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Odisha Judicial Service Exam, 2021

Code of Criminal Procedure


1. The Code of Criminal Procedure –
(a) Is a consolidating law
(b) Is enforced on 1st April 1973
(c) Is a law amending and consolidating the law relating to Criminal Procedure
(d) Both (b) and (c)
2. Charge includes –
(a) More heads than one
(b) Any head of charge
(c) Heads of charge
(d) None of the above
3. The complaint made to a magistrate must be with respect to –
(a) A known person
(b) An unknown person
(c) Some person, whether known or unknown
(d) Some person, whether known and unknown
4. Inquiry includes –
i. Trial
ii. Every inquiry conducted under this code
iii. Inquiry conducted by a Magistrate or Court
iv. Every inquiry, other than a trial
v. Inquiry conducted by a Public Officer
Which is correct?
(a) ii, iii and iv
(b) i, ii, iii and v
(c) ii, iv and v
(d) ii and iv
5. Investigation is a proceeding for –
(a) Collection of evidence
(b) Search and seizure
(c) Interrogation
(d) Serious offences
6. Offence includes –
(a) Any act or omission made punishable by any law
(b) Any act and omission made punishable by I.P.C.
(c) Any act or omission made punishable under I.P.C.
(d) None of the above
7. Officer in charge of a police station includes –
(a) Station House Officer or
(b) Officer next in rank to S.H.O and above rank of constable or
(c) Any other Public Officer present as directed by State Government
(d) Either (a) or (b) or (c)
8. Public Prosecutor means –
(a) Any person appointed under section 25
(b) Any person acting under the directions of a Public Prosecutor
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Either (a) or (b)
9. Which of the following is true with respect to summons and warrant cases?
i. Summons cases being relatively less serious in nature, the trial procedure is not
as elaborate and formal as in warrant cases
ii. Courts have been empowered to use summary procedure in respect of certain
petty cases including mostly summons cases and a few warrant cases
iii. Summons cases means a case relating to an offence punishable with
imprisonment for a term exceeding 1 year
iv. Summons cases may be tried by any Chief Judicial Magistrate, Metropolitan
Magistrate or any Magistrate of the first class specially empowered by High Court
Choose the correct code –
(a) i, ii and iii
(b) i, ii and iv
(c) ii, iii and iv
(d) All the above
10. Non cognizable offences are –
(a) Less serious offences
(b) No permission of Court is required to investigate such offences
(c) These offences are generally bailable offences
(d) Both (a) and (c)
11. Every metropolitan area shall be –
(a) District or consists of district
(b) A sessions division
(c) A separate sessions division and district
(d) A separate sessions division or district
12. From the commencement of this Code, which of the following shall be deemed to
be declared to be a metropolitan area?
(a) Bombay
(b) Madras
(c) Ahmedabad
(d) All of the above
13. High Court appoints –
(a) Judge of a Court of session
(b) Additional sessions Judges
(c) Assistant sessions Judges
(d) All of the above
14. Who among the following will be empowered by the Sessions Judge to dispose
any urgent appointment in his absence?
(a) Additional or assistant Sessions Judge
(b) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
15. Who among the following shall establish Courts of JMFC and JMSC?
(a) State Government
(b) High Court
(c) Central Government
(d) State Government in consultation with High Court
16. In a sub division, every sub divisional Judicial Magistrate shall have
superintendent and control over the work of –
(a) All Judicial Magistrates
(b) JM except Additional CJM
(c) JM except Assistant CJM
(d) JM of first class
17. If A is only charged with cheating and it appears that he committed the offence of
falsification of accounts or that of murder, then in that case –
(a) A can be convicted only for cheating and falsification of accounts and not for
murder
(b) A can be convicted only for cheating and not for falsification of accounts and
murder
(c)A can be convicted for cheating, falsification of accounts and murder.
(d) A cannot be convicted for all three offences together.
18. Every Chief Judicial Magistrate shall be ______ to the Sessions Judge and every
other Judicial Magistrate shall, subject to the _____ of the Sessions Judge, be _______
to the Chief Judicial Magistrate.
