Professional Documents
Culture Documents
CA KOUSHIK MUKHESH
CA KOUSHIK MUKHESH 0
INDEX
Sl.no Chapter Page no
1 FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999 2
2 FOREIGN CONTRIBUTION REGULATION ACT, 2010 83
SECURITISATION AND RECONSTRUCTION OF FINANCIAL ASSETS
3 108
AND ENFORCEMENT OF SECURITY INTEREST ACT, 2002
4 INSOLVENCY AND BANKRUPTCY CODE, 2016 142
5 PREVENTION OF MONEY LAUNDERING ACT, 2002 231
6 ARBITRATION AND CONCILIATION ACT, 1996 259
7 SECURITIES CONTRACTS REGULATION ACT, 1956 282
SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE BOARD OF INDIA (LISTING
8 OBLIGATIONS AND DISCLOSURES REQUIREMENTS) 308
REGULATIONS, 2015
9 SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE BOARD OF INDIA ACT, 1992 326
CA KOUSHIK MUKHESH 1
THE FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
CA KOUSHIK MUKHESH 2
THE FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
INTRODUCTION
1. INDIA BEFORE FEMA [NOT FOR EXAMS]
India had for a long time adverse balance of payment position in international trade. That means,
imports are higher than the exports. Due to this there was a shortage of foreign exchange in India.
a
Foreign exchange regulation act was introduced in 1947. This was later replaced by Foreign
exchange regulation act 1973.
TO REGULATE is to control or restrict by rule. The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973 (FERA)
is gone with the year 1999. There was a general dislike for it for a variety of reasons. It conferred
b enormous powers on relatively junior officers of the Government. It proved ineffective despite all
the sound and fury that it generated, because it could rarely reach the men behind the scene. It was
mostly the small fry - the stooges - that suffered vicarious punishment.
Government therefore initiated process of liberalization of economy in the year 1991 on the basic
idea given by revolutionary Prime Minister Shri P.V. Narasimha Rao. In this connection, foreign
c
investments in various sectors was permitted. In view of this, FERA has been repealed and FEMA
has been passed.
An Act to consolidate and amend the law relating to foreign exchange with the objective of facilitating
external trade and payments and for promoting the orderly development and maintenance of Foreign
Exchange market in India.
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THE FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
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THE FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
Nature of All transactions are prohibited unless All transactions are permitted unless
transactions permitted. prohibited.
Approach Rigid Flexible
Internal Judiciary being special
Appeal External Judiciary being High Court director (appeals) or Appellate
tribunal.
Onus of proof On the guilty On the prosecution
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THE FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
4. DEFINITIONS
Sl.no. Term Content
Adjudicating Adjudicating Authority means an officer authorised under sub-section (1)
1
Authority of section 16.
Appellate Tribunal means the Appellate Tribunal referred to in section
2 Appellate tribunal
18.
Authorised person means an authorised dealer, money changer, off-shore
3 Authorized Person banking unit or any other person for the time being authorised under sub-
section (1) of section 10 to deal in foreign exchange or foreign securities.
Authorised Officer" means an officer of the Directorate of Enforcement
4 Authorised officer
authorised by the Central Government under section 37A.
5 Bench Bench means a Bench of the Appellate Tribunal.
Capital Account Transaction means a transaction, which alters the assets
or liabilities, including contingent liabilities, outside India of persons
Capital account
6 resident in India or assets or liability in India of person resident outside
Transaction
India, and includes transactions referred to in sub-section (3) of Section
6.
7 Chairperson Chairperson means the Chairperson of the Appellate Tribunal.
Chartered Chartered Accountant shall have the meaning assigned to it in clause (b)
8
Accountant of sub-section (1) of Section 2 of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949.
Competent Competent Authority means the Authority appointed by the Central
9
authority Government under sub-section (2) of section 37A.
Currency includes all currency notes, postal notes, postal orders, money
orders, cheques, drafts, travellers cheques, letters of credit, bills of
10 Currency
exchange and promissory notes, credit cards or such other similar
instruments, as may be notified by the Reserve Bank.
Currency Notes means and includes cash in the form of coins and bank
11 Currency notes
notes.
Current Account Transaction means a transaction other than a capital
account transaction and without prejudice to the generality of the
foregoing such transaction includes,
(i) Payments due in connection with foreign trade, other current
business, services, and short-term banking and credit facilities in the
Current account ordinary course of business.
12
transaction (ii) Payments due as interest on loans and as net income from
investments.
(iii) Remittances for living expenses of parents, spouse and children
residing abroad, and
(iv) Expenses in connection with foreign travel, education and medical
care of parents, spouse and children.
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THE FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
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THE FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
(A) a person who has gone out of India or who stays outside India, in
either case—
(a) For or on taking up employment outside India, or
(b) For carrying on outside India a business or vocation outside
India, or
(c) For any other purpose, in such circumstances as would
indicate his intention to stay outside India for an uncertain period.
(B) a person who has come to or stays in India, in either case, otherwise
than:
(a) For or on taking up employment in India, or
(b) For carrying on in India a business or vocation in India, or
(c) For any other purpose, in such circumstances as would
indicate his intention to stay in India for an uncertain period.
(ii) Any person or body corporate registered or incorporated in India.
(iii) An office, branch or agency in India owned or controlled by a person
resident outside India.
(iv) An office, branch or agency outside India owned or controlled by a
person resident in India.
Person resident Person Resident Outside India means a person who is not resident in
24
outside India India.
Repatriate to India means bringing into India the realised foreign
exchange and
(i) the selling of such foreign exchange to an authorised person in India in
exchange for rupees, or
25 Repatriate to India (ii) the holding of realised amount in an account with an authorised
person in India to the extent notified by the Reserve Bank. It includes use
of the realised amount for discharge of a debt or liability denominated in
foreign exchange and the expression “repatriation” shall be construed
accordingly.
Transfer includes sale, purchase, exchange, mortgage, pledge, gift, loan or
26 Transfer
any other form of transfer of right, title, possession or lien.
Service means service of any description which is made available to
potential users and includes the provision of facilities in connection with
banking, financing, insurance, medical assistance, legal assistance, chit
fund, real estate, transport, processing, supply of electrical or other
27 Service
energy, boarding or lodging or both, entertainment, amusement or the
purveying of news or other information, but does not include the
rendering of any service free of charge or under a contract of personal
service.
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THE FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
For an Individual
Period of stay [PFY] Purpose of Stay/ leave [CFY]
A person who resided in India for Never went abroad in the current
a period of more than 182 days in AND financial year.
the previous financial year.
Has gone out of India not for these
3 purposes---
Employment.
A person who resided in India for Business or vocation.
a period of more than 182 days in AND Any other purpose, in such
Text for easy the previous financial year. circumstances as would
understanding of
indicate his intention to stay
the Bare act
outside India for an uncertain
provision
period.
Has come to stay in India for these
3 purposes----
Employment.
A person who resided in India for
Business or vocation.
a period of more than 182 days in AND
Any other purpose, in such
the previous financial year.
circumstances as would
indicate his intention to stay in
India for an uncertain period.
For Other than Individuals
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THE FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
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THE FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
APPENDIX – 1 TO RESIDENTIAL STATUS
ILLUSTRATIONS TO UNDERSTAND THE PRACTICAL IMPLICATIONS
Query:
Mr. A had resided in India during the financial year 1999-2000 for less than 183 days.
He had come to India on April 1, 2000 for employment. What would be his residential
status during the financial year 2000-2001?
Solution:
Illustration 1
Mr. A had come to India for taking up employment. However, during the financial
Year 1999-2000, he was in India for less than 183 days.
Since he has not fulfilled the condition of staying in India for more than 182 days, he
cannot be considered as person resident in India during the financial year 2000-
2001 notwithstanding the purpose or duration of his stay.
Query:
Mr. X had resided in India during the financial year 1999-2000 for less than 183 days.
He had come to India on April 1, 2000 for business. He intends to leave the business on
April 30, 2001 and leave India on June 30, 2001. What would be his residential status
during the financial year 2000-2001 and during 2001-2002 up to the date of his
departure?
Solution:
Mr. X cannot be considered ‘person resident in India’ during the financial year 2000-
2001 notwithstanding the purpose or duration of his stay. As regards financial year
Illustration 2 2001-2002, Mr. X would have been in India in the proceeding financial year (2000-
2001) for a period exceeding 182 days.
Accordingly, he would be ‘resident’ in India during financial year 2001-2002.
However, if he leaves India for the purpose of taking up employment or for
business/vocation outside India, or for any other purpose as would indicate his
intention to stay outside India for an uncertain period, he would cease to be person
resident in India from the date of his departure.
It may be noted that even if Mr. X is a foreign citizen, if he has not left India for any
these purposes, he would be considered, ‘person resident in India’ during the
financial year 2001-2002.
Query:
Mr. Z had resided in India during the financial year 1999-2000. He left India on 1st
August, 2000 for United States for pursuing higher studies for 3 years. What would be
his residential status during financial year 2000-2001 and during 2001-2002?
Illustration 3 Solution:
Mr. Z had resided in India during financial year 1999-2000 for more than 182 days.
Further, he has gone to USA for higher studies.
In other words, he has not gone out of, or stayed outside India for or on taking up
employment, or for carrying a business or any other purpose, in not circumstances
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THE FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
as would indicate his intention to stay outside India for an uncertain period.
Accordingly he would be ‘person resident in India’ during the financial year 2000-
2001.
For the financial year 2001-2002, he would not have been in India in the preceding
financial year (2000-2001) for period exceeding 182 days. Accordingly, he would
not be ‘person resident in India’ during the financial year 2001-2002.
Query:
Toy is a Japanese company having several business units all over the world. It has a
robotic unit with its head quarter in Mumbai and has a branch in Singapore.
Headquarter at Mumbai controls the branch of robotic unit. What would be the
residential status of robotic unit in Mumbai and that of the Singapore branch?
Solution:
Toy being a Japanese company would be a person resident outside India. [Section
2(w)]. Section 2(u) defines ‘person’. Under clause (viii) thereof person would
include any agency, office or branch owned or controlled by such ‘person’.
Illustration 4 The term such ‘person’ appears to refer to a person who is included in clauses (i) to
(vi). Accordingly robotic unit in Mumbai, being a branch of a company, would be a
‘person’. Section 2(v) defines ‘person resident in India’. Under clause (iii) thereof
‘person resident in India’ would include an office, branch or agency in India owned
or controlled by a person resident outside India. Robotic unit in Mumbai is owned
or controlled by a person ‘resident outside India’. Hence, it would be ‘person
resident in India’.
However, robotic unit in Mumbai, though not ‘owned’ controls Singapore branch,
which is a person resident in India. Hence prima facie, it may be possible to hold a
view that the Singapore branch is ‘person resident in India’.
Query:
Miss is an airhostess with the British Airways. She flies for 12 days in a month and
thereafter a break for 18 days. During the break, she is accommodated of ‘base’, which
is normally the city where the airways are headquartered. However, for security
considerations, she was based on Mumbai. During the financial year, she was
accommodated at Mumbai for more than 182 days. What would be her residential
status under FEMA?
Solution:
Illustration 5 Miss stayed in India at Mumbai ‘base’ for more than 182 days in the preceding financial
year. The issue here is whether staying can be considered ‘residing’. FEMA emphasizes
‘residing’. ‘Stay’ is a physical attribute, while ‘residing’ denotes permanency. Thus,
while Miss may have stayed in India for more than 182 days, it is doubtful whether she
can be said to have ‘resided’ in India for more than 182 days.
Further under section 2(v)(a), she would become resident only if she has come to or
stayed in India for employment. It would be doubtful and debatable, whether by staying
at Mumbai base during the break, Miss can be said to have come to stay in India for or
on taking up employment. Hence Miss would continue to be non-resident.
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THE FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
An individual “A”, who is a national of the United States of America, came to India
during the financial year 2015-16 to attend a family function for a week. “A” had
resided in India for 200 days in the financial year 2014-15 (preceding financial
year). However, since “A” hasn’t come to India for employment / business / other
Illustration 6 purposes with an intention to stay in India for an uncertain period, he will be a
resident outside India during the financial year 2015-16.
However, if “A” had come to India for employment / business / other purposes with
an intention to stay in India for an uncertain period, he would be a resident in India
for the financial year 2015-16.
An individual “A” had left India for the first time on June 4, 2015 for taking up an
employment in PQR Inc. in United States of America. He will be a resident in India
until June 4, 2015 for the financial year 2015-16. For the period from June 4, 2015,
Illustration 7 he will be a resident outside India even though he resided in India for more than
182 days in the preceding financial year.
This is on account of the specific exclusion to persons going abroad for or on taking
up employment.
An individual “A” left India for the first time on August 12, 2015 for pursuing a post-
graduation course for a period of 4 years.
In accordance with the definition, “A” will be a resident in India since he resided in
India for more than 182 days during the financial year 2015-16 and has gone abroad
for a certain period.
However, in the pursuance of the notification issued by the RBI, students going
abroad for education will be residents outside India from the date of departure even
though they might be go for a specified period only.
In the above case, if “A” had not been a student, the relaxation of the provision
wouldn’t have been available. In that case, “A” will be resident in India.
Illustration 8
* Notification: RBI AP (DIR) Circular No.45 dated December 12, 2003
This notification relaxes the provisions of the Act towards students who go
abroad for education for a certain period. There were representations from
many students that when they leave India for pursuing a specific educational
course, such stay abroad exceeds the period officially intended for various
reasons such as taking up of jobs or scholarships to supplement income to meet
their financial requirements abroad. Further, they argued that they aren’t
dependent for a dominant part of their expenses on remittances from their
households in India. Hence, the RBI, having regard to the above mentioned
circumstances, notified that the students going abroad for education for a
certain period will also be considered as residents outside India only.
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THE FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
APPENDIX – 2 TO RESIDENTIAL STATUS
INTERPRETATIVE MECHANISM AND CASE LAWS ON THE SUBJECT
In the case of “Basant Kumar Sharma v. Government of India (2013) (Del HC)”, a
person had come to India from Saudi Arabia after 6 years. He had given up his
Case law assignments in Saudi Arabia, changed his address to India in the records of the
company in which he was holding shares and explored job opportunities in India. It
was held that he had an intention to stay in India for an uncertain period.
FLOW CHART
Individual
Resided in India for more than 182
days in the preceding financial year?
Yes No Yes No
Resident in India for the * If student has gone abroad for education,
current financial year then resident outside India even if he / she
has gone for a certain period
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THE FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
Irrelevance of FEMA is operated on residential status and hence citizenship is no way relevant.
Citizenship Therefore, FEMA is applicable for foreign citizens as well once he/she is person
resident in India.
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THE FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
the term The person is defined to include individual, HUF, firm, association of persons
‘Person’ (AOP) etc. Each of these categories are separate and independent categories.
While defining a person resident in India no separate definition for HUF, firm, AOP
etc. are given. Clause (ii) defines residential status of a body corporate. If it is
registered or incorporated in India, it is resident in India. However, an HUF and an
AOP are not bodies corporate. They do not require any registration or
incorporation. Their status is still separate from the status of their members.
Legally, an HUF’s status cannot be determined by the status of its Karta or any or
all of its members. There must be a separate criteria for determining the status of
an HUF. Similar is the case for all other unincorporated bodies like AOP, trust etc.
Even a partnership firm may or may not be registered. For all these entities,
“control and management” criteria maybe adopted.
Furthermore, Section 2(v) (i) of FEMA stills defines … “a person residing in India
…” Here also the definition makes provisions for physical stay, taking up
employment etc. All these provisions can be applied only to an individual. Hence
the definition clause should have been - “an individual residing in India …” When
a “person” is defined to include non-individuals, it is incorrect to make a definition
pertaining to individuals and using the term “person”.
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THE FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
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THE FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
Software Software means any computer programme, database, drawing, design, audio/video
[As per signals, any information by whatever name called in or on any medium other than in
regulation] or on any physical medium.
Goods
[Not defined] Goods means goods as defined under the Sale of goods act.
Service means service of any description which is made available to potential users
and includes the provision of facilities in connection with banking, financing,
Service insurance, medical assistance, legal assistance, chit fund, real estate, transport,
[Section 2(zb)] processing, supply of electrical or other energy, boarding or lodging or both,
entertainment, amusement or the purveying of news or other information, but does
not include the rendering of any service free of charge or under a contract of personal
service.
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THE FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
PART 2: SECTION 7
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THE FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
If the full export value is not ascertainable at the time of export, the value which the exporter,
having regard to the prevailing market conditions expects to receive on the sale of the goods or
the software in overseas market.
2 Declarations shall be executed in sets of such number as specified.
For the removal of doubt, it is clarified that, in respect of export of services to which none of the
Forms specified in these Regulations apply, the exporter may export such services without
furnishing any declaration, but shall be liable to realise the amount of foreign exchange which
3
becomes due or accrues on account of such export, and to repatriate the same to India in
accordance with the provisions of the Act, and these Regulations, as also other rules and regulations
made under the Act.
1
Form EDF: To be completed in duplicate for export from non EDI ports.
Form SOFTEX: To be completed in triplicate for declaration of export of software otherwise than in
physical form, i.e. magnetic tapes/discs, and paper media.
CA KOUSHIK MUKHESH 20
THE FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
with Section 7 of the Act and these regulations, require such evidence in support of the declaration
as may establish that -----
The exporter is a person resident in India and has a place of business in India
The destination stated on the declaration is the final place of the destination of the goods
exported
The value stated in the declaration represents---
1) The full export value of the goods or software; or
2) Where the full export value of the goods or software is not ascertainable at the time of export,
the value which the exporter, having regard to the prevailing market conditions expects to
receive on the sale of the goods in the overseas market.
Unless otherwise authorised by the Reserve Bank, the amount representing the full export value of
the goods exported shall be paid through an authorised dealer.
For the purpose of this regulation, re-import into India, within the period specified for realisation of
the export value, of the exported goods in respect of which a declaration was made under Regulation
3, shall be deemed to be realisation of full export value of such goods.
The documents pertaining to export shall be submitted to the authorised dealer mentioned in the
relevant export declaration form, within 21 days from the date of export, or from the date of
certification of the SOFTEX form.
Provided that, subject to the directions issued by the Reserve Bank from time to time, the authorized
dealer may accept the documents pertaining to export submitted after the expiry of the specified
period of 21 days, for reasons beyond the control of the exporter.
In respect of export of any goods or software for which a declaration is required to be furnished under
Regulation 3, no person shall except with the permission of the Reserve Bank or, subject to the
directions of the Reserve Bank, permission of an authorised dealer, do or refrain from doing anything
or take or refrain from taking any action which has the effect of securing-----
CA KOUSHIK MUKHESH 21
THE FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
(i) That the payment for the goods or software is made otherwise than in the specified manner [REFER
PART 3E] ; or
(ii) That the payment is delayed beyond the period specified under these Regulations [REFER 3H]; or
(iii) That the proceeds of sale of the goods or software exported do not represent the full export value
of the goods or software subject to such deductions, if any;
Provided that no proceedings in respect of contravention of these provisions shall be instituted unless
the specified period has expired and payment for the goods or software representing the full export
value, or the value after deductions allowed under clause (iii), has not been made in the specified
manner within the specified period.
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THE FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
the goods or software or who is entitled to sell the goods or software or procure the sale thereof,
such directions as appear to it to be expedient, for the purpose of securing,
The payment therefor if the goods or software has been sold
The sale of goods and payment thereof, if goods or software has not been sold or reimport
thereof into India as the circumstances permit, within such period as the Reserve Bank may
specify in this behalf.
Provided that omission of the Reserve Bank to give directions shall not have the effect of
2
absolving the person committing the contravention from the consequences thereof.
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THE FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
For the purpose of this Regulation, 'approving authority' means the EXIM Bank of India or the
3
authorised dealer.
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THE FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
1. General Information:
Customs Security No.: Form No:
Nature of Cargo: Shipping Bill No. & Date: Mode of Transport: [ ] Air [ ] Land
[ ] Government [ ] [ ] Sea [ ] Post/Couriers [ ] others
Non-Government
Category of Exporter: [ ] Custom (DTA units) [ ] RBI approval no. & date, if any:
SEZ [ ] Status holder exporters [ ] 100% EOU [ ]
Warehouse export [ ] others (Specify).......
IE Code: AD code:
CA KOUSHIK MUKHESH 25
THE FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
Freight
Insurance
Commission
Discount
Other Deduction
Packing Charges
Net Realisable
value
3. Applicable for Export under FPO/Couriers
Name of the post Office:
Number & date of Parcel receipts : Stamp & Signature of Authorised Dealer
4. Declaration by the Exporters (All types of exports)
I /We hereby declare that I/we @am/are the seller/consignor of the goods in respect of which this declaration is made and
that the particulars given above are true and that the value to be received from the buyer/third party represents the export
value contracted and declared above. I/We undertake that I/we will deliver to the authorised dealer bank named above the
foreign exchange representing the full value of the goods exported as above on or before (i.e. within the period of
realisation stipulated
by RBI from time to time ) in the manner specified in the Regulations made under the Foreign Exchange Management
Act, 1999. I/We @ am/are not in the Caution List of the Reserve Bank of India.
Date:
(Signature of Designated/Authorised officials of Custom /SEZ )
@ Strike out whichever is not applicable.
* Unit declared Value in case of exports affected from SEZs
CA KOUSHIK MUKHESH 26
FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
FORMAT OF SOFTEX FORMS
Summ
ary
Sheet
Section
-A
Name and address of IEC Code.
Exporter
Letter of Permission (LOP) Date of
No.(STP/EHTP/SEZ/EPZ/100% LOP
EOU/DTA Unit) issued
Name of Authorised Datacom STPI/SEZ
Service Provider Centre
Name and address of Authorised Authorized
Dealer/Bank Dealer
Code
Section - B
List of Invoices for offshore export value through datacom link
Period of Invoices raised from to
Sr. Softex Name of Address of Count Internal Type of Mode Invoic Invoice Curre Analysi of Export Value
No No. the the ry project S/W of e Date ncy Value of Transmis Commiss Deduct Net
. Client Client code/Cont Export realisati Numb (DD/MM software sion ion ion Realis
ract ed on er /YY) Export (A) Charge ( C) (D) able
/ ( value
Agreeme B) [
nt No & (A+B
date )-
(C+D
)]
CA KOUSHIK MUKHESH 27
FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
SECTION - C
DECLARATION BY EXPORTER
I /We@ hereby declare that I/we@ am/are@ the seller of the software in respect of which this declaration is made and that the particulars given above are true and
that the value to be received from the buyer represents the export value
contracted and declared above. I/We@ also declare that the software has been developed and exported by using Authorised and legitimate datacom link and
certified that the software described above was actually transmitted. I/We @ undertake that I/we@ will deliver to the authorised dealer bank named above the
foreign exchange representing the full value of the software exported as above on or before. .............................................................(i.e. within the period of
realisation stipulated by RBI
from time to time ) in the manner specified in the Regulations made under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.
I/We @ am/are not in the Caution List of the Reserve Bank of India.
Place:
Date:
Name :
Designation:
Stamp (Signature of the Exporter)
Space for use of the competent authority in STPI/EPZ/SEZ
Certified, on the basis of above declaration by the SEZ/STPI unit, that the software described above and the export value declared by the exporter inthis
form is as per the corresponding invoice/gist of invoices submitted and declared by the Unit.
Place:
Date:
Name :
Designation: Stamp ( Signature of the Designated/Authorised Official of
STPI/EPZ/SEZ)
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FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
Software Software
exported in exported in
physical form any other form
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FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
Goods /
Software in After processing,
physical shall return the
form duplicate to exporter
Declaration shall be
furnished in Form Ministry
SOFTEX in triplicate of IT / Shall
Export of process & Nearest
STPI /
FTZ / SEZ forward RBI
original office
retain the
triplicate
for record
Software After processing, and
in any
certification, shall
other return the duplicate
form to exporter
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FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
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FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999
Definition of the
Term ‘Surrender’ Surrender means the selling of foreign exchange to an authorised person in
[As per Regulation India in exchange of rupees.
2]
A person resident in India to whom any amount of foreign exchange is due or
has accrued shall, save as otherwise provided under the provisions of the Act,
Duty of persons to take all reasonable steps to realise and repatriate to India such foreign
realise foreign exchange, and shall in no case do or refrain from doing anything, or take or
exchange due refrain from taking any action, which has the effect of securing -----
[Section 8 read with That the receipt by him of the whole or part of that foreign exchange is
regulation 3] delayed.
That the foreign exchange ceases in whole or in part to be receivable by him.
(1) On realisation of foreign exchange due, a person shall repatriate the same to
India, namely bring into, or receive in, India and –----
Sell it to an authorised person in India in exchange for rupees or
Retain or hold it in account with an authorised dealer in India to the extent
specified by the Reserve Bank or
Manner of Use it for discharge of a debt or liability denominated in foreign exchange to
repatriation the extent and in the manner specified by the Reserve Bank.
[Regulation 4] (2) A person shall be deemed to have repatriated the realised foreign exchange
to India when he receives in India payment in rupees from the account of a
bank or an exchange house situated in any country outside India,
maintained with an authorised dealer.
Note: Thus, he can collect the amount in his bank account abroad and
remit the same to India.
A person not being an individual resident in India shall sell the realised foreign
exchange to an authorised person under clause (a) of sub-regulation (1) of
Period of surrender regulation 4, within the period specified below------
of realized foreign Foreign exchange due or accrued as remuneration for services rendered,
exchange whether in or outside India, or in settlement of any lawful obligation, or an
[Regulation 5] income on assets held outside India, or as inheritance, settlement or gift,
within seven days from the date of its receipt.
In all other cases within a period of ninety days from the date of its receipt.
(1) Any person not being an individual resident in India who has acquired or
Period for surrender purchased foreign exchange for any purpose mentioned in the declaration made
in certain cases by him to an authorised person, does not use it for such purpose or for any other
purpose for which purchase or acquisition of foreign exchange is permissible
[Regulation 6] under the provisions of the Act or the rules or regulations or direction or order
made thereunder, shall surrender such foreign exchange or the unused portion
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thereof to an authorised person within a period of 60 days from the date of its
acquisition or purchase by him.
(2) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-regulation (1), where the
foreign exchange acquired or purchased by any person not being an individual
resident in India from an authorised person is for the purpose of foreign travel,
then, the unspent balance of such foreign exchange shall, save as otherwise
provided in the regulations made under the Act, be surrendered to an
authorised person ------
Within 90 days from the date of return of the traveler to India, when the
unspent foreign exchange is in the form of currency notes and coins.
Within 180 days from the date of return of the traveler to India, when the
unspent foreign exchange is in the form of travelers cheques.
Period for surrender
of received/ A person being an individual resident in India shall surrender the
realised/ unspent/ received/realised/unspent/unused foreign exchange whether in the form of
currency notes, coins and travellers cheques, etc. to an authorised person within
unused foreign
exchange by a period of 180 days from the date of such
Resident individuals receipt/realisation/purchase/acquisition or date of his return to India, as the
case may be.
[Regulation 7]
Exemption Nothing in these regulations shall apply to foreign exchange in the form of
[Regulation 8] currency of Nepal or Bhutan.
Possession of foreign currency or foreign coins by any person up to such
a
limit as the Reserve Bank may specify.
Foreign currency account held or operated by such person or class of
b
persons and the limit up to which the Reserve Bank may specify.
Exemption under Foreign exchange acquired or received before the 8th day of July, 1947 or
Section 9 read with any income arising or accruing thereon which is held outside India by any
c
Regulation 3 of FEM person in pursuance of a general or special permission granted by the
(Possession and Reserve Bank.
retention of foreign Foreign exchange held by a person resident in India up to such limit as the
currency) Reserve Bank may specify, if such foreign exchange was acquired by way
regulations 2015 d
of gift or inheritance from a person referred to in clause (c), including any
income arising therefrom.
Foreign exchan ge acquired from employment, business, trade, vocation,
e services, honorarium, gifts, inheritance or any other legitimate means up
to such limit as the Reserve Bank may specify.
For the purposes of clause (a) and clause (e) of Section 9 of the Act, the Reserve
Regulation 3 Bank specifies the following limits for possession or retention of foreign
currency or foreign coins, namely -----
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High court has finalized the judgement with the following conclusions -----
As the firm has applied to the Reserve bank for write off and part of dues
have been realized (65%), it is fit to reduce the penalty to 35% of the penalty
imposed by the adjudicating authority.
In the absence of any negligence on the part of partners of the firm, levy of
penalty is un justifiable.
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(e) any borrowing or lending in rupees in whatever form or by whatever name called between a
person resident in India and a person resident outside India;
(f) deposits between persons resident in India and persons resident outside India;
(g) export, import or holding of currency or currency notes;
(h) transfer of immovable property outside India, other than a lease not exceeding five years, by a
person resident in India;
(i) acquisition or transfer of immovable property in India, other than a lease not exceeding five
years, by a person resident outside India;
(j) giving of a guarantee or surety in respect of any debt, obligation or other liability incurred—
(i) by a person resident in India and owed to a person resident outside India; or
(ii) by a person resident outside India.
(4) A person resident in India may hold, own, transfer or invest in foreign currency, foreign security or
any immovable property situated outside India if such currency, security or property was acquired, held
or owned by such person when he was resident outside India or inherited from a person who was
resident outside India.
(5) A person resident outside India may hold, own, transfer or invest in Indian currency, security or any
immovable property situated in India if such currency, security or property was acquired, held or owned
by such person when he was resident in India or inherited from a person who was resident in India.
(6) Without prejudice to the provisions of this section, the Reserve Bank may, by regulation, prohibit,
restrict, or regulate establishment in India of a branch, office or other place of business by a person
resident outside India, for carrying on any activity relating to such branch, office or other place of
business.
SECTION 6 – AMENDED
(1) Subject to the provisions of sub-section (2), any person may sell or draw foreign exchange to or from
an authorised person for a capital account transaction.
(2) The Reserve Bank may, in consultation with the Central Government, specify—
(a) Any class or classes of capital account transactions, involving debt instruments, which are
permissible;
(b) The limit up to which foreign exchange shall be admissible for such transactions;
(c) Any conditions which may be placed on such transactions:
Provided that the Reserve Bank or the Central Government shall not impose any restrictions on the
drawal of foreign exchange for payment due on account of amortisation of loans or for depreciation of
direct investments in the ordinary course of business.
