CS8493 Operating Systems MCQ

CS8493 Operating Systems Regulations 2017
Answer: a
Explanation: The control unit is referred to
as the central nervous system because it
selects and interprets the instructions and
coordinates execution.
3. What does MBR stand for?

a) Main Buffer Register
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b) Memory Buffer Routine
CS8493 Operating c) Main Buffer Routine
d) Memory Buffer Register
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Systems Answer: d
C
Explanation: The binary subtraction 0 – 1
gives the result 1.
T.
CSE - Fourth A borrow of 1 is although generated and is
removed from the next higher column.
Semster
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4. In the instruction ADD A, B, the answer
Regulations 2017 SP
gets stored in ___________
a) B
b) A
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c) Buffer
d) C
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Answer: b
UNIT I OPERATING Explanation: In any instruction of the form
ADD A, B; the answer gets stored in the A
SYSTEM OVERVIEW
.B
register. The format is: ADD Destination,

Source.
1. Brain of computer is ____________
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a) Control unit 5. What does PC stand for?

b) Arithmetic and Logic unit a) Program Changer
c) Central Processing Unit b) Program Counter
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d) Memory c) Performance Counter

d) Performance Changer
Answer: c
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Explanation: The CPU is referred to as the Answer: b

brain of a computer. Explanation: The Program counter contains
It consists of a control unit and the arithmetic the address of the next instruction which is to
and logic unit. It is responsible for performing
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be fetched by the control unit.

all the processes and operations. All other options are invalid.
2. Control Unit acts as the central nervous 6. Which of the following holds the last
system of the computer. instruction fetched?
a) True a) PC
b) False b) MAR
Downloaded From: https://cse-r17.blogspot.com 1

c) MBR and every operation whereas execution causes

d) IR the performance of each operation.
Answer: d 10. What does D in the D-flip flop stand for?

Explanation: The IR which stands for the a) Digital
instruction register contains the last b) Direct
instruction fetched. c) Delay
All the others options are registers which are d) Durable
used for the fetch operation.
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Answer: c
7. The portion of the processor which Explanation: In the hardwired control unit,
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contains the hardware required to fetch the the delay element method uses D-flip flop
operations is _______ which causes a delay. Since, in the delay
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a) Datapath element method, there must be a finite time
b) Processor gap between the 2 steps.
T.
c) Control
d) Output unit
1. What is the high speed memory between
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Answer: a the main memory and the CPU called?
Explanation: The datapath contains the a) Register Memory
hardware required to fetch the operations.
The control tells the data path what needs to
be done.
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b) Cache Memory
c) Storage Memory
d) Virtual Memory
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8. Causing the CPU to step through a series of Answer: b
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micro operations is called _________ Explanation: It is called the Cache Memory.

a) Execution The cache memory is the high speed memory
b) Runtime between the main memory and the CPU.
c) Sequencing
.B
d) Pipelining 2. Cache Memory is implemented using the

DRAM chips.
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Answer: c a) True
Explanation: Sequencing is the process of b) False
causing the CPU to step through a series of
micro operations. Execution causes the Answer: b
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performance of each micro operation. Explanation: The Cache memory is

implemented using the SRAM chips and not
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9. The functions of execution and sequencing the DRAM chips. SRAM stands for Static
are performed by using ______________ RAM. It is faster and is expensive.
a) Input Signals
b) Output Signals 3. Whenever the data is found in the cache
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c) Control Signals memory it is called as _________

d) CPU a) HIT
b) MISS
Answer: c c) FOUND
Explanation: Sequencing followed by the d) ERROR
process of execution is performed by the
Control signals. Sequencing is traversing each

Answer: a c) Write within

Explanation: Whenever the data is found in d) Buffered write
the cache memory, it is called as Cache HIT.
CPU first checks in the cache memory since it Answer: a
is closest to the CPU. Explanation: Snoopy writes is the efficient
method for updating the cache. In this case,
4. LRU stands for ___________ the cache controller snoops or monitors the
a) Low Rate Usage operations of other bus masters.
b) Least Rate Usage
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c) Least Recently Used 8. In ____________ mapping, the data can be
d) Low Required Usage mapped anywhere in the Cache Memory.
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a) Associative
Answer: c b) Direct
C
Explanation: LRU stands for Least Recently c) Set Associative
Used. LRU is a type of replacement policy d) Indirect
T.
used by the cache memory.
Answer: a
5. When the data at a location in cache is Explanation: This happens in the associative
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different from the data located in the main mapping. In this case, a block of data from
memory, the cache is called _____________ the main memory can be mapped anywhere in
a) Unique
b) Inconsistent
c) Variable
SP
the cache memory.
9. The number of sign bits in a 32-bit IEEE

G
d) Fault format is ____
a) 1
LO
Answer: b b) 11
Explanation: The cache is said to be c) 9
inconsistent. Inconsistency must be avoided d) 23
as it leads to serious data bugs.
.B
Answer: a
6. Which of the following is not a write Explanation: There is only 1 sign bit in all
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policy to avoid Cache Coherence? the standards. In a 32-bit format, there is 1

a) Write through sign bit, 8 bits for the exponent and 23 bits
b) Write within for the mantissa.
c) Write back
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d) Buffered write 10. The transfer between CPU and Cache is

______________
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Answer: b a) Block transfer

Explanation: There is no policy which is b) Word transfer
called as the write within policy. The other c) Set transfer
three options are the write policies which are d) Associative transfer
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used to avoid cache coherence.

Answer: b
7. Which of the following is an efficient Explanation: The transfer is a word transfer.
method of cache updating? In the memory subsystem, word is transferred
a) Snoopy writes over the memory data bus and it typically has
b) Write through a width of a word or half-word.

1. Computer has a built-in system clock that second is the clock speed. It is generally
emits millions of regularly spaced electric measured in gigahertz(109 cycles/sec) or
pulses per _____ called clock cycles. megahertz (106 cycles/sec).
a) second
b) millisecond 5. CISC stands for ____________
c) microsecond a) Complex Information Sensed CPU
d) minute b) Complex Instruction Set Computer
c) Complex Intelligence Sensed CPU
Answer: a
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d) Complex Instruction Set CPU
Explanation: The regularly spaced electric
pulses per second are referred to as the clock Answer: b
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cycles. All the jobs performed by the Explanation: CISC is a large instruction set
processor are on the basis of clock cycles. computer. It has variable length instructions.
C
It also has variety of addressing modes.
2. It takes one clock cycle to perform a basic
T.
operation. 6. Which of the following processor has a
a) True fixed length of instructions?
b) False
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a) CISC
b) RISC
Answer: a
Explanation: It takes exactly one clock cycle
to perform a basic operation, such as moving
a byte of memory from a location to another
SP
c) EPIC
d) Multi-core
Answer: b
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location in the computer. Explanation: The RISC which stands for
Reduced Instruction set computer has a fixed
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3. The operation that does not involves clock

length of instructions. It has a small
cycles is _________
instruction set. Also has reduced references to
a) Installation of a device
memory to retrieve operands.
b) Execute
.B
c) Fetch 7. Processor which is complex and expensive

d) Decode to produce is ________
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a) RISC
Answer: a
b) EPIC
Explanation: Normally, several clock cycles
c) CISC
are required to fetch, execute and decode a
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d) Multi-core
particular program.
Installation of a device is done by the system Answer: c
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on its own. Explanation: CISC stands for complex

instruction set computer. It is mostly used in
4. The number of clock cycles per second is personal computers. It has a large instruction
referred as ________
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set and a variable length of instructions.

a) Clock speed
b) Clock frequency 8. The architecture that uses a tighter
c) Clock rate coupling between the compiler and the
d) Clock timing processor is ____________
a) EPIC
Answer: a
b) Multi-core
Explanation: The number of clock cycles per

c) RISC be of classified into register, cache, main

d) CISC memory, etc.
Answer: a 2. Cache memory is the onboard storage.

Explanation: EPIC stands for Explicitly a) True
parallel instruction computing. It has a tighter b) False
coupling between the compiler and the
processor. It enables the compiler to extract Answer: a
maximum parallelism in the original code. Explanation: Cache Memory is the memory
M
closest to the CPU. Registers, Cache and the
9. MAR stands for ___________ main memory are the means of onboard
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a) Memory address register storage in the computer system.
b) Main address register
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c) Main accessible register 3. Which of the following is the fastest means
d) Memory accessible register of memory access for CPU?
T.
a) Registers
Answer: a b) Cache
Explanation: The MAR stands for memory c) Main memory
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address register. It holds the address of the d) Virtual Memory
active memory location.
10. A circuitry that processes that responds to

and processes the basic instructions that are
SP
Answer: a
Explanation: Registers are the fastest means
of access for CPU. Registers are the small
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required to drive a computer system is memory locations which are present closest to
________ the CPU.
LO
a) Memory
b) ALU 4. The memory implemented using the
c) CU semiconductor chips is _________
d) Processor a) Cache
.B
b) Main
Answer: d c) Secondary
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Explanation: The processor is responsible for d) Registers

processing the basic instructions in order to
drive a computer. The primary functions of a Answer: b
processor are fetch, decode and execute. Explanation: The main memory is
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implemented using semiconductor chips.

Main memory is located on the motherboard.
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1. Any electronic holding place where data It mainly consists of RAM and small amount
can be stored and retrieved later whenever of ROM.
required is ____________
a) memory 5. Size of the ________ memory mainly
C
b) drive depends on the size of the address bus.

c) disk a) Main
d) circuit b) Virtual
c) Secondary
Answer: a d) Cache
Explanation: Memory is the place where data
can be stored and later retrieved. Memory can

Answer: a inside the CPU. L1 cache is also present on-

Explanation: The size of the main memory chip inside the CPU.
depends on the size of the address bus of the
CPU. The main memory mainly consists of 9. MAR stands for ___________
RAM and ROM, where RAM contains the a) Memory address register
current data and programs and ROM contains b) Main address register
permanent programs like BIOS. c) Main accessible register
d) Memory accessible register
6. Which of the following is independent of
M
the address bus? Answer: a
a) Secondary memory Explanation: The MAR stands for memory
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b) Main memory address register. It holds the address of the
c) Onboard memory active memory location.
C
d) Cache memory
10. If M denotes the number of memory
T.
Answer: a locations and N denotes the word size, then
Explanation: The secondary memory is an expression that denotes the storage
independent of the address bus. It increases capacity is ______________
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the storage space. It is implemented in the a) M*N
form of magnetic storage devices. b) M+N
7. ____________ storage is a system where a

robotic arm will connect or disconnect off-
SP
c) 2M+N
d) 2M-N
G
line mass storage media according to the Answer: a
computer operating system demands. Explanation: Storage capacity is the product
LO
a) Secondary of a number of memory locations that is the

b) Virtual number of words and the word size or the
c) Tertiary number of bits stored per location. Storage
capacity should be as large as possible.
.B
d) Magnetic
Answer: c
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Explanation: The tertiary storage is the 1. Computer has a built-in system clock that
correct option. It is used in the realms of emits millions of regularly spaced electric
enterprise storage and scientific computing on pulses per _____ called clock cycles.
a) second
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large computer systems and business

computer networks and is something a typical b) millisecond
personal computer never sees firsthand. c) microsecond
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d) minute
8. What is the location of the internal
registers of CPU? Answer: a
a) Internal Explanation: The regularly spaced electric
C
b) On-chip pulses per second are referred to as the clock

c) External cycles. All the jobs performed by the
d) Motherboard processor are on the basis of clock cycles.
Answer: b 2. It takes one clock cycle to perform a basic

Explanation: The internal registers are operation.
present on-chip. They are therefore present

a) True a) CISC
b) False b) RISC
c) EPIC
Answer: a d) Multi-core
Explanation: It takes exactly one clock cycle
to perform a basic operation, such as moving Answer: b
a byte of memory from a location to another Explanation: The RISC which stands for
location in the computer. Reduced Instruction set computer has a fixed
length of instructions. It has a small
M
3. The operation that does not involves clock instruction set. Also has reduced references to
cycles is ____________ memory to retrieve operands.
O
a) Installation of a device
b) Execute 7. Processor which is complex and expensive
C
c) Fetch to produce _________
d) Decode a) RISC
T.
b) EPIC
Answer: a c) CISC
Explanation: Normally, several clock cycles d) multi-core
O
are required to fetch, execute and decode a
particular program. Installation of a device is Answer: c
done by the system on its own.
4. The number of clock cycles per second is

SP
Explanation: CISC stands for complex
instruction set computer. It is mostly used in
personal computers. It has a large instruction
G
referred as ______ set and a variable length of instructions.
a) Clock speed
LO
b) Clock frequency 8. The architecture that uses a tighter

c) Clock rate coupling between the compiler and the
d) Clock timing processor.
a) EPIC
.B
Answer: a b) Multi-core
Explanation: The number of clock cycles per c) RISC
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second is the clock speed. It is generally d) CISC

measured in gigahertz(109 cycles/sec) or
Answer: a
megahertz (106 cycles/sec).
Explanation: EPIC stands for Explicitly
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5. CISC stands for ___________ parallel instruction computing. It has a tighter

a) Complex Information Sensed CPU coupling between the compiler and the
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b) Complex Instruction Set Computer processor. It enables the compiler to extract

c) Complex Intelligence Sensed CPU maximum parallelism in the original code.
d) Complex Instruction Set CPU
9. HLDA stands for _______
C
Answer: b a) High level data

Explanation: CISC is a large instruction set b) High level data acknowledgment
computer. It has variable length instructions. c) Hold Acknowledgement
It also has a variety of addressing modes. d) Hold Data
6. Which of the following processor has a Answer: c

fixed length of instructions? Explanation: The HOLD signal is given to

the CPU whenever an interrupt is to be c) Hard disk

served. If the CPU is ready to give the control d) CD
of the bus, it gives the HLDA command
which is Hold Acknowledgement. Answer: a
Explanation: A flash drive often called as a
10. Word length of a personal computer pen drive enables easy transport of data from
___________ one computer to another. It comes in various
a) 64bits shapes and sizes and may have different
b) 16 bits added features.
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c) 8 bits
d) 32 bits 4. What does USB stand for?
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a) Universal Signal Board
Answer: c b) Universal Signal Bus
C
Explanation: The word length which is the c) Universal Serial Bus
size of a word is generally 8 bits in a personal d) Universal Serial Board
T.
computer. Word Size is generally the number
of bits that can be processed in one go by the Answer: c
CPU. Explanation: USB stands for universal serial
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bus. A flash drive simply plugs in the USB
port of a computer.
1. Winchester disks are a type of _______
a) optical disks
b) magnetic disks
SP
5. A device similar to a flash drive
______________
G
c) compact disks a) Memory card
d) magnetic drives b) Compact drive
LO
c) Compact disk
Answer: b d) Memory disk
Explanation: The regularly spaced electric
pulses per second are referred to as the clock Answer: a
.B
cycles. All the jobs performed by the Explanation: Memory card serves a similar
processor are on the basis of clock cycles. purpose as that of a flash drive. It is in the
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shape of a card. Useful in electronic devices

2. Bernoulli disks are a type of magnetic like Camera, music player, etc.
floppy disks.
a) True 6. What does RAID stand for?
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b) False a) Redundant array of independent disks

b) Redundant array of inexpensive disks
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Answer: b c) Redundant array of intermediate disks

Explanation: Bernoulli disks are a type of d) Redundant array of improper disks
magnetic hard disks and not floppy disks.
They are also called as zip disks. It uses a Answer: a
C
single hard disk platter encased in a plastic Explanation: RAID is Redundant array of
cartidge. independent disks. It is an array of disks
which can store data bits.
3. A plug and play storage device that simply
plugs in the port of a computer is __________ 7. A set of hard disk drives with a controller
a) Flash drive mounted in a single box, forming a single
b) Compact disk large storage unit is ____________

a) Disk array Answer: d

b) Drives Explanation: Flash drives are a type of
c) Compact drives memory storage devices. It is a relatively
d) Multi-cores newer type of secondary storage device which
enables easy transfer of data from one
Answer: a computer to another.
Explanation: The answer is disk array. It is
commonly known as RAID. As a secondary
storage device, provides enhanced 1. The software substituted for hardware and
M
performance, enhanced storage capacity and stored in ROM.
reliability. a) Synchronous Software
O
b) Package Software
8. The process in which a file is partitioned c) Firmware
C
into smaller parts and different parts are d) Middleware
stored in different disks is ____________
T.
a) RAID Answer: c
b) Mirroring Explanation: Software refers to a collection
c) Stripping of programs. Firm wares act as a link between
O
d) RAID classification the hardware and the system. It is stored in
read only memory.
Answer: c
Explanation: Enhanced reliability is achieved
by using techniques like mirroring and
SP
2. Middleware has enabled the production of
various types of smart machines having
G
stripping in case of disk arrays. Stripping is microprocessor chips with embedded
the division of a large file into smaller parts software.
LO
and then storing them on different disks. a) True

b) False
9. Which of the following uses multiple hard
disk platters mounted on a single central Answer: b
.B
shift? Explanation: The statement is false.

a) Disk drives Firmware is designed for this purpose and not
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b) Hard disks middleware. A middleware is for providing

c) Disk packs abstraction in programming.
d) Compact disks
3. A “glue” between client and server parts of
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Answer: c application.
Explanation: Disk packs use a number of a) Middleware
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hard disk platters. Also, they are mounted on b) Firmware

a single central shaft. c) Package
d) System Software
10. Which of the following is not a magnetic
C
disk? Answer: a
a) Floppy Explanation: A middleware acts as a glue
b) Winchester between client and server parts of application.
c) Zip It provides programming abstraction which
d) FLASH means hiding all the relevant details.

