UPDA Sample Questions

> 8.1.
Fluid is a substance that

> (a) cannot be subjected to
> shear forces
> (b) always expands until it
> fills any con-tainer
> (c) has the same shear stress.at a point regardless of
> its motion
> (d) cannot remain at rest under
> action of any shear force
> (e) flows.
> Ans:
>d
> 8.2. Fluid is a substance which
> offers no resistance to change of
> (a) pressure
> (b) flow
> (c) shape
> (d) volume
> (e) temperature.
> Ans:
>c
> 8.3. Practical fluids
> (a) are viscous
> (b) possess surface tension
> (c) are compressible
> (d) possess all the above
> properties
> (e) possess none of the above
> properties.
> Ans:
>d
> 8.4. In a static fluid
> (a) resistance to shear stress
> is small
> (b) fluid pressure is zero
> (c) linear deformation is
> small
> (d) only normal stresses can
> exist
> (e) viscosity is nil.
> Ans:
>d
> 8.5. A fluid is said to be ideal, if it is
> (a) incompressible
> (b) inviscous
> (c) viscous and incompressible
> (d) inviscous and compressible
> (e) inviscous and
> incompressible.
> Ans: e
>
> 8.6. An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfill
> the following
> (a) Newton's law of motion
> (b) Newton's law of
> viscosity
> (c) Pascal' law
> (d) Continuity equation
> (e) Boundary layer theory.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.7. If no resistance is
> encountered by displacement, such a substance is known as
> (a) fluid
> (b) water
> (c) gas
> (d) perfect solid
> (e) ideal fluid.
> Ans: e
>
> 8.8. The volumetric change of
> the fluid caused by a resistance is known as
> (a) volumetric strain
> (b) volumetric index
> (c) compressibility
> (d) adhesion
> (e) cohesion.
> Ans: c
>
> 8.9. Liquids
> (a) cannot be compressed
> (b) occupy definite volume
> (c) are not affected by change
> in pressure and temperature
> (GO are not viscous
> (e) none of the above.
> Ans: e
>
> 8.10. Density of water is maximum
> at
> (a) 0°C
> (b) 0°K
> (c) 4°C
> (d) 100°C
> (e) 20°C.
> Ans: c
>
> 8.12. The value of mass density
> in kgsecVm4 for water at 0°C is
> (a) 1
> (b) 1000
> (c) 100
> (d) 101.9
> (e) 98.1
> Ans: d
>
> 8.14. Property of a fluid by
> which its own molecules are attracted is called
> (a) adhesion
> (b) cohesion
> (c) viscosity
> (d) compressibility
> (e) surface tension.
> Ans: b
>
> 8.15. Mercury does not wet glass.
> This is due to property of liquid known as
> (a) adhesion
> (b) cohesion
> (c) surface tension
> (d) viscosity
> (e) compressibility.
> Ans: c
>
> 8.16. The property of a fluid
> which enables it to resist tensile stress is known as
> (a) compressibility
> (b) surface tension
> (c) cohesion
> (d) adhesion
> (e) viscosity.
> Ans: c
>
> 8.17. Property of a fluid by
> which molecules of different kinds of fluids are attracted
> to each other is called
> (a) adhesion
> (b) cohesion
> (c) viscosity
> (d) compressibility
> (e) surface tension.
> Ans: a
>
> 8.18. The specific weight of
> water is 1000 kg/m"
> (a) at norma] pressure of 760
> mm
> (b) at 4°C temperature
> (c) at mean sea level
> (d) all the above
> Ans: d
>
> 8.19. Specific weight of water in
> S.I. units is equal to
> (a) 1000 N/m3
> (b) 10000 N/m3
> (c) 9.81 xlO3 N/m3
> (d) 9.81 xlO6N/m3
> (e) 9.81 N/m3.
> Ans: c
>
> 8.20. When the flow parameters at
> any given instant remain same at every point, then flow is
> said to be
> (a) quasi static
> (b) steady state
> (c) laminar
> (d) uniform
> (e) static.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.21. Which of the following is
> demensionless
> (a) specific weight
> (b) specific volume
> (c) specific speed
> (d) specific gravity
> (e) specific viscosity.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.22. The normal stress in a
> fluid will be constant in all directions at a point only if
> (a) it is incompressible
> (b) it has uniform viscosity
> (c) it has zero viscosity
> (d) it is frictionless
> (e) it is at rest.
> Ans: e
>
> 8.23. The pressure at a point in
> a fluid will not be same in all the directions when the
> fluid is
> (a) moving
> (b) viscous
> (c) viscous and static
> (d) inviscous and moving
> (e) viscous and moving.
> Ans: e
>
> 8.24. An object having 10 kg mass
> weighs 9.81kg on a spring balance. The value of 'g'
> at this place is
> (a) 10m/sec2
> (b) 9.81 m/sec2
> (c) 10.2/m sec
> (d) 9.75 m/sec2
> (e) 9 m/sec .
> Ans: a
>
> 8.25. The tendency of a liquid
> surface to contract is due to the following property
> (a) cohesion
> (b) adhesion
> (c) viscosity
> (d) surface tension
> (e) elasticity.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.26. The surface tension of
> mercury at normal temperature compared to that of water is
> (a) more
> (b) less
> (c) same
> (d) more or less depending on
> size of glass tube
> Ans: a
>
> 8.27. A perfect gas
> (a) has constant viscosity
> (b) has zero viscosity
> (c) is incompressible
> (d) is of theoretical interest
> Ans: e
>
> 8.28. For very great pressures,
> viscosity of moss gases and liquids
> (a) remains same
> (b) increases
> (c) decreases
> (d) shows erratic behaviour
> Ans: d
>
> 8.33. A fluid in equilibrium
> can't sustain
> (a) tensile stress
> (b) compressive stress
> (c) shear stress
> (d) bending stress
> (e) all of the above.
> Ans: c
>
> 8.34. Viscosity of water in
> comparison to mercury is
> (a) higher
> (b) lower
> (c) same
> (d) higher/lower depending on
> temperature
> (e) unpredictable.
> Ans: a
>
> 8.35. The bulk modulus of
> elasticity with increase in pressure
> (a) increases
> (b) decreases
> (c) remains constant
> (d) increases first upto
> certain limit and then decreases
> Ans: a
>
> 8.36. The bulk modulus of
> elasticity
> (a) has the dimensions of
> 1/pressure
> (b) increases with pressure
> (c) is large when fluid is more
> compres¬sible
> (d) is independent of pressure
> and viscosity
> (e) is directly proportional to
> flow.
> Ans: b
>
> 8.37. A balloon lifting in air
> follows the following principle
> (a) law of gravitation
> (b) Archimedes principle
> (c) principle of buoyancy
> (d) all of the above
> (e) continuity equation.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.38. The value of the
> coefficient of compressibility for water at ordinary
> pressure and temperature in kg/cm is equal to
> (a) 1000
> (b) 2100
> (c) 2700
> (d) 10,000
> (e) 21,000.
> Ans: e
>
> 8.39. The increase of temperature
> results in
> (a) increase in viscosity of
> gas
> (b) increase in viscosity of
> liquid
> (c) decrease in viscosity of
> gas
> (d) decrease in viscosity of
> liquid
> (e) (a) and (d) above.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.40. Surface tension has the
> units of
> (a) newtons/m
> (b) newtons/m
> (c) new tons/m
> (d) newtons
> (e) newton m.
> Ans: c
>
> 8.41. Surface tension
> (a) acts in the plane of the
> interface normal to any line in the surface
> (b) is also known as
> capillarity
> (c) is a function of the
> curvature of the interface
> (d) decreases with fall in
> temperature
> (e) has no units.
> Ans: a
>
> 8.42. The stress-strain relation
> of the newtoneon fluid is
> (a) linear
> (b) parabolic
> (c) hyperbolic
> (d) inverse type
> Ans: a
>
> 8.43. A liquid compressed in
> cylinder has a volume of 0.04 m3 at 50 kg/cm2 and a volume
> of 0.039 m3 at 150 kg/cm2. The bulk
> modulus of elasticity of liquid is
> (a) 400 kg/cm2
> (b) 4000 kg/cm2
> (c) 40 x 105 kg/cm2
> (d) 40 x 106 kg/cm2
> Ans: b
>
> 8.44. The units of viscosity are
> (a) metres2 per sec
> (b) kg sec/metre
> (c) newton-sec per metre2
> (d) newton-sec per metre
> Ans: b
>
> 8.45. Kinematic viscosity is
> dependent upon
> (a) pressure
> (b) distance
> (c) level
> (d) flow
> (e) density.
> Ans: e
>
> 8.46. Units of surface tension
> are
> (a) energy/unit area
> (b) distance
> (c) both of the above
> (d) it has no units
> Ans: c
>
> 8.47. Which of the following
> meters is not associated with viscosity
> (a) Red wood
> (b) Say bolt
> (c) Engler
> (d) Orsat
> Ans: d
>
> 8.48. Choose the correct
> relationship
> (a) specific gravity = gravity
> x density
> (b) dynamicviscosity =
> kinematicviscosity x density
> (c) gravity = specific gravity
> x density
> (d) kinematicviscosity =
> dynamicviscosity x density
> (e) hydrostaticforce = surface
> tension x gravity.
> Ans: b
>
> 8.49. Dimensions of surface
> tension are
> (a) MlL°T2
> (b) MlL°Tx
> (c) MlL r2
> (d) MlL2T2
> (e) MlL°t.
> Ans: a
>
> 8.50. For manometer, a better
> liquid combination is one having
> (a) higher surface tension
> (b) lower surface tension
> (c) surface tension is no
> criterion
> (d) high density and viscosity
> (e) low density and viscosity.
> Ans: a
>
> 8.51. If mercury in a barometer
> is replaced by water, the height of 3.75 cm of mercury will
> be following cm of water
> (a) 51 cm
> (b) 50 cm
> (c) 52 cm
> (d) 52.2 cm
> (e) 51.7 cm.
> Ans: a
>
> 8.52. Choose the wrong
> statement.
> Alcohol is used in manometer, because
> (a) its vapour pressure is low
> (b) it provides suitable
> meniscus for the in-clined tube
> (c) its density is less
> (d) it provides longer length
> for a given pressure difference
> (e) it provides accurate
> readings.
> Ans: a
>
> 53. Increase in pressure at the
> outer edge of a drum of radius R due to rotation at
> corad/sec, full of liquid of density p will be
> (a) pco2/?2
> (b) pco2/?2/2
> (c) 2pa2R2
> (d) pa2R/2
> Ans: b
>
> 8.54. The property of fluid by
> virtue of which it offers resistance to shear is called
> (a) surface tension
> (b) adhesion
> (c) cohesion
> (d) viscosity
> Ans: d
>
> 8.55. Choose the wrong statement
> (a) fluids are capable of
> flowing
> (b) fluids conform to the shape
> of the con-taining vessels
> (c) when in equilibrium, fluids
> cannot sus-tain tangential forces
> (d) when in equilibrium, fluids
> can sustain shear forces
> (e) fluids have some degree of compres-sibility and offer
> little resistance to form.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.56. The density of water is
> 1000 kg/m3 at
> (a) 0°C
> (b) 0°K
> (c) 4°C (d) 20°C
> (e) all temperature.
> Ans: c
>
> 8.57. If w is the specific weight
> of liquid and k the depth of any point from the surface,
> then pressure intensity at that point will be
> (a) h
> (b) wh
> (c) w/h
> (d) h/w
> (e) h/wh.
> Ans: b
>
> (a) Viscosity of a fluid is
> that property which determines the amount of its resistance
> to a shearing force
> (b) Viscosity is due primarily
> to interaction between fluid molecules
> (c) Viscosity of liquids
> decreases with in-crease in temperature
> (d) Viscosity of liquids is appreciably af-fected by change
> in pressure
> (e) Viscosity is expressed as poise, stoke, or saybolt
> seconds.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.59. The units of kinematic viscosity are
> (b) kg sec/metre
> (c) newton-sec per metre
> (d) newton-sec per metre
> Ans: a
>
> 60. The ratio of absolute viscosity to mass den-sity
> is known as
> (a) specific viscosity
> (b) viscosity index
> (c) kinematic viscosity
> (d) coefficient of viscosity
> (e) coefficient of compressibility.
> Ans: c
>
> 4-61. Kinematic viscosity is equal to
> (a) dynamic viscosity/density
> (b) dynamicviscosity x density
> (c) density/dynamic viscosity
> (d) 1/dynamicviscosity x
> density
> (e) same as dynamic viscosity.
> Ans: a
>
> 4.62. Which of the following is the unit of kinematic
> viscosity
> (a) pascal
> (b) poise
> (c) stoke
> (d) faraday
> Ans: c
>
> $.63. A one dimensional flow is one which
> (a) is uniform flow
> (b) is steady uniform flow
> (c) takes place in straight
> lines
> (d) involves zero transverse
> component of flow
> (e) takes place in one
> dimension.
> Ans: d
>
> 64. Alcohol is used in manometers because
> (a) it has low vapour pressure
> (b) it is clearly visible
> (c) it has low surface tension
> (d) it can provide longer
> column due to low density
> (e) is provides suitable
> meniscus.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.65. A pressure of 25 m of head
> of water is equal to
> (a) 25 kN/m2
> (b) 245 kN/m2
> (c) 2500 kN/m2
> (d) 2.5kN/m2
> (e) 12.5 kN/m2.