(2A) The Central Government may, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, prescribe—
(a) any class or classes of capital account transactions, not involving debt instruments, which are
permissible;
(b) the limit up to which foreign exchange shall be admissible for such transactions; and
(c) any conditions which may be placed on such transactions.
(3) [***]
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(4) A person resident in India may hold, own, transfer or invest in foreign currency, foreign security or
any immovable property situated outside India if such currency, security or property was acquired, held
or owned by such person when he was resident outside India or inherited from a person who was
resident outside India.
(5) A person resident outside India may hold, own, transfer or invest in Indian currency, security or any
immovable property situated in India if such currency, security or property was acquired, held or owned
by such person when he was resident in India or inherited from a person who was resident in India.
(6) Without prejudice to the provisions of this section, the Reserve Bank may, by regulation, prohibit,
restrict, or regulate establishment in India of a branch, office or other place of business by a person
resident outside India, for carrying on any activity relating to such branch, office or other place of
business.
(7) For the purposes of this section, the term "debt instruments" shall mean, such instruments as may be
determined by the Central Government in consultation with the Reserve Bank.
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PROVIDED that –
Subject to the provisions of the Act or the rules or regulations or
directions or orders made or issued thereunder, A RESIDENT
INDIVIDUAL may, draw from an authorized person foreign exchange
not exceeding USD 250,000 per financial year or such amount as decided
by Reserve Bank from time to time for a capital account transaction
specified in Schedule I.
Where the drawal of foreign exchange by A RESIDENT INDIVIDUAL for
any capital account transaction specified in Schedule I exceeds USD
250,000 per financial year, or as decided by Reserve Bank from time to
time as the case may be, the limit specified in the regulations relevant to
the transaction shall apply with respect to such drawal.
(b) No person resident outside India shall make investment in India , in any
form, in any company or partnership firm or proprietary concern or any
entity, whether incorporated or not, which is engaged or proposes to
engage -----
In the business of Chit fund.
As Nidhi Company.
In agriculture or plantation activity.
In real estate business or construction of farm houses.
In trading in Transferable development rights.
Explanation 1: For the purpose of this regulation, 'real estate business'
shall not include development of townships, construction of
residential/commercial premises, roads or bridges.
Explanation 2: The Registrar of Chits or an officer authorised by the state
government in this behalf, may, in consultation with the State Government
concerned, permit any chit fund to accept subscription from Non-resident
Indians. Non- resident Indians shall be eligible to subscribe, through
banking channel and on non- repatriation basis, to such chit funds , without
limit subject to the conditions stipulated by the Reserve Bank of India from
time to time.
(1) Capital account transactions of a person may be classified under the
following heads, namely ------
Transactions, specified in Schedule I, of a person resident In India.
Capital account Transactions, specified in Schedule II, of a person resident outside India.
transactions permissible Subject to the provisions of the Act or the rules or regulations or direction
with limitations or orders made or issued thereunder, any person may sell or draw foreign
[Section 6(2) and 6(3) exchange to or from an authorised person for a capital account transaction
read with Regulation 3 of specified in the Schedules.
FEM (CAT) regulations SCHEDULE I – CLASSES OF CAPITAL ACCOUNT TRANSACTIONS OF
2000] PERSONS RESIDENT IN INDIA
Investment by a person resident in India in foreign securities.
Foreign currency loans raised in India and abroad by a person resident in
India.
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[Section 6(4) and 6(5)] person when he was resident outside India or inherited from a person who
was resident outside India.
A person resident outside India may hold, own, transfer or invest in Indian
currency, security or any immovable property situated in India if such
currency, security or property was acquired, held or owned by such person
when he was resident in India or inherited from a person who was resident
in India.
The Reserve Bank may, by regulation, prohibit, restrict, or regulate
establishment in India of a branch, office or other place of business by a
Regulation on BO/LO
person resident outside India, for carrying on any activity relating to such
branch, office or other place of business.
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PART 1: DEFINITIONS
Current account transaction means a transaction other than a capital account
transaction and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing such
transaction includes,—
(i) Payments due in connection with foreign trade, other current business,
Current account services, and short-term banking and credit facilities in the ordinary
transaction course of business,
[Section 2(j)] (ii) Payments due as interest on loans and as net income from investments,
(iii) Remittances for living expenses of parents, spouse and children residing
abroad, and
(iv) Expenses in connection with foreign travel, education and medical care of
parents, spouse and children
Drawal means drawal of foreign exchange from an authorised person and includes
Drawal opening of Letter of Credit or use of International Credit Card or International Debit
[Regulation 2(b)] Card or ATM Card or any other thing by whatever name called which has the effect
of creating foreign exchange liability.
ANALYSIS ON SECTION 5
Applicability Section applies to any person whether resident or otherwise.
General free If the transaction proposed is a current account transaction through an authorised
permit person it is permitted.
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(Department of Education
and Culture)
Advertisement in foreign print media for the Ministry of Finance,
purposes other than promotion of tourism, Department of Economic
foreign investments and international Affairs.
2
bidding (exceeding US$ 10,000) by a State
Government and its Public Sector
Undertakings.
Ministry of Surface
Remittance of freight of vessel chartered by
3 Transport, (Chartering
a PSU.
Wing).
Payment of import through ocean transport Ministry of surface
4 by a Govt. Department or a PSU on c.i.f. basis Transport, (Chartering
(i.e. other than F.O.B. and F.A.S. basis). Wing).
Registration Certificate
Multi-modal transport Operators making
5 from the Director General of
remittance to their agents abroad.
Shipping.
Ministry of Information and
Remittance of hiring charges of
Broadcasting or Ministry of
transponders by
6 Communication and
TV Channels
Information Technology as
Internet Service Providers
the case may be.
Remittance of container detention charges Ministry of Surface
7 exceeding the rate prescribed by Director transport (Director General
General of Shipping. of Shipping).
Remittance of prize money / sponsorship of Ministry of Human
sports activity abroad by a person other resources Development
8 than International / National / State Level (Department of Youth
sports bodies, if the amount involved Affairs and Sports).
exceeds US$ 100,000.
Ministry of Finance
9 Remittance for membership of P & I Club.
(Insurance Division)
NOTE
THIS RULE SHALL NOT APPLY WHERE THE PAYMENT IS MADE OUT OF FUNDS
[PROVISO TO
HELD IN RESIDENT FOREIGN CURRENCY (RFC) ACCOUNT OF THE REMITTER.
RULE 4]
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mutandis, within the limit prescribed under the said Liberalised Remittance
Scheme for the purposes mentioned herein above.
Schedule IIIB – Facilities for persons other than individuals
The following remittances by persons other than individuals shall require prior
approval of the Reserve Bank of India ----
Donations exceeding one per cent. of their foreign exchange earnings during the
previous three financial years or USD 5,000,000, whichever is less, for ---
a) Creation of Chairs in reputed educational institutes,
b) Contribution to funds (not being an investment fund) promoted by
educational institutes; and
c) Contribution to a technical institution or body or association in the field of
activity of the donor Company.
Contents of Commission, per transaction, to agents abroad for sale of residential flats or
Schedule IIIB commercial plots in India exceeding USD 25,000 or five percent of the inward
remittance whichever is more.
Remittances exceeding USD 10,000,000 per project for any consultancy services
in respect of infrastructure projects and USD 1,000,000 per project, for other
consultancy services procured from outside India.
Explanation: For the purposes of this sub-paragraph, the expression
"infrastructure' shall mean as defined in explanation to para 1(iv)(A)(a) of
Schedule I of FEMA Notification 3/2000-RB, dated the May 3, 2000.
Remittances exceeding five per cent of investment brought into India or USD
100,000 whichever is higher, by an entity in India by way of reimbursement of
pre-incorporation expenses.
NOTE
THIS RULE SHALL NOT APPLY WHERE THE PAYMENT IS MADE OUT OF FUNDS
[PROVISO TO
HELD IN RESIDENT FOREIGN CURRENCY (RFC) ACCOUNT OF THE REMITTER.
RULE 5]
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2
Refer institute study material for cross verification
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3
Refer institute study material for cross verification
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foreign security and aggregate value exceeding the threshold prescribed under the proviso
foreign property to sub-section (1) of section 37A, he shall be liable to a penalty up to
[Section 13(1A), three times the sum involved in such contravention and confiscation
13(1B), 13(1C), of the value equivalent, situated in India, the Foreign exchange,
13(1D)] foreign security or immovable property.
Note: Threshold specified in Section 37A is ₹ 1 Crore.
If the Adjudicating Authority, in a proceeding under sub-section (1A)
deems fits, he may, after recording the reasons in writing, recommend
Section for the initiation of prosecution and if the Director of Enforcement is
13(1B) satisfied, he may, after recording the reasons in writing, may direct
prosecution by filing a Criminal Complaint against the guilty person
by an officer not below the rank of Assistant Director.
If any person is found to have acquired any foreign exchange, foreign
security or immovable property, situated outside India, of the
Section aggregate value exceeding the threshold prescribed under the proviso
13(1C) to sub-section (1) of section 37A, he shall be, in addition to the penalty
imposed under sub-section (1A), punishable with imprisonment for a
term which may extend to five years AND with fine.
No court shall take cognizance of an offence under sub-section (1C) of
Section
section 13 except as on complaint in writing by an officer not below
13(1D)
the rank of Assistant Director referred to in sub-section (1B).
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A close perusal of the penal clause contained in section 13(1) would show that it
covers contravention of any provision of FEMA, and its rules, regulation, orders,
directions, circulars etc.
It would however, not cover offences for which separate penalty has been provided
Section 13(1) elsewhere in the Act or regulations etc.
– Wide in its Example:
sweep!!! For Instance, under section 14 itself, there is a provision for committing to civil
prison a person who is in default in payment of penalty as adjudicated by
adjudicating authority. Though contravention of an order of adjudicating
authority will apparently look to attract section 13(1), in the view of specific
manner in which such a default must be dealt with as prescribed under section
14, the penal clause in section 13(1) shall not apply.
Section 13(1A) of FEMA deals with a subject that is entirely different to the one dealt
by section 13(1).
Section 13(1A) of FEMA states that, If any person is found to have acquired any
foreign exchange, foreign security or immovable property, situated outside India, of
the aggregate value exceeding the threshold prescribed under the proviso to sub-
Analysis on section (1) of section 37A, he shall be liable to
Section A penalty up to three times the sum involved in such contravention AND
13(1A) Confiscation of the value equivalent, situated in India, the Foreign exchange, foreign
security or immovable property.
Section 37A states that the assets of such a person in India may be confiscated.
Assets confiscated under section 37A can be of value equivalent to the value of
foreign exchange or foreign securities or immovable property acquired by that
person.
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Section 13(1C) of FEMA states that if a person is prosecuted under section 13(1B),
and found guilty of the offence he is, in addition to the penalty imposed under section
13(1A), punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to 5 years and
Analysis on with fine.
Section The words “in addition to the penalty imposed” appearing in section 13(1B)
13(1C) makes it clear that the punishment by way of imprisonment and fine under section
13(1C) are in addition to the penalty imposed by the adjudicating authority under
section 13(1A). In other words, imposing penalty by the AA is not going to bar the
prosecution for the offence.
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The Adjudicating Authority may, by order in writing, authorise an officer of Enforcement not below
the rank of Assistant Director to recover any arrears of penalty from any person who fails to make
full payment of penalty imposed on him under section 13 within the period of 90 days from the date
on which the notice for payment of such penalty is served on him.
The officer referred to in sub-section (1) shall exercise all the like powers which are conferred on the
income-tax authority in relation to recovery of tax under the Income-tax Act, 1961.
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12.5. CHAPTER – V: ADJUDICATION AND APPEAL [SECTION 16 – 19]
Particulars Content Details
The Central Government may, by an order published in the Official Gazette, appoint as
Power with whom? many officers of the Central Government as it may think fit, as the Adjudicating
Authorities
What is the purpose of For the purpose of adjudication under section 13 by -----
Appointment of establishing adjudicating Holding an inquiry and
Adjudicating authority? Impose a penalty.
Authority
[Section 16] Power of AA to order for Where the Adjudicating Authority is of opinion that the said person is likely to abscond
furnishing a bond or or is likely to evade in any manner, the payment of penalty, if levied, it may direct the
guarantee. said person to furnish a bond or guarantee for such amount.
Hold an inquiry on whose Adjudicating Authority shall hold an inquiry only upon a complaint in writing made by
complaint? any officer authorized by a general or special order by the Central Government.
The Central Government shall, by notification, appoint one or more Special Directors
Power with whom?
(Appeals).
What is the purpose of
establishing adjudicating To hear appeals against the orders of the Adjudicating Authorities under this section.
Appeal to Special authority?
Director (Appeals) Any person aggrieved by an order made by the Adjudicating Authority, being an
[Section 17] When appeal is
Assistant Director of Enforcement or a Deputy Director of Enforcement, may prefer an
preferred?
appeal of the Special Director (Appeals).
Every appeal under sub-section (1) shall be filed within 45 days from the date on which
Time limit for filing an
the copy of the order made by the Adjudicating Authority is received by the aggrieved
appeal.
person.
Appellate Tribunal The Appellate Tribunal constituted under sub-section (1) of section 12 of the Smugglers and Foreign Exchange
[Section 18] Manipulators (Forfeiture of Property) Act, 1976, be the Appellate Tribunal for the purposes of this Act.
Appeal to Appellate Who can prefer an
The Central Government or any person aggrieved.
Tribunal appeal?
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[Section 19] Aggrieved by whose Aggrieved by an order made by an Adjudicating Authority, or the Special Director
orders? (Appeals), may prefer an appeal to the Appellate Tribunal.
Any person appealing against the order of the Adjudicating Authority or the Special
Deposit of security
Director (Appeals) levying any penalty, shall while filing the appeal, deposit the
amount
amount of such penalty with such authority.
Every appeal shall be filed within a period of 45 days from the date on which a copy of
Time limit for filing an
the order made by the Adjudicating Authority or the Special Director (Appeals) is
appeal
received by the aggrieved person or by the Central Government.
The appeal filed before the Appellate Tribunal under sub-section (1) shall be dealt with
by it as expeditiously as possible and endeavour shall be made by it to dispose of the
Disposal of appeal
appeal finally within one hundred and eighty days from the date of receipt of the
appeal.
Appeal to High Any person aggrieved by any decision or order of the Appellate Tribunal may file an appeal to the High Court within
Court sixty days from the date of communication of the decision or order of the Appellate Tribunal on any question of law
[Section 35] arising out of such order.
12.6. CHAPTER VI: DIRECTORATE OF ENFORCEMENT [SECTION 36 – SECTION 38]
Particulars Content Details
The Central Government shall establish a Directorate of Enforcement and Officers of
Power with whom?
enforcement.
What is the purpose of
An officer of Enforcement may exercise the powers and discharge the duties conferred or
Directorate of establishing adjudicating
imposed on him under this Act.
enforcement authority?
[Section 36] Director.
Additional Director.
Categories of Officers
Special Director.
Deputy Director.
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The Director of Enforcement and other officers of Enforcement, not below the rank of an
Power of Assistant Director, shall take up for investigation the contravention referred to in section
Power with whom?
Search and 1
Seizure 3.
[Section 37] The officers referred to in sub-section (1) shall exercise the like powers which are
Powers given
conferred on income-tax authorities under the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Power with whom? The Central Government has power to empower other officers.
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12.7. MISCELLANEOUS
PRESENTATION AS TO DOCUMENTS IN CERTAIN CASES [SECTION 39]
Where any document -----
Is produced by any person or
Is furnished by any person or
When section gets Has been seized from the custody or control of any person or
attracted? Has been received from any place outside India in the course of
investigation of any contravention under this act.
AND
Such document is produced in any proceeding.
The Adjudicating authority or the Court shall -----
Presume, unless the contrary is proved, that the signature and every
other part of such document which purports to be in the handwriting of any
particular person or which the court may reasonably assume to have been
What shall be the signed by, or to be in the handwriting of any particular person, is in that
presumption of the person’s handwriting and in the case of a document executed or attested,
Judiciary? that it was executed or attested by the person by whom it purports to have
been so executed or attested.
Admit the document in evidence notwithstanding that it is not duly
stamped, if such document is otherwise admissible in evidence
Presume the contents to be true.
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Instructions to
Reserve Bank of India.
whom?
Duty of Reserve Reserve bank shall, in the discharge of its functions under this Act, comply
Bank with any such directions.
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WHEREAS, the ECB Benchmark rate are LIBOR and all – in – cost ceiling is p.a is
Benchmark rate + 450 bps in case of FC denominated ECB and in case of Rupee
denominated ECB will be prevailing yield of the Government of India securities of
corresponding maturity.
Thus, ECB is a mechanism used in India to assist Corporates in accessing cheaper foreign
funds by Indian corporates.
2. DIFFERENCE BETWEEN EXTERNAL COMMERCIAL BORROWING AND FOREIGN
DIRECT INVESTMENT
ECB means any kind of funding other than Equity whereas, if the foreign money is
used to finance the Equity Capital, it would be termed as Foreign direct investment.
The ECB should satisfy the ECB regulations stipulated by the Government or its
agencies such as RBI. The Bonds, Credit notes, Asset Backed Securities, Mortgage
Backed Securities or anything of that nature are included in ECB.
Following are not included in the ECBs:
Any investment made towards core capital of an organization such as equity
shares, convertible preference shares or convertible debentures. All convertible
into equity are covered by FDI policy.
Any other direct capital is not allowed in ECB.
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3. OBJECTIVE OF ECB
Government permits the ECBs as an additional source of financing for expanding the
existing capacity as well as for fresh investments.
The ECB Policy of the government seeks to emphasize the priority of investing in the
infrastructure and core sectors such as power, telecom, Railways etc.
4. FORMS OF ECB
There are totally 7 forms of ECB which are as follows:
Buyers Credit
Suppliers Credit
Financial Lease
FCCB
FCEB (Only through approval route)
Loans
Securitized instruments (Floating rate notes, Fixed rate bonds, non-convertible or
optionally convertible or partially convertible preference shares or debentures.
5. FRAMEWORK OF AMENDED ECB
There are various methods through which Indian Companies may raise funds from
abroad, out of which one method is by issuing ECB.
There are 2 tracks in the ECB namely:
Foreign currency denominated ECB
INR denominated ECB.
The ECB framework enables permitted resident entities to borrow from recognised
non-resident entities.
To improve ease of doing business in India, the RBI on 16th January 2019 notified
new ECB framework.
The new ECB framework rationalizes the existing ECB framework by merging the
existing Track I (medium term foreign currency denominated ECB) and Track II (Long
term foreign currency denominated ECB) into one track as ‘Foreign currency
denominated ECB’.
Existing Track III (INR denominated ECB) and INR denominated Bonds (Masala
Bonds) route has been merged as ‘Rupee denominated ECB’.
6. AVAILABLE ROUTES FOR RAISING ECB
There are 2 types of routes for raising ECB namely:
Automatic route
Approval route
While the regulatory provisions are mostly similar there are some differences in the
form of amount of borrowings, eligibility of borrowers, permissible end uses, etc.
under 2 routes.
Issuance of FCEBs can be done only through approval route. (all remaining can be
done through both routes)
7. WHAT ARE AUTOMATIC AND APPROVAL ROUTES?
Automatic route:
For the automatic route, the cases are examined by the Authorized Dealer Category-I (AD
Category-I) banks.
Approval route:
Under the approval route, the prospective borrowers are required to send their requests
to the Reserve Bank through their AD Banks for examination.
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In a lucid way one can understand automatic and approval routes can be
understood as under:
Automatic route doesn’t involve more authorities especially it doesn’t involve RBI
whereas in approval route it involves central government.
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ANALYSIS ON MAMP
a) Simplified view point:
Raised by Raised from Raised up to/for
MAMP
(Borrower) (Lender) (Time/Purpose)
Manufacturing
Eligible Lender Up to 50 million or its equivalent per FY 1 Year
Companies
Eligible Foreign equity a) General corporate purposes
5 Years
borrower holder b) Repayment of rupee loans
Eligible Lender Working capital purposes or General corporate 10
except foreign purposes. Years
Eligible branches/ Repayment of Rupee loans availed domestically for
7 Years
borrower overseas capital expenditure.
subsidiaries of Repayment of Rupee loans availed domestically for 10
Indian banks purposes other than capital expenditure. Years
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b) ILLUSTRATION ON MAMP:
Name of Company: KPL LTD Loan Amount: $ 2 million
No. of
Date of drawal/ Days** Product= (Col.4 *
repayment Drawal Repayment Balance balance Col. 5)/ (Loan
(MM/DD/YYYY) with the amount * 360)
borrower
05/11/2015 0.75 0.75 24 0.0250
06/05/2015 0.50 1.25 85 0.1476
08/31/2015 0.75 2.00 477 1.3250
12/27/2016 0.20 1.80 180 0.4500
06/27/2017 0.25 1.55 180 0.3875
12/27/2017 0.25 1.30 180 0.3250
06/27/2018 0.30 1.00 180 0.2500
12/27/2018 0.25 0.75 180 0.1875
06/27/2019 0.25 0.50 180 0.1250
12/27/2019 0.25 0.25 180 0.0625
06/27/2020 0.25 0.00 0.00
Average maturity 3.2851 years
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The exchange rate shall be the rate prevailing on the date of settlement.
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norms applicable for foreign lenders / entities holding such securities. Further,
issuance of corporate or personal guarantee is allowed. Guarantee issued by a non-
resident(s) is allowed only if such parties qualify as lender under ECB for Startups.
However, issuance of guarantee, standby letter of credit, letter of undertaking or letter
of comfort by Indian banks, all India Financial Institutions and NBFCs is not permitted.
k. Hedging: The overseas lender, in case of INR denominated ECB, will be eligible to
hedge its INR exposure through permitted derivative products with AD Category – I
banks in India. The lender can also access the domestic market through branches/
subsidiaries of Indian banks abroad or branches of foreign bank with Indian presence
on a back to back basis.
Note: Startups raising ECB in foreign currency, whether having natural hedge or not,
are exposed to currency risk due to exchange rate movements and hence are advised
to ensure that they have an appropriate risk management policy to manage potential
risk arising out of ECB.
l. Conversion rate: In case of borrowing in INR, the foreign currency - INR conversion
will be at the market rate as on the date of agreement.
m. Other Provisions: Other provisions like parking of ECB proceeds, reporting
arrangements, powers delegated to AD banks, borrowing by entities under
investigation, conversion of ECB into equity will be as included in the ECB framework.
However, provisions on leverage ratio and ECB liability: Equity ratio will not be
applicable. Further, the Start-ups as defined above [8.2. (i)] as well as other start-ups
which do not comply with the aforesaid definition but are eligible to receive FDI, can
also raise ECB under the general ECB route/framework.
25. PARKING OF ECB PROCEEDS
ECB proceeds are permitted to be parked abroad as well as domestically in the manner
given below:
A. Parking of ECB proceeds abroad: ECB proceeds meant only for foreign currency
expenditure can be parked abroad pending utilisation. Till utilisation, these funds can
be invested in the following liquid assets
(a) Deposits or Certificate of Deposit or other products offered by banks rated not less
than AA (-) by Standard and Poor/Fitch IBCA or Aa3 by Moody’s;
(b) Treasury bills and other monetary instruments of one-year maturity having
minimum rating as indicated above and
(c) Deposits with foreign branches/subsidiaries of Indian banks abroad.
B. Parking of ECB proceeds domestically: ECB proceeds meant for Rupee expenditure
should be repatriated immediately for credit to their Rupee accounts with AD
Category I banks in India. ECB borrowers are also allowed to park ECB proceeds in
term deposits with AD Category I banks in India for a maximum period of 12 months
cumulatively. These term deposits should be kept in unencumbered position.
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Particulars Details
Which entities All entities against which investigation / adjudication / appeal by the law
are covered? enforcing agencies for violation of any of the provisions of the Regulations under
FEMA are pending.
Raising ECB by They may raise ECB as per the applicable norms, if they are otherwise eligible,
specified entities notwithstanding the pending investigations / adjudications / appeals, without
prejudice to the outcome of such investigations / adjudications / appeals.
Reporting The borrowing entity shall inform about pendency of such investigation /
adjudication / appeal to the AD Category-I bank / RBI as the case may be.
Accordingly, in case of all applications where the borrowing entity has indicated
about the pending investigations / adjudications / appeals, the AD Category I
Banks / Reserve Bank while approving the proposal shall intimate the agencies
concerned by endorsing a copy of the approval letter.
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Particulars Details
The activity of the borrowing company is covered under the automatic route for FDI
Condition – 1 or Government approval is received, wherever applicable, for foreign equity
participation as per extant FDI policy.
The conversion, which should be with the lender’s consent and without any
Condition – 2 additional cost, should not result in contravention of eligibility and breach of
applicable sector cap on the foreign equity holding under FDI policy.
Condition – 3 Applicable pricing guidelines for shares are complied with.
a. For partial conversion, the converted portion is to be reported in Form FC-GPR
prescribed for reporting of FDI flows, while monthly reporting to DSIM in Form
ECB 2 Return will be with suitable remarks, viz., "ECB partially converted to
equity".
Condition – 4 b. For full conversion, the entire portion is to be reported in Form FC-GPR, while
reporting to DSIM in Form ECB 2 Return should be done with remarks “ECB fully
converted to equity”. Subsequent filing of Form ECB 2 Return is not required.
c. For conversion of ECB into equity in phases, reporting through Form FC-GPR and
Form ECB 2 Return will also be in phases.
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FEMA
IMPORTS
MASTER
DIRECTION
LEARNING OBJECTIVES
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❶ BASIC INTRODUCTION
❷ GENERAL GUIDELINES FOR IMPORTS
❸ TIMELIMIT FOR SETTLEMENT OF IMPORTS
❹ EXTENSION OF TIME
❺ IMPORT OF FOREIGN EXCHANGE/INDIAN RUPEES
❻ IMPORT OF FOREIGN EXCHANGE INTO INDIA
❼ IMPORT OF INDIAN CURRENCY AND CURRENCY NOTES
❽ ISSUE OF GUARANTEES BY AUTHORISED DEALER
1. BASIC INTRODUCTION
a. Governance of imports as a law
Section 5 of FEMA, 1999
CRAT Regulations
Foreign trade policy
b. Governance of imports as an authority
Import trade is regulated by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade
(DGFT) under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Department of
Commerce, Government of India.
c. Governance as a user – end representative
Authorised Dealer Category – I (AD Category – I) banks should ensure that
the imports into India are in conformity with the -----
Foreign Trade Policy
FEMA, 1999
CRAT Rules
2. GENERAL GUIDELINES FOR IMPORTS
I. General guidelines:
AD Category – I banks shall particularly note to adhere to "Know Your
Customer" (KYC) guidelines issued by Reserve Bank (Department of Banking
Regulation) in all their dealings.
II. Remittances for import payments:
AD Category I Banks may allow remittance for making payments for imports
into India, after ensuring that all the requisite details are made available by
the importer and the remittance is for bona fide trade transactions as per
applicable laws in force.
III. Import Licenses [Not for exams]
In case of goods imported are in negative list
License shall be issued under FTP in force.
In all other cases
AD Category I Banks may freely open letters of credit and allow
remittances for import.
After effecting remittances under the licence, AD Category - I banks may
preserve the copies of utilised licence /s till they are verified by the
internal auditors or inspectors.
IV. Obligation of Purchaser of Foreign Exchange
Obligation – 1: Utilisation of acquired foreign exchange
In terms of Section 10(6) of the Foreign Exchange Management Act,
1999 (FEMA), any person acquiring foreign exchange is permitted to
use it either for the purpose mentioned in the declaration made by him
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Note:
In cases where sector specific guidelines have been issued by Reserve
Bank of India for extension of time (i.e. rough, cut and polished
diamonds), the same will be applicable.
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India (other than from Nepal and Bhutan), currency notes of Government
of India and Reserve Bank of India notes up to an amount not exceeding
₹.25,000.
A person may bring into India from Nepal or Bhutan, currency notes of
Government of India and Reserve Bank of India for any amount in
denominations up to ₹100.
5. ISSUE OF GUARANTEES BY THE AUTHORISED DEALER
An authorised dealer may give a guarantee in respect of any debt,
obligation or other liability incurred by a person resident in India and
owned to a person resident outside India, as an importer, in respect of
import on deferred payment terms in accordance with the approval by the
Reserve Bank of India for import on such terms.
An authorised dealer may give guarantee, Letter of Undertaking of Letter
of Comfort in respect of any debt, obligation or other liability incurred by
a person resident in India and owned to a person resident outside India
(being an overseas supplier of goods, bank or a financial institution), for
import of goods, as permitted under the Foreign Trade Policy announced
by Government of India from time to time and subject to such terms and
conditions as may be specified by Reserve Bank of India from time to time.
An authorised dealer may, in the ordinary course of his business, give a
guarantee in favour of a non-resident service provider, on behalf of a
resident customer who is a service importer, subject to such terms and
conditions as stipulated by Reserve Bank of India from time to time.
Note:
❶ No guarantee for an amount exceeding USD 500,000 or its
equivalent shall be issued on behalf of a service importer other
than a Public Sector Company or a Department / Undertaking of
the Government of India / State Government.
❷ Where the service importer is a Public Sector Company or a
Department / Undertaking of the Government of India / State
Government, no guarantee for an amount exceeding USD 100,000
or its equivalent shall be issued without the prior approval of the
Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
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1. NEED FOR FCRA [PREAMBLE TO THE ACT READ WITH SHORT TITLE, EXTENT
AND APPLICABILITY – SECTION 1]
An Act to consolidate the law to regulate the acceptance and utilisation of foreign
contribution or foreign hospitality by certain individuals or associations or companies
and to prohibit acceptance and utilisation of foreign contribution or foreign hospitality for
any activities detrimental to the national interest and for matters connected therewith or
incidental thereto.
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CHAPTER – I
3. BASIC DEFINITIONS [SECTION 2]
Expression Definition
"Foreign company" means any company or association or body of
individuals incorporated outside India and includes
i. A foreign company within the meaning of section 591 (Now
Section 379 of The Companies act 2013) of the Companies Act,
1956;
ii. A company which is a subsidiary of a foreign company;
iii. The registered office or principal place of business of a foreign
company referred to in sub-clause (i) or company referred to in
Foreign Company sub-clause (ii);
[Section 2(1)(g)] iv. A multi-national corporation.