(a) Subordinate, general control, subordinate
(b) Under general control, supervision, subordinate
(c) Subject, supervision, subordinate
(d) Subordinate, control, subordinate
19. For every High Court, the Centre shall appoint –
(a) Public Prosecutor
(b) One or more additional Public Prosecutor
(c) Public Prosecutors for any district or local area
(d) All of the above
20. A person shall be eligible to be appointed as a ________ only if he has been in
practice as an advisor for not less than 7 years
(a) Public Prosecutor or an Additional Public Prosecutor
(b) Public Prosecutor or Assistant Public Prosecutor
(c) Public Prosecutor only
(d) Public Prosecutor and Special Public Prosecutor
21. The victim may be permitted to engage of advocate of his choice to assist –
(a) A Public Prosecutor
(b) An Additional Public Prosecutor
(c) Special Public Prosecutor
(d) Assistant Public Prosecutor
22. Which of the following is true?
i. No police officer shall in any case be eligible to be appointed as an Assistant
Public Prosecutor
ii. The District Magistrate may appoint any other person to be the Assistant Public
Prosecutor in charge of any case
iii. The District Magistrate may appoint a Public Officer as an Assistant Public
Prosecutor
iv. A Public Officer shall not be so appointed if he has investigated the offence
with respect to which the accused is being prosecuted; or if he is below the rank of
inspector.
Choose the correct code
(a) i, ii and iv
(b) ii, iii and iv
(c) i, ii and iii
(d) i, iii and iv
23. The Director of Prosecution in a State shall function under –
(a) Head of Home Department in the State
(b) Head of Home Department at the Centre
(c) Central Government
(d) State Government
24. The offences under section 376, 376A, 376B, 376C, 376D or 376E of I.P.C. shall
be tried by –
(a) High Court
(b) Court of Session
(c) Metropolitan Magistrate
(d) Court presided over by a woman
25. In case of offences committed by juveniles, the age of sixteen years is to be
computed –
(a) At the date when appears or is brought before the Court
(b) At the time when the offence was committed by him
(c) At the time when the juvenile turns sixteen
(d) None of these
26. Which Court has jurisdiction to try offences with respect to juveniles?
(a) Court of Chief Judicial Magistrate
(b) Any Court specially empowered under the Children Act, 1960
(c) Any Court specially empowered under any other law for the time being in force
providing for the treatment, training and rehabilitation of youthful offenders.
(d) Either (a) or (b) or (c)
27. An additional session’s judge –
(a) Can pass any sentence authorized by law
(b) Cannot pass any sentence authorized by law
(c) Can pass sentence subject to confirmation by High Court
(d) May pass any sentence authorized by law but any sentence of death shall be
subject to confirmation by the High Court
28. The imprisonment awarded in default of fine under section 30 –
(a) May be in substitution to a substantive sentence of imprisonment for the maximum
term awardable by the magistrate under section 29.
(b) May be in addition to a substantive sentence of imprisonment for the maximum
term awardable by the magistrate under section 29.
(c) Will be in substitution to a substantive sentence of imprisonment for the maximum
term awardable by the magistrate under section 29.
(d) May be more than the substantive sentence of imprisonment for the maximum
term awardable by the magistrate under section 29.
29. Consider the following statements –
(i) In case of conviction of accused at one trial of two or more offences, the Court may
direct the punishments awarded for the offences to run concurrently
(ii) In case of conviction of accused at one trial of two or more offences, the
punishments shall be undertaken one after another unless the Court directs that such
punishment shall run concurrently
(iii) For the purpose of appeal by a convicted person in case of consecutive sentences,
each sentence shall be taken as single sentence and not the aggregate will be counted
(iv)When the aggregate punishment for several offences in case of consecutive
sentences exceeds the punishment which the Court is competent to inflict on
conviction of a single sentence, the Court shall send the offender for trial before a
higher Court
Which is correct?
(a) i, ii, and iii (b) i and ii
(c) Only ii (d) all of these
30. Who amongst the following may withdraw all or any of the powers conferred by it
on any person or on any officer subordinate to it?
