Vivekananda School of Law and Legal Studies (VSLLS)

Subject: Constitutional Law-I (LLB 203)

III Semester
Prepared by Subject Faculty Members

Unit-I
1. In which case the Supreme Court gave a ruling that the Preamble was a part of the constitution?
a) Golaknath Case
b) Berubari Case
c) Kesavananda Bharati Case
d) All of the above cases

Answer: c)

2. Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent assembly on:

a) 26 January 1950
b) 26 November 1948

c) 26 November 1949
d) 26 January 1949

Answer: c)

3. “India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States”.

The above mandate has been enshrined in the Constitution of India, in which among the following?
a) Preamble
b) Article 1
c) Article 5
d) Schedule 7

Answer b)
 4. Word ‘Socialist’ was introduced in the Preamble of Indian Constitution through
a) 41st Amendment Act
b) 42nd Amendment Act
c) 43rd Amendment Act
d) 44th Amendment Act

Answer: b)

5. Which of the following features does not support the federal character of
Indian Constitution
a) Distribution of Powers between Centre and State
b) Authority of Courts
c) Supremacy of the Constitution
d) Single citizenship

Answer: d)

6. Who said that Indian Constitution is Quasi-Federal

a) Sir Ivor Jennings
b) K.C. Wheare
c) DD Basu
d) H.M. Seervai

Answer b)

7. Deviant factors from the federal principle are

a) Residue powers are vested with the union by virtue of Art. 248
b) When the proclamation of emergency is in operation, the parliament can legislate on any
matter of the state list (Art. 250).
c) Under Art. 249 if the Council of States declares in the national interest with not less than
2/3rds majority of the present and voting that the parliament can make law on any of the
subjects under state list, the parliament is empowered to do so.
d) All
Answer d)

8. The Indian federal system can be transformed into a unitary system under
a) Article 368
b) Article 356
c) Article 360
d) Article 352

Answer: d)

9. In which case it was held preamble stands part of the Constitution

a) Keshavananda Bharathi Vs. State of Kerala
b) State of Bihar Vs. Kameshwar Singh
c) A.K. Gopalan v State of madras
d) None

Answer a)

10. Fundamental rights and Parliamentary form of government are the features borrowed from
a) UK and Ireland respectively
b) Japan and US respectively
c) US and Germany respectively
d) US and UK respectively

Answer d)

11. Under the constitution of India who are the ultimate Sovereign?
(A) Indian People
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) President of India
(D) All elected leaders of India
Ans. A
 12. ‘Preamble of our Constitution is of extreme importance and the Constitution should be read and
interpreted in the light of the grand and noble vision expressed in the Preamble.’ Justice Sikri
expressed the above opinion in the case of:
A. In re: Beru Bari Union
B. Keshvananda Bharti v. State of Kerela
C. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
D. In re: Kerala Education Bill.
Ans. B

13. The constitution is the supreme law of the land. It is protected by

(A) The Supreme Court
(B) The Constituent Assembly
(C) The Parliament
(D) The President
Ans. A

14. Which of the following sought to change the character of Indian Government from unitary to
federal:
A. Government of India Act, 1919
B. Government of India Act, 1935
C. Indian Council Act, 1909
D. Indian Independence Act, 1947.
Ans. B

15. The main recommendations of the Cabinet Commission include:

A. formation of Federal Union consisting of British Indian provinces and Indian States
B. a Constituent Assembly to frame a Constitution for India
C. an interim government consisting of representatives of various political parties
D. all of the above.
Ans. D

16. In which case the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is not the Part of the Constitution:
A. A.K. Gopalan case
B. Berubari case
 C. Minerva Mills case
D. A.K. Antony case.
Ans. B

17. Preambleless statute is a rare occurrence. But there are some statutes which do not have a Preamble.
Which of the following statutes has no Preamble:
A. Government of India Act, 1935
B. Government of India Act, 1919
C. The British North America Act
D. Constitution of Switzerland.
Ans. A

18. Sovereignty under Constitution belongs to:

A. the President
B. the Parliament
C. the People
D. the Executant, Judiciary and Legislature.
Ans. C

19. Which of the following statement is incorrect:

A. Preamble is a key to the understanding of the mind of founding fathers
B. Preamble embodies the ideals, hopes, faith and aspirations of the people
C. Preamble embodies the intentions of the founding fathers and objectives of the Constitution
D. Preamble of the Constitution has no importance. It is no more than an introduction to the Consti-
tution.
Ans. D

20. The concept of the Judicial review has been borrowed from the Constitution of
(a) U.K.
(b) Switzerland
(c) U.S.A
(d) U.S.S.R.
Answer:C
 21. The word ‘socialist secular’ and ‘unity and integrity of the Nation’ were made to our Constitu-
tion by:
A. 42nd Amendment of the Constitution
B. 44th Amendment of the Constitution
C. 46th Amendment of the Constitution
D. None of the above.
Ans. A

22. The Preamble to our Constitution proclaims that ‘We, the People of India have established:
A. a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic
B. a Sovereign, Democratic Republic
C. a Sovereign, Secular, Democratic, Socialist, Republic.
D. a Secular, Socialist, Democratic, Sovereign, Republic.
Ans. A