4. MOM stands for? 8. A type of middleware that allows for

a) Message oriented middleware between the built-in applications and the real-
b) Mails oriented middleware time OS?
c) Middleware of messages a) Firmware
d) Main object middleware b) Database middleware
c) Portals
Answer: a d) Embedded Middleware
Explanation: MOM is message-oriented
middleware. It is basically responsible for Answer: d
M
sending and receiving messages across Explanation: It is called the embedded
distributed systems. middleware since it activates the
O
communication link between the built-in
5. Storage of firmware is ___________ applications and the real time operating
C
a) Cache Memory system.
b) RAM
T.
c) External 9. What is the other name for object
d) ROM middleware?
a) Object request interface
O
Answer: d b) Object enabled interface
Explanation: Firmware is stored in ROM c) Object Request broker
which is the read only memory. Firmware
basically acts as a link between the hardware
and the system.
SP
d) Object enabled broker
Answer: c
G
Explanation: It is also called as object
6. DNS stands for? request broker. It gives the applications
LO
a) Domain Name System ability to send the objects and receive

b) Direct Name System services through an object.
c) Direct Network System
d) Domain Network System 10. The _______ calls certain procedures on
.B
remote systems and is used to perform

Answer: a synchronous or asynchronous interactions
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Explanation: DNS stands for Domain Name between systems.

System. Domain name system is the way in a) Procedure
which the internet domain names are traced b) RPC
and then translated into IP addresses.
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c) Message Oriented
d) DB
7. A software that lies between the OS and
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the applications running on it. Answer: b

a) Firmware Explanation: It is called the RPC or the
b) Middleware Remote Procedure Call. The functioning is to
c) Utility Software call certain procedures on remote
C
d) Application Software applications. This is generally utilized in a

software application.
Answer: b
Explanation: It is called as middleware.
Middleware enables the interaction between
the Operating System and the applications
running on it.

UNIT II PROCESS 5. In priority scheduling algorithm

____________
MANAGEMENT a) CPU is allocated to the process with
highest priority
1. Which module gives control of the CPU to b) CPU is allocated to the process with lowest
the process selected by the short-term priority
scheduler? c) Equal priority processes can not be
a) dispatcher scheduled
d) None of the mentioned
M
b) interrupt
c) scheduler
d) none of the mentioned Answer: a
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Explanation: None.
Answer: a
C
Explanation: None. 6. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a
process arrives at the ready queue, its priority
T.
2. The processes that are residing in main is compared with the priority of
memory and are ready and waiting to execute ____________
a) all process
O
are kept on a list called _____________
a) job queue b) currently running process
c) parent process
b) ready queue
c) execution queue
d) process queue
SP
d) init process
Answer: b
G
Answer: b Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
LO
7. Which algorithm is defined in Time

3. The interval from the time of submission of quantum?
a process to the time of completion is termed a) shortest job scheduling algorithm
b) round robin scheduling algorithm
.B
as ____________
a) waiting time c) priority scheduling algorithm
b) turnaround time d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm
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c) response time
d) throughput Answer: b
Explanation: None.
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Answer: b
Explanation: None. 8. Process are classified into different groups
in ____________
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4. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the a) shortest job scheduling algorithm

CPU first to the process that requests the CPU b) round robin scheduling algorithm
first? c) priority scheduling algorithm
a) first-come, first-served scheduling d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm
C
b) shortest job scheduling

c) priority scheduling Answer: d
d) none of the mentioned Explanation: None.
Answer: a 9. In multilevel feedback scheduling

Explanation: None. algorithm ____________
a) a process can move to a different classified

ready queue Answer: b

b) classification of ready queue is permanent Explanation: None.
c) processes are not classified into groups
d) none of the mentioned 4. An I/O bound program will typically have
____________
Answer: a a) a few very short CPU bursts
Explanation: None. b) many very short I/O bursts
c) many very short CPU bursts
10. Which one of the following can not be d) a few very short I/O bursts
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scheduled by the kernel?
a) kernel level thread Answer: c
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b) user level thread Explanation: None.
c) process
C
d) none of the mentioned 5. A process is selected from the ______
queue by the ________ scheduler, to be
T.
Answer: b executed.
Explanation: User level threads are managed a) blocked, short term
by thread library and the kernel is unaware of b) wait, long term
O
them. c) ready, short term
d) ready, long term
1. CPU scheduling is the basis of

___________
SP
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
G
a) multiprocessor systems
b) multiprogramming operating systems 6. In the following cases non – preemptive
LO
c) larger memory sized systems scheduling occurs?

d) none of the mentioned a) When a process switches from the running
state to the ready state
Answer: b b) When a process goes from the running
.B
Explanation: None. state to the waiting state

c) When a process switches from the waiting
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2. With multiprogramming ______ is used state to the ready state

productively. d) All of the mentioned
a) time
b) space Answer: b
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c) money Explanation: There is no other choice.

d) all of the mentioned
7. The switching of the CPU from one
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Answer: a process or thread to another is called

Explanation: None. ____________
a) process switch
C
3. What are the two steps of a process b) task switch

execution? c) context switch
a) I/O & OS Burst d) all of the mentioned
b) CPU & I/O Burst
c) Memory & I/O Burst Answer: d
d) OS & Memory Burst Explanation: None.

8. What is Dispatch latency? c) keep the turnaround time same

a) the speed of dispatching a process from d) there is no relation between scheduling and
running to the ready state turnaround time
b) the time of dispatching a process from
running to ready state and keeping the CPU Answer: b
idle Explanation: None.
c) the time to stop one process and start
running another one 13. What is Waiting time?
d) none of the mentioned a) the total time in the blocked and waiting
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queues
Answer: c b) the total time spent in the ready queue
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Explanation: None. c) the total time spent in the running queue
d) the total time from the completion till the
C
9. Scheduling is done so as to ____________ submission of a process
a) increase CPU utilization
T.
b) decrease CPU utilization Answer: b
c) keep the CPU more idle Explanation: None.
d) none of the mentioned
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14. Scheduling is done so as to
Answer: a ____________
Explanation: None.
10. Scheduling is done so as to

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a) increase the waiting time
b) keep the waiting time the same
c) decrease the waiting time
G
____________ d) none of the mentioned
a) increase the throughput
LO
b) decrease the throughput Answer: c

c) increase the duration of a specific amount Explanation: None.
of work
d) none of the mentioned 15. What is Response time?
.B
a) the total time taken from the submission

Answer: a time till the completion time
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Explanation: None. b) the total time taken from the submission

time till the first response is produced
11. What is Turnaround time? c) the total time taken from submission time
a) the total waiting time for a process to finish till the response is output
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execution d) none of the mentioned

b) the total time spent in the ready queue
Answer: b
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c) the total time spent in the running queue

d) the total time from the completion till the Explanation: None.
submission of a process
C
Answer: d 1. Round robin scheduling falls under the

Explanation: None. category of ____________
a) Non-preemptive scheduling
12. Scheduling is done so as to b) Preemptive scheduling
____________ c) All of the mentioned
a) increase the turnaround time d) None of the mentioned
b) decrease the turnaround time

Answer: b c) first executes the job that needs minimal

Explanation: None. processor
d) first executes the job that has maximum
2. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a processor needs
time shared system ____________
a) using very large time slices converts it into Answer: b
First come First served scheduling algorithm Explanation: None.
b) using very small time slices converts it into
First come First served scheduling algorithm 6. The strategy of making processes that are
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c) using extremely small time slices increases logically runnable to be temporarily
performance suspended is called ____________
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d) using very small time slices converts it into a) Non preemptive scheduling
Shortest Job First algorithm b) Preemptive scheduling
C
c) Shortest job first
Answer: a d) First come First served
T.
Explanation: All the processes will be able to
get completed. Answer: b
Explanation: None.
O
3. The portion of the process scheduler in an
operating system that dispatches processes is 7. What is Scheduling?
concerned with ____________
a) assigning ready processes to CPU
b) assigning ready processes to waiting queue
SP
a) allowing a job to use the processor
b) making proper use of processor
c) all of the mentioned
G
c) assigning running processes to blocked d) none of the mentioned
queue
LO
d) all of the mentioned Answer: a

Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: None. 8. There are 10 different processes running on
.B
a workstation. Idle processes are waiting for

4. Complex scheduling algorithms an input event in the input queue. Busy
17
____________ processes are scheduled with the Round-

a) are very appropriate for very large Robin time sharing method. Which out of the
computers following quantum times is the best value for
b) use minimal resources small response times, if the processes have a
-R
c) use many resources short runtime, e.g. less than 10ms?

d) all of the mentioned a) tQ = 15ms
SE
b) tQ = 40ms
Answer: a c) tQ = 45ms
Explanation: Large computers are d) tQ = 50ms
overloaded with a greater number of
C
processes. Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. What is FIFO algorithm?
a) first executes the job that came in last in 9. Orders are processed in the sequence they
the queue arrive if _______ rule sequences the jobs.
b) first executes the job that came in first in a) earliest due date
the queue b) slack time remaining

c) first come, first served II) Preemption may cause starvation. If

d) critical ratio priority based scheduling with preemption is
used, then a low priority process may never
Answer: c get CPU.
Explanation: None. III) Round Robin Scheduling improves
response time as all processes get CPU after a
10. Which of the following algorithms tends specified time.
to minimize the process flow time?
a) First come First served
M
b) Shortest Job First 1. Which is the most optimal scheduling
c) Earliest Deadline First algorithm?
O
d) Longest Job First a) FCFS – First come First served
b) SJF – Shortest Job First
C
Answer: b c) RR – Round Robin
Explanation: None. d) None of the mentioned
T.
11. Under multiprogramming, turnaround Answer: b
time for short jobs is usually ________ and Explanation: None.
O
that for long jobs is slightly ___________
a) Lengthened; Shortened 2. The real difficulty with SJF in short term
b) Shortened; Lengthened
c) Shortened; Shortened
d) Shortened; Unchanged
SP
scheduling is ____________
a) it is too good an algorithm
b) knowing the length of the next CPU
G
request
Answer: b c) it is too complex to understand
LO
Explanation: None. d) none of the mentioned

12. Which of the following statements are Answer: b
true? (GATE 2010) Explanation: None.
.B
I. Shortest remaining time first scheduli 3. The FCFS algorithm is particularly

ng may cause starvation
17
troublesome for ____________

II. Preemptive scheduling may cause starv a) time sharing systems
ation b) multiprogramming systems
c) multiprocessor systems
-R
III. Round robin is better than FCFS in t d) operating systems

erms of response time
SE
Answer: b
a) I only
Explanation: In a time sharing system, each
b) I and III only
c) II and III only user needs to get a share of the CPU at
regular intervals.
C
d) I, II and III
Answer: d 4. Consider the following set of processes, the

Explanation: I) Shortest remaining time first length of the CPU burst time given in
scheduling is a preemptive version of shortest milliseconds.
job scheduling. It may cause starvation as Process Burst time
shorter processes may keep coming and a
long CPU burst process never gets CPU. P1 6

Answer: c
P2 8 Explanation: None.
P3 7
8. What is ‘Aging’?
P4 3 a) keeping track of cache contents
b) keeping track of what pages are currently
Assuming the above process being scheduled residing in memory
with the SJF scheduling algorithm. c) keeping track of how many times a given
a) The waiting time for process P1 is 3ms page is referenced
M
b) The waiting time for process P1 is 0ms d) increasing the priority of jobs to ensure
c) The waiting time for process P1 is 16ms termination in a finite time
O
d) The waiting time for process P1 is 9ms
Answer: d
C
Answer: a Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
T.
9. A solution to the problem of indefinite
5. Preemptive Shortest Job First scheduling is blockage of low – priority processes is
sometimes called ____________ ____________
O
a) Fast SJF scheduling a) Starvation
b) EDF scheduling – Earliest Deadline First b) Wait queue
c) HRRN scheduling – Highest Response
Ratio Next
d) SRTN scheduling – Shortest Remaining
SP
c) Ready queue
d) Aging
G
Time Next Answer: d
Explanation: None.
LO
Answer: d
Explanation: None. 10. Which of the following statements are
true? (GATE 2010)
6. An SJF algorithm is simply a priority
.B
algorithm where the priority is ____________ i) Shortest remaining time first scheduli
ng may cause starvation
a) the predicted next CPU burst
17
b) the inverse of the predicted next CPU burst ii) Preemptive scheduling may cause starv
c) the current CPU burst ation
d) anything the user wants
iii) Round robin is better than FCFS in t
-R
Answer: a erms of response time

Explanation: The larger the CPU burst, the
a) i only
SE
lower the priority.

b) i and iii only
7. Choose one of the disadvantages of the c) ii and iii only
priority scheduling algorithm? d) i, ii and iii
C
a) it schedules in a very complex manner

Answer: d
b) its scheduling takes up a lot of time
Explanation: None.
c) it can lead to some low priority process
waiting indefinitely for the CPU 11. Which of the following scheduling
d) none of the mentioned algorithms gives minimum average waiting
time?
a) FCFS

b) SJF d) kernel remains in the memory during the

c) Round – robin entire computer session
d) Priority
Answer: c
Answer: b Explanation: Kernel is the first program
Explanation: None. which is loaded in memory when OS is
loading as well as it remains in memory till
OS is running. Kernel is the core part of the
1. What is an operating system? OS which is responsible for managing
M
a) collection of programs that manages resources, allowing multiple processes to use
hardware resources the resources and provide services to various
O
b) system service provider to the application processes. Kernel modules can be loaded and
programs unloaded in run-time i.e. in running OS.
C
c) interface between the hardware and
application programs 4. Which one of the following error will be
T.
d) all of the mentioned handle by the operating system?
a) power failure
Answer: d b) lack of paper in printer
O
Explanation: An Operating System acts as an c) connection failure in the network
intermediary between user/user d) all of the mentioned
applications/application programs and
hardware. It is a program that manages
hardware resources. It provides services to
SP
Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned errors are
G
application programs. handled by OS. The OS is continuously
monitoring all of its resources. Also, the OS
LO
2. To access the services of operating system, is constantly detecting and correcting errors.
the interface is provided by the ___________
a) System calls 5. What is the main function of the command
b) API interpreter?
.B
c) Library a) to get and execute the next user-specified

d) Assembly instructions command
17
b) to provide the interface between the API

Answer: a and application program
Explanation: To access services of the c) to handle the files in operating system
Operating System an interface is provided by
-R

the System Calls. Generally, these are
functions written in C and C++. Open, Close, Answer: a
SE
Read, Write are some of most prominently Explanation: The main function of command
used system calls. interpreter is to get and execute the next user-
specified command. Command Interpreter
3. Which one of the following is not true? checks for valid command and then runs that
C
a) kernel is the program that constitutes the command else it will throw an error.
central core of the operating system
b) kernel is the first part of operating system 6. In Operating Systems, which of the
to load into memory during booting following is/are CPU scheduling algorithms?
c) kernel is made of various modules which a) Round Robin
can not be loaded in running operating system b) Shortest Job First

c) Priority b) QNX
d) All of the mentioned c) RTLinux
d) Palm OS
Answer: d
Explanation: In Operating Systems, CPU Answer: d
scheduling algorithms are: Explanation: VxWorks, QNX & RTLinux
i) First Come First Served scheduling are real-time operating systems. Palm OS is a
ii) Shortest Job First scheduling mobile operating system. Palm OS is
iii) Priority scheduling developed for Personal Digital Assistants
M
iv) Round Robin scheduling (PDAs).
v) Multilevel Queue scheduling
O
vi) Multilevel Feedback Queue scheduling 10. The OS X has ____________
All of these scheduling algorithms have their a) monolithic kernel
C
own advantages and disadvantages. b) hybrid kernel
c) microkernel
T.
7. If a process fails, most operating system d) monolithic kernel with modules
write the error information to a ______
a) log file Answer: b
O
b) another running process Explanation: OS X has a hybrid kernel.
c) new file Hybrid kernel is a combination of two
Answer: a
SP
different kernels. OS X is developed by
Apple and originally it is known as Mac OS
X.
G
Explanation: If a process fails, most
operating systems write the error information
LO
to a log file. Log file is examined by the 1. The systems which allow only one process
debugger, to find out what is the actual cause execution at a time, are called __________
of that particular problem. Log file is useful a) uniprogramming systems
b) uniprocessing systems
.B
for system programmers for correcting errors.

c) unitasking systems
8. Which facility dynamically adds probes to d) none of the mentioned
17
a running system, both in user processes and

in the kernel? Answer: b
a) DTrace Explanation: Those systems which allows
more than one process execution at a time,
-R
b) DLocate
c) DMap are called multiprogramming systems.
d) DAdd Uniprocessing means only one processor.
SE
Answer: a 2. In operating system, each process has its

Explanation: A facility that dynamically own __________
adds probes to a running system, both in user a) address space and global variables
C
process and in the kernel is called DTrace. b) open files