(a) High Court or State Government
(b) Chief Judicial Magistrate or District Magistrate
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) State Government or Central Government
31. Which of the following is true?
(a) There is a provision in the code for aid of any other person in execution of warrant
to arrest an accused
(b) Public may at their discretion assist the Magistrate or police
(c) Every person who is aware of the commission of an offence is not bound to
forthwith give information to the nearest magistrate or police officer of such
commission.
(d) The term “offence” as defined in section 39 does not include any act committed at
any place out of India
32. The officers in charge of the affairs of the village shall communicate any
information with respect to commission of offences in the village to –
(a) Nearest magistrate
(b) Officer in charge of the nearest police station
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Both (a) or (b)
33. In which of the following cases ‘No exclusion of time’ shall be allowed to a
person prosecuting another case against the same offender?
(a) When the prosecution relates to different facts
(b) When the prosecution initiated is malafide
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
34. When an offence is tried by the High Court otherwise than under section 407, the
procedure adopted by the Court in the trial of such offence shall be that of –
(a) Procedure adopted by Court of Session
(b) Procedure adopted by Metropolitan Magistrate
(c) Procedure adopted by Chief Judicial Magistrate
(d) Procedure adopted by the High Court in ordinary cases
35. Which Court has jurisdiction to try offences?
(a) Court within whose local jurisdiction offence was committed
(b) Where the accused resides
(c) Where the complainant or victim resides
(d) Either (a) or (b)
36. Which of the following Courts is empowered to try the offence of Criminal Breach
of Trust?
(a) Court within whose local jurisdiction the offence was committed
(b) Court within whose local jurisdiction the offence was committed any part of
the property which is the subject of the offence was received or retained
(c) Place where any part of the property was required to be returned or account for
by the accused
(d) Both (b) and (c)
37. Which of the following is true?
(a) Section 178 contemplates jurisdiction of Courts in cases where an offence is
committed partly in one local area and partly in another
(b) Any Court can try a continuing offence when the offence continues to be
committed in more local areas than one
(c) Section 178(b) does not envisage a position in which one ingredient of the
offence is committed at one place and other is committed in another place
(d) All the above
38. Any Court is competent to try offences in respect of –
(a) Offences committed by a person charged with and tried at one trial
(b) Offences by several persons when charged with and tried together
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
39. In case of an offence committed outside India –
(a) Such offence can be tried in India
(b) Such offence can be tried in India if subject to Indian laws
(c) No such offence can be tried in India
(d) No such offence shall be tried in India except with the previous sanction of the
Central Government
40. In case of doubt as to which Court shall have jurisdiction to try a case, the
question shall be decided –
(a) By a High Court
(b) By a High Court within local limits of whose appellate criminal jurisdiction the
proceedings were first commenced
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
41. In case of absence of the fact of previous conviction in the charge, at what stage
can the Court make addition of the fact to the charge?
(a) At any time during trial
(b) At any time before sentence is passed
(c) At any stage of proceedings
(d) During charged is framed and not after that
42. In which of the following cases, the charge of Criminal Breach of Trust or
dishonest misappropriation of money or other movable property shall be deemed to be
charged of one offence under section 219?
(a) When the time included between the first and last of dates of commencement
of offence does not exceed one year
(b) When the time included between the first and last of dates of commencement
of offence exceeds one year
(c) When the time included between the first and last of dates of commencement
of offence does not exceeds two years
(d) When the time included between the first and last of dates of commencement
of offence does not exceeds three years
43. Consider the following statements with respect to alteration or addition of charge –
i. A Chief Judicial Magistrate may alter or add to any charge at any time before
judgement is pronounced
ii. The alteration need not be explained to the accused
iii. If the alteration or addition is such that proceeding with the trial is likely to
prejudice the accused, the Court may either direct a new trial or adjourn the trial
iv. If the added or altered charge is such that for which a previous sanction is
necessary, the case shall be proceeded with pending sanction
Which is correct?
(a) i, ii, iii and iv
(b) i and iii
(c) i and ii
(d) iii and iv
44. Which of the following rights are available to the prosecutor and the accused upon
alteration or addition of charge by the Court?