> Ans: b
>
> 8.66. Specific weight of sea
> water is more that of pure water because it contains
> (a) dissolved air
> (b) dissolved salt
> (c) suspended matter
> (e) heavy water.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.67. If 850 kg liquid occupies
> volume of one cubic meter, men 0.85 represents its
> (a) specific weight
> (b) specific mass
> (c) specific gravity
> (d) specific density
> Ans: c
>
> 8.69. Free surface of a liquid
> tends to contract to the smallest possible area due to force
> of
> (b) viscosity
> (c) friction
> (d) cohesion
> (e) adhesion.
> Ans: a
>
> 8.70. A bucket of water is
> hanging from a spring balance. An iron piece is suspended
> into water without touching sides of bucket from another
> support. The spring balance reading will
> (a) increase
> (b) decrease
> (c) remain same
> (d) increase/decrease depending
> on depth of immersion
> Ans: c
>
> 8.71. Falling drops of water
> become spheres due to the property of
> (a) adhesion
> (b) cohesion
> (d) viscosity
> (e) compressibility.
> Ans: c
>
> 8.72. A liquid would wet the
> solid, if adhesion forces as compared to cohesion forces
> are
> (a) less
> (b) more
> (c) equal
> (d) less at low temperature and
> more at high temperature
> (e) there is no such
> criterion.
> Ans: b
>
> 8.73. If cohesion between
> molecules of a fluid is greater than adhesion between fluid
> and glass, then the free level of fluid in a dipped glass
> tube will be
> (a) higher than the surface of
> liquid
> (b) the same as the surface of
> liquid
> (c) lower than the surface of
> liquid
> (d) unpredictable
> Ans: c
>
> 8.74. The point in the immersed
> body through which the resultant pressure of the liquid may
> be taken to act is known as
> (a) meta centre
> (b) centre of pressure
> (c) centre of buoyancy
> (d) centre of gravity
> Ans: b
>
> 8.75. The total pressure on the
> surface of a vertical sluice gate 2 m x 1 m with its top 2 m
> surface being 0.5 m below the water level will be
> (a) 500 kg
> (b) 1000 kg
> (c) 1500 kg
> (d) 2000 kg
> (e) 4000 kg.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.76. The resultant upward
> pressure of a fluid on a floating body is equal to the
> weight of the fluid displaced by the body. This definition
> is according to
> (a) Buoyancy
> (b) Equilibrium of a floating
> body
> (c) Archimedes' principle
> (d) Bernoulli's theorem
> (e) Metacentric principle.
> Ans: c
>
> 8.77. The resultant upward
> pressure of the fluid on an immersed body is called
> (a) upthrust
> (b) buoyancy
> (c) centre of pressure
> (d) all the above are correct
> (e) none of above is correct.
> Ans: b
>
> 8.78. The conditions for the
> stable equilibrium of a floating body are
> (a) the meta-centre should lie
> above the centre of gravity
> (b) the centre of buoyancy and
> the centre of gravity must lie on the same vertical line
> (c) a righting couple should be
> formed
> (d) all the above are correct
> (e) none of the above is
> correct.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.79. Poise is the unit of
> (b) capillarity
> (c) viscosity
> (d) shear stress in fluids
> (e) buoyancy.
> Ans: c
>
> 8.80. Metacentric height is given
> as the distance between
> (a) the centre of gravity of
> the body andthe meta centre
> (b) the centre of gravity of
> the body and the centre of buoyancy
> (c) the centre of gravity of
> the body and the centre of pressure
> (d) centre of buoyancy and
> metacentre
> Ans: a
>
> 8.81. The buoyancy depends on
> (a) mass of liquid displaced
> (b) viscosity of the liquid
> (c) pressure of the liquid
> displaced
> (d) depth of immersion
> Ans: a
>
> 8.82. The centre of gravity of
> the volume of the liquid displaced by an immersed body is
> called
> (a) meta-centre
> (d) centre of gravity
> Ans: c
>
> 8.83. A piece of metal of
> specific gravity 13.6 is placed in mercury of specific
> gravity 13.6, what fraction of it volume is under mercury?
> (a) the metal piece will simply
> float over the mercury
> (b) the metal piece will be
> immersed in mercury by half
> (c) whole of the metal piece
> will be im-mersed with its top surface just at mer-cury
> level
> (d) metal piece will sink to
> the bottom
> Ans: c
>
> 8.84. The angle of contact in
> case of a liquid depends upon
> (a) the nature of the liquid
> and the solid
> (b) the material which exists
> above the free surface of the liquid
> (c) both of die above
> (d) any one of the above
> (e) none of die above.
> Ans: c
>
> 3.85. Free surface of a liquid behaves like a sheet and
> tends to contract to smallest possible area due to the
> (a) force of adhesion
> (b) force of cohesion
> (c) force of friction
> (d) force of diffusion
> (e) none of die above.
> Ans: b
>
> 8.86. Rain drops are spherical because of
> (a) viscosity
> (b) air resistance
> (c) surface tension forces
> (d) atmospheric pressure
> Ans: c
>
> 87. Surface energy per unit area of a surface is
> numerically equal to ..
> (a) atmospheric pressure
> (b) surface tension
> (c) force of adhesion
> (d) force of cohesion
> (e) viscosity.
> Ans: b
>
> 1-88. The capillary rise at 20°C in a clean glass tube of 1
> mm bore containing water is ap-proximately
> (a) 1 mm
> (b) 5 mm
> (c) 10 mm
> (d) 20 mm
> (e) 30 mm.
> Ans: e
>
> 89. The difference of pressure between the inside and
> outside of a liquid drop is
> (a)p = Txr
> (b)p = T/r
> (c) p = T/2r
> (d)p = 2T/r
> Ans: d
>
> 90. If the surface of liquid is convex, men
> (a) cohesion pressure is
> negligible
> (b) cohesion pressure is
> decreased
> (c) cohesion pressure is
> increased
> (d) there is no cohesion
> pressure
> Ans: c
>
> 91. To avoid vaporisation in the pipe line, the pipe line
> over the ridge is laid such that it is not more than
> (a) 2.4 m above the hydraulic
> gradient
> (b) 6.4 m above the hydraulic
> gradient
> (c) 10.0 m above the hydraulic
> gradient
> (d) 5.0 above the hydraulic
> gradient
> Ans: b
>
> 8.92. To avoid an interruption in
> the flow of a syphon, an air vessel is provided
> (a) at the inlet
> (b) at the outlet
> (c) at the summit
> (d) ay nay point between inlet
> and outlet
> Ans: c
>
> 8.93. The vapour pressure over
> the concave surface is
> (a) less man the vapour
> pressure over the plane surface
> (b) equal to the vapour
> (c) greater than the vapour
> (d) zero
> Ans: a
>
> 8.94. The peoperty by virtue of
> which a liquid opposes relative motion between its different
> layers is called
> (b) co-efficient of viscosity
> (c) viscosity
> (d) osmosis
> (e) cohesion.
> Ans: c
>
> 8.95. The process of diffusion of
> one liquid into the other through a semi-permeable membrane
> is called
> (a) viscosity
> (b) osmosis
> (d) cohesion
> (e) diffusivity.
> Ans: b
>
> 8.96. The units of dynamic or
> absolute viscosity are
> (b) kg sec/metre
> (c) newton-sec per metre
> (d) newton-sec2 per metre
> Ans: c
>
> 8.98. The continuity equation is
> connected with
> (a) viscous/unviscous fluids
> (b) compressibility of fluids
> (c) conservation of mass
> (d) steady/unsteady flow
> (e) open channel/pipe flow.
> Ans: c
>
> 8.99. The rise or depression of
> liquid in a tube due to surface tension wim increase in size
> of tube will
> (a) increase
> (b) remain unaffected
> (c) may increase or decrease
> depending on the characteristics of liquid
> (d) decrease
> Ans: d
>
> 8.100. Liquids transmit pressure
> equally in all the directions. This is according to
> (a) Boyle's law
> (b) Archimedes principle
> (c) Pascal's law
>
> (d) Newton's formula
> (e) Chezy's equation.
> Ans: c
>
> 8.101. Capillary action is due to
> the
> (b) cohesion of the liquid
> (c) adhesion of the liquid molecules and the molecules on
> the surface of a solid
> Ans: d
>
> 8.103. Newton's law of
> viscosity is a relationship between
> (a) shear stress anctthejiate
> of angular dis¬tortion
> (b) shear stress and viscosity
> (c) shear stress, velocity and
> viscosity
> (d) pressure, velocity and
> viscosity
> (e) shear stress, pressure and
> rate of an-gular distortion.
> Ans: a
>
> 8.104. The atmospheric pressure
> with rise in altitude decreases
> (a) linearly
> (b) first slowly and then
> steeply
> (c) first steeply and then
> gradually
> (d) unpredictable
> Ans: b
>
> 8.105. Pressure of the order of
> 10"' torr can be measured by
> (a) Bourdon tube
> (b) Pirani Gauge
> (c) micro-manometer
> (d) ionisastion gauge
> (e) McLeod gauge.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.106. Operation of McLeod gauge
> used for low pressure measurement is based on the principle
> of
> (a) gas law
> (b) Boyle's law
> (c) Charle's law
> (d) Pascal's law
> (e) McLeod's law.
> Ans: b
>
> 8.107. An odd shaped body weighing
> 7.5 kg and occupying 0.01 m3 volume will be completely
> submerged in a fluid having
> specific gravity of
> (a) 1
> (b) 1.2
> (c) 0.8
> (d) 0.75
> (e) 1.25.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.108. In an isothermal
> atmosphere, the pressure
> (a) decreases linearly with
> elevation
> (b) remains constant
> (c) varies in the same way as
> the density
> (d) increases exponentially
> with elevation
> Ans: c
>
> 8.109. Mercury is often used in
> barometer because
> (a) it is the best liquid
> (b) the height of barometer will be less
> (c) its vapour pressure is so
> low that it may be neglected
> (d) both (b) and (c)
> (e) it moves easily.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.110. Barometer is used to
> measure
> (a) pressure in pipes, channels
> etc.
> (b) atmospheric pressure
> (c) very low pressure
> (d) difference of pressure
> between two points
> (e) rain level.
> Ans: b
>
> instrument can be used for measuring speed of a submarine
> moving in deep sea
> (a) Venturimeter
> (b) Orifice plate
> (c) hot wire anemometer
> (d) rotameter
> (e) pitot tube.
> Ans: e
>
> instrument can be used for measuring speed of an aeroplane
> (a) Venturimeter
> (b) Orifice plate
> (c) hot wire anemometer
> (d) rotameter
> (e) pitot tube.
> Ans: e
>
> 8.113. Piezometer is used to
> measure
> (a) pressure in pipe, channels etc.
> (c) very low pressures
> (e) flow.
> Ans: c
>
> instruments is used to measure flow on the application of
> Bernoulli's theorem
> (a) Venturimeter
> (b) Orifice plate
> (c) nozzle
> (d) pitot tube
> Ans: e
>
> 8.116. The speed of sound in a
> ideal gas varies directly as its
> (a) pressure
> (b) temperature
> (c) density
> (d) modulus of elasticity
> (e) absolute temperature,
> Ans: e
>
> 8.119. Dynamic viscosity of most
> of the liquids with rise in temperature
> (a) increases
> (b) decreases
> (a) remains unaffected
> (d) unpredictable
> Ans: b
>
> 8.120. Dynamic viscosity of most
> of the gases with rise in temperature
> (a) increases
> (b) decreases
> (c) remains unaffected
> (d) unpredictable
> Ans: a
>
> 8.121. A metal with specific
> gravity of o floating in a fluid of same specific gravity a
> will
> (a) sink to bottom
> (b) float over fluid
> (c) partly immersed
> (d) be fully immersed with top
> surface at fluid surface
> Ans: d
>
> 8.123. Euler's dimensionless
> number relates the following
> (a) inertial force and gravity
> (b) viscous force and inertial
> force
> (c) viscous force and buoyancy
> force
> (d) pressure force and inertial
> force
> (e) pressure force and viscous force.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.128. Manometer is used to
> measure
> etc.
> (e) velocity.
> Ans: a
>
> .129. Which of the following
> manometer has highest sensitivity
> (a) U-tube with water
> (b) inclined U-tube
> (c) U-tube with mercury
> (d) micro-manometer with water
> (e) displacement type.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.130. In order to increase
> sensitivity of U-tube manometer, one leg is usually inclined
> by angle 9. Sensitivity of inclined tube to sensitivity of
> U-tube is equal to
> (a) sin 9
> (b) sin 9
> (c) casS
> (d) cos 9
> (e) tan 9.
> Ans: b
>
> 8.131. Working principle of dead
> weight pressure gauge tester is based on
> (a) Pascal's law
> (b) Dalton's law of partial
> pressure
> (c) Newton's law of
> viscosity .
> (d) Avogadro's hypothesis
> (e) Second law of
> thermodynamic.
> Ans: a
>
> 8.132. The resultant of all normal
> pressures acts
> (a) at e.g. of body
> (b) at centre of pressure
> (c) vertically upwards
> (d) at metacentre
> (e) vertically downwards.
> Ans: c
>
> 8.133. Centre of pressure compared
> to e.g. is
> (a) above it
> (b) below it.