This is very much useful in troubleshooting c) pending alarms, signals and signal handlers
kernels in real-time. d) all of the mentioned
9. Which one of the following is not a real Answer: d

time operating system? Explanation: In Operating Systems, each
a) VxWorks process has its own address space which

contains code, data, stack and heap segments means process has all necessary resources
or sections. Each process also has a list of which are required for execution of that
files which is opened by the process as well process when CPU is allocated. Process is
as all pending alarms, signals and various ready for execution but waiting for the CPU
signal handlers. to be allocated.
3. In Unix, Which system call creates the new 6. What is interprocess communication?
process? a) communication within the process
a) fork b) communication between two process
M
b) create c) communication between two threads of
c) new same process
O
d) none of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned
C
Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: In UNIX, a new process is Explanation: Interprocess Communication
T.
created by fork() system call. fork() system (IPC) is a communication mechanism that
call returns a process ID which is generally allows processes to communicate with each
the process id of the child process created. other and synchronise their actions without
O
using the same address space. IPC can be
4. A process can be terminated due to achieved using shared memory and message
__________
a) normal exit
b) fatal error
SP
passing.
7. A set of processes is deadlock if

G
c) killed by another process __________
d) all of the mentioned a) each process is blocked and will remain so
LO
forever
Answer: d b) each process is terminated
Explanation: A process can be terminated c) all processes are trying to kill each other
normally by completing its task or because of
.B

fatal error or killed by another process or
forcefully killed by a user. When the process Answer: a
17
completes its task without any error then it Explanation: Deadlock is a situation which
exits normally. The process may exit occurs because process A is waiting for one
abnormally because of the occurrence of fatal resource and holds another resource (blocking
-R
error while it is running. The process can be resource). At the same time another process B
killed or terminated forcefully by another demands blocking a resource as it is already
process. held by a process A, process B is waiting
SE
state unless and until process A releases

5. What is the ready state of a process? occupied resource.
a) when process is scheduled to run after
some execution 8. A process stack does not contain
C
b) when process is unable to run until some __________

task has been completed a) Function parameters
c) when process is using the CPU b) Local variables
d) none of the mentioned c) Return addresses
d) PID of child process
Answer: a
Explanation: Ready state of the process

Answer: d Answer: c
Explanation: Process stack contains Function Explanation: Process Control Block (PCB)
parameters, Local variables and Return contains information related to a process such
address. It does not contain the PID of child as Process State, Program Counter, CPU
process. Register, etc. Process Control Block is also
known as Task Control Block. Bootstrap
9. Which system call can be used by a parent program is a program which runs initially
process to determine the termination of child when the system or computer is booted or
process? rebooted.
M
a) wait
b) exit 2. The number of processes completed per
O
c) fork unit time is known as __________
d) get a) Output
C
b) Throughput
Answer: a c) Efficiency
T.
Explanation: wait() system call is used by d) Capacity
the parent process to determine termination of
child process. The parent process uses wait() Answer: b
O
system call and gets the exit status of the Explanation: The number of processes
child process as well as the pid of the child completed per unit time is known as
process which is terminated.
10. The address of the next instruction to be

SP
Throughput. Suppose there are 4 processes A,
B, C & D they are taking 1, 3, 4 & 7 units of
time respectively for their executions. For 10
G
executed by the current process is provided units of time, throughput is high if process A,
by the __________ B & C are running first as 3 processes can
LO
a) CPU registers execute. If process C runs first then

b) Program counter throughput is low as maximum only 2
c) Process stack processes can execute. Throughput is low for
.B
d) Pipe processes which take a long time for

execution. Throughput is high for processes
Answer: b which take a short time for execution.
17
Explanation: The address of the next

instruction to be executed by the current 3. The state of a process is defined by
process is provided by the Program Counter. __________
-R
After every instruction is executed, the a) the final activity of the process
Program Counter is incremented by 1 i.e. b) the activity just executed by the process
address of the next instruction to be executed. c) the activity to next be executed by the
SE
CPU fetches instruction from the address process

denoted by Program Counter and execute it. d) the current activity of the process
Answer: d
C
1. A Process Control Block(PCB) does not Explanation: The state of a process is

contain which of the following? defined by the current activity of the process.
a) Code A process state changes when the process
b) Stack executes. The process states are as New,
c) Bootstrap program Ready, Running, Wait, Terminated.
d) Data

4. Which of the following is not the state of a c) the number of processes in the I/O queue
process? d) the number of processes in memory
a) New
b) Old Answer: d
c) Waiting Explanation: Multiprogramming means the
d) Running number of processes are in the ready states.
To increase utilization of CPU,
Answer: b Multiprogramming is one of the most
Explanation: There is no process state such important abilities of OS. Generally, a single
M
as old. When a process is created then the process cannot use CPU or I/O at all time,
process is in New state. When the process whenever CPU or I/O is available another
O
gets the CPU for its execution then the process can use it. By doing this CPU
process is in Running state. When the process utilization is increased.
C
is waiting for an external event then the
process is in a Waiting state. 8. A single thread of control allows the
T.
process to perform __________
5. What is a Process Control Block? a) only one task at a time
a) Process type variable b) multiple tasks at a time
O
b) Data Structure c) only two tasks at a time
c) A secondary storage section d) all of the mentioned
d) A Block in memory
Answer: b
SP
Answer: a
Explanation: A single thread of control
G
Explanation: A Process Control Block (PCB) allows the process to perform only one task at
is a data structure. It contains information a time. In the case of multi-core, multiple
LO
related to a process such as Process State, threads can be run simultaneously and can
Program Counter, CPU Register, etc. Process perform multiple tasks at a time.
Control Block is also known as Task Control
9. What is the objective of
.B
Block.
multiprogramming?
6. The entry of all the PCBs of the current a) Have a process running at all time
17
processes is in __________ b) Have multiple programs waiting in a queue

a) Process Register ready to run
b) Program Counter c) To increase CPU utilization
-R
c) Process Table d) None of the mentioned

d) Process Unit
Answer: c
SE
Answer: c Explanation: The objective of

Explanation: The entry of all the PCBs of the multiprogramming is to increase CPU
current processes is in Process Table. The utilization. Generally, a single process cannot
Process Table has the status of each and every use CPU or I/O at all time, whenever CPU or
C
process that is created in OS along with their I/O is available another process can use it.
PIDs. Multiprogramming offers this ability to OS
by keeping multiple programs in a ready
7. What is the degree of multiprogramming? queue.
a) the number of processes executed per unit
time
b) the number of processes in the ready queue

1. Which of the following do not belong to 4. What is a long-term scheduler?

queues for processes? a) It selects processes which have to be
a) Job Queue brought into the ready queue
b) PCB queue b) It selects processes which have to be
c) Device Queue executed next and allocates CPU
d) Ready Queue c) It selects processes which heave to remove
from memory by swapping
Answer: b d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: PCB queue does not belong to
M
queues for processes. PCB is a process Answer: a
control block which contains information Explanation: A long-term scheduler selects
O
related to process. Each process is processes which have to be brought into the
represented by PCB. ready queue. When processes enter the
C
system, they are put in the job queue. Long-
2. When the process issues an I/O request term scheduler selects processes from the job
T.
__________ queue and puts them in the ready queue. It is
a) It is placed in an I/O queue also known as Job Scheduler.
b) It is placed in a waiting queue
O
c) It is placed in the ready queue 5. If all processes I/O bound, the ready queue
d) It is placed in the Job queue will almost always be ______ and the Short
Answer: a
Explanation: When the process issues an I/O
SP
term Scheduler will have a ______ to do.
a) full, little
b) full, lot
G
request it is placed in an I/O queue. I/O is a c) empty, little
resource and it should be used effectively and d) empty, lot
LO
every process should get access to it. There

might be multiple processes which requested Answer: c
for I/O. Depending on scheduling algorithm Explanation: If all processes are I/O bound,
.B
I/O is allocated to any particular process and the ready queue will almost empty and the
after completing I/O operation, I/O access is short-term scheduler will have a little to do.
returned to the OS. I/O bound processes spend more time doing
17
I/O than computation.

3. What will happen when a process
terminates? 6. What is a medium-term scheduler?
-R
a) It is removed from all queues a) It selects which process has to be brought

b) It is removed from all, but the job queue into the ready queue
c) Its process control block is de-allocated b) It selects which process has to be executed
SE
d) Its process control block is never de- next and allocates CPU
allocated c) It selects which process to remove from
memory by swapping
Answer: a d) None of the mentioned
C
Explanation: When a process terminates, it

removes from all queues. All allocated Answer: c
resources to that particular process are Explanation: A medium-term scheduler
deallocated and all those resources are selects which process to remove from
returned back to OS. memory by swapping. The medium-term
scheduler swapped out the process and later

swapped in. Swapping helps to free up 10. In a time-sharing operating system, when
memory. the time slot given to a process is completed,
the process goes from the running state to the
7. What is a short-term scheduler? __________
a) It selects which process has to be brought a) Blocked state
into the ready queue b) Ready state
b) It selects which process has to be executed c) Suspended state
next and allocates CPU d) Terminated state
c) It selects which process to remove from
M
memory by swapping Answer: b
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: In a time-sharing operating
O
system, when the time slot given to a process
Answer: b is completed, the process goes from the
C
Explanation: A short-term scheduler selects running state to the Ready State. In a time-
a process which has to be executed next and sharing operating system unit time is defined
T.
allocates CPU. Short-term scheduler selects a for sharing CPU, it is called a time quantum
process from the ready queue. It selects or time slice. If a process takes less than 1
processes frequently.
O
time quantum, then the process itself releases
the CPU.
8. The primary distinction between the short
term scheduler and the long term scheduler is
__________
a) The length of their queues
SP
11. In a multiprogramming environment
__________
a) the processor executes more than one
G
b) The type of processes they schedule process at a time
c) The frequency of their execution b) the programs are developed by more than
LO
d) None of the mentioned one person

c) more than one process resides in the
Answer: c memory
Explanation: The primary distinction
.B
d) a single user can execute many programs at

between the short-term scheduler and long- the same time
term scheduler is the frequency of their
17
execution. Short-term scheduler executes Answer: c

frequently while long-term scheduler Explanation: In a multiprogramming
executes much less frequently. environment more than one process resides in
-R
the memory. Whenever a CPU is available,

9. The only state transition that is initiated by one process amongst all present in memory
the user process itself is __________ gets the CPU for execution.
SE
a) block Multiprogramming increases CPU utilization.

b) wakeup
c) dispatch 12. Suppose that a process is in “Blocked”
d) none of the mentioned state waiting for some I/O service. When the
C
service is completed, it goes to the

Answer: a __________
Explanation: The only state transition that is a) Running state
initiated by the user process itself is block. b) Ready state
Whenever a user process initiates an I/O c) Suspended state
request it goes into block state unless and d) Terminated state
until the I/O request is not completed.

Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: Suppose that a process is in Explanation: Scheduler process does not
“Blocked” state waiting for some I/O service. interrupt a running process. Scheduler process
When the service is completed, it goes to the selects an available process from a pool of
ready state. Process never goes directly to the available processes and allocates CPU to it.
running state from the waiting state. Only
processes which are in ready state go to the
running state whenever CPU allocated by 1. Which process can be affected by other
operating system. processes executing in the system?
M
a) cooperating process
13. The context of a process in the PCB of a b) child process
O
process does not contain __________ c) parent process
a) the value of the CPU registers d) init process
C
b) the process state
c) memory-management information Answer: a
T.
d) context switch time Explanation: None.
Answer: d 2. When several processes access the same
O
Explanation: The context of a process in the data concurrently and the outcome of the
PCB of a process does not contain context execution depends on the particular order in
switch time. When switching CPU from one
process to another, the current context of the
process needs to be saved. It includes values
SP
which the access takes place, is called?
a) dynamic condition
b) race condition
G
of the CPU registers, process states, memory- c) essential condition
management information. d) critical condition
LO
14. Which of the following need not Answer: b

necessarily be saved on a context switch Explanation: None.
.B
between processes?
a) General purpose registers 3. If a process is executing in its critical
b) Translation lookaside buffer section, then no other processes can be
17
c) Program counter executing in their critical section. This

d) All of the mentioned condition is called?
a) mutual exclusion
b) critical exclusion
-R
Answer: b
Explanation: Translation Look-aside Buffer c) synchronous exclusion
(TLB) need not necessarily be saved on a d) asynchronous exclusion
SE
context switch between processes. A special,

small, fast-lookup hardware cache is called Answer: a
Translation Look-aside Buffer. TLB used to Explanation: None.
reduce memory access time.
C
4. Which one of the following is a

15. Which of the following does not interrupt synchronization tool?
a running process? a) thread
a) A device b) pipe
b) Timer c) semaphore
c) Scheduler process d) socket
d) Power failure

Answer: c 9. A monitor is a module that encapsulates

Explanation: None. __________
a) shared data structures
5. A semaphore is a shared integer variable b) procedures that operate on shared data
__________ structure
a) that can not drop below zero c) synchronization between concurrent
b) that can not be more than zero procedure invocation
c) that can not drop below one d) all of the mentioned
d) that can not be more than one
M
Answer: d
O
Explanation: None.
10. To enable a process to wait within the
C
6. Mutual exclusion can be provided by the monitor __________
__________ a) a condition variable must be declared as
T.
a) mutex locks condition
b) binary semaphores b) condition variables must be used as
c) both mutex locks and binary semaphores boolean objects
O
d) none of the mentioned c) semaphore must be used
Answer: c
Explanation: Binary Semaphores are known
as mutex locks.
SP
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
G
7. When high priority task is indirectly
LO
preempted by medium priority task 1. Restricting the child process to a subset of

effectively inverting the relative priority of the parent’s resources prevents any process
the two tasks, the scenario is called from __________
__________ a) overloading the system by using a lot of
.B
a) priority inversion secondary storage

b) priority removal b) under-loading the system by very less CPU
17
c) priority exchange utilization

d) priority modification c) overloading the system by creating a lot of
sub-processes
Answer: a
-R
d) crashing the system by utilizing multiple

Explanation: None. resources
8. Process synchronization can be done on
SE
Answer: c
__________ Explanation: None.
a) hardware level
b) software level 2. A parent process calling _____ system call
C
c) both hardware and software level will be suspended until children processes
d) none of the mentioned terminate.
a) wait
Answer: c b) fork
Explanation: None. c) exit
d) exec

Answer: a 7. The child process can __________

Explanation: None. a) be a duplicate of the parent process
b) never be a duplicate of the parent process
3. Cascading termination refers to termination c) cannot have another program loaded into it
of all child processes before the parent d) never have another program loaded into it
terminates ______
a) Normally Answer: a
b) Abnormally Explanation: None.
c) Normally or abnormally
M
d) None of the mentioned 8. The child process completes execution, but
the parent keeps executing, then the child
O
Answer: a process is known as __________
Explanation: None. a) Orphan
C
b) Zombie
4. With _____________ only one process can c) Body
T.
execute at a time; meanwhile all other process d) Dead
are waiting for the processor. With
______________ more than one process can Answer: b
O
be running simultaneously each on a different Explanation: None.
processor.
a) Multiprocessing, Multiprogramming
b) Multiprogramming, Uniprocessing
c) Multiprogramming, Multiprocessing
SP
1. What is Inter process communication?
a) allows processes to communicate and
G
d) Uniprogramming, Multiprocessing synchronize their actions when using the
same address space
LO
Answer: d b) allows processes to communicate and

Explanation: None. synchronize their actions without using the
same address space
5. In UNIX, each process is identified by its c) allows the processes to only synchronize
.B
__________ their actions without communication

a) Process Control Block d) none of the mentioned
17
b) Device Queue
c) Process Identifier Answer: b
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: None.
-R
Answer: c 2. Message passing system allows processes

Explanation: None. to __________
SE
a) communicate with one another without

6. In UNIX, the return value for the fork resorting to shared data
system call is _____ for the child process and b) communicate with one another by resorting
_____ for the parent process. to shared data
C
a) A Negative integer, Zero c) share data

b) Zero, A Negative integer d) name the recipient or sender of the
c) Zero, A nonzero integer message
d) A nonzero integer, Zero
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.