Explanation.
For the purposes of this sub-clause, a corporation incorporated in a
foreign country or territory shall be deemed to be a multi-national
corporation if such corporation,--
a. has a subsidiary or a branch or a place of business in two or more
countries or territories; or
b. carries on business, or otherwise operates, in two or more countries
or territories.
"Foreign contribution" means the donation, delivery or transfer made by
any foreign source----
i. Of any article, not being an article given to a person as a gift for his
personal use, if the market value, in India, of such article, on the
date of such gift, is not more than such sum as may be specified
from time to time, by the Central Government by the rules made
by it in this behalf;
ii. Of any currency, whether Indian or foreign;
iii. Of any security.
Explanation 1 – A donation, delivery or transfer of any article, currency
or foreign security referred to in this clause by any person who has
Foreign
received it from any foreign source, either directly or through one or
contribution
more persons, shall also be deemed to be foreign contribution within the
[Section 2(1)(h)]
meaning of this clause.
Explanation 2 – The interest accrued on the foreign contribution
deposited in any bank referred to in sub-section (1) of section 17 or any
other income derived from the foreign contribution or interest thereon
shall also be deemed to be foreign contribution within the meaning of
this clause.
Explanation 3 – Any amount received, by any person from any foreign
source in India, by way of fee (including fees charged by an educational
institution in India from foreign student) or towards cost in lieu of goods
or services rendered by such person in the ordinary course of his
business, trade or commerce whether within India or outside India or
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iii. An association;
iv. A company registered under section 25 (Now Section 8) of the
companies act, 1956.
CHAPTER – II
4. PROHIBITION TO ACCEPT FOREIGN CONTRIBUTION [SECTION 3]
No foreign contribution shall be accepted by any—
Candidate for election.
Correspondent, columnist, cartoonist, editor, owner, printer or
publisher of a registered newspaper.
Judge, Government servant or employee of any corporation or any
Prohibition on other body controlled or owned by the Government.
whom? Member of any Legislature.
[Section 3(1)(a) to Political party or office-bearer thereof.
(h)] Organization of a political nature.
Association or company engaged in the production or broadcast of
audio news or audio-visual news or current affairs programmes
through any electronic mode.
Correspondent or columnist, cartoonist, editor, owner of the
association or company referred above.
No person, resident in India, and no citizen of India resident outside
India, shall -----
Accept any foreign contribution from a foreign source. (or)
Acquire or agree to acquire any currency from a foreign source.
on behalf of any political party, or any person referred to in sub-section
(1), or both.
Prohibition on No person, resident in India, shall -----
Indirect Deliver any currency, whether Indian or foreign, which has been
acceptances and accepted from any foreign source.
deliveries to any person if he knows or has reasonable cause to believe that such
[Section 3(2)(a) to other person intends, or is likely, to deliver such currency to any political
(c)] party or any person referred to in sub-section (1), or both.
No citizen of India resident outside India, shall -----
Deliver any currency, whether Indian or foreign, which has been
accepted from any foreign source.
to any person if he knows or has reasonable cause to believe that such
other person intends, or is likely, to deliver such currency to any political
party or any person referred to in sub-section (1), or both.
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those persons By way of salary, wages or other remuneration due to him or to any group of
in certain persons working under him, from any foreign source or by way of payment in
cases the ordinary course of business transacted in India by such foreign source; or
[Section 4(a) By way of payment, in the course of international trade or commerce, or in
to 4(g)] the ordinary course of business transacted by him outside India; or
As an agent of a foreign source in relation to any transaction made by such
foreign source with the Central Government or State Government; or
By way of a gift or presentation made to him as a member of any Indian
delegation, provided that such gift or present was accepted in accordance
with the rules made by the Central Government with regard to the acceptance
or retention of such gift or presentation; or
From his relative; or
By way of remittance received, in the ordinary course of business through any
official channel, post office, or any authorised person in foreign exchange
under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999; or
By way of any scholarship, stipend or any payment of like nature
Consequence Provided that in case any foreign contribution received by any person specified
of under section 3, for any of the purposes other than those specified under this
contravention section, such contribution shall be deemed to have been accepted in
[Proviso to contravention of the provisions of section 3.
Section 4]
Any person receiving foreign contribution in excess of ₹ 100000 or its
Rule 6 of FCR equivalent thereto in a financial year from any of his relatives shall inform the
Rules, 2011 Central government by uploading details electronically online in FORM FC – 1
within 30 days from the date of receipt of such contribution.
Any article gifted to a person for his personal use whose market value in India
Rule 6A of FCR
on the date of such gift doesnot exceed ₹ 25000 shall not be treated as a foreign
Rules, 2011
contribution within the meaning of Section 2(1)(h)(i).
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[Proviso] Such hospitality is in the form of emergent medical aid needed on account of
sudden illness contracted during a visit outside India. [Pre – Condition]
Where such foreign hospitality has been received, the person receiving such
hospitality shall give, within 1 month from the date of receipt of such
hospitality an intimation to the Central Government as to the receipt of such
hospitality, and the source from which, and the manner in which, such
hospitality was received by him. [Post – Condition]
Any person belonging to any of the categories specified in section 6 who
wishes to avail of foreign hospitality shall apply electronically online to the
Central Government in FORM FC-2 for prior permission to accept such
foreign hospitality.
Every application for acceptance of foreign hospitality shall be accompanied
by an invitation letter from the host or the host country, as the case may
be, and administrative clearance of the Ministry or department
Content concerned in case of visits sponsored by a Ministry or department of the
specified in Government.
Rules The application for grant of permission to accept foreign hospitality must
[Rule 7 of FCR reach the appropriate authority ordinarily two weeks before the proposed
Rules, 2011] date of onward journey.
In case of emergent medical aid needed on account of sudden illness during
a visit abroad, the acceptance of foreign hospitality shall be required to be
intimated to the Central Government within 1 month of such receipt giving
full details including the source, approximate value in Indian Rupees, and the
purpose for which and the manner in which it was utilised.
However, no such intimation is required if the value of such hospitality in
emergent medical aid is upto ₹ 100000 or equivalent thereto.
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section 11 of the Act, in case the recipient person has not been proceeded
against under any provision of the Act.
(3) Any transfer of foreign contribution shall be reflected in the returns in
FORM FC-4 as well as in FORM FC-10 by the transferor and the recipient.
(4) In case the foreign contribution is proposed to be transferred to a person
who has not been granted a certificate of registration or prior permission by
the Central Government, the person concerned may apply for permission to
the Central Government to transfer a part of the foreign contribution, not
exceeding 10% of the total value of the foreign contribution received.
The application shall be countersigned by the District Magistrate having
jurisdiction in the place where the transferred funds are sought to be utilised.
The District Magistrate concerned shall take an appropriate decision in the
matter within 60 days of the receipt of such request from the person. The
donor shall not transfer any foreign contribution until the Central
Government has approved the transfer.
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CHAPTER – III
11.REGISTRATION OF CERTAIN PERSONS WITH CENTRAL GOVERNMENT
[SECTION 11]
Modes of obtaining
approval under
Obtaining Certificate of registration.
this act Obtaining prior permission.
Save as otherwise provided in this Act, no person having
a definite cultural, economic, educational, religious or
Option – 1 social programme shall accept foreign contribution unless
Who can accept such person obtains a certificate of registration from the
Foreign Central Government.
Contribution?
[Section 11(1) and Every person referred to in sub-section (1) may, if it is not
Section 11(2)] registered with the Central Government under that sub-
Option – 2 section, accept any foreign contribution only after
obtaining the prior permission of the Central
Government.
Validity period Registration shall be valid for 5 years [Rule 10] and
[Rule 10 read with Prior permission shall be valid for specific purpose for which it is
Section 11(2)] obtained and from a specific source. [Section 11(2)]
Violation of
provisions of this
If the person referred to in sub-sections (1) and (2) has been found guilty
act – Additional
of violation of any of the provisions of this Act or the Foreign Contribution
consequence
(Regulation) Act, 1976, the unutilised or unreceived amount of foreign
beyond
contribution shall not be utilised or received, as the case may be, without
punishment
the prior approval of the Central Government.
[Proviso to Section
11(2)]
The Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette,
Specification by specify—
Central The person who shall obtain its prior permission before accepting the
Government foreign contribution.
[Section 11(3)(i) to The area or areas in which the foreign contribution shall be accepted
(iv)] and utilised with the prior permission of the Central Government.
A RESIDUAL The purpose or purposes for which the foreign contribution shall be
POWER utilised with the prior permission of the Central Government.
SUO MOTO POWER The source or sources from which the foreign contribution shall be
accepted with the prior permission of the Central Government.
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Provided that in case the Central Government does not grant, within
the said period of 90 days, a certificate or give prior permission, it shall
communicate the reasons therefor to the applicant.
Provided further that a person shall not be eligible for grant of
certificate or giving prior permission, if his certificate has been
suspended and such suspension of certificate continues on the date of
making application.
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in case of Up to 25% of the unutilised amount may be spent, with the prior
suspension of the approval of the Central Government, for the declared aims and objects
certificate of for which the foreign contribution was received.
registration The remaining 75% of the unutilised foreign contribution shall be
[Rule 14 of FCR utilised only after revocation of suspension of the certificate of
Rules, 2011] registration.
Principles of No order of cancellation of certificate under this section shall be made
natural justice unless the person concerned has been given a reasonable opportunity
[Section 14(2)] of being heard.
Post – effects of Any person whose certificate has been cancelled under this section shall
cancellation not be eligible for registration or grant of prior permission for a
[Section 14(3)] period of 3 years from the date of cancellation of such certificate.
14.MANAGEMENT OF FOREIGN CONTRIBUTION OF PERSON WHOSE
CERTIFICATE HAS BEEN CANCELLED [SECTION 15]
Position of foreign The foreign contribution and assets created out of the foreign
contribution upon contribution in the custody of every person whose certificate has been
cancellation cancelled under section 14 shall vest in such authority as may be
[Section 15(1)] prescribed.
The authority referred to in sub-section (1) may, if it considers necessary
Powers of and in public interest -----
authority Manage the activities of such person and
[Section 15(2)] Utilise the foreign contribution or dispose of the assets created out of
it in case adequate funds are not available for running such activity.
Consequence of
The authority shall return the foreign contribution and the assets
subsequent
vested upon it to such person, if such person is subsequently registered
registration
under this Act.
[Section 15(3)]
(1) The amount of foreign contribution lying unutilised in the exclusive
foreign contribution bank account of a person whose certificate of
Content covered by registration has been cancelled SHALL VEST WITH THE BANKING
Rules AUTHORITY CONCERNED till the Central Government issues further
[Rule 15 of FCR directions in the matter.
Rules, 2011] (2) If a person whose certificate of registration has been cancelled
NOT FOR EXAMS transfers/has transferred the foreign contribution to any other person,
the provisions of sub-rule (1) of this rule shall apply to the person to
whom the fund has been transferred.
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The application for renewal of the certificate shall be made to the Central
Government in such form and manner and accompanied by such fee as
may be prescribed.
Central by rules specified as follows ----- [FCR (Amendment)
Rules,2019]
Every certificate of registration issued to a person shall be liable to be
renewed after the expiry of five years from the date of its issue on
proper application.
Every person shall apply to the Central Government electronically
online in FORM FC-3C, six months before the date of expiry of the
certificate of registration, for its renewal.
An application made for renewal of the certificate of registration shall
Mode of be accompanied by fee of ₹1500.
application The fee for renewal of the certificate of registration shall be remitted
[Section 16(2) read by demand draft or banker's cheque in favour of the "Pay and
with Rule 12 of the Accounts Officer, Ministry of Home Affairs", payable at New
FCR Rules, 2011] Delhi or through online electronic payment gateway as specified
by the Central Government.
In case no application for renewal of registration is received or such
application is not accompanied by the requisite fee, the validity of the
certificate of registration of such person shall be deemed to have
ceased from the date of completion of the period of five years from the
date of the grant of registration.
In case a person provides sufficient grounds, in writing, explaining the
reasons for not submitting the certificate of registration for renewal
within the stipulated time, his application may be accepted for
consideration along with the requisite fee and with late fee of ₹5000,
but not later than 1 year after the expiry of the original certificate of
registration.
A certificate of registration granted on the 1 st January, 2012 shall he valid
till the 31st December, 2016. A request for renewal of the registration
certificate shall reach the Central Government, accompanied by the
Illustration for
requisite fee, by the 30th June, 2016. If no application is received or is not
understanding
accompanied by the renewal fee, the validity of the registration certificate
issued on the 1st January 2012 shall be deemed to have lapsed with effect
from the close of the day on 31st December, 2016.
CHAPTER IV
16.FOREIGN CONTRIBUTION THROUGH SCHEDULED BANK [SECTION 17]
Every person who has been granted a certificate or given prior
Only Single account permission shall RECEIVE foreign contribution in a single account
[Section 17(1)] only through such one of the branches of a bank as he may specify in
his application for grant of certificate.
Multiple accounts in Such person may open one or more accounts in one or more banks
certain cases for UTILISING the foreign contribution received by him.
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CHAPTER VI
21.CONFISCATION OF ARTICLE OR CURRENCY OR SECURITY OBTAINED IN
CONTRAVENTION OF THE ACT [SECTION 28]
Any Article or
What is liable
for Currency or
confiscation? Security
Which is seized under section 25
When If such article or currency or security has been adjudged under section 29 to
confiscation? have been received or obtained in contravention of this Act.
CHAPTER VII
24.APPEAL [SECTION 31]
This section discusses about 2 types of appeals namely, -----
i. Appeal against the order of confiscation under section 29.
ii. All other appeals.
Who may
prefer an
Any person aggrieved by any order made under section 29.
appeal?
[Section 31(1)]
Appeal to Where the order has been made by the court of
To the High Court
whom? session.
[Section
31(1)(a) and To the Court of Where the order has been made by any officer
31(1)(b)] Session specified under section 29(1)(b).
Time limit
Within 1 month from the date of communication to such person of the order.
[Section 31(1)]
Extension in The appellate court may, if it is satisfied that the appellant was prevented
Time limit by sufficient cause from preferring the appeal within the said period of 1
[Proviso to month, allow such appeal to be preferred within a further period of one
Section 31(1)] month, BUT NOT THEREAFTER.
All other appeals such as -----
Appeal by a political organisation u/s 3(1)(f) or
Any person referred to in Section 6 [Restriction on Foreign hospitality]
All other
Any person referred to in Section 9 [CG prohibiting otherthan section 3
appeals
persons]
[Section 31(2)]
Any person aggrieved by the order of CG refusing to give permission.
Any person aggrieved by an order made u/s 12(2) – [Referring to CG refusal
to grant recognition]
CHAPTER VIII
26. OFFENCES AND PENALTIES
Contravention made:
Any person, subject to this Act, who knowingly, —
Making of false (a) gives false intimation under sub-section (c) of section 9 or section 18;
statement, or
declaration or (b) seeks prior permission or registration by means of fraud, false
delivering false representation or concealment of material fact.
accounts
[Section 33] Consequence for contravention:
Liable to imprisonment for a term which may extend to 6 months or with
fine or with both.
Contravention made:
If any person, on whom any prohibitory order has been served under
section 10, pays, delivers, transfers or otherwise deals with, any article or
currency or security, whether Indian or foreign, in contravention of such
Penalty for prohibitory order.
article or
currency or Consequence for contravention:
security obtained He shall be punished with imprisonment for a term
Consequence –
in contravention which may extend to 3 years, or with fine, or with
1
of section 10 both.
[Section 34] An additional fine equivalent to the market value of
Consequence – the article or the amount of the currency or
2 security in respect of which the prohibitory order
has been contravened by him.
Contravention made:
Punishment for Whoever accepts, or assists any person, political party or organisation in
contravention of accepting, any foreign contribution or any currency or security from a
any provision of foreign source, in contravention of any provision of this Act.
the Act Consequence for contravention:
[Section 35] Shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to 5
years, or with fine, or with both.
Contravention made:
The court trying a person, who, in relation to any article or currency or
Power to impose security, whether Indian or foreign, does or omits to do any act, which act
additional fine or omission would render such article or currency or security liable to
where article or confiscation under this Act but such article or currency or security is not
currency or available for confiscation.
security is not Consequence for contravention:
available for Consequence 1:
confiscation. Fine ≯5 times the value of the article or currency or security or ₹1,000
[Section 36] whichever is more.
For Consequence 2:
Fine for general contravention [In addition to consequence – 1 fine]
Penalty for
offences where
Contravention made:
no separate
Whoever fails to comply with any provision of this Act for which no
punishment has
separate penalty has been provided in this Act.
been provided
[Section 37]
Consequence for contravention:
Shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to one
year, or with fine or with both.
Notwithstanding anything contained in this Act, whoever, having been
Prohibition of
convicted of any offence under section 35 or section 37, in so far as such
acceptance of
offence relates to the acceptance or utilisation of foreign contribution, is
foreign again convicted of such offence shall not accept any foreign contribution for
contribution a period of five years from the date of the subsequent conviction.
[Section 38]
Compounded by such officers or authorities and for such sums as the Central
Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette specify.
Who is the As per Rule 21 of FCR Rules, 2011 ------ [Not for exams]
compounding An application for the compounding of an offence under section 41 may be
authority? made to the Secretary, Ministry of Home Affairs, New Delhi on a plain paper
[Section 41(1)] and shall be accompanied by a fee of ₹ 1000/- (One Thousand only) in the
form of a demand draft or a banker's cheque in favour of the "Pay and
Accounts Officer, Ministry of Home Affairs", payable at New Delhi.
No Nothing in sub-section (1) shall apply to an offence committed by an
compounding in individual or association or its officer or other employee within a period of
certain cases three years from the date on which a similar offence committed by it or him
[Section 41(2)] was compounded under this section.
Compounding
under the Every officer or authority referred to in sub-section (1) shall exercise the
supervision of powers to compound an offence, subject to the direction, control and
CG supervision of the Central Government.
[Section 41(3)]
No prosecution
Where any offence is compounded before the institution of any prosecution,
if offence is
no prosecution shall be instituted in relation to such offence, against the
compounded
offender in relation to whom the offence is so compounded.
[Section 41(5)]
CHAPTER IX
30. POWER TO CALL FOR INFORMATION OR DOCUMENT [SECTION 42]
Any inspecting officer, during the course of any inspection of any account or
Power of record in connection with the contravention of any provision of this Act ----
inspecting Call for information
officer Require for production of any document
Examine the persons connected with the case
31.INVESTIGATION INTO CASES UNDER THE ACT [SECTION 43]
Any offence punishable under this Act may also be investigated into by such authority
as the Central Government may specify in this behalf and the authority so specified
shall have all the powers which an officer-in-charge of a police station has while
making an investigation into a cognizable offence.
32. POWER OF CENTRAL GOVERNMENT TO GIVE DIRECTIONS [SECTION 46]
The Central Government may give such directions as it may deem necessary to any
other authority or any person or class of persons regarding the carrying into
execution of the provisions of this Act.
33. DELEGATION OF POWERS [SECTION 47]
The Central Government may, by notification, direct that any of its powers or
functions under this Act, except power to make rule under section 48, shall be
exercised or discharged also by such authority as may be specified.
34. POWER TO EXEMPT IN CERTAIN CASES [SECTION 50]
ANALYSIS:
Particulars Details
Regulate securitization
Regulatory Regulate reconstruction of financial assets
mechanism Regulate the enforcement of security interest
Provide a Central Registry to record all transactions
Act shall also provide for matters connected therewith or incidental
Incidental matters
thereto.
CHAPTER I – PRELIMINARY
Section Content
1 Short title, extent and commencement
2 Definitions
Then, all rights in, or in relation to, the secured asset transferred
shall vest in the transferee all rights in, or in relation to, the
Result
secured asset transferred as if the transfer had been made by the
owner of such secured asset.
Particulars Details
Action by secured An action has been taken against the borrower under
creditor section 13(4) by the secured creditor.
Incurring costs Secured creditor is of an opinion that he has properly
incurred costs, charges and expenses.
Recovery Such costs, charges and expenses shall be recoverable
Amount to be paid from the borrower.
[Section 13(7)] Money held in The money which is received by the secured creditor
trust shall, in the absence of any contract to the contrary, be
held by him in trust.
Application of the In payment of such costs, charges and
Stage – 1
amount received expenses.
as a result of In discharge of the dues of the secured
Stage – 2
creditor.
The borrower or such other person] shall be entitled to the payment of such
Result compensation and costs as may be determined by such Tribunal or Court of District
Judge or Appellate Tribunal or the High Court referred to in section 18B.
Head office The head office of the Board is located at New Delhi.
Features of IBBI Body Corporate
Perpetual Succession
Common Seal
Acquire, hold, and dispose the property
Capacity to contract
Capacity to sue and to be sued.
7. INSOLVENCY PROFESSIONALS
The Code provides for insolvency professionals as intermediaries who would play a
key role in the efficient working of the bankruptcy process. The role of the IP
encompasses a wide range of functions, which include adhering to procedure of the
law, as well as accounting and finance related functions. He shall have the power and
responsibility to monitor and manage the operations and assets of the enterprise.
In the resolution process, the insolvency professional verifies the claims of the
creditors, constitutes a creditors committee, runs the debtor's business during the
moratorium period and helps the creditors in reaching a consensus for a revival plan.
In liquidation, the insolvency professional acts as a liquidator and bankruptcy trustee.
An Insolvency Professional if appointed as a Resolution Professional shall act as a as
a neutral trustee of the assets of the organization.
Every insolvency professional shall abide by the following code of conduct:
1 To take reasonable care and diligence while performing his duties.
To comply with all requirements and terms and conditions specified in the bye-laws of the
2
insolvency professional agency of which he is a member.
3 To allow the insolvency professional agency to inspect his records.
To submit a copy of the records of every proceeding before the adjudicating authority to the board
4
as well as to the insolvency professional agency of which he is a member.
5 To perform his functions in such manner and subject to such conditions as may be specified.
8. INFORMATION UTILITIES
The Code envisages creation of information utility to collect, collate, authenticate and
disseminate financial information of debtors in centralized electronic databases, at all
times.
The Code requires creditors to provide financial information of debtors to multiple
utilities on an ongoing basis.
Such information would be available to creditors, resolution professionals,
liquidators and other stakeholders in insolvency and bankruptcy proceedings.
The purpose of this is to remove information asymmetry and dependency on the
debtor's management for critical information that is needed to swiftly resolve
insolvency.
Obligations of Information Utilities:
1 Create and store financial information in a universally accessible format.
Accept electronic submissions of financial information from persons who are under obligations
2
to submit financial information.
Accept, in specified form and manner, electronic submissions of financial information from
3
persons who intend to submit such information.
4 Meet such minimum service quality standards as may be specified by regulations.
Get the information received from various persons authenticated by all concerned parties
5
before storing such information.
Provide access to the financial information stored by it to any person who intends to access such
6
information in such manner as may be specified by regulations.
7 Publish such statistical information as may be specified by regulations.
8 Have inter-operatability with other information utilities.
Particulars Details
Name of the Act
Insolvency and Bankruptcy code, 2016.
[Section 1(1)]
Act shall apply to whole of India including the state of Jammu and
Kashmir.
Extent of applicability However, Part III of this Code which deals with insolvency
[Section 1(2) and proviso resolution and bankruptcy of individuals and partnership firms
to Section 1(2)] shall not extend to the State of Jammu and Kashmir. [Omitted by the
Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Adaptation of Central Laws)
Order, 2020 No.SO1123(E) dated 18th March, 2020.]
Vide Notification No. S.O. 3912 (E), dated 30th October, 2019,
this Act is made applicable to the Union territory of Jammu and
Kashmir and the Union territory of Ladakh.
Effective date
Act became effective from 5th August 2016.
[Section 1(3)]
All section not to take effect
on same date Different dates may be appointed for different provisions of this Code.
[Proviso to Section 1(3)]
Particulars Details
Company incorporated under Companies Act, 2013.
Companies governed by any special act.
Limited Liability Partnership.
Applicability of
Personal guarantors to corporate debtors.
provisions to whom?
Partnership firms.
Proprietorship firms.
Individuals, other than personal guarantors to corporate debtors.
any derivative transaction, only the market value of such transaction shall be
taken into account;
(h) any counter-indemnity obligation in respect of a guarantee, indemnity, bond,
documentary letter of credit or any other instrument issued by a bank or
financial institution;
(i) the amount of any liability in respect of any of the guarantee or indemnity for
any of the items referred to in sub-clauses (a) to (h) of this clause
Operational debt means a claim in respect of the provision of goods or services
Operational debt including employment or a debt in respect of the payment of dues arising under
[Section 5(21)] any law for the time being in force and payable to the Central Government, any
State Government or any local authority.
Default means non-payment of debt when whole or any part or instalment of the
Default
amount of debt has become due and payable and is not paid by the debtor or the
[Section 3(12)]
corporate debtor, as the case may be.
Corporate applicant means-----
(a) Corporate debtor; or
(b) A member or partner of the corporate debtor who is authorised to make an
Corporate application for the corporate insolvency resolution process under the
applicant constitutional document of the corporate debtor; or
[Section 5(5)] (c) An individual who is in charge of managing the operations and resources of
the corporate debtor; or
(d) A person who has the control and supervision over the financial affairs of the
corporate debtor.
Corporate
Corporate guarantor means a corporate person who is the surety in a contract
guarantor
of guarantee to a corporate debtor.
[Section 5(5A)]
Financial creditor means any person to whom a financial debt is owed and
Financial Creditor
includes a person to whom such debt has been legally assigned or transferred
[Section 5(7)]
to.
Operational
Operational creditor means a person to whom an operational debt is owed and
Creditor
includes any person to whom such debt has been legally assigned or transferred.
[Section 5(20)]
Personal
Personal guarantor means an individual who is the surety in a contract of
guarantor
guarantee to a corporate debtor.
[Section 5(22)]
Adjudicating
Adjudicating Authority, for the purposes of this Part, means National Company
authority
Law Tribunal constituted under section 408 of the Companies Act, 2013.
[Section 5(1)]
Constitutional Constitutional document, in relation to a corporate person, includes articles of
document association, memorandum of association of a company and incorporation
[Section 5(4)] document of a Limited Liability Partnership.
Dispute includes a suit or arbitration proceedings relating to--
Dispute
(a) The existence of the amount of debt;
[Section 5(6)]
(b) The quality of goods or service; or
Insolvency Insolvency professional means a person enrolled under section 206 with an
Professional insolvency professional agency as its member and registered with the Board as
[Section 3(19)] an insolvency professional under section 207.
"Related party", in relation to a corporate debtor, means--
(a) a director or partner of the corporate debtor or a relative of a director or
partner of the corporate debtor;
(b) key managerial personnel of the corporate debtor or a relative of key
managerial personnel of the corporate debtor;
(c) a limited liability partnership or a partnership firm in which a director,
partner, or manager of the corporate debtor or his relative is a partner;
(d) a private company in which a director, partner or manager of the corporate
debtor is a director and holds along with his relatives, more than two per cent.
of its share capital;
(e) a public company in which a director, partner or manager of the corporate
debtor is a director and holds along with relatives, more than two per cent. of its
paid-up share capital;
(f) any body corporate whose board of directors, managing director or manager,
in the ordinary course of business, acts on the advice, directions or instructions
of a director, partner or manager of the corporate debtor;
(g) any limited liability partnership or a partnership firm whose partners or
employees in the ordinary course of business, acts on the advice, directions or
instructions of a director, partner or manager of the corporate debtor;
(h) any person on whose advice, directions or instructions, a director, partner
or manager of the corporate debtor is accustomed to act;
Related Party
(i) a body corporate which is a holding, subsidiary or an associate company of
[Section 5(24)]
the corporate debtor, or a subsidiary of a holding company to which the
corporate debtor is a subsidiary;
(j) any person who controls more than twenty per cent. of voting rights in the
corporate debtor on account of ownership or a voting agreement;
(k) any person in whom the corporate debtor controls more than twenty per
cent. of voting rights on account of ownership or a voting agreement;
(l) any person who can control the composition of the board of directors or
corresponding governing body of the corporate debtor;
(m) any person who is associated with the corporate debtor on account of--
(i) participation in policy making processes of the corporate debtor; or
(ii) having more than two directors in common between the corporate debtor
and such person; or
(iii) interchange of managerial personnel between the corporate debtor and
such person; or
(iv) provision of essential technical information to, or from, the corporate
debtor;
(24A) "related party", in relation to an individual, means--
(a) a person who is a relative of the individual or a relative of the spouse of the
individual;
(b) a partner of a limited liability partnership, or a limited liability partnership
or a partnership firm, in which the individual is a partner;
(c) a person who is a trustee of a trust in which the beneficiary of the trust
includes the individual, or the terms of the trust confers a power on the trustee
which may be exercised for the benefit of the individual;
(d) a private company in which the individual is a director and holds along with
his relatives, more than two per cent. of its share capital;
(e) a public company in which the individual is a director and holds along with
relatives, more than two per cent. of its paid-up share capital;
(f) a body corporate whose board of directors, managing director or manager, in
the ordinary course of business, acts on the advice, directions or instructions of
the individual;
(g) any limited liability partnership or a partnership firm whose partners or
employees in the ordinary course of business, act on the advice, directions or
instructions of the individual;
(h) a person on whose advice, directions or instructions, the individual is
accustomed to act;
(i) a company, where the individual or the individual along with its related party,
own more than fifty per cent. of the share capital of the company or controls the
appointment of the board of directors of the company.
Explanation.-- For the purposes of this clause,--
(a) "relative", with reference to any person, means anyone who is related to
another, in the following manner, namely:--
(i) members of a Hindu Undivided Family,
(ii) husband,
(iii) wife,
(iv) father,
(v) mother,
(vi) son,
(vii) daughter,
(viii) son's daughter and son,
(ix) daughters daughter and son,
(x) grandson's daughter and son,
(xi) granddaughters daughter and son,
(xii) brother,
(xiii) sister,
(xiv) brother's son and daughter,
(xv) sister's son and daughter,
(xvi) father's father and mother,
(xvii) mother's father and mother,
(xviii) father's brother and sister,
(xix) mother's brother and sister, and
(b) Wherever the relation is that of a son, daughter, sister or brother, their
spouses shall also be included.
