Rebar

Chapter 1—Solutions
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following has components in a nonuniform arrangement?

a. homogeneous mixture c. salt water
b. solution d. heterogeneous mixture
ANS: D
2. A heterogeneous mixture always contains

a. only one substance.
b. more than two substances.
c. two or more substances that are visibly distinguishable.
d. two or more substances that are not visibly distinguishable.
ANS: C
3. Which of the following is a heterogeneous mixture?

a. water c. whole wheat bread
b. a sugar-water solution d. sugar
ANS: C
4. Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture?

a. water c. whole wheat bread
b. a sugar-water solution d. sugar
ANS: B
5. Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture of substances in a single phase?

a. a solution c. a compound
b. a colloid d. a suspension
ANS: A
6. All of the following are homogeneous mixtures except

a. soil. c. gasoline.
b. a sugar-water solution. d. a salt-water solution.
ANS: A
7. All of the following are heterogeneous mixtures except

a. whole wheat bread. c. tap water.
b. granite. d. an oil-water mixture.
ANS: C
8. Water in air is an example of which solute-solvent combination?

a. gas-liquid c. liquid-liquid
b. liquid-gas d. gas-gas
ANS: B
9. Carbon dioxide dissolved in water is an example of which solute-solvent combination?

a. gas-liquid c. liquid-liquid
b. liquid-gas d. cannot be determined
ANS: A
10. Sugar dissolved in water is an example of which solute-solvent combination?
a. gas-liquid c. solid-liquid
b. liquid-liquid d. liquid-solid
ANS: C
11. Oxygen in nitrogen is an example of which solute-solvent combination?

a. gas-liquid c. gas-solid
b. liquid-gas d. gas-gas
ANS: D
12. Which is not an example of a colloid?

a. paint c. butter
b. smoke d. sugar water
ANS: D
13. Which mixture is made up of the smallest particles?

a. milk c. shaving cream
b. salt water d. muddy water
ANS: B
14. Which mixture contains visible particles that settle out unless the mixture is stirred?
a. a colloid c. a solution
b. a homogeneous mixture d. a suspension
ANS: D
15. Which mixture contains particles that are in a dispersed phase and do not settle out?
a. a colloid c. a solution
b. a homogeneous mixture d. a suspension
ANS: A
16. A metal solution is a(n)

a. colloid. c. suspension.
b. alloy. d. emulsion.
ANS: B
17. A foam is a colloidal dispersion of

a. two liquids. c. a solid and a liquid.
b. two solids. d. a gas and a liquid.
ANS: D
18. The colloidal particles in a colloid form the

a. dispersing medium. c. solvent.
b. dispersed phase. d. solute.
ANS: B
19. Colloids
a. can be separated by filtering. c. scatter light.
b. settle out when allowed to stand. d. contain particles larger than 1000 nm.
ANS: C
20. The Tyndall effect is used to distinguish between
a. liquids and gases. c. electrolytes and nonelectrolytes.
b. solutions and colloids. d. solvents and solutes. ANS:B
21. A substance whose water solution is a good conductor of electricity is a(n)
a. nonelectrolyte. c. nonpolar substance.
b. electrolyte. d. solute.
ANS: B
22. An apparatus for testing conductivity is placed in a solution. The power supply is turned on and the
light bulb glows brightly. This indicates that the solution
a. is heterogeneous. c. contains an electrolyte.
b. is supersaturated. d. is saturated.
ANS: C
23. Which of the following is an electrolyte?

a. sodium chloride c. pure water
b. sugar d. glass
ANS: A
24. A substance whose water solution is a poor conductor of electricity is a(n)
a. polar substance. c. electrolyte.
b. nonelectrolyte. d. ionic substance.
ANS: B
25. Which of the following is a molecular substance whose aqueous solution carries an electric current?
a. liquid hydrogen c. sugar
b. hydrogen chloride d. iron
ANS: B
26. Which of the following is a nonelectrolyte?

a. sodium chloride c. sugar
b. hydrogen chloride d. potassium chloride
ANS: C
27. Substances whose water solutions conduct electricity easily

a. require carbon to decompose in water.
b. ionize in water.
c. do not dissolve in water.
d. contain neutral solute molecules.
ANS: B
28. Which of the following does not increase the rate of dissolving a solid in water?
a. raising the temperature of the water
b. stirring the solution
c. using larger pieces of solid
d. crushing the solid
ANS: C
29. Increasing the surface area of the solute

a. increases the rate of dissolution.
b. decreases the rate of dissolution.
c. has no effect on the rate of dissolution.
d. can increase, decrease, or have no effect on the rate of dissolution.
ANS: A
30. Which of the following decreases the average kinetic energy of solvent molecules?
a. decreasing the pressure
b. not stirring the solution
c. decreasing the contact area between solvent and solute
d. decreasing the temperature
ANS: D
31. Stirring increases the rate of dissolution because it

a. raises the temperature.
b. lowers the temperature.
c. brings fresh solvent into contact with the solute.
d. decreases the surface area of the solute.
ANS: C
32. Which of the following will dissolve most rapidly?

a. sugar cubes in cold water c. powdered sugar in cold water
b. sugar cubes in hot water d. powdered sugar in hot water
ANS: D
33. Which of the following will dissolve most slowly?

a. large salt crystals in unstirred water c. small salt crystals in unstirred water
b. large salt crystals in stirred water d. small salt crystals in stirred water
ANS: A
34. Raising the collision rate between solute and solvent

a. increases the rate of dissolution.
b. decreases the rate of dissolution.
c. has no effect on the rate of dissolution.
d. can increase, decrease, or have no effect on the rate of dissolution.
ANS: A
35. Raising solvent temperature causes solvent-solute collisions to become

a. less frequent and more energetic. c. less frequent and less energetic.
b. more frequent and more energetic. d. more frequent and less energetic.
ANS: B
36. If a solution is not agitated while it is being made, dissolved solute tends to
a. mix uniformly. c. build up in the solvent near the solute.
b. build up in the solvent far from the solute. d. raise the temperature of the solvent.
ANS: C
37. Which of the following is at equilibrium when undissolved solute is visible?

a. a saturated solution c. a supersaturated solution
b. an unsaturated solution d. All of the above
ANS: A
38. If the amount of solute present in a solution at a given temperature is less than the maximum amount
that can dissolve at that temperature, the solution is said to be
a. saturated. c. supersaturated.
b. unsaturated. d. concentrated.
ANS: B
39. A solute crystal is dropped into a solution containing dissolved solute. It falls to the bottom of the
beaker and does not dissolve after vigorous stirring. What does this indicate about the solution?
a. It is probably unsaturated. c. It is probably saturated.
b. It is probably supersaturated. d. It is not at equilibrium.
ANS: C
40. In a solution at equilibrium,

a. no dissolution occurs.
b. the rate of dissolution is less than the rate of crystallization.
c. the rate of dissolution is greater than the rate of crystallization.
d. the rate of dissolution and the rate of crystallization are equal.
ANS: D
41. The solubility of a substance at a given temperature is generally expressed as

a. amount of solute.
b. amount of solvent.
c. amount of solute per amount of solvent.
d. amount of water per 100 g of solute.
ANS: C
42. Solubilities, expressed as grams/100. g of water,

a. must be determined experimentally.
b. can be easily predicted.
c. vary directly with the rate at which solids dissolve.
d. do not vary with temperature.
ANS: A
43. Which of the following is likely to produce crystals if disturbed?

a. an unsaturated solution c. a saturated solution
b. a supersaturated solution d. an electrolytic solution
ANS: B
44. The rate of dissolution is

a. directly related to solubility. c. related to the square of the solubility.
b. inversely related to solubility. d. not related to solubility.
ANS: D
45. In the expression "like dissolves like," the word like refers to similarity in molecular
a. mass. c. energy.
b. size. d. polarity.
ANS: D
46. "Like dissolves like" is a very general rule used for predicting whether
a. one substance will form a solution with another.
b. one substance will react with another.
c. a reaction will reach equilibrium.
d. a mixture will contain two or three phases.
ANS: A
47. Which of the following is an example of a polar solvent?

a. carbon tetrachloride c. water
b. benzene d. gasoline
ANS: C
48. Which of the following is an example of a nonpolar solvent?
a. water c. Both (a) and (b)
b. toluene d. Neither (a) nor (b)
ANS: B
49. In a solution, the slightly charged part of a water molecule

a. attracts the ions in ionic compounds.
b. forms ionic bonds with ions in ionic compounds.
c. attracts nonpolar molecules.
d. forms ionic bonds with other water molecules.
ANS: A
50. Which of the following is soluble in water?

a. potassium nitrate c. benzene
b. silver d. carbon tetrachloride
ANS: A
51. The solubility of ethanol, CH 3 CH 2 OH, molecules in water is enhanced by

a. the pressure of the solvent.
b. the size of the solute molecules.
c. attraction between the ions in solution.
d. hydrogen bonding between the solute and solvent molecules.
ANS: D
52. Two immiscible substances

a. exist together in one phase.
b. will not separate on standing.
c. dissolve freely in one another in any proportion.
d. will not form a solution.
ANS: D
53. Which of the following is a solvent for both polar and nonpolar solutes?
a. water c. ethanol
b. carbon tetrachloride d. benzene
ANS: C
54. An endothermic dissolution process

a. absorbs energy as heat and has positive enthalpy of solution.
b. releases energy as heat and has positive enthalpy of solution.
c. absorbs energy as heat and has negative enthalpy of solution.
d. releases energy as heat and has negative enthalpy of solution.
ANS: A
55. During the dissolving process, which particles interact?

a. solute only c. solute and solvent
b. solvent only d. None of the above
ANS: C
56. Which of the following releases energy?

a. overcoming solute-solute attraction c. overcoming solvent-solvent attraction
b. forming solute-solvent attraction d. All of the above
ANS: B
57. When the energy released by forming solvent-solute attractions is greater than the energy absorbed by
overcoming solute-solute and solvent-solvent attractions, the dissolving process
a. has a negative enthalpy of solution. c. is endothermic.
b. has a positive enthalpy of solution. d. does not occur.
ANS: A
58. Increasing temperature favors dissolution when

a. the enthalpy of solution is negative. c. dissolution occurs rapidly.
b. the enthalpy of solution is positive. d. the dissolution process is exothermic.
ANS: B
59. The dissolution of gases in liquids is generally

a. endothermic. c. rapid.
b. exothermic. d. impossible.
ANS: B
60. Enthalpy of solution is generally expressed in

a. kilocalories.
b. moles of solute per kilogram.
c. kilojoules per mole of solute at a specified temperature.
d. moles of solute in a specified amount of solvent per kilojoule.
ANS: C
61. Which of the following values for enthalpy of solution at 25°C represents the greatest release of
energy?
a. –3.59 kJ/mol c. +1.33 kJ/mol
b. –0.01 kJ/mol d. +12.40 kJ/mol
ANS: A
62. The formation of solid-liquid solutions

a. always releases energy as heat.
b. always absorbs energy as heat.
c. can either absorb or release energy as heat.
d. neither absorbs nor releases energy as heat.
ANS: C
63. Pressure has the greatest effect on the solubility of

a. solids in liquids. c. gases in gases.
b. liquids in liquids. d. gases in liquids.
ANS: D
64. The solubility of gases in liquids

a. increases with increasing pressure. c. decreases with increasing pressure.
b. cannot reach equilibrium. d. does not depend on pressure.
ANS: A
65. Henry's law relates

a. pressure to temperature. c. temperature to gas-liquid solubility.
b. pressure to gas-liquid solubility. d. pressure to liquid-solid solubility.
ANS: B
66. For a mixture of gases, the solubility of each gas in water varies
a. directly with the partial pressure of the gas.
b. inversely with the partial pressure of the gas.
c. directly with the total pressure of the mixture.
d. inversely with the total pressure of the mixture.
ANS: A
67. Effervescence is the

a. dissolution of gas in liquid.
b. escape of gas from a gas-liquid solution.
c. escape of liquid from a liquid-liquid solution.
d. escape of solid from a solid-liquid solution.
ANS: B
68. As temperature increases, solubility of gases in liquids

a. increases. c. can increase or decrease.
b. decreases. d. is not affected.
ANS: B
69. As temperature increases, solubility of solids in liquids

a. always increases. c. usually increases.
b. always decreases. d. usually decreases.
ANS: C
70. A molar solution of CaCl 2 contains

a. one mole of CaCl 2 for every mole of solution.
b. one mole of CaCl 2 for every liter of solution.
c. one liter of CaCl 2 for every liter of solution.
d. one liter of CaCl 2 for every mole of solution.
ANS: B
71. Which of the following expresses concentration?

a. molality c. moles of solute per liter of solution
b. Molarity d. All of the above
ANS: D
72. Which of the following is expressed in grams of solute instead of moles of solute?
a. Molality c. Neither (a) nor (b)
b. Molarity d. Both (a) and (b)
ANS: C
73. What is the molarity of a solution that contains 0.202 mol KCl in 7.98 L solution?
a. 0.0132 M c. 0.459 M
b. 0.0253 M d. 1.363 M
ANS: B
Solution:
74.What is the molality of a solution that contains 5.10 mol KNO 3 in 4.47 kg water? (molar mass of KNO 3 =
101.11 g/mol)
a. 0.315 m c. 1.02 m
b. 0.779 m d. 1.14 m
ANS: D
Solution:
75. What is the molarity of a solution that contains 125 g NaCl in 4.00 L solution? (molar mass of NaCl =
58.44 g/mol)
a. 0.535 M c. 8.56 M
b. 2.14 M d. 31.3 M
ANS: A
Solution:
76. What is the molality of a solution that contains 31.0 g HCl in 5.00 kg water? (molar mass of HCl =
36.46 g/mol)
a. 0.062 m c. 0.170 m
b. 0.425 m d. 15.5 m
ANS: C
Solution:
77. How many moles of HCl are present in 0.70 L of a 0.33 M HCl solution? (molar mass of HCl = 36.46
g/mol)
a. 0.23 mol c. 0.38 mol
b. 0.28 mol d. 0.47 mol
ANS: A
Solution:
78. The concentration of a water solution of NaCl is 2.48 m, and it contains 806 g of water. How much
NaCl is in the solution? (molar mass of NaCl = 58.44 g/mol)
a. 2.00 g c. 117 g
b. 89.3 g d. 224 g
ANS: C
Solution:
79. An NaOH solution contains 1.90 mol of NaOH, and its concentration is 0.555 M. What is its volume?
(molar mass of NaOH = 40.00 g/mol)
a. 0.623 L c. 1.05 L
b. 0.911 L d. 3.42 L
ANS: D
Solution:
80. What mass of water must be used to make a 1.35 m solution that contains 8.20 mol of NaOH? (molar
mass of NaOH = 40.00 g/mol)
a. 6.07 kg c. 11.1 kg
b. 7.44 kg d. 14.5 kg
ANS: A
Solution:
81. How many milliliters of a 0.171 M solution contain 1.00 g of NaCl? (molar mass of NaCl = 58.44
g/mol)
a. 100. mL c. 171 mL
b. 1000. mL d. 17.1 mL
ANS: A
Solution:
COMPLETION
1. Agitation prevents a(n) ____________________ from settling.
ANS: suspension
2. Particles in an emulsion are ____________________ than the particles in a suspension.
ANS: smaller
3. A(n) ____________________ solution is at equilibrium when undissolved solute is visible.
ANS: saturated
4. Dry cleaners use tetrachloroethylene, C 2 Cl 4 , to dissolve oil, grease, and alcohol because C 2 Cl 4 is a(n)
____________________ molecule.
ANS: nonpolar
5. Water is an example of a(n) __________polar__________ solvent.
6. You know the molarity and the volume of a solution. You also need to know the
____________________ to determine the mass of solute.
ANS: molar mass of the solute

7. A 0.25 M solution of HCl reacts with an excess of sodium oxide, Na 2 O. A volume of 30.00 mL of HCl
is used. To determine the mass of NaCl produced you must know the ____________________.
ANS: molar mass of NaCl and balanced equation for the reaction
PROBLEM
1. A solution contains 85.0 g of NaNO 3 , and has a volume of 750. mL. Find the molarity of the solution.
(molar mass of NaCl = 58.44 g/mol)
ANS: 1.33 M NaNO 3
Solution:
2. What is the molarity of a solution of sucrose, C 12 H 22 O 11 , that contains 125 g of sucrose in 3.50 L of
solution? (molar mass of C 12 H 22 O 11 = 342.34 g/mol)
ANS: 0.104 M sucrose

Solution:
3. How many grams of NaOH are required to prepare 200. mL of a 0.450 M solution? (molar mass of
NaOH = 40.00 g/mol)
ANS: 3.60 g NaOH

Solution:
4. How many grams of NaC 2 H 3 O 2 are needed to prepare 350. mL of a 2.75 M solution? (molar mass of
NaC 2 H 3 O 2 = 82.04 g/mol)
ANS: 79.0 g NaC 2 H 3 O 2

Solution:
5. How many grams of Na 2 SO 4 are needed to prepare 750. mL of a 0.375 M solution? (molar mass of
Na 2 SO 4 = 142.05 g/mol)
ANS: 40.0 g Na 2 SO 4
Solution:
6. Iron(III) chloride can be produced by reacting Fe 2 O 3 with a hydrochloric acid solution. How many
milliliters of a 6.00 M HCl solution are needed to react with excess Fe 2 O 3 to produce 16.5 g of FeCl 3 ?
(molar mass of Fe 2 O 3 = 159.70 g/mol) (molar mass of HCL= 36.46 g/mol) (molar mass of FeCl 3 =
162.20 g/mol)
ANS: 50.9 mL HCl solution

Solution: Balanced equation for reaction:
Fe 2 O 3 (s) + 6HCl(aq) → 2FeCl 3 (aq) + 3H 2 O(l)
7. Muriatic acid, HCl, is often used to remove rust. A solution of muriatic acid, HCl, reacts with Fe 2 O 3
deposits on industrial equipment. How many liters of 5.50 M HCl would be needed to react completely
with 439 g Fe 2 O 3 ? (molar mass of HCL = 36.46 g/mol) (molar mass of Fe 2 O 3 =159.70 g/mol)
ANS: 3.00 L HCl solution

Solution: balanced equation for reaction:
Fe 2 O 3 (s) + 6HCl(aq) → 2FeCl 3 (aq) + 3H 2 O(l)
SHORT ANSWER
1. How is a solute distinguished from a solvent?
ANS: The solute, which dissolves in the solvent, is usually the substance present in lesser quantity
than the solvent.
2. Explain how you could use a crystal of solute to determine the whether a solution is unsaturated,
saturated, or supersaturated.
ANS: Drop the crystal into the solution. If it dissolves, the solution was unsaturated. If it remains
undissolved after vigorous stirring, the solution was saturated. If it causes other solute to crystallize out
of solution, the solution was supersaturated.
3. Ethylene glycol molecules are slightly polar, while tetrachloroethylene molecules are nonpolar. The
hydroxyl groups of ethylene glycol can form hydrogen bonds with water, but tetrachloroethylene has
no groups capable of hydrogen bonding. Predict the solubility in water of each liquid and briefly
explain your prediction.
ANS: Tetrachloroethylene will not dissolve in water, because water is a polar molecule and is
tetrachloroethylene is nonpolar. Ethylene glycol will dissolve in water because ethylene glycol
molecules are slightly polar, and it also has hydroxyl groups that can form hydrogen bonds with water.
4. Describe the conditions necessary for two materials to dissolve in each other.
ANS: Two materials dissolve in each other when the attractive forces between the solvent particles
and solute particles are stronger than the attractive forces holding the solvent particles together and the
attractive forces holding the solute particles together.
5. Describe how to prepare 1.00 L of a 0.10 M aqueous solution of NaCl.
ANS: Calculate the mass of NaCl needed to make a 0.10 M NaCl solution. Add 5.8 g NaCl to a 1.0 L
volumetric flask. Add some deionized water to the flask. Rinse the weighing beaker with more
deionized water and add the rinse water to the flask. Stopper the flask and swirl the solution
thoroughly. Carefully fill the flask to the 1.0 mark with deionized water. Stopper the flask again and
invert it at least 10 times to ensure complete mixing.
Chapter 2—Ions in Aqueous Solutions and Colligative Properties
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. An equation for the dissociation of an ionic solid shows

a. the solid on the left side and aqueous ions on the right side.
b. an aqueous solid on the left side and ions on the right side.
c. aqueous ions on the left side and the solid on the right side.
d. ions on the left side and an aqueous solid on the right side.
ANS: A
2. How many ions are produced by each formula unit of solid in a dissociation?
a. zero c. two
b. one d. two or more
ANS: D
3. How many moles of ions are produced by the dissociation of 1 mol of MgCl 2 ?
a. 0 c. 2 mol
b. 1 mol d. 3 mol
ANS: D
4. How many moles of ions are produced by the dissociation of 1 mol of Al 2 (CO 3 ) 3 ?
a. 2 mol c. 5 mol
b. 4 mol d. 11 mol
ANS: C
5. How many moles of ions are produced by the dissociation of 1 mol of NH 4 Br?
a. 0 c. 2 mol
b. 1 mol d. 5 mol
ANS: C
6. Which of the following is the right side of the equation for dissolving Al(NO 3 ) 3 ?
a. Al+ + (NO 3 ) c. Al3+ + NO
b. Al3+(aq) + 3NO (aq) d. Al3–(aq) + 3NO (aq)
ANS: B
7. Which of the following is the right side of the equation for dissolving K 2 S(s)?
a. 2K+(aq) + S2–(aq) c. K2+(aq) + S2–(aq)
b. K (aq) + S2–(aq) d. 2K(aq) + S(aq)
ANS: A
8. Which compound dissociates to produce the ions SO 4 2–(aq) and NH 4 +(aq)?

a. NH 4 SO 4 (s) c. NH 4 (SO 4 ) 2 (s)
b. (NH 4 ) 2 SO 4 (s) d. (NH 4 ) 3 (SO 4 ) 2 (s)
ANS: B
9. Which compound dissociates to produce the ions Ca2+(aq) and NO 3 –(aq)?

a. CaNO 3 (s) c. Ca(NO 3 ) 2 (s)
b. Ca 2 NO 3 d. Ca 2 (NO 3 ) 3
ANS: C
10. How many moles of ions are produced by the dissociation of 0.5 mol of Na 2 CO 3 ?
a. 0.5 mol c. 3.0 mol
b. 1.5 mol d. 6.0 mol
ANS: B
11. What is the net ionic equation for the precipitation reaction between BaCl 2 and Na 2 SO 4 ?
a. BaCl 2 (aq) + Na 2 SO 4 (aq) ? BaSO 4 (s) + 2NaCl(aq)
b. Na+(aq) + Cl-(aq) ? NaCl(s)
c. Ba2+(aq) + SO 4 2-(aq) ? BaSO 4 (s)
d. Ba2+(aq) + 2Cl-(aq) + 2 Na+(aq) + SO 4 2-(aq) ? BaSO 4 (s) + 2Cl-(aq) + 2Na+(aq)
ANS: C
12. When solutions of two ionic compounds are combined and a solid forms, the process is called
a. hydration. c. solvation.
b. precipitation. d. dissociation.
ANS: B
13. Precipitation is an example of what type of reaction?

a. composition c. single-displacement
b. decomposition d. double-displacement
ANS: D
Use the table below to answer the following questions.
General Solubility Guidelines

1. Most sodium, potassium, and ammonium compounds are soluble in water.
2. Most nitrates, acetates, and chlorates are soluble.
3. Most chlorides are soluble, except those of silver, mercury(I), and lead. Lead(II) chloride
is soluble in hot water.
4. Most sulfates are soluble, except those of barium, strontium, and lead.
5. Most carbonates, phosphates, and silicates are insoluble, except those of sodium,
potassium, and ammonium.
6. Most sulfides are insoluble, except those of calcium, strontium, sodium, potassium, and
ammonium.
14. Which of the following pairs of solutions produces a precipitate when combined?
a. Cu(NO 3 ) 2 and NaCl c. Cu(NO 3 ) 2 and K 2 CO 3
b. Fe(NO 3 ) 3 and MgCl 2 d. CaCl 2 and NaNO 3
ANS: C
15. Which of the following pairs of solutions produces a precipitate when combined?
a. KOH and NH 4 Cl c. Na 2 SO 4 and KCl
b. Fe(NO) 3 and KCl d. NH 4 Cl and AgNO 3
ANS: D
16. When solutions of BaCO 3 and Fe 2 (SO 4 ) 3 are combined, what precipitate(s) forms?
a. BaSO 4 c. BaSO 4 and Fe 2 (CO 3 ) 3
b. Fe 2 (CO 3 ) 3 d. None of the above
ANS: C
17. When solutions of NH 4 OH and K 2 SO 4 are combined, what precipitate(s) forms?
a. (NH 4 ) 2 SO 4 c. (NH 4 ) 2 SO 4 and KOH
b. KOH d. None of the above
ANS: D
18. Which of the following is not a net ionic equation?