(a) To recall or re-summon and examine a witness with respect to such alteration
(b) To call any further witness whom the Court may think to be material
(c) Neither (a) not (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
45. An accused may be charged for same offences committed by him more than once
within a year if –
(a) the offences committed by him are against the same person
(b) the offences committed by him are against different persons
(c) the offences committed by him are against the same or different persons
(d) None of the above
46. The number of offences which can be tried together in case of commission of
same offence committed several times within a year by the accused is –
(a) exceeding three
(b) not exceeding three
(c) not exceeding five
(d) not exceeding six
47. Which of the following are offences of the same kind to be charged together under
section 219?
(a) offences are of the same kind when they are punishable with the same amount of
punishment under the same section of IPC or of any special or local law
(b) an offence punishable under section 379 of IPC shall be deemed to be an offence
of the same kind as an offence punishable under section 380 of the said code.
(c) an offence punishable under any section of the said code, or of any special or local
law, shall be deemed to be an offence of the same kind as an attempt to commit such
offence, when such an attempt is an offence
(d) All of the above
48. In which of the following cases, trial for more than one offence is permitted?
(a) offences committed by the same person in one series of acts forming the same
transaction
(b) person charged with one or more offences of Criminal Breach of Trust or
dishonest misappropriation of property committing another offence of falsification of
accounts so as to conceal or facilitate the commission of the offence of Criminal
Breach of Trust or dishonest misappropriation of property
(c) if acts committed constitute an offence falling within two or more separate
definitions of any law in force for the time being by which offences are defined or
punished
(d) All of the above
49. Which among the following persons may be charged and tried together?
(a) Persons accused of attempt to murder and persons committing murder
(b) Person committing theft in the course of assisting other persons committing arson
(c) Persons accused of cheating and the person falsifying accounts for concealing the
offence of cheating
(d) All of the above
50. A is charged with criminal breach of trust in respect of property entrusted to him
as a carrier (Section 407). However, from the facts of the case, it is clear that he
committed criminal breach of trust u/s. 406 but property was not entrusted to him as a
carrier. In this case –
(a) A may be convicted for criminal breach of trust under section 406
(b) A may be convicted for criminal breach of trust under section 407
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Both (a) or (b)
51. A charge may be withdrawn –
(a) With the consent of Court
(b) By the complainant or by the officer conducting the prosecution
(c) By the Court on its own motion stay the inquiry into or trial of, such charge or
charges
(d) All of the above
52. Plea Bargaining is applicable to –
(a) Complaint made to a Magistrate in respect of offences less than 7 years
(b) Police report under section 173 alleging that an offence has been committed by
an accused punishable with an imprisonment for a term more than 7 years
(c) Offences affecting the socio economic condition of the Country
(d) Offences committed against a child below the age of 14 years
53. Match the following:
Summons/Warrant Issued By
1. Summons to produce a document or thing (a) Any Court or Officer-in-Charge
2. Search warrant for search of a document, parcel (b) DM or CJM
or other thing in custody of the postal or telegraph authority
3. Search warrant for search of stolen property, forged document (c) DM, SDM or
JMFC
4. Search warrant for search of persons wrongfully confined (d) DM, SDM or JMFC
Select the correct codes –
(A) 1 (a), 2(b), 3(c). 4(d)
(B) 1 (b), 2(a), 3(c). 4(d)
(C) 1 (d), 2(a), 3(c). 4(b)
(D) 1 (b), 2(c), 3(a). 4(d)
54. Which of the following methods can be adopted for attachment of both movable
and immovable property under section 83 of Cr. PC?
