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7/27/2021 Adhesives - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry
Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers

– Adhesives
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Adhesives”.
1. Which of the below adhesive is not attacked by water?
a) Starch glue
b) Albumin glue
c) Vegetable glue
d) Rubber glue
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Albumin glue is better quality glue and is used for furniture. Starch glue and Vegetable
glue is not water resistant.
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2. The process of applying an adhesive is:
a) Speedy
b) Slow
c) Costly
d) Cumbersome
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Adhesive is used to join two surfaces, forming a strong bond between them. It is easy,
economic and fast to apply.
3. Nitrocellulose glue is prepared from:
a) Pyridine
b) Benzene
c) Pyroxylin
d) Resin
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pyroxylin is a nitrated cellulose. It is derived by treating cellulose with a nitric acid. It
produces films which adheres to a glass surface.
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4. Which of the following glues is used to join light metals?
a) Metal glue
b) Cycle weld
c) Araldite glue
d) Special glue
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Special glue is used to join metals in general. Cycle weld is used to join aluminium sheet
and araldite glue is used to join light metals.
5. Epoxy adhesives are used in the manufacturing of:
a) Glass
b) Fabric
c) Plywood
d) Plastic
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Epoxy adhesives can cure fast and bonds concrete surfaces as well. They can be used in
automobile, aircraft and plywood manufacturing.
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6. Which IS code gives details about tile adhesives?
a) IS 14458
b) IS 15477
c) IS 15478
d) IS 14557
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Adhesive specifications to be used when laying ceramic tiles and mosaics are given in IS
15477.
7. Which of the below glue can be made plastic again by re-heating?
a) Thermo-setting
b) Rubber glue
c) Animal protein glue
d) Thermo-plastic
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Glue from synthetic resins can be either thermo-setting or thermo-plastic. The thermo-
setting one is permanent in nature. Thermo-plastic glue can be reheated and made plastic again.
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8. Which glue can bond a metal to wood?
a) Contact cement
b) Super glue
c) PVC cement
d) Gorilla glue
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: First the metal is cleaned and filed using sand paper. It is done to make it rough for the
adhesive to grip onto. Then adhesive is applied to both surfaces and pressed. Super glue is used for
porcelain to porcelain; PVC cement for plastic to plastic and gorilla glue for wood to wet wood.
9. Gorilla glue is made up of:
a) Resin
b) Epoxy
c) Polyurethane
d) Animal protein
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is a type of polyurethane adhesive. It is 100% water proof, easily bonds glass, wood,
stone, metal, concrete, etc. It is also temperature resistant and incredibly strong.
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10. The word adhesive has its origin from:
a) Greek Adhaerere
b) Latin Adherae
c) Greek Adherae
d) Latin Adhaerere
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The Latin word Adhaerere means to stick on. French work adhésif and English word
adhere further lead to the word adhesive.
11. Vegetable glue is used for:
a) Labelling
b) Joining glass
c) Plastic adhesion
d) Plywood manufacture
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is prepared from starch and natural gums. It can be used for preparing paperboard
articles, labelling, etc.
12. Adhesive becomes strong immediately after its application.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Adhesive takes time to completely adhere to a surface and form films for bonding. It may
take anywhere from minutes to hours to attain full strength.
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7/27/2021 Advanced Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry
Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers

– Cables Subjected to its Own Weight
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This set of Advanced Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers focuses on “Cables Subjected to
its Own Weight”.
1. What is not the condition for the equilibrium in three dimensional system of axis for cable subjected to
its own weight?
a) ∑Fx=0
b) ∑Fy=0
c) ∑Fz=0
d) ∑F≠0
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: For the equilibrium in the three dimensional system of axis we have all the conditions true
as, ∑Fx=0, ∑Fy=0 and ∑Fz=0. Also, we have the summation of the forces equal to zero. Which is not a
non-zero value.
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2. The assumptions for the calculations are done for the cable subjected to its own weight. In that one of
the assumption is that the cable is ___________
a) Extensible
b) Non-flexible
c) Flexible
d) Static
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The assumptions are done so as to make the calculations easy. Though the assumptions
make the small errors do not count over the big data. But still, if the assumptions are made then the
calculations are easy. Thus the assumption taken as the cable is perfectly flexible.
3. The magnitude of the resultant of the two vectors in calculations for cable subjected to its own weight
is always:
a) Greater than one of the vector’s magnitude
b) Smaller than one of the vector’s magnitude
c) Depends on the angle between them
d) Axis we choose to calculate the magnitude
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Yes, the magnitude of the resultant of the two vectors always depends on the angle
between them. It might be greater or smaller than one of the vector’s length. For perfectly saying, it
does depend upon the angle between them.
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4. In the diagram given below, coordinates of D is (1, -2, 2), C (-2, 0, 0) and B are as shown. The dark
region is the cables holding the weight of 600N at origin. Find the tension in the AD section.
a) 900N
b) 693N
c) 646N
d) 0N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the system is in equilibrium so we need to balance the forces. So when apply the
condition of net force to be zero in the z direction, we get (2/3)FAD = 600N. This gives us force along
AD be 900N.
5. Cable subjected to its own weight takes a shape of a ____________ when is subjected to loadings.
a) Helix
b) Line
c) Spring
d) Complex figure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The cable takes the shape of a straight line when subjected to the loadings. As the
loadings are straight, acting vertically downwards, they stretch the cables and then make them come in
the shape of the straight line. Thus the loadings make the cables come in the straight line.
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6. The force on the cable subjected to its own weight is not neglected in the calculations of the load
distribution.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The cable is a support system which is used to transfer the loadings in the different
structures. The main motto is to make the structure stable. In calculation, the self-weight of the cable is
neglected and the load is calculated. The forces are acting in the vertically downward direction.
7. Determine the value of the q, parallel to the z axis. That is the point of intersection of the projections of
the points A, B and C parallel to the xy plane. With the distance between the tri-section point and the
points A, B and C be equal to 0.6m.
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a) 51.9cm
b) 51.9mm
c) 51.9m
d) 5.19mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The application of the equilibrium equation will yield the result. That is the resultant along
the z-axis will remain zero. Which give the value of γ as 50˚. And therefore q=51.9cm.
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8. The assumptions for the calculations are done for the cable subjected to its own weight. In that one of
the assumption is that the cable is flexible and the other is that the cable is ___________
a) Extensible
b) Non-flexible
c) Inextensible
d) Static
View Answer
Answer: c
calculations are easy. Thus the assumption taken as the cable is inextensible.
9. Due to which property the cable subjected to its own weight, it offers no resistance to bending?
a) Extensible property
b) Non-flexible property
c) Flexibility property
d) Static property
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Due to the flexibility property the cable, it offers no resistance to bending. As the bending
is seen in the beams and all the solid structures. Thus the bending moment produced in the cables are
not affecting the cables much. Thus no affect by bending, i.e. no resistance to bending.
10. The tensile force acting on the cable subjected to its own weight is in which direction w.r.t the cable?
a) Perpendicular
b) Parallel
c) Tangential
d) At an angle of 2 radians
View Answer
Answer: c
not affecting the cables much. So the tensile force which is being produced is acting in the tangential
direction to the points of the cable along its lengths.
11. The cable weight becomes significant in the calculations of the loadings when the cable subjected to
its own weight are used in the transmission lines and guys for radio antennas.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
structures. The main motto is to make the structure stable. But in the calculations of the loadings when
the cables are used in the transmission lines and guys for antennas the self-weight of the cable is not
neglected and the load is calculated.
12. The loading in the cable subjected to its own weight doesn’t change the ___________ of the cables.
a) Geometry
b) Colour
c) Bending moment
d) Point at which the shear stress is zero
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The loading in the cables doesn’t affect the geometry of the cables. This is because of the
assumptions which we have taken. The first one that the cables are perfectly elastic. And the second
one that the cables are inextensible.
13. If the unknown variables in the calculations are more than the known quantities, then the number of
equations required to solve all the unknown variables are for cable subjected to its own weight?
a) Infinite
b) Finite
c) Not possible
d) Question fault
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Whatever be the calculation involved, the unknown variables will be ultimately come out
from the equations. The proper use of the known quantities and the multiuse of various calculation
techniques will ultimately give up the results. Thus whether it may be the case of the cables or the
beams the equations if applied properly will result in the determination of the unknowns.
14. For calculations involved for cable subjected to its own weight all the vectors quantities obey :
a) Parallelogram law of addition
b) Parallelogram law of multiplication
c) Parallelogram law of addition of square root of their magnitudes
d) Parallelogram law of addition of square of their magnitudes
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: All the vectors quantities obey parallelogram law of addition. Two vectors A and B (can be
called as component vectors) are added to form a resultant vector. R = A+B.
15. If two equal vector forces are mutually perpendicular in the cable subjected to its own weight then the
resultant force is acting at which angle as compared to one of the vector?
a) 45 degree
b) 90 degree
c) 180 degree
d) 0 degree
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The vectors are mutually perpendicular, this means that the angle between the forces is
90 degree. Thus the resultant will form at 45 degrees to any of the vector.
Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Series – Engineering Mechanics.
To practice advanced questions and answers on all areas of Engineering Mechanics, here is complete
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Manish Bhojasia, a technology veteran with 20+ years @ Cisco & Wipro, is Founder and CTO at
Sanfoundry. He is Linux Kernel Developer & SAN Architect and is passionate about competency
developments in these areas. He lives in Bangalore and delivers focused training sessions to IT
professionals in Linux Kernel, Linux Debugging, Linux Device Drivers, Linux

Networking, Linux Storage, Advanced C Programming, SAN Storage Technologies,
SCSI Internals & Storage Protocols such as iSCSI & Fiber Channel. Stay connected
with him @
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7/27/2021 Airport Engineering - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Airport Engineering
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Airport
Engineering”.
1. Airports can be classified on how many basis?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The airports can be classified into 4 on the basis of take-off and landing, geometric
design, based on aircraft approach speed (FAA) and function.
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2. ICAO classification system considers how many things?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ICAO classification system is based on geometric designs broadly. It mainly
considers 2 things for its classification – length of the runway and on basis of wing span and outer
main gear wheel span.
3. The FAA classification of the airport is based on:
a) Function
b) Geometric design
c) Airport approach speed
d) Length of Runway
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The FAA or Federal Aviation Administration classifies on the basis of the aircraft approach
speed, given in knots. They are ranging from category A<91 knots to category E>186 knots.
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4. Which of the following is not a characteristic of centralized system of the terminal Area?
a) Passengers, cargo routed centrally
b) Passenger facilities in small units
c) Walking distance to aircraft < 200m
d) Common facilities for different gate positions
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The passenger facilities are arranged in smaller units or provided separately at different
locations in a decentralised system. Each unit will have aircraft gate positions.
5. Which of the below does not affect the site-selection of an airport site?
a) Adequate access
b) Air traffic potential
c) Sufficient airspace
d) Number of ground staff
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The other 3 options are the specific aspects on which the site-selection is dependent. The
site should be accessible by people easily from different locations, there should be potential for air
traffic – flight or passenger and sufficient airspace for airports without obstruction. The ground staff is
considered depending on the size of airport.
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6. Runways are oriented in a direction against the prevailing wind.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The runways are oriented in the direction of the wind so that it can utilize the force
provided by the wind for take-off and landing of the aircraft.
7. The wind intensity during a calm period in runways should be:
a) Below 4.6km/hr
b) Above 5km/hr
c) Between 5-10 km/hr
d) Below 6.4km/hr
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The wind intensity should remain below 6.4km/hr during a calm period and it is the same
for all wind direction. It is equal to 100 minus the total wind coverage.
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8. The application of __________ diagram is used to find the orientation of the runway to get the desired
wind coverage.
a) Wind Butterfly
b) Wind Cycle
c) Wind Star
d) Wind Rose
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: An average date of around 5-10 years of the various components of wind (intensity,
duration and direction) of the area is compiled to make a Wind Rose diagram. The entire area of the
airport is divided into 16 equal parts at angles of 22.5o. The wind coverage in each of the small
quadrants is then studied for the orientation of the runway.
9. Elevation of airport site above MSL is a factor that controls airport size.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is one of the factors. As the elevation increases, the meteorological conditions like air
pressure and density reduces. As a result, bigger size of facilities has to be provided.
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10. How many types of Fly Rules are there?
a) 2
b) 5
c) 4
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are 2 fly rules; the VFR (Visual Flight Rules) and IFR (Instrumental Fly Rules). The
VFR allows the aircraft to be operated within reasonable conditions by oneself. In IFR, the operations
are entirely controlled by instruments. A flight plan is required in both cases.
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7/27/2021 Aluminium Properties & Uses- Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Properties and Uses of Aluminium
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Properties
and Uses of Aluminium”.
1. Aluminium is commercially produced from:
a) Aluminium sulphate
b) Alum
c) Cryolite
d) Bauxite
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Bauxite is the most commonly used ore of aluminium for production. It occurs as a
weathering product of iron and silica.
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2. By which of the below process is Aluminium manufactured?
a) Bayer process
b) Ostwald process
c) Mayer process
d) Haber process
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the Bayer process, alumina in bauxite is dissolved in caustic soda solution and
precipitated to obtain aluminium hydroxide and calcinated to form pure Al2O3.
3. Which is the most important and useful alloy of Aluminium?
a) Magnalium
b) Silumin
c) Duralumin
d) Magnox
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Duralumin consists of 95% aluminium, 4% copper, 0.5% magnesium and 0.5%
manganese. It is widely used in aircraft manufacturing due to its light weight and high strength.
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4. Aluminium has a higher maintenance cost.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Aluminium has excellent corrosion resistance and can withstand weathering, hot and
humid conditions also. Hence, maintenance cost required is less.
5. Which of the following is a property of aluminium?
a) Hard material
b) Brittle
c) Noise control
d) Magnetic
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Aluminium is an excellent reflector of electromagnetic and sound waves. Therefore, it is

less affected by external noise compared to other building materials.
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6. Aluminium appears greyish in colour in pure form.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pure form of Aluminium is white in colour. Its colour can vary from grey to yellow or light
green depending on the presence of impurities. Yellow colour is imparted by Iron trichloride (impurity).
7. Aluminium finds its application in:
a) Golf clubs
b) Dehydrating agents
c) Waste management
d) Cricket field
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Compared to steel, aluminium is lightweight. Aluminium golf heads, shafts allow golfers to
swing faster and increase the ball’s distance with each shot.
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8. What is the melting point of Aluminium?
a) 250oC
b) 658oC
c) 700oC
d) 470oC
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The boiling point of aluminium is 2470oC. It is strong and can be widely used everywhere.
9. Recycled Aluminium is called:
a) Primary Aluminium
b) Green Aluminium
c) Secondary Aluminium
d) Subsequent Aluminium
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Recycled Aluminium is called secondary aluminium and same properties of primary
aluminium.
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7/27/2021 AutoCAD - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry
Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers –

AutoCAD
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “AutoCAD”.
1. Which is the latest version of AutoCAD software?
a) 2016
b) 2017
c) 2018
d) 2019
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: AutoCAD 2018 is the latest version. It has improved save performance, improved 2D Graphics, 3D
navigation performance, AutoCAD mobile app and updated DWG file format.
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2. Which key is used to obtain properties palette in AutoCAD?
a) Control+1
b) Control+2
c) Control+3
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d) Control+4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Control+2 gives design centre palette, control+3 gives tools palette. Control+4 is not an option.
3. AutoCAD was first released in the year:
a) 1858
b) 1966
c) 1898
d) 1982
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It was released in December 1982. It was a desktop app running on micro-computer with internal
graphics controllers.
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4. How many units are available in AutoCAD?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 7
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The units are architectural (feet & inches), decimals, engineering (inches), Fractional and scientific
(10e form).
5. Which mode allows the user to draw 90o straight lines :
a) Osnap
b) Ortho
c) Linear
d) Polar tracking
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Ortho mode can be activated using F8 Key. It enables user to draw straight lines (90o) by restricting
the cursor to 90o only.
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6. To obtain parallel lines, concentric circles and parallel curves; _________ is used.
a) Array
b) Fillet
c) Copy
d) Offset
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It can be activated by typing letter O. The offset distance and side is to be specified by the user.
7. The default grid spacing in both X and Y directions is:
a) 10
b) 20
c) 5
d) 15
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The spacing in each grid is 10 in both direction. It can be altered by right clicking on the grid button
at the bottom of the screen. A grid settings dialogue box will appear and changes can be made.
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8. How many workspaces are available in AutoCAD?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are three workspaces available to switch between in AutoCAD. These are drafting and
annotation, 3D basics and 3D modelling.
9. Scale command can be accessed easily by typing:
a) SL
b) S
c) SC
d) C
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Scale command is used to increase/decrease the size of an object. It can be accessed by typing
SC. To increase scale, value greater than 1 is given. Values between 0 and 1 can be used to decrease scale.
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10. Which command is used to divide the object into segments having predefined length?
a) Divide
b) Chamfer
c) Trim
d) Measure
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Measure command divides the object into segments of predefined length. Divide option divides
object into n number of equal segments.
11. How many grip points does a circle have?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A grip point appears as blue colour when an object is selected. Using these, an object can be
modified. A circle has 5 trip points. One in centre, 4 at each quadrant.
To practice all areas of Basic Civil Engineering, here is complete set of 1000+ Multiple Choice Questions and
Answers.
Participate in the Sanfoundry Certification contest to get free Certificate of Merit. Join our social networks below and
stay updated with latest contests, videos, internships and jobs!
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Manish Bhojasia, a technology veteran with 20+ years @ Cisco & Wipro, is Founder and CTO
at Sanfoundry. He is Linux Kernel Developer & SAN Architect and is passionate about
competency developments in these areas. He lives in Bangalore and delivers focused training
sessions to IT professionals in Linux Kernel, Linux Debugging, Linux Device Drivers, Linux
Networking, Linux Storage, Advanced C Programming, SAN Storage Technologies, SCSI
Internals & Storage Protocols such as iSCSI & Fiber Channel. Stay connected with him @
7/27/2021 Basic Civil Engineering Aptitude Test - Sanfoundry

– Impact Assessment
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers for Aptitude test focuses on “Impact
Assessment”.
1. How many types of impact assessments are there?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The four key types are global assessments, policy impact assessment, strategic
environmental assessment and environmental impact assessment.
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2. Environmental impacts can of _________ types
a) 3
b) 5
c) 4
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: They may be primary or direct and secondary or indirect. The primary impacts are the first
round impacts like pollution, displacement of people, etc. The ones that extend from these are
secondary impacts.
3. A short-term environmental impact assessment (EIA) has a time period of:
a) 2-5 years
b) 10-15 years
c) 5-10 years
d) 5-7 years
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: EIA can be classified as short term and long term. 5-10 years time period denotes short
term and above 50 years is long term.
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4. EIAs commenced in the year:
a) 1960s
b) 1890s
c) 1880s
d) 1950s
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In 1960s, when environmental depletion was on a hike, to create awareness and check
the environmental deterioration, EIAs were formulated.
5. How many stages are there in EIA?
a) 5
b) 3
c) 2
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are four stages or levels in EIA. They are local level, regional level, national level
and global level.
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6. Domestic demand for water can be assessed using:
a) X.Y.Z
b) H.I.J
c) A.B.C
d) P.Q.R
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Water quality is an important part to be checked in EIA. It can be a domestic and
commercial use of water. X stands for litres of water per capita, Y for number of people per household
and Z for number of dwelling units.
7. _________ divided methodologies for EIA into ___________ categories.
a) Warner, 4
b) Bisset, 4
c) Warner, 5
d) Bisset, 5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Any methodology can be used to perform EIA. Warner in 1973, divided available
methodologies into 5 categories. They are ad hoc, overlay techniques, checklists, matrices and
networks.
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8. Water Act is a main law in action used for EIA formulated in __________
a) 1981
b) 1974
c) 1975
d) 1986
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) of India has some
main laws in action for EIA. They are Water Act, Air Act, Wildlife Act, Environmental Act and Biological
Diversity Act.
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7/27/2021 Basic Civil Engineering Assessment Questions - Sanfoundry

– Coarse Aggregates
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Assessment Questions and Answers focuses on “Coarse Aggregates”.
1. Coarse aggregates are classified into how many groups?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 6
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The two main groups of coarse aggregates are single-sized aggregates and graded
aggregates.
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2. How much percent of material which passes through a specific sieve is contained in that single-size
aggregate?
file:///E:/New folder (3)/Basic Civil Engineering Assessment Questions - Sanfoundry - Copy.html 1/7
a) 50-60%
b) 85-100%
c) 70-90%
d) 80-85%
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Single-size aggregate contains mostly one sieve sized particle. 85-100% of the particular
size should be there, with 0-25% of such aggregate retaining on next lower sieve.
3. Graded aggregate contains particles of size:
a) Single grade
b) 4.75mm
c) Multi grade
d) <80mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It consists of aggregates of more than one single grade. It ideally contains particles of size
4.75mm and above in a proportionate amount.
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4. Flaky particles have:
a) Small thickness
b) Elongated sides
c) Sharp edges
d) Rounded edges
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flaky particles have a small thickness compared to the dimensions of other parameters
that is width and length.
5. Which size coarse aggregate is ideal for use in a concrete mix?
a) Smaller
b) 4.75-10mm
c) Larger
d) 10-20mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Using the largest size will result in a reduction of cement, water and shrinkage in the
concrete mix.
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6. Elongation index of coarse aggregates is calculated using:
a) E=w1/w2
b) E=w2/w1
c) E=w2-w1
d) E=w2+w1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Elongation index is obtained as a percentage. E=w1/w2 where w1 is the weight of particles
retained in length gauge and w2 is the weight of test sample.
7. In crushing test on coarse aggregates, what size particle is taken as a sample?
a) Passing 12.5mm IS sieve
b) Retained on 10mm IS sieve
c) Passing 10mm and retained on 4.75mm IS sieve
d) Passing 12.5mm and retained on 10mm IS sieve
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As per IS code 383, the sample should contain those aggregates which pass through
12.5mm sieve and are retained on 10mm IS sieve.
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8. What is the density of undisturbed gravel?

a) 2630-2760 kg/cum
b) 1920-2160 kg/cum
c) 1600 kg/cum
d) 1200 kg/cum
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 2630-2760 kg/cum is a density of granite. 1600 kg/cum is of loose gravel and 1200
kg/cum is that of brick ballast.
9. What is the symbol used for well graded gravel as per ISC system of classification?
a) WG
b) G
c) GW
d) W
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Classification of coarse grained soils (ISC system) gives the symbol for well graded gravel
as GW. For poorly graded, it is GP.
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10. Gravel is a type of:
a) Rounded aggregate
b) Angular aggregate
c) Flaky aggregate
d) Irregular aggregate
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All gravel particles have an irregular shape and sharp edge. Sand has a rounded shape.
Laminated rocks have flaky shape and crushed rocks have an angular shape.
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7/27/2021 Basic Civil Engineering Interview Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Geotechnical Investigation and Geosynthetics
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Interview Questions and Answers focuses on “Geotechnical
Investigation and Geosynthetics”.
1. __________ gives general guidance for geotechnical investigation.
a) IS
b) GIS
c) BIS
d) IGS
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: IGS is Indian Geotechnical Society. This body gives the general guidelines to be followed
while conducting a geotechnical investigation. The head office is in Delhi.
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2. Geosynthetics includes __________ main product categories.
a) 6
b) 8
c) 9
d) 10
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Geosynthetics are synthetic products (polymeric). The eight categories are geotextiles,
geogrids, geonets, geomembranes, geosynthetic clay liners, geofoam, geocells and geocomposites.
3. ___________ is useful in determining gradient of water underground.
a) Pressure meter
b) Penetrometer
c) Piezometer
d) Hydrometer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Piezometer is used for long term investigation of ground water tables in cut and fill areas.
They are also used to determine if there is upward or downward gradient of water.
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4. How many types of primary functions of geosynthetics are there?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 6
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The main functions are separation, reinforcement, filtration, drainage and containment.
5. CPT is a more popular method compared to SPT as a method of geotechnical soil investigation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: CPT is cone penetration test and SPT is standard penetration test. CPT is more popular
than SPT because of higher accuracy, speed, more continuous soil profile and less cost.
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6. How many steps are involved in a soil investigation?
a) 3
b) 6
c) 5
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The first step is reconnaissance (visual inspection, maps, photos, etc.). The next step is
exploration (geophysical, electrical, pits, etc.). The last step is field tests (vane shear, pumping,
penetration, etc.).
7. The structure of a geocell is:
a) 2D honeycombed
b) 2D floccular
c) 3D floccular
d) 3D honeycombed
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Geocell is also called a cellular confinement system. It has a 3D honeycombed structure,
which is filled with compacted soil to make it a confinement system.
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8. NDT is not employed in geotechnical investigations.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: NDT is non-destructive technique and is a modern tool for geotechnical investigation. A
ground penetrating radar which utilizes radar pulses for subsurface imaging is used.
9. ___________ is the largest group of geosynthetics.
a) Geonets
b) Geomembranes
c) Geotextiles
d) Geogrids
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Geomembranes are thin sheets of polymeric material and are impermeable. They are
widely used for linings and coverings of liquid or solid storage facilities.
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10. Which of the below is not a test on geosynthetics?
a) Grab test
b) Dry sieve test
c) Pumping in test
d) Tear test
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pumping in the test is a field test to determine permeability of soil. All the others are used
to test geosynthetics.
11. Indirect method of geotechnical investigation is also termed as _____________
a) Geo-chemical methods
b) Geo-physical methods
c) Borehole method
d) Soil mechanics
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Geo-physical methods use the principle that physical properties of soil vary for different
types of soils. It is an indirect method of geotechnical investigation.
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7/27/2021 Basic Civil Engineering Interview Questions and Answers for Experienced - Sanfoundry

– Composition of Good Brick Earth
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Interview Questions and Answers for Experienced people focuses on
“Composition of Good Brick Earth”.
1. How many constituents are there in the brick earth?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For a good brick earth, 5 major constituents are needed. They are alumina, silica, lime,
oxides of iron and magnesia.
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2. Which one of the below is the most important ingredient in the brick earth?
a) Alumina
b) Lime
c) Silica
d) Magnesia
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The amount of silica present in brick earth is 50-60% and it prevents cracking and
warping of raw bricks.
3. In what form should lime be present in the brick earth?
a) Paste
b) Lump
c) Clinker
d) Powder
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Lime should be present in the brick earth in the form of very finely powdered state so as
to prevent the flaking of bricks.
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4. Excess of oxides of iron makes the brick:
a) Red in colour
b) Black in colour
c) Dark blue in colour
d) Yellow in colour
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Iron oxide imparts the red colour to the brick. Presence of magnesia makes brick
yellowish and manganese makes it black. Excess of oxides of iron makes the brick dark blue on
burning.
5. What happens to raw bricks if an excess of alumina is present?
a) Becomes hard
b) Becomes brittle
c) Decay
d) Shrinkage
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Raw bricks develop shrinkage, cracks, warping in presence of excess alumina. Other
three changes happen on burnt bricks or final brick product due to excess of other constituents.
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6. What is the harmful effect of presents of alkali in brick earth on bricks?
a) Discolourises bricks
b) Efflorescence
c) Porous bricks
d) Flaking
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Alkali exists in the form of soda and potash. Alkalis absorb moisture and with a passage
of time, it gets evaporated, leaving white powdery deposits called efflorescence.
7. Why do bricks become brittle when excess silica is present?
a) Pores are created
b) Flaking occurs
c) Thermal stability is lost
d) Cohesion is lost
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Silica is present is either free or combined form. It is usually present as sand, which is
cohesionless in nature. So, excess of silica would lead to loss of cohesion between particles and this
make the brick brittle.
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8. Which of the following leads to the formation of small pores in brick?
a) Iron pyrites
b) Pebbles
c) Organic matter
d) Alkalis
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Organic matter aids in the burning process. If it does not get burnt completely, gases are
released which will lead to the formation of small pores, making brick porous.
9. The presence of which of the below renders clay totally unsuitable for brick manufacture?
a) Kallar
b) Kankar
c) Hay
d) Lime
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Kallar or Reh consists of sodium sulphate. Bricks do not burn properly in its presence.
After burning, it causes the surface of brick to peel off and crumble later on.
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10. Carbonaceous material in small amounts is good for the brick earth.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is a harmful ingredient that causes different colours in interior and exterior of brick. Their
presence defaces the plastering by discolouration.
11. How many types of the brick earth are there?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 2
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The three types are loamy, mild or sandy clay; marls, chalky or calcareous clay and
plastic, strong or pure clay.
12. Loamy, mild or sandy clay has __________ percentage of alkali?
a) 5%
b) 1%
c) 4%
d) 0%
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It does not contain any alkali contents. It contains 5% of organics matter, 1% of lime,
magnesia and oxides of iron, 66% of silica and 27% of alumina.
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7/27/2021 Basic Civil Engineering Interview Questions and Answers for Freshers - Sanfoundry

– Tests on Stones
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Interview Questions and Answers for freshers focuses on “Tests on
Stones”.
1. Which test is used to find the rate of wear of stones?
a) Crushing test
b) Abrasion test
c) Attrition test
d) Acid test
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Crushing test is used to find crushing strength of stones. Abrasion test to find suitability of
stone for road work. Acid test is used to find the quality of the stone.
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2. In what solution is the stone sample placed in an Acid test?
a) HCl of strength .5%
b) H2SO4 of strength .5%
c) H2SO4 of strength 1%
d) HCl of strength 1%
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As per the test procedure, the sample weighing about .5 – 1 N is placed in a solution of
HCl for 7 days.
3. Which IS code gives details regarding the tests for weathering on building stones?
a) IS 1121 part 2
b) IS 1125
c) IS 1121 part 4
d) IS 1126
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: IS 1121 part 2 gives details about transverse strength, IS 1121 part 4 about shear
strength and IS 1126 about the durability of building stones.
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4. For crushing test what is the size of a specimen to be used?
a) 50 × 50 × 50mm
b) 100 × 100 × 100mm
c) 45 × 45 × 45mm
d) 40 × 40 × 40mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As per the IS codes, 40 × 40 × 40 mm size cube of stone is to be used to perform the
crushing test. The specimen is then placed in compression testing machine (CTM) and loaded at 14
N/mm2.
5. In abrasion test, what material is placed in addition to the specimen in the testing apparatus?
a) Metal piece
b) Stone piece smaller than specimen
c) Cast iron ball
d) Stainless steel ball
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Abrasion test is used to check compatibility of stone with other material by allowing them
to rub against each other, noting the wear resistance. Cast iron balls of 48 mm diameter are placed in
the apparatus along with the specimen.
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6. Which apparatus is used to test the hardness of stones?
a) Los Angeles
b) Deval’s
c) CTM
d) Dorry’s
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Los Angeles is used for abrasion test, Deval’s for attrition and CTM for compression or
crushing test.
7. Which stone has a hardness of 7 in the Mohr’s hardness scale?
a) Quartz
b) Calcite
c) Gypsum
d) Topaz
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Mohr’s hardness scale ranks stones according to their hardness numbers. Calcite has a
hardness of 3, gypsum 2 and topaz 8.
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8. Why CaSO4 is not used in the crystallisation test?
a) Costly compound
b) Low solubility in water
c) Increases time taken for test
d) Releases toxic fumes
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Crystallisation of CaSO4 in pores causes decay of stones and the low solubility in water
prevent the use of this compound in the test.
9. Which of the below given formulas is used to calculate hardness coefficient?
a) (Final hardness / initial hardness) × 100%
b) 20 – (loss in weight / 2)
c) 20 – (loss in weight / 3)
d) ((20 – loss in weight) / 3) × 100%
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The coefficient of hardness is expressed as a number and not a percentage.
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10. What are the specifications for tamping rod used in impact test?
a) 16 mm steel rod with rounded end
b) 16 mm steel rod with square face
c) 16 mm copper rod with rounded end
d) 16 mm copper rod with square face
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: According to the IS code 2386, a 16 mm steel rod with rounded edge is used for tamping
the sample filled inside the cylinder in three layers, 25 times each.
11. Why is attrition test performed?
a) To find resistance to scratch
b) To find resistance to weathering
c) To find resistance to wear
d) To find resistance to dressing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Attrition test is performed to test the rate of wear of stones that are used in road
construction. It checks the rubbing against the same material of stone and is expressed in percentage.
12. What parameter is being checked for in freezing and thawing test?
a) Weathering
b) Durability
c) Water absorption
d) Texture
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Durability refers to the resistance of stones to atmospheric conditions such as rain, heat,
snow; temperature gradients; chemical impurities; cracks, creeks.
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7/27/2021 Basic Civil Engineering MCQs - Sanfoundry

– Characteristics and Ingredients of Paint
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering MCQs focuses on “Characteristics and Ingredients of Paint”.
1. What is a vehicle in paint used for?
a) To obscure surface
b) To adhere to surface
c) To provide shine to surface
d) To reduce crack on surface
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Paint consists of two ingredients-a base and a vehicle. Base helps to obscure the surface.
A vehicle allows even spreading, binding and adhering to surface.
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2. Paint should provide resistance to:
a) Corrosion
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b) Sound
c) Heat
d) Warping
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Paint should resist corrosion and protect the surface over which it is applied.
3. The base in a paint does not serve the function of:
a) Durability
b) Hard and elastic
c) Protection against UV rays
d) Catalyst
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are certain components called driers in the paint. They act as catalysts.
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4. Which of the below is the most commonly used base?
a) Red lead
b) Zinc white
c) White lead
d) Oxide of iron
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: White lead possess good bulk, it is dense, permanent and water proof. It is a carbonate of
lead and forms the base in lead paints.
5. Lithophone is a base widely used for exterior works.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Lithophone changes colour when exposed to day light. Hence, it is used for interior works
of inferior quality.
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6. How does drier act as a catalyst?
a) Releasing oxygen
b) Releasing water
c) Absorbing oxygen
d) Absorbing water
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Drier accelerates the rate of drying of paint film. It absorbs oxygen from the atmosphere
and transfers it to a vehicle, which in turn hardens.

7. Which of the below vehicles are used for ordinary work?
a) Nut oil
b) Poppy oil
c) Stand oil
d) Linseed oil
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Nut oil is colourless and it dries rapidly. It is cheap as it is prepared from ordinary walnuts.
Hence, these are used for ordinary works.
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8. When should drier be added to the paint?
a) 12 hours before paint is used
b) Immediately after opening it
c) 1 hour before paint is used
d) When paint is ready to use
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Driers when added to paint, will start doing their action as a catalyst immediately. This will
lead to hardening of paint, decreasing workability.
9. ________ Oil is thicker and darker than raw oil, which is used as vehicle?
a) Double boiled linseed oil
b) Boiled linseed oil

c) Pale boiled linseed oil
d) Linseed oil
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Raw linseed oil is thin and pale. It requires more time to dry. Boiled linseed oil is thicker
and darker than raw oil and dries quickly.
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10. Which of the below is a characteristic of an ideal paint?
a) Health of the worker is unaffected
b) Costly
c) Pleasant smell
d) Dries rapidly
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The person applying the paint should be safeguarded from any toxic or harmful
ingredients. The paint should economic, the smell is typically bit pungent. Paint should dry at a
reasonable time, not slowly or rapidly.
11. _________ base is generally used for priming coat to new wood work?
a) Antimony white
b) Titanium dioxide
c) Aluminium powder

d) Red lead
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Aluminium powder forms bulk of aluminium paints. It prevents warping and cracking of
wood when applied to a new wood work.
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– Source and Classification of Lime
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Source and
Classification of Lime”.
1. By which of the following ways is lime obtained?

a) Naturally
b) Quarrying
c) Burning limestone
d) Crushing limestone
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is not available naturally. It is obtained by burning limestone, shells of sea animals and
boulders of limestone from old river beds.
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2. Which of the following pairs is matched properly?
a) Class A – Concrete work
b) Class B – Mortar
c) Class C – Masonry work
d) Class D – White washing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Based on percentage of CaCO3 in limestone, lime is classified into 3 – Class A, B &
C.Class A is used for masonry work, Class C is used for white washing and there is no class D.
3. Lime has been conventionally classified into how many types?
a) 4
b) 2
c) 5
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The three conventional classifications of lime are, Fat Lime, Hydraulic Lime and Poor
Lime.
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4. Which of the following is a property of Fat Lime?
a) Shakes very slowly
b) Contains clay
c) High degree of plasticity
d) Poor binding property
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fat Lime is pure lime. The rest of the 3 options describe properties of poor lime.
5. Lime obtained from calcination of Pure Limestone is called:
a) Quick Lime
b) Pure Lime
c) Lean Lime
d) Rich Lime
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Quick lime is pure limestone product. It consists of oxides of calcium and is not crystalline.
Pure Lime and Rich Lime are different names of Fat Lime. Lean Lime is also another name of Poor
Lime.
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6. What is the speciality of Hydraulic Lime?
a) Contains impurities
b) Does not set under water
c) Contains clay
d) Perfectly white in colour
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The clay content gives it the hydraulic property – capacity to set and harden even under
water.
7. Which of the following slakes after few minutes?
a) Moderately Hydraulic Lime
b) Eminently Hydraulic Lime
c) Perfectly Hydraulic Lime
d) Feebly Hydraulic Lime
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hydraulic Lime slakes at a slower rate than Pure Lime. It is subdivided into three – Feebly
Hydraulic, Moderately Hydraulic (1-2 hrs) and Eminently Hydraulic (slakes with difficulty).
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8. Which of the following types of Lime does not exist?
a) Dolomitic Lime
b) Roman Lime
c) Semi-Hydraulic Lime
d) Selentic Lime
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Semi-Hydraulic Lime contains lesser clay content than Hydraulic Lime. Dolomitic Lime
comprises of high magnesium carbonate (35-46%) content. Selentic Lime is cement of grey chalk, with
added gypsum. Roman Lime does not exist, instead there is Roman Concrete which is obtained by
mixing lime and volcanic ash.
9. Which of the following ions causes the cement to set quickly?
a) Sulphate
b) Carbonate
c) Chloride
d) Nitrate
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sulphate arrests slaking and hence cement can set quickly and become stronger.
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10. Lime is widely used for:
a) Waste water treatment
b) Manufacturing tiles
c) Jewellery making
d) As an aggregate
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrated Lime is a highly efficient pH increasing agent. It is used as a primary coagulant
for waste water treatment and contributes to the clarity of the water.
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7/27/2021 Basic Civil Engineering Online Test - Sanfoundry

– Tests on Concrete
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering online test focuses on “Tests on Concrete”.
1. Modulus of elasticity, E is calculated using:
a) E=5000
b) E=500
c) E=50
file:///E:/New folder (3)/Basic Civil Engineering Online Test - Sanfoundry - Copy.html 1/9
d) E=5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The modulus of elasticity is found out to determine plastic or elastic nature of concrete. In
the formula, fck is the characteristic strength.
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2. The figure below represents a:
a) Low slump
b) Normal slump
c) Shear slump
d) Collapse slump
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In slump test, fresh concrete is filled in a slump cone and it is taken off. The shape of the
so formed concrete is represented in the figure above. The concrete has completely collapsed, hence
the name.
3. Tensile strength is found out using:
a) CTM
b) Gradual tensile test
c) Split tensile test
d) Radial tensile test
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In addition to using characteristic strength fck to determine tensile strength, split tensile
test can also be used. It is performed using a UTM.
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4. Flexure strength is determined as:
a) Modulus of rigidity
b) Modulus of rupture
c) Modulus of plasticity
d) Modulus of elasticity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Flexure strength of concrete is defined as the tensile strength of extreme fibre of plain
concrete beam. It is determined in terms of modulus of rupture.
5. Compaction factor for a heavily reinforced section with vibration is:
a) <0.75
b) 0.75-0.85
c) 0.85-0.92
d) >0.92
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Compaction factor test is conducted to determine the compaction factor. It has different
values required for different purposes. To concrete a heavily reinforced section with vibration it is 0.85-
0.92.
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6. The result of Vee-Bee test is expressed in terms of:
a) s
b) m
c) N/mm2
d) kg
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The time is tested is Vee-Bee test. Time required to complete remoulding of concrete
when subjected to the vibration is measured. It is then expressed in seconds.
7. The size of a commonly used specimen for compression test is:
a) 50×30 mm
b) 150x150x150 mm
c) 150x50x50 mm
d) 150×150 mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The commonly used specimen to test compressive strength is a cube. It has 3
dimensions-length, width and height. These cubes are cast in moulds of size 150x150x150mm.
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8. Concrete is filled in how many layers in slump cone in slump test.
a) 3
b) 2
c) 6
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The fresh concrete is filled in slump cone in 4 layers. Each layer is tamped 25 times with a
16mm pointed rod. The specifications are given in IS 1199.
9. Modulus of rupture is calculated using the formula:
a) f=PL/bd2
b) f=PL3/3EI
c) f=I/6bd2
d) f=Pb/Ld2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The modulus of rupture is found out dividing maximum moment M/section factor Z. M is
given by PL/6 and Z=1/6bd2.
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10. A slump of 50-100mm can be used for:
a) Mass concreting
b) Strip footing
c) Trench fill
d) Beams
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Slump of higher value gives greater workability, but yields less strength. A slump of 25-
75mm can be used for mass concreting and strip footing. A slump of 100-150cm is used for trench fill.
11. How many hoppers are there in compaction factor test?
a) 1
b) 4
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are 2 hoppers and 1 cylinder in the apparatus. Concrete is poured in hopper A (first
one). The hinged bottom is opened, concrete falls to 2nd hopper B. Again, hinged bottom is opened,
concrete is allowed to fall into cylinder C.
12. If cylinder specimen is used to test compressive strength, equivalent cubes strength can be found
using:
a) 3/4th strength of cylinder
b) 5/4th strength of cylinder
c) 5/6th strength of cylinder
d) 1/4th strength of cylinder
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: This formula is recommended by IS codes. IS 516 gives the details.
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7/27/2021 Basic Civil Engineering Problems - Sanfoundry

– Quarrying and Dressing of Stones
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Problems focuses on “Quarrying and Dressing of Stones”.
1. Which of the following is a hand tool used for quarrying?
a) Plier
b) Hammer
c) Quarrying wire
d) XSM
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Plier is not used in quarrying. Quarrying wire is used for cutting stones at a site. XSM is a
manufacturer of quarrying machines. Hammer is used to split rocks.
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2. What is the relation between LLR (Line of Least Resistance) and amount of explosives
to be used?
file:///E:/New folder (3)/Basic Civil Engineering Problems - Sanfoundry - Copy.html 1/8

a) Higher the LLR, higher the amount of explosive
b) Higher the LLR, lesser the amount of explosive
c) 10% more explosive for every 1m of LLR
d) 10% less explosive for every 1m of LLR
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: LLR is the shortest distance travelled by the expelled gasses on blasting through a path
which offers least resistance. Therefore, higher amount of explosives will result in higher LLR.
3. Which of the following is not an explosive used for blasting?
a) Gelignite
b) Gunpowder
c) Flash powder
d) Nitrocellulose
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Flash powder is used primarily in fireworks and theatrical pyrotechnics. The other three
are widely used in the quarrying field.
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4. Which type of dressing does the figure below represent?
a) Pitch faced dressing
b) Furrowed finish
c) Combed finish
d) Fine tooling
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Fine tooling involves removing projections till a fairly smooth surface is obtained. In pitch
faced dressing, the edges are levelled and the flaws on the face of the stone is allowed to remain. In
furrowed finish, a fixed margin is sunk on all sides with a central portion projecting. In the combed
finish, a comb with steel teeth is rubbed on the surface.