Resolution Resolution applicant means a person, who individually or jointly with any other
applicant person, submits a resolution plan to the resolution professional pursuant to the
[Section 5(25)] invitation made under clause (h) of sub-section (2) of section 25.
Resolution plan Resolution plan means a plan proposed by resolution applicant for insolvency
[Section 5(26)] resolution of the corporate debtor as a going concern in accordance with Part II.
fixed, matured, unmatured, disputed, In a legal claim, a plaintiff explains to the court how the
undisputed, secured or unsecured. defendant's actions cause him to suffer a loss. That loss could
have occurred in the past, or it may occur in the future.
Legal claim The goal in the legal claim is for the defendant to compensate
the plaintiff. If the plaintiff wins, the judge will order the
defendant to pay money to the plaintiff for loss or injury, also
known as "damages."
A plaintiff who seeks equitable relief is asking the court for an
injunction. An injunction is a court order compelling a party to
do or refrain from doing a specified act.
A court awards an injunction to prevent a future harmful action
Equitable claim
-- rather than to compensate for a past injury -- or to provide
relief from harm for which an award of money damages is not
a satisfactory solution or for which a monetary value is
impossible to calculate.
Remedy for Remedy may be exercised under any law and need not be under
breach of this law. Right entitles party to recover damages.
contract
Reason for Damages cannot be secured.
missing words
‘Secured or
Unsecured’
In insolvency proceedings a claim to payment of debt cannot be
Reason for made unless it has come to maturity and default has occurred
addition of new and therefore a question of unmatured doesn’t arise in case of
words ‘matured debt.
or unmatured’ However, damages can be claimed at any stage of breach.
Therefore, a question of unmatured may arise.
4 Case on claim Apex Court in the matter of Swiss Ribbons Pvt. Ltd. & Anr. Vs. Union of India & Ors. held that whereas a “claim” gives rise to
a “debt” only when it becomes “due”, a “default” occurs only when a “debt” becomes “due and payable” and is not paid by the
debtor. It is for this reason that a financial creditor has to prove “default” as opposed to an operational creditor who merely
CA KOUSHIK MUKHESH 154
THE INSOLVENCY AND BANKRUPTCY CODE, 2016
“claims” a right to payment of a liability or obligation in respect of a debt which may be due. When this aspect is borne in mind,
the differentiation in the triggering of insolvency resolution process by financial creditors under Section 7 and by operational
creditors under Sections 8 and 9 of the Code becomes clear.
5 Person Person defines under Section 3 (23) of Creditor under this Act may be any person including a foreign creditor.
the Code includes: Case law:
(a) an individual; Hon’ble Supreme Court in the matter of Hindustan Construction Company Limited
(b) a Hindu Undivided Family; & Anr. Vs. Union of India & Ors. held that that the CIRP process can be initiated
(c) a company; against a government company by virtue of it being covered under the first part of
(d) a trust; ‘corporate person’ as provided in section 3(7) of the Code. The Court cleared that
(e) a partnership; NHPC, NTPC and IRCON, being PSUs are government companies as they are
(f) a limited liability partnership; and incorporated under the Companies Act, and they would be covered within the section
(g) any other entity established under a 3(7) of the Code. However, the Supreme Court also laid down that so far as the NHAI
statute, is concerned, referred to the Statement of Objects and Reasons of the National
and includes a person resident Highways Authority of India Act, 1988 and some sections of the said Act to show that
outside India. NHAI is a statutory body which functions as an extended limb of the Central
Government, and which is to carry out the sovereign function of laying down national
highways. The Insolvency Code cannot be used against such a statutory body, because
no resolution professional or private individual can take over the management of such
body, as it performs sovereign functions, nor can such body be driven to insolvency
under an Insolvency Code.
6 Financial Financial creditor defines under section Financial creditor may be either secured or unsecured.
creditor 5 (7) means any person to whom a That is a financial creditor is a person who has right to a financial debt including
financial debt is owed and includes a assignee. In order to understand the expression financial creditor, the
person to whom such debt has been requirements of expression financial debt have to be satisfied which is defined
legally assigned or transferred to. under Section 5 (8) of the IBC.
7 Financial Refer Section 5(8) The opening words of the definition clause would indicate that a financial debt is
debt a debt along with interest which is disbursed against the consideration for the time
value of money and it may include any of the events enumerated in sub-clauses (a)
to (i).
Therefore, the first essential requirement of financial debt has to be met, that the
debt is disbursed against the consideration for the time value of money and which
may include the events enumerated in various sub-clauses.
The key feature of financial transaction as defined by section 5(8) is its
consideration for time value of money.
It may also be a sum of money invested today to be repaid over a period of time in
a single or series of installments to be paid in future.
It is significant to notice that in order to satisfy the requirement of this provision,
the financial transaction should be in the nature of debt and no equity has been
implied by the opening words of Section 5(8) of the IBC.
8 Home buyers The above definition of ‘financial debt’ under section 5 (8) of the Code uses the word “includes”, thus the kinds of financial
– Case laws debts illustrated are not exhaustive as interpreted by NCLAT in case of B.V.S. Lakshmi v. Geometrix Laser Solutions
Private Limited.
The phrase “disbursed against the consideration for the time value of money” has been the subject of interpretation only in
a handful of cases under the Code. The words “time value” have been interpreted to mean compensation or the price paid
for the length of time for which the money has been disbursed. This may be in the form of interest paid on the money as
elaborated by NCLAT in case of Nikhil Mehta and Sons (HUF) & Ors. Vs. AMR Infrastructure Ltd, or factoring of a discount
in the payment.
Prior Amendment position: Explicitly nothing is said in the Act whether Home buyers shall be considered as financial or
operational creditors under the Code. Therefore, judiciary has a responsibility to judge the same and therefore following are
worth noting -----
Nikhil Mehta v. AMR Infrastructure, NCLAT, New Delhi- If Developer has shown the amount taken from home buyer
under borrowing head and charged the interest thereon under Finance Cost in his Financial statements then that amount
is constituted as debt under IBC.
Anil Mahindroo & Anr v. Earth Organics Infrastructure– Money disbursed by home buyer is against the consideration
for the time value of money and for all purpose, they come within the meaning of ‘Financial Creditor’ as defined in Section
5(7) of the ‘IBC’.
Vinod Awasthy v. AMR Infrastructure Ltd., NCLT, Principal Bench, Delhi, CP No. (IB)-10(PB)/2017, Date of decision –
20 February, 2017- Home Buyer as neither fitting within the definition of ‘financial’ nor ‘operational’ creditors.
Post Amendment position:
(f) any amount raised under any other transaction, including any forward sale or purchase agreement, having the commercial
effect of a borrowing; [Existing provision as at amendment]
Explanation. -For the purposes of this sub-clause, - [Newly inserted]
(i) any amount raised from an allottee under a real estate project shall be deemed to be an amount having the
commercial effect of a borrowing; and
(ii) the expressions, “allottee” and “real estate project” shall have the meanings respectively assigned to them in clauses
(d) and (zn) of section 2 of the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016.
LEGISLATIVE INTENTION:
On a review of various financial terms of agreements between home buyers and builders and the manner of utilisation of the
disbursements made by home buyers to the builders, it is evident that the agreement is for disbursement of money by the
home buyer for the delivery of a building to be constructed in the future. The disbursement of money is made in relation to a
future asset, and the contracts usually span a period of 4-5 years or more. The amounts so raised are used as a means of
financing the real estate project, and are thus in effect a tool for raising finance, and on failure of the project, money is repaid
based on time value of money.
On a plain reading of section 5(8)(f), it is clear that it is a residuary entry to cover debt transactions not covered under any
other entry, and the essence of the entry is that “amount should have been raised under a transaction having the commercial
effect of a borrowing.” An example has been mentioned in the entry itself i.e. forward sale or purchase agreement.
Thus, not all forward sale or purchase are financial transactions, but if they are structured as a tool or means for raising
finance, there is no doubt that the amount raised may be classified as financial debt under section 5(8)(f). Drawing an analogy,
in the case of home buyers, the amounts raised under the contracts of home buyers are in effect for the purposes of raising
finance, and are a means of raising finance. Thus, the Committee deemed it prudent to clarify that such amounts raised under
a real estate project from a home buyer fall within entry (f) of section 5(8).
To conclude finally, the current definition of ‘financial debt’ is sufficient to include the amounts raised from home
buyers / allottees under a real estate project, and hence, they are to be treated as financial creditors under the Code.
However, given the confusion and multiple interpretations being taken, at this stage, it may be prudent to explicitly
clarify that such creditors fall within the definition of financial creditor, by inserting an explanation to section 5(8)(f)
of the Code.
9 Operational Operation creditors means as per An operational creditor is a creditor whose claim arises out of a normal business
Creditor Section 5 (20) a person to whom an transaction that such creditor may have had with the legal entity. It would include
operational debt is owed and includes money receivable by an employee or a worker of the company as wages or salary.
any person to whom such debt has been It would also include a claim of a statutory authority on account of money
legally assigned or transferred. receivable pursuant to an imposition by a statute.
10 Operational The definition of the operation debt So, a trade payable, employee’s dues and dues payable to CG or SG under law are
Debt under Section 5 (21) covers following covered under the operation debt.
claim:
Claim in respect of the provision of
goods or services
Claim in respect of the provision
employment
Debt in respect of the payment of
dues arising under any law for the
time being in force and payable to
the Central Government, any State
Government or any local authority.
11 Case laws A. On behalf of GST Department, can claims may be filed by the proper officer before the NCLT?
w.r.t. CBEC has clarified that in accordance with the provisions of the IBC and various legal pronouncements on the issue, no coercive
Operational action can be taken against the corporate debtor with respect to the dues for period prior to insolvency commencement date.
debt and The dues of the period prior to the commencement of CIRP will be treated as ‘operational debt’ and claims may be filed by the
creditor proper officer before the NCLT in accordance with the provisions of the IBC. The tax officers shall seek the details of supplies
made / received and total tax dues pending from the corporate debtor to file the claim before the NCLT. Moreover, section 14
of the IBC mandates the imposition of a moratorium period, wherein the institution of suits or continuation of pending suits or
proceedings against the corporate debtor is prohibited.
B. Whether a trade union could be said to be an operational creditor?
Supreme Court in the matter of JK Jute Mill Mazdoor Morcha Vs. Juggilal Kamlapat Jute Mills Company Ltd through Its
Director & Ors. held that the trade union represents its members who are workers, to whom dues may be owed by the employer,
which are certainly debts owed for services rendered by each individual workman, who are collectively represented by the
trade union. Equally, to state that for each workman there will be a separate cause of action, a separate claim, and a separate
date of default would ignore the fact that a joint petition could be filed under Rule 6 read with Form 5 of the Insolvency and
Bankruptcy (Application to Adjudicating Authority) Rules, 2016, with authority from several workmen to one of them to file
such petition on behalf of all.
C. Whether the recovery of arrears of rent can be claimed as operational debt within the meaning of section 3(11) of
the Code?
An important question as to whether the transaction of lease of immovable property can be brought within the definition of
“Operational Debt” and landlord/lessor can be categorized as an “Operational Creditor” for the purpose of the Code.
NCLT, Kolkata Bench in the matter of Sarla Tantia V/s Nadia Health Care (P) Ltd. [CP(IB) No. 108/KB/2018 and CA(IB) No.
119/KB/2018, dated 05.10.2018] held that receiving any consideration by way of rent, lease from time to time, license fees for
letting out the premises would fall under the purview of providing services and the consideration that is receivable becomes
operational debt.
Court language is as follows:
In view of this, it has to be held that, “letting out premises on rent is nothing but providing the services. Section 5(21) of
the IB Code defines the operational debt as a claim in respect of the provision of goods or services including
employment or a debt in respect of the repayment of dues arising under the law for the time being in force and payable
to the Central Government, any State Government or any local authority.” Hence, receiving any consideration by way
of rent, lease from time to time, license fees for letting out the premises would fall under the purview of providing
services and the consideration that is receivable becomes operational debt. In view of these facts on record, I hold that
recovery of arrears of rent is operational debt within the meaning of section 5(21) of the Code.”
Contrary View:
However, NCLT in the matter of Mrs. Pramod Yadav Vs. M/s. Divine Infracon Pvt. ltd.-No. IB-209/ND/2017 dated 28.09.2017
held that in relation to immovable property the same cannot be considered as a transaction falling under the term ‘operation’
and ‘operational debt’ unless such a transaction having a correlation of direct input to the output produced or supplied by the
corporate debtor.
NCLAT in the matter of Jindal Steel & Power Ltd. Vs. DCM International Ltd. also held that the Appellant being a tenant,
having not made any claim in respect of the provisions of the goods or services and the debt in respect of the repayment of dues
does not arise under any law for the time being in force payable to the Central Government or State Government, we hold that
the Appellant tenant do not come within the meaning of ‘Operational Creditor’ as defined under sub-section (20) read with sub-
Section (21) of Section 5 of the Code for triggering Insolvency and Bankruptcy Process under Section 9 of the Code.
12 Corporate As per Section 3(8), Corporate Debtor Corporate debtor means a corporate person.
Debtor means a corporate person who owes a For whom corporate debtor is owed is not a corporate person, it may be a person
debt to any person. of any category.
13 Corporate Corporate person means a company as So, as per sub-section 7 of the Section 3, the corporate persons mean:
Person defined in clause (20) of section 2 of the Company
CA KOUSHIK MUKHESH 159
THE INSOLVENCY AND BANKRUPTCY CODE, 2016
SEBI
IRDAI
PFRA
any other as notified by the Central Government.
15 Case laws on In the matter of Randhiraj Thakur, Director, Mayfair Capital Private Limited Vs. M/s. Jindal Saxena Financial Services
FSPs Private Limited wherein NCLAT held that the application filed by financial creditor under Section 7 of the I&B Code is not
maintainable against the company which has been granted a certificate of Registration under the Reserve Bank of India Act,
1934 giving status of a “Non-Banking Financial Institution.
The definition of “financial service” if read with definition of “financial service provider”, it is clear that it is not necessary
that the “financial service providers” must accept the deposits. The definition of ‘financial services’ as defined in Section
3(16) of the Code is not limited to the 9 activities as shown at Clause (a) to (i) of Section 3(16). The aforesaid Clauses (a) to
(i) are inclusive which means there are other services means there are other services which come within the meaning of
“financial services”. (Housing Development Finance Corporation Ltd Vs. RHC Holding Private Ltd-NCLAT).
CONCLUSION:
A financial creditor or an operational creditor cannot file application for initiating CIRP against financial service provider even
if they maybe corporate entities because these are not corporate debtors under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016. A
Financial Service provider can file application to initiate CIRP against any corporate debtor, if the corporate debtor commits
defaults. However, if a bank takes loan from the another (bank) or from any financial service provider, the debt taker bank
cannot file application for initiating CIRP against other bank(or against financial service provider) as debt owned bank is out of
purview of the Code as a financial service provider as discussed in the this article.
16 Corporate or Background:
Personal By a notification dated 15.11.2019, the Central Government via Ministry of Corporate Affairs has brought onto effect Part III of
guarantor the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (except with regard to fresh start process) dealing with Insolvency and Bankruptcy of
Individual and Partnership Firms in so far as it is applicable to Personal Guarantors of Corporate Debtors and Corporate
Guarantors. This was brought into effect from 1st of December 2019.
This notification shall apply to personal guarantors to Corporate Debtors. Subsequently, it has proposed that separate set of
rules and regulations for three different classes of non-corporate persons and its implementation.
Thus, two sets of regulations were released by Central government under this notification, the Insolvency and Bankruptcy
(Application to Adjudicating Authority for Insolvency Resolution Process for Personal Guarantors to Corporate Debtors) Rules,
2019 and the Insolvency and Bankruptcy (Application to Adjudicating Authority for Bankruptcy Process for Personal
Guarantors to Corporate Guarantors) Rules, 2019.
Guarantor defined:
According to Section 5(22) of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016 “personal guarantor” means an individual who is the
surety in a contract of guarantee to a corporate debtor.
According to Rule 3(e) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy (Application to Adjudicating Authority for Insolvency
Resolution Process for Personal Guarantors to Corporate Debtors) Rules, 2019 defines as: “Guarantor means a debtor
who is a personal guarantor to a corporate debtor and in respect of whom the guarantee has been invoked by the creditor and
remains unpaid in part or full”
According to Section 126 of the Contracts Act 1870: A ‘contract of guarantee’ is a contract to perform the promise, or
discharge the liability, of a third person in case of his default. The person who gives the guarantee is called the ‘surety’; the
person in respect of whose default the guarantee is given is called the ‘principal debtor’, and the person to whom the guarantee
is given is called the ‘creditor’.
Explanation:
A contract of guarantee is between the creditor, the principal debtor and the surety, where under the creditor has a remedy in
relation to his debt against both the principal debtor and the surety. The surety here may be a corporate or a natural person
and the liability of such person goes as far the liability of the principal debtor. As per section 128 of the Indian Contract Act,
1872, the liability of the surety is co-extensive with that of the principal debtor and the creditor may go against either the
principal debtor, or the surety, or both, in no particular sequence. Though this may be limited by the terms of the contract of
guarantee, the general principle of such contracts is that the liability of the principal debtor and the surety is co-extensive and
is joint and several.
Judicial pronouncements:
Following question have been answered by NCLAT in the matter Dr. Vishnu Kumar Agarwal Vs. M/s. Piramal Enterprises
Ltd.
Whether the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process can be initiated against two Corporate Guarantors simultaneously for the
same set of debt and default? The question can be looked from another angle. Whether the Financial Creditor can claim same
amount from the Resolution Professional appointed pursuant to the CIRP against the Corporate Guarantor No.1, as also from
the Resolution Professional appointed pursuant to CIRP initiated Corporate Guarantor No.2?
Judgment:
There is no bar in the ‘I&B Code’ for filing simultaneously two applications under Section 7 against the ‘Principal Borrower’ as
well as the ‘Corporate Guarantor(s)’ or against both the ‘Guarantors’. However, once for same set of claim application under
Section 7 filed by the ‘Financial Creditor’ is admitted against one of the ‘Corporate Debtor’ (‘Principal Borrower’ or ‘Corporate
Guarantor(s)’), second application by the same ‘Financial Creditor’ for same set of claim and default cannot be admitted against
the other ‘Corporate Debtor’ (the ‘Corporate Guarantor(s)’ or the ‘Principal Borrower’). Further, though there is a provision to
file joint application under Section 7 by the ‘Financial Creditors’, no application can be filed by the ‘Financial Creditor’ against
two or more ‘Corporate Debtors’ on the ground of joint liability (‘Principal Borrower’ and one Corporate Guarantor’, or
‘Principal Borrower’ or two ‘Corporate Guarantors’ or one ‘Corporate Guarantor’ and other ‘Corporate Guarantor’), till it is
shown that the ‘Corporate Debtors’ combinedly are joint venture company.
Particulars Details
Part II shall apply to matters relating to -----
Insolvency of Corporate Debtors and
Applicability of Part II
Liquidation of Corporate Debtors.
[Section 4]
This Part shall apply only if the minimum amount of the default is ₹
1,00,00,000.
13. DEFINITIONS APPLICABLE TO PART II – ALREADY COVERED IN TOPIC 3 ABOVE
Particulars Details
Financial Creditor
Who may initiate corporate
Operational Creditor
insolvency resolution process?
Corporate debtor itself.
Event of making application Default committed by Corporate Debtor.
Provided further that for financial creditors who are allottees under a real estate project, an
application for initiating corporate insolvency resolution process against the corporate
debtor shall be filed jointly by not less than one hundred of such allottees under the same real
estate project or not less than ten per cent. of the total number of such allottees under the
same real estate project, whichever is less:
Provided also that where an application for initiating the corporate insolvency resolution
process against a corporate debtor has been filed by a financial creditor referred to in the first
or second provisos and has not been admitted by the Adjudicating Authority before the
commencement of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Act, 2020, such
application shall be modified to comply with the requirements of the first or second provisos
as the case may be within thirty days of the commencement of the said Act, failing which the
application shall be deemed to be withdrawn before its admission. [Inserted by the
Amendment Act w.e.f. 28 – 12 – 2019]
(2) The financial creditor shall make an application under sub-section (1) in such form and
manner and accompanied with such fee as may be prescribed.
(3) The financial creditor shall, along with the application furnish -
(a) record of the default recorded with the information utility or such other record or evidence
of default as may be specified;
(b)the name of the resolution professional proposed to act as an interim resolution
professional; and
(c) any other information as may be specified by the Board.
(4) The Adjudicating Authority shall, within fourteen days of the receipt of the application
under sub-section (2), ascertain the existence of a default from the records of an information
utility or on the basis of other evidence furnished by the financial creditor under sub-section
(3).
Provided that if the Adjudicating Authority has not ascertained the existence of default and
passed an order under sub-section (5) within such time, it shall record its reasons in writing
for the same.
(5) Where the Adjudicating Authority is satisfied that –
(a) a default has occurred and the application under sub-section (2) is complete, and there is
no disciplinary proceedings pending against the proposed resolution professional, it may, by
order, admit such application; or
(b) default has not occurred or the application under sub-section (2) is incomplete or any
disciplinary proceeding is pending against the proposed resolution professional, it may, by
order, reject such application:
Provided that the Adjudicating Authority shall, before rejecting the application under clause
(b) of sub-section (5), give a notice to the applicant to rectify the defect in his application
within seven days of receipt of such notice from the Adjudicating Authority.
(6) The corporate insolvency resolution process shall commence from the date of admission
of the application under sub-section (5).
(7) The Adjudicating Authority shall communicate-
(a) the order under clause (a) of sub-section (5) to the financial creditor and the corporate
debtor;
(b) the order under clause (b) of sub-section (5) to the financial creditor, within seven days of
admission or rejection of such application, as the case may be.
Particulars Details
AA to specify reasons in
AA has not ascertained the existence of default.
writing in certain cases
However, passed an order under sub-section (5).
[Proviso to Section
In such a case, it shall record its reasons in writing for the same.
7(4)]
Default has occurred.
Conditions for admission
The application is complete.
of application
No disciplinary proceedings pending against the proposed resolution
[Section 7(5)(a)]
professional.
Default hasn’t occurred.
Conditions for admission
The application is incomplete.
of application
Disciplinary proceedings pending against the proposed resolution
[Section 7(5)(b)]
professional.
Procedure before
Adjudicating Authority shall, before rejecting the application, give a
rejection
notice to the applicant to rectify the defect in his application within 7
[Proviso to Section
days of receipt of such notice from the Adjudicating Authority.
7(5)]
Commencement of CIRP The corporate insolvency resolution process shall commence from the
[Section 7(6)] date of admission of the application.
Communicate to financial creditor and
Communication by the In case of admission corporate debtor within 7 days of admission
AA of such application.
[Section 7(7)(a) and
Section 7(7)(b)] Communicate to financial creditor within 7
In case of rejection
days of rejection of such application.
Particulars Details
Meaning of the term “Any other Following persons has been notified who may file an application for initiating CIRP on behalf of the financial creditor:
person on behalf of the financial –
creditor, as may be notified by (i) a guardian;
the Central Government.” (ii) an executor or administrator of an estate of a financial creditor;
(iii) a trustee (including a debenture trustee); and
(iv) a person duly authorised by the Board of Directors of a Company.
Application made by advocate - Hon’ble Supreme Court in the matter of Sunrise Denmark Vs. Ravi Mahajan 61(IBC)01/2018 held that petition
maintainable? filed by an advocate would be maintainable.
Can POA holder file application NCLAT in the matter of Palogix Infrastructure Private Limited Vs. ICICI Bank Limited held that a Power of
under section 7 or 9 or 10? Attorney holder cannot file any application u/s 7 or Sec. 9 or Sec. 10 of Code.
Is time limit provided to AA for Hon’ble Supreme Court in Surendra Trading Company Vs. Juggilal Kamlapat Jute Mills Company Ltd. & Others
acceptance or rejection is 57(IBC)03/2017 held that the time limit prescribed in IBC, 2016 for admitting or rejecting a petition or initiation of
directory or mandatory? CIRP under proviso to sub-sec. (5) of Sec. 9, is directory. The same view has been taken by NCLAT under section 7 in
the matter of Techno Electric & Engineering Co. Ltd. Vs. McLeod Russel India Ltd. 161(IBC)126/2020.
Can fresh application u/s 7 be If the earlier application u/s 7 was dismissed for non-prosecution due to absence of the counsel for the Respondent
made if an earlier application (Financial Creditor), it was always open to the Respondent to file fresh application u/s 7-Venus Sugar Ltd. Vs. SASF
u/s 7 is filed and dismissed? 02(IBC)02/2020 -NCLAT.
Will AA considers money claims The AA under the Code is not a Court of Law & it does not decide money claim or Suit, it can only admit or reject the
and other suits? application filed under IBC – Hardeep Singh Sawhney Vs. Sawhney Builders Pvt. Ltd. – NCLAT.
Is AA a civil court under this The Adjudicating Authority is not a Civil Court to decide the breach of the contract between the parties – M/s
Act? Saregama India Limited Vs. M/s Home Movie Makers Private Limited – NCLAT.
In appropriate Corporate If any Corporate Guarantee is given against the provisions of the Companies Act, it is not open to any Shareholder,
guarantee – validity? Director or MD to raise such issue in petition u/s 7 of the Code– Padmaiah Vuppu Vs. Reliance Capital AIF Trustee
Company Pvt. Ltd. & Ors – NCLAT.
Non – disposal of application by If application is not disposed off by AA within one year & AA has been allowed for adjournment again and again,
NCLT – Remedy available? appellant can approach NCLAT & NCLAT can direct to AA for pass such order in such time – State Bank of India Vs.
Sri Lakshmikantha Spinners Ltd – NCLAT.
Joint application against two Facts of the case The ‘Financial Creditor’- (‘M/s. Piramal Enterprises Ltd.’) has claimed that it was owed
Corporate guarantors for very financial debt of Rs. 40,28,76,461/- from ‘Sunsystem Institute of Information Technology Pvt.
same claim – Permissible? Ltd.’- (“Corporate Guarantor No.2”), which means that the ‘Financial Creditor’ was owed debt
which is disbursed against the time value of money. Once such claim is made by the same very
‘Financial Creditor’- (‘M/s. Piramal Enterprises Ltd.’) against one of the ‘Corporate
Debtor’ (‘Corporate Guarantor No.2’) in respect of same financial debt for
triggering ‘Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process’ and such application is admitted (on
24th May, 2018), the question arises as to whether for same very claim and for same very
default, the application under Section 7 against the other ‘Corporate Debtor’- (‘Corporate
Guarantor No.1’)— ‘Sunrise Naturopathy and Resorts Pvt. Ltd.’ can be initiated?
In the present case, the Adjudicating Authority has accepted that there is a debt payable in law
by ‘Sunsystem Institute of Information Technology Pvt. Ltd.’- (“Corporate Guarantor No.2”)
and admitted the application on 24th May, 2018. The moment it is admitted, it is open to the
other ‘Corporate Guarantor No.1’ namely— ‘Sunrise Naturopathy and Resorts Pvt. Ltd.’ to say
that the debt in question is not due as it is not payable in law, having shown the same debt
payable by the ‘Corporate Guarantor No.2’ in its Form-1, and ‘Corporate Insolvency
Resolution Process’ having already been initiated against the ‘Corporate Guarantor No. 2’.
Question before Whether the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process can be initiated against two Corporate
the judiciary Guarantors simultaneously for the same set of debt and default? The question can be looked
from another angle. Whether the Financial Creditor can claim same amount from the
Resolution Professional appointed pursuant to the CIRP against the Corporate Guarantor No.1,
as also from the Resolution Professional appointed pursuant to CIRP initiated Corporate
Guarantor No.2?
Brief about the There is no bar in the ‘I&B Code’ for filing simultaneously two applications under Section 7
judgment against the ‘Principal Borrower’ as well as the ‘Corporate Guarantor(s)’ or against both the
[NCLAT] ‘Guarantors’. However, once for same set of claim application under Section 7 filed by the
‘Financial Creditor’ is admitted against one of the ‘Corporate Debtor’ (‘Principal Borrower’ or
‘Corporate Guarantor(s)’), second application by the same ‘Financial Creditor’ for same set of
claim and default cannot be admitted against the other ‘Corporate Debtor’ (the ‘Corporate
Guarantor(s)’ or the ‘Principal Borrower’). Further, though there is a provision to file joint
application under Section 7 by the ‘Financial Creditors’, no application can be filed by the
‘Financial Creditor’ against two or more ‘Corporate Debtors’ on the ground of joint liability
(‘Principal Borrower’ and one Corporate Guarantor’, or ‘Principal Borrower’ or two ‘Corporate
Guarantors’ or one ‘Corporate Guarantor’ and other ‘Corporate Guarantor’), till it is shown that
the ‘Corporate Debtors’ combinedly are joint venture company.
Particulars Details
Right with whom?
Right under this section vests with Operational creditor.
[Section 8(1)]
When can he enforce
his rights? Rights under this section shall be enforced upon occurrence of a default.
[Section 8(1)]
Deliver a demand notice (Form 3) of unpaid operational debtor copy of an
invoice (Form 4) demanding payment of the amount involved in the default
Mode of enforcing to the corporate debtor.
rights "Demand notice" means a notice served by an operational creditor to the
[Section 8(1)] corporate debtor demanding payment of the operational debt in respect of which
the default has occurred.”
The corporate debtor shall bring to the notice of the operational creditor
within a period of 10 days of the receipt of the demand notice or copy of the
invoice any of the following -----
Existence of dispute if any or
Record of the pendency of the suit or
No Payment since
Obligation of the arbitration proceedings filed before the receipt
Corporate debtor of such notice or invoice
[Section 8(2)] Prove by sending the proof of payment -----
Send an attested copy of e –
E – Payment
Payment made transfer.
already Send an attested copy record
Cheque and
that the operational creditor
others
has encashed a cheque issued
Particulars Details
Section 9 gets initiated on expiry of period of 10 days from date of
delivery of the demand notice under section 8(1) and on satisfaction of 2
When section gets basic conditions-----
attracted? Operational creditor doesn’t receive payment from the corporate
[Section 9] creditor.
Operational creditor doesn’t receive notice of dispute under section
8(2).
Right of operational
The operational creditor may file an application before the Adjudicating
creditor
Authority for initiating a corporate insolvency resolution process.