23. In the case of Golak Nath v. State of Punjab, it was remarked that our ‘Preamble contains in a
nutshell its ideals and aspirations’. Who was the Judge:
A. Mathew, J.
B. Krishna Iyer, J.
C. Subba Rao, J.
D. H.R. Khanna, J.
Ans. C

24. Which of the following is not a constitutional body?

(A) Election Commission
(B) Planning Commission
(C) National Advisory Council
(D) Inter-State Council
Ans. C

25. The Indian Constitution is regarded as

A. federal
B. unitary
C. parliament
D. federal in form and unitary in spirit
Ans. D

26. The Constitution of India was enacted by a Constituent Assembly set up

(a) Through a resolution of the provisional government
(b) By the Indian National Congress
(c) Under the Indian Independence Act, 1947
(d) Under the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946
Answer: D

27. Which of the following Acts gave representation to the Indians for the first time in legislation ?
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1919
(b) Govt. of India Act, 1935
(c) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(d) Govt of India Act, 1919
Answer: Govt. of India Act, 1935

28. Who was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly ?

(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) C. Rajagopalachari
(c) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Answer: Dr. Rajendra Prasad

29. A constitution is
(a) A set of ordinary laws
(b) A set of financial laws.
(c) A set of official laws
(d) The basic structure defining the powers of the state and the rights and duties of the citizens.
Answer: The basic structure defining the powers of the state and the rights and duties of the
citizens.
 Unit-II

30. Law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all the courts within the territory of
India. Here “courts” means:
a) all courts including the Supreme Court of India
b) all Courts except the Supreme Court of India
c) all Courts including the supreme court except such benches of the supreme court which
consists of seven judges or more
d) all courts including Supreme Court except a bench of the supreme court which consists of
all the judges of the supreme court
Answer: b)

31. The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India is :

a) Appellate Only
b) Original Only
c) Original As Well As Appellate
d) Original appellate and advisory
Answer: d)

32. The doctrine of colourable legislation means:

a) one cannot do indirectly what cannot be done directly
b) a legislation should not be coloured with malice
c) the intention Behind every legislation should be clear
d) a legislation should be interpreted in such a manner that a noble end is reached
Answer: a)

33. The Parliament can legislate on any subject in the State list:
a) if the Rajya Sabha declared by a two third majority resolution that it is expedient to do so
in National interest
b) for the implementation of international treaties or agreements
c) if two or more States make a request to Parliament to do so
d) in all the above cases
Answer: d)
 34. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is:
a) executive power
b) legislative power
c) constituent power
d) quasi- judicial power
Answer: b)

35. The president can obtain the opinion of the supreme court in which of the following cases?
a) where he is advised by the cabinet of ministers to refer the matter to the court for its
opinion
b) where he is advised by the Minister to refer the matter to the court for its opinion
c) whether question of law or fact has arisen or is likely to arise which is of such a nature
and of such public importance that it is expedient to obtain the opinion of the court
d) none of the above
Answer: c)

36. Article 123 deals with:

a) power of the President to dissolve Lok Sabha
b) power of the Governor to promulgate ordinances
c) power of the President to promulgate ordinances
d) power of the Parliament to pass the bills
Answer: c)

37. What is the maximum strength of Lok Sabha i.e. House of the people?
a) 500
b) 550

c) 545
d) 552

Answer: d)

38. The members of the Council of states in India are elected for a period of
a) 4 years
b) 5 years
c) 6 years
 d) life term
Answer: c)

39. Prorogation of the House means

a) The house has been brought into session
b) The house itself stands terminated
c) The session of the house has been terminated
d) None of these
Answer: c)

40. The President of India is elected by

a) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament
b) Members of both Houses of Parliament
c) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and state legislative assemblies
d) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and both Houses of the state legislatures
Answer: c)

41. The Ordinance passed remains in force for how long after the Parliament is reconvened?
a) Six months
b) Six weeks

c) Six days
d) Sixty days

Answer: b)

42. The power of the President to consult the Supreme Court is under Article
a) 132
b) 143
c) 136
d) 131
Answer: b)

43. Which qualification is wrong for being a Judge in the Supreme Court
a) It is compulsory to be a citizen of India
b) He should be respected jurist in the eyes of Parliament
 c) Must be a judge in the High Court for at least 5 years
d) He should be a lawyer in the High Court for at least 10 years
Answer: b)

44. Law declared by Supreme Courts be binding on ‘all the Courts’ which article
a) Article 141
b) Article 142
c) Article 143
d) Article 146
Answer: a)

45. Who is the final authority to interpret the Constitution

a) President
b) Lok Sabha
c) Parliament
d) Supreme Court
Answer: d)

46. To adjudicate on any dispute relating to any inter-state rivers

a) Only the Supreme Court is empowered under Article 131
b) High Court of concerned State enjoys concurrent jurisdiction
c) President of India only has the power to decide
d) The parliament is empowered to establish Tribunal and to that extent the jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court may be extended
Answer: d)