> (c) at same point
> (d) above or below depending on
> area of body
> Ans: b
>
> 8.134. Metacentric height is the
> distance between the metacentre and
> (a) water surface
> (c) centre of gravity
> (d) centre of buoyancy
> Ans: c
>
> 8.135.. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an
> immersed body due to its tendency to uplift the sub-merged
> body is called
> (a) upthrust
> (b) reaction
> (c) buoyancy
> (d) metacentre
> (e) centre of pressure.
> Ans: c
>
> 8.136. The centre of pressure of a
> surface subjected to fluid pressure is the point
> (a) on the surface at which
> resultant pres-sure acts
> (b) on the surface at which
> gravitational force acis
> (c) at which all hydraulic
> forces meet
> (d) similar to metacentre
> (e) where pressure equivalent
> to hydraulic thrust will act.
> Ans: a
>
> 8.137. Buoyant force is
> (a) the resultant force acting
> on a floating body
> (b) the resultant force on a
> body due to the fluid surrounding it
> (c) equal to the
> volume of liquid dis-placed
> (d) the force necessary to
> maintain equi-librium of a submerged body
> Ans: b
>
> 8.138. The horizontal component of
> buoyant force is
> (a) negligible
> (b) same as buoyant force
> (c) zero
> Ans: c
>
> 140. The line of action of the buoyant force acts
> through the
> (a) centroid of the volume of
> fluid verti-cally above the body
> (b) centre of the volume of
> floating body
> (c) centre of gravity of any
> submerged body
> (d) centriod of the displaced
> volume of fluid
> Ans: d
>
> 8.141. Centre of buoyancy is the
> (a) centroid of the displaced
> volume of fluid
> (b) centre of pressure of
> displaced volume
> (c) e.g. of floating 'body
> (d) does not exist
> Ans: a
>
> 8.142. A body floats in stable equilibrium
> (a) when its meatcentric height
> is zero
> (b) when the metancentre is
> above e.g.
> (c) when its e.g. is below
> it's centre of buoyancy
> (d) metacentre has nothing to
> do with position of e.g. for determining stability
> Ans: b
>
> vl43. A piece weighing 3 kg in air was found to weigh
> 2.5 kg when submerged in water. Its specific gravity is
> (a) 1
> (b) 5
> (c) 7
> (d) 6
> Ans: d
>
> 8.151. The total pressure force on
> a plane area is equal to the area multiplied by the
> intensity of pressure at the centriod, if
> (a) the area is horizontal
> (b) the area is vertical
> (c) the area is inclined
> Ans: d
>
> 8.152. A square surface 3 m x 3 m
> lies in a vertical line in water pipe its upper edge at
> vater surface. The hydrostatic force on square surface is
> (a) 9,000 kg
> (b) 13,500 kg
> (c) 18,000 kg
> (d) 27,000 kg
> (e) 30,000 kg.
> Ans: b
>
> 8.153. The df pth of the centre of
> pressure on a vertical rectangular gate 8 m wide and 6 m
> high, when the water surface coincides with the top of the
> gate, is
> (a) 2.4 m
> (b) 3.0 m
> (c) 4.0 m
> (d)"2.5 m
> (e) 5.0 m.
> Ans: b
>
> 8.154. If the atmospheric pressure
> on the surface of an oil tank (sp. gr. 0.8) is 0.2
> kg/cm", the pressure at a depth of 50 m below the oil
> surface will be
> (a) 2 metres of water column
> (b) 3 metres of water column
> (c) 5 metres of water column
> (d) 6 metres of water Column
> (e) 7 metres of water column.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.155. Metacentre is the point of
> intersection of
> (a) vertical upward force
> through e.g. of body and centre line of body
> (b) buoyant force and the
> centre line of body
> (c) mid point between e.g. and
> centre of buoyancy
> Ans: b
>
> (a) The horizontal component of
> the hydro-static force on any surface is equal to the normal
> force on the verti¬cal projection of the surface
> (b) The horizontal component
> acts through the centre of pressure for the vertical
> projection
> (c) The vertical component of
> the hydros-tatic force on any surface is equal to the weight
> of the volume of the liquid above the area
> (d) he vertical component
> passes through the centre of pressure of the volume
> (e) Centre of pressure acts at
> a greater depth than centre of gravity.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.157. For a body floating in a
> liquid the normal pressure exerted by the liquid acts at
> (a) bottom surface of the body
> (b) e.g. of the body
> (c) metacentre
> (d) all points on the surface
> of the body
> Ans: d
>
> (a) any weight, floating or immersed in a liquid, is acted
> upon by a buoyant force
> (p) Buoyant force is equal to the weight of the liquid
> displaced
> (c) The point through which
> buoyant force acts, is called the centre of buoyancy
> (d) Centre of buoyancy is
> located above the centre of gravity of the displaced liquid
>v
> (e) Relative density of liquids
> can be determined by means of the depth of flotation of
> hydrometer.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.159. According to the principle
> of buoyancy a body totally or partially immersed in a fluid
> will be lifted up by a force equal to
> (a) the weight of the body
> (b) more than the weight of the
> body
> (c) less than the weight of the
> body
> (d) weight of the fluid
> displaced by the body
> (e) weight of body plus the
> weight of the fluid displaced hy the body.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.160. When a body floating in a
> liquid, is displaced slightly, it oscillates about
> (a) e.g. of body
> (d) metacentre
>
> (e) liquid surface.
> Ans: d
>
> 5.161. Buoyant force is
> (a) resultant force acting on a
> floating body
> (b) equal to the volume of
> liquid dis¬placed
> (c) force necessary to keep a
> body in equi¬librium
> (d) the resultant force on a
> body due to the fluid surrounding it
> Ans: d
>
> 8.l62. Ratio of inertia force to surface Jension is known
> as
> (a) Mach number
> (b) Froude number
> (c) Reynold's number
> (d) Weber's number
> Ans: d
>
> 8.163. A ship whose hull length is
> 100 m is to travel at 10 m/sec. For dynamic similarity,
> at what velocity should a 1:25 model be towed through
> water ?
> (a) 10 m/sec
> (b) 25 m/sec
> (c) 2 m/sec
> (d) 50 m/sec
> (e) 250 m/sec.
> Ans: c
>
> 8.164. A model of a reservior is
> drained in 4 mts by opening the sluice gate. The model scale
> is 1: 225. How long should it take to empty the prototype ?
> (a) 900 minutes
> (b) 4 minutes
> (c) 4 x (225)3/2 minutes
> (d) 4 (225)1/3 minutes
> (e) 4 x V225 minutes.
> Ans: e
>
> 165. A model of torpedo is tested in a towing tank at
> a velocity of 25 m/sec. The prototype is expected to attain
> a velocity
> of 5 m/sec. What model scale has been used ?
> (a) 1 : 5
> (b) 1 : 2.5
> (c) 1 :25
> (d) 1:V5"
> (e) 1 : 53/2
> Ans: a
>
> 8.166. Ratio of inertia force to
> elastic force is known as
> (a) Mach number
> (b) Froude number
> (c) Reynold's number
> (d) Weber's number
> Ans: a
>
> 8.167. For a floating body to be
> in stable equilibrium, its metacentre should be
> (a) below the centre of
> gravity
> (b) below the centre of
> buoyancy
> (c) above the centre of
> buoyancy
> (d) between e.g. and centre of
> pressure
> (e) above the centre of
> gravity.
> Ans: e
>
> 8.168. For a floating body to be
> in equilibrium
> (a) meta centre should be above
> e.g.
> (b) centre of buoyancy and e.g.
> must lie on same vertical plane
> (c) a righting couple should be
> formed
> Ans: d
>
> 8.169. The two important forces
> for a floating body are
> (a) buoyancy, gravity
> (b) buoyancy, pressure
> (c) buoyancy, inertial
> (d) inertial, gravity
> (e) gravity, pressure.
> Ans: a
>
> (a) The centre of buoyancy is
> located at the centre of gravity of the displaced liquid
> (b) For stability of a
> submerged body, the centre of gravity of body must lie
> directly below the centre of buoyancy
> (c) If e.g. and centre of
> buoyancy coin¬cide, the submerged body must lie at neutral
> equilibrium for all positions
> (d) For stability of floating
> cylinders or spheres, the e.g. of body must lie below the
> centre of buoyancy
> (e) All floating bodies are
> stable.
> Ans: e
>
> 8.171. Centre of pressure on an
> inclined plane is
> (a) at the centroid
> (b) above the centroid
> (c) below the centroid
> (d) at metacentre
> (e) at centre of pressure.
> Ans: c
>
> 8.172. An open vessel of water is
> accelerated up an inclined plane. The free water surface
> will
> (a) be horizontal
> (b) make an angle in direction
> of inclina¬tion of inclined plane
> (c) make an angle in opposite
> direction to inclination of inclined plane
> (d) any one of above is
> possible
> Ans: c
>
> 8.173. The line of action of the
> buoyant force acts through the centroid of the
> (a) submerged body
> (b) volume of the floating
> body
> (c) volume of the fluid
> vertically above the body
> (d) displaced volume of the
> fluid
> Ans: d
>
> 8.174. Resultant pressure of the
> liquid in the case of an immersed body acts through
> (a) centre of gravity
> (c) metacentre
> (e) in between e.g. and centre of pressure.
> Ans: b
>
> 8.175. The centre of gravity of
> the volume of the liquid displaced by an immersed body is
> called
> (a) centre of gravity
> (c) metacentre
> (e) centroid.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.176. Differential monometer is
> used to measure
> etc.
> (e) velocity in pipes
> Ans: d
>
> 8.177. The pressure in the air
> space above an oil (sp. gr. 0.8) surface in a tank is 0.1
> kg/cm".
> The pressure at 2.5 m below the oil surface will be
> (a) 2 metres of water column
> (b) 3 metres of water column
> (c) 3.5 metres of water column
> (d) 4 m of water column
> Ans: b
>
> 8.178. The time oscillation of a
> floating body with increase in metacentric height will be
> (a) same
> (b) higher
> (c) lower
> (d) lower/higher depending on
> weight of body
> Ans: c
>
> 8.179. In an immersed body, centre
> of pressure is
> (a) at the centre of gravity
> (b) above the centre of
> gravity
> (c) below be centre of gravity
> (d) could be above or below
> e.g. depend¬ing on density of body and liquid
> Ans: c
>
> 8.180. The normal stress is same
> in all directions at a point in a fluid
> (a) only when the fluid is frictionless
> (b) only when the fluid is
> incompressible and has zero viscosity
> (c) when there is no motion of
> one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
> (d) irrespective of the motion of one fluid layer relative
> to an adjacent layer
> (e) in case of an ideal fluid.
> Ans: c
>
> 8.181. Select the correct
> statement
> (a) Local atmospheric pressure depends upon elevation of
> locality only
> (b) Standard atmospheric pressure is the mean local
> atmospheric pressure a* sea level
> (c) Local atmospheric pressure
> is always below standard atmospheric pressure
> (d) A barometer reads the
> difference be-tween local and standard atmospheric pressure
> (e) Gauge piessure is equal to
> atmos¬pheric pressure plus instrument read¬ing.
> Ans: b
>
> 8.184. For measuring flow by a
> venturimeter, if should be installed in
> (a) vertical line
> (b) horizontal line
> (c) inclined line with flow
> downward
> (d) inclined line with upward
> flow\
> (e) in any direction and in any
> location.
> Ans: e
>
> 8.185. Total pressure on a lmxlm
> gate immersed vertically at a depth of 2 m below the free
> water surface will be
> (a) 1000 kg
> (b) 4000 kg
> (c) 2000 kg
> (d) 8000 kg
> (e) 16000 kg.
> Ans: a
>
> 8.186. Hot wire anemometer is used
> to measure
> (a) pressure in gases
> (b) liquid discharge
> (c) pressure in liquids
> (d) gas velocities
> (e) temperature.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.187. Rotameter is a device used
> to measure
> (a) absolute pressure
> (b) velocity of fluid
> (c) flow
> (d) rotation
> (e) velocity of air.
> Ans: c
>
> 8.188. Flow of water in a pipe
> about 3 metres in diameter can be measured by
> (a) orifice plate
> (b) venturi
> (c) rotameter
> (d) pitot tube
> (e) nozzle
> Ans: d
>
> 8.189. True one-dimensional flow
> occurs when
> (a) the direction and magnitude
> of the veiocity at all points are identical
> (b) the velocity of successive
> fluid par-ticles, at any point, is the same at suc-cessive
> periods of time
> (c) the magnitude and direction
> of the velocity do not change from point to point in the
> fluid
> (d) the fluid particles move in
> plane or parallel planes and the streamline pat-terns are
> identical in each plane
> (e) velocity, depth, pressure
> etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow.
> Ans: a
>
> 8.190. An ideal flow of any fluid
> must satisfy
> (a) Pascal law
> (b) Newton's law of
> viscosity
> (c) boundary layer theory
> (d) continuity equation
> (e) Bernoulli's theorem.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.191. In the case of steady flow
> of a fluid, the acceleration of any fluid particle is
> (a) constant
> (b) variable
> (c) zero
> (d) zero under limiting
> conditions
> (e) never zero.
> Ans: c
>
> 8.193. Non uniform flow occurs
> when
> of the velocity at all points are identical
> periods of time
> (c) the magnitude aricf
> direction of the velocity do not change from point to point
> in the fluid
> (e) velocity, depth, pressure,
> Ans: e
>
> 8.194. During the opening of a
> valve in a pipe line, the flow is
> (a) steady
> (b) unsteady
> (c) uniform
> (d) laminar
> (e) free vortex type.