[Section 9(1)]
Mode of making
An operational creditor, shall make an application for initiating the
application
corporate insolvency resolution process against a corporate debtor
[Section 9(2) read
under section 9 of the Code in Form 5, accompanied with documents and
with Rule 6 of
records required therein and as specified in the Insolvency and
Insolvency and
Bankruptcy Board of India (Insolvency Resolution Process for Corporate
Bankruptcy
Persons) Regulations, 2016.
(Application to
The applicant under sub-rule (1) shall dispatch forthwith, a copy of the
Adjudicating
application filed with the Adjudicating Authority, by registered post or
Authority) Rules,
speed post to the registered office of the corporate debtor.
2016. ]
Copy of demand notice served on corporate debtor.
An affidavit that no notice of dispute is given by corporate debtor.
A copy of the certificate from the financial institutions maintaining
Attachments to the accounts of the operational creditor confirming that there is no payment
application of an unpaid operational debt by the corporate debtor; if available.
[Section 9(3)(a) to A copy of any record with information utility confirming that there is
(e)] no payment of an unpaid operational debt by the corporate debtor, if
available.
Any other proof confirming that there is no payment of an unpaid
operational debt by the corporate debtor.
Option to propose
An operational creditor initiating a corporate insolvency resolution process
name of resolution
under this section, may propose a resolution professional to act as an interim
professional
resolution professional.
[Section 9(4)]
Application is complete.
No payment of the unpaid operational debt.
Grounds of admission
Demand notice for payment to the corporate debtor has been delivered
[Section 9(5)(i)(a)
by the operational creditor.
to Section
No notice of dispute has been received by the operational creditor.
9(5)(i)(e)]
There is no disciplinary proceeding pending against any resolution
professional proposed if any.
Application is incomplete.
Grounds of rejection
Payment of the unpaid operational debt has been made.
[Section 9(5)(ii)(a) No demand notice for payment to the corporate debtor has been
to Section delivered by the operational creditor.
9(5)(ii)(e)] Notice of dispute has been received by the operational creditor.
There is any disciplinary proceeding pending against any resolution
professional proposed if any.
Opportunity before
Adjudicating Authority, shall before rejecting an application give a notice to
rejection
the applicant to rectify the defect in his application within 7 days of the date
[Proviso to Section
of receipt of such notice.
9(5)]
Date of
commencement of The corporate insolvency resolution process shall commence from the date
CIRP of admission of the application.
[Section 9(6)]
Particulars Details
Notice to corporate debtor for A demand notice means a notice served by an operational creditor to the corporate debtor demanding payment of
the dues of sister concern – the operational debt in respect of which the default has occurred. NCLAT held that demand notice issued u/s 8 of the
valid notice? Code, against the corporate debtor, for the dues of sister concern/group company, cannot be treated as a valid notice-
Anil Syal Vs. Sanjeev Kapoor (Proprietor Kapoor Logistics) & Anr.
Notice sent by the lawyer – Hon’ble Supreme Court in the matter of Macquarie Bank Limited Vs. Shilpi Cable Technologies Ltd.
Maintainable? 60(IBC)06/2017 held that a conjoint reading of Section 30 of the Advocates Act and Sections 8 and 9 of the Code
together with the Adjudicatory Authority Rules and Forms thereunder would yield the result that a notice sent on
behalf of an operational creditor by a lawyer would be in order.
Can Form 3 and Form 4 be NCLAT in the matter of M/s Flipkart India Private Limited 132(IBC)98/2020 held that the choice of issuance of
filed at the discretion? demand notice u/s 8(1) of the Code, either in Form 3 or Form 4, under the Application to Adjudicating Authority
Rules 2016, depends on the nature of Operational Debt. Section 8(1) does not provide the Operational Creditor, with
the discretion to send the demand notice either Form 3 or Form 4, as per its convenience. The applicability of Form
3 or Form 4 depends on whether the invoices were generated during the course of transaction or not. It is also made
clear that the copy of the invoice is not mandatory if the demand notice is issued in Form 3 of the Application to
Adjudicating Authority Rules 2016 provided the documents to prove the existence of operational debt and the
amount in default is attached with the application.
Nature of ‘Existence of Existence of the dispute and/or the suit or arbitration proceeding must be pre-existing (it must exist before the
dispute’ receipt of the demand notice or invoice) u/s 8– Ahluwalia Contracts (India) Limited Vs. Raheja Developers
Limited – NCLAT
When IBC cannot be invoked IBC is not intended to be substitute to a recovery forum & whenever there is existence of real dispute, the IBC
w.r.t. section 8 provisions cannot be invoked-Transmission Corporation of Andhra Pradesh Ltd. Vs. Equipment Conductors &
Cables Ltd.- Supreme Court.
Lease of immovable property Lease of immovable property cannot be considered as a supply of goods or rendering of any services and thus, cannot
– invokes section 8? fall within the definition of Operational Debt-Mr. M. Ravindranath Reddy Vs. Mr G. Kishan & Ors.-NCLAT
Jurisdiction to decide the Jurisdiction to decide whether the application u/s 9 is time barred by limitation or not, it is within the domain of the
limitation period with whom? Adjudicating Authority and not NCLAT-State Bank of India vs Sical Logistics Ltd.-NCLAT
Intention to make an Application u/s 9 with malicious intent (to realise only Interest) for any purpose other than for the Resolution of
application not to be Insolvency, or Liquidation of the Corporate Debtor is barred in view of Sec. 65 of the Code-S.S. Polymers Vs. Kanodia
malicious Technoplast Limited-NCLAT
AA not a civil court The Adjudicating Authority is not a Civil Court to decide the breach of the contract between the parties – M/s
Saregama India Limited Vs. M/s Home Movie Makers Private Limited – NCLAT.
Particulars Details
Application by
Application by the Corporate applicant may apply to AA when corporate
whom?
debtor committed a default.
[Section 10(1)]
A corporate applicant, shall make an application in Form 6 for initiating
the corporate insolvency resolution process against a corporate debtor
under section 10 of the Code in Form 6, accompanied with documents
Mode of application and records required therein and as specified in the Insolvency and
[Section 10(2) read Bankruptcy Board of India (Insolvency Resolution Process for Corporate
with Rule 7] Persons) Regulations, 2016.
The applicant under sub-rule (1) shall dispatch forthwith, a copy of the
application filed with the Adjudicating Authority, by registered post or
speed post to the registered office of the corporate debtor.
Information relating to its books of account.
Attachments to the
Information relating to the resolution professional proposed to be
application
appointed as an interim resolution professional.
[Section 10(3)(a) to
Section 10(3)(c)] The special resolution passed by shareholders of the corporate debtor or
the resolution passed by at least three-fourth of the total number of
partners of the corporate debtor, as the case may be, approving filing of
the application.
The Adjudicating Authority shall, within a period of fourteen days of the
Admission of
receipt of the application, by an order -----
application
Admit the application, if it is complete and
[Section 10(4)(a)
No disciplinary proceeding is pending against the proposed
and
resolution professional.
The Adjudicating Authority shall, within a period of fourteen days of the
Rejection of receipt of the application, by an order -----
application Reject the application, if it is incomplete or
[Section 10(4)(b)] Disciplinary proceeding is pending against the proposed resolution
professional.
Opportunity to rectify
Adjudicating Authority shall, before rejecting an application, give a notice to
the defects
the applicant to rectify the defects in his application within seven days from
[Proviso to Section
the date of receipt of such notice from the Adjudicating Authority.
10(4)]
Date of
commencement of The corporate insolvency resolution process shall commence from the date
CIRP of admission of the application.
[Section 10(5)]
Fair revenue earning capacity – can NCLAT in Vyomit Shares Stock & Investments Pvt. Ltd. Vs. SEBI held that application u/s 10 can be rejected
be a ground for dismissal? on the ground that the Corporate Debtor is earning sufficient income.
Effect of amendment act NCLAT in the matter of Mr. Umesh Aggarwal Vs. RICOH India Ltd. held that prior approval of shareholders
in AGM/EGM has been substituted by amendment made on 06.06.18, which is not applicable in case of where
application was admitted before that date.
Provided that any extension of the period of corporate insolvency resolution process under
this section shall not be granted more than once.
Provided further that the corporate insolvency resolution process shall mandatorily be
completed within a period of three hundred and thirty days from the insolvency
commencement date, including any extension of the period of corporate insolvency resolution
process granted under this section and the time taken in legal proceedings in relation to such
resolution process of the corporate debtor:
Provided also that where the insolvency resolution process of a corporate debtor is pending
and has not been completed within the period referred to in the second proviso, such
resolution process shall be completed within a period of ninety days from the date of
commencement of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Act, 2019.
Particulars Details
Basic period of CIRP The corporate insolvency resolution process shall be completed
[Section 12(1)] within a period of 180 days from the date of admission.
The resolution professional shall file an application
to the Adjudicating Authority to extend the period of
Condition – 1
the corporate insolvency resolution process beyond
Extension of the time limit 180 days.
[Section 12(2)] Resolution professional can do so only if instructed
to do so by a resolution passed at a meeting of the
Condition – 2
committee of creditors by a vote of 66% of the
voting shares.
If AA is satisfied that the subject matter of the case is such that
corporate insolvency resolution process cannot be completed within
Satisfaction of AA
180 days, it may by order extend the duration of such process beyond
[Section 12(3)]
180 days by such further period as it thinks fit, but not exceeding 90
days.
Number of times extension
may be granted Any extension of the period of corporate insolvency resolution
[1 proviso to Section
st process under this section shall not be granted more than once.
12(3)
The corporate insolvency resolution process shall mandatorily be
completed within a period of 330 days from the insolvency
Maximum time permissible
commencement date, including any extension of the period of
to complete CIRP
corporate insolvency resolution process granted under this section
[2 Proviso Section 12(3)]
nd
and the time taken in legal proceedings in relation to such resolution
process of the corporate debtor.
Where the insolvency resolution process of a corporate debtor is
What if CIRP cannot be
pending and has not been completed within 330 days, such resolution
completed within 330 days
process shall be completed within a period of 90 days from the date
[3rd Proviso to Section
of commencement of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code
12(3)]
(Amendment) Act, 2019.
Particulars Details
Power with whom? Adjudicating authority.
Nature of power Allow withdrawal of application already admitted under section 7 or 9 or 10.
When AA exercises Application made by the applicant with the approval of 90% voting share
the power? of the committee of creditors.
Particulars Details
Section referring the As per Section 12(1), the CIRP shall be completed within a period of 180 days from the date of admission of the
beginning date application to initiate such process. Date of admission of the application is mentioned under section 7(5) in case of
application filed by Financial Creditor, under section 9(5) in case of application filed by the Operation Creditor and
under section 10(4) where application filed by the Corporate Applicant.
Time limit is the maximum The time period prescribed by the Code is the maximum time provided for the completion. There may be instances,
time limit where a resolution process can be completed before the maximum time period prescribed. NCLT, Mumbai bench in
the matter of SBI Vs. Jet Airways (India) Limited-CP2205(IB)/MB/2019 dated 20.06.2019 held that It is also to be
pointed out that that the IBC provision provides for 180 days for completion of the CIRP. But every effort should be
made by the IRP/RP, and members of COC to expedite the matter and try to finalise the resolution plan on the fast
track mode and they should not preferably wait for the completion of the statutory period of 180/270 days’ timeline
permissible under IBC”.
In Prowess International Pvt. Ltd. v. Parker Hannifin India Pvt. Ltd.-Company Appeal (AT) (Insol.) No. 89 of
2017 dated- 18.08.2017, the NCLAT observed that “thereafter, in case(s) where all creditors have been satisfied and
there is no default with any other creditor, the formality of submission of resolution plan under section 30 or its
approval under section 31 is required to be expedited on the basis of plan if prepared. In such case, the Adjudicating
Authority without waiting for 180 days of resolution process, may approve resolution plan under section 31, after
recording its satisfaction that all creditors have been paid/ satisfied and any other creditor do not claim any amount
in absence of default and required to close the Insolvency Resolution Process. On the other hand, in case the
Adjudicating Authority do not approve resolution plan, will proceed in accordance with law.
Can application u/s 12 for A question arises whether the application for extension of the time period under section 12 can be filed after expiry of
extension be made after 180 days of CIRP (i.e. applications were filed after the completion of the 180-day period). NCLAT in the matter of
expiry of 180 days? Quantum Limited Vs. Indus Finance Corporation Limited held that the provision does not stipulate that such
application is to be filed before the Adjudicating Authority within 180 days. If within 180 days including the last day i.e.
180th day, a resolution is passed by the committee of creditors by a majority vote of 66% of the voting shares,
instructing the resolution professional to file an application for extension of period in such case, in the interest of justice
and to ensure that the resolution process is completed following all the procedures time should be allowed by the
Adjudicating Authority who is empowered to extend such period up to 90 days beyond 180th day.
Exclusions of certain period The Supreme Court in the matter of Arcelormittal India Pvt. Ltd. Vs. Satish Kumar Gupta & Ors. held that where
a resolution plan is upheld by the Appellate Authority, either by way of allowing or dismissing an appeal before it,
the period of time taken in litigation ought to be excluded.
NCLAT in the matter of Quinn Logistics India Pvt. Ltd. Vs Mack Soft Tech Pvt. Ltd held that if an application is
filed by the Resolution Professional or the Committee of Creditors or any aggrieved person for justified reasons, it is
always open to the Adjudicating Authority/Appellate Tribunal to ‘exclude certain period’ for the purpose of counting
the total period of 270 days, if the facts and circumstances justify exclusion, in unforeseen circumstances.
The exceptions carved out in the Quinn Logistics (Supra) case to extend the time period include i.e. for following
good grounds and unforeseen circumstances, the intervening period can be excluded for counting of the total period
of 270 days of resolution process:-
If the corporate insolvency resolution process is stayed by ‘a court of law or the Adjudicating Authority or the
Appellate Tribunal or the Hon’ble Supreme Court.
If no ‘Resolution Professional’ is functioning for one or other reason during the corporate insolvency resolution
process, such as removal.
The period between the date of order of admission/moratorium is passed and the actual date on which the
‘Resolution Professional’ takes charge for completing the corporate insolvency resolution process.
Any other circumstances which justifies exclusion of certain period. However, after exclusion of the period, if
further period is allowed the total number of days cannot exceed 270 days which is the maximum time limit
prescribed under the Code.
NCLAT in the matter of Vandana Garg Vs. Reliance Capital Ltd. & Anr. where COC moved an application before
the Adjudicating Authority for exclusion of 35 days of delay in appointing the Resolution Professional in place of the
Interim Resolution Professional and the period during which different applications were pending. Prayer was
rejected by NCLT. NCLAT allowed the prayer and exclude the period of 35 days of delay in appointing the Resolution
Professional in place of the Interim Resolution Professional for the purpose of counting 180 days or 270 days of
Resolution Process. NCLAT also excluded the period of pendency of 18 days during which the application remained
pending before the Adjudicating Authority. Thereby, we exclude the total period of 53 days for the purpose of
counting 180 days or 270 days.
NCLAT in the matter of Ramchandra D. Choudhary Vs. CoC (Maharashtra Shetkari Sugar Limited) held that if
Promoters are neither handed over the records nor the management of the Corporate Debtor to IRP & the IRP/IP
subsequently resigned due to non co-operation, the period of IRP can be excluded from 270 days.
Interpretation of Section The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Act, 2019 (Amendment Act), w.e.f. 16.08.2019, inserted two
12(3). provisos to section 12(3) of the Code to provide for overall time limit as under:
“Provided further that the corporate insolvency resolution process shall mandatorily be completed within a period
of three hundred and thirty days from the insolvency commencement date, including any extension of the period of
corporate insolvency resolution process granted under this section and the time taken in legal proceedings in
relation to such resolution process of the corporate debtor:
Provided also that where the insolvency resolution process of a corporate debtor is pending and has not been
completed within the period referred to in the second proviso, such resolution process shall be completed within a
period of ninety days from the date of commencement of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Act,
2019.”(Emphasis provided)
Section 12 of the Code thus mandates that the CIRP of a CD must conclude within 330 days from the insolvency
commencement date. This period of 330 days includes:
(a) normal CIRP period of 180 days,
(b) one-time extension, if any, up to 90 days of such CIRP period granted by the Adjudicating Authority, and
(c) the time taken in legal proceedings in relation to the CIRP of the CD.
It also mandates that a CIRP, which was pending and not completed within the aforementioned period of 330 days
as on the date of commencement of the Amendment Act, that is, 16.08.2019, shall be completed within a further
period of 90 days from such date, that is, by 14.11.2019.
In the case of Committee of Creditors of Essar Steel India Limited Through Authorised Signatory Vs. Satish Kumar
Gupta & Ors Supreme court held that “The effect of declaration under section 12(3) is that ordinarily the time taken
in relation to the CIRP must be completed within the outer limit of 330 days from the insolvency commencement
date, including extensions and the time taken in legal proceedings. If the delay or a large part thereof is attributable
to the tardy process of the AA and/or the NCLAT itself, it may be open in such cases for the AA and/or NCLAT to
extend time beyond 330 days. It is only in exceptional cases that time can be extended, the general rule being that
330 days is the outer limit within which resolution of the stressed assets of the CD must take place beyond which it
is to be driven into liquidation.”
Consequences if CIRP If the Resolution professional fails to submit the resolution plan within 180 days or within 330 days including any
cannot be completed in time extension (max. extension 90 days) and the time taken in legal proceedings, the Adjudicating Authority may initiate
limit Liquidation procedure. Once the liquidation procedure is initiated the Company will be wound up and the steps will be
taken for distribution of proceeds to creditors as per the provisions of the code.
If the resolution process does not get completed within the 180/270/330-day period, serious consequences thereof are
provided under Section 33 of the Code. As per that provision, in such a situation, the adjudicating authority is required
to pass an order requiring the corporate debtor to be liquidated in the manner as laid down in the said Chapter.
Object of Section 12A Section 12A is inserted by the Insolvency and Bankruptcy (Second Amendment) Act, 2018 with retrospective effect from
06.06.2018 on recommendation by Insolvency Law Committee Report submitted in Mar, 2018 to provide facility to
withdraw application made under section 7, 9 or 10 on settlement even if CIRP has been initiated. A matter can be
settled between the parties and an application(s) under Sections 7 or 9 or 10 can be withdrawn only at four stages:
I. Before admission of application under Sections 7 or 9 or 10.
II. After admission but before constitution of committee of creditors (COC).
III. After constitution of COC but before issue of invitation for expression of interest.
IV. After issue of invitation for expression of interest.
Regulation 30A read with Regulation 30A provides the procedure and compliance for withdrawal of an application. In absence of any settlement,
Section 12A if no withdrawal is made at the aforesaid four stages then Resolution Process continues and if any Resolution Plan is
found to be viable, feasible and having financial matrix and qualifies in terms of sub-section (2) of Section 30 and
approved by 66% of voting shares of the Committee of Creditors(COC), the Adjudicating Authority may pass order
approving the plan under Section 31.
Rule 8 read with Section 12A Withdrawal of application—The Adjudicating Authority may permit withdrawal of the application made under rules
4, 6 or 7, as the case may be, on a request made by the applicant before its admission.
Can NCLAT pass an order for Rule 11 – Inherent Powers
settlement similar to Nothing in these rules shall be deemed to limit or otherwise affect the inherent powers of the Appellate Tribunal to
withdrawal vide its powers make such orders or give such directions as may be necessary for meeting the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the
under Rule 11 of NCLAT process of the Appellate Tribunal.
rules, 2016 From the Judiciary
The question was answered by Hon’ble Supreme Court in the matter of Lokhandwala Kataria Construction Private
Limited Vs. Nisus Finance and Investment Managers LLP where an appeal was filed by the appellant/Corporate
Debtor against the order passed by the NCLT, Mumbai Bench whereby the application under section 7 of the Code has
been admitted. The parties submitted before the NCLAT that they have settled the dispute and part amount has already
been paid. The NCLAT, however, held that such settlement cannot be ground to interfere with the impugned order in
absence of any other infirmity. The NCLAT further held that Rule 11 of the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal
Rules, 2016 has not been adopted for the purpose of the Code and only Rules 20 and 26 have been adopted in absence
of any specific inherent power and where there is no merit, the question of exercising inherent power does not arise.
The Supreme Court upheld that in view of Rule 8 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy (Application to Adjudicating
Authority) Rules, 2016, the NCLAT could not utilise the inherent power recognised by Rule 11 of the National Company
Law Appellate Tribunal Rules, 2016 to allow a compromise before it by the parties after admission of the matter.
Procedure for withdrawal of After constitution of COC
After issue of invitation
application but before issue of
Sl.no Particulars Before constitution of COC for expression of
invitation for
interest
expression of interest
Application By the applicant through the By the applicant through By the applicant through
IRP the IRP or the RP, as the the IRP or the RP, as the
case may be case may be and the
1 applicant shall state the
reasons justifying
withdrawal after issue of
such invitation
2 Form Form FA Form FA Form FA
Time limit for COC NA COC shall consider the COC shall consider the
3 application within 7 application within 7
days of its receipt days of its receipt
Approval of COC NA COC approval with 90% COC approval with 90%
4 voting share is required to voting share is required to
consider the withdrawal. consider the withdrawal.
Time limit to submit IRP shall submit the Where the Where the
the application to the application to the AA on application approved by application approved by
Adjudicating behalf of the applicant, the CoC with 90% voting the CoC with 90% voting
Authority within 3 days of its receipt. share, the RP shall submit share, the RP shall submit
5 such application along such application along
with the approval of the with the approval of the
CoC, to the AA on behalf of CoC, to the AA on behalf of
the applicant, within 3 the applicant, within 3
days of such approval. days of such approval.
6 Approval of AA AA may either admit or dismiss the application.
Cases Laws on section 12A a. Withdrawal of CIRP after issue of invitation for Expression of Interest [Regulation 30A (1)]:
Regulation 30A (1) imposes an additional condition for withdrawal of CIRP that such application shall be filed before
issue of invitation for expression of interest under regulation 36A. Hon’ble Supreme Court in the matter of Brilliant
Alloys Private Limited Vs. Mr. S. Rajagopal & Ors. allowed withdrawal of CIRP even after the issue of invitation for
expression of interest and set aside the order of NCLT and held that regulation 30A has to be read along with the main
provision section 12A, which contains no such stipulation. Hence, this stipulation under regulation 30A can only be
considered as directory in nature depending on the facts of each case. (The case has been considered under
Regulation 30A by amendment in July’19.)
b. Can Resolution applicant take the advantage provided by Section 12A?
Hon’ble Supreme Court in the matter of Maharasthra Seamless Limited Vs. Padmanabhan Venkatesh & Ors. held
that Maharasthra Seamless Limited (MSL), being Resolution Applicant, cannot withdraw from the proceeding in the
manner they have approached this Court. The exit route prescribed in Section 12A is not applicable to a Resolution
Applicant. The procedure envisaged in the said provision only applies to applicants invoking Sections 7, 9 and 10 of the
code. In this case, having appealed against the NCLAT order with the object of implementing the resolution plan, MSL
cannot be permitted to take a contrary stand in an application filed in connection with the very same appeal.
c. Can Resolution professional move an application u/s 12A?
NCLAT in the case of Federal Bank Ltd. Vs. Trio Fab (I) Pvt. Ltd held that, applicant can only move application for
withdrawal of the application before the Adjudicating Authority and not by the Resolution Professional.
d. Can AA further look into the matter if the application under section 12A is approved by requisite majority?
NCLAT in the matter of Sunshine Caterers Pvt. Ltd. Vs. Redreef Finance & Investment Pvt. Ltd. held that in case
application under Section 12A is not approved by 90% of Committee of Creditors and the withdrawal of application
under Section 7 is not allowed by the Adjudicating Authority. further held that we are of the opinion that if the
Committee of Creditors approved the application under Section 12A with majority voting share of 90%, the Adjudicating
Authority cannot further look into the matter and is required to allow the applicant to withdraw the application, if it is
filed.
e. Interpretation of Section 12A and 29A
NCLAT in the matter of Andhra Bank Vs. Sterling Biotech Ltd. (Through the Liquidator) & Ors held that from Section
12A and the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in ‘Landmark judgment of Apex Court in the matter of Swiss Ribbons
Pvt. Ltd. & Anr. Vs. Union of India & Ors. under IBC’ , it is clear that the Promoters/Shareholders are entitled to settle
the matter in terms of Section 12A and in such case, it is always open to an applicant to withdraw the application under
Section 9 of the Code on the basis of which the CIRP was initiated and Section 29A is not applicable for
entertaining/considering an application under Section 12A as the Applicants are not entitled to file application under
Section 29A as ‘resolution applicant’.
Constitutional Validity of Enforcement of decrees and orders of Supreme Court and unless as to discovery, etc
Section 12A and legislative The Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such
intent. Article 142 of COI, 1949 order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it,
and any decree so passed or orders so made shall be enforceable throughout the territory
of India.
Powers of High Courts to issue certain writs
Every High Court shall have power, throughout the territories in relation to which it
exercises jurisdiction, to issue to any person or authority, including in appropriate cases,
Article 226 of COI, 1949 any Government, within those territories directions, orders or writs, including writs in the
nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari, or any of
them, for the enforcement of any of the rights conferred by Part III and for any other
purpose.
Every High Court shall have superintendence over all courts and tribunals throughout the
Article 227 of COI, 1949
territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction.
From the above it is clear that, High Court exercising power under article 226 and 227 or Supreme Court exercising
power under article 142 of the Constitution of India can approve withdrawal of CIRP at any stage.
That means, if Section 12A is not inserted, High Court or Supreme Court as the case may be, would exercise their powers
under the aforesaid articles of the constitution of India on a case to case basis.
Legislative intention in Status in Law prior amendment:
bringing Section 12A Before the Section 12A, there was no provision in the Code or the regulations in relation to permissibility of withdrawal
post admission of a CIRP application. As discussed above, only rule 8 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy (Application to
Adjudicating Authority) Rules, 2016 provide facility to withdraw the application on a request by the applicant before it
is admitted by the NCLT.
The NCLAT in Mother Pride Dairy India Pvt. Ltd. v. Portrait Advertising & Marketing Pvt. Ltd. -Company Appeal
(AT) (Insolvency) No. 94 of 2017 dated 13.07.2017, took the view that once an application is admitted, it cannot be
withdrawn since other creditors are entitled to raise claims.
In Parker Hannifin India Private Limited v. Prowess International Private Limited-C.P. (IB) No. 150/KB/2017
dated 17.10.2017, the Kolkata bench of the NCLT held that once a petition is admitted, neither of the parties have the
right to withdraw the petition.
However, the Chennai Bench of the NCLT took an opposite view in M/s. Phoenix Global DMCC v. M/s. A&A Trading
International Pvt. Ltd.-CP/500/(IB)CB/2017 dated 16.06.2017, while exercising its inherent powers under Rule 11 of
the National Company Law Tribunal Rules, 2016, the NCLT recalled its order for commencement of CIRP and declaration
of moratorium once the corporate debtor duly paid the outstanding amount and settled its dispute with the operational
creditor.
Reason for contrary view:
In the above said case, withdrawal was made because of following reasons ----
a) IRP is not appointed
b) No public announcement was made
c) No other dues existed other than the dues in this case which had been paid.
In Lokhandwala Kataria Construction Private Limited v. Nisus Finance and Investment Managers LLP -Company
Appeal (AT) (Insolvency) No. 95 of 2017 dated 13.07.2017, the NCLAT held that “before admission of an application
under Section 7, it is open to the Financial Creditor to withdraw the application but once it is admitted, it cannot be
withdrawn…Even the Financial Creditor cannot be allowed to withdraw the application once admitted, and matter
cannot be closed till claim of all the creditors are satisfied by the corporate debtor.
LEGISLATIVE INTENT:
1 Under rule 8 of the CIRP Rules, the NCLT may permit withdrawal of the application on a request
by the applicant before its admission. However, there is no provision in the Code or the CIRP Rules
in relation to permissibility of withdrawal post admission of a CIRP application.
2 There have been instances where on account of settlement between the applicant creditor and the
corporate debtor, judicial permission for withdrawal of CIRP was granted. This practice was deliberated
in light of the objective of the Code as encapsulated in the BLRC Report, that the design of the
Code is based on ensuring that “all key stakeholders will participate to collectively assess viability.”
3 The law must ensure that all creditors who have the capability and the willingness to restructure
their liabilities must be part of the negotiation process. The liabilities of all creditors who are not
part of the negotiation process must also be met in any negotiated solution. Thus, it was agreed
that once the CIRP is initiated, it is no longer a proceeding only between the applicant creditor and
the corporate debtor but is envisaged to be a proceeding involving all creditors of the debtor. The
intent of the Code is to discourage individual actions for enforcement and settlement to the exclusion
of the general benefit of all creditors.
4 On a review of the multiple NCLT and NCLAT judgments in this regard, the consistent pattern
that emerged was that a settlement may be reached amongst all creditors and the debtor, for the
purpose of a withdrawal to be granted, and not only the applicant creditor and the debtor.
5 On this basis read with the intent of the Code, the relevant rules may be amended to provide for
withdrawal post admission if the COC approves of such action by a voting share of ninety per cent.
Particulars Details
When section gets
If Adjudicating Authority admits the application under section 7 or section 9
attracted?
or section 10.
[Section 13(1)]
What action shall AA
take? Adjudicating authority shall make an order.
[Section 13(1)]
Order 1
Declare Moratorium.
[Section 13(1)(a)]
What is the effect of Cause a Public announcement of the initiation of
Order 2
order? corporate insolvency resolution process and call for
[Section 13(1)(b)]
[Section 13(1)] the submission of claims.
Order 3
Appoint an interim resolution professional.
[Section 13(1)(c)]
When to make public
The public announcement shall be made immediately after the
announcement u/s 13(1)(b)?
appointment of the interim resolution professional.
[Section 13(2)]
Government, local authority, sectoral regulator or any other authority constituted under any
other law for the time being in force, shall not be suspended or terminated on the grounds of
insolvency, subject to the condition that there is no default in payment of current dues arising
for the use or continuation of the license or a similar grant or right during moratorium period.
(2) The supply of essential goods or services to the corporate debtor as may be specified shall
not be terminated or suspended or interrupted during moratorium period.
