Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Air Law
Air Law
Legislative Act No. 3909 passed by the Philippine Legislative on November 20, 1931
created an Office under the Department of Commerce and Communications to handle
aviation matters, particularly the enforcement of rules and regulations governing
commercial aviation as well as private flying. It was amended by Act 3996 to include
licensing of airmen and aircraft, inspection of aircraft concerning air traffic rules, schedules
and rates and enforcement of Aviation Laws.
From 1932 to 1936, there were no standard procedures as to the licensing of airmen,
registration of aircraft and recording of various aeronautical activities connected with
commercial aviation. There were attempts made to register planes and their owners
without ascertaining their airworthiness and to record names of pilots, airplane mechanics
and other details.
In 1933, the office of Technical Assistant of Aviation matters was enlarged into the Aeronautics Division under the Department of
Commerce and Industry, the functions of which were embodied in Administrative Order No. 309, a joint Bulletin issued by the
Department of Public Works and Communications and the Department of Finance.
In October, 1934 Act 4033 was passed to require a franchise from the Philippine government in order to operate an air service and to
regulate foreign aircraft operations.
On November 12, 1936, the Philippine Legislative passed Commonwealth Act No. 168, better known as the Civil Aviation Law of the
Philippines which created the Bureau of Aeronautics. After the liberation of the Philippines in March, 1945, the Bureau was reorganized
and placed under the Department of National Defense. Among its functions was to promulgate Civil Aviation Regulations.
On October, 1947, Executive Order No. 94 which reorganized the government transferred Bureau of Aeronautics to the Newly created
Department of Commerce and Industry and renamed Civil Aeronautics Administration (CAA).
On June 5, 1948, Republic Act 224 created the National Airports Corporation which was charged with the management and operations
of all national airports.
On June 20, 1952, Republic Act No. 776, otherwise known as the Civil Aeronautics Act of the Philippines reorganized the Civil
Aeronautics Board and the Civil Aeronautics Administration. It defined the powers and duties of both agencies including the funds,
personnel and the regulations of Civil Aviation.
On October 19, 1956, Executive Order No. 209 placed the Civil Aeronautics Administration under the administrative supervision and
control of the Department of Public Works, Transportation and Communications.
On January 20, 1975, Letter of Instruction No. 244 transferred to the Department of Public Highways the responsibilities relative to
airport plans, designs, construction, improvement, maintenance as well as site acquisition. The responsibilities related to location ,
planning design and funding were later returned to the CAAP.
On July 23, 1979, Executive Order No. 546, the CAA was renamed the Bureau of Air Transportation (BAT) and placed under the
Ministry of Transportation and Communications.
On April 4, 1987, Executive Order No. 125 renamed the Bureau of Air Transportation the Air Transportation Office headed by the
Assistant Secretary of Air Transportation.
In 1998, A bill has been filed in the Senate and House of Representatives to convert the ATO into a Civil Aviation Authority of the
Philippines (CAAP), a single aviation body that will have regulatory and operational mandate. When approved, this will enable the CAAP
to pursue with renewed vigor our vision of a globally competitive Philippine civil aviation.
On March 4, 2008, President Gloria Macapagal-Arroyo signed into law Republic Act 9497 - the CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY Act of 2008.
This law stands to update and strengthen the international framework of the country's civil aviation industry.
PPL AIR LAW LECTURE
R.A. 9497 – THIS ACT SHALL BE KNOWN AS THE CIVIL AUTHORITY ACT OF 2008.
- FOR THIS PURPOSE, THE EXISTING AIR TRANSPORTATION OFFICE (ATO) CREATED UNDER THE
PROVISION OF REPUBLIC ACT NO. 776, AS AMENDED, IS HEREBY ABOLISHED.
- NOTWITHSTANDING THE FOREGOING, NOTHING IN THIS ACT SHALL DIMINISHED THE POWERS
AND FUNCTIONS OF THE CIVIL AERONAUTICS BOARD (CAB) AS PROVIDED FOR UNDER REPUBLIC
ACT NO. 776,(SERIES OF 1952) ALSO KNOWN AS “THE CIVIL AERONAUTICS ACT OF THE
PHILIPPINES”, AS AMENDED.
