iron. They produce
mild and alloy steel of given specifications.
9. An integrated steel plant is large, handles everything in one complex—from putting together raw
material to steel making, rolling and shaping.
10. Latest developments like liberalisation and Foreign Direct Investments have given boost to the iron
and steel industry with the efforts of private entrepreneurs.
11. The automobile industry is located around Delhi, Gurugram, Mumbai, Pune, Chennai, Kolkata,
Lucknow, Indore, Hyderabad, Jamshedpur and Bengaluru.
12. The electronics industry covers a wide range of products from transistor sets to television, telephones,
cellular telecom, telephone exchange, radars, computers and many other equipments required by the
telecommunication industry.
13. Bengaluru.
14. (i) Automobiles provide vehicles for quick transport of goods and passengers.
(ii) Trucks, buses, cars, motor cycles, scooters, three wheelers and multi utility vehicles are
manufactured in India at various centres.
(iii) After the liberalisation, the introduction of new and contemporary models of vehicles stimulated
the demand for vehicles in the market, which led to the growth of the industry including passenger
cars, two and three wheelers.
(iv) This industry had experienced a quantum jump in less than 15 years.
(v) Foreign Direct Investment brought in new technology and aligned the industry with global
developments. The two centres of automobile industry are Jamshedpur and Gurgaon.
15. (i) The iron and steel industry is the basic industry since all the other industries—heavy, medium
and light, depend on it for their machinery.
(ii) Steel is needed to manufacture a variety of engineering goods, construction material— defence,
medical, telephonic, scientific equipment and a variety of consumer goods.
(iii) Iron and steel industry is a heavy industry because all the raw materials as well as finished goods
are heavy and bulky.
(iv) Iron-ore, coking coal and limestone are required in the ratio of 4 : 2 : 1, all are heavy and bulky.
(v) Some quantities of manganese are also required to harden the steel.
16. (i) It is largely because of the relative advantages this region has for the development of iron and steel
industry.
(ii) These include low cost of iron ore, high grade raw materials in proximity has encouraged the
concentration of iron and steel industries in this region.
(iii) Availability of cheap labour and vast growth potential in the home market has helped in the
concentration of this industry.
600
500
400
300
200
86.5 89 95.6
100 77.3 81.3
0
2012 2013
2014 2015 2016
Year
Crude steel production in India and China
19. (i) A major impact of IT and electronic industry has been on employment generation. 30 per cent of
the people employed in this sector are women.
(ii) This industry has been a major foreign exchange earner in the last few years because of its fast
growing BPO sector.
(iii) The continuing growth in the hardware and software is the key to the success of IT industry in
India.
20. (i) Steel production is the backbone of any country’s economy since it is the basic unit for the
development of the nation.
(ii) Almost every industry depends on iron and steel for its manufacturing and production.
(iii) In today’s era of globalisation, consumption of goods is increasing. Thus, it can be concluded that
growth in production of steel is regarded as the index of country’s development.
[CBSE Marking Scheme 2014]
21. Refer to Ans. 23.
22. 22.1 (a) 22.2 (a) 22.3 Chhotanagapur plateau ragion
22.4 The Iron and Steel industries are not able to perform their potential due to high cost and limited
availability of labour, lower productivity of labour, and irregular supply of energy.
23. The role of chemical industry in the Indian economy are:
(i) It is fast growing and diversifying industry and contributes approximately 3 per cent of the GDP.
(ii) It is the third largest in Asia and occupies the twelfth place in the world in term of its size.
(iii) It comprises both large and small scale manufacturing units.
(iv) Rapid growth has been recorded in both inorganic and organic sectors.
(v) Organic chemicals include petrochemicals which are used for manufacturing of synthetic fibers,
rubber, plastics, and dye stuffs.
(vi) Inorganic chemicals include sulphuric acid, fertilizers, synthetic fibers, plastics, adhesives,
paints, etc.
(vii) This industry is its own largest consumer.
Exercise 5.4
I. Objective Type Question (1 Mark)
1. Fill in the blanks
(i) _____________ is caused by the presence of sulphur dioxide and carbon monoxide.
(ii) _____________ is caused by organic and inorganic industrial wastes.
(iii) _____________ of water occurs when hot water from factories is drained into water sources before
cooling.
II. Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Mark)
2. What is air pollution?
3. Which industries cause the air pollution?
4. What is water pollution?
5. Which industries cause the water pollution?
6. How does the thermal pollution of water occur?
7. What is NTPC?
8. How is cement industry responsible for land degradation?
[Delhi 2019]
III. Short Answer Type Questions (3 Marks)
9. How does industry pollute the environment? [NCERT]
10. What are the causes of soil pollution?
11. What are the causes of noise pollution and its impact on human being?
12. How can the industrial pollution of fresh water be reduced? Explain in brief.
13. “Treatment of industrial effluents can be done in three phases.” Mention them.
14. How has the ever increasing number of industries in India made worse position by exerting pressure
on existing fresh water resources? Explain. [CBSE 2018]
15. Consequence of environmental degradation do not respect national or state boundaries.” Justify the
statement. [Delhi 2019]
IV. Long Answer Type Questions (5 Marks)
16. How does industry cause air pollution? What are its impact on environment?
17. Discuss the steps to be taken to minimise environmental degradation by industry. [NCERT]
OR
Answers
1. (i) Air pollution, (ii) Water Pollution, (iii) Thermal pollution
2. Air pollution is caused by the presence of high proportion of undesirable gases, such as sulphur dioxide
and carbon monoxide.
3. Chemical and paper factories, brick kilns, refineries and smelting plants and burning of fossil fuels in
big and small factories.
4. Water pollution is caused by organic and inorganic industrial wastes and effluents discharged into
rivers and other water bodies.
5. Paper, paper pulp chemical, textile and dyeing, petroleum refineries, tanneries, electroplating industries,
detergents, acids, salts, pesticides, fertilisers, synthetic chemicals etc.
6. Thermal pollution of water occurs when hot water from factories and thermal power plants is drained
into water bodies before cooling.
7. NTPC (National Thermal Power Corporation) is a major power providing corporation in India.
8. Cement industry is responsible for land degradation because the mineral processing like grinding to
limestone for this industry generate huge quantity of dust in the atmosphere.
9. (i) The increase in pollution of land, water, air, noise and resulting degradation of environment that
the industries have caused, cannot be overlooked.
(ii) Industries are responsible for four types of pollution i.e. air, water, land and noise.
(iii) The polluting industries also include thermal and nuclear power plants.
10. (i) Soil and water pollution are closely related.
(ii) Dumping of wastes specially glass, harmful chemicals, industrial effluents, packaging, salts and
garbage makes the soil useless.
(iii) Rainwater percolates to the soil carrying the pollutants to the ground and the groundwater also
gets contaminated.
11. (i) Unwanted sound is an irritant and a source of stress.
(ii) Industrial and construction activities, machinery, factory equipment, generators, saws and
pneumatic and electric drills make a lot of noise.
(iii) Noise pollution not only results in irritation and anger, it can also cause hearing impairment,
increased heart rate and blood pressure among human beings.
12. (i) Minimising the use of water for processing by reusing and recycling it in two or more successive
stages.
(ii) Harvesting of rainwater to meet water requirements.
(iii) Treating hot water and effluents before releasing them into rivers and other water bodies.
13. Treatment of industrial effluents can be done in three phases. These are as follows:
(i) Primary treatment by mechanical means which involves screening, grinding, flocculation and
sedimentation.
(ii) Secondary treatment by biological process.
(iii) Tertiary treatment by biological, chemical and physical processes. This involves recycling of waste
water.
14. (i) Industries apart from being heavy users of water also require power to run them.
(ii) Today large industrial houses are as common place as the industrial units of many MNCs are
exerting pressure on freshwater sources.
(iii) Industrialisation followed by the urbanisation multiplying the problems of water scarcity and
exerting pressure on water sources causing their depletion.
15. Consequence of environment degradation do not respect national or state boundaries. Increase in
pollution of land, water, air, noise resulting degradation of environmental due to rapid industralisation.
Indore
Bokaro Durgapur
Bhilai
3. Locate and label the following Software Technology Parks on an outline map of India:
(a) Noida, (b) Gandhinagar, (c) Mumbai, (d) Pune, (e) Hyderabad, (f) Bengaluru,
(g) Chennai, (h) Thiruvananthapuram [As per the CBSE Map List]
Topics Covered
1. Means of Transport and Roadways 2. Railways, Pipelines and Waterways
3. Major Seaports and Airways 4. Communication, International Trade and Tourism as a Trade
chapter Chart
Trade includes:
Transport has helped in both produc- • Tourism as a trade • Balance of trade
tion and distribution of goods. • International trade • Local trade
India has one of the largest road Trade needs some means of exchange
networks in the world. ideas and connecting with people. This
is where communication comes in.
Classification of Roads:
• Super Highways • District Roads
• National Highways • Rural Roads Mass communication includes radio,
• State Highways • Border Roads television, newspapers, books, maga-
zines and films.
The Indian Railway is the largest
Public Sector undertaking of India. Personal communication refers to
communication between two parties.
121
1. Means of Transport and Roadways
•• The movement of goods and services from their supply locations to demand locations are known as
transportation. Movement of these goods and services can be over three important domains of our earth i.e.,
land, water and air. Based on these, transport can also classified into land, water and air transport.
•• Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways are six-lane highways that connect major cities and ports of the
country for speedy movement of goods and passengers.
•• National Highways refer to roads that connect major cities of two or more states.
•• State Highways refer to roads connecting the state capital with different district headquarters.
•• District roads refer to roads which connect the district headquarters with other places of the district.