47. The Supreme Court of India is

a) a Court of Record and has power to punish for its contempt
b) the only highest court of appeal
c) like House of Lords on its judicial side
d) in all respect like the Supreme Court of the USA
Answer: a)

48. Decisions of the disqualification of member of Lok Sabha are taken by

 a) Speaker
b) Prime Minister
c) Minister for Parliamentary affairs
d) The parliamentary secretary
Answer a)

49. Article 134 deals with:

a) Original jurisdiction of High Court
b) Advisory jurisdiction of Supreme Court
c) SLP
d) Appellate jurisdiction of Supreme Court in regard to criminal matters.
Answer d)

50. Pardoning powers of the president are laid down under

a) Article 129
b) Article 72
c) Article 249
d) None
Answer b)

51. The President can pardon in all cases where the punishment is by a Court Martial. The Governors
do not have this power.
a) True
b) False
Answer a)

52. The oath is administered to the President of India by

a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
b) Prime Minister of Indi
c) Attorney General of India
d) Chief Justice of India
Ans. D

53. The State legislatures in India are

 a) Unicameral
b) Bicameral

c) Either (a) or (b)

d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Ans. C

54. The Vice President of India also holds the position of

a) Speaker of Lok Sabha

b) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

c) Ex officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha

d) Head of the Armed Forces

Answer C

55. For the first time Indian Legislature was made "Bi-cameral" under:
(A) Government of India Act, 1861
(B) Government of India Act, 1892
(C) Government of India Act, 1915
(D) Government of India Act, 1919
Ans. D

56. The speaker can ask a member of the house to stop speaking and let another member speak. This
is known as?
(A) Crossing the floor
(B) Yielding the floor
(C) Obeying the rule
(D) Rotating the floor
Ans. B

57. The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Vice- President
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Chief Justice
Answer: A
 58. The President gives his resignation to the
(a) Chief Justice
(b) Parliament
(c) Vice President
(d) Prime Minister Answer: C

59. For how many times, a person can become President of India?
[A] Once
[B] Twice
[C] Thrice
[D] No limit
Ans. D

60. The concept of Judicial Review in India is adopted from the Constitution of which country?
[A] USA
[B] Germany
[C] USSR
[D] Australia
Ans. A

61. Which of the following are the demerits of the presidential form of government?
1. Conflict between legislature and executive
2. Non-responsible government
3. May lead to autocracy
4. Narrow representation
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 1, 2 & 3
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Ans. D

62. For what period does the Vice President of India hold office ?
 (a) 5 years
(b) Till the age of 65 years
(c) 6 years
(d) 2 years
(e) Answer: A

63. Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President?
(a) Governor
(b) Election Commissioner
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Prime minister

Ans. Governor

64. Which of the following is not true regarding the payment of the emoluments of the President ?
(a) They can be reduced during a Financial Emergency.
(b) They are shown separately in the budget.
(c) They are charged on the Contigency Fund of India.
(d) They do not require any parliament sanction.
Answer: They are charged on the Contigency Fund of India.

65. Which of the following appointments is not made by the President of India?
(a) Chief of the Army
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Chief of the Air Force
Answer: Speaker of the Lok Sabha

66. The council of Ministers in a Parliamentary type of Government can remain in office till it en-
joys the support of the
(a) Minority of members of the Upper House of Parliament
(b) Majority of the members of the Upper House of Parliament
(c) Minority of members of the Lower House
(d) Majority of the members of the Lower House of Parliament
Answer: Majority of the members of the Lower House of Parliament

67. The Union Council of Ministers is appointed by the:

(a) President of India according to his discretion
(b) President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister
(c) Prime Minister of India
(d) Parliament
Answer: President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister

68. The Supreme Court shall have power to issue directions or orders or writs according to Right to
Constitutional Remedies. Which of the following writs can be issued by the Supreme Court for
the enforcement of any of the fundamental rights?
A. Habeas Corpus
B. Mandamus
C. Quo Warranto
D. All of them
Ans. D

69. In which of the following situation the Supreme Court will not interfere under Article 32 of the
Indian Constitution?
A. No question other than relating to a fundamental right will be determined in a proceeding under
Article 32 of the Indian Constitution
B. If the validity of other provisions of the statute is challenged on the grounds other than the con-
travention of fundamental rights, the court would not entertain that challenge in a proceeding under
Article 32 of the Indian Constitution
C. The court will not interfere with the finding of fact where it was based on just and reasonable
satisfaction and was not perverse
D. All of them
Ans. D

70. Which of the following statements regarding ‘What the Supreme Court cannot do under Article
32’ of the Indian Constitution is/are found to be correct?
I. The Supreme Court will not give a declaration which will not serve any useful purpose to the
petitioner.
II. The Supreme Court will not issue damages which are available only in a suit.
III. In the absence of adequate materials, the Court would not enter into a political arena which should
be properly dealt with by the Government.
A. All are incorrect
B. All are correct
C. I and III
D. II and III
Ans. B

71. Which of the following is an essential part of rule of law and independence of Judiciary?
A. Judicial Review
B. Impartial appointment of Judges
C. Impeachment
D. Original Jurisdiction
Ans. A

72. In case a President dies while in office, the vice President can act as President for a maximum
period of
(a) 1 years
(b) 3 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 2 years

Answer. c

73. A person who is not a member of Parliament can be appointed as a Minister by the President for
a maximum period of
(a) 9 months
(b) 3 months
(c) 12 months
(d) 6 months
Answer: 6 months

74. When can a President use his discretion in appointing the Prime Minister?
(a) When no political oarty enjoys a clear majority in the Lok Sabha.
(b) Only when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved.
(c) In all circumstances
(d) In no circumstances
Answer: When no political party enjoys a clear majority in the Lok Sabha.

