°C §- CP) g0/6 DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO TBC. : C-AMC-O-ICK Test Booklet Series TEST BOOKLET GENERAL STUDIES Paper-I Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200; ae 9 10, INSTRUCTIONS IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission / discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. This Test Booklet contains 8@ items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi and English, Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case, you feel that there is more than one correct Tesponse, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. Sec directions in the Answer Sheet. Ail items carry equal marks Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY THE CANDIDATE. () There arc four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question which has a penalty for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even ~~ if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question, if it has a penalty, ii) Lf a question is left blank, i.¢., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be penalty for that questior DO NOT OP. THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO ert %.. att om fet ewan ea yom 4 Roa ge a oo FI .Directions for the following 6 ( six } items: Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow cach passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. Passage-I ‘Accountability, or the lack of it, in governance generally, and civil services, in particular, is a major factor underlying the deficiencies in governance and public administration. Designing an effective framework for accountability has been a key element of the reform agenda. A fundamental issue is whether civil services should be accountable to the political executive of the day or to society at large. In other words, how should intemal and extemal accountability be reconciled ? Internal accountability is sought to be achieved by intemal performance monitoring, official supervision by bodies like the Central Vigilance Commission and Comptroller and Auditor General, and judicial review of executive ions. Articles 311 and.312 of the Indian Constitution provide job security and safeguards to the civil services, especially the All India Services. The framers of the Constitution had envisaged that provision of these safeguards would result in a civil service that is not totally subservient to the political executive but will have the strength to function in larger public imcrest. The need to balance internal ‘and external accountability is thus built into the Constitution. The issue is where to draw the line, Over the years, the emphasis seems to have tilled in favour of greater intemal accountability of the civil services to the political leaders of the day who in tun are expected to be externally accountable to the society at large through the election process. This system for seeking accountability to society has not worked out, and has led to several adverse consequences for governance. Some special measures can be considered for improving accountability in civil services. Provisions of articles 311 and 312 should be reviewed and laws and regulations framed to ensure extemal accountability cof civil services. The proposed Civil Services Bill secks to address some of these requirements, The respective roles of professional civil services and the political executive should be defined so thet professional managerial functions and management of civil services are depoliticized. For this purpose, effective statutory civil service boards should be created at the centre and in the states. Decentralization and devolution of authority to bring government and decision making claser to the people also helps to enhance accountability. 1. According to the passage, which of the 2. With reference to the the follow following factor/factors led to the adverse REECE, ia SeUoyiae consequences for governance/public assumptions have been made = administration ? 