> Ans: b
>
> 8.195. Uniform flow occurs when
> (a) the flow is steady
> (b) the flow is streamline
> (c) size and shape of the cross
> section in a particular length remain constant
> (d) size and cross section
> change uniform¬ly along length
> (e) flow occurs at constant
> fate.
> Ans: c
>
> 8.196. Gradually varied flow is
> (a) steady uniform
> (b) non-steady non-uniform
> (c) non-steady uniform
> (d) steady non-uniform
> (e) true one-dimensional.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.197. Steady flow occurs when
> periods of time
> fluid
> Ans: b
>
> 8.198. The flow which neglects
> changes in a transverse direction is known as
> (a) one dimensional flow
> (b) uniform flow
> (c) steady flow
> (d) turbulent flow
> (e) streamline flow.
> Ans: a
>
> 8.199. The flow in which each
> liquid particle has a definite path and their paths do not
> cross each other is called
> (b) uniform flow
> (c) steady flow
> Ans: e
>
> 8.200. The flow in which
> conditions do not change with time at any point, is known
> as
> (b) uniform flow
> (c) steady flow
> Ans: c
>
> 8.201. The flow in which the
> velocity vector is identical in magnitude and direction at
> every point, for any given instant, is known as
> (b) uniform f^w
> (c) steady flow
> Ans: b
>
> 8.202. The flow in which the
> particles of a fluid attain such velocities that vary from
> point to point in magnitude and direction as well as from
> instant to instant, is known as
> (b) uniform flow
> (c) steady flow
> Ans: d
>
> 8.210. Flow occurring in a
> pipeline when a valve is being opened is
> (a) steady
> (b) unsteady
> (c) laminar
> (d) vortex
> (e) rotational.
> Ans: b
>
> 8.211. General energy equation
> holds for
> (a) steady flow
> (b) turbulent flow
> (c) laminar flow
> (d) non-uniform flow
> Ans: d
>
> 8.212. A streamline is defined as
> the line
> (a) parallel to central axis flow
> (b) parallel to outer surface of pipe
> (c) of equal yelocity in a
> flow
> (d) along which the pressure
> drop is uniform
> (e) which occurs in all flows.
> Ans: c
>
> 8.213. Two dimensional flow occurs
> when
> periods of time
> fluid
> Ans: d
>
> 8.215. A piece of metal of
> specific gravity 7 floats in mercury of specific gravity
> 13.6. What fraction of its volume is under mercury ?
> (a) 0.5
> (b) 0.4
> (c) 0.515
> (d) 0.5
> Ans: c
>
> 8.216. A piece of wood having
> weight 5 kg floats in water with 60% of its volume under the
> liquid. The specific gravity of wood is
> (a) 0.83
> (b) 0.6
> (c) 0.4
> (d) 0.3
> Ans: b
>
> 8.218. The velocity of jet of
> water travelling out of opening in a tank filled with water
> is proportional to
> (a) head of water (h)
> (b) h2
> (c) V/T
> (d) h2
> (e) h3/1.
> Ans: c
>
> 8.219. In a free vortex motion,
> the radial component of velocity everywhere is
> (a) maximum
> (b) minimum
> (c) zero
> (d) non-zero and finite
> Ans: c
>
> 8.220. In a forced vortex, the
> velocity of flow everywhere within the fluid is
> (a) maximum
> (b) minimum
> (c) zero
> (d) non-zero finite
> Ans: d
>
> 8.221. The region between the
> separation streamline and the boundary surface of the solid
> body is known as
> (a) wake
> (b) drag
> (c) lift
> (d) boundary layer
> (e) aerofoil section.
> Ans: a
>
> 8.222. For hypersonic flow, the
> Mach number is
> (a) unity
> (b) greater than unity
> (c) greater than 2
> (d) greater than 4
> (e) greater than 10.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.223. The upper surface of a weir
> over which water flows is known is
> (a) crest
> (b) nappe
> (c) sill
> (d) weir top
> (e) contracta.
> Ans: c
>
> 8.224. Normal depth in open
> channel flow is the depth of flow corresponding to
> (a) steady flow
> (b) unsteady flow
> (c) laminar flow
> (d) uniform flow
> (e) critical flow.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.226. Uniform flow occurs when
> fluid pai-ticles, at any point, is the same at suc¬cessive
> periods of time
> fluid
> identical in each plsr.e
> Ans: c
>
> 8.227. Pitot tube is used for
> measurement of
> (a) pressure
> (b) flow
> (c) velocity
> (d) dsscharge
> (e) viscosity.
> Ans: c
>
> 8.228. Hydrometer is used to
> determine
> (a) specific gravity of
> liquids
> (b) specific gravity of solids
> (c) specific gravity of gases
> (d) relative humidity
> (e) density.
> Ans: a
>
> 8.229. The total energy of each
> particle at various places in the case of perfect incompres
> sible fluid flowing in continuous sream
> (d) keeps on increasing
> (b) keeps on decreasing
> (d) may increase/decrease
> Ans: c
>
> 8.230. According to
> Bernoulli's equation for steady ideal fluid flow
> (a) principle of conservation
> of mass holds
> (b) velocity and pressure are
> inversely proportional
> (c) total energy is constant
> throughout
> (d) the energy is constant
> along a stream-line but may vary across streamlines
> Ans: d
>
> 8.231. The equation of
> continuity holds good when the flow
> (a) is steady
> (b) is one dimensional
> (c) velocity is uniform at all
> the cross sec-tions
> Ans: d
>
> 8.232. Mach number is significant
> in
> (a) supersonics, as with
> projectiles and jet propulsion
> (b) full immersion or
> completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings,
> nozzles etc.
> (c) simultaneous motion through
> two fluids where there is a surface of dis-continuity,
> gravity force, and wave making effects, as with ship's
> hulls
> (d) all of fhe above
> Ans: a
>
> 8.233. Froude number is
> significant in
> projectile and jet propulsion
> nozzles etc.
> gravity forces, and wave making effect, as with ship's
> hulls
> (e) none of the above
> Ans: c
>
> 8.234. All the terms of energy in
> Bernoulli's equation have dimension of
> (a) energy
> (b) work
> (c) mass
> (d) length
> (e) time.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.235. Reynolds number is
> significant in
> projectile and jet propulsion
> nozzles etc.
> gravity forces, and wave making effect, as with ship's
> hulls
> Ans: b
>
> 8.236. The fluid forces considered in the Navier
> Stokes equation are
> (a) gravity, pressure and
> viscous
> (b) gravity, pressure and
> turbulent
> (c) pressure, viscous and
> turbulent
> (d) gravity, viscous and
> turbulent
> Ans: a
>
> 8.237. A large Roynold number is
> indication of
> (a) smooth and streamline flow
> (b) laminar flow
> (c) steady flow
> (e) highly turbulent flow.
> Ans: e
>
> 8.239. For pipes, laminar flow
> occurs when Roynolds number is
> (a) less than 2000
> (b) between 2000 and 4000
> (c) more than 4000
> (d) less than 4000
> Ans: a
>
> 8.240. In order that flow takes
> place between two points in a pipeline, the differential
> pressure between these points must be more than
> (a) frictional force
> (b) viscosity
> (c) surface friction
> Ans: d
>
> 8.241. At the centre line of a
> pipe flowing under pressure where the velocity gradient is
> zero, the shear stress will be
> (a) minimum
> (b) maximum
> (c) zero
> (d) negative value
> (e) could be any value.
> Ans: e
>
> 8.242. The pressure in Pascals at
> a depth of 1 m below the free surface of a body of water
> will be equal to
> (a) 1 Pa
> (b) 98.1Pa
> (c) 981 Pa
> (d) 9810 Pa
> (e) 98,100 Pa.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.244. Two pipe systems can be
> said to be equivalent, when the following quantites are
> same
> (a) friction loss and flow
> (b) length and diameter
> (c) flow and length
> (d) friction factor and
> diameter
> (e) velocity and diameter.
> Ans: a
>
> 8.245. For pipes, turbulent flow
> occurs when Reynolds number is
> (a) less than 2000
> (b) between 2000 and 4000
> (c). more than 4000
> (d) less than 4000
> Ans: c
>
> 8.246. Bernoulli equation deals
> with the law of conservation of
> (a) mass
> (b) momentum
> (c) energy
> (d) work
> (e) force.
> Ans: c
>
> 8.247. A hydraulic press has a ram
> of 15 cm diameter and plunger of 1.5 cm. It is required to
> lift a weight of 1 tonne. The force required on plunger is
> equal tc
> (a) 10 kg
> (b) 100 kg
> (c) 1000 kg
> (d) 1 kg
> (e) 10,000 kg.
> Ans: a
>
> 8.248. Cavitation is caused by
> (a) high velocity
> (b) high pressure
> (c) weak material
> (d) low pressure
> (e) low viscosity.
> Ans: d
>
> 8.249. Cavitation will begin when
> (a) the pressure at any
> location reaches an absolute pressure equal to the saturated
> vapour pressure of the liquid
> (b) pressure becomes more than
> critical pressure
> (c) flow is increased
> (d) pressure is increased
> Ans: a
>
> 8.250. Principle of similitude
> forms the basis of
> (a) comparing two identical
> equipments
> (b) designing models so that
> the result can be converted to prototypes
> (c) comparing similarity
> between design and actual equipment
> (d) hydraulic designs
> (e) performing acceptance
> tests.
> Ans: b
>
> 8.251. For similarity, in addition
> to models being geometrically similar to prototype, the
> following in both cases should also be equal
> (a) ratio of inertial force to
> force due to viscosity
> (b) ratio of inertial force to
> force due to gravitation
> (c) ratio of inertial force to
> force due to surface tension
> (d) all the four ratios of
> inertial force to force due to viscosity, gravitation,
> sur-face tension, and elasticity
> Ans: d
>
> Sent from my
> iPhone
> 1. Which of the following

> variables controls the physical properties of a perfect gas
> (a) pressure
> (b) temperature
> (c) volume
> (e) atomic mass.
> Ans:
>d
> 2. Which qf the following laws is
> applicable for the behavior of a perfect gas
> (a) Boyle's law
> (b) Charles'law
> (c) Gay-Lussac law
> (e) Joule's law.Ans: d
> 3. The unit of temperature in S.I. units
> is
> (a) Centigrade
> (b) Celsius
> (c)
> Fahrenheit
> (d) Kelvin
> (e) Rankine.
> Ans: d
>
> 4. The unit of mass in S.I. units
> is
> (a) kilogram
> (b) gram
> (c)
> tonne
> (d) quintal
> (e) newton.
> Ans: a
>
> 5. The unit of time in S.I. units
> is
> (a) second
> (b) minute
> (c)
> hour
> (d) day
> (e) year.
> Ans: a
>
> 6. The unit of length in S.I. units
> is
> (a) meter
> (b) centimeter
> (c) kilometer
>
> (d) millimeter.
> Ans: a
>
> 7. The unit of energy in S.I. units
> is
> (a) watt
> (b) joule
> (c) joule/s
> (d) joule/m
> (e) joule m.
> Ans: b
>
> 8. According to GayLussac law for a
> perfect gas, the absolute pressure of given mass varies
> directly as
> (a)
> temperature
> (b) absolute
> (c) absolute temperature, if volume is
> kept constant
> (d) volume, if temperature is kept
> constant
> (e) remains constant,if volume and
> temperature are kept constant.
> Ans: c
>
> 9. An ideal gas as compared to a real gas
> at very high pressure occupies
> (a) more
> volume
> (b) less volume
> (c) same volume
> (d) unpredictable behavior
> (e) no such correlation.
> Ans: a
>
> 10. General gas equation is
> (a) PV=nRT
> (b) PV=mRT
> (d) PV = C
> (c) PV=KiRT
> (e) Cp-Cv = Wj
> Ans: b
>
> 11. According to Dalton's law, the
> total pres sure of the mixture of gases is equal to
> (a) greater of the partial pressures of
> all
> (b) average of the partial pressures of
> all
> (c) sum of the partial pressures of all
> (d) sum of the partial pressures of all
> divided by average molecular weight
> (e) atmospheric pressure.
> Ans: c
>
> 12. Which of the following can be regarded
> as gas so that gas laws could be applicable, within the
> commonly encountered temperature limits.
> (a) 02, N2, steam, C02
> (b) Oz, N2, water vapour
> (c) S02, NH3, C02, moisture
> (d) 02, N2, H2, air
> (e) steam vapours, H2, C02.
> Ans: d
>
> 13. The unit of pressure in S.I. units is
> (a) kg/cm2
> (b) mm of water column
> (c) pascal
> (d) dynes per square cm
> (e) bars
> Ans: c
>
> 14. A closed system is one in which
> (a) mass does not cross boundaries of the
> system, though energy may do so
> (b) mass crosses the boundary but not the
> energy
> (c) neither mass nor energy crosses the
> boundaries of the system
> (d) both energy and mass cross the
> (e) thermodynamic reactions take place.
> Ans: a
>
> 15. Temperature of a gas is produced due
> to
> (a) its heating value
> (b) kinetic energy of molecules
> (c) repulsion of molecules
> (d) attraction of molecules
> (e) surface tension of molecules.