•• Rural roads refer to roads which link rural areas and villages with towns are called rural roads.
•• Border roads refer to roads which are constructed in border areas and have strategically important.
•• The length of road per 100 sq. km of area is known as road density.
Exercise 6.1
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) Which two of the following extreme locations are connected by the eastwest corridor?
(a) Mumbai and Nagpur (b) Silcher and Porbandar
(c) Mumbai and Kolkata (d) Nagpur and Siligudi
(ii) The National Highway No. 1 is also known as
(a) Mahatma Gandhi Marg (b) Sher Shah Suri Marg
(c) Golden Quadrilateral (d) Jawaharlal Nehru Road
(iii) The longest highway of India is
(a) National Highway-8 (b) National Highway-7
(c) N ational Highway-44 (d) National Highway-15
2. Choose the correct pair
(i) Choose the correctly matched pair about the connectivity in India from the following options.
(a) NH-1 – Six-lane Super Highway
(b) Golden Quadrilateral – Between Delhi and Amritsar
(c) Border Roads Organisation – Established in 1985
(d) National Highway – Laid and maintained by the CPWD
(ii) Choose the correctly matched pair about the connectivity from the following options.
(a) Longest Highway – NH-44
(b) Highway between Delhi and Mumbai – NH-15
(c) National Highway that covers most of the Rajasthan – NH-1
(d) Under the Zila Parishad – State Highways
3. Identify the important highways of India with the help of the following features.
• Six-lane Super Highways
• link Delhi-Kolkata-Chennai-Mumbai
• are being implemented by the NHAI
II. Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Mark)
4. What is transportation? In how many types are transportation classified?
5. Which means of transport provides door-to-door service?
6. What is the major objective to develop the Super Highways?
7. What are National Highways?
8. By which agency are the National Highways laid and maintained?
25.1. The world has been covered into a large village with the help of _________ and _________ moving
transport.
(a) moving; loaded (b) efficient; fast
(c) easy; convenience (d) convenience; fast
25.2. Which of the following is not the significance of means of transport as communication for socio-
economic progress?
(a) Create job opportunities
(b) Help to grow economy
(c) Reduce awareness among the people at national level
(d) Interlinking world
25.3. Why is it essential to interlink with the world?
25.4. What is pre-requisite for the fast development of a nation?
Answers
1. (i)–(b), (ii)–(b), (iii)–(c)
2. (i)–(d), (ii)–(a)
3. Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways.
4. The movements of goods and services from their supply locations to demand locations are known as
transportation. It can be classified into land, water and air transport.
5. Roadways.
6. The major objective of super highways is to reduce the travel time and distance between the major cities
of India.
7. Primary road systems which connect major cities of two or more states are known as national highways.
8. Central Public Works Department (CPWD)
9. Shershah Suri Marg which is called the National Highway No.1
10. These are roads connecting state capital with district headquarters of the states.
11. State Public Works Department (PWD) in state and union territories.
12. District roads connect the district headquarters with other places of the district. These roads are
constructed and maintained by the Zila Parishad.
13. Metalled roads are made of either cement, concrete or even bitumen of coal. Hence, these are durable
over unmetalled roads. It is very difficult to use unmetalled roads in rainy season.
14. Under the Pradhan Mantri Grameen Sadak Yojana, special provisions are made so that every village
in the country is linked to a major town in the country by an all weather motorable road.
15. The length of road per 100 sq. km of an area is known as road density.
16. (i) The movements of goods and services from their supply locations to demand locations necessitates
the need for transport.
(ii) The pace of development of a country depends upon the production and the movements of goods
and services over space.
(iii) Movements of goods and services can be over three important domains of our earth i.e. land, water
and air. The efficient means of transport are pre-requisites for fast development.
17. (i) The Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways is a major road development project linking Delhi—
Kolkata—Chennai—Mumbai and Delhi by six lane super highways.
(ii) The two major objectives of these Super Highways projects are to:
(a) reduce the time and (b) distance between the mega cities at India.
(iii) The North-South corridors linking Srinagar (Jammu and Kashmir) and Kanniyakumari (Tamil
Nadu) and East-West corridor connecting Silchar (Assam) and Porbander (Gujarat).
18. (i) With the development of science and technology, the area of influence of trade and transport
expanded far and wide.
(ii) At present, the world has been converted into a large village with the help of efficient and fast
moving transport.
(iii) Transport has been able to achieve this with the help of equally developed trade and communication
system.
19. (i) With the development in transport and communication, India is well-linked with the rest of the
world despite its vast size, diversity and linguistic and socio-cultural plurality.
(ii) Roadways, railways, airways, waterways, newspapers, radio, television, cinema and internet have
been contributing to India’s socio-economic progress in many ways.
Exercise 6.2
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) What reduces trans-shipment losses and delays?
(a) Railways (b) Pipelines (c) Waterways (d) Roadways
(ii) Which is the cheapest mode of transport in India?
(a) Waterways (b) Roadways (c) Railways (d) Airways
(iii) Which one of the following states is not connected with the HVJ pipeline?
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra
(c) Gujarat (d) Uttar Pradesh
2. Fill in the blanks
(i) 2 51256: Wagons, 54506: Passenger service vehicles, ___________ : Locomatives
(a) 6899 (b) 11122 (c) 66687 (d) 7137
(ii) There are three major networks of _____________ transportation in the country.
Answers
1. (i)–(b), (ii)–(a), (iii)–(b)
2. (i)–(b), (ii) pipeline 3. Railways
4. Railways conduct multifarious activities like business, sightseeing, pilgrimage along with transportation
of goods over long distances.
5. The Indian Railway is organised into 16 zones.
Exercise 6.3
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) Name the biggest port of India.
(a) New Mangalore port (b) Haldia port
(c) Kochchi port (d) Mumbai port
(ii) Which is the premier iron ore exporting port of the country?
(a) Tuticorin port (b) Marmagao port
(c) Haldia port (d) Kandla port
(iii) Which is the fastest confortable and prestigious mode of transport?
(a) Railways (b) Waterways (c) Airways (d) Roadways
(iv) When was the air transport nationalised?
(a) 1953 (b) 1853 (c) 1964 (d) 1950
Answers
1. (i)–(d), (ii)–(b), (iii)–(c), (iv)–(a)
2. Marmagao port
3. (c) 4. (i) Vishakhapatnam, (ii) fastest
5. There are 12 major and 200 minor ports in India.
It is a spacious, natural and well-sheltered harbour.
6. Jawaharlal Nehru port was planned to decongest the Mumbai port.
7. New Mangalore.
8. Vishakhapatnam is the deepest landlocked and well-protected port.
9. Kolkata is an inland riverine port.
10. Haldia port was developed as a subsidiary port of Kolkata.
11. Kandla port is a tidal port which caters to the convenient handling of exports and imports of highly
productive granary and industrial belt stretching across the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir
and states of Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Gujarat.
12. Chennai is one of the oldest artificial ports of India.
13. (i) Tuticorin in Tamil Nadu is the extreme south-eastern port of India.
(ii) This port has a natural harbour and rich hinterland.
(iii) It has a flourishing trade handling of a large variety of cargoes to even our neighbouring countries
like Sri Lanka, Maldives, etc. and the coastal regions of India.
14. (i) Kolkata is an inland riverine port.
(ii) This port serves a very large and rich hinterland of the Ganga-Brahmaputra basin.
(iii) Being a tidal port, it requires constant dredging of Hoogly.
15. (i) The air travel is the fastest, most comfortable and prestigious mode of transport.
(ii) It can cover very difficult terrains like high mountains, dreary deserts, dense forests and also long
oceanic stretches with great ease.
(iii) Air travel has made access easier in the north-eastern part of the country.
Exercise 6.4
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Fill in the blanks
(i) _____________ communication and mass communication including radio, television, press, internet,
films, etc. are known as mass communication.
(ii) The means of communication which provides entertainment and create awareness among the
people on large scale are known as _____________ communication.
(iii) _____________ trade refers to trade between two or more countries.
(iv) Trade carried in cities, towns and villages is called _____________ trade.
(v) Tourism in _____________ has grown over the last three decades.
2. Identify Type Question
Identify the programme launched by the Government of India with the help of the following features.
• A programme to transform India into digital empowered society
• Launched by 1 July 2015 by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi
• The menifesto concentrates on e-governance
3. Assertion and Reasoning Type Question
In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read
the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): International trade is considered the economic barometer for a country.
Reason (R): Advancement of international trade of a country is an index to its economic prosperity.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answers
1. (i) Personal (ii) Mass (iii) International (iv) Local (v) India
2. Digital India 3. (a)
4. Communication refers to exchange of ideas, messages, emotions either written or oral, from one place
to another. The two ways of communication are personal communication and mass communication.
5. The Indian Postal network is the largest in the world.
6. To facilitate quick delivery of mails in big towns and cities, six mail channels have been introduced
recently.
7. The Central Board of Film Certification is the authority to certify both Indian and foreign films.
8. Advancement of international trade of a country is an index to its economic prosperity. Therefore, it is
considered the economic barometer of the country.
9. Agricultural and allied products, ores and minerals, gems and jewellery and petroleum products
including coal.
10. The commodities imported to India include petroleum and petroleum products, pearls and precious
stones, chemicals, coal, coke and briquettes, machinery, fertilizers, cereals, edible oils and newsprint.
11. Foreign tourists visit India for heritage tourism, eco-tourism, adventure tourism, cultural tourism,
medical tourism and business tourism.
12. One way to improve the postal system is to set up a feedback system through which the public can rate
the employees and their efficiency.