1, Political executive is an obstacle to be dle eis ey oie the accountability of the civil services accountabilities to the society 2. Lack of sufficient professional training 2, In the present framework of Indian ; Lote seis or-All hidle:Sepvices polity, the political executive is no re a penGte in longer accountable to the society 4, Lack of Constitutional provisions to Which of these assumptions is/are define the respective roles of valid ? professional civil services vis-a-vis political executive in this context (a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code (b) 2 only given below : i ty i eaty (©) Both | and (b) 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (ce) 1 and 4 only (@) 2,3and4 m on (Contd.)arg wg ‘ 1. wat wie fatter Bari ay oraredt e aeriite aciahrer ce aig & 2, ade weit & ada aft #, Torhter anbaiter wart A he wate TH we ee wa yiurenstt Fatah ae aye 2 (a) Fa 1 (bo) aa 2 (©) 1a 2c @ 7h1,7 82 1 2. sieee er aan aa ge, Prefatte germ aaa a ep ee ae SRe/areat FSET w/a ge Peay Se seh ae |. waft ok are waratidal a dhe aga 37M ¥ fafa aarit at sera aaa anda tent & sfterita = eq cuba afte vier wr aa fai Barat Hauge ter Reel tt ae . Se el Tene re %, seat #, Rest Penal gece oe warns saat at rary wow wet adl gat 2 3. (Contd.)3. 8. Which one of the following is the essential message implied by this passage ? (a) Civil services are not accountable to the society they are serving (b) Educated and enlightened persons are not taking up political leadership (c) The framers of the Constitution did not envisage the problems being encountered by the civil services (d)_ There is a need and scope for reforms to improve the accountability of civil services. Passage-2 According to the passage, which one of the following is not a means of enhancing intemal accountability of civil services ? (a) Better job security and safeguards (b) Supervision by Central Vigilance Commission (c) _fudicial review of executive decisions (d) Seeking accountability through enhanced participation by people in decision making process In general, religious traditions stress our duty to god, or to some universal ethical principle. Our duties to one another derive from these. The religious concept of rights is primarily derived from our relationship to this divinity or principle and the implication it has on our other relationships. ‘This correspondence between rights and duties is critical to any further understanding of justice. But, for justice to be practiced; virtue, rights and duties cannot remain formal abstractions. They must be grounded in a community (common unity) bound together by a sense of common union (communion). Even as a personal virtue, this solidarity is essential to the practice and understanding of justice. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. Human relationships are derived from + their religious traditions 2, Human beings can be duty bound only if they believe in god 3, Religious traditions are essential to practice and understand justice Which of these assumption(s) is/are valid ? (@) | only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only @ 1,2and3 rey Which one of the following is the crux of this passage ? (a) Our duties to one another derive from our religious traditions (b) Having relationship to. the divine principle is a great virtue (e) Balance between rights and duties is crucial to the delivery of justice in a society (a) Religious concept of rights is primarily derived from our relationship to god (Contd.)3. Prafifta % atta on, xe afte ¥ arated aPrarf ata & 2 (a) fafa tart ga aaa % gfe carats 4, siteee } seer, Preiser 3 star aw, Riker dar A) atehew sera + wat a amr wet 2? a6 8 fast ta a ae wt F (b) Patter cer vas ae orhte Age aH awe (©) #iur Piefesi 3 fife dan S wae art cist areata fare adi * fear (4) Rafa Sarat A war was 8g qa wt ance at aren 8 vufesbe-2 wary es 9, afte reevog dear Foo fet adele afew Raia Foyle eat acter oe aa Sh fe gat & sft eat wefer eet t oeaey ete By Sitar a tis ders Gen: we tars or art Fat emt wae RS ee oy Wee oe OBA TA EeR Pftarel a ® aes gf bi ofteret ste anda Fate ap eam eae & fet eae de & fhe seer 2) Bey ae aren FY at & fom aay, sftare she ater state ong ac vet we wad) oe ary fragt (ayaa) % ates 8 da Qe eye (err wRAT) FY gorea Tara a1 Gatton agp & er A tows cern, ae a amen ate aa # faq game 8) (a) deat er-yeer ate tere (b) Safer seater arte ara Pret (e) afrarst Pref ep anes gabe (@) Priva viz Y ant a ad gf aeafta aro saree aT Siete ar aad at ge Previefter gierome og Preaftias A stra um, ar afte aT want eB: 1 Wa aaa sath ofthe weet Be ETT Ha zt 2. ner cher Bank wD BE wee Foe a tere # fava wt 3. Fn et area ate ate fer oft Ten aaa F ea a ed ure giarcom te BA? @) Fa 