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SYNCHRO TEST-8f
SYNCHRO TEST-8f
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
Important Instructions:
A. General Instructions
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen. Use of
pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out
the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
5. This question paper contains Three Parts.
6. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
7. Each Part has only one section: Section - A.
8. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided for rough
work.
9. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in any
form, are not allowed.
10. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the
Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
11. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall / room.
12. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room / Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
13. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
(i) Section-A (01 – 20, 26 – 45, 51 – 70) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Section-A (21 – 25, 46 – 50, 71 – 75) contains 15 Numerical based questions, the answer of which
maybe positive or negative numbers or decimals and each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer. There is no negative marking.
PART – I: PHYSICS
Section – A: Single Correct Answer Type
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A body freely falling from rest has a velocity ‘v’ after falling through a height h. The distance
it has to fall down for its velocity to become double is
(A) 2h (B) 4h (C) 6h (D) 8h
2. A steel wire having a radius of 2.0 mm, carrying a load of 4 kg, is hanging from a ceiling.
Given that g = 3.1π ms−2 , what will be the tensile stress that would be developed in the
wire?
(A) 6.2 × 106 Nm−2 (B) 4.8 × 106 Nm−2 (C) 5.2 × 106 Nm−2 (D) 3.1× 106 Nm−2
3. A ball strikes a wall with a velocity at an angle θ with the normal to the wall surface and
rebounds from it at an angle β with the surface. Then:
(A) , if the wall is smooth
(B) if the wall is smooth, coefficient of restitution =
5. A cubical box of side L is filled with a liquids of densities ρ. The liquid fills half the volume of
the vessel. Then the net force on any one vertical side wall of the vessel due to liquid is.
[Neglect atm pressure]
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6. A cylindrical vessel is filled with water upto height h. The vessel empties in time t sec. if the
water is now filled upto height ηh, the vessel will be emptied in time
(A) ηt sec (B) η2t sec (C) t sec (D) t/η sec
7. a1 1
In an interference experiment the ratio of amplitudes of coherent waves is = . The
a2 3
ratio of maximum and minimum intensities of fringes will be:
(A) 9 (B) 4 (C) 18 (D) 2
8. Two particles are in SHM in parallel straight lines close to each other. Amplitude A and
time period T of both the particles are equal. At t = 0, one particle is at displacement
and other at and they are approaching towards each other. After what
time will they cross each other?
(A) T/3 (B) T/4 (C) 5T/6 (D) T/6
9. A parallel plate capacitor has 1µF capacitance. One of its two plates is given + 2µC charge
and the other plate, +4µC charge. The potential difference developed across the capacitor
is:
(A) 3V (B) 1V (C) 5V (D) 2V
10. Two tuning forks A and B sounded together give 8 beats per second. With an air
resonance tube closed at one end, the two forks give resonance when the two air columns
are 32 cm and 33 cm respectively. What will be the frequencies of the two forks?
(A) 264 Hz, 256 Hz (B) 340 Hz, 358 Hz (C) 222 Hz, 300 Hz (D) 176 Hz, 184 Hz
11. A cell of internal resistance r drives current through an external resistance R. The power
delivered by the cell to the external resistance will be maximum when:
(A) R = 0.001 r (B) R = 1000 r (C) R = 2r (D) R = r
12. A certain charge ‘Q’ is divided into two parts, q and , such that when they are
placed at a separation ‘r’ apart, the coulombic repulsion between them is maximum. Then
the work done in reducing this distance to half its value, i.e., r/2 is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
13. A fully charged capacitor has a capacitance C. It is discharged through a small coil of
resistance wire embedded in a thermally insulated block of specific heat capacity s and
mass m. if the temperature of the block is raised by , the potential difference V across
the capacitance is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
14. A moving coil galvanometer has resistance 50 Ω and it indicates full deflection at 4mA
current. A voltmeter is made using this galvanometer and a 5 kΩ resistance. The maximum
voltage, that can be measured using this voltamenter, will be close to:
(A) 15 V (B) 20 V (C) 10 V (D) 40 V
15. Two infinitely long straight wires lie in the x – y plane along x and y axis, respectively. Each
wire carries a current , respectively, in positive direction of x and y axes. The locus of the
points, where the magnetic field is zero, is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Space for rough work