5. What is used to accelerate the process of rubbing in rubbed finish dressing?
a) Water
b) Water and sand
c) Clay
d) Pebbles
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In rubbed finish dressing, a piece of stone is rubbed against a surface or machine. Water
and sand together act as accelerators and help in the rubbing action.
6. Dressing of stones is carried out to:
a) To provide employment to people
b) To make transport of stones to site easy and economic
c) To reduce water content of stone
d) To avoid further works on the stone
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Dressing reduces the excess weight of the stone and helps in easy transport from the
quarry to the site of use, also proving the process to be economic.
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7. How many types of dressings are there with respect to the place of work?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) None
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are two types of dressings based on the place of work. They are quarry dressing
and site dressing. Quarry dressing is carried out right after quarrying whereas site dressing is done
after transporting the quarried rock to the site.
8. Circular finished stones are generally used for:

a) Pillar
b) Tombstone
c) Landscaping
d) Column
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Circular finish dressing yields in a stone with a surface that is round and circular. This is
exactly the type of dressed stone which meets the requirements of stone required for column
construction.
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9. Quarry faced finished stones are also called:
a) Reticulated finish
b) Hammer faced finished
c) Rock faced stones
d) Plain finish
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Quarry faced finished stone is directly available from the quarry and has a smooth
surface. It doesn’t require any further dressing. They are also called self-faced stones.
10. Dynamite is a more effective explosive than gelignite.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Gelignite is more convenient to use and can be used underwater also. Hence, it’s
effective than dynamite.
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11. What is sand blasting?
a) Process of making carvings on stone surface
b) Quarrying technique
c) Dressing type
d) Process of using sand to blast stone surface
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It’s used to carve or clean a surface with a high velocity jet of abrasive material (sand,
walnut, steel bits, etc..).
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7/27/2021 Basic Civil Engineering Question Bank - Sanfoundry

– Cost Effective Construction Techniques
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Question Bank focuses on “Cost Effective Construction Techniques”.
1. Low cost housing in Kerala was first developed by:
a) Lawrence Becker
b) Larry Baker
c) Laurence Becker
d) Laurie Baker
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Laurie Baker was a British born Indian architect. He developed ideas for cost effective,
energy efficient buildings.
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2. What is the total area allotted for a low-cost house?
a) 40m2
file:///E:/New folder (3)/Basic Civil Engineering Question Bank - Sanfoundry - Copy.html 1/8
b) 30m2
c) 20m2
d) 10m2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The Planning Commission has recommended the Government of India to adopt the
following minimum standard for a low-cost house: – living room (11.1m2), veranda and kitchen 6.5m2),
bathroom (1.3m2), lavatory (1.1m2) and total of 20m2.
3. In Rat-trap bond masonry, course height is:
a) 110mm
b) 75mm
c) 230mm
d) 190mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Rat-trap bond masonry uses bricks of size 230x110x75mm. In this masonry, bricksare laid
on edges, making the course height to be 110mm. Laying of bricks creates a cavity wall automatically.
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4. For ordinary soil, which foundation can reduce cost?
a) Isolated
b) Arch
c) Ream pile
d) Combined
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Using arch foundation can reduce cost up to 40%. Foundation is an important part of
building and costs higher. A reduction is achieved, without compromising on strength.
5. Which masonry material is used for cost reduction?
a) Stone blocks
b) Concrete blocks
c) Laterite blocks
d) Cement blocks
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Concrete blocks consume only 1/3rd of energy used in the production of red bricks. It
reduces the wall thickness from 20 to 15cm, and mortar also. Overall reduction in the cost of 10 to 25%
can be achieved.
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6. Which of the below is not a filler material in filler slabs?
a) Rubber pieces
b) Clay pots
c) Burnt clay bricks
d) Coconut shell
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In R.C.C slabs, concrete in the lower portion does not help in anyway because it is weak
in tension (bottom zone). Therefore, in filler slabs, it is replaced by certain filler materials, like coconut
shells, burnt clary bricks, pots etc.
7. Rat-trap bond masonry requires _________ less mortar.
a) 10%
b) 50%
c) 40%
d) 20%
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Rat-trap bond masonry is a technique where bricks are laid on their edges. Hence
approximately 25% less bricks and 40% less mortar is used compared to conventional one.
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8. For natural and cost-effective ventilation, ________ can be used.
a) Hollow bricks
b) Wall openings
c) Skylight
d) Brick jali
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Bricks are arranged in such a way that a jali (hole) is formed. These provide cross
ventilation, natural lighting and reduction in cost greatly. They can be used in parapets, living rooms,
etc.
9. By using filler slab technique:
a) 20% saving of concrete is there
b) Aesthetic ceiling is obtained
c) Less thermal comfort is there
d) Load on foundation increases
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The filler material can be arranged in a systematic way, pattern to give an aesthetically
pleasing ceiling. The filler materials can be exposed, instead of plastering them. 5-10% saving of
concrete, more thermal comfort and the load on columns and foundation are reduced.
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10. Economy can be achieved in doors, windows, ventilator by:
a) No frame
b) Less width
c) Steel frames
d) Less height
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Doors, windows and ventilators are openings in the wall that are held on a frame. Not
using a frame is economic, but not very aesthetic. Using concrete/steel frames instead of wood can
help in reducing cost.
11. For sloping roofs, ferro cement roofing units can be used.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Instead of using RCC, ferro cement roofing units can be used for sloping roofs. They are
lighter and stronger than RCC. The material requirement is also less.
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7/27/2021 Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Cost Effective Materials
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers focuses on “Cost Effective Materials”.
1. Soil-cement blocks help in reducing the amount of:
a) Sand
b) Cement
c) Water
d) Mortar
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: These are prepared by mixing pulverised soil and Portland cement in a specific amount.
Water is added and it is compacted to high density. These reduce cement consumption.
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2. Stone blocks help in saving materials by reducing wall thickness from:
a) 30-20mm
file:///E:/New folder (3)/Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry - Copy.html 1/8
b) 20-10cm
c) 20-10mm
d) 30-20cm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The wall thickness of 30cm is reduced to 20cm by using stone blocks. It is manufactured
in size of 30x20x15cm and weighs 18kg.
3. FRP stands for:
a) Fibre Reinforced Polymer
b) Fully Reinforced Polymer
c) Fire Resistant Polymer
d) Fibre Reconditioned Polymer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is a laminate structure containing fibres inter-woven and embedded within a layer of
light polymer matrix material. Fibres are typically composed of carbon or glass.
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4. In ___________ cement mortar is reinforced with wire meshes.
a) Fibre Reinforced Cement
b) Wire Reinforced Cement
c) Ferro Cement
d) Mesh Mortar
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is a highly versatile form of R.C.C. Cement mortar is reinforced with layers of
continuous and relatively small wire meshes. It is a cheap material.
5. Fibre Reinforced Concrete (FRC) is used in:
a) Pavements
b) Foundation
c) Slab
d) Beam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It has superior fatigue, crack and impacts resistance. Due to its high durability, it is used in
roads, pavements, air fields, etc.
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6. Concrete hollow bricks have the following characteristic:
a) Less thermal insulation
b) Costly
c) Fast construction
d) Decrease floor area
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Standard size of hollow brick is 39x19x30cm compared to 19x9x9cm of normal red brick.
It is bigger in size and helps in speedy construction.
7. ___________ are widely used in rural areas for construction of walls?
a) Red bricks
b) Stabilised mud blocks
c) Lime based bricks
d) Hollow bricks
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Stabilised mud blocks involves mixing cementitious admixtures like cement and lime. It
gets more compressive strength and erosion resistance than regular mud bricks.
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8. Lime replaces the use of cement by 50% in lime based stone masonry.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Stone masonry is done with lime based binders. These provide compressive strength
sufficient for use in load bearing walls of 3-5 storey heights. They can considerably reduce the amount
of cement.
9. Recycling steel reduces:
a) Energy use by 75%
b) Energy use by 50%
c) Energy use by 35%
d) Energy use by 20%
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Six scrapped cars can yield a good strong steel frame. It requires less energy (75%) to
produce recycled steel than normal steel. It also saves space in landfills.
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10. Fluorogypsum, used in super sulphated cement or as binding agents, is a waste product of
manufacture of:
a) Fluorine
b) Thermal power
c) Hydrofluoric acid
d) Phosphoric acid
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Phosphogypsum is a waste product of Phosphoric acid manufacture and flyash is of

thermal power plants. Fluorogypsum is purified by neutralising its acidity and then can be used for
bricks, tiles, plastering, etc.
11. Which of the below roofing materials is most cost effective?
a) Asphalt
b) Plastic
c) Rubber
d) Metal
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Metal roof is the most durable one that can even last 100 years. It provides heat and cold
resistance and it is easily installed. Asphalt, plastic and rubber are recycled materials but don’t last
long. In terms of life, metal roofs are most cost effective.
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7/27/2021 Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers for Experienced - Sanfoundry

– Types of Cement and Uses
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers for Experienced people focuses on “Types of
Cement and Uses”.
1. What is the abbreviation of PPC?
a) Perfect Portland Cement
b) Portland Produced Cement
c) Portland Pozzolana Cement
d) Productive Portland Cement
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pozzolana is a material containing silica. PPC is formed by intergrinding ordinary Portland
cement, clinker, gypsum and pozzolanic material.
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2. Which of the following is not an advantage of rapid hardening cement?
a) Faster construction
b) Short curing period
c) Light in weight
d) Higher final setting time
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The initial and final setting time of rapid hardening cement is the same as that of ordinary
cement. It attains higher strength in less time. It develops the same strength of ordinary cement in four
days rather than 28 days.
3. High alumina cement can be used for massive concrete work.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: High alumina cement is obtained by adding 55% bauxite and 35-45% lime. It hardens
rapidly and it is costlier. It cannot be used for massive concrete work.
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4. How many types of cement are there based on the ability to set in presence of water?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The 2 types are hydraulic and non-hydraulic cement. Hydraulic cement sets and becomes
adhesive due to reaction with water. Non-hydraulic cement does not set under-water or in wet
conditions.
5. What property does air-entraining cement provide?
a) Workability
b) Soundness
c) Fineness
d) Strength
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Air-entraining agents are added to cement during manufacturing. These create voids and
in turn increases workability when used in concrete.
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6. Which of the following types of cement is used in marine structures?
a) Expanding cement
b) High alumina cement
c) Blast furnace slag cement
d) White cement
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Blast furnace slag cement is obtained by combining slag and cement clinkers. These
have less heat of hydration and are not affected by sea water. Hence, can be used for marine
structures.
7. Which pair of the compound and coloured cement mentioned below is wrong?
a) Iron oxide-yellow
b) Cobalt-black
c) Chromium oxide-green
d) Manganese dioxide-brown
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cobalt imparts blue colour to cement. Iron oxide in different proportion imparts brown, red
and yellow colour. Manganese dioxide produces brown and black coloured cement.
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8. Low heat cement is ideal for use in the construction of dams.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Heat of hydration is heat produced during chemical action between cement and water. In
mass concreting works (dam) heat will be high and effect the stability of a structure. Hence, low heat
cement is ideal for use.
9. Which of the following is not a pozzolanic material?
a) Fly ash
b) Silica fume
c) Cinder
d) Slag
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pozzolans are silicate based materials that form cementitious materials. Fly ash, silica
fumes and slag are composed of oxide of silicon. Cinder is a coal residue.
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10. Water proof cement is prepared by mixing ordinary cement with:
a) Resins
b) Water repellent chemicals
c) Sulpho-aminate
d) Metal stearates
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Resins are added in air entraining cement. Water repellent chemicals in hydrophobic
cement. Sulpho-aminate is added in expanding cement. Metal stearates (Ca, Al, etc) are added in
small percentage during grinding to get water proof cement.
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7/27/2021 Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers for Freshers - Sanfoundry

– Various Cycles of Environment
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers for Freshers focuses on “Various Cycles of
Environment”.
1. The carbon cycle has how many parts?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 1
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The carbon cycle naturally has 2 parts, the terrestrial (movement of carbon through
terrestrial ecosystems) and the aquatic (which is related to carbon movements through marine
ecosystems).
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file:///E:/New folder (2)/Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers for Freshers - Sanfoundry - Copy.html 1/9
2. The carbon cycle is based on what?
a) CO
b) CO2
c) C6H12O6
d) CO3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: This cycle is based on movement of CO2 is the ecosystem. It is found in gaseous form in
air and dissolved form in water.
3. In Aquatic ecosystems, carbon is stored in:
a) Marine Plants
b) Marine animals
c) Rocks and sediments
d) Sea water
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: CO2 is stored in rocks and sediments in aquatic ecosystems. These are released into the
atmosphere by weathering of the rocks.
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4. How many different forms of precipitation are there?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The different forms of precipitation are rain (water drops with diameter at least 0.5mm),
snow (ice crystals/flakes with an average density of 0.1g/cm3), drizzle (water drops less than 0.5mm),
glaze (rain touches ground at 0oC), sleet (frozen raindrops) and hail (pellets or lumps of ice of >8mm
size).
5. A nutrient cycle is also called as __________
a) Atmospheric cycle
b) Atmospheric recycling
c) Ecological recycling
d) Ecological chain
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A nutrient cycle occurs within ecosystems and it is the movement of organic and inorganic
matter between different members of the ecosystem. This is regulated by the food chains that use
these for production and release them into the atmosphere on decomposition.
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6. Living organisms can use Nitrogen (N2) as it occurs in the atmosphere.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The living organisms cannot use N2 to synthesise organic compounds. N2 is converted to
NH3 by nitrogen fixing bacteria and then to nitrate by nitrifying bacteria which can then be used by
organisms.
7. The major source of Nitrogen deposition is:
a) Fertilizers
b) Deforestation
c) Factories
d) Household waste
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Nitrogen rich fertilizers are often overused. As a result, nitrogen gets into the soil,
favouring growth of weeds. It is also washed into waterways, where again it causes a growth of aquatic
weeds.
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8. Which of the following cycle does not have a gaseous state?
a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Carbon
d) Phosphorous
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Phosphorous is present as inorganic phosphate PO43-. It is released from rocks and
sediments. It is absorbed by plants and is incorporated into the nucleic acids.
9. In water cycle, the process can be explained in equation form as Evaporation + __________ =
Precipitation
a) Infiltration
b) Ground water
c) Transpiration
d) Run-off
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Water cycle has three components – evaporation, run-off and precipitation. Transpiration
is included in evaporation. Run-off is that part of the water which is not evaporated.
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10. How many steps are involved in the sulphur cycle?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 10
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The steps are assimilative sulphate reduction, desulphurization, oxidation of hydrogen
sulphide, oxidation of elemental sulphur, dissimilative sulphur reduction and dissimilative sulphate
reduction.
11. In the marine nitrogen cycle, _________ performs nitrogen fixation.
a) Cyanobacteria
b) Nitrobactor
c) Pseudomonas
d) Diazotrophs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Diazotrophs are used to perform nitrogen fixation in normal nitrogen cycle. Nitrobactor is
used for nitrification and Pseudomonas for denitrification.
12. In hydrogen cycle _________ is a sink used.
a) Ocean
b) Fossil fuels
c) Microbial soil uptake
d) Nitrogen fixation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are mainly 2 sinks used in hydrogen cycle – oxidation by hydroxyl radicals and
microbial soil uptake. The rest of the options are sources.
13. Denitrification in nitrogen cycle happens in __________ conditions.
a) Aerobic
b) Humid
c) Anaerobic
d) Cold
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Denitrification refers to the process of reduction of nitrates back to nitrogen gas.
Pseudomonas bacteria makes this happen. It uses nitrates in the soil to carry out respiration and
consequently, produce nitrogen gas.
14. How many reservoirs are there in the oxygen cycle?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 5
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The three main reservoirs are the atmosphere (air), biosphere (the global sum of all
ecosystems) and Earth’s crust.
15. An analogous process for organic nitrogen compounds to desulphurisation in the sulphur cycle is:
a) Transnitrification
b) Denitrification
c) Deamination
d) Assimilation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Deamination is the process of removal of amino group from an organic molecule. The
enzymes which catalyse this reaction are deaminases.
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7/27/2021 Basic Civil Engineering Questions for Campus Interviews - Sanfoundry

– EDM – Total Station
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers for Campus interviews focuses on “EDM –
Total Station”.
1. How many types of EDM instruments are there based on wavelength?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 5
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The 3 types are microwave (Tellurometer), infrared (Distomat) and visible range
(Geodimeter).
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2. Which of the below is used up to a range of 100km?
a) Infrared
b) Microwave
c) Visible range
d) Ultra-violet
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Microwave EDMs can be used up to a range of 100km to locate the object. Infrared is a
commonly used type, with a range up to 3km.
3. A total station is a combination of:
a) EDM and Theodolite
b) Compass and EDM
c) Electronic Theodolite and EDM
d) EDM and electronic Compass
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Total station can be used to measure distance and angles. It employs an electronic
theodolite and an EDM to serve this purpose.
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4. Which unit in total station processes data collected?
a) Data collector
b) EDM
c) Storage system
d) Microprocessor
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Microprocessor is the unit that processes the data collected and uses it to compute
various features like horizontal and vertical distances, slopes, elevation, etc.
5. The bubble in a total station is centralised using:
a) Tripod
b) Levelling screw
c) Tangent screw
d) Foot screw
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Total station is affixed on to the tripod. The legs of the tripod are extended/contracted one
by one till the bubble is centralised.
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6. Which is the latest development in a total station?
a) High resolution
b) High accuracy
c) Robotic
d) Automatic
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Nowadays, robotic total stations are available. They can be operated from a distance via
remote control. It eliminates the need for an assistant staff man.
7. Which of the below is not an application of total station?
a) Crime scene investigation
b) Furniture manufacture
c) Mining
d) Archaeology
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Total station can be used to reconstruct the crime scenes, in mining to locate tunnels and
mines and in archaeology to record excavations. It is not used in the manufacture of furniture.
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8. How many types of EDM are there based on the reflector type?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 4
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The 3 types are active, passive and no reflector. In active type, power is required to
operate reflectors. In passive type, a prism reflector is used.
9. Total station can be used in meteorology.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is used to track hot air balloons for determining upper level winds. It is also used to track
ceiling balloons to determine the height of cloud layers.
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10. What is the range of medium range EDM?
a) <5kms
b) 15-25kms
c) 5-25kms
d) >25kms
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are 3 types of EDM based on the range of measurement. They are the short,
medium and long range. Short range is <5kms, long range is above 25kms.
11. Each point entered in a total station is stored in:
a) Hard discs
b) Electronic books
c) Data storage
d) Chip
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Electronic book works as a compact disc. Its capacity varies from 2000-4000 points data.
Data can be unloaded to a computer and then reused.
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7/27/2021 Basic Civil Engineering Questions for Entrance Exams - Sanfoundry

– Equipments Used in Levelling
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers for Entrance exams focuses on “Equipments
Used in Levelling”.
1. How many chief types of levels are used in levelling?
a) 6
b) 3
c) 4
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are 4 chief types of levels used. They are Dumpy level, Wye Level, Reversible level
and Tilting level.
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2. A levelling staff is used to establish:
a) Horizontal line of sight
b) Vertical line of sight
c) Location of points
d) Distance of points
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A levelling staff is a straight rectangular rod, with graduations, zero starting from foot of
staff. It is placed at the required point and horizontal line of sight from a level is made.
3. Dumpy level was originally designed by:
a) Fennel
b) Heerbrugg
c) Stanley
d) Gravatt
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Gravatt designed the Dumpy level; which consists of a telescope secured in two collars
fixed by adjusting screws.
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4. How many categories of levelling staff are there?
a) 4
b) 2
c) 3
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are 2 categories – self reading staff and target staff. Self-reading staff can be
directly read from the instrument through the telescope. Target staff consists of moving target against
which reading is to be taken.
5. Which of the below is used to make a line of sight horizontally in a level?
a) Foot screws
b) Levelling head
c) Telescope
d) Tangent screws
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There is a tube and bubble is enclosed in it. Using 3 foot screws, the bubble is
centralised. Once it is stable, the level is said to have maintained a horizontal line of sight.
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6. A digital level reads a:
a) Target staff
b) Barcoded staff
c) Digital staff
d) Telescopic staff
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Digital level is an electronic level. It is set up on a tripod and it reads a barcoded staff. All
the details are fed into the memory of level and can be retrieved on a computer.
7. Which of the below cannot be used to measure vertical heights?
a) Self level
b) Aneroid barometer
c) Transit
d) Hypsometer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Vertical measurement can be approximately taken using barometer and hypsometer.
These determine pressure difference at 2 elevations and results can be concluded from these.
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8. How many types of self-reading staff are available?
a) 5
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are 3 types of self-reading staff. They are solid, folding and telescopic staff.
9. Which of the below is not common in all levelling equipment?
a) Telescope
b) Level vials
c) Level rods
d) Tilting screws
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Tilting screw is found only in the tilting level. Using this, one can tilt the telescope to the
required angle, keeping the vertical axis.
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10. Level vials can be of ____________ types.
a) 4
b) 3
c) 5
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Level vials contain a bubble, which is to be centralised to obtain a horizontal line of sight.
It may be of bulls-eye type (circular shaped) or vial type (tube shaped).
11. Abney level is a type of hand level.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hand level is a hand held instrument. Abney level is one of these. It includes a clinometer
to measure vertical angles.
12. For accurate levelling __________ is attached inside telescope in an automatic level.
a) Alinometer
b) Compensator
c) Cross hairs
d) Double lens
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Compensator is also called stabilizer. It consists of 2 fixed prisms and it creates an optical
path between eye piece and objective. It results in exact positioning of the line of sight due to gravity.
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7/27/2021 Basic Civil Engineering Quiz - Sanfoundry

– Market Forms and Uses of Steel
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Quiz focuses on “Market Forms and Uses of Steel”.
1. The carbon content of steel is:
a) Less than 0.15%
b) 2% – 4%
c) 0.08%
d) 0.002% – 2.1%
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Cast iron contains 2-4% of carbon, wrought iron contains less than 0.15% of carbon and
stainless steel contains maximum 0.08% carbon.
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2. When carbon contents less than 0.1%, steel is called:
a) Mild steel
file:///E:/New folder (2)/Basic Civil Engineering Quiz - Sanfoundry.html 1/7

b) Medium carbon steel
c) Dead steel
d) Hard steel
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Mild steel contains carbon up to 0.25%. Medium carbon steel has 0.25%-0.7% carbon.
Hard steel has 0.7-1.5%.
3. Very low carbon steel is used for:
a) Wires
b) Wire nails
c) Screw drivers
d) Rods
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Since it has very low carbon contents, that is 0.05-0.1% it can be used for low strength
works.
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4. What property does steel impart to an R.C.C. structure?
a) Compression and tension
b) Tension
c) Shear

d) Compression
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Concrete and steel are primarily used in R.C.C – reinforced cement concrete. Concrete is
strong in compression and weak in tension. Steel is strong in both properties and hence provides
strength to the structure.
5. Which of the below is not an ISI classified channel section?
a) ISLC
b) ISJC
c) ISHC
d) ISMC
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: ISLC stands for Indian Standards Light Channel. Similarly, there are Junior (J), Medium
(M) and Special (S) Channels. There is no heavy (H) Channel.
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6. What is the full form of TMT bars?
a) Thermo Modified Treated
b) Thermo Mechanically Treated
c) Thermal Mechanic Twisted
d) Thermo Mechanically Twisted
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: TMT bars are produced by sudden quenching of red hot steel bars by spraying water.
Hence it is called Thermo Mechanically Treated bar.
7. Corrugated sheets are also referred to as:
a) CS Sheets
b) CI Sheets
c) GC Sheets
d) GI Sheets
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The corrugated sheets are galvanized to add a protective coating to the steel sheet.
Hence, GI-Galvanized Iron sheet is another name for corrugated sheets.
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8. Flat iron bars are used generally for:
a) R.C.C
b) Grill work
c) Roofing
d) Truss
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: These are available in varying widths ranging from 10mm-400mm and thickness from
3mm-40mm. These are widely used in the construction of steel grill work for windows and gates.

9. Which of the below is not a disadvantage of using ribbed-torsteel bars?
a) High labour charge
b) Not easily identifiable
c) Weaker than plain round steel
d) Arc welding is not possible
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: These bars are produced from ribbed-torsteel which is a deformed high strength steel.
These bars have projections (ribs) on their surface. The bending, fixing and handling of these bars are
simplified and it results in less labour charge.
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10. Steel plates are rarely used for:
a) Connecting steel beams for extension
b) Serving as tension members in the truss
c) Forming built up sections of steel
d) Providing support in R.C.C structures
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Steel bars and rods are used widely in R.C.C structures. Steel plates find application in
structural steel works.

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7/27/2021 Basic Civil Engineering Quiz Online - Sanfoundry

– RCC, PSC and Ferro-Cement
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering online quiz focuses on “RCC, PSC and Ferro-Cement”.
1. R.C.C. can be classified into:
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Reinforced cement concrete can be of two types. It can either be pre-cast or be casted in-
situ.
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2. PSC stands for:
a) Post-Stressed Concrete
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b) Post-Strained Concrete
c) Pre-Stressed Concrete
d) Pre-strained Concrete
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pre-Stressed Concrete refers to the block of concrete which has been subjected to
compression prior to supporting any loads.
3. __________ is used to construct very thin, hard and strong surface:
a) R.C.C.
b) PSC
c) PCC
d) Ferro-Cement
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Ferro-Cement is a system that reinforces mortar with metal (steel, iron bars). It is used for
the construction of relatively thin structure like hull of boat, shell roofs, etc.
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4. The compression in PSC is done by _________ of high-strength tendons.
a) Compression
b) Tensioning
c) Shearing

d) Bending
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tendons can be a single wire, mesh, threaded bars made from high tensile steels. The
pre-stressing is done by tensioning tendons.
5. In an R.C.C structure, the tension zone lies in the:
a) Top
b) Middle
c) Side
d) Bottom
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In the R.C.C. structure, there is a neutral axis in the middle, where no compression and
tension is there. Layers above it are subjected to compression and the ones below it is subjected to
tension.
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6. R.C.C. was developed and first used by:
a) Joseph Monier
b) John Smeaton
c) Francois Coignet
d) Joseph Asphadin
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Joseph Monier founded ferro-cement. John Smeaton is considered the father of Civil
Engineering. Joseph Asphdin founded Portland cement. Francois Coignet was a French industrialist
and the first to use iron-reinforced concrete.
7. Which of the below structure doesn’t require PSC?
a) Bridge
b) Arch
c) Dam
d) Silos
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Arches don’t require PSC. They are not under so much compression and loading. All
other structures carry heavy loads and hence will be efficient if PSC is used.
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8. How many methods of ferro cementing are there?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The three methods are armature system, closed mould system and integrated mould

system.
9. In which beam tension capacity of steel is greater than combined compression capacity of steel and
concrete?
a) Over-reinforced
b) Under-reinforced
c) Singly reinforced
d) Doubly reinforced
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Over-reinforced beams have higher tension capacity. So, these beams fail by crushing of
compression zone concrete, without any warning.
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10. In a PSC, the tensioning system may be classified into:
a) 3
b) 2
c) 5
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tensioning can be mono-strand or multi-strand. In mono-strand, only one strand is

tensioned at a time. In multi-strand, multiple strands are tensioned simultaneously.

11. Which of the below is not a property of ferro cement?
a) Impervious nature
b) Capacity to resist shock
c) No need of formwork
d) Strength per unit mass is low
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The ferro cement has reinforcement provided in mortar. It has a strength per unit mass
higher than R.C.C. It has better tension resisting property.
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7/27/2021 Basic Civil Engineering Test - Sanfoundry

– Defects and Preservation of Timber
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering test focuses on “Defects and Preservation of Timber”.
1. Which of the below is a natural defect occurring in timber?
a) Twist
b) Split
c) Shakes
d) Bow
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The other options are those defects that occur after the felling of the tree.
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2. How many types of shakes are there?
a) 3
b) 2
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c) 6
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The 5 types of shakes are the star, heart, cup, ring and radial shakes.
3. The figure below represents:
a) Twisted fibre
b) Knots
c) Wind cracks
d) Upsets
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Upsets indicates wood fibres that are injured by crushing or compression. It is due to
improper felling of trees.
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4. __________ defects is indicated by red/yellow tinge in wood.
a) Froxiness
b) Druxiness

c) Callus
d) Burls
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Druxiness is indicated by white spots. Callus is soft tissue that covers wound of a tree.
Burls are swelling on the surface of the tree.
5. A crack which separates wood fibres is called:
a) Warp
b) Check
c) Collapse
d) Split
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Check is crack that does not extend from one end to another. A check that extends from
one end to other is called a split.
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6. Diagonal grain is a defect formed due to improper:
a) Sawing
b) Felling
c) Seasoning
d) Handling
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Diagonal grain is caused due to improper sawing of timber. It is indicated by diagonal
marks on straight grained surface of the timber.
7. Which of the following is not a cause of the decay of timber?
a) Lack of ventilation
b) Alternate dry and wet conditions
c) Absence of moisture
d) Moisture accompanied by heat
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Presence of moisture and sap accelerate the decay of timber.
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8. What causes dry rot in timber?
a) Bacteria
b) Beetle
c) White ants
d) Fungus
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A fungi called Meruliam Lechrymans causes the dry rot. It reduces wood to fine powdery
substance. It first sets in the sap wood and advances. It makes timber brittle, cohesion is lost and
finally powdered.

9. A good preservative should:
a) Be poisonous
b) Be unaffected by heat and moisture
c) Have pleasant odour
d) Have white colour
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A good preservative should be poisonous to fungi, insects, etc. It should odourless and
colourless.
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10. Which of the below preservative, with their examples correctly match?
a) Type 1 – DDT
b) Type 2 – Coal
c) Type 3 – Boric acid
d) Type 4 – Benzene
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are only 3 types of preservative as per IS 401. Type 1 is oil type and coal, tar are
examples of it. Type 2 is an organic solvent type with benzene, DDT as examples. Type 3 is water
borne type and boric acid, zinc chloride are examples of it.
11. Ascue is a:
a) Defect by insects

b) Preservative
c) Natural defect
d) Type of marine borer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Ascue – copper chrome arsenic composition, is a type 3 preservative developed by

Forest Research Institute. It is available in powdered form. Ascue solution is prepared by mixing 6
parts powder to 100 parts water, by weight.
12. Which method of application of preservative is suitable for moist timber?
a) Pressure application
b) Brushing and spraying
c) Soaking
d) Hot and cold tank treatment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Timber is placed in air tight cylinder, vacuum is created and maintained till air bubbles are
destroyed. Preservative is then pumped into the air tight cylinder.
13. Which of the following makes the timber look sound but might fail it without pre-warning?
a) Marine borers
b) Wasps
c) White ants
d) Beetles
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Beetles make thousands of deep small holes while the white ants or termites develop
tunnels inside the timber in various directions.
14. The defect indicated by curvature formed in a transverse direction is:
a) Bow
b) Spring
c) Twist
d) Cup
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Bow is curvature in direction of length. Spring is curvature in its own plane. Twist occurs
when timber plank has spirally distorted along its length.
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7/27/2021 Basic Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Cables Subjected to a Distributed Load
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers focuses on “Cables Subjected to a
Distributed Load”.
1. In the support system of the bridges and trolley wheel ____________ form the main loading carrying
element in the structure.
a) Distributed loaded Cable
b) Beams
c) Pillars
d) Cement mortar
View Answer
Answer: a
structures. The main motto is to make the structure stable. This is probably done with the help of
making the distribution of the load which is being given to the structures equally by the help of the
cables.
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2. What is the dot product of the components of the force vector shown in the figure, i.e. the dot product
of the z-axis component and the y-axis component of the force?
a) 0
b) 200cos60°
c) 200sin45°
d) 200cos30°
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The dot product of any two vectors is having the cosine function in it. It is being multiplied
by the product of the magnitudes of the vectors. So if the angle is 90°, then the value of cosine function
would be zero, thus 0. And the value of the sine angle is 1, thus the result.
3. The assumptions for the calculations for cables under distributed load are done for the cables. In that
one of the assumption is that the cable is ___________
a) Extensible
b) Non-flexible
c) Flexible
d) Static
View Answer
Answer: c
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4. The force on the cables under distributed load is not neglected in the calculations of the load
distribution.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
structures. The main motto is to make the structure stable. In calculation, the self-weight of the cable is
neglected and the load is calculated. The forces are acting in the vertically downward direction.
5. The assumptions for the calculations are done for the cables under a distributed load. In that one of the
assumption is that the cable is flexible and the other is that the cable is ___________
a) Extensible
b) Non-flexible
c) Inextensible
d) Static
View Answer
Answer: c
make the small errors to not count over the big dat. But still if the assumptions are made then the
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6. The various points in the cables under distributed load is facing a ____________ tensile force.
a) Constant
b) Variable
c) Insufficient
d) Non
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The various points in the cables are facing constant forces. The forces are tensile forces.
This is because as the cables are subjected to loadings the loads tends to stretch the cables in the
direction parallel to its round area region. Thus the points face tensile forces which are parallel to the
cable length.
7. Due to which property the cables under distributed load, it offers no resistance to bending?
d) Static property
View Answer
Answer: c
not affecting the cables much. Thus no effect by bending, i.e. no resistance to bending.
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8. Flexible cables under distributed load with chains combine ___________ with lightness and often are
used in structures for support.
a) Strength
b) Mass
c) Volume
d) Density
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The chains with the cables are used to support the structures. They are there for the
transfer of the loading from one point to another point. This means that the cables not only provide
strength to the structure but also sufficiently transfers the loads that are being added to it.
9. The tensile force acting on the cables under distributed load is in which direction w.r.t the cable?
a) Perpendicular
b) Parallel
c) Tangential
View Answer
Answer: c
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10. If the unknown variables in the calculations for cables under distributed load are more than the known
quantities, then the number of equations required to solve all the unknown variables are?
a) Infinite
b) Finite
c) Not possible
d) Question fault
View Answer
Answer: b
11. Cables under distributed load takes a shape of a ____________ when is subjected to loadings.
a) Helix
b) Line
c) Spring
d) Complex figure
View Answer
Answer: b
12. The cables under distributed load weight become significant in the calculations of the loadings when
the cables are used in the transmission lines and guys for radio antennas.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
13. The loading in the cables under distributed load doesn’t change the ___________ of the cables.
a) Geometry
b) Colour
c) Bending moment
View Answer
Answer: a
14. What is the magnitude of the resultant vector’s unit vector? (Resultant vector of the two vectors
shown in the figure below)
a) 1N
b) 225N
c) 110N
d) 55N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The question asked is asking for the magnitude of the unit vector of the resultant vector,
thus the answer is 1. Whether the magnitude of the vector is any quantity, but the unit vector will have
the magnitude equal to unity. And the direction given by the unit vector will be in the same direction as
that of the vector.
15. Being inextensible the cables under distributed load has ___________ length.
a) Infinite
b) Zero
c) Average to zero
d) Constant
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The assumption that the cables are inextensible the main fact that comes out is that the
cable length is constant throughout. Thus in the calculations also the fact that the length is constant
makes a huge time saving tool. Thus the length of the cables are to be assumed constant if the
assumption is taken as they are inextensible.
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7/27/2021 Basic Surveying Terms - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Basic Surveying Terms
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Basic
Surveying Terms”.
1. How many types of bench mark are there?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 5
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bench mark is an object bearing a marked point whose elevation above or below a datum
is known. The 2 types are the temporary and permanent bench mark.
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2. The difference between magnetic north and geographic north is:
a) Dip
b) Strike
c) Declination
d) Bearing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Declination is determined using the compass. The error is calculated and the necessary
addition or deduction is carried out.
3. In the triangulation method, the whole area is divided into:
a) Scale triangles
b) Triangles
c) Obtuse triangles
d) Well-conditioned triangles
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Well-conditioned triangles are those triangles with an angle less than or equal to 60o. The
plot is divided into such triangles, as it is the easiest figure that can be plotted and analysed.
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4. A stone that marks boundary is called:
a) Merestone
b) Milestone
c) Metestone
d) Linestone
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If a stone is used to mark a boundary, it is called Merestone. If a tree is on the property
line, it is called a Line tree.
5. Which of the below is not a classification of surveying?
a) Marine
b) Basement
c) Astronomical
d) Land
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Based on place of survey, the classification includes land, marine and astronomical
categories. Basement refers to underground, no survey is performed there.
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6. EDM stands for:
a) Errorless Distance Measurement
b) Electronic Direct Measurement
c) Electronic Distance Measurement
d) Errorless Direct Measurement
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: To locate points, measure angles, distance and perform other surveying operations, an
EDM can be used. It gives all the details with a click of button. Total station is an example of EDM.
7. Plane and geodetic surveying are classifications of surveying based on:
a) Methodology
b) Earth’s curvature
c) Object of survey
d) Instrument
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Based on Earth’s curvature to be considered or not while surveying, plane and geodetic
surveying are there. Earth’s curvature is considered in geodetic and not considered in plane surveying.
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8. _________ errors are small unavoidable fluctuation.
a) Random
b) Gross
c) Systematic
d) Mistake
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Those errors which are made while performing survey are called gross errors. These can
accumulate and finally lead to re-doing the whole procedure. Systematic error follows a consistent
pattern.
9. Plan is a small-scale representation of a large area.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Map is a small-scale representation of a large area. Plan is a large-scale representation of

a small area.
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10. Which of the below is not a means of linear surveying methods?
a) Theodolite
b) EDM
c) Tape
d) Chain
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Theodolite is an instrument used to measure angular readings. It is used in angular