> Ans: b
>
> 16. According to kinetic theory of gases,
> the absolute zero temperature is attained when
> (a) volume of the gas is zero
> (b) pressure of the gas is zero
> (c) kinetic energy of the molecules is
> zero
> (d) specific heat of gas is zero
> (e) mass is zero.
> Ans: c
>
> 17. Kinetic theory of gases assumes that
> the collisions between the molecules are
> (a) perfectly elastic
> (b) perfectly inelastic
> (c) partly elastic
> (d) partly inelastic
> (e) partly elastic and partly inelastic.
> Ans: a
>
> 18. The pressure a gas in terms of its
> mean kinetic energy per unit volume E is equal to
> (a) E/3
> (b) E/2
> (c) 3E/4
> (d)2E/3
> (e) 5E/4.
> Ans: d
>
> 19. Kinetic energy of the molecules in
> terms of absolute temperature (T) is proportional to
> (a) T
> (b) j
> (c) J2
> (d) Vr
> (e) 1/Vr.
> Ans: a
>
> 20. Superheated vapour behaves
> (a) exactly as gas
> (b) as steam
> (c) as ordinary vapour
> (d) approximately as a gas
> (e) as average of gas and vapour.
> Ans: d
>
> 21. Absolute zero pressure will occur
> (a) at sea level
> (b) at the center of the earth
> (c) when molecular momentum of the system
> becomes zero
> (d) under vacuum conditions
> (e) at a temperature of - 273 °K
> Ans: c
>
> 22. No liquid can exist as liquid at
> (a) - 273 °K
> (b) vacuum
> (c) zero pressure
> (d) centre of earth
> (e) in space.
> Ans: c
>
> 23. The unit of power in S.I. units is
> (a) newton
> (b) pascal
> (c) erg
> (d) watt
> (e) joule.
> Ans: d
>
> 24. The condition of perfect vacuum, i.e.,
> absolute zero pressure can be attained at
> (a) a temperature of - 273.16°C
> (b) a temperature of 0°C
> (c) a temperature of 273 °K
> (d) a negative pressure and 0°C
> temperature
> (e) can't be attained.
> Ans: a
>
> 25. Intensive property of a system is one
> whose value
> (a) depends on the mass of the system,
> like volume
> (b) does not depend on the mass of the
> system, like temperature, pressure, etc.
> (c) is not dependent on the path followed
> but on the state
> (d) is dependent on the path followed and
> not on the state
> (e) remains constant.
> Ans: b
>
> 26. Specific heat of air at constant
> pressure is equal to
> (a) 0.17
> (b) 0.21
> (c) 0.24
> (d) 1.0
> (e) 1.41
> Ans: c
>
> 27. Characteristic gas constant of a gas
> is equal to
> (a) C/Cv
> (b) Cv/Cp
> (c) Cp - Cv
> (d) Cp + Cv
> (e) Cp x Cv
> Ans: c
>
> 28. The behaviour of gases can be fully
> determined by
> (a) 1 law
> (b) 2 laws
> (c) 3 laws
> (d) 4 laws
> Ans: d
>
> 29. The ratio of two specific heats of air is equal to
> (a) 0.17
> (b) 0.24
> (c) 0.1
> (d) 1.41
> (e) 2.71.
> Ans: d
>
> 30. Boyle's law i.e. pV = constant is applicable to
> gases under
> (a) all ranges of pressures
> (b) only small range of pressures
> (c) high range of pressures
> (d) steady change of pressures
> (e) atmospheric conditions.
> Ans: b
>
> 31. Which law states that the internal energy of a gas is a
> function of temperature
> (a) Charles' law
> (b) Joule's law
> (c) Regnault's law
> (d) Boyle's law
> (e) there is no such law.
> Ans: b
>
> 32. The same volume of all gases would represent their
> (a) densities
> (b) specific weights
> (c) molecular weights
> (d) gas characteristic constants
> (e) specific gravities.
> Ans: c
>
> 33. Which law states that the specific
> heat of a gas remains constant at all temperatures and
> pressures
> (a) Charles' Law
> (b) Joule's Law
> (c) Regnault's Law
> (d) Boyle's Law
> (e) there is no such law.
> Ans: c
>
> 34. An open system is one in which
> (b) neither mass nor energy crosses
> the boundaries of the system
> (c) both energy and mass cross the
> (d) mass crosses the boundary but not the
> energy
> (e) thermodynamic reactions do not occur.
> Ans: c
>
> 35. According to which law, all perfect
> gases change in volume by l/273th of their original volume
> at 0°C for every 1°C change in temperature when pressure
> remains constant
> (a) Joule's
> law
> (b) Boyle's law
> (c) Regnault's law
> (d) Gay-Lussac law
> (e) Charles' law.
> Ans: e
>
> 36. Gases have
> (a) only one value of specific heat
> (b) two values of specific heat
> (c) three values of specific heat
> (d) no value of specific heat
> (e) under some conditions one value and
> sometimes two values of specific heat.
> Ans: b
>
> 37. According to Avogadro Hypothesis
> (a) the molecular weights of all the
> perfect gases occupy the same volume under same conditions
> of pressure and temperature
> (b) the sum of partial pressure of mixture
> of two gases is sum of the two
> (c) product of the gas constant and the
> molecular weight of an ideal gas is constant
> (d) gases have two values of specific
> heat
> (e) all systems can be regarded as closed
> systems.
> Ans: a
>
> 38. Extensive property of a system is one
> whose value
> (a) depends on the mass of the system like
> volume
> (b) does not depend on the mass of the
> system, like temperature, pressure, etc.
> (c) is not dependent on the path followed
> but on the state
> (d) is dependent on the path followed and
> not on the state
> (e) is always constant.
> Ans: a
>
> 39. Work done in a free expansion process
> is
> (a) + ve
> (b) -ve
> (c) zero
> (d) maximum
> (e) minimum.
> Ans: c
>
> 40. The statement that molecular weights
> of all gases occupy the same volume is known as
> (a) Avogadro's hypothesis
> (b) Dalton's law
> (c) Gas law
> (d) Law of thermodynamics
> (e) Joule's law.
> Ans: a
>
> 41. To convert volumetric analysis to
> gravimeter analysis, the relative volume of each constituent
> of the flue gases is
> (a) divided by its molecular weight
> (b) multiplied by its molecular weight
> (c) multiplied by its density
> (d) multiplied by its specific weight
> (e) divided by its specific weight.
> Ans: b
>
> 42. If a gas is heated against a pressure,
> keeping the volume constant, then work done will be equal
> to
> (a) + v
> (b) - ve
> (c) zero
> (d) pressure x volume
> (e) any where between zero and infinity.
> Ans: c
>
> 43. An isolated system is one in which
> (b) neither mass nor energy crosses the
> (c) both energy and mass cross the
> (d) mass crosses the boundary but not the
> energy
> (e) thermodynamic reactions do not occur.
> Ans: b
>
> 44. Properties of substances like
> pressure, temperature and density, in thermodynamic
> coordinates are
> (a) path functions
> (b) point functions
> (c) cyclic functions
> (d) real functions
> (e) thermodynamic functions.
> Ans: b
>
> 45. Which of the following quantities is
> not the property of the system
> (a) pressure
> (b) temperature
> (c) specific volume
> (d) heat
> (e) density.
> Ans: d
>
> 46. According to Avogadro's law, for a
> given pressure and temperature, each molecule of a gas
> (a) occupies volume proportional to
> its molecular weight
> (b) occupies volume proportional to
> its specific weight
> (c) occupies volume inversely proportional
> to its molecular weight
> (d) occupies volume inversely proportional
> to its specific weight
> (e) occupies same volume.
> Ans: e
>
> 47. Mixture of ice and water form a
> (a) closed system
> (b) open system
> (c) isolated system
> (d) heterogeneous system
> (e) thermodynamic system.
> Ans: d
>
> 48. Which of the following is the property
> of a system
> (a) pressure and temperature
> (b) internal energy
> (c) volume and density
> (d) enthalpy and entropy
> Ans: e
>
> 49. On weight basis, air contains
> following parts of oxygen
> (a) 21
> (b) 23
> (c) 25
> (d) 73
> (e) 79.
> Ans: b
>
> 50. Which of the following is not the
> intensive property
> (a) pressure
> (b) temperature
> (c) density
> (d) heat
> (e) specific volume.
> Ans: d
>
> 51. Which of the following items is not a
> path function
> (a) heat
> (b) work
> (c) kinetic energy
> (d) vdp
> (e) thermal conductivity.
> Ans: e
>
> 52. Work done in an adiabatic process
> between a given pair of end states depends on
> (a) the end states only
> (b) particular adiabatic process
> (c) the value of index n
> (d) the value of heat transferred
> (e) mass of the system.
> Ans: a
>
> 53. Heat and work are
> (a) point functions
> (b) system properties
> (c) path functions
> (d) intensive properties
> (e) extensive properties.
> Ans: c
>
> 54. Which of the following parameters is
> constant for a mole for most of the gases at a given
> temperature and pressure
> (a) enthalpy
> (b) volume
> (c) mass
> (d) entropy
> (e) specific volume.
> Ans: b
>
> 55. The value of n = 1 in the poly tropic
> process indicates it to be
> (a) reversible process
> (b) isothermal process
> (c) adiabatic process
> (d) irreversible process
> (e) free expansion process.
> Ans: b
>
> 56. Solids and liquids have
> (a) one value of specific heat (ft) two values of specific
> heat
> (c) three values of specific heat
> (d) no value of specific heat
> (e) one value under some conditions and
> two values under other conditions.
> Ans: a
>
> 57. A perfect gas at 27°C is heated at
> constant pressure till its volume is double. The final
> temperature is
> (a) 54°C
> (b) 327°C
> (c) 108°C
> (d) 654°C
> (e) 600°C
> Ans: b
>
> 58. Curve A in Fig. 1.1 compared to curves
> B and C shows the following type of expansion
> (a) pV"=C
> (b) isothermal
> (c) adiabatic
> (d) free expansion
> (e) throttling.
> Ans: b
>
> 59. If value of n is infinitely large in a
> poly tropic process pV" = C, then the process is known
> as constant
> (a) volume
> (b) pressure
> (c) temperature
> (d) enthalpy
> (e) entropy.
> Ans: a
>
> 60. The index of compression n tends to
> reach ratio of specific heats y when
> (a) flow is uniform and steady
> (b) process is isentropic
> (c) process is isothermal
> (d) process is isentropic and specific
> heat does not change with temperature
> (e) process is isentropic and specific
> heat changes with temperature.
> Ans: d
>
> 61. Change in enthalpy of a system is the
> heat supplied at
> (a) constant pressure
> (b) constant temperature
> (c) constant volume
> (d) constant entropy
> (e) N.T.P. condition.
> Ans: a
>
> 62. The term N.T.P. stands for
> (a) nominal temperature and pressure
> (b) natural temperature and pressure
> (c) normal temperature and pressure
> (d) normal thermodynamic practice
> (e) normal thermodynamic pressure.
> Ans: c
>
> 63. A heat exchange process in which the
> product of pressure and volume remains constant is known as
> (a) heat exchange process
> (b) throttling process
> (c) is entropic process
> (d) adiabatic process
> (e) hyperbolic process.
> Ans: e
>
> 64. In an isothermal process, the internal
> energy of gas molecules
> (a) increases
> (b) decreases
> (d) may increase/decrease depending on the
> properties of gas
> (e) shows unpredictable behavior.
> Ans: c
>
> 65. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
> (a) deals with conversion of mass and
> energy
> (b) deals with reversibility and
> irreversibility of process
> (c) states that if two systems are both in
> equilibrium with a third system, they are in thermal
> equilibrium with each other
> (d) deals with heat engines
> (e) does not exist.
> Ans: c
>
> 66. If a certain amount of dry ice is
> mixed with same amount of water at 80°C, the final
> temperature of mixture will be
> (a) 80°C
> (b) 0°C
> (c) 40°C
> (d) 20°C
> (e) 60°C.
> Ans: b
>
> 67. The basis for measuring thermodynamic
> property of temperature is given by
> (a) zeroth law of thermodynamics
> (b) first law of thermodynamics
> (c) second law of thermodynamics
> (d) third law of thermodynamics
> (e) Avogadro's hypothesis.
> Ans: a
>
> 68. One watt is equal to
> (a) 1 Nm/s
> (b) 1 N/mt
> (c) 1 Nm/hr
> (d) 1 kNm/hr
> (e) 1 kNm/mt.
> Ans: a
>
> 69. Work done is zero for the following
> process
> (a) constant volume
> (b) free expansion
> (c) throttling
> (d) all Of the above
> Ans: d
>
> 70. For which of the following substances,
> the gas laws can be used with minimum error
> (a) dry steam
> (b) wet steam
> (c) saturated steam
> (d) superheated steam
> (e) steam at atmospheric pressure.
> Ans: d
>
> 71. In a non-flow reversible process for which p = (- 3V+
> 15) x 105N/m2,V changes from 1 m to 2 m3. The work
> done will be about
> (a) 100 xlOO5 joules
> (b) lxlO5 joules
> (c) 10 xlO5 joules
> (d) 10 xlO5 kilo joules
> (e) 10xl04ki\ojoules.