16. An alternating voltage v ( t ) = 220 sin100 πt volt is applied to a purely resistive load of 50 Ω .
The time taken for the current to rise from half of the peak value of the peak value is:
(A) 2.2 ms (B) 3.3 ms (C) 5 ms (D) 7.2 ms
17. A concave mirror for face viewing has focal length of 0.4 m. The distance at which you hold
the mirror from your face in order to see your image upright with a magnification of 5 is:
(A) 0.16 m (B) 1.60 m (C) 0.24 m (D) 0.32 m
19. If a stationary electron gets annihilated due to the association with a stationary positron
(hypothetically), the wavelength of the resulting radiation will be (m0= rest mass of electron(
or positron) , c=speed of light )
SECTION – A
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 05 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
40 16
21. The ratio of mass densities of nuclei of Ca and O is close to ______.
22. A lens has a power in air. Its new focal length (in m) if it is completely immersed in
water is? [Given aµw = 4/3 and aµg = 3/2]
2πx N
23. The electric field of light wave is given as E = 10−3 cos −7
− 2π × 6 × 1014 t xɵ . This
5 × 10 C
light falls on a metal plate of work function 2eV. The stopping potential of the photo-
electrons is:
25. A gas has a density of kg/m3 and the velocity of the sound in it is 330 m/s under
standard conditions. Then the number of degrees of freedom the gas will have under
these conditions will be
Space for rough work
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
26 Number of moles of MnO4− required to oxidize one mole of ferrous oxalate completely in acidic medium
will be
(A) 0.6 moles (B) 0.4 moles (C) 7.5 moles (D) 0.2 moles
27. For the gas phase reaction, PCl5 ( g ) ⇌ PCl3 ( g ) + Cl2 ( g ) Which of the following conditions are correct?
(A) ∆H = 0 & ∆S < 0 (B) ∆H > 0 & ∆S > 0 (C) ∆H < 0 & ∆S < 0 (D) ∆H > 0 & ∆S < 0
29 When electrons are trapped into the crystalline anion vacancy, the defect is known as
(A) Schottky defect (B) Stoichiometric defect (C) Frenkel defect (D) F-centres
30 The specific conductance of a 0.1 N KCl solution at 23°C is 0.012 Ω−1 cm – . The resistance of cell
containing the solution at the same temperature was found to be 55 Ω . The cell constant will be
(A) 0.142cm −1 (B) 0.66cm −1 (C) 0.918cm−1 (D) 1.12cm−1
31 E ° Fe2+ / Fe = −0.441 V and E ° Fe3+ / Fe2+ = 0.771 V, The standard emf of the reaction Fe + 2 Fe3+
→ 3Fe 2+ will
be
(A) 0.111V (B) 0.330 V (C) 1.653 V (D) 1.212 V
32 In a first order reaction. A → B , if k is rate constant an initial concentration of the reactant A is 0.5 M,
Then the half life is
0693 log 2 log 2 ln2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
0.5k k k 0.5 k
37 Which of the following is an outer orbital complex and exhibits paramagnetic behaviour?
2+ 2+ 3+ 3+
(A) Ni ( NH 3 )6 (B) Zn ( NH 3 )6 (C) Cr ( NH 3 )6 (D) Co ( NH 3 )6
38 → 2CuI ↓ + [ X ]
2Cu 2 + + 5I −
[ X ] + 2S2O32−
→ 3[Y ] + S 4O62 − ; X and Y are
(A) I 3− and I − (B) I 2 & I 3− (C) I 2 & I − (D) I 3− and I 2
40
A ( predominantly) is
41
The reaction
Which of the following compounds will be formed?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
SECTION – A
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 05 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
46. What is the pH of 0.2 M CH3COONH4 solution?
[Given Ka of CH3COOH = Kb of NH4OH = 10–5]
47. How much heat is produced in calorie by heating one mole of an ideal gas at constant
3R
pressure from 10oC to 14oC? (CP of the gas = )
4
48. What is the rate constant k(in mol L–1s–1 unit) of a reaction which graph is given below:
20
15
t1/2
(in sec) 10
20 40 60 80
–1
Initial conc.(in mol L )
49. How many of the following compound(s) is/are more reactive than benzene towards
electrophilic bromination with Br2/Fe?