surveying. All other options are used to take linear measurements.
11. The term Gore is used to indicate:
a) Rectangular land
b) Perimeter of a land
c) Thin triangular land
d) A measure of distance
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Gore is a thin triangular piece of land. Metes and bounds are used to describe the
perimeter of the parcel of land. Mete is a measurement of distance.
12. An acre is equal to 107,639 square feet.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An acre is equal to 43,560 square feet. A hectare is equal to 2.471 acres or 107,639
square feet.
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7/27/2021 Bending Moment Diagram - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Bending Moment Diagram
« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Bending
Moment Diagram”.
1. Which of the following is correct in bending moment diagram w.r.t the moment (M) of the force (F)
acting on the body at a distance L from the axis of the rotation?
a) M=FLsinθ
b) M=FLcosθ
c) M=F.Lsinθ
d) M=FxLsinθ
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The moment of the force about the axis of rotation by the application of the force on the
body is given by the cross product of both. If the force not perpendicular to the axis, and making angle
θ then cosine form of angle is used. As usually used in the cross product.
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2. What does the moment of the force measure in the bending moment diagram?
a) The tendency of rotation of the body along with an axis
b) The moment of inertia of the body about any axis
c) The couple moment produce by the single force acting on the body
d) The total work done on the body by the force
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The moment of the force measures the tendency of the rotation of the body along any
axis, whether it be the centroid axis of the body or any of the outside axis. The couple moment is
produced by two forces, not by a single force. The total work done is the dot product of force and
distance not the cross.
3. Determine the moment’s magnitude produced by the force as shown in the diagram, which tends to
rotate the rod ORQP along QP.
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a) 80.49 Nm
b) 72.12 Nm
c) -36.67 Nm
d) 36.67 Nm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The use of the formula A.(rxF) gives the answer. In which A is 0.89i + 0.447j m. And the
force is 300N, which is being applied at the end of the rod. Thus, after finding the equation of the axis
and then replacing it in the equation shown above we get the answer. Actually, the main task is to know
the axis equation in the vector form. Then get the magnitude of the moment.
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4. The moment of the force in bending moment diagram is the product of the force and the perpendicular
distance of the axis and the point of action of the force.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The moment is the product of the force applied to the body and the perpendicular
distance of the point of action of the force to the axis about which the body is being rotated. That is the
moment is the cross product of the force and the distance between the axis and the point of action.
5. If any force is applied in the direction of the positive x-axis, and there are three different points in
bending moment diagram on which the moment of this force is to be calculated. Then if these three
points are on the positive side of the y-axis with varying distance, then what will be the direction of the
moment caused by the force to the individual point?
a) Towards positive z-axis
b) Towards positive y-axis
c) Towards positive x-axis
d) Towards negative z-axis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If you will apply the right hand rule on the system given then the right answer is the
positive z-axis. Which is because the force is lying on the x-axis and is heading towards the positive
infinity of the x-axis. And the points are in the positive y-axis. Apply the rule, and get the direction.
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6. Determine the moment of the force F along the segment QP of the pipe assembly shown in the figure.
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a) 110Nm
b) 100Nm
c) 500Nm
d) 510Nm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The use of the formula A.(rxF) gives the answer. In which A is 0.6i + 0.8j m and the r is
0.5i + 0.5k. And the force is 300N, which is being applied at the end of the rod. Thus, after finding the
equation of the axis and then replacing it in the equation shown above we get the answer. Actually, the
main task is to know the axis equation in the vector form. Then get the magnitude of the moment.
7. Which of the following is true for bending moment diagram?
a) Total moment of various forces acting on the body is the vector sum of all moments
b) Total moment of various forces acting on the body is the algebraic sum of all moments
c) Total moment of various forces acting on the body is always zero
d) Total moment of various forces acting on the body is the vector sum of all moments which is
perpendicular to each other forces
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The moment is the vector quantity. Thus the value of the total moment caused by various
forces acting on the body is the vector sum of all the vectors. Also, the moments are not perpendicular
to each other, unless it is specified. Thus assumptions cant be taken for the direction of the moment.
8. If you are getting to know about the direction of the moment caused by the force applied on the body
by using your wrist and curling it in the direction of the rotation then which of the following is not right for
bending moment diagram?
a) The thumb represents the direction of the force
b) The thumb represents the direction of the moment
c) The fingers represents the direction of the force
d) The direction in which you curl your wrist is towards the direction of the distance from point of contact
of force to the axis of rotation.
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The curled hand represents a various thing. The direction of the moment axis is given by
the thumb. The direction of the force is given by the fingers. As we place the fingers on the force and
curl towards the rotational direction of the body about the axis.
9. If the rotation is clockwise in this page, suppose, then in which direction will the thumb project if you
curl your hand in the same direction of the rotation for bending moment diagram?
a) It will point to the direction perpendicular to the plane of the paper and towards you
b) It will point to the direction perpendicular to the plane of the paper and away from you
c) It will point to the direction parallel to the plane of the paper and towards right
d) It will point to the direction parallel to the plane of the paper and towards left
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the curling will give the direction perpendicular to the paper. But it does depend upon
the rotation sense. In this example, the sense is clockwise. Thus the thumb goes into the paper. That is
it goes away from the viewer. Thus the answer.
10. The tendency of rotation of the body along any axis in the bending moment diagram is also called
___________
a) Moment of inertia
b) Moment of couple
c) Torque
d) Force
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The tendency of rotation of the body along any axis also called the torque. It is the
moment of the force acting perpendicular to the direction of the axis of rotation. If the axis and the force
are meeting at any point then there is no moment applied by the force.
11. What does FLsinθ mean/represents in bending moment diagram for the moment (M) of the force (F)
acting on the body at a distance L from the axis of the rotation?
a) The direction vector of the moment
b) Unit vector of the moment vector
c) The magnitude of the moment caused by the force on the body
d) The perpendicular distance of the force from the axis of rotation
View Answer
Answer: c
θ then cosine form of angle is used. Thus, FLsinθ represents the magnitude of the moment.
12. The moment axis, force and the perpendicular distance in the bending moment diagram is lying
in____________
a) Two planes perpendicular to each other
b) A single plane in the direction of the force
c) A single plane in the direction of the perpendicular distance
d) A single line in the direction of the force
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The moment axis, force and the perpendicular distance is lying in the three dimensional
Cartesian. It doesn’t lye on the single plane. It also doesn’t lye in a single line. Nor in the direction of
the force. Thus they all lye in the planes which are perpendicular to each other.
13. If a force applied at any point in its line of action and is still creating the same moment about any fixed
point say P, then the force is said to be a sliding vector. What is the name of this property in a bending
moment diagram?
a) Associative property
b) Distributive property
c) Negative associative property
d) Principle transmissibility of the force
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If a force applied at any point in its line of action and is still creating the same moment
about any fixed point say P, then the force is said to be sliding vector. This is because the moment of
the force which is acting on its line of axis at the point P is same throughout. This is known as the
principle transmissibility of the force.
14. The basic way of getting the direction of the moment caused by the force in a bending moment
diagram is:
a) The use of left hand rule with thumb giving the direction of the moment
b) The use of right hand rule with thumb giving the direction of the moment
c) The use of right hand rule with forefinger giving the direction of the moment
d) The use of left hand rule with forefinger giving the direction of the moment
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The basic way of doing so is to use right hand rule and not the left hand rule. The
direction of the moment axis is given by the thumb. The direction of the force is given by the fingers. As
we place the fingers on the force and curl towards the rotational direction of the body about the axis.
point say P, then the force in bending moment diagram is said to be______________
a) Couple
b) Sliding vector
c) Slider couple
d) Couple slider
View Answer
Answer: b
about any fixed point say P, then the force is said to be a sliding vector. This is because the moment of
the force which is acting on its line of the axis at the point P is the same throughout. Whatever be the
direction of the distance.
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7/27/2021 Biodiversity & Ecology - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Biodiversity and Ecology
« Prev Next »
“Biodiversity and Ecology”.
1. Biodiversity can be broadly classified into how many types?
a) 2
b) 5
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The three types are species diversity (number of the different species found in location),
Genetic diversity (genetic variations within a species) and Ecological diversity (variations in the
ecosystems of regions).
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2. Biodiversity is of importance as it offers:
a) Stability of ecosystems
b) Stability of atmosphere
c) Stability of species
d) Stability of research
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Biodiversity helps in maintaining ecological stability. The ecosystems have an ability to
maintain its original nature even after disturbances occur within it, with the help of biodiversity.
3. The loss in biodiversity is not attributed to:
a) Explosion in the human population
b) Transforming earth’s surface
c) Destruction of natural habitats
d) Use of sustainable products
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The ever-exploding increase in human population leads to the consumption of resources
and exploitation of the earth’s surface. This results in the destruction of natural habitats and
ecosystems. The use of sustainable alternatives is a step towards conservation.
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4. Biodiversity has an aesthetic value to it.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The natural beauty of the earth has refreshing sights, taste and odours. These add an
aesthetic value; wide varieties of colours and fragrance of flowers, taste and colours of fruits, etc.
5. In how many ways does the conservation of biodiversity work?
a) 5
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The conservation methods are broadly classified as in-situ conservation (the species are
conserved in their natural ecosystems, which are protected) and ex-situ conservation (breeding of new
and endangered plants/animals in controlled conditions).
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6. Which one of the following is not an in-situ conservation method?
a) Zoo
b) National Parks
c) Biosphere Reserves
d) Sanctuaries
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Zoo is a controlled environment where animals are kept. The other 3 options are the
natural habitat or areas where the species reside.
7. Which is an advantage of ex-situ conservation?
a) Cheap method
b) Conserve large number of species together
c) Genetic process for breeding/long life
d) Existence in natural habitat
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Endangered plants/animals can be provided the conditions required for larger life with
captive breeding and genetic techniques for development of the species which are healthy and more
productive.
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8. The area of National Parks range between:
a) 0.61 to 7818 kms
b) 0.04 to 3162 kms
c) 0.14 to 3612 kms
d) 0.16 to 8718 kms
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: National Parks are small reserves maintained by the Government for the protection of
wildlife and their habitat. 0.61 to 7818 kms is the range for sanctuaries.
9. The activities of cultivation of land, timber harvesting is permitted in:
a) Sanctuaries
b) National Parks
c) Biosphere Reserves
d) Protected Areas
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sanctuaries are the areas where only wildlife is present. So, cultivation, harvesting of
timber, etc is permitted only if does not interfere with the project. In all the other 3 options, it is
prohibited.
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10. Hot spot areas have:
a) Low density of biodiversity
b) Only endangered plants
c) High density of hot springs
d) High density of biodiversity
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are areas with a high density of biodiversity, which are presently the most
endangered. There are 16 hot spots in the world and 2 in India: North East Himalayas with 3500
endemic species and the Western Ghats with 1600.
and Answers.
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7/27/2021 Brick Manufacturing - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Manufacture of Brick
« Prev Next »
“Manufacture of Brick”.
1. Which one of the below is the first step in the preparation of brick earth process?
a) Digging
b) Site selection
c) Cleaning
d) Unsoiling
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Site selection is the step in the manufacturing of brick process. The first step, in order for
preparation for brick earth is unsoiling. It involves scraping off top layer, about 150-250mm deep.
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2. Why is the process of weathering performed?
a) To remove organic matter
b) To prepare for next process
c) To improve plasticity
d) To dry clay
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Weathering is a process of softening dug out clay by adding little water and then exposing
it to the atmosphere. Then it is heated and left for few weeks to undergo weathering.
3. The process of kneading brick earth is called:
a) Pugging
b) Blending
c) Ramming
d) Tamping
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pugging or tempering is done by adding water to brick earth and kneading until a
homogenous mass and required plasticity is attained.
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4. Which one of the following is not a part of pug mill?
a) Vertical shaft
b) Hub
c) Cutting blades
d) Timber base
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hub is a part of Kaplan turbine. Pub mill is where pugging is carried out. It consists of a
conical iron tub, cutting blades, vertical shaft, horizontal arm, long wooden arm and timber base.
5. How many methods of moulding brick earth are there?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 2
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are two methods of carrying out moulding of brick earth. These are hand moulding
and machine moulding.
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6. The meaning of slop moulded bricks is:
a) Sand sprinkled inside mould
b) Insufficiently moulded bricks
c) Brittle and slimy bricks
d) Mould dipped in water
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: To avoid clay from sticking on the mould, either sand is sprinkled (sand moulded bricks) or
mould is dipped in water (slop moulded bricks).
7. Plastic clay method of machine moulding results in pressed bricks.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In plastic clay method, clay in the plastic state is employed. It comes out of a rectangular
opening in the form of a clay bar. As it comes out, it is cut into to strips by wire, and hence called wire
bricks. Pressed bricks are obtained from dry clay method.
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8. Which is the most commonly employed drying method in India?
a) Hot floor drier
b) Tunnel drier
c) Natural drying
d) Blow drying
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Natural drying employs workers and it is more economical in India than using artificial
driers. Hot floor drier and tunnel drier are types of artificial drying method.
9. Which of the following is not a chemical change that takes place in the brick earth during burning?
a) Dehydration
b) Vitrification
c) Oxidation
d) Reduction
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: During burning, no reduction reaction takes place. Dehydration expels most of the water.
Oxidation results in the elimination of carbon and sulphur as oxides. Vitrification is extreme reaction
and occurs when heating above 900oc.
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10. The depression provided in the face of a brick during its manufacturing is called:
a) Frog
b) Furrow
c) Groove
d) Scallop
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Frog is the depression provided in the face of the brick. It forms a key of mortar, reduces
the weight of the brick, provides the place for companies to put their trade mark.
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7/27/2021 Brick Masonry - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Brick Masonry
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Brick
Masonry”.
1. How many types of brick masonry are possible?
a) 4
b) 2
c) 5
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The four types are brick work in mud, brick work in cement or lime mortar – I class, II
class and III class.
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2. In which bond brick is laid with its length in the direction of a wall?
a) Header
b) Flemish
c) Stretcher
d) English
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Brick are laid with their end towards the face of the wall in header bond. In the Flemish
bond, alternative header and stretcher are placed in each course. In the English bond, alternative
header and stretcher courses are laid.
3. Which of the below should be avoided in brick masonry?
a) Horizontal joints
b) Queen closer
c) Brick bat
d) Vertical joints
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Vertical joints occur when the end of a brick is in line with the end of the underlying brick,
vertically. This would lead to low strength wall as cracks can easily be transferred along these joints.
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4. _________ bond is better in appearance than English bond.
a) Flemish
b) Double Flemish
c) Single Flemish
d) Poly Flemish
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Double Flemish bond consists of an alternative header, stretcher in each course. The
facing and backing are of the same appearance.
5. Flemish bond is expensive than English bond.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Number of bricks required in Flemish bond is less than that required in English bond. It is
because each course has a header and stretcher, which occupies more space than header or stretcher
when placed individually.
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6. In Herringbone bond, bricks are placed at _________ angle from __________ line in both directions.
a) 60o, central
b) 60o, vertical
c) 45o, central
d) 45o, vertical
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There is a central line with respect to which bricks are laid. It is laid at 45o angle in both
directions. It is used where wall thickness is more than 4 bricks or for paving.
7. The portion of bricks cut across the width in half is called:
a) Half split
b) Half closer
c) Half bed
d) Half bat
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When a brick is halved along its height, it is a split, that along the length is a closer. Bed is
the lower surface of brick when the brick is laid flat.
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8. What should be placed at the beginning of every header course in English bond to avoid vertical joint?
a) Queen closer
b) Half bat
c) Three fourth bat
d) King closer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A queen closer is a brick piece cut in half along the length. It is placed so as to avoid
vertical joints. It makes the header come centrally above the underlying stretcher.
9. The bricks used for corners of walls of a structure are called:
a) Spalls
b) Quoins
c) Hearting
d) Side
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Spalls are chips of stones for filling interstices in stone masonry. Hearting is an interior
portion of a wall between facing and backing. Side is a surface forming boundary of bricks in a
direction transverse to face and bed.
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10. Which bond comprises of one course of a header to three or five courses of stretchers?
a) Dutch bond
b) Zig-zag bond
c) English garden-wall bond
d) Facing bond
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Dutch bond is a modified form of English bond. Three fourth bat is used next to header in
stretcher course. Bricks are laid in zig-zag way in zig-zag bond. In facing bond, bricks of different
thickness are used in facing and backing of walls.
11. Which IS code gives a code of practice for brick work?
a) IS 2212
b) IS 3102
c) IS 3466
d) IS 1077
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: IS 3102 gives the classification of burnt clay solid bricks. IS 3466 gives the specification
for masonry cement. IS 1077 gives the guidelines regarding common burnt clay building bricks.
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7/27/2021 Bricks Tests - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Tests on Bricks
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Tests on
Bricks”.
1. In absorption test on brick, how many hours it has to be soaked in cold water?
a) 19 hours
b) 5 hours
c) 6 hours
d) 24 hours
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The sample brick is oven dried, cooled and then soaked in water at room temperature for
24 hours.
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2. What is the loading rate used in compressive strength test?
a) 14 N/mm2 per hour
b) 14 N/mm2 per minute
c) 20 N/mm2 per minute
d) 40 N/mm2 per hour
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As per IS codes, the loading on brick specimen in a CTM should be uniform at rate of 14
N/mm2 per minute.
3. How is the hardness of brick tested?
a) Using finger nail
b) Using hardness apparatus
c) Using hammer
d) Using chisel
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Brick is scratched using finger nail. If there are no visible scratches made on the brick
surface, it is said to be sufficiently hard.
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4. What is the maximum permissible tolerance for length and width respectively?
a) ± 3mm and ± 6mm
b) ± 6mm and ± 3mm
c) ± 3cm and ± 6cm
d) ± 6cm and ± 3cm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The standard size of brick is length – 190mm and width – 90mm. When manufactured,
size variations may occur by expansion or contraction while drying and burning process. Permissible
tolerance is ± 6mm for length and ± 3mm for width and height.
5. What should be observed ideally when two bricks are struck together?
a) Dull sound
b) Sides shatter
c) Clear ringing sound
d) Brick breaks
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is a test for soundness of brick. A sound brick should not break. It should produce a
clear ringing sound. A dull sound indicates an unsound brick.
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6. End of a brick is placed in a glass dish containing water and it is tested for efflorescence after it is
absorbed or evaporated.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: After first evaporation, sample is dried. Then again same procedure is repeated. It is after
second evaporation, brick is tested for efflorescence.
7. When observed efflorescence is more than 10% but less than 50% of the exposed area, it is:
a) Moderate efflorescence
b) Serious efflorescence
c) Heavy efflorescence
d) Light efflorescence
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For slight efflorescence, it should not cover more than 10% of the exposed surface and
for heavy efflorescence, area should be more than 50%.
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8. How is the structure of brick tested?
a) Powdered and tested
b) Immersed in water and dried.
c) Rubbed against another brick
d) Broken and examined
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A brick is broken to expose the surface. It should be uniform, compact, free from voids.
9. Creep test is carried out in accordance with:
a) IS 1528
b) IS 5688
c) IS 3495
d) IS 4568
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Creep test is done to check percent of shrinkage of refractory test piece under constant
load. The specifications for this test are given in IS 1528.
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10. What does M1 indicate in the formula:
% water absorption = M2 – M1 ⁄M2 x 100
a) Oven dried mass of brick
b) Oven dried and cooled mass of brick
c) Mass of water absorbed brick
d) Mass of water absorbed and dried brick
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Oven dried samples is allowed to cool down and its mass is taken as M1. Sample is
immersed in water for 24 hours, excess water is wiped off and then its mass is taken as M2.
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7/27/2021 Bricks Types - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Types of Bricks
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Types of
Bricks”.
1. Unburnt bricks are also called:
a) Dry bricks
b) Clayey bricks
c) Kucha bricks
d) Clamp bricks
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Unburnt bricks are the one dried in the sun, after moulding. They are kept for a long time
until they dry. Sometimes due to a large number of bricks, limited time, improper workman skills, the
bricks are not completely dried and hence are called Kucha bricks.
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2. Burnt bricks can be further classified into how many types?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There can be 4 sub-divisions of burnt bricks. They are first class, second class, third class
and kiln rejected bricks.
3. First class bricks are used for:
a) Brick ballast in R.C.C
b) Boundary walls
c) Low height walls
d) Pavements
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: First class bricks are strong, durable and have a good appearance. These are used for
important work, load bearing works. Pavements, flooring, load bearing wall are some places of use.
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4. The minimum crushing strength of third class brick is:
a) 3.5 N/mm2
b) 7 N/mm2
c) 10 N/mm2
d) 20 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As per IS codes, the minimum crushing strength of first class brick is 10.5 N/mm2, second
class is 7 N/mm2 and third class is 3.5 N/mm2.
5. Which of the following is not a feature of second class bricks?
a) Have small irregularities
b) Water absorption is between 20-25%
c) Rectangular in shape
d) Free from cracks
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The water absorption of second class bricks is less than 22%. 20-25% is the range of
water absorption of third class bricks.
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6. Pilas are under burnt bricks.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pilas are under burnt or half burnt bricks with yellow colour. They can be used as surkhi.
Zhamas are over burnt bricks and are kiln waste. Picked Zhamas can be used in road work.
7. What is the speciality of FALG bricks?
a) Are composed of agricultural waste
b) Round in shape
c) Economic alternative to clay bricks
d) Widely used in masonry work
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: FALG bricks are composed of flyash, lime and gypsum. It utilises the waste from thermal
power plants and hence it is an economic alternative to clay bricks.
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8. Which of the following bricks types use the least amount of clay?
a) Hollow bricks
b) Coping bricks
c) Channel bricks
d) Perforated bricks
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Perforated bricks contain cylindrical holes throughout their thickness. These are light in
weight. They use a very little amount of clay.
9. Which of the following type of bricks is made for jambs of doors and windows?
a) Cant bricks
b) Arch bricks
c) Lintel bricks
d) Hinged bricks
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Purpose-made bricks are those made to achieve a specific purpose. They can be splay or
Cant, Arch, Ornamental, etc. They are costly but help in quick construction.
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10. Fire clay bricks are made by burning them at high temperatures in a closed chamber.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fire clay bricks are manufactured by using fire clay. It is extracted by mining at great
depths. It is capable of withstanding high temperatures of 17750C.
a) Cownose brick
b) Paving brick
c) Curved sector brick
d) Bullnose brick
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Bullnose brick is a brick moulded with rounded angle. It is used for a rounded quoin
(connection formed when wall takes a turn).
12. What is the problem with using flyash bricks?
a) Efflorescence
b) Costly
c) Expand
d) Not sound proof
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When they come in contact with moisture, chemical reaction occurs and they tend to
expand.
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7/27/2021 Building Components - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Components of Building
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“Components of Building”.
1. A building can be mainly divided into how many components?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 6
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The 3 components are substructure, plinth and superstructure. Anything below ground
level is substructure and above it is superstructure.
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2. D.P.C (Damp Proof Course) is mainly laid on:
a) Footing
b) Floor
c) Foundation
d) Plinth
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Plinth is a line between sub and superstructure. If D.P.C. is laid on top of plinth level,
moisture penetration to the superstructure can be avoided.
3. Floor in a building
a) Separates levels
b) Is laid below plinth
c) Contains R.C.C.
d) Has thickness of 10cm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Floor is laid above plinth level. It is used to tread on, keep furniture, household, other
items. It also demarcates levels of a building. P.C.C. is done on flooring and it is usually 4cm thick.
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4. Which of the below is constructed above doors, windows?
a) Joist
b) Purlin
c) Lintel
d) Arch
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Windows and doors are openings in a wall. To support the overlying bricks, a structure is
built on top of the opening. It is called lintel.
5. What is the level below window called?
a) Pane level
b) Lintel level
c) Sill level
d) Plinth level
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The wall below window needs to support the weight of the window or opening and keep it
steady. This level is called as sill level.
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6. Wall is mainly of how many types?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 5
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Based on the capacity of walls to carry a load, it is of 2 types. Load bearing walls and non
load bearing walls are the two categories.
7. ___________ wall is used to resist lateral forces like severe wind.
a) Knee wall
b) Cavity wall
c) Infill wall
d) Shear wall
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Shear wall is a long continuous structure, just like that surrounding an elevator. It has
excellent strength and can withstand heavy winds, earthquakes.
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8. Building finishes are not considered as components of a building.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Building finishes are also part of the building. Finishing works include plastering,
whitewashing, painting, flooring, roofing and so on. These all add to the completion of a building.
9. How many types of parapets are there?
a) 4
b) 2
c) 5
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The 4 types are plain, perforated, panelled and embattled. Plain parapet is solid masonry,
perforated has holes in different shapes, panel consists of panels joined together and in embattled,
they are pierced.
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10. Skylight is a type of window.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Skylight is provided on top of sloped roofs to admit light into rooms. It is provided parallel
to the sloping surface. They can be opened when required. They perform all the functions of a window.
11. The outer projection on the tread of a stair is:
a) Going
b) Outcrop
c) Bulge
d) Nosing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A small projection is provided in the tread of a stair. Tread is the horizontal distance of one
step. Nosing is the term used to describe that little projection.
and Answers.
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7/27/2021 Building Maintenance - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Building Maintenance
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Building
Maintenance”.
1. How many types of cracks can occur in a building?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 2
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are 2 types of cracks that can be found in buildings. Non-moving cracks are the
result of shrinkage and are usually shallow. Moving cracks are caused due to excessive stress in
concrete and generally are wider than 1mm.
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2. Creep in concrete structure increases with:
a) Increase in humidity
b) Increase in water
c) Decrease in temperature
d) Decrease in humidity
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Creep is small deformation that is formed due to loading on concrete. It is a slow, time
dependent process. An increase in temperature and decrease in humidity can cause this.
3. To control corrosion, concrete with _________ is used.
a) Low permeability
b) Low thermal coefficient
c) More cement content
d) More coarse aggregates
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If the concrete is less permeable, then there is less chance of moisture, chemical
absorption which leads to corrosion of steel bars.
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4. The main reason for cracks in masonry joints is:
a) Moisture
b) Sulphate
c) Magnesium
d) Sodium
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sulphate content of bricks to be used in masonry should be checked. These attack the
mortar and weakens it, leading to development of cracks. They appear after 2-3 years of construction.
5. Shear cracks between the main wall and cross wall can be corrected using:
a) Grouting
b) Rebuilding
c) Guining
d) Toothing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The place where the main and cross wall joins, there can be cracks developed. It is due to
poor bonding between walls. Bonding can be increased by toothing, where a projection of brick is done
into the other wall, interlocking it.
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6. Which IS code gives details about termite proofing?
a) IS 6835
b) IS 6313
c) IS 5886
d) IS 5668
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: IS 6313 part I and part II specify the procedure for anti-termite treatment. Termite attacks
wood, plastic, leather and rubber. So, to protect components containing these, anti-termite protection is
to be given.
7. Leaks in the pitched roof may be caused due to:
a) Improper slopes
b) Unfinished roof and wall junction
c) Depression on top of roof
d) Heavy wind
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The first three options are the reasons for leaks in flat roofs. Weather effects like heavy
wind, storm, rain can alter the roof structure and cause leakage.
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8. The chemical heptachlor in anti-termite proofing has concentration by weight of:
a) 0.5%
b) 0.1%
c) 0.3%
d) 0.2%
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The anti-termite chemicals in water emulsion can be any of aldrin, heptachlor and
chlordane. Aldrin and heptachlor have concentration by weight of 0.5% and chlordane of 1%.
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7/27/2021 Building Services - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Building Services
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Building
Services”.
1. Desiccants are chemicals that:
a) Remove humidity
b) Add humidity
c) Add moisture
d) Remove moisture
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Air-conditioning is one of the building services. It can be made based on desiccants,
which are chemicals that remove moisture from the air.
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2. In a building, to provide ultimate comfort to occupants ________ can be used.
a) AC
b) HVAC
c) Ventilators
d) HAC
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: HVAC stands for heating ventilation and air-conditioning. This system is installed in
buildings to give all the comforts to the occupants via a single unit.
3. Which IS codes gives details about elevators?
a) IS 27752
b) IS 38665
c) IS 14665
d) IS 27855
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: IS 14665 gives specifications for elevators. It gives the number, capacity of elevator
depending upon floor area and a number of floors to be served.
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4. The slope of a ramp should not be more than:
a) 1 in 35
b) 1 in 20
c) 1 in 15
d) 1 in 10
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Ramps are provided in buildings to allow easy passage for elderly and physically
challenged occupants. The slope should not be too steep, it should not be more than 1 in 15.
5. How many types of ventilation are there?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 2
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The three types are natural (differential temperature of air), mechanical (fans), hybrid or
mixed-mode ventilation (design of building).
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6. A fire detector cannot detect:
a) Radiation
b) Heat
c) Light
d) Smoke
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A fire detector can detect the three characteristics of fire-radiation (flame), heat and
smoke. It cannot detect the light produced by a fire.
7. When exposed to fire, concrete has very little strength left after:
a) 500oC
b) 300oC
c) 200oC
d) 600oC
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Concrete decomposes when exposed to heat. Water evaporates, sand, gravel become
molten lava like. Up to 200oC, no changes are noticed. At about 600oC, significant lossoccurs. At 800-
1000oC, it completely gives in.
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8. While calculating the handling capacity of lift, the weight of a person is taken as 65kg.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Lifts can carry people from a range of just 4 to a good 20 number. To decide this, the
weight of each person is to be considered. It is assumed as 68kg for one person.
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7/27/2021 Cables - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Cables
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This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Cables”.
1. Flexible cable with chains combine ___________ with lightness and often are used in structures for
support.
a) Strength
b) Mass
c) Volume
d) Density
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The chains with the cables are used to support the structures. They are there for the
transfer of the loading from one point to another point. This means that the cables not only provide
strength to the structure but also sufficiently transfers the loads that are being added to it.
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2. In the support system of the bridges and trolley wheel ____________ form the main loading carrying
element in the structure.
a) Cable
b) Beams
c) Pillars
d) Cement mortar
View Answer
Answer: a
structures. The main motto is to make the structure stable. This is probably done with the help of
making the distribution of the load which is being given to the structures equally by the help of the
cables.
3. The force on the cables is not neglected in the calculations of the load distribution.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
structures. The main motto is to make the structure stable. In the calculation, the self-weight of the
cable is neglected and the load is calculated. The forces are acting in the vertically downward direction.
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4. The cable weight becomes significant in the calculations of the loadings when the cables are used in
the transmission lines and guys for radio antennas.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
5. The assumptions for the calculations are done for the cables. In that one of the assumption is that the
cable is ___________
a) Extensible
b) Non-flexible
c) Flexible
d) Static
View Answer
Answer: c
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6. The assumptions for the calculations are done for the cables. In that one of the assumption is that the
cable is flexible and the other is that the cable is ___________
a) Extensible
b) Non-flexible
c) Inextensible
d) Static
View Answer
Answer: c
7. Determine the force in section QR as shown in the figure.
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a) 10.2KN
b) 12.6KN
c) 3.6KN
d) 11.6KN
View Answer
Answer: a
This is because as the cables are subjected to loadings the loads tend to stretch the cables in the
cable length.
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8. Due to which property the cable, it offers no resistance to bending?
d) Static property
View Answer
Answer: c
not affecting the cables much. Thus no affect by bending, i.e. no resistance to bending.
9. The tensile force acting on the cable is in which direction w.r.t the cable?
a) Perpendicular
b) Parallel
c) Tangential
View Answer
Answer: c
10. Being inextensible the cable has ___________ length.
a) Infinite
b) Zero
c) Average to zero
d) Constant
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The assumption that the cables are inextensible the main fact that comes out is that the
cable length is constant throughout. Thus in the calculations also the fact that the length is constant
makes a huge time saving tool. Thus the length of the cables are to be assumed constant if the
assumption is taken as they are inextensible.
11. The loading in the cable doesn’t change the ___________ of the cables.
a) Geometry
b) Colour
c) Bending moment
View Answer
Answer: a
12. Cable takes a shape of a ____________ when is subjected to loadings.
a) Helix
b) Line
c) Spring
d) Complex figure
View Answer
Answer: b
13. The various points in the cable is facing a ____________ tensile force.
a) Constant
b) Variable
c) Insufficient
d) Non
View Answer
Answer: a
This is because as the cables are subjected to loadings the loads tends to stretch the cables in the
cable length.
14. If the unknown variables in the calculations are more than the known quantities, then the number of
equations required to solve all the unknown variables are?
a) Infinite
b) Finite
c) Not possible
d) Question fault
View Answer
Answer: b
15. Determine the force in section PQ as shown in the figure.
a) 13.6KN
b) 12.6KN
c) 3.6KN
d) 11.6KN
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
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7/27/2021 Calcination & Slaking of Lime - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Calcination and Slaking of Lime
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Calcination
and Slaking of Lime”.
1. Which of the following methods yields quick, small supplies of Quick Lime?
a) Intermittent kiln
b) Continuous kiln
c) Clamp burning
d) Kankar burning
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In a kiln, lime is produced in large quantities for commercial purpose. In clamp burning,
available quantity of limestone is stacked with fuel and burnt.
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2. How is the arrangement in a clamp, if the fuel used is coal?
a) Stacked in alternate layers
b) Placed on a platform
c) Mixed and poured into a basin
d) Heaped
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If fuel used is wood, they are stacked together in alternative layer. In case of coal or
charcoal, it is mixed with limestone and placed in heap form.
3. How can one understand the completion of the burning of lime?
a) Blue flame at the top disappears
b) Blue flame appears at the top
c) Smoke is released in huge quantity
d) Red flame appears at the top
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A blue flame indicates complete combustion, implying no wastage of resources. Hence,
we can ensure the proper burning of lime.
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4. The term Calcination comes from:
a) Greek word Calcinare
b) Latin word Calcinare
c) Greek word Calcinate
d) Latin word Calcinate
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Calcinare is a Latin word. It means to burn lime, hence calcination is accorded to as
burning of Lime.
5. Which of the following is not an example of Calcination process?
a) Decomposition of Calcium Chlorate
b) Decomposition of volatile matter in petroleum coke
c) Removal of ammonium ions in synthesis of zeolites
d) Decomposition of hydrated minerals
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: All the other process leads to burning or thermal decomposition of lime in some forms.
Calcium Chlorate decomposes into calcium chloride and oxygen.
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6. The temperature at which standard Gibbs free energy is zero for calcination reaction is called:
a) Absolute temperature
b) Negative temperature
c) Transition temperature
d) Thermal decomposition temperature
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Transition temperature is for phase transitions. Absolute temperature is measured relative
to absolute zero. Negative temperature is the one measured below zero.
7. In which feed type kiln, limestone does not come in contact with fuel?
a) Single feed
b) Isolated feed
c) Separate feed
d) Mixed feed
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are only 2 feed types of kiln – namely mixed and separate. In mixed feed type, fuel
and limestone are mixed together during burning.
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8. Which one of the following is an advantage of Kiln burning over clamp burning?
a) Burning is not complete
b) Requires more fuel
c) No wastage of lime
d) Time effective
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Clamp burning takes weeks to burn limestone, whereas kiln burning takes only hours. Kiln
burning operation involves loading, burning, cooling and unloading. All these lead to wastage of lime in
some amount.
9. Slaking of lime refers to:
a) Mixing NaCl in hydraulic lime
b) Mixing water in quick lime
c) Mixing water in limestone
d) Mixing NaCl in quick lime
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Slaking refers to the process of mixing water in quick lime. Only after this, it can be used
in construction works.
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10. How many brick lined tanks are used in tank slaking method?
a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Two tanks are used for tank slaking method. One is constructed 45cm deep, at a higher
level. Other one adjoining the first one is constructed 60-75cm deep, at lower level.
11. In tank slaking, the second tank (60-75cm deep) is filled with:
a) Water
b) Lime-milk
c) Lime
d) Limestone
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Lime is gradually added to water present in the first tank and stirred continuously. It
results in formation of milk of lime, which is allowed to falls through a sieve into the second tank.
12. The lime-milk can be utilized after and for:
a) 2-3 days for putty
b) 2-3 hours for putty
c) 2-3 days for waste water treatment
d) 2-3 hours for waste water treatment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The lime-milk is allowed to stand for the requisite time of 2-3 days. It matures itself and
forms lime putty.
13. The quantity of water to be added for hydrating 100kg of lime is:
a) 10 litres
b) 1 litre
c) 15 litres
d) 32 litres
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Quantity of water to be added depends on composition of lime, method of slaking, form of
lime required (dry or putty). Practically water up to 100 litres can also be added for lime putty.
14. Rate of hydration (slaking) does not depend on:
a) Degree of burning of lime
b) Degree of agitation
c) Atmospheric conditions
d) Composition of lime
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Over and under burned lime is undesirable. Composition of lime (pure, clay) are important
to determine slaking. Pure lime slakes vigorously. Slaking is carried in tank in closed conditions. Too
little agitation results in uneven mixing and leads to drowning or unhydrated particles of CaO.
15. Why is the middle portion in a continuous kiln widened?
a) To accommodate more fuel
b) To collect lime at bottom
c) To allow the flow of limestone from top
d) To accommodate hot gases of combustion
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The kiln has two sections – upper one to store limestone and lower one to collect lime. As
burning continues, hot gases are releases. These are then accommodated in the middle portion.
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7/27/2021 Cartesian Vectors - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Cartesian Vectors – 1
« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Cartesian
Vectors – 1”.
1. In right handed coordinate system which axis is considered to be positive?
a) The thumb is z-axis, fingers curled from x-axis to y-axis
b) The thumb is x-axis, fingers curled from z-axis to y-axis
c) The thumb is y-axis, fingers curled from x-axis to z-axis
d) The thumb is z-axis, fingers curled from y-axis to x-axis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As right handed coordinate system means that you are curling your fingers from positive
x-axis towards y-axis and the thumb which is projected is pointed to the positive z-axis. Thus
visualizing the same and knowing the basic members of the axis will not create many problems.
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2. If A is any vector with Ai + Bj + Ck then what is the y-axis component of the vector?
a) B units
b) A units
c) C units
d) Square root of a sum of squares of the three, i.e. A, B and C
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the given vector is shown in the Cartesian system, the number with “j” is the Y-axis
component of the given vector. With the numbers with “i” representing components of x-axis and “k”
representing the z axis respectively.
3. If the force vector F is having its x-axis component being equal to Z N, y-axis component be X N and z-
axis component be Y N then vector F is best represented by?
a) Xi + Yj + Zk
b) Yi + Xj + Zk
c) Zi + Yj + Xk
d) Zi + Xj + Yk
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It is given that x, y and z-axis components are Z, X and Y respectively. Thus, just by
placing the right coordinates we get option d to be correct. Here just the interchange of the axis’s
representor with their respective axis is creating confusion. Which must be figured out.
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4. Which statement is right for force vector F = Ai + Bj + Ck?
a) In rectangular components representation of any vector we have vector F = Ai + Bj + Ck
b) In rectangular components representation of any vector we have vector F = Ax + By + Cz
c) In rectangular components representation of any vector we have vector F = Fx + Fy + Fz
d) In rectangular components representation of any vector we have vector F = Fi + Fj + Fk
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As given the vector is F = Ai + Bj + Ck, this implies that the x ,y and z-axis components of
this vector is A, B and C respectively. But, in rectangular components representation of any vector, the
vector is written as F = Fx + Fy + Fz.
5. What is the magnitude of the Cartesian vector having the x, y and z axis components to be A, B and
C?
a) Square root of the squares each A, B and C
b) Square of the squares each A, B and C
c) Cube root of the squares each A, B and C
d) Cube of the squares each A, B and C
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The magnitude of a Cartesian vector having the x, y and z axis components to be A, B
and C is always the square root of the squares each A, B and C. This comes from the distance formula
between two points in the Cartesian plane. That is the square root of the subtraction of the final and
initial point of a line.
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6. What is cosα for force vector F = Ax + By +Cz (Given α, β and γ are the angles made by the vector
with x, y and z axis respectively)?
a) B/F
b) C/F
c) A/F
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The cosine component of the vector is defined as the ratio of the x-axis component to the
magnitude of the vector, i.e. F in this case. Likewise, the sine component is the ratio of the y-axis
component to the magnitude of the vector.
7. What is the sum of squares of the cosine angles made by the force vector with the coordinate axis?
a) 1
b) ½
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The sum of the squares of the cosines of the vector will give you the squares of the
components in the numerator, and the vector’s magnitude’s square in the denominator. But the
numerator sum is equal to the vector’s magnitude’s square. Thus, the answer = 1.
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8. What is the x-axis component of the force vector Ai + Bj +Ck with magnitude equal to F?
a) B
b) C
c) Fcosα
d) Fcosβ
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As we know that the cosα is the ratio of the x-axis component to the magnitude of the
vector. Thus the x-axis components is Fcosα, F, the magnitude in the case. Likely if we want to take the
y-axis component we would try to do the same with the sine component.
9. We can add the force vectors directly. But with dividing each by it’s magnitude first.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: False, because if you will divide the magnitude of the vector to itself than the resulting
would be the unit vector. Which is just giving you the direction of the vector, not the vector itself. This
means unit vector has direction same as it’s respective vector but having a magnitude equal to one.
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10. For a vector F, Fcosβ is equal to zero. What does this refer?
a) X-axis component is zero
b) Y-axis component is zero
c) Z-axis component is zero
d) β = 180˚
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As we know the α, β and γ are the angles made by the x, y and z-axis respectively. Thus
y-axis component is zero, or β = 90˚. And thus if the angle is giving component to be zero this means
the vector in that particular axis is perpendicular to that axis.
11. Which statement is correct about the vector F?
a) F= Fcos β + Fcos α + Fcosγ
b) F= Fsin β + Fcos α + Fcosγ
c) F= Fcos β + Fsin α + Fcosγ
d) F= Fcos β + Fcos α + Fsinγ
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As we know the α, β and γ are the angles made by the x, y and z-axis respectively. Thus,
is the magnitude of the vector is F, the F= Fcos β + Fcos α + Fcosγ. Which means the force is the
resultant of all its axis’ components.
12. Which is true?
a) ∑F = ∑Fx + ∑Fy + ∑Fz
b) ∑F = -(∑Fx + ∑Fy + ∑Fz)
c) ∑F = ∑Fxi + ∑Fyj + ∑Fzk
d) ∑F = -(∑Fxi+ ∑Fyj + ∑Fzk)
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The total of two or more forces is equal to the sum of their respective axis’s components.
That is the resultant adds up all the components of the forces in their respective axis, whether it may
be x, y or z axis.
13. Find the angle α, for the vector making an angle by y and z axis as 60˚ and 45˚ respectively. It makes
an angle of α with x-axis. The magnitude of the force is 200N.
a) 60˚
b) 120˚
c) 45˚
d) 90˚
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When you will resolve the vector in its x, y and z-axis components, you will get an
equation containing cosα. After getting the α correctly, you need to directly put that value in the
previous equation of components. α = 60˚. As 120˚ will give a negative component. Just try to resolve
the vector in its components.
14. What is the magnitude of the resultant force when F1 = 60j + 80k and F2 = 50i – 100j + 100k?
a) 188 unit
b) 191 unit
c) 181 unit
d) 120 unit
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Just do the vector addition. And then calculate the resultant of the sum you get. In vector
addition just use the x, y and z axis components and then add them separately which will give you the
resultant’s components. Now do the pythogerous method of square rooting of components and the
resultant is what you get.
15. Express F = 100 N (shown in the figure below) as a Cartesian vector.
a) 35.4i – 35.4j + 86.6k
b) 35.4i – 35.4j – 86.6k
c) 35.4i – 35.4j – 86.6k
d) 35.4i + 35.4j + 86.6k
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Try to resolve the given vector so that you will get respective components. Use sine and
cosine multiplication of the angles given to calculate the components. Also, try to use the angles given
in the diagram which will be an easier way to solve the question and getting the answer.
and Answers.
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7/27/2021 Cement Grades - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Grades of Cement
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Grades of
Cement”.
1. What does grade 33 cement indicate?
a) Tensile strength of 33 kN/m2
b) Tensile strength of 33 N/mm2
c) Compressive strength of 33 kN/m2
d) Compressive strength of 33 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The grades of cement are specified by IS 1489-1991. Cements are usually graded based
on their compressive strength.
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2. Ordinary Portland cement (OPC) has been classified into how many grades?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 10
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There was only one grade of OPC before 1987 and was according to IS 269-1976. It was
revised in 1991 and IS 1489-1991 included 3 grades namely, 33 grade, 43 grade and 53 grade.
3. Grade 43 OPC is used widely for:
a) High rise buildings
b) Plastering
c) House construction
d) Finishing works
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Grade 43 OPC has higher strength than grade 33 and lower than grade 53. Grade 33
used for finishing works under normal condition. Grade 53 is used for high rise building.
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4. After how many days is the strength of cement is tested and graded according to the result?
a) 7 days
b) 28 days
c) 1 day
d) 14 days
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cement blocks are prepared to test their compressive strength. With proper curing and
attaining strength, these can be tested. It requires 28 days to fully cure and attain the strength of
required grade, say 43 N/mm2 for grade 43 OPC.
5. The compressive strength of OPC increases with time:
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cement blocks can be tested at 1 day, 3 days, 7 days and 28 days. Usually 1 day doesn’t
give any result. Strength of 43 grade OPC at the end of 3 days is 23, 7 days is 33 and 28 days is 43.
So, it increases with time.
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6. Grade 43 OPC shall be rejected if it remains in bulk storage in the factory for:
a) More than 3 months
b) More than 1 month
c) More than 6 months
d) More than 4 months
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Cement stored in the factory of more than 6 months has to be retested and rejected if it
does not meet requirements. Time period of more than 3 months is for cement bags with vendors.
7. The ratio of percentage of alumina to iron oxide in OPC 43 grade is:
a) 3.5
b) 0.66
c) 0.1
d) 0.05
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is mentioned in IS 8112:2013 Table 2. 3.5 is the total sulphur content, 0.1 is chloride
content and 0.05 is alkali content.
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8. What is the required minimum fineness for grade 53 OPC?
a) 370 m2/kg
b) 370 cm2/g
c) 580 m2/kg
d) 580 cm2/g
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The value is in accordance with the IS code 12269 for 53 grade OPC. Table 3 gives
physical requirements and fineness is one of them.
9. Which of the following cannot be added in 33 grade OPC after burning stage?
a) Gypsum
b) Water
c) Colouring Agents
d) Clay
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The details and specifications regarding the manufacture of 33 grade OPC are mentioned
in IS 269. It says that after burning, only certain element like gypsum, water, performance enhancers,
colouring agent can be added. More raw material-clay cannot be added.
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10. How much maximum percentage by mass of performance improvers can be added in grade 33 OPC?
a) 0.5
b) 1
c) 5
d) 0.1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Performance improvers include fly ash, slag, rice husk, ash, etc. These can be added in
quantity of 5% by mass as per Table 1 given in IS 269.
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7/27/2021 Cement Ingredients - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Ingredients of Cement
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Ingredients
of Cement”.
1. What is the most dominant constituent of cement?
a) Silica
b) Lime
c) Magnesia
d) Alumina
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cement contains about 60-65% of lime. Silica constitutes 17-25%, alumina 3-8% and
magnesia 1-3%.
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2. Deficiency of lime in cement leads to:
a) Unsound cement
b) Disintegration of cement
c) Quick setting of cement
d) Expansion of cement
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Presence of lime in sufficient quantity is necessary to form silicates and aluminates of
calcium. Excess lime leads to expansion, disintegration and unsoundness of cement.
3. What effect does calcium sulphate have on cement?
a) Retards setting action
b) Acts as flux
c) Imparts colour
d) Reduces strength
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Calcium sulphate is found in cement in the form of gypsum. Its slows down the setting
time of cement.
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4. Which of the following adds a quick-setting property to cement?
a) Magnesium oxide
b) Silicon dioxide
c) Iron oxide
d) Aluminium oxide
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Aluminium Oxide or Alumina is present in small quantity in cement and it helps in a quick-
setting property.
5. Which of the following imparts greenish grey colour to cement?
a) Calcium silicate
b) Calcium aluminate
c) Calcium aluminate ferrite
d) Calcium carbonate
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Calcium silicate and calcium aluminate are pure white minerals. Calcium aluminate ferrite
is brown in colour, but due to absorption of light by magnesium, present as an impurity, greenish grey
colour is imparted to cement.
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6. Excess of Alkali in cement results in:
a) Dry cement paste
b) Efflorescence
c) Less plasticity
d) Unsound cement
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Efflorescence is the formation of powdery substance on the surface of masonry or

concrete work. Alkalis usually get carried away by flue gases during heating. In excess quantity, they
result in alkali-aggregate reaction.
7. What function does iron oxide perform in cement?
a) Increases strength
b) Makes cement sound
c) Increases setting time
d) Acts as flux
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Iron oxide acts as a flux, in addition to being responsible for imparting colour to cement. If
the temperature goes higher, then iron oxide reacts with aluminium and calcium and results in the
formation of calcium aluminate ferrite.
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8. How many major ingredients are present in the composition of cement?
a) 8
b) 5
c) 10
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are 8 main ingredients present in cement. They are lime, silica, alumina, magnesia,
iron oxide, calcium sulphate, sulphur trioxide and alkalis.
9. Sulphur in cement is present in what amount?