(2A) Where the interim resolution professional or resolution professional, as the case may be,
considers the supply of goods or services critical to protect and preserve the value of the
corporate debtor and manage the operations of such corporate debtor as a going concern, then
the supply of such goods or services shall not be terminated, suspended or interrupted during
the period of moratorium, except where such corporate debtor has not paid dues arising from
such supply during the moratorium period or in such circumstances as may be specified.
(3) The provisions of sub-section (1) shall not apply to—
(a) such transactions, agreements or other arrangement as may be notified by the Central
Government in consultation with any financial sector regulator or any other authority;
(b) a surety in a contract of guarantee to a corporate debtor.
(4) The order of moratorium shall have effect from the date of such order till the completion
of the corporate insolvency resolution process:
Provided that where at any time during the corporate insolvency resolution process period, if
the Adjudicating Authority approves the resolution plan under sub-section (1) of section 31 or
passes an order for liquidation of corporate debtor under section 33, the moratorium shall
cease to have effect from the date of such approval or liquidation order, as the case may be.
Particulars Details
Who has authority to
make order of Adjudicating authority.
Moratorium?
When Moratorium
On the insolvency commencement date.
shall be ordered?
Institution of suits or
Continuation of pending suits or
a
Execution of any judgment, decree or order in any court of law,
tribunal, arbitration panel or other authority.
Transferring any assets by Corporate Debtor.
Encumbering any assets by Corporate Debtor.
b
Prohibition of what? Alienating any assets by Corporate Debtor.
Disposing any assets by Corporate Debtor.
Any action to foreclose, recover or enforce any security interest created
c by the corporate debtor in respect of its property including any action
under SARFAESI Act, 2002.
The recovery of any property by an owner or lessor where such
d
property is occupied by or in the possession of the corporate debtor.
No Moratorium in The supply of essential goods or services to the corporate debtor as may be
certain cases specified shall not be terminated or suspended or interrupted during
[Section 14(2)] moratorium period.
(a) name and address of the corporate debtor under the corporate insolvency resolution
process;
(b) name of the authority with which the corporate debtor is incorporated or registered;
(c) the last date for submission of claims, as may be specified;
(d) details of the interim resolution professional who shall be vested with the management of
the corporate debtor and be responsible for receiving claims;
(e) penalties for false or misleading claims; and
(f) the date on which the corporate insolvency resolution process shall close, which shall be
the one hundred and eightieth day from the date of the admission of the application under
sections 7, 9 or section 10, as the case may be.
(2) The public announcement under this section shall be made in such manner as may be
specified.
Content Details
Name and address of the corporate debtor under the corporate insolvency resolution
1
process.
2 Name of the authority with which the corporate debtor is incorporated or registered.
3 The last date for submission of claims.
Details of the interim resolution professional who shall be vested with the management of
4
the corporate debtor and be responsible for receiving claims.
5 Penalties for false or misleading claims.
The date on which the corporate insolvency resolution process shall close, which shall be
6 the one hundred and eightieth day from the date of the admission of the application under
sections 7, 9 or section 10, as the case may be.
(5) The term of the interim resolution professional shall continue till the date of appointment
of the resolution professional under section 22.
Particulars Details
Appointing authority Adjudicating authority.
Time limit Within 14 days from the insolvency commencement date.
If applicant is a
The resolution professional, as proposed respectively
financial
in the application under section 7 or section 10, shall be
creditor or
appointed as the interim resolution professional, if no
Corporate
disciplinary proceedings are pending against him.
Debtor.
The resolution professional as proposed,
Proposal shall be appointed as the interim
Mode of appointment
is made resolution professional, if no disciplinary
If applicant is proceedings are pending against him.
an operational The Adjudicating Authority shall make a
creditor. No reference to the Board for the
Proposal recommendation of an insolvency
made professional who may act as an interim
resolution professional.
The Board shall, within 10 days of the receipt of a reference from the
Duty of the IBBI in
Adjudicating Authority, recommend the name of an insolvency
case of reference
professional to the Adjudicating Authority against whom no disciplinary
made.
proceedings are pending.
The term of the interim resolution professional shall continue till the date
Tenure of office
of appointment of the resolution professional under section 22.
(a) act and execute in the name and on behalf of the corporate debtor all deeds, receipts, and
other documents, if any;
(b) take such actions, in the manner and subject to such restrictions, as may be specified by the
Board;
(c) have the authority to access the electronic records of corporate debtor from information
utility having financial information of the corporate debtor;
(d) have the authority to access the books of account, records and other relevant documents
of corporate debtor available with government authorities, statutory auditors, accountants
and such other persons as may be specified; and
(e) be responsible for complying with the requirements under any law for the time being in
force on behalf of the corporate debtor.
Particulars Details
From when
section 17 From the date of appointment of the interim resolution professional.
takes effect?
Management The management of the affairs of the corporate debtor shall vest
powers in IRP.
Suspension of The powers of the board of directors or the partners of the
existing corporate debtor, as the case may be, shall stand suspended and
Board be exercised by the interim resolution professional.
Effects of
appointment of The officers and managers of the corporate debtor shall report
Reporting to
IRP. to the IRP and provide access to such documents and records of
IRP
the corporate debtor as may be required by the IRP.
The financial institutions maintaining accounts of the corporate
Duty of
debtor shall act on the instructions of the IRP in relation to such
Financial
accounts and furnish all information relating to the corporate
institutions
debtor available with them to the IRP.
Documents Act and execute in the name and on behalf of the corporate
execution debtor all deeds, receipts, and other documents
Take such actions, in the manner as may be specified by the
Take actions
Board.
Access to Have the authority to access the electronic records of corporate
Duties of IRP
electronic debtor from information utility having financial information of
w.r.t. vested
records the corporate debtor.
management
Access to Have the authority to access the books of account, records and
external other relevant documents of corporate debtor available with
records government authorities, statutory auditors, and accountants.
Legal Be responsible for complying with the requirements under any
compliance law for the time being in force on behalf of the corporate debtor.
(1) The interim resolution professional shall after collation of all claims received against the
corporate debtor and determination of the financial position of the corporate debtor,
constitute a committee of creditors.
(2) The committee of creditors shall comprise all financial creditors of the corporate debtor:
Provided that a financial creditor or the authorised representative of the financial creditor
referred to in sub-section (6) or sub-section (6A) or sub-section (5) of section 24, if it is a
related party of the corporate debtor, shall not have any right of representation, participation
or voting in a meeting of the committee of creditors:
Provided further that the first proviso shall not apply to a financial creditor, regulated by a
financial sector regulator, if it is a related party of the corporate debtor solely on account of
conversion or substitution of debt into equity shares or instruments convertible into equity
shares or completion of such transactions as may be prescribed, prior to the insolvency
commencement date;
(3) Subject to sub-sections (6) and (6A), where the corporate debtor owes financial debts to
two or more financial creditors as part of a consortium or agreement, each such financial
creditor shall be part of the committee of creditors and their voting share shall be determined
on the basis of the financial debts owed to them.
(4) Where any person is a financial creditor as well as an operational creditor, —
(a) such person shall be a financial creditor to the extent of the financial debt owed by the
corporate debtor, and shall be included in the committee of creditors, with voting share
proportionate to the extent of financial debts owed to such creditor;
(b) such person shall be considered to be an operational creditor to the extent of the
operational debt owed by the corporate debtor to such creditor.
(5) Where an operational creditor has assigned or legally transferred any operational debt to
a financial creditor, the assignee or transferee shall be considered as an operational creditor
to the extent of such assignment or legal transfer.
(6) Where the terms of the financial debt extended as part of a consortium arrangement or
syndicated facility provide for a single trustee or agent to act for all financial creditors, each
financial creditor may—
(a) authorise the trustee or agent to act on his behalf in the committee of creditors to the extent
of his voting share;
(b) represent himself in the committee of creditors to the extent of his voting share;
(c) appoint an insolvency professional (other than the resolution professional) at his own cost
to represent himself in the committee of creditors to the extent of his voting share; or
(d) exercise his right to vote to the extent of his voting share with one or more financial
creditors jointly or severally.
(6A) Where a financial debt—
(a) is in the form of securities or deposits and the terms of the financial debt provide for
appointment of a trustee or agent to act as authorised representative for all the financial
creditors, such trustee or agent shall act on behalf of such financial creditors;
(b) is owed to a class of creditors exceeding the number as may be specified, other than the
creditors covered under clause (a) or sub-section (6), the interim resolution professional shall
make an application to the Adjudicating Authority along with the list of all financial creditors,
containing the name of an insolvency professional, other than the interim resolution
professional, to act as their authorised representative who shall be appointed by the
Adjudicating Authority prior to the first meeting of the committee of creditors;
(c) is represented by a guardian, executor or administrator, such person shall act as authorised
representative on behalf of such financial creditors,
and such authorised representative under clause (a) or clause (b) or clause (c) shall attend the
meetings of the committee of creditors, and vote on behalf of each financial creditor to the
extent of his voting share.
(6B) The remuneration payable to the authorised representative—
(i) under clauses (a) and (c) of sub-section (6A), if any, shall be as per the terms of the financial
debt or the relevant documentation; and
(ii) under clause (b) of sub-section (6A) shall be as specified which shall form part of the
insolvency resolution process costs].
(7) The Board may specify the manner of voting and the determining of the voting share in
respect of financial debts covered under sub-sections (6) and (6A).
(8) All decisions of the committee of creditors shall be taken by a vote of not less than seventy-
five per cent. of voting share of the financial creditors:
Provided that where a corporate debtor does not have any financial creditors, the committee
of creditors shall be constituted and comprise of such persons to exercise such functions in
such manner as may be specified by the Board.
(9) The committee of creditors shall have the right to require the resolution professional to
furnish any financial information in relation to the corporate debtor at any time during the
corporate insolvency resolution process.
(10) The resolution professional shall make available any financial information so required
by the committee of creditors under sub-section (9) within a period of seven days of such
requisition.
Particulars Details
COC shall be constituted by IRP.
Constitution of committee of
Constitution is made after -----
creditors
Collation of all claims received and
[Section 21(1)]
Determination of the financial position.
Composition of COC The committee of creditors shall comprise all financial creditors of
[Section 21(2)] the corporate debtor.
If a financial creditor is a related party of the corporate debtor, he
shall not have any right of representation, participation or voting
Exclusion in certain cases in a meeting of the committee of creditors.
[1st proviso to Section If the authorised representative of the financial creditor is a
21(2)] related party of the corporate debtor, it shall not have any right of
representation, participation or voting in a meeting of the
committee of creditors.
Exception to Financial creditor.
Exception to exclusion Such financial creditor shall be regulated by financial sector
[2nd proviso to section regulator.
21(2)] Such financial creditor became related party just because of
conversion of debt into equity shares.
Situation in case of In case corporate debtor owes financial debts to two or more
Consortium lending financial creditors as part of a consortium lending scheme, then
[Section 21(3)] each such financial creditor shall be part of the committee of
Case – 3
Such person shall act as authorised
Represented by
representative on behalf of such financial
guardian or
creditors.
executor etc
Such authorised representative as aforesaid shall attend the meetings
of the committee of creditors, and vote on behalf of each financial
creditor to the extent of his voting share.
In case of Case – 1 Remuneration shall be as per the terms of the
Remuneration to authorised and Case – 3 financial debt or the relevant documentation.
representative Remuneration shall be as specified which shall
[Section 21(6B)] In case of Case – 2 form part of the insolvency resolution process
costs.
Board to specify the manner The Board may specify the manner of voting and the determining of
of voting the voting share in respect of financial debts covered under sub-
[Section 21(7)] sections (6) and (6A).
Approval and Voting share All decisions of the committee of creditors shall be taken by a vote of
[Section 21(8)] not less than 51% of voting share of the financial creditors.
What if, Corporate debtor
The committee of creditors, in such a case, shall be constituted and
does not have any financial
shall comprise of such persons to exercise such functions in such
creditors
manner as may be specified.
[Proviso to Section 21(8)]
The committee of creditors shall have the right to require the
COC to have right to demand
resolution professional to furnish any financial information in
for information
relation to the corporate debtor at any time during the corporate
[Section 21(9)]
insolvency resolution process.
Time limit within which the
The resolution professional shall make available any financial
RP shall make information
information so required by the committee of creditors under sub-
available.
section (9) within a period of seven days of such requisition.
[Section 21(10)]
(4) The Adjudicating Authority shall forward the name of the resolution professional proposed
under clause (b) of sub-section (3) to the Board for its confirmation and shall make such
appointment after confirmation by the Board.
(5) Where the Board does not confirm the name of the proposed resolution professional within
ten days of the receipt of the name of the proposed resolution professional, the Adjudicating
Authority shall, by order, direct the interim resolution professional to continue to function as
the resolution professional until such time as the Board confirms the appointment of the
proposed resolution professional.
Particulars Details
Time limit for
holding 1st meeting of The first meeting of the committee of creditors shall be held within 7 days of
COC the constitution of the committee of creditors.
[Section 22(1)]
Resolution 1 Appoint IRP as Resolution professional
Alternative OR
resolutions w.r.t. IRP Replace the interim resolution professional by another
at that 1st meeting of Resolution 2
resolution professional.
COC.
Resolve at the first meeting of COC by a majority vote of not less than 66% of
the voting share of the financial creditors.
Communicate its decision to IRP, Corporate debtor and
If IRP is RP
adjudicating authority.
Duty of Committee of
creditors File an application before the Adjudicating Authority
If IRP is replaced for the appointment of the proposed resolution
professional.
Duty of AA in case of Forward the name of the resolution professional proposed to the Board for
replacement of its confirmation and shall make such appointment after confirmation by the
existing IRP. Board.
Board does not confirm the name of the proposed
Condition
resolution professional within 10 days of the receipt.
Consequence of non- The Adjudicating Authority shall, by order, direct the
confirmation by interim resolution professional to continue to function as
Board. Result the resolution professional until such time as the Board
confirms the appointment of the proposed resolution
professional.
an order approving the resolution plan under sub-section (1) of section 31 or appointing a
liquidator under section 34 is passed by the Adjudicating Authority.
(2) The resolution professional shall exercise powers and perform duties as are vested or
conferred on the interim resolution professional under this Chapter.
(3) In case of any appointment of a resolution professional under sub-section (4) of section 22,
the interim resolution professional shall provide all the information, documents and records
pertaining to the corporate debtor in his possession and knowledge to the resolution
professional.
Particulars Details
Duty of resolution Conduct entire CIRP and
professional Manage operation of corporate debtor
[Section 27(1)] during CIRP.
Till when Resolution After the expiry of the CIRP but till an order approving the resolution
Professional shall manage plan under sub-section (1) of section 31 or appointing a liquidator
the operations of CD? under section 34 is passed by the Adjudicating Authority.
[Proviso to Section 27(1)]
Powers of resolution He shall exercise powers and perform duties as are vested or
professional conferred on the interim resolution professional.
[Section 27(2)]
If Interim Resolution Then the interim resolution professional shall provide all the
professional is replaced by information, documents and records pertaining to the corporate
another Resolution debtor in his possession and knowledge to the resolution
professional u/s 22(4) professional.
[Section 27(3)]
(5) Subject to sub-sections (6), (6A) and (6B) of section 21, any creditor who is a member of the
committee of creditors may appoint an insolvency professional other than the resolution
professional to represent such creditor in a meeting of the committee of creditors:
Provided that the fees payable to such insolvency professional representing any individual
creditor will be borne by such creditor.
(6) Each creditor shall vote in accordance with the voting share assigned to him based on the
financial debts owed to such creditor.
(7) The resolution professional shall determine the voting share to be assigned to each creditor
in the manner specified by the Board.
(8) The meetings of the committee of creditors shall be conducted in such manner as may be
specified.
Particulars Details
Mode of meeting In Person or
[Section 24(1)] Such permissible electronic means.
Who shall conduct the
All meetings of the committee of creditors shall be conducted by the
meetings of COC?
resolution professional.
[Section 24(2)]
Notice by whom? Resolution Professional
Notice to whom? Members of COC.
Authorized representatives referred to in
Section 21(6).
a Authorized representatives referred to
in Section 21(6A).
Authorized representatives referred to in
Notice concept
Section 24(5).
[Section 24(3)]
Members of suspended Board of
b Directors or
Partners of the Corporate persons.
Operational creditors or their
representatives if the amount of their
c
aggregate dues is not less than 10% of the
debt.
Directors
Partners and
Persons covered
One representative of operational creditors
Rights and ineligibilities
(as referred above)
of Certain persons
Right entitled Attend the meetings of COC
[Section 24(4) and
Proviso to Section Dis-entitlement Right to vote
24(4)] The absence of any such director, partner or
What if, aforesaid
representative of operational creditors, as the
persons are
case may be, shall not invalidate proceedings of
absent to meeting?
such meeting.
There is a creditor
Right of representation Condition – 1
Author note: Necessarily a financial creditor.
Duty – Contents
Preserve and protect the assets of the corporate debtor.
FOR PRESERVATION AND PROTECTION, RESOLUTION PROFESSIONAL SHALL UNDERTAKE THE
FOLLOWING ACTIONS -----
Take immediate custody and control of all the assets and business records of the corporate debtor.
Represent and act on behalf of the corporate debtor with third parties.
Raise interim finance subject to approval u/s 28.
Appoint accountants, legal and other professionals.
Maintain an updated list of claims.
Convene and attend all meetings of COC.
Prepare information memorandum u/s 29.
Invite prospective resolution applicants, who fulfil such criteria as may be laid down by him with
the approval of committee of creditors, having regard to the complexity and scale of operations of
the business of the corporate debtor and such other conditions as may be specified by the Board,
to submit a resolution plan or plans.
Present all resolution plans at the meetings of the committee of creditors.
Particulars Details
Section 25A deals with rights and duties of authorized
representative as referred to in section 21(6) or Section 21(6A) or
Section 24(5).
What section deals with?
Abstract of section 24(5) – Subject to sub-sections (6), (6A) and (6B) of section 21, any
[Section 25A]
creditor who is a member of the committee of creditors may appoint an insolvency
professional other than the resolution professional to represent such creditor in a
meeting of the committee of creditors.
Rights of authorized Right – 1 Right to represent
representative Right – 2 Right to Participate
[Section 25A(1)] Right – 3 Right to vote
Part 1: General case
To represents the financial creditor in accordance
Duty – 1 with the prior voting instructions of such creditors
obtained through physical or electronic means.
To circulate the agenda and minutes of the
Duty – 2 meeting of the committee of creditors to the
financial creditor he represents.
Shall not act against the interest of the financial
Duty – 3 creditor he represents and shall always act in
accordance with their prior instructions.
To file with the committee of creditors any
instructions received by way of physical or
electronic means, from the financial creditor he
represents, for voting in accordance therewith, to
Duties of authorized Duty – 4
ensure that the appropriate voting instructions of
representative
the financial creditor he represents is correctly
[Section 25A(2), Section
recorded by the interim resolution professional or
25A(3), 1st Proviso to
resolution professional.
Section 25A(3), 2nd Proviso
Part 2: Special case
to Section 25A(3), Section
If the authorized representative represents
25A(3A and its Proviso),
What if he several financial creditors, then he shall cast his
Section 25A(4)]
represents vote in respect of each financial creditor in
several FC? accordance with instructions received from each
financial creditor, to the extent of his voting share.
What if, no If any financial creditor does not give prior
prior instructions through physical or electronic means,
instructions the authorised representative shall abstain from
are given? voting on behalf of such creditor.
The authorised representative under sub-section
(6A) of section 21 shall cast his vote on behalf of
Special
all the financial creditors he represents in
provision in
accordance with the decision taken by a vote of
case of AR
more than fifty per cent. of the voting share of the
u/s 21(6A)
financial creditors he represents, who have cast
their vote.
Particulars Details
When replacement
decision may be taken? At any time during corporate insolvency resolution process.
[Section 27(1)]
Decision to replace with Decision to replace the resolution professional appointed under section
whom? 22 with another resolution professional, vests with Committee of
[Section 27(1)] Creditors.
COC shall pass a resolution at a meeting resolved by a vote
of 66% of voting shares to replace the resolution
Step – 1
professional appointed under section 22 with another
resolution professional.
Obtain written consent from the proposed resolution
Step – 2
professional.
Committee of creditors shall forward the name of the
Procedure to replace
Step – 3 insolvency professional proposed by them to the
[Section 27(2), (3) and
Adjudicating Authority.
(4)]
The Adjudicating Authority shall forward the name of the
Step – 4 proposed resolution professional to the Board for its
confirmation.
Appoint the resolution professional in the same manner as
Step – 5
provided in section 16.
Note: Where any disciplinary proceeding are pending against the
proposed resolution professional under sub-section (3), the
(a) to comply with provisions of law for the time being in force relating to confidentiality and
insider trading;
(b) to protect any intellectual property of the corporate debtor it may have access to; and
(c) not to share relevant information with third parties unless clauses (a) and (b) of this sub-
section are complied with.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this section, “relevant information” means the information
required by the resolution applicant to make the resolution plan for the corporate debtor,
which shall include the financial position of the corporate debtor, all information related to
disputes by or against the corporate debtor and any other matter pertaining to the corporate
debtor as may be specified.
Particulars Details
Who shall prepare the Resolution professional
information memorandum?
How IM should be? It should in accordance with the
model specified by IBBI.
What is the need for IM? Formulating Resolution plan
Note:
As per Section 5(26), Resolution plan means a plan proposed by
Preparation of
resolution applicant for insolvency resolution of the corporate debtor as
information
a going concern in accordance with Part II.
memorandum
Explanation–For removal of doubts, it is hereby clarified that a
[Section 29(1)]
resolution plan may include provisions for the restructuring of the
corporate debtor, including by way of merger, amalgamation and
demerger.
As per Section 5(25), Resolution applicant means a person, who
individually or jointly with any other person, submits a resolution plan
to the resolution professional pursuant to the invitation made under
clause (h) of sub-section (2) of section 25.
The resolution professional shall provide to the resolution applicant
access to all relevant information in physical and electronic form.
Note:
Source for preparing a As per Explanation below Section 29, Relevant information means the
Resolution Plan information required by the resolution applicant to make the resolution
[Section 29(2)] plan for the corporate debtor, which shall include the financial position
of the corporate debtor, all information related to disputes by or against
the corporate debtor and any other matter pertaining to the corporate
debtor as may be specified.
Information memorandum shall be submitted to the resolution applicant
by the resolution professional if and only if the resolution applicant
Undertaking by the
undertakes -----
Resolution applicant
To comply with provisions of law for the time being in force
[Section 29(2)(a) to
relating to confidentiality and insider trading.
Section 29(2)(c)]
To protect any intellectual property of the corporate debtor it
may have access to.
+
Exception to above ineligibility: Person shall be eligible to submit a
resolution plan if such person makes payment of all overdue amounts with
In eligibilities interest thereon and charges relating to non-performing asset accounts before
submission of resolution plan. [Proviso 1 to Section 29A(c)]
Non – applicability of ineligibility: This ineligibility shall not apply to a
resolution applicant where such applicant is a financial entity and is not a
related party to the corporate debtor. [Proviso 2 to Section 29A(c)]
+
Non – inclusion into the term related party: For the purposes of this proviso,
the expression "related party" shall not include a financial entity, regulated by
a financial sector regulator, if it is a financial creditor of the corporate debtor
and is a related party of the corporate debtor solely on account of conversion
or substitution of debt into equity shares or instruments convertible into
equity shares or completion of such transactions as may be prescribed, prior to
the insolvency commencement date. [Explanation I below Section 29A(c)]
Non – applicability of Clause c in certain cases: For the purposes of this
clause, where a resolution applicant has an account, or an account of a
corporate debtor under the management or control of such person or of whom
such person is a promoter, classified as non-performing asset and such account
was acquired pursuant to a prior resolution plan approved under this Code,
then, the provisions of this clause shall not apply to such resolution applicant
for a period of three years from the date of approval of such resolution plan by
the Adjudicating Authority under this Code. [Explanation II below Section
29A(c)]
CA KOUSHIK MUKHESH 211
THE INSOLVENCY AND BANKRUPTCY CODE, 2016
Has been convicted for any offence punishable with imprisonment -----
For 2 years or more under any Act specified under the Twelfth Schedule or
For 7 years or more under any law for the time being in force.
Exception 1: This ineligibility shall not apply to a person after the expiry of a
period of two years from the date of his release from imprisonment. [1st Proviso
to Section 29A(d)]
Exception 2: This ineligibility shall not apply in relation to a connected person
referred to in clause(iii) of Explanation I. [2nd Proviso to Section 29A(d)]
Is disqualified to act as a director under the Companies Act, 2013.
Exception: This ineligibility shall not apply in relation to a connected person
referred to in clause(iii) of Explanation I. [Proviso to Section 29A(e)]
Is prohibited by the Securities and Exchange Board of India from trading in
securities or accessing the securities markets.
Has been a promoter or in the management or control of a corporate debtor in
which a preferential transaction, undervalued transaction, extortionate credit
transaction or fraudulent transaction has taken place and in respect of which
an order has been made by the Adjudicating Authority under this Code.
Exception: This ineligibility shall not apply if a preferential transaction,
undervalued transaction, extortionate credit transaction or fraudulent transaction
has taken place prior to the acquisition of the corporate debtor by the resolution
applicant pursuant to a resolution plan approved under this Code or pursuant to a
scheme or plan approved by a financial sector regulator or a court, and such
resolution applicant has not otherwise contributed to the preferential transaction,
undervalued transaction, extortionate credit transaction or fraudulent
transaction.
Has executed a guarantee in favour of a creditor in respect of a corporate
debtor against which an application for insolvency resolution made by such
creditor has been admitted under this Code and such guarantee has been
invoked by the creditor and remains unpaid in full or part.
Is subject to any disability, corresponding to clauses (a) to (h), under any law
in a jurisdiction outside India.
Has a connected person not eligible under clauses (a) to (i).
Meaning of the term ‘Connected person’: [Explanation I to Section 29A(j)]
(i) Any person who is the promoter or in the management or control of the
resolution applicant; or
(ii) Any person who shall be the promoter or in management or control of the
business of the corporate debtor during the implementation of the
resolution plan; or
(iii) The holding company, subsidiary company, associate company or related
party of a person referred to in clauses (i) and (ii).
Exception 1: Nothing in clause (iii) of Explanation I shall apply to a resolution
applicant where such applicant is a financial entity and is not a related party of the
corporate debtor. [1st Proviso to Section 29A(j)]
Exception 2: The expression "related party" shall not include a financial entity,
regulated by a financial sector regulator, if it is a financial creditor of the corporate
debtor and is a related party of the corporate debtor solely on account of
conversion or substitution of debt into equity shares or instruments convertible
(ii) where an appeal has been preferred under section 61 or section 62 or such an appeal is not
time barred under any provision of law for the time being in force; or
(iii) where a legal proceeding has been initiated in any court against the decision of the
Adjudicating Authority in respect of a resolution plan;
(c) provides for the management of the affairs of the Corporate debtor after approval of the
resolution plan;
(d) The implementation and supervision of the resolution plan;
(e) does not contravene any of the provisions of the law for the time being in force
(f) confirms to such other requirements as may be specified by the Board.
Explanation. — For the purposes of clause (e), if any approval of shareholders is required under
the Companies Act, 2013(18 of 2013) or any other law for the time being in force for the
implementation of actions under the resolution plan, such approval shall be deemed to have
been given and it shall not be a contravention of that Act or law.
(3) The resolution professional shall present to the committee of creditors for its approval such
resolution plans which confirm the conditions referred to in sub-section (2).
(4) The committee of creditors may approve a resolution plan by a vote of not less than sixty-
six per cent. of voting share of the financial creditors, after considering its feasibility and
viability, the manner of distribution proposed, which may take into account the order of
priority amongst creditors as laid down in sub-section (1) of section 53, including the priority
and value of the security interest of a secured creditor and such other requirements as may be
specified by the Board:
Provided that the committee of creditors shall not approve a resolution plan, submitted before
the commencement of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Ordinance, 2017,
where the resolution applicant is ineligible under section 29A and may require the resolution
professional to invite a fresh resolution plan where no other resolution plan is available with
it:
Provided further that where the resolution applicant referred to in the first proviso is ineligible
under clause (c) of section 29A, the resolution applicant shall be allowed by the committee of
creditors such period, not exceeding thirty days, to make payment of overdue amounts in
accordance with the proviso to clause (c) of section 29A:
Provided also that nothing in the second proviso shall be construed as extension of period for
the purposes of the proviso to sub-section (3) of section 12, and the corporate insolvency
resolution process shall be completed within the period specified in that sub-section:
Provided also that the eligibility criteria in section 29A as amended by the Insolvency and
Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Ordinance, 2018 shall apply to the resolution applicant who
has not submitted resolution plan as on the date of commencement of the Insolvency and
Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Ordinance, 2018.
(5) The resolution applicant may attend the meeting of the committee of creditors in which the
resolution plan of the applicant is considered:
Provided that the resolution applicant shall not have a right to vote at the meeting of the
committee of creditors unless such resolution applicant is also a financial creditor.
(6) The resolution professional shall submit the resolution plan as approved by the committee
of creditors to the Adjudicating Authority.
Particulars Details
Particulars Content
Who shall submit? Resolution applicant
Submit to whom? Submit to the resolution professional
Submission of
What shall be submitted? Resolution plan
Resolution plan
What is the basis of
[Section 30(1)] Information Memorandum
preparing resolution plan?
Affidavit that applicant is eligible u/s
Attachments?
29A.
The resolution professional shall examine each resolution plan received
by him to confirm that each resolution plan -----
Sl.no Requirement
Provides for the payment of insolvency resolution process
1 costs in priority to the payment of other debts of the corporate
debtor.
Provides for the payment of debts of operational creditors
which shall not be less than -----
The amount to be paid to such creditors in the event of a
liquidation of the corporate debtor under section 53 or
The amount that would have been paid to such creditors, if
the amount to be distributed under the resolution plan had
been distributed in accordance with the order of priority in
sub-section (1) of section 53.
whichever is higher
Examination of +
Resolution plan to meet
certain requirements Provides for the payment of debts of financial creditors, who do
[Section 30(2)] not vote in favour of the resolution plan which shall not be less
than the amount to be paid to such creditors in accordance with
2 sub-section (1) of section 53 in the event of a liquidation of the
corporate debtor.
Notes:
As per explanation I, it is hereby clarified that a distribution
in accordance with the provisions of this clause shall be fair and
equitable to such creditors.