a. Ag+(aq) + Cl–(aq) → AgCl(s)
b. Fe2+(aq) + 2Cl–(aq) + 2OH–(aq) → Fe(OH) 2 (s) + 2Cl–(aq)
c. 3Ca2+(aq) + 2P3–(aq) → Ca 3 P 2 (s)
d. Cu2+(aq) + S2–(aq) → CuS(s)
ANS: B
19. What is the spectator ion in the equation Cu2+(aq) + Zn2+(aq) + 2S2–(aq) → CuS(s) + ZnS(s)?
a. Cu2+(aq) c. S2–(aq)
b. Zn2+(aq) d. None of the above
ANS: D
20. What is the net ionic equation for the precipitation reaction between silver nitrate solution and sodium
sulfide solution?
a. 2Ag+(aq) + 2NO3–(aq) + 2Na+(aq) + S2–(aq) → Ag 2 S(s) + 2Na+(aq) + 2NO 3 –(aq)
b. 2Ag+(aq) + S2–(aq) → Ag 2 S(s)
c. Na+(aq) + NO 3 –(aq) → NaNO 3 (s)
d. 2Ag+(aq) + 2NO 3 –(aq) + 2Na+(aq) + S2–(aq) → Ag 2 S(s) + 2NaNO 3 (s)
ANS: B
21. What is the net ionic equation for the precipitation reaction between copper(II) chloride and sodium
hydroxide?
a. Cu2+(aq) + 2OH–(aq) → Cu(OH) 2 (s)
b. Na+(aq) + Cl–(aq) → NaCl(s)
c. Cu2+(aq) + 2OH–(aq) + 2Cl–(aq) → Cu(OH) 2 (s) + 2Cl–(aq)
d. Cu2+(aq) + 2Cl–(aq) + 2Na+(aq) + 2OH–(aq) → Cu(OH) 2 (s) + 2NaCl(s)
ANS: A
22. Which ions do not appear in the net ionic equation for the precipitation reaction involving solutions of
Zn(NO 3 ) 2 and Na 3 PO 4 ?
a. Zn2+(aq) and NO (aq) c. Zn2+(aq) and PO (aq)
b. Na+(aq) and Zn2+(aq) d. Na+(aq) and NO (aq)
ANS: D
23. Molecular substances contain

a. ionic bonds.
b. polar-covalent bonds.
c. nonpolar-covalent bonds.
d. either polar-covalent or nonpolar-covalent bonds.
ANS: D
24. The attraction of water molecules overcomes the strength of covalent bonds in
a. all molecular substances.
b. molecular substances that are electrolytes.
c. molecular substances that are not electrolytes.
d. None of the above ANS: B
25. The separation of ions that occurs when an ionic compound dissolves is called
a. ionization. c. precipitation.
b. dissociation. d. oxidation.
ANS: B
26. Ions are formed from solute molecules by the action of the solvent in a process called
a. ionization. c. precipitation.
b. dissociation. d. oxidation.
ANS: A
27. When a molecular substance ionizes in water,

a. charged particles are formed, and the more electronegative atom becomes a negative ion.
b. charged particles are formed, and the less electronegative atom becomes a negative ion.
c. no charged particles are formed.
d. ions that were already present are released.
ANS: A
28. Which of the following is a molecular compound that ionizes in water?

a. NaCl c. HCl
b. Cl 2 d. C 6 H 6
ANS: C
29. Which of the following is an ionic compound that dissociates in water?

a. NaCl c. HCl
b. Cl 2 d. C 6 H 6
ANS: A
30. The hydrogen ion

a. has a charge of 2+. c. has a negative charge.
b. is a proton. d. is a bare electron.
ANS: B
31. The formula for the hydronium ion is

a. H+. c. H 3 O–.
b. H 2 O+. d. H 3 O+.
ANS: D
32. Dissolving HCl in water produces

a. H 3 O+ and Cl–. c. H 3 OCl(aq).
b. H+ and Cl–. d. H 3 O– and Cl+.
ANS: A
33. The hydronium ion contains

a. three equivalent covalent bonds.
b. three covalent bonds of unequal strengths.
c. one ionic bond and two covalent bonds.
d. one covalent bond and two ionic bonds.
ANS: A
34. In water solutions of HCl, the free H+ ion is
a. present in very large quantities. c. present in small quantities.
b. present in moderate quantities. d. not present. ANS:D
35. Formation of a hydronium ion in HCl solution
a. is favorable and does not release energy.
b. is unfavorable and releases energy.
c. is favorable and releases energy.
d. is unfavorable and does not release energy.
ANS: C
36. Which of the following is a hydrated proton?

a. a hydrogen ion c. a water molecule
b. a hydronium ion d. a hydrogen chloride molecule
ANS: B
37. Which of the following is not a hydrated proton?

a. H 3 O+ c. H 4 O 2 +
+
b. H 7 O 3 d. H 9 O 4 +
ANS: C
38. When a weak electrolyte dissolves,

a. all of the solute molecules ionize. c. the solution does not carry electricity.
b. the boiling point decreases. d. H 3 O+ is produced.
ANS: D
39. Which type of solute is present in aqueous solution predominantly as hydrated ions rather than as
molecules?
a. a weak electrolyte c. a nonelectrolyte
b. a strong electrolyte d. a covalent electrolyte
ANS: B
40. A compound of low solubility

a. is always a strong electrolyte. c. may be a strong or a weak electrolyte.
b. is always a weak electrolyte. d. is always a nonelectrolyte.
ANS: C
41. Which solute is present in aqueous solution mostly as molecules rather than as ions?
a. a weak electrolyte c. a nonelectrolyte
b. a strong electrolyte d. a covalent electrolyte
ANS: A
42. Which of the following is a strong electrolyte?

a. HC 2 H 3 O 2 c. HF
b. HBr d. NH 3
ANS: B
43. Which of the following is a weak electrolyte?

a. hydrogen chloride c. sodium chloride
b. sugar d. acetic acid
ANS: D
44. A 15 M acetic acid solution is

a. concentrated and a strong electrolyte. c. concentrated and a weak electrolyte.
b. dilute and a strong electrolyte. d. dilute and a weak electrolyte.
ANS: C
45. Colligative properties depend on
a. the identity of the solute particles.
b. the concentration of the solute particles.
c. the physical properties of the solute particles.
d. the boiling point and freezing point of the solution.
ANS: B
46. Why is vapor-pressure lowering a colligative property?

a. It is independent of the concentration of a nonelectrolyte solute and does not depend on
solute identity.
b. It depends on the concentration of an electrolyte solute and does not depend on solute
identity.
c. It depends on the concentration of a nonelectrolyte solute and on solute identity.
d. It depends on the concentration of an electrolyte solute and on solute identity.
ANS: A
47. Why is freezing-point depression a colligative property?

a. It is inversely proportional to the molal concentration of a solution.
b. It is directly proportional to the molal concentration of a solution.
c. It does not depend on a molal freezing-point constant for each solvent.
d. It depends on the properties of an electrolyte in a solvent.
ANS: B
48. Why is boiling-point elevation a colligative property?

a. It is inversely proportional to the molal concentration of a solution.
b. It is directly proportional to the molal concentration of a solution.
c. It does not depend on a molal boiling-point constant for each solvent.
d. It is independent of changes in vapor pressure.
ANS: B
49. Why is osmotic pressure a colligative property?

a. It depends on the rate of osmosis.
b. It depends on the type of solute particles in two solutions of unequal concentrations.
c. It depends on the concentration of solute particles in a solution.
d. It depends on the type of solute particles in a solution.
ANS: C
50. Nonvolatile solutes

a. depress freezing point and elevate boiling point.
b. elevate freezing point and depress boiling point.
c. depress both freezing point and boiling point.
d. elevate both freezing point and boiling point.
ANS: A
51. The freezing point of an aqueous solution that contains a nonelectrolyte is –8.0°C. What is the molal
concentration of the solution? The molal freezing-point constant for water is
–1.86°C/m.
a. 1.86 m c. 4.5 m
b. 4.3 m d. 14.8 m
ANS: B
52. What is the boiling-point elevation of a solution made from 10.0 g of a nonelectrolyte solute and 300.0
g of water? The molar mass of the solute is 50.0 g and the molal boiling-point constant for water is
0.51°C/m.
a. 0.01°C c. 0.32°C
b. 0.2°C d. 0.34°C
ANS: D
53. A water solution containing an unknown quantity of a nonelectrolyte solute has a freezing point of –
0.21°C. What is the molal concentration of the solution if K f = –1.86°C/m?
a. 0.11 m c. 1.11 m
b. 0.12 m d. 1.12 m
ANS: A
54. A water solution containing an unknown quantity of a nonelectrolyte solute has a freezing point of –
0.665°C. What is the molal concentration of the solution if K f = –1.86°C/m?
a. 0.010 m c. 0.358 m
b. 0.355 m d. 2.66 m
ANS: C
55. What is the boiling-point elevation of a solution made from 20.0 g of a nonelectrolyte solute and 300.0
g of water? The molar mass of the solute is 50.0 g and K b = 0.51°C/m.
a. 0.13°C c. 0.42°C
b. 0.38°C d. 0.68°C
ANS: D
56. What is the freezing-point depression of an aqueous solution of an electrolyte that produces three ions
for every formula unit that dissociates if the electrolyte's concentration is 1.25 m?
K f = –1.86°C/m.
a. –1.25°C c. –5.58°C
b. –1.86°C d. –6.98°C
ANS: D
57. What is the approximate freezing-point depression of a 0.020 m aqueous NaBr solution?
K f = –1.86°C/m.
a. –0.0093°C c. –0.037°C
b. –0.019°C d. –0.074°C
ANS: D
58. What is the approximate freezing-point depression of a 0.010 m aqueous CaCl 2 solution?
K f = –1.86°C/m.
a. –0.019°C c. –0.056°C
b. –0.037°C d. –0.074°C
ANS: C
59. What is the approximate freezing-point depression of a 0.050 m aqueous FeCl 3 solution?
K f = –1.86°C/m.
a. –0.019°C c. –0.28°C
b. –0.093°C d. –0.37°C
ANS: D
60.What is the approximate freezing-point depression of a 0.050 m aqueous Na 2 SO 4 solution?
K f = –1.86°C/m.
a. –0.11°C c. –0.22°C
b. –0.28°C d. –0.39°C
ANS: B
61. What is the actual freezing-point depression of a 0.020 m aqueous NaCl solution?
K f = –1.86°C/m.
a. slightly less than –0.0744°C c. slightly more than –0.0744°C
b. exactly –0.0744°C d. exactly 0°C
ANS: A
62. Actual freezing-point depressions of electrolyte solutions are slightly lower than the calculated values
because of
a. ion repulsion.
b. more complete ionization than is expected.
c. ion attraction.
d. higher-than-expected effective concentration.
ANS: C
63. Compared with a 0.01 m sugar solution, a 0.01 m KCl solution has
a. the same freezing-point depression.
b. about twice the freezing-point depression.
c. the same freezing-point elevation.
d. about six times the freezing-point elevation.
ANS: B
64. Compared with a 0.01 m sugar solution, a 0.01 m MgCl 2 solution has
a. the same freezing-point depression.
b. about twice the freezing-point depression.
c. about three times the freezing-point depression.
d. about four times the freezing-point depression.
ANS: C
65. Compared with a 0.01 m sugar solution, a 0.01 m KCl solution has
a. the same boiling-point elevation.
b. roughly twice the boiling-point elevation.
c. the same boiling-point depression.
d. about half the boiling-point depression.
ANS: B
66. Compared with the freezing-point depression of a 0.01 m sugar solution, the freezing-point depression
of 0.01 m HCl solution is
a. exactly the same. c. exactly twice as great.
b. slightly lower. d. almost twice as great.
ANS: D
67. Electrolytes have a greater effect on freezing-point depression than nonelectrolytes because
electrolytes
a. have lower freezing points.
b. are volatile.
c. produce more moles of solute per mole of solvent. ANS: C
d. are attracted to one another in solution.
68. The Debye-Hückel theory accounts for
a.attraction between ions in solutions.
b.repulsion between ions in solution.
c.attraction between ions in crystals.
d.the greater freezing-point depressions in electrolyte solutions than in nonelectrolyte
solutions.
ANS: A
69. Compared with the actual freezing-point depression for a solution of an electrolyte that dissociates into
a 2+ and a 2– ion, the freezing-point depression for an equally concentrated solution of an electrolyte
that dissociates into a 1+ and a 1– ion is likely to be
a. lower. c. greater.
b. the same. d. Not possible to tell with data provided
ANS: D
70. Electrolytes affect colligative properties differently than do nonelectrolytes because electrolytes
a. are volatile.
b. have lower boiling points.
c. produce fewer moles of solute particles per mole of solute.
d. produce more moles of solute particles per mole of solute.
ANS: D
71. What is the approximate freezing-point depression of nonvolatile aqueous electrolyte solutions?
a. –1.86C°/m × molality of electrolyte
b. –1.86C°/m × total molality of solute particles
c. –1.86C°
d. 0.52C°/m × total molality of solute particles
ANS: B
72. As electrolyte concentration decreases, freezing-point depression

a. approaches the value calculated by assuming complete ionization.
b. gets farther from the value calculated by assuming complete ionization.
c. remains exactly equal to the value calculated by assuming complete ionization.
d. approaches 0°C.
ANS: A
SHORT ANSWER
Solubility Rules for Some Common Ionic Compounds
Compounds containing these ions are soluble in water:
Alkali metals (Group 1), except LiF
Ammonium, NH 4 +
Bromides, Br–, except those of Ag+, Pb2+, and Hg22+
Chlorides, Cl–, except those of Ag+, Pb2+, and Hg22+
Nitrates, NO 3 –
Sulfates, SO 4 2–, except those of Ca2+, Sr2+, Ba2+, Pb2+, and Hg22+
Compounds containing these ions are insoluble in water:
Carbonates, CO 3 2–, except those of Group 1 and NH 4 +
Hydroxides, OH–, except those of Group 1
Oxides, O2–, except those of Group 1, Ca2+, Sr2+, and Ba2+ (which form hydroxides)
Phosphates, PO 4 3–, except those of Group 1 and NH 4 +
Sulfides, S2–, except those of Group 1, Mg2+,Ca2+, Ba2+, and NH 4 +
1. According to the solubility table, the compound AgCl is ____________________ in water.
ANS: insoluble
2. According to the solubility table, the compound PbS is ____________________ in water.

ANS: insoluble
3. According to the solubility table, the compound Na 3 PO 4 is ____________________ in water.

ANS: soluble
4. According to the solubility table, the compound BaCO 3 is ____________________ in water.

ANS: insoluble
5. How does the addition of a nonvolatile solute affect the boiling point of the solvent into which it is
dissolved?
ANS: The boiling point increases.
6. How does the addition of a nonvolatile solute affect the vapor pressure of the solvent into which it is
dissolved?
ANS: The vapor pressure decreases.
7. When a nonvolatile solute is dissolved in water, the vapor pressure ____________________, resulting
in an increase in the ____________________ and a decrease in the ____________________ of the
solution.
ANS: decreases; boiling point; freezing point
8. Why does 1 mol of NaCl produce a greater change in the colligative properties of water than 1 mol of
sucrose?
ANS: Salt produces 2 moles of ions when it dissolves; thus, the effective concentration of the solution
is higher.
9. Why are the values of colligative properties of electrolytic solutions less than expected?
ANS: Colligative properties of electrolytic solutions change less than expected because of the
attraction between ions in solution.
10. What is a spectator ion?
ANS: A spectator ion is an ion that does not take part in a chemical reaction and is found in solution
both before and after a precipitation reaction.
11. Label each of the following as applying to a strong electrolyte, a weak electrolyte, or both:
____________________ a. ionizes 100% in solution
____________________ b. carries electric current in solution
____________________ c. carries electric current well even at low solubility
____________________ d. yields both ions and unionized molecules in solution
ANS: a. strong electrolyte; b. both; c. strong electrolyte; d. weak electrolyte

12.What is freezing-point depression?
ANS: Freezing-point depression is the difference between the freezing point of a pure solvent and a
solution of nonvolatile solute.
13. What is boiling-point elevation?
ANS: Boiling-point elevation is the difference between the boiling point of a pure solvent and a
solution of nonvolatile solute.
14. Write the equation for the dissolution of sodium phosphate in water.
ANS: Na 3 PO 4 (s) 3Na+(aq) + PO (aq)
PROBLEM
1. Write the equation for the dissolution of NH 4 NO 3 in water. How many moles of ions does
dissolving 1.5 mol of NH 4 NO 3 produce? How many total moles of ions does dissolving 1.5 mol of
NH 4 NO 3 produce?
ANS: NH 4 NO 3 (s) (aq) + (aq) ; 1.5 mol of ; 3.0 mol total ions
2. Write the equation for the dissolution of (NH 4 ) 2 SO 4 in water. How many moles of each type of ion,
and how many total moles of ions, does the dissolution of 0.5 mol of (NH 4 ) 2 SO 4 produce?
-
ANS: (NH 4 ) 2 SO 4 (s) 2NH (aq) + SO (aq); 1.0 mol of ions; 0.5 mol of SO ions;
1.5 mol total ions
3. Write the net ionic equation for the precipitation reaction between AgNO 3 and KI.
ANS: Ag+(aq) + I–(aq) AgI(s)
4. Write the net ionic equation for the precipitation reaction between ammonium sulfide and cadmium
nitrate.
ANS: Cd (aq) + S2–(aq) CdS(s)
5. Write the overall ionic equation and the net ionic equation for the reaction between BaCl 2 and Na 2 SO 4
in aqueous solution. Identify the spectator ions and the precipitate for this reaction.
ANS: Overall ionic equation: Ba2+(aq) + 2Cl (aq) + 2Na+(aq) + SO (aq) BaSO 4 (s) + 2Cl aq) +
2Na+(aq)
Net ionic equation: Ba2+(aq) + SO -(aq) BaSO 4 (s)
Spectator Ions: Na+ and Cl
Precipitate: BaSO 4
6. Calculate the boiling-point elevation of a solution made from 15.0 g of a nonelectrolyte solute and
250.0 g of water. The molar mass of the solute is 50.0 g and K b =0.51°C/m.
ANS:
Solution:
7. 200. g of a nonelectrolyte is dissolved in 1.00 kg of water. The boiling point of the solution is then
measured to be 101.5°C. What is the molar mass of the compound? The K b for water is 0.51°C/m.
ANS:
68.0g
Solution:
8. Consider a solution of 50g KCl, a strong electrolyte, dissolved in 1.5 kg of water.
a. Determine the expected freezing point of the solution. The molar mass of KCl is 74.55 g and K f = –
1.86°C/m.
b. Would the actual freezing point be higher or lower than your calculated value? Why?
ANS:
a. –1.66°C Solution:
b. It would be higher (i.e., the magnitude of the freezing-point depression would be less) because the
attraction between the K+ and Cl ions in solution would lower the effective concentration.
9. What concentration of ethylene glycol is needed to raise the boiling point of water to 105°C?
(K b =0.51°C/m)
ANS: 9.8 m
Solution:
10. The freezing point of an aqueous solution that contains a nonelectrolyte is –4.0°C. What is the molal
concentration of the solution? (K f = –1.86°C/m)
ANS: 2.15 m
ESSAY
1. Explain why it will take longer for 50 mL of lemonade (0.5 m sucrose) to freeze than 50 mL of pure
water.
ANS: The presence of the sucrose in the lemonade lowers the freezing point of the solution.
Therefore, it will take longer for the lemonade to freeze.
2. Will the difference between the expected and actual boiling point of 5 m NaCl in water be more or less
than the difference between the expected and actual boiling point of 0.5 m NaCl in water? Explain
your answer.
ANS:
The difference between the expected and actual boiling point will be smaller in the 0.5 m NaCl
solution because the force of attraction between the Na+ and Cl ions has less of an effect in more
dilute solutions.
3. Explain the difference between a dilute strong electrolyte and a concentrated weak electrolyte in terms
of number of dissolved ions and electrical conductivity.
ANS: The dilute strong electrolyte will have few ions in solution because of the low concentration,
but all dissolved particles will be completely ionized or dissociated and the solution will carry electric
current well. The concentrated weak electrolyte will have more molecules in solution, but because it
only partially ionizes, will not carry electric current as well.
4. Some insects store extra glycerol, C 3 H 5 (OH) 3 , inside their cells. Explain how this helps them to
survive at sub-freezing temperatures.
ANS: The high concentration of glycerol inside the cell depresses the freezing point of the fluid in the
cell in a colligative manner, so that the insect will not freeze, even though its environment is very cold.
5. Explain why, in terms of the boiling point, the addition of 100 g of salt to 5 kg of cooking water does
not cause food to cook faster. The molar mass of NaCl is 58.5 g, and K b water=0.51°/m.
ANS: This amount of salt would cause the boiling point of the solution to increase to about 100.3°C,
which is not enough of an increase to make an appreciable difference in cooking time.
Chapter 3—Acids and Bases
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Acids taste
a. sweet. c. bitter.
b. sour. d. salty.
ANS: B
2. Acetic acid is found in

a. lemons. c. sour milk.
b. vinegar. d. apples.
ANS: B
3. Acids generally release H 2 gas when they react with

a. nonmetals. c. active metals.
b. semimetals. d. inactive metals.
ANS: C
4. Acids react with

a. bases to produce salts and water. c. water to produce bases and salts.
b. salts to produce bases and water. d. neither bases, salts, nor water.
ANS: A
5. Aqueous solutions of acids

a. contain only two different elements. c. have very high boiling points.
b. carry electricity. d. cannot be prepared.
ANS: B
6. Bases taste
a. soapy. c. sweet.
b. sour. d. bitter.
ANS: D
7. Bases feel
a. rough. c. slippery.
b. moist. d. dry.
ANS: C
8. Bases react with

a. acids to produce salts and water. c. water to produce acids and salts.
b. salts to produce acids and water. d. neither acids, salts, nor water.
ANS: A
9. Aqueous solutions of bases

a. contain only two different elements. c. have very high boiling points.
b. carry electricity. d. cannot be prepared.
ANS: B
10. A binary acid contains

a. two hydrogen atoms. c. hydrogen and two other elements.
b. hydrogen and one other element. d. hydrogen and three other elements.
ANS: B
11. Which of the following is a binary acid?
a. H 2 SO 4 c. HBr
b. CH 3 COOH d. NaOH
ANS: C
12. The name of a binary acid

a. has no prefix. c. ends with the suffix -ous.
b. begins with the prefix bi-. d. begins with the prefix hydro-.
ANS: D
13. An oxyacid contains

a. oxygen and hydrogen only.
b. oxygen, hydrogen, and one other element.
c. oxygen, hydrogen, and two other elements.
d. oxygen and an element other than hydrogen.
ANS: B
14. Which of the following is not an oxyacid?

a. H 2 O 2 c. HClO 4
b. H 2 SO 4 d. HClO 2
ANS: A
15. Which of the following is perchloric acid?

a. HClO c. HClO 3
b. HClO 2 d. HClO 4
ANS: D
16. Which of the following is chlorous acid?

a. HClO c. HClO 3
b. HClO 2 d. HClO 4
ANS: B
17. Which of the following is chloric acid?

a. HClO c. HClO 3
b. HClO 2 d. HClO 4
ANS: C
18. Compared with acids that have the suffix -ic, acids that have the suffix -ous contain
a. more hydrogen. c. less oxygen.
b. more oxygen. d. the same amount of oxygen.
ANS: C
19. An acid ending with the suffix -ic produces an anion with the
a. suffix -ate. c. prefix hydro-.
b. suffix -ite. d. suffix -ous.
ANS: A
20. Which acid is manufactured in largest quantity?

a. hydrochloric acid c. nitric acid
b. phosphoric acid d. sulfuric acid
ANS: D
21. Which acid is used in batteries?
ANS: D
22. Which acid is used to make fertilizers and detergents and is a flavoring agent in beverages?
ANS: B
23. Which acid is used mainly in the manufacture of explosives, rubber, plastics, dyes, and drugs?
ANS: C
24. Which acid is produced in the stomach?