CAR PART 2- PERSONNEL LICENSING SERIES OF 2008 (AMENDING A.O. NO. 60 SERIES OF 2001).
(a) Age. The applicant for a PPL(A) shall be not less than 17 years of age.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for a PPL(A) shall:
(1) Receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor on the following subjects:
(i) Air law: rules and regulations relevant to the holder of a PPL(A); rules of the air; appropriate air traffic services
practices and procedures
(ii) Aircraft general knowledge:
(A) Principles of operation of airplane power-plants, systems and instruments;
(B) Operating limitations of airplanes and power-plants: relevant operational information from the flight manual or other
appropriate document;
(iii) Flight performance and planning:
(A) effects of loading and weight distribution on flight characteristics; weight and balance calculations;
(B) use and practical application of take-off, landing and other performance data;
(C) pre-flight and en-route flight planning appropriate to private operations under VFR; preparation and filing of air
traffic services flight plans; appropriate air traffic services procedures; position reporting procedures; altimeter setting
procedures; operations in areas of high-density traffic;
(iv) Human performance: human performance relevant to the PPL(A)
(v) Meteorology: application of elementary aeronautical meteorology; use of, and procedures for obtaining,
meteorological information; altimetry
(vi) Navigation: practical aspects of air navigation and dead-reckoning techniques; use of aeronautical charts:
(vii) Operational procedures:
(A) use of aeronautical documentation such as AIP, NOTAM, aeronautical codes and abbreviations;
(B) appropriate precautionary and emergency procedures, including action to be taken to avoid hazardous weather,
wake turbulence and other operating hazards;
(viii) Principles of flight: principles of flight relating to airplanes;
(ix) Radiotelephony:
(A) radiotelephony procedures and phraseology as applied to VFR operations; action to be taken in case of
communication failure;
(B) as listed in IS 2.3.3.2 Appendix A;
(2) have received an endorsement for the knowledge test from an authorized instructor who:
(i) conducted the training on the knowledge subjects;
(ii) certifies that the person is prepared for the required knowledge test; and
(3) pass the required knowledge test on the knowledge areas listed in IS 2.3.3.2 Appendix A.
(b) Experience
(1) The applicant for a PPL(A) shall have completed not less than 40 hours of flight time as pilot of airplanes, a total of
5 hours may have been completed in a flight simulator or flight procedures trainer.
(2) The applicant shall have completed in airplanes not less than 10 hours of solo flight time under the supervision of
an authorized flight instructor, including 5 hours of solo cross-country flight time with at least one cross-country flight
totaling not less than 270 km (150 nm) in the course of which full-stop landings at two difference aerodromes shall be
made.
(3) The holder of pilot licenses in other categories may be credited with 10 hours of the total flight time as pilot-in-
command towards a PPL(A).
(c) Flight Instruction.
(1) The applicant for a PPL(A) shall receive and log not less than 20 hours of dual instruction from an authorized
instructor on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.2 Appendix B. These 20 hours may include 5 hours completed in a flight
simulator or flight procedures trainer. The 20 hours of dual instruction shall include at least 5 hours of solo cross-
country flight time with at least one cross-country flight totaling not less than 270 km (150 NM) in the course of which
full-stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be made.
(2) The instructor shall ensure that the applicant has operational experience in at least the following areas to the level
of performance required for the private pilot:
(i) pre-flight operations, including mass and balance determination, airplane inspection and servicing;
(ii) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations, collision avoidance precautions and procedures;
(iii) control of the airplane by external visual reference;
(iv) flight at critically slow airspeeds; recognition of, and recovery from, incipient and full stalls;
(v) flight at critically high airspeeds; recognition of, and recovery from, spiral dives,
(vi) normal and cross-wind take-offs and landings;
(vii) maximum performance (short field and obstacle clearance take-offs, short field landings;
(viii) flight by reference solely to instruments, including the completion of a level 180 degrees turn:
(ix) cross-country flying using visual reference, dead reckoning and, where available, radio navigation aids;
(x) emergency operations, including simulated airplane equipment malfunctions; and
(xi) operations to, from and transmitting controlled aerodromes, compliance with air traffic services procedures,
radiotelephony procedures and phraseology as further specified in IS 2.3.3.2 Appendix B.