a) 0.5 – 6 g
b) 1 – 2.5%
c) 0.5 – 6%
d) 1 – 2.5g
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The presence of ingredients is expressed in percentage. Iron oxide is present in 0.5-6%
and sulphur 1-2.5%.
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10. An excess of magnesium oxide after 5% is harmful to cement.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Excess of magnesium causes problems in structures built with this cement. It causes
cracks in both mortar and concrete after they harden.
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7/27/2021 Cement Manufacturing - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Manufacture of Cement
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“Manufacture of Cement”.
1. Nowadays, wet method of cement manufacturing is used.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Wet method was used from 1913 to 1960. The dry method is most adopted because it
improves the quality of cement, utilizing less power.
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2. In the figure below, what does ‘a’ represents?
a) Combustion chamber
b) Wash mill
c) Kiln
d) Dryer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: After the raw materials are mixed thoroughly, they need to be burned. Hence, ‘a’ in the
figure stands for kiln.
3. In the same figure in question 2, what is ‘b’ and its function?
a) Water-plasticity
b) Lime-strength
c) Sulphur-soundness
d) Gypsum-control setting
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: During the grinding process, small amount of gypsum is added. It is done to control the
setting of cement.
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4. How is the argillaceous material used in the manufacture of cement stored?
a) Silos
b) Basins
c) Bags
d) Storage tanks
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Clay is the argillaceous material used. These are mixed with water thoroughly and
washed in a container-wash mill. The wet mixture is then stored in basins.
5. Which one of the below is rarely used as fuel in burning stage of wet process of cement
manufacturing?
a) Wood
b) Gas
c) Pulverised coal
d) Fuel oil
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Clinkers are formed at a temperature of 1450o c. Wood burns at a temperature of 593oc,
natural gas at 2000oc, coal at 3500oc and oil at 2150oc. Wood cannot offer higher temperature at lower
cost, time and energy.
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6. How much does a bag of cement weigh?
a) 1 kg
b) 25 kg
c) 50 kg
d) 35 kg
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The weight of one bag of cement is 50 kg everywhere. It is the standard measurement. In
the manufacturing unit of cement, it is packed in bags of 50kg.
7. What is released during the production of clinker?
a) CaCO3
b) CO2
c) Ca(OH)2
d) CO
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Specifically, CO2 is released during calcination of limestone, which goes on to form
clinkers ahead. It occurs in upper, cooler end of kiln (precalciner) at temperatures of 600-900oc.
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8. What is the advantage of using precalciner?
a) Fine grained cement
b) Larger clinker size
c) Fuel efficiency
d) Sound cement
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Almost 95% of calcination is completely over in the precalciner, if 50-60% of fuel is added
to this chamber. Hence fuel in the kiln required is less.
9. Which stone provides the calcareous component required for the manufacture of cement?
a) Lime
b) Limestone
c) Marble
d) Granite
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Calcareous component used for cement manufacture is calcium carbonate. It is obtained
by quarrying limestone.
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10. Shale provides argillaceous components required for cement manufacture process.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Quarrying shale stone gives the argillaceous component. These are silica, aluminium and
iron.
11. Which one of the below is not a feature of cement Kiln?
a) Employs alternate fuels
b) Natural alkaline environment
c) High temperature
d) Portable
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Cement kiln is highly efficient as it incorporates preheater, precalciner, uses alternative
fuels-bio fuels, recycled waste, etc. It requires space and is permanently installed in one place. Rotary
kiln is the one that is portable.
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7/27/2021 Cement Properties - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Properties of Cement
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of Cement”.
1. Why is natural cement used very limitedly?
a) Brown in Colour
b) Standard consistency is not met with
c) Sets too quickly
d) Particle size is too fine
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Natural cement sets very quickly after the addition of water and hence it is not quite
workable. Artificial cement is preferred over this.
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2. Who invented Portland cement and in which year?
a) William Aspdin, 1824
b) William Aspdin, 1840s
c) Joseph Aspdin, 1840s
d) Joseph Aspdin, 1824
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Joseph Aspdin patented Portland cement in 1824. William Aspdin, his son is regarded as
the inventor of modern Portland cement due to his developments in 1840s.
3. What is the average particle size of cement?
a) 15 microns
b) 45 microns
c) 75 microns
d) 100 microns
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Approximately 95% of cement particles are smaller than 45 microns and the average
particle size is 15 microns.
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4. What is the meaning of soundness of cement?
a) Ability to flow when mixed
b) Ability to make ringing noise when struck
c) Ability to form strong and sound structure
d) Ability to retain volume after setting.
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When cement paste hardens and sets, it should not undergo any volume change.
Soundness ensures this and is tested using Autoclave expansion test.
5. Time elapsed from the instance of adding water until paste ceases to behave as fluid is called:
a) Initial setting time
b) Final setting time
c) Intermediate setting time
d) Absolute setting time
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Final setting time is the time required for cement paste to reach a certain state of
hardness. Option c and d does not exist.
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6. Which of the below mentioned is not a result of field test performed on cement?
a) There should not be any lumps
b) It should feel cold when you put your hand in bag of cement
c) The colour should be blackish grey
d) It should not be gritty when rubbed with finger
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The colour of cement is normally grey with a greenish tint. There are different shades –
lighter and darker, but it does not go as dark as blackish grey.
7. Which equipment is used to test the setting time of cement?
a) Core cutter
b) Vibrator
c) Universal testing machine (UTM)
d) Vicat apparatus
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Core cutter is used to determine dry density of soil. Vibrator is used in sieve analysis.
UTM can be used to test various parameters – tension, bending, shear of various materials. Vicat
apparatus consists of a needle, used to penetrate the cement paste sample.
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8. What is the initial setting time of cement?
a) 1 hour
b) 30 minutes
c) 15 minutes
d) 30 hours
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As per IS code 4031-part 5, the initial setting time of cement is minimum of 30 minutes.
After this cement will start losing its plasticity and will not be workable.
9. Use of coarser cement particles leads to:
a) Low durability
b) Higher strength
c) Low consistency
d) Higher soundness
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For coarser particles, hydration starts on the surface of particles, hence, it might not be
completely hydrated. This causes low strength and low durability.
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10. Wet cement can cause severe skin burns if not washed off with water immediately.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cement is highly alkaline and setting process is exothermic. Wet cement is strongly
caustic and causes skin burns. Similarly, dry cement causes eye or respiratory irritation, when it comes
in contact with mucous membranes.
11. Green cement is:
a) Green coloured cement
b) Cement mixed with plant products
c) Cement mixed with recycled materials
d) Cement mixed with green algae
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Green cement is a cementitious material which employs the use of optimized recycled
materials. These can meet or even exceed the functional performance of Portland cement.
12. What is the depth the needle in Vicat apparatus should penetrate into the cement paste in
consistency test?
a) 33-35 cm from bottom of the mould
b) 33-35 mm from top of the mould
c) 33-35 cm from top of the mould
d) 33-35 mm from bottom of the mould
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The best procedure has been clearly mentioned in IS 4031 Part 4. According to the code,
33-35mm depth of penetration is ideal.
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7/27/2021 Centre of Gravity - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Centre of Gravity
« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Centre of
Gravity”.
1. A body is consisted of __________ number of particles.
a) Infinite
b) Finite
c) Hundreds
d) Thousands
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The various bodies are composed of an infinite number of particles. They are very small
in size. They can’t be seen by our naked eyes. Thus the number of particles is not thousands nor
hundreds. But it is uncountable.
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2. A body’s all small particles have a small weight which is being applied by them to the body, which adds
up to the total weight of the body.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The weight of the body is the sum of all the small weights that are been applied by all the
particles. The smaller the particle the smaller the weight it applies. Thus the total weight of the body is
the summation of all the infinite number of small weights applied to the body.
3. The all small weights that are being applied by all the infinite particles of the body act __________ to
each other.
a) Parallel
b) Perpendicular
c) Collinear
d) Divergent
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: All the small weights that are being applied by all the particles are being applied by them
parallel to themselves. Thus the parallel is the right answer. Thus the total sum of all these small
weights adds up to the total weight of the body.
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4. The total of all the weights of small particles adds up to give the total body weight. This weight is the
force vector which is being passed by ________
a) Axis of rotation
b) Axis of rolling
c) Centre of Gravity
d) Centre of mass
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The total body weight always passes through the centre of gravity. All the forces are
parallel is the right answer. Thus the total sum of all these small weights add up to the total weight of
the body. Which passes through the centre of gravity.
5. The centre of gravity is the ratio of ________ to _________
a) The product of centroid and weight to the total weight
b) The addition of centroid and weight to the total weight
c) The subtraction of centroid and weight to the total weight
d) The product of centroid and weight to the total mass
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The product of the centroid of the section to its weight to the total weight of the body is the
centre of gravity. Thus the answer. The ratio is generally used to locate the coordinate of the centroid
or the centre of gravity.
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6. The x axis coordinate and the y axis coordinate of the centre of gravity are having different types of
calculations to calculate them.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The calculation is general to all the axis of the coordinate system. This means that the
calculations are generalised for all the axis. And it is the product of the centroid of the section to its
mass to the total weight of the body is the centre of gravity.
7. The centre of mass is the ratio of ________ to _________
a) The product of centroid and mass to the total weight
d) The product of centroid and mass to the total mass
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The product of the centroid of the section to its mass to the total mass of the body is the
centre of mass. Thus the answer. The ratio is generally used to locate the coordinate of the centroid or
the centre of mass.
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8. The centre of volume is the ratio of ________ to _________
c) The subtraction of centroid and volume to the total weight
d) The product of centroid and volume to the total volume
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The product of the centroid of the section to its volume to the total volume of the body is
the centre of volume. Thus the answer. The ratio is generally used to locate the coordinate of the
centroid or the centre of volume.
9. Determine the y coordinate of centroid of the line in the shape of parabola as shown.
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a) 0.514m
b) 1.410m
c) 2.410m
d) 0.10m
View Answer
Answer: a
10. Volume is best given by ___________
a) Product of mass and density
b) Ratio of mass to density
c) Addition of mass and density
d) Subtraction of mass and density
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The density is the ration of the mass to the volume of the body. Thus arranging them and
the volume is said to be a ratio of mass to density. This equation is generally used in the calculations of
the centroid of the body or the centre of gravity.
11. We use sometimes the measures to know the direction of moment. It is done by right handed
coordinate system. Which is right about it(consider the mentioned axis to be positive)?
a) Thumb is z-axis, fingers curled from x-axis to y-axis
b) Thumb is x-axis, fingers curled from z-axis to y-axis
c) Thumb is y-axis, fingers curled from x-axis to z-axis
d) Thumb is z-axis, fingers curled from y-axis to x-axis
View Answer
Answer: a
visualizing the same and knowing the basic members of axis will not create many problems.
12. If A is any vector with Ai + Bj + Ck then what is the y-axis component of the vector if we are using the
vector math to calculate the centre of gravity?
a) B units
b) A units
c) C units
d) Square root of a sum of squares of the three, i.e. A, B and C
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the given vector is shown in the Cartesian system, the number with “j” is the Y-axis
component of the given vector. With the numbers with “i” representing components of x-axis and “k”
representing the z axis respectively.
13. If the force vector F acting along the centre of gravity is having its x-axis component being equal to Z
N, y-axis component be X N and z-axis component be Y N then vector F is best represented by?
a) Xi + Yj + Zk
b) Yi + Xj + Zk
c) Zi + Yj + Xk
d) Zi + Xj + Yk
View Answer
Answer: d
represented with their respective axis is creating confusion. Which must be figured out.
14. Which statement is right for force acting by the small particles of the body having it’s vector form as =
Ai + Bj + Ck?
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As given the vector is F = Ai + Bj + Ck, this implies that the x, y and z-axis components of
15. Determine the x coordinate of centroid of the line in the shape of a parabola as shown.
a) 0.410m
b) 1.410m
c) 2.410m
d) 0.10m
View Answer
Answer: a
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7/27/2021 Centre of Mass - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Centre of Mass
« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Centre of
Mass”.
1. Mass is best given by _______
a) Product of volume and density
b) Ratio of mass to density
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The density is the ration of the mass to the volume of the body. Thus arranging them and
the volume is said to be as ratio of mass to density. This equation is generally used in the calculations
of the centroid of the body or the centre of mass.
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2. We use sometimes the measures to know the direction of moment in the calculations of the centre of
mass. It is done by right handed coordinate system. Which is right about it(consider the mentioned axis to
be positive)?
View Answer
Answer: a
visualizing the same and knowing the basic members of axis will not create much problem.
3. The total of all the masses of small particles adds up to give the total body mass. This mass lies along
with gravity gives a force vector which is being passed by ________
a) Axis of rotation
b) Axis of rolling
d) Centre of mass
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The total body mass along with the product of gravity always passes through the centre of
gravity. All the forces are parallel is the right answer. Thus the total sum of all these small weights add
up to the total weight of the body. Which passes through the centre of gravity.
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4. The all small masses that are being applied by all the infinite particles of the body act __________ to
each other.
a) Parallel
b) Perpendicular
c) Collinear
d) Divergent
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: All the small masses that are being applied by all the particles are being applied by them
parallel to themselves. Thus the parallel is the right answer. Thus the total sum of all these small
weights add up to the total weight of the body.
5. A body’s all small particles have a small mass which is being applied by them to the body, which adds
up to the total mass of the body.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The weight of the body is the sum of the all the small masses that are been applied by all
the particles. The smaller the particle the smaller the mass it applies. Thus the total mass of the body is
the summation of all the infinite number of small masses applied to the body.
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6. What is not the condition for the equilibrium in calculations involved in the determination of the centre
of mass?
a) ∑Fx=0
b) ∑Fy=0
c) ∑Fz=0
d) ∑F≠0
View Answer
Answer: d
as, ∑Fx=0, ∑Fy=0 and ∑Fz=0. Also we have the summation of the forces equal to zero. Which is not a
non-zero value.
7. We first make equilibrium equations of the body by considering all the three dimensional forces and
then the free body diagram is made and then equations are made to be applied so as to calculate the
centre of mass.
a) The first part of the statement is false and other part is true
b) The first part of the statement is false and other part is false too
c) The first part of the statement is true and other part is false
d) The first part of the statement is true and other part is true too
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: We first make the free body diagram and then we make the equilibrium equations to
satisfy the given conditions. This helps us to solve the question easily. As this reduces the part of
imagination and increases accuracy too.
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8. If solving the question in 3D calculations is difficult, then use the 2D system and then equate the ratio
of the product of the centroid of the section to its mass to the total mass of the body to the centre of
mass.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is obviously yes. If we are having any difficulty in making the vector
components, then we can go in 2D. As if the particle is in equilibrium, the net force will be zero. No
matter where you see first. Net force is zero.
9. Determine the y coordinate of centroid of the wire in the shape of circle as shown.
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a) 2R/π
b) 2/π
c) 2R/3
d) 2R/5
View Answer
Answer: a
10. One of the use of the centre of mass or centroid is as in the simplification of the loading system the
net force acts at the ___________ of the loading body.
a) Centroid
b) The centre axis
c) The corner
d) The base
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the simplification of the loading system the net force acts at the centroid of the loading
body. That is if the loading system is in the form of the triangle then the at the distance 2 by 3 of the
base the net force of the loading will act. And the load will be half the area of the loading.
11. The body is sometimes acted by two or three force members. The difference between the two and the
three force members is ________________
a) The former is collinear and the latter is parallel
b) The former is parallel and the latter is perpendicular
c) The former is perpendicular and the latter is collinear
d) The former is acting on two points in the body while the latter is on three points
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The definition of the two force member only defines that the forces are being acted on the
two points on the body. So does is the definition of the three forces members. The points of action of
the three forces are three.
12. Determine the x coordinate of centroid of the wire in the shape of circle as shown.
a) 2R/π
b) 2/π
c) 2R/3
d) 2R/5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The weight of the body is the sum of the all the small weights that are been applied by all
the particles. The smaller the particle the smaller the weight it applies. Thus the total weight of the body
is the summation of all the infinite number of small weights applied to the body.
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7/27/2021 Centroid of a Body - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Centroid of a Body
« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Centroid of
a Body”.
1. Density is best given by _______
a) Product of volume and density
b) Ratio of mass to Volume
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The density is the ratio of the mass to the volume of the body. Thus arranging them and
the volume is said to be a the ratio of mass to density. This equation is generally used in the
calculations of the centroid of the body.
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2. If solving the question in 3D calculations is difficult, then use the 2D system and then equate the ratio
of the product of the centroid of the section to its mass to the total mass of the body to the centroid.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is obviously no. Still, if we are having any difficulty in making the vector
matter where you see first. Net force is zero. But the statement here is not correct about the centroid.
3. One of the uses of the centroid is as in the simplification of the loading system the net force acts at the
___________ of the loading body.
a) Centroid
b) The centre axis
c) The corner
d) The base
View Answer
Answer: a
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4. The use of centroid comes in picture as if the non-Uniform loading is of the type of parabola then what
will be the best suited answer among the following?
a) The net load will not be formed as all the forces will be cancelled
b) The net force will act the centre of the parabola
c) The net force will act on the base of the loading horizontally
d) The net force will act at the centroid of the parabola
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The net force will act at the centroid of the parabola. Whether it be a parabola or the cubic
curve the centroid is the only point at which the net force act. Force can’t be acted horizontally if the
loading is vertical. Hence whatever be the shape of the loading, the centroid is the point of action of net
force. Thus the use of centroid.
5. The x axis coordinate and the y axis coordinate of the centroid are having different types of
calculations to calculate them.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The calculation is general to all the axis of the coordinate system. This means that the
calculations are generalised for all the axis. All the axis are given the same priority. Thus no change in
calculations.
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6. The centre of ____________ is the ratio of the product of centroid and volume to the total volume.
a) Centroid axis
b) Density
c) Mass
d) Volume
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The product of the centroid of the section to its volume to the total volume of the body is
the centre of volume. Thus the answer. The ratio is generally used to locate the coordinate of the
centroid or the centre of volume.
7. If the force vector F acting along the centroid is having its x-axis component being equal to Z N, y-axis
component be X N and z-axis component be Y N then vector F is best represented by?
a) Xi + Yj + Zk
b) Yi + Xj + Zk
c) Zi + Yj + Xk
d) Zi + Xj + Yk
View Answer
Answer: d
representor with their respective axis is creating confusion. Which must be figured out.
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8. Centroid of a body does depends upon the small weights of tiny particles. Which statement is right for
force acting by the small particles of the body having it’s vector form as = Ai + Bj + Ck?
View Answer
Answer: c
9. Centroid determination involves the calculations of various forces. In that forces are having various
properties. That is force is developed by a support that not allows the ________ of its attached member.
a) Translation
b) Rotation
c) Addition
d) Subtraction
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The force developed by a support doesn’t allow the translation of its attached member.
This is the basic condition for the equilibrium of the forces in any dimension. This rule is applied when
the support reactions are taken into the account for the equilibrium of the body.
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10. Determine the y coordinate of centroid of the area in the shape of circle as shown.
a) 4R/π
b) 2/π
c) 2R/3
d) 2R/5
View Answer
Answer: a
11. What is not the condition for the equilibrium for the calculations used for the determination of the
centroid in three dimensional system of axis?
a) ∑Fx=0
b) ∑Fy=0
c) ∑Fz=0
d) ∑F≠0
View Answer
Answer: d
non-zero value.
12. Determine the x coordinate of centroid of the area in the shape of circle as shown.
a) 4R/π
b) 2/π
c) 2R/3
d) 2R/5
View Answer
Answer: a
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7/27/2021 Chain Surveying - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Chain Surveying
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Chain
Surveying”.
1. An offset is a _________ distance of an object measured from the survey line.
a) Lateral
b) Horizontal
c) Normal
d) Inclined
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Offsets are taken perpendicular to the survey lines. They are used to mark objects and
the lateral distance to them, using an offset rod.
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2. Which of the below is not an instrument used to set right angles?
a) Cross staff
b) Site square
c) Optical staff
d) Prism square
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There is no instrument like an optical staff. Optical square is an instrument which consists
of circular box with three slits. Cross staff is a frame of the box mounted on a pole. Prism square is an
advanced version of an optical square. Site square consists of two telescopes set at 90os.
3. How many types of chains are used in chain surveying?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There can be 5 types of chains used for chain surveying. They are the metric chain,
Gunter’s chain, engineer’s chain, revenue chain and steel band or band chain.
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4. Gunter’s chain consists of _________ links.
a) 500
b) 50
c) 1000
d) 100
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Gunter’s chain is also called surveyor’s chain and is 66ft long. It consists of 100 links,
each being 0.6 ft. Eighty Gunter’s chain corresponds to 1 mile.
5. The process of a location of intermediate points on a survey line is:
a) Aligning
b) Extending
c) Ranging
d) Offsetting
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Ranging is used to locate intermediate points. They are marked using ranging rods. It is
done when a survey line is very long and marks are required to distinguish the line.
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6. The biggest of the survey line is called:
a) First line
b) Base line
c) Tie line
d) Main survey line
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The line joining the main survey station is called the main survey line. The biggest of the
main survey line is the base line, and other features are plotted with respect to this line.
7. Chain surveying uses the principle of:
a) Traversing
b) Chaining
c) Ranging
d) Triangulation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Chain surveying is suitable for a survey of small areas. The area is divided into well-
conditioned triangles and triangulation is the principle used.
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8. In how many ways can ranging be carried out?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ranging is of 2 types – direct and indirect. Direct ranging is done using a line ranger or
naked eye. Indirect ranging is done when starting and ending points are not visible.
9. The book in which chain measurements are entered is called:
a) Field book
b) Record book
c) Study book
d) Chain book
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Field book is used to enter all the measurements done while surveying. It is an oblong
book of size 20x12cm and opens length wise.
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10. How many types of cross staff are available?
a) 2
b) 5
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The three types are open cross staff, French cross staff and adjustable cross staff. Open
cross staff has two vertical, opposite slits. French cross staff consists of a hollow octagonal box. The
adjustable cross staff consists of two cylinders of equal diameter, one placed on top of the other.
11. Survey stations may be marked on the ground using a:
a) Pole
b) Rod
c) Pointer
d) Peg
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Peg is a wooden block with a pointed edge to drive it into the ground. They are generally
2.5-3 cm2 and 15cm long, with tapered end.
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7/27/2021 Compass Surveying - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Compass Surveying
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Compass
Surveying”.
1. The direction of a line relative to a given meridian is called:
a) Bearing
b) Declination
c) Angle
d) Dip
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bearing of the line gives its direction relative to a given meridian. It can be measured as
an angle using any angular measuring instruments.
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2. How many types of a compass are used in surveying?
a) 4
b) 2
c) 3
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The two compass types used in surveying are Prismatic Compass and Surveyor’s
Compass. Prismatic Compass is most commonly used one for surveying.
3. ___________ bearing is measured in the direction of survey.
a) Primary
b) First
c) Fore
d) Front
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fore bearing is used to indicate the angle measured in the direction of progress of the
survey. The angle measured in the opposite direction of progress of the survey is called back bearing.
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4. In a reduced bearing system, bearing is measured from:
a) Nearest one (North or South)
b) South
c) West
d) North
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In reduced bearing system bearing is measured from the nearest one, North or South is
anticlockwise or clockwise direction. It aims at locating nearest bearing.
5. Prismatic Compass is based on the reduced bearing system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Prismatic Compass functions based on WCB – whole circle bearing and surveyor’s
compass functions based on the reduced bearing system.
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6. The bearing of line AB as shown below is represented in reduced bearing as:
a) N150o
b) E60oS
c) S30o
d) S30oE
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Reduced bearing involves measurement in shortest way possible. It is represented as S

30o E to indicate bearing of 30o in anticlockwise direction from South.
7. How many meridians are used in surveying?
a) 6
b) 8
c) 3
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: True, magnetic and arbitrary meridians are used. True meridian passes through true
North and South. Magnetic meridian passes through magnetic North and South. Arbitrary meridian is
used for rough purposes.
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8. ________ is a term used that prevents the needle from pointing to the magnetic North in a given
locality.
a) Local attraction
b) Declination
c) Deviation
d) Local distraction
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: While reading a compass, sometimes needle might be slightly deviated from magnetic
North. It can be due to any weather conditions, magnetic objects nearby. It has to be corrected to get
accurate readings.
9. ___________ line is the line drawn through points of the same declination.
a) Polygonic
b) Isogonic
c) Syngonic
d) Agonic
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Isogonic line passes through points of the same declination. Agonic line passes through
points of zero declination. Other options are invalid.
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10. Which of the below is not a temporary adjustment of the prismatic compass?
a) Centring
b) Levelling
c) Focussing prism
d) Adjusting sight vane
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In a prismatic compass, the sight vanes are generally not adjustable. In surveyor’s
compass, it’s one of the permanent adjustments done.
11. How many types of variations in declination are there?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The four types are diurnal (daily), annual (yearly), secular (periodic) and irregular
variations.
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7/27/2021 Composite Bodies - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Composite Bodies
« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Composite
Bodies”.
1. A ______________ body consists of a series of connected “simpler” shaped bodies.
a) Composite
b) Non-composite
c) Digital
d) Binary
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A composite body consists of a series of connected simpler shaped bodies. That is the
body is having two material as it’s constitutes. The main thing is that the single material is having the
properties of two different materials.
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2. Composite materials are of no use for the chemical engineers.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The composite materials are of much importance to the chemical engineer. This means
that the composite materials are variedly used in the chemical industries. It can be used in the bridges
made for the pipelines, etc.
3. The composite materials are lighter than their constituent material.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Yes the composite materials are lighter than the constituent material. This means that the
density of the former is lighter than the latter. Thus imparting many qualities to the materials. Thus the
material can be used variedly.
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4. Composite materials can be of __________ shapes.
a) Any
b) Circular only
c) Rectangular only
d) Oval only
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The composite materials can be of any shape. This means that the shape of the material
can be varied. Thus any shape can be imparted to the composite materials and then be used in the
industries variedly.
5. Two of the things of the composite materials are to be known so that their properties can be varied.
Which of the following is one of them?
a) Weight of the centre of gravity
b) Weight of the centre of body
c) Location of the centre of gravity
d) Location of the centre of mass
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The centre of the gravity’s location and the weight of the composite body is needed to be
known. This means that if both of the quantities of the composite body is known then the properties of
the body can be altered. Thus both are very important things to be known about the composite bodies.
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6. The centre of mass for the composite body is the ratio of ________ to _________
View Answer
Answer: d
the centre of mass.
7. The total of all the masses of small particles adds up to give the total body mass of the composite
body. This mass lies along with gravity gives a force vector which is being passed by ________
a) Axis of rotation
b) Axis of rolling
d) Centre of mass
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The total body mass along with the product of gravity always passes through the centre of
gravity. All the forces are parallel is the right answer. Thus the total sum of all these small weights adds
up to the total weight of the body. Which passes through the centre of gravity.
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8. One of the uses of the centre of mass or centroid of the composite bodies is as in the simplification of
the loading system the net force acts at the ___________ of the loading body.
a) Centroid
b) The centre axis
c) The corner
d) The base
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the simplification of the loading system the net force acts at the centroid of the
composite body. That is if the loading system is in the form of the triangle then at the distance 2 by 3 of
the base the net force of the loading will act. And the load will be half the area of the loading.
9. If any external force also is applied on the distributed loading on the composite body then?
a) The net force will act at the centroid of the structure only
b) The net load will not be formed as all the forces will be cancelled
d) The net force will not to be considered, there would be a net force of the distribution, and rest will be
the external forces
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The external forces are treated differently. They are not added by the force of the
distributed loading. That is the force not only acts at the centroid always. It can be shifted also.
Depending on the external forces. Thus the use of centroid or centre of mass.
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10. A composite body is consisted of __________ number of particles.
a) Infinite
b) Finite
c) Hundreds
d) Thousands
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The various bodies are composed of infinite number of particles. They are very small in
size. They can’t be seen by our naked eyes. Thus the number of particles is not thousands nor
coordinate system. Which is right about it for the composite bodies (consider the mentioned axis to be
positive)?
View Answer
Answer: a
12. What is not the condition for the equilibrium in three dimensional system of axis for the composite
bodies?
a) ∑Fx=0
b) ∑Fy=0
c) ∑Fz=0
d) ∑F≠0
View Answer
Answer: d
non-zero value.
13. Determine the x coordinate of centroid of the shape shown.
a) 0.410m
b) 1.410m
c) 2.410m
d) 0.10m
View Answer
Answer: a
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7/27/2021 Computer-Aided Design - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Computer-Aided Design
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Computer-
Aided Design”.
1. The computer-aided design (CAD) hardware doesn’t include.
a) Graphic display terminals
b) Computer
c) Computer programmes
d) Keyboard
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: CAD has both hardware and software components. The hardware components are
Graphic display terminals, Computer and Keyboard. The software components include all computer
programmes that implement computer graphics.
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2. How many types of CAD are there?
a) 6
b) 4
c) 2
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The five types are 2D CAD (flat drawings of product), 2.5D CAD (Prismatic models), 3D
CAD (3D objects), 3D wireframe and surface modelling (skeleton like inner structure) and solid
modelling (solid geometry).
3. Modem CAD systems are based on:
a) ICG
b) GCI
c) GIF
d) IFG
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: ICG is interactive computer graphics. It denotes a user-oriented system in which

computer is used to create, transform and display data in pictorial or symbolic forms.
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4. The computer communicates with the user via:
a) CPU
b) CRT
c) Graphics
d) Display button
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cathode Ray Tube (CRT) screen gives the user the design created as an image. It is
done by entering commands to get specific functions performed.
5. The process of designing consists of __________ identifiable steps.
a) 8
b) 5
c) 4
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The six steps are recognition of need, the definition of a problem, synthesis, analysis &
optimization, evaluation and presentation.
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6. Implementing CAD improves communications.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The use of CAD system provides the better understanding of engineering drawings by
standardising them. It has fewer errors, proper documentation and greater legibility.
7. The functionality areas of CAD application can be grouped into __________ categories.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The four categories are geometric modelling, engineering analysis, design review and
evaluation and automated drafting.
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8. The colour on CRT screen is obtained by the combination of:
a) Red, yellow, blue
b) Red, green, blue
c) Green, black, yellow
d) Red, black, yellow
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The three primary colour red, green and blue are combined to produce variety of colours.
Colour CRT uses electron beams of these triad colours on phosphor screen to display objects.
9. Who formulated the six ground rules to be considered in designing graphics software?
a) Newman and Sproull
b) Schaffer G
c) Fitzgerald W
d) Krouse and Lerro
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: They gave six ground rules which were simplicity, consistency, completeness, robustness,
performance and economy.
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10. The input devices in CAD can be divided into:
a) 2
b) 5
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The input devices can be divided into three general categories. These are cursor control
devices (direct keys on keyboard, joysticks, tracker ball, etc.), digitizers (large smooth board with an
electronic tracking device) and alphanumeric and other keyboard terminals.
11. The typical ICG system consists of software component.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It consists of both hardware and software. Hardware includes CPU, workstations and
peripheral devices. Software consists of computer programmes required to implement graphics.
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7/27/2021 Concrete Composition - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Composition of Concrete
« Prev Next »
“Composition of Concrete”.
1. How many components are mainly used to prepare concrete?
a) 5
b) 3
c) 2
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Concrete is prepared by mixing cement, fine aggregate, coarse aggregate with water. It is
a thick paste and hence has high bulk density.
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2. Which of the below is the most common alternative to cement in concrete?
a) Slag
b) Fly ash
c) Asphalt
d) Lime
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Asphalt is the highly cementitious material. It possesses almost all qualities of cement and
is widely used as an alternative to cement.
3. What is the ideal water-cement ratio to be used while hand mixing?
a) 0.4-0.5
b) 0.5-0.6
c) 0.6-1
d) 1.6-2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Ideal water cement ratio for general works is 0.45. During machine mixing, it can be in the
range of 0.4-0.5. Hand mixing is done by labourers and maximum 0.6 can be allowed.
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4. Which IS code gives details regarding water to be used in concrete?
a) IS 456
b) IS 383
c) IS 565
d) IS 3012
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Normally, potable water is to be used for preparing concrete. In the case where potable
water is not available, a certain amount of impurities are permissible in the water to be used. Those are
given in Table in IS 456.
5. How many types of chemical admixture are there?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Admixtures are compounds added to concrete to attain specific properties. The chemical
admixtures are added in small amounts. The 4 types are accelerators, retarders, plasticizers and air
entraining agents.
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6. Retarders are used for:
a) Construction of high rise building
b) Repair works
c) Cold weather conditions
d) Grouting deep oil wells
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Retarders are used to slow down the initial rate of hydration and extend the initial setting
time. It is therefore used to grout deep oil wells, transport RMC (Ready Made Concrete) and avoid cold
joints. Accelerator is used for first 3 options.
7. _________ is added to make white concrete.
a) Fly ash
b) Metakaolin
c) Rise husk
d) Pigments
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fly ash, Rise husk are dark in colour. Metakaolin is usually bright white in colour and is
the preferred choice for architectural concrete where appearance is important.
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8. As water cement ratio increases, ________ also increases.
a) Compressive strength
b) Tensile strength
c) Bleeding
d) Workability
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: More water improves the workability of a mix, but compromises on the strength
requirements. Hence, ideal w/c ratio of 0.45 is to be used.
9. Which of the below is an example of plasticizer?
a) Hydroxylated carboxylic acid
b) Fluoro-silicate
c) Gypsum
d) Surkhi
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fluoro-silicate is an accelerator. Gypsum is a retarder and surkhi is a type of mineral

admixture.
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10. Which component of concrete gives it desired compressive strength?
a) Water
b) Cement
c) Aggregates
d) Admixture
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Aggregates used are sand, gravel or crushed stones. These have high compressive
strength. Concrete is strong in compression and weak in tension due to this reason.
11. What is the ratio of the component in grade M20 concrete?
a) 1:3:6
b) 1:1.5:3
c) 1:1:2
d) 1:2:4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Concrete is graded into many types as per IS 456-2000. M stands for mix and the
number, say, 20 is a compressive strength after 28 days in N/mm2. Generally, M20 grade is used. The
ratio of cement: fine: coarse aggregate for M20 is 1:1.5:3. For M10 it is 1:3:6, M15 it is 1:2:4 and M25 it
is 1:1:2.
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7/27/2021 Concrete Properties - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Properties of Concrete
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of Concrete”.
1. Properties of concrete can broadly be divided into:
a) 8
b) 6
c) 4
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Based on the state of concrete, its properties vary. Concrete in the fresh state has
different properties than concrete in a hardened state.
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2. The accumulation of water on the outer surface of the concrete is:
a) Transpiration
b) Bleeding
c) Guttation
d) Ponding
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bleeding can be good as well as bad for fresh concrete. Sometimes due to improper
mixing, the water forms a thin layer on the outer surface, by oozing out through voids.
3. Which of the below property of aggregates is not desirable?
a) Smooth texture
b) Well graded
c) Angular shape
d) Smaller size
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Aggregates should provide space for cement paste so as to lubricate the area. The
parameters like texture, size, shape, grading are to be considered. Larger size, cubical, round and
rough textured aggregates are preferred.
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4. How does the strength of concrete differ with age of concrete?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) No effect
d) Increases, then decreases
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It increases with increase in age. The strength measured after days, months and years
shows an increase. It takes 28 days for concrete to attain full strength. However, it continues to attain
strength even after 28 days.
5. Impermeability is a property of fresh concrete.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fresh concrete cannot be judged as impermeable. After it hardens and forms a structure,
it may be impervious or pervious. Ideally, it should be impermeable.
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6. Permanent dimension changes due to loading is termed as:
a) Strain
b) Extent
c) Creep
d) Ambit
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Concrete shrinks with age. The changes in dimension are called creep. It is determined
using creep coefficient which is the ratio of ultimate creep strain to elastic strain at the age of loading.
7. Which admixture is used to improve workability?
a) Plasticizers
b) Metakaolin
c) Reducers
d) Accelerators
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Plasticizers help to increase the workability of concrete without altering the water-cement
ratio. It is very helpful as it provides the required workability, at the same time does not compromise on
strength.
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8. Workability reduces with time.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The rate of evaporation of water from concrete mix increases as time increases. Loss of
water leads to less workability.
9. Bleeding is good to an extent if it occurs when concrete is:
a) Transported
b) Mixed
c) Plastic
d) Placed
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: While the concrete is still plastic, the accumulated water due to bleeding can be used to
mix concrete again and improve workability. It also benefits by further reducing water-cement ratio.
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10. M15 concrete is used for:
a) Dams
b) Foundation
c) R.C.C
d) Mass concreting works
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: M10 is used for Mass concrete works, dams, etc. M20 is used for R.C.C. structures. M15
can be used for ground floor construction also.
11. In design of R.C.C. structures, the tensile strength of concrete is taken as:
a) 5N/mm2
b) 2N/mm2
c) 0.3N/mm2
d) 0N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Since concrete does not take up tensile loads, it is taken as zero. But IS 456-2000
recommends the tensile strength to be calculated using Ft = 0.7√fck N/mm2.
12. Higher the cement content,
a) Higher aggregates
b) Lower workability
c) Higher strength
d) Lower strength
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Higher the cement content i.e. lower the aggregate cement ratio, higher is the strength. It
improves workability also.
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7/27/2021 Conservative Forces - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Conservative Forces
« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on ”
Conservative Forces”.
1. If a block moves from a height h above the ground then the work done is given by_______
a)
b)
c)
d)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The potential energy is converted into the work done. Thus is the block moves from the
height h to the ground, the work done is given by . Negative because the work done is in the
opposite direction of the motion of the body.
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2. If any external conservative force also is applied on the distributed loading then?
d) The net force will not to be considered, there would be a net force of the distribution, rest will be the
external forces
View Answer
Answer: d
3. Find the tension in the cable AC.
a) 23.6N
b) 55N
c) 89N
d) -29N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: First represent the forces in their vector form. Then equate the net sum of the forces in
the x, y and z directions to be zero. You will get FB = FC and 2(.848) = 40N. This gives the answer as
23.6N.
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4. What is the sum of squares of the cosine angles made by the conservative force vector with the
coordinate axis?
a) 1
b) ½
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The sum of the squares of the cosines of the vector will give you the squares of the
components in the numerator, and the vector’s magnitude’s square in the denominator. But the
numerator sum is equal to the vector’s magnitude’s square. Thus, the answer = 1.
5. ____________ is the phenomena that resist the movement of the two surfaces in contact. This
phenomenon is also having its scope in the work and the conservative nature of the force.
a) Friction
b) Motion
c) Circular movement
d) Rotation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The friction is the phenomena that define that there is a resistance which is present there
between the two surfaces. The two surfaces are in contact and the friction applies at that surface only,
resisting the motion of the surface.
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6. In the explanation of the theory of friction over which conservative forces were acted upon, the block
used to have an assumption. That is the upper portion of the block is considered to be rigid.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The block used to explain the theory of friction is placed on a deformable surface. As we
know that the theory of friction says that when there is no lubricating fluid present between the surfaces
in contact, the dry friction occurs. Thus to show the same, experiments are done over a non-
rigid/deformable surface which is having a rigid shape.
7. Work done by a spring to a body from moving it from x1 to x2 distance is given by _________
a)
b)
c)
d)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation:The potential energy is converted into the work done. Thus is the block moves from the
distance x2 to x1, the work done is given by . Negative because the work done is in the
opposite direction of the motion of the body.
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8. Which statement is right for conservative force vector F = Ai + Bj + Ck?
View Answer
Answer: c
9. For equilibrium, the net moment acting on the body by various conservative forces is zero.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The equilibrium is only attained if the net moment on the body tends to be equal to zero.
Thus the moments caused by different forces cancel out. If this happens there is no motion of the body
along any direction and hence the body is said to be in equilibrium. The body here is a rigid body.
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10. Determine the horizontal components of the reaction on the beam caused by the pin at Q. The force
60N is multiplied by 10 and then is applied.
a) 0N
b) 445N
c) 45N
d) 40N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The summation of the forces needs to be zero. So does the summation of the moments
need to zero. But talking about the angles, they not needed to zero. But the forces which are acting at
particular angles, must needed to.
11. The conservative frictional force always acts ____________ to the surface of the application of the
friction.
a) Tangential
b) Perpendicular
c) Parallel
d) Normal
View Answer
Answer: a
between the two surfaces. This friction is applied tangentially to the surfaces in contact. Thus the main
thing is that the forces on both of the surfaces act as a tangential to each other.
12. What does Newton’s third law states for the conservative forces?
a) The rate of change of momentum is equal to the force applied
b) For every reaction there is an opposite reaction