ANS: A
25. Which acid is used to pickle metals, process food, and activate oil wells?
ANS: A
26. Which acid is found in vinegar?

a. acetic acid c. phosphoric acid
b. nitric acid d. hydrochloric acid
ANS: A
27. Which acid turns yellowish on standing?

a. acetic acid c. phosphoric acid
b. nitric acid d. hydrochloric acid
ANS: B
28. The traditional definition of acids is based on the observations of

a. Brønsted and Lowry. c. Arrhenius.
b. Lewis. d. Mendeleev.
ANS: C
29. An Arrhenius acid contains

a. hydrogen that does not ionize.
b. hydrogen that ionizes to form hydrogen ions.
c. oxygen that ionizes to form hydroxide ions.
d. oxygen that ionizes to form oxygen ions.
ANS: B
30. Which of the following did Arrhenius theorize?

a. An acid increases the concentration of OH– ions in solution.
b. A base increases the concentration of H+ ions in solution.
c. Acids and bases contain nonpolar molecules.
d. Because acids and bases carry electric current, they must produce ions in solution.
ANS: A
31. Arrhenius theorized that an acid is a chemical compound that
a. increases the concentration of hydrogen ions when dissolved in water.
b. increases the concentration of hydroxide ions when dissolved in water.
c. decreases the concentration of hydrogen ions when dissolved in water.
d. decreases the concentration of hydroxide ions when dissolved in water.
ANS: A
32. Arrhenius theorized that a base is a chemical compound that

a. increases the concentration of hydrogen ions when dissolved in water.
b. increases the concentration of hydroxide ions when dissolved in water.
c. decreases the concentration of hydrogen ions when dissolved in water.
d. decreases the concentration of hydroxide ions when dissolved in water.
ANS: B
33. Which statement about Arrhenius acids is false?

a. Their water solutions are called aqueous acids.
b. They are molecular compounds with ionizable hydrogen atoms.
c. Their pure aqueous solutions are electrolytes.
d. They increase the concentration of hydroxide ions in aqueous solution.
ANS: D
34. Which statement about Arrhenius bases is false?

a. Some are ionic hydroxides.
b. They dissociate in solution to release hydroxide ions into the solution.
c. They increase the concentration of hydrogen ions in aqueous solution.
d. Some react with water and remove a hydrogen ion, leaving hydroxide ions.
ANS: C
35. A substance that ionizes nearly completely in aqueous solutions and produces H 3 O+ is a
a. weak base. c. weak acid.
b. strong base. d. strong acid.
ANS: D
36. Which of the following is not a strong acid?

a. HNO 3 c. H 2 SO 4
b. CH 3 COOH d. HCl
ANS: B
37. Which of the following is a strong acid?

a. c. CH 3 COOH
b. H 2 SO 4 d. H 3 PO 4
ANS: B
38. The dilute aqueous solution of a weak base contains

a. hydronium ions. c. acid molecules.
b. anions. d. all of the above
ANS: D
39. In water, hydroxides of Group 2 metals

a. are all strong bases. c. are all acids.
b. are all weak bases. d. are nonelectrolytes. ANS: A
40. Which of the following is a weak base?
a. NH 3 c. NaOH
b. KOH d. Ba(OH) 2
ANS: A
41. Which of the following is a strong base?

a. KOH c. NH 3
b. H 2 d. HCl
ANS: A
42. Many organic compounds, such as codeine, that contain nitrogen are
a. strong bases. c. strong acids.
b. weak bases. d. weak acids.
ANS: B
43. Which of the following is a triprotic acid?

a. H 2 SO 4 c. HCl
b. CH 3 COOH d. H 3 PO 4
ANS: D
44. Which of the following is a diprotic acid?

a. H 2 SO 4 c. HCl
b. CH 3 COOH d. H 3 PO 4
ANS: A
45. Whose definition of acids and bases emphasizes the role of protons?
a. Brønsted and Lowry c. Arrhenius
b. Lewis d. Bohr
ANS: A
46. A Brønsted-Lowry acid is a(n)

a. electron-pair acceptor. c. proton acceptor.
b. electron-pair donor. d. proton donor.
ANS: D
47. In the equation HCl(g) + H 2 O(l) → H 3 O+(aq) + Cl–(aq), which species is a Brønsted-Lowry acid?
a. HCl c. Cl–
b. H 2 O d. None of the above
ANS: A
48. A Brønsted-Lowry base is a(n)

a. producer of OH– ions. c. electron-pair donor.
b. proton acceptor. d. electron-pair acceptor.
ANS: B
49. In the reaction represented by the equation , H 2 O is a(n)

a. Brønsted-Lowry acid. c. Brønsted-Lowry base.
b. Lewis base. d. Arrhenius.
ANS: A
50.A Lewis acid is
a. an electron-pair acceptor. c. a proton acceptor.
b. an electron-pair donor. d. a proton donor.
ANS: A
51. Whose acid definition is the broadest?

a. Arrhenius c. Brønsted-Lowry
b. Lewis d. Faraday
ANS: B
52. A Lewis base is a(n)

a. producer of OH– ions. c. electron-pair donor.
b. proton acceptor. d. electron-pair acceptor.
ANS: C
53. An electron-pair donor is a

a. Arrhenius acid. c. Brønsted-Lowry base.
b. Brønsted-Lowry acid. d. Lewis base.
ANS: D
54. Whenever ammonia donates an electron pair to form a covalent bond, it acts as a(n)
a. Brønsted-Lowry base. c. Lewis base.
b. Lewis acid. d. Arrhenius acid.
ANS: C
55. An electron-pair acceptor is a(n)

a. Brønsted-Lowry base. c. Lewis base.
b. Lewis acid. d. Arrhenius acid.
ANS: B
56. Which is a Lewis acid but not a Brønsted-Lowry acid?

a. HCl c. BF 3
b. NH 3 d. None of the above
ANS: C
57. In the reaction represented by the equation H 2 O is a

a. Brønsted-Lowry acid. c. Lewis acid.
b. Brønsted-Lowry base. d. Lewis base.
ANS: D
58. The reaction represented by the equation Ag+(aq) + 2NH 3 (aq) → [Ag(NH 3 ) 2 ]+(aq) is a(n)
a. traditional acid-base reaction. c. Brønsted-Lowry acid-base reaction.
b. Lewis acid-base reaction. d. None of the above
ANS: B
59. In the reaction represented by the equation Ag+(aq) + 2NH 3 (aq) → [Ag(NH 3 ) 2 ]+(aq), Ag+ is a
a. Brønsted-Lowry acid. c. Brønsted-Lowry base.
b. Lewis acid. d. Arrhenius base.
ANS: B
60. A conjugate acid is the species that
a. remains after a base has given up a proton.
b. is formed by the addition of a proton to a base.
c. is formed by the addition of a proton to an acid.
d. remains after an acid has given up a proton.
ANS: B
61. A species that remains when an acid has lost a proton is a

a. conjugate base. c. strong base.
b. conjugate acid. d. strong acid.
ANS: A
62. A species that is formed when a base gains a proton is a

a. conjugate base. c. strong base.
b. conjugate acid. d. strong acid.
ANS: B
63. How many conjugate acid-base pairs participate in a Brønsted-Lowry acid-base reaction?
a. none c. two
b. one d. four
ANS: C
64. The members of a conjugate acid-base pair

a. appear on the same side of the chemical equation.
b. appear on opposite sides of the chemical equation.
c. might appear on the same side or on opposite sides of the equation.
d. are not included in the chemical equation.
ANS: B
65. In a conjugate acid-base pair, the acid typically has

a. one more proton than the base.
b. one fewer proton than the base.
c. two fewer protons than the base.
d. the same number of protons as the base.
ANS: A
66. Whose theory of acids and bases do conjugate acids and bases belong to?
a. Arrhenius c. Brønsted-Lowry
b. Lewis d. None of the above
ANS: C
67. The two members of a conjugate acid-base pair differ by a

a. water molecule. c. hydronium ion.
b. hydroxide ion. d. proton.
ANS: D
68. In the reaction represented by the equation , a conjugate acid-base pair is

+
a. HF and H 2 O. c. H 3 O and H 2 O.
b. F– and H 3 O+. d. HF and H 3 O+.
ANS: C
69. In the reaction represented by the equation , a conjugate acid-base pair is
a. F– and H 2 O. c. H 3 O+ and HF.
b. HF and F–. d. HF and H 2 O.
ANS: B
70. In the reaction represented by the equation the conjugate acid of NH 3

is
a. HClO 3 . c. .
b. . d. not shown.
ANS: C
71. In the reaction represented by the equation , the conjugate base of

HClO 3 is
a. . c. .
b. NH 3 . d. not shown.
ANS: A
72. In the reaction represented by the equation , the

conjugate acid of CH 3 COO– is
a. H 2 O. c. H 3 O+.
b. CH 3 COOH. d. not shown.
ANS: B
73. In the reaction represented by the equation , the

conjugate base of H 3 O+ is
a. H 2 O. c. CH 3 COO–.
b. CH 3 COOH. d. not shown.
ANS: A
74. The conjugate of a strong base is a

a. strong acid. c. strong base.
b. weak acid. d. weak base.
ANS: B
75. The conjugate of a strong acid is a

ANS: D
76. The conjugate of a weak base is a

ANS: A
77. The conjugate of a weak acid is a

ANS: C
78. A base is weak if its tendency to
a. attract a proton is great. c. donate a proton is great.
b. attract a proton is slight. d. donate a proton is slight.
ANS: B
79. If a substance has a great tendency to give up protons, its conjugate has a
a. great tendency to give up protons. c. slight tendency to give up protons.
b. great tendency to attract protons. d. slight tendency to attract protons.
ANS: D
80. In the equation HI + H 2 O → H 3 O+ + I–, HI is a strong acid and I– is a

a. strong acid. c. weak acid.
b. strong base. d. weak base.
ANS: D
81. In the equation , H 2 O is a weak base and H 3 O+ is a

ANS: A
82. In the equation is a weak base and HClO 4 is a

ANS: A
83. An amphoteric species is one that reacts as a(n)

a. acid only. c. acid or base.
b. base only. d. None of the above
ANS: C
84. A species that can react as either an acid or a base is a(n)

a. Lewis acid. c. oxyacid.
b. amphoteric substance. d. salt.
ANS: B
85. Which of the following is amphoteric?

a. H 2 SO 4 c. H+
b. d.
ANS: D

a. H 3 PO 4 c.
b. H+ d.
ANS: C

a. H 2 O c. H+
b. H 3 O+ d. O2–
ANS: A
88. In the reaction represented by the equation acts as
a(n)
a. acid. c. spectator species.
b. base. d. salt.
ANS: B
89. In the reaction represented by the equation acts as

a(n)
b. base. d. salt.
ANS: A
90. In the reaction represented by the equation acts

as a(n)
b. base. d. salt.
ANS: B
91. In the reaction represented by the equation

acts as a(n)
b. base. d. salt.
ANS: B
92. The substances produced when KOH(aq) neutralizes HCl(aq) are

a. HClO(aq) and KH(aq). c. H 2 O(l) and KCl(aq).
b. KH 2 O+(aq) and Cl–(aq). d. H 3 O+(aq) and KCl(aq).
ANS: C
93. A salt is not

a. an ionic compound composed of a metal cation from a base.
b. an ionic compound composed of an anion from an acid.
c. a product of neutralization.
d. a proton donor.
ANS: D
94. Which of the following is not a reactant in a neutralization reaction?

a. H 3 O+ ion
b. OH– ion
c. an acid and a base in an aqueous solution
d. a salt
ANS: D
95. Which compound is produced by a neutralization?

a. H 2 O(l) c. Ca(OH) 2 (s)
b. HNO 3 (aq) d. H 3 PO 4 (aq)
ANS: A
96. Which of the following gases does not dissolve in atmospheric water to produce acidic solutions?
a. NO c. O 2
b. NO 2 d. CO 2 ANS: C
SHORT ANSWER
1. What determines the behavior of an amphoteric compound?
ANS: The behavior of an amphoteric substance is determined by the strength of the acid or base with
which it is reacting.
2. Explain how industrial processes create acid rain.
ANS: Industrial processes produce compounds that dissolve in the atmospheric water in clouds. This
creates acidic solutions that fall to the ground in rain or snow.
3. Use the following equation to explain acid rain: SO 3 (g) + H 2 O(l) → H 2 SO 4 (aq)
ANS: Sulfur trioxide gas is produced in industrial processes and released into the atmosphere. It
dissolves in atmospheric water in clouds and produces sulfuric acid, which falls to the earth as acid
rain or snow.
ESSAY
1. Is the reaction to the left or the reaction to the right more favorable in the following reaction? Explain
your answer in terms of acid and base strengths.
CH 3 COOH(aq) + H 2 O(l) H 3 O+(aq) + CH 3 COO–(aq)
ANS: The reaction to the left is more favorable. The H 3 O+ ion is a stronger acid than the CH 3 COOH
molecule and can donate its proton much more easily. The CH 3 COO– ion is a stronger base than the
H 2 O molecule and will attract a donated proton much more easily.
Chapter 4—Acid-Base Titration
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Pure water contains

a. water molecules only.
b. hydronium ions only.
c. hydroxide ions only.
d. water molecules, hydronium ions, and hydroxide ions.
ANS: D
2. Pure water partially breaks down into charged particles in a process called
a. hydration. c. self-ionization.
b. hydrolysis. d. dissociation.
ANS: C
3. What is the concentration of H 3 O+ ions in pure water?

a. 10–7 M c. 55.4 M
b. 0.7 M d. 107 M
ANS: A
4. What is the concentration of OH– ions in pure water?

a. 10–7 M c. 55.4 M
b. 0.7 M d. 107 M
ANS: A
5. What is the product of H 3 O+ ion and OH– ion concentrations in water?

a. 10–28 c. 10–7
b. 10–14 d. 55.4
ANS: B
6. Which expression represents the concentration of H 3 O+ ions in solution?

a. 10–14 – [OH–] c. 10–14 ÷ [OH–]
b. 10 × [OH ]
–14 –
d. [OH–] ÷ 10–14
ANS: C
7. Which expression represents the concentration of OH– ions in solution?

a. 10–14 – [H 3 O+] c. 10–14 ÷ [H 3 O+]
b. 10–14 × [H 3 O+] d. [OH–] ÷ 10–14
ANS: C
8. Which expression represents the pH of a solution?

a. log[H 3 O+] c. log[OH–]
b. –log[H 3 O+] d. –log[OH–]
ANS: B
9. If [H 3 O+] of a solution is greater than [OH–], the solution

a. is always acidic. c. is always neutral.
b. is always basic. d. might be acidic, basic, or neutral.
ANS: A
10. If [H 3 O+] of a solution is less than [OH–], the solution
a. is always acidic. c. is always neutral.
b. is always basic. d. might be acidic, basic, or neutral.
ANS: B
11. What is the pH of a neutral solution at 25°C?

a. 0 c. 7
b. 1 d. 14
ANS: C
12. The pH scale in general use ranges from

a. 0 to 1. c. 0 to 7.
b. –1 to 1. d. 0 to 14.
ANS: D
13. The pH of an acidic solution is

a. less than 0. c. greater than 7.
b. less than 7. d. greater than 14.
ANS: B
14. The pH of a basic solution is

a. less than 0. c. greater than 7.
b. less than 7. d. greater than 14.
ANS: C
15. A water solution whose pH is 4

a. is always neutral. c. is always acidic.
b. is always basic. d. might be neutral, basic, or acidic.
ANS: C

ANS: B

ANS: A
18. Which of the following liquids is basic?

a. lemons c. milk
b. vinegar d. tomatoes
ANS: C
19. Which of the following liquids is acidic?

a. seawater c. milk of magnesia
b. blood d. orange juice
ANS: D
20. To calculate the pH of a solution whose [OH–] is known, first calculate

a. [H 3 O+]. c. antilog[H 3 O+].
–
b. log[OH ]. d. [H 2 O]. ANS: A
21. What is the pH of a 10–4 M HCl solution?
a. 4 c. 8
b. 6 d. 10
ANS: A
Solution:
22. What is the pH of a 10–5 M KOH solution?

a. 3 c. 9
b. 5 d. 11
ANS: C
Solution:
23. If [H 3 O+] = 1.7 × 10–3 M, what is the pH of the solution?

a. 1.81 c. 2.42
b. 2.13 d. 2.77
ANS: D
Solution:
24. If [H 3 O+] = 8.26 × 10–5 M, what is the pH of the solution?

a. 2.161 c. 4.083
b. 3.912 d. 8.024
ANS: C
Solution:
25. What is the pH of a solution whose hydronium ion concentration is 5.03 × 10–1 M?
a. 0.2984 c. 1.542
b. 0.5133 d. 5.031
ANS: A
Solution:
26. What is the pH of a 0.027 M KOH solution?

a. 6.47 c. 12.92
b. 12.43 d. 14.11
ANS: B
Solution:
]
27. What is the pH of a 0.001 62 M NaOH solution?
a. 3.841 c. 9.923
b. 5.332 d. 11.210
ANS: D
Solution:
28. How would you classify KOH in the equation below?
a. a weak acid c. a weak base

b. a strong acid d. a strong base
ANS: D
29. How would you classify HCl, in the equation below?

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II REF: 1
OBJ: 4
30. How would you classify CH 3 COOH in the equation below?

ANS: A
31. How would you classify NH 3 in the equation below?

ANS: A
32. The common logarithm of a number, N, is the

a. inverse of N.
b. square root of N.
c. power to which N must be raised to equal 10.
d. power to which 10 must be raised to equal N.
ANS: D
33. The pH of a solution is 9.0. What is its H 3 O+ concentration?

a. 1 10-9 M c. 1 10-5 M
-7
b. 1 10 M d. 9 M
ANS: A
Solution:
34.What is the hydronium ion concentration of a solution whose pH is 4.12?
a. 4.4 × 10–8 M c. 6.4 × 10–5 M
b. 5.1 × 10 M –6
d. 7.6 × 10–5 M
ANS: D
Solution:
35. What is the hydronium ion concentration of a solution whose pH is 7.30?

a. 1.4 × 10–11 M c. 5.0 × 10–8 M
b. 3.8 × 10–8 M d. 7.1 × 10–6 M
ANS: C
Solution:
36. The pH of a solution is 10.00. What is its OH– concentration?

a. 1.0 × 10–10 M c. 1.0 × 10–4 M
b. 1.0 × 10 M
–7
d. 10 M
ANS: C
Solution:
37. What is the OH– concentration of a solution whose pH is 12.40?

a. 2.5 × 10–2 M c. 8.9 × 10–2 M
b. 4.4 × 10–-2 M d. 1.0 × 10–1 M
ANS: A
Solution:
38. The antilogarithm of a number, y, is

a. the inverse of y. c. y raised to the power of 10.
b. the square root of y. d. 10 raised to the power of y.
ANS: D
39. Dyes with pH-sensitive colors are used as

a. primary standards. c. titrants.
b. indicators. d. None of the above
ANS: B
40. The pH range over which an indicator changes color is its

a. equivalence point. c. transition interval.
b. end point. d. pH interval.
ANS: C
41. Indicators are classified into three types according to
a. their molar mass. c. their color.
b. their polarity. d. the pH at which they change color.
ANS: D
42. What is the transition interval for phenol red?

a. pH 3.1–4.4 c. pH 6.2–7.6
b. pH 6.4–8.0 d. pH 8.0–10.0
ANS: B
43. What is the transition interval for bromthymol blue?

a. pH 3.1–4.4 c. pH 6.2–7.6
b. pH 6.4–8.0 d. pH 8.0–10.0
ANS: C
44. What is the transition interval for phenolphthalein?

a. pH 3.1–4.4 c. pH 6.2–7.6
b. pH 6.4–8.0 d. pH 8.0–10.0
ANS: D
45. What is the transition interval for methyl orange?

a. pH 3.1–4.4 c. pH 6.2–7.6
b. pH 6.4–8.0 d. pH 8.0–10.0
ANS: A
46. Which indicator is used to study neutralizations of strong acids with strong bases?
a. phenolphthalein c. bromthymol blue
b. methyl orange d. None of the above
ANS: C
47. Which indicator is used to study neutralizations of weak acids with strong bases?
a. Phenolphthalein c. bromthymol blue
ANS: A
48. Which indicator is used to study neutralizations of strong acids with weak bases?
a. phenolphthalein c. bromthymol blue
ANS: B
49. What process measures the amount of a solution of known concentration required to react with a
measured amount of a solution of unknown concentration?
a. autoprotolysis c. neutralization
b. hydrolysis d. titration
ANS: D
50. In an acid-base titration,

a. base is always added to acid.
b. acid is always added to base.
c. base is added to acid or acid is added to base.
d. None of the above
ANS: C
51. An acid-base titration involves a
a. composition reaction. c. single-displacement reaction.
b. neutralization reaction. d. decomposition reaction.
ANS: B
52. Which quantity is directly measured in a titration?

a. mass c. volume
b. concentration d. density
ANS: C
53. An acid-base titration determines the volumes of two solutions that

a. are chemically equivalent. c. have equal mass.
b. have equal molarity. d. have equal molality.
ANS: A
54. What unknown quantity can be calculated after performing a titration?

a. volume c. mass
b. concentration d. density
ANS: B
55. An acid-base titration is carried out by monitoring

a. temperature. c. pressure.
b. pH. d. density.
ANS: B
56. In an acid-base titration, equivalent quantities of hydronium ions and hydroxide ions are present
a. at the beginning point. c. at the end point.
b. at the midpoint. d. throughout the titration.
ANS: C
57. During an acid-base titration, a very rapid change in pH

a. occurs when the first addition of the known solution is made.
b. occurs when the amounts of H 3 O+ ions and OH– ions are nearly equivalent.
c. occurs at several points during the titration.
d. does not occur during titration.
ANS: B
58. In an acid-base titration, the primary standard

a. is always a highly pure acid.
b. is always a highly pure base.
c. is either a highly pure acid or a highly pure base.
d. is neither an acid or a base.
ANS: C
59. A standard solution always contains

a. a known concentration of solute. c. a base.
b. an acid. d. a primary standard.
ANS: A
60. When titrating a strong acid with a strong base, the equivalence point
a. will be below a pH of 7.0. c. will be at a pH of 7.0.
b. will be above a pH of 7.0. d. will be either above or below a pH of 7.0.
ANS: C
61. When titrating a weak acid with a strong base, the equivalence point
a. will be below a pH of 7.0. c. will be at a pH of 7.0.
b. will be above a pH of 7.0. d. cannot be determined by pH.
ANS: B
62. What is the molarity of an HCl solution if 50.0 mL is neutralized in a titration by 40.0 mL of 0.400 M
NaOH?
a. 0.200 M c. 0.320 M
b. 0.280 M d. 0.500 M
ANS: C
Solution:
63. What is the molarity of an HCl solution if 125 mL is neutralized in a titration by 76.0 mL of 1.22 M
KOH?
a. 0.371 M c. 0.617 M
b. 0.455 M d. 0.742 M
ANS: D
Solution:
64. What is the molarity of an NaOH solution if 4.37 mL is titrated by 11.1 mL of 0.0904 M HNO 3 ?
a. 0.230 M c. 0.460 M
b. 0.355 M d. 0.620 M
ANS: A
Solution:
65. What is the molarity of an H 2 SO 4 solution if 49.0 mL is completely titrated by 68.4 mL of an NaOH
solution whose concentration is 0.333 M?
a. 0.116 M c. 0.465 M
b. 0.232 M d. 0.880 M
ANS: B
Solution:
66. Calculate the molarity of a Ba(OH) 2 solution if 1900 mL is completely titrated by 261 mL of 0.505 M
HNO 3 .
a. 0.0173 M c. 0.0322 M
b. 0.0254 M d. 0.0347 M
ANS: D
Solution:
67. If 72.1 mL of 0.543 M H 2 SO 4 completely titrates 39.0 mL of KOH solution, what is the molarity of
the KOH solution?
a. 0.317 M c. 1.00 M
b. 0.502 M d. 2.01 M
ANS: D
Solution:
68. If 114 mL of 0.008 04 M NaOH completely titrates 118 mL of H 3 PO 4 solution, what is the molarity of
the H 3 PO 4 solution?
a. 0.002 59 M c. 0.007 77 M
b. 0.005 18 M d. 0.0105 M
ANS: A
Solution:
69. What is the molarity of a Ba(OH) 2 solution if 93.9 mL is completely titrated by 15.3 mL of 0.247 M
H 2 SO 4 ?
a. 0.0101 M c. 0.0402 M
b. 0.0201 M d. 0.0805 M
ANS: C
Solution:
70.What is the molarity of an H 3 PO 4 solution if 358 mL is completely titrated by 876 mL of 0.0102 M
Ba(OH) 2 solution?
a. 0.0111 M c. 0.0250 M
b. 0.0166 M d. 0.0333 M
ANS: B
Solution:
COMPLETION
1. An acidic solution makes the color of litmus paper turn ________red____________.
2. A basic solution makes the color of litmus paper turn _________blue___________.
3. A substance that ionizes nearly completely in aqueous solutions and produces H 3 O+ ions is a strong
____________________.
ANS: acid
4. A substance that ionizes nearly completely in aqueous solutions and produces OH– ions is a strong
____________________.
ANS: base
5. The ____________________ of a solution is calculated by taking the negative of the common

logarithm of the hydroxide concentration.
ANS: pOH
6. During a titration, the volume of the titrant is measured with a(n) ____________________.
ANS: buret
SHORT ANSWER
1. What does the equation represent?
ANS: The equation represents the self-ionization of water.
2. Describe a method to visually detect the end point of a titration without the use of instrumentation.
ANS: An indicator dye that changes color at different pH values works well as a visual detection
method for titrations.
3. How can the equivalence point in a titration be detected by using a pH meter?
ANS: The equivalence point is detected by noting a shape change in the titration graph.
Use the graph below to answer the following questions.
4. What is the approximate volume of the titration standard added to reach the equivalence point, and
what is the pH of the solution at this point?
ANS: Approximately 23 mL of titration standard is added to reach the equivalence point.