13. Apart from the transmission process, the trains are also allocated for the purpose of pilgrimage tourism.
14. Personal communication means a communication between two persons either through oral, letter or
through telephone, etc., while mass communication includes the use of radio, television, internet, press,
films, etc. for wider public audience.
The two points of importance of mass communication are (i) provides entertainment and (ii) creates
awareness among people about various national programmes and policies.
15. (i) India is the largest producer of feature films in the world.
(ii) It produces short films, video feature films and video short films.
(iii) The Central Board of Film Certification is the authority to certify both Indian and foreign films.
16. The exchange of good and services among people, states and countries is reffered to as trade.
(i) Trade between two countries is called international trade. It may take place through sea, air or
land routes.
7 Political Parties
Topics covered
1. Why do we need Political Parties? 2. How Many Parties should we have?
3. National Parties and State Parties 4. Challenges to Political Parties
5. How can Parties be reformed?
chapter Chart
Political Parties
142
Criteria for Political Party
Exercise 7.1
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) Which is the most visible institution of democracy?
(a) Elections (b) Political parties
(c) Adult franchise (d) Seats reservation
(ii) Which of the following is the characteristic of a political party?
(a) Every party has a certain structure. The group of people is organised in a proper way. Every
member is aware of his role and responsibilities in the party.
Answers
1. (i)–(a), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(d) 2. (a)
3. A political party that run the government is called a ruling party.
4. Parties recruit leaders, train them and make them ministers to run the government in the way they
want.
5. Parties select their candidates in different ways:
(i) In USA: The members and supporters of a party choose its candidate.
(ii) In India: Top party leaders choose candidates for contesting elections.
6. Partisanship is marked with a tendency to take a side and inability to take a balanced view on an issue.
7. A political party is a group of people who aim to attain power in the government through the elections.
In other words, it is a group of people with similar policies and programmes, who come together to
contest elections and hold power in the government.
Its functions:
(i) They formulate various policies and programmes for the society.
(ii) They work for the collective public interest.
(iii) They agree on some programmes and policies for the society with a view to promote collective good.
8. • The political parties talk about their policies in the public and try to gain support for their
policies and programmes.
• They organize demonstrations, public meetings and speeches to tell the voters about their policies.
• They sometimes launch movements for the resolution of problems faced by people.
• They raise and highlight issues and their lakhs of members and activists spread all over the
country.
9. Disadvantages or Demerits of Political Parties:
(i) Some leaders of political parties indulge in corrupt means such as rigging, unfair means, booth-
capturing to capture power.
(ii) Top leaders of political parties concentrate all powers in their hands and dominate over the others
ministers.
(iii) Some political parties divide people on caste, religion, region and language basis and create
factionalism (division).
(iv) Some political parties encourage casteism and communalism to keep their vote-bank intact.
10. Refer to Ans. 13.
11. “Political parties are necessary condition for a democracy” because:
(i) We cannot think modern democracies without political parties. In case there are no political parties
every candidate in the elections will be independent, no one will be able to make any promises to
the people about any major policy changes. The government may be formed, but its utility will
remain always uncertain.
(ii) Elected representatives will be accountable to their constituency for what they do in the locality.
But, no one will be responsible for how the country will run. Just look at the non-party based
elections to the Panchayats in many states.
(iii) Political parties agree on policies and programmes to promote collective good and influence people
to know why their policy is better than others. They try to implement the policies by winning
popular support through elections. They reflect fundamental division in a society.
(iv) The absence of political parties would affect a democracy badly. The interest of all the people
would not reach the Parliament, and, therefore, some sections of people would remain behind the
mainstream. They won’t get all the welfare measures.
(v) The role of opposition party in a democracy necessitates the existence of political parties.
Exercise 7.2
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) Which one of the following countries has one-party system?
(a) India (b) UK (c) USA (d) China
7.1. Which of the following statements associated with the advantage of multiparty system?
(a) It provides choice to the voters.
(b) It provides no choice to the voters.
(c) Regional parties get the representation.
(d) There is a possibility of conflict.
7.2. Which of the following statements is correct about a coalition government?
(a) Many parties compete for power.
(b) The government is formed by two or more parties coming together.
(c) Two parties only form an alliance and contest election.
(d) Only one party comes in power.
7.3. Which country has adopted multi-party system?
7.4. Which coalition government is in power at centre India in present?
V. Long Answer Type Questions (5 Marks)
8. Describe the various party systems existing in different countries. OR
Discuss the classification of party system on the basis of the number of parties in the
political system.
9. What is the need of the political parties? How would its absence affect any country? [HOTS]
OR
What is the necessity of political parties in a democratic set-up? Explain any four points. [Foreign 2010]
10. What is a multi-party system? Explain merits and demerits of multi-party system. [CBSE 2012]
Exercise 7.3
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Fill in the blanks
(i) The _______ is a national party.
(a) Aam Aadmi Party (b) Rashtriya Janata Dal
(c) Samajwadi Party (d) Bharatiya Janata Party
(ii) _________ recognises a party as National Party or State Party.
(a) The President of India
(b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) The Election Commission of India
(d) The Chief Election Commission
2. Match the following
National Parties Foundation year
(i) CPI (a) 1964
(ii) INC (b) 1999
(iii) BJP (c) 1885
(iv) CPI-M (d) 1980
(v) NCP (e) 1925
3. Correct the following statement and rewrite
Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was formed under the leadership of Mayawati. [CBSE 2020]
4. Assertion and Reasoning Type Question
In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read
the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): INC is one of the oldest parties in the world.
Reason (R): Under the leadership of Jawaharlal Nehru, the party sought to build a modern secular
democratic republic in India.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Answers
1. (i)–(d), (ii)–(c) 2. (i)–(e), (ii)–(c), (iii)–(d), (iv)–(a), (v)–(b)
3. Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was formed under the leadership of Kanshi Ram.
4. (b)
5. A party that secures at least six percent of the total votes in an election to the Legislative Assembly of
a state and wins at least two seats is recognized as a state party. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015]
6. National political party have units in the various states, they follow the same policies, programmes and
strategy that is decided at the national level.
Conditions required:
(i) A party that secures at least 6% of the total votes in general elections of Lok Sabha or assembly
elections in four states.
(ii) Wins at least 4 seats in Lok Sabha. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2016]
7. The national political party which espouses secularism and welfare of weaker sections and minorities is the
Indian National Congress. Four features of this party are listed below:
(i) Founded in 1885.
(ii) Dominated Indian politics, both at the national and state levels, for several decades after India’s
independence.
(iii) Ruling party at the centre till 1977 and then from 1980 to 1989. After 1989, its support declined.
(iv) A centrist party (neither rightist nor leftist) in its ideological orientation.
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2013]
8. A political party is a group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the
government. They agree on some policies and programmers for the society with a view to promote the
collective good.
Ideology of BJP :
(i) Wants full territorial and political integration of Jammu and Kashmir with India.
Exercise 7.4
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) Today democratic countries are worried about the increasing role of:
(a) rich people (b) large companies
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) politicians
(ii) Every political party in India has to register itself with the
(a) Election Commission (b) Prime Minister of India
(c) Parliament of India (d) President of India
Answers
1. (i)–(c), (ii)–(a)
2. (i)–True, (ii)–False, (iii)–False
3. The various challenges faced by a political party are:
(i) Lack of internal democracy (ii) Dynastic succession
(iii) Money and Muscle Power (iv) Meaningful choice to the voters
(v) Corruption
4. Dynastic succession is one of the most serious challenges before the political parties because:
(i) Most political parties do not practice open and transparent procedures for their functioning.
(ii) There are few ways for an ordinary worker to rise to the top in a party.
(iii) In many parties, the top positions are always controlled by members of one family.
(iv) This practice is unfair to other members of that party and is also bad for a democracy.
(v) People who do not have adequate experience or popular support come to occupy position of power.
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015]
5. People express their dissatisfaction with the failure of political parties to perform their functions well
because:
(i) Lack of internal democracy within parties.
(ii) Dynastic succession. Growing role of money and muscle power in parties.
(iii) There is not a meaningful choice to the voters. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2016]
6. The challenges faced by political parties in India are:
(i) Lack of internal democracy. (ii) Challenge of dynastic succession
(iii) Growing role of money and muscle power.
(iv) Often parties do not seem to offer a meaningful choice to the voters.
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2016]
7. (i) The first problem is lack of internal democracy within parties. Concentration of power in one or
few leaders at the top.
(ii) Favour people close to them or even their family members. In many parties, the top positions are
always controlled by members of one family.
(iii) The third problem is about growing role of money and muscle power in parties, especially during
elections.
(iv) The fourth problem is that very often parties do not seem to offer a meaningful choice to the
voters.
8. Democrats all over the world are worried about the increasing role of rich people and big companies in
democratics politics because—
(i) Rich people and companies who give funds to the parties tend to have influence on the policies
and decisions of the party.
(ii) Since parties are focussed only on winning elections therefore they tend to nominate those
candidates who have or can raise lots of money. These people manipulate the democratic elections
in their own ways.
9. 9.1 (d) 9.2 (b) 9.3 Britain
9.4 Political parties are a necessary condition for a democracy.
10. Challenges faced by political parties are:
(i) Lack of internal democracy: All over the world, there is a tendency of political parties towards
the concentration of power in one or few leaders at the top.
Exercise 7.5
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) In which of the following Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with anti-defection low?
(a) Eighth Schedule (b) Ninth Schedule
(c) Tenth Schedule (d) Eleventh Schedule
(ii) Which among the following bodies passed an order making it necessary for poltical parties to hold
their organisational elections and file their income tax returns?