75. .Chief Ministers of all the states are ex-officio members of the
(a) Planning Commission
(b) National Development Council
(c) Inter State Council
(d) Finance Commission

Answer: Inter State Council

76. Who, among the following, has the final right to sanction the expenditure of public money in
India ?
(a) Speaker
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Parliament

Answer: President

77. Which of the following is not an essential qualification for appointment as a Governor ?
(a) He must not be a member of either House of Parliament.
(b) He should be a domicile of the state to which he is being appointed.
(c) He should be a citizen of India.
(d) He must have completed the age of 35 years

Answer: He should be a domicile of the state to which he is being appointed.

 78. The President nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha according to
(a) Their performance as office bearers of cultural societies.
(b) The recommendations made by the Vice President.
(c) Their role played in political set up of the country.
(d) Their distinction in the field of science, art, literature and social service.
Answer: Their distinction in the field of science, art, literature and social service.

79. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India ?
(a) Either House of Parliament
(b) Any Vidhan Sabha
(c) Only Lok Sabha
(d) Rajya Sabha
Answer: Either House of Parliament

80. What is the minimum age for appointment as a Governor ?

(a) 35 years
(b) 40 years
(c) 25 years
(d) 30 years

Answer: 35 years

81. Chief Minister of a State is responsible to

(a) Prime Minister
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Legislative Assembly
(d) Governor
Answer: Legislative Assembly

82. Which of the following is covered under the original jurisdiction of the supreme court ?
(a) Dispute relating to civil matters
 (b) Dispute between two citizens from two different states
(c) Dispute relating to criminal cases involving murder
(d) Disputes between two states of the Indian Union
Answer: Disputes between two states of the Indian Union

83. Which of the following amendments curtailed the power of Judicial review of the Supreme Court
and the High Court ?
(a) 24th
(b) 44th
(c) 26th
(d) 42nd
Answer: 42nd

84. Under a single, integrated, hierarchical judicial system, the High Court in the states are directly
under the
(a) President
(b) Union Parliament
(c) Governor of the state
(d) Supreme Court
Answer: Supreme Court

85. What is the position of a Minister of State in the Central Government ?

(a) He is a Minister of Central Government but not a member of the Cabinet.
(b) He looks after the interests of the State Cabinet.
(c) He is the nominee of the State Governor.
(d) He is the nominee of the State Cabinet.

Answer: He is a Minister of Central Government but not a member of the Cabinet.

86. How many times the President of India can seek re-election to his post ?
(a) Once
(b) 3 times
(c) 2 times
(d) Any number of times
Answer- Any number of times

87. Who among the following has the power to form a new state within the Union of India ?
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Supreme Court Answer: President

88. When the Vice President officiates as President he draws the salary of
(a) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) President
(c) Both a & c
(d) Member of Parliment
Answer: President

89. Who among the following can attend meetings of the Union Cabinet ?
(a) President
(b) Cabinet Ministers
(c) Ministers of State
(d) Deputy Ministers

Answer: Cabinet Ministers

90. Who acts as the President of India when neither the President nor the Vice President is available?
(a) Seniormost Governor of a State
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Auditor General of India

Answer: Chief Justice of India

91. The Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to

 (a) Rajya Sabha
(b) President
(c) House of the People
(d) Prime Minister
Answer: House of the People

92. Article 78 of the Constitution deals with

(a) President's power to get information from the Council of Ministers.
(b) Prime Minister's duty regarding keeping the President informed about the government's deci-
sions and policies.
(c) Emergency powers of the President
(d) President's power to send advisory messages to the Parliament.
Answer: President's power to send advisory messages to the Parliament.

93. The maximum duration for which the Vice President may officiate as the President, is
(a) 1 year
(b) 6 months
(c) 4 months
(d) 9 months
Answer: 6 months

94. When a State Governor dies or resigns, who normally exercises his functions till a new Governor
is appointed ?
(a) Chief Justice of the High Court
(b) Advocate General of the State
(c) Secretary General of the Governor
(d) A person designated by State Cabinet

Answer: Chief Justice of the High Court

95. Which of the following is correct regarding the Governor of a State ?

(a) All of the above
(b) He can recommend to the President to impose President's Rule in the State.
(c) No money bill can be introduced in the State Legislature without his prior permission.
 (d) He has the power of issuing ordinances when the legislature is not in session.