(a) by taking possession of property
(b) by appointment of receiver
(c) by an order in writing prohibiting the delivery of such property to the proclaimed
person or to anyone on his behalf
(d) Both (b) and (c)
55. In Plea Bargaining for cases instituted on a police report, the Court shall not issue
notice to –
(a) Public Prosecutor
(b) Any police officer
(c) Accused
(d) Victim
56. The magistrate shall take cognizance of an offence and pass an order under section
133 upon –
(a) the report of the Police Officer
(b) receipt of other information
(c) taking evidence in relation to the offence
(d)All of the above
57. Against the judgement of Court in Plea Bargaining –
(a) No appeal lies
(b) Special Leave Petition under section 136 shall lie
(c) Writ Petition under Article 227 does not lie
(d) None of the above
58. Power of Court in Plea Bargaining is similar to –
(a) Powers in respect of bail, trial of offences and other matters
(b) Powers of a civil Court
(c) Powers of a criminal Court
(d) None of the above
59. Any claim preferred or objection made with respect to attachment of property –
(a) cannot be continued by legal representative
(b) may, in the event of the death of the claimant or the objector, be continued by legal
representative
(c) may be continued by legal representative
(d) may be continued by legal representative
60. An application for interim maintenance under section 125 should be disposed of –
(a) Within sixty days from date of service of notice of application to the Opposite
Party
(b) Within thirty days from date of service of notice of application to the Opposite
Party
(c) Within sixty days
(d) Within ninety days from date of service of notice of application to the Opposite
Party
61. In the event of breach of any order of Magistrate under section 125, the Magistrate
is empowered to –
(a) Issue a warrant for levying amount
(b) Sentence such person for the whole or any part of each month’s allowance
remaining unpaid after the execution of warrant to imprisonment for a term of two
months
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Either (a) or (b)
62. If a person offers to maintain his wife on condition of her living with him and she
refuses to live with him, the Magistrate may –
(a) Consider the grounds of refusal by the wife
(b) Order wife to cohabit with her husband
(c) Work a harmonious alternative solution
(d) Make any order after giving due consideration to the reasons given for the
refusal by the wife
63. In maintenance proceedings, all evidence shall be taken –
(a) In presence of person against whom an order for payment of maintenance is
proposed to be made
(b) In his absence, in presence of his pleader
(c) In the manner prescribed for summons cases
(d) All of the above
64. An ex-parte order may be passed by the Magistrate hearing maintenance
application –
(a) If the person against whom an order for payment of maintenance proposed to
be made is willfully avoiding service
(b) If the person against whom an order for payment of maintenance proposed to
be made is willfully neglecting to attend the Court
(c) If the person does not lead evidence
(d) Both (a) and (b)
65. An application for setting an ex-parte order in maintenance proceedings must be
made –
(a) Within three months from the date of order
(b) Within one month from the date of order
(c) Within two months from the date of order
(d) Within four months from the date of order
66. Can the maintenance amount be altered by the Magistrate?
(a) There can be no alteration
(b) The Magistrate shall make alteration in the amount upon ascertainment of new
facts
(c) The Magistrate may make alteration in the allowance for maintenance upon
proof of a change in the circumstances of the husband or father, as the case may be
(d) None of the above
67. An application for maintenance must be filed within –
(a) 30 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) No time specified
68. Which of the following is true with respect to section 125?
(i) An inquiry under section 125-126 is a trial
(ii) Section 300 of the Code does not apply
(iii) A second application is not barred
(iv) A second application was maintainable when the first application had been
dismissed on the basis of a compromise
Choose the correct code
(a) i, ii and iii
(b) ii, iii and iv
(c) i, iii and iv
(d) All of the above
69. The order of maintenance can be enforced by –
(a) Any Magistrate
(b) Any Magistrate in any place
(c) Judicial Magistrate First Class
(d) Any Magistrate in any place where the person against whom it is made may be
upon satisfaction of magistrate as to identification of parties and non-payment of
allowance
70. Summons shall be served by –
(a) Public Officer
(b) By any officer of Court issuing it
(c) Other public servant
(d) Either (a) or (b) or (c)
71. Where the person summoned is in active service of the Government, the Court
shall send the summons to –
(a) Head of the office
(b) To the person concerned
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
72. When a warrant is to be executed outside the local jurisdiction of the Court issuing
it, the Court may forward it by post or otherwise to –
(a) Any executive Magistrate
(b) District Superintendent of Police
(c) Commissioner of Police
(d) Either (a) or (b) or (c)
73. Which of the following Courts is empowered to take security from the accused for
keeping peace?