c) The body is tend to be rotated if the force is applied tangentially
d) The body is rest until a force is applied
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The requirement of the third law is important in the equilibrium of the body. Specially the
rigid bodies. The rigid body particles are in the equilibrium and are thus facing the forces and to be in
the equilibrium they also react and apply the opposite force and thus the third law of Newton. It is the
same for all the methods.
13. We use sometimes the measures to know the direction of moment in the calculations of the moments
caused by the conservative forces. Which one is right about it(consider the mentioned axis to be
positive)?
View Answer
Answer: a
14. For the conditions of the equilibrium of the body, i.e. the rigid body only the external conservative
forces defines the equilibrium. Because the internal conservative forces cancels out so not to be
considered.
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The application of the internal forces does affect the conditions of the equilibrium of the
body. Not only the external but the internal forces that are developed by the sake of external forces
does develop a tending effect on the equilibrium of the body. Thus the internal forces doesn’t cancels
out.
15. Which statement is correct about the vector F in the showing the conservative nature of the forces?
View Answer
Answer: a
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7/27/2021 Constraints & Statical Determinacy Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Constraints and Statical Determinacy
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This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Constraints and Statical Determinacy”.
1. To satisfy the conditions of the equilibrium, the must not only be having a net force zero, but also be
properly held or constrained on its supports.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To satisfy the conditions of the equilibrium, the must not only be having a net force zero,
but also be properly held or constrained on its supports. The more the stable are the supports the more
the stable is the equilibrium, that is the more easily is the equilibrium is achived.
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2. A homogeneous plate is shown has a mass of 100kg and is subjected to a force and a system of
couple along its edge. If it is supported by a horizontal plane and a roller at R a ball and socket joint at P
and a cord at Q, determine the vertical reaction at the support P.
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a) -217N
b) 80N
c) 700N
d) -250N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the vertical force means that the force is going from the outer to the inner section of
the plate and the horizontal force means that the force is travelling along the plane of the surface. Thus
by applying the conditions for the equilibrium we get the above answer.
3. What is redundant support?
a) The supports consisting of hinge and a roller
b) The supports consisting of hinge only
c) The supports consisting of roller only
d) The supports more than necessary to hold the structure
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The supports if are more than the supports required to hold the structure are termed as
the reductant supports. It becomes statically indeterminate. This not only creates a problem in
achieving the equilibrium but also affects the calculation of the equilibrium.
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and a cord at Q, determine the horizontal reaction at the support P.
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a) 0N
b) 80N
c) 200N
d) 100N
View Answer
Answer: a
5. Statically indeterminacy means?
a) There will be less equations available for equilibrium than the unknown loadings
b) There will be more equations available for equilibrium than the unknown loadings
c) There will be equal equations available for equilibrium as the unknown loadings
d) The support reactions are opposite to each other
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Statically indeterminacy is the condition when less equations are available for equilibrium
than the unknown loadings. This not only creates a problem in achieving the equilibrium but also
affects the calculation of the equilibrium. Thus this is the stuff which one needs to prevent from
happening.
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and a cord at Q, determine the horizontal reaction at the support R.
a) 0N
b) 30N
c) 20N
d) 10N
View Answer
Answer: a
7. The additional equations invented in the statically indeterminacy condition is solved by __________
a) Deformation conditions at the point of supports
b) Rotational equations
c) Translation equations
d) Linear rotation equations
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The additional equations invented in the statically indeterminacy condition is solved by
deformation conditions at the point of supports. This are the conditions which are based on the
physical and the chemical properties of the body. A different study for this is done in mechanics of
material.
8. The generation of equal equations available for equilibrium as the unknown loadings always
guarantees the stability of the body.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The generation of equal equations available for equilibrium as the unknown loadings
doesn’t always guarantees the stability of the body. It is defined on the basis of the supports that are
their supporting the body. Or it also depends on the types of the forces that are acting, i.e. the three or
two force system.
9. In 3D the body will be improperly constrained if the axis is intersected by the reaction forces.
a) The statement is right
b) The statement is wrong
c) The statement is right if there is ‘2D’
d) The statement is right if there is ‘support reaction’
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In 3D the body will be improperly constrained if the axis is intersected by the reaction
forces. This is because there will be small moments which will occur in the real situations. But they will
not be matched in the calculations done for determining the equilibrium. Thus the statement is right.
10. The improper constraining leading to instability occurs when ___________________
a) The reactive forces are parallel
b) The reactive forces are perpendicular
c) The reactive forces are equal
d) The reactive forces are rotational
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If the forces are parallel (the reactive forces) then this creates an instability. That is this is
also a type of improper constraining which is resulting in instability of the structure. Thus reactive
forces are parallel are resulting in the instability of the body.
and a cord at Q, determine the sum of all the vertical forces at the supports.
a) 1280N
b) 80N
c) 200N
d) 100N
View Answer
Answer: a
and a cord at Q, determine the vertical reaction at the support Q.
a) 707N
b) 80N
c) 200N
d) 100N
View Answer
Answer: a
13. What is partially constrained?
a) There will be less equations available for equilibrium than the reactive forces
b) There will be more equations available for equilibrium than the reactive forces
c) There will be equal equations available for equilibrium as the reactive forces
d) The support reactions are opposite to each other
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The situation may arise when there will be more equations available for equilibrium than
the reactive forces. This condition is known as partially constrained. This is also one of the factor which
is giving instability to the structure.
14. If all the reactive forces are intersecting at the common point or pass through a common axis when
_____________
a) The body is in equilibrium
b) The body is said to be achieve stability but no equilibrium
c) The body is said to be improperly constrained
d) The body is in deformation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If all the reactive forces are intersecting at the common point or pass through a common
axis then the body is said to be improperly constrained. Whether it may be the reactive forces being
parallel. Or be it the forces meeting at a common point. The body is said to be improperly constrained.
and a cord at Q, determine the vertical reaction at the support R.
a) 790N
b) 80N
c) 200N
d) 100N
View Answer
Answer: a
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7/27/2021 Contouring - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Contouring
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“Contouring”.
1. Contours can be found in a __________ map.
a) Political
b) Topographical
c) Physical
d) Thematic
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: These are imaginary lines, which passes through points of same or equal elevations.
These are found in topographical maps to represent features like mountains, valleys, etc.
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2. Contour Maps are not mandatory in civil engineering projects like road works, dams, canals,
etc.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: To identify a suitable site for these projects, to study the nature of ground and slopes and
to make an estimate for earth work, a contour map of that region is required.
3. How many methods of contouring are present?
a) 5
b) 3
c) 2
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are 2 methods of contouring: direct and indirect. In direct method, the points of
elevation are located physically and then plotted on the map. Indirect method uses contouring with the
help of grids.
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4. Indirect methods uses how many methods?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 2
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The three methods are: method of a square (area divided into squares and grid point
taken), method of cross-section (cross sectional points taken) and tacheometric method (adopted for
very steep hills).
5. The commonly used squares in the method of a square is:
a) 10m x 10m to 5m x 5m
b) 10m x 10m to 15m x 15m
c) 5m x 5m to 20m x 20m
d) 5m x 5m to 10m x 15m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The size of the square varies from 5m x 5m to 20m x 20m. These grid points are found by
levelling and then plotted on drawing sheets.
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6. Which of the below methods is used for interpolating contour points between 2 points?
a) Arithmetic calculation
b) Using measuring tapes
c) Taking pictures of area
d) Using a theodolite
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are 3 different ways to interpolate contour points between 2 points; arithmetic
calculation, estimation and graphical or mechanical method.
7. The contour interval is the same for all purposes.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The interval is kept as 2m for large projects like highways, railways, etc and 0.5m for
earth work, building sites, etc.
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8. The curves used for drawing lines between points in a contour line is:
a) Radial curve
b) French curve
c) C-curve
d) Inverted curve
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The contour points are first located. Corresponding points are joined by a smooth line and
for curves, a French curve is used.
9. Which shaped lines indicate the presence of a ridge?
a) V-shaped
b) U-shaped
c) L-shaped
d) S-shaped
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The contour line with U-shape, which has convexity towards a lower ground shows the
presence of a ridge.
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10. The line which separates the catchment basin from the rest of the area is:
a) Ridge line
b) Dam line
c) Catchment line
d) Watershed line
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The area where rain water drains into the river is the catchment area of the river. The
watershed line is then marked. The area inside this line is measured in order to study flood levels.
and Answers.
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7/27/2021 Damp Proofing - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Damp Proofing
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Damp
Proofing”.
1. DPM stands for:
a) Damp Proof Material
b) Damp Proof Mix
c) Damp Proof Member
d) Damp Proof Membrane
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: DPM is a membrane material applied to prevent dampness. It can be used for a DPC
(Damp Proof Course). An example is laying a polyethylene sheet under concrete slabs.
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2. If the soil is dry, DPC for ground floor consists of the layer of:
a) Metal
b) Coarse sand
c) Fine sand
d) Concrete
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Coarse sand layer of about 75-100mm thickness is provided over the entire area under
the floor. Over this, a layer of plain concrete with a ratio of 1:4:8 of 100mm thickness is laid.
3. Dampness spreads upwards from the ground only.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Dampness does spread from the ground upwards. In addition to this, dampness can also
spread from roof downwards due to rain water.
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4. At roof slab level over the DPC, __________ are provided.
a) Tiles
b) Concrete
c) P.C.C
d) Rubber sheet
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Tiles are provided to reduce the dampness. The treatment of dampness at roof level
involves treating parapet and roof slab. A PCC is provided on parapet, then DPC and then tiles on the
roof slab.
5. DPC materials can be classified into:
a) 3
b) 4
c) 2
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The materials can be classified into 3 categories. They are a flexible material, semi rigid
materials and rigid materials.
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6. DPC materials should ideally be flexible, where differential thermal movements occur.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Although semi rigid and rigid materials can be used, flexible materials are the best. These
do not tend to crack or puncture under differential thermal movements, between the material of roof
and parapet.
7. Which of the below is an example of semi rigid DPC material?
a) Plastic sheeting
b) Cement concrete
c) Asphalt
d) Stone
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Plastic sheeting is an example of a flexible material. Cement concrete and stone are
examples of rigid materials.
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8. For DPC at plinth level, which grade of concrete is used?
a) M10
b) M20
c) M25
d) M15
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Cement concrete is used to provide DPC at plinth level. 38-50mm thickness of M15
(1:2:4) cement concrete is provided and it serves the purpose under normal conditions.
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7/27/2021 Dams - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Dams
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Dams”.
1. Which of the below is the earliest known dam?
a) Sadd-el-Kafara dam
b) Dam of Marib
c) Jawa Dam
d) Ha-ilar Dam
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Jawa Dam is in Jordan. It is 100 kms northeast of capital Amman. It is a gravity dam with
stone wall. It is dated to 3000 BC.
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2. Portion of dam in contact with ground at downstream side is __________
a) Crest
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b) Toe
c) Foot
d) Heel
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Toe is the position of a dam in contact with the ground at the upstream side. Crest is top
of dam. There is no part called a foot.
3. Based on function of dam, it can be classified into: –
a) 5
b) 8
c) 10
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The five types are storage, diversion, detention, debris and coffer dams.
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4. The cross section below shows a
a) Earth
b) Buttress
c) Gravity
d) Arch
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The figure shows a gravity dam. It is a massive sized dam built using concrete or stone
masonry. They can hold back large volume of water.
5. Which of the below is an example for earth dam?
a) Bhakra Nangal Dam
b) Banasura Sagar Dam
c) Idukki Dam
d) Bisalpur Dam
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bhakra Nangal Dam is an example of gravity dam. Idukki dam is an arch dam. Bisalpur
Dam is also a type of gravity dam.
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6. ___________ is the arrangement made near top of dam for passage of excess water from the
reservoir.
a) Sluice way
b) Spillway
c) Gallery
d) Abutments
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Spillway is kind of a passage to allow water from upstream side to downstream side of a
dam. They have floodgates to control the flow.
7. Hydroelectric power plants at dam supplies about _________ of world’s electricity.
a) 19%
b) 25%
c) 42%
d) 50%
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It also contributes to over 63% of renewable energy. Most of this is generated by China
(large dams) and contributes about 50% of world use of the power generated.
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8. Natural dam is not created usually by:
a) Glacial activity
b) Volcanic activity
c) River meandering
d) Moraine deposit
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: River meandering refers to the formation of a member by a river by altering its straight
course and following a sinuous winding path. It can’t form a dam naturally. Volcanic dams form when
lava flows and intercepts a river or lake, resulting in a natural impoundment. Glacial activity and
moraine deposits can also form dams.
9. Arch-gravity dams are thinner dams and save resources.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is a combination of arch and gravity dam. It is inward compression by water reduces
lateral force acting on dam. Gravitational force required is less. Hence, it saves resources and doesn’t
need to be massive.
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10. Buttress dams are of __________ types.
a) 6
b) 4
c) 8
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The three types of buttress dam are deck type, multiple-arch type and massive-head type.
Deck type consists of a sloping deck supported by buttresses. In massive-arch type, deck is replaced
by horizontal arches. There is no deck slab in massive-head type.
11. _________ is a temporary dam constructed to exclude water from a specific area.
a) Debris dam
b) Diversion dam
c) Coffer dam
d) Storage dam
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Coffer dam is constructed on the upstream side of the site where a dam is to be
constructed, so that site is dry.
12. Based on material of construction, ___________ types are there.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are two types – rigid and non-rigid. Rigid material includes steel, concrete,
masonry, stone, etc. and non-rigid materials are earth (earth dam), tailings (waste from mine), rock fill
(rock).
13. Earth dams are _________ in shape.
a) Triangular
b) Rectangular
c) Trapezoidal
d) Circular
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Earth dams are generally built using gravel, sand and clay. They are trapezoidal in shape
so as to hold the non-rigid materials properly.
14. Hydraulic head for a small dam is:
a) 5-7.5m
b) 7.5-12m
c) 12-13m
d) 5-10m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Based on size, there are three types of dam. Small with hydraulic head 12-15m,
intermediate with 12-30m and large with greater than 30m.
and Answers.
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7/27/2021 Disaster Management & Planning - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Disaster Management and Planning
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Disaster
Management and Planning”.
1. Disasters can be broadly termed as __________ types.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 5
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Disasters can be accidental or intentional. Accidental disasters include natural disasters
like tsunamis, hurricanes, floods, etc. Intentional are man-made disasters like, terrorism, bombing, etc.
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2. The annual flood peaks in India are recorded in months of:
a) June, July
b) July, August
c) July, September
d) August, September
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Floods can occur during any part of the monsoon season. But, typically during months of
August and September, flood peaks are recorded. On large rivers, it ranges between 60,000 and
80,000 m3/s.
3. Uttarakhand lies in zone ___________ of Earthquake prone areas.
a) 5
b) 3
c) 4
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are five zones of earthquake. Zone 5 covers areas with the highest risk (intensity of
MSK 1x or greater). Zone 4 covers areas liable to MSK VIII, Zone 3 to MSK VII, Zone 2 to MSK VI or
less. Zone 1 area is not there in India.
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4. To measure flood variability, __________ is used widely.
a) FFMI
b) FI
c) FMI
d) FFI
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: FFMI stands for Flash Flood Magnitude Index. It is the standard deviation of logarithms to
the base of 10 of annual maximum series.
5. Disaster management deals with situation that occurs after the disaster.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Disaster management is a broad term and it deals with a situation prior to, during and
after the occurrence of a disaster.
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6. How many elements of disaster management are there?
a) 8
b) 7
c) 4
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are six distinct sets of activities. These include risk management, loss
management, control of events, equity of assistance, resource management and impact reduction.
7. Which of the below is an example of slow-onset disaster?
a) Earthquake
b) Tsunami
c) Cyclone
d) Draught
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Disasters can also be classified as rapid-onset and slow-onset. It is based on how long
they last. Rapid-onset disasters are Earthquake, Tsunami and Cyclone.
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8. How many phases of disaster response are there?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: These are the preparatory phase, warning phase, emergency phase, rehabilitation phase
and reconstruction phase.
9. The first step in preparedness planning is:
a) Analysis of data collected
b) Determination of objectives
c) Development of implementing device
d) Determination of strategy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are six steps in preparedness planning for emergency response. The first step is to
determine the objectives to be met within each affected sector.
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10. Tsunami detectors are placed in sea at ____________ kms from shore.
a) 25
b) 100
c) 50
d) 85
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Coastal tidal gauges can detect tsunami closer to shore. It is placed at 50kms in the sea
from shore. They are linked to land by submarine cables and give warning in time.
and Answers.
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7/27/2021 Doors & Windows - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Doors and Windows
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Doors and
Windows”.
1. The most common type of door is:
a) Double leaf door
b) Louvred door
c) Single leaf door
d) Battened door
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Single leaf door is the one consisting of a single rigid panel of any material that fills the
doorway.
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2. The representative figure below shows the mechanism of a _________ door.
a) Rotating
b) Swing
c) Spinning
d) Sliding
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Rotating or revolving door has several wings which are hinged at the middle. It opens in
both directions and allows more number of people through it.
3. A casement window hung horizontally is called:
a) Hopper
b) Awning
c) Pivot
d) Transom
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Awning window is hinged on the top and it swings outwards. These are partially useful for
ventilation.
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4. Light, a term used in windows, is:
a) Area between outer parts of a window
b) Glazed part of the window
c) Area between inner parts of a window
d) Opening of the window allowing light
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Light or Lite is a term used to refer to the area between outer parts of the window. It is
usually filled with a glass pane.
5. If a door swings towards the person opening it, it is called:
a) Left handed
b) Reverse
c) Normal
d) Right handed
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Left handed door indicates the hinge is on the left side and right handed has hinge on the
right side. If a door opens away from the person, it is a normal door.
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6. Which of the below material of window has life span of 50 years?
a) PVC
b) Steel
c) UPVC
d) Aluminium
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: UPVC has very good thermal resistance and durability. The maintenance required is very
low. It has an average cost and can thus stay for 50 years.
7. _________ door swings both ways.
a) Mead
b) Dutch
c) Garden
d) French
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A Dutch door consists of 2 halves (top & bottom) which function individually. A French
door has moulded panel at bottom of door. A garden door has only one door openable and is much
secure.
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8. A bay window is a multi-panel window, which:
a) Is provided at corners
b) Runs parallel to the wall
c) Embeds inside wall
d) Projects outside wall
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Bay window has at least 3 panels set at different angles. This feature creates a protrusion
from the wall line.
9. A roof lantern is also called:
a) Skylight
b) Cupola
c) Celestory
d) Oriel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Roof lantern is provided on a roof and it is multi-paned glass structure. It lets in a day or
moon light. It is also called as cupola.
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10. __________ is a decoration that looks like a door.
a) Pseudo door
b) Flush door
c) False door
d) Composite door
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: False door merges with the wall, making it look like a decorative piece. It is mainly found
in Egyptian architecture. It was also referred to as a door to after life and built inside tombs.
11. What does 10 WT 13 mean?
a) Size of window opening 10x13cm
b) Size of window opening 100x130mm
c) Size of window opening 10x13mm
d) Size of window opening 1000x1300mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: This representation is the way to designate a window. W stands for window and T for
double shutter. The letter S is used to indicate a single shutter.
12. In a ventilator, top edge of shutter opens,
a) Outside
b) Inside
c) Sideways
d) Does not open
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In most of the ventilators, top edge of shutter opens inside and bottom edge opens
outside. Nowadays, ventilators with 2 glass sheets are being used because of their ease and
efficiency.
13. Which of the below doors is generally used in residential and office buildings?
a) Flush door
b) Rotating door
c) Louvered door
d) Hinged door
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flush door is made with plywood and the shutters are available in various materials.
These offer less moisture resistance and hence are used in the interior portion.
14. The middle horizontal member of the shutter is called:
a) Median rail
b) Mid rail
c) Sill rail
d) Lock rail
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The middle portion where the provisions for a lock are generally given. Hence it is called
lock rail.
15. Mullion is _________ member employed to sub divide a window or door opening vertically.
a) Horizontal
b) Inclined (at 45o)
c) Vertical
d) Inclined (at 60o)
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Mullion is often provided to give aesthetic appearance. It is also provided to extend extra
support to structure which has large opening.
and Answers.
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7/27/2021 Dot & Cross Product - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Dot Product and Cross Product – 1
« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Dot
Product and Cross Product – 1”.
1. Determine the magnitude of the projection of the vector force F = 100N, onto u axis, from the figure
given below.
a) 96.6N
b) 60N
c) 100N
d) 70.7N
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The component of the force in u axis, it is equal to 100cos(45˚). We need to consider the
triangle and then accordingly apply the trigonometry. This is one of the ways of resolving the
components.
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2. For two vectors A and B, what is A.B (if they have angle α between them)?
a) |A||B| cosα
b) |A||B|
c) √(|A||B|) cosα
d) |A||B| sinα
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The dot product of the two vectors is always the product of the magnitudes of the two
forces and the cosine of the angle between them. We need to consider the triangle and then
accordingly apply the trigonometry. This is one of the ways of resolving the components.
3. Which statement is right?
a) Communitive law: A.B =B.A
b) Multiplicative law: a(A.B) = Ax(aB)
c) Multiplicative law: A.(B+D) = (A.B) + (A.D)
d) Communitive law: a(A.B) = A.(aB)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For three vectors A, B and D the various laws are. Communitive law: A.B =B.A. While
distributive law is A.(B+D) = (A.B) + (A.D). And multiplication law is a(A.B) = A.(aB).
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4. What is Distributive law?
a) A.B =B.A
b) a(A.B) = A.(aB)
c) A.(B+D) = (A.B) + (A.D)
d) a(A.B) = AxB
View Answer
Answer: c
5. What is multiplication law?
a) A.B =B.A
b) a(A.B) = A.(aB)
c) A.(B+D) = (A.B) + (A.D)
d) a(A.B) = AxB
View Answer
Answer: b
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6. Which is true for two vector A = A1i + A2j + A3k and B = B1i + B2j + B3k?
a) A.B = A1B1 + A2B2 + A3B3
b) AxB = A1B1 + A2B2 + A3B3
c) A.B = A1B2 + A2B3 + A3B1
d) AxB = A1B2 + A2B3 + A3B1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The multiplication of x, y and z components with their respective same component give a
scalar, equal to 1, i.e. i.i = 1 and j.j = 1, while jxj =0. This is the basic principle of the vector algebra
which needs to apply wherever needed.
7. Determine the magnitude of the force F = 300j parallel to the direction of AB?
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a) 155N
b) 257.1N
c) 200N
d) 175N
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Force component in the direction parallel to the AB is given by unit vector 0.286i + 0.857j
+ 0.429k. Now (300j).(0.286i + 0.857j + 0.429k) = 257.1N. Just try to resolve the force into it’s
particular components.
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8. What is k.i?
a) 0
b) 1
c) -1
d) ∞
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the dot product of only the same Cartesian component is unity, i.e. i.i = 1 and j.j =1,
rest all remaining dot product will give 0(i.j = 0 and j.k = 0). Cross product of the same plane vectors
always gives zero. And dot product of the same plane vector gives a scalar quantity.
9. What is {(i.i) + (-i.j) + (-k.k) + (k.i)}.(Ai +Bj + Cz)?
a) 1
b) 0
c) A + B + C
d) -1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: {(i.i) + (-i.j) + (-k.k) + (k.i)} = 0. As (1 + 0 + 0 – 1). Cross product of the same plane vectors
always give zero. And dot product of the same plane vector gives a scalar quantity.
10. α = cos-1(A.B/AB). What is the range of α?
a) 0˚<α<90˚
b) 0˚<α<180˚
c) 90˚<α<180C
d) 0˚<α<45˚
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cosine inverse function is defined only between 0˚ to 180˚. It cannot be defined under any
of the given range, because this is the principle range of the inverse cosine function.
11. What is the value of {(AxB).(C.D)x(AxB).(C.D)}? For the four vectors A, B, C and D, with A, B, C and
D all lying in the same plane?
a) i + j + k
b) √3(i + j + k)
c) 0
d) -1(i + j + k)
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Here we are trying to do the cross product of the two vectors in the same plane. Which
will give us zero. While dot product of the same plane vector will give a scalar quantity, not zero.
12. What is (AxB).(BxA); or A = A1i + A2j + A3k and B = B1i + B2j + B3k?
a) 0
b) A1B1A2B2i + A2B2A3B3j + A3B3A1B1k
c) A1B1A1B2i + A2B2A3B2j + A3B3A1B3k
d) A1B1A2B1i + A2B2A2B3j + A3B3A2B1k
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Here we are trying to do the cross product of the two vectors in the same plane. Which
will give us zero. While dot product of the same plane vector will give a scalar quantity, not zero.
13. What is the value of θ in the figure given below?
a) 69˚
b) 60˚
c) 55˚
d) 90˚
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fab= -(3/5)j + (4/5)k ; F= (4/5)i – (3/5)j ; θ = cos-1(Fab.F) = 69˚. This is the application of
the triangle over the figure. Try to resolve the components of the given force. It will be easy.
14. Refer to the diagram given below, determine the magnitude of the force F = 300j perpendicular to the
direction of AB.
a) 155N
b) 257.1N
c) 200N
d) 175N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Force’s component in the direction perpendicular to AB is -73.5i + 80j – 110k N. This is
the application of the triangle over the figure. Try to resolve the components of the given force. It will be
easy.
15. Determine the magnitude of the projection of the vector force F = 100N, onto the v axis, from the
figure given below.
a) 96.6N
b) 60N
c) 100N
d) 70.7N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The component of the force in the v axis, it is equal to 100cos(15˚). This is the application
of the triangle over the figure. Try to resolve the components of the given force. It will be easy.
and Answers.
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7/27/2021 Dry Friction Characteristics - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Characteristics of Dry Friction – 1
« Prev Next »
“Characteristics of Dry Friction – 1”.
1. ____________ is the phenomena that resist the movement of the two surfaces in contact.
a) Friction
b) Motion
d) Rotation
View Answer
Answer: a
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2. The frictional force always acts ____________ to the surface of the application of the friction.
a) Tangential
b) Perpendicular
c) Parallel
d) Normal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The friction is the phenomena that defines that there is a resistance which is present there
3. Dry friction is also called _____________

a) Column Friction
b) Coulomb Friction
c) Dry column friction
d) Surface friction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The dry friction is acted upon the surfaces. And they are tangential to each other. As we
know the friction is the phenomena that define that there is a resistance which is present there
between the two surfaces. The dry friction is also termed as the Coulomb friction as it was given by
C.A. Coulomb.
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4. Who gave the concept of Dry friction?
a) C.A. Coulomb
b) GA. Coulomb
c) C.P Coulomb
d) Albert Einstein
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The dry friction is also termed as the Coulomb friction as it was given by C.A. Coulomb.
And they are tangential to each other. As we know the friction is the phenomena that defines that there
is a resistance which is present there between the two surfaces.
5. At what conditions the dry friction occurs between the surfaces in contact?
a) When there is no lubricating fluid
b) When there is no friction fluid
c) When there is no adhesive fluid
d) When there is no cohesive fluid
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When there is no lubricating fluid present between the surfaces in contact, the dry friction
occurs. Thus as the name suggests dry friction. When there is no liquid present over there the surfaces
are going to be said dry only. Thus the term dry friction.
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6. The phenomena of horizontal pull and push explain what?
a) Theory of friction
b) Theory of relativity
c) Theory of action
d) Theory of forces
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As we know that when there is no lubricating fluid present between the surfaces in
contact, the dry friction occurs. This is the phenomena that defines that there is a resistance which is
present there between the two surfaces. Thus the pull and push phenomena explain the theory of
friction.
7. Theory of friction is explained over a block of weight W. Which of the following is the property of the
surface on which block is present?
a) Non-rigid
b) Coloured red
c) Having density in negative
d) The motion of that block is always horizontal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The block used to explain the theory of friction is a used in a deformable surface. As we
in contact, the dry friction occurs. Thus to show the same experiments are done over a non-
rigid/deformable surface.
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8. The block used to explain the theory of friction is kept over non-deformable surface.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The block used to explain the theory of friction is used in a deformable surface. As we
in contact, the dry friction occurs. Thus to show the same experiments are done over a non-
rigid/deformable surface.
9. In the explanation of the theory of friction, the block used to have an assumption. That is the upper
portion of the block is considered to be rigid.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The block used to explain the theory of friction is placed on a deformable surface. As we
in contact, the dry friction occurs. Thus to show the same, experiments are done over a non-
rigid/deformable surface which is having a rigid shape.
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10. The free body diagram used to explain the theory of dry friction is having ___________ distribution of
both the normal forces and frictional surface.
a) Uneven
b) Even
c) Uniform
d) Equal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As we know that when there is no lubricating fluid present between the surfaces in
contact, the dry friction occurs. This is the phenomena that define that there is a resistance which is
present there between the two surfaces. Thus the pull and push phenomena explain the theory of
friction. Thus the free body diagrams are having an uneven distribution of the forces.
11. For equilibrium the normal forces acts in which direction in the free body diagrams?
a) Vertically Upward
b) Vertically Downward
c) Horizontally Right
d) Horizontally Left
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the loads are being acting in the downward direction. Thus to make the forces
balance, the normal forces act in the vertically upward direction. As we know that when there is no
lubricating fluid present between the surfaces in contact, the dry friction occurs. This friction magnitude
is taken out from these normal forces.
12. What is not the condition for the equilibrium in free body diagram for calculation of the normal forces?
a) ∑Fx=0
b) ∑Fy=0
c) ∑Fz=0
d) ∑F≠0
View Answer
Answer: d
non-zero value.
13. We first make equilibrium equations of the body by considering all the three dimensional forces acting
on the section chosen and then the free body diagram is made and solved.
View Answer
Answer: d
14. Calculate the product of normal force and the coefficient of friction between the body and the surface.
a) 183N
b) 116N
c) 100N
d) 180N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The net forces acting on the body is shown with the help of the resultant forces. There are
two types, first the frictional and the second is normal. This is because the resultant forces have the
sum of all the forces which are acting in the direction which is same.
15. Determine the distance between the points of action of the forces, that is the normal force and the
self-weight force in the given figure.
a) 9.08mm
b) 9.08cm
c) 9.08m
d) 9.8mm
View Answer
Answer: a
and Answers.
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7/27/2021 Dry Friction Problems - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry
Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers –

Problems Involving Dry Friction
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This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Problems Involving
Dry Friction”.
1. In the simplification of the forces for the free body diagram, the net force acts at the ___________ of the loading
body.
a) Centroid
b) The centre axis
c) The corner
d) The base
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the simplification of the loading system the net force acts at the centroid of the loading body. That
is if the loading system is in the form of the triangle then the at the distance 2 by 3 of the base the net force of the
loading will act. And the load will be half the area of the loading.
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2. As in the determination of the various unknown forces in the free body diagram involves the use of vectors. So
one of the vector law is commutative law and it is valid for the cross product of two vectors. (Commutative law: PxQ
= QxP; for two vectors P and Q)
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a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: This statement is wrong. It is not possible unless we apply a negative sign to the RHS of the
equation. That is PxQ = -(QxP). It is because, if you curl your wrist from one vector towards another vector, the
thumb projected will give the direction of the cross product. Thus if you reverse the direction, the negative sign is
necessary.
3. The frictional force developed always acts ____________ to the surface of the application of the friction.
a) Tangential
b) Perpendicular
c) Parallel
d) Normal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The friction is the phenomena that defines that there is a resistance which is present there between
the two surfaces. This friction is applied tangentially to the surfaces in contact. Thus the main thing is that the
forces on both of the surfaces act tangential to each other.
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4. As the free body diagram of the problem statement involves the use of forces. So in them the ___________
forces do not cause the rotation.
a) Non-concurrent
b) Concurrent
c) Parallel
d) Non-Parallel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The concurrent forces are the one are somewhere touching the axis of rotation. If any of the force is
touching that axis, that force is not considered or is insufficient to cause a rotation. If a force is concurrent then
the perpendicular distance of the force from the line of the axis is zero, thus no rotation. As we know rotation is
caused by a moment.
5. For equilibrium, the normal forces act in which direction in the free body diagrams if they are constructed for the
friction part calculations?
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the loads are being acting in the downward direction. Thus to make the forces balance, the
normal forces act in the vertically upward direction. As we know that when there is no lubricating fluid present
between the surfaces in contact, the dry friction occurs. This friction magnitude is taken out from these normal
forces.
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6. Which of the following is the assumption on the property of the surface on which block is present in case we are
dealing with the calculations involving the friction?
a) Non-rigid
b) Coloured red
c) Having density in negative
d) The motion of that block is always horizontal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The block used to explain the theory of friction is used in a deformable surface. As we know that the
theory of friction says that when there is no lubricating fluid present between the surfaces in contact, the dry
friction occurs. Thus to show the same experiments are done over a non-rigid/deformable surface.
7. There are three types of friction problems. One of them is _____________
a) Impending motion at a single point of contact
b) No-Impending motion at a single point of contact
c) Impending motion at all points of contact
d) Apparent Impending motion
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are mainly three types of friction problems. They are no-apparent impending motion,
impending motion at all points of contact and impending motion at some points of contacts. Therefore the answer
is impending motion at all points of contact. There is involvement of various types of calculations which is there in
all of the three types.
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8. The phenomena of horizontal pull and push explain something related to the friction, among the following what is
it?
a) Theory of friction
b) Theory of relativity
c) Theory of action
d) Theory of forces
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As we know that when there is no lubricating fluid present between the surfaces in contact, the dry
friction occurs. This is the phenomena that defines that there is a resistance which is present there between the
two surfaces. Thus the pull and push phenomena explain the theory of friction.
9. Calculate the Normal force developed between the body and the surface.
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a) 611N
b) 116N
c) 100N
d) 180N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The net forces acting on the body is shown with the help of the resultant forces. There are two
types, first the frictional and the second is normal. This is because the resultant forces have the sum of all the
forces which are acting in the direction which is same.
10. There are mainly two types of forces which are being stated in the free body diagram, and they are generally
the resultant of various forces which are being acted over the body. Which are they?
a) Normal and Frictional
b) Normal and Vertical
c) Vertical and Frictional
d) Normal and Fractional
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The net forces acting on the body is shown with the help of the resultant forces. There are two
types, first the frictional and the second is normal. This is because the resultant forces have the sum of all the
forces which are acting in the direction which is same.
11. The frictional force is directly proportional to the surface of the solid.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The frictional force is directly proportional to the vertical forces that are being applied normal to the
surface of the body. The force of friction is not dependent on the type of the surface. Thus the only thing the
frictional force does depend is the normal force.
12. Calculate the frictional force developed between the body and the surface.
a) 160N
b) 16N
c) 10N
d) 180N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
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7/27/2021 Engineering Mechanics Aptitude Test - Sanfoundry

– Moments of Inertia for an Area About Inclined
Axis – 2
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This set of Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers for Aptitude test focuses on “Moments of
Inertia for an Area About Inclined Axis – 2”.
1. In the calculations of the moment of inertia of the area about an inclined axis, we have some
transformation done. They are:
a) u = xcosθ + ysinθ
b) u = xcosθ – ysinθ
c) u = ycosθ + xsinθ
d) u = ycosθ – xsinθ
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the moment of inertia calculations we see that the net force acts at the centroid of the
loading body. That is if the loading system is in the form of the triangle then at the distance 2 by 3 of
the base the net force of the loading will act. And the load will be half the area of the loading. Thus
when there is the inclination of the axis, we use transformation.
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2. In the calculations of moments of inertia for an area about inclined axis we use the product of a
moment of inertia. It is the the sum of _____________ and _________________
a) Area and volume
b) Volume and linear distance
c) Moment of inertia at centroid and the product of the area and del dx and del dy
d) Moment of inertia at base and the product of the area and del dx and del dy
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The product of moment of inertia is required as to design the structure of the body. This
means that the designing of the body is majorly done by the help of the determination of the product of
the moment of Inertia.
a) Iu = Ix cos2θ + Iysin2θ – 2Ixycosθsinθ
b) Iv = Ixcos2θ + Iysin2θ – 2Ixycosθsinθ
c) Iu = Ixcos2θ + Iysin2θ – 2Ixycosθsinθ
d) Iv = Ixcos2θ + Iysin2θ + 2Ixycosθsinθ
View Answer
Answer: d
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a)
b)
c)
d)
View Answer
Answer: a
a) v = xcosθ + ysinθ
b) v = xcosθ – ysinθ
c) v = ycosθ + xsinθ
d) v = ycosθ – xsinθ
View Answer
Answer: d
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6. There is parallel axis theorem for the area, and it is can be used to determine the moment of inertia of
an area about inclined axis.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There is no perpendicular axis theorem for the area. In spite, there is the theorem as
parallel axis for any area. Thus we have the theorem which is used to add the two mutually
perpendicular moment of inertias.
7. Determine the moment of inertia of the area about the y-axis.
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a) 0.273m2
b) 11m2
c) 0.141m2
d) 0.811m2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Parallel axis for any area is used to add the two mutually perpendicular moment of
inertias for areas. It gives a moment of inertia perpendicular to the surface of the body. That is the
moment of inertia perpendicular to the surface in considerance.
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a)
b)
c)
d)
View Answer
Answer: a
a) Iu = Ixcos2θ + Iysin2θ – 2Ixycosθsinθ
b) Iv = Ixcos2θ + Iysin2θ – 2Ixycosθsinθ
c) Iu = Ixcos2θ + Iysin2θ – 2Ixycosθsinθ
d) Iv = Ixcos2θ – Iysin2θ + 2Ixycosθsinθ
View Answer
Answer: a
10. Moment of Inertia about an inclined axis is the integration of the cube of the distance of the centroid
and the del area along the whole area of the structure and after this calculations, we multiply the moment
of areas.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The moment of inertia of the section is the integration of the square of the distance of the
centroid and the del area along the whole area of the structure. This is having much significance in the
various fields in the engineering sector. The main types are the ‘I’ section structures which are being
much used.

11. Determine the moment of inertia of the area about the x-axis.
a) 0.111m2
b) 11m2
c) 0.141m2
d) 0.811m2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
a)
b)
c)
d)
View Answer
Answer: a

a)
b)
c)
d)
View Answer
Answer: a
a) Iuv = Ixcosθsinθ – Iysinθcosθ + Ixy (cos2θ-sin2θ)
b) Iuv = Ixcosθsinθ + Iysinθcosθ – Ixy (cos2θ-sin2θ)
c) Iuv = Ixcosθsinθ – Iysinθcosθ – Ixy (cos2θ-sin2θ)
d) Iuv = Ixcosθsinθ + Iysinθcosθ + Ixy(cos2θ-sin2θ)
View Answer
Answer: a
15. If any external moment along with the force is applied on the structure and we are determining the
moment of inertia for areas about inclined axis then what should we consider?
d) The net force will not be considered, there would be a net force of the distribution, rest will be the
external forces
View Answer
Answer: d

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7/27/2021 Engineering Mechanics Assessment Questions - Sanfoundry

– Work – 2
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This set of Engineering Mechanics Assessment Questions and Answers focuses on “Work – 2”.
1. Work done is best given by___________
a) dU = Fdrcosθ
b) dU = Fdrsinθ
c) dU = Fdrcotθ
d) dU = Fdrdθ
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The work is defined as the dot product of the force and the distance. This means that the
work done does depends upon the angle of the force. That is the angle which is being made by the
force vector to the surface of action of the force.
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2. Calculate the Normal force developed between the body and the surface due to the work done by the
force.
a) 611N
b) 116N
c) 100N
d) 180N
View Answer
Answer: a
3. The supports in the 3D are having more than three reaction forces. Because they are having three axis
on which the components of the work needs to be zero.
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As 3D is defined as the three axis system, we have to consider the equilibrium in all the
three axis. This will make the equilibrium go on all the axis of the 3D space. And hence will cancel all
the forces.
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4. ∑Fx=0, ∑Fy=0 and ∑Fz=0 are vector equations for the three dimensions. They are satisfied when the
body is achieved it state of equilibrium and the network done is zero.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is false as the equations asked are scalars. As we make the net sum of the
forces along the axis equal to zero. Of course this equation comes from the solving the vector forms,
but still the result is a scalar, hence the equations are scalar.
5. Calculate the frictional force developed between the body and the surface due to the work done by the
force.
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a) 160N
b) 16N
c) 10N
d) 180N
View Answer
Answer: a
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6. Work done is best given by _____________
a) dU = F.dr
b) dU = Fdrsinθ
c) dU = F.drcotθ
d) dU = Fxdrdθ
View Answer

Answer: a
work done does depends upon the angle of the force. That is the angle which is being made by the
7. We often determine the work done by the couples. A couple moment is developed when _______ of
the attached member is prevented.
a) Translation
b) Rotation
c) Addition
d) Subtraction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The development of the couple moment is when there is prevention of the rotation of the
attached member. This is the basic condition for the equilibrium of the couple moments in any
dimension. This rule is applied when the couple moments are taken into the account for the equilibrium
of the body.
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8. Work done by the couple is best given by___________
a) dU = Mdθ
b) dU = M.dθ
c) dU = Mxdθ
d) dU = Mθ
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The work done by the couple is defined as the product of the moment and the del angle.
This means that the work done does depends upon the angle of the moment. That is the angle which is
being made by the moment vector to the surface of action of the moment.
9. What is not the condition for the equilibrium in three dimensional system of axis so as to calculate the
unknown forces acting on the body?
a) ∑Fx=0
b) ∑Fy=0
c) ∑Fz=0
d) ∑F≠0
View Answer
Answer: d
non-zero value.
10. Virtual Work done is best given by_______________
a) δU = Fδrcosθ
b) δU = Fδrsinθ
c) δU = Fδrcotθ
d) δU = Fδrδθ
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The work is defined as the dot product of the δ force and the δ distance. This means that
the work done does depends upon the angle of the force. That is the angle which is being made by the
11. Virtual work done by the couple is best given by_____________
a) δU = Mδθ
b) δU = M.δθ
c) δU = Mxδθ
d) δU = Mθ
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The work done by the couple is defined as the product of the δ moment and the δ angle.
This means that the work done does depends upon the angle of the moment. That is the angle which is
being made by the moment vector to the surface of action of the moment.

12. Principle of virtual work done is having condition___________
a) δU = 0
b) δU = δF
c) δU = δM
d) δU = δD
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The virtual work done is working on the equation: δU = 0. This means that the body must
be in the equilibrium and the network done must be zero. Thus the unknown forces are being
determined by the same technique.
13. If solving the question in 3D calculations is difficult, then use the 2D system and then equate the total
work done to zero.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
components, then we can go to 2D. As if the particle is in equilibrium, the net force will be zero. No
matter where you see first. Network done is zero.
14. If the resolved force or the force which you get as the answer after solving the question is negative,
then what does this implies?
a) The work done is in the reverse direction w.r.t the direction set in the free body diagram
b) The force is not in the reverse direction w.r.t the direction set in the free body diagram
c) The force component is not possible
d) The force is possible, but in the direction perpendicular to the resultant force
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The negative sign implies things are in the opposite manner. If the force is coming
negative this doesn’t mean that it is impossible. But it means that the force is in the opposite direction
w.r.t the direction set by you in the free body diagram.
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7/27/2021 Engineering Mechanics Interview Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Addition of a System of Coplanar Forces
Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Interview Questions and Answers focuses on “Addition of a System of
Coplanar Forces”.
1. Which of the following statement is true?
a) A scalar is any physical quantity that can be completely specified by its magnitude
b) A vector is any positive or negative physical quantity that can be completely specified by its magnitude
c) A scalar is any physical quantity that requires both a magnitude and a direction for its complete
description
d) A scalar is any physical quantity that can be completely specified by its direction
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A scalar is any positive or negative physical quantity that can be completely specified by
its magnitude. Examples of scalar quantities include length, mass, time, etc.
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2. For two vectors defined by an arrow with a head and a tail. The length of each vector and the angle
between them represents:
a) Their magnitude’s square and direction of the line of action respectively
b) Their magnitude and direction of the line of action respectively
c) Magnitude’s square root and direction of the line of action respectively
d) Magnitude’s square and the ratio of their lengths respectively
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For two vectors defined by an arrow with a head and a tail. The length of each vector and
the angle between them represents their magnitude and direction of the line of action respectively. The
head/tip of the arrow indicates the sense of direction of the vector.
3. If a vector is multiplied by a scalar:
a) Then its magnitude is increased by the square root of that scalar’s magnitude
b) Then its magnitude is increased by the square of that scalar’s magnitude
c) Then its magnitude is increased by the amount of that scalar’s magnitude
d) You cannot multiply the vector with a scalar
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If a vector is multiplied by a scalar then its magnitude is increased by the amount of that
scalar’s magnitude. When multiplied by a negative scalar it going to change the directional sense of the
vector.
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4. All the vectors quantities obey:
View Answer
Answer: a
5. A force vector with magnitude R and making an angle α with the x-axis is having its component along
x-axis and y-axis as:
a) Rcosine (α) and Rsine(α)
b) Rcosine (180-α) and Rsine(α)
c) Rcosine (180-α) and Rsine(180+α)
d) Rcosine (α) and Rsine(180+α)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The component along the x-axis is the cosine component of the vector. And the y-axis
component of the vector is sine component, if the angle is being made with the x-axis. And 180- α for
some of the trigonometric function may change their sign.
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6. Dividing the X-axis component and the Y-axis component of the of the vector making an angle with Y-
axis α will give us.
a) Cot α
b) Tan α
c) Sec α
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the X-axis component of the vector becomes cos(90- α) and the Y-axis component
becomes sin(90- α).Thus the division of both will give us Tan α.
7. Vector shown in the figure below have a length of 3m and the angles shown A and B are 60 and 30
degrees each. Calculate the X-axis and Y-axis components:
a) 2.59m and 1.50m respectively
b) 1.50m and 2.59m respectively
c) 3cos60 and 3sin30 respectively
d) 3sin60 and 3sin30 respectively
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The sine and the cosine components of the given vectors considering the angle B as the
only angle of consideration comes 1.5m and 2.59m.
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8. Shown as in the figure below, A=60 degree and B=30 degree. Calculate the total length obtained by
adding the x-axis component of both the vectors.
a) 3.23m
b) 4.35m
c) 2.50m
d) 1.5m
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: After getting the cosine components of the given vectors we obtain the total length of the
x-axis components to be 3cos60 + 2cos30 = 3.23.
9. The magnitude of the resultant of the two vectors is always_____________
View Answer
Answer: c
does depend upon the angle between them.
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10. If two equal vector forces are mutually perpendicular then the resultant force is acting at which angle
as compared to one of the vector?
a) 45 degree
b) 90 degree
c) 180 degree
d) 0 degree
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The vectors are mutually perpendicular, this means that the angle between the forces is
90 degree. Thus the resultant will form at 45 degrees to any of the vector.
11. What is the direction of the resultant vector if two vectors having equal length is placed in the
Cartesian plane at the origin as, one being parallel to and heading towards positive x-axis and the other
making 165 degree with it and heading in the opposite direction of that of the first one?
a) It is either in the 1st quadrant or in the 2nd quadrant
b) It is either in the 1st quadrant or in the 3rd quadrant
c) It is either in the 1st quadrant or in the 4th quadrant
d) Only in the 1st quadrant
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If one is heading towards positive X-axis and the other is in the other direction opposite to
the first one, with both having the same length and having an angle between them being obtuse,
means that the direction is to be in the direction of either 1st quadrant or in the 4th quadrant.
12. Force vector R is having a______________
a) Length of R and a specific direction
b) Length of R
c) A specific direction

d) Length of magnitude equal to square root of R and a specific direction
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As it is a force vector, it means it is going to have a direction and a magnitude. The
magnitude is not the square root of R, R is just the magnitude of the vector given.
13. The resultant of three equal vectors having mutual angles being 120 degrees and being originated
from a single point is zero.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As one can imagine three vectors coming out of a single point and are having a 120-
degree angle with their adjacent ones, the resultant would be zero.
14. Every point on the force vector is having the same magnitude and the same direction as the whole
force vector have.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The vector is made by joining the final and the starting point. If we consider any arbitrary
point then the length would be calculated w.r.t the starting point, which might give different magnitude
but same direction.
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7/27/2021 Engineering Mechanics Interview Questions and Answers for Experienced - Sanfoundry

– Moment of a Force – 3
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This set of Engineering Mechanics Interview Questions and Answers for Experienced people focuses on
“Moment of a Force – 3”.
1. Determine the resultant moment caused by the forces in vector
a) 30i + 40j – 60k Nm
b) 30i – 40j – 60k Nm
c) 30i + 40j + 60k Nm
d) 30i – 40j + 60k Nm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As we know that the moment is the cross product of the force and the distance between
the point of contact of the force and the point about which moment needs to be calculated. Here
distance r1 =5j m and r2 = 4i + 5j – 2k m. Thus doing the cross product will give the answer.
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2. Which of the following is correct w.r.t the moment (M) of the force (F) acting on the body at a distance L
from the axis of the rotation?
a) M=FLsinθ
b) M=FLcosθ
c) M=F.Lsinθ
d) M=FxLsinθ
View Answer
Answer: a
θ then cosine form of angle is used. As usually used in the cross product.
3. What does FLsinθ means/ represent for the moment (M) of the force (F) acting on the body at a
distance L from the axis of the rotation?
a) The direction vector of the moment
b) Unit vector of the moment vector
c) The magnitude of the moment caused by the force on the body
d) The perpendicular distance of the force from the axis of rotation
View Answer
Answer: c
θ then cosine form of angle is used. Thus, FLsinθ represents the magnitude of the moment.
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4. The basic way of getting the direction of the moment caused by the force is:
View Answer
Answer: b
5. If any force is applied in the direction of the positive x-axis, and there are three different point on which
the moment of this force is to be calculated. Then if these three points are on the positive side of the y-
axis with varying distance, then what will be the direction of the moment caused by the force to the
individual point?
a) Towards positive z-axis
b) Towards positive y-axis
c) Towards positive x-axis
d) Towards negative z-axis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If you will apply he right hand rule on the system given then the right answer is the
positive z-axis. Which is because the force is lying on the x-axis and is heading towards the positive
infinity of the x-axis. And the points are in the positive y-axis. Apply the rule, and get the direction.
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point say P, then the force is said to be______________
a) Couple
b) Sliding vector
c) Slider couple
d) Couple slider
View Answer
Answer: b
the force which is acting on its line of axis at the point P is the same throughout. Whatever be the
direction of the distance.
point say P, then the force is said to be a sliding vector. What is the name of this property?
View Answer
Answer: d
the force which is acting on its line of the axis at the point P is the same throughout. This is known as
the principle transmissibility of the force.
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8. We can express the force in the Cartesian form.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, we can prepare a moment in the Cartesian form. As the moment in the 3D is the
vector. Which can be easily made in the form of Cartesian coordinates. Also, it can be seen that the
moment is the cross product of the force and the distance, hence the moment is in vector form.
9. M = ∑(rxF) represents what?
a) The total distance of the point of contact of the and the axis of rotation
b) The total moment of the forces
c) The total force acting on the body
d) The equation is wrong, it must be Fxr
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The given equation represents the total moment of the forces which are acting on the
body. That is the summation of all the rxF. Where the r is the distance of the axis from the point of
action of the force on the body. And thus this is the total summation of the moments of all the forces
acting on the body.
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10. If a 12m high tree is being pulled by the tractor, by a rope tied over the top. With the tractor at a linear
distance of 12m and 4m away perpendicularly from the tree. If the force applied by the tractor is 2KN then
what is the moment caused by the roots of the tree?
a) -16.5i+7.51j KNm
b) -16.5i+5.51j KNm
c) -16.5i+5.51j KNmm
d) -16.5i+7.51j KNm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The force developed is 2KN, and the roots are having the coordinate (0, 0, 0).
Coordinates of the top of the tree is (0, 0, 12). The tractor’s coordinates are (4, 12, 0). Thus applying
the cross product on the force and the distance of the tractor from the roots we get the answer as
-16.5i+5.51j KNm.
11. If F = F1+F2, then the moment of this force F about a point at a distance r is M=rxF1 + rxF2.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If F = F1+F2, then the moment of this force F about a point at a distance r is M=rxF1 +
rxF2.
As M = rx(F) = rx(F1 + F2) = rxF1 + rxF2. This is known as the principle of moments. As the force is a
vector quantity thus this is the distributive property which we apply to get the answer.
12. Determine the moment of the force about the point X.
a) 11.2 Nm
b) 10 Nm
c) 7Nm
d) 8Nm
View Answer
Answer: a
the point of contact of the force and the point about which moment needs to be calculated. Thus
forming the distance vector and then crossing it with the force will give us the answer. Remember force
also needs to be in the vector form for doing the cross product.
13. Determine the moment about the point Q by the force shown as 400N.
a) -98.6kN
b) 98.6kN
c) -98.6iN
d) -98.6jN
View Answer
Answer: a
14. Determine the moment about the point P.
a) 460Nm
b) 500Nm
c) 705Nm
d) 0Nm
View Answer
Answer: a
15. Determine the magnitude of the resultant moment caused by the forces.
a) 78.1Nm
b) 25Nm
c) 110Nm
d) 80Nm
View Answer
Answer: a
the point of contact of the force and the point about which moment needs to be calculated. Here
distance r1 =5j m and r2 = 4i + 5j – 2k m. Thus doing the cross product will give the answer.
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7/27/2021 Engineering Mechanics Interview Questions and Answers for Freshers - Sanfoundry

– Dot Product and Cross Product – 2
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This set of Engineering Mechanics Interview Questions and Answers for freshers focuses on “Dot
Product and Cross Product – 2”.
1. What is the dot product of two vectors which are having a magnitude equal to unity and are making an
angle of 45°?
a) 0.707
b) -0.707
c) 1.414
d) -1.414
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The dot product of two vectors having the angle between them equal to 45° will have the
product of the vector’s magnitude. As the vectors are of unit magnitude, their product will be unity.
Thus the magnitude factor would be cosine function at 45 °.
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2. Mathematically, for two vectors A and B of any magnitude, the cross product of both, i.e. AxB = given
by:
a) |A||B|sinØ
b) |A||B|
c) |A||B|cosØ
d) |A||B|sin(180°+Ø)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The cross product of two vectors gives a vector which is perpendicular to both of the
vectors. And the mathematic equation for the same is given by |A||B|sinØ. And the dot product of the
same by any of the other two vectors will give the answer zero, as perpendicular.
3. Commutative law is valid for the cross product of two vectors. (Commutative law: PxQ = QxP; for two
vectors P and Q)
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: This statement is wrong. It is not possible unless we apply a negative sign to the RHS of
the equation. That is PxQ = -(QxP). It is because, if you curl your wrist from one vector towards
another vector, the thumb projected will give the direction of the cross product. Thus if you reverse the
direction, a negative sign is necessary.
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4. Which among the following is the distributive law for the cross product of three vectors?
a) Px(Q+S) = (PxQ) + (PxS)
b) Px(QxS) = (PxQ) + (PxS)
c) Px(QxS) = (PxQ) x (PxS)
d) Px(Q+S) = (PxQ) + (QxS)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The distributive law works just like the simple multiplication of the constant before the
brackets. That is in the equation Px(Q+S) = (PxQ) + (PxS), P is crossed by Q and S both. This is
simple as, if we first add the two vectors and then do the cross product or we first do the cross product
and the do the sum.
5. Which statement is true? (For three vectors P, Q and R)
a) Associative law for cross product: (PxQ)xS = Px(QxS)
b) Associative law for cross product: (PxQ)xS ≠ Px(QxS)
c) Associative law for cross product: (PxQ)xS > Px(QxS)
d) Associative law for cross product: (PxQ)xS < Px(QxS)
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The associative law is defined in the cross product of three vectors. This property is
though valid for the dot product. But for the cross product, it is not true. It is because, in the dot product
the final result is the scalar quantity, but in a cross product it is the direction too. Thus the answer.
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6. Which of the following is true?
a) i x i =1
b) j x i = -j
c) k x j = -i
d) k x k = 1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As the mathematic equation for the cross product is having a cosine function in it, in which
the angle used in the function is the angle between the vectors. Thus the cross product will be zero if
the angle between them is 90.
7. Which of them is not correct?
a) j x j = 0
b) j x k = i
c) j x i = k
d) j x i = -k
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As asked, the one which is not correct is the third one. The product is containing the
cosine function, and the angle which is going to be inserted in the function is the angle between the
vectors. Thus if the angle is 90, then the cross will be zero.
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8. The ___________ forces do not cause the rotation.
a) Non-concurrent
b) Concurrent
c) Parallel
d) Non-Parallel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The concurrent forces are the which are somewhere touching the axis of rotation. If any of
the force is touching that axis, that force is not considered or is insufficient to cause a rotation. If a
force is concurrent then the perpendicular distance of the force from the line of an axis is zero, thus no
rotation. As we know rotation is caused by a moment.
9. The tendency of a force to rotate the body is called the moment of the force.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The moment of the force about an axis or a point gives the measure of the tendency of
the force. It is the cause of the body’s rotation, about that point or at that axis. Thus, the tendency of a
force to rotate the body is called the moment of the force.
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10. The moment is the cross product of which two vectors?

a) Force and Radius vectors
b) Radius and Force vectors
c) Force and Radius scalars
d) Radius and Force scalars
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The cross product needs to take in the proper sequence. If not taken then the answer is
just the opposite of the true answer. That’s why, the answer is not the Force and Radius vectors, but
the Radius and Force vectors. Because the moment has its direction, as many of the cross products
have, and thus precaution needs to be taken.
11. What is Varigon’s Theorem? (M = Moment, F= Force vector, R= Radius vector)
a) M = R x F (F = F1 + F2 + F3 + … vectorially adding all the forces)
b) |A||B|sinØ
c) AxB)xS ≠ Px(QxS)
d) Px(Q+S) = (PxQ) + (PxS)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For many vectors acting on the body, Varigon’s Theorem is defined as M = R x F (F = F1 +
F2 + F3 + … vectorially adding all the forces). This is just the giving the cross product of individual
force and radius vectors and thus the sum is the total moment produced.
12. What is the mixed triple product of three vectors?
a) S.(PxQ)
b) Sx(PxQ)
c) S.(P.Q)
d) Sx(P.Q)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is the scalar expression. It is the dot product of the vector to the vector, which is the
result of the cross vector product of two vectors. And if two vectors are held together in the equation by
a dot “.”, then the answer which you get is the scalar quantity.
13. What is the angle made by the vector shown in the figure, with the z-axis?
a) 45°
b) 60°
c) 30°
d) 90°
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The question is the tricky one, just the imagination of the viewer is to be enhanced. But is
one needs to go with the calculation, one can go and the answer would be 30°. Or simply it is 90° – 60°
= 30°.
14. What is the dot product of the components of the force vector shown in the figure, i.e. the dot product
of the z-axis component and the y-axis component of the force?
a) 0
b) 200cos60°
c) 200sin45°
d) 200cos30°
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The dot product of any two vectors is having the cosine function in it. It is being multiplied
by the product of the magnitudes of the vectors. So if the angle is 90°, then the value of cosine function
would be zero, thus 0. And the value of the sine angle is 1, thus the result.
15. What is the magnitude of the resultant vector’s unit vector? (Resultant vector of the two vectors
shown in the figure below)
a) 1N
b) 225N
c) 110N
d) 55N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The question asked is asking for the magnitude of the unit vector of the resultant vector,
thus the answer is 1. Whether the magnitude of the vector is any quantity, but the unit vector will have
the magnitude equal to unity. And the direction given by the unit vector will be in the same direction as
that of the vector.
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7/27/2021 Engineering Mechanics MCQs - Sanfoundry

– Simple Trusses – 2
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This set of Engineering Mechanics MCQs focuses on “Simple Trusses – 2”.
1. The joint in the trusses are generally formed by welding the materials at the ends of the trusses on a
common plate. Which gives strength to the design. What is that plate called?
a) Gusset Plate
b) Ignified plate
c) Non-metallic plate
d) Gymnite plate
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The joint in the trusses are generally formed by welding the materials at the ends of the
trusses on a common plate. Which gives strength to the design. This plate is known as Gusset plate.
This plate holds up various trusses that are being welded to it , to make the structure strong.
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2. Find the force in the member RQ of the frame shown below.
a) 707.1N
b) 500N
c) 505N
d) 784N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The direction of the unknown is not known to us. To know the direction of the unknown
force we take assumption of it. That is we assume that the particular direction might be the direction of
the force and then we do the calculations accordingly. And then we apply the equilibrium equations to
the joints.
3. Trusses lie in a single plane. And the calculations used to solve the forces are from vector math.
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The loading is acting in a plane. Thus the calculations are done in 2D only. As the
equations for 3D are different. Although the use of vectors can make our task easy but still 2D
calculations are done for the trusses, as they are acting in a same plane.
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4. The transmission of the load on a certain type of a structure follow as from stringers to floor beams and
then joints. Determine the structure.
a) Truss
b) Beam
c) Pillar
d) Bridge
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The transmission of the load on the bridges follow as from stringers to floor beams and
then joints. This is because of the first the stringers come in contact with the force. Which gets
distributed to them. Then comes the floor beams, which takes that distributed loadings.
5. When the bridges are extended over long routes or distance then a rocker or a roller is used at the
joints. As when the temperature is raised the elongations and the contractions of the joints part are not
much affected if the rollers and rockers are used.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The roller and the rockers take over the elongations and the contractions of the joints part.
And thus help in stabilising the structure. Thus when the bridges are extended over long routes a
rocker or a roller is used at the joints.
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6. Find the force in the member RS of the frame shown below.
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a) 566N
b) 400N
c) 773N
d) 1090N
View Answer

Answer: b
the joints.
7. There are no rules for the designing of the truss. But there are rules designing the bridges.
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are various rules used to design the truss. Like the loads must be at the joints only.
The use of pin must be there in the joining of the trusses etc. Also the joints must be welded with a
gusset plate. And the bridges are also having various rules for their design too.
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8. A truss is facing a two force member and both of them are in the opposite directions. And the truss is in
equilibrium. And both of them are getting away from each other.The forces are called?
a) Compressive forces
b) Tensile Forces
c) Parallel and collinear forces with same direction of heading
d) The rotational forces
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: If two forces are in the opposite directions. And are collinear too. Then the truss is getting
a tensile stress. As the forces are trying to increase the length of the truss. Hence if the two force
members are in such conditions the forces are tensile forces.
9. A truss is facing a two force member and both of them are in the opposite directions. And the truss is in
equilibrium. And both of them are coming towards each other. The forces are called __________
a) Compressive forces
b) Tensile Forces
c) Parallel and collinear forces with same direction of heading
d) The rotational forces
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If two forces are in the opposite directions. And both of them are coming towards each
other. And are collinear too. Then the truss is getting a compressive stress. As the forces are trying to
decrease the length of the truss. Hence if the two force members are in such conditions the forces are
compressive forces.
10. Find the force in the member PR of the frame shown below.
a) 566N
b) 400N
c) 773N
d) 1090N
View Answer
Answer: c
the joints.
11. Truss cannot be acted upon three force members. Because the truss in a single plane.
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The singular plane of the truss doesn’t mean that the trusses cannot be acted upon the
three force system. They can be acted upon the three force system, possibility is that the forces might
not be collinear or might be parallel to each other. But point is the trusses can be acted on the three
force members too, still conditions need to specific.
12. Find the force in the member QP of the frame shown below.
a) 707.1N
b) 500N
c) 505N
d) 784N
View Answer
Answer: b
the joints.