As per explanation II, it is hereby declared that on and from
the date of commencement of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy
Code (Amendment) Act, 2019, the provisions of this clause
shall also apply to the corporate insolvency resolution process
of a corporate debtor-
(i) where a resolution plan has not been approved or rejected
by the Adjudicating Authority;
(ii) where an appeal has been preferred under section 61 or
section 62 or such an appeal is not time barred under any
provision of law for the time being in force; or
Particulars Details
Approval by whom? Adjudicating authority
Approval of what? Resolution plan already approved under
Approval of Resolution section 30(4) by the COC.
plan by AA Pre-requisite to Resolution plan meets the requirements as
[Section 31(1) and its sanction approval? referred to in Section 30(2).
proviso] Binding effect of The order shall bind -----
approval order of AA? Corporate Debtor
Employees of Corporate Debtor
Particulars Details
Power of AA to
Power with whom? Adjudicating Authority
have an
The Adjudicating Authority may require an
independent
independent expert to assess evidence relating to
assessment Nature of power?
the value of the transactions mentioned in this
[Section 45(1)]
section.
For keeping assets of the corporate debtor beyond the reach of any person
who is entitled to make a claim against the corporate debtor; or
In order to adversely affect the interests of such a person in relation to the
claim.
Order of AA Restoring the position as it existed before such transaction as if the
[Section 49(i) and transaction had not been entered into; and
Section 49(ii)] Protecting the interests of persons who are victims of such transactions.
4
Extortion = The practice of obtaining something, especially money, through force or threats
5
Exorbitant = Unreasonably higher prices
CA KOUSHIK MUKHESH 226
THE INSOLVENCY AND BANKRUPTCY CODE, 2016
Adjustment of The fees payable to the liquidator shall be deducted proportionately from the
Liquidator’s fees proceeds payable to each class of recipients under sub-section (1), and the
[Section 53(3)] proceeds to the relevant recipient shall be distributed after such deduction.
Distribution in case It is hereby clarified that at each stage of the distribution of proceeds in
of equal ranking respect of a class of recipients that rank equally, each of the debts will either
[Explanation below be paid in full, or will be paid in equal proportion within the same class of
section 53] recipients, if the proceeds are insufficient to meet the debts in full.
CHAPTER I - PRELIMINARY
3. SHORT TITLE EXTENT AND COMMENCEMENT [SECTION 1]
This Act may be called the Prevention of Money laundering Act, 2002.
It extends to the whole of India.
It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official
Gazette, appoint, and different dates may be appointed for different provisions of this Act and any
reference in any such provision to the commencement of this Act shall be construed as a reference
to the coming into force of that provision.
4. DEFINITIONS [SECTION 2]
Definition Content
Section
Money-laundering has the meaning assigned to it in section 3.
2(p)
Money
Laundering Whosoever directly or indirectly attempts to indulge or knowingly
[Section 2(p) assists or knowingly is a party or is actually involved in any
read with Section process or activity connected with the proceeds of crime including
Section 3] 3 its concealment, possession, acquisition or use and projecting or
claiming it as untainted property shall be guilty of offence of
money-laundering.
Proceeds of crime means any property derived or obtained, directly or
indirectly, by any person as a result of criminal activity relating to a scheduled
Proceeds of crime
offence or the value of any such property or where such property is taken or
[Section 2(u)]
held outside the country, then the property equivalent in value held within the
country or abroad.
Property means any property or assets of every description, whether corporeal
Property or incorporeal, movable or immovable, tangible or intangible and includes deeds
[Section 2(v)] and instruments evidencing title to, or interest in, such property or assets,
wherever located.
scheduled offence" means--
(i) The offences specified under Part A of the Schedule; or
Scheduled offence
(ii) The offences specified under Part B of the Schedule if the total value involved
[Section 2(y)]
in such offences is one crore rupees or more; or
(iii) The offences specified under Part C of the Schedule.
Value means the fair market value of any property on the date of its acquisition
Value
by any person, or if such date cannot be determined, the date on which such
[Section 2(zb)]
property is possessed by such person.
Transfer Transfer includes sale, purchase, mortgage, pledge, gift, loan or any other form
[Section 2(za)] of transfer of right, title, possession or lien.
Person includes--
(i) An individual,
Person
(ii) A Hindu undivided family,
[Section 2(s)]
(iii) A company,
(iv) A firm,
Issue 4 – What is the intention of law maker in using the words ‘projecting or claiming’? – Is it an
official projection in financials or mere oral claim? – Hasan Ali v/s Union of India
a. The essence of the offence defined in section 3 of the Act is projecting proceeds of crime as ‘untainted
property’.
b. One may think that it is only when a legitimate source of earning with respect to the tainted property;
i.e. proceeds of crime, is suggested or attempted to be suggested that the offence punishable under
section 4 of the act would be said to be committed. In other words, it requires consideration whether
where a person having proceeds of crime in his possession puts them in a Bank Account and then
transfers the same to another account, he can be said to have projected money as “untainted
property”.
c. Court held that, proceeds of crime remains proceeds of crime, irrespective of whether they are kept
in the house, or deposited in a Bank Account or kept with somebody else. Projecting them as
“untainted property” which is the essence of the offence punishable under section 4 of the Act,
involves offering of some explanation with respect to the acquisition of the said property and
showing it to be having a lawful source of earning. Prima facie view in this regard is that it is only
when an attempt is made to show the source of that money as something legitimate, it would amount
to projecting the proceeds as “untainted property”.
THE SCHEDULE
PART A
PARAGRAPH CONTENT
1 OFFENCES UNDER THE INDIAN PENAL CODE, 1860
OFFENCES UNDER THE NARCOTIC DRUGS AND PSYCHOTROPIC SUBSTANCES ACT,
2
1985
3 OFFENCES UNDER THE EXPLOSIVE SUBSTANCES ACT,1908
4 OFFENCES UNDER THE UNLAWFUL ACTIVITIES (PREVENTION) ACT, 1967
5 OFFENCES UNDER THE ARMS ACT, 1959
6 OFFENCES UNDER THE WILD LIFE (PROTECTION) ACT, 1972
7 OFFENCES UNDER THE IMMORAL TRAFFIC (PREVENTION) ACT, 1956
(1)Where the Director or any other officer not below the rank of Deputy Director authorised
by the Director for the purposes of this section, has reason to believe (the reason for such
belief to be recorded in writing), on the basis of material in his possession, that--
(a) any person is in possession of any proceeds of crime; and
(b) such proceeds of crime are likely to be concealed, transferred or dealt with in any manner
which may result in frustrating any proceedings relating to confiscation of such proceeds of
crime under this Chapter,
he may, by order in writing, provisionally attach such property for a period not exceeding one
hundred and eighty days from the date of the order, in such manner as may be prescribed:
Provided that no such order of attachment shall be made unless, in relation to the scheduled
offence, a report has been forwarded to a Magistrate under section 173 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, 1973, or a complaint has been filed by a person authorised to investigate the
offence mentioned in that Schedule, before a Magistrate or court for taking cognizance of the
scheduled offence, as the case may be, or a similar report or complaint has been made or filed
under the corresponding law of any other country:
Provided further that, notwithstanding anything contained in first proviso, any property of
any person may be attached under this section if the Director or any other officer not below
the rank of Deputy Director authorised by him for the purposes of this section has reason to
believe (the reasons for such belief to be recorded in writing), on the basis of material in his
possession, that if such property involved in money-laundering is not attached immediately
under this Chapter, the non-attachment of the property is likely to frustrate any proceeding
under this Act.
3 Provided also that for the purposes of computing the period of one hundred and eighty days,
the period during which the proceedings under this section is stayed by the High Court, shall
be excluded and a further period not exceeding thirty days from the date of order of vacation
of such stay order shall be counted.;
(2) The Director, or any other officer not below the rank of Deputy Director, shall,
immediately after attachment under sub-section (1), forward a copy of the order, along with
the material in his possession, referred to in that sub-section, to the Adjudicating Authority,
in a sealed envelope, in the manner as may be prescribed and such Adjudicating Authority
shall keep such order and material for such period as may be prescribed.
(3) Every order of attachment made under sub-section (1) shall cease to have effect after the
expiry of the period specified in that sub-section or on the date of an order made under 4[sub-
section (3)] of section 8, whichever is earlier.
(4) Nothing in this section shall prevent the person interested in the enjoyment of the
immovable property attached under sub-section (1) from such enjoyment.
Explanation.--For the purposes of this sub-section, "person interested", in relation to any
immovable property, includes all persons claiming or entitled to claim any interest in the
property.
(5) The Director or any other officer who provisionally attaches any property under sub-
section (1) shall, within a period of thirty days from such attachment, file a complaint stating
the facts of such attachment before the Adjudicating Authority.
[Section 5(1)]
Who shall exercise the
Director (or)
powers?
An officer not below the rank of a deputy director.
[Section 5(1)]
The Director or an officer not below the rank of a deputy director, has a
Basis of exercising the reason to believe on basis of material in his possession that -----
powers Any person is in possession of any proceeds of crime; and
[Section 5(1)(a) and Such proceeds of crime are likely to be concealed, transferred or dealt
Section 5(1)(b)] with in any manner which may result in frustrating any proceedings
relating to confiscation of such proceeds of crime under this Chapter.
Period of provisional
The officer concerned may provisionally attach such property for a period
attachment
not exceeding 180 days from the date of the order.
[Section 5(1)]
Pre-condition for Order of provisional attachment shall not be made unless -----
provisional A report has been forwarded to a Magistrate under section 173 of
attachment in certain CRPC, 173. [Concept of FIR] (or)
cases A complaint has been filed by a person authorised to investigate the
[Proviso to Section offence mentioned in that Schedule, before a Magistrate or court for
5(1)] taking cognizance of the scheduled offence.
Powers under 2nd
The powers under 2nd proviso are applicable
proviso are having
notwithstanding anything contained in first proviso.
overriding effect
Director or
Power with whom? Any other officer not below the rank of Deputy
Sweeping powers of Director.
Director
[2nd proviso to If such property involved in money-laundering is not
Section 5(1)] What is the attached immediately under this Chapter, the non-
opinion? attachment of the property is likely to frustrate any
proceeding under this Act.
What is basis of Such authority has reason to believe (the reasons for
forming such such belief to be recorded in writing), on the basis of
opinion? material in his possession.
Exclusion of certain Which days are excluded The period during which the proceedings
days and extension in from 180 days? under this section is stayed by the High Court
certain cases
[3rd proviso to Extension beyond stay A further period not exceeding 30 days from
Section 5(1)] period the date of order of vacation of such stay.
Director or
Duty on whom?
Any officer not below the rank of Deputy Director.
Duty of director
To Adjudicating Authority, in a sealed
[Section 5(2) read Intimate
envelope.
with Section 5(5)] Duty – 1
Immediately after provisional
When?
attachment.
8. ADJUDICATION [SECTION 8]
(1) On receipt of a complaint under sub-section (5) of section 5, or applications made under
sub-section (4) of section 17 or under sub-section (10) of section 18, if the Adjudicating
Authority has reason to believe that any person has committed an offence under section 3 or is
in possession of proceeds of crime, it may serve a notice of not less than thirty days on such
person calling upon him to indicate the sources of his income, earning or assets, out of which or
by means of which he has acquired the property attached under sub-section (1) of section 5, or,
seized or frozen under section 17 or section 18, the evidence on which he relies and other
relevant information and particulars, and to show cause why all or any of such properties
should not be declared to be the properties involved in money-laundering and confiscated by
the Central Government:
Provided that where a notice under this sub-section specifies any property as being held by a
person on behalf of any other person, a copy of such notice shall also be served upon such other
person:
Provided further that where such property is held jointly by more than one person, such notice
shall be served to all persons holding such property.
(2) The Adjudicating Authority shall, after--
(a) considering the reply, if any, to the notice issued under sub-section (1);
(b) hearing the aggrieved person and the Director or any other officer authorised by him in this
behalf; and
(c) taking into account all relevant materials placed on record before him,
by an order, record a finding whether all or any of the properties referred to in the notice issued
under sub-section (1) are involved in money-laundering:
Provided that if the property is claimed by a person, other than a person to whom the notice
had been issued, such person shall also be given an opportunity of being heard to prove that
the property is not involved in money-laundering.
(3) Where the Adjudicating Authority decides under sub-section (2) that any property is
involved in money-laundering, he shall, by an order in writing, confirm the attachment of the
property made under sub-section (1) of section 5 or retention of property or record seized or
frozen under section 17 or section 18 and record a finding to that effect, whereupon such
attachment or retention or freezing of the seized or frozen property or record shall--
(a) continue during investigation for a period not exceeding three hundred and sixty-five days
or the pendency of the proceedings relating to any offence under this Act before a court or
under the corresponding law of any other country, before the competent court of criminal
jurisdiction outside India, as the case may be; and
(b) become final after an order of confiscation is passed under sub-section (5) or sub-section
(7) of section 8 or section 58B or sub-section (2A) of section 60 by the Special Court;
9Explanation.--For the purposes of computing the period of three hundred and sixty-five days
under clause (a), the period during which the investigation is stayed by any court under any
law for the time being in force shall be excluded.
(4) Where the provisional order of attachment made under sub-section (1) of section 5 has been
confirmed under sub-section (3), the Director or any other officer authorised by him in this
behalf shall forthwith take the possession of the property attached under section 5 or frozen
under sub-section (1A) of section 17, in such manner as may be prescribed:
Provided that if it is not practicable to take possession of a property frozen under sub-section
(1A) of section 17, the order of confiscation shall have the same effect as if the property had
been taken possession of.
(5) Where on conclusion of a trial of an offence under this Act, the Special Court finds that the
offence of money-laundering has been committed, it shall order that such property involved in
the money laundering or which has been used for commission of the offence of money-
laundering shall stand confiscated to the Central Government.
(6) Where on conclusion of a trial under this Act, the Special Court finds that the offence of
money laundering has not taken place or the property is not involved in money-laundering, it
shall order release of such property to the person entitled to receive it.
(7) Where the trial under this Act cannot be conducted by reason of the death of the accused or
the accused being declared a proclaimed offender or for any other reason or having
commenced but could not be concluded, the Special Court shall, on an application moved by the
Director or a person claiming to be entitled to possession of a property in respect of which an
order has been passed under sub-section (3) of section 8, pass appropriate orders regarding
confiscation or release of the property, as the case may be, involved in the offence of money-
laundering after having regard to the material before it.
(8) Where a property stands confiscated to the Central Government under sub-section (5), the
Special Court, in such manner as may be prescribed, may also direct the Central Government to
restore such confiscated property or part thereof of a claimant with a legitimate interest in the
property, who may have suffered a quantifiable loss as a result of the offence of money
laundering.
Provided that the Special Court shall not consider such claim unless it is satisfied that the
claimant has acted in good faith and has suffered the loss despite having taken all reasonable
precautions and is not involved in the offence of money laundering.
Provided further that the Special Court may, if it thinks fit, consider the claim of the claimant
for the purposes of restoration of such properties during the trial of the case in such manner as
may be prescribed.
ANALYSIS ON THE SECTION
Particulars Details
Exercise of powers by
whom? Powers under this section are exercised by adjudicating authority.
[Section 8(1)]
What powers are
Issuing a show cause notice and
exercisable?
Confirming the attachment.
[Section 8(1)]
On receipt of a complaint under sub-section (5) of section 5 (or)
Basis of issuing a SCN
On receipt of applications made under sub-section (4) of section 17 (or)
[Section 8(1)]
On receipt of applications made under sub-section (10) of section 18.
The Adjudicating Authority has reason to believe that any person -----
Satisfaction of AA
Has committed an offence under section 3 or
[Section 8(1)]
Is in possession of proceeds of crime.
Issue a show cause notice.
Giving a minimum period of 30 days to indicate -----
What action AA would Sources of his income Out of which or by means of which
take? Earnings or Assets he has acquired such property
[Section 8(1)] SCN shall clearly specify as to why all or any of such properties should
not be declared to be the properties involved in money-laundering and
confiscated by the Central Government.
If property is held by
the person on behalf of A copy of such Show cause notice shall also be
Show cause notice in another person served upon such other person.
special cases [1st Proviso]
[1 and 2nd Proviso
st
section shall operate to discharge any person from any liability in respect of such
encumbrances which may be enforced against such person by a suit for damages.
ANALYSIS ON SECTION
Particulars Details
When Section gets
Order of Confiscation is made under section 8(5) or section 8(7).
attracted?
What shall be the All the rights and title in such property shall vest absolutely in the Central
effect if confiscated? Government free from all encumbrances.
Special court or Adjudicating authority shall give an OBH to any person
interested in the property attached.
Special court or Adjudicating authority is of the opinion that any
Malafide interests –
encumbrance on the property or lease-hold interest has been created
Will it invalidate
with a view to defeat the provisions of this Chapter.
confiscation?
Then, it may, by order, declare such encumbrance or lease-hold interest
to be void and thereupon the aforesaid property shall vest in the Central
Government free from such encumbrances or lease-hold interest.
Confiscation order – Nothing in this section shall operate to discharge any person from any
Will it discharge liability in respect of such encumbrances which may be enforced against
third party liability? such person by a suit for damages.
Particulars Details
The Appellate Tribunal constituted under sub-section (1) of section
12 of the Smugglers and Foreign Exchange Manipulators (Forfeiture
Appellate Tribunal to be a
of Property) Act, 1976 shall be the Appellate Tribunal for hearing
shared tribunal
appeals against the orders of the Adjudicating Authority and the
other authorities under this Act.
[Explanation to Section
43(1)]
While trying an offence under this Act, a Special Court shall also try an
Dual trial possible!!! offence, other than an offence referred to in sub-section (1), with which
[Section 43(2)] the accused may, under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, be charged
at the same trial.
The Special Court shall not take cognizance of any offence punishable
Cognizance of offence by
under section 4 except upon a complaint in writing made by ------
Special Court
The Director or
[2 Proviso to Section
nd
Any officer of the Central Government or
45(1)]
Any officer of the State Government.
Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure,
Police cant investigate at
1973, or any other provision of this Act, no police officer shall investigate
his own procedure
into an offence under this Act unless specifically authorised, by the
[Section 45(1A)]
Central Government.
Bail limitation is not the The limitation on granting of bail specified in sub-section (1) is in
only limitation addition to the limitations under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
[Section 45(2)] or any other law for the time being in force on granting of bail.
Any such appeal has been preferred It shall be lawful for the legal
to the High Court and the person representatives of such person, or
who had filed the appeal dies or is the official assignee or the official
adjudicated an insolvent during the receiver, as the case may be, to
pendency of the appeal before the continue the appeal before the high
High Court court.
Director to maintain Save as otherwise provided under any law for the time being in force,
confidentiality every information sought by the Director under sub-section (1), shall be
[Section 12A(3)] kept confidential.
1. PREAMBLE
An Act to consolidate and amend the law relating to domestic arbitration, international
commercial arbitration and enforcement of foreign arbitral awards as also to define the
law relating to conciliation and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
Particulars Details
Consolidate and amend the law relating to -----
Domestic arbitration
Objective
International commercial arbitration and
Enforcement of foreign arbitral awards
Additional Define the law relating to conciliation and for matters connected therewith or
objective incidental thereto.
2. AN INTRODUCTION
India opened a fresh chapter in its arbitration laws in 1996 when it enacted the Arbitration and
Conciliation Act.
The Pre-1996 Position:
Prior to 1996, the arbitration law of the country was governed by a 1940 Act. This Act was largely
premised on mistrust of the arbitral process and afforded multiple opportunities to litigants to
approach the court for intervention. Coupled with a sluggish judicial system, this led to delays
rendering arbitrations inefficient and unattractive. A telling comment on the working of the old Act can
be found in a 1981 judgment of the Supreme Court where the judge (Justice DA Desai) in anguish
remarked ‘the way in which the proceedings under the (1940) Act are conducted and without an
exception challenged in Courts, has made lawyers laugh and legal philosophers weep …….’
A New Act, A New Beginning:
India (in the good company of several other nations) enacted its new Arbitration Act based on the
United Nations Commission on International Trade Law Model Law on International Commercial
Arbitration and the Arbitration Rules of the United Nations Commission on International Trade Law
1976. This was in January 1996. The Statement of Objects and Reasons to the Act made no bones of the
inefficiency of the old legislation. It said that the same had ‘become outdated’ and there was need to
have an Act ‘more responsive to contemporary requirements’. It added: ‘Our economic reforms may
not become fully effective if the law dealing with settlement of both domestic and international
commercial disputes remains out of tune.’
Amongst the main objectives of the new Act (set out in the Statement of Objects and Reasons) are ‘to
minimize the supervisory role of courts in the arbitral process’ and ‘to provide that every final arbitral
award is enforced in the same manner as if it were a decree of the Court’.
This is how Supreme Court dwelled on the New Act:
To attract the confidence of International Mercantile community and the growing volume of India’s
trade and commercial relationship with the rest of the world after the new liberalization policy of the
Government, Indian Parliament was persuaded to enact the Arbitration & Conciliation Act of 1996 in
UNCITRAL model and therefore in interpreting any provisions of the 1996 Act Courts must not ignore
the objects and purpose of the enactment of 1996. A bare comparison of different provisions of the
Arbitration Act of 1940 with the provisions of Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 would unequivocally
indicate that 1996 Act limits intervention of Court with an arbitral process to the minimum.
The Scheme of the Act:
The Act is a composite piece of legislation. It provides for domestic arbitration, international
commercial arbitration, enforcement of foreign award and conciliation (the latter being based on the
UNCITRAL Conciliation Rules of 1980).
The more significant provisions of the Act are to be found in Parts I and II thereof. Part I contains the
provisions for domestic and international commercial arbitration. Any arbitration to be conducted in
India would be governed by Part I, irrespective of the nationalities of the parties. Part II provides for
enforcement of foreign awards.
(ii) A body corporate which is incorporated in any country other than India;
or
(iii) An association or a body of individuals whose central management and
control is exercised in any country other than India; or
(iv) The Government of a foreign country.
Party
Party means a party to an arbitration agreement.
[Section 2(1)(h)]
5. FEATURES OF ARBITRATION
Term Definition
“Arbitration agreement” means an agreement by the parties to submit to
arbitration of all or certain disputes which have arisen or which may arise between
them in respect of a defined legal relationship, whether contractual or not.
No arbitration can happen without the consent of the parties.
The consent is contained within an arbitration agreement. This agreement
Arbitration
clearly specifies the desire of the parties to arbitrate their dispute.
agreement
In other words, they clearly note that in the event of a dispute between them they
would not go to the court, instead they will proceed to arbitrate their dispute.
This agreement takes the form of a binding contract.
Note: The Act states that the relationship between the parties need not be
contractual. Hence, a dispute in tort 6 can also be referred.
Arbitrator also known as the arbitral tribunal is similar to a judge of the court.
The arbitrator decides the disputes between the parties.
Just like the judge an arbitrator is also required to be completely neutral,
impartial and not favour any party.
Arbitrator
Because the parties can choose the arbitrators, it inspires confidence in the
arbitrators, the process and the decisions taken by the arbitrators. If, however
the arbitrators who are not independent then they could be removed by the
court.
Seat means the legal system which would supervise the arbitration to ensure
that mandatory legal requirements are complied with. The courts of the seat
would provide assistance through supportive measures.
Seat of For Example
Arbitration If India is the seat then Indian laws would apply and Indian courts would have the
authority to provide supportive assistance such as issuance of interim measures,
etc. It would also be the court which would hear challenges against the arbitral
award.
Arbitration also gives the parties the choice of applicable law especially if the
Party arbitration is an international commercial arbitration.
autonomy Additionally, there is enormous flexibility to choose the type and kind of
procedure that the parties want to adopt for the arbitration.
Usually there is no appeal against an arbitral award. An arbitral award can only be
Finality of
set aside on very few grounds such as invalid arbitration agreement, parties’
outcome
incapacity, independence and impartiality of an arbitrator, unfair procedure, etc.
An important feature of arbitration is that whatever that happens in arbitration
remains private. It is only known to the parties and the arbitrators.
All of them are prohibited with sharing with third parties who are not involved
Confidentiality in arbitration, any document or information that is received during the course
of arbitration.
This is done to ensure that parties feel free to share all information during
arbitration so that a proper solution can be arrived at.
6
Tort means wrongful act or infringement of a right
Arbitral An award is a decision by the arbitrator on the dispute that was submitted to it for
Awards adjudication.
Enforcement
It is much simpler to enforce an arbitral award in foreign nations than a judgment
of arbitral
rendered by a court. Such enforcement happens under an international treaty.
awards
Parties to the arbitration agreement must agree that the determination of their
substantive rights by a neutral third person acting as the arbitral tribunal would be
final and binding upon them.
Example:
‘Any other questions, claim right, matter, thing, whatsoever, in any way arising out
of or relating to the contract designs, drawings, specifications estimates,
instructions, or orders, or those conditions or failure to execute the same whether
Final and
arising during the progress of' the work, or after the completion, termination or
binding
abandonment thereof, the dispute shall, in the first place, be referred to the Chief
award
Engineer who has jurisdiction over the work specified in the contract. The Chief
Engineer shall within a period of ninety days from the date of being requested by
the Contractor to do so, given written notice of his decision to the contractor. Chief
Engineer's decision final.’ Is this a valid arbitration agreement?
Answer:
Since in the given case Chief Engineer is not a neutral party and has a Control over
the work specified in the contract, so this is not a valid arbitration agreement.
Specific The mere use of words like ‘arbitration’ or ‘arbitrator’ in a clause will not make it an
words arbitration agreement. Usage of such words is not a necessary requirement.
There must be a present or a future dispute/difference in connection with some
Dispute
contemplated affairs that is proposed to be submitted to arbitration.
The disputes submitted/ proposed to be submitted to arbitration must be
arbitrable.
In other words that law must permit arbitration in that matter.
There are certain disputes that the law retains exclusively for the court, and the
same cannot be submitted for arbitration.
Arbitrability
The rationale is that given the nature of disputes, the courts are the only
appropriate forum for adjudicating the matter.
Example:
Criminal offences, matrimonial disputes, guardianship matters, testamentary
matters, mortgage suit for sale of a mortgaged property, etc. cannot be arbitrated.
Signature is only required when the arbitration agreement is contained in a contract
Signature i.e. in one set of documents. However, no signature is required if the arbitration
agreement is contained in correspondence or exchange of pleadings.
quantities of phosphoric acid from the petitioner. The purchase order noted that
the terms and conditions were to be as per the Fertilizer Association of India (FAI)
Terms and Conditions for Sale and Purchase of Phosphoric Acid. Clause 15 of the
terms provided for settlement of disputes by arbitration.
Is this a valid reference for an arbitration agreement to come into existence?
Answer:
Yes. It was held by the Supreme Court of India that for a reference to constitute an
arbitration agreement the contract should be writing and reference should be such
as to make that arbitration clause a part of the contract. Both the conditions were
held to be fulfilled in the present instance.
10. ARBITRATOR OR ARBITRAL TRIBUNAL
Particulars Details
An arbitrator(s) or arbitral tribunal performs the function of a judge, in other words
Nature
an arbitrator adjudicates/judges the dispute between the parties.
Arbitral Tribunal cannot be construed as a court just because of presence of an
Not a court
arbitrator who is like a judge.
There could be one (sole) arbitrator or more than one arbitrator. Both would be
referred to as arbitral tribunal.
The parties tend to have high level of freedom when deciding on the number of
persons that can be chosen as arbitrators.
There are many things that should be kept in mind at the time of appointment of
arbitrators such as -----
Number of Fees for arbitrators
arbitrators Complexity of dispute
Time required for meetings
Duration of sessions
Coordination of timings
The advantage is more arbitrators results in greater discussions which can
improve the quality of awards. It also brings greater expertise as arbitrators may
be from different speciality and background.
Any person capable of contracting, in theory can be an arbitrator. Since arbitration is
Who can be
a private arrangement, whereby when dispute arise it would be submitted to a
an
private party instead of courts, the arbitrator can be anyone who is capable of
arbitrator?
contracting with the parties.
An important principle of arbitration is the principle of party autonomy. Party
autonomy means the ‘freedom to choose’ whether it is the procedure, the venue, the
Appointment seat or the arbitrators. The parties have the right to choose the persons who would
act as arbitrators in their dispute. However, this right to choose is not absolute but
instead is subject to certain limits that are provided under the applicable law.
Option Details
Procedure
1 Parties can jointly appoint.
for
Each party will appoint one and the two arbitrators would appoint the
appointment 2
rest.
Example:
A person was appointed as arbitrator for his expertise as a civil engineer.
However, the parties during the arbitration found out that his experience was
inadequate in construction projects involving large dams. The parties could
through a unanimous decision, decide to have another person as arbitrator.
Situation Content
As per section 14(1), The mandate of an arbitrator shall terminate
and he shall be substituted by another arbitrator, if -----
He is de jure7 unable to perform his functions or
He is de facto8 unable to perform his functions or
He has for other reasons fails to act without undue delay.
Example:
Assume for an instance where the arbitrator falls ill and is unable
1 to, for a very long period of time, conduct any proceedings.
Arbitrator Similarly, there could be other issues, the arbitrator became
unable to busy with other matters, his own business or simply lost interest
continue in the matter. These are factual inability. (de facto)
Example:
Operation of There may also be a possibility that law no longer permits the
law person to remain as an arbitrator. This is a de jure.
As per section 14(2), If a controversy remains concerning any of
the grounds 3 grounds referred above, a party may, unless
otherwise agreed by the parties, apply to the Court to decide on the
termination of the mandate.
The process of arbitration may end in various ways namely -----
As per section 29A (1), the award in matters other than
2 international commercial arbitration shall be made by the
When arbitral tribunal within a period of 12 months from the date
arbitration of completion of pleadings.9
process As per section 32, the process can end when final award
ends has been made.
As per section 25, when the parties decide to no longer
continue with arbitration.
In addition to all of the above, there may be a possibility, where none of the above
is present for example the arbitrator is working without delay, parties are satisfied
with their performance, etc., but still a party feels that the arbitrator should not
continue, then it could, for reasons of bias approach the court to remove the
Decision of the
arbitrator. [Section 12 and Section 13]
court
STEPS IN CHALLENGING THE INTEGRITY OF THE ARBITRATOR.