(3) If the privileges of the PPL(A) are to be exercised at night, the applicant shall have received 4 hours dual
instruction in airplanes in night flying, including take-offs, landings and 1 hour of navigation and that information shall
be endorsed on the license.
Note 1: Training can be performed by an individually authorized flight instructor, by an authorized flight instructor in a
flying club, or in an Aviation Training Organization.
(d) Skill. The applicant for a PPL(A) shall:
(1) have received an endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies that the person is prepared for the
required skill test; and
(2) have demonstrated by passing a skill test the ability to perform as pilot-in command of an airplane, the areas of
operation described in IS 2.3.3.2 Appendix B, with a degree of competency appropriate to the privileges granted to the
holder of a PPL(A), and to
(i) operate the airplane within its limitations;
(ii) complete all maneuvers with smoothness and accuracy;
(iii) exercise good judgment and airmanship;
(iv) apply aeronautical knowledge; and
(v) maintain control of the airplane at all times in a manner such that the successful outcome of a procedure or
maneuver is never seriously in doubt.
(e) Medical fitness. The applicant for a PPL(A) shall hold a current Class 2 Medical Certificate.
(f) Privileges. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the privileges of the holder of a PPL
(A) shall be to act, but not for remuneration, as pilot-in- command or co-pilot of any airplane engaged in non-revenue
flights.
(g) Validity. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the validity period of the license is 2
years. For renewal of the license see 2.2.3.
(a) The knowledge instruction and test for the private pilot license - airplane shall include
at least the following subjects:
1. Night means the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of
morning civil twilight, as published in The Air Almanac, converted to local time.
a. Note that for “recency of experience” (14 CFR 61.57), night is defined as from 1
hr. after sunset to 1 hr. before sunrise.
b. Be careful; there are questions on both definitions.
2. Aircraft categories (for certification of airmen) -- broad classifications of aircraft.
a. Airplane
b. Rotorcraft
c. Glider
d. Lighter-than-air
3. Airplane classes (for certification of airmen).
a. Single-engine land
b. Multi-engine land
c. Single-engine sea
d. Multi-engine sea
4. Rotorcraft classes (for certification of airmen).
a. Helicopter
b. Gyrocopter
5. Lighter-than-air classes (for certification of airmen).
a. Airship
b. Balloon
6. Note the previous category and class definitions are for certification of airmen purposes.
For certification of aircraft there are different definitions:
a. Category (for certification of aircraft purposes) is based on intended use or
operating limitations.
1. Transport
2. Normal
3. Utility
4. Limited
5. Restricted
6. Acrobatic
7. Provisional
b. Classes as used for certification of aircraft are the same as, or very similar to,
categories for certification of airmen, e.g., airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-
air.
7. Air traffic control (ATC) clearance means an authorization to proceed under specific
traffic conditions in controlled airspace.
1. Airworthiness Directives (ADs) are issued under 14 CFR Part 39 by the FAA to require
correction of unsafe conditions found in an airplane, an airplane engine, a propeller, or
an appliance when such conditions exist and are likely to exist or develop in other
products of the same design.
a. Since ADs are issued under 14 CFR Part 39, they are regulatory and must be
complied with, unless a specific exemption is granted.
1. No person may operate a product to which an AD applies except in accordance with the
requirements of that AD.
a. Thus, you may operate an airplane that is not in compliance with an AD, if such
operation is allowed by the AD.
1. A person who holds a pilot certificate (e.g., private pilot) may perform preventive
maintenance on any airplane owned or operated by that pilot that is not used in air
carrier services.
1. To approve the airplane for return to service, after preventive maintenance was done by
a pilot, the pilot must hold at least a private pilot certificate.
1. After preventive maintenance has been performed, the signature, certificate number,
and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work, the date, and a
description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.
1. When acting as a pilot in command or as a required pilot flight crewmember, you must
have a valid pilot certificate and a current and appropriate medical certificate in your
personal possession or readily accessible in the airplane.
2. You must present your pilot certificate or medical certificate upon the request of the
Administrator of the FAA or his or her representative; the NTSB; or any federal, state, or
local law enforcement officer.