(a) Court of Session or Judicial Magistrate First Class
(b) Appellate Court
(c) Court exercising powers of revision
(d) All of the above
74. In which of the following cases, security is taken by the Executive Magistrate?
(a) In case of keeping peace and public tranquility
(b) In case of a person disseminating seditious matters
(c) In case of offences by habitual offenders
(d) All of the above
75. Which of the following is true?
(a) Every Public Officer may interpose for preventing commission of any non
cognizable offence
(b) A Public Officer shall prevent the commission of any non cognizable offence
(c) A Public Officer knowing design to commit any cognizable offence cannot
arrest without orders from a Magistrate and without a warrant
(d) A person can be detained in custody for a period exceeding 2 hours from the
time of his arrest
76. A person arrested by a police officer may be kept in custody for –
a. Two days
b. Three days
c. Twenty-four hours
d. One week
77. Warrant case means a case:
a. In which a police officer arrest without warrant
b. In which the court in the first instance, shall issue a warrant of arrest against the
accused
c. Relating to an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding
two years
d. Relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or
imprisonment for a term exceeding two years
78. Point out incorrect answer – The requisites of a valid warrant are:
a. It shall be in writing
b. It shall be signed by presiding officer of the Court
c. It shall bear the seal of the Court
d. It must state the name of the accused but address is not necessary
79. When the person who would otherwise be competent to compound an offence
under Sec.320 of Code of Criminal Procedure is dead then-
a. Offence cannot be compounded
b. Offence can be compounded by any of the eye-witnesses
c. Legal representative of such person can compound the offence without the
consent of the court
d. Legal representative of such person can compound the offence with the consent
of the court
80. At any time before the judgment is pronounced, prosecution of any person may be
withdrawn with the consent of the Court by-
a. On whose instance first information report was recorded
b. Investigating officer of the case
c. Public Prosecutor or Assistant Public Prosecutor incharge of the case
d. Person aggrieved by the offence
81. Three years period of limitation is prescribed for taking cognizance of the offence
punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding-
a. One year
b. Three years
c. Five years
d. Seven years
82. Magistrate by whom the case is heard may award such compensation, not
exceeding-
a. One hundred
b. Five hundred
c. Three hundred
d. One thousand r
Rupees to be paid to any person groundlessly arrested by the person so causing the
arrest.
83. Which one of the following orders can be passed after the trial of a case is over?
(1) Only an order of acquittal
(2) Only an order of conviction
(3) Order of discharge
(4) Either an order of acquittal or conviction.
(A) 1&2 (B) 1,2 & 3
(C) 1&3 (D) None
84. First information Report–
(A) Relates to cognizable or non-cognizable
(B) Is given to a Magistrate or Police officer
(C) Relates prima facie to a cognizable offence
(D) May be given to the District Magistrate.
85. Under which Section of the Cr.p.c. anticipatory bail may be granted to a person
apprehending his arrest?
(A) Sections 438
(B) Sections 439
(C) Sections 436
(D) Sections 437
86. The Maximum term of imprisonment awardable in a summary trial is:
(A) Three months
(B) Six months
(C) One year
(D) Two years.
87. On receipt of first information report for commission of an offence of the officer
incharge of the police station will sent the copy to concern Magistrate under which
provision:
(A) Under Section 154 Cr.P.C.
(B) Under Section 156 Cr.P.C.
(C) Under Section 159 Cr.P.C.
(D) Under Section 157 Cr.P.C.
88. A, B and C are charged for robbery and after trial convicted by 1st class
Magistrate, thereafter whether for the same fact they can be charged and tried for
dacoity:
(A) Yes
(B) No
(C) Barred under section 300 Cr.P.C.
(D) There will be illegality.
89. The composition of an offence under section 320 Cr.P.C. shall have the effect of :
(A) Conviction
(B) Discharge
(C) Acquittal
(D) Finish the case.
90. Point out the incorrect statement–
(A) In cognizable offence any police officer may without an order form a
Magistrate and without a warrant arrest any person
(B) A private person may arrest or cause to be arrested nay person committing a
cognizable offence
(C) An Executive Magistrate may arrest the offender when any offence is
committed in his presence and within his jurisdiction
(D) None of these.
91. In which case has the Supreme Court held that Section 125 Cr.P.C. was
application to all irrespective of their religion?