The pH is about 5.0 at this point.
5. Is the unknown solution an acid or a base, and what is its relative strength (weak or strong)? Is the
titration standard an acid or base, and what is its relative strength?
ANS: The graph is an example of a weak base titrated with a strong acid.
6. Suggest an appropriate acid-base indicator that could be successfully used to conduct the acid-base
titration.
ANS: Methyl red, pH range 4.4–6.2, would be a good indicator to choose.
ESSAY
1. Do the terms strong and concentrated mean the same thing? Do the terms weak and dilute mean the
same thing? Explain your answers.
ANS: The terms concentrated and dilute refer to the amount of solute per unit of solvent. The terms
strong and weak refer to the degree of ionization. A solution containing a small amount of acid per unit
of solvent is dilute even if the acid is a strong acid (highly ionized). Alternatively, a solution
containing a large amount of acid per unit of solvent is concentrated even though the acid is a weak
acid (only slightly ionized).
2. When titrating an acid from a buret against a base in a flask, a student accidentally continues to add
acid after the equivalence point has been reached. What can be done, if anything, to obtain useful
results from this experiment?
ANS: The experiment can still produce useful results if a known volume of base is now added to the
flask in an amount that makes the solution basic. Then acid is added to reach a sharp end point. The
total volume of acid and base used in the titration should yield accurate results because, at the second
end point, exactly equivalent amounts of acid and base are present in the reaction flask.
3. Why is it important to choose an indicator that has an end point that closely matches the equivalence
point during a titration?
ANS: At the equivalence point of a titration there will be a quick change in the pH because the two
solutions are present in chemically equivalent amounts. If an indicator has an end point at a similar pH
value as the equivalence point, the indicator will turn color when the volume of the titrant contains a
chemically equivalent amount as the volume of the solution of unknown concentration.
PROBLEM
1. What is the pH of a solution that has a hydronium ion concentration of 8.26 10–5 M?
ANS: 4.083
Solution:
2. What is the pH of a solution with a [OH–] of 3.31 10–7 M?
ANS: 7.520
Solution:
3. What is the pH of a 0.004 50 M HCl solution?
ANS: 2.347
Solution:
4. What is the pH of a 0.067 0 M KOH solution?
ANS: 12.826
Solution:
5. What is the hydronium ion concentration of a solution that has a pH of 4.120?
ANS: 7.59 10–9

Solution
6. What is the hydroxide ion concentration of a solution that has a pH of 8.570?

ANS: 3.72 10–6 M Solution:
7. What is the hydroxide ion concentration of a solution that has a pOH of 8.750?
ANS: 1.78 10–9 M

Solution:
8. What is the hydronium ion concentration of a solution that has a pOH of 4.120?
ANS: 1.32 10–10 M

Solution:
9. What is the molarity of an HCl solution if 49.0 mL is completely titrated by 68.4 mL of an NaOH
solution whose concentration is 0.333 M?
ANS: 0.465 M
Solution:
10. Calculate the molarity of a Ba(OH) 2 solution if 1950 mL is completely titrated by 26.1 mL of 0.505 M
HNO 3 .
ANS: 3.38 10–3 M

Solution:
11. A 20.0 mL sample of potassium hydroxide (KOH) solution is titrated to the equivalence point with
23.5 mL of 0.350 M hydrobromic acid (HBr) solution. What is the molarity of the potassium
hydroxide solution?
ANS: 0.411 M
Solution:
12. A 30.0 mL sample of an aqueous ammonia (NH 3 ) solution is titrated to the equivalence point with
53.93 mL of 0.400 M sulfuric acid (H 2 SO 4 ) solution. What is the molarity of the aqueous ammonia
solution?
ANS: 1.44 M
Solution:
13. A 25.0 mL sample of an aqueous solution of calcium hydroxide, Ca(OH) 2 , is titrated to the
equivalence point with 21.2 mL of 0.620 M sulfuric acid, H 2 SO 4 , acid solution. What is the molarity
of the calcium hydroxide solution?
ANS: 0.526 M
Solution:
14. What volume of 4.35 M HCl solution would be required to reach the equivalence point with 0.285 mol
Mg(OH) 2 dissolved in some deionized water?
ANS: 131 mL
Solution:
15. What volume of 4.494 M H 2 SO 4 solution would be required to reach the equivalence point with
7.2280 g LiOH dissolved in some deionized water?
ANS: 0.033 58 L or 33.58 mL

Solution:
Chapter 5—Reaction Energy
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following is a measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles in a sample of
matter?
a. chemical kinetics c. reaction rate
b. thermochemistry d. temperature
ANS: D
2. Which of the following best describes temperature?

a. energy as heat absorbed or released in a chemical or physical change
b. a measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles in a sample of matter
c. energy in the form of heat
d. energy of change
ANS: B
3. In what units is temperature measured?

a. degrees Celsius c. Both (a) and (b)
b. kelvins d. None of the above
ANS: C
4. How is a Celsius temperature reading converted to a Kelvin temperature reading?

a. by adding 273.15 c. by dividing by 273.15
b. by subtracting 273.15 d. by multiplying by 273.15
ANS: C
5. The greater the average kinetic energy of the particles in a sample of matter,
a. the higher the temperature is.
b. the lower the temperature is.
c. the more energy is absorbed by the sample in the form of heat.
d. the less energy is released by the sample in the form of heat.
ANS: A
6. In a calorimeter, the energy content of a substance is calculated from measurement of the temperature
change in a known mass of
a. iron. c. water.
b. air. d. steel.
ANS: C
7. Energy absorbed or released as heat in a chemical or physical change is measured by a(n)

a. thermometer. c. incubator.
b. scale. d. calorimeter.
ANS: D
8. Energy is measured in units of

a. grams. c. pounds.
b. joules. d. kelvin.
ANS: C
9. What units are used to measure energy as heat?

a. joules/mole or kilojoules/mole c. joules or kilojoules
b. kelvins or degrees Celsius d. None of the above ANS: C
10. The energy transferred between samples of matter because of a difference in their temperatures is
called
a. heat. c. chemical kinetics.
b. thermochemistry. d. temperature.
ANS: A
11. Which of the following best describes energy in the form of heat?
a. the energy transferred between samples of matter because of a difference in their
temperatures
b. a measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles in a sample of matter
c. the energy stored in a sample of matter
d. bond energy
ANS: A
12. What is the energy required to raise the temperature of 1 g of a substance by 1°C or 1 K?
a. specific heat c. heat capacity
b. heat energy d. enthalpy of formation
ANS: A
13. What units are used to measure specific heat?

a. J/(g·°C) c. cal/(g·°C)
b. J/(g·K) d. All of the above
ANS: D
14. Which expression defines specific heat?
a.
b.
c.
d.
ANS: B
15. If a piece of aluminum is heated from 30.0 C to 50.0 C, what is the value of ?
a. 0.0K
b. 20.0K
c. 293.0K
d. Cannot be determined from the information given
ANS: B
16. The q in thermodynamic equations is

a. temperature. c. specific heat.
b. mass. d. energy lost or gained.
ANS: D
17.A 4.0 g sample of iron was heated from 0°C to 20.°C. It absorbed 35.2 J of energy as heat. What is the
specific heat of this piece of iron?
a. 2816 J/(g·°C) c. 2.27 J/g
b. 2.27 J/(g·°C) d. 0.44 J/(g·°C)
ANS: D
Solution:
18. How much energy does a copper sample absorb as energy in the form of heat if its specific heat is
0.384 J/(g·°C), its mass is 8.00 g, and it is heated from 10.0°C to 40.0°C?
a. 0.0016 J/(g·°C) c. 92.2 J
b. 0.0016 J d. 92.2 J/(g·°C)
ANS: C
Solution:
19. Find the specific heat of a material if a 6.0 g sample absorbs 50. J when it is heated from 30°C to
50°C.
a. 0.60 J c. 0.42 J
b. 0.60 J/(g·°C) d. 0.42 J/(g·°C)
ANS: D
Solution:
20. How much energy is absorbed as heat by 20. g of gold when it is heated from 25°C to 35°C? The
specific heat of gold is 0.13 J/g·°C.
a. 26 J c. 0.0006 J
b. 26 J/(g·°C) d. 0.0006 J/(g·°C)
ANS: A
Solution:
21. A 5.0 g sample of silver is heated from 0°C to 35°C and absorbs 42 J of energy as heat. What is the
specific heat of silver?
a. 0.24 J c. 0.74 J
b. 0.24 J/(g·°C) d. 0.74 J(g·°C)
ANS: B
Solution:
22. Enthalpy change is the

a. pressure change of a system at constant temperature.
b. entropy change of a system at constant pressure.
c. temperature change of a system at constant pressure.
d. amount of energy absorbed or lost by a system as energy is the form of heat during a
process at constant pressure.
ANS: D
23. The quantity of energy released or absorbed as heat during a chemical reaction is called the
a. temperature. c. entropy.
b. enthalpy of reaction. d. free energy.
ANS: B
24. The Greek letter ∆ stands for
a. "heat stored in." c. "rate of."
b. "mass of." d. "change in."
ANS: D
25. What is the difference between the enthalpies of the products and the reactants?
a. ∆S c. ∆H
b. ∆G d. H
ANS: C
26. An equation that includes the quantity of energy released or absorbed as energy in the form of heat
during the reaction is a(n)
a. kinetic equation. c. thermochemical equation.
b. energetic equation. d. temperature equation.
ANS: A
27. Which of the equations below is an example of a thermochemical equation?

a.
b.
c.
d.
ANS: D
28. For an exothermic reaction, is always

a. positive. c. zero.
b. negative. d. small.
ANS: B
29. In an endothermic reaction, the total energy at the beginning of the reaction is
a. greater than the total energy at the end of the reaction.
b. less than the total energy at the end of the reaction.
c. equal to the total energy at the end of the reaction.
ANS: B
30. For an exothermic reaction, the products

a. are at the same energy level as the reactants.
b. have no energy.
c. are at a lower energy level than the reactants.
d. are at a higher energy level than the reactants.
ANS: C
31. is always positive for a

a. spontaneous reaction. c. exothermic reaction.
b. nonspontaneous reaction. d. endothermic reaction.
ANS: D
32.The coefficients in a balanced thermochemical equation represent
a. the number of moles of reactants and products.
b. the number of atoms of reactants and products.
c. the grams of reactants and products.
d. the temperature of reactants and products.
ANS: A
33. The change in energy represented by a thermochemical equation is always

a. equal to the number of moles of substances undergoing a change.
b. directly proportional to the number of moles of substances undergoing a change.
c. indirectly proportional to the number of moles of substances undergoing a change.
d. less than the number of moles of substances undergoing a change.
ANS: B
34. What is the energy released or absorbed as heat when one mole of a compound is produced by
combination of its elements?
a. enthalpy of formation c. free energy
b. enthalpy of combustion d. entropy
ANS: A
35. Compounds whose enthalpies of formation are highly negative

a. do not exist. c. are somewhat stable.
b. are very unstable. d. are very stable.
ANS: D
36. A compound that is very unstable and likely to decompose violently would have a
a. small negative enthalpy of formation.
b. small positive enthalpy of formation.
c. large negative enthalpy of formation.
d. large positive enthalpy of formation.
ANS: D
37. ∆H =
a. c.
b. d.
ANS: C
38. The energy absorbed or released during a reaction in which a substance is produced is called the
a. calorie change. c. energy as heat.
b. standard condition. d. enthalpy of formation.
ANS: D
39. The enthalpy of formation of an element is

a. negative.
b. positive.
c. zero.
d. negative or positive, depending on which element.
ANS: C
40.Combustion reactions are always defined in terms of
a. one mole of product.
b. one mole of reactant.
c. one mole of water.
d. one mole of an element in its standard state.
ANS: B
41. Suppose that a chemical equation can be written as the sum of two other chemical equations. If two
reactions have values of –658 kJ and +458 kJ, what is for the reaction that is their sum?
a. –1116 kJ c. +200 kJ
b. –200 kJ d. +1116 kJ
ANS: B
42. Suppose reaction A has a of –200 kJ and reaction B has a of –100 kJ. If reaction C can be
written as the sum of reaction A forward and reaction B reversed, what is for reaction C?
a. –300 kJ c. +300 kJ
b. –100 kJ d. +100 kJ
ANS: B
43. The total enthalpy of the products in a reaction is 0 kJ, and the total enthalpy of the reactants is 100 kJ.
What is ∆H for the reaction?
a. –393.5 kJ c. 0 kJ
b. –100 kJ d. +100 kJ
ANS: B
44. The enthalpy of formation of compound X is –612 kJ/mol, and the sole product of its combustion has a
enthalpy of formation of –671 kJ/mol. What is the enthalpy of combustion of compound X?
a. –59 kJ/mol c. +40 kJ/mol
b. –40 kJ/mol d. +59 kJ/mol
ANS: A
45. The enthalpy of a reaction for a chemical change can be determined by

a. multiplying the total enthalpies of the products and reactants.
b. subtracting the total enthalpies of the reactants from that of the products.
c. subtracting the total enthalpy of the products from that of the reactants.
d. adding the total enthalpies of the products and reactants.
ANS: D
Use the tables below to answer the following questions.
Enthalpies of Formation (kJ/mol) Enthalpies of Combustion (kJ/mol)

Substance Formula ∆H0 f Substance Formula ∆H0 c
ammonia(s) NH 3 –45.9 hydrogen(g) H2 –285.8
barium nitrate(s) Ba(NO 3 ) 2 –992.1 carbon (graphite)(s) C –393.5
benzene(l) C6H6 +49.1 carbon monoxide (g) CO –283.0
calcium chloride(s) CaCl 2 –795.4 methane (g) CH 4 –890.8
carbon (diamond) (s) C +1.9 ethane(g) C2H6 –1560.7
carbon (graphite)(s) C 0.0 propane(g) C3H8 –2219.2
carbon dioxide(g) CO 2 –393.5 butane(g) C 4 H 10 –2877.6
copper(II) sulfate(s) CuSO 4 –771.4 pentane(g) C 5 H 12 –3535.6
ethyne (acetylene)(g) C2H2 +228.2 hexane(l) C 6 H 14 –4163.2
hydrogen chloride(g) HCl –92.3 heptane(l) C 7 H 16 –4817.0
water(l) H2O –285.8 octane(l) C 8 H 18 –5470.5
nitrogen dioxide(g) NO 2 +33.2 ethene (ethylene)(g) C2H4 –1411.2
ozone(g) O3 +142.7 propene (propylene)(g) C3H6 –2058.0
sodium chloride(s) NaCl –385.9 ethyne (acetylene)(g) C2H2 –1301.1
sulfur dioxide(g) SO 2 –296.8 benzene(l) C6H6 –3267.6
zinc sulfate(s) ZnSO 4 –980.1 toluene(l) C7H8 –3910.3
46. What is the enthalpy of combustion of 1 mol of sulfur to form SO 2 ?

a. –593.6 kJ/mol c. 0 kJ/mol
b. –296.8 kJ/mol d. +296.8 kJ/mol
ANS: B
47. What is the enthalpy of formation of hexane, C 6 H 14 ?

a. –198.4 kJ/mol c. +67.1 kJ/mol
b. –67.1 kJ/mol d. +198.4 kJ/mol
ANS: A
Solution:
48. What is the enthalpy of formation of ethane, C 2 H 6 ?

a. –870.7 kJ/mol c. +83.7 kJ/mol
b. –83.7 kJ/mol d. +870.7 kJ/mol
ANS: B Solution :
49. What is the enthalpy for a two-step reaction, given for the two steps are +206 kJ and -136 kJ,
respectively?
a. +342 kJ c. +70 kJ
b. –342 kJ d. –70 kJ
ANS: C
50. Two factors that determine whether a reaction will occur spontaneously are the change in energy of a
reaction system and
a. the pressure in the system.
b. the concentration of the reactants in the system.
c. the randomness of the particles in the system.
d. the quickness of the reaction. ANS: C
51. The driving force of a reaction depends mostly on the change in
a. state or phase. c. entropy.
b. enthalpy. d. product type.
ANS: B
52. The majority of spontaneous chemical reactions in nature are

a. free-energy reactions. c. endothermic.
b. positive enthalpic reactions. d. exothermic.
ANS: D
53. Ice melting is an example of a(n)

a. exothermic reaction. c. endothermic reaction.
b. negative entropic reactions. d. catalysed reaction.
ANS: B
54. A system that changes spontaneously without an enthalpy change

a. is impossible. c. becomes more random.
b. becomes more ordered. d. releases energy in the form of heat.
ANS: C
55. Spontaneous reactions are driven by

a. decreasing enthalpy and decreasing entropy.
b. decreasing enthalpy and increasing entropy.
c. increasing enthalpy and decreasing entropy.
d. increasing enthalpy and increasing entropy.
ANS: B
56. As ice melts, the water molecules

a. go from a well-ordered phase to a less-ordered phase.
b. go from a less-ordered phase to a more-ordered phase.
c. stay ordered the same as in ice.
ANS: A
57. Compared with a single gas, a mixture of gases is

a. more random. c. equally random.
b. less random. d. less favorable.
ANS: A
58. The entropy of a system is reported in units of

a. kJ. c. kJ/mol.
b. kJ/(g·K). d. kJ/(mol·K).
ANS: D
59. Why do gases naturally mix with each other when combined?
a. The enthalpy change is favorable.
b. The entropy change is favorable.
c. Neither enthalpy or entropy is favorable.
d. The change in partial pressures is favorable.
ANS: B
60. Which of the following is a measure of the randomness in a system?
a. entropy c. free energy
b. enthalpy d. temperature
ANS: A
61. Entropy always increases as

a. the temperature of the system increases.
b. the temperature of the system decreases.
c. the enthalpy of the system decreases.
d. a chemical reaction proceeds.
ANS: A
62. Entropy in a system increases when

a. gases are diluted.
b. ions disperse in a solution.
c. the total moles of gaseous product exceed the total moles of gaseous reactant.
d. All of the above
ANS: D
63. As a general rule, the entropy of a solid is

a. less than that of a liquid. c. more than that of a gas.
b. more than that of a liquid. d. zero.
ANS: A
64. If a process increases entropy, the process

a. is always spontaneous. c. is likely to be spontaneous.
b. is never spontaneous. d. is not likely to be spontaneous.
ANS: C
65. What is the symbol for entropy?

a. T c. G
b. H d. S
ANS: D
66. What hinders nonspontaneous reactions?

a. decreasing enthalpy and decreasing entropy
b. decreasing enthalpy and increasing entropy
c. increasing enthalpy and decreasing entropy
d. increasing enthalpy and increasing entropy
ANS: C
67. What does ∆S stand for?

a. enthalpy change c. entropy change
b. free-energy change d. temperature change
ANS: C
68. As a solution becomes more dilute,

a. entropy increases. c. enthalpy increases.
b. entropy decreases. d. enthalpy decreases.
ANS: A
69.Which of the following substances has the highest entropy?
a. steam c. liquid water
b. ice water d. crushed ice
ANS: A
70. Which of the following systems has the lowest entropy?

a. salt dissolved in a container of water c. oil floating in a container of water
b. sand mixed in a container of water d. a container of frozen water
ANS: D
71. Entropy decreases when

a. pressure decreases. c. the system is agitated.
b. temperature decreases. d. temperature increases.
ANS: B
72. Which of the following has the highest entropy when produced in a reaction?
a. a solid c. a gas
b. a liquid d. an aqueous solution
ANS: C
73. The driving force of a reaction is the change in

a. free energy. c. enthalpy.
b. entropy. d. temperature.
ANS: A
74. What is the symbol for free-energy change?

a. ∆S c. ∆G
b. ∆H d. ∆T
ANS: C
75. Which of the following can be measured only as a change in?

a. temperature c. mass
b. free energy d. entropy
ANS: B
76. Free-energy change depends on

a. change of entropy only.
b. temperature only.
c. change of enthalpy only.
d. temperature and changes of entropy and enthalpy.
ANS: D
77. The units for are

a. J/(mol·K). c. J/(mol·C).
b. joules. d. J/mol.
ANS: D
78. The enthalpy change that favors a spontaneous reaction

a. is a large negative change.
b. is a large positive change.
c. is a change equal to zero.
d. cannot be determined from the information given.
ANS: A
79. Which expression defines the change in free energy?
a. ∆H + T∆G c. ∆H – T∆S
b. ∆H + T∆S d. ∆S – T∆H
ANS: C
80. In calculations, temperature is expressed in

a. degrees Celsius. c. degrees Fahrenheit.
b. kelvins. d. kilojoules.
ANS: B
81. A reaction is spontaneous if is

a. zero. c. positive.
b. negative. d. greater than ∆H.
ANS: B
82. Spontaneity is favored by large positive values of

a. c.
b. d. absolute temperature.
ANS: C
83. Which affects the Gibbs free energy of a reaction?

a. entropy c. temperature
b. enthalpy d. All of the above
ANS: A
84. What is the value of at 300 K for a reaction in which = –150 kJ/mol and
= +2.00 kJ/mol·K?
ANS: A
Solution:
85. What quantity predicts whether a reaction is spontaneous?

a. enthalpy c. temperature
b. free energy d. entropy
ANS: B
86. What is the value of at 200 K for a reaction in which = –150 kJ/mol and = +2.00
kJ/(mol·K)?
ANS: B
Solution:
87.For a process in which is –298 kJ and is 100 J/k, calculate the change in the free energy at 0°C.
a. –298 kJ c. –198 kJ
b. –325 kJ d. –271 kJ
ANS: B
Solution:
SHORT ANSWER
1. How can a calorimeter measure energy?
ANS: When energy is released or absorbed inside the chamber of a calorimeter, the temperature of
the water surrounding the chamber changes. The change in energy as heat can be calculated by
multiplying the mass of the water by the temperature change and by the specific heat of water.
2. Explain the difference between energy as heat and temperature.
ANS: Energy as heat is energy that is transferred between objects. Temperature is a measure of the
average kinetic energy of all the particles of a substance.
3. How can an iceberg (temperature= 0°C) have more energy than a burning match head
(temperature=230°C)?
ANS: The iceberg has more energy because the iceberg is larger than the match.
4. How can ∆H be treated like other values in a stoichiometry problem even though it is not a physical
product?
ANS: ∆H is the energy that is released in a reaction, and it is proportional to the reactants. These
proportions can be used as conversion factors in stoichiometry.
5. How is a change in free energy related to changes in enthalpy and entropy?
ANS: The change in free energy is the difference between the change in enthalpy and the product of
the Kelvin temperature and the entropy change. This relationship can be stated mathematically as
6. Explain the enthalpy change for a chemical reaction in terms of the enthalpies of its products and
reactants.
ANS: The enthalpy change for a reaction equals the total enthalpy of the products minus the total
enthalpy of the reactants.
7. How can an endothermic reaction like photosynthesis occur spontaneously?
ANS: Generally, exothermic reactions are favored over endothermic reactions, but some endothermic
reactions can occur if a sufficient source of energy is available to overcome the activation energy.
Photosynthesis gains this energy from sunlight.
8. Describe how the driving forces of enthalpy or entropy determine the spontaneity of a chemical
change.
ANS: A spontaneous change generally involves a decrease in enthalpy. An increase in entropy often
accompanies a spontaneous change. When only one of these conditions is true, spontaneity is
determined by the equation
ESSAY
1. How does temperature affect the free energy of a reaction?
ANS: The formula shows that part of the energy change of a reaction is proportional
to the temperature. Therefore, at higher temperatures, the contribution of the entropy change is more
important in determining the free energy. At lower temperatures, the enthalpy change has more
influence on the free energy.
2. How does the free-energy equation predict the progress of a chemical reaction?
ANS: The equation shows that the free energy of a reaction depends on the
enthalpy change, the entropy change, and the temperature of a reaction. If is negative, the change
is spontaneous. If is positive, the change will not occur spontaneously. If is zero, neither the
forward nor the reverse reaction is favored, so the result is a mixture of reactants and products.
PROBLEM
1. What is the molar change in enthalpy when 100 g of ice is heated from –18.2°C to –72°C? (c p = 37.4
J/K·mol)
ANS:
Solution:
2. Use the information below to calculate the change in enthalpy for the reaction represented by the
equation
Reaction ∆H
44.0 kJ
241.8 kJ
ANS:
Solution:
3. Use the information below to determine ∆H for the reaction represented by the equation
.
Substance
Cu 2 S –79.5
S 0
CuS –53.1
ANS:
Solution:
4. Determine the entropy change for the displacement reaction represented by the following equation.
Substance (J/K mol)

Cl 2 (g) 223.066
PbBr 2 (aq) 182.7
PbCl 2 (aq) 131.3
Br 2 (l) 152.231
ANS:
5. The ∆S for a reaction is 3.0 J/(mol·K) at 25°C. Calculate the ∆G for the reaction when ∆H = –394 kJ
and determine whether it will occur spontaneously at this temperature.
ANS: ∆G is –395 kJ. It will occur spontaneously at 25°C.