3. Which of the following two operations are a) there is another process R to handle and
provided by the IPC facility? pass on the messages between P and Q
a) write & delete message b) there is another machine between the two
b) delete & receive message processes to help communication
c) send & delete message c) there is a mailbox to help communication
d) receive & send message between P and Q
Answer: d
Explanation: None. Answer: c
M
Explanation: None.
4. Messages sent by a process __________
O
a) have to be of a fixed size 8. In the non blocking send __________
b) have to be a variable size a) the sending process keeps sending until the
C
c) can be fixed or variable sized message is received
d) None of the mentioned b) the sending process sends the message and
T.
resumes operation
Answer: c c) the sending process keeps sending until it
Explanation: None. receives a message
O
5. The link between two processes P and Q to
send and receive messages is called
__________
a) communication link
SP
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
G
b) message-passing link 9. In the Zero capacity queue __________
c) synchronization link a) the queue can store at least one message
LO
d) all of the mentioned b) the sender blocks until the receiver

receives the message
Answer: a c) the sender keeps sending and the messages
Explanation: None. don’t wait in the queue
.B

6. Which of the following are TRUE for
17
direct communication? Answer: b

a) A communication link can be associated Explanation: None.
with N number of process(N = max. number
of processes supported by system) 10. The Zero Capacity queue __________
-R
b) A communication link can be associated a) is referred to as a message system with

with exactly two processes buffering
SE
c) Exactly N/2 links exist between each pair b) is referred to as a message system with no
of processes(N = max. number of processes buffering
supported by system) c) is referred to as a link
d) Exactly two link exists between each pair d) none of the mentioned
C
of processes
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
11. Bounded capacity and Unbounded
7. In indirect communication between capacity queues are referred to as
processes P and Q __________ __________

a) Programmed buffering c) Bounded Waiting

b) Automatic buffering d) All of the mentioned
c) User defined buffering
d) No buffering Answer: d
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
Explanation: None. 5. Mutual exclusion implies that
____________
a) if a process is executing in its critical
M
1. Concurrent access to shared data may section, then no other process must be
result in ____________ executing in their critical sections
O
a) data consistency b) if a process is executing in its critical
b) data insecurity section, then other processes must be
C
c) data inconsistency executing in their critical sections
d) none of the mentioned c) if a process is executing in its critical
T.
section, then all the resources of the system
Answer: c must be blocked until it finishes execution
O
2. A situation where several processes access Answer: a
and manipulate the same data concurrently
and the outcome of the execution depends on
the particular order in which access takes
SP
Explanation: None.
6. Bounded waiting implies that there exists a

G
place is called ____________ bound on the number of times a process is
a) data consistency allowed to enter its critical section
LO
b) race condition ____________

c) aging a) after a process has made a request to enter
d) starvation its critical section and before the request is
granted
.B
Answer: b b) when another process is in its critical

Explanation: None. section
17
c) before a process has made a request to

3. The segment of code in which the process enter its critical section
may change common variables, update tables, d) none of the mentioned
write into files is known as ____________
-R
a) program Answer: a
b) critical section Explanation: None.
SE
c) non – critical section

d) synchronizing 7. A minimum of _____ variable(s) is/are
required to be shared between processes to
Answer: b solve the critical section problem.
C
Explanation: None. a) one

b) two
4. Which of the following conditions must be c) three
satisfied to solve the critical section problem? d) four
a) Mutual Exclusion
b) Progress Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. In the bakery algorithm to solve the critical a) wait

section problem ____________ b) stop
a) each process is put into a queue and picked c) hold
up in an ordered manner d) none of the mentioned
b) each process receives a number (may or
may not be unique) and the one with the Answer: a
lowest number is served next Explanation: None.
c) each process gets a unique number and the
one with the highest number is served next 5. What are Spinlocks?
M
d) each process gets a unique number and the a) CPU cycles wasting locks over critical
one with the lowest number is served next sections of programs
O
b) Locks that avoid time wastage in context
Answer: b switches
C
Explanation: None. c) Locks that work better on multiprocessor
systems
T.
d) All of the mentioned
1. An un-interruptible unit is known as
____________ Answer: d
O
a) single Explanation: None.
b) atomic
c) static
SP
6. What is the main disadvantage of
spinlocks?
a) they are not sufficient for many process
G
Answer: b b) they require busy waiting
Explanation: None. c) they are unreliable sometimes
LO
d) they are too complex for programmers

2. TestAndSet instruction is executed
____________ Answer: b
a) after a particular process Explanation: None.
.B
b) periodically
c) atomically 7. The wait operation of the semaphore
17
d) none of the mentioned basically works on the basic _______ system

call.
Answer: c a) stop()
Explanation: None. b) block()
-R
c) hold()
3. Semaphore is a/an _______ to solve the d) wait()
SE
critical section problem.

a) hardware for a system Answer: b
b) special program for a system Explanation: None.
c) integer variable
C
d) none of the mentioned 8. The signal operation of the semaphore

basically works on the basic _______ system
Answer: c call.
Explanation: None. a) continue()
b) wakeup()
4. What are the two atomic operations c) getup()
permissible on semaphores? d) start()

Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Process P2
9. If the semaphore value is negative wait(S2);
____________
a) its magnitude is the number of processes release(S0);
waiting on that semaphore
b) it is invalid How many times will P0 print ‘0’?
c) no operation can be further performed on it a) At least twice
M
until the signal operation is performed on it b) Exactly twice
d) none of the mentioned c) Exactly thrice
O
d) Exactly once
Answer: a
C
Explanation: None. Answer: a
Explanation: None.
T.
10. The code that changes the value of the
semaphore is ____________ 12. Each process Pi, i = 0,1,2,3,……,9 is
a) remainder section code coded as follows.
O
b) non – critical section code
repeat
c) critical section code
Answer: c
SP
P(mutex)
{Critical Section}
G
Explanation: None.
V(mutex)
LO
11. The following program consists of 3

forever
concurrent processes and 3 binary
semaphores. The semaphores are initialized The code for P10 is identical except that it
as S0 = 1, S1 = 0, S2 = 0.
.B
uses V(mutex) instead of P(mutex). What is

the largest number of processes that can be
Process P0
inside the critical section at any moment (the
17
while(true) mutex being initialized to 1)?

a) 1
{ b) 2
-R
c) 3
wait(S0);
print '0';
SE
Answer: c
release(S1); Explanation: Any one of the 9 processes can
get into critical section after executing
release(S2);
P(mutex) which decrements the mutex value
C
} to 0. At this time P10 can enter critical

section by incrementing the value to 1. Now
any of the 9 processes can enter the critical
Process P1 section by again decrementing the mutex
wait(S1);
value to 0. None of the remaining processes
can get into their critical sections.
release(S0);

13. Two processes, P1 and P2, need to access Answer: d

a critical section of code. Consider the Explanation: None.
following synchronization construct used by
the processes.
1. What will happen if a non-recursive mutex
Process P1 : is locked more than once?
a) Starvation
while(true)
b) Deadlock
c) Aging
M
{
d) Signaling
w1 = true;
O
Answer: b
while(w2 == true); Explanation: If a thread which had already
C
Critical section locked a mutex, tries to lock the mutex again,
it will enter into the waiting list of that mutex,
T.
w1 = false; which results in a deadlock. It is because no
other thread can unlock the mutex.
}
O
2. What is a semaphore?
Remainder Section
a) is a binary mutex
Process P2 :
SP
b) must be accessed from only one process
c) can be accessed from multiple processes
G
while(true)
Answer: c
LO
{
Explanation: None.
w2 = true;
3. What are the two kinds of semaphores?
while(w1 == true); a) mutex & counting
.B
b) binary & counting

Critical section
c) counting & decimal
17
w2 = false; d) decimal & binary
} Answer: b
Explanation: None.
-R
Remainder Section
4. What is a mutex?
Here, w1 and w2 have shared variables,
a) is a binary mutex
SE
which are initialized to false. Which one of

b) must be accessed from only one process
the following statements is TRUE about the c) can be accessed from multiple processes
above construct? d) none of the mentioned
C
a) It does not ensure mutual exclusion

b) It does not ensure bounded waiting Answer: b
c) It requires that processes enter the critical Explanation: None.
section in strict alternation
d) It does not prevent deadlocks but ensures 5. At a particular time of computation the
mutual exclusion value of a counting semaphore is 7.Then 20 P
operations and 15 V operations were

completed on this semaphore. The resulting b) three

value of the semaphore is? (GATE 1987) c) four
a) 42 d) eight
b) 2
c) 7 Answer: c
d) 12 Explanation: Here are the possible ways in
which statements from A and B can be
Answer: b interleaved.
Explanation: P represents Wait and V A1 A2 B1 B2: X = 11
M
represents Signal. P operation will decrease A1 B1 A2 B2: X = 6
the value by 1 every time and V operation A1 B1 B2 A2: X = 10
O
will increase the value by 1 every time. B1 A1 B2 A2: X = 10
B1 A1 A2 B2: X = 6
C
6. A binary semaphore is a semaphore with B1 B2 A1 A2: X = 12.
integer values ____________
T.
a) 1 8. The program follows to use a shared binary
b) -1 semaphore T.
c) 0.8
O
d) 0.5 Process A
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
SP
int Y;
A1: Y = X*2;
G
7. The following pair of processes share a A2: X = Y;
common variable X.
LO
signal(T);
Process A
int Y; Process B
.B
A1: Y = X*2; int Z;
B1: wait(T);
17
A2: X = Y;
B2: Z = X+1;
Process B
-R
X = Z;
int Z;
T is set to 0 before either process begins
B1: Z = X+1; execution and, as before, X is set to 5.
SE
Now, how many different values of X are

B2: X = Z;
possible after both processes finish
executing?
X is set to 5 before either process begins
C
a) one
execution. As usual, statements within a
process are executed sequentially, but b) two
statements in process A may execute in any c) three
order with respect to statements in process B. d) four
How many different values of X are possible
Answer: a
after both processes finish executing?
Explanation: The semaphore T ensures that
a) two

all the statements from A finish execution 3. In the bounded buffer problem
before B begins. So now there is only one ____________
way in which statements from A and B can be a) there is only one buffer
interleaved: b) there are n buffers ( n being greater than
A1 A2 B1 B2: X = 11. one but finite)
c) there are infinite buffers
9. Semaphores are mostly used to implement d) the buffer size is bounded
____________
a) System calls Answer: b
M
b) IPC mechanisms Explanation: None.
c) System protection
O
d) None of the mentioned 4. To ensure difficulties do not arise in the
readers – writers problem _______ are given
C
Answer: b exclusive access to the shared object.
Explanation: None. a) readers
T.
b) writers
10. Spinlocks are intended to provide c) readers and writers
__________ only. d) none of the mentioned
O
a) Mutual Exclusion
b) Bounded Waiting Answer: b
c) Aging
d) Progress
SP
Explanation: None.
5. The dining – philosophers problem will

G
Answer: b occur in case of ____________
Explanation: None. a) 5 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
LO
b) 4 philosophers and 5 chopsticks

c) 3 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
1. The bounded buffer problem is also known d) 6 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
as ____________
.B
a) Readers – Writers problem Answer: a

b) Dining – Philosophers problem Explanation: None.
17
c) Producer – Consumer problem

d) None of the mentioned 6. A deadlock free solution to the dining
philosophers problem ____________
Answer: c a) necessarily eliminates the possibility of
-R
Explanation: None. starvation

b) does not necessarily eliminate the
2. In the bounded buffer problem, there are
SE
possibility of starvation
the empty and full semaphores that c) eliminates any possibility of any kind of
____________ problem further
a) count the number of empty and full buffers d) none of the mentioned
C
b) count the number of empty and full

memory spaces Answer: b
c) count the number of empty and full queues Explanation: None.
7. All processes share a semaphore variable
Answer: a mutex, initialized to 1. Each process must
Explanation: None. execute wait(mutex) before entering the

critical section and signal(mutex) afterward. 9. Consider the methods used by processes P1
Suppose a process executes in the following and P2 for accessing their critical sections
manner. whenever needed, as given below. The initial
values of shared boolean variables S1 and S2
signal(mutex); are randomly assigned. (GATE 2010)
..... Method used by P1 :
critical section while(S1==S2);
M
..... Critical section
O
wait(mutex); S1 = S2;
In this situation :
C
a) a deadlock will occur Method used by P2 :
T.
b) processes will starve to enter critical
section while(S1!=S2);
c) several processes maybe executing in their Critical section
O
critical section
d) all of the mentioned S2 = not(S1);
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
SP
Which of the following statements describes
properties achieved?
G
a) Mutual exclusion but not progress
8. All processes share a semaphore variable b) Progress but not mutual exclusion
LO
mutex, initialized to 1. Each process must c) Neither mutual exclusion nor progress
execute wait(mutex) before entering the d) Both mutual exclusion and progress
critical section and signal(mutex) afterward.
Suppose a process executes in the following Answer: d
.B
manner. Explanation: None.
wait(mutex);
17
1. A monitor is a type of ____________

.....
a) semaphore
critical section b) low level synchronization construct
-R
c) high level synchronization construct

..... d) none of the mentioned
SE
wait(mutex); Answer: c
Explanation: None.
a) a deadlock will occur
b) processes will starve to enter critical 2. A monitor is characterized by
C
section ____________
c) several processes maybe executing in their a) a set of programmer defined operators
critical section b) an identifier
d) all of the mentioned c) the number of variables in it
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.
3. A procedure defined within a ________ 7. If no process is suspended, the signal

can access only those variables declared operation ____________
locally within the _______ and its formal a) puts the system into a deadlock state
parameters. b) suspends some default process execution
a) process, semaphore c) nothing happens
b) process, monitor d) the output is unpredictable
M
c) semaphore, semaphore
d) monitor, monitor Answer: c
O
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
C
Explanation: None.
1. A collection of instructions that performs a
T.
4. The monitor construct ensures that single logical function is called
____________ ____________
a) only one process can be active at a time a) transaction
O
within the monitor b) operation
b) n number of processes can be active at a c) function
time within the monitor (n being greater than
1)
c) the queue has only one process in it at a
SP
Answer: a
G
time Explanation: None.
LO
2. A terminated transaction that has

Answer: a completed its execution successfully is
Explanation: None. ____________ otherwise it is __________
a) committed, destroyed
.B
5. What are the operations that can be b) aborted, destroyed

invoked on a condition variable? c) committed, aborted
17
a) wait & signal d) none of the mentioned

b) hold & wait
c) signal & hold Answer: c
d) continue & signal Explanation: None.
-R
Answer: a 3. The state of the data accessed by an

aborted transaction must be restored to what
SE
Explanation: None.
it was just before the transaction started
6. Which is the process of invoking the wait executing. This restoration is known as
operation? ________ of transaction.
C
a) suspended until another process invokes a) safety

the signal operation b) protection
b) waiting for another process to complete c) roll – back
before it can itself call the signal operation d) revert – back
c) stopped until the next process in the queue
finishes execution Answer: c

4. Write ahead logging is a way 8. The system periodically performs

____________ checkpoints that consists of the following
a) to ensure atomicity operation(s) ____________
b) to keep data consistent a) Putting all the log records currently in main
c) that records data on stable storage memory onto stable storage
d) all of the mentioned b) putting all modified data residing in main
memory onto stable storage
Answer: d c) putting a log record onto stable storage
Explanation: None. d) all of the mentioned
M
5. In the write ahead logging a Answer: d
O
_____________ is maintained. Explanation: None.
a) a memory
C
b) a system 9. Consider a transaction T1 that committed
c) a disk prior to checkpoint. The <T1 commits>
T.
d) a log record record appears in the log before the
<checkpoint> record. Any modifications
Answer: d made by T1 must have been written to the
O
Explanation: None. stable storage either with the checkpoint or
prior to it. Thus at recovery time
6. An actual update is not allowed to a data
item ____________
a) before the corresponding log record is
SP
____________
a) There is a need to perform an undo
operation on T1
G
written out to stable storage b) There is a need to perform a redo operation
b) after the corresponding log record is on T1
LO
written out to stable storage c) There is no need to perform an undo and

c) until the whole log record has been redo operation on T1
checked for inconsistencies d) All of the mentioned
.B
Answer: c
17
Explanation: None.
10. Serializable schedules are ones where
7. The undo and redo operations must be ____________
_________ to guarantee correct behaviour,
-R
a) concurrent execution of transactions is

even if a failure occurs during recovery equivalent to the transactions executed
process. serially
SE
a) idempotent b) the transactions can be carried out one after

b) easy the other
c) protected c) a valid result occurs after execution
d) all of the mentioned transactions
C

Answer: a
Explanation: Idempotent – Multiple Answer: a
executions of an operation have the same Explanation: None.
result as does one execution.
11. A locking protocol is one that
____________

a) governs how locks are acquired I) 2-phase locking

b) governs how locks are released II) Timestamp ordering
c) governs how locks are acquired and a) I only
released b) II only
d) none of the mentioned c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II
Answer: c
Explanation: None. Answer: b
Explanation: None.
M
12. The two phase locking protocol consists
of ____________
O
a) growing & shrinking phase 1. What is a reusable resource?
b) shrinking & creation phase a) that can be used by one process at a time
C
c) creation & growing phase and is not depleted by that use
d) destruction & creation phase b) that can be used by more than one process
T.
at a time
Answer: a c) that can be shared between various threads
O
13. The growing phase is a phase in which? Answer: a
a) A transaction may obtain locks, but does
not release any
b) A transaction may obtain locks, and
SP
Explanation: None.
2. Which of the following condition is

G
releases a few or all of them required for a deadlock to be possible?
c) A transaction may release locks, but does a) mutual exclusion
LO
not obtain any new locks b) a process may hold allocated resources
d) A transaction may release locks, and does while awaiting assignment of other resources
obtain new locks c) no resource can be forcibly removed from
a process holding it
.B
Answer: a d) all of the mentioned

Explanation: None.
17
Answer: d
14. The shrinking phase is a phase in which? Explanation: None.
a) A transaction may obtain locks, but does
not release any 3. A system is in the safe state if
-R
b) A transaction may obtain locks, and ____________

releases a few or all of them a) the system can allocate resources to each
SE
c) A transaction may release locks, but does process in some order and still avoid a
not obtain any new locks deadlock
d) A transaction may release locks, and does b) there exist a safe sequence
obtain new locks c) all of the mentioned
C

Answer: c
Explanation: None.
15. Which of the following concurrency
control protocols ensure both conflict 4. The circular wait condition can be
serializability and freedom from deadlock? prevented by ____________

a) defining a linear ordering of resource types Answer: b

b) using thread Explanation: None.
c) using pipes
d) all of the mentioned 9. Which one of the following is a visual (
mathematical ) way to determine the deadlock
Answer: a occurrence?
Explanation: None. a) resource allocation graph
b) starvation graph
5. Which one of the following is the deadlock c) inversion graph
M
avoidance algorithm? d) none of the mentioned
a) banker’s algorithm
O
b) round-robin algorithm Answer: a
c) elevator algorithm Explanation: None.
C
d) karn’s algorithm
10. To avoid deadlock ____________
T.
Answer: a a) there must be a fixed number of resources
Explanation: None. to allocate
b) resource allocation must be done only once
O
6. What is the drawback of banker’s c) all deadlocked processes must be aborted
algorithm? d) inversion technique can be used
a) in advance processes rarely know how
much resource they will need
b) the number of processes changes as time
SP
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
G
progresses
c) resource once available can disappear
LO
d) all of the mentioned 1. The number of resources requested by a

process ____________
Answer: d a) must always be less than the total number
Explanation: None. of resources available in the system
.B
b) must always be equal to the total number

7. For an effective operating system, when to of resources available in the system
17
check for deadlock? c) must not exceed the total number of

a) every time a resource request is made resources available in the system
b) at fixed time intervals d) must exceed the total number of resources
c) every time a resource request is made at available in the system
-R
fixed time intervals

d) none of the mentioned Answer: c
SE
Explanation: None.
Answer: c
Explanation: None. 2. The request and release of resources are
___________
C
8. A problem encountered in multitasking a) command line statements

when a process is perpetually denied b) interrupts
necessary resources is called ____________ c) system calls
a) deadlock d) special programs
b) starvation
c) inversion Answer: c
d) aging Explanation: None.