OH Cl NO2 CH3 C2H5 COCH3
, , , , ,
50. Heat
FeSO 4 → (P ) + SO 2 + SO3
How many atom(s) is/are present in one molecule of (P)?
space for rough work
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
52. If a, b, c, c1, a1, e ∈ R , all are distinct and satisfy the relations a(b+c)2 +a1bc+e=0 and
a(b+c1 )2 +a1bc1 +e=0 , then
(A) a(c+c1 )=2(a+a1 )b (B) acc1 =e-ab 2
(C) a(c + c1 ) = (a + a1 )b (D) acc1 = e + ab2
53. ∑ r(
r =1
n
Cr −n Cr −1 ) is equal to
54. Let a = ˆi + j, b = 2iˆ − k . The position vector of the point of intersection of the lines
r × a = b × a and r × b = a × b is
(A) 3iˆ + ˆj − kˆ (B) 3iˆ − ˆj + kˆ
(C) 3iˆ − ˆj − kˆ (D) none of these
55. a, b are two mutually perpendicular unit vectors and c is a unit vector that is inclined at
an angle θ to both a and b . If c = x1a + x 2 b + x 3 (a × b) , then
(A) x1 = x 2 + 1 (B) x 22 = − cosθ
(C) x 32 = 1 − 2x12 (D) x 22 = 1 − 2x 32
n −1
r
57. a n = ∑ x + , where [.] denote the greatest integer function, then the value of
r =0 n
a1 + a 2 + a 3 + ..... + a n
lim =
n →∞ n2
x
(A) x (B)
2
x
(C) (D) none of these
3
58. f(x)=[x2]-{x}2, where [.] and {.} denote the greatest integer function and fractional part
function respectively, is
(A) continuous at x = 1, -1 (B) continuous at x = -1 but not at x = 1
(C) continuous at x = 1 but not at x = -1 (D) discontinuous at x = 1 and x = -1
ax + b dy d 3 y
61. y= , then 2. . 3 is equal to
cx + d dx dx
2
d2 y d2 y
(A) 2
(B) 3.
dx dx 2
2
d2 y
(C) 3 2 (D) none of these.
dx
62. If the tangent to the curve xy+ax+by=0 at (1, 1) makes an angle tan-1(2) with x-axis, then
a+b
is equal to
ab
(A) 1/2 (B) – 1/2
(C) 1 (D) -1
Space for rough work
ℓn 3
e x -1
64. ∫
− ℓn 3
ex +1
dx is equal to
4 2
(A) ℓn (B) ℓn
3 3
4 2
(C) 2.ℓn (D) 2.ℓn
3 3
65. The exhaustive set of values of ‘a’ such that x2 + ax +sin−1(x2 − 4x +5) + cos−1(x2 −4x +5) = 0 has at
least one solution is
π π
(A) −2 − (B) −∞, −2 −
4 4
π π
(C) −∞, −2 − (D) −2 − , −∞
4 4
66. If the side of a triangle ABC are in A.P.(order being a,b,c) and
2! 2! 1 8a
satisfy + + = , then cos A + cos B =
1!9! 3!7! 5!5! (2b)!
12 13
(A) (B)
7 7
11 10
(C) (D)
7 7
67. The combined equation of the straight lines that are obtained by reflecting the lines
y = x − 2 in the y-axis, is
(A) y2 + x 2 + 4x + 4 = 0 (B) y2 + x 2 − 4x + 4 = 0
(C) y2 − x 2 + 4x − 4 = 0 (D) y 2 − x 2 − 4x − 4 = 0
Space for rough work
68. Tangent drawn to x 2 + y2 = 25 at the point P(3,4) meets the circle x 2 + y2 = 81 at the points
A and B. If the tangents drawn to x2+y2=81 at the points A and B intersect at C, then co-
ordinates of ‘C’ are
243 81 243 324
(A) , (B) ,
25 25 25 25
243 81
(C) , (D) none of these
5 25
69. If the circle x 2 + y2 + 2ax + 2by + c = 0 passes through exactly three quadrants and does not
pass through origin, then
(A) c > 0, a 2 > b2 (B) c < 0, a 2 + b 2 > 2c
(C) c(a 2 − c)(b2 − c) < 0 (D) c > 0, a 2 > c, b 2 > c
SECTION – A
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 05 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
71. Total number of positive integral solutions of x1 + x2 + x3 = 24 and x12 + x22 = x32 is equal to
72. If S(n) denotes the sum of first ‘n’ terms of a certain A.P. with common difference 5,
then S(3n) =
S(2n) − S(n)
73. Sum of elements in the range of f(x)=[cos-1{x}], where [.] and {.} denote the greatest
integer function and fractional part function respectively, is equal to
3 A 5A 1
74. If cos A = , then the value of the expression 32 sin .sin − is equal to
4 2 2 4
75. P(t 2 , 2t), t ∈ ( 0,1] is an arbitrary point on y2 = 4x .’Q’ is the foot of perpendicular drawn from
focus ‘S’ to tangent drawn at ‘P’ Maximum area of triangle PQS is
Space for rough work