1. Each person holding a certificate under Part 61 shall provide a written report of each
motor vehicle action involving alcohol or drugs to the FAA’s Security and Hazardous
Materials Safety Office no later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
1. To act as pilot in command of a complex airplane, you must receive and log ground and
flight training and receive a logbook endorsement.
a. A complex airplane is defined as an airplane with retractable landing gear, flaps,
and a controllable pitch propeller.
2. To act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, you must receive and log
ground and flight training and receive a logbook endorsement.
a. A high-performance airplane is defined as an airplane with an engine of more
than 200 horsepower.
3. A person may not act as pilot in command of any of the following aircraft unless (s)he
holds a type rating for that aircraft:
a. A large aircraft (i.e., over 12,500 lb. gross weight)
b. A turbojet-powered airplane
c. Other aircraft specified by the FAA through aircraft type certification procedures
1. A recreational pilot must carry his or her logbook with the required authorized instructor
endorsements on all solo flights
a. That exceed 50 NM from the airport at which training was received,
b. Within airspace that requires communication with air traffic control,
c. Conducted between sunset and sunrise, or
d. In an aircraft for which the pilot does not hold an appropriate category or class
rating.
61.56 FLIGHT REVIEW
1. A flight review must have been satisfactorily completed within the previous 24 calendar
months to act as pilot in command of an aircraft for which that pilot is rated.
a. A flight review consists of a minimum of 1 hour of flight training by an authorized
instructor and 1 hour of ground training.
2. The expiration of the 24-month period for the flight review falls on the last day of the
24th month after the month of the examination date (i.e., 24 calendar months).
1. To carry passengers, you must have made three landings and three takeoffs within the
preceding 90 days.
a. All three landings must be made in aircraft of the same category, class, and, if a
type rating is required, type as the one in which passengers are to be carried.
1. The categories are airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and lighter-than-air.
2. The classes are single-engine land, single-engine sea, multi-engine land,
and multi-engine sea.
b. The landings must be to a full stop if the airplane is tailwheel (conventional)
rather than nosewheel.
2. To carry passengers at night, you must, within the last 90 days, have made three
takeoffs and three landings to a full stop at night in an aircraft of the same category,
class, and type, if required.
a. Night in this case is defined as the period beginning 1 hr. after sunset and ending
1 hr. before sunrise.
1. You must notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch in writing of any change in your
permanent mailing address.
2. You may not exercise the privileges of your pilot certificate after 30 days from moving
unless you make this notification.
1. Private pilots may not pay less than an equal (pro rata) share of the operating expenses
of a flight with the passengers.
a. These operating expenses may involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or
rental fees.
2. Private pilots may operate an aircraft carrying passengers on business only if the flight
is incidental to that business or employment and the pilot is not paid as a pilot.
a. For example, a CPA who is a private pilot might fly an aircraft carrying CPAs to a
client. Such flight is incidental to the CPA’s professional duties or business.
3. A pilot may act as a pilot in command of an aircraft used in a passenger-carrying airlift
sponsored by a charitable organization for which passengers make donations to the
organization if
a. The responsible FAA Flight Standards office is notified at least 7 days before the
flight;
b. The flight is conducted from an adequate public airport;
c. The pilot has logged at least 500 hours;
d. No aerobatic or formation flights are performed;
e. The aircraft holds a standard airworthiness certificate and is airworthy;
f. The flight is day-VFR; and
g. The flight is non-stop, begins and ends at the same airport, and is conducted
within a 25-NM radius of that airport.
4. The pilot in command of an aircraft operating under BasicMed must adhere to
the following limitations:
a. The aircraft may
1. Not be certificated to carry more than 6 occupants
2. Not have a maximum certificated takeoff weight of more than 6,000 lb.
NOTE: Certain Piper PA-32 series aircraft (Cherokee 6, Lance, and Saratoga) are
certificated to carry a maximum of 5, 6, or 7 occupants. Under BasicMed, you may
fly certain PA-32 aircraft that were converted to the 7-seat configuration, but only if
the 7th seat conversion kit was removed and that removal has been documented
in the aircraft’s maintenance records.
• Certain PA-32 aircraft are also required to have the removal of the 7th seat
documented on FAA Form 337.
• Alternatively, an STC is available through AOPA to make Piper PA-32s
BasicMed compliant. More information can be found by
contacting pilotassist@aopa.org.