(A) Mohd. Umar Khan V/s Gulshan Begum
(B) Mohd. Ahmed Khan V/s Shah Bano Begum
(C) Mst. Zohara Khatoon V/s Mohd. Ibrahim
(D) Noor Saba Khatoon V/s Mohd. Quasim.
92. In which of the following cases, will proceeding be vitiated if the Magistrate is not
empowered to do so?
(A) To issue a search warrant U/S 94 of Cr.P.C.
(B) To hold an inquiry U/S 176 of Cr.P.C.
(C) Tried an offender summarily
(D) to tender a pardon under Section 306 of Cr.P.C.

93. In which one of the following Sections of Cr.P.C. provisions for free legal aid is
made?
(A) Sections 301 (B) Sections 306
(C) Sections 304 (D) Sections 309.

94. Under which Section of Cr.P.C., inherent powers can be exercised by the High
Court?
(A) Sections - 482
(B) Sections - 483
(C) Sections - 484
(D) Sections - 480.
95. Which one of the following offences has not been enumerated under Section-
110 of the Cr.P.C., 1973 which empowers an Executive Magistrate to require such
person to show cause why he should not be ordered to execute a bond for his good
behaviour?
(A) Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
(B) Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961
(C) Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973
(D) Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955.

96. The Chapter of “Plea Bargaining” is added to the Cr.P.C. by the:


(A) Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2005 (Act No. 25 of 2005)
(B) Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005 (Act No. 2006)
(C) Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2006
(D) Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2003.

97. Save in exceptional circumstances, no woman shall be arrested after Sunset and
before Sunrise, and where such exceptional circumstances to arrest exist, the woman
police officer shall obtain the prior permission of the following:
(A) District Magistrate
(B) Superintendent of Police
(C) Judicial Magistrate of the First Class
(D) Sessions Judge.

98. Under section 77 of Cr.P.C. a warrant of arrest may be executed


(A) within the local jurisdiction of court issuing warrant
(B) within the session division
(C) at any place within the State
(D) at any place in India.
99. In the interest of justice a Magistrate has power to try a summons case as a
warrant case, wherein the offence to be tried thereunder is punishable with the
imprisonment
(A) exceeding 6 months
(B) exceeding 4 months
(C) exceeding 1 year
(D) none of the above

100. The power of Magistrate to detain a person for the purposes of police
investigation is for a maximum period of
(A) 15 days
(B) 60 days
(C) 90 days
(D) 30 days.

Answer Key
1. c
2. b Section 2 (b) of Code of Criminal Procedure
3. c. Section 2(d) of Code of Criminal Procedure
4. a. Section 2 (g) of Code of Criminal Procedure
5. a. Section 2(h) of Code of Criminal Procedure
6. a. Section 2 (n) of Code of Criminal Procedure
7. d. Section 2(o) of Code of Criminal Procedure
8. b. Section 2 (u) of Code of Criminal Procedure
9. d. Section 2(w) and 2(x) of Code of Criminal Procedure
10. d. Section 2(l) of Code of Criminal Procedure
11. c. Section 7 of Code of Criminal Procedure
12. d. Section 8 of Code of Criminal Procedure
13. d. Section 9 of Code of Criminal Procedure
14. c. Section 9(5) of Code of Criminal Procedure
15. d. Section 11 of Code of Criminal Procedure
16. b. Section 12(3)(b) of Code of Criminal Procedure
17. c. Illustration (b) to section 221
18. a. Section 15 of Code of Criminal Procedure
19. d. Section 24 of Code of Criminal Procedure
20. a. Section 24(7) of Code of Criminal Procedure
21. c. Section 24(8) Proviso of Code of Criminal Procedure
22. b. Section 25 of Code of Criminal Procedure
23. a. Section 25A(3) of Code of Criminal Procedure
24. d. Section 26 of Code of Criminal Procedure
25. a. Section 27 of Code of Criminal Procedure