1 (b) Fa 2a 3 (©) Far ata (@) 1,233 ww wis? @ Wet & oe em aa era afte qm & aera aa t (b) Peer Frater wae cern Her eT 3 (©) ater ate weal ate agers ware 4 sam feet & faq Protea % ‘ (dQ) oferta mths are yams: tae & ae eat dda F aes af (Contd.)A ate grapes and pineapple; B ate grapes and oranges; C ate oranges, pineapple and apple; D ate grapes, apple and pineapple. After taking fruits, B and C fell sick, In the light of the above facts, it can be said that the cause of sickness was : (a) Apple (b) Pineapple (c) Grapes (d) Oranges Consider the following statements : 1. The rate of population growth is increasing in the country 2. The death rate is declining faster in the country compared to birth rate 3. The birth rate is declining faster in the country compared to death rate 4. Rural-urban migration is taking place regularly in the country Which one of the following conclusions may be true in the light of the above facts ? {a) The rate of population growth is increasing due to rural-urban migration The rate of population growth is increasing due to decline in death rate only: . The rate of population growth is increasing due to increase in birth rate only The rate of population growth is increasing due to faster decline in death rate than in birth rate A person X was driving in a place where all roads ran either north-south or east- west, forming a grid. Roads are at a distance of 1 km from each other in a parallel. He started at the intersection of two roads, drove 3 km north, 3.km west and 4 km south. Which further route could bring him back to his starting point, if the same route is not repeated ? (a) 3 km cast, then 2 km south (b) 3.km east, then | km north (c) 1 km north, then 2 km west (@_ 3 km south, then 1 km north (b) «) id) 1m 10, Consider the following statement : “We shall go either for a picnic or for trekking”. Which of the following, if true, would falsify this claim ? (a) We go fora picnic but not for trekking (b) Activities such as picnic and trekking are encouraged by the health authorities We go for trekking and not for picnic We do not go either for picnic or for trekking * ‘There were 50 faculty members comprising 30 males and the rest females. No male faculty member knew music, but many of the female faculty members. did. The Head of the institution invited six faculty members to atea party by draw of lots, At the party it was discovered that no member knew music. The conclusion is that : (a) the party comprised male faculty members only (b) the party comprised only those female faculty members who could not give renderings in music the party comprised both male and female faculty members nothing can be said about the gender composition of the party Five people A, B, C, D and E are seated about a round table. Every chair is spaced equidistant from adjacent chairs. Gi) Cis seated next to A. Gi) \A is seated two seats from D (ii) B is not seated next to A On the basis of above information, which of the following must be true ? 1. Dis seated next to B 2. Eis seated next to A 3. D and C are separated by two seats Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) Neither | nor 2 nor 3 () (d) (e) (d) (Contd.)7. Aa ay a aera ey, BA aye aft @) aa (b) SRT ©) ae (d) afl Freafaftr ee} ge fare = 1. ter a wader gf ac ae oR 2 iF HH ae At # mie on 3. ta Fw ey, wat gan mine 4, fe F Profit ee Bo ore yaet ae eal @ ware #, Prevfetaa Prema arrar w, ae ef waar & ? more wae & re ree af ee a a dae yey ax act Here re gfe nwae gfe we ag . Hey ae, oH ae ot ater Bolt & firgae eF & ap orden af ee ae we (a) 3km oe, oF 2km Fe ) 3km WF 1 km (cs) Lkm Fe, 3% 2 km oie (d) 3-km aim, ce 1 km SAT oot 10. Preafaféra sea ae fare sie 12, “ee amt Ree qe ot a gh amar ae on Preaferert # @ we @ (b) Por ef oe ates el 8 ne eg ofa ar a! i i aqaazad (oy (@) 71478 2,4 83 (Contd.he ‘There are five hobby clubs in a college — photography, yachting, chess, electronics and gardening. The gardening group meets every second day, the electronics group meets every third day, the chess group meets every fourth day, the yachting group meets every fifth day and the photography group meets every sixth day, How many times do all the five groups meet on the same day within 180 days ? fa) 5 b) 18 {) 10 (@ 3 14. There are some nectar-filled flowers on a tree and some bees are hovering on it. If one bee lands on each. flower, one bee will be left out, If two bees land on each flower, one flower will be left out. The number of flowers and bees respectively are: (a) 2and4 (b) 3 and 2 (ce) 3 and 4 (@) 4 and 3 Directions for the following 5 (five) items ; Consider the following information and answer the five items that follow : ‘There are five persons in a group — P, Q, R, S and T. The group has one doctor, one lawyer and one artist. P and § are unmarried students, T is a man married to one of the group members, Q is the brother of P and is neither doctor nor artist. R is not doctor. 