• You may not fly a PA-32 aircraft that is certificated or converted to carry
7 occupants if the 7th seat is merely removed.
b. No portion of the flight may be
0. Carried out above 18,000 ft. MSL
1. Conducted outside the United States unless authorized by the country in
which the flight is conducted
2. Carried out at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 kt.
c. The pilot must have available in his or her logbook (in paper or electronic format)
the
0. Completed medical examination checklist
1. Medical education course completion certificate
NOTE: This section is not tested on the Private Pilot Airplane (PAR) or Private Pilot-
Airplane Transition (PAT) knowledge test.
1. In emergencies, a pilot may deviate from Federal Aviation Regulations to the extent
needed to maintain the safety of the airplane and passengers.
2. The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority
as to, the operation of that aircraft.
3. A written report of any deviations from Federal Aviation Regulations should be filed with
the FAA upon request.
1. The pilot in command is responsible for determining that the airplane is airworthy prior
to every flight.
a. The pilot in command shall discontinue the flight when unairworthy conditions
(whether electrical, mechanical, or structural) occur.
1. The airworthiness certificate, the FAA registration certificate, and the aircraft flight
manual or operating limitations must be aboard.
2. The acronym ARROW can be used as a memory aid. The FCC (Federal
Communications Commission), not the FAA, requires the radio station license. As of
January 1, 1997, the radio station license is required only for international flights.
A irworthiness certificate
R egistration certificate
R adio station license (FCC requirement for international flight)
O perating limitations, including
W eight and balance data
3. The operating limitations of an airplane may be found in the current FAA-approved flight
manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
a. An exception exists in the case of aircraft issued an experimental airworthiness
certificate or a special light-sport airworthiness certificate.
1. The operating limitations for these aircraft are attached to the airworthiness
certificate, which is carried on board the aircraft.
1. No pilot in command of a civil aircraft may allow any object to be dropped from that
aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property.
a. However, this section does not prohibit the dropping of any object if reasonable
precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property.
1. No person may act as a crewmember of a civil airplane while having .04 percent by
weight or more alcohol in the blood or if any alcoholic beverages have been consumed
within the preceding 8 hr.
2. No person may act as a crewmember of a civil airplane if using any drug that affects the
person’s faculties in any way contrary to safety.
3. Operating or attempting to operate an aircraft as a crewmember while under the
influence of drugs or alcohol is grounds for the denial of an application for a certificate,
rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR Part 91.
a. While experiencing a hangover, a pilot is still under the influence of alcohol and
will have impaired motor and mental responses.
4. A pilot may not allow a person who is obviously under the influence of alcohol or drugs
to be carried aboard an aircraft except in an emergency or if the person is a medical
patient under proper care.
1. Pilots are required to familiarize themselves with all available information concerning the
flight prior to every flight, and specifically to determine,
a. For any flight, runway lengths at airports of intended use and the airplane’s
takeoff and landing requirements, and
b. For IFR flights or those not in the vicinity of an airport,
1. Weather reports and forecasts,
2. Fuel requirements,
3. Alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed, and
4. Any known traffic delays.
1. During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required flight crewmember shall
keep his or her safety belt fastened while at his or her station.
a. If shoulder harnesses are available, they must be used for takeoff and landing.
1. Pilots must ensure that each occupant is briefed on how to use the safety belts and, if
installed, shoulder harnesses.
2. Pilots must notify all occupants to fasten their safety belts and shoulder harnesses, if
installed, before taxiing, taking off, or landing.
3. All passengers of airplanes must wear their safety belt and shoulder harness, if installed,
during taxi, takeoffs, and landings.
a. A passenger who has not reached his or her second birthday may be held by an
adult.
b. Sport parachutists may use the floor of the aircraft as a seat (but still must use
safety belts).
1. No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by prior arrangement with
the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.
1. When aircraft, or an aircraft and a vessel, are on crossing courses, the aircraft or vessel
to the other’s right has the right-of-way.
1. The speed limit is 250 kt. (288 MPH) when flying below 10,000 ft. MSL.
2. The speed limit within Class B airspace is 250 kt. (288 MPH).
a. When flying under Class B airspace or in VFR corridors through Class B airspace,
the speed limit is 200 kt. (230 MPH).