(a) The Election Commission (b) The Supreme Court
(c) The President of India (d) The Central Vigilance Commission
2. Fill in the blanks
(i) The Constitution was amended to prevent elected ______________ and ______________ from changing
political parties.
(ii) The ______________ of India passed an order making it necessary for political parties to file their
income tax returns.
(iii) The quality of ______________ depends on the degree of public participation.
II. Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Mark)
3. What is an affidavit?
4. How can democratic reforms be carried out by political parties?
[Delhi 2019]
III. Short Answer Type Questions (3 Marks)
5. What is meant by ‘defection’ in democracy? Explain. [CBSE 2014]
6. What measures were adopted to prevent the practice of ‘defection.’
7. “Serious efforts were made by the legal organisations to reform political parties in India.” Support the
statement. [CBSE 2015]
8. What is the role of an ordinary citizen in reforming the political parties? OR
“The quality of democracy depends on the degree of public participation.” Explain.
IV. Long Answer Type Questions (5 Marks)
9. Mention the laws made by the Election Commission to reform the political parties in India.
10. Examine any two institutional amendments made by different institutions to reform political parties
and their leaders. OR [CBSE 2016]
Elucidate some of the recent efforts taken in our country to reform political parties and its leaders.
[CBSE 2016]
11. Suggest and explain any five measures to reform political parties. OR [CBSE 2016]
Suggest some reforms to strengthen parties so that they perform their functions well. [NCERT]
OR
Suggest any five effective measures to reform political parties. [CBSE 2012]
OR
Suggest and explain any five ways to reform political parties in India. [CBSE S.P. 2020-21]
Answers
1. (i)–(c), (ii)–(a)
2. (i) MLAs ; MPs, (ii) Election Commission, (iii) democracy
3. A signed document submitted to an officer, where a person makes a clear statement regarding her/his
personal informations.
Do you agree that this form of reforming political parties will be acceptable to them?
2. Party system is not something any country can choose. It evolves over a long time, depending on the
nature of society, its social and regional divisions, its history of politics and its system of elections.
These cannot be changed very quickly. Each country develops a party system that is conditioned by its
special circumstances. For example, if India has evolved a multiparty system, it is because the social
and geographical diversity in such a large country is not easily absorbed by two or even three parties.
No system is ideal for all countries and all situations.
2.1. India has adopted a multi-party system because–
(a) This system keeps people informed about the political activities.
(b) This system allows a variety of interests and opinions to enjoy political representation.
(c) The second and geographical diversity in such a large country is not easily absorbed by two or even
three parties.
(d) All of the above
2.2. Each country develops a __________ that is considered by its special circumstances.
(a) national party (b) party system
(c) series of functions (d) political system
3. The parties do not seem to offer a meaningful choice to the voters. In order to offer meaningful choice,
parties must be significantly different. In recent years there has been a decline in the ideological differences
among parties in most parts of the world. For example, the difference between the Labour Party and the
Conservative Party in Britain is very little. They agree on more fundamental aspects but differ only in
details on how policies are to be framed and implemented. In our country too, the differences among all
the major parties on the economic policies have reduced. Those who want really different policies have
no option available to them. Some times people cannot even elect every different leaders either, because
the same set of leaders keep shifting from one party to another.
3.1. There has been a decline in the ideological difference among parties in most parts of the world. In
this context which among the following options is correct?
(a) Lack of internal democracy (b) Dynastic Succession
(c) Meaningful choice to vote (d) Corruption
3.2. The people should elect only those only those ___________ who possess the skill to fulfil the needs of
citizens.
(a) political candidates
(b) Members of Parliament
(c) Members of Legislative Assembly
(d) democratic leaders
3.3. What do help in promoting the meaningful choice to the voters in India?
3.4. Why do people express their dissatisfaction with the failure of political parties to perform their
functions well?
ns.
A 3.1. (c) 3.2. (a)
3.3 . The differences among all the major parties on the economic polices have reduced and those who
want really different policies have no option available to them. Sometimes people cannot even elect
very different leaders.
3.4. There is not a meaningful choice to the voters.
Topics covered
1. How do we Assess Democracy's Outcomes?
2. Accountable, Responsive and Legitimate Government
3. Economic Growth and Development, and Reduction of Inequality and Poverty
4. Accommodation of Social Diversity, and Dignity and Freedom of the Citizens
chapter cHART
Accountable
How do we assess Democracy’s
Outcomes? • Make sure that people will have the right to choose
their representatives.
• Good in principle but not so good in practice. • Allow citizens to participate in the decision-
• Have formal constitutions, hold elections, making process.
have parties and guarantee citizens’ rights.
Responsive
• Can address all socio-economic and political
problems. • Responsive to the needs and expectations of the
citizens.
• Can only create conditions for achieving • Based on the ideas of deliberations and
something. negotiations.
Legitimate
• May be slow, less efficient but it is the people’s
own legitimate government.
• Government where citizens through participations,
acquire a state in the system.
• Majority needs to work with the minority • Passions for respect and freedom are the basis of
that government functions to represent the democracy.
general view. • Promotes dignity of the citizens and treats
everyone equally.
• Rule by majority do not become rule by
majority in terms of religious race or • Long struggle of women abled them to win some
respect and dignity in the society.
linguistic groups.
• Strengthened the claims of disadvantaged and
discriminated castes for equal status and oppor-
tunities.
• Transforms people from the status of a subject
into that of a citizen.
162
1. How do we Assess Democracy’s Outcomes?
• Democracy is a better form of government when compared with dictatorship or any other alternatives
because its promotes equality among citizens, improves the quality of decision making, allows room to
correct mistakes, enhances the dignity of the individual and provides a method to resolve conflicts.
• Over hundred countries of the world today claim and practice some kind of democratic politics as they have
formal constitutions, hold elections, have parties, guarantee rights of citizens.
• Democracy is just a form of government, it can only create conditions for achieving conditions for achieving
something. The citizens have to take advantage of those conditions and achieve these goals.
Exercise 8.1
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) Democracy is better than any other form of rule because it:
(a) promotes equality among citizens
(b) enhances the dignity and freedom of the individual
(c) improves the quality of decision-making
(d) All of the above
(ii) Following form of government is found in most of the countries:
(a) Democracy (b) Absolute monarchy
(c) Dictatorship (d) Army rule
2. State whether the following statements are true or false
(i) Democracy is a better form of government when compared with dictatorship or other alternatives.
(ii) Democracy can only create conditions to achieve something.
3. Assertion and Reasoning Type Question
In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read
the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): As compared to dictatorship democracy is better.
Reason (R): Democracy promotes equality among citizens.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
II. Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Mark)
4. What does democracy mean? OR
Explain the meaning of democracy. [CBSE 2017]
5. Which form of government is considered best? [CBSE 2015]
6. What is the most basic outcome of democracy?
7. Why is democratic government better than other alternatives? [CBSE 2015]
III. Short Answer Type Questions (3 Marks)
8. Examine the political outcome of democracy. [CBSE 2016]
9. State any three merits of democracy. [CBSE 2015]
10. When is democracy considered successful? Explain. [CBSE 2016]
11. “It may be reasonable to expect from a democracy a government that is attentive to the needs and
demands of the people and is largely free of corruption.” Explain this statement in three points.
[CBSE 2012]
12. Analyse any three values that make democracy better. OR [CBSE 2017]
How is democracy a better form of government when compared with dictatorship or any other alterna-
tive government? OR [CBSE Sample Paper 2018-19]
“Democracy is best suited to produce better results.” Examine the statement.
[CBSE 2020]
13. “A democratic government is efficient and effective.” Analyse the statement.
OR [CBSE 2014]
“The cost of time that democracy pays is perhaps worth it.” Justify.
Answers
1. (i)–(d), (ii)–(a)
2. (i)–True, (ii)–True 3. (a)
4. Democracy means “rule by the people”. It is just a form of government, can only create conditions for
achieving something.
5. Democratic form of government.
6. It produces a government that is accountable to citizens and responsive to the needs and expectations
of the citizens.
7. Democratic government enhances the dignity of the individual. It promotes equality among citizens.
8. (i) Right to the citizens to choose their leaders and keep check on them.
(ii) If required people can participate in decision making either directly or through indirectly or through
representatives.
(iii) It produces accountable, responsible and legitimate government [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2016]
9. Merits of democracy are:
(i) Democracy assures equality in every spheres of life like political, social and economic.
(ii) It upholds basic individual liberties like freedom of speech, etc.
(iii) Due obedience to laws. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015]
10. Democracy is considered to be successful because:
(i) The rulers elected by the people must take all major decision and not the rich and powerful.
(ii) The election must offer a free choice and opportunity to the people.
(iii) The choice should be available to all the people based on political equality.
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2016]
11. Corruption of government:
(i) Democracies often frustrate the needs of people and often ignore the demands of the majority.
(ii) The routine tales of corruption are enough to convince us that democracy is not free from this evil.
(iii) But a democratic government is people’s own government and pays heed to their demands.
(iv) People have believed that democracy will be attentive and make policies that will free the country
from corruption. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012]
12. Democracy is a better form of government when compared with dictatorship or any other alternative
form of government because it:
(i) Promotes equality among citizens (ii) Enhances the dignity of the individual
(iii) Improves the quality of decision making (iv) Provides a method to resolve conflicts
(v) Allows room to correct mistakes. (vi) Guarantees rights to citizens.
13. (i) A government may take decisions very fast. But it may take decisions that are not accepted by the
people and may, therefore, face problems.
Exercise 8.2
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) Which of the following is a feature of dictatorship?
(a) No religious faith
(b) Faith showing supremacy and war
(c) Rule of one individual or party
(d) All of the above
(ii) Which of the following is the most basic outcome of democracy?