Chapter 6—Reaction Kinetics
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The equation H 2 (g) + I 2 (g) 2HI(g) is a(n)

a. overall reaction. c. reaction pathway.
b. reaction mechanism. d. intermediate reaction.
ANS: A
2. What is the sequence of steps in a reaction called?

a. heterogeneous reaction c. overall reaction
b. rate law d. reaction mechanism
ANS: D
3. Examining a chemical system before and after a reaction reveals the

a. net chemical change. c. intermediates.
b. reaction mechanism. d. activated complex.
ANS: A
4. Most steps in a reaction mechanism

a. are complicated. c. are easily observable.
b. involve several molecules. d. are simple.
ANS: D
5. Species that appear in some steps but do not appear in the net equation are
a. reactants. c. activated complexes.
b. products. d. intermediates.
ANS: D
6. In the reaction represented by the following equation, a possible intermediate is H 2 (g) + I 2 (g)
2HI(g)
a. H 2 . c. H 2 I.
b. HI. d. I 2 .
ANS: C
7. Reactions whose reactants and products exist in a single phase are called
a. reaction mechanisms. c. homogeneous reactions.
b. heterogeneous reactions. d. activated complexes.
ANS: C
8. What is the overall equation for the formation of hydrogen iodide from its elements?
a.
b.
c.
d.
ANS: B
9.What is the initial step in the formation of hydrogen iodide from its elements?
a.
b.
c.
d.
ANS: C
10. Which of the following is not a step in the formation of hydrogen iodide from its elements?
a.
b.
c.
d.
ANS: D
11. How many steps are in the pathway when hydrogen iodide forms from its elements?
a. one c. four or five
b. two or three d. five or six
ANS: B
12. A homogeneous reaction is one in which the

a. reactants and products are in the same phase.
b. reactants and products are in a different phase.
c. activated complex and intermediates are in a different phase.
d. one reactant is in a solid phase and another reactant is in a liquid phase.
ANS: A
13. To react, gas particles must

a. be in the same physical state. c. have different energies.
b. have the same energy. d. collide.
ANS: D
14. To be effective, a collision requires

a. sufficient energy.
b. a favorable orientation.
c. sufficient energy and a favorable orientation.
d. a reaction mechanism.
ANS: C
15. If colliding molecules have an orientation that favors reaction, they have
a. the correct angles and distances between atoms.
b. sufficient energy for each molecule.
c. speeds that are neither too fast nor too slow.
d. entropy values in the proper range.
ANS: A
16. Which attempts to explain chemical reactions and physical interactions of molecules?
a. chemical kinetics c. thermodynamics
b. collision theory d. thermochemistry
ANS: B
17. Raising the temperature of gas particles
a. increases both collision energy and favorability of orientation.
b. increases neither collision energy nor favorability of orientation.
c. increases collision energy but does not increase favorability of orientation.
d. increases favorability of orientation but does not increase collision energy.
ANS: C
18. If a collision between molecules is very gentle, the molecules are

a. more likely to be favorably oriented.
b. less likely to be favorably oriented.
c. more likely to react.
d. more likely to rebound without reacting.
ANS: D
19. The minimum energy required for an effective collision is called

a. energy of enthalpy. c. free energy.
b. activation energy. d. kinetic energy.
ANS: B
20. A short-lived structure formed during a collision is a(n)

a. reagent. c. activated complex.
b. catalyst. d. inhibitor.
ANS: C
21. How does the energy of the activated complex compare with the energies of reactants and products?
a. It is lower than the energy of both reactants and products.
b. It is lower than the energy of reactants but higher than the energy of products.
c. It is higher than the energy of reactants but lower than the energy of products.
d. It is higher than the energy of both reactants and products.
ANS: D
22. Activation energy is

a. the energy required to form the activated complex.
b. the net energy required to turn reactants into products.
c. the enthalpy of reaction.
d. free energy.
ANS: A
23. The bonding of the activated complex is characteristic of

a. reactants only. c. both reactants and products.
b. products only. d. solids only.
ANS: C
24. In an energy-profile graph, the activated complex is represented at the

a. left end of the curve. c. bottom of the curve.
b. right end of the curve. d. top of the curve.
ANS: D
25. An activated complex

a. always separates into the products.
b. always re-forms the reactants.
c. may either separate into the products or re-form the reactants.
d. always evaporates. ANS:C
26. In a diagram of an activated complex, broken lines represent
a. actual bonds. c. electrons.
b. partial bonds. d. bond energies.
ANS: B
27. What takes place in an activated complex?

a. Bonds form.
b. Bonds break.
c. Some bonds form and other bonds break.
d. A catalyst is produced.
ANS: C
28. Raising the temperature of reactants in a system

a. increases the average kinetic energy of the molecules.
b. decreases the average kinetic energy of the molecules.
c. decreases the rate of collision of molecules.
d. has no effect on the average kinetic energy of molecules.
ANS: A
29. Raising the temperature of reactants in a system

a. increases the average molecular motion.
b. decreases the average molecular motion.
c. has no effect on the average molecular motion.
d. disturbs the system so that the collision theory no longer applies.
ANS: A
30. If a collision between molecules is oriented properly, the molecules are

a. more likely to react. c. less likely to form an intermediate.
b. more likely to rebound without d. less likely to react.
interacting.
ANS: A
31. What is the name of the energy needed to lift reactants from the energy trough?
a. free energy c. kinetic energy
b. activation energy d. energy of reaction
ANS: B
32. Which statement correctly describes the energy changes that occur when bonds form and when bonds
break?
a. Breaking bonds is endothermic, and forming bonds is exothermic.
b. Breaking bonds is exothermic, and forming bonds is endothermic.
c. Both are exothermic.
d. Both are endothermic.
ANS: A
33. is positive for

a. an endothermic reaction. c. an inhibited reaction.
b. an exothermic reaction. d. a stable reaction.
ANS: A
34. Which term has the same numerical value for the forward reaction as it has for the reverse reaction but
with opposite sign?
a. ∆E c. E a ´
b. d. E a
ANS: A
35. The energy change, , for a reaction is the energy difference between the
a. product and the intermediate. c. product and the activated complex.
b. product and the reactant. d. reactant and the intermediate.
ANS: B
36. The activation energy for a reaction is the energy difference between the
a. product and the intermediate. c. reactant and the activated complex.
b. product and the reactant. d. reactant and the intermediate.
ANS: C
37. Which of the following is true in an endothermic reaction?

a. energy of products < activation energy < energy of reactants
b. energy of reactants < activation energy < energy of products
c. energy of products < energy of reactants < activation energy
d. energy of reactants < energy of products < activation energy
ANS: D
38. Which of the following is true in an exothermic reaction?

a. energy of products < activation energy < energy of reactants
b. energy of reactants < activation energy < energy of products
c. energy of products < energy of reactants < activation energy
d. energy of reactants < energy of products < activation energy
ANS: C
39. Which branch of chemistry studies reaction rates?

a. thermochemistry c. chemical kinetics
b. thermodynamics d. calorimetry
ANS: C
40. Which branch of chemistry studies reaction mechanisms?

a. thermochemistry c. chemical kinetics
b. thermodynamics d. calorimetry
ANS: C
41. The usual condition for reaction, a favorable orientation, is not necessary for
a. synthesis reactions. c. single-displacement reactions.
b. decomposition reactions. d. double-displacement reactions.
ANS: B
42. Chemical kinetics studies

a. the factors that affect the rate of reaction.
b. the mathematical expressions for the rate of reaction.
c. the factors that affect the rate of reaction and the mathematical expressions for the rate of
reaction.
d. the effect of quantum kinetics on chemical reactions.
ANS: C
43. The study of chemical kinetics requires concentrations that are measured
a. once. c. using a scale.
b. in meters/second. d. frequently.
ANS: D
44. For most reactions, particles must

a. collide. c. be at rest.
b. be properly oriented. d. collide in the proper orientation.
ANS: D
45. How fast something changes with time is a(n)

a. area. c. order.
b. rate. d. collision.
ANS: B
46. Reaction rate depends upon

a. both collision frequency and efficiency.
b. average kinetic energy.
c. collision efficiency.
d. average potential energy.
ANS: A
47. Which of the following affects reaction rate?

a. the nature of reactants c. temperature
b. surface area of reactants d. All of the above
ANS: D
48. The decrease in reactant concentration per unit time in a reaction is a measure of the
a. reaction rate. c. overall reaction.
b. heterogeneous reaction. d. reaction mechanism.
ANS: A
49. Which substance naturally combines most rapidly with oxygen?

a. platinum c. iron
b. sodium d. coal
ANS: B
50. Which of the following burns most slowly?

a. a large lump of coal c. powdered coal
b. small pieces of coal d. All of these burn at the same rate.
ANS: A
51. If the surface area of reactants is larger,

a. the reaction rate is generally higher. c. the reaction rate is not affected.
b. the reaction rate is generally lower. d. the rate-determining step is eliminated.
ANS: A
52. In heterogeneous reactions, the reactants

a. have unequal masses. c. have unequal volumes.
b. are not equally reactive. d. are in different phases.
ANS: D
53. If the concentration of reactants is higher,
ANS: A
54. If the temperature of the reactants is lower,

ANS: B
55. A sample of a substance burns more rapidly in pure oxygen than in air. Which factor is most
responsible for this high rate of reaction?
a. the pressure of the reactants c. concentration of the reactants
b. temperature d. surface area exposed to air
ANS: C
56. Changing the temperature affects the rate of reaction because it affects
a. the energy of the activated complex.
b. the properties of the reactants.
c. the enthalpy of reaction.
d. the frequency of collision and the number of effective collisions.
ANS: D
57. Changing the pressure of a gas is another way of changing its

a. temperature. c. surface area.
b. concentration. d. composition.
ANS: A
58. Doubling the pressure of a gas

a. increases the concentration by a factor of two.
b. reduces the concentration by a factor of two.
c. doesn't affect the concentration.
d. reduces the concentration by a factor of four.
ANS: A
59. The decrease in reactant concentration per unit time in a reaction is a measure of the
a. heterogeneous reaction. c. overall reaction.
b. reaction rate. d. reaction mechanism.
ANS: B
60. Which process is used to speed up chemical reactions?

a. calorimetry c. activation
b. catalysis d. inhibition
ANS: B
61. Which term describes a catalyst in the same phase as the reactants and products?
a. homogenous c. activated
b. heterogeneous d. inhibited
ANS: A
62. Adsorption of reactants on the surface of a metal catalyst changes the reaction rate by affecting the
a. concentration of the reactants. c. properties of the reactants.
b. temperature of the system. d. surface area of the reactants. ANS: A
63. Catalysts generally affect chemical reactions by
a. increasing the temperature of the system.
b. increasing the surface area of the reactants.
c. providing an alternate pathway with a lower activation energy.
d. providing an alternate pathway with a higher activation energy.
ANS: C
64. Enzymes are

a. heterogeneous in nature. c. zero order in a rate expression.
b. consumed by the reaction. d. specific for both reactions and reactants.
ANS: C
65. A substance that slows down chemical processes is called a(n)

a. inhibitor. c. catalyst.
b. reactant. d. indicator.
ANS: A
66. Catalysts generally affect chemical reactions by

a. increasing the temperature of the system.
b. increasing the surface area of the reactants.
c. providing an alternate pathway with a lower activation energy.
d. providing an alternate pathway with a higher activation energy.
ANS: C
67. How is a heterogeneous catalyst different from the reactants in a chemical reaction?
a. The mass of the catalyst is different.
b. The chemical properties of the catalyst are different.
c. The energy of the catalyst is different.
d. The phase of the catalyst is different.
ANS: D
68. In a net equation, catalysts

a. are shown with the reactants.
b. are shown with the products.
c. are shown with both reactants and products.
d. are not shown.
ANS: D
69. For a cost-sensitive reaction, catalysts can be

a. thrown away. c. regenerated and reused.
b. used as reaction inhibitors. d. used as reaction indicators.
ANS: C
70. A rate law relates

a. reaction rate and temperature.
b. reaction rate and concentrations of reactants.
c. temperature and concentrations of reactants.
d. energy and concentrations of reactants.
ANS: B
71. The letter k in a rate law stands for

a. a proportionality constant. c. temperature.
b. concentration. d. reaction rate. ANS: A
72. The letter R in a rate law stands for
b. concentration. d. reaction rate.
ANS: D
73. The value of k in a rate law

a. is the same under all conditions. c. varies with time.
b. varies with concentration. d. varies with temperature.
ANS: D
74. How are the units for a rate always expressed?

a.
b.
c.
d.
ANS: A
75. The letter n in a rate law stands for

b. concentration. d. reaction rate.
ANS: D
76. A reaction order is found by comparing the concentration ratio with the
a. rate ratio. c. temperature ratio.
b. time ratio. d. pressure ratio.
ANS: A
77. According to the rate law, the rate of a reaction and the concentration of reactants are always
a. equal. c. negative.
b. proportional. d. unable to be determined.
ANS: B
78. In the rate law for the following equation, R=k[A]n[B]m, the units for [A] and [B] are
a. g-1s-1. c. M.
b. M-1s-1. d. Ms-1.
ANS: C
79. In the rate law for the following equation, R=k[A]n[B]m, the unit for R is
a. g-1s-1. c. M.
b. M-1s-1. d. Ms-1.
ANS: D
80. Rate laws are determined by

a. studying reaction mechanisms.
b. calculating kinetic energy, frequency of collision, and temperature for a reaction.
c. applying collision theory to a reaction.
d. experiment.
ANS: D
81. The rate of a reaction does not depend on the concentration of the reactant A when the order of
reactant A is
a. zero. c. two.
b. one. d. three.
ANS: A
82. A reaction is zero order in reactant A and second order in reactant B. What happens to the reaction rate
when the concentrations of both reactants are doubled?
a. The reaction rate remains the same.
b. The reaction rate increases by a factor of two.
c. The reaction rate increases by a factor of four.
d. The reaction rate increases by a factor of eight.
ANS: C
83. If doubling the concentration of a reactant doubles the rate of the reaction, the concentration of the
reactant appears in the rate law with a(n)
a. exponent of 1. c. exponent of 4.
b. exponent of 2. d. coefficient of 2.
ANS: A
84. If doubling the concentration of a reactant quadruples the rate of the reaction, the concentration of the
reactant appears in the rate law with a(n)
a. exponent of 1. c. exponent of 4.
b. exponent of 2. d. coefficient of 2.
ANS: B
85. The rate law for a reaction generally depends most directly on the
a. net chemical reaction. c. rate-determining step.
b. first step in the reaction pathway. d. last step in the reaction pathway.
ANS: C
86. The rate for a reaction between reactants X, Y, and Z is directly proportional to [X] and to [Y], and
proportional to the square of [Z]. What is the rate law for this reaction?
a. R = k[X][Y][Z]2 c. R = k[X][Y][2Z]2
b. R = k[X][Y][2Z] d.
ANS: A
87. The rate for a reaction between reactants L, M, and N is proportional to the cube of [L] and the square
of [M]. What is the rate law for this reaction?
a. R = k[3L][2M] c. R = k[L]3[M]2
3 2
b. R = k[L] [M] [N] d. R = k[3L][2M][N]
ANS: C
88. If a chemical reaction proceeds in a sequence of steps, the slowest step is called
a. the kinetic step. c. the problem step.
b. the constant step. d. the rate-determining step.
ANS: D
89. In a single step reaction represented by the equation , the rate law for the forward one-step
reaction is
a. R = k[2C]. c. R = k[2C]2 .
b. R = k[A][B]. d. R=k[A]2[B].
ANS: A
SHORT ANSWER
1. What factors determine whether a molecule collision produces a reaction?
ANS: A reaction will occur if the species involved in a collision have sufficient energy and if they are
oriented correctly towards each other.
2. What is an activated complex?
ANS: It is a temporary union of atoms, corresponding to a maximum potential energy, formed

midway between reactants and products.
3. List all of the factors that influence the rate of a chemical reaction.
ANS: Factors influencing the rate of a chemical reaction include the temperature, the nature of each
reactant, the surface area, the presence of a catalyst or an inhibitor, and the concentration of the
reactants.
4. What is the relationship between pressure and the rate of a chemical reaction?
ANS: Doubling the pressure of a gas doubles its concentration and, thus, will increase the rate of a
reaction.
5. What is catalysis?
ANS: It is the process in which an increase in reaction rates is caused by the presence of a catalyst.
6. How do you find a reaction order?
ANS: Compare the rate ratio with a concentration ratio.
ESSAY
1. Explain why it is often necessary to start a campfire with many small pieces of kindling rather than
with a few large logs.
ANS: Many small pieces of kindling have a greater amount of surface area than a few large logs.
Fire is a surface reaction. One feature of surface reactions is that the amount of reaction that occurs is
proportional to the amount of surface area. This feature is useful for starting the fire. Once the fire is
burning well, the larger logs can be used to increase the heat output.
2. Explain what happens to the energy as a substrate and an enzyme interact.
ANS: As the substrate nears the active site of the enzyme, the potential energy increases. The
formation of the activated complex occurs at the peak of the energy curve. When the products form
and leave the active site, the energy decreases.
PROBLEM
1. A 5.0 g piece of sodium metal is dropped into 100.0 g of water. After a period of 15 s, 14.8 mL of
hydrogen gas has been collected. Write a balanced equation for this reaction and determine an average
rate for the reaction in mL/s.
ANS:
Solution:
2. When hydrogen sulfide gas is passed through a solution of lead(II) nitrate, lead(II) sulfide precipitates
out. Write a balanced chemical equation for this reaction and calculate an average rate, in mol/s, for
the reaction from the data supplied below. The molar mass of lead(II) sulfide is 239.27g/mol.
Table 1 Lead(II) Sulfide Precipitation

Time (s) Mass of lead(II) sulfide formed (g)
0.0 0.0
5.0 2.8
10.0 6.1
15.0 9.0
20.0 11.7
ANS:
3. Nitrogen dioxide and fluorine react in the gas phase according to the following equation:
A proposed reaction mechanism for this reaction follows:
Identify the rate-determining step and write an acceptable rate law.
ANS: The first step is the slower step, and is considered the rate-determining step. Rate law from the
rate-determining step is R=k[NO 2 ][F 2 ].
4.Three experiments that have identical conditions were performed to measure the initial rate of
decomposition of ammonia on a platinum surface: . The results for the
three experiments in which only the NH 3 concentration was varied are as follows:
Experiment [NH 3 ] (M) Rate (M/s)

1 0.040 4.5 10–2
2 0.080 9.0 10–2
3 0.120 1.35 10–1
Write the rate law for the reaction. Find the value and units of the specific rate
constant.
ANS: rate law: R = k[NH 3 ]; specific rate constant k:
When the concentration changes by a factor of 2, the rate remains also doubles, so the rate law is
R = k[NH 3 ].
5. Three experiments are performed under identical conditions to measure the initial rate of the reaction
described by the equation . The results of the three experiments, in
which only the N 2 O 5 concentration is varied, are as follows:
Experiment [N 2 O 5 ] (M) Rate (M/s)

1 0.030 2.2 10–2
2 0.060 8.8 10–2
3 0.090 1.98 10–1
Write the rate law for the reaction. Find the value and units of the specific rate constant.
ANS: rate law: R = k[N 2 O 5 ]2;

specific rate constant k:
When the concentration changes by a factor of 2, the rate changes by a factor of 4, so the rate law is R
= k[N 2 O 5 ]2.
Chapter 7—Chemical Equilibrium
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A reaction in which products can react to re-form reactants is

a. reforming. c. buffered.
b. reversible. d. impossible.
ANS: B
2. Under suitable conditions, roughly what proportion of all chemical reactions are reversible?
a. none c. about half
b. less than half d. nearly all
ANS: D
3. If HgO is heated in a closed container,

a. no reaction takes place.
b. the HgO decomposes.
c. Hg 2 O 2 forms.
d. the HgO decomposes and then recombines.
ANS: D
4. At equilibrium,
a. all reactions have ceased.
b. only the forward reaction continues.
c. only the reverse reaction continues.
d. both the forward and reverse reactions continue.
ANS: D
5. At equilibrium,
a. the forward reaction rate is lower than the reverse reaction rate.
b. the forward reaction rate is higher than the reverse reaction rate.
c. the forward reaction rate is equal to the reverse reaction rate.
d. no reactions take place.
ANS: C
6. What symbol in a chemical equation indicates equilibrium?

a. c.
b. d. None of the above
ANS: D
7. What two processes are at equilibrium in a saturated sugar solution?

a. evaporation and condensation c. decomposition and synthesis
b. dissolving and crystallization d. ionization and recombination
ANS: B
8. At equilibrium, the total amount of the product(s)

a. is always equal to the total amount of the reactants.
b. is always greater than the total amount of the reactants.
c. is always less than the total amount of the reactants.
d. may be equal to, greater than, or less than the total amount of the reactants.
ANS: D
9. What symbol represents the equilibrium constant?
a. k c. c
b. K d. R
ANS: B
10. The value of the equilibrium constant for a reaction

a. changes with concentration. c. changes with temperature.
b. changes with time. d. is the same under all conditions.
ANS: C
11. How does the value of K show that a reaction reaches equilibrium very quickly?
a. K is large.
b. K is small.
c. K is zero.
d. The value of K does not show how quickly a reaction comes to equilibrium.
ANS: D
12. A very low value of K indicates that

a. equilibrium is reached slowly. c. reactants are favored.
b. products are favored. d. equilibrium has been reached.
ANS: C
13. A very high value of K indicates that

a. equilibrium is reached slowly. c. reactants are favored.
b. products are favored. d. equilibrium has been reached.
ANS: B
14. A value of K near 1 indicates that at equilibrium probably

a. only products are present.
b. only reactants are present.
c. significant quantities of both products and reactants are present.
d. the reactions occur at a moderate rate.
ANS: C
15. The value of K for a system

a. can be calculated from the molar masses of products and reactants.
b. can be calculated from the enthalpies of the forward and reverse reactions.
c. can be calculated from the chemical properties of products and reactants.
d. must be measured by experiment.
ANS: D
16. The equilibrium constant depends on changes in

a. pressure.
b. concentrations.
c. temperature.
d. pressure, concentrations, and temperature.
ANS: C
17. In the equation , what represents the concentrations of the reactants?
a. [Y] and [Z] c.
b. [W] and [X] d.
ANS: A
18. In the equation, what represents the concentrations of the products?

a. [Y] and [Z] c.
b. [W] and [X] d.
ANS: B
19. When the chemical equilibrium expression is written, coefficients from the equation for the reaction
a. appear as coefficients. c. appear as subscripts.
b. appear as exponents. d. do not appear.
ANS: B
20. What is the chemical equilibrium expression for the equation

2A 2 B + 3CD A4D + C3B2?
a. c.
b. d.
ANS: D
21. An equilibrium mixture of SO 2 , O 2 , and SO 3 gases at 1500 K is determined to consist of 0.344 mol/L
SO 2 , 0.172 mol/L O 2 , and 0.56 mol/L SO 3 . What is the equilibrium constant for the system at this
temperature? The balanced equation for this reaction is
2SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g) 2SO 3 (g).
a. 0.41 c. 6.7
b. 2.8 d. 15
ANS: D
Solution:
22. If the system 2CO(g) + O 2 (g) 2CO 2 (g) has come to equilibrium and then more CO(g) is added,
a. [CO 2 ] increases and [O 2 ] decreases. c. [CO 2 ] decreases and [O 2 ] decreases.
b. [CO 2 ] increases and [O 2 ] increases. d. both [CO 2 ] and [O 2 ] remain the same.
ANS: A
23.If the pressure on the equilibrium system 2CO(g) + O 2 (g) 2CO 2 (g) is increased,
a. the quantity of CO(g) increases.
b. the quantity of CO 2 (g) decreases.
c. the quantity of CO 2 (g) increases.
d. the quantities in the system do not change.
ANS: C
24. If the pressure on the equilibrium system N 2 (g) + O 2 (g) 2NO(g) decreases,
a. the quantity of N 2 (g) decreases.
b. the quantity of NO(g) increases.
c. the quantity of NO(g) decreases.
d. the quantities in the system do not change.
ANS: D
25. If the temperature of the equilibrium system CH 3 OH(g) + 101 kJ CO(g) + 2H 2 (g) increases,
a. [CH 3 OH] increases and [CO] decreases.
b. [CH 3 OH] decreases and [CO] increases.
c. [CH 3 OH] increases and [CO] increases.
d. the concentrations in the system do not change.
ANS: B
26. If the temperature of the equilibrium system CH 3 OH(g) + 101 kJ CO(g) + 2H 2 (g) increases, K
a. increases. c. increases or decreases.
b. decreases. d. does not change.
ANS: A
27. If more CO(g) is added to the system 2CO(g) + O 2 (g) 2CO 2 (g) at constant temperature, K
a. increases. c. increases or decreases.
b. decreases. d. does not change.
ANS: D
28. If the temperature of the equilibrium system X + Y XY + 25 kJ decreases,

a. [X] decreases and [XY] increases.
b. [X] increases and [XY] decreases.
c. [X] decreases and [XY] decreases.
d. the concentrations of reactants and products do not change.
ANS: A
29. If a reaction system has come to equilibrium, it can be made to run to completion
a. only if it is not reversible. c. by removing a product.
b. only if the temperature is low enough. d. under no circumstances.
ANS: C
30. Reactions tend to run to completion if

a. a gaseous product forms and escapes.
b. a product in the same phase as the reactants forms.
c. one product is highly ionized.
d. one product is highly soluble.
ANS: A
31. Reactions tend to run to completion if a product

a. has a high melting point. c. is precipitated as a solid.
b. is a liquid. d. is ionic. ANS: C
32. If a soluble product forms, a reaction may run to completion
a. if the product is only slightly ionized.
b. if the product is highly soluble.
c. if the product is not gaseous.
d. under no circumstances.
ANS: A
33. Which reaction tends to run to completion?