3. When at or below 2,500 ft. AGL and within 4 NM of the primary airport of Class C or
Class D airspace, the speed limit is 200 kt. (230 MPH).
1. Over congested areas (cities, towns, settlements, or open-air assemblies), a pilot must
maintain an altitude of 1,000 ft. above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of
2,000 ft. of the airplane.
2. The minimum altitude over other than congested areas is 500 ft. AGL.
a. Over open water or sparsely populated areas, an airplane may not be operated
closer than 500 ft. to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
3. Altitude in all areas must be sufficient to permit an emergency landing without undue
hazard to persons or property on the surface if a power unit fails.
1. Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to the current local altimeter setting. If the
current local altimeter setting is not available, use the departure airport elevation.
2. The altimeter of an airplane is required to be set to 29.92 at or above 18,000 ft. MSL to
guarantee vertical separation of airplanes above 18,000 ft. MSL.
1. When an ATC clearance is obtained, no pilot may deviate from that clearance, except in
an emergency, unless an amended clearance is obtained or the deviation is in response
to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory. If you feel a rule
deviation will occur, you should immediately advise ATC.
2. If you receive priority from ATC in an emergency, you must, upon request, file a detailed
report within 48 hr. to the chief of that ATC facility even if no rule has been violated.
3. During an in-flight emergency, the pilot in command may deviate from Federal Aviation
Regulations to the extent necessary to handle the emergency.
a. The pilot should notify ATC about the deviation as soon as possible.
b. If priority is given, a written report (if requested) must be submitted in 48 hours.
1. During the day, Federal Aviation Regulations require fuel sufficient to fly to the first point
of intended landing and then for an additional 30 min., assuming normal cruise speed.
2. At night, sufficient fuel to fly an additional 45 min. is required.
1. Specified altitudes are required for VFR cruising flight at more than 3,000 ft. AGL and
below 18,000 ft. MSL.
a. The altitude prescribed is based upon the magnetic course (not magnetic
heading).
b. The altitude is prescribed in ft. above mean sea level (MSL).
c. Use an odd thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 ft. for magnetic courses of 0° to
179°, e.g., 3,500, 5,500, or 7,500 ft.
d. Use an even thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 ft. for magnetic courses of 180°
to 359°, e.g., 4,500, 6,500, or 8,500 ft.
e. As a memory aid, remember “East is odd; west is even odder.”
1. No person may operate a civil aircraft unless the aircraft has a U.S. airworthiness
certificate displayed in a manner that makes it legible to passengers and crew.
2. To operate a civil aircraft, a valid U.S. registration issued to the owner of the aircraft
must be on board.
1. ELT batteries must be replaced (or recharged, if rechargeable) after 1 cumulative hr. of
use or after 50% of their useful life expires.
2. ELTs may only be tested on the ground during the first 5 min. after the hour. No
airborne checks are allowed.
3. ELTs are required to be inspected every 12 months for proper installation, battery
corrosion, operation of the controls and crash sensor, and the presence of a sufficient
signal radiated from its antenna.
1. All occupants must be provided with oxygen in an airplane operated at cabin pressure
altitudes above 15,000 ft. MSL.
a. Pilots and crewmembers may not operate an airplane at cabin pressure altitudes
above 12,500 ft. MSL up to and including 14,000 ft. MSL for more than 30 min.
without supplemental oxygen.
b. Pilots and crewmembers must use supplemental oxygen at cabin pressure
altitudes above 14,000 ft. MSL.
1. All aircraft must have and use an altitude-encoding transponder when operating
a. Within Class A airspace
b. Within Class B airspace
c. Within 30 NM of the Class B airspace primary airport
d. Within and above Class C airspace
e. Above 10,000 ft. MSL except at and below 2,500 ft. AGL
2. To enter Class B airspace, you must submit a request for a deviation from the
controlling ATC facility at least 1 hr. before the proposed flight.
1. No person may operate an aircraft in the following airspace unless the aircraft has the
appropriate ADS-B Out equipment installed:
a. Within Class A airspace
b. Within and above Class B airspace
c. Within 30 NM of the Class B airspace primary airport
d. Within and above Class C airspace
e. At and above 10,000 ft. MSL except at and below 2,500 ft. AGL
f. At and above 3,000 ft. MSL over the Gulf of Mexico from the U.S. coastline out to
12 NM
2. These requirements do not apply to any aircraft not originally certificated with an
electrical system or that has not subsequently been certified with such a system
installed.