3. What are Multithreaded programs? resources

a) lesser prone to deadlocks d) None of the mentioned
b) more prone to deadlocks
c) not at all prone to deadlocks Answer: b
Answer: b 7. Deadlock prevention is a set of methods

Explanation: Multiple threads can compete ____________
for shared resources. a) to ensure that at least one of the necessary
M
conditions cannot hold
4. For a deadlock to arise, which of the b) to ensure that all of the necessary
O
following conditions must hold conditions do not hold
simultaneously? c) to decide if the requested resources for a
C
a) Mutual exclusion process have to be given or not
b) No preemption d) to recover from a deadlock
T.
c) Hold and wait
d) All of the mentioned Answer: a
Explanation: None.
O
Answer: d
Explanation: None. 8. For non sharable resources like a printer,
5. For Mutual exclusion to prevail in the

system ____________
SP
mutual exclusion ____________
a) must exist
b) must not exist
G
a) at least one resource must be held in a non c) may exist
sharable mode d) none of the mentioned
LO
b) the processor must be a uniprocessor rather

than a multiprocessor Answer: a
c) there must be at least one resource in a Explanation: A printer cannot be
sharable mode simultaneously shared by several processes.
.B

9. For sharable resources, mutual exclusion
17
Answer: a ____________
Explanation: If another process requests that a) is required
resource (non – shareable resource), the b) is not required
requesting process must be delayed until the c) may be or may not be required
-R
resource has been released. d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
SE
6. For a Hold and wait condition to prevail

____________ Explanation: They do not require mutually
a) A process must be not be holding a exclusive access, and hence cannot be
resource, but waiting for one to be freed, and involved in a deadlock.
C
then request to acquire it

b) A process must be holding at least one 10. To ensure that the hold and wait condition
resource and waiting to acquire additional never occurs in the system, it must be ensured
resources that are being held by other that ____________
processes a) whenever a resource is requested by a
c) A process must hold at least one resource process, it is not holding any other resources
and not be waiting to acquire additional b) each process must request and be allocated

all its resources before it begins its execution at a time

c) a process can request resources only when d) all of the mentioned
it has none
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
Explanation: c – A process may request
some resources and use them. Before it can 1. Each request requires that the system
can request any additional resources, however consider the _____________ to decide
M
it must release all the resources that it is whether the current request can be satisfied or
currently allocated. must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.
O
a) resources currently available
11. The disadvantage of a process being b) processes that have previously been in the
C
allocated all its resources before beginning its system
execution is ____________ c) resources currently allocated to each
T.
a) Low CPU utilization process
b) Low resource utilization d) future requests and releases of each
c) Very high resource utilization process
O
Answer: a
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
SP
Explanation: None.
2. Given a priori information about the

G
12. To ensure no preemption, if a process is ________ number of resources of each type
holding some resources and requests another that maybe requested for each process, it is
LO
resource that cannot be immediately allocated possible to construct an algorithm that

to it ____________ ensures that the system will never enter a
a) then the process waits for the resources be deadlock state.
allocated to it a) minimum
.B
b) the process keeps sending requests until b) average

the resource is allocated to it c) maximum
17
c) the process resumes execution without the d) approximate

resource being allocated to it
d) then all resources currently being held are Answer: c
Explanation: None.
-R
preempted
Answer: d 3. A deadlock avoidance algorithm

SE
Explanation: None. dynamically examines the __________ to

ensure that a circular wait condition can never
13. One way to ensure that the circular wait exist.
condition never holds is to ____________ a) resource allocation state
C
a) impose a total ordering of all resource b) system storage state

types and to determine whether one precedes c) operating system
another in the ordering d) resources
b) to never let a process acquire resources that
are held by other processes Answer: a
c) to let a process wait for only one resource Explanation: Resource allocation states are

used to maintain the availability of the 2 top to bottom)

already and current available resources.
10
4. A state is safe, if ____________ 4
a) the system does not crash due to deadlock
occurrence 9
b) the system can allocate resources to each
process in some order and still avoid a
Currently allocated (process-wise)
deadlock
M
c) the state keeps the system protected and 5
safe
O
d) all of the mentioned 2
C
2
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Which of the following sequence is a safe
T.
sequence?
5. A system is in a safe state only if there
a) P0, P1, P2
exists a ____________
O
b) P1, P2, P0
a) safe allocation
c) P2, P0, P1
b) safe resource
c) safe sequence
SP
d) P1, P0, P2
Answer: d
G
Explanation: None.
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
8. If no cycle exists in the resource allocation
LO
graph ____________
6. All unsafe states are ____________
a) then the system will not be in a safe state
a) deadlocks
b) then the system will be in a safe state
b) not deadlocks
.B

c) fatal
17
Answer: b
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
-R
9. The resource allocation graph is not

7. A system has 12 magnetic tape drives and
applicable to a resource allocation system
3 processes : P0, P1, and P2. Process P0
____________
requires 10 tape drives, P1 requires 4 and P2
SE
a) with multiple instances of each resource

requires 9 tape drives.
type
Process b) with a single instance of each resource type
C
c) single & multiple instances of each

P0 resource type
P1
P2 Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Maximum needs (process-wise: P0 through P

10. The Banker’s algorithm is 0 0 2

_____________ than the resource allocation
MAX (process-wise: P0 through P4 top TO b
graph algorithm. ottom)
a) less efficient A B C
b) more efficient 7 5 3
c) equal 3 2 2
d) none of the mentioned 9 0 2
2 2 2
4 3 3
Answer: a
M
Explanation: None. Available
A B C
O
11. The data structures available in the 3 3 2
Banker’s algorithm are ____________
C
a) Available The sequence <P1, P3, P4, P2, P0> leads the
b) Need system to ____________
T.
c) Allocation a) an unsafe state
d) All of the mentioned b) a safe state
c) a protected state
O
Answer: d d) a deadlock
Explanation: None.
12. The content of the matrix Need is

____________
SP
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
G
a) Allocation – Available
b) Max – Available 1. The wait-for graph is a deadlock detection
LO
c) Max – Allocation algorithm that is applicable when

d) Allocation – Max ____________
a) all resources have a single instance
Answer: c b) all resources have multiple instances
.B
Explanation: None. c) all resources have a single 7 multiple

instances
17
13. A system with 5 processes P0 through P4 d) all of the mentioned

and three resource types A, B, C have A with
10 instances, B with 5 instances, and C with 7 Answer: a
instances. At time t0, the following snapshot Explanation: None.
-R
has been taken:

2. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for
Process graph indicates that ____________
SE
P0 a) Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource

P1 that Pi needs
P2
P3 b) Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource
C
P4 that Pj needs
c) Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system
Allocation (process-wise : P0 through P4 d) Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system
top TO bottom)
A B C
0 1 0
Answer: a
2 0 0 Explanation: None.
3 0 2
2 1 1

3. If the wait for graph contains a cycle a) the set of processes that have been
____________ deadlocked
a) then a deadlock does not exist b) the set of processes in the deadlock queue
b) then a deadlock exists c) the specific process that caused the
c) then the system is in a safe state deadlock
d) either deadlock exists or system is in a safe d) all of the mentioned
state
Answer: a
M
Explanation: None.
8. A computer system has 6 tape drives, with
O
4. If deadlocks occur frequently, the detection ‘n’ processes competing for them. Each
algorithm must be invoked ________ process may need 3 tape drives. The
C
a) rarely maximum value of ‘n’ for which the system is
b) frequently guaranteed to be deadlock free is?
T.
c) rarely & frequently a) 2
d) none of the mentioned b) 3
c) 4
O
Answer: b d) 1
Explanation: None.
5. What is the disadvantage of invoking the

detection algorithm for every request?
SP
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
G
a) overhead of the detection algorithm due to 9. A system has 3 processes sharing 4
consumption of memory resources. If each process needs a maximum
LO
b) excessive time consumed in the request to of 2 units then, deadlock ____________

be allocated memory a) can never occur
c) considerable overhead in computation time b) may occur
d) all of the mentioned c) has to occur
.B

Answer: c
17

Explanation: None.
6. A deadlock eventually cripples system
throughput and will cause the CPU utilization 10. ‘m’ processes share ‘n’ resources of the
-R
to ______ same type. The maximum need of each

a) increase process doesn’t exceed ‘n’ and the sum of all
SE
b) drop their maximum needs is always less than

c) stay still m+n. In this setup, deadlock ____________
d) none of the mentioned a) can never occur
b) may occur
C
Answer: b c) has to occur

7. Every time a request for allocation cannot Answer: a

be granted immediately, the detection Explanation: None.
algorithm is invoked. This will help identify
____________

1. A deadlock can be broken by c) Amount of time a deadlocked process has

____________ thus far consumed during its execution
a) abort one or more processes to break the d) All of the mentioned
circular wait
b) abort all the process in the system Answer: c
c) preempt all resources from all processes Explanation: None.
6. If we preempt a resource from a process,
Answer: a the process cannot continue with its normal
M
Explanation: None. execution and it must be ____________
a) aborted
O
2. The two ways of aborting processes and b) rolled back
eliminating deadlocks are ____________ c) terminated
C
a) Abort all deadlocked processes d) queued
b) Abort all processes
T.
c) Abort one process at a time until the Answer: b
deadlock cycle is eliminated Explanation: None.
O
7. To _______ to a safe state, the system
Answer: c needs to keep more information about the
Explanation: None.
3. Those processes should be aborted on

SP
states of processes.
a) abort the process
b) roll back the process
G
occurrence of a deadlock, the termination of c) queue the process
which? d) none of the mentioned
LO
a) is more time consuming

b) incurs minimum cost Answer: b
c) safety is not hampered Explanation: None.
.B
8. If the resources are always preempted from

Answer: b the same process __________ can occur.
17
Explanation: None. a) deadlock

b) system crash
4. The process to be aborted is chosen on the c) aging
basis of the following factors? d) starvation
-R
a) priority of the process

b) process is interactive or batch Answer: d
Explanation: None.
SE
c) how long the process has computed

9. What is the solution to starvation?
Answer: d a) the number of rollbacks must be included
C
Explanation: None. in the cost factor

b) the number of resources must be included
5. Cost factors for process termination in resource preemption
include ____________ c) resource preemption be done instead
a) Number of resources the deadlock process d) all of the mentioned
is not holding
b) CPU utilization at the time of deadlock

Answer: a Answer: b
5. What is the advantage of dynamic loading?

a) A used routine is used multiple times
b) An unused routine is never loaded
c) CPU utilization increases
UNIT III STORAGE d) All of the mentioned
MANAGEMENT
M
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
1. What is Address Binding?
O
a) going to an address in memory 6. The idea of overlays is to ____________
b) locating an address with the help of
C
a) data that are needed at any given time
another address b) enable a process to be larger than the
c) binding two addresses together to form a
T.
amount of memory allocated to it
new address in a different memory space
c) keep in memory only those instructions
d) a mapping from one address space to
O
another
Answer: d
Answer: d
Explanation: None. SP
Explanation: None.
7. The ___________ must design and

2. Binding of instructions and data to memory
G
program the overlay structure.
addresses can be done at ____________
a) programmer
a) Compile time
LO
b) system architect
b) Load time
c) system designer
c) Execution time
.B
Answer: a
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
17
8. The ___________ swaps processes in and

3. If the process can be moved during its
out of the memory.
execution from one memory segment to a) Memory manager
-R
another, then binding must be ____________

b) CPU
a) delayed until run time c) CPU manager
b) preponed to compile time d) User
SE
c) preponed to load time

d) none of the mentioned Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
C
Explanation: None. 9. If a higher priority process arrives and

wants service, the memory manager can swap
4. What is Dynamic loading?
out the lower priority process to execute the
a) loading multiple routines dynamically
higher priority process. When the higher
b) loading a routine only when it is called
priority process finishes, the lower priority
c) loading multiple routines randomly
process is swapped back in and continues

execution. This variant of swapping is Answer: c

sometimes called? Explanation: None.
a) priority swapping
b) pull out, push in
c) roll out, roll in 1. The address generated by the CPU is
d) none of the mentioned referred to as ____________
a) Physical address
Answer: c b) Logical address
Explanation: None. c) Neither physical nor logical
M
10. If binding is done at assembly or load
O
time, then the process _____ be moved to Answer: b
different locations after being swapped out Explanation: None.
C
and in again.
a) can 2. The address loaded into the memory
T.
b) must address register of the memory is referred to
c) can never as ____________
d) may a) Physical address
O
b) Logical address
Answer: c c) Neither physical nor logical
Explanation: None.
11. In a system that does not support

SP
Answer: a
G
swapping ____________ Explanation: None.
a) the compiler normally binds symbolic
LO
addresses (variables) to relocatable addresses 3. The run time mapping from virtual to
b) the compiler normally binds symbolic physical addresses is done by a hardware
addresses to physical addresses device called the ____________
c) the loader binds relocatable addresses to a) Virtual to physical mapper
.B
physical addresses b) Memory management unit

d) binding of symbolic addresses to physical c) Memory mapping unit
17
addresses normally takes place during d) None of the mentioned

execution
Answer: b
-R
Explanation: None.
4. The base register is also known as the
____________
SE
12. Which of the following is TRUE?

a) Overlays are used to increase the size of a) basic register
physical memory b) regular register
b) Overlays are used to increase the logical c) relocation register
C
address space d) delocation register

c) When overlays are used, the size of a
process is not limited to the size of the Answer: c
physical memory Explanation: None.
d) Overlays are used whenever the physical
address space is smaller than the logical 5. The size of a process is limited to the size
address space of ____________

a) physical memory Answer: b

b) external storage Explanation: None.
c) secondary storage
d) none of the mentioned 10. The _________ time in a swap out of a
running process and swap in of a new process
Answer: a into the memory is very high.
Explanation: None. a) context – switch
b) waiting
6. If execution time binding is being used, c) execution
M
then a process ______ be swapped to a d) all of the mentioned
different memory space.
O
a) has to be Answer: a
b) can never Explanation: None.
C
c) must
d) may 11. The major part of swap time is _______
T.
time.
Answer: d a) waiting
Explanation: None. b) transfer
O
c) execution
7. Swapping requires a _________ d) none of the mentioned
a) motherboard
b) keyboard
c) monitor
SP
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
G
d) backing store
12. Swapping _______ be done when a
LO
Answer: d process has pending I/O, or has to execute I/O

Explanation: None. operations only into operating system buffers.
a) must
8. The backing store is generally a b) can
.B
____________ c) must never

a) fast disk d) maybe
17
b) disk large enough to accommodate copies

of all memory images for all users Answer: c
c) disk to provide direct access to the memory Explanation: None.
images
-R
d) all of the mentioned 13. Swap space is allocated ____________

a) as a chunk of disk
Answer: d b) separate from a file system
SE
Explanation: None. c) into a file system

9. The ________ consists of all processes
C
whose memory images are in the backing Answer: a

store or in memory and are ready to run. Explanation: None.
a) wait queue
b) ready queue
c) cpu 1. CPU fetches the instruction from memory
d) secondary storage according to the value of ____________
a) program counter

b) status register 6. The address of a page table in memory is

c) instruction register pointed by ____________
d) program status word a) stack pointer
b) page table base register
Answer: a c) page register
Explanation: None. d) program counter
2. A memory buffer used to accommodate a Answer: b

speed differential is called ____________ Explanation: None.
M
a) stack pointer
b) cache 7. Program always deals with ____________
O
c) accumulator a) logical address
d) disk buffer b) absolute address
C
c) physical address
Answer: b d) relative address
T.
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
3. Which one of the following is the address Explanation: None.
O
generated by CPU?
a) physical address 8. The page table contains ____________
b) absolute address
c) logical address
SP
a) base address of each page in physical
memory
b) page offset
G
c) page size
Answer: c d) none of the mentioned
LO
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
4. Run time mapping from virtual to physical Explanation: None.
address is done by ____________
.B
a) Memory management unit 9. What is compaction?

b) CPU a) a technique for overcoming internal
17
c) PCI fragmentation
d) None of the mentioned b) a paging technique
c) a technique for overcoming external
Answer: a fragmentation
-R
Explanation: None. d) a technique for overcoming fatal error
5. Memory management technique in which Answer: c

SE
system stores and retrieves data from Explanation: None.

secondary storage for use in main memory is
called? 10. Operating System maintains the page
C
a) fragmentation table for ____________

b) paging a) each process
c) mapping b) each thread
d) none of the mentioned c) each instruction
d) each address
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