Answer: All of the above

96. If the President wants to resign from office, he may do so by writing to the
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Vice- President
Answer: Vice- President

97. The five year term of the President is calculated from the
(a) First day of the month following the month he assumes charge
(b) Date of his election result
(c) Day he assumes charge
(d) First day of the month he assumes charge

Answer: Day he assumes charge

98. When Parliament is not in session, the President can promulgate an ordinance which is to be
ratified by the Parliament within
(a) 6 weeks from the reassembly of Parliament
(b) 6 months from the reassembly of the Parliament
(c) 6 weeks from the date of issue of ordinance.
(d) 3 months from the date of issue of the ordinance.

Answer: 6 weeks from the reassembly of Parliament

99. The President of India is elected by an electoral college comprising of

(a) Elected members of Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
(b) Elected member of both Houses of Parliament and State Legislative Assembly
(c) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament.
(d) Elected member of State Legislative Assemblies
Answer: Elected member of both Houses of Parliament and State Legislative Assembly

100. If the office of the President of India falls vacant, within what time should the next President
be elected ?
(a) Within 2 months
(b) Within 1 year
(c) Within 6 months
(d) Immediately
Answer: Within 6 months

101. In the election of the President, the value of the vote of the Lok Sabha members
(a) Differs according to the geographical size of the respective state.
(b) None of these
(c) Differs according to the number of votes a member represents.
(d) is same
Answer: Differs according to the number of votes a member represents.

102. The minimum age required for becoming the Prime Minister of India is
(a) 30 years
(b) 35 years
(c) 40 years
(d) 25 years

Answer: 25 years

103. The President may for violation of the Constitution be removed from the office by
(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The Electoral College consisting of members of Parliament and the State Legislatures.
(c) Impeachment
(d) A no- confidence vote
Answer: Impeachment
 104. In which of the following situations does the President act in his own discretion ?
(a) In returning a proposal to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration
(b) None of the Above
(c) In appointing the Prime Minister
(d) Both of these
Answer: In returning a proposal to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration

105. The President can make laws through ordinances

(a) Only on subjects contained in the concurrent list
(b) Under no circumstances
(c) On certain subjects even when Parliament is in session.
(d) During the recess of the Parliament
Answer: During the recess of the Parliament

106. The impeachment proceedings against the Vice- President can be initiated
(a) Only in Lok Sabha
(b) In neither Hosue of Parliament
(c) In either House of Parliament
(d) Only in Rajya Sabha
Answer: Only in Rajya Sabha

107. If the President returns a Bill sent to him for his assent and the Parliament once again passes
the Bill in its original form, then the President
(a) Can seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on the bill
(b) Gives assent to the bill
(c) Can once again return the bill for further reconsideration
(d) Can ask for a referendum on the bill

Answer: Gives assent to the bill

 108. If a Minister loses a no- confidence motion, then
(a) Lok Sabha is dissolved
(b) Only Prime Minister and that Minister resigns.
(c) The whole Council of Ministers resigns
(d) The Minister resigns
Answer: The whole Council of Ministers resigns

109. The only instance when the President of India exercised his power of veto related to the
(a) Indian Post Office (Amendment Bill)
(b) Dowry Prohibition Bill
(c) Hindu Code Bill
(d) PEPSU Appropriation Bill
Answer: Indian Post Office (Amendment Bill)

110. The control of the preparation of electoral rolls for parliament and legislature vests with the
(a) President
(b) Election Commission
(c) Cabinet
(d) Prime Minister
Answer: Election Commission

111. The Election commission holds election for

(a) The Parliament, State Legislature and the posts of the president and the Vice-President
(b) The parliament, State legislative Assemblies and the State Council
(c) The Parliament
(d) The parliament and the State Legislative Assemblies
Answer: The Parliament, State Legislature and the posts of the president and the Vice-President

112. In India, political parties are given recognition by

(a) Election Commission
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
 (c) President
(d) Law Commission
Answer: Election Commission

113. The Vice President is elected by an Electoral College consisting of members of

(a) Both Houses of Parliament and state legislative
(b) Both Houses of Parliament
(c) Lok Sabha
(d) Rajya Sabha
Answer: Both Houses of Parliament

114. The maximum age prescribed for election as president is

(a) No such Limit
(b) 62 years
(c) 58 years
(d) 60 years
Answer: No such Limit

115. To elect the President of India, which one of the following election procedures is used ?
(a) System of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote
(b) Secondary voting system
(c) Proportional representation through list system
(d) Collective Voting system
Answer: System of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote

116. Election to the house of the people and the Legislative Assemblies of States in India are
conducted on the basis of
(a) Single Transferable vote
(b) Propotional Representation
(c) Limited sufferage
(d) Adult Franchise

Answer: Adult Franchise

 117. The Chief Minister of a state in India is not eligible to vote in the Presidential election if
(a) He is a member of the Upper House of the State Legislature
(b) He is a caretaker Chief Minister
(c) He himself is a candidate
(d) He is yet to prove his majority on the floor of the Lower House of the state Legislature

Answer: He is a member of the Upper House of the State Legislature

 Unit-III
118. ‘Full faith and credit shall be given throughout the territory of India to public acts, records,
and judicial proceedings of the Union and of every State’, is provided under which Article of
the Constitution of India?
a) Article 261
b) Article 260
c) Article 32(3) and 226 (3)
d) Article 226 (2)
Answer: a)