15, Who is the doctor 7 (a) T (b) P ©) Q @ RB » Who is the artist 7 (a) P (b) Q () R @) T . Who is the spouse of R ?- (a) P ) T (cy Q @ s |. Who is the lawyer ? (a) P (b) Q (RK @ Ss 200 19. Who of the following is definitely a man 7 (a) P () 8 () Q (a) None of the above . There is an order of 19000 quantity of a particular product from a customer. The firm produces 1000 quantity of that product_ per day out of which $% are unfit for sale. In how many days will the order be completed ? ' @) 18 (by 19 (ec) 20 (dy 22 (Contd.)13. GR ait Fafa eid were Brett, Arnie, wate, etree ae array amar wr ge gat Ra wee gee, eiveitat oe ee dtet ta ena ata B, wate at ee a fer ua er 2, Areftere za oe oa fet wna sot & ate mich wa et wea fea Gee PT @1 180 Rt Yat shay ea uw et fea S feat wre urs gy? fa) 5 (b) 18 fe) 10 (d) 3 16. WH 2g 7 Age @ oftyet ae gee ate Be vgabaat st gat ae Her wt w1 aft um agree urbe ga we ae ure a we nyerel ge andl 3) aft a agaitad vets qe a a5 ot dt os Ee ae oT 8) aa wt aged at ven az: Prrft 8? (a) 23 4 (b) 33m 2 (ce) 3a 4 @ 4an3 freafafeer wa (05) wensit & fey fate. te A we qe we Pert aie oe wee ae am wa oe we & gee Afr we wa toda =a @ —PO,R, Sah Tiza Foo Rites, we atte othe up ware 1 patt s aftata frerdt f) To gee 8 faa fee qe 8 cH wae a got 1 Q, P a owe & att ae 7 dt fafeeew 8, a A wera R faferw ai 21 13, faean Fa 2 7 (a) T (e) P (©) Q @ R ware at & 7 fa) P b) Q ( R @ T . Raw ae ats BP fa) P &) T © Q @ $ . aa wa 8? (a) P b) Q ) R @ s 20. 19. Preafafte 7 3 ate Pier er a ger a? (a) P ®) 8s {) Q (a) safe 8 8 ah ae ow mew aver fait ere gee #1 19000 rar 1 ws mu-araer Peay mar By we vieier sa geare 1000 stat geafea ateh 8 Pret & 5% inet & sequgar ert 2) waar feat fed? F yo em 7? {a) 18 (b) 19 (020 2d): 22 (Contd.)Directions for the following 5 (five ) items : Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. Passage-1 Biomass as fuel for power, heat, and transport has the highest mitigation potential of all renewable sources. It comes from agriculture and forest residues as well as from energy crops. ‘The biggest challenge in using biomass residues is a long-term reliable supply delivered to the power plant at reasonable costs; the key problems are logistical constraints and the costs of fuel collection. Energy crops, if not managed properly, compete with food production and may have undesirable impacts on food prices. Biomass production is also sensitive to the physical impacts of a changing climate. Projections of the future role of biomass are probably overestimated, given the limits to the sustainable biomass supply, unless breakthrough technologies substantially increase productivity. Climate-energy models project that biomass use could increase nearly four-fold to around 130 — 200 exajoules, almost a quarter of world primary energy in 2050. However the maximum sustainable technical potential of biomass resources (both residues and energy crops) without disruption of food and forest resources ranges from 80 — 170 exajoules a year by 2050, and only part of this is realistically and economically feasible. In addition, some climate models rely on biomass-based carbon capture and storage, an unproven technology, to achieve negative emissions ‘and to buy some time during the first half of the century, Some liquid biofuels such as com-based ethanol, mainly for transport, may aggravate rather than ameliorate carbon emissions on a life-cycle basis. Second generation biofuels, based on ligno-cellulosie feedstocks — such as straw, bagasse, grass and wood — hold the promise of sustainable production that is high-yielding and emit low levels of greenhouse gases, but these are still in the R & D stage. 21. What is/are the present constraint/constraints 22, Which of the following can lead to food in using biomass as fuel for power security problem ? generation ? 