Answer: a register.
Explanation: None. a) less than
b) equal to
c) greater than
1. The main memory accommodates d) none of the mentioned
____________
a) operating system Answer: a
b) cpu Explanation: None.
c) user processes
M
d) all of the mentioned 6. The operating system and the other
processes are protected from being modified
O
Answer: a by an already running process because
C
a) they are in different memory spaces
2. What is the operating system? b) they are in different logical addresses
T.
a) in the low memory c) they have a protection algorithm
b) in the high memory d) every address generated by the CPU is
c) either low or high memory (depending on being checked against the relocation and limit
O
the location of interrupt vector) registers
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
SP
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
G
7. Transient operating system code is code
3. In contiguous memory allocation that ____________
LO
____________ a) is not easily accessible

a) each process is contained in a single b) comes and goes as needed
contiguous section of memory c) stays in the memory always
b) all processes are contained in a single d) never enters the memory space
.B
contiguous section of memory

c) the memory space is contiguous Answer: b
17
Answer: a 8. Using transient code, _______ the size of

Explanation: None. the operating system during program
-R
execution.
4. The relocation register helps in a) increases
____________
SE
b) decreases
a) providing more address space to processes c) changes
b) a different address space to processes d) maintains
c) to protect the address spaces of processes
C

Explanation: None.
Answer: c
Explanation: None. 9. When memory is divided into several fixed
sized partitions, each partition may contain
5. With relocation and limit registers, each ________
logical address must be _______ the limit a) exactly one process

b) at least one process 3. Another solution to the problem of external

c) multiple processes at once fragmentation problem is to ____________
d) none of the mentioned a) permit the logical address space of a
process to be noncontiguous
Answer: a b) permit smaller processes to be allocated
Explanation: None. memory at last
c) permit larger processes to be allocated
10. In fixed size partition, the degree of memory at last
multiprogramming is bounded by d) all of the mentioned
M
___________
a) the number of partitions Answer: a
O
b) the CPU utilization Explanation: None.
c) the memory size
C
d) all of the mentioned 4. If relocation is static and is done at
assembly or load time, compaction
T.
Answer: a _________
Explanation: None a) cannot be done
b) must be done
O
11. The first fit, best fit and worst fit are c) must not be done
strategies to select a ______ d) can be done
a) process from a queue to put in memory
b) processor to run the next process
c) free hole from a set of available holes
SP
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
G
5. The disadvantage of moving all process to
LO
Answer: c one end of memory and all holes to the other

Explanation: None. direction, producing one large hole of
available memory is ____________
a) the cost incurred
.B
1. In internal fragmentation, memory is b) the memory used

internal to a partition and ____________ c) the CPU used
17
a) is being used d) all of the mentioned

b) is not being used
c) is always used Answer: a
-R
Answer: b 6. __________ is generally faster than

Explanation: None.
SE
_________ and _________

a) first fit, best fit, worst fit
2. A solution to the problem of external b) best fit, first fit, worst fit
fragmentation is ____________ c) worst fit, best fit, first fit
C
a) compaction d) none of the mentioned

b) larger memory space
c) smaller memory space Answer: a
Answer: a 7. External fragmentation exists when?

Explanation: None. a) enough total memory exists to satisfy a

request but it is not contiguous b) pages

b) the total memory is insufficient to satisfy a c) backing store
request d) none of the mentioned
c) a request cannot be satisfied even when the
total memory is free Answer: a
Answer: a 2. Logical memory is broken into blocks of

Explanation: None. the same size called _________
M
a) frames
8. External fragmentation will not occur b) pages
O
when? c) backing store
a) first fit is used d) none of the mentioned
C
b) best fit is used
c) worst fit is used Answer: b
T.
d) no matter which algorithm is used, it will Explanation: None.
always occur
3. Every address generated by the CPU is
O
Answer: d divided into two parts. They are
9. Sometimes the overhead of keeping track

of a hole might be ____________
SP
a) frame bit & page number
b) page number & page offset
c) page offset & frame bit
G
a) larger than the memory d) frame offset & page offset
b) larger than the hole itself
LO
c) very small Answer: b

d) all of the mentioned Explanation: None.
Answer: b 4. The __________ is used as an index into

.B
Explanation: None. the page table.

a) frame bit
17
10. When the memory allocated to a process b) page number

is slightly larger than the process, then c) page offset
____________ d) frame offset
a) internal fragmentation occurs
-R
b) external fragmentation occurs Answer: b

c) both internal and external fragmentation Explanation: None.
SE
occurs
d) neither internal nor external fragmentation 5. The _____ table contains the base address
occurs of each page in physical memory.
a) process
C
Answer: a b) memory
Explanation: None. c) page
d) frame
1. Physical memory is broken into fixed-sized Answer: c

blocks called ________ Explanation: None.
a) frames

6. The size of a page is typically b) execution

____________ c) context – switch
a) varied d) all of the mentioned
b) power of 2
c) power of 4 Answer: c
Answer: b 11. Smaller page tables are implemented as a

Explanation: None. set of _______
M
a) queues
7. If the size of logical address space is 2 to b) stacks
O
the power of m, and a page size is 2 to the c) counters
power of n addressing units, then the high d) registers
C
order _____ bits of a logical address
designate the page number, and the ____ low Answer: d
T.
order bits designate the page offset. Explanation: None.
a) m, n
b) n, m 12. The page table registers should be built
O
c) m – n, m with _______
d) m – n, n a) very low speed logic
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
SP
b) very high speed logic
c) a large memory space
G
8. With paging there is no ________ Answer: b
LO
fragmentation. Explanation: None.

a) internal
b) external 13. For larger page tables, they are kept in
c) either type of main memory and a __________ points to the
.B
d) none of the mentioned page table.

a) page table base register
17
Answer: b b) page table base pointer

Explanation: None. c) page table register pointer
d) page table base
9. The operating system maintains a ______
-R
table that keeps track of how many frames Answer: a

have been allocated, how many are there, and Explanation: None.
SE
how many are available.

a) page 14. For every process there is a __________
b) mapping a) page table
c) frame b) copy of page table
C
d) memory c) pointer to page table

Answer: c
Explanation: None.
10. Paging increases the ______ time.
a) waiting 15. Time taken in memory access through
PTBR is ____________

a) extended by a factor of 3 Answer: b

b) extended by a factor of 2 Explanation: None.
c) slowed by a factor of 3
d) slowed by a factor of 2 5. Memory protection in a paged environment
is accomplished by ____________
Answer: d a) protection algorithm with each page
Explanation: None. b) restricted access rights to users
c) restriction on page visibility
d) protection bit with each page
M
1. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer
(TLB) consists of ____________ Answer: d
O
a) key Explanation: None.
b) value
C
c) bit value 6. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid,
d) constant it means that the associated page
T.
____________
Answer: a a) is in the TLB
Explanation: None. b) has data in it
O
c) is in the process’s logical address space
2. If a page number is not found in the TLB, d) is the system’s physical address space
then it is known as a ____________
a) TLB miss
b) Buffer miss
SP
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
G
c) TLB hit
d) All of the mentioned 7. Illegal addresses are trapped using the
LO
_____ bit.
Answer: a a) error
Explanation: None. b) protection
c) valid – invalid
.B
3. An ______ uniquely identifies processes d) access

and is used to provide address space
17
protection for that process. Answer: c

a) address space locator Explanation: None.
b) address space identifier
c) address process identifier 8. When there is a large logical address space,
-R
d) none of the mentioned the best way of paging would be

____________
Answer: b a) not to page
SE
Explanation: None. b) a two level paging algorithm

c) the page table itself
4. The percentage of times a page number is d) all of the mentioned
C
found in the TLB is known as ____________

a) miss ratio Answer: b
b) hit ratio Explanation: None.
c) miss percent
d) none of the mentioned 9. In a paged memory, the page hit ratio is
0.35. The required to access a page in
secondary memory is equal to 100 ns. The

time required to access a page in primary Answer: a

memory is 10 ns. The average time required Explanation: None.
to access a page is?
a) 3.0 ns 2. _____ is the concept in which a process is
b) 68.0 ns copied into the main memory from the
c) 68.5 ns secondary memory according to the
d) 78.5 ns requirement.
a) Paging
Answer: c b) Demand paging
M
Explanation: None. c) Segmentation
d) Swapping
O
10. To obtain better memory utilization,
dynamic loading is used. With dynamic Answer: b
C
loading, a routine is not loaded until it is Explanation: None.
called. For implementing dynamic loading
T.
____________ 3. The pager concerns with the
a) special support from hardware is required ____________
b) special support from operating system is a) individual page of a process
O
essential b) entire process
c) special support from both hardware and c) entire thread
operating system is essential
d) user programs can implement dynamic
loading without any special support from
SP
d) first page of a process
Answer: a
G
hardware or operating system Explanation: None.
LO
Answer: d 4. Swap space exists in ____________

Explanation: None. a) primary memory
b) secondary memory
11. In paged memory systems, if the page size c) cpu
.B
is increased, then the internal fragmentation d) none of the mentioned

generally ____________
17
a) becomes less Answer: b

b) becomes more Explanation: None.
c) remains constant
5. When a program tries to access a page that
-R

is mapped in address space but not loaded in
Answer: b physical memory, then ____________
a) segmentation fault occurs
SE
Explanation: None.
b) fatal error occurs
c) page fault occurs
1. Because of virtual memory, the memory d) no error occurs
C
can be shared among ____________

a) processes Answer: c
b) threads Explanation: None.
c) instructions
d) none of the mentioned 6. Effective access time is directly
proportional to ____________
a) page-fault rate

b) hit ratio Answer: b

c) memory access time Explanation: None.
Answer: a 1. Virtual memory allows ____________

Explanation: None. a) execution of a process that may not be
completely in memory
7. In FIFO page replacement algorithm, when b) a program to be smaller than the physical
a page must be replaced ____________ memory
M
a) oldest page is chosen c) a program to be larger than the secondary
b) newest page is chosen storage
O
c) random page is chosen d) execution of a process without being in
d) none of the mentioned physical memory
C
Answer: a Answer: a
T.
8. Which algorithm chooses the page that has 2. The instruction being executed, must be in
O
not been used for the longest period of time ____________
whenever the page required to be replaced? a) physical memory
a) first in first out algorithm
b) additional reference bit algorithm
c) least recently used algorithm
SP
b) logical memory
c) physical & logical memory
G
d) counting based page replacement
algorithm Answer: a
LO
Explanation: None.
Answer: c
Explanation: None. 3. Error handler codes, to handle unusual
errors are ____________
.B
9. A process is thrashing if ____________ a) almost never executed

a) it is spending more time paging than b) executed very often
17
executing c) executed periodically

b) it is spending less time paging than d) none of the mentioned
executing
c) page fault occurs Answer: a
-R
d) swapping can not take place Explanation: None.
Answer: a 4. The ability to execute a program that is

SE
Explanation: None. only partially in memory has benefits like

____________
10. Working set model for page replacement a) The amount of physical memory cannot
C
is based on the assumption of ____________ put a constraint on the program

a) modularity b) Programs for an extremely large virtual
b) locality space can be created
c) globalization c) Throughput increases
d) random access d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d c) decreases the swap time & amount of

Explanation: None. physical memory needed
d) increases the amount of physical memory
5. In virtual memory. the programmer needed
__________ of overlays.
a) has to take care Answer: c
b) does not have to take care Explanation: None.
d) none of the mentioned 10. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when
M
valid indicates?
Answer: b a) the page is not legal
O
Explanation: None. b) the page is illegal
c) the page is in memory
C
6. Virtual memory is normally implemented d) the page is not in memory
by ________
T.
a) demand paging Answer: c
b) buses Explanation: None.
c) virtualization
O
d) all of the mentioned 11. A page fault occurs when?
a) a page gives inconsistent data
Answer: a
Explanation: None. SPb) a page cannot be accessed due to its
absence from memory
c) a page is invisible
G
7. Segment replacement algorithms are more d) all of the mentioned
complex than page replacement algorithms
LO
because ____________ Answer: b

a) Segments are better than pages Explanation: None.
b) Pages are better than segments
c) Segments have variable sizes 12. When a page fault occurs, the state of the
.B
d) Segments have fixed sizes interrupted process is ____________

a) disrupted
17
Answer: c b) invalid
Explanation: None. c) saved
8. A swapper manipulates ___________
-R
whereas the pager is concerned with Answer: c

individual _______ of a process. Explanation: None.
a) the entire process, parts
SE
b) all the pages of a process, segments 13. When a process begins execution with no
c) the entire process, pages pages in memory?
d) none of the mentioned a) process execution becomes impossible
C
b) a page fault occurs for every page brought

Answer: c into memory
Explanation: None. c) process causes system crash
9. Using a pager ____________
a) increases the swap time Answer: b
b) decreases the swap time Explanation: None.

14. If the memory access time is denoted by 2. A process refers to 5 pages, A, B, C, D, E

‘ma’ and ‘p’ is the probability of a page fault in the order : A, B, C, D, A, B, E, A, B, C, D,
(0 <= p <= 1). Then the effective access time E. If the page replacement algorithm is FIFO,
for a demand paged memory is the number of page transfers with an empty
____________ internal store of 3 frames is?
a) p x ma + (1-p) x page fault time a) 8
b) ma + page fault time b) 10
c) (1-p) x ma + p x page fault time c) 9
d) none of the mentioned d) 7
M
Answer: c Answer: c
O
C
15. When the page fault rate is low 3. In question 2, if the number of page frames
____________ is increased to 4, then the number of page
T.
a) the turnaround time increases transfers ____________
b) the effective access time increases a) decreases
c) the effective access time decreases b) increases
O
d) turnaround time & effective access time c) remains the same
increases d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
SP
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
G
16. Locality of reference implies that the page 4. A memory page containing a heavily used
LO
reference being made by a process variable that was initialized very early and is
____________ in constant use is removed, then the page
a) will always be to the page used in the replacement algorithm used is ____________
previous page reference a) LRU
.B
b) is likely to be one of the pages used in the b) LFU

last few page references c) FIFO
17
c) will always be one of the pages existing in d) None of the mentioned

memory
d) will always lead to page faults Answer: c
Explanation: None.
-R
Answer: b
Explanation: None. 5. A virtual memory system uses First In First
SE
Out (FIFO) page replacement policy and

allocates a fixed number of frames to a
1. Which of the following page replacement process. Consider the following statements.
algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly? P : Increasing the number of page frames
C
a) Optimal replacement allocated to a process sometimes increases the

b) LRU page fault rate
c) FIFO Q : Some programs do not exhibit locality of
d) Both optimal replacement and FIFO reference
Which of the following is TRUE?
Answer: c a) Both P and Q are true, and Q is the reason
Explanation: None. for P

b) Both P and Q are true, but Q is not the Answer: c

reason for P Explanation: None.
c) P is false but Q is true
d) Both P and Q are false 10. A FIFO replacement algorithm associates
with each page the _______
Answer: c a) time it was brought into memory
Explanation: None. b) size of the page in memory
c) page after and before it
6. Users _______ that their processes are d) all of the mentioned
M
running on a paged system.
a) are aware Answer: a
O
b) are unaware Explanation: None.
c) may unaware
C
d) none of the mentioned 11. What is the Optimal page – replacement
algorithm?
T.
Answer: b a) Replace the page that has not been used for
Explanation: None. a long time
b) Replace the page that has been used for a
O
7. If no frames are free, _____ page long time
transfer(s) is/are required. c) Replace the page that will not be used for a
a) one
b) two
c) three
SP
long time
G
d) four Answer: c
Explanation: None.
LO
Answer: b
Explanation: None. 12. Optimal page – replacement algorithm is
difficult to implement, because
8. When a page is selected for replacement, ____________
.B
and its modify bit is set ____________ a) it requires a lot of information

a) the page is clean b) it requires future knowledge of the
17
b) the page has been modified since it was reference string

read in from the disk c) it is too complex
c) the page is dirty d) it is extremely expensive
d) the page has been modified since it was
-R
read in from the disk & page is dirty Answer: b

Explanation: None.
Answer: d
SE
Explanation: None. 13. LRU page – replacement algorithm

associates with each page the ______
9. The aim of creating page replacement a) time it was brought into memory
C
algorithms is to ____________ b) the time of that page’s last use

a) replace pages faster c) page after and before it
b) increase the page fault rate d) all of the mentioned
c) decrease the page fault rate
d) to allocate multiple pages to processes Answer: b
Explanation: None.