119. According to article 254 of the Constitution of India, Repugnancy between two statues may
thus be ascertained on the following three principles: i) whether there is a direct conflict, ii)
whether Parliament intended to lay down an exhaustive code in respect of the subject matter
replacing the act of the state legislature, and iii) whether the law made by Parliament and the
state legislature occupied the same field, was held in:

a) Deep Chand v. State of UP 1959

b) M Karunanidhi v. Union of India 1979
c) State of Assam v. Horizon Union 1967
d) Clyde Engineering Company v. Cowburn 1926
Answer: a)

120. Article 245 has been interpreted on the basis of :

a) Doctrine of Territorial Nexus

b) Doctrine of colourable legislation
c) Doctrine of eclipse
d) Doctrine of pith and substance
Answer: a)

121. In which article of the Constitution of India, provision has been made for finance commis-
sion?
a) 366( 12)
b) 280
 c) 265
d) none of the above
Answer: b)

122. In which schedule of the Constitution of India the three lists are mentioned:
a) Third List
b) Fourth List
c) Ninth List
d) Seventh List
Answer: d)

123. Doctrine of pith and substance relates to:

a) interpretation of statues to solve the problem of competing legislature in the same field
b) serve the objectionable portions of the Statute that violate fundamental rights
c) interpretation of statutes to solve problems arising out of Territorial Nexus
d) interpretation of statutes to solve problems of waiver of fundamental rights
Answer: a)

124. Residuary powers are vested in:

a) Executive
b) Judiciary
c) Parliament
d) State legislatures
Answer: c)

125. The distribution of subject matters of legislation is based upon

a. American Pattern
b. Canadian pattern
c. British system
d. USSR system
Ans. B

126. From where the idea of Concurrent list was borrowed in Indian Constitution?
a. Australian Constitution
 b. American Constitution
c. English Constitution
d. Canadian Constitution
Ans. A

127. A law passed by a State on a concurrent subject gets precedence over the law of the centre
if:
a. If it passed earlier than the central law
b. If it was passed by the State Legislature and approved by the President before enactment of
the central law
c. If the supreme court so decides
d. It the majority of State Legislature so decide
Ans. B

128. Parliament can legislate on matters in the State List:

a. Under any circumstances
b. If Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by 2/3 majority
c. By wish of the President
d. By asking the Legislature of the State Concerned
Ans. B

129. Parliament has power to legislate with respect to a matter in the State list provided it is in
the
a. National interest or during emergency
b. Interest of the State concerned
c. Interest of the public
d. Interest of the houses of the parliament
Ans. A

130. Which one of the following is not in the State List under the Constitution
a. Education
b. Public Health
c. Agriculture
d. Betting and Gambling
 Ans. A

131. The centre- State financial relations are looked after by the:
a. Finance Commission
b. Ministry of Finance
c. Planning Commission
d. Sarkaria Commission
Ans. A

132. The list that contains the subjects that is common to Union and State Government are
a) State List
b) Concurrent List
c) Either (a) or (b)
d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer B

133. Which one of the following does not constitute the electoral college for electing the The
number of subjects that the state list consists of
(A) 46
(B) 56
(C) 66
(D) 86

Ans: C

134. GST was implemented in India from

A) 1st January 2017
B) 1st April 2017
C) 1st March 2017
D) 1st July 2017
Answer: D

135. Which Constitution Amendment Bill has been done to pass the GST
a) 98th Amendment
 b) 101th Amendment
c) 100th Amendment
d) 105th Amendment
Ans. B

136. GST has been defined under the Constitutional Provision?

a) Art. 247’
b) Art. 246
c) Art. 246-A
d) Art. 279
Ans. C

137. The residuary power lies with whom:

a. The State
b. The President
c. Parliament
d. Houses of the people

Ans. B

138. In the Indian federal system, residuary powers rest with the
a) Local government
b) State
c) Judiciary
d) Centre
Answer: d)

139. A Law made by Parliament having extra-territorial operation shall

a) not be deemed invalid
b) be deemed invalid
c) be deemed ultra-vires
d) be deemed unconstitutional
Answer: a)
 140. Which Articles of the Indian Constitution discuss the financial relations between the
Centre and the Sates?
a) Articles 268-293
b) Articles 278-291
c) Articles 289-295
d) Articles 168-171
Answer: a)

141. In which case Chief Justice S.R. Das observed, ‘sufficiency’ of the territorial connection
involved consideration of two aspects 1. the connection must be real and not illusory 2. the lia-
bility sought to be imposed must be pertinent to that connection
a) Prafulla Kumar Mukherjee Vs. Bank of Commerce, Khulna
b) State of Bombay Vs. RMDC
c) State of Bihar Vs. Smt Charushila Dasi
d) None
Answer a)

142. Doctrine of pith and substance means

a) the conflict between two pieces of legislation which when applied to the same facts pro-
duce different results.
b) if the substance of legislation is within the legitimate power allocated to the legislature,
such law would be valid and cannot be declared invalid merely because it incidentally
touches matters outside its sphere.
c) Whatever the government is unable to do directly, it cannot do indirectly.
Answer b)