1. Using agricultural and forest residues 1. Lack of sustainable supply of biomass 2, Biomass production competes with food production 3. Bio-energy may not always be low carbon on a life-cycle basis Select the correst answer using the code as feedstock for power generation 2. Using biomass for carbon capture and storage 3. Promoting the cultivation of energy ‘crops Select the correct answer using the code given below ; . given below : (a) Land 2 only ‘ (@) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (b) 3 only (©) 2 and 3 only (cs) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (Contd.)emt art at 5 (ia) wer % fq Fae: Preafafe a vitesse a) wet aa ude aiteda + Wa art ae wert B gee die) gt wei Fo smh sox wes we oma # FA eee! aie wits, wer att ota fea BF eT F era (are) 8 apie erie wit vaeche otal a afte 8) as ph ste aq xaftrel, ae A Hal-waet A wer edt O) Serra wafieel er saat eet A aad edt gah afta-wdal FY sf ama ae 4 arta gat Reset Guia off at 8, ger area quaraPre (aifaftewa) sede ste der-areer af ara @1 ut sof-nedt a ofr Of a wet a a a, 8 a gene 4 ae viet wat # ay oa 4 ttt ae ore saifer ant ye want 81 Samer at genet aftadasia ory H foe gual S vie a daeaeitea dar 3) we we aecehiiteal secre Ay ares eT Ha ward, aa ee archer Sear ye at ret a tet wy Gamer A at ter er ayaa: aeaftea & afe aq amar mn 2) wees sitet ue wafer ard & fe 2050 8 ante ay eer ama aTOPT ae FT 150 - 200 weANRT a erat & ot fh fara at srofte gal ar cen aster 8) veq err ct ar gary a are farm fas fae, 2050 ae wited arierr dared) a after oreeter cate emer (srafiee sty sat spac tit) 80 - 170 Gg # aRtae F enh she can Re we sie areafts ste onl eq a wren eon | wae steht, Ee aay ites anee gets oe wea ae weet e ah Yao FRR Gert fam aera settee eT ed aes Te, ST fe oe sein AMT 2, safer a ge rea dais 38 aed waft erie, wye es 8 oitart Bq tet a arate aT venta Ho gare art a ome st ate meat wt aad 81 fret-ageiiie wa omaita gait fa % gp Seder 38 fe gee, ere we otk ane te ores genes A area wad Fh oeT serena ait ot wen teense ta & Pret cae a seats wt, fhegq Tah ow arpiary ote faxca eam a3) 21. wR So fe Saat a) det eT 22. Prevfefeer 8 Barbers aren Gre-gea 3 etre eet Ho stygr aya er wr aren et wat & ? ta? bo wie 8g BR Ge ae aaliee? 1. Samer 4 oreha yeh er ae = ai-aonh (Aeecie) # eg F 2, Sear Set A-Fe aT saint eer afgendi st sre 02, Sarat ar erly cue et dea FP 3. Gaasf, dhrt-ww oe we, ate faq sain wot Prev-anda adt a att 3, satpaet sf gf ay aera BAT Ae fq om Re wi ae MA see aM Ree ae a sa ae ae TEE BAT crue (@) Fam ate 2 () #3 (b) S4a 3 © P23 © Fm 2a @) 1,293 (@) 1,283 : i (Contd.)23. In the context of using biomass, which of the following is/are the characteristic/ characteristics of the sustainable production of biofuel ? 1. Biomass as a fuel for power generation could meet all the primary energy requirements of the world by 2050 2. Biomass as a fuel for power generation does not necessarily disrupt food and forest resources 3. Biomass as a fuel for power generation could help in achieving negative emissions, given certain nascent technologies Select the correct answer using the code given below : (@) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (©) 2 and 3 only (@) 1, 2and3 24. With reference to the passage, following assumptions have been made : 1, Some climate-energy models suggest that the use of biomass as a fuel for ‘power generation heips in mitigating greenhouse gas emissions 2. It is net possible to use biomass as a fuel for power generation without disrupting food and forest resources Which of these assumptions is/are valid ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both I and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Passage-2 We are witnessing a dangerous dwindling of biodiversity in our food supply. The green revolution is a mixed blessing. Over time farmers have come to rely heavily on broadly adapted, high yield crops to the exclusion of varieties adapted to the local conditions. Monocropping vast fields. with the same genetically uniform seeds helps boost yield and meet immediate hunger needs. Yet high-yield varieties are also genetically weaker crops that require expensive chemical fertilizers and toxic pesticides. In our focus on increasing the amount of food we produce today, we have accidentally put ourselves at risk for food shortages in future. 