(a) It has a higher rate of economic growth.
(b) It creates economic equality.
(c) It reduces inequality in income.
(d) It produces a government that is accountable to the citizens and responsive to the needs and
expectations of the citizens.
(iii) Democratic government is a legitimate government. Which of the following is correct to justify the
statement?
(a) It accommodates social diversities.
(b) It is people’s own government elected by the people.
(c) It leads to peaceful harmonious life
(d) All of the above
2. Fill in the blanks
(i) Democracies have had greater success in setting up regular and free ______________.
(ii) ______________ believe that democracy is suitable for their country.
3. Correct the following statements and rewrite
(i) The basic outcome of non-democratic is it produces a government that is accountable to the citizens.
(ii) Democracy has not any ability to generate its own support.
4. Data/Table Based Question
Read the given data and find out which country has most preferable democratic country.
Bangladesh India Nepal Pakistan Sri Lanka
Democracy is preferable 69 70 62 37 71
Sometimes dictatorship 6 9 10 14 11
is better
Does not matter to me 25 21 28 49 18
Exercise 8.3
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) Democracies have eliminated successfully:
(a) Economic inequalities among people
(b) Conflicts among people
(c) The idea of political inequality
(d) Differences of opinion about marginalised sections are to be treated.
Answers
1. (i)–(c), (ii)–(d)
2. The table shows that on an average dictorial regimes have had a slightly better record of economic
growth. But when we compare their record only in poor countries, there is virtually no difference.
3. (i) dictatorships, (ii)–(a), (iii)–(c)
4. (i) Population of the country.
(ii) Global situation.
(iii) Cooperation from other countries.
(iv) Economic priorities adopted by the country.
5. If some of our expectations are not met, we start blaming the idea of democracy. The first step
towards thinking carefully about the outcomes of democracy is to recognise that democracy is just
a form of government. It can create conditions for achieving something.
6. It refers to disparities in the distribution of economic assets and income.
7. It means that all individuals have equal rights in electing representatives.
8. Economic development in dictatorial regimes have slightly higher rate. For example in China the rate
of economic growth is higher.
9. The economic growth rate in dictatorship is better than that in democratic rule because:
(i) The economic growth rate in all dictatorial regimes was 4.42 per cent as compared to 3.95 per cent
all democratic regimes during the period 1995-2000.
(ii) In dictatorial regimes, the rules and regulations are rigid and compulsory. The citizens who disobey
are severely punished.
(iii) In democratic regimes, as the leaders and bureaucrats think about their profits only the government
is not much keen to remove poverty and develop the country economically.
10. Democracies are based on political equality:
(i) All citizens have equal role in electing representatives.
(ii) Parallel to the process of bringing individuals into the political arena, we find growing economic
inequalities.
(iii) Democracy does not appear to be very successful in reducing economic inequalities.
(iv) The ultra-rich enjoy a highly disproportionate share of wealth and income.
(v) At the bottom of the society, the people have very little to depend on.
(vi) It is difficult to meet their basic needs of life, such as food, clothing, house, education and health.
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012]
11. (i) The wealth and means are accumulated in the hands of a few people and their share in the total
income of the country has been increasing.
Exercise 8.4
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) In a democratic set up, a citizen has the right and the means to examine whether the decision is
taken through the correct procedure or not. It is known as:
(a) Transparency (b) Legitimacy (c) Democracy (d) Monarchy
(ii) Name the laws which empowers the people to find out what is happening in the government.
(a) Right to Freedom (b) Right to Information Act
(c) Right to Religion (d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(iii) Which of the following factors are necessary for the success of democracy?
(a) It provides legitimacy and accommodates government of social diversity.
(b) It provides dignity and freedom of the citizens.
(c) Transparency of democracy. It is accountable and responsible of ruling.
(d) All of the above
2. Match the following
(i) Democracy cannot (a) several positive outcomes
(ii) Democracy has (b) much better to any other form of government
(iii) Democracy is (c) guarantee of economic development
(iv) Democracy stands (d) based on political equality
3. Assertion and Reasoning Type Question
In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read
the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Democracy is not simply rule by majority opinion. The majority always needs to work
with the minority.
Reason (R): Rule by majority does not become rule by majority community in terms of religion or race
or linguistic group, etc..
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Topics covered
1. Money as a Medium of Exchange, Modern Forms of Money and Loan Activities of Banks
2. Two Different Credit Situations and Terms of Credit
3. Formal Sector Credit in India
4. Self-Help Groups for the Poor
chapter Chart
Money and Credit
182
Two Different Credit Situations
• Credit (loan) refers to an agreement in which the
lender supplies the borrower with money, goods Terms of Credit
or services in return for the promise of future of • Collateral is an asset that the borrower owns (such
payment. as lands, building, vehicle, livestocks, deposits with
banks) and uses this a guarantee to a lender until
• Plays a vital and positive role in meeting the ongoing
the loan is repaid.
expenses of production, complete production on time.
• Common examples of collateral used for borrowing–
• Crop production involves considerable costs of seeds,
land titles deposits with banks, livestock.
fertilisers, pesticides, water, electricity, repair of
• Terms of credit comprises interest rate, collateral
equipment.
and documentation requirement, and the mode of
• In another situation credit pushes the borrower into
repayment together.
a situation from which recovery is very painful which
is commonly called debt-trap.
Exercise 9.1
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) Currency notes in India are issued by which of the following?
(a) State Bank of India (b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Central Bank of India (d) None of these
(ii) A ______________ is a paper that instructs the bank to pay a specific amount from the payer’s ac-
count to the person in whose name is written on it.
(a) Fixed deposit (b) Demand deposit
(c) Cheque (d) None of these
(iii) Find the incorrect option: [CBSE SP 2019-20]
(a) Demand deposit share the essential features of money
(b) With demand deposit payments can be made without cash
(c) Demand deposits are safe way of money transformation
(d) Demand deposit facility is like cheque
2. Arrange the following sentences in correct sequence
(i) Banks accept the deposits and also pay an amount as interest on the deposits.
(ii) They deposit it with the banks by opening a bank account in their name.
Answers
1. (i)–(b), (ii)–(c), (iii)–(d) 2. (c) 3. (a)
4. Barter system is a condition in which goods are exchanged without the use of money.
5. Money acts as an intermediate in the exchange process and eliminates the need for double coincidence
of wants. As money acts as intermediate, it is also called medium of exchange.
6. Demand deposits are considered as money because the depositors get the facility of cheque against
their demand deposits when they open an account in the bank, which is used to settle the transaction
without the use of money.
7. This is known as double coincidence of wants.
8. Both parties, the seller and the buyer have to agree to sell and buy each other commodities. Goods are
directly exchanged without the use of money.
9. If we have money in our pocket we can purchase anything at anytime as we wish.
10. One cannot refuse a payment made in rupees because it is accepted as a medium of exchange. The
currency is authorized by the government of India.
11. Banks maintain cash reserve to arrange for daily withdrawals by depositors.
12. Banks charge higher interest rate on loans than what they offer on deposits. The difference of interest
is the main source of income of banks.
13. The inherent problem in double coincidence of wants is that both parties have to agree to sell and buy
each other’s commodities. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2017]
14. A person holding money can easily exchange it for any commodity or service that he or she might want.
Example: The shoe manufacturer will first exchange shoes that he has produced for money and then
exchange the money for wheat. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2017]
15. Money acts as an intermediate in the exchange process.
16. Currency is modern forms of money that includes paper notes and coins and accepted as a medium of
exchange. It is issued by the Reserve Bank of India on behalf of the central government.
Exercise 9.2
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choice the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) Which one of the following options describe ‘Collateral’? [CBSE SP 2020-21]
(a) Double coincidence of wants (b) Certain products for barter
(c) Trade in barter (d) Asset as guarantee for loan
(ii) Which among the following refers to an agreement that lender supplies the borrower with money,
goods or services in return for the promise of future payment?
(a) Credit (b) Debit
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Interest
2. Table/Data Based Question
Read the following given table and find out what was the outcome of Swapna?
Salim Swapna
Why did they need credit? To meet the working capital needs. To meet the expenses of cultivation.
What was the risk? No or little unknown risk. Risk of crop failure.
What was the outcome? Supplied the orders, earned profits ?
and repaid the loans.
(a) Crop failed (b) Found herself in the debt trap
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Repaid the loans
3. Information Based Question
Read the given information carefully, and answer the question that follows: [CBSE SP 2019-20]
Rita has taken a loan of ` 7 lakhs from the bank to purchase a car. The annual interest rate on the
loan is 14.5 per cent and the loan is to be repaid in 3 years in monthly installments. The bank retained
the papers of the new car as collateral, which will be returned to Rita only when she repays the entire
loan with interest.
Analyse the loan information given above, select the correct option.
(a) Mode of re-payment (b) Terms of credit
(c) Interest on loan (d) Deposit criteria
II. Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Mark)
4. Define collateral.
5. What are the reasons why the banks might not be willing to lend to certain borrowers?
[NCERT]
6. Given that a large number of people in our country are poor, does it in any way affect their capacity to
borrow? [NCERT]
7. Why do banks ask for collateral while giving loans? [CBSE Sample Paper 2018-19]
IiI. Short Answer Type Questions (3 Marks)
8. Analyses the role of credit in development. [NCERT]
9. What is meant by term of credit? What does it include? [CBSE 2011]
10. Why do lenders ask for collateral while lending? Give any three reasons. [NCERT] [CBSE 2014]
13.1. The passage given above relates to which of the following options?
(a) Collateral credit. (b) Credit recovery is very painful.