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7/27/2021 Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Internal Forces Developed in Structural
Members – 2
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This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Internal Forces
Developed in Structural Members – 2”.
1. The ____________ forces are used are used in the method of sections for the calculation of the
internal forces.
a) Internal rotational
b) Couple rotational
c) Translational
d) External
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The calculations of the method of sections involve the making of the free diagrams and
then use external forces to determine the internal forces. Design so as to withstand the loads which are
going to be added to the beams. Thus the loads which are being added externally are being used in
the free body diagrams.
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2. Every point on the force vector which is the internal force is having the same magnitude and the same
direction as the whole force vector have.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The vector is made by joining the final and the starting point of the internal force. If we
consider any arbitrary point then the length would be calculated w.r.t the starting point, which might
give different magnitude but same direction. Thus the answer is false.
3. For getting the normal force on the supports, we do what?
a) Make the vertical sum of the forces equal to zero
b) Make the horizontal sum of the forces equal to zero
c) Make the moment sum of the forces equal to zero
d) Make the rotational sum of the forces equal to zero
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The making of the vertical force sum zero makes the normal force to be determined. This
means that the equilibrium equations when applied at the support give us the answer. Hence the
determination of the normal force is done easily by equating the vertical force sum equal to zero.
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4. For getting the horizontal component of the support reactions what do we do?
a) Make the vertical sum of the forces equal to zero
b) Make the horizontal sum of the forces equal to zero
c) Make the moment sum of the forces equal to zero
d) Make the rotational sum of the forces equal to zero
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The making of the horizontal force sum zero makes the horizontal force to be determined.
This means that the equilibrium equations when applied at the support give us the answer. Hence the
determination of the horizontal force is done easily by equating the horizontal force sum equal to zero.
5. Twisting moment is also called as __________
a) Moment of line
b) Moment of section
c) Moment of plane
d) Torsional moment
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The twisting moment is applied at the point where the couple moment is being applied or
is made by the external forces. This makes the formation of the twisting moment along the beam or the
torsional moment. Thus the name twisting or the torsional moment.
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6. The loading generally act upon the ___________ of the body.
a) Centroid
b) Symmetrical centre
c) Rotational centre
d) Chiral centre
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The loads generally are applied on the centroid of the body. The moment of the body is
also calculated along the centroid axis, thus the forces which are acting externally are always acting
upon the centroid of the body. Gravity too is acted upon the centroid of the body.
7. The area of does make the difference in the internal forces, that is if the area is large the internal force
acting is also large and vice versa.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: This is because the internal forces are independent of the area. They are applied
irrespective of the area given to the beams. They are dependent on the external forces. The more the
external forces, the more are the internal force. That is the more is the amount of the internal forces.
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8. The magnitude of each loading will be ___________ at various points along the axis of the member of
the beam.

a) Same
b) Different
c) Slightly different
d) Slightly same
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The magnitude of each loading will be different on the different points of the beams. The
method of section is used to determine these forces. These forces are used so as to make the beams.
That is the designing of the beams, the more are the forces than the stronger material is used for the
making of the beams.
9. Torsional moment is applied at the ___________ part of the beam.
a) The centroid
b) The left end
c) The right end
d) The axis beyond the body of the beam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The torsional moment as said is made to be drawn at the centre of the beam. As it is
generated by the various external forces, thus the centroid is the main point of the action of the various
forces. Thus the forces which are made to be fallen on the body is having its effect over the centroid of
the beam.
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10. Normal force is equal to _______________
a) The net horizontal force
b) The net vertical force with a negative sign
c) The net horizontal force with a negative sign
d) The net vertical force
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The normal force is determined by equating the vertical forces equal to zero. This makes
the vertical forces to go on the other side of the equation. Suppose the L.H.S. is having the sum of the
vertical forces then the R.H.S. is having the term normal force. That is the normal force is being
equated to the negative of the sum of vertical forces.
11. If the normal force creates a tension then the force is said to be ____________
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Rotational
d) Collinear
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If the normal forces are giving tension to the body of the beam then the forces are said to
be positive. That is if the normal force is making the tension to develop in the beam then it is
considered to be positive. This is the basic sign convection that is being used to make the calculations
easy.
12. If the shear force creates a clockwise rotation then the force is said to be ____________
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Rotational
d) Collinear
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If the shear forces are giving clockwise rotation to the body of the beam then the forces
are said to be positive. That is if the shear force is making the beam to develop in the forces that tend
to rotate it clockwise then it is considered to be positive. This is the basic sign convection that is being
used to make the calculations easy.
13. If the bending of the beam is concave upwards then the bending moment developed is called
__________ moment.

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Rotational
d) Collinear
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If the bending moment is giving concave bending upward to the body of the beam then
the moment are said to be positive. That is if the bending moment is making the beam to develop in the
forces that tend to bend the beam concave upward then it is considered to be positive. This is the basic
sign convection that is being used to make the calculations easy.
region is the cables holding the weight of 600N at origin. Find the tension in the AD section.
a) 900N
b) 693N
c) 646N
d) 0N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the system is in equilibrium so we need to balance the forces. So when apply the
AD be 900N.

a) 23.6N
b) 55N
c) 89N
d) -29N
View Answer
Answer: a
23.6N.
and Answers.
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7/27/2021 Engineering Mechanics Online Test - Sanfoundry

– Relation Between Distributed Load, Shear and
Moment
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This set of Engineering Mechanics online test focuses on “Relation Between Distributed Load, Shear and
Moment”.
1. The determination of the internal loading in the beams is usually done so as to ______________
a) Break the beam
b) Know the length
c) Know the diameter
d) Design the beam
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The determination of the internal forces in the beam is done so as to design the beams as
in the application purpose the beams will be subjected to many loads. This will help us to make the
beam properly. And also this will ensure that the beams will not break after the loading is done on
them. For this, another method is the distribution load method.
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2. The slope of the shear diagram is equal to__________
a) Rotational moment
b) Bending moment
c) Total weight
d) Distributed load intensity
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: After the application of the force equation of equilibrium to the segment of the beam, we
have the above result. This is done on the very small part of the beam. That is the minimal section of
the beam is to be considered and then the application of the equilibrium equations are done so as to
calculate the final result.
3. The shear diagram will jump downward if the _________________
b) Bending moment
c) Total weight
d) Force will act downwards
View Answer
Answer: d
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4. Change in the shear is equal to ____________
b) Bending moment
c) Total weight
d) Area under loading curve
View Answer
Answer: d
5. The internal loading can be found by ________________________
a) Distributed load method
b) Method of area
c) Method of line
d) Method of volume
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The determination of the internal forces is done by various methods among which the
distribution of load method is the one. Also, we have method of joints, which is done so as to determine
the internal forces which are being developed in the trusses or the frames. This is done as to design
them. In this method, the loading acting upward is considered to be positive.
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6. The equation of change in moment equals the area under the shear diagram is not applied
when_________
b) Bending moment
c) Total weight
d) Couple moment acts
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As this is done with the help of distributed load method thus when a couple moment this
equation act is not valid. This is done on the very small part of the beam. That is the minimal section of
7. Slope of the moment diagram is equal to _________
b) Bending moment
c) Total weight
d) Shear
View Answer
Answer: d
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8. The change in moment is equal to _________
b) Bending moment
c) Total weight
d) Area under the shear diagram
View Answer
Answer: d
9. In the making of the shear force diagram or the bending moment diagrams, one method is used,
distributed load. In this the distributed load will be considered positive if ____________
a) Loading acts upward
b) Loading acts downward
c) Loading acts rightward
d) Loading acts leftward
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The loading acting upward is considered to be positive. This is done as to decrease the
time used for the calculations. If the method of sections is being applied at the complex sections for the
determination of the unknown forces, much time is required for it. Thus the main motto is to make the
calculations easy and make the less use of time.
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10. Determine the shear force of the beam shown.
a) 450N
b) 50N
c) 40N
d) 45N
View Answer
Answer: a
11. The shear diagram will jump upwards if there is __________
b) Bending moment
c) Total weight
d) Change in shear is positive
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
12. The equation of change in moment equals the area under the shear diagram is not applied when?
b) Bending moment
c) Total weight

d) A concentrated force acts
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As this is done with the help of distributed load method thus when a concentrated load is
applied this equation is not valid. This is done on the very small part of the beam. That is the minimal
section of the beam is to be considered and then the application of the equilibrium equations are done
so as to calculate the final result.
13. The couple in the beam is simplified easily by the help of right hand rule. But the forces simplification
is not possible as there is no such system of rules so that the forces can be simplified.
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Both of them are vector quantities. And both of them can be easily simplified. If taken in
the vector form then the task is even easier. Thus it is not necessary for the force or the couple to be
vector only, even if the magnitude is taken, the simplification is done in the 2D. Forces are simplified on
the basis of the algebra.
14. Determine the normal force of the beam shown.
a) 0N
b) 50N
c) 40N
d) 45N
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.
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7/27/2021 Engineering Mechanics Problems - Sanfoundry

– Potential Energy Criterion for Equilibrium
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This set of Engineering Mechanics Problems focuses on “Potential Energy Criterion for Equilibrium”.
net force to zero as the criteria of the potential energy for equilibrium.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
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2. If the body is upward the ground then the distance taken is __________
a) Positive
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b) Negative
c) Imaginary
d) Gaussian
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The direction upwards is considered positive. And then the calculations are done. Not
only that the direction of the rotation is also concerned with the signs. Positive if on the positive z axis.
Negative if towards negative z axis.
3. If the resolved force or the force which you get as the answer after solving the question is negative for
the equilibrium of the potential energy, then what does this implies?
a) The force is in the reverse direction w.r.t the direction set in the free body diagram
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The negative sign implies things in the opposite manner. If the force is coming negative
this doesn’t mean that it is impossible. But it means that the force is in the opposite direction w.r.t the
direction set by you in the free body diagram.
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4. A force is developed by a support that not allows the ________ of its attached member in the
calculation of the potential energy.

a) Translation
b) Rotation
c) Addition
d) Subtraction
View Answer
Answer: a
then the free body diagram is made and solved. Thus the criteria for the potential energy equilibrium.
View Answer
Answer: d
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6. Couple moment is also considered as one of the criteria for the equilibrium of the potential of the body.
It should be zero sometimes. So a couple moment is developed when _______ of the attached member
is prevented.
a) Translation
b) Rotation
c) Addition
d) Subtraction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The development of the couple moment is when there is a prevention of the rotation of the
of the body.
a) 23.6N
b) 55N
c) 89N
d) -29N
View Answer
Answer: a
23.6N.
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8. If the supports are properly aligned then the reaction forces developed under the potential energy
diagrams are adequate to support the body.
a) Statement is true only in 2D
b) Statement is true only in 3D
c) Statement is true throughout
d) Statement is true only in 1D
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This is the basic nature observed during the experiments on the beams an all the support
system. The dimension doesn’t affect the equilibrium conditions. The main motto is to achieve the
equilibrium. It is achieved by equating the net force equal to zero.
9. What is not the criteria for the equilibrium in potential energy free body diagram?
a) ∑Fx=0
b) ∑Fy=0
c) ∑Fz=0
d) ∑F≠0
View Answer
Answer: d
non-zero value.
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10. If any body is tied to three or more ropes and is in the potential equilibrium, and then is allowed to
achieve its equilibrium. Then the equilibrium achieved is achieved w.r.t what?
a) The three axis of the body
b) The ground
c) The ropes direction
d) The weight direction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Yes, the equilibrium is being achieved w.r.t the ground. Like the motion, w.r.t ground need
be zero. That is the relative velocity of the object or the body must be zero w.r.t the ground. This means
motion is in equilibrium.
body is achieved it state of equilibrium and the body has potential energy stabilised.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
but still, the result is a scalar, hence the equations are scalar.
12. The supports in the 3D are having more than three reaction forces. Because they are having three
axis on which the components of the forces need to be zero, so as to equilibrate the potential energy.

View Answer
Answer: d
the forces.
13. The single pin, single bearing and single hinge resist _______ so as to attain potential energy
equilibrium.
a) Force
b) Couple moments
c) Both force and couple moments
d) Inertia
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The experiments have founded that the single pin, single bearing and single hinge resist
both force and couple moments. This does helps in attaining the equilibrium of the body. Thus proper
guiding must be taken during solving the question on the same.
14. Determine the value of the q, parallel to the z axis. That is the point of intersection of the projections
of the points A, B and C parallel to the xy plane. With the distance between the tri-section point and the
a) 51.9cm
b) 51.9mm
c) 51.9m

d) 5.19mm
View Answer
Answer: a
15. If the supports which are supporting a body at a certain height are not properly aligned then the
reaction forces developed are adequate to support the body.
c) Statement is false throughout
View Answer
Answer: c
equilibrium. It is achieved by equating the net force equal to zero. But here the system is not properly
aligned.
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7/27/2021 Engineering Mechanics Question Bank - Sanfoundry

« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Question Bank focuses on “Characteristics of Dry Friction – 3”.
1. The maximum value of the frictional force is called _________
a) Limiting Friction
b) Non-Limiting Friction
c) Limiting Action Friction
d) Non-Limiting Action Friction
View Answer
Answer: a
resisting the motion of the surface. Thus the maximum values are called as limiting friction.
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2. When the body which is applied forces come in the stage of the limiting friction then the body is termed
as to come in ___________ equilibrium.
a) Unstable
b) Stable
c) Non-stable
d) Improper Stable
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the limiting friction is the maximum value of the frictional forces. Thus if more force is
applied to the body then the body is going to move forward. Because the two surfaces are in contact
and the friction applies at that surface only, resisting the motion of the surface. Thus the name unstable
equilibrium.
3. The frictional force is directly proportional to the ____________
a) Applied load
b) Type of surface used
c) The normal force
d) The horizontal load
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The frictional force is directly proportional to the vertical force that is being applied normal
to the surface of the body. The force of friction is not dependent on the type of the surface. Thus the
only thing the frictional force does depend is the normal force.
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4. The constant in the equation F = µN is called?
a) Knew
b) Proprietary Constant
c) Coefficient of dry friction
d) Coefficient of static friction
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The constant in the equation F = µN is known as the coefficient of static friction. This is
the proportionality constant and is generally used to express the equation of the frictional force. The
value of this constant is generally from 0 to infinite, depending on the surface.
5. The coefficient of static friction does depend upon the surface on which the body is being slide.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
the proportionality constant and is generally used to express the equation of the frictional force. The
value of this constant is generally from 0 to infinite, depending on the surface.
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6. The coefficient of friction is generally determined by ____________
a) Written over the Body
b) Experiments

c) Weighing the body
d) Measuring length of the body
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The coefficient of friction is generally determined by the help of experiments. Many
experiments are done on the body. Try and error methods are involved. And the final observations are
being taken out. Then the average of all the final answers resulted in the experiments is done.
7. We have two types of a coefficient of friction, one is coefficient of static friction and the other one is the
coefficient of the kinetic friction.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
the proportionality constant and is generally used to express the equation of the frictional force. And in
the same equation the constant is sometimes called a coefficient of kinetic friction, when the limiting
value of static friction is passed over.
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8. The angle of the inclination of wedge over which the block is sliding is determined by which of the
following trigonometric function?
a) Tangent Inverse
b) Cosine

c) Sine
d) Secant
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The angle of the wedge over which the block is being slided is generally taken out by the
help of the tangent inverse trigonometric function. It is the ratio of the frictional force to the normal
force. This ratio is kept inside the inverse function.
9. The coefficient of kinetic friction is ____________ than coefficient of static friction.
a) Smaller
b) Larger
c) Significantly larger
d) Highly larger
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The coefficient of kinetic friction is smaller than the coefficient of static friction. The main
thing about the kinetic one is that it is applied by the surface when the body is in motion. The static one
is applied to the body when the body is static and is about to move.
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10. The kinetic friction is applied when the body is __________
a) Moving
b) Stopped
c) Just stopped

d) Just started to move
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The kinetic friction is applied to the body by the surface when the body is moving. This
means there is friction present and the coefficient of that friction is smaller than the static one. The
main observation is that this is applied when the static friction attends its maximum value.
11. The angle of the inclination of wedge over which the block is sliding and is experiencing the kinetic
friction is determined by which of the following trigonometric function?
a) Tangent Inverse
b) Cosine
c) Sine
d) Secant
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The angle of the wedge over which the block is being slided is generally taken out by the
help of the tangent inverse trigonometric function. Whether it may be the static or the kinetic friction,
the ratio is the frictional force to the normal force. And this ratio is kept inside the inverse function.
12. The value of a coefficient of friction is taken at that moment when the block is at the verge of moving.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
the proportionality constant and is generally used to express the equation of the frictional force. And
this coefficient is calculated by the help of experiments and is generally observed when the block is at
the verge of moving.
13. For determination of the equilibrium state in the free body diagram the basic way of getting the
direction of the moment caused by the force is:
View Answer

Answer: b
14. Determine the frictional force acting in the given figure.
a) 63.9N
b) 60N
c) 43N
d) 83N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
15. Which of the following is the force developed between the body and the surface.
a) 160N
b) 16N
c) 10N
d) 180N
View Answer
Answer: a

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7/27/2021 Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers for Experienced - Sanfoundry

« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers for Experienced people focuses on “Moment
of a Force – 2”.
1. Find the moment of the force about the point R.
a) 5000Nm
b) 5550Nm
c) 6000Nm
d) 7000Nm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As we know that the moment is the cross product of the distance and the force we will try
to apply the same here. We see that the perpendicular distance is 5m. Thus we get the distance. And
hence multiply it with the force, 5x2000xsin30. Because the force component perpendicular to the
distance needs to be taken.
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2. How far from the shaft at P a 200N vertical force must act so as to create the same moment as
produced by the 75N, at P?
a) 1.2m
b) 1.125m
c) 0.6m
d) 0m
View Answer
Answer: b
to apply the same here. So let the distance be y, then the force of 200N will act downward. The
distance perpendicular is xcos60. Thus equating the 112.5 to 200ycos60.
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3. Find the moment along the point at the mid of the line SR.
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a) 1200Nm
b) 600Nm
c) 0Nm
d) 1400Nm
View Answer

Answer: b
to apply the same here. But here we have a number of forces components acting on the T point. So by
adding all the moments caused by all the forces will give us the value as 600Nm.
a) If we are considering the clockwise direction to be positive then the rotation along the counter
clockwise direction is negative
b) If we are considering the clockwise direction to be negative then the rotation along the counter
clockwise direction is also negative as no such assumptions can be taken
c) If we are considering the clockwise direction to be positive then the rotation along the counter
clockwise direction is also positive as no such assumptions can be taken
d) If we are considering the clockwise direction to be negative then the rotation along the counter
clockwise direction is neither positive nor negative as we only pre assumed the clockwise direction
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: We can take such assumptions. We are free to do so. We just need to specify if clockwise
is positive then the counter clockwise is to be negative. Also, such an assumption is very useful in 2D
calculation of the moments caused by various forces on the body.
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5. The moment is the cross product of which two vectors?

View Answer
Answer: b
6. The ___________ forces do not cause the rotation.
a) Non-concurrent
b) Concurrent
c) Parallel
d) Non-Parallel
View Answer
Answer: b
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7. Choose the correct one.
a) In a coplanar system the moment of the force is chose about a point instead of axis
b) In a coplanar system the moment of the force is chose about an axis instead of a point

c) In a 3D system the moment of the force is chose about a point instead of axis
d) In a 3D system the moment of the force is chose about an axis which is perpendicular to the direction
of the force
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The coplanar system means the consideration is with the 2D only. No 3D. Thus if there is
any moment needed to be considered we need to take it along the point and not along the axis. But
talking about the axis, there might be no axis in the 2D, as it is only in the 3D.
8. Determine the moment about the point S.
a) 0Nm
b) 350Nm
c) 100Nm
d) 200Nm
View Answer
Answer: c
hence multiply it with the force, 2×50.
9. Moments can be added like scalars that is it can be added algebraically with proper signs.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The moments in the 2D can be added algebraically just like the scalar quantities. But the
need is that the signs must be taken into consideration. As if clockwise is positive, so anti clockwise is
negative. And the result can be negative too. That is a counter clockwise direction.
10. If you are opening the door, then the force you apply is greater if you open it from the part closer to
the hinges.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the moment is the product of the force and the perpendicular distance of the point of
action and the axis, thus more the distance more will be the moment. And hence to overcome that you
have to apply more energy. Thus the answer.
11. Which of the following is correct in the determination of the moment direction by curling of wrist?
c) The fingers represent the direction of the force
View Answer
Answer: b
12. Find the moment along R.

a) 1200Nm
b) 600Nm
c) 0Nm
d) 1400Nm
View Answer
Answer: c
13. For the below diagram determine the magnitude of the horizontal force applied at R which creates the
same moment at P as by 75N.
a) 110N
b) 43.1N
c) 60N
d) 0N
View Answer
Answer: b
to apply the same here. We see that the perpendicular distance is 3sin60. Thus we get the distance.
And hence multiply it with the force, moment = 112.5Nm. Because the force component perpendicular
to the distance needs to be taken.
a) Total moment of various forces acting on the body is the vector sum of all moments in 3D

b) Total moment of various forces acting on the body is the algebraic sum of all moments in 3D
c) Total moment of various forces acting on the body is always zero in any dimension
perpendicular to each other forces whatever be the dimensions
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When we consider the dimensions we need to be careful. The moment is the vector
quantity. Thus the value of the total moment caused by various forces acting on the body is the vector
sum of all the vectors. Also, the moments are not perpendicular to each other unless it is specified.
15. The moment axis is in the direction parallel to the plane of the force and the distance.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The moment axis is always perpendicular to the planes of the force and the distance of
the axis and the point of action of the force on the body. This means that the moment is the cross
product of the force and the distance between the axis and the point of action of the force.
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7/27/2021 Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers for Freshers - Sanfoundry

– Cartesian Vectors – 2
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This set of Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers for Freshers focuses on “Cartesian Vectors –
2”.
1. Express the vector in the Cartesian Form, if the angle made by it with y and z axis is 60˚ and 45˚
respectively. Also, it makes an angle of α with the x-axis. The magnitude of the force is 200N.
a) 100i + 100j + 141.4k N
b) 100i – 100j + 141.4k N
c) 100i + 100j – 141.4k N
d) 100i – 100j – 141.4k N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When you will resolve the vector in its x, y and z-axis components, you will get an
equation containing cosα. After getting the correctly, you need to directly put that value in the previous
equation of components.
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2. In the figure given below, with F1 = 60j + 80k and F2= 50i -100j + 100k, what is the value of β? (β is
the angle made by the resultant vector with the y-axis )
a) 76˚
b) 102˚
c) 19˚
d) 130˚
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Just add the two vectors in their Cartesian form only. After that you will get the resultant
vector in the Cartesian form. After that just divide the y-axis component’s magnitude by the resultant of
the vector. You will get cosβ.
3. In the figure given below, calculate the value of cosγ. (γ is the angle made by the resultant vector and
the z-axis)
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a) 0.866
b) -0.354
c) 0.540
d) 0.354
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Well, the question is just a tricky one. Just subtract 60 from 90, you will get the γ, which is
30. And then apply the cosine formula for getting the components of the respective axis.
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4. What is the magnitude of the vector, 12i – 8j – 24k?
a) 18
b) 28
c) 38

d) 48
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 122 + 82 + 242 = 282 . After you get this, the 28 is the magnitude. This is the using of
distance formula between two Cartesian points. Considering the point (12, -8, -24) and then calculating
the distance from the origin.
5. The coordinate of the Force vector AB is A (2, 0, 2) and B (-2, 3.46, 3). What are its directions?
a) -0.742i + 0.643j + 0.186k
b) 0.742i – 0.643j – 0.186k
c) -0.742i – 0.643j + 0.186k
d) -0.742i + 0.643j – 0.186k
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: First subtract the coordinates of the A form B. And place the x, y and z-axis coordinate
separated by i, j and k respectively. Like Ai + Bj + Ck , if A, B and C are the x, y and z-axis coordinates.
You will get a Cartesian vector, just find its magnitude and divide it with the vector.
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6. The coordinate of the Force vector AB is A (2, 0, 2) and B (-2, 3.46, 3). It has a magnitude of 750N.
Which is the best Cartesian representation of the vector AB?
a) -557i + 482j + 139k N
b) -557i – 482j + 139k N
c) -557i + 482j – 139k N

d) 557i – 482j – 139k N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: First try to make the unit vector of AB. Then you will get the Cartesian form of unit vector,
after that just multiply 750 scalar quantity with it. Which means you are first taking out the desired
direction and then multiplying the scalar to get the desired vector in the desired direction.
7. A force vector is along 4i – 4k direction and has a magnitude 100N and another force vector is along 4i
+2j -4k and has a magnitude of 120N. What is the resultant of both forces?
a) 80i + 40j – 80k N
b) 80i – 40j – 80k N
c) 151i + 40j – 80k N
d) 151i+ 40j – 151k N
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Just make the unit vectors of the given directions of the vectors and then multiply them
with their respective magnitudes, after than you will get two vectors in the Cartesian form. Just add
them.
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8. The value cos-1(-3/7) + cos-1(2/7) + cos-1(6/7) is ____________
a) 215.4˚
b) 273.4˚
c) 188.4˚

d) 219.4˚
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It’s a calculative question, but still can be solved if you construct the triangle of the
respective cosine inverses given, then convert them in the tangent form then use log table, if
necessary. Or the use of a calculator is also good if permissible. Or you can make use of triangle laws
to obtain the same.
9. Two vectors emerging from a point are always in a single plane.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, whenever two vectors are there, they are always in a single plane. If the emerging
vectors are more than three then saying about their plane is somewhat difficult. But for two vectors it
seems easy to understand about their plane.
10. Three vectors emerging from a point are always in a single plane.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Yes, whenever two vectors are there, they are always in a single plane. But you cannot
say about the three vectors, they may or may be. Because if the emerging vectors are more than three
then saying about their plane is somewhat difficult. But for two vectors it seems easy to understand
about their plane.
11. What is the magnitude of the unit vector?
a) √3
b) √2
c) 1
d) 0
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The magnitude of the unit vector is always = 1. This means unit vector is the vector in the

direction of the original vector and the magnitude of the same is unity. And unit vector is always in the
direction of its vector.
12. What is the difference between a position vector and unit vector?
a) Position vector has magnitude = 1 and direction, while the unit vector has magnitude = 0 and no
direction
b) Position vector has magnitude = 0 and direction, while unit vector has magnitude = 0 and no direction
c) Position vector has some magnitude and direction, while the unit vector has magnitude = 0 and no
direction
d) Position vector has some magnitude and direction, while the unit vector has magnitude = 1 and a
specified direction
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As position vector defines the position of the point in the Cartesian plane with respect of
the origin, it will definitely have a direction and also a magnitude. Unit vector is a vector whose
magnitude is = 1 and is having a specific direction.
13. What if we multiply a scalar to the unit vector?
a) The direction will change accordingly
b) The magnitude will change accordingly
c) The magnitude will not change accordingly
d) The direction will change by a factor of square root of the scalar
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The magnitude of the unit vector will change by the amount of the scalar multiplied. Not
the direction. Because the direction is being fixed after the application of the unit vector’s calculation.
That is the vector divided by its magnitude.
14. Which is true for the vector provided the only position coordinates given?
a) (Final position coordinates + initial positions coordinates) gives the vector form of the vector
b) (Final position coordinates – initial positions coordinates) gives the vector form of the vector
c) (Initial positions coordinates – Final position coordinates) gives the vector form of the vector
d) (Initial positions coordinates + Final position coordinates) gives the vector form of the vector
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: We find the vector form from subtracting the initial position coordinates from final position
coordinates. Not from subtracting the final position coordinates from initial position coordinates.

15. A vector can always have_____________
a) Only one component along any of the axis
b) Only two components along any of the axis
c) Only three components along any of the axis
d) A unit vector along the direction perpendicular to its direction
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: All vectors have three components, whether they are zero or not. And unit vector is
always in the direction of its vector. And the unit vector has the magnitude equal to unity. This means
unit vector is the vector in the direction of the original vector and the magnitude of the same is unity.
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7/27/2021 Engineering Mechanics Questions for Campus Interviews - Sanfoundry

– Resultant of a General Distributed Loading
« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers for Campus interviews focuses on “Resultant
of a General Distributed Loading”.
1. The determination of the internal loading in the different structures is usually done so as
to___________
a) Break the structure
b) Know the length
d) Design the structure
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The determination of the internal forces in the structure is done so as to design the
structure as in the application purpose the structure will be subjected to many loads. This will help us to
make the beam properly. And also this will ensure that the structure will not break after the loading is
done on them. For this another method is the distribution load method.
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2. Determine the moment generated at R.
a) 18.75KNm
b) 8.75KNm
c) 1.75KNm
d) 175KNm
View Answer
Answer: a
3. The slope of the shear diagram of the different structure is equal to__________
b) Bending moment
c) Total weight
d) Distributed load intensity
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: After the application of the force equation of equilibrium to the segment of the structure,
we have the above result. This is done on the very small part of the structure. That is the minimal
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4. Free body diagrams doesn’t play any role in making the calculations on the conditions of the resultants
of the body.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The free body diagrams does play an important role in the formation of the conditions of
the resultants of the rigid body. As the net forces are zero, the fbd helps us to take the measure of the
same. That is to see whether the summation is really zero or not.
5. The simplification of the forces on the axis is done as __________
a) A particular system of rule is followed
b) No simplification of the forces is possible
c) The forces are already simplified and don’t need simplification
d) The forces are very tentative quantity on terms of simplification and hence no simplification possible
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A particular system of the rules is followed that is if the upward direction is taken as
positive then the downward direction is taken as negative. This is same as done with the couple in the
2D. That is the forces can be easily simplified. If taken in the vector form then the task is even easier.
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6. The net forces of acting on the body need to be zero. This is also applicable for the simply supported
structures. This means that the support reaction is also counted in making the net force zero.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The support reactions of the beam is also counted in the making of the forces zero. As far
as the net force is concerned the support reaction does affect the conditions for the equilibrium of the
body. Hence one needs to take care of the support reactions of the structures too.
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a) 450N
b) 50N
c) 40N
d) 45N
View Answer
Answer: a
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8. The simplification of the couple for getting the resultant is done on the basis of the ___________
a) The clockwise of the anti-clockwise rotation sign convention
b) The simplification is not possible

c) The couple is a vector and thus can’t be simplified
d) The couple is a scalar and can’t be simplified
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The couple is simplified by taking the direction of the rotation of the body as positive or
negative. That is if the clockwise direction is positive then the anti-clockwise direction is taken as
negative. If the couple is a vector it can be easily simplified by taking the components.
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7/27/2021 Engineering Mechanics Questions for Entrance Exams - Sanfoundry

– Frictional Forces on Collar Bearing, Pivot
Bearings and Disks
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This set of Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers for Entrance exams focuses on “Frictional
Forces on Collar Bearing, Pivot Bearings and Disks”.
1. The pivots are generally used in __________
a) Belts
b) Columns
c) Beams
d) Machines
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The pivots are being used in the machines. They are used as to support the loadings.
This means that the more the pivots the more is the stable the structure. Thus the use of pivots.
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a) -98.6kN
b) 98.6kN
c) -98.6iN
d) -98.6jN
View Answer
Answer: a
3. The collar bearings are generally used in __________
a) Belts
b) Columns
c) Beams
d) Machines
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The collar bearings are being used in the machines. They are used as to support the
loadings. This means that the more the collar bearings the more is the stable the structure. Thus the
use of collar bearings.
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4. The pivots and collar bearings are used as to support the axial load on the rotating shaft.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The collar bearings and pivots are being used in the machines. They are used as to
support the loadings. This means that the more the collar bearings or pivots more is the stable the
structure. Thus used as a supporting system to the shafts.
5. A phenomena is there in these collar bearings and pivots, which is very helpful in the supporting of the
machines, and that is _____________
a) Column Friction
b) Coulomb Friction
d) Surface friction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The dry friction is acted upon the surfaces. And they are tangential to each other. As we
know the friction is the phenomena that defines that there is a resistance which is present there
between the two surfaces. This Coulomb friction is also known as dry friction.
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6. At what conditions does the Coulomb friction occur between the surfaces in contact of collar bearings
or pivots?
View Answer
Answer: a
7. We first make equilibrium equations of the sections involving the collar bearings or pivots by
considering all the three dimensional forces acting on the section chosen and then the free body diagram
is made and solved.
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: We first make the free body diagram of collar bearings or pivots and then we make the
equilibrium equations to satisfy the given conditions. This helps us to solve the question easily. As this
reduces the part of imagination and increases accuracy too.
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8. To know the rotations involved in the disks we use right handed coordinate system, in that system
which of the following is followed (consider the mentioned axis to be positive)?
View Answer
Answer: a
9. In the calculations involving the collar bearings and the pivot bearings, we use cross product. In that
mathematically, for two vectors A and B of any magnitude, the cross product of both, i.e. AxB = given by:
a) |A||B|sinØ
b) |A||B|
c) |A||B|cosØ
d) |A||B|sin(180°+Ø)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The cross product of two vectors gives a vector which is perpendicular to both of the
vectors. And the mathematic equation for the same is given by: |A||B|sinØ. And the dot product of the
same by any of the other two vectors will give the answer zero, as perpendicular. The cross product is
the same for all the systems of its application.
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10. In the calculations of the bearings, we often use vector math. So for those systems which of the
following is true?
a) i x i =1
b) j x i = -j
c) k x j = -i
d) k x k = 1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As the mathematic equation for the cross product is having a cosine function in it, in which
the angle used in the function is the angle between the vectors. Thus the cross product will be zero if
the angle between them is 90. The vector math system remains the same for every system in the
environment.
11. The moment is the cross product of which two vectors in the calculations of the pivots and disks?
View Answer
Answer: b
12. Principle of transmissibility is somehow applied to the collar bearings. It states that:
a) It states that the force acting on the body is a sliding vector
b) It states that the force acting on the body is a rolling vector
c) It states that the force acting on the body is a wedging vector
d) It states that the force acting on the body is a unit vector
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Principle of transmissibility states that the force acting on the body is a sliding vector. That
is it can be applied at any point of the body. It will give the same effect as if applied at any point other
that the specific point. Thus the answer.
13. Coplanar forces are not easily simplified in the simplification of the force and couple system in the
calculations of forces in the pivots and collar bearings.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The coplanar forces can be easily simplified in the simplification of the force and couple
system. This is not only for the coplanar system of the forces but for any of the dimension vector.
Which means the answer is false.
a) 460Nm
b) 500Nm
c) 705Nm
d) 0Nm
View Answer
Answer: a

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7/27/2021 Engineering Mechanics Quiz - Sanfoundry

– Conditions for a Rigid-Body Equilibrium – 2
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This set of Engineering Mechanics Quiz focuses on “Conditions for a Rigid-Body Equilibrium – 2”.
1. Free body diagrams don’t play any role in making the calculations on the conditions of the equilibrium
of the body.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
the equilibrium of the rigid body. As the net forces are zero, the fbd helps us to take the measure of the
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2. The net forces of acting on the body need to be zero. This is also applicable for the simply supported
beams. This means that the support reaction is also counted in making the net force zero.
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a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
body. Hence one needs to take care of the support reactions of the beam too.
3. Determine the horizontal components of the reaction on the beam caused by the pin at Q.
a) 268N
b) 68N
c) 28N
d) 288N
View Answer
Answer: a
particular angles, must needed to be equal to zero. The basic need of the forces to make the body in
equilibrium.
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4. If the body is in equilibrium, but it having a rotational curled ray shown in the free body diagram then:
a) The diagram is wrong
b) Such rotations can’t be shown in the fbds(free body diagrams)
c) The ray shown may be correct, but the body is not said to be in equilibrium
d) The body is said to be in equilibrium only, as the other forces will cancel out that rotation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The body having equilibrium will not rotate at any cost. Yes, the diagram may contain the
rotational array showing the couple being acted over the structure. But the thing is that the forces, i.e.
the other forces which are outside the dependency of this rotation will cancel out this rotation and thus
the body is in equilibrium.
5. If five forces are acting on the single particle and having an angle of 72˚ between each and are
collinear, then:
a) The net force acting on the body is zero
b) The net force acting on the body is horizontal
c) The net force acting on the body is vertical
d) The net force acting on the body is at an angle of 45
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The net force acting on the body is zero. This means that the forces cancel out. This
means that the body is in equilibrium and doesn’t need any of the external force to make itself in the
equilibrium.
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6. Which of the following is correct?
a) There is only one type of support for the beams
b) There are only two types of support for the beams
c) There are only three types of support for the beams
d) There are various types of support for the beams and they are countless
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The support is the thing which a human decides. That can be anything. That is the
support can be given in any way. The type of support also is important as different types of supports
have different conditions for the equilibrium.
7. What does Newton’s second law states?
b) For every reaction, there is an opposite reaction
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The requirement of the second law is important in the equilibrium of the body. Specially
the rigid bodies. The rigid body particles are if are in motion then this law helps in making the
conditions for the equilibrium of the body. As when the body will leave its state of motion and come in
rest, etc.
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8. Determine the vertical components of the reaction on the beam caused by the pin at Q.
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a) 286N
b) 68N
c) 28N
d) 288N
View Answer
Answer: a
equilibrium.

a) The application of the conditions of the equilibrium of the body is valid only if the forces are collinear
b) The application of the conditions of the equilibrium of the body is valid only if the forces are parallel
c) The application of the conditions of the equilibrium of the body is valid only if the forces are
perpendicular
d) The application of the conditions of the equilibrium of the body is valid throughout
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The application of the conditions of the equilibrium of the body is valid throughout. This
means that the conditions are irrespective of the types of forces. The conditions are the basic rules that
defines the equilibrium of the body and thus are applicable in any type of forces of the real axis.
a) 0N
b) 445N
c) 45N
d) 40N
View Answer
Answer: a
need to zero. But talking about the angles, they not needed to zero. But the forces are acting at
particular angles.
11. For the conditions of the equilibrium of the body, i.e. the rigid body only the external forces defines the
equilibrium. And the support reactions only cancels out the rotation part of the body.
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The application of the support reaction forces does affect the conditions of the equilibrium
of the body. Not only the external but the support reaction forces that are developed by the sake of
external forces does develop a tending effect on the equilibrium of the body. Thus the support reaction
forces also cancels the external forces.
12. Cantilever beams are always in equilibrium, whether you form the equilibrium equations or not.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The thing is that the formation of the conditions only verifies that the body is in equilibrium
or not. Thus if the cantilever is in equilibrium then also the condition needs to be applied. It will be
wrong to justify the equilibrium only on the basis of structure.
13. Determine the horizontal components of the reaction on the beam caused by the pin at Q.
a) 268N
b) 68N
c) 28N
d) 288N
View Answer
Answer: a
equilibrium.
14. Determine the vertical components of the reaction on the beam caused by the pin at Q. The force

a) 319N
b) 445N
c) 45N
d) 40N
View Answer
Answer: a
equilibrium.
equilibrium. And the support reactions only adds the rotation part of the body.
View Answer
Answer: c
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7/27/2021 Engineering Mechanics Quiz Online - Sanfoundry

« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics online quiz focuses on “Characteristics of Dry Friction – 2”.
1. For making the equilibrium equations the normal forces acts in which direction in the free body
diagrams?
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the loads are acting in the downward direction. Thus to make the forces balance, the
normal forces act in the vertically upward direction. As we know that when there is no lubricating fluid
present between the surfaces in contact, the dry friction occurs. This friction magnitude is taken out
from these normal forces.
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2. Which one is not the condition for the equilibrium in free body diagram for calculation of the normal
forces, consider all forces to be straight and linear?
a) ∑Fx=0
b) ∑Fy=0
c) ∑Fz=0
d) ∑F≠0
View Answer
Answer: d
non-zero value.
3. We show the net forces by the help of __________ forces.
a) Rotational
b) Linear
c) Helical
d) Resultants
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The net forces acting on the body is shown with the help of the resultant forces. This is
because the resultant forces have the sum of all the forces which are acting in the direction which is
same. Thus the resultant forces are used to show the net forces acting in the body.
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4. There are main two types of forces which are being stated in the free body diagram, they are generally
the resultant forces which are being acted over the body. Which are they?
View Answer
Answer: a
two types, first the frictional and the second is the normal. This is because the resultant forces have the
5. In the problems regarding the friction and normal force calculations, there is no scope of the two force
and three force systems.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The two and three force member system can be acted upon the body even if there are
friction calculations involved. The main thing is that the frictional forces are the phenomena in which
there is a resistance between the surfaces. And the resistance magnitude is given by those
calculations. So if two or three system does comes, it has no effect.
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6. There is the application of the Newton’s third law of motion in the free body diagrams of the friction
calculations.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There is some calculations involved in which we have to make use of Newton’s third law
of motion. The requirement of the third law is important in the equilibrium of the body. The body
particles are in the equilibrium and are thus facing the forces and to be in the equilibrium they also
react and apply the opposite force and thus the third law of newton.
7. As we are using vector math to solve for the unknown forces in the free body diagrams, what is k.i?
a) 0
b) 1
c) -1
d) ∞
View Answer
Answer: a
always give zero. This is generally done because the normal forces are perpendicular to the surfaces
of action of the friction.
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8. The three force system can also be in the equilibrium if:
a) All the forces are parallel to each other heading towards the same direction
b) The force components cancel each other
c) The forces are very small in magnitude
d) The forces are very huge in magnitude
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Even if the forces components cancels each other than the body is said to be in
equilibrium. Also, it should satisfy whether the moments caused by the forces are equal to zero or not.
This means that we need to take components of the normal and frictional forces so as to make the
desired calculations.
9. The normal forces and the forces of friction are collinear.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: They are not collinear. They are just acting perpendicular or parallel to the surface of
action. Thus they are not even on the same plane. So as to make the calculations proper we need to
see the same and then apply the equations.
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10. Determine the horizontal force acting in the given figure.
a) 80cos30
b) 60cos30
c) 40cos30
d) 8cos30
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The net forces acting on the body is shown by the help of the resultant forces. There are
two types, first the frictional and the second is the normal. This is because the resultant forces have the
sum of all the forces which are acting on the direction which is same.
11. Determine the vertical force acting in the given figure.
a) 236N
b) 600n
c) 403N
d) 830N
View Answer
Answer: a
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7/27/2021 Engineering Mechanics Test - Sanfoundry

– Simplification of a Force and Couple System –
2
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This set of Engineering Mechanics test focuses on “Simplification of a Force and Couple System – 2”.
1. What is a collinear system of forces?
a) The force system having all the forces parallel to each other
b) The force system having all the forces perpendicular to each other
c) The force system having all the forces emerging from a single point
d) Forces cannot form a collinear system of forces, it is not possible
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The force system having all the forces emerging from a point is called the collinear
system of force. This is a type of system of the force, which is easy in the simplification. This is
because as the forces are the vector quantity, the vector math is applied and the simplification is done.
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2. Find the total resultant force acting in the given figure consisting of a beam with various sections.
a) 350N
b) 461N
c) 250N
d) 300N
View Answer
Answer: b
negative. After this the forces are a determined and are added vetorially to get the resultant force.
3. In the collinear force system, a net force is being made after all the simplification done on all the
forces.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is obviously yes. As the simplification means addition and the subtraction of
the forces. This results in the simplification of the forces and thus gives us a single force. It is in a
particular direction and hence the statement is true.
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4. Just like the collinear forces, there are collinear couple and the net moment is taken out from it.
View Answer
Answer: c
vector only, even if the magnitude is taken, the simplification is done in the 2D.
5. Just like the collinear force system, there is a system of the parallel forces.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There is a system so called the parallel system of the forces. This is another type of
forces. The simplification of this type of the forces is also very easy. This means that the forces in a
certain direction are taken as positive and in the other direction is negative and hence the simplification
is done.
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6. Find the total resultant moment acting in the given figure consisting of a beam with various sections.
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a) 37.5Nm
b) 7.5Nm
c) 79.5Nm
d) 370.5Nm
View Answer
Answer: a
7. The system of the collinear and the parallel force are simplified as ______________
a) The simplified collinear force system gives us a net force and the parallel force system gives us a
simplified force, and then we add it vectorially
b) Such simplification is not possible
c) The simplification is usually done by not considering the directions of the both
d) The simplification is done by considering the rotations only
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The simplification is easy. The simplified force system gives us a net force and the parallel
force system gives us a simplified force, and then we add it vectorially. Thus the vector addition at the
last can be easily done and thus both can be simplified.
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8. The couple and the other two force systems can be easily simplified.
a) Statement is wrong
b) Statement is right
c) Statement is right if we remove the ‘couple’ part
d) Statement is right if we remove the ‘force’ part
View Answer
Answer: b
9. The resultant force is equal to the _______ of all the forces.
a) Sum

b) Product
c) Subtraction
d) Division
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the simplification means addition and the subtraction of the forces. This results in the
simplification of the forces and thus gives us a single force. It is in a particular direction. But if one is
considering the direction with the magnitude of the force, we can say that the resultant is the sum of all
the forces.
10. The couple is simplified easily with the help of left hand rule. But the forces simplification is not
possible as there is no such system of rules so that the forces can be simplified.
View Answer
Answer: a
11. The forces of the parallel system and the couple can’t be simplified together as one is the cause and
the other is the effect.
a) The statement is correct and the reason given is also correct
b) The statement is wrong but the reason given is also correct
c) The statement is wrong and the reason given is also wrong
d) The statement is correct but the reason given is also wrong
View Answer
Answer: c
12. The forces of the collinear system and the couple can’t be simplified together as one is the cause and
the other is the effect.