25, Which among the following is the most logical and critical inference that can be made from the above passage ? (a) In our agricultural practices, we have become heavily dependent on expensive chemical fertilizers and toxic pesticides only due to green revolution (b) Monocropping vast fields with high-yield varieties is possible due to green revolution (c) Monocropping with high-yield varieties is the only way to ensure food security to millions (4) Green revolution can pose a threat to biodiversity in food supply and food security in the long run 12 (Contd.)23, daar & amin owed 2 Preafafet = 24. ae eftede Baral, Preafher qarom ® atedivala-aad, de-for & oreo are ge: rerer a Pirsensfeirrn 8e 2 1. ye aeery-aat vies ae get & 1. 2080 mH, wike-wr4 # fey S eT bee beck cheris Re aae-ors # Get $e FY ata ie a ol at wh 2 a eri densa th getay 2 wiacrt # dor 8 er ® den wr pel F gee aan & a, are a at ane) sre 2, wirara & fer & ee ane ey & Pre ae et & TT Son, we we a dart 3. ap sear veined at at a ahaa ater dee ¥ be #1 arf Pe far aes set # serene seat ure act Y gemmn et Yorn F ahr aa ke ? a ee WC Fe Ht wir He a GAT (@ Fa 1a aie () a3 (©) 1ste 23H (©) Sar 2a 3 @) tH17 82 @) L243 afteae-2 gn arf @ra-gff ¥ da-RRea at arcs wt ta we F1 afte wife Ce Pega ater 8) aaa & area, fart a fsfor are ey fo opeg af see cra ach sae oe age afis agi mg 2 att 8 carta aeat 8 ape cad ah fret at wtet me Bi Peet ad Fargiier warm Gate wel) der A eer at a mA a oe aol ae ge Sl center cea eyo eet Hover Rent Bogert, gee see ary Pry arqafings, gfe wed ot deh ferd faq det camie dest ote fer steal a weer eat t) ome wo @ ore a oem wert ve A ae an ot Fie a, we aot F een, et ae arora a oe A oer GH FT 25. aude oPeae 8 Prevfafte 9 8 str, aad asieae ate ofan Pert (ertte) Pree am yam 8? . (@) weit gf cafta 2 er Faq eke wife S are Ash Tempe shat ste Port Searrat 3 scafirs fre gr ont a (b) Bene Bet FX sea soe ae Poy A cma Set eft wi PR are aa ® (©) sea ave ah Preeti A cewech Gch watst anit # fre ere geen gfites act ar ena ater & (@) site wit, ef rer A oreght ste ora qeat F Sa-fAfaact } fore ere vege He wadt 8 1B (Contd)26, 27. 28. A class starts at 11:00 am and lasts till 2:27 pm. Four periods of equal duration are held during this interval. After every period, a rest of 5 minutes is given to the students. The exact duration of each period is (a) 48 minutes (b) 50 minutes (c) 51 minutes (d) $3 minutes Four friends A, B, C and D need to cross a bridge. A maximum of two persons can ‘cross it at a time. It is night and they just have one lamp. Persons that cross the bridge must carry the lamp to find the way. A pair must walk together at the speed of slower person. After crossing the bridge, the person having faster speed in the pair will return with the lamp each time to accompany another person in the group. Finally, the lamp has to be returned at the original place and the person who returns the lamp has to cross the bridge again without lamp. To cross the bridge, the time taken by them is as follows : A: I minute, B: 2 minutes, C: 7 minutes and D; 10 minutes, What is the total minimum time required by all the friends to cross the bridge ? (a) 23 minutes (b) 22 minutes. (©) 21 minutes (@) 20 minutes 30 g of sugar was mixed in 180 ml water in a vessel A, 40 g of sugar was mixed in 280 ml of water in vessel B and 20 g of sugar was mixed in 100 ml of water in vessel C. The solution in vessel B is : (a) sweeter than that in C (b) sweeter than that in A (©) as sweet as that in C (@)_ less sweet than that in C 29. 30. 31. In aid of charity, every student in a class contributes as many rupees as the number of students in that class, With the additional contribution of Rs. 2 by one student only, the total collection is Rs. 443. Then how many students are there in the class ? (a) 12 (b) 21 (ce) 43 (d) 45 Anita's mathematics test had 70 problems carrying equal marks i.e, 10 arithmetic, 30 algebra and 30 geometry. Although she answered 70% of the arithmetic, 40% of the algebra and 60% of the geometry problems correctly, she did not pass the test because she got less than 60% marks. ‘The number of more questions she would have to answer correctly to earn a 60% passing marks is : fa) 1 (b) 5 ©7 (dy 9 In a class, there are 18 very tall boys. If these constitute three-fourths of the boys and the total number of boys is two-thirds of the total number of students in the class, what is the number of girls in the class 7 (a) 6 (by 12 (©) 18 (@) 21 (Contd,}26. 