(c) Failure of crops. (d) Credit is somewhere beneficial.
13.2. According to the passage, Swapna faced which of the following options–
(a) Failure of the crop made loan repayment impossible.
(b) She had to sell part of the land to repay the loan.
(c) Credit left her worse off.
(d) All of the above
13.3. It refers to an agreement in which the lender supplies the borrower with money, goods or services
in return for the promise of future payment. What is it called?
13.4. What example does the passage give?
V. Long Answer Type Questions (5 Marks)
14. How do banks play an important role in the economy of India? Explain. [CBSE 2015]
OR
“Bank plays an important role in the economic development of the country.” Support the statement
with examples. [Delhi 2020]
15. Describe the vital and positive role of credit with examples. [CBSE 2016] [HOTS]
OR
What is credit? How does credit play a vital and positive role? Explain with an example. [CBSE 2015]
16. “Credit sometimes pushes the borrower into a situation from which recovery is very painful.” Support
the statement with examples. [Delhi 2020]
Answers
1. (i)–(d), (ii)–(a) 2. (c) 3. (b
4. Collateral is an asset that the borrower owns and given to the lender as a guarantee that he will repay
the loan. If the borrower is unable to repay the loan, then the lender having the right to sell it and get
the money back.
5. The banks might not be willing to lend to certain borrowers because they may not be having any
collateral which is used as a guarantee of the repayment of loan.
6. If a large number of people in our country are poor, it will affect their capacity to borrow because they
will not be having enough collateral, which decides how much amount of loan a person is eligible.
Exercise 9.3
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) Which of the following is a formal source of credit?
(a) Commercial banks (b) Traders
(c) Borrowers (d) Moneylenders
(ii) Who supervises the functioning of formal source of loans?
(a) Reserve Bank of India (b) State Bank of India
(c) Central Bank of India (d) Informal money lenders
2. Information Based Questions
(i) Study the given information carefully and answer the question that follows: [CBSE 2020]
Krishna is working in a neighbouring field with very less wages. Expenses on sudden illnesses
or functions in the family are also met through loans. The landowner charges an interest rate of
5 per cent per month. At present she owes landowner ` 5,000.
Analyse the credit arrangement given above.
(ii) Read the information given below and select the correct option. (CBSE S.P. 2020-21)
Answers
1. (i)–(c), (ii)–(a)
2. (i) The credit arrangement comes under the informal source of credit.
(ii) (a) OR (c)
3. To expand formal sources of credit in rural India, dependence on informal sources of credit has to be
reduced.
4. They are deprived from the formal sector of loans because of:
(i) Lack of collateral. (ii) They are illiterate.
(iii) They cannot fulfil the formalities of the formal sector of loans.
5. It is necessary because banks have to submit information to the RBI on how much they are lending, to
whom they are lending and what interest rate, etc.
6. Two examples of informal sector of credit are: (i) moneylenders, (ii) traders, (iii) employers, (iv) relatives,
(v) friends. (Any two points to be mentioned) [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2018]
7. Importance of formal sector loans in India:
(i) They provide loans at a fixed rates and terms.
(ii) They give loans not just to profit making business and traders but also to small cultivators, small-
scale industries too small borrowers, etc.
8. The Reserve Bank of India supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans because banks are
giving loans to small cultivators, small scale industries, to small borrowers or not only to profit-making
businesses and traders.
9. (i) Compared to formal lenders, most of the informal lenders charge much higher interest rates on
loans like 3% to 5% per month, i.e., 36% a year.
(ii) Besides the high interest rate, informal lenders impose various other tough conditions. For example,
they make the farmers promise to sell the crop to him at a low price. There is no such condition in
formal sector.
(iii) Loans taken by poor people from informal lenders sometimes, lead them to debt trap because of
high interest rate.
(iv) The formal sources of credit in India still meets only about half of the total credit needs of the rural
people. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2014]
10. Dhananjay will be able to get loan from a formal source.
Arguments :
Banks are not present everywhere in rural India. Even when they are present, getting a loan from
a bank is much more difficult than taking a loan from informal sources. Bank loans require proper
documents and collateral. Absence of collateral is one of the major reasons which prevents the poor from
getting bank loans. Informal lenders such as moneylenders, on the other hand, know the borrowers
personally and hence, are often willing to give a loan without collateral.
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2016]
11. RBI sees that the banks maintain the minimum cash balance or not. It monitors that the loan is not
just given to the profit–making businesses and traders but also to the small borrower. It asks the
Exercise 9.4
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. State whether the following statements are true or false
(i) The SHGs help borrowers overcome the problem of lack of collateral.
(ii) SHGs are the building blocks of organisation of the rural poor.
2. Correct and Rewrite Questions
(i) The Self-Help Groups (SHGs) is the group which is not responsible for the repayment of the loan.
(ii) Loan is sactioned in the name of SHGs and is meant to create job opportunities for the members.
3. Assertion and Reasoning Type Question
In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read
the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Self-Help groups help to reduce the functioning of formal sector of credit.
Reason (R): Informal sector includes moneylenders, traders, etc.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
II. Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Mark)
4. Why are the banks willing to lend to self-help groups?
5. What are the two major objectives of a self-help groups?
III. Short Answer Type Questions (3 Marks)
6. What is the basic idea behind the SHGs for the poor? Explain in your own words. [NCERT]
7. What are the drawbacks of informal sources of credit? OR
“The credit activities of the informal sector should be discouraged.” Support the statement with
arguments. [Delhi 2016]
IV. Case Based Questions (4 Marks)
8. Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate
option.
In recent years, people have tried out some newer ways of providing loans to the poor. The idea is to
organise rural poor, in particular women, into small Self Help Groups (SHGs) and pool (collect) their
savings. A typical SHG has 15-20 members, usually belonging to one neighbourhood, who meet and
save regularly. Saving per member varies from ` 25 to ` 100 or more, depending on the ability of the
people to save. Members can take small loans from the group itself to meet their needs. The group
charges interest on these loans but this is still less than what the moneylender charges. After a year
or two, if the group is regular in savings, it becomes eligible for availing loan from the bank.
8.1. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about Self-Help Groups?
(a) The SHGs help borrowers overcome the problem of lack of collateral.
(b) The SHGs are the building blocks of organisation of the rural poor.
Answers
1. (i) True, (ii) True
2. (i) The Self-Help Groups (SHGs) is the group which is responsible for the repayment of the loan.
(ii) Loan is sanctioned in the name of SHGs and is meant to create self-employment opportunities for
the members.
3. (d)
4. The banks are willing to lend to the self-help group because they are regular in saving and loan matter
is taken very seriously. If any one member is not able to repay the loan then it is followed seriously by
other members.
5. The two major objectives of the self-help group are:
(i) To make the rural poor women self-reliant.
(ii) To provide platform to discuss and act on a variety of social issues.
6. Refer to Ans. 9
7. (i) Most of the informal lenders charge a much higher interest on loans. Thus the cost to the borrower
of the informal loans is much higher.
(ii) Higher cost of borrowing means a larger part of earning of the borrowers is used to repay the loan
and they have less income left for themselves.
(iii) The high rate of interest of borrowing can mean that the amount to be repaid is greater than the
income of the borrower and it can lead to increasing debt and debt-trap.
(iv) People who might wish to start an enterprise by borrowing may not do so because of the high cost
of borrowing. (Any three)
8. 8.1 (d) 8.2 (a) 8.3 (d) 8.4 (d)
9. Self-Help Groups (SHGs) have 15 to 20 members and pool their savings and after some time, it becomes
a large amount which is used to give loans to the needy ones at a very nominal rate of interest.
Its role:
Topics covered
1. Production Across Countries and Interlinking Production Across Countries
2. Foreign Trade and Integration of Markets and What is Globalisation?
3. Factors that have Enabled Globalisation and World Trade Organisation
4. Impact of Globalisation in India and the Struggle for a Fair Globalisation
chapter Chart
202
Factors that have Enabled Impact of Globalisation
Globalisation in India
Answers
1. (i)–(d), (ii)–(d) 2. (a)
3. Multinational Corporation
4. Investment made by the MNCs from foreign countries is called foreign investment.
5. Factors controlling MNCs production–closeness to the market, skilled and unskilled labour available
at low cost, government policies etc. to keep the cost of production low and profit high.
6. Yes, Ford Motors is a MNC because it is having its production spread over 26 countries over the world.
7. Infrastructural facilities.
8. He is investing his money with a hope of earning profits from these assets.
9. (i) Cargill foods is a very large American MNC. It has bought over smaller Indian companies such as
Parakh Foods and expanded the range of its production of edible oils in India.
(ii) Parakh foods had built a large marketing network in various parts of India where its brand was
well reputed. Also Parakh foods had four oil refineries whose control has now shifted to Cargil. It
has become the largest producer of edible oils in India. It refines processes and markets various
edible oils for the food industry.
(iii) Many popular brands like Sweekar, Nature Fresh, and Gemini are part of Cargill Foods.
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2014]
Exercise 10.2
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answers from the given option (MCQs)
(i) Which among the following statements is correct regarding foreign trade?
(a) Foreign trade implies exchange of goods and services across the countries.
(b) It helps to expand the size of market for producers.
(c) Producers and consumers can get commodities produced in any part of the world.
(d) All of the above
(ii) Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets
i.e., markets of their own countries. How does foreign trade become a main channel in connecting
countries? Choose the correct option.
(a) Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets.
(b) Producers can sell their produce not only in market located within the country but also compete
in markets located in other countries of the world.
(c) Impact of the goods produced in another country is also one of the way is expanding the choice
of goods.