143. K. C. Gajapati Narayan Deo v. State of Orissa and State of Bihar Vs. Kameshwar singh
cases are related to :
a) Doctrine of Repugnancy
b) Doctrine of Colorable Legislation
c) Doctrine of pith and substance
d) Doctrine of Territorial nexus
Answer b)
 144. Doctrine of Repugnancy is dealt with under
a) Article 254
b) Article 356
c) Article 248
Answer a)

145. Territorial and Subject matter jurisdiction of Central and State government are dealt with
under
a) Article 352, 356
b) Article 245, 246
c) Article 13, 368
Answer: b)

146. Main principles of Doctrine of Harmonious Construction were laid down in

a) A.K. Gopalan v State of madras
b) CIT v. Hindustan Bulk Carriers
c) Keshavananda Bharathi Vs. State of Kerala
d) None
Answer b)

147. Which of the following is not a legislative power of the president

a) He summons or prorogues Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha
b) He appoints State governors, Chief Election Commissioner
c) He summons a joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha in case of deadlock
d) He nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha
Answer b)
 Unit-IV

148. The principle of Basic Structure in the Constitution is laid down in which case?
a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
b) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
c) Keshavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala
d) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
Answer: c)

149. In Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain, which of the following was held to be the basic structure of
the Indian Constitution:
a) free and fair election
b) Judicial review
c) both a and b
d) none of these
Answer: a)

150. In which of the following cases did the supreme court hold that the basic features of the
Constitution of India cannot be amended by exercising the power of amendment under Article
368:
a) Sajjan Singh v. State Of Rajasthan
b) Shankari Prasad v. Union Of India
c) Kesavananda Bharati v. State Of Kerala
d) Golaknath v. State Of Punjab
Answer: c)

151. Match the following correctly:

List A List B
I. Kesavananda Bharati v. Union w. 1975
Of India
II. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Na- x. 1973
rain
III. Minerva Mills Case y. 2000
 IV. State Of Bihar v. Bal Mukund z. 1980
Shah

Codes:
a) I-w, II-x, III-y, IV-z
b) I-x, II-w, III-z, IV-y
c) I-z, II-x, III-y, IV-w
d) None of the above
Answer: b)

152. On proclamation of emergency under article 352, the president has power to suspend the
fundamental rights except the right secured by:
a) Articles 19 and 20
b) Articles 20 and 21
c) Articles 21 and 22
d) Articles 19, 20 and 21
Answer: b)

153. S R Bommai v. Union of India JT 1994 (2) SC 215 is related to:

a) National Emergency Under Article 352
b) President Rule In State Under Article 356
c) Financial Emergency Under Article 360
d) None Of The Above
Answer: b)

154. Which of the following case is associated with the issue of domicile in the state concerned
for getting elected to the Council of States?
a) Rameshwar Prasad v. Union Of India
b) Kuldip Nayar v. Union Of India
c) S R Bommai v. Union Of India
d) Satwant Singh v. Assistant Passport Officer
Answer: b)
 155. Provision for imposing the president's rule in case of failure of constitutional machinery in
the states is provided under:
a) article 353
b) Article 360
c) article 352
d) article 356
Answer: d)

156. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution the right to compulsory acquisi-
tion of property was mentioned before its deletion?
A. Article 30(1)
B. Article 31
C. Article 32
D. Article 30(2)
Ans. B

157. Which of the following statements regarding the object of Article 3I B of the Indian Con-
stitution is/are found to be correct?
I. Article 3IB has been inserted, by way of abundant caution, to save the particular Acts included in
the 9th schedule of the constitution, notwithstanding any decision of a court or tribunal that any of
those Acts is void for contravention of any fundamental right.
II. Article 3 IB is not illustrative of the rule contained in Article 31 A, but stands independent of it,
and validates certain Acts specified in the Ninth schedule, though the compensation provided was
not real or adequate.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Neither I nor II
D. Both I and II
Ans. D

158. Clause (4) of Article 13 of the Indian Constitution says, “Nothing in this Article shall apply
to any amendment of this Constitution made under Article 368 of the Indian Constitution”.
Clause (4) has been inserted by which of the following Amendment Acts?
A. 22nd Amendment Act
B. 21st Amendment Act
C. 24th Amendment Act
D. 23rd Amendment Act
Ans. C

159. Clause (4) of Article 13 the Indian Constitution which were inserted by the 24 th Amend-
ment Act, 1971, states that a Constitution Amendment Act, passed according to Article 368,
Indian Constitution is a law within the meaning of Article 13 and would, accordingly be void
if it contravenes a fundamental right. This amendment was declared void in which of the fol-
lowing cases?
A. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
B. Edward Mills Co. ltd. v. State of Ajmer
C. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
D. Ghulam Sarwar v. Union of India
Ans. C

160. Under whose advice the President of India declares Emergency under Article 352 ?
(a) Chief Ministers of all states
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Cabinet
(d) Council of Ministers
Answer: Cabinet