27. 28. we sen qafer 1100 wa oree ert aie are? 2:27 48 ware at #1 ar door 3 ox wor wet & Mftue ae @1 gran Hitus # are oral ws Pre a Remy fem ore 81 acta iftas at Sede aahy fart 3? (a) 48 Pre (b) 50 faz (c) 51 Paz (a) 53 raz ca Pat A,B,C aR Dat Uh A a Oe oT ti or Ge way 8 afee & fle ae Te a aR 1 Te Hw aay Bee SR oe Far UH maa BT aK CY oat a wea gt 4 fe aac & arth cafe) we arr we are ay aera ery ert are sata A art wera BMT | A TT we ® ay, a ae Fa ve ae eet aon afta, RE ae amy arh HG ae wer we, area alee ae ee sneat| ae 4 ames a ast ag wrt ye wea Bear ae ane TA ae alte A area Bate JA OUR wer Boga oe Het A fae Sa Bre fear To aT ea BER As 1 PAE, B: 2 fre, C:7 Pa, D: 10 fac) at Rat a ye we aa ya fT aE war aa & ? fa) 23 faz (b) 22 Bre (©) 21 faz (dd) 20 frre wa A 30 ory gate at 180 fiat. ae 4 Bern mn, 9 BY 400m aT A 280 Rah sa # fe ma ah oa c 4% 2004 wa #100 Aa om from mr) wr Be fier Har 2 7 (a) C& faa @ afm tar (b) A® from & afew thar (©) C# Re # ear aia @ C@ fava & wm ata 29, 30. 31. aah ar #, felt wer F get faarelf oat wid Rar 8 Peet sa wer H Peenftia a der &) faq un feel & 2 we afafter 24 9 Ga wat 443 wae EU BI a men # fect frat # ? (a) 12 (b) 21 (c) 43 (dy 45 afrar #t nftre wien 9% 70 wv qa amet & & Revy 10 ateaftta 4, 30 deaf & ohe 30 safhie F A) aalt set staat % 70%, domfira # 40% sie saftey 60% Wet wr ast sere fr, ae cee FH wad val gf ahh gat aH 60% J aT a) gat Prat she weit # a8 var Ru Bra, fore fe Fa 60% FT Te orate Pro ma Bret? (@ 1 (b) 5 (7 @ 9 UR Fa TY 1S aR age es Er ae F ag, aset a ge der F de-dtad & at wet FH den wea F orl A aT wer Ft a-fterk 8, at ser A asfeat at wear wr 2? (a) 6 (b) 12 (©) 18 @) 21 (Contd.)32, Consider the following statements 33. The monthly average salary paid to all 1. Either A and B are of the same age the employees of a company was Rs. 3000. or A is older than B The monthly average salary paid to male 2, Either C and D are of the same age and female employees was Rs. 5200 and or D is older than € Rs, 4200 respectively. Then the percentage 35 Bil olde tec ; of males employed in the company is : Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements ? ® Be (a) A is older than B (bh) 80% (b) B and D are of the same age (©) 85% (©) Dis older than C (a) 90% (@) Ais older than C Direction for the following 3 (three) items : Consider the given information and answer the three items that follow. Six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F have been painted with six different colours viz., violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow and orange and arranged from left to right (not necessarily either kept or painted with the colours in the same order), Each box contains a ball of any one of the following six games: cricket, hockey, tennis, golf, football and volleyball (not necessarily in the same order). The golf ball is in violet box and is not in the-box D. The box A which contains tennis ball is orange in colour and is at the extreme right, The hockey ball is neither in box D nor in box E, The box C having cricket ball is painted green. The hockey ball is neither in the box painted blue nor in the box painted yellow. The box C is fifth from right and next to box B, The box B contains volleyball. The box containing the hockey ball is between the boxes containing golf ball and volleyball. 34. Which one of the following boxes contains 36, The football is in the box: of which the golf ball ? eatuar'? ) # (a) Yellow (e) E (b) Indigo () D (©) Cannot be determined as data are {d)_ None of the above inadequate 35. Which of the following statements is/are (@) Blue correct ? (a) D is painted yellow (0) F is painted indigo (©) Bis painted blue (d) All of the above 16 (Comid.)33. fief wer 8 af had a mf Lo wat adh Bat ero amt atea ar & 9,000 a1 ges a Titer aA, Ba aT aatefad et gee aif ston aaa ara: 2. a Oem meee ag t %. 