> Ans: c
>
> 72. The value of the product of molecular
> weight and the gas characteristic constant for all the gases
> in M.K.S. unit is
> (a) 29.27 kgfm/mol°K
> (b) 8314kgfm/mol°K
> (c) 848kgfm/mol°K
> (d) 427kgfm/mol°K
> (e) 735 kgfm/mol°K.
> Ans: c
>
> 73. On volume basis, air contains
> following parts of oxygen
> (a) 21
> (b) 23
> (c) 25
> (d) 77
> (e) 79.
> Ans: a
>
> 74. Universal gas constant is defined as
> equal to product of the molecular weight of the gas and
> (a) specific heat at constant pressure
> (b) specific heat at constant volume
> (c) ratio of two specific heats
> (d) gas constant
> (e) unity.
> Ans: d
>
> 75. The value of the product of molecular
> weight and the gas characteristic constant for all the gases
> in S.I. units is
> (a) 29.27 J/kmol°K
> (b) 83.14J/kmol°K
> (c) 848J/kmol°K
> (d) All J/kmol °K
> (e) 735 J/kmol °K.
> Ans: b
>
> 76. For which of the following substances,
> the internal energy and enthalpy are the functions of
> temperature only
> (a) any gas
> (b) saturated steam
> (c) water
> (d) perfect gas
> (e) superheated steam.
> Ans: d
>
> 77. In a free expansion process
> (a) work done is zero
> (b) heat transfer is zero
> (c) both (a) and (b) above
> (d) work done is zero but heat increases
> (e) work done is zero but heat decreases.
> Ans: c
>
> 78. If a gas vapor is allowed to expand
> through a very minute aperture, then such a process is known
> as
> (a) free expansion
> (b) hyperbolic expansion
> (c) adiabatic expansion
> (d) parabolic expansion
> (e) throttling.
> Ans: e
>
> 79. The specific heat of air increases
> with increase in
> (a) temperature
> (b) pressure
> (c) both pressure and temperature
> (d) variation of its constituents
> (e) air flow
> Ans: a
>
> 80. If a fluid expands suddenly into
> vacuum through an orifice of large dimension, then such a
> process is called
> (a) free expansion
> (b) hyperbolic expansion
> (c) adiabatic expansion
> (d) parabolic expansion
> (e) throttling.
> Ans: a
>
> 81. Which of the following processes are
> thermodynamically reversible
> (a) throttling
> (b) free expansion
> (c) constant volume and constant pressure
> (d) hyperbolic and pV = C
> (e) isothermal and adiabatic.
> Ans: e
>
> 82. Which of the following processes is
> irreversible process
> (a)
> isothermal
> (b) adiabatic
> (c) throttling
> Ans: c
>
> 83. In order that a cycle be reversible,
> following must be satisfied
> (a) free expansion or friction resisted
> expansion/compression process should not be encountered
> (b) when heat is being absorbed,
> temperature of hot source and working sub¬stance should be
> same
> (c) when beat is being rejected,
> temperature of cold source and working sub-stance should be
> same
> Ans: d
>
> 84. For a thermodynamic process to be
> reversible, the temperature difference between hot body and
> working substance should be
> (a) zero
> (b) minimum
> (d) maximum
> (d) infinity
> (e) there is no such criterion.
> Ans: a
>
> 85. Minimum work in compressor is possible
> when the value of adiabatic index n is equal to
> (a) 0.75
> (b) 1
> (c) 1.27
> (d) 1.35
> (e) 2.
> Ans: b
>
> 86. Molecular volume of any perfect gas at
> 600 x 103 N/m2 and 27°C will be
> (a) 4.17m3/kgmol
> (b) 400 m3/kg mol
> (c) 0.15 m3/kg mol
> (d) 41.7 m3/kg mol
> (e) 417m3/kgmol.
> Ans: a
>
> 87. A gas is compressed in a cylinder by a
> movable piston to a volume one-half its original volume.
> During the process 300 kJ heat left the gas and internal
> energy remained same. The work done on gas in Nm will be
> (a) 300 Nm
> (b) 300,000 Nm
> (c) 30 Nm
> (d) 3000 Nm
> (e) 30,000 Nm.
> Ans: b
>
> 88. The more effective way of increasing
> efficiency of Carnot engine is to
> (a) increase higher temperature
> (b) decrease higher temperature
> (c) increase lower temperature
> (d) decrease lower temperature
> (e) keep lower temperature constant.
> Ans: d
>
> 89. Entropy change depends on
> (a) heat transfer
> (b) mass transfer
> (c) change of temperature
> (d) thermodynamic state
> (e) change of pressure and volume.
> Ans: a
>
> 90. For reversible adiabatic process,
> change in entropy is
> (a) maximum
> (b) minimum
> (c) zero
> (d) unpredictable
> (e) negative.
> Ans: c
>
> 91. Isochoric process is one in which
> (a) free expansion takes place
> (b) very little mechanical work is done by
> the system
> (c) no mechanical work is done by the
> system
> (d) all parameters remain constant
> (e) mass and energy transfer do not take
> place.
> Ans: c
>
> 92. According to first law of
> thermodynamics
> (a) work done by a system is equal to heat
> transferred by the system
> (b) total internal
> energy of a system during a process remains
> constant
> (c) internal energy, enthalpy and entropy
> during a process remain constant
> (d) total energy of a system remains
> constant
> (e) entropy of a system remains constant.
> Ans: d
>
> 93. Energy can neither be created nor
> destroyed but can be converted from one form to other is
> inferred from
> (a) zeroth low of thermodynamic
> (b) first law of thermodynamics
> (c) second law to thermodynamics
> (d) basic law of thermodynamics
> (e) claussius statement.
> Ans: b
>
> 94. First law of thermodynamics furnishes
> the relationship between
> (a) heat and work
> (b) heat, work and properties of the
> system
> (c) various properties of the system
> (d) various thermodynamic processes
> (e) heat and internal energy.
> Ans: b
>
> 95. Change in enthalpy in a closed system
> is equal to heat transferred if the reversible process takes
> place at constant
> (a) pressure
> (b) temperature
> (c) volume
> (d) internal energy
> (e) entropy.
> Ans: a
>
> 96. In an isothermal process, the internal
> energy
> (a) increases
> (b) decreases
> (d) first increases and then decreases
> (e) first decreases and then increases.
> Ans: c
>
> 97. Change in internal energy in a closed
> system is equal to heat transferred if the reversible
> process takes place at constant
> (a) pressure
> (b) temperature
> (c) volume
> (d) internal energy
> (e) entropy.
> Ans: c
>
> 98. According to first law of
> thermodynamics
> (a) mass and energy are mutually
> convertible
> (b) Carnot engine is most efficient
> (c) heat and work are mutually
> convertible
> (d) mass and light are mutually
> convertible
> (e) heat flows from hot substance to cold
> substance.
> Ans: c
>
> 99. Total heat of a substance is also
> known as
> (a) internal energy
> (b) entropy
> (c) thermal capacity
> (d) enthalpy
> (e) thermal conductance.
> Ans: d
>
> 100. First law of thermodynamics
> (a) enables to determine change in
> internal energy of the system
> (b) does not help to predict whether the
> system will or not undergo a change
> (c) does not enable to determine change in
> entropy
> (d) provides relationship between heat,
> work and internal energy
> Ans: e
>
> 101. Addition of heat at constant pressure
> to a gas results in
> (a) raising its temperature
> (b) raising its pressure
> (c) raising its volume
> (d) raising its temperature and doing
> external work
> (e) doing external work.
> Ans: d
>
> 102. Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency
> for
> (a) reversible engine
> (b) irreversible engine
> (c) new engine
> (d) petrol engine
> (e) diesel engine.
> Ans: a
>
> 103. Measurement of temperature is based
> on
> (a) thermodynamic properties
> (b) zeroth law of thermodynamics
> (c) first law of thermodynamics
> (d) second law of thermodynamics
> (e) joule's law.
> Ans: b
>
> 104. Carnot cycle efficiency depends upon
> (a) properties of the medium/substance
> used
> (b) condition of engine
> (c) working condition
> (d) temperature range of operation
> (e) effectiveness of insulating material
> around the engine.
> Ans: d
>
> 105. Carnot cycle efficiency is maximum
> when
> (a) initial temperature is 0°K
> (b) final temperature is 0°K
> (c) difference between initial and final
> temperature is 0°K
> (d) final temperature is 0°C
> (e) initial temperature is minimum
> possible.
> Ans: b
>
> 106. An engine operates between
> temperatures of 900°Kandr2 and another engine between T2
> and 400°K For both to do equal work, value of T2 will be
> (a) 650°K
> (b) 600°K
> (c) 625°K
> (d) 700°K
> (e) 750°K.
> Ans: a
>
> 107. If heat be exchanged in a reversible
> manner, which of the following property of the working
> substance will change accordingly
> (a) temperature
> (b) enthalpy
> (c) internal energy
> (d) entropy
> Ans: d
>
> 108. If a system after undergoing a series
> of processes, returns to the initial state then
> (a) process is thermodynamically in
> equilibrium
> (b) process is executed in closed system
> cycle
> (c) its entropy will change due to
> irreversibility
> (d) sum of heat and work transfer will be
> zero
> (e) no work will be done by the system.
> Ans: d
>
> 109. Which of the following represents the
> perpetual motion of the first kind
> (a) engine with 100% thermal efficiency
> (b) a fully reversible engine
> (c) transfer of heat energy from low
> temperature source to high tempera¬ture source
> (d) a machine that continuously creates
> its own energy
> (e) production of energy by temperature
> differential in sea water at different levels.
> Ans:
>
> 110. An actual engine is to be designed
> having same efficiency as the Carnot cycle. Such a
> proposition is
> (a) feasible
> (b) impossible
> (c) possible
> (d) possible, but with lot of
> sophistication
> (e) desirable.
> Ans: d
>
> 112. A manufacturer claims to have a heat
> engine capable of developing 20 h.p. by receiving heat input
> of 400 kcal/mt
>
> and working between the temperature limits of 227° C and
> 27° C. His claim is
> (a) justified
> (b) not possible
> (c) may be possible with lot of
> sophistica-tions
> (d) cost will be very high
> (e) theroretically possible.
> Ans: b
>
> 113. In a Carnot cycle, heat is
> transferred at
> (a) constant pressure
> (b) constant volume
> (c) constant temperature
> (d) constant enthalpy
> (e) any one of the above.
> Ans: c
>
> 114. A diathermy wall is one which
> (a) prevents thermal interaction
> (b) permits thermal interaction
> (c) encourages thermal interaction
> (d) discourages thermal interaction
> (e) does not exist.
> Ans: b
>
> 115. An adiabatic wall is one which
> (a) prevents thermal interaction
> (b) permits thermal interaction
> (c) encourages thermal interaction
> (d) discourages thermal interaction
> (e) dos not exist.
> Ans: a
>
> 116. The door of a running refrigerator
> inside a room was left open. Which of the following
> statements is correct?
> (a) The room will be cooled to the
> temperature inside the refrigerator.
> (b) The room will be cooled very
> slightly.
> (c) The room will be gradually warmed up.
> (d) The temperature of the air in room
> will remain unaffected.
> (e) any one of above is possible depending
> on the capacity.
> Ans: c
>
> 117. Compressed air coming out from a
> punctured football
> (a) becomes hotter
> (b) becomes cooler1
> (c) remains at the same temperature
> (d) may become hotter or cooler depending
> upon the humidity of the surround¬ing air
> (e) attains atmospheric temperature.
> Ans: b
>
> 118. Water contained in a beaker can be
> made to boil by passing steam through it
> (a) at atmospheric pressure
> (b) at a pressure below the tropospheric
> pressure
> (c) at a pressure greater than atmospheric
> pressure
> (d) any pressure
> (e) not possible.
> Ans: c
>
> 119. During throttling process
> (a) heat exchange does not take place
> (b) no work is done by expanding steam
> (c) there is no change of internal energy
> of steam
> (e) entropy decreases.
> Ans: d
>
> 120. The energy of molecular motion
> appears as
> (a) heat
> (b) potential energy
> (d) friction
> (e) increase in pressure.
> Ans: a
>
> 121. A sudden fall in the barometer
> reading is a
> sign of approaching
> (a) fine weather
> (b) rains
> (c) storm
> (d) cold wave
> (e) hot wave.
> Ans: c
>
> 122. The unit of universal gas constant
> is
> (a) watts/°K
> (b) dynes/°C
> (c) ergscm/°K
> (d) erg/°K
> Ans: d
>
> 123. Calorie is a measure of
> (a) specific heat
> (b) quantity of heat
> (c) thermal capacity
> (d)entropy
> (e) work.
> Ans: b
>
> 124. I kgf/cm2 is equal to
> (a) 760 mm Hg
> (b) zero mm Hg
> (c) 735.6 mm Hg
> (d) 1 mm Hg
> (e) lOOmmHg.
> Ans: c
>
> 125. Barometric pressure is equal to
> (a) 760 mm Hg
> (b) zero mm Hg
> (c) 735.6 mm Hg
> (d) 1 mm Hg
> (e) 100mm Hg.
> Ans: a
>
> 126. One barometric pressure or 1
> atmospheric pressure is equal to
> (a) 1 kgf/cnr2
> (b) 1.033 kgf/cm2
> (c) 0 kgf/cm2
> (d) 1.0197 kgf/cm2
> (e) 100 kgf/cm2.