View Answer
Answer: c
13. Find the angle between the horizontal and vertical forces acting in the given figure consisting of a
beam with various sections.
a) 49.4˚
b) 9.4˚
c) 4.4˚
d) 40.4˚
View Answer
Answer: a
negative. As soon as the horizontal and the vertical forces are determined we can get the angle
between them. This can be done by using the tangent trigonometry function.
14. Find the total resultant moment acting in the given figure consisting of a beam with various sections.

a) 210Nm
b) 10Nm
c) 20Nm
d) 102Nm
View Answer
Answer: a
negative. As soon as the horizontal and the vertical forces are determined we can get the angle
between them. This can be done by using the tangent trigonometry function.
15. Find the total resultant force acting in the given figure consisting of a beam with various sections.
a) 157N
b) 175N
c) 15N
d) 17N
View Answer

Answer: a
negative. After this, the forces are determined and are added vectorially to get the resultant force.
To practice all areas of Engineering Mechanics for tests, here is complete set of 1000+ Multiple Choice
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7/27/2021 Environmental Engineering - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Environmental Engineering
« Prev Next »
“Environmental Engineering”.
1. The living environment, the biosphere consists of __________ components.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 1
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The biosphere consists of 3 components – land (lithosphere), water (hydrosphere) and air
(atmosphere). They are all necessary for life to sustain on earth.
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2. The presence of gas in water is indicated by:
a) Fizzing sound
b) Foam
c) Bubbles
d) Colour change
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Water may be polluted by the presence of some unpleasant gases from industries. They
are recognized by the foaming of water.
3. To test turbidity of polluted water in the field, _________ is used.
a) Baylis Turbidimeter
b) Jackson Turbidimeter
c) Turbidity tube
d) Turbidity rod
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The first three options are used to test turbidity in the lab. The turbidity rod is a graduated
aluminium rod.
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4. Refuse may be of _________ types.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The rejected materials which are collected in dustbins and the foul discharges that are
carried by underground drains are termed as refuse. It may be dry refuse (grass, paper, cloth,
vegetable peels) or wet refuse (urinals, kitchen discharges).
5. In the method of trenching, the size of the trench may be:
a) 12 x 5 x 2m
b) 15 x 5 x 3m
c) 12 x 3 x 2m
d) 15 x 5 x 5m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Trenching is a method of disposing of solid waste. Trench is dug of size 12 x 3 x 2m,
waste is filled and levelled and then covered with a layer of earth or ash.
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6. Hydrogen Peroxide is generated from:
a) Photochemical smog products
b) Explosive manufacturing industry
c) Automobile exhausts
d) Thermal power plants
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is generated from the photochemical smog products. It is a common pollutant in the air
and can cause lungs irritation when inhaled.
7. When some chemical is mixed with water, _________ is formed.
a) Solution
b) Floc
c) Bubbles
d) Foam
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Coagulation can be explained by this method. Floc is the thick gelatinous precipitate
which forms when chemicals (coagulants) are mixed with water.
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8. Which of the below leads to disturbance of nitrogen fixation in the soil?
a) Urban waste
b) Fertilizers
c) Pesticides
d) Industrial effluents
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Use of excess fertilizers destroys the microbial plant life in the soil. It leads to disturbance
of nitrogen fixation, which is an essential process in soil.
9. _________ is the simplest equipment used for collection of solid particulates.
a) Inertial separators
b) Filters
c) Settling chamber
d) Cyclones
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It consists of a chamber in which the velocity of carrier gas is reduced in order to allow
particulates to settle out of moving stream under the action of gravity.
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10. Pollution cases can be classified into _________ types.
a) 4
b) 2
c) 5
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There can be two types based on special dimensions. They are localised pollution cases
(spill accidents) and diffused pollution cases.
11. _________ is a raw material sent to and processed in a waste recycling plant.
a) Recyclant
b) Nodules
c) Particulars
d) Recyclate
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It is used to form new products. For example, plastic bottles can be a recyclate. It is
Collected and processed to manufacture new ones.
12. What are the main constituents of the environmental cycles?
a) Water cycle and food cycle
b) Water cycle and nutrient cycle
c) Nutrient cycle
d) Water cycle and air cycle
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The environmental cycles are natural processes in which the different elements of the
environment are cycled in various forms. These include the water cycle and nutrient cycle (which
include Carbon, Nitrogen, Oxygen and Phosphorus cycles, etc.
13. Failures within hydrosphere in oxygen cycle can result in the development of:
a) Hyperoxic zones
b) Hypoxic zones
c) Hydrolic zones
d) Hydroxic zones
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hypoxic zones are also called dead zones. These are areas with low oxygen content and
can be inhabitable for living organisms. Any failure in the hydrosphere within oxygen cycle can lead to
the formation of hypoxic zones.
and Answers.
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7/27/2021 Equilibrium Configurations Stability Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Stability of Equilibrium Configurations
« Prev
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Stability of
Equilibrium Configurations”.
1. The main condition for the stability of the equilibrium configuration is that the distance between various
particles of the body does change.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main condition for the rigid body is that the distance between various particles of the
body does not change. If the distance does change the body is not to be called as rigid. Thus the fix
distance of the particles is very much required for the equilibrium of the rigid body.
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2. Determine the vertical components of the reaction on the beam caused by the pin at Q.
file:///E:/Equilibrium Configurations Stability Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry.html 1/10
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a) 286N
b) 68N
c) 28N
d) 288N
View Answer
Answer: a
equilibrium.
3. Which of the following is correct for the stability of equilibrium configuration?
a) The application of the conditions of the equilibrium of the body is valid only in the 2D
b) The application of the conditions of the equilibrium of the body is valid only in the 3D
c) The application of the conditions of the equilibrium of the body is valid only in the 1D

View Answer
Answer: d
means that the conditions are irrespective of the dimensions. The conditions are the basic rules that
define the equilibrium of the body and thus are applicable to any dimension of the real axis.
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4. For stability of equilibrium configuration the net force acting on the body is zero.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The equilibrium is only attained if the net force on the body tends to be equal to zero.
Thus the forces cancels out. If this happens there is no motion of the body along any direction and
hence the body is said to be in equilibrium. The body here is a rigid body.
5. For stability of equilibrium configuration the net moment acting on the body by various forces is zero.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Thus the moments caused by different forces cancels out. If this happens there is no motion of the
body along any direction and hence the body is said to be in equilibrium. The body here is a rigid body.
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6. The net force of the body is zero that means the force are not being applied to the body at all and
hence the body has achieved stability.
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The net force of the body is zero that doesn’t mean that the force are not being applied to
the body at all and hence the body is in equilibrium. The equilibrium is only attained if the net force on
the body tends to be equal to zero. Thus the forces cancels out. If this happens there is no motion of
the body along any direction and hence the body is said to be in equilibrium.
7. Which of the following needs to zero for the stability of equilibrium configuration?
a) ∑F=0, ∑M=0 and ∑θ = 0
b) ∑F=0, ∑M≠0 and ∑θ = 0
c) ∑F≠0, ∑M=0 and ∑θ = 0
d) ∑F=0, ∑M=0 and ∑θ≠0
View Answer

Answer: d
need to zero. But talking about the angles, they not need to zero. But the forces which are acting at
equilibrium.
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a) 0N
b) 445N
c) 45N
d) 40N
View Answer
Answer: a
particular angles, must needed to.

9. Free body diagrams doesn’t play any role in making the calculations on the conditions of stability of
equilibrium configuration.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
10. The net moment of the body is zero that means the distance between the force and the rotational axis
is zero thus the stability of equilibrium configuration.
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The net moment of the body is zero that doesn’t mean that the distance between the force
and the rotational axis is zero. This means moments caused by different forces cancels out. If this
happens there is no motion of the body along any direction and hence the body is said to be in
equilibrium.
11. If the resolved force for the stability of equilibrium configuration or the force which you get as the
answer after solving the question is negative, then what does this implies?
View Answer
Answer: a
this doesn’t means that it is impossible. But it means that the force is in the opposite direction w.r.t the
12. If the body is in stability of equilibrium configuration, but it having a rotational curled ray shown in the
free body diagram then:

d) The body is said to be in equilibrium only, as the other forces will cancel out that rotation
View Answer
Answer: d
collinear, then:
a) The net force acting on the body is zero and it is stable
c) The net force acting on the body is vertical
View Answer
Answer: a
equilibrium.
14. For the conditions of the stability of equilibrium configuration of the body, i.e. the body only the
external forces defines the equilibrium. Because the internal forces cancels out so not to be considered.
View Answer
Answer: c
out.
15. We need to apply vector math sometimes in the calculation of the stability of equilibrium
configurations. So the coordinate of the Force vector AB is A (2, 0, 2) and B (-2, 3.46, 3). It has a
magnitude of 750N. Which is the best Cartesian representation of the vector AB?

a) -557i + 482j + 139k N
b) -557i – 482j + 139k N
c) -557i + 482j – 139k N
d) 557i – 482j – 139k N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: First try to make the unit vector of AB. Then you will get the Cartesian form of a unit
vector after that just multiply 750 scalar quantity with it. Which means you are first taking out the
desired direction and then multiplying the scalar to get the desired vector in the desired direction.
and Answers.
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7/27/2021 Fine Aggregates - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Fine Aggregates
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Fine
Aggregates”.
1. Fine Aggregates should pass through which IS sieve?
a) 2.35mm
b) 45µ
c) 4.75mm
d) 75µ
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 4.75mm IS sieve is the aggregate size deciding sieve. Anything retained on sieve is
coarse aggregate and the ones that pass through sieve are fine aggregates.
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2. How many types of fine aggregates are there based on source?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Three types are natural sand (river banks), crushed stone sand (hard stone) and crushed
gravel sand (gravel).
3. What is the fineness modulus value of a fine sand?
a) <2.2
b) 2.2-2.6
c) <1
d) 1-2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Based on the fineness of sand, there are very fine sand, fine sand, medium sand, coarse
sand and very coarse sand. Fine sand has fineness modulus between 2.2-2.6.
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4. M-Sand has ___________ type of particle shape.
a) Flaky
b) Round
c) Angular
d) Cubical
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The stone is crushed to obtain M-Sand. The shape of the crushed stone is cubical and it
has rounded edges.
5. Which of the below can be used as fine aggregates?
a) Lime
b) Splinters
c) Surkhi
d) Rice Husk
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Surkhi consists of broken brick pieces. They can be ground to the size of fine aggregates.
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6. The specific gravity for sand is:
a) 2.6
b) 2.65
c) 2.8
d) 2.75
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As per the results from specific gravity test in pycnometer, this specific gravity for sand is
2.6.
7. In the ratio 1:4:8, which number indicates the quantity of fine aggregates?
a) 1
b) 4
c) 8
d) None
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For plain cement concrete (PCC), ratio 1:4:8 is usually used. The ratio is of cement: fine
aggregates: coarse aggregates. Hence, 4 is the quantity of fine aggregates.
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8. PGBS stands for:
a) Perfectly Graded Blast furnace Slag
b) Pre-Grinded Blast furnace Slag
c) Poly Granule Blast furnace Slag
d) Processed Granulated Blast furnace Slag
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It is obtained by processing the waste by-product from the iron industry. It is now being
used as an alternative to river sand.
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and Answers.
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7/27/2021 Flat Belts Frictional Forces Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Frictional Forces on Flat Belts
« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Frictional
Forces on Flat Belts”.
1. ____________ is the phenomena that resist the movement of the two surfaces in contact, in some of
the cases it could be the belts and the rolling cylinders.
a) Friction
b) Motion
d) Rotation
View Answer
Answer: a
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2. The frictional force in the belts always acts ____________ to the surface of the application of the
friction.
a) Tangential
b) Perpendicular
c) Parallel
d) Normal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The friction is the phenomena that defines that there is a resistance which is present there
3. Vector shown in the figure below has a length of 3m and the angles shown A and B are 60 and 30
degrees each. Calculate the X-axis and Y-axis components.
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a) 2.59m and 1.50m respectively
b) 1.50m and 2.59m respectively

c) 3cos60 and 3sin30 respectively
d) 3sin60 and 3sin30 respectively
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The sine and the cosine components of the given vectors considering angle B as the only
angle of consideration come 1.5m and 2.59m.
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4. What is B in the equation T2 = T1eµB ?
a) Angle of the belt to surface contact in radians
b) Angle of the belt to surface contact in degrees
c) Angle of the belt in radians
d) Angle of the belt in degrees
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For solving of the unknown tension in the belts, T2 = T1eµB equation is used. In this, the
R.H.S tension is the maximum tension of the two tensions. While the other one is the smaller one. And
the µ is coefficient of friction between the belt and the surface. And the B is the angle of belt to the
surface in radians.
5. Dry friction in the belt is also called ___________
a) Column Friction
b) Coulomb Friction

d) Surface friction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The dry friction is acted upon the surfaces. Whatever may be the surfaces. And they are
tangential to each other. As we know the friction is the phenomena that defines that there is a
resistance which is present there between the two surfaces. The dry friction is also termed as the
Coulomb friction as it was given by C.A. Coulomb.
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6. For making the equilibrium equations for the belt the normal forces that are being acted over them are
in which direction in the free body diagrams?
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the loads are being acted in the downward direction. Thus to make the forces balance,
the normal forces act in the vertically upward direction. As we know that when there is no lubricating
fluid present between the surfaces in contact, the dry friction occurs. This friction magnitude is taken
out from these normal forces.
7. Which one is not the condition for the equilibrium in free body diagram for the belts as considered for
calculation of the normal forces, consider all forces to be straight and linear?

a) ∑Fx=0
b) ∑Fy=0
c) ∑Fz=0
d) ∑F≠0
View Answer
Answer: d
non-zero value.
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8. We first make equilibrium equations of the belts by considering all the three dimensional forces acting
on the section chosen and then the free body diagram is made and solved.
View Answer
Answer: d

9. We show the net forces acting on the belts with the help of __________ forces.
a) Rotational
b) Linear
c) Helical
d) Resultants
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The net forces acting on the body is shown with the help of the resultant forces. This is
because the resultant forces have the sum of all the forces which are acting in the direction which is
same. Thus the resultant forces are used to show the net forces acting in the body.
10. There are mainly two types of forces which are being stated in the free body diagram of the belts,
they are generally the resultant forces which are being acted over the body over which the belt is rolling.
Which are they?
View Answer
Answer: a
11. Determine the magnitude of the projection of the vector force F = 100N acting over a particular point
on the belt, onto the v axis, from the figure given below.
a) 96.6N
b) 60N

c) 100N
d) 70.7N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The component of the force in the v axis, it is equal to 100cos(15˚). This is the application
of the triangle over the figure. Try to resolve the components of the given force. It will be easy. This is
one of the simplest examples of solving for the forces acting over the belts.
12. The solving for the unknown forces in the belts requires vector math. So if a vector is multiplied by a
scalar in the belt system of forces then_________
a) Then its magnitude is increased by the square root of that scalar’s magnitude
b) Then its magnitude is increased by the square of that scalar’s magnitude
c) Then its magnitude is increased by an amount of that scalar’s magnitude
d) You cannot multiply the vector with a scalar
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If a vector is multiplied by a scalar then its magnitude is increased by an amount of that
scalar’s magnitude. When multiplied by a negative scalar it going to change the directional sense of the
vector. Vector math is unchanged throughout.
13. All the vector quantities in the solving of the unknown in the belt force system obey _____________
View Answer
Answer: a
14. For solving of the unknown tension in the belts, which of the following equation is used?
a) T2 = T1eµB
b) T1 = T2eµB
c) T2 = T1eB
d) T2 = T1eµ
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: For solving of the unknown tension in the belts, T2 = T1eµB equation is used. In this, the
R.H.S tension is the maximum tension of the two tensions. While the other one is the smaller one. And
the µ is coefficient of friction between the belt and the surface.
15. Shown as in the figure below, A=60 degree and B=30 degree. Calculate the total length obtained by
adding the x-axis component of both the vectors.
a) 3.23m
b) 4.35m
c) 2.50m
d) 1.5m
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: After getting the cosine components of the given vectors we obtain the total length of the
x-axis components to be 3cos60 + 2cos30 = 3.23.
and Answers.
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7/27/2021 Floor Coverings - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Floor Coverings
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Floor
Coverings”.
1. Cork flooring is made using:
a) Wooden chips
b) Cork pieces
c) Wooden fibres
d) Bark of Cork Oak
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Cork flooring is made by removing bark of Cork Oak, without damaging the tree. It is
renewable and sustainable. It also possesses anti-microbial, sound proofing, comfort properties.
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2. The first step in flooring is:
a) Topping
b) Base coat
c) Sand filling
d) R.C.C. layer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Flooring refers to the covering of floor. Before laying any covering material, a base coat
has to be provided. Cement concrete ratio of 1:8:16 of 100mm thick or compacted earth of ratio 1:4:8
can be used.
3. Mechanically produced carpet is a combination of:
a) Rubber and synthetic fibres
b) Wool and rubber
c) Wool and synthetic fibres
d) Rubber and natural fibres
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Generally wool is used to make carpet. Mechanically produced carpets are a combination
of wool and synthetic fibre. The highest grade is 80/20 of wool/nylon blend.
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4. How many types of floor tiles are available?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The three main available tiles in the market are ceramic tiles, vitrified tiles and porcelain
tiles.
5. The costliest and best variety of marble flooring is:
a) Albeta
b) Makrana white
c) Aranga
d) Kumari
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Makrana white marble is a native of Rajasthan. It has been used in Taj Mahal. It has
a pure white colour, soft smooth texture and high-quality finishing.
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6. Which of the below is not an advantage of brick flooring?
a) Fire proof
b) Cost effective
c) Slip resistant
d) Water proof
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Bricks, as a material is very porous and permeable to moisture, fluids. It can absorb any
liquid spilled on it, stain the surface and eventually decay. Cleaning becomes difficult. They need to be
sealed periodically with water proofing chemicals.
7. Glass floors can be made with ________ type of glasses.
a) 5
b) 6
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Transparent glass is used when objects below it are to be viewed, translucent glass is
used where visibility of objects below is to be blocked. Toughened glass is usually used as it is more
strong and resistant to breaking.
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8. PVC flooring gives _______ finish.
a) Matt
b) Laminated
c) Satin
d) Natural
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: PVC rolls and tiles are available. These provide a matt finish to the floor, not a glossy, fine
finish. They are not very hard, but are water resistant.
9. Terrazo flooring comprises of:
a) Chips, powder, concrete
b) Chips, concrete
c) Chips, cement
d) Chips, powder, cement
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Terrazo refers to the presence of small decorative chips embedded in cement paste. The
chips may be of glass, marble, etc. Along with chips, marble powder or magnesite powder is also
added.
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10. Cement concrete floor is laid in a ratio of:
a) 1:8:16
b) 1:1:2
c) 1:2:4
d) 1:1.5:3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Plain cement concrete flooring can also be provided. The ratio of 1:2:4 is used. It is laid
over a base concrete after proper sub base preparation.
11. Wooden flooring:
a) Resists water
b) Does not fade
c) Non-elastic nature
d) Economic
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Wooden flooring is the costliest one if high quality, durable and polished wood is used. It
does not resist water that efficiently unlike other materials. It is elastic in nature. It is polished and has a
natural lustre, which does not fade away.
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Floor Types - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Floor Types
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Floor
Types”.
1. Which type of floor is used for residential buildings?
a) Ground timber floor
b) Single joist timber floor
c) Double joist timber floor
d) Framed timber floor
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In residential buildings, the span is less and loads to be carried are light. So, a single joist
timber can be used.
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2. Floor under the flooring is called:
a) Plinth
b) Sunken floor
c) Sub floor
d) Hind floor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Flooring refers to the floor finish or covering like tiles, mosaic, etc. The level below these
is called sub floor.
3. A ________ floor makes noise when an intruder walks on it.
a) Glass
b) Chirping
c) Sound
d) Nightingale
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: These floors make a chirping sound when the tread on. The sound is produced by the
rubbing of nails against the boards of flooring.
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4. A floor consists of _________ parts.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A floor consists of 2 parts. A sub floor, which is laid below flooring and supports the
flooring as well as super imposed loads. The floor covering is the second part, which gives a smooth,
clean, impervious and durable surface.
5. _________ floor is used for spans of more than 7.5m.
a) Framed timber
b) Stone
c) Glass
d) Double joist timber
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a framed timber floor, girders are placed between walls and binders are put on them. It
can be used for larger spans.
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6. Distribution of loads on the wall is not uniform in single joist timber floor.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In single joist timber floor, joists are spaced closely – 30cm centre to centre. It is because
of this the distribution of loads on the wall is uniform.
7. Which of the below is a problem with floors?
a) Cracks
b) Stains
c) Vibration
d) Projections
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Vibration can occur when heavy footsteps and low bass frequencies pass through the
floor. Wooden floor is more prone to vibrations. A floating floor or concrete floor can be used to solve
the problem.
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8. Which of the below utility cannot be provided underneath a floor?
a) Plumbing
b) Sound proofing
c) Air-conditioning
d) Gas lines
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Gas lines are generally drawn through walls and not floors. All other utilities like plumbing,
electrical wires, thermal and sound proofing, fire protection, sewage can be carried underneath a floor.
9. The upper floors are floating floors.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Floating floors is the one that is supported by the ground below. Suspended floor is the
one supported by walls at the edges. Ground floor can be floating or suspended, while upper floor is
always suspended floor.
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10. In suspended concrete floors, _________ beams are used.
a) T shaped
b) Inverted L shaped
c) Inverted T shaped
d) I shaped
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A suspended concrete floor is typically built using block and beam. Inverted T shaped
beams are used. Concrete blocks (Pre-cast) are laid in between these beams.
11. Horizontal structural members placed at right angles to bridging joists are:
a) Binders
b) Girders
c) Screed
d) Topping
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Binders are provided to take the load of bridging joist and of floor toppings. Girders are
placed to support binders. Screed is narrow strips of wood or bands of plaster laid on floor to act as
guides to get an even surface for toppings. Top most lair of a floor is called toppings.
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Fluid Pressure - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Fluid Pressure
« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Fluid
Pressure”.
1. The Pascal law states that liquid at rest applies pressure at a point is ________ in all directions.
a) Same
b) Un-same
c) Not matching
d) Matching but not equal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Pascal law states that the liquid at rest applies pressure at a point is the same in all
directions. This means that the pressure is there in spite of the direction. And it is present in the same
direction and is having the same magnitude.
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2. Determine the location of the hydrostatic force acting on the submerged rectangular plate PaPb. Plate
has a width of 1.5m. Density of water 1000kg/m3.
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a) 1.29m
b) 0.29m
c) 0.9m
d) 1.9m
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Pascal law states that the liquid at rest applies pressure at a point is same in all
direction and is having same magnitude.

3. The magnitude of the pressure of the fluid is not dependent on the _________
a) Force
b) Area
c) Specific Weight
d) Temperature
View Answer
Answer: d
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4. The Pascal’s law is applicable to the liquid which is __________________
a) Compressible
b) In-compressible
c) Solid in phase
d) Super-compressive
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The liquid must be incompressible. The Pascal law states that the liquid at rest applies
pressure at a point is same in all directions. This means that the pressure is there in spite of the
direction.

5. Gases are ________________ fluids.
a) Compressible
b) In-compressible
c) Solid in phase
d) Super-compressive
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The liquid must be incompressible. The Pascal law states that the liquid at rest applies
pressure at a point is same in all directions. This means that the pressure is there in spite of the
direction. But the gases are compressive that’s why it is not used in the gas form.
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6. Pressure acts _____________ to the surface of the body.
a) Normal
b) Linear
c) Parallel
d) Coplanar
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The pressure is always acted normal to the surface of the body. Thus the pressure plays
a role as a vector in this case. So mainly the pressure must be considered as normal to the surface of
the body.

7. For the determination of the fluid pressure the body to be experimented is ___________ in the liquid.
a) Immersed
b) Non-immersed
c) Parallel
d) Normal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The body used in the determination of the fluid pressure equations is immersed in the
liquid. It is completely immersed in the liquid. So as to make the calculations of the pressure beneath
the liquid.
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8. What is a collinear system of forces for the system of the fluid liquids?
View Answer
Answer: c

9. The system of the collinear and the parallel force for the calculations of the equations in the
determination of the fluid pressure are simplified as ________________
View Answer
Answer: a
10. What is not the condition for the equilibrium in the determination of the equations of the fluid
pressures?
a) ∑Fx=0
b) ∑Fy=0
c) ∑Fz=0
d) ∑F≠0
View Answer
Answer: d
non-zero value.
11. If solving the question in 3D calculations is difficult, then use the 2D system to determine the
equations of the fluid pressure.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
12. When the body is in equilibrium beneath the liquid then which of the following is true?
a) We equate all the components of the forces acting on the body equal to their resultant vector’s
magnitude

b) We equate all the components of the forces acting on the body equal to their resultant vector’s
magnitude square
c) We equate all the components of the forces acting on the body equal to their resultant vector’s
magnitude square root
d) We equate all the components of the forces acting on the body equal to zero
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Yes, we equate all the components of the three axis equal to zero. That is the resultant of
the forces along the three axis are being equated to zero. This brings in that there is no net force along
any direction. Hence equilibrium.
13. We first make equilibrium equations for the fluid pressure and then the free body diagram and then
solve the question?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
14. ∑Fx=0, ∑Fy=0 and ∑Fz=0 are vector equations for the determination of the equilibrium equations for
the fluid pressure in the body immersed in the liquid.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
15. Determine the resultant hydrostatic force acting on the submerged rectangular plate PaPb. Plate has
width of 1.5m. Density of water 1000kg/m3.

a) 154.5 kN/m
b) 54.5 kN/m
c) 14.5 kN/m
d) 112.5 kN/m
View Answer
Answer: a
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7/28/2021 Force & Couple System Simplification Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Simplification of a Force and Couple System –
1
« Prev Next »
“Simplification of a Force and Couple System – 1”.
1. The basic type of motion of a body is translation motion only.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The basic types of the motion of the body are translation and rotational. In which
translation means the motion is a straight motion while the in the rotational motion the body is moving
of the body along the axis.
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2. Find the total resultant force acting horizontally in the given figure below, consisting of a beam with
various sections?
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a) 350N
b) 50N
c) 250N
d) 300N
View Answer
Answer: d
3. The principle of transmissibility is
View Answer
Answer: a
than the specific point. Thus the answer.
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4. Coplanar forces are not easily simplified in the simplification of the force and couple system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
5. What will be the total resultant force acting vertically in the figure given below consisting of a beam with
various sections?
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a) 350N
b) 50N
c) 250N
d) 300N
View Answer
Answer: a
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6. The simplification of the couple is done on the basis of the ______________
View Answer
Answer: a
7. The simplification of the forces on the axis is done as______________
View Answer
Answer: a
positive then the downward direction is taken as negative. This is the same as done with the couple in
the 2D. That is the forces can be easily simplified. If taken in the vector form then the task is even
easier.
8. Find the total resultant force acting horizontally in the given figure consisting of a beam of ‘L’ shape?
a) 60N
b) 605N
c) 0N
d) 6N
View Answer
Answer: a
9. The couple is a scalar quantity and the force is vector quantity and hence only force can be simplified
as __________
a) The first part of the statement is false and another part is true
b) The first part of the statement is false and another part is false too
c) The first part of the statement is true and another part is false
d) The first part of the statement is true and another part is true too
View Answer
Answer: a
10. The force and the couple can’t be simplified together as one is the cause and the other is the effect.
View Answer
Answer: c
11. The main moto of the simplification is to ______________
a) To reduce the calculation
b) To add the forces with the couples and take out the total
c) To subtract the forces with the couples and take out the total
d) To multiply the forces with the couples and take out the total
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The main moto of the simplification is to reduce the calculation. The forces are simplified
and the couples too are simplified. This gives us the total force and the total moment acting on the
body. This gives us a single value of the respective thing and hence reduces the labour.
12. Find the total resultant force acting vertically in the given figure below consisting of a beam of ‘L’
shape.
a) 180N
b) 18N
c) 10N
d) 100N
View Answer
Answer: a
13. The couple is simplified easily with the help of right hand rule. But the forces simplification is not
possible as there is no such system of rules so that the forces can be simplified.
a) The first part of the statement is false and another part is true
b) The first part of the statement is false and another part is false too
c) The first part of the statement is true and another part is false
d) The first part of the statement is true and another part is true too
View Answer
Answer: c
14. The couple moment and the force is divided to get the distance of the axis from the point of action of
the force.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The couple is the cross product of the force and the perpendicular distance between the
forces. And if the division of the both is done than the resulting quantity is the distance only. But care
must be taken that the product is the cross product and hence sine angle must be divided too to get
the distance.
15. Find the total resultant moment acting vertically in the given figure below consisting of a beam of ‘L’
shape.
a) 640Nm
b) 60Nm
c) 40Nm
d) 400Nm
View Answer
Answer: a
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2
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7/28/2021 Force Moment - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Moment of
a Force – 1”.
1. Determine the smallest force applied at R which creates the same moment about P as by 75N.
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a) 37.5N
b) 112.5N
c) 60N
d) 0N
View Answer
Answer: a
hence multiply it with the force, the moment = 112.5Nm. Because the force component perpendicular
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2. What does the moment of the force measure?
a) The tendency of rotation of the body along any axis
c) The couple moment produced by the single force acting on the body
d) The total work is done on the body by the force
View Answer
Answer: a
axis, whether it be the centroid axis of the body or any of the outside axis. The couple moment is
3. If a car is moving forward, what is the direction of the moment of the moment caused by the rotation of
the tires?
a) It is heading inwards, i.e. the direction is towards inside of the car
b) It is heading outwards, i.e. the direction is towards outside of the car
c) It is heading forward, i.e. the direction is towards the forward direction of the motion of the car
d) It is heading backward, i.e. the direction is towards the back side of the motion of the car
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When you curl your wrist in the direction in which the tires are moving then you will find
that the thumb is pointing outwards. That is outwards the body of the car. This phenomenon is also
observed in rainy seasons. When cars travel on the roads, the water is thrown outside from the tires,
due to moment.
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4. The tendency of rotation of the body along any axis is also called ___________
b) Moment of couple
c) Torque
d) Force
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The tendency of rotation of the body along any axis also called the torque. It is the
5. The moment of the force is the product of the force and the perpendicular distance of the axis and the
point of action of the force.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
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6. Determine the moment about the point T.

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a) 0Nm
b) 350Nm
c) 100Nm
d) 200Nm
View Answer
Answer: a
hence multiply it with the force, 0x50.
7. The moment axis is in the direction perpendicular to the plane of the force and the distance.
a) True

b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The moment axis is always perpendicular to the planes of the force and the distance of
the axis and the point of action of the force on the body. This means that the moment is the cross
product of the force and the distance between the axis and the point of action of the force.
8. Find the moment along T.
a) 1200Nm
b) 600Nm
c) 0Nm
d) 1400Nm
View Answer
Answer: b
9. If you are getting to know about the direction of the moment caused by the force applied on the body
by using your wrist and curling it in the direction of the rotation then which of the following is not right?
c) The fingers represent the direction of the force
View Answer
Answer: b

10. The moment axis, force and the perpendicular distance in the moment of the force calculation is lying
in____________
a) Two planes perpendicular to each other
b) A single plane in the direction of the force
c) A single plane in the direction of the perpendicular distance
d) A single line in the direction of the force
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The moment axis, force and the perpendicular distance are lying in the three dimensional
Cartesian. It doesn’t lye on the single plane. It also doesn’t lye in a single line. Nor in the direction of
the force. Thus they all lye in the planes which are perpendicular to each other.
11. If the rotation is clockwise in this page, suppose, then in which direction will the thumb project if you
curl your hand in the same direction of the rotation?
a) It will point to the direction perpendicular to the plane of the paper and towards you
b) It will point to the direction perpendicular to the plane of the paper and away from you
c) It will point to the direction parallel to the plane of the paper and towards right
d) It will point to the direction parallel to the plane of the paper and towards left
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the curling will give the direction perpendicular to the paper. But it does depend upon
the rotation sense. In this example, the sense is clockwise. Thus the thumb goes into the paper. That is
it goes away from the viewer. Thus the answer.
a) Total moment of various forces acting on the body is the vector sum of all moments
b) Total moment of various forces acting on the body is the algebraic sum of all moments
c) Total moment of various forces acting on the body is always zero
perpendicular to each other forces
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The moment is the vector quantity. Thus the value of the total moment caused by various
forces acting on the body is the vector sum of all the vectors. Also, the moments are not perpendicular
to each other, unless it is specified. Thus assumptions cant be taken for the direction of the moment.

13. Determine the moment about the point R.
a) 0Nm
b) 350Nm
c) 100Nm
d) 200Nm
View Answer
Answer: c
hence multiply it with the force, 7×50.
14. Find the moment along Q.
a) 1200Nm
b) 600Nm
c) 0Nm
d) 1400Nm
View Answer

Answer: a
15. Determine the moment of the force along point P.
a) 110Nm
b) 112.5Nm
c) 60Nm
d) 0Nm
View Answer
Answer: b
to apply the same here. We see that the perpendicular distance is 1.5 (3cos60). Thus we get the
distance. And hence multiply it with the force, 75×1.5. Because the force component perpendicular to
the distance needs to be taken.
and Answers.