a. N (g) + 3H (g) 2NH (g)
2 2 3
b. Na+(aq) + (aq) NaCl(s)
c. 2CO(g) + O (g) 2CO 2 (g)
2
d. H CO (aq) H 2 O(l) + CO 2 (g)
2 3
ANS: D

a. K+(aq) + (aq) KCl(s)
b. 2NO 2 (g) N 2 O 4 (g)
c. Ag+(aq) + (aq) AgCl(s)
d. H 2 (g) + I 2 (g) 2HI(g)
ANS: C

a. N 2 (g) + O 2 (g) 2NO(g)
b. H 3 O+(aq) + (aq) 2H 2 O(l)
c. Na+(aq) + (aq) NaBr(s)
d. H 2 (g) + CO(g) C(s) + H 2 O(g)
ANS: D
36. Adding a charged particle common to two solutes decreases solute concentration. This observation
demonstrates
a. the common-ion effect. c. hydrolysis.
b. Le Châtelier's principle. d. buffering.
ANS: A
37. The common-ion effect promotes

a. dissolving. c. boiling.
b. precipitation. d. ionization.
ANS: B
38. The common-ion effect

a. promotes condensation. c. reduces ionization.
b. promotes evaporation. d. increases solubility.
ANS: C
39. In which solution does adding hydrogen chloride promote precipitation?

a. H 2 SO 4 c. AgNO 3
b. KBr d. NaH
ANS: C
40. Adding sodium acetate to an acetic acid, CH 3 COOH, solution
a. precipitates CH 3 COOH.
b. precipitates NaCH 3 COO.
c. increases the ionization of CH 3 COOH.
d. decreases the ionization of CH 3 COOH.
ANS: D
41. Adding sodium acetate to an acetic acid, CH 3 COOH, solution

a. increases pH and lowers [H+].
b. increases pH and raises [H+].
c. decreases pH and lowers [H+].
d. decreases pH and raises [H+].
ANS: A
42. The common-ion effect is a consequence of

a. Boyle's law. c. Avogadro's principle.
b. Le Châtelier's principle. d. chemical kinetics.
ANS: B
43. Adding hydrogen bromide to a solution of KBr precipitates

a. HBr. c. KH.
b. KBr. d. Br 2 .
ANS: B
44. In the equilibrium system CH 3 COOH(aq) + H 2 O(l) H 3 O+(aq) + CH 3 COO–(aq), which species is
present in the highest concentration at equilibrium?
a. CH 3 COOH
b. H 3 O+
c. CH 3 COO–
d. Equal concentrations of CH 3 COOH, H 3 O+ and CH 3 COO– are present.
ANS: A
45. In the equilibrium system CH 3 COOH(aq) + H 2 O(l) H 3 O+(aq) + CH 3 COO–(aq), which reaction
proceeds more rapidly at equilibrium?
a. the forward reaction c. both reactions stop
b. the reverse reaction d. both reactions proceed at the same rate
ANS: D
46. What is the chemical equilibrium expression for the ionization of acetic acid, shown in the reaction
represented by the equation CH 3 COOH(aq) + H 2 O(l) H 3 O+(aq) + CH 3 COOH–(aq)?
+ –
a. [H 3 O ] [CH 3 COOH ] c.
b. d.
ANS: C
47. What is the acid-ionization expression for the ionization of acetic acid, shown in the reaction
represented by the equation CH 3 COOH(aq) + H 2 O(l) H 3 O+(aq) + CH 3 COOH–(aq)?
+ –
a. [H 3 O ] [CH 3 COOH ] c.
b. d.
ANS: C
48. What is the relationship between K and K a ?

a. K = K a c. K a = K[H 2 O]
b. K = K a [H 3 O+] d.
ANS: C
49. How do K a values for weak and strong acids compare?

a. K a (weak) = K a (strong) c. K a (weak) > K a (strong)
b. K a (weak) < K a (strong) d. not defined for weak acids
ANS: B
50. What is the equation for the ionization of water?

a. 2H 2 O(l) H 3 O+(aq) + OH–(aq) c. 2H 2 O(l) 2H 2 (g) + O 2 (g)
b. 2H 2 O(l) H 3 O–(aq) + OH+(aq) d. H 2 O(l) H–(aq) + OH+(aq)
ANS: A
51. To what degree does water ionize?

a. completely c. slightly
b. to a large extent d. not at all
ANS: C
52. What is the value of the ion-product constant for water?

a. 0 c. 10–7
–14
b. 10 d. 55.4
ANS: B
53. What is the symbol for the ion-product constant for water?
a. K w c. K
b. K a d. K sp
ANS: A
54. The pH of a solution is 10. The solution is

a. acidic. c. neutral.
b. basic. d. None of the above
ANS: B
55. When small amounts of acids or bases are added to a solution of a weak acid and its salt, the pH
a. always increases considerably.
b. always decreases considerably.
c. either increases or decreases considerably.
d. remains nearly constant.
ANS: D
56. If an acid is added to a solution of a weak acid and its salt,
a. more of the nonionized weak acid forms.
b. more of the nonionized acid ionizes.
c. precipitation occurs.
d. hydronium ion concentration decreases.
ANS: A
57. If a base is added to a solution of a weak acid and its salt,

a. more of the nonionized weak acid forms.
b. more of the nonionized acid ionizes.
c. precipitation occurs.
d. the hydronium ion concentration decreases.
ANS: B
58. If a base is added to a solution of a weak base and its salt,

a. the hydronium ion concentration increases.
b. more of the weak base ionizes.
c. more hydroxide ions form.
d. more water and nonionized base forms.
ANS: D
59. If an acid is added to a solution of a weak base and its salt,

a. more water forms and more weak base ionizes.
b. the hydronium ion concentration decreases.
c. more hydroxide ions form.
d. more nonionized weak base forms.
ANS: A
60. Which solutions resist changes in pH?

a. buffered c. neutral
b. equilibrium d. stable
ANS: A
61. An example of a good buffer is

a. HCl and NaCl. c. HNO 2 and NaNO 2
b. HNO 3 and NaCl. d. CH 3 COOH and NaC.
ANS: C
62. Which reaction describes an anion hydrolysis reaction?

a. B+(aq) + H 2 O(l) HB(aq) + OH+(aq)
–
b. B (aq) + H 2 O(l) HB(aq) + OH–(aq)
c. HB(aq) + H 2 O(l) H 3 O+(aq) + B–(aq)
–
d. B (aq) + H 2 O(l) BOH(aq) + H–(aq)
ANS: B
63.Which of the following is the equilibrium constant for an anion hydrolysis reaction?
a. c.
b. d.
ANS: A
64. What type of reaction occurs in an aqueous solution of the salt of a strong acid and a weak base?
a. cation hydrolysis c. both cation and anion hydrolysis
b. anion hydrolysis d. buffer hydrolysis
ANS: A
65. The anion of the salt of a weak acid and a strong base is the
a. conjugate acid of the strong base. c. hydronium ion.
b. conjugate base of the weak acid. d. hydroxide ion.
ANS: B
66. What type of reaction occurs in an aqueous solution of the salt of a weak acid and a strong base?
a. cation hydrolysis c. both cation and anion hydrolysis
b. anion hydrolysis d. buffer hydrolysis
ANS: B
67. The cation of the salt of a strong acid and a weak base is the
a. hydronium ion. c. conjugate acid of the weak base.
b. hydroxide ion. d. conjugate base of the strong acid.
ANS: C
68. Basic solutions are generally formed by hydrolysis of anions of salts of

a. weak acids and weak bases. c. strong acids and weak bases.
b. weak acids and strong bases. d. strong acids and strong bases.
ANS: B
69. Acidic solutions are generally formed by hydrolysis of cations of salts of

a. weak acids and weak bases. c. strong acids and weak bases.
b. weak acids and strong bases. d. strong acids and strong bases.
ANS: C
70. What is the symbol for the solubility-product constant?

a. K c. K a
b. K h d. K sp
ANS: D
71. A substance with a very low K sp is

a. insoluble or sparingly soluble. c. very soluble.
b. moderately soluble. d. completely miscible in most solvents.
ANS: A
72. Besides the K sp value of a compound, what other information is needed to calculate solubility in moles
per liter?
a. molar mass c. solubility in grams
b. density of the solid d. no other information
ANS: D
73. If the ion product for two ions whose solutions have just been mixed is greater than the value of K sp ,
a. the solution is unsaturated. c. equilibrium cannot be achieved.
b. precipitation occurs. d. a decomposition reaction occurs.
ANS: B
74. A substance is considered to be slightly soluble if its solubility is

a. greater than 1 g per 100 g water. c. between 0.1 and 2 g per 100 g water.
b. less than 1 g per 100 g water. d. None of the above
ANS: C
75. What is the solubility-product constant of barium carbonate, BaCO 3 ? Its solubility is 0.0022 g/100 g
H 2 O. The molar mass of BaCO 3 is 197.34 g/mol.
a. 1.2 10–6 c. 2.2 10–8
–8
b. 1.2 10 d. 4.4 10–10
ANS: B
Solution:
76. What is the solubility-product constant of barium sulfate, BaSO 4 ? Its solubility is
2.4 × 10–4 g/100 g H 2 O. The molar mass of BaSO 4 is 233.39 g/mol.
a. 5.6 × 10–6 c. 4.0 × 10–9
b. 7.8 × 10 –8
d. 1.1 × 10–10
ANS: D
Solution:
77. What is the solubility-product constant of magnesium hydroxide, Mg(OH) 2 ? Its solubility is 9.0 × 10–
4
g/100 g H 2 O. The molar mass of Mg(OH) 2 is 58.32 g/mol.
a. 1.8 × 10–6 c. 1.5 × 10–11
b. 4.5 × 10 –9
d. 6.2 × 10–12
ANS: C
Solution:
78. What is the solubility in mol/L of silver iodide, AgI? Its K sp value is 8.3 × 10–17.
a. 4.9 × 10–11 c. 8.6 × 10–7
b. 9.1 × 10–9 d. 5.5 × 10–7
ANS: B
Solution:
79. What is the solubility in mol/L of calcium carbonate, CaCO 3 ? Its K sp value is
1.4 × 10–8.
a. 1.2 × 10–4 c. 6.2 × 10–8
b. 2.4 × 10 –6
d. 8.2 × 10–10
ANS: A
Solution:
80. What is the solubility in mol/L of cobalt(II) sulfide, CoS? Its K sp value is 3.0 × 10–26.
a. 5.9 10–10 c. 1.7 10–13
–12
b. 1.7 10 d. 1.7 10–26
ANS: C
Solution:
81. What is the solubility in mol/L of copper(I) chloride, CuCl? Its K sp value is 1.2 × 10–6.
a. 1.1 × 10–3 c. 2.3 × 10–5
b. 1.8 × 10 –4
d. 2.7 × 10–5
ANS: A
Solution:
82. What is the solubility in mol/L of copper(II) sulfide, CuS? Its K sp value is 6.3 × 10–36.
a. 5.5 × 10–13 c. 9.9 × 10–16
b. 4.1 × 10 –14
d. 2.5 × 10–18
ANS: D
Solution:
83. What is the solubility in mol/L of copper(I) sulfide, Cu 2 S? Its K sp value is 2.5 × 10–48.
a. 4.1 × 10–14 c. 8.5 × 10–17
b. 6.2 × 10 –16
d. 1.8 × 10–24
ANS: C
Solution:
84. What is the solubility in mol/L of mercury(II) sulfide, HgS? Its K sp value is
1.6 × 10–52.
a. 7.3 × 10–22 c. 1.3 × 10–26
b. 8.9 × 10 –25
d. 6.7 × 10–30
ANS: C
Solution:
85. What is the solubility in mol/L of silver sulfide, Ag 2 S? Its K sp value is 1.6 × 10–49.
a. 2.8 × 10–16 c. 8.2 × 10–38
b. 3.4 × 10–17 d. 9.0 × 10–40
ANS: B
Solution:
86. Calculate the ion product for mixing 100.0 mL of 0.0030 M CaCl 2 with 100 mL of 0.0020 M Na 2 CO 3 .
K sp for CaCO 3 is 1.4 10–8. Does a precipitate form?
a. 1.8 10–9; no c. 1.5 10–6; no
–9
b. 1.8 10 ; yes d. 1.5 10–6; yes
ANS: D
Solution:
87. Calculate the ion product for mixing 50. mL of 0.000 70 M CuNO 3 with 100. mL of 0.000 10 M NaCl.
K sp for CuCl is 1.2 × 10–6. Does a precipitate form?
a. 1.6 × 10–8; yes c. 1.6 × 10–6; yes
b. 1.6 × 10–8; no d. 1.6 × 10–6; no
ANS: B
Solution:
88. Calculate the ion product for mixing 250 mL of 2.1 10–14 M Cd(NO 3 ) 2 with 150 mL of 1.1 10–12 M
K 2 S. K sp for CdS is 8.0 10–27. Does a precipitate form?
a. 5.4 10–27; no c. 4.8 10–29; no
–27
b. 5.4 10 ; yes d. 4.8 10–29; yes
ANS: A
Solution:
89. Calculate the ion product for mixing 300 mL of 0.000 30 M Sr(NO 3 ) 2 with 200 mL of 0.000 025 M
K 2 SO 4 . K sp for SrSO 4 is 3.2 10–7. Does a precipitate form?
a. 5.6 10–6; yes c. 1.8 10–9; yes
–6
b. 5.6 10 ; no d. 1.8 10–9; no
ANS: D
Solution:
90. Calculate the ion product for mixing 100 mL of 0.000 28 M Pb(NO 3 ) 2 with 200 mL of 0.0012 M
NaCl. K sp for PbCl 2 is 1.9 10–4. Does a precipitate form?
a. 2.3 10–4; no c. 6.0 10–11; no
–4
b. 2.3 10 ; yes d. 6.0 10–11; yes
ANS: C
Solution:
PTS: 1 DIF: III REF: 4 OBJ: 3
91. Calculate the ion product for mixing 50 mL of 0.015 M Ca(NO 3 ) 2 with 200 mL of 0.35 M NaOH. K sp
for Ca(OH) 2 is 5.5 × 10–6. Does a precipitate form?
a. 8.5 × 10–7; no c. 2.4 × 10–4; no
b. 8.5 × 10–7; yes d. 2.4 × 10–4; yes
ANS: D
Solution:
SHORT ANSWER
1. Sulfur dioxide is commonly formed by the burning of fossil fuels. It combines with additional oxygen
to form sulfur trioxide. Write an equilibrium expression for the reaction represented by the following
equation.
2SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g) 2SO 3 (g)
ANS:
2. Why are equilibrium expressions not written for reactions that go to completion?
ANS: The final concentration of reactants for a reaction going to completion is zero. Equilibrium is
not reached.
3. Explain why the following reaction goes to completion instead of to equilibrium.

Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq) MgCl 2 (aq) + H 2 (g)
ANS: The hydrogen gas escapes if the system is not closed.
ESSAY
1. Explain why the figure below is an example of a system at equilibrium.
ANS:
The fish moving back and forth between two
fishbowls represent the equilibrium.
The contents of the system are constant.
There are equal numbers of fish in each bowl,
but they are not the same fish from moment to moment.
The number of fish moving to the bowl on the left
equals the number of fish moving to the bowl on the
right.
PROBLEM
1. Calculate K for the synthesis of ammonia at 400°C,

, if the following concentrations are present at equilibrium: N 2 (g) = 1.2
mol/L, H 2 (g) = 0.80 mol/L, and NH 3 (g) = 0.28 mol/L.
ANS:
2. At 2000°C, carbon dioxide decomposes as shown.

2CO 2 (g) 2CO(g) + O 2 (g)
If K is 6.4 10−7 and the concentrations of CO(g) and O 2 (g) are 2.0 10−3 mol/L and 1.0 10−3 mol/L
at equilibrium, respectively, calculate the concentration of carbon dioxide.
ANS:
3. Phenol, C 6 H 5 OH, partially dissociates in water as shown.

C 6 H 5 OH(aq) + H 2 O(l) H 3 O+(aq) + C 6 H 5 O−(aq)
If K a is 1.6 10 and the concentrations of H 3 O+(aq) and C 6 H 5 O−(aq) are both 1.0
−10
10−5 M at
equilibrium, what would be the concentration of phenol?
ANS:
4. At 1200°C, K is 2.6 10−3 for the dissociation of iodine molecules. I 2 (g) 2I(g) If the equilibrium
concentration of I 2 (g) is 0.95 mol/L, what is the concentration of I(g)?
ANS:
5.Calculate the H 3 O+ concentration in a solution of acetic acid if the concentration of molecular acetic acid
present at equilibrium is 9.97 10−3 M and K for the dissociation is 1.86 10−5. CH 3 COOH(aq) +
H 2 O(l) H 3 O+(aq) + CH 3 COO−(aq)
ANS:
6. What is the solubility-product constant of barium carbonate, BaCO 3 , if a saturated solution is 1.1
10−4 M?
ANS:
7. What is the solubility in mol/L of silver iodide, AgI? Its K sp value is 8.3 10−17.
ANS:
Chapter 8—Oxidation-Reduction Reactions
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. What is the oxidation number of a monatomic ion?

a. 0 c. its charge
b. +1 d. its number of electrons
ANS: C
2. What is the most common oxidation number of combined oxygen?

a. –2 c. 0
b. –1 d. +1
ANS: A
3. What is the most common oxidation number of combined hydrogen?
a. –2 c. 0
b. –1 d. +1
ANS: D
4. The algebraic sum of the oxidation numbers of the atoms in a compound

a. is always zero. c. is always –1.
b. is always +1. d. can be any whole number.
ANS: A
5. What are the oxidation numbers in the compound KCl?

a. K = 0, Cl = 0 c. K = +1, Cl = –1
b. K = –1, Cl = +1 d. K = +2, Cl = –2
ANS: C
6. What are the oxidation numbers in the compound H 2 O 2 ?

a. H = +1, O = –2 c. H = +2, O = –2
b. H = –1, O = –2 d. H = +1, O = –1
ANS: D
7. What are the oxidation numbers in the compound NO 2 ?

a. N = +2, O = –1 c. N = –2, O = +1
b. N = +2, O = –2 d. N = +4, O = –2
ANS: D
8. What are the oxidation numbers in the compound H 3 PO 4 ?

a. H = +1, P = 0, O = –2 c. H = –1, P = +7, O = –1
b. H = +1, P = +5, O = –2 d. H = +1, P = +1, O = –1
ANS: B
9. What are the oxidation numbers in the ion ?

a. S = +6, O = –2 c. S = +4, O = –2
b. S = +1, O = –1 d. S = 0, O = –1
ANS: C
10. The oxidation number of phosphorous in is

a. –1. c. +5. ANS: C
b. 0. d. +6.
11. The oxidation number for each atom in ZnCl 2 is
a. +1, –1. c. +2, –1.
b. –2, +2. d. +2, –2.
ANS: C
12. The oxidation number for each atom in SO 3 is

a. +2, –2. c. +6, –6.
b. –2, +2. d. +6, –2.
ANS: D
13. The oxidation number for each atom in HNO 3 is

a. –1, +2, –2. c. 0, +1, –2.
b. 0, +1, –1. d. +1, +1, –2.
ANS: D
14. The oxidation number for each atom in Al 2 (SO 4 ) 3 is

a. +2, +4, –1. c. +3, +6, –2.
b. +2, +4, –2. d. +3, +4, –1.
ANS: C
15. The oxidation number for each atom in PbO is

a. +1, –1. c. +2, –1.
b. +1, –2. d. +2, –2.
ANS: D
16. The oxidation number for each atom in CO 2 is

a. +3, –2. c. +4, +4.
b. +4, –2. d. +3, –4.
ANS: B
17. The oxidation number for each atom in H 2 SO 4 is

a. +1, +6, –2. c. –2, +4, –2.
b. –1, +7,–2. d. +1, +6, –1.
ANS: A
18. What is the oxidation number of a free element?

a. its group number c. +1
b. its total number of valence electrons d. 0
ANS: D
19. In oxidation, atoms or ions

a. increase their oxidation number.
b. decrease their oxidation number.
c. do not change their oxidation number.
d. have a zero oxidation number after the reaction.
ANS: A
20. In reduction, atoms or ions

a. increase their oxidation number.
b. decrease their oxidation number. ANS: B
c. do not change their oxidation number.
d. have a zero oxidation number after the reaction.
21. Which of the following are numbers assigned to atoms and ions to keep track of electrons?
a. charges c. ions
b. coefficients d. oxidation numbers
ANS: D
22. A species whose oxidation number decreases in a reaction is

a. oxidized. c. electrolyzed.
b. reduced. d. autooxidized.
ANS: B
23. A species whose oxidation number increases in a reaction is

a. oxidized. c. electrolyzed.
b. reduced. d. autooxidized.
ANS: A
24. In the reaction represented by the equation , the species O 2 is

a. oxidized. c. neutralized.
b. reduced. d. disproportionated.
ANS: B
25. In the reaction represented by the equation Fe → Fe3+ + 3e–, the species Fe is
a. oxidized. c. neutralized.
b. reduced. d. disproportionated.
ANS: A
26. In the reaction represented by the equation 2K + Br 2 2K+ + , which species is reduced?
a. K c. Both (a) and (b)
b. Br 2 d. Neither (a) or (b)
ANS: B
27. In the reaction represented by the equation F 2 + Mg 2F– + Mg2+, which species is oxidized?
a. F 2 c. Both (a) and (b)
b. Mg d. Neither (a) or (b)
ANS: B
28. In the reaction represented by the equation Na+ + NaBr, which species is reduced?
+
a. Na c. Both (a) and (b)
b. d. Neither (a) or (b)
ANS: D
29. The conversion of is

a. oxidation. c. neutralization.
b. reduction. d. disproportionation.
ANS: A \
30. The conversion of is

a. oxidation. c. neutralization.
b. reduction. d. disproportionation.
ANS: A
31.The loss of one or more electrons from an atom is called
a. oxidation. c. electrochemistry.
b. reduction. d. half-reaction.
ANS: A
32. The gain of electrons is called

a. oxidation. c. electrochemistry.
b. reduction. d. half-reaction.
ANS: B
33. Oxidation and reduction

a. always occur simultaneously.
b. always occur at different times.
c. do not occur in the same reaction.
d. always occur with oxidation first, then reduction.
ANS: A
34. If species change their oxidation numbers, the process is a(n)

a. synthesis. c. neutralization.
b. decomposition. d. oxidation-reduction reaction.
ANS: D
35. Another name for an oxidation-reduction reaction is a(n)

a. double-displacement reaction. c. neutralization reaction.
b. redox reaction. d. decomposition reaction.
ANS: B
36. Which of the following equations represents an oxidation-reduction reaction?

a. H 2 2H c. H 2 + Cl 2 2HCl
b. d. HCl + NaBr HBr + NaCl
ANS: C
37. Which of the following equations represents an oxidation-reduction reaction?