Step – 1 Challenge must be raised before the arbitral tribunal itself.
Step – 2 Then, appear before the District Court (for domestic arbitration) and
High Court (for international commercial arbitration).
7
de jure means a state of affairs that is in accordance with law (i.e. that is officially sanctioned).
8
de facto means a state of affairs that is true in fact, but that is not officially sanctioned.
9
Pleading means a formal statement of the cause of an action or defence – simply date of complaint.
In case of termination, the law provides that a new arbitrator could be appointed
keeping in mind the original method of appointment. If, however that fails, then
the parties are free to approach the Supreme Court of India (in international
commercial arbitration) or High Court (for domestic arbitration) for appointment.
Example:
Query: Rahul was member of a three-person arbitral tribunal to adjudicate a
dispute between Dell Inc., Microsoft and Intel Corporation. Rahul was appointed
by Microsoft. He had on an earlier occasion been associated as a software
consultant with Microsoft. When the arbitration proceedings were ongoing on
two occasions Rahul privately met with Microsoft lawyers and failed to inform
either the other arbitrators or parties about the meeting or the contents of the
meeting. It was also observed that Rahul adopted an unduly harsh attitude
towards representatives of Dell and Intel, all the while remaining extremely
friendly with Microsoft representatives and lawyers.
Answer: Here in this case, Rahul can be challenged on grounds of bias. His
previous association and actions during the proceedings clearly point to his
tendency to favour Microsoft above other parties.
Assume that Rahul was removed. A new arbitrator had to be appointed. In
such a situation the original method, i.e. Microsoft making the appointment,
would apply again. If however Microsoft fails to make an appointment, the other
parties can approach the court to fill the vacancy.
CONCILIATION
INTRODUCTION
Arbitration is one of the many ADR methods utilized to resolve dispute outside of the
court system. However, Arbitration remains adversarial in nature. It mimics the court
system, and therefore like a court adjudicates a matter. This however means that the
parties remain as adversaries, with one party having won and the other losing the contest.
This win-loss creates a feeling of bitterness, and often tends to destroy relations. In order
to avoid these consequences of arbitration, other methods of ADR are adopted.
1. PREAMBLE
An Act to prevent undesirable transactions in securities by regulating the business of dealing
therein, by providing for certain other matters connected therewith.
(ie) Any certificate or instrument (by whatever name called), issued to an investor
by any issuer being a special purpose distinct entity which possesses any debt or
receivable, including mortgage debt, assigned to such entity, and acknowledging
beneficial interest of such investor in such debt or receivable including mortgage
debt, as the case may be.
(ii) Government securities; and
(iii) Rights or interests in securities.
“Derivative” includes—
(A) A security derived from a debt instrument, share, loan, whether secured or
unsecured, risk instrument or contract for differences or any other form of
security.
Derivative
(B) A contact which derives its value from the prices, or index of prices, of
[Section 2(ac)]
underlying securities.
(C) Commodity derivatives; and
(D) Such other instruments as may be declared by the Central Government to be
derivatives.
“Commodity derivative” means a contract—
(i) For the delivery of such goods, as may be notified by the Central
Government in the Official Gazette, and which is not a ready delivery
Commodity contract; or
derivative (ii) For differences, which derives its value from prices or indices of prices of
[Section 2(bc)] such underlying goods or activities, services, rights, interests and events, as
may be notified by the Central Government, in consultation with the Board,
but does not include securities as referred to in sub-clauses (A) and (B) of
clause (ac).
Goods “Goods” mean every kind of movable property other than actionable claims, money
[Section 2(bb)] and securities.
“Government security” means a security created and issued, whether before or
Government
after the commencement of this Act, by the Central Government or a State
Security
Government for the purpose of raising a public loan and having one of the forms
[Section 2(b)]
specified in clause (2) of section 2 of the Public Debt Act, 1944.
Contract
“Contract” means a contract for or relating to the purchase or sale of securities.
[Section 2(a)]
“Stock exchange” means—
(a) any body of individuals, whether incorporated or not, constituted before
corporatisation and demutualisation under sections 4A and 4B, or
Stock Exchange
(b) a body corporate incorporated under the Companies Act, 1956 whether under
[Section 2(j)]
a scheme of corporatisation and demutualisation or otherwise, for the purpose of
assisting, regulating or controlling the business of buying, selling or dealing in
securities
Recognised Stock “Recognised stock exchange” means a stock exchange which is for the time being
exchange recognised by the Central Government under section 4.
[Section 2(f)]
“Corporatisation” means the succession of a recognised stock exchange, being a
body of individuals or a society registered under the Societies Registration Act,
Corporatisation
1860, by another stock exchange, being a company incorporated for the purpose
[Section 2(aa)]
of assisting, regulating or controlling the business of buying, selling or dealing in
securities carried on by such individuals or society.
“Demutualisation” means the segregation of ownership and management from the
Demutualisation
trading rights of the members of a recognised stock exchange in accordance with
[Section 2(ab)]
a scheme approved by the Securities and Exchange Board of India.
Member
“Member” means a member of a recognised stock exchange.
[Section 2(c)]
“Ready delivery contract” means a contract which provides for
the delivery of goods and the payment of a price therefor, either
Ready delivery
immediately, or within such period not exceeding eleven days
Contract
after the date of the contract, and the period under such
[Section 2(ea)
contract not being capable of extension by the mutual consent
of the parties thereto or otherwise.
“Spot delivery contract” means a contract which provides for,—
(a) Actual delivery of securities and the payment of a price
therefor either on the same day as the date of the contract or
on the next day, the actual period taken for the dispatch of the
securities or the remittance of money therefor through the post
Spot delivery
Various types of being excluded from the computation of the period aforesaid if
Contract
Contracts the parties to the contract do not reside in the same town or
[Section 2(i)]
locality.
(b) Transfer of the securities by the depository from the
account of a beneficial owner to the account of another
beneficial owner when such securities are dealt with by a
depository.
“Specific delivery contract” means a commodity derivative
which provides for the actual delivery of specific qualities or
Specific delivery
types of goods during a specified future period at a price fixed
Contract
thereby or to be fixed in the manner thereby agreed and in
[Section 2(ha)]
which the names of both the buyer and the seller are
mentioned.
“Option in securities” means a contract for the purchase or sale of a right to buy or
Option in securities
sell, or a right to buy and sell, securities in future, and includes a teji, a mandi, a teji
[Section 2(d)]
mandi, a galli, a put, a call or a put and call in securities.
Notification in official
Every grant of recognition to a stock exchange under this section shall be
gazette
published in the Gazette.
[Section 4(3)]
No application for the grant of recognition shall be refused except after giving
Refusal to be
an opportunity to the stock exchange concerned to be heard in the matter; and
subjected to OBH
the reasons for such refusal shall be communicated to the stock exchange in
[Section 4(4)]
writing.
No rules of a recognised stock exchange relating to any of the matters specified
Amendment of rules
in sub-section (2) of section 3 shall be amended except with the approval of the
[Section 4(5)]
Central Government.
The recognition granted to a stock exchange shall be in Form B
and be subject to the following conditions, namely :—
Form of
(a) That the recognition unless granted on a permanent basis,
recognition
shall be for such period not less than one year as may be
[Rule 6]
specified in the recognition.
(b) That the stock exchange shall comply with such conditions.
Content prescribed
by the Rules (1) Three months before the expiry of the period of recognition,
[Rule 6 and Rule 7] a recognised stock exchange desirous of renewal of such
recognition may make an application to the SEBI in Form A.
Renewal of
(2) The provisions of rule 3, rule 4, rule 5, rule 5A and rule 6 shall
recognition
apply in relation to renewal of recognition as they apply in
[Rule 7]
relation to grant of recognition except that the fee payable in
respect of an application for renewal of recognition shall be
rupees two hundred.
[Section 5(2)] rejected by the SEBI, the recognition granted to such stock exchange under
section 4, shall, notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained in this
Act, stand withdrawn and the Central Government shall publish, by
notification in the Official Gazette, such withdrawal of recognition.
stock exchange or grants the permission, the stock exchange shall act in
conformity with the orders of the Central Government.
Penalty for failure to to segregate securities or moneys of the client or clients or uses the Minimum: ₹ 1,00,000
segregate securities or securities or moneys of a client or clients for self or for any other client Maximum: ₹ 1 crore
moneys of client or clients
23E If a company or any person managing collective investment scheme or
Shall be liable to a penalty of -
Penalty for failure to mutual fund OR REAL ESTATE INVESTMENT TRUST OR
----
comply with of listing INFRASTRUCTURE INVESTMENT TRUST OR ALTERNATIVE
Minimum: ₹ 5,00,000
conditions or delisting INVESTMENT FUND, fails to comply with the listing conditions or
Maximum: ₹ 25 Crores
conditions or grounds delisting conditions or grounds or commits a breach thereof.
23F If any issuer dematerialises securities more than the issued securities of
Shall be liable to a penalty of -
Penalty for excess a company or delivers in the stock exchanges the securities which are not
----
dematerialisation or listed in the recognised stock exchange or delivers securities where no
Minimum: ₹ 5,00,000
delivery of unlisted trading permission has been given by the recognised stock exchange.
Maximum: ₹ 25 Crores
securities
If a recognised stock exchange fails or neglects to furnish periodical
returns OR FURNISHES FALSE, INCORRECT OR INCOMPLETE
23G Shall be liable to a penalty of -
PERIODICAL RETURNS to the Securities and Exchange Board of India or
Penalty for failure to ----
fails or neglects to make or amend its rules or bye-laws as directed by the
furnish periodical returns, Minimum: ₹ 5,00,000
Securities and Exchange Board of India or fails to comply with directions
etc. Maximum: ₹ 25 Crores
issued by the Securities and Exchange Board of India, such recognised
stock exchange.
Shall be liable to a penalty of -
----
23GA Where a stock exchange or a clearing corporation fails to conduct its
Minimum: ₹ 5 Crore
Penalty for failure to business with its members or any issuer or its agent or any person
Maximum
conduct business in associated with the securities markets in accordance with the rules or
₹ 25 Crores or 3 times the gain
accordance with rules, etc regulations mad by the Securities and Exchange Board of India.
made out of such failure,
whichever is higher.
Whoever fails to comply with any provision of this Act, the rules or Shall be liable to a penalty of -
23H articles or bye-laws or the regulations of the recognised stock exchange ----
Minimum: ₹ 1,00,000
Penalty for contravention or directions issued by the Securities and Exchange Board of India for Maximum: ₹ 1Crore
where no separate penalty which no separate penalty has been provided.
has been provided
Nature of default.
Factors considered by
Gravity of default.
SEBI before settlement
Impact of default.
Section 23M to be This section is applicable without prejudice to any award of penalty by
cumulative the adjudicating officer or the Securities and Exchange Board of India
[Section 23M(1)] under this Act.
If any person fails to pay the penalty imposed by the adjudicating
officer or the Securities and Exchange Board of India or fails to comply
Failure to pay penalty
with the direction or order he shall be punishable with imprisonment
leading to an offence
for a term which shall not be less than one month but which may
[Section 23M(2)]
extend to ten years, or with fine, which may extend to twenty-five
crore rupees, or with both.
Other Committees
Register of members showing their full names and addresses.
Register of authorised clerks.
Margin deposits book.
Ledgers
Journals
Cash book
Bank Pass book
As per Rule 15, Every MEMBER OF A RECOGNISED STOCK
EXCHANGE shall maintain and preserve the following books of account
and documents for a period of 5 years ------
Register of transactions (Sauda book).
Clients’ ledger
General ledger
Journals
Cash book
Bank pass-book
Every member of a recognised stock exchange shall maintain and
preserve the following documents for a period of 2 years -----
Member’s contract books.
Counterfoils or duplicates of contract notes issued to clients.
Written consent of clients in respect of contracts entered into
as principals.
If it is necessary in -----
When SEBI
Public interest or
conducts inquiry?
Interest of the trade.
Call upon a recognised stock exchange or any
Power of SEBI to conduct member thereof to furnish in writing such
inquiry information or explanation relating to the
[Section 6(3)] affairs of the stock exchange or of the member
Nature of Powers in relation to the stock exchange.
Appoint one or more persons to make an
inquiry and Submit a report of the result if
such inquiry to the Securities and Exchange
Board of India
Where an inquiry in relation to the affairs of a recognised stock
exchange or the affairs of any of its members in relation to the stock
Duty of officers and exchange has been undertaken under sub-section (3) ------
members to provide Every director, manager, secretary or other officer of such stock
information exchange.
[Section 6(4)] Every member of such stock exchange.
shall be bound to produce before the authority making the inquiry all
such books of account, and other documents in his custody or power.
Particulars Details
Every recognised stock exchange shall furnish the Central Government with a copy of
the annual report, and such annual report shall contain such particulars as may be
prescribed.
Every recognised stock exchange shall before the 31st day of January in each year
furnish the Securities and Exchange Board of India annually with a report about its
activities during the preceding calendar year, which shall inter alia contain
detailed information about the following matters ------
Annual Changes in rules and bye-laws, if any.
report
Changes in the composition of the governing body.
[Section 7
Admissions, re-admissions, deaths or resignations of members.
read with
Disciplinary action against members.
Rule 17]
Arbitration of disputes (nature and number) between members and non-
members.
Securities listed and de-listed
Every recognised stock exchange shall within 1 month of the date of the holding of
its annual general meeting, furnish the Securities and Exchange Board of India
with a copy of its audited balance-sheet and profit and loss account for its preceding
financial year.
and thereupon every contract in such State or States or area which is entered into after the
date of the notification otherwise than between members of a recognised stock exchange or
recognised stock exchanges in such State or States or area or through or with such member
shall be illegal.
In the case of P. Ravinder vs National Stock Exchange of India [21/Oct/2003] it was held that
In view of the language of Section 13, in all the areas to which Section 13 applied, members of a
recognized Stock Exchange/Stock Brokers can enter into a contract for the purchase of sale of
securities, that is, a member of the Stock Exchange can purchase for himself or sell the securities from
another stock broker. If Section 13 is interpreted literally an individual owning “security” cannot
legally either sell or purchase unless he also becomes a "member" of the Stock Exchange. Such a
situation would result in a great inconvenience to the owner of "securities" who is not a stock broker
and would defeat his right to either freely transfer or acquire "securities". Therefore, the law-makers
enabled such persons to carry on the activity of sale or purchase of the "securities" through the
members of the Stock Exchange/Stock Brokers. This conclusion is a necessary implication of a
combined reading of Sections 13 and 15 of the 1956 Act. In fact, Section 15 reads as follows:
"Members may not act as principals in certain circumstances.--No member of a recognized stock
exchange shall in respect of any securities enter into any contract as a principal with any person other
than a member of a recognized stock exchange, unless he has secured the consent or authority of such
person and discloses in the note, memorandum or agreement of sale or purchase that he is acting as
a principal;"
Section 15 also recognises a right of a stock broker to purchase "securities" from persons other than
"stock brokers". Having regard to the dual capacity of the stock broker either to purchase or sell
securities for himself, which he may retain or trade in future, the stock broker is also required to sell
or purchase securities on behalf of persons who are not stock brokers (for convenience, hereinafter
referred to as "clients"). Section 15 mandates that the stock broker shall not enter into any contract
as a principal with any person other than a stock broker and if a stock broker desires to enter into
such a contract as principal, he is required to obtain the consent or authority of the client which is
required to be in writing either in the form of a note, memorandum or agreement of sale. These
expressions, "note" and "memorandum" are not defined anywhere, but they are the documents which
are invented by the stock brokers and exchanges over a period of time for the smooth facilitation of
their business.
39. TITLE TO DIVIDENDS [SECTION 27]; RIGHT TO RECEIVE INCOME FROM COLLECTIVE INVESTMENT SCHEME [SECTION 27A];
RIGHT TO RECEIVE INCOME FROM MUTUAL FUND [SECTION 27B]
Particulars Section 27 Section 27A Section 27B
Section applies to holder of Section applies to holder of Section applies to holder of securities, being
securities of a company. securities, being units issued by a units issued by a Mutual Fund.
Such holder shall transfer the CIS. Such holder shall transfer the securities,
Basic
securities to another person being a Such holder shall transfer the being units issued by a CIS to another person
Conditions
transferee. securities, being units issued by a namely a transferee.
CIS to another person namely a
transferee.
Such holder is entitled to receive and Such holder is entitled to receive and Such holder is entitled to receive and retain any
retain any dividend declared by the retain any income in respect of units or income in respect of units or other instruments
company in respect thereof for any other instruments issued by the issued by the mutual fund declared by the
Rights
year, notwithstanding that the said collective investment scheme declared mutual fund in respect thereof for any year,
available to
security has already been transferred by the collective investment scheme in notwithstanding that the said security, being
the holder
by him for consideration. respect thereof for any year, units or other instruments issued by the mutual
being the
notwithstanding that the said security, fund, has already been transferred by him for
transferor
being units or other instruments consideration.
legally
issued by the collective investment
scheme, has already been transferred
by him for consideration.
Note Delay by any other reason other the above 3 reasons, makes the transferor entitled to the dividends/Income, as the case may be.
2. APPLICABILITY [REGULATION 3]
Particulars Details
Condition – 1 There must be a listed entity.
Such entity must have issued any of the designated
Condition – 2
securities and listed them on a recognised stock exchange.
Applicable to
Note: As per Regulation 2(p), Listed entity means an entity which has listed,
whom?
on a recognised stock exchange(s), the designated securities issued by it or
[Regulation 3]
designated securities issued under schemes managed by it, in accordance with
the listing agreement entered into between the entity and the recognised stock
exchange(s)
Regulation Content
Specified securities listed on main board or SME Exchange or
a
institutional trading platform.
What are Non-convertible debt securities, non-convertible redeemable
designated b preference shares, perpetual debt instrument, perpetual non-
securities? cumulative preference shares.
[Regulation 3(a) c Indian depository receipts.
to 3(f)] d Securitized debt instruments.
da Security receipts.
e Units issued by mutual funds.
f Any other securities as may be specified by the Board.
Minimum non – Not less than 50% of the board of directors shall
executive comprise of non-executive directors.
Special proviso for Applicable to top 500 and 1000 listed entities.
specified entities Conditions to be satisfied:
It shall have shall have at least one
independent woman director by April 1,
2019.
The Board of directors of the top 1000
listed entities shall have at least one
independent woman director by April 1,
2020
Date of determining The top 500 and 1000 entities shall be determined
status of top 500 on the basis of market capitalisation, as at the end
and 1000 of the immediate previous financial year.
[Explanation]
Chairperson of
Number of Independent directors
Board of directors
Non-executive At least one-third of the board of directors shall
director comprise of independent directors.
All other cases At least half of the board of directors shall
comprise of independent directors.
Note: As per proviso to Regulation 17(1)(b), where the regular non-
executive chairperson is a promoter of the listed entity or is related to any
Chairperson and
promoter or person occupying management positions at the level of board
Independent directors
of director or at one level below the board of directors, at least half of the
[Regulation 17(1)(b)]
board of directors of the listed entity shall consist of independent directors.
Note: As per Explanation below Regulation 17(1)(b), the expression
“related to any promoter" shall have the following meaning:
(i) If the promoter is a listed entity, its directors other than the
independent directors, its employees or its nominees shall be
deemed to be related to it;
(ii) If the promoter is an unlisted entity, its directors, its employees or
its nominees shall be deemed to be related to it.
Board meetings The board of directors shall meet at least 4 times a year, with a maximum
[Regulation 17(2)] time gap of 120 days between any two meetings.
The quorum for every meeting of the board of directors of the top 1000
Quorum for Board listed entities with effect from April 1, 2019 and of the top 2000 listed
meetings entities with effect from April 1, 2020 shall be one-third of its total strength
[Regulation 17(2A)] or three directors, whichever is higher, including at least one independent
director.
The board of directors shall periodically review compliance reports
Review of compliance
pertaining to all laws applicable to the listed entity, prepared by the listed
report
entity as well as steps taken by the listed entity to rectify instances of non-
[Regulation 17(3)]
compliances.
5. VARIOUS COMPLIANCES
Regn. Type of Nature of
Contents to be filed with the recognised stock exchange(s) by a listed entity Time – Limit
No compliance compliance
What is to be Within 21 days
A statement of investor complaints.
filed? from the end of
Grievance Details in the Complaints pending at the beginning of the quarter. xxx each quarter.
13(3) Quarterly Redressal statement Complaints received during the quarter xxx
Mechanism
Complaints disposed of during the quarter. xxx
Complaints remaining unresolved at the end of the quarter. xxx
What is to be A statement showing holding of securities and shareholding pattern
filed? separately for each class of securities.
Events and Event Content
Holding of time lines 1 day prior to
1 listing of its securities on the stock exchange.
Specified listing.
31(1) Quarterly Securities and There is a capital restructuring. Within 10 days of
Shareholding
2 Due to such capital restructuring, there is a change any capital
Pattern restructuring.
exceeding 2% of the total paid-up share capital.
Within 21 days
3 Generally, irrespective of any event. from the end of
each quarter.
Within 45 days of
Financial The listed entity shall submit quarterly and year-to-date standalone financial end of each
33(3) Quarterly
results results to the stock exchange. quarter, other than
the last quarter.
What is to be A listed entity shall submit to the stock exchange the following
filed? statement(s) on a quarterly basis for public issue, rights issue,
preferential issue etc.
Deviations, if any, in the use of proceeds from the
objects stated in the offer document or explanatory
Deviation – 1
Statement of statement to the notice for the general meeting, as
32(1) Quarterly deviations or applicable. Quarterly basis
variations Details in the Category wise variation (capital expenditure, sales
statement and marketing, working capital etc.) Between
projected utilisation of funds made by it in its offer
Deviation – 2
document or explanatory statement to the notice
for the general meeting, as applicable and the
actual utilisation of funds.
Other
A listed entity shall submit quarterly compliance report on corporate governance Within 15 days
Corporate
27(2) Quarterly in the format as specified by the Board from time to time to the recognized stock from end of
governance
exchange. quarter.
requirements
The listed entity shall submit annual audited standalone financial results for the
financial year. Within 60 days
Financial
33(3) Annual Note: Audit report in all cases shall be as follows ----- from the end of the
Results
Form A – For Audit report with unmodified opinion. financial year.
Form B – For Audit report with modified opinion.
What is to be
Annual report to be published on the website
filed?
Event Content
34 Annual Annual Report
Events and Publish a copy of the annual report sent to the Not later than the
time lines 1 shareholders along with the notice of the annual general day of
meeting. commencement of
dispatch to its
shareholders
Not later than 48
In the event of any changes to the annual report, the
hours after the
2 revised copy along with the details of and explanation for
annual general
the changes shall be sent.
meeting.
Documents and Not less than
36(2) Annual information to The listed entity shall send annual report to the holders of securities. 21days before the
shareholders AGM.
At least 5 days in
advance excluding
Prior
Financial The listed entity shall give prior intimation to stock exchange about the meeting of the date of the
29(1) Intimation of
Results the board of directors in which financial results is due to be considered. intimation and
Board meeting
date of the
meeting.
All other proposals like -----
Proposal for Voluntary Delisting by the listed entity from the stock
exchange(s).
Fund raising by way of further public offer, rights issue, American Depository
Receipts/Global Depository Receipts/Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds, At least 2 working
qualified institutions placement, debt issue, preferential issue or any other days in advance,
Prior All proposals
method and for determination of issue price. excluding the date
29(2) Intimation of other than
Declaration/recommendation of dividend, issue of convertible securities of the intimation
Board meeting financial results
including convertible debentures or of debentures carrying a right to subscribe and date of the
to equity shares or the passing over of dividend. meeting.
The proposal for declaration of bonus securities where such proposal is
communicated to the board of directors of the listed entity as part of the agenda
papers.
Proposal for Buyback of Securities.
The listed entity shall give prior intimation to stock exchange about the meeting of
the board of directors in which following is due to be considered -----
At least 11 working
Proposal – 1 Any alteration in the form or nature of any of its securities that
Prior days before any of
Intimation of are listed on the stock exchange or in the rights or privileges of
29(3) Intimation of the said proposals
alteration the holders thereof.
Board meeting is placed before the
Proposal – 2 Any alteration in the date on which, the interest on debentures or
board of directors.
bonds, or the redemption amount of redeemable shares or of
debentures or bonds, shall be payable.
At least 7 working
days.
Prior The listed entity shall give notice in advance to stock exchange(s) of record date
42(2) Record Date (Excluding the date
Intimation specifying the purpose of the record date.
of intimation and
the record date)
At least 5working
days.
(Excluding the date
Condition General due of intimation and
42(3) The listed entity shall recommend or declare all dividend and/or cash bonuses.
imposed date the record date)
before the record
date fixed for the
purpose.
Within 2 working
Post Website days from the date
46(3) The listed entity shall update any change in the content of its website.
intimation updation of such change in
content.
The listed entity At least 3 directors, with at The stakeholder’s relationship The chairperson of this committee
shall constitute a least 1 being an independent committee shall meet at least shall be a non-executive director.
committee called as director, shall be members of once in a year. The Chairperson of the Stakeholders
Stakeholders the Committee and in case of a Relationship Committee shall be
Relationship listed entity having present at the annual general
Stakeholder’s
Committee to outstanding SR equity shares, meetings to answer queries of the
relationship
specifically look at least 2/3rds of the security holders.
Committee
into various aspects Stakeholders Relationship
[Regulation 20]
of interest of Committee shall comprise of
shareholders, independent directors.
debenture holders
and other security
holders.
The board of The majority of members of The risk management The Chairperson of the Risk
directors of top 500 Risk Management Committee committee shall meet at least management committee shall be a
listed entities, shall consist of members of the once in a year. member of the board of directors and
determined on the board of directors and in case senior executives of the listed entity
basis of market of a listed entity having may be members of the committee.
Risk capitalisation, as at outstanding SR equity shares, The board of directors shall define the
management the end of the at least 2/3rd of the Risk role and responsibility of the Risk
[Regulation 21] immediate previous Management Committee shall Management Committee and may
financial year shall comprise of independent delegate monitoring and reviewing of
constitute a Risk directors. the risk management plan to the
Management committee and such other functions
Committee. as it may deem fit such function shall
specifically cover cyber security.
to terminate 3 months in writing or 3 months’ salary and allowances in lieu thereof, and the
[Section 5(2)] Chairman or a member, as the case may be, shall also have the right to
relinquish his office, at any time before the expiry of the period prescribed
under sub-section (1), by giving to the Central Government notice of not less
than 3 months in writing.
(7) REMOVAL OF MEMBERS OF THE BOARD [SECTION 6]
Particulars Details
Who has power to Central Government
remove?
[Section 6]
Grounds of removal Is, or at any time has been, adjudicated as insolvent.
[Section 6(a) to (e)] Is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court.
Has been convicted of an offence which, in the opinion of the central
government, involves a moral turpitude.
*******Clause deleted*********
Has, in the opinion of the central government, so abused his position
as to render his continuation in office detrimental to the public
interest.
Principles of natural No member shall be removed under this clause unless he has been given a
justice to be followed reasonable opportunity of being heard in the matter.
[Proviso to section 6]
(8) MEETINGS OF THE BOARD [SECTION 7]
Particulars Details
Meetings as per Regulations The Board shall meet at such times and places, and shall observe
[Section 7(1)] such rules of procedure in regard to the transaction of business at
its meetings (including quorum at such meetings) as may be
provided by regulation.
Presiding officer in case of The Chairman or, if for any reason, he is unable to attend a meeting
absence of chairman of the Board, any other member chosen by the members present
[Section 7(2)] from amongst themselves at the meeting shall preside at the
meeting.
Voting at the meetings All questions which come up before any meeting of the Board shall
[Section 7(3)] be decided by a majority votes of the members present and voting,
and, in the event of an equality of votes, the Chairman, or in his
absence, the person presiding, shall have a second or casting vote.
Secreted
Seize with The Magistrate or Judge of such designated court in
whose Mumbai.
permit?
What are Authorise the Investigating authority to –
powers of Enter such place where books are kept
Magistrate or Search such place
Judge? Seize the books and documents
Restriction on The Magistrate or Judge of the Designated Court] shall not
seizure in authorise seizure of books, registers, other documents and
certain cases record, of any listed public company or a public company
(not being the intermediaries specified under section 12)
which intends to get its securities listed on any recognised
stock exchange unless such company indulges in insider
trading or market manipulation.
Power to request for The authorised officer may requisition the services of any police officer or
police assistance any officer of the Central Government, or of both, to assist him for all or any
[Section 11C(8A)] of the purposes specified in sub-section (8).
Period of retention of The Investigating Authority shall keep in its custody the books, registers,
documents obtained on other documents and record seized under this section for such period
search and power to not later than the conclusion of the investigation.
place id marks The Investigating Authority may, before returning such books, registers,
[Section 11C(10) + other documents and record as aforesaid, place identification marks on
Proviso to Section them or any part thereof.
11C(10)]
Search and Seizure Every search or seizure made under this section shall be carried out in
shall be as per Cr.PC, accordance with the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
1973 [Section
11C(11)]
33
CA KOUSHIK MUKHESH
8
SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE BOARD OF INDIA ACT, 1992
and regulations
by an asset
management
company
[Section 15E]
Penalty for Fails to comply with the regulations made by the Any person Imprisonment No
default in case of Board in respect of alternative investment funds, Shall be liable to a penalty
alternative infrastructure investment trusts and real estate
investment investment trusts or fails to comply with the Minimum ₹ 1,00,000
funds, directions issued by the Board. Maximum ₹ 1,00,000 every day till a
infrastructure maximum of ₹ 1 crore or
investment three times the amount of
trusts and real gains made out of such
estate failure, whichever is higher.
investment
trusts.
[Section 15 EA]
Penalty for Fails to comply with the regulations made by the Investment Liable to a penalty
default in case of Board or directions issued by the Board, such adviser or Minimum ₹ 1,00,000
investment investment adviser or research analyst. research analyst
adviser and Maximum ₹ 1,00,000 every day till a
research analyst. maximum of ₹ 1 crore.
[Section 15 EB]
Penalty for Fails to issue contract notes in the form and Person, Case 1 Liable to a penalty
default in case of manner specified by the stock exchange of which registered as a Minimum – More than ₹ 1
stock brokers such broker is a member. [Case 1] Stock Broker Lakh and
[Section 15 F] Maximum – extend up to
amount on contract note