161. The President can proclaim a state of emergency in case of

(a) All of the above
(b) Threat to financial stability of the country.
(c) External aggression or internal disturbances threatening the security of the country.
(d) Failure of Constitutional machinery in a particular state.
Answer: All of the above

162. A proclamation of emergency issued under Article 356 must be approved by the Parliament
within
(a) 3 months
(b) 2 months
 (c) 1 Month
(d) 6 weeks
Answer: 2 months

163. The President can proclaim emergency on the written advice of the
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Union Cabinet

Answer: Prime Minister

164. The President's Rule in a state means that the state is ruled by
(a) A caretaker government
(b) The Chief Minister nominated by the President
(c) The Governor of the State
(d) The President directly
Answer: The Governor of the State

165. That the power of Indian Parliament to amend the Constitution of India is a constituent
power was laid down in Article 368 by:
a. First Constitutional Amendment of 1951
b. Twenty Forth Constitutional Amendment, 1971
c. Twenty fifth Constitutional Amendment, 1971
d. Forty Second Constitutional Amendment, 1976

Ans. B

166. Rights under Article 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during emergency after which amend-
ment
a) 42nd Amendment
b) 44th Amendment
c) 43rd Amendment
d) 45th Amendment
Answer: b)
167. In which of the following cases free and fair election is recognised as basic structure of In-
dian Constitution
a) Indira Gandhi Vs. Raj Narain
b) Minerva Mills Vs. union of India
c) Both (A) and (B)
d) None of the above
Answer: a)

168. Panchayat Raj and Nagarpalika were brought by Constitutional Amendment

a) 74th Amendment
b) 91st Amendment
c) 99th Amendment
d) 75th Amendment
Answer: a)

169. In which case Supreme Court laid down doctrine of Basic Structure
a) Shankari Prasad’s Case
b) Golakhnath Case
c) Kesavananda Bharti’s Case
d) Indira Gandi’s Case
Answer: c)

170. Rights of a Citizen under Article 19 are automatically suspended during

emergency under Article 352 on grounds of
a) War, external aggression or armed rebellion
b) War, or armed rebellion
c) External aggression as armed rebellion
d) War or external aggression
Answer: a)

171. Fundamental Duties under Part IV A was inserted in the Constitution by

a) 17th Amendment Act
b) 25th Amendment Act
c) 42nd Amendment
d) 44th Amendment
Answer: c)

172. Which article of the constitution of India empowers the President to take over the admin-
istration of a state on the basis of failure of constitutional machinery
a) 365
b) 352
c) 356
d) 360
Answer: c)

173. 42ndamendment Act was adopted by the Parliament in

a) 1967
b) 1968
c) 1976
d) 1977
Answer: c)

174. Ground(s) for the declaration of financial emergency include-

a) Threat to the financial stability of India
b) Threat to the Credit of India
c) Threat to the financial stability / credit of any part of the territory of India
d) all the above
Answer: d)

175. In which case Supreme Court held that an Amendment of the Constitution under
Article 368 was ‘law within the meaning of Article 13’?
a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
b) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
c) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
d) Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Answer: a)
 176. In Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narayan, the SC held the amendment unconstitutional on the
ground that
a) the constitution cannot be amended by the Parliament when several of its members are in
preventive detention
b) it is violative of free and fair election which is the essential postulate of democracy and
which in turn is part of the basic structure of the constitution
c) the constitution cannot be amended when emergency is in vogue
d) amendment is the negation of right to equality
Answer b)

177. The President can issue the proclamation of Emergency

a) On the advice of Prime Minister
b) On the advice of Council of Ministers
c) in his own decisions
d) When the decision of Union Cabinet for the issuance of such proclamation has been com-
municated to him in writing
Answer: d)

178. In which case, Constitution Bench of Supreme Court by 4:1 Majority upheld the collegium
system and The court has struck down The Constitution (Ninety-ninth Amendment) Act, 2014
and The National Judicial Appointments Commission Act, 2014, declaring them to be uncon-
stitutional and void
a) S.P.Gupta Vs. Union of India
b) Union of India v. Sankalchand Himatlal Sheth
c) Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record - Association & Anr. v/s Union of India
d) Fundamental Rights Case
Answer c)

179. Article 262 deals with

a) Emergency
b) Amendment procedure
c) Territorial jurisdiction of Centre
d) Interstate Water dispute
Answer d)

180. 10th schedule of the Constitution was added by which amendment of the constitution?
a) 52nd
b) 42nd
c) 44th
d) 24th
Answer: a)

181. Which of the following are provisions of the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976?
a) It added Fundamental Duties
b) It added words socialist, secular and integrity in the Preamble.
c) Made the president bound by the advice of the cabinet.
d) All the above
Answer d)

182. Which of the following are included in the basic structure of the constitution?
a) Judicial review.
b) Limited power of Parliament to amend the Constitution.
c) Free and fair elections
d) All the above
Answer d)

183. 103rd Amendment of Constitution was

a) To extend the reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and states assemblies
from Seventy years to Eighty years.
b) Constitutional status given to National Commission for Backward Classes
c) A maximum of 10% Reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWSs) of citizens of
classes other than the classes mentioned in clauses (4) and (5) of Article 15
d) All the above
Answer c)

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