> Ans: b
>
> 127. The first law of thermodynamics is
> the law of
> (a) conservation of mass
> (b) conservation of energy
> (c) conservation of momentum
> (d) conservation of heat
> (e) conservation of temperature.
> Ans: b
>
> 128. A perpetual motion machine is
> (a) a thermodynamic machine
> (b) a non-thermodynamic machine
> (c) a hypothetical machine
> (d) a hypothetical machine whose operation
> would violate the laws of thermodynamics
> (e) an inefficient machine.
> Ans: d
>
> 129. Kelvin Planck's law deals with
> (a) conservation of heat
> (b) conservation of work
> (c) conversion of heat into work
> (d) conversion fo work into heat
> (e) conservation of mass.
> Ans: c
>
> 130. According to Clausis statement of
> second law of thermodynamics
> (a) heat can't be transferred from low
> temperature source to high tempera¬ture source
> (b) heat can be transferred for low
> temperature to high temperature source by using
> refrigeration cycle.
> (c) heat can be transferred from low
> temperature to high temperature source if COP of process is
> more than unity
> (d) heat can't be transferred from low
> temperature to high temperature source without the aid of
> external energy
> Ans: d
>
> 131. Thermal power plant works on
> (a) Carnot cycle
> (b) Joule cycle
> (d) Rankine cycle
> (d) Otto cycle
> (e) Brayton cycle.
> Ans: c
>
> 132. Which of the following is an
> irreversible cycle
> (a) carnot
> (b) Stirling
> (c) ericsson
> Ans: e
>
> 133. Otto cycle consists of following four
> processes
> (a) two isothermals and two isentropics
> (b) two isentropics and two constant
> volumes
> (c) two isentropics, one constant volume
> and one constant pressure
> (d) two isentropics and two constant
> pressures
> Ans: b
>
> 134. The efficiency of a Carnot engine
> depends on
> (a) working substance
> (b) design of engine
> (c) size of engine
> (d) type of fuel fired
> (e) temperatures of source and sink.
> Ans: e
>
> 135. For same compression ratio and for
> same heat added
> (a) Otto cycle is more efficient than
> Diesel cycle
> (b) Diesel cycle is more efficient than
> Otto cycle
> (c) efficiency depends on other factors
> (d) both Otto and Diesel cycles are
> equal¬ly efficient
> Ans: a
>
> 136. The efficiency of Carnot cycle is
> maximum for
> (a) gas engine
> (b) well lubricated engine
> (c) petrol engine
> (d) steam engine
> (e) reversible engine.
> Ans: e
>
> 137. Carnot cycle is
> (a) a reversible cycle (ft) an irreversible cycle
> (c) a semi-reversible cycle
> (d) a quasi static cycle
> (e) an adiabatic irreversible cycle.
> Ans: a
>
> 138. Diesel cycle consists of following
> four processes
> (b) two isentropics, and two constant
> volumes.
> pressures
> Ans: c
>
> 139. If both Stirling and Carnot cycles
> operate within the same temperature limits, then efficiency
> of Stirling cycle
>
> as compared to Carnot cycle
> (a) more
> (b) less
> (c) equal
> (d) depends on other factors
> Ans: c
>
> 140. Stirling and Ericsson cycles are
> (a) reversible cycles
> (b) irreversible cycles
> (c) quasi-static cycles
> (d) semi-reversible cycles
> (e) adiabatic irreversible cycles.
> Ans: a
>
> 141. A cycle consisting of two adiabatic
> and two constant pressure processes is known as
> (a) Otto
> cycle
> (b) Ericsson cycle
> (c) Joule cycle
> (d) Stirling cycle
> (e) Atkinson cycle.
> Ans: c
>
> 142. Reversed joule cycle is called
> (a) Carnot cycle
> (b) Rankine cycle
> (c) Brayton cycle
> (d) Bell Coleman cycle
> (e) Dual cycle.
> Ans: c
>
> 143. Brayton cycle consists of following
> four processes
> (b) two isentropics and two
> constant volumes
> pressures
> Ans: d
>
> 144. Which of the following cycles is not
> a reversible cycle
> (a) Carnot
> (b) Ericsson
> (c) Stirling
> (d) Joule
> Ans: e
>
> 145. The cycle in which heat is supplied
> at constant volume and rejected at constant pressure is
> known as
> (a) Dual combustion cycle
> (b) Diesel cycle
> (c) Atkinson cycle
> (d) Rankine cycle
> (e) Stirling cycle.
> Ans: c
>
> 146. The efficiency of Diesei cycle with
> decrease in cut off
> (a) increases
> (b) decreases
> (c) remains unaffected
> (d) first increases and then decreases
> (e) first decreases and then increases.
> Ans: a
>
> 147. Which of the following cycles has
> maximum efficiency
> (a) Rankine
> (b) Stirling
> (c) Carnot
> (d) Brayton
> (e) Joule.
> Ans: c
>
> 148. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton
> cycle without regeneration with increase ni pressure ratio
> will
> (a) increase
> (b) decrease
> (c) remain unchanged
> (d) increase/decrease depending on application
> Ans: a
>
> 149. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton
> cycle with regeneration, with increase in pressure ratio
> will
> (a) increase
> (b) decrease
> (c) remain unchanged
> (d) increase/decrease depending on
> application
> (e)
> unpredictable. Ans: b
>
> 150. The following cycle is used for air
> craft refrigeration
> (a) Brayton cycle
> (b) Joule cycle
> (c) Carnot cycle
> (d) Bell-Coleman cycle
> (e) Reversed-Brayton cycle.
> Ans: e
>
> 151. Gas turbine cycle consists of
> (a) two isothermal and two isotropic
> (b) two isentropics and two constant
> volumes
> pressures
> Ans: d
>
> 152. The thermodynamic difference between
> a Rankine cycle working with saturated steam and the Carnot
> cycle is that
> (a) carnot cycle can't work with
> saturated steam
> (b) heat is supplied to water at
> temperature below the maximum temperature of the cycle
> (c) a rankine cycle receives heat at two
> places
> (d) rankine cycle is hypothetical
> Ans: b
>
> Sent from my
> iPhone
> 1. Load factor of a power station

> is defined as
> (a) maximum demand/average load
> (b) average load x maximum demand
> (c) average load/maximum demand
> (d) (average load x maximum demand)172
> Ans: c
>
> 2. Load factor of a power station is
> generally
> (a) equal to unity
> (b) less than unity
> (c) more than unity
> (d) equal to zero Diversity factor is always
> Ans: b
>
> 3. The load factor of domestic load is
> usually
> (a) 10 to 15%
> (b) 30 to 40%
> (c) 50 to 60%
> (d) 60 to 70%
> Ans: a
>
> 4. Annual depreciation cost is calculated
> by
> (a) sinkingfund method
> (b) straight line method
> (c) both (a) and (b)
> (d) none of the above
> Ans: c
>
> 5. Depreciation charges are high in case
> of
> (a) thermal plant
> (b) diesel plant
> (c) hydroelectric plant
> Ans: a
> 6. Demand factor is defined as
> (a) average load/maximum load
> (b) maximum demand/connected load
> (c) connected load/maximum demand
> (d) average load x maximum load
> Ans: b
>
> 7. High load factor indicates
> (a) cost of generation per unit power is increased
> (b) total plant capacity is utilised for most of the time
> (c) total plant capacity is not properly utilised for most
> of the time
> Ans: b
>
> 8. A load curve indicates
> (a) average power used during the period
> (b) average kWh (kW) energy consumption during the period
> (c) either of the above
> Ans: b
>
> 9. Approximate estimation of power demand
> can be made by
> (a) load survey method
> (b) statistical methods
> (c) mathematical method
> (d) economic parameters
> (e) all of the above
> Ans: e
>
> 10. Annual depreciation as per straight
> line method, is calculated by
> (a) the capital cost divided by
> number of year of life
> (b) the capital cost minus the
> salvage value, is divided by the number of years of life
> (c) increasing a uniform sum of money per
> annum at stipulated rate of interest
> Ans: b
>
> 11. A consumer has to pay lesser fixed
> charges in
> (a) flat rate
> tariff
> (b) two part tariff
> (c) maximum demand tariff
> (d) any of the above
> Ans: c
>
> 12. In two part tariff, variation in load
> factor will affect
> (a) fixed charges
> (b) operating or running charges
> (d) either (a) or (b)
> Ans: b
>
> 13. In Hopknison demand rate or two
> parttariff the demand rate or fixed charges are
> (a) dependent upon the energy
> consumed
> (b) dependent upon the maximum
> demand of the consumer
> (d) neither (a) nor (b)
> Ans: b
>
> 14. Which plant can never have 100 percent
> load factor ?
> (a) Peak load plant
> (b) Base load plant
> (c) Nuclear power plant
> (d) Hydro electric plant
> Ans: a
>
> 15. The area under a load curve gives
> (a) average demand
> (b) energy consumed
> (c) maximum demand
> Ans: b
>
> 16. Different generating stations use following prime
> movers
> (a) diesel engine
> (b) hydraulic turbine
> (c) gas
> turbine
> (d) steam turbine
> (e) any of the above
> Ans: e
>
> 17. Diversity factor has direct effect on
> the
> (a) fixed cost of unit generated
> (b) running cost of unit generated
> (d) neither (a) nor (b)
> Ans: a
>
> 18. Following power plant has instant
> starting
> (a) nuclear power plant
> (b) hydro power plant
> (c) diesel power plant
> (d) both (b) and (c)
> Ans: d
>
> 19. Which of the following generating
> station has minimum ruining cost ?
> (a) Nuclear
> (b) Hydro
> (c) Thermal
> (d) Diesel
> Ans: b
>
> 20. Power plant having maximum demand more
> than the installed rated capacity will have utilisation
> factor
> (a) equal to unity
> (b) less than unity
> (c) more than unity
> Ans: c
>
> 21. Load curve is useful in deciding the
> (a) operating schedule of generating
> units
> (b) sizes of generating units
> (c) total installed capacity of the plant
> Ans: d
>
> 22. Load curve of a power plant has
> always
> (a) zero
> slope
> (b) positive slope
> (c) negative slope
> (d) any combination of (a), (b) and (c)
> Ans: e
>
> 23. Annual operating expenditure of a
> power plant consists of
> (a) fixed charges
> (b) semi-fixed charges
> (c) running charges
> Ans: d
>
> 24. Maximum demand on a power plant is
> (a) the greatest of all "short time interval
> averaged" demand during a period
> (b) instantaneous maximum value of kVA supplied during a
> period
> (e) both (a) or (b)
> Ans: a
>
> 25. Annual instalment towards depreciation
> reduces as rate of interest increases with
> (a) sinking fund depreciation
> (b) straight line depreciation
> (c) reducing balances depreciation
> Ans: a
>
> 26. Annual depreciation of the plant it
> proportional to the earning capacity of the plant vide
> (a) sinking fund depreciation
> (b) straight line depreciation
> (c) reducing balances depreciation
> Ans: c
>
> 27. For high value of diversity factor, a
> power station of given installed capacity will be in a
> position to supply
> (a) less number of consumers
> (b) more number of consumers
> (c) neither (a) nor (b)
> (d) either (a) or (b)
> Ans: b
>
> 28. Salvage value of the plant is always
> (a) positive
> (b) negative
> (c) zero
> Ans: d
>
> 29. Load curve helps in deciding
> (a) total installed capacity of the plant
> (b) sizes of the generating units
> (c) operating schedule of generating
> units
> Ans: d
>
> 30 can generate power at unpredictable or
> uncontrolled times,
> (a) Solar power plant
> (b) Tidal power plant
> (c) Wind power plant
> (d) Any of the above
> Ans: d
>
> 31. Direct conversion of heat into
> electric power is possible through
> (a) fuel cell
> (b) batteries
> (c) thermionic converter
> Ans: c
>
> 32. A low utilization factor for a plant
> indicates that
> (a) plant is used for stand by purpose only
> (b) plant is under maintenance
> (c) plant is used for base load only
> (d) plant is used for peak load as well as base load
> Ans: a
>
> 33. Which of the following is not a source
> of power ?
> (a) Thermocouple
> (b) Photovoltaic cell
> (c) Solar cell
> (d) Photoelectric cell
> Ans: a
>
> 34. Which of the following should be used
> for extinguishing electrical fires ?
> (a) Water
> (b) Carbon tetrachloride fire
> extinguisher
> (c) Foam type fire extinguisher
> (d) CO2 fire extinguisher
> Ans: b
>
> 35. Low power factor is usually not due to
> (a) arc
> lamps
> (b) induction motors
> (c) fluorescent tubes
> (d) incandescent lamp
> Ans: d
>
> 36. Ships are generally jpowered by
> (a) nuclear power plants
> (b) hydraulic turbines
> (e) diesel engines
> (d) steam accumulators
> Ans: c
>
> 37. Direct conversion of heat into electrical energy is
> possible through
> (a) fuel
> cells
> (b) solar cells
> (c) MHD generators
> Ans: c
>
> 38. Which of the following place is not associated with
> nuclear power plants in India ?
> (a) Narora
> (b) Tarapur
> (c) Kota
> (d) Benglore
> Ans: d
>
> 39. During load shedding
> (a) system power factor is changed
> (b) some loads are switched off
> (c) system voltage is reduced
> (d) system frequency is reduced Efficiency is the secondary
> consideration in
> Ans: b
>
> 40. which of the following plants ?