a. c.
b. d.
ANS: B
38. Which of the following equations does not represent an oxidation-reduction reaction?
a. H 2 O + SO 2 → H 2 SO 3
b. N 2 + O 2 → 2NO
c. H 2 + Cl 2 → 2HCl
d. 2NaBr + Cl 2 → 2NaCl + Br 2
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II REF: 1
OBJ: 3
39. Which of the following substances could be produced from SO 3 only by an oxidation-reduction
reaction?
a. H 2 SO 4 c. SF 6
b. H 2 SO 3 d. None of the above
ANS: B
40. In a redox reaction, MnO 4 – is changed to Mn2+. How many electrons must be lost or gained by Mn?
a. two lost c. five lost
b. two gained d. five gained
ANS: D
41. In a redox reaction, is changed to . How many electrons must be lost or gained by Mn?
a. none lost or gained c. one gained
b. one lost d. two gained
ANS: C
42. In a redox reaction, CO is changed to CO 2 . How many electrons must be lost or gained by C?
a. one lost c. two lost
b. one gained d. two gained
ANS: C
43. The part of a reaction that involves only oxidation or reduction is a(n)
a. redox reaction. c. chemical reaction.
b. electron transfer. d. half-reaction.
ANS: D
44. A single reaction where oxidation and reduction take place is called
a. a half-reaction. c. a redox reaction.
b. electrochemistry. d. a double oxidation.
ANS: C
45. In a balanced redox equation, how does the total number of reactant molecules compare with the total
number of product molecules?
a. The two numbers are always equal.
b. Reactant molecules are always more numerous.
c. Product molecules are always more numerous.
d. No relationship exists between the two numbers.
ANS: D
46. In a balanced redox equation, how does the total number of reactant atoms compare with the total
number of product atoms?
b. Reactant atoms are always more numerous.
c. Product atoms are always more numerous.
ANS: A
47. In a balanced redox equation, how does the total charge of reactants compare with the total charge of
products?
a. The two totals are always equal.
b. Total reactant charge is always greater.
c. Total product charge is always greater.
d. No relationship exists between the two totals.
ANS: A
48.How does the number of electrons lost in an oxidation compare with the number gained in the
simultaneous reduction?
b. The number lost is always greater than the number gained.
c. The number lost is always less than the number gained.
ANS: A
49. The redox equation 4H+ + N 2 → NH 4 + + N is

a. correctly balanced.
b. correctly balanced for number of atoms but not for charge.
c. correctly balanced for charge but not for number of atoms.
d. not balanced for number of atoms or charge.
ANS: B
50. The redox equation is

ANS: D
51. The redox equation Cu2+ + 2Fe → Cu + 2Fe2+ is

ANS: B
52. The redox equation H 2 + O 2 → 2H+ + O2– is

ANS: C
53. The redox equation is

d. not balanced for charge or number of atoms.
ANS: A
54. After balancing the redox equation , the coefficients, in

order from left to right, are
a. 1, 4, 3, 1, 4, 6.
b. 2, 4, 1, 2, 2, 2.
c. 2, 6, 2, 2, 4, 12.
d. 1, 8, 3, 2, 4, 2.
ANS: B
55. After balancing the redox equation HBr + NaMnO 4 → NaBr + MnBr 2 + Br 2 + H 2 O, the coefficients,
in order from left to right, are
a. 8, 2, 2, 2, 5, 8.
b. 4, 1, 1, 1, 3, 2.
c. 16, 2, 2, 2, 3, 4.
d. 16, 2, 2, 2, 5, 8.
ANS: D
56. After balancing the redox equation FeCl 2 + KMnO 4 + HCl →

FeCl 3 + MnCl 2 + H 2 O + KCl, the coefficients, in order from left to right, are
a. 3, 1, 4, 3, 1, 2, 1.
b. 4, 2, 5, 4, 2, 3, 2.
c. 5, 1, 8, 5, 1, 4, 1.
d. 5, 1, 4, 5, 1, 4, 1.
ANS: C
57. After balancing the redox equation , the coefficients, in

order from left to right, are
a. 1, 3, 5, 2, 3, 1.
b. 1, 2, 4, 2, 2, 1.
c. 2, 5, 10, 4, 5, 2.
d. 2, 1, 2, 5, 1, 2.
ANS: A
58. After balancing the redox equation FeSO 4 + KMnO 4 + H 2 SO 4 →

Fe 2 (SO 4 ) 3 + MnSO 4 + K 2 SO 4 + H 2 O, the coefficients, in order from left to right, are
a. 5, 4, 8, 5, 1, 2, 4.
b. 2, 5, 3, 2, 5, 1, 4.
c. 10, 2, 8, 5, 2, 1, 8.
d. 5, 1, 4, 3, 1, 1, 4.
ANS: C
59. After balancing the redox equation in which elemental chlorine reacts with sodium hydroxide to
produce sodium hypochlorite (NaClO), water, and sodium chloride, the coefficients of these
substances are, respectively,
a. 1, 1, 1, 1, 1.
b. 1, 2, 1, 1, 1.
c. 2, 4, 2, 1, 2.
d. 1, 2, 1, 2, 1.
ANS: B
60. After balancing the redox equation FeCl 3 + Zn → ZnCl 2 + Fe, the coefficients, in order from left to
right, are
a. 2, 2, 1, 2.
b. 1, 1, 1, 1.
c. 4, 3, 3, 4.
d. 2, 3, 3, 2.
ANS: D
61.After balancing the redox equation , the coefficients, in order
from left to right, are
a. 4, 5, 4, 6, 6.
b. 2, 3, 2, 3, 3.
c. 3, 5, 3, 5, 5.
d. 2, 1, 2, 1, 3.
ANS: B
62. The half-reaction method for balancing redox equations is also known as the
a. ion-neutron method. c. ion-proton method.
b. ion-electron method. d. ion-ion method.
ANS: B
63. The number of steps needed for balancing redox equations by the half-reaction method is
a. 5. c. 7.
b. 6. d. 8.
ANS: C
64. During redox reactions, oxidizing agents

a. increase their oxidation number. c. keep the same oxidation number.
b. decrease their oxidation number. d. do not participate.
ANS: B
65. During redox reactions, reducing agents

a. increase their oxidation number. c. keep the same oxidation number.
b. decrease their oxidation number. d. do not participate.
ANS: A
66. In redox reactions,

a. the oxidizing agent is the substance oxidized.
b. the reducing agent is the substance oxidized.
c. both oxidizing and reducing agents are oxidized.
d. the reducing agent is the substance reduced.
ANS: B
67. In redox reactions,

a. the oxidizing agent is the substance reduced.
b. the reducing agent is the substance reduced.
c. the oxidizing agent is the substance oxidized.
d. both oxidizing and reducing agents are on the same side of the chemical equation.
ANS: A
68. Which is the most active reducing agent among the elements?
a. cesium c. fluorine
b. iodine d. lithium
ANS: D
69. Which is the most active oxidizing agent among the elements?
a. cesium c. fluorine
b. iodine d. lithium
ANS: C
Relative Strength of Oxidizing and

Reducing Agents
Reducing Agents Oxidizing Agents
S Li Li+ W
+
T K K E
R Ca Ca2+ A
O Na Na+ K
2+
N Mg Mg E
G Al Al3+ R
2+
E Zn Zn
R Cr Cr3+
Fe Fe2+
Ni Ni2+
Sn Sn2+
Pb Pb2+
H2 H 3 O+
H2S S
Cu Cu2+
–
I I2
MnO 4 2– MnO 4 –
2+
Fe Fe3+
Hg Hg 2 2+
Ag Ag+
–
NO 2 NO 3 – S
Br– Br 2 T
W Mn2+ MnO 2 R
E SO 2 H 2 SO 4 (conc.) O
A Cr3+ Cr 2 O 7 2– N
–
K Cl Cl 2 G
2+ –
E Mn MnO 4 E
R F– F2 R
70. What ion oxidizes Sn to Sn2+ but does not oxidize Hg to Hg 2 2+?
a. NO 3 – c.
b. Al3+ d. Cu2+
ANS: D
71. What ion is reduced by Zn but reduces Ag+ to Ag?

a. Mg2+ c. Fe2+
3+
b. Fe d.
ANS: C
72. What element displaces Cu2+ ions from solution but is displaced by Ni metal when it is in ionic form?
a. Al c. Fe
b. Ag d. Pb
ANS: D
73. Copper, in each of the reactions represented by equations that are part of the lightening step of the
photochromic glass photo-oxidation process, is a(n)
i. Cl + Cu+ ? Cu+2 + Cl-
ii. Cu+2 + Ag ? Cu+1 + Ag+
a. reducing agent only.
b. oxidizing agent only.
c. reducing agent and an oxidizing agent.
d. neutralizing agent only.
ANS: C
74. When Na(s) reacts with Cl 2 (g) to produce NaCl (s), Na(s) is the
a. oxidizing agent. c. neutralizing agent.
b. reducing agent. d. ionizing agent.
ANS: B
75. A strong reducing agent easily gives up

a. electrons. c. electrons and protons.
b. protons. d. neutrons.
ANS: A
76. Which is the most electronegative element?

a. oxygen c. zinc
b. hydrogen d. fluorine
ANS: D
77. Give the oxidation numbers for the oxygen atoms in H 2 O 2 , H 2 O, and O 2 , respectively.
a. –2, –1, 0 c. –2, –2, 0
b. –1, –2, 0 d. –1, 0, 0
ANS: B
78. In which process does a substance act as both an oxidizing agent and a reducing agent and oxidizes
itself?
a. electrolysis c. autoreduction
b. disproportionation d. double displacement
ANS: B
79. What is the formula of the peroxide ion?

a. O2– c.
–
b. O d.
ANS: D
80. Which of the following describes the bond in a peroxide ion?

a. a double bond c. somewhat unstable
b. highly stable d. a triple bond
ANS: C
81. When hydrogen peroxide decomposes, oxygen is

a. reduced only. c. both oxidized and reduced.
b. oxidized only. d. electrolyzed.
ANS: C
82. Which of the reactions represented by the following equations is an example of disproportionation?
a. 2H 2 O 2 → 2H 2 O + O 2 c. Cu + 2AgNO 3 → Cu(NO 3 ) 2 + 2Ag
b. 2H 2 O → H 3 O + OH
+ –
d. 2Li + 2H 2 O → 2LiOH + H 2
ANS: A
83. When hydrogen peroxide decomposes, usually the only products are
a. hydrogen and oxygen. c. oxygen and water.
b. hydrogen and water. d. hydrogen, oxygen, and water.
ANS: C
84. When a glowing splint bursts into flames during the decomposition of H 2 O 2 ,
it indicates that which gas is produced?
a. hydrogen c. helium
b. oxygen d. nitrogen
ANS: A
COMPLETION
1. The oxidation number of oxygen is usually ____________________.

ANS: –2
2. The oxidation number of each hydrogen atom in a compound is usually ____________________.

ANS: +1
3. If an atom is not oxidized or reduced during a redox reaction, the ____________________ does not
change.
ANS: oxidation number
4. The part of a reaction that involves only oxidation or reduction is a ____________________.

ANS: half-reaction
5. In the reaction represented by the equation the potassium solid is

____________________ and the chlorine gas is ____________________.
ANS: oxidized, reduced
6. Reduction is a chemical change that involves the gain of ____________________.

ANS: electrons
7. The ____________________ assigned to an element in a molecule is based on the distribution of

electrons in the molecule or polyatomic ion.
ANS: oxidation number
8. The half-reaction method is one way to ____________________ redox equations.

ANS: balance
SHORT ANSWER
1. What is oxidation?
ANS: The loss of one or more electrons during a chemical reaction.
2. What is reduction?
ANS: The gain of one or more electrons during a chemical reaction.
3. What is a redox reaction?
ANS: A single reaction in which both oxidation and reduction occur.
4. What can you tell by tracking oxidation numbers?
ANS: If an atom is oxidized or reduced.
PROBLEM
1. Balance in an acidic solution.
ANS:
2.Balance in an acidic solution.
ANS:
3.Balance in an acidic solution.
ANS:
4.Balance in a basic solution.
ANS:
ESSAY
1. Explain why lithium is a strong reducing agent, whereas fluorine is a strong oxidizing agent.
ANS:
Lithium has only one electron in its outer shell. To attain a stable, noble gas electron configuration, it
must lose this electron.
Fluorine, on the other hand, has seven outer shell electrons and so must gain one electron to attain a
noble gas electron configuration.
Since strong reducing agents are oxidized by loss of electrons and strong oxidizing agents gain
electrons, lithium is a reducing agent and fluorine is an oxidizing agent.
Chapter 9—Electrochemistry
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. In which system does a spontaneous redox reaction produce electrical energy?

a. electrochemical cell c. electroplating cell
b. electrolytic cell d. half-cell
ANS: A
2. If the reactants in a spontaneous energy-releasing redox reaction are in direct contact, the energy is
released in the form of
a. light. c. heat.
b. electrical energy. d. mechanical energy.
ANS: C
3. If the reactants in a spontaneous energy-releasing redox reaction are connected externally by a wire
conductor, the energy is released in the form of
a. light. c. heat.
b. electricity. d. movement.
ANS: B
4. Where does oxidation take place in an electrochemical cell?

a. the anode c. the anode or the cathode
b. the cathode d. the half-cell
ANS: A
5. Where does reduction take place in an electrochemical cell?

a. the anode c. the anode or the cathode
b. the cathode d. the half-cell
ANS: B
6. In an electrochemical cell,
a. positive ions move toward the anode. c. positive ions do not move.
b. positive ions move toward the cathode. d. positive ions become negative ions.
ANS: B
7. The oxidation number in an anode reaction

a. decreases. c. does not change.
b. increases. d. None of the above
ANS: B
8. In an electrochemical cell, the anode is the

a. neutral electrode.
b. electrode at which matter can gain or lose electrons.
c. electrode at which matter gains electrons.
d. electrode at which matter loses electrons.
ANS: D
9. An electrochemical cell that generates electrical energy is a(n)

a. galvanic cell. c. electroplating cell.
b. electrolytic cell. d. None of the above
ANS: A
10. The movement of electrons or other charged particles is described as a(n)
a. electric potential. c. voltage.
b. electric current. d. electrode reaction.
ANS: B
11. In any electrochemical cell, the cathode is always the

a. porous electrode.
b. porous barrier.
ANS: C
12. In any electrochemical cell, the anode is always the

a. porous electrode.
b. porous barrier.
ANS: D
13. A cell is constructed in which the reactions represented by the following equations is possible.
Ag+ + e- Ag E° = +0.80 V
S + 2H+ + 2 e- H2S E° = +0.14 V
What half-reaction occurs at the cathode?

a. Ag+ + e– Ag c. S + 2H+ + 2 e– H2S
b. Ag Ag+ + e– d. H 2 S S + 2H+ + 2 e–
ANS: A
14. What is the cell notation for an electrochemical cell that uses the reaction represented by the equation
Br 2 + Zn 2Br- + Zn2+
a. Br|Br 2 || Zn|Zn2+ c. Br 2 |Br|| Zn2+ |Zn
2+
b. Br|Zn ||Zn|Br 2 d. Zn|Zn2+||Br |
ANS: D
15. A cell is constructed in which the reactions represented by the following equations is possible.
Ag+ + e Ag E° = +0.80 V
+
S + 2H + 2 e H2S E° = +0.14 V
What half-reaction occurs at the anode?

a. Ag+ + e– Ag c. S + 2H+ + 2 e– H2S
b. Ag Ag+ + e– d. H 2 S S + 2H+ + 2 e–
ANS: D
16. What type of cell generates electrical energy?

a. electrolytic cells c. galvanic cells
b. electroplating cells d. oxidation cells
ANS: C
17. In a zinc-carbon dry cell, oxidation of

a. zinc occurs at the anode. c. zinc occurs at the cathode.
b. manganese occurs at the anode. d. manganese occurs at the cathode.
ANS: A
18. In a zinc-carbon dry cell,
a. the zinc electrode is the cathode, and the carbon electrode is the anode.
b. the zinc electrode is the anode, and the carbon electrode is the cathode.
c. both electrodes are auto-oxidizing and serve as both cathodes and anodes.
d. neither electrode can be considered a cathode or an anode.
ANS: B
19. In the figure of a voltaic cell shown below, where are electrons gained?
a. A c. C
b. B d. D
ANS: B
20. Which of the following is not an example of an electrochemical cell?

a. alkaline cell c. electrolytic cell
b. dry cell d. voltaic cell
ANS: D
21. If the reactants of a voltaic cell are in contact,

a. most of the energy produced is an electric current.
b. most of the energy produced is heat.
c. oxidation and reduction do not occur.
d. hydrogen gas is released.
ANS: B
22. For electricity to flow in a voltaic cell, the two half-cells must be
a. connected by a wire and a porous barrier.
b. completely isolated from one another.
c. in the same solution.
d. connected to a dry cell. ANS: A
23. Batteries are examples of which of the following?

a. electrolytic cells c. equilibrium cells
b. galvanic cells d. None of the above ANS: B
24. Corrosion is the disintegration of metals through
a. combustion. c. oxidation.
b. reduction. d. exposure.
ANS: C
25. A corrosion cell is actually a type of

a. salt bridge. c. galvanic cell.
b. electrode. d. electrolytic cell.
ANS: C
26. Which conditions make corrosion worse?

a. airborne salt from the oceans c. air pollutants
b. salt spread on icy roads d. All of the above
ANS: D
27. To protect steel from corrosion, it is better to coat steel with another metal that
a. does not corrode. c. does corrode.
b. is expensive. d. is more durable.
ANS: C
28. The deterioration of metals is called

a. combustion. c. corrosion.
b. decomposition. d. electronegativity.
ANS: C
29. What is not needed for corrosion of metals?

a. oxygen c. water
b. ions d. sunlight
ANS: D
30. The voltage of a voltaic cell is determined by the E0 value(s) of the

a. half-reaction at the anode. c. half-reaction at the cathode.
b. half-reactions at the cathode and anode. d. standard hydrogen electrode.
ANS: B
31. Electrons in a voltaic cell normally flow

a. from cathode to anode.
b. through a porous barrier.
c. in both directions through the external circuit.
d. from anode to cathode.
ANS: D
32. A cell producing an electrical potential, or voltage, means that the cell is
a. galvanic. c. at equilibrium.
b. electrolytic. d. unstable.
ANS: A
33. What can electrode potentials predict about a half-reaction?

a. the direction the reaction takes c. the products of a reaction
b. the voltage of the reaction d. the reactants of the reaction
ANS: A
34. A more positive value for electrode potential means the electrode is more likely to be a(n)
a. anode. c. electrolytic cell.
b. cathode. d. electrochemical cell.
ANS: B
35. Based on E0 values, which metal is the most easily oxidized?

a. Hg c. Pb
b. Zn d. Au
ANS: B
36. Based on E0 values, which metal is the most easily reduced?

a. Hg c. Pb
b. Zn d. Au
ANS: D
Standard Reduction Potentials

Half-cell reaction Standard Half-cell reaction Standard
electrode electrode
potential, potential,
E0 E0
(in volts) (in volts)
F 2 + 2e– F– +2.87 Fe3+ + 3e– Fe –0.04
MnO 4 + 8H + 5e–
– +
Mn2+ + 4H 2 O +1.50 2+
Pb + 2e –
Pb –0.13
Au3+ + 3e– Au +1.50 Sn2+ + 2e– Sn –0.14
Cl 2 + 2e– 2Cl– +1.36 Ni2+ + 2e– Ni –0.26
Cr 2 O 7 2– + 14H+ + 6e– 2Cr3+ + 7H 2 O +1.23 Co2+ + 2e– Co –0.28
MnO 2 + 4H+ + 2e– Mn2+ + 2H 2 O +1.22 Cd2+ + 2e– Cd –0.40
– –
Br 2 + 2e 2Br +1.07 Fe2+ + 2e– Fe –0.45
2+ –
Hg + 2e Hg +0.85 S2+ + 2e– S2– –0.48
Ag+ + e– Ag +0.80 Cr3+ + 3e– Cr –0.74
Hg 2 2+ + 2e– 2Hg +0.80 Zn2+ + 2e– Zn –0.76
3+ – 2+ 3+ –
Fe + e Fe +0.77 Al + 3e Al –1.66
MnO 4 – + e– MnO 4 2– +0.56 Mg2+ + 2e– Mg –2.37
– –
I 2 + 2e 2I +0.54 Na+ + e– Na –2.71
2+ –
Cu + 2e Cu +0.34 Ca2+ + 2e– Ca –2.87
Cu2+ + e– Cu+ +0.15 Ba2+ + 2e– Ba –2.91
S + 2H2+(aq) + 2e– H 2 S(aq) +0.14 +
K +e –
K –2.93
2H+(aq) + 2e– H2 0.00 Li+ + e– Li –3.04
37. Calculate E0 for the spontaneous reaction when an Ag+/Ag half-cell is joined to an Hg2+/Hg half-cell.
Name the neutral metal produced.
a. +1.65 V; Ag c. +0.05 V; Ag
b. +1.65 V; Hg d. +0.05 V; Hg
ANS: D
38. Calculate E0 for the spontaneous reaction when a Co2+/Co half-cell is joined to a Cu2+/Cu half-cell.
Name the neutral metal produced.
a. +0.62 V; Cu c. +0.06 V; Cu
b. +0.62 V; Co d. +0.06 V; Co
ANS: A
39. Calculate E0 for the reaction 3Ni2+ + 2Cr → 3Ni + 2Cr3+. Is the reaction spontaneous?
a. –1.00 V; yes c. +0.48 V; yes
b. –0.48 V; no d. +0.48 V; no
ANS: C
40. In which cell does a current drive a nonspontaneous redox reaction?

a. electrolytic cell c. electrochemical cell
b. dry cell d. voltaic cell
ANS: A
41. In an electrolytic cell, reduction occurs

a. at the cathode. c. at either the cathode or the anode.
b. at the anode. d. between the cathode and anode.
ANS: A
42. In an electrolytic cell, oxidation occurs

a. at the cathode. c. at either the cathode or the anode.
b. at the anode. d. between the cathode and the anode.
ANS: B
43. In an electrolytic cell, the anode

a. can be either positively or negatively charged.
b. is not charged.
c. is positively charged.
d. is negatively charged.
ANS: C
44. In an electrolytic cell, the cathode

a. can be either positively or negatively charged.
b. is not charged.
c. is positively charged.
d. is negatively charged.
ANS: D
45. In an electrolytic cell, negative ions move toward the

a. negative electrode, and positive ions move toward the negative electrode.
b. negative electrode, and positive ions move toward the positive electrode.
c. positive electrode, and positive ions move toward the positive electrode.
d. positive electrode, and positive ions move toward the negative electrode.
ANS: D
46. Which is the source of energy for an electrolytic cell?

a. the reaction occurring in the electrolytic cell
b. an external direct-current source, such as a battery
c. ion migration in the electrolyte
d. electron migration in the electrolyte
ANS: B
47. What type of cell consumes electrical energy?

a. electrolytic cells c. galvanic cells
b. fuel cells d. oxidation cells
ANS: A
48. What is needed to create chemical changes in an electrolytic cell?
a. gravity c. electricity
b. high temperatures d. a fuel cell
ANS: C
49. Aluminum is obtained first from

a. recycling soda cans. c. bauxite.
b. pure sodium chloride. d. the electrolysis of water.
ANS: C
50. What type of process is the electrolysis reaction?

a. electrode reaction c. spontaneous
b. dry cell reaction d. nonspontaneous
ANS: D
51. Electroplating is coating a material with

a. a plastic covering. c. another metal.
b. bauxite. d. reducing agents.
ANS: C
52. Which process deposits metal onto a surface?

a. electrolysis c. autooxidation
b. electroplating d. oxidation
ANS: B
53. Electroplating is an application of which reaction?

a. electrolytic reaction c. auto-oxidation reaction
b. electrochemical reaction d. voltaic reaction
ANS: A
54. An electroplating cell contains a solution of

a. a salt of the plating metal.
b. a salt of the metal of the object that is to be plated.
c. a substance that does not carry an electric current.
d. H 2 SO 4 .
ANS: A
55. In an electroplating cell, the object to be plated is the

a. external circuit. c. anode.
b. electrolyte. d. cathode.
ANS: D
56. In an electroplating cell, the metal used to plate the object is the
ANS: C
57. In an electroplating cell, a solution of the salt of the plating metal is the
ANS: B
58. In a cell used to electroplate silver onto an object, Ag+ is
a. oxidized at the anode. c. oxidized at the cathode.
b. reduced at the anode. d. reduced at the cathode.
ANS: D
59. In a cell used to electroplate silver onto an object, Ag is

a. oxidized at the anode. c. oxidized at the cathode.
b. reduced at the anode. d. plated out at the anode.
ANS: A
60. The oxidation-reduction reactions in a rechargeable cell are the same as in

a. a voltaic cell only. c. a voltaic cell and an electrolytic cell.
b. an electrolytic cell only. d. a half-cell.
ANS: C
61. When a rechargeable cell produces electrical energy, it acts as a(n)

a. fuel cell. c. voltaic cell.
b. electrolytic cell. d. half-cell.
ANS: C
62. A rechargeable cell produces energy when

a. it is charging. c. its external circuit is not closed.
b. it is discharging. d. the porous barrier is in place.
ANS: B
63. When electrical energy is provided to a rechargeable cell from an external source, the cell acts as a(n)
a. electrochemical cell. c. voltaic cell.
b. electrolytic cell. d. half-cell.
ANS: B
64. Electrical energy is provided to a rechargeable cell from an outside source when
a. it is charging. c. its external circuit is not closed.
b. it is discharging. d. the porous barrier is in place.
ANS: A
65. What is the voltage of the standard automobile battery?

a. 1.5 V c. 12 V
b. 6 V d. 50 V
ANS: C
66. When an automobile battery is charging,

a. energy as heat is converted to energy of motion.
b. energy of motion is converted to energy as heat.
c. chemical energy is converted to electrical energy.
d. electrical energy is converted to chemical energy.
ANS: D
67. When an automobile battery is starting a car,

a. energy as heat is converted to energy of motion.
b. energy of motion is converted to energy as heat.
c. chemical energy is converted to electrical energy.
d. electrical energy is converted to chemical energy.
ANS: C
68. Which substances react in the standard automobile battery?
a. lead(IV) oxide, lead, and sulfuric acid
b. copper(II) oxide, copper, and sulfuric acid
c. zinc oxide, zinc, and sulfuric acid
d. iron(III) oxide, iron, and sulfuric acid
ANS: A
COMPLETION
1. Reactions on electrodes cannot happen unless the electrodes are ________connected____________.
2. The ________anode____________ is the electrode on which oxidation occurs.
3. A(n) _________electrode___________ is a conductor used to establish electrical contact with a

nonmetallic part of a circuit.
4. An electrochemical cell consists of two electrodes separated by an _________electrolyte___________.
5. A galvanic cell can change _______chemical energy_____________ into electrical energy.