26. d. Section 27 of Code of Criminal Procedure
27. d. Section 28(2) of Code of Criminal Procedure
28. b Section 30 of Code of Criminal Procedure
29. c. Section 31 of Code of Criminal Procedure
30. c. Section 34 of Code of Criminal Procedure
31. a. Section 37, 38 and 39 of Code of Criminal Procedure
32. c. Section 40(1) of Code of Criminal Procedure
33. d. Section 470(1) of Code of Criminal Procedure
34. a. Section 474 of Code of Criminal Procedure
35. a. Section 177 of Code of Criminal Procedure
36. d. Section 181(4) of Code of Criminal Procedure
37. d. Section 178 of Code of Criminal Procedure
38. c. Section 184 of Code of Criminal Procedure
39. d. Section 188 of Code of Criminal Procedure
40. d. Section 186 of Code of Criminal Procedure
41. b. Section 211(7) of Code of Criminal Procedure
42. a. Section 219 of Code of Criminal Procedure
43. b. Section 216 of Code of Criminal Procedure
44. d. Section 217 of Code of Criminal Procedure
45. c. Section 219 of Code of Criminal Procedure
46. b. Section 219 of Code of Criminal Procedure
47. d. Section 219 of Code of Criminal Procedure
48. d. Section 220 of Code of Criminal Procedure
49. d. Section 220 of Code of Criminal Procedure
50. a. Illustration a to Section 222 of Code of Criminal Procedure
51. d. Section 224 of Code of Criminal Procedure
52. a. Section 265A of Code of Criminal Procedure
53. a. Sections 91, 93, 94 and 97 of Code of Criminal Procedure
54. d. Section 83(4) of Code of Criminal Procedure
55. b. Section 265C of Code of Criminal Procedure
56. d. Section 133 of Code of Criminal Procedure
57. b. Section 265G of Code of Criminal Procedure
58. a. Section 265H of Code of Criminal Procedure
59. b. Section 84 of Code of Criminal Procedure
60. a. Proviso to Section 125 of Code of Criminal Procedure
61. a. Section 125(3) of Code of Criminal Procedure
62. d. Proviso to Section 125(3) of Code of Criminal Procedure
63. d. Section 126 of Code of Criminal Procedure
64. d. Proviso to Section 126(2) of Code of Criminal Procedure
65. a. Proviso to Section 126(2) of Code of Criminal Procedure
66. c. Section 127 of Code of Criminal Procedure
67. d. Section 125 of Code of Criminal Procedure
68. b. Section 125 of Code of Criminal Procedure
69. d. Section 128 of Code of Criminal Procedure
70. d. Section 62 of Code of Criminal Procedure
71. a. Section 66 of Code of Criminal Procedure
72. d. Section 78 of Code of Criminal Procedure
73. d. Section 106 of Code of Criminal Procedure
74. d. Sections 107, 108 and 110 of Code of Criminal Procedure
75. b. Section 149, 150 and 151 of Code of Criminal Procedure
76. c. Section 57 of Code of Criminal Procedure
77. d. Section 2(x) of Code of Criminal Procedure
78. d. Section 70 of Code of Criminal Procedure
79. d. Section 320 (4) (b) of Code of Criminal Procedure
80. c. Section 321 of Code of Criminal Procedure
81. b. Section 468 of Code of Criminal Procedure
82. d. Section 358 of Code of Criminal Procedure
83. b. Section 239, 232 and 235 of Code of Criminal Procedure
84. c. Section 154 of Code of Criminal Procedure
85. a. Section 438 of Code of Criminal Procedure
86. a. Section 262 of Code of Criminal Procedure
87. d. Section 157 of Code of Criminal Procedure
88. a. Illustration (f) to section 300 of Code of Criminal Procedure
89. c. Section 320(8) of Code of Criminal Procedure
90. d. Sections 41, 43 and 44 of Code of Criminal Procedure
91. b
92. c. Section 461 of Code of Criminal Procedure
93. c. Section 304 of Code of Criminal Procedure
94. a. Section 482 of Code of Criminal Procedure
95. b. Section 110 of Code of Criminal Procedure
96. b
97. c Section 46(4) of Code of Criminal Procedure
98. d. Section 77 of Code of Criminal Procedure
99. a. Section 259 of Code of Criminal Procedure
100. a. Section 167 (2) of Code of Criminal Procedure

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