> (a) Base load plants
> (b) Peak load plants
> (c) Both (a) and (b)
> Ans: b
>
> 41. Air will not be the working substance in which of the
> following ?
> (a) Closed cycle gas turbine
> (b) Open cycle gas turbine
> (c) Diesel engine
> (d) Petrol engine
> Ans: a
>
> 42. A nuclear power plant is invariably used as a
> (a) peak load plant
> (b) base load plant
> (c) stand-by plant
> (d) spinning reserve plant
> (e) any of the above
> Ans: b
>
> 43. power plant is expected to have the longest life.
> (a) Steam
> (b) Diesel
> (c) Hydroelectric
> Ans: c
>
> 44. power plant cannot have single
> unit of 100 MW.
> (a) Hydroelectric
> (b) Nuclear
> (c) Steam
> (d) Diesel
> (e) Any of the above
> Ans: d
>
> 45. Which of the following, in a thermal power
> plant, is not a fixed cost ?
> (a) Fuel cost
> (b) Interest on capital
> (c) Depreciation
> (d) Insurance charges
> Ans: a
>
> 46. _______ will offer the least load.
> (a) Vacuum cleaner
> (b) Television
> (c) Hair dryer
> (d) Electric shaver
> Ans: d
>
> 47. In ______ fuel transportation cost is
> least.
> (a) nuclear power plants
> (b) diesel generating plants
> (c) steam power stations
> Ans: a
>
> 48. Which of the following equipment
> provides fluctuating load ?
> (a) Exhaust
> fan
> (b) Lathe machine
> (c) Welding transformer
> (d) All of the above
> Ans: c
>
> 49. The increased load during summer
> months is due to
> (a) increased business
> activity
> (b) increased water supply
> (c) increased use of fans and air
> conditioners
> Ans: c
>
> 50 is the reserved generating capacity
> available for service under emergency conditions which is
> not kept in operation but in working order,
> (a) Hot
> reserve
> (b) Cold reserve
> (c) Spinning reserve
> (d) Firm power
> Ans: b
>
> 51. Generating capacity connected to the bus
> bars and ready to take load when switched on is known
> as
> (a) firm
> power
> (b) cold reserve
> (c) hot reserve
> (d) spinning reserve
> Ans: d
>
> 52. offers the highest electric load.
> (a) Television set
> (b) Toaster
> (c) Vacuum cleaner
> (d) Washing machine
> Ans: b
>
> 53. _______ industry has the least power consumption per
> tonne of product.
> (a) Soap
> (b) Sugar
> (c) Vegetable oil
> (d) Caustic soda
> Ans: c
>
> 54. With reference to a power station which of the following
> is not a fixed cost ?
> (a) Fuel cost
> (b) Interest on capital
> (c) Insurance charges
> (d) Depreciation
> Ans: a
>
> 55. _______ is invariably used as base load plant.
> (a) Diesel engine plant
> (b) Nuclear power plant
> (c) Gas turbine plant
> (d) Pumped storage plant
> Ans: b
>
> 56. In a power plant if the maximum demand
> on the plant is equal to the plant capacity, then
> (a) plant reserve capacity will be
> zero
> (b) diversity factor will be unity
> (c) load factor will be unity
> (d) load factor will be nearly 60%
> Ans: a
>
> 57. Incase of ______ fuel transportation
> is the major problem.
> (a) diesel power plants
> (b) nuclear power plants
> (c) hydro-electric power plants
> (d) thermal power plants
> Ans: d
>
> 58. Which of the following power plants
> need the least period for installation ?
> (a) Thermal power plant
> (b) Diesel power plant
> (d) Hydro-electric power plant
> Ans: b
>
> 59. For which of the following power
> plants highly skilled engineers are required for running the
> plants ?
> (a) Nuclear power plants
> (b) Gas turbine power plants
> (c) Solar power plants
> (d) Hydro-electric power plants
> Ans: a
>
> 60. In which of the following power plants
> the maintenance cost is usually high ?
> (a) Nuclear power plant
> (b) Hydro-electric power plants
> (c) Thermal power plants
> (d) Diesel engine power plants
> Ans: c
>
> 61. ________ is invariably used for peak
> load
> (a) Nuclear power plant
> (b) Steam turbine plant
> (c) Pumped storage plant
> (d) None of the above
> Ans: c
>
> 62. Which of the following is not an
> operating cost ?
> (a) Maintenance cost
> (b) Fuel cost
> (c) Salaries of high officials
> (d) Salaries of operating staff
> Ans:
>
> 63. Which of the following is the
> essential requirement of peak load plant ?
> (a) It should run at high
> speed
> (b) It should produce high voltage
> (c) It should be small in size
> (d) It should be capable of starting
> quickly
> Ans: d
>
> 64. Large capacity generators are
> invariably
> (a) water
> cooled
> (b) natural air cooled
> (c) forced air cooled
> (d) hydrogen cooled
> Ans: d
>
> 65. By the use of which of the following
> power factor can be improved ?
> (a) Phase advancers
> (b) Synchronous compensators
> (c) Static capacitors
> Ans: d
>
> 66. An induction motor has relatively high
> power factor at
> (a) rated r.p.m.
> (b) no load
> (c) 20 percent load
> (d) near full load
> Ans: d
>
> disadvantage due to low power factor ?
> (a) Poor voltage regulation
> (b) Increased transmission losses
> (c) High cost of equipment for a given
> load
> Ans: d
>
> 68. In a distribution system, in order to
> improve power factor, the synchronous capacitors are
> installed
> (a) at the receiving end
> (b) at the sending end
> (c) either (a) or (b)
> Ans: a
>
> 69. Satic capacitors are rated in terms
> of
> (a) kW
> (b) kWh
> (e) kVAR
> Ans: c
>
> disadvantage of a synchronous condenser ?
> (a) High maintenance cost
> (b) Continuous losses in motor
> (c) Noise
> Ans: d
>
> 71. For a consumer the most economical
> power factor is generally
> (a) 0.5
> lagging
> (b) 0.5 leading
> (c) 0.95 lagging
> (d) 0.95 leading
> Ans: c
>
> 72. A synchronous condenser is virtually
> which of the following ?
> (a) Induction motor
> (b) Under excited synchronous motor
> (c) Over excited synchronous motor
> (d) D.C. generator
> (e) None of the above
> Ans: c
>
> 73. For a power plant which of the
> following constitutes running cost ?
> (a) Cost of
> wages
> (b) Cost of fuel
> (c) Cost of lubricants
> Ans: d
>
> 74. In an interconnected system, the
> diversity factor of the whole system
> (a) remains unchanged
> (b) decreases
> (c) increases
> Ans: c
>
> 75. Generators for peak load plants are
> usually designed for maximum efficiency at
> (a) 25 to 50 percent full load
> (b) 50 to 75 percent full load
> (c) full load
> (d) 25 percent overload
> Ans: b
>
> 76. ________ will be least affected due to
> charge in supply voltage frequency.
> (a) Electric clock
> (b) Mixer grinder
> (c) Ceiling fan
> (d) Room heater
> Ans: d
>
> 77. The connected load of a IVMIM uir
> consumer is around
> (a) 5 kW
> (b) 40 k\V
> (c) 80 kW
> (d) 120 kW
> Ans: a
>
> 78. Which of the following is not
> necessarily an advantage of interconnecting various power
> stations ?
> (a) Improved frequency of power supplied
> (b) Reduction in total installed capacity
> (c) Increased reliability
> (d) Economy in operation of plants
> Ans: a
>
> 79. A power transformer is usually rated
> in
> (a) kW
> (b) kVAR
> (c) kWh
> (d) kVA
> Ans: d
>
> 80. public sector undertaking is
> associated with erection and sometimes running of thermal
> power plants
> (a) NTPC
> (b) SAIL
> (c) BEL
> (d) BHEL
> Ans: a
>
> 81. Most efficient plants are normally
> used as
> (a) peak load plants
> (b) base load plants
> Ans:
>
> 82. For a diesel generating station the
> useful life is expected to be around
> (a) 15 to 20 years
> (b) 20 to 50 years
> (c) 50 to 75 years
> (d) 75 to 100 years
> Ans: a
>
> 83. Which of the following is not a method
> for estimating depreciation charges ?
> (a) Sinking fund method
> (b) Straight line method
> (c) Diminishing value method
> (d) Halsey's 50—50 formula
> Ans: d
>
> 84. The expected useful life of an
> hydroelectric power station is around
> (a) 15 years
> (b) 30 years
> (c) 60 years
> (d) 100 years
> Ans: d
>
> 85. In a load curve the highest point
> represents
> (a) peak demand
> (b) average demand
> (c) diversified demand
> Ans: a
>
> 86. Which of the following source of power
> is least reliable ?
> (a) Solar energy
> (b) Geothermal power
> (c) Wind power
> (d) iMHD
> Ans:
>
> 87. In India production and distribution
> of electrical energy is confined to
> (a) private sector
> (b) public sector
> (c) government sectors
> (d) joint sector
> Ans: b
>
> 88. A pilot exciter is provided on
> generators for which of the following reasons ?
> (a) To excite the poles of main exciter
> (b) To provide requisite starting torque
> to main exciter
> (c) To provide requisite starting torque
> to generator
> (d) None of the above
> Ans: a
>
> 89. The primary reason for low power
> factor is supply system is due to installation of
> (a) induction motors
> (b) synchronous motors
> (c) single phase
> motors
> (d) d.c. motors
> Ans: a
>
> 90. An over excited synchronous motor on
> noload is known as
> (a) synchronous condenser
> (b) generator
> (c) induction motor
> (d) alternator
> Ans: a
>
> 91. Which of the following is an advantage
> of static capacitor for power factor improvement ?
> (a) Little maintenance cost
> (b) Ease in installation
> (c) Low losses
> Ans: d
>
> 92. For any type of consumer the ideal
> tariff is
> (a) two part tariff
> (b) three part tariff
> (c) block rate tariff
> Ans: b
>
> 93. The efficiency of a plant is of least
> concern when it is selected as
> (a) peak load plant
> (b) casual run plant
> (d) base load plant
> Ans: c
>
> 94. Which of the following plants is
> almost inevitably used as base load plant ?
> (a) Diesel engine plant
> (b) Gas turbine plant
> (d) Pumped storage plant
> Ans: c
>
> 95. Which of the following component, in a
> steam power plant, needs maximum maintenance attention ?
> (a) Steam turbine
> (b) Condenser
> (c) Water treatment plant
> (d) Boiler
> Ans: d
>
> 96. For the same cylinder dimensions and
> speed, which of the following engine will produce least
> power ?
> (a) Supercharged engine
> (b) Diesel engine
> (c) Petrol engine
> (d) All of the above engines will
> equal power
> Ans: c
>
> 97. The least share of power is provided
> in India, by which of the following power plants
>?
> (a) Diesel power plants
> (b) Thermal power plants
> (c) Hydro-electric power plants
> (d) Nuclear power plants
> Ans: a
>
> 98. Submarines for under water movement,
> are powered by which of the following ?
> (a) Steam accumulators
> (b) Air motors
> (c) Diesel engines
> (d) Batteries
> Ans: d
>
> 99. An alternator coupled to a _____ runs at slow
> speed, as compared to as compared to others.
> (a) diesel engine
> (6) hydraulic turbine
> (c) steam turbine
> (d) gas turbine
> Ans: b
>
> 100. The effect of electric shock on human body
> depends on which of the following
> (a) current
> (b) voltage
> (c) duration of contact
> Ans: d
>
> 101. Which lightening stroke is most dangerous ?
> (a) Direct stroke on line conductor
> (b) Indirect stroke on conductor
> (c) Direct stroke on tower top
> (d) Direct stroke on ground wire
> Ans: a
>
> 102. Which of the following devices may be
> used to provide protection against lightening over voltages
>?
> (a) Horn gaps
> (b) Rod gaps
> (c) Surge absorbers
> Ans: d
>
> 103. When the demand of consumers is not
> met by a power plant, it will resort to which of the
> following ?
> (a) Load shedding
> (b) Power factor improvement at the , generators
> (c) Penalising high load consumers by increasing the charges
> for electricity
> (d) Efficient plant operation
> Ans: a
>
> 104. Load shedding is possible through
> which of the following ?
> (a) Switching of the loads
> (b) Frequency reduction
> (c) Voltage reduction
> Ans: d
>
> 105. In power plants insurance cover is
> provided for which of the following ?
> (a) Unskilled workers only
> (b) Skilled workers only
> (c) Equipment only
> Ans: d
>
> 106 A company can raise funds through
> (a) fixed deposits
> (b) shares
> (c) bonds
> Ans: d
>
> 107. Which of the following are not
> repayable after a stipulated period ?
> (a) Shares
> (b) Fixed deposits
> (c) Cash certificates
> (d) Bonds
> Ans: a
>
> 108. The knowledge of diversity factor
> helps in determining
> (a) plant capacity
> (b) average load
> (c) peak load
> (d) kWh generated
> Ans: a
>
> 109. Which of the following is the disadvantage
> of static capacitor for power factor improvement ?
> (a) Easily damaged by high voltage
> (b) Cannot be repaired
> (c) Short service life
> Ans: d
>
> Sent from my
> iPhone

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> 8.1.

Fluid is a substance that

> 1. Which of the following

> 1. Load factor of a power station

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