(d) All of the above
(iii) Read the given statements in context of ‘globalisation’ and choose the correct option.
[CBSE S.P. 2020-21]
(a) It is the only way for economic development of the country.
(b) Interlinks only production based activities in dispersed locations in the world.
(c) It has always given only positive results in all the countries.
(d) Leads to spread of technology, cultures and diseases from a region to another.
2. Information Based Question
Read the information given below and select the correct option.
Chinese manufacturers learn of an opportunity to export toys to India, where toys are sold at a high
price. They start exporting plastic toys to India. Buyers in India now have the option of choosing
between Indian and the Chinese toys. Because of the cheaper prices and new designs, Chinese toys
become more popular in the Indian markets. Within a year, 70 to 80 per cent of the toy shops have
replaced Indian toys with Chinese toys. Toys are now cheaper in the Indian markets than earlier. Let
us see the effect of foreign trade through the example of Chinese toys in the Indian markets. What is
happening here? As a result of trade, Chinese toys come into the Indian markets. In the competition
between Indian and Chinese toys, Chinese toys prove better. Indian buyers have a greater choice of
toys and at lower prices. For the Chinese toy makers, this provides an opportunity to expand business.
The opposite is true for Indian toy makers. They face losses, as their toys are selling much less.
Answers
1. (i)–(d), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(d) 2. (c) OR (c)
3. Globalisation can be defined as the process of rapid interconnection or integration between the markets.
4. Foreign trade is the main channel the connecting the world. It is so because foreign trade connects the
markets or integration of markets in different countries.
5. (i) Through trade, goods can travel from one market to another.
(ii) Choice of goods in the markets rises and prices become equal.
(iii) Producers compete closely with each other. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2014]
6. (i) By movement of goods. (ii) By movement of services.
(iii) By movement of investments. (iv) By movement of technology.
(v) By the movement of people between countries. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015]
7. (i) Foreign trade implies exchange of goods and services across the countries.
(ii) It helps to expand the size of market for producers.
(iii) Producers and consumers can get commodities produced in any part of the world.
(iv) It works to integrate markets in different countries. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015]
8. Transformation of our markets:
(i) There is relatively a wide choice of goods and services before us in the market. The latest models
of digital cameras, mobile phones and televisions made by the leading manufacturers of the world
are within our reach.
(ii) Every season new model of automobile can be seen on Indian roads and the Indian are buying
vehicles produced by the top companies of the world.
(iii) A similar explosion of brands can be seen for many other goods: from shirts to televisions to
processed fruit juices. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015]
9. Refer to Ans. 24
10. The various ways in which countries can be interlinked are in process of production done by MNCs:
(i) Goods and services are produced at global level and sold at global level.
(ii) Investments, technology and people are moving between countries.
(iii) It gives opportunity to the local producers to reach beyond the domestic market.
(iv) MNCs by their foreign trade connects/integrates the markets in the world.
11. Chinese toy manufacturers got an opportunity to sell their toys in the Indian market. They sell
their toys at cheaper prices and with newer designs. Indian buyers got greater choices than before.
Chinese toy makers expanded their business and flourishing in the market. The Indian toy shops
were replaced by the Chinese toys which sell more due to better quality and low prices.
12. A wide ranging choice of goods:
(i) We have a wide variety of goods and services before us in the market.
(ii) The latest models of the digital cameras, mobile phones and televisions made by leading
manufacturers of the world are available in the market.
(iii) Every season, new models of automobiles can be seen on Indian roads.
(iv) Today Indians are buying cars produced by nearly all the top companies in the world.
(v) A similar explosion of brands can be seen for many other goods. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2016]
13. Foreign trade Foreign investment
(i) It implies exchange of goods and services (i) It means the investment made by the MNCs.
across the nations. (ii) It invest to earn the profits.
(ii) It connects markets in different countries.
3. Factors that have Enabled Globalisation and World Trade Organisation (WTO)
A. Technological Development:
• Development in technology is one of the most important factors that has enabled the process of globalisation.
It can be studied under two different headings:
(a) Developments in transport technology: The world has done tremendous improvements in the field
of transportation technology. Now we have different fastest means of transport with the help of which
we can reach to different parts of the world in less time and can control trade and integrate the markets
easily.
(b) Developments in ICT (Information and Communication Technology): It includes telephones,
mobile phones, computers, internet, fax, e-mails, etc. A remarkable development can be seen in the
field of ICT throughout the world. Now the world is just a click away. With the help of ICT we can
share and obtain information instantly across the globe at negligible cost.
B. Liberalisation:
• Removing trade barriers set by the government is called liberalisation. If the country uses the policy of
liberalisation, it means that it allows other countries to interact, which will lead to globalisation.
Trade Barrier: Restrictions set by the government to increase or decrease (regulate) the foreign trade. For
example:
Exercise 10.3
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answers from the given options (MCQs)
(i) It creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets. What does it
refer to?
(a) Technology (b) Globalisation (c) Investments (d) Trade barriers
(ii) Choose the correct statement about factors regarding globalisation in India:
1. Improvement in transportation technology. [CBSE 2020]
2. Liberalisation of foreign trade and foreign investment.
3. Favourable rules of WTO towards India in comparison to developed countries.
Choose the correct options from the codes given below:
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 and 3 (d) Only 3
2. Table/Data Based Question
Complete the following table with correct information with regard to WTO:
Answers
1. (i)–(b), (ii)–(a)
2. A—International trade, B—Free trade for all
3. (i)–(a), (ii)–(c)
4. Removing trade barriers set by the government is called liberalisation.
5. Communication technology has played a major role in outspread of products and services across countries
through its arms such as telecommunications (mobile, fax etc.), computers and internet. These have
helped the people in communicating with each other living in different geographical locations.
6. (i) Chinese exporters have to pay tax.
(ii) This will increase the price of the toys and it will be costlier in the Indian market.
(iii) Imports from China will decline.
(iv) Indian toy makers will flourish in the market.
7. Refer to Ans. 15
8. The world has done tremendous improvements in the field of transportation technology. Now we have
different fastest means of transport with the help of which we can reach to different parts of the world
in less time and can control trade and integrate the markets easily.
9. (i) Liberalisation of trade and investment policies has helped the globalisation process by making
foreign trade and foreign investment easier.
(ii) This has led to a deeper integration of national economies into one conglomerate whole.
(iii) Now goods could be imported and exported easily. Foreign companies could set up factories and
offices in India.
10. A tariff is a tax imposed on goods when they are moved across a political boundary. Mostly, they are
imposed on imported commodities.
Tariffs are imposed on goods because:
(i) To protect infant industries of the home country.
(ii) To prevent the dumping of foreign countries.
(iii) A source of revenue.
11. 11.1. (b) 11.2 (d)
11.3. To remove trade barriers
11.4. General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT)
12. Reasons for putting barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment by the Indian Government:
(i) To protect the domestic producers within the country from foreign competition.
(ii) The competition from importers would have crippled the new-born industries of India. In such
a situation, imports of only such commodities were allowed, which were quite necessary such as
machinery, fertilisers, petroleum, etc.
(iii) During 1950s and 1960s, competition from imports was giving a death blow to growing industries
in India. Hence, India allowed imports of only essential goods.
The government wished to remove these barriers in the 1990s, because it felt that domestic
producers were ready to compete with foreign industries. It also felt that foreign competition
would in fact improve the quality of goods produced by Indian industries. This decision was also
supported by powerful international organisations. Thus, the government decided that the time
had come for Indian producers to compete with producers around the globe.
13. Globalisation has been advantageous to producers in the following ways:
(i) The producers now have access to the international markets.
(ii) Globalisation has also enabled free movement of capital, i.e., via electronic transfers, etc.
(iii) Globalisation has enabled access to foreign investment in capital and technology via Foreign
Direct Investment, etc.
Globalisation has been advantageous to consumers in the following ways:
(i) It has led to employment generation, as a result, beneficial to the consumers.
Exercise 10.4
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. State whether the following statements are true or false
(i) MNCs have increased their investments in India over the past 10 years.
(ii) Several top companies have been able to benefit from the increased competition.
(iii) Globalisation does not create new opportunities in IT sectors.
2. Information Based Question
Read the information given below and select the correct option.
35 year old Sushila has spent many years as a worker in garment export industry of Delhi. She was
employed as a ‘permanent worker’ entitled to health i nsurance, provident fund, over time at a double
rate, when Sushila’s factory closed in the late 1990s. After searching for a job for six months, she
finally got a job 30 km. away from where she lives. Even af ter workin g i n thi s factory for several
years, she is a temporary worker and earns less than half of what she was earning earlier. Sushila
leaves her house every morning, seven days a week at 7:30 a.m. and returns at 10 p.m. A day off from
work means no wage. She has none of the benefits she used to get earlier. Factories closer to her home
have widely fluctuating orders and therefore pay even less.
After 1990s, what happened with Sushila.
(a) She lost his job due to factory closed.
(b) Now, she is a temporary worker and earns less than half of what she was earning earlier.
(c) Now, she has none of the benefits she used to get earlier.
(d) All of the above
OR
According to the passage, which of the following conditions about work has been described?
(a) Most worker are employed in the unorganised sector.
(b) Moreover, increasingly conditions of work in the organised sector have come to resemble the
unorganised sector.
(c) Worker in the organised sector such as Sushila no longer get the protection and benefits that they
enjoyed earlier.
(d) All of the above
II. Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Mark)
3. Why are MNCs setting their customer care centres in India?
[CBSE 2015]
4. Due to which reason the latest models of different items are available within our reach? [CBSE 2016]
5. What are SEZs? Write about them in brief.
6. How would flexibility in labour laws help companies?
[NCERT] [CBSE 2012]
• Investment done by MNC is termed as foreign investment. Any investment is made with the hope that these
assets will earn profits.