14. For 3 page frames, the following is the and all new pages are added to the top
reference string: d) none of the mentioned
70120304230321201701
How many page faults does the LRU page Answer: b
replacement algorithm produce? Explanation: None.
a) 10
b) 15 3. There is a set of page replacement
c) 11 algorithms that can never exhibit Belady’s
d) 12 Anomaly, called ____________
M
a) queue algorithms
Answer: d b) stack algorithms
O
Explanation: None. c) string algorithms
C
15. What are the two methods of the LRU
page replacement policy that can be Answer: b
T.
implemented in hardware? Explanation: None.
a) Counters
b) RAM & Registers 4. Applying the LRU page replacement to the
O
c) Stack & Counters following reference string.
d) Registers 12452124
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
SP
The main memory can accommodate 3 pages
and it already has pages 1 and 2. Page 1 came
in before page 2.
G
How many page faults will occur?
a) 2
LO
1. When using counters to implement LRU, b) 3

we replace the page with the ____________ c) 4
a) smallest time value d) 5
b) largest time value
.B
c) greatest size Answer: c

17
Answer: a 5. Increasing the RAM of a computer

Explanation: Whenever a reference to a page typically improves performance because
is made, the contents of the clock register are ____________
-R
copied into the time-of-use field in the page- a) Virtual memory increases
table entry for that page. In this way, we b) Larger RAMs are faster
SE
always have the time of the last reference to c) Fewer page faults occur
each page. d) None of the mentioned
2. In the stack implementation of the LRU Answer: c

C
algorithm, a stack can be maintained in a Explanation: None.

manner ____________
a) whenever a page is used, it is removed 6. The essential content(s) in each entry of a
from the stack and put on bottom page table is/are ____________
b) the bottom of the stack is the LRU page a) Virtual page number
c) the top of the stack contains the LRU page b) Page frame number
c) Both virtual page number and page frame

number c) they are expensive

d) Access right information d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b Answer: c
7. The minimum number of page frames that

must be allocated to a running process in a 1. In segmentation, each address is specified
virtual memory environment is determined by by ____________
M
____________ a) a segment number & offset
a) the instruction set architecture b) an offset & value
O
b) page size c) a value & segment number
c) physical memory size d) a key & value
C
d) number of processes in memory
Answer: a
T.
Explanation: None.
2. In paging the user provides only ________
O
8. What is the reason for using the LFU page which is partitioned by the hardware into
replacement algorithm? ________ and ______
a) an actively used page should have a large
reference count
b) a less used page has more chances to be
SP
a) one address, page number, offset
b) one offset, page number, address
c) page number, offset, address
G
used again d) none of the mentioned
c) it is extremely efficient and optimal
LO

Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: None. 3. Each entry in a segment table has a
.B
____________
9. What is the reason for using the MFU page a) segment base
17
replacement algorithm? b) segment peak

a) an actively used page should have a large c) segment value
reference count d) none of the mentioned
b) a less used page has more chances to be
-R
used again Answer: a

c) it is extremely efficient and optimal Explanation: None.
SE

4. The segment base contains the
Answer: b ____________
Explanation: None. a) starting logical address of the process
C
b) starting physical address of the segment in

10. The implementation of the LFU and the memory
MFU algorithm is very uncommon because c) segment length
a) they are too complicated
b) they are optimal Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. The segment limit contains the c) read – write

a) starting logical address of the process
b) starting physical address of the segment in Answer: c
memory Explanation: None.
c) segment length
d) none of the mentioned 10. If there are 32 segments, each of size
1Kb, then the logical address should have
Answer: c ____________
M
Explanation: None. a) 13 bits
b) 14 bits
O
6. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must c) 15 bits
be ____________ d) 16 bits
C
a) greater than segment limit
b) between 0 and segment limit Answer: a
T.
c) between 0 and the segment number Explanation: To specify a particular segment,
d) greater than the segment number 5 bits are required. To select a particular byte
after selecting a page, 10 more bits are
O
Answer: b required. Hence 15 bits are required.
Explanation: None.
7. If the offset is legal ____________

a) it is used as a physical memory address
SP
11. Consider a computer with 8 Mbytes of
main memory and a 128K cache. The cache
block size is 4 K. It uses a direct mapping
G
itself scheme for cache management. How many
b) it is subtracted from the segment base to different main memory blocks can map onto a
LO
produce the physical memory address given physical cache block?

c) it is added to the segment base to produce a) 2048
the physical memory address b) 256
d) none of the mentioned c) 64
.B
d) 8
Answer: a
17
Explanation: None. Answer: c

Explanation: None.
8. When the entries in the segment tables of
two different processes point to the same 12. A multilevel page table is preferred in
-R
physical location ____________ comparison to a single level page table for

a) the segments are invalid translating virtual address to physical address
SE
b) the processes get blocked because ____________

c) segments are shared a) it reduces the memory access time to read
d) all of the mentioned or write a memory location
b) it helps to reduce the size of page table
C
Answer: c needed to implement the virtual address space

Explanation: None. of a process
c) it is required by the translation lookaside
9. The protection bit is 0/1 based on buffer
____________ d) it helps to reduce the number of page faults
a) write only in page replacement algorithms
b) read only

Answer: b Answer: c
5. The time taken for the desired sector to

rotate to the disk head is called
____________
a) positioning time
UNIT IV FILE SYSTEMS b) random access time
AND I/O SYSTEMS c) seek time
M
d) rotational latency
1. In _______ information is recorded
O
magnetically on platters. Answer: d
a) magnetic disks Explanation: None.
C
b) electrical disks
6. When the head damages the magnetic
c) assemblies
T.
surface, it is known as _________
d) cylinders
a) disk crash
b) head crash
O
Answer: a
c) magnetic damage
Explanation: None.
2. The heads of the magnetic disk are
attached to a _____ that moves all the heads
SP
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
as a unit.
G
a) spindle
7. A floppy disk is designed to rotate
b) disk arm
LO
___________ as compared to a hard disk

c) track
drive.
a) faster
b) slower
.B
Answer: b
c) at the same speed
Explanation: None.
17
3. The set of tracks that are at one arm

position make up a ___________ Answer: b
a) magnetic disks Explanation: None.
-R
b) electrical disks 8. What is the host controller?

c) assemblies a) controller built at the end of each disk
d) cylinders b) controller at the computer end of the bus
SE

Answer: d
C
4. The time taken to move the disk arm to the Answer: b

desired cylinder is called the ____________ Explanation: None.
a) positioning time
9. ______ controller sends the command
b) random access time
placed into it, via messages to the _____
c) seek time
controller.
d) rotational latency
a) host, host

b) disk, disk scheduling, the total number of head

c) host, disk movements is, if the disk head is initially at
d) disk, host 53 is?
a) 600
Answer: c b) 620
Explanation: None. c) 630
d) 640
10. What is the disk bandwidth?
a) the total number of bytes transferred Answer: d
M
b) total time between the first request for Explanation: None.
service and the completion on the last transfer
O
c) the total number of bytes transferred 4. Consider a disk queue with requests for I/O
divided by the total time between the first to blocks on cylinders.
C
request for service and the completion on the 98 183 37 122 14 124 65 67
last transfer Considering SSTF (shortest seek time first)
T.
d) none of the mentioned scheduling, the total number of head
movements is, if the disk head is initially at
Answer: c 53 is?
O
Explanation: None. a) 224
b) 236
1. Whenever a process needs I/O to or from a

disk it issues a ______________
SP
c) 245
d) 240
G
a) system call to the CPU Answer: b
b) system call to the operating system Explanation: None.
LO
c) a special procedure
d) all of the mentioned 5. Random access in magnetic tapes is
_________ compared to magnetic disks.
Answer: b a) fast
.B
Explanation: None. b) very fast

c) slow
17
2. If a process needs I/O to or from a disk, d) very slow

and if the drive or controller is busy then
____________ Answer: d
a) the request will be placed in the queue of Explanation: None.
-R
pending requests for that drive

b) the request will not be processed and will 6. Magnetic tape drives can write data at a
SE
be ignored completely speed ________ disk drives.

c) the request will be not be placed a) much lesser than
d) none of the mentioned b) comparable to
c) much faster than
C
Answer: a d) none of the mentioned

Explanation: None.
Answer: b
3. Consider a disk queue with requests for I/O Explanation: None.
to blocks on cylinders.
98 183 37 122 14 124 65 67 7. On media that use constant linear velocity
Considering FCFS (first cum first served) (CLV), the _____________ is uniform.

a) density of bits on the disk direction, then reverses direction immediately

b) density of bits per sector without going to the end of the disk.
c) the density of bits per track a) LOOK
d) none of the mentioned b) SCAN
c) C-SCAN
Answer: c d) C-LOOK
Explanation: The farther a track is from the
center of the disk. Answer: a
Explanation: None.
M
8. SSTF algorithm, like SJF __________ of
some requests.
O
a) may cause starvation 1. The process of dividing a disk into sectors
b) will cause starvation that the disk controller can read and write,
C
c) does not cause starvation before a disk can store data is known as
d) causes aging ____________
T.
a) partitioning
Answer: a b) swap space creation
Explanation: None. c) low-level formatting
O
9. In the ______ algorithm, the disk arm starts
at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end
of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
SP
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
G
reversed and servicing continues. 2. The data structure for a sector typically
a) LOOK contains ____________
LO
b) SCAN a) header
c) C-SCAN b) data area
d) C-LOOK c) trailer
.B
Answer: b
Explanation: None. Answer: d
17
Explanation: None.
10. In the _______ algorithm, the disk head
moves from one end to the other, servicing 3. The header and trailer of a sector contain
requests along the way. When the head information used by the disk controller such
-R
reaches the other end, it immediately returns as _________ and _________

to the beginning of the disk without servicing a) main section & disk identifier
SE
any requests on the return trip. b) error correcting codes (ECC) & sector
a) LOOK number
b) SCAN c) sector number & main section
c) C-SCAN d) disk identifier & sector number
C
d) C-LOOK
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. The two steps the operating system takes to
11. In the ______ algorithm, the disk arm use a disk to hold its files are _______ and
goes as far as the final request in each ________

a) partitioning & logical formatting Answer: c

b) swap space creation & caching Explanation: None.
c) caching & logical formatting
d) logical formatting & swap space creation 9. In SCSI disks used in high end PCs, the
controller maintains a list of _________ on
Answer: a the disk. The disk is initialized during
Explanation: None. ________ formatting which sets aside spare
sectors not visible to the operating system.
5. The _______ program initializes all aspects a) destroyed blocks, high level formatting
M
of the system, from CPU registers to device b) bad blocks, partitioning
controllers and the contents of main memory, c) bad blocks, low level formatting
O
and then starts the operating system. d) destroyed blocks, partitioning
a) main
C
b) bootloader Answer: c
c) bootstrap Explanation: None.
T.
d) rom
10. The scheme used in the above question is
Answer: c known as _______ or ________
O
Explanation: None. a) sector sparing & forwarding
b) forwarding & sector utilization
6. For most computers, the bootstrap is stored
in ________
a) RAM
SP
c) backwarding & forwarding
d) sector utilization & backwarding
G
b) ROM Answer: a
c) Cache Explanation: None.
LO
d) Tertiary storage
11. An unrecoverable error is known as
Answer: b _________
Explanation: None. a) hard error
.B
b) tough error
7. A disk that has a boot partition is called a c) soft error
17
_________ d) none of the mentioned

a) start disk
b) end disk Answer: a
c) boot disk Explanation: None.
-R
Answer: c 1. If one or more devices use a common set of

SE
Explanation: None. wires to communicate with the computer

system, the connection is called ______
8. Defective sectors on disks are often known a) CPU
C
as __________ b) Monitor
a) good blocks c) Wirefull
b) destroyed blocks d) Bus
c) bad blocks
d) none of the mentioned Answer: d
Explanation: None.

2. A ____ a set of wires and a rigidly defined 6. An I/O port typically consists of four
protocol that specifies a set of messages that registers status, control, ________ and
can be sent on the wires. ________ registers.
a) port a) system in, system out
b) node b) data in, data out
c) bus c) flow in, flow out
d) none of the mentioned d) input, output
Answer: c Answer: b
M
O
3. When device A has a cable that plugs into 7. The ______ register is read by the host to
device B, and device B has a cable that plugs get input.
C
into device C and device C plugs into a port a) flow in
on the computer, this arrangement is called a b) flow out
T.
_________ c) data in
a) port d) data out
b) daisy chain
O
c) bus Answer: c
d) cable Explanation: None.
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
SP
8. The ______ register is written by the host
to send output.
G
a) status
4. The _________ present a uniform device- b) control
LO
access interface to the I/O subsystem, much c) data in

as system calls provide a standard interface d) data out
between the application and the operating
system. Answer: d
.B
a) Devices Explanation: None.

b) Buses
17
c) Device drivers 9. The hardware mechanism that allows a

d) I/O systems device to notify the CPU is called _______
a) polling
Answer: c b) interrupt
-R
Explanation: None. c) driver

d) controlling
SE
5. A ________ is a collection of electronics

that can operate a port, a bus, or a device. Answer: b
a) controller Explanation: None.
b) driver
C
c) host 10. The CPU hardware has a wire called

d) bus __________ that the CPU senses after
executing every instruction.
Answer: a a) interrupt request line
Explanation: None. b) interrupt bus
c) interrupt receive line
d) interrupt sense line

Answer: a 2. The __________ is used by device

Explanation: None. controllers to request service.
a) nonmaskable interrupt
11. The _________ determines the cause of b) blocked interrupt
the interrupt, performs the necessary c) maskable interrupt
processing and executes a return from the d) none of the mentioned
interrupt instruction to return the CPU to the
execution state prior to the interrupt. Answer: c
a) interrupt request line Explanation: None.
M
b) device driver
c) interrupt handler 3. The interrupt vector contains
O
d) all of the mentioned ____________
a) the interrupts
C
Answer: c b) the memory addresses of specialized
Explanation: None. interrupt handlers
T.
c) the identifiers of interrupts
12. In general the two interrupt request lines d) the device addresses
are ____________
O
a) maskable & non maskable interrupts Answer: b
b) blocked & non maskable interrupts Explanation: None.
c) maskable & blocked interrupts
SP
4. Division by zero, accessing a protected or
non existent memory address, or attempting
G
Answer: a to execute a privileged instruction from user
Explanation: None. mode are all categorized as ________
LO
a) errors
13. The _________ are reserved for events b) exceptions
such as unrecoverable memory errors. c) interrupt handlers
a) non maskable interrupts d) all of the mentioned
.B
b) blocked interrupts
c) maskable interrupts Answer: b
17
Answer: a 5. For large data transfers, _________ is used.

Explanation: None. a) dma
-R
b) programmed I/O
c) controller register
1. The ________ can be turned off by the
SE

CPU before the execution of critical
instruction sequences that must not be Answer: a
interrupted. Explanation: None.
C
a) nonmaskable interrupt
b) blocked interrupt 6. A character stream device transfers
c) maskable interrupt ____________
d) none of the mentioned a) bytes one by one
b) block of bytes as a unit
Answer: c c) with unpredictable response times

Answer: a c) does not block the interrupts

7. A block device transfers ____________ Answer: b

a) bytes one by one Explanation: None.
b) block of bytes as a unit
c) with unpredictable response times 12. An asynchronous call ____________
d) none of the mentioned a) returns immediately, without waiting for
the I/O to complete
M
Answer: b b) does not return immediately and waits for
Explanation: None. the I/O to complete
O
c) consumes a lot of time
8. What is a dedicated device? d) is too slow
C
a) opposite to a sharable device
b) same as a sharable device Answer: a
T.
c) can be used concurrently by several Explanation: None.
processes
O
1. Buffering is done to ____________
Answer: a a) cope with device speed mismatch
Explanation: None.
9. A keyboard is an example of a device that

SP
b) cope with device transfer size mismatch
c) maintain copy semantics
G
is accessed through a __________ interface.
a) block stream Answer: d
LO
b) set of blocks Explanation: None.

c) character stream
d) none of the mentioned 2. Caching is ________ spooling.
a) same as
.B
Answer: c b) not the same as

Explanation: None. c) all of the mentioned
17

10. In polling ____________
a) busy – wait cycles wait for I/O from device Answer: b
b) interrupt handler receives interrupts Explanation: None.
-R
c) interrupt-request line is triggered by I/O

device 3. Caching ____________
d) all of the mentioned a) holds a copy of the data
SE
b) is fast memory
Answer: a c) holds the only copy of the data
Explanation: None. d) holds output for a device
C
11. A non blocking system call Answer: a

_________________ Explanation: None.
a) halts the execution of the application for an
extended time 4. Spooling ____________
b) does not halt the execution of the a) holds a copy of the data
application b) is fast memory

c) holds the only copy of the data b) minor factor

d) holds output for a device c) does not matter
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
5. The ________ keeps state information
about the use of I/O components. 10. If the number of cycles spent busy –
a) CPU waiting is not excessive, then ____________
M
b) OS a) interrupt driven I/O is more efficient than
c) kernel programmed I/O
O
d) shell b) programmed I/O is more efficient than
interrupt driven I/O
C
Answer: c c) both programmed and interrupt driven I/O
Explanation: None. are equally efficient
T.
6. The kernel data structures include
____________ Answer: b
O
a) process table Explanation: None.
b) open file table
c) close file table
d) all of the mentioned SP
G
Answer: b
Explanation: None. UNIT V CASE STUDY
LO
7. Windows NT uses a __________ 1. Linux uses a time-sharing algorithm

implementation for I/O. ___________
a) message – passing a) to pair preemptive scheduling between
.B
b) draft – passing multiple processes

c) secondary memory b) for tasks where absolute priorities are more
17
d) cache important than fairness

Explanation: None.
-R
Answer: a
8. A ________ is a full duplex connection Explanation: None.
between a device driver and a user level
SE
process. 2. The first linux kernel which supports the

a) Bus SMP hardware?
b) I/O operation a) linux 0.1
C
c) Stream b) linux 1.0

d) Flow c) linux 1.2
d) linux 2.0
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
9. I/O is a _________ in system performance.
a) major factor

3. Which one of the following linux file 8. Standard set of functions through which
system does not support journaling feature? interacts with kernel is defined by
a) ext2 ___________
b) ext3 a) system libraries
c) ext4 b) kernel code
d) none of the mentioned c) compilers
d) utility programs
Answer: a
M
Explanation: None.
4. Which binary format is supported by linux?
O
a) a.out 9. What is Linux?
b) elf a) single user, single tasking
C
c) both a.out and ELF b) single user, multitasking
d) none of the mentioned c) multi user, single tasking
T.
d) multi user, multitasking
Answer: c
O
Explanation: None.
5. Which one of the following bootloader is
not used by linux?
a) GRUB
b) LILO
SP
10. Which one of the following is not a linux
distribution?
a) debian
G
c) NTLDR b) gentoo
d) None of the mentioned c) open SUSE
LO
d) multics
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
.B
6. The first process launched by the linux

kernel is ___________
17
a) init process 1. Which one of the following is not shared

b) zombie process by threads?
c) batch process a) program counter
d) boot process b) stack
-R
c) both program counter and stack