6. In a _____ dry cell (or battery)________, moist electrolyte pastes are used instead of solutions.
7. A(n) _______alkaline_____________ has a basic electrolyte.
8. Electrolytic cells change ______electrical energy______________ into chemical energy.
9. The term ______voltage__________ represents the amount of work per unit change it would take to
move an electric charge between two points.
10. If the electrode potential of a cell is negative, the reaction can happen if ____energy____ is added.
11. An electrolytic cell ______consumes________ energy.
12. The process of _____elecrtolysis______ breaks a compound into its elements.
13. The electrolysis of ___aluminum___ is the largest single user of electrical energy in the United States.
14. The electrolytic process of coating an object with a metal is called _______electroplating_______.
15. Unlike dry cells, lead-acid cells are __________rechargeable__________.

SHORT ANSWER
1. In the figure below, what is the purpose of the part of the voltaic cell labeled C?
ANS: The porous barrier allows ions to migrate and equalize charge between the two half-cells but
prevents ions and atoms from exchanging electrons directly.
2. In which direction do electrons flow in a voltaic cell?
ANS: Electrons flow from the anode to the cathode.
3. Explain the difference between electrolytic and galvanic cells.
ANS: An electrolytic cell uses electric current to complete a chemical reaction. A galvanic cell uses a
chemical reaction to generate an electric current.
4. What is a cathode?
ANS: The electrode at which reduction occurs.
5. Describe the chemical reaction that occurs at the cathode.
ANS: The sample gains electrons, and reduction occurs.
6. Describe the chemical reaction that occurs at the anode.
ANS: The sample loses electrons, and oxidation occurs.
7. A certain electrochemical cell has Zn + HgO ZnO + Hg for its cell reaction equation. Write the
reaction that is occurring at each electrode.
ANS: Anode: ; Cathode:
8. What makes corrosion worse in some areas?

ANS: Some areas have higher ion concentrations from airborne salt near oceans, acidic air pollution,
or salt spread on icy roads.
9. Describe how a galvanic cell can drive a nonspontaneous chemical reaction.
ANS: The galvanic cell provides energy to force electrons to move and drive a chemical process that
is not spontaneous.
10. Write the anodic and cathodic reactions for the electrolysis of water.
ANS:
11. Describe electroplating.
ANS: This is the process of putting a thin layer of metal on a substance. The substance is made the
cathode and placed in a solution of the metal that is being added.
PROBLEM
Standard Reduction Potentials

Half-cell reaction Standard Half-cell reaction Standard
electrode electrode
potential, E0 potential, E0
(in volts) (in volts)
F 2 + 2e– F– +2.87 Fe3+ + 3e– Fe –0.04
– + – 2+ 2+ –
MnO 4 + 8H + 5e Mn + 4H 2 O +1.50 Pb + 2e Pb –0.13
Au3+ + 3e– Au +1.50 Sn2+ + 2e– Sn –0.14
Cl 2 + 2e– 2Cl– +1.36 Ni2+ + 2e– Ni –0.26
Cr 2 O 7 2– + 14H+ + 6e– 2Cr3+ + 7H 2 O +1.23 Co2+ + 2e– Co –0.28
MnO 2 + 4H+ + 2e– Mn2+ + 2H 2 O +1.22 Cd2+ + 2e– Cd –0.40
Br 2 + 2e– 2Br– +1.07 Fe2+ + 2e– Fe –0.45
Hg2+ + 2e– Hg +0.85 S2+ + 2e– S2– –0.48
+ – 3+ –
Ag + e Ag +0.80 Cr + 3e Cr –0.74
Hg 2 2+ + 2e– 2Hg +0.80 Zn2+ + 2e– Zn –0.76
3+ – 2+ 3+ –
Fe + e Fe +0.77 Al + 3e Al –1.66
MnO 4 – + e– MnO 4 2– +0.56 Mg2+ + 2e– Mg –2.37
– – + –
I 2 + 2e 2I +0.54 Na + e Na –2.71
Cu2+ + 2e– Cu +0.34 Ca2+ + 2e– Ca –2.87
Cu2+ + e– Cu+ +0.15 Ba2+ + 2e– Ba –2.91
2+ – + –
S + 2H (aq) + 2e H 2 S(aq) +0.14 K +e K –2.93
2H+(aq) + 2e– H2 0.00 Li+ + e– Li –3.04
1. Use the figure above to calculate the E0 cell for a calcium-chlorine cell
(Ca|Ca2+ ||Cl–|Cl 2 ).
ANS:
2. Use the figure above to calculate the E0 cell for an aluminum-gold cell (Al|Al3+||Au3+|Au).
ANS:
3. Use the figure above to calculate the E0 cell for a chromium-fluorine cell
(Cr|Cr3+||F–|F 2 ).
ANS:
4. Use the figure above to calculate the E0 cell for a lithium-tin cell (Li|Li+||Sn2+|Sn).
ANS:
5. Use the figure above to calculate the E0 cell for a cell made from iodine and bromine.
ANS:
6. Calculate the voltage of a cell composed of a copper electrode in a copper(II) solution and an
aluminum electrode in a solution with aluminum ions.
ANS:
7. Calculate the voltages of a cell composed of a lead electrode in a lead(II) solution and a silver
electrode in a solution with silver ions.
ANS:
8. The full ionic equation for an electrochemical cell is . Write the half-reaction
that occurs at the anode and the half-reaction that occurs at the cathode.
ANS:
9. A cell is constructed in which the reactions represented by the following equations is possible:
Write the half-reaction that occurs at the cathode and the half-reaction that occurs at the anode.
ANS:
ESSAY
1. List two observations that would suggest that a chemical reaction is occurring in a voltaic cell.
ANS: Answers will vary. Some examples: electrical energy is produced, gas evolves at the electrodes,
the color of the solution changes, and the masses of the electrodes change.
2. Describe the different ways an electrochemical cell can function.
ANS: The electrochemical cell functions as a galvanic cell if the voltage applied is less than the
equilibrium voltage. It functions as an electrolytic cell if the applied voltage is greater than the
equilibrium voltage. It functions as an equilibrium cell if the applied voltage equals the equilibrium
voltage.
Chapters 10 and 11—Organic Chemistry
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Carbon shows a very strong tendency to form

a. ionic bonds. c. hydrogen bonds.
b. covalent bonds. d. highly polar bonds.
ANS: B
2. How many covalent bonds can a carbon atom usually form?

a. 2 c. 4
b. 3 d. 5
ANS: C
3. When a carbon atom forms four covalent bonds, the bonds are directed toward the corners of a
a. triangle. c. square.
b. pyramid. d. tetrahedron.
ANS: D
4. Carbon atoms readily join with atoms of

a. metals. c. both other elements and carbon.
b. carbon only. d. nonmetals.
ANS: C
5. What do all organic compounds contain?

a. hydrogen c. oxygen
b. water d. carbon
ANS: D
6. Organic compounds are defined as all covalently bonded compounds containing carbon except
a. oxides and carbonates. c. ethers and esters.
b. alcohols and acids. d. aldehydes and ketones.
ANS: A
7. The diversity of organic compounds is so great because carbon

a. has many allotropes. c. compounds have many isomers.
b. has many isotopes. d. compounds are very reactive.
ANS: C
8. Which formula shows the numbers and types of atoms in a molecule but not the bonds?
a. molecular formula c. empirical formula
b. structural formula d. ionic formula
ANS: A
9. In which of the following are the atoms bonded in a different order?

a. structural isomers c. three-dimensional models
b. geometric isomers d. organic compounds
ANS: A
10. In which of the following are atoms bonded in the same order but arranged differently in space?
a. structural isomers c. three-dimensional models
b. geometric isomers d. organic compounds ANS: B
11. What type of bond is rigid and does not allow atoms to rotate freely?
a. ionic bond c. single bond
b. double bond d. hydrogen bond
ANS: B
12. When two identical atoms are on the same side, the molecule is
a. cis. c. structural.
b. trans. d. rigid.
ANS: A
13. Isomers are compounds that have

a. the same molecular formula but different structures.
b. the same molecular formula and the same structure.
c. different molecular formulas and different structures.
d. different molecular formulas but the same structure.
ANS: A
14. Which formula is most useful in distinguishing isomers?

a. molecular formula c. empirical formula
b. structural formula d. ionic formula
ANS: B
15. How many structural isomers does C 4 H 10 have?

a. one c. three
b. two d. five
ANS: B
16. How many structural isomers does C 5 H 12 have?

a. one c. three
b. two d. five
ANS: C
17. Which hydrocarbons have six-membered carbon rings and delocalized electrons?
a. alkanes c. alkynes
b. alkenes d. aromatic hydrocarbons
ANS: D
18. Adjacent members differ by a constant unit in a(n)

a. homologous series. c. alkane.
b. saturated hydrocarbon. d. cycloalkane.
ANS: A
19. The carbon-hydrogen bonds of alkanes are

a. polar. c. double bonds.
b. nonpolar. d. ionic bonds.
ANS: A
20. Each carbon atom in a molecule forms four single covalent bonds with other atoms in a(n)
a. aromatic hydrocarbon. c. structural isomer.
b. saturated hydrocarbon. d. geometric isomer.
ANS: B
21. Hydrocarbons are grouped into series according to the
a. number of carbon atoms. c. bonds between carbon atoms.
b. isotope of carbon. d. mass of the compounds.
ANS: C
22. Hydrocarbons in which carbon atoms are connected by only single bonds in straight chains or
branched chains are called
a. aromatic hydrocarbons. c. alkenes.
b. alkynes. d. alkanes.
ANS: D
23. The two resonance structures of benzene have

a. only single bonds. c. alternating double and triple bonds.
b. only double bonds. d. alternating single and double bonds.
ANS: D
24. Which of the following is an alkane?

a. propyne c. propene
b. propane d. propyl bromide
ANS: B
25. Hydrocarbons in which carbon atoms form only single bonds and are arranged in a ring are called
a. cycloalkanes. c. alkenes.
b. alkynes. d. aromatic hydrocarbons.
ANS: A
26. In alkanes with three or fewer carbon atoms,

a. the chains can be straight or branched.
b. structural isomers exist.
c. only one molecular structure is possible.
d. usually one but sometimes more than one molecular structure is possible.
ANS: C
27. Which statement about London dispersion forces is correct?

a. Their strength increases as the mass of the molecule increases.
b. Their strength decreases as the mass of the molecule increases.
c. Their strength increases as the mass of the molecule decreases.
d. Their strength does not depend on the mass of the molecule.
ANS: A
28. What are forms of the same element in the same state that have different properties?
a. monomers c. allotropes
b. isotopes d. isomers
ANS: C
29. What are two allotropic forms of carbon?

a. carbon-12 and carbon-14 c. solid carbon and liquid carbon
b. alkanes and alkenes d. diamond and graphite
ANS: D
30.Which statement about the hardness of diamond and graphite is correct?
a. Diamond is very soft, and graphite is very hard.
b. Diamond is very hard, and graphite is very soft.
c. Both diamond and graphite are very hard.
d. Both diamond and graphite are very soft.
ANS: B
31. Which allotrope of carbon was the most recently discovered?

a. diamond c. fullerenes
b. carbon-14 d. carbon-12
ANS: C
32. The atoms in graphite

a. form a tetrahedral network.
b. are arranged in squares.
c. are arranged in layers that form thin hexagonal plates.
d. form a face-centered cube.
ANS: C
33. The atoms in a fullerene

a. form a tetrahedral network.
b. form near-spherical cage-like structures.
c. are arranged in layers of thin hexagonal plates.
d. either form a body-centered cube or exhibit closest hexagonal packing.
ANS: B
34. Paraffin is a solid at room temperature because it is composed of alkanes with

a. high molecular masses. c. strong London dispersion forces.
b. low molecular masses. d. Both (a) and (c)
ANS: D
35. Which alkene is used to synthesize plastics?

a. ethene c. pentene
b. α-farnesene d. paraffin
ANS: A
36. Which alkyne combusts with pure oxygen to release intense energy as heat in welding torches?
a. ethyne c. 3-methyl-1-butyne
b. 1-pentyne d. propyne
ANS: A
37. Which of the following is an atom or a group of atoms responsible for the specific properties of an
organic compound?
a. isomer c. substituted hydrocarbon
b. hydrocarbon d. functional group
ANS: D
38. What is the functional group in carboxylic acids?

a. –COOH c. –CO
b. –OH d. –O–
ANS: A
39.What is the name of the functional group –OH?
a. hydroxyl group c. carboxyl group
b. amine group d. hydroxide ion
ANS: A
40. The systematic names of ketones end in

a. -al. c. -ol.
b. -one. d. -oic.
ANS: B
41. What are alkanes called when atoms of fluorine, chlorine, bromine, or iodine are substituted for
hydrogen atoms?
a. aldehydes c. alkyl halides
b. ketones d. carboxylic acids
ANS: C
42. How is the functional group in alkyl halides often written?

a. –OX c. –X
b. –XO d. –O–
ANS: C
43. What is the general formula for ethers?

a. R–O–R' c. R–COO–R'
b. R–COOH d. R–CHO
ANS: A
44. A carbonyl group consists of

a. one carbon atom and one oxygen atom. c. one carbon atom and two oxygen atoms.
b. two carbon atoms and one oxygen atom. d. two carbon atoms and two oxygen atoms.
ANS: A
45. Which class of compounds contains a carbonyl group bonded to a hydrogen atom?
a. alcohols c. ethers
b. aldehydes d. ketones
ANS: B
46. Which class of compounds contains a carbonyl group bonded to two carbon groups?
a. alcohols c. ethers
b. aldehydes d. ketones
ANS: D
47. What is the formula of the carboxyl group?

a. –CHO c. –OH
b. –COOH d. –CO
ANS: B
48. Which group of organic compounds can be considered derivatives of ammonia, NH 3 ?

a. ester c. aldehyde
b. ketone d. amine
ANS: D
49.What is the general formula of esters?
a. R–COO–R' c. R–CO–R'
b. R–COOH d. R–CHO
ANS: A
50. Which of the following compounds is used in cold creams, body lotions, and lipsticks?
a. ethanol c. glycerol
b. ethylene glycol d. methanol
ANS: C
51. Which of the following compounds attacks ozone in the upper atmosphere?
a. dichlorodifluoromethane c. tetrachloromethane
b. tetrafluoroethene polymer d. polyvinylchloride
ANS: A
52. In many organic reactions, an ether is used as a solvent instead of

a. an alkane. c. an alkyl halide.
b. an alcohol. d. water.
ANS: D
53. Ethers are mainly used as

a. medicines. c. antiseptics.
b. fuels. d. solvents.
ANS: D
54. Carboxylic acids are

a. weak acids. c. sometimes weak bases.
b. strong acids. d. amphoteric.
ANS: A
55. The chemical properties of amines depend on the electronic structure of the
a. nitrogen atom. c. ammonia molecule.
b. hydrogen atom. d. carbon atom
ANS: A
56. In which organic reaction does one or more atoms replace another atom or group of atoms in a
molecule?
a. substitution c. condensation
b. addition d. elimination
ANS: A
57. In which organic reaction does an atom or molecule join to an unsaturated molecule and increase its
saturation?
a. substitution c. addition
b. elimination d. condensation
ANS: C
58. In which organic reaction do two molecules or parts of the same molecule combine?
ANS: C
59.Which organic reaction can form a protein molecule if repeated many times?
b. elimination d. addition
ANS: C
60. In which organic reaction does a chlorine atom replace a hydrogen atom in a methane molecule?
ANS: A
61. To which group of organic reactions does hydrogenation belong?

b. elimination d. addition
ANS: A
62. Which functional group is formed by an alkane and a halogen in a substitution reaction?
a. ketone c. alcohol
b. ester d. alkyl halide
ANS: D
63. Which functional groups can combine to form a water molecule in a condensation reaction?
a. amine and carboxyl c. carboxyl and aldehyde
b. amine and ether d. alcohol and alkane
ANS: A
64. Which of the following are large molecules made of many small units joined by organic reactions?
a. monomers c. polymers
b. copolymers d. linear polymers
ANS: C
65. Which of the following are the small units joined to each other by organic reactions in a polymer?
a. monomers c. copolymers
b. micropolymers d. linear polymers
ANS: A
66. What are the two main types of polymers?

a. thermoplastic and thermosetting
b. monomers and copolymers
c. linear polymers and branched polymers
d. addition polymers and condensation polymers
ANS: D
67. What polymer is formed by a chain addition reaction between monomers that have a double bond?
a. addition polymer c. branched polymer
b. condensation polymer d. cross-linked polymer
ANS: A
68. In an addition reaction, monomers are joined by reactions involving

a. identical functional groups. c. single bonds.
b. different functional groups. d. double bonds.
ANS: D
69. What polymers usually consist of two alternating monomers?
a. addition polymers c. branched polymers
b. condensation polymers d. cross-linked polymers
ANS: B
70. Monomers in condensation polymers must have

a. a double bond. c. three monomers.
b. two different functional groups. d. cross-links.
ANS: B
71. Linear molecules packed closely together form

a. cross-linked polyethylene. c. polyethylene.
b. high-density polyethylene. d. polystyrene.
ANS: B
72. Permanent-press fabrics can be made from which of the following polymers?
a. polyester c. vinyl acetate
b. polyethylene d. vinyl chloride
ANS: A
SHORT ANSWER
Construct the structural formulas for each of the following compounds.
1.propane ANS:
ANS:
4. 2-methylbutane
2. 2-methylpropane ANS:
ANS:
Provide the IUPAC names for each of the

following compounds.
3. butane
5.
ANS: ethene 10.
6.
ANS: 1,3-butadiene
7.
ANS: ethylcyclopentane
11.
ANS: 1,3-butadiene
8.
ANS: methylcyclohexane
12.
ANS: 2-bromo-1-propene
9.
ANS: 2,3-dimethylbutane
13.
ANS: 1,2-propadiene
ANS: 14.
1,3-dimethylcyclohexane
ANS: 3-hexyne
15.
21. ____________________________
ANS: 1,2-propadiene
16. ANS: ether
22. ____________________________
ANS: propyne
17. ANS: alkyl halide
23. ____________________________
ANS: trans-1,2-dichloroethane
18.
ANS: ether
ANS: ethyne
24. ____________________________
Provide the class name for each of the
following compounds.
19. ___________________________
ANS: aldehyde
25. ____________________________
ANS: alcohol ANS: carboxylic acid
20. ____________________________ 26. ____________________________
ANS: ester
ANS: alkyl halide
27. ____________________________
ANS: amine
ANS: carboxylic acid
28. ____________________________
ESSAY
1. Is fractional distillation a chemical or physical process? Support your answer in your description of the
process. Be as specific as possible.
ANS: Fractional distillation is a physical process used in the separation of the various components of
petroleum on the basis of boiling point difference. Petroleum consists of many different alkanes of
various molecular masses. They are separated physically in fractional distillation but undergo no
change in chemical composition. (The latter is necessary for a chemical process.)
The first group of alkanes to be collected is composed of low molecular mass hydrocarbons
such as gasoline, followed by kerosene. These can have from 4-14 carbons each. Their boiling points
are low. Then there are the “middle distillates” of moderate molecular mass with 12-20 carbons each.
These include diesel fuel and heating oil. Their boiling points are higher. Then there are the “wide-cut”
fractions with 20-36 carbons each. These include lubricating oils and waxes. Their boiling points are
very high. Lastly, there is an asphalt residue.
The large range of boiling points, increasing with molecular mass of the alkanes, permits the
fractions to be boiled off then condensed separately in the distillation column. For example, alkanes
that have higher boiling points have higher condensation temperatures and condense for collection
lower in the tower.
2.What are the major differences between the two reactions used to make polymers? Give an example of each
type of reaction and its product(s)?
ANS: The two types of reactions used to make polymers are addition and condensation reactions. One
major difference between the two is that the monomers used in the addition reaction are the same,
while those in the condensation reaction are usually different. Another difference is that the monomers
used in the addition reaction contain double bonds, while those in the condensation reaction contain
two functional groups.
An example of an addition reaction to form polymers uses molecules of ethene that polymerize
in the presence of a catalyst to form polyethene, commonly known as polyethylene. There are many
different types of polyethylene such as high- or low-density or cross-linked polyethylene.
The condensation reaction used to make polymers starts with monomers with two functional
groups. This permits each monomer to link with two other monomers. Usually the monomers are
different, making the products of these polymerization reactions copolymers. An example of a
condensation reaction is the production of nylon 66. Nylon 66 is made by combining adipic acid and
hexanediamine monomers. Water is a by-product of the reaction.

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Chapter 1—Solutions

1. Which of the following has components in a nonuniform arrangement?

2. A heterogeneous mixture always contains

3. Which of the following is a heterogeneous mixture?

4. Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture?

5. Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture of substances in a single phase?

6. All of the following are homogeneous mixtures except

7. All of the following are heterogeneous mixtures except

8. Water in air is an example of which solute-solvent combination?

9. Carbon dioxide dissolved in water is an example of which solute-solvent combination?

11. Oxygen in nitrogen is an example of which solute-solvent combination?

12. Which is not an example of a colloid?

13. Which mixture is made up of the smallest particles?

16. A metal solution is a(n)

17. A foam is a colloidal dispersion of

18. The colloidal particles in a colloid form the

23. Which of the following is an electrolyte?

26. Which of the following is a nonelectrolyte?

27. Substances whose water solutions conduct electricity easily

29. Increasing the surface area of the solute

31. Stirring increases the rate of dissolution because it

32. Which of the following will dissolve most rapidly?

33. Which of the following will dissolve most slowly?

34. Raising the collision rate between solute and solvent

35. Raising solvent temperature causes solvent-solute collisions to become

37. Which of the following is at equilibrium when undissolved solute is visible?

40. In a solution at equilibrium,

41. The solubility of a substance at a given temperature is generally expressed as

42. Solubilities, expressed as grams/100. g of water,

43. Which of the following is likely to produce crystals if disturbed?

44. The rate of dissolution is

47. Which of the following is an example of a polar solvent?

49. In a solution, the slightly charged part of a water molecule

50. Which of the following is soluble in water?

51. The solubility of ethanol, CH 3 CH 2 OH, molecules in water is enhanced by

52. Two immiscible substances

54. An endothermic dissolution process

55. During the dissolving process, which particles interact?

56. Which of the following releases energy?

58. Increasing temperature favors dissolution when

59. The dissolution of gases in liquids is generally

60. Enthalpy of solution is generally expressed in

62. The formation of solid-liquid solutions

63. Pressure has the greatest effect on the solubility of

64. The solubility of gases in liquids

65. Henry's law relates

67. Effervescence is the

68. As temperature increases, solubility of gases in liquids

69. As temperature increases, solubility of solids in liquids

70. A molar solution of CaCl 2 contains

71. Which of the following expresses concentration?

1. Agitation prevents a(n) ____________________ from settling.

2. Particles in an emulsion are ____________________ than the particles in a suspension.

3. A(n) ____________________ solution is at equilibrium when undissolved solute is visible.

5. Water is an example of a(n) __________polar__________ solvent.

ANS: molar mass of the solute

ANS: 1.33 M NaNO 3

ANS: 0.104 M sucrose

ANS: 3.60 g NaOH

ANS: 79.0 g NaC 2 H 3 O 2

ANS: 50.9 mL HCl solution

ANS: 3.00 L HCl solution

1. How is a solute distinguished from a solvent?

5. Describe how to prepare 1.00 L of a 0.10 M aqueous solution of NaCl.

5. Water is an example of a(n) polar solvent.