3. Requests for ATC-authorized deviations from these requirements must be made to the
appropriate ATC facility
a. At any time for an aircraft with an inoperative ADS-B Out
b. At least 1 hr. before the proposed operation of an aircraft that is not equipped
with ADS-B Out
91.227 ADS-B OUT EQUIPMENT PERFORMANCE REQUIREMENTS
1. With certain exceptions, each occupant of an aircraft must wear an approved parachute
during any intentional maneuver exceeding
a. 60° bank or
b. A nose-up or nose-down attitude of 30°.
2. Parachutes that are available for emergency use must be packed within a specific time
period, based on the materials from which they are constructed.
a. Parachutes that include a canopy, shrouds, and harness that are composed
exclusively of nylon, rayon, or other similar synthetic fibers must have been
repacked by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the
preceding 180 days.
b. Parachutes that include any part that is composed of silk, pongee, or other
natural fiber or materials must be repacked by a certificated and appropriately
rated parachute rigger within the preceding 60 days.
1. No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental or restricted certificate over
a densely populated area or in a congested airway unless authorized by the FAA.
91.403 GENERAL
1. The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft
in an airworthy condition and for complying with all Airworthiness Directives (ADs).
2. An operator is a person who uses, or causes to use or authorizes to use, an aircraft for
the purpose of air navigation, including the piloting of an aircraft, with or without the right
of legal control (i.e., owner, lessee, or otherwise).
a. Thus, the pilot in command is also responsible for ensuring that the aircraft is
maintained in an airworthy condition and that there is compliance with all ADs.
1. Each owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that maintenance personnel make the
appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been
approved for return to service.
1. When aircraft alterations or repairs change the flight characteristics, the aircraft must be
test flown and approved for return to service prior to carrying passengers.
a. The pilot test flying the aircraft must be at least a private pilot and rated for the
type of aircraft being tested.
91.409 INSPECTIONS
1. Annual inspections expire on the last day of the 12th calendar month after the previous
annual inspection.
2. All aircraft that are used for compensation or hire, including flight instruction, must be
inspected on a 100-hr. basis in addition to the annual inspection.
a. 100-hr. inspections are due every 100 hr. from the prior due time, regardless of
when the inspection was actually performed.
1. No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within
the preceding 24 calendar months.
1. An airplane may not be flown unless it has been given an annual inspection within the
preceding 12 calendar months.
a. The annual inspection expires after 1 year, on the last day of the month of
issuance.
2. The completion of the annual inspection and the airplane’s return to service should be
appropriately documented in the airplane maintenance records.
a. The documentation should include the current status of airworthiness directives
and the method of compliance.
3. The airworthiness of an airplane can be determined by a preflight inspection and a
review of the maintenance records.
91.421 REBUILT ENGINE MAINTENANCE RECORDS
1. A new maintenance record, without previous operating history, may be used for an
aircraft engine rebuilt by the manufacturer or by an agency approved by the
manufacturer.
1. The pilot in command is responsible for ensuring that all passengers have been orally
briefed prior to takeoff. The areas that should constitute this briefing are
a. Smoking,
b. Use of safety belts and shoulder harnesses,
c. Location and means of opening the passenger entry door and emergency exits,
d. Location of survival equipment,
e. Ditching procedures and the use of flotation equipment, and
f. Normal and emergency use of oxygen equipment if installed in the airplane.
1. Prior to the time the Board or its authorized representative takes custody of aircraft
wreckage, mail, or cargo, such wreckage, mail, or cargo may not be disturbed or moved
except to
a. Remove persons injured or trapped,
b. Protect the wreckage from further damage, or
c. Protect the public from injury.
830.15 REPORTS AND STATEMENTS TO BE FILED
1. The operator of an aircraft shall file a report on Board Form 6120.1/2 within 10 days
after an accident.
a. A report must be filed within 7 days if an overdue aircraft is still missing.
2. A report on an incident for which immediate notification is required (830.5) shall be filed
only when requested by an authorized representative of the Board.