Explanation: None.
SE
Answer: c
7. Which desktop environment is not used in Explanation: None.
any linux distribution?
C
a) gnome 2. A process can be ___________

b) kde a) single threaded
c) unity b) multithreaded
d) none of the mentioned c) both single threaded and multithreaded
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

Answer: c 7. Termination of the process terminates

Explanation: None. ___________
a) first thread of the process
3. If one thread opens a file with read b) first two threads of the process
privileges then ___________ c) all threads within the process
a) other threads in the another process can d) no thread within the process
also read from that file
b) other threads in the same process can also Answer: c
read from that file Explanation: None.
M
c) any other thread can not read from that file
d) all of the mentioned 8. Which one of the following is not a valid
O
state of a thread?
Answer: b a) running
C
Explanation: None. b) parsing
c) ready
T.
4. The time required to create a new thread in d) blocked
an existing process is ___________
a) greater than the time required to create a Answer: b
O
new process Explanation: None.
b) less than the time required to create a new
process
c) equal to the time required to create a new
process
SP
9. The register context and stacks of a thread
are deallocated when the thread?
a) terminates
G
d) none of the mentioned b) blocks
c) unblocks
LO
Answer: b d) spawns
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
5. When the event for which a thread is Explanation: None.
.B
blocked occurs?
a) thread moves to the ready queue 10. Thread synchronization is required
17
b) thread remains blocked because ___________

c) thread completes a) all threads of a process share the same
d) a new thread is provided address space
b) all threads of a process share the same
-R
Answer: a global variables

Explanation: None. c) all threads of a process can share the same
SE
files
6. The jacketing technique is used to d) all of the mentioned
___________
a) convert a blocking system call into non Answer: d
C
blocking system call Explanation: None.

b) create a new thread
c) communicate between threads
d) terminate a thread 1. A thread is also called ___________
a) Light Weight Process(LWP)
Answer: a b) Heavy Weight Process(HWP)
Explanation: None.

c) Process c) asking the user to decide the order of

d) None of the mentioned multithreading
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
2. A thread shares its resources(like data
section, code section, open files, signals) with 6. Resource sharing helps ___________
___________ a) share the memory and resources of the
M
a) other process similar to the one that the process to which the threads belong
thread belongs to b) an application have several different
O
b) other threads that belong to similar threads of activity all within the same address
processes space
C
c) other threads that belong to the same c) reduce the address space that a process
process could potentially use
T.
d) all of the mentioned d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c Answer: d
O
3. A heavy weight process ___________

a) has multiple threads of execution
b) has a single thread of execution
SP
7. Multithreading on a multi – CPU machine
___________
a) decreases concurrency
G
c) can have multiple or a single thread for b) increases concurrency
execution c) doesn’t affect the concurrency
LO
d) none of the mentioned d) can increase or decrease the concurrency
Answer: b Answer: b
.B
4. A process having multiple threads of 8. The kernel is _______ of user threads.

17
control implies ___________ a) a part of

a) it can do more than one task at a time b) the creator of
b) it can do only one task at a time, but much c) unaware of
faster d) aware of
-R
c) it has to use only one thread per process

Explanation: None.
SE
Answer: a
Explanation: None. 9. If the kernel is single threaded, then any
user level thread performing a blocking
C
5. Multithreading an interactive program will system call will ___________

increase responsiveness to the user by a) cause the entire process to run along with
___________ the other threads
a) continuing to run even if a part of it is b) cause the thread to block with the other
blocked threads running
b) waiting for one part to finish before the c) cause the entire process to block even if the
other begins

other threads are available to run 1. The model in which one kernel thread is
d) none of the mentioned mapped to many user-level threads is called
___________
Answer: c a) Many to One model
Explanation: None. b) One to Many model
c) Many to Many model
10. Because the kernel thread management is d) One to One model
done by the Operating System itself
___________ Answer: a
M
a) kernel threads are faster to create than user Explanation: None.
threads
O
b) kernel threads are slower to create than 2. The model in which one user-level thread
user threads is mapped to many kernel level threads is
C
c) kernel threads are easier to manage as well called ___________
as create then user threads a) Many to One model
T.
d) none of the mentioned b) One to Many model
c) Many to Many model
Answer: b d) One to One model
O
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
11. If a kernel thread performs a blocking
system call, ____________
a) the kernel can schedule another thread in
SP
Explanation: None.
3. In the Many to One model, if a thread

G
the application for execution makes a blocking system call ___________
b) the kernel cannot schedule another thread a) the entire process will be blocked
LO
in the same application for execution b) a part of the process will stay blocked, with
c) the kernel must schedule another thread of the rest running
a different application for execution c) the entire process will run
d) the kernel must schedule another thread of d) none of the mentioned
.B
the same application on a different processor

Answer: a
17

Explanation: None.
4. In the Many to One model, multiple
12. Which of the following is FALSE? threads are unable to run in parallel on
-R
a) Context switch time is longer for kernel multiprocessors because of ___________

level threads than for user level threads a) only one thread can access the kernel at a
SE
b) User level threads do not need any time

hardware support b) many user threads have access to just one
c) Related kernel level threads can be kernel thread
scheduled on different processors in a c) there is only one kernel thread
C
multiprocessor system d) none of the mentioned

d) Blocking one kernel level thread blocks all
other related threads Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
Explanation: None. 5. The One to One model allows
___________

a) increased concurrency ___________

b) decreased concurrency a) the kernel can schedule only one thread at
c) increased or decreased concurrency a time
d) concurrency equivalent to other models b) there are too many threads to handle
c) it is hard to map threads with each other
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
6. In the One to One model when a thread Explanation: None.
M
makes a blocking system call ___________
a) other threads are strictly prohibited from 10. In the Many to Many models when a
O
running thread performs a blocking system call
b) other threads are allowed to run ___________
C
c) other threads only from other processes are a) other threads are strictly prohibited from
allowed to run running
T.
d) none of the mentioned b) other threads are allowed to run
c) other threads only from other processes are
Answer: b allowed to run
O
7. Which of the following is the drawback of

the One to One Model?
a) increased concurrency provided by this
SP
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
G
model
b) decreased concurrency provided by this 1. Which of the following system calls does
LO
model not return control to the calling point, on

c) creating so many threads at once can crash termination?
the system a) fork
d) creating a user thread requires creating the b) exec
.B
corresponding kernel thread c) ioctl

d) longjmp
17
Answer: d
Explanation: None. Answer: b
Explanation: None.
8. When is the Many to One model at an
-R
advantage? 2. The following program results in the

a) When the program does not need creation of?
SE
multithreading
b) When the program has to be multi- main()
threaded {
c) When there is a single processor
C
d) None of the mentioned if(fork()>0)
Answer: a sleep(100);
Explanation: None.
}
9. In the Many to Many model true
a) an orphan process
concurrency cannot be gained because
b) a zombie process

c) a process that executes forever b) the limit on the maximum number of

d) none of the mentioned processes in the system would be executed
c) the limit on the minimum number of
Answer: b processes that can be under execution by a
Explanation: None. single user would be executed
3. Which of the following system calls
transforms executable binary file into a Answer: b
process? Explanation: None.
M
a) fork
b) exec 7. If a thread invokes the exec system call
O
c) ioctl ____________
d) longjmp a) only the exec executes as a separate
C
process
Answer: b b) the program specified in the parameter to
T.
Explanation: None. exec will replace the entire process
c) the exec is ignored as it is invoked by a
4. How many times the following C program thread
O
prints yes? d) none of the mentioned
main()
{
SP
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
G
fork();fork();printf("yes"); 8. If exec is called immediately after forking
____________
LO
} a) the program specified in the parameter to

exec will replace the entire process
a) only once b) all the threads will be duplicated
b) twice c) all the threads may be duplicated
.B
c) four times d) none of the mentioned

d) eight times
17
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
9. If a process does not call exec after forking
-R
5. Which of the following calls never returns ____________

an error? a) the program specified in the parameter to
a) getpid
SE
exec will replace the entire process

b) fork b) all the threads should be duplicated
c) ioctl c) all the threads should not be duplicated
d) open d) none of the mentioned
C
Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: None. Explanation: The new process is purely
based on fork, due to no exec command,
6. A fork system call will fail if
duplication will be done.
______________
a) the previously executed statement is also a
fork call

1. What is Thread cancellation? a) frees all the resources properly

a) the task of destroying the thread once its b) may not free each resource
work is done c) spoils the process execution
b) the task of removing a thread once its work d) none of the mentioned
is done
c) the task of terminating a thread before it Answer: b
has completed Explanation: None.
6. Cancellation point is the point where
M
Answer: c ____________
Explanation: None. a) the thread can be cancelled – safely or
O
otherwise doesn’t matter
2. When a web page is loading, and the user b) the thread can be cancelled safely
C
presses a button on the browser to stop c) the whole process can be cancelled safely
loading the page? d) none of the mentioned
T.
a) the thread loading the page continues with
the loading Answer: b
b) the thread loading the page does not stop Explanation: None.
O
but continues with another task
c) the thread loading the page is paused 7. If multiple threads are concurrently
d) the thread loading the page is cancelled
Answer: d
SP
searching through a database and one thread
returns the result then the remaining threads
must be ____________
G
Explanation: None. a) continued
b) cancelled
LO
3. When one thread immediately terminates c) protected

the target thread, it is called ____________ d) none of the mentioned
a) Asynchronous cancellation
b) Systematic cancellation Answer: b
.B
c) Sudden Termination Explanation: None.

d) Deferred cancellation
17
Answer: a 1. Signals that occur at the same time, are

Explanation: None. presented to the process ____________
a) one at a time, in a particular order
-R
4. When the target thread periodically checks b) one at a time, in no particular order
if it should terminate and terminates itself in c) all at a time
SE
an orderly manner, it is called? d) none of the mentioned

a) Asynchronous cancellation
b) Systematic cancellation Answer: b
c) Sudden Termination Explanation: None.
C
d) Deferred cancellation
2. Which of the following is not TRUE?
Answer: d a) Processes may send each other signals
Explanation: None. b) Kernel may send signals internally
c) A field is updated in the signal table when
5. Cancelling a thread asynchronously the signal is sent
____________ d) Each signal is maintained by a single bit

Answer: c a) CPU
Explanation: A field is updated in the b) Memory
process table when the signal is sent. c) Process
d) Kernel
3. Signals of a given type ____________
a) are queued Answer: d
b) are all sent as one Explanation: None.
c) cannot be queued
d) none of the mentioned 8. In UNIX, the set of masked signals can be
M
set or cleared using the ________ function.
Answer: b a) sigmask
O
Explanation: The signal handler will be b) sigmaskproc
invoked only once. c) sigprocmask
C
d) sigproc
4. The three ways in which a process
T.
responds to a signal are ____________ Answer: c
a) ignoring the signal Explanation: None.
b) handling the signal
O
c) performing some default action 9. The usefulness of signals as a general inter
d) all of the mentioned process communication mechanism is limited
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
SPbecause ____________
a) they do not work between processes
b) they are user generated
G
c) they cannot carry information directly
5. Signals are identified by ____________ d) none of the mentioned
LO
a) signal identifiers
b) signal handlers Answer: c
c) signal actions Explanation: None.
.B
10. The usual effect of abnormal termination

Answer: a of a program is ____________
17
Explanation: None. a) core dump file generation

b) system crash
6. When a process blocks the receipt of c) program switch
certain signals? d) signal destruction
-R
a) The signals are delivered

b) The signals are not delivered Answer: a
c) The signals are received until they are Explanation: None.
SE
unblocked
d) The signals are received by the process 11. In UNIX, the abort() function sends the
once they are delivered ________ signal to the calling process,
C
causing abnormal termination.

Answer: a a) SIGTERM
Explanation: None. b) SIGSTOP
c) SIGABORT
7. The _______ maintains pending and d) SIGABRT
blocked bit vectors in the context of each
process.

Answer: d Answer: a
12. In most cases, if a process is sent a signal 2. Instead of starting a new thread for every
while it is executing a system call task to execute concurrently, the task can be
____________ passed to a ___________
a) the system call will continue execution and a) process
the signal will be ignored completely b) thread pool
b) the system call is interrupted by the signal, c) thread queue
M
and the signal handler comes in d) none of the mentioned
c) the signal has no effect until the system
O
call completes Answer: b
C
Answer: c 3. Each connection arriving at multi threaded
T.
Explanation: None. servers via network is generally
____________
13. A process can never be sure that a signal a) is directly put into the blocking queue
O
it has sent _____________ b) is wrapped as a task and passed on to a
a) has which identifier thread pool
b) has not been lost
c) has been sent
SP
c) is kept in a normal queue and then sent to
the blocking queue from where it is dequeued
G
Answer: b Answer: b
LO
14. In UNIX, the ______________ system 4. What is the idea behind thread pools?
call is used to send a signal. a) a number of threads are created at process
.B
a) sig startup and placed in a pool where they sit

b) send and wait for work
17
c) kill b) when a process begins, a pool of threads is

d) sigsend chosen from the many existing and each
thread is allotted equal amount of work
Answer: c c) all threads in a pool distribute the task
-R
Explanation: None. equally among themselves

SE
1. Thread pools are useful when Answer: a

____________ Explanation: None.
a) when we need to limit the number of
C
threads running in the application at the same 5. If the thread pool contains no available
time thread ____________
b) when we need to limit the number of a) the server runs a new process
threads running in the application as a whole b) the server goes to another thread pool
c) when we need to arrange the ordering of c) the server demands for a new pool creation
threads d) the server waits until one becomes free

Answer: d b) helping a limited number of processes at a

Explanation: None. time
c) not serving all requests and ignoring many
6. Thread pools help in ____________ d) none of the mentioned
a) servicing multiple requests using one
thread Answer: a
b) servicing a single request using multiple Explanation: None.
threads from the pool
c) faster servicing of requests with an existing 8. The number of the threads in the pool can
M
thread rather than waiting to create a new be decided on factors such as ____________
thread a) number of CPUs in the system
O
d) none of the mentioned b) amount of physical memory
c) expected number of concurrent client
C
Answer: c requests
Explanation: None. d) all of the mentioned
T.
7. Thread pools limit the number of threads Answer: d
that exist at any one point, hence Explanation: None.
O
____________
a) not letting the system resources like CPU
time and memory exhaust
SP
G
LO
.B
17
-R
SE
C

CS8493 Operating Systems MCQ

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CS8493 Operating Systems Regulations 2017

3. What does MBR stand for?

register. The format is: ADD Destination,

a) Control unit 5. What does PC stand for?

d) Memory c) Performance Counter

Explanation: The CPU is referred to as the Answer: b

be fetched by the control unit.

Downloaded From: https://cse-r17.blogspot.com 1

c) MBR and every operation whereas execution causes

Answer: d 10. What does D in the D-flip flop stand for?

micro operations is called _________ Explanation: It is called the Cache Memory.

d) Pipelining 2. Cache Memory is implemented using the

performance of each micro operation. Explanation: The Cache memory is

c) Control Signals memory it is called as _________

Downloaded From: https://cse-r17.blogspot.com 2

Answer: a c) Write within

9. The number of sign bits in a 32-bit IEEE

policy to avoid Cache Coherence? the standards. In a 32-bit format, there is 1

d) Buffered write 10. The transfer between CPU and Cache is

Answer: b a) Block transfer

used to avoid cache coherence.

Downloaded From: https://cse-r17.blogspot.com 3

3. The operation that does not involves clock

c) Fetch 7. Processor which is complex and expensive

on its own. Explanation: CISC stands for complex

set and a variable length of instructions.

Downloaded From: https://cse-r17.blogspot.com 4

c) RISC be of classified into register, cache, main

Answer: a 2. Cache memory is the onboard storage.

10. A circuitry that processes that responds to

Explanation: The processor is responsible for d) Registers

implemented using semiconductor chips.

b) drive depends on the size of the address bus.

Downloaded From: https://cse-r17.blogspot.com 5

Answer: a inside the CPU. L1 cache is also present on-

7. ____________ storage is a system where a

a) Secondary of a number of memory locations that is the

large computer systems and business

b) On-chip pulses per second are referred to as the clock

Answer: b 2. It takes one clock cycle to perform a basic

Downloaded From: https://cse-r17.blogspot.com 6

4. The number of clock cycles per second is

b) Clock frequency 8. The architecture that uses a tighter

second is the clock speed. It is generally d) CISC

5. CISC stands for ___________ parallel instruction computing. It has a tighter

b) Complex Instruction Set Computer processor. It enables the compiler to extract

Answer: b a) High level data

6. Which of the following processor has a Answer: c

Downloaded From: https://cse-r17.blogspot.com 7

the CPU whenever an interrupt is to be c) Hard disk

shape of a card. Useful in electronic devices

b) False a) Redundant array of independent disks

Answer: b c) Redundant array of intermediate disks

Downloaded From: https://cse-r17.blogspot.com 8

a) Disk array Answer: d

and then storing them on different disks. a) True

shift? Explanation: The statement is false.

b) Hard disks middleware. A middleware is for providing

hard disk platters. Also, they are mounted on b) Firmware

Downloaded From: https://cse-r17.blogspot.com 9

4. MOM stands for? 8. A type of middleware that allows for

a) Domain Name System ability to send the objects and receive

remote systems and is used to perform

Explanation: DNS stands for Domain Name between systems.