5,200 & 4,200 ar) weeh F ander Ai B,C# as 2 = " mee afer wrt a Prevfaiter ¥ a ata an From or wet & ? (b) 80% (a) wane? ee (ce) 85% @) Batt DuRawar sy ( D,cd at ane (@) A,Ca age amt art are 3. G@iey wert & fom Pee: Prevfafier qaar we Pree aed gq att fq mm da wis Fo gee Sh) : & wr A,B,C, D, Bate Fat @: Pires OF - drt, sree, after, Fo, them at aro aon oom @ att we ae a ae A at wer A cer er 2 reeen et PH at wT FB CT #8 my aga Ge) | ged wr Hw, Vat - Pes, eet, ehra, tes, gewier ox atcha we A a ee ce te eel we (sree eet AR wT A) ew a ie eh wa #8 a a Daas H adi 2) cee Aa, fed tha dia 2% tr aro 2 ak ag ant axe ore cen 8) cit et aes a wae DAE a A we EA) wae Cm, fee fee Wife 2, tr ea 8) shoe te aren ae a dt Ra tr a Or 8, aw A he or a wae C, af are 8 otet cart oe 2 att aaa BS aie FT ti ase BOF aia 2) eet ah He at aaa, ten at itz aa atc aictaia aa wail # de F 8) 34. Prafafea 2 a ata-8 aaa 7 ten a 36, Gea Pra tr # aad HE? a a) er OE (b) avant ‘) D (o) sie amas HAS arr Frais @) sar 3 a ae ae wel fem on wea (a) eT 35. Prafta 3 & rae ar ad 38 ? @) Dw wm a ome (b) F saartt a &@ tm eB © Baa ta tre @ age wh Wy (Contd.)37. 3B. Two numbers X and Y are respectively 20% and 28% less than a third number Z. By what percentage is the number ¥ less than the number X 7 (a). 12% (b) 10% (c) 9% (d) 8% A daily train is to be introduced between station A and station B starting from each end at 6 AM and the journey is to be completed in 42 hours, What is the number of trains needed in order to maintain the shuttle service ? (a) 2 (e) 3 (&) 4 @7 Directions for the following 8 (eight) items : ‘Read the following eight passages and answer the item that féllows each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. Passage-1 39; 40. A piece of tin is in the form of a rectangle having length 12.cm and width & em. This is used to construct a closed cube. The side of the cube is : . (a) 2m (b) 3.cm (e) 4m @ 6om In a question paper there are five questions to be attempted and answer to each question has two choices — True (T) or False (F). It is given that no two candidates have given the answers to the five questions in an identical sequence. For this to happen the maximum number of candidates is : (a) 10 (b) 18 (©) 26 (d) 32 By killing transparency and competition, crony capitalism is harmful to free enterprise, opportunity and economic growth. Crony capitalism, where rich and the influential are alleged to have received land and natural resources and various licences in return for payoffs to venal politicians, is now a major issue to be tackled. One of the greatest dangers to growth of developing economics like India is the middle-income trap where crony capitalism creates oligarchies that slow down the growth. 41. Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage ? (a) Launching more welfare schemes and allocating more finances for the current schemes are urgently needed 0) licences to the poor Efforts should be made to push up economic growth by other means and provide (e) Greater transparency in the functioning of the government and promoting the financial inclusion are needed at present (@) We should concentrate more on developing manufacturing sector than service sector (Contd.)37. 38. a Fem x sik y, feet Gerd den Z & mmr: 20% TH 28% oH FE) Wem Y en Xe Peat via wre ? (a) 12% (b) 10% (©) 9% (d) 8% rent Aa emt Bae dy, wis erat @ 689 gay amt anh, the tamed sry st ort 2, st Ue aa 42 az Fp a art 8) Peet der % [amftat wart et feet A wea aa at we? 39, Rea we gest ama Ht ompfa FB, Raat crag 12 Get aay cheng g HH 2) eee, owe ae oe aye Pie Peat arent) oa A aon a werd eB? (@) 2% (b) 3 ar () 4am @) 6h GR wesw 8 gta wd oe yore fe art 3 ste wt wer Hoye F a fewer @ Wel (T) we Hae (F) 1 ae Per oa 8 fret ae etenfat 4 aie) geet sere wr apy Fat fo By ter at faq wenffat a afreae wear feet & 2 (a) 10 (b) 18 te) 26 (d) 32 ant SPL are 8 (wre) weit & fie Fee: Previa ans uftedah at via gor vee oft TFA a we were & sere Ger) er wri F ang sax oftedeal oe omafte ft da aT) afer sreefeler ate afc St waar ee a, aoa GAeRien) yar aque, sme aie seks amit fay erence 21 arfpier, Rey ever dtc wera afin we ae ares amen @ Pe ST were werfiftal el ye ere seis of oes dere ar faker oredr ist fry &, st a wage eT ey rar @ Brae Poet A weer 81 wee Get faaraste: spleens w agfa & faq or agT Tet aT Tes Gse weA ou) 8 wel aes seat (siftenafa) at Patties apc @ sh af at dn we Ba Ey 41, oder aftete at waffine afin sumer (ated) Prafates YoY ere BP @ Regs aie eure set st aT ea sre we AS Re atenpe slew faa anita eel A went ona & (b) soft ese at ava arent @ dente ect wd Peay A erate ar wal ar yee Pear arr anfég () aa Facer # arise Fost resi oer faite qartert 4) dtenier aed at sreeerna & (@ FF tar dee a ane Frain doe a ee eet a aie a ARs won aC 19 (Contd.)