• All times, MNCs, set up production jointly with some of the local companies. The MNCs can provide money
for additional investment and might bring with them the latest technology for production.
• Factors controlling MNCs production–closeness to the market, skilled and unskilled labour available at low
cost, government policies etc. to keep the cost of production low and profit high.
• Globalisation can be defined as the process of rapid interconnection or integration between the countries.
MNCs are playing a major role in the globalisation process. More and more goods and services, investments
and technology are moving between countries.
• Rapid improvement in technology has been one major factor that has stimulated the globalisation process.
Even more remarkable have been the developments in information and communication technology.
• Some restrictions have been set up by the Government on import e.g., tax on import is called trade barrier.
Governments can use trade barriers to increase or decrease the foreign trade and to decide what kinds of
goods and how much of each should come into country.
• After Independence, the Government of India had put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investments. But
after 1991, barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment were removed to large extent.
• Removing barriers or restrictions set up by the government is known as liberalisation. With liberalisation
of trade, business are allowed to make decisions freely about what they wish to import or export.
• The liberalisation of foreign trade and investment in India was supported by some very powerful
international organisations. World Trade Organisation (WTO) is one such organisation whose aim is to
liberalise international trade.
• Since July 2016, 164 countries of the world are members of the WTO. It rules have forced the developing
countries to remove trade barriers.
• Globalisation of the Indian economy produces the competition among producers and a result it makes
advantage to consumers.
• Among producers and workers, the impact of globalisation has not been uniform.
• MNCs have increased their investments in India over the past 20 years and also new jobs have been created.
Several top Indian companies also have been able to benefit from the increased competition and provide
platform to emerge as multinationals themselves.
• Globalisation has also created new opportunities for companies providing services, particularly those
involving IT. Besides, a host of services such as data entry, accounting, administrative tasks, engineering
are now being done cheaply in countries such as India and are exported to the developed countries.
• Fair globalisation would create opportunities for all, and also ensure that the benefits of globalisation are
shared better. The government can play a major role in making this possible.
• The policies of the government must protect the interest not only of the rich and the powerful, but all the
people in the country.
• People also can play an important role in the struggle for fair globalisation through participating in
compaigns, representing in people’s organisation that influences the important decisions relating to trade
and investments at the WTO.
MNCs are a major force in connecting the countries of the world because–
(a) they can form and utilize the connections between national economics.
(b) they help in the integration of market and in flow of information.
(c) they may also outsource their production processes, often to lesser developed nations to reduce their
costs.
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
OR
Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets i.e., markets
of their own countries. How does foreign trade become a main channel in connecting countries? Choose
the correct option.
(a) Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets.
(b) Producers can sell their produce not only in market located within the country but also compete in
markets located in other countries of the world.
(c) Impact of the goods produced in another country is also one of the way is expanding the choice of goods.
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
223
(iii) The party that wins majority forms the government and the other sits in opposition.
(iv) Strong opposition is good for democracy.
(v) Prompt decisions are taken and implemented.
(vi) More development and less corruption. (any three)
10. How do demand deposit have the essential features of money? Explain. 3
Ans. The demand deposits have the essential features of money because:
(i) Banks accept the deposits and also pay an amount as interest on the deposits.
(ii) People also have the provision to withdraw the money as and when they require.
(iii) People’s money is safe with the banks and it earns an amount as interest.
11. The Civil Disobedience Movement saw the participation of different social classes and groups. Give
reasons for the participation of the following: (a) rich peasants (b) poor peasants (c) business classes
(d) industrial working classes and (e) women. 5
Ans. The reasons for the participation of various social classes and groups in Civil Disobedience Movement
are as follows:
(i) Rich peasants. Rich peasant communities like patidars of Gujarat and the jats of Uttar Pradesh
joined the movement because, being producers of commercial crops they were hard hit by the trade
depression and falling prices. Due to the refusal of the government to reduce the revenue demand
made them fight against high revenues.
(ii) Poor peasants. They joined the movement because they found it difficult to pay rent. They wanted
the unpaid rent to the landlord to be remitted.
(iii) Business class. They reacted against colonial policies that restricted activities because they were
keen on expanding their business and for this they wanted protection against imports of foreign
goods. They thought that Swaraj would cancel colonial restrictions and trade would flourish without
restrictions.
(iv) Industrial working class. They did not participate in large numbers except in the Nagpur
region. Some workers did participate in, selectively adopting some of the Gandhian programme,
like boycott of foreign goods, as a part of their own movements against low wages and poor working
conditions.
(v) Women. There were large scale participation of women in the movement. They participated in
protest marches, manufactured salt, and picketed foreign cloth and liquor shops. Many went to jail.
12. “The challenge of sustainable development requires control over industrial pollution.” Substantiate the
statement with examples. 5
Ans. (i) On one hand industries lead to extensive industrial growth and expansion, other hand these are also
the cause of environmental degeneration which prompt to the different type of air, water pollution.
(ii) There is an increasing requirement to use a further sustainable model.
(iii) Industries must produce eco-friendly products and dump wastes responsibly.
(iv) Use of latest technology can help industries to control pollution and lead towards sustainable mode
of operation.
(v) Industries use Reuse-Recycle-Refuse approach.
(vi) If necessary, dump waste in specified places, away from the land and water sources. For example,
before dumping treat well and make useful for other than drinking purpose, stop using thermal
plants in some of the locations.
13. Explain the role of political parties in a democracy. 5
Ans. In a democracy political parties performed the following major functions:
(i) In most democracies, elections are fought mainly among the candidates put up by political parties.
Parties select their candidates in different ways. In India top party leaders choose candidates for
contesting elections.
(ii) Parties put forward different policies and programmes and the voters choose from them. In a
democracy, a large number of similar opinions have to be grouped together to provide a direction in
which policies can be formulated by the governments. A government is expected to base its policies
on the line taken by the ruling party.
(iii) Parties play a decisive role in making laws for a country. Formally laws are debated and passed
in the legislature. But since most of the members belong to a party, they go by the direction of the
party leadership, irrespective of their personal opinions.
(iv) Parties form and run governments. Parties recruit leaders, train them and then make them
ministers to run the government in the way they want.
(v) Those parties that lose in the elections play the role of opposition to the parties in power by voicing
different views and criticising government for its failure or wrong policies.
15. __________
225
Ans.
16
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15. Madras
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227
9. How is democratic government known as responsive government? Explain with an example. 3
Ans. A democratic government has to be responsive to the needs of its citizens:
(i) Through pressure groups, and public protests, the democratic government can check the popularity
of its decisions and mechanism of administering justice.
(ii) A government which is able to respond to grievances faster is able to avoid confrontation and
provide good governance.
10. “Foreign trade is an important component of globalisation”. Explain any three points in this regard. 3
Ans. Foreign trade is an important component of globalisation because:
(i) Foreign trade implies exchange of goods and services across the countries.
(ii) It helps to expand the size of market for producers.
(iii) Producers and consumers can get commodities produced in any part of the world.
(iv) It works to integrate markets in different countries.
11. What was Bardoli Satyagraha? Give a brief description of Vallabhbhai Patel’s contribution in this
struggle. 5
Ans. Bardoli is a city in the state of Gujarat. In 1928, Bardoli Satyagraha was a major movement of farmers
against the increase of land revenue. This Satyagraha led the foundation of the Civil Disobedience
Movement against the British rule.
In 1928, the British raised the land revenue approx 30 per cent in Bardoli, Gujarat. This unjustified
heavy tax was opposed by the farmers of Bardoli under the strong leadership of Vallabhbhai Patel, who
was one of the most prominent leaders from Gujarat. This satyagraha got great sympathy in several
regions of India.
The government tried to crush the movement through brutal action, but Vallabhbhai Patel left no
stone unturned to ensure its positive outcome. Finally the government agreed the demands of farmers.
Vallabhbhai was given the title of ‘Sardar’ by the locals of Bardoli.
12. Why is the economic strength of a country measured by the development of manufacturing industries?
Explain with examples. 5
Ans. The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries.
Manufacturing sector is considered the backbone of development in general and economic development
in particular mainly because:
(i) Manufacturing industries not only help in modernising agriculture, which forms the backbone of
our economy, but also reduce the heavy dependence of people on agricultural income by providing
them jobs in secondary and tertiary sector.
(ii) Industrial development is a precondition for eradication of unemployment and poverty from our
country.
(iii) It was also aimed at bringing down regional disparities by establishing industries in tribal and
backwards areas.
(iv) Export of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce, and brings in much needed foreign
exchange.
(v) Countries that transform their raw materials into a wide variety of furnished goods of higher value
are prosperous.
13. Illustrate the situations which display lack of internal democracy within the political party. 5
Ans. Situations which display lack of internal democracy within a political party–
(i) Parties do not keep membership registers, do not hold organisational meetings, and do not conduct
internal elections regularly.
(ii) Ordinary members of the party do not get sufficient information on what happens inside the party.
(iii) They do not have the means or the connections needed to influence the decisions. As a result the
leaders assume greater power to make decisions in the name of the party.
(iv) Since one or few leaders exercise paramount power in the party, those who disagree with the
leadership find it difficult to continue in the party.
(v) More than loyalty to party principles and policies, personal loyalty to the leader becomes more
important.
14. ‘Self-Help Groups’ help borrowers to overcome the problem of back of collateral. Examine the statement.
5
15. _________
229
Ans.
15. Champaran
16. Vijayanagar
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231
15.
___________
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