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7/28/2021 Force Moment on Specified Axis - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Moment of a Force on a Specified Axis
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a Force on a Specified Axis”.
1. Determine the moment’s magnitude produced by the force as shown in the diagram, which tends to
rotate the rod ORQP along QP.
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a) 80.49 Nm
b) 72.12 Nm
c) -36.67 Nm
d) 36.67 Nm
View Answer
Answer: a
the axis equation in the vector form. Then get the magnitude of the moment.
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2. The calculation of the moment about the axis and the moment about any point by a force applied on
the body are different from each other.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The calculation of the moment about the axis and the moment about any point by a force
applied on the body are different from each other. It is because both of the calculations require different
formulas. And both of the formulas have different inputs, which is obviously different.
3. In the calculation of the moment of the force about the axis, the cross product table, i.e. the 3X3 matrix
which is made for doing the cross product having 3 rows, contains three elements. Which are they from
top to bottom?
a) Axis coordinates, point coordinates, and the force coordinates
b) Point coordinates, axis coordinates, and the force coordinates
c) Axis coordinates, force coordinates, and the point coordinates
d) Force coordinates, point coordinates, and the axis coordinates
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The 3X3 matrix which is being made is having axis coordinates, point coordinates and the
force coordinates. They are from top to bottom placed. The order cannot be changed. Or if changed
then one needs to apply the negative sign appropriately. Negative because the directions get reversed.
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4. Which of the following is correct? (For A representing the vector representation of the axis of rotation, r
the radius vector and F the force vector)
a) A.(rxF)
b) Ax(rxF)
c) A.(r.F)
d) Fx(r.F)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct form of the equation is given by A.(rxF). Where A represents the vector
representation of the axis of rotation, r the radius vector and F the force vector. This is usually done for
determining the moment of the force about the axis. That is if the body is being rotated by the force
about an axis.
5. In the equation A.(rxF), the r vector is what?
a) The magnitude of the axis, i.e. the length of the axis
b) The length of the force vector
c) The length of the radius
d) The radius vector
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The r in the equation A.(rxF) is the radius vector. That is it is the vector which is having
the start point at the axis and the endpoint at the point of action of the force on the body. This vector is
being crossed by the force vector, which is then followed by the dot product with the axis vector.
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6. The axis vector in the calculation of the moment along the axis of rotation is the axis which is collinear
with the force vector.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The axis of the rotation cannot be collinear with the force vector. If it does so then the
rotation of body is not possible. That is the moment of the force is zero. Which means no rotation is
given by the force along the axis of rotation of the body.
a) We cannot represent the moment caused by the force along any axis in vector form
b) We can represent the moment caused by the force along any axis in the scalar form
c) We cannot represent the moment caused by the force along any point in vector form
d) We can represent the moment caused by the force along any axis in vector form
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As moment is a vector, we can represent it in the vector form easily. Whether it may be
the moment of the force acting on the body about the axis, or about the point. We can also convert the
same in the Cartesian form too. The only thing we need to do is the cross product of the radius vector
and the force vector.
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8. What if the perpendicular distance from the axis is infinity?
a) The rotation is not possible
b) The rotation is possible but the moment generated is very less
c) The force applied will be very much high for even a small rotation
d) No rotation unless the contact is being broken
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The long distance means a huge force which one needs to apply. Because distance
increased will also increase the resistance inertia which will obviously increase the force required for
the rotation. Though we know that the larger the distance the small is the force applied for rotation. But
inertia must be taken into the considerations sometimes.
9. In the equation A.(rxF) the r is heading from ______________ and ending at _____________
a) Axis of rotation, Force vector
b) Axis of rotation, Force vector’s point of action on the body
c) Force vector, Axis of rotation
d) Force vector’s point of action on the body, Axis of rotation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is the radius vector. The radius vector is always from the axis of rotation to the point of
action of the force on the body. Which means that the radius vector is not on any point on the force
vector. Rather it ending at the point on the force vector, where it is being in contact of the body.
10. What if the moment of the force calculated about the axis is negative?
a) It means that the force is applied in the opposite direction as imagined
b) It means that the direction of the motion is in the opposite sense as imagined
c) It means that the radius vector is in the opposite sense as imagined
d) Such calculation means that the calculations are wrongly done
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It means that the direction of the motion is in the opposite sense as imagined. We can’t
say about the direction of the force or the direction of the radius vector. But yes we can say about the
direction of the rotation as it the thing which is going to be calculated. Rest all the parts are fixed. They
can’t be altered.
11. Determine the moment MQP in the vector form produced by the force as shown in the diagram, which
tends to rotate the rod ORQP along QP.
a) 72i + 36j Nm
b) 72i – 36j Nm
c) -72i – 36j Nm
d) -72i + 36j Nm
View Answer
Answer: a
the axis equation in the vector form.
12. Determine the moment of the force F along the segment QP of the pipe assembly shown in the figure.
a) 110Nm
b) 100Nm
c) 500Nm
d) 510Nm
View Answer
Answer: b
0.5i + 0.5k. And the force is 300N, which is being applied at the end of the rod. Thus, after finding the
equation of the axis and then replacing it in the equation shown above we get the answer. Actually, the
main task is to know the axis equation in the vector form. Then get the magnitude of the moment.
13. Determine the magnitude of the moment of the force about the axis PQ.
a) -72Nm
b) 82Nm
c) 90Nm
d) 50Nm
View Answer
Answer: a
-0.2k, and the force which is being applied at the end of the rod. Thus, after finding the equation of the
axis and then replacing it in the equation shown above we get the answer. Actually, the main task is to
know the axis equation in the vector form. Then get the magnitude of the moment.
14. Determine the magnitude of the moment of the force about the y-axis.
a) -72Nm
b) 82Nm
c) 210Nm
d) 50Nm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The use of the formula A.(rxF) gives the answer. In which A is 1j m and the r is -3i + 4j +
2k and the force which is being applied at the end of the rod. Thus, after finding the equation of the
axis and then replacing it in the equation shown above we get the answer. Actually, the main task is to
know the axis equation in the vector form. Then get the magnitude of the moment.
15. The ___________ forces do not cause the rotation if the rotation is considered in about the axis of the
body or the centroid axis of the body.
a) Non-concurrent
b) Concurrent
c) Parallel
d) Non-Parallel
View Answer
Answer: b
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7/28/2021 Foundation - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Foundation
« Prev Next »
“Foundation”.
1. How many types of foundations are there based on depth?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The 2 types are shallow and deep foundations. Shallow foundation transfers the load to
very near earth. Deep foundations are used for high rise buildings to bear heavy loads.
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a) Isolated footing
b) Wall footing
c) Strap footing
d) Mat foundation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Wall footing or strip footing is a continuous strip of concrete that serves to spread weight
of load bearing wall.
3. ___________ footing is used in load bearing masonry construction.
a) Isolated
b) Strap
c) Strip
d) Pile
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The strip footing bears a whole load of an entire wall. It is a continuous footing that runs
below the wall.
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4. How many types of combined footing are possible?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Combined footing is provided when 2 columns are very close by. They can be rectangular
or trapezoidal in section.
5. CPRF stands for:
a) Combined Plain Round Foundation
b) Connected Pile Round Foundation
c) Combined Pile Raft Foundation
d) Corrosion Proof Raft Foundation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: CPRF uses the combination of pile and raft foundation as the name suggests. It is used
as a foundation for high rise buildings. It is more powerful, strong, load bearing, safe than raft or pile
when used.
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6. Micropiles find its main application in retaining walls.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Micropiles are used for under pinning. They are used in highways, bridges and
transmission tower projects. Sheet piles are extensively used in retaining walls.
7. Steining is a component of which of the below type of foundation?
a) Pile
b) Strap
c) Isolated
d) Well
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Well foundation is a type of deep foundation. It is shaped like a well. The well is dug, filled
with sand/concrete. Steining is the wall provided to the well and it is built over a wedge shaped portion,
called well curb.
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8. Pier foundation is also called:
a) Caisson
b) Box
c) Bridge

d) Girder
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Caisson foundation is often used in the construction of bridge piers, hence it is also called
pier foundation. Caisson can be floated to the site and sunk to the required position. It is used under
water also.
9. The figure below represents __________ piles.
a) Load bearing
b) End bearing
c) Friction
d) Sheet
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Friction piles are usually used in construction to provide underground support to
structures. They work on static friction developed between soil surface and the pile.
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10. Which of the below is not a preliminary consideration for building a foundation?
a) Bearing capacity of soil
b) Ground water condition
c) Settlement control
d) Soil organisms
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Bearing capacity of soil, ground water conditions and settlement control are all very
important parameters to be considered while selecting the right foundation. Every soil contains
organisms, foundation should be able to withstand their activities.
11. Machine foundation is subjected to:
a) Static loads
b) Wind loads
c) Static and dynamic loads
d) Dynamic loads
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Machine foundation is used in industries, workshops, where there is machinery under
use. The static load includes a dead load of the machine and dynamic load (the working load). It
should be able to withstand both these loads.
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Frame & Machines - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Frame and Machines
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This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Frame and
Machines”.
1. Frames and machines are two types of structural figures which are often composed of pin connected
___________ member.
a) Multi-force
b) Multi-couple
c) Multi-moment
d) Multi-valued
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Frames and machines are two types of structural figures which are often made of pin
connected multi-force members. That is more than two forces are subjected over the machines. Thus
the term multi-force is used for the frames and the machines.
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2. ___________ are used as support loads.
a) Frames
b) Machines
c) Truss
d) Beam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The frames are used as support for the structures. They hold up the structure into the
right place. They are made for holding up the structures in the place. They also provide the stability to
the structure.
3. Find the horizontal reaction at Q.
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a) 6KN
b) 0KN
c) 4KN
d) 12KN
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The machines are designed such that they can transmit the effects of forces. Thus
making the free body diagrams of the various joints and doing the calculations makes us determine the
various reaction values. And for the asked reaction equating the forces acting equal to zero, we get the
answer.
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4. ________ contains moving parts.
a) Frames
b) Machines
c) Truss
d) Beam
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The machines are designed such that they contain the moving parts. As the machines are
made for working in various fields, they are designed as to contain the moving parts. They are also
such designed such that the moving parts in are not damaged.
5. Machines are so designed to ___________ and alter the effects of the forces.
a) Transmit
b) Make-out
c) Turn over
d) Catch-up
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The machines are designed such that they can transmit the effects of forces. As the
machines are made for working in various fields, they are also such designed so as to alter the effects
of the forces. They are also such designed such that the moving parts in are not damaged.
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6. Find the horizontal reaction at R.
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a) 6KN
b) 0KN
c) 4KN
d) 12KN
View Answer
Answer: a
answer.
7. The forces acting on the joints and on the members are determined by the simple equilibrium
equations, which are used in the usual beams and trusses.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The forces acting on the joints and on the members are determined by the simple
equilibrium equations, which are used in the usual beams and trusses. The forces which are acting
over the joint of the frames and machines are no more different from the forces acting on the beams
and trusses.
8. Forces acting on the supports and the joints are not important to determine, in the frames and
machines.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The forces are determined because the designing of the frames and machines. This is
done so as if the forces are applied to frames and the machines, they don’t collapse. Thus the forces
acting on the joints and the members are important to be determined.
9. The forces obtained at the joints and the members of the machines are very important. They are used
for:
a) The designing the size of the members, connections done in the frames and machines
b) To determine the stress bearing capacity
c) To know the strain bearing capacity
d) They are not important
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The forces obtained at the joints and the members of the machines are very important.
They are used for the designing the size of the members, connections done in the frames and
machines. They are obtained by applying the simple equilibrium force equations on the system. Net
forces are made to be zero, and the unknowns are determined.
10. There are no free body diagram used in the calculations of the forces at the supports and at the
joints. Because the free body diagrams of a machines are so hard to be made.
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There is a great need of the making of the free body diagrams in the calculations of the
forces that are being acted upon the joints. This helps in making of the design of the machines and the
frames. These are very important quantities that are being determined.
11. Which of the following is correct for the frames in 2D and machines in 3D?
View Answer
Answer: d
defines the equilibrium of the body and thus are applicable in any dimension of the real axis.
12. Find the vertical reaction at R.
a) 6KN
b) 0KN
c) 4KN
d) 12KN
View Answer
Answer: d
answer.
point say P, then the force is said to be a sliding vector. What is the name of this property?
View Answer
Answer: d
the force which is acting on its line of the axis at the point P is the same throughout. This is known as
the principle transmissibility of the force.
14. Find the vertical reaction at Q.
a) 6KN
b) 0KN
c) 4KN
d) 12KN
View Answer
Answer: c
answer.
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7/28/2021 Free Body Diagrams - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Different Free Body Diagrams
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This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Different
Free Body Diagrams”.
1. Just like the collinear forces for free body diagrams there are collinear couple and the net moment is
taken out from it.
View Answer
Answer: c
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2. The simplification of the forces on the free body diagrams is done as __________
View Answer
Answer: a
positive then the downward direction is taken as negative. This is same as done with the couple in the
2D. That is the forces can be easily simplified. If taken in the vector form then the task is even easier.
3. In the figure given below, calculate the value of cosγ. (γ is the angle made by the resultant vector and
the z-axis)
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a) 0.866
b) -0.354
c) 0.540
d) 0.354
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Well, the question is just a tricky one. Just subtract 60 from 90, you will get the γ, which is
30. And then apply the cosine formula for getting the components of respective axis.
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4. The system of the collinear and the parallel force in free body diagrams are simplified as _________
View Answer
Answer: a
5. The couple is a scalar quantity and the force is vector quantity and hence only force can be simplified
in free body diagrams.
View Answer
Answer: a
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6. The couple is simplified easily by the help of right hand rule in free body diagrams. But the forces
simplification is not possible as there is no such system of rules so that the forces can be simplified.
View Answer
Answer: c
7. The couple and the other two force systems in free body diagrams can be easily simplified.
a) Statement is wrong
b) Statement is right
c) Statement is right if we remove ‘couple’ part
d) Statement is right if we remove ‘force’ part
View Answer
Answer: b
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8. Determine the vertical components of the reaction on the beam at pin Q.
a) 4kN
b) 3kN
c) 2kN
d) 1kN
View Answer
Answer: a
equilibrium.
9. The force and the couple can’t be simplified together as one is the cause and the other is the effect in
free body diagrams.
View Answer
Answer: c
10. What is a collinear system of forces for free body diagrams?
View Answer
Answer: c
11. The main moto of the free body diagrams is to:
a) To reduce the calculation
b) To add the forces with the couples and take out the total
c) To subtract the forces with the couples and take out the total
d) To multiply the forces with the couples and take out the total
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The main moto of the free body diagrams is to reduce the calculation. The forces are
simplified and the couples too are simplified. This gives us the total force and the total moment acting
on the body. This gives us a single value of the respective thing and hence reduces the labour.
12. The couple moment and the force is divided to get the distance of the axis from the point of action of
the force in free body diagrams.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
the distance.
13. The simplification of the couple is done for free body diagrams on the basis of the:
View Answer
Answer: a
14. Principle of transmissibility for free body diagrams is:
View Answer
Answer: a
15. Just like the collinear force system for free body diagrams there is a system of the parallel forces.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There is a system so called the parallel system of the forces. This is another type of the
forces. The simplification of this type of the forces is also very easy. This means that the forces in a
certain direction is taken as positive and in the other direction is negative and hence the simplification
is done.
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7/28/2021 Geotechnical Engineering - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Geotechnical Engineering
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“Geotechnical Engineering”.
1. Water content is given by:
a) Weight of water/mass of soil
b) Mass of water/mass of solid
c) Mass of water/mass of soil
d) Mass of water/weight of solid
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In Geotechnical Engineering, water content is an important parameter for analysing the
soil. It is expressed as mass of water divided by mass of solids. It is denoted by w and expressed in %.
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2. Who is the father of Geotechnical Engineering?
a) Christian Otto Mohr
b) Clausius Cleyperon
c) John Smith
d) Karl Von Terzaghi
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: He was an Austrian civil engineer and geologist. Most of the findings in geotechnical
engineering and soil properties are done by him.
3. According to Darcy’s Law:
a) q=iA
b) q=kA
c) q∞iA
d) q∞kA
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Darcy’s Law states that the rate of flow per unit time is proportional to a hydraulic
gradient. q∞iA is the mathematical representation of the law.
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4. Triaxial compression test is used to find __________ of soil.
a) Compressive strength
b) Permeability
c) Specific gravity
d) Shear strength
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are 4 methods available to measure shear strength of soil – direct shear, triaxial
compression, unconfined compression and vane shear test. Triaxial compression test is the most
accurate one.
5. ____________ index is used to find settlement of soil.
a) Compression
b) Expansion
c) Recompression
d) Reloading
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A plot is made between void ratio (e) and log effective stress (logσ). It shows different
curves corresponding to loading, unloading and reloading of soil. Compression index Cc= – ∆e⁄∆logσ
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6. Which of the following does not happen when compaction is done?
a) Permeability decreases
b) Water content increases
c) Shear strength decreases
d) Compressibility decreases
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: On compaction of a soil mass, the shear strength is increased. It is tightly and firmly
compacted and offers resistance to deformation and flow.
7. ____________ is the measure of loss of strength with remoulding, with water content unchanged.
a) Compressibility
b) Sensitivity
c) Stability
d) Thixotropy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sensitivity values range from 1-16. For an insensitive soil, it is 1. A soil with sensitivity
above 16, is termed as quick.
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8. In Geotechnical Engineering, soil is considered as a _________ phase material.
a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Soil is a 3 phase material. It consists of solids, water and air voids. It is represented in a 3
phase diagram with volume on left side and mass on the right side.
9. Fine particles are those particles with size less than _______ mm diameter.
a) 0.023
b) 0.090
c) 0.075
d) 4.75
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fine particles should pass through 75μ IS sieve. Fine particles include clay, silt and
organic content in a soil mass.
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10. The mass density of water at 4oC is:
a) 1000g/ml
b) 1kg/m3
c) 1000Mg/m3
d) 1000kg/m3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Mass density is the ratio of mass of water to volume of water. At 4oC, it is 1g/ml or
1000kg/m3 or 1Mg/m3.
11. Percentage air voids is denoted as:
a) v
b) na
c) s
d) av
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Percentage air voids is the ratio of volume of air in voids to total volume of soil. It is
denoted by na and expressed as a %.
12. Porosity and void ratio are related by:
a) e = n⁄(1-n)
b) n = e⁄(1-e)
c) 1-e = n
d) (1+n)⁄n = e-1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Void ratio is e and porosity is n. Another relationship between the two is
n = e⁄(1+e)
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7/28/2021 Glass - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Glass
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This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Glass”.
1. Glass is a mixture of:
a) Non-metallic silicates
b) Metallic silicates
c) Metallic acetates
d) Non-metallic acetates
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Glass is a solidified super-cooled solution of various metallic silicates having infinite
viscosity.
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2. How many different categories of glass are there?
a) 5
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b) 4
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: For the purpose of classification, glass can be grouped into 3 categories: Soda-lime glass,
Potash-lime glass and Potash-lead glass.
3. Which of the following types of glass accounts for about 90% of manufactured glass?
a) Potash-lime glass
b) Soda-lime glass
c) Potash-lead glass
d) Soda-lead glass
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Soda-lime glass accounts for about 90% of the manufactured glass. It is inexpensive,
chemically stable, hard and workable.
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4. Glass is not a single compound.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: It is a not a single compound and it is very difficult to give any particular chemical formula
for it.
5. The two types of soda-lime glass- flat glass and container glass differ in:
a) Application and production method
b) Application and chemical composition
c) Production method and chemical composition
d) Application, production method and chemical composition
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: They differ in the application (flat glass is used for window panes and container glass for
glass containers), production method (float process is used for windows and pressing for containers),
chemical composition (flat glass has higher magnesium oxide and sodium oxide than container glass).
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6. Which type of glass is used in the manufacture of artificial gems, bulbs, lenses, etc?
a) Soda-lime glass
b) Special glass
c) Potash-lead glass
d) Common glass
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Potash-lead glass is a mixture of potassium silicate and lead silicate. It possesses a bright

lustre and has a great refractive power, hence it is used in the manufacture of artificial gems, bulbs,
lenses, etc.
7. What changes are observed when a glass is heated?
a) It becomes softer
b) It bursts
c) It solidifies
d) It disintegrates
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It becomes softer and softer with a rise in temperature and is ultimately transformed into a
mobile liquid.
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8. How many commercial forms of glass are there for various engineering and industrial requirements?
a) 8
b) 11
c) 9
d) 10
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are 11 forms of special varieties of glass for commercial purposes. They are sheet
glass, plate glass, coloured glass, wired glass, structural glass, laminated glass, bullet-proof glass,
fibre glass, foam glass, flint glass and soluble glass.

9. Chromatic glass is used in:
a) ICU and meeting rooms
b) Aquariums
c) Mobile screen protectors
d) Floors
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is used in ICU, meeting rooms as it can control the transparent efficiency of glass and
protects the interiors from day light.
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10. The appearance of potash-lime glass in colour is:
a) Black
b) Green to colourless
c) Reddish brown
d) White
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The potash-lime glass has a greenish colour as a result of high iron content in the sand
used to make the glass.

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7/28/2021 Good Brick Qualities - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Qualities of Good Brick
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This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Qualities of
Good Brick”.
1. What is the recommended size of a brick?
a) 20x10x10cm
b) 20x9x9cm
c) 19x9x9cm
d) 19x8x8cm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Bureau of Indian Standards recommends the size of a standard brick to be 19x9x9cm.
20x10x10cm is the size of the brick including mortar.
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2. A good brick should not absorb more than what percent of water when soaked?
a) 15%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 10%
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As per IS codes when a brick is soaked in water for 24 hours, it should not absorb more
than 15% of its dry weight.
3. Which of the following bricks is not preferred?
a) Sharp-edged
b) Clamp burned
c) Sound-proofed
d) Kiln burned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In clamp burning, bricks are not burnt uniformly. This results in a non-uniform surface,
colour of bricks, which cannot be used for high end works.
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4. Which of the below is used to sound proof bricks?
a) Gypsum
b) Terracotta
c) Plastics
d) Ceramic
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Terracotta is an acoustic material. It will absorb the sound waves and render the brick
sound proof.
5. The compressive strength of the brick should be:
a) Minimum 3.5 kN/m2
b) Maximum 3.5 kN/m2
c) Minimum 3.5 N/mm2
d) Maximum 3.5 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As per IS codes, number of bricks are tested in CTM and average is taken. It should be a
minimum of 3.5 N/mm2.
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6. A good brick when dropped from the height of 1 metre can:
a) Shatter
b) Not break
c) Break into 2 halves
d) Develop small cracks
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A good brick should be able to withstand rough handling and transporting. If it breaks into
pieces, then it cannot be trusted for use for high strength requirements.
7. What should be observed when a brick is broken?
a) Parallel strata
b) Homogeneous surface
c) Pores
d) Brown colour
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Brick should have uniform red coloured and homogeneous strata. It should not have any
visible pores.
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8. Which of the following ranges of dimensions of a good quality brick is correct?
a) Length: 368-392cm
b) Width: 180-210cm
c) Height: 180-210cm
d) Weight: 25-30N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The width and height of brick should be in the range of 174-186cm. The weight of 1m3 of
brick earth is 18kN. Hence, the average weight of brick should be in the range 30-35N.
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7/28/2021 Gyration Radius of an Area - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Radius of Gyration of an Area
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This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Radius of
Gyration of an Area”.
1. In the calculation of the radius of gyration, we use intensity of loadings. So whenever the distributed
loading acts perpendicular to an area its intensity varies __________
a) Linearly
b) Non-Linearly
c) Parabolically
d) Cubically
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The load intensity is varying linearly in the structures. Thus the intensity is not varying
parabolically nor is it cubically. It cannot be a vector also. Thus the intensity is linearly varied.
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2. The radius of gyration is related to the moment of the body. So the calculation of the moment of the
body due to the loadings involve a quantity called ____________
a) Moment
b) Inertia
c) Moment of Inertia
d) Rotation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The calculation of the moment of the body due to the loadings involve a quantity called a
moment of inertia. This is having much significance in the various fields in the engineering sector. The
main types are the ‘I’ section structures which are being much used.
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a) 5000Nm
b) 5550Nm
c) 6000Nm
d) 7000Nm
View Answer
Answer: a
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4. How far from the shaft at P a 200N vertical force must act so as to create the same moment as
produced by the 75N, at P?
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a) 1.2m
b) 1.125m
c) 0.6m
d) 0m
View Answer
Answer: b
to apply the same here. So let the distance be y, then the force of 200N will act downward. The
distance perpendicular is xcos60. Thus equating the 112.5 to 200ycos60.
5. Moment of Inertia is the integration of the square of the distance of the centroid and the del area along
the whole area of the structure and this moment is at a distance from the rotating axis, known as the
radius of gyration.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
much used.
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6. There is perpendicular axis theorem for the calculation of the radius of gyration.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There is no perpendicular axis theorem for the radius of gyration. In spite, there is the
theorem as parallel axis for any area. Thus we have the theorem which is used to add the two mutually
7. Radius of gyration is indirectly to the parallel axis theorem. The parallel axis theorem gives the moment
of inertia ______________ to the surface of considesrance.
a) Linear
b) Non-Linear
c) Perpendicular
d) Parallel
View Answer
Answer: c
8. The parallel axis theorem can add any angle varied moment of inertias to give the perpendicular
moment of inertia and the radius of gyration can be calculated.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
9. As radius of gyration is indirectly to the parallel axis theorem, parallel axis theorem uses the
____________ of the distance.
a) Square root
b) Square
c) Cube root
d) Cube
View Answer
Answer: b
inertias for areas. It gives a moment of inertia perpendicular to the surface of the body. And uses the
square of the distance from the axis of rotation.
10. The distance in the parallel axis theorem is multiplied by:
a) Area
b) Volume
c) Linear distance
d) Area/Volume
View Answer
Answer: a
square of the distance from the axis of rotation multiplied by the area.
11. One of the use of the centre of mass or centroid is as in the radius of gyration is that the net force
acts at the ___________ of the loading body.
a) Centroid
b) The centre axis
c) The corner
d) The base
View Answer
Answer: a
loading body. That is if the loading system is in the form of the triangle then the at the distance 2 by 3
of the base the net force of the loading will act. And the load will be half the area of the loading.
12. If the non-Uniform loading is of the type of parabola then for calculating the radius of gyration?
View Answer
Answer: d
13. If any external force also is applied on the structure and we are determining radius of gyration then
what should we consider?
external forces
View Answer
Answer: d
14. The body is sometimes acted by two or three force members and we need to find the radius of
gyration for the same. The difference between the two and the three force members is:
View Answer
Answer: d
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7/28/2021 Highway Engineering - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Highway Engineering
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Highway
Engineering”.
1. The administration of highway projects depends on __________ factors.
a) 2
b) 5
c) 3
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For each country, the administration of highway projects is different. But there are three
factors common to all countries – social, political and economic.
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2. In car – centred approach, ___________ has been considered.
a) Importance of transport
b) Managing existing roads for future traffic
c) Controlling demand for transportation
d) Future increase in traffic demand
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are four strategies for highway planning. In car-centred approach, the
considerations for future increase in traffic demand are taken care of. They are used in most large
cities.
3. Travel patterns are determined by compiling a profile of ___________ and ___________ of all
journeys made within the area.
a) Origin, destination
b) Mode, destination
c) Origin, speed
d) Mode, speed
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The origin and destination points are considered for travel patterns. It gives details about
the place and exact pattern in which people move from place to place.
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4. Which of the below is a commercial element in highway construction?
a) Traffic
b) Installation technique
c) Environmental aspects
d) Material
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are two elements in highway construction – technical and commercial. Technical
elements include materials, their quality, traffic, installation techniques whereas commercial elements
include environmental aspects, public concerns, legal aspects, political aspects, etc.
5. In India roads are classified into ________ based on location.
a) 6
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: They are national highways (NH), state highways (SH), major district road (MDRs), other
district road (ODRs) and village road (VRs).
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6. The longest international highway is:
a) Pan-American highway
b) Trans-Canada highway
c) Karakoram highway
d) Australia highway 1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pan-American highway is nearly 25,000 kms long. It connects many countries in America.
Trans-Canada is longest national highway. Karakoram is the highest international highway. Longest
national highway circuit is Australia’s highway 1.
7. ___________ can provide a 3-5 dB reduction in tyre-pavement noise emissions.
a) Asphalt
b) Bituminous
c) Rubberised asphalt
d) Concrete
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Compared to other options, rubberised asphalt give a 3-5 dB reduction in the noise
produced by tyre-pavement interaction.
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8. How many types of pavement surfaces are there?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The 2 types are Portland cement concrete (PCC) and hot-mix asphalt (HMA). Weathering
courses, base course is laid below these.
9. The design consideration of highways doesn’t include:
a) Settlement
b) Cross section
c) Level of service
d) Sight distance
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To design foundation, settlement is an important parameter. For designing highways: the
number of lanes, cross section, level of service, sight distance, alignment, lane width and so on are
important considerations.
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10. A prime coat is low viscosity asphalt emulsion used to create bond between existing pavement and
new asphalt overlay.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A tack coat is used to bond existing pavement surface to the new asphalt overlay. A prime
coat is applied to base course prior to laying HMA course.
11. __________ is used in shaping the surface of sand-clay roads.
a) Hoes and rakes
b) Mattocks and bush hooks
c) Drag scraper
d) Plow
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Mattocks and bush hooks are used for trimming surface. Drag scraper is used for
scraping the road surface. Plow is used to expose the surface by overturning it.
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Inertia Mass Moment - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Mass Moment of Inertia
« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Mass
Moment of Inertia”.
1. The measure of the body’s resistance to angular acceleration is called ___________
a) Mass moment of inertia of a body
b) Volume moment of inertia of a body
c) Line moment of inertia of a body
d) Gauss moment of inertia of a body
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The measure is known as mass moment of inertia of a body. It’s very useful in the
designing of the structures. It also helps in the determination of the strength of the body. Thus a very
useful thing in structural engineering.
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2. Determine the mass moment of the area of the cylinder given below.
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a) 0.5mR2
b) 5mR2
c) 0.2mR2
d) 0.7mR2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The measure of moment of inertia of a body is important. It’s very useful in the designing
of the structures. It also helps in the determination of the strength of the body. Thus a very useful thing
in the structural engineering.
3. We define the moment of inertia of a body as________
a)
b)
c)
d)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The definition of the of the moment of the inertia of the body is given by
That is the integration of the total mass and the square of the distance of that mass from the axis of
rotation. Thus the moment of inertia.
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4. Two of the things of the composite materials are to be known so that their mass moment of inertia can
be varied. Which of the following is one of them?
b) Weight of the body
c) Location of the centroid of gravity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The centre of gravity’s location and the weight of the composite body is needed to be
known. This means that if both of the quantities of the composite body is known then the moment of
inertia of the body can be altered. Thus both are very important things to be known about the
composite bodies.
5. We define the moment of inertia of a body in terms of volume of the body as______________
a)
b)
c)
d)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The definition of the moment of the inertia of the body in terms of volume is given by
That is the integration of the total mass as determined by the product of the volume and density and
the square of the distance of that mass from the axis of rotation. Thus the moment of inertia.
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6. We use the distance of the axis and the particles, and in that we apply parallel axis theorem. The
distance in the parallel axis theorem is multiplied by_______
a) Area
b) Volume
c) Linear distance
d) Area/Volume
View Answer
Answer: a
7. One of the use of the centre of mass or centroid is as in the mass moment of inertia is that the net
force acts at the ___________ of the loading body.
a) Centroid
b) The centre axis
c) The corner
d) The base
View Answer
Answer: a
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8. If the non-Uniform loading is of the type of parabola then for calculating the mass moment of inertia for
areas?
View Answer
Answer: d
9. Determine the mass moment of the area of the cylinder given below.
a) Iz= 0.5mR2
b) Iy = 0.5mR2
c) Iz = 0.2mR2
d) Iy = 0.7mR2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The measure of moment of inertia of a body is important. It’s very useful in the designing
of the structures. It also helps in the determination of the strength of the body. Thus a very useful thing
in the structural engineering.
a)
b)
c)
d)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The definition of the moment of the inertia of the body in terms of volume is given by
That is the integration of the total mass as determined by the product of the volume and density and
the square of the distance of that mass from the axis of rotation. Thus the moment of inertia.
11. The body is sometimes acted by two or three force members and we need to find the mass moment
of inertia for the same. The difference between the two and the three force members is:
View Answer
Answer: d
12. If any external force also is applied on the structure and we are determining the mass moment of
inertia then what should we consider?
external forces
View Answer
Answer: d
13. If any external force also is applied on the distributed loading on which the mass moment of inertia is
to be determined on the composite body then?
d) The net force will not be considered, there would be a net force of the distribution, and rest will be the
external forces
View Answer
Answer: d
a)
b)
c)
d)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The definition of the moment of the inertia of the body is given by
That is the integration of the total mass and the square of the distance of that mass from the axis of
rotation. Thus the moment of inertia.
15. We use sometimes the measures to know the direction of mass moment of inertia. It is done by right
handed coordinate system. Which is right about it for the composite bodies (consider the mentioned axis
to be positive)?
View Answer
Answer: a
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7/28/2021 Inertia Moments for an Area About Inclined Axis Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Moments of Inertia for an Area About Inclined
Axis – 1
« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Moments
of Inertia for an Area About Inclined Axis – 1”.
1. If the non-Uniform loading is of the type of parabola then for calculating the moment of inertia for areas
inclined at an axis?
View Answer
Answer: d
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2. Determine the orientation of the principle axis for the cross section of area of member shown whose
width is 100mm.
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a) 57.1˚
b) 5.1˚
c) 7.1˚
d) 52.1˚
View Answer
Answer: a
3. The product of Inertia for an area is required so as to__________
a) Determine Maximum moments of inertia for an Area
b) Determine Maximum moments of inertia for a Line
c) Determine Maximum moments of inertia for a Volume
d) Determine Maximum moments of inertia for a Rectangle
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The product is required to know what is the maximum and the minimum moment of inertia
of an area. This data is required to design the structure of the body. This means that the designing of
the body is majorly done by the help of the determination of the product of the moment of Inertia.
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4. Moment of Inertia about an inclined axis is the integration of the square of the distance of the centroid
and the del area along the whole area of the structure and after this calculations, we multiply the moment
of areas.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
much used.
5. The product of moment of inertia is the sum of _____________ and _________________ it can be
used in the calculations of moments of inertia for an area about inclined axis.
a) Area and volume
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The product of the moment of inertia is required as to design the structure of the body.
This means that the designing of the body is majorly done by the help of the determination of the
product of the moment of Inertia.
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6. There is perpendicular axis theorem for the area, and it is can be used to determine the moment of
inertia of an area about inclined axis.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There is no perpendicular axis theorem for the area. In spite there is the theorem as
7. If any external force also is applied on the structure and we are determining the moment of inertia for
areas about inclined axis then what should we consider?
external forces
View Answer
Answer: d
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8. Determine the magnitude of the principle moment of inertia for the cross section of area of member
shown whose width is 100mm.
a) 7.54 x 109 mm2
b) 54 x 109 mm2
c) 3.4 x 109 mm2
d) 1.54 x 109 mm2
View Answer
Answer: a
9. The calculation of moment of inertia about inclined axis due to the loadings involve a quantity called
____________
a) Moment
b) Inertia
d) Rotation
View Answer
Answer: c
10. Whenever the distributed loading acts perpendicular to an area its intensity varies __________ for the
determination of moment of inertia about the inclined axis.
a) Linearly
b) Non-Linearly
c) Parabolically
d) Cubically
View Answer
Answer: a
11. The distance in the parallel axis theorem for the use in the determination of the moment of inertia
about an inclined axis is multiplied by:
a) Area
b) Volume
c) Linear distance
d) Area/Volume
View Answer
Answer: a
12. One of the uses of the centre of mass or centroid is as in the determination of the moment of inertia
about an inclined plane is that the net force acts at the ___________ of the loading body.
a) Centroid
b) The centre axis
c) The corner
d) The base
View Answer
Answer: a
13. What is parallel axis theorem and to whom it is applied so that it can give the product of inertia of an
area of an area inclined about an axis?
a) Theorem used to add the two mutually perpendicular moment of inertias for areas
b) Theorem used to add the two mutually perpendicular moment of inertias for volumes
c) Theorem used to add the two mutually perpendicular moment of inertias for linear distances
d) Theorem used to add the two mutually perpendicular moment of inertias for vectors
View Answer
Answer: a
14. The body is sometimes acted by two or three force members and we need to find the moment of
inertia about the inclined axis for the same. The difference between the two and the three force members
is:
View Answer
Answer: d
moment of inertia and it can be used in the determination of the moment of inertia about inclined axis.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
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7/28/2021 Inertia Product for an Area - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Product of Inertia for an Area
« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Product of
Inertia for an Area”.
1. The product of Inertia for an area is required so as to _____________
a) Determine Maximum moments of inertia for an Area
c) Determine Maximum moments of inertia for a Volume
View Answer
Answer: a
of an area. This data is required to design the structure of the body. This means that the designing of
the body is majorly done by the help of the determination of the product of the moment of Inertia.
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2. Determine the product of inertia for the triangle in the given figure.
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a) (bh)2/8
b) (bh)2/16
c) (bh)2/2
d) (bh)2/4
View Answer
Answer: a
much used.
the whole area of the structure and after these calculations, we multiply the moment of areas.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
much used.
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4. There is a perpendicular axis theorem for the area, and it is can be used to determine the product of a
moment of inertia.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
5. What is parallel axis theorem and to whom it is applied so that it can give the product of inertia of an
area?
View Answer
Answer: a
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6. The product of moment of inertia is the sum of _____________ and _________________
a) Area and volume
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The product of moment of inertia is required as to design the structure of the body. This
means that the designing of the body is majorly done by the help of the determination of the product of
the moment of Inertia.
7. The distance in the parallel axis theorem for the use in the determination of the product of the moment
of inertia is multiplied by:
a) Area
b) Volume
c) Linear distance
d) Area/Volume
View Answer
Answer: a
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8. One of the use of the centre of mass or centroid is as in the determination of the product of moment of
inertia is that the net force acts at the ___________ of the loading body.
a) Centroid
b) The centre axis
c) The corner
d) The base
View Answer
Answer: a
9. The product of Inertia for an area is helpful so as to _____________
a) Determine Minimum moments of inertia for an Area
c) Determine Minimum moments of inertia for a Volume
View Answer
Answer: a
of an area. This data is required as to design the structure of the body. This means that the designing
of the body is majorly done by the help of the determination of the product of the moment of Inertia.
10. Determine the del product of inertia for the triangle in the given figure used for the calculations.
a) dIxy=(h2/2b2)x3dx
b) dIxy=(h/2b2)x3dx
c) dIxy=(h2/2)x3dx
d) dIxy=(h2/b2)x3dx
View Answer
Answer: a
much used.
11. If the non-Uniform loading is of the type of parabola then for calculating the product of the moment of
inertia for areas?
View Answer
Answer: d
12. If any external force also is applied on the structure and we are determining the product of moment of
external forces
View Answer
Answer: d
13. The body is sometimes acted by two or three force members and we need to find the product of
moment of inertia for the same. The difference between the two and the three force members is:
View Answer
Answer: d
determination of the product of moment of inertia.
a) Linearly
b) Non-Linearly
c) Parabolically
d) Cubically
View Answer
Answer: a
15. The calculation of the product of a moment of the body due to the loadings involve a quantity called
____________
a) Moment
b) Inertia
d) Rotation
View Answer
Answer: c
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7/28/2021 Internal Forces Developed in Structural Members Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Internal Forces Developed in Structural
Members – 1
« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on ” Internal
Forces Developed in Structural Members – 1″.
1. The determination of the internal loading is usually done so as to _________________
a) Break the beam
b) Know the length
d) Design the beam
View Answer
Answer: d
them.
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2. The internal loading can be found by _________________
a) Method of sections
b) Method of area
c) Method of line
d) Method of volume
View Answer
Answer: a
method of section is the one. Also, we have method of joints, which is done so as to determine the
internal forces which are being developed in the trusses or the frames. This is done as to design them.
3. In the method of sections we probably use the joints and take out the forces in the beams.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In method of sections the determination of the forces is done over the trusses or the
beams. It is not done on the joints. But yes the joints are used as the forces acting on the joints are
used in the calculations. This is again used for the designing of the beams.
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4. The ____________ forces are used for the making of the free body diagram of the beams so as to
apply the method of sections.
a) Internal rotational
b) Couple rotational
c) Translational
d) External
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The free body diagram is using the external forces which are acting on the beam as the
main purpose is to design the beam. Design so as to withstand the loads which are going to be added
to the beams. Thus the loads which are being added externally are being used in the free body
diagrams.
5. Rotational moments are not counted in the free body diagrams and the evaluation of the internal forces
by the method of sections.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the method of sections the determination of the forces is done over the trusses or the
beams. It is not done on the joints. But yes the joints are used as the forces acting on the joints are
used in the calculations. This is again used for the designing of the beams.
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6. The force acting perpendicular to the beam is called _______________ force.
a) Perpendicular
b) Orthogonal
c) Normal
d) Distortion
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The forces which are acting perpendicular to the body of the beams are called as the
normal forces. These are the forces which are supporting the beam. These forces are being calculated
by the help of equilibrium equations. Thus the forces which are perpendicular to the surface are the
normal forces.
7. The force acting parallel/tangential to the beam is called _______________ force.
a) Perpendicular
b) Orthogonal
c) Shear
d) Distortion
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The forces which are acting tangentially to the body of the beams are called as the shear
forces. These are the forces which are giving moment to the beams. These forces are being calculated
by the help of equilibrium equations. Thus the forces which are parallel to the surface are the shear
forces.
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8. The couple moment produced in the beams are called as ____________________
a) Moment of distance
b) Moment of line
c) Moment of bending
d) Bending moment
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The forces are making the body tend to rotate. This is in general making the body rotate
or make generate the moment in the beams. This moment is the same thing as the couple moment.
But in beams it is referred as bending moment. And is again used for the designing of beams.
9. The force components prevent the beam from which of the following process?
a) Relative translation
b) Relative rotation
c) Relative transformation
d) Relative collapse
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The force components are the forces which are the ones which prevent the beam from
relative translation. This means that the shearing generated will be held strongly by the help of the
forces generated. The main motto is to make the beam stable and don’t allow the relative translation
occur.
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10. The couple moment prevents the beam from which of the following process?
a) Relative translation
b) Relative rotation
c) Relative transformation
d) Relative collapse
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The couple moments are the moments which are the ones which prevent the beam from
relative rotation. This means that the rotation generated will be held strongly by the help of the opposite
moments generated. The main motto is to make the beam stable and don’t allow the relative rotation to
occur.
11. According to the _________ law of Newton the loadings at the sections must act opposite to the
forces applied.
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As the law state that there is always a reaction to every action applied. Thus if the forces
are applied at the section of the beams, i.e. the external forces than there must be reactive forces. And
these reactive forces act in opposite directions of the forces which are being applied externally.
12. For the determination of the forces at the supports which part is to be considered in the calculations?
a) The one having one unknown and two known forces
b) The one having two unknown and two known forces
c) The one having three unknown and two known forces
d) The one having two unknown and one known forces
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The determination is usually done in this manner only. The selection is done as by
selecting the one having one unknown and two known forces. This will ensure that the unknown value
will be found. And also we have less number of unknowns which are needed to be found.
13. What is not the condition for the equilibrium in the beams if considered a section on which the method
of sections is applied?
a) ∑Fx=0
b) ∑Fy=0
c) ∑Fz=0
d) ∑F≠0
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: For the equilibrium in beams by considering any of the axis we have all the conditions true
non-zero value. Thus the conditions for the equilibrium of the beams.
14. Determine the moment at the point R of the beam shown.
a) 225Nm
b) 25Nm
c) 22Nm
d) 23Nm
View Answer
Answer: a
15. Determine the normal force generated.
a) 0N
b) 25N
c) 22N
d) 23N
View Answer
Answer: a
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Irrigation Types - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Types of Irrigation
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Irrigation”.
1. _________ is a form of overhead irrigation.
a) Centre Pivot irrigation
b) Sprinkler irrigation
c) Terraced irrigation
d) Drip irrigation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In centre pivot irrigation, steel/Al pipes are joined together, supported by trusses and
mounted on wheeled towers.
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2. Inundation irrigation system is functional all through the year.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Inundation canal gets water which flows from a flooded river only. These are then
discharged into the fields. Only if rivers are flooded (rainy season), these are functional.
3. Surface irrigation is again subdivided into:
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The three types are furrow, border strip and basin irrigation. It is also called flood irrigation
when the field is immersed in water completely.
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4. Tank water irrigation system is common in:
a) Madhya Pradesh
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Himachal Pradesh
d) Andhra Pradesh
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In Southern states of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu; rain water harvesting and
storage of water is done using tanks. The water is then fed to fields via a canal.
5. The field water efficiency of trickle irrigation is:
a) 50-55%
b) 55-85%
c) 80-90%
d) 60-70%
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Drip irrigation is also called trickle irrigation. If this system is managed correctly, the field
water efficiency can be as high as 80-90%.
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6. Sub-irrigation is used in areas with:
a) Low water table
b) High water table
c) Sloping terrain
d) Flat terrain
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sub-irrigation is a method of artificially raising water table to allow the soil to be moistened
from below plant’s root zone. It is also used in commercial greenhouse production.
7. Water for irrigation can come from ____________ sources.
a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The sources of water for irrigation can be ground water, surface water and non-
conventional sources. The non-conventional sources are treated wastewater, drainage water, fog
collection, etc.
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8. Fertigation is a process in ___________ irrigation.
a) Sprinkler
b) Surface
c) Drip
d) Centre pivot
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In drip irrigation nowadays, a plastic mulch is incorporated which reduces evaporation and
is a means of delivering fertilizers. Hence, the process fertigation.
9. The field water efficiency is determined by:
a) Water transpired by crop – water applied to a field
b) (Water absorbed by crop ÷ water applied to a field) x 100%
c) Water absorbed by crop – water applied to a field
d) (Water transpired by crop ÷ water applied to a field) x 100%
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The field water efficiency is the way to determine if the method of irrigation is efficient. It is
determined by using the formula (water transpired by crop ÷ water applied to a field) x 100%. It is
expressed in %.
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10. Spate irrigation is a special form of irrigation using surface water.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is also called flood water harvesting. In this case, water is diverted to normally dry river
beds using a network of dams, gates and channels and are spread over large areas.
11. Micro-irrigation is also called:
a) Nano-irrigation
b) Petite irrigation
c) Localized irrigation
d) Flood irrigation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is a system where water is distributed under low pressure through the piped network in
a pre-determined pattern and applied to each plant. Hence, it is called localized irrigation.
12. Tube wells are not used in:
a) UP
b) Haryana
c) Gujarat
d) Rajasthan
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In Rajasthan and Maharashtra artesian wells are used. Tube well can be installed near
agricultural land. A deep tube well, worked by electricity can irrigate a large area.
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 IS Codes - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– IS Codes
« Prev
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “IS Codes”.
1. How many groups are there in IS codes for Civil Engineering?
a) 41
b) 52
c) 62
d) 35
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are 41 groups or categories of IS codes available for Civil Engineering. Some of
them include hardware, stone, ports and harbour, cement and concrete, fire safety, etc.
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2. The headquarters of the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is at:
a) Hyderabad
file:///E:/IS Codes - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry.html 1/7
b) Agra
c) Delhi
d) Kolkata
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is in Bahadur Shah Zafar Marg, Delhi. Regional office, branch offices and sales offices
are also there.
3. IS 2062 gives specifications about:
a) High strength steel
b) High strength concrete
c) Concrete for general purpose
d) Steel for general purpose
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: IS 2062 gives the specifications for steel to be used for general purposes.
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4. Which is the most important IS code for a Civil Engineer?

a) IS 567
b) IS 456
c) IS 455
d) IS 383
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: IS 456 gives specifications about plain reinforcement concrete. For designing any
concrete structure, this IS code is a must.
5. IS 2368 has how many parts?
a) 10
b) 7
c) 5
d) 9
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: IS 2368 gives specifications regarding aggregates and the methods of test performed on
them. There are 9 parts in total, each deal with specific tests.
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6. Which IS code is used to refer details regarding measurement of building and civil
engineering works?
a) IS 1200
b) IS 2502
c) IS 1786
d) IS 800
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: They are a total of 28 parts in IS 1200. These cover all important information about
measurements and deductions of building and civil engineering works.
7. IS 1893-2002 gives details on:
a) Seismic strengthening
b) Improving earthquake resistance
c) Earthquake resistance structures
d) Earthquake resistance design
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: IS 1893-2002 gives the criteria for earthquake resistance design of structures. It is the fifth
revised edition.
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8. Which IS code gives specifications about dimensions for hot rolled steel structures?
a) IS 808-1979
b) IS 806-1968
c) IS 806-1969
d) IS 808-1989
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: IS 808-1989 gives guidelines on dimensioning of hot rolled steel beams, columns,
channel and angle sections.
9. How many parts does IS code 875 contain?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: IS 875 has five parts which address the imposed, dead, wind, snow and special loads
except earthquake that act on structures.
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10. Which IS code gives details regarding acid-resistant bricks?
a) IS 4832
b) IS 4860
c) IS 5766
d) IS 5318
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: IS 4860-1968 gives specifications for acid-resistant bricks. IS 4832 deals with mortar, IS
5766 with laying burnt clay brick flooring and IS 5318 with laying flexible PVC sheets and tile flooring.
11. IS 712-1984 gives specifications for gypsum plaster boards.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: IS 712-1984 gives specifications for building limes. IS 2095 is used to check for
specifications for gypsum plaster boards.
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Joints Method - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Method of Joints
« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Method of
Joints”.
1. If the whole truss is in equilibrium then all the joints which are connected to that truss is in equilibrium.
This is known as:
a) Method of joints
b) Section method
c) Scalar field method
d) Vector equilibrium method
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If the whole truss is in equilibrium then all the joints which are connected to that truss is in
equilibrium. This is known as method of joints. This is one of the methods to solve for the forces which
are acting along the trusses.
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2. Find the force in the member vertical at the right, joined by the hinge.
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a) 750N
b) 450N
c) 250N
d) 200N
View Answer
Answer: d
the joints.
3. The free body diagram of which part of the section of the truss is made to make use of method of
joints?

a) Joints
b) Truss
c) The whole structure
d) The combination of joint and the whole structure
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The free body diagram of joints part of the section of the truss is made to make use of
method of joints. Various equations of equilibrium are made to do the calculations. The net force acting
on the vertical direction is made zero. Also horizontal direction forces are made to be zero.
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4. For applying the method of joint at joints the forces need to coplanar.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The forces are coplanar that’s why they are there in the calculations in the method of
joints. The forces are resolved in 2D. This makes the condition of the equilibrium fulfilled and hence the
method of joints uses the forces in the same plane for its calculation.
5. For applying the method of joint at joints the forces need to be concurrent.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The forces are concurrent that’s why they are there in the calculations in the method of
joints. The forces are resolved in 2D. This makes the condition of the equilibrium fulfilled by cancelling
of various force members and hence the method of joints uses the concurrent forces for its calculation.
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6. Find the force in the member RQ.
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a) 750N
b) 450N
c) 250N
d) 200N
View Answer
Answer: b
the joints.
7. Which of the following conditions are true to make the calculations easy?
First condition: We use the method of a joint to find the forces acting over the joints in the space trusses.
Second condition: In this, we start from the joint having at least one known force and at the most two
unknown forces.
a) We only see the first condition and neglect the second condition
b) We neglect the first condition and only see the second condition
c) We neglect both the conditions because calculations are possible without following the first and second
conditions
d) First and second conditions are compulsory and can’t be neglected
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: This makes the calculations easy. Also for the solving of any equation one requires equal
number of variables as that of equal number of an equation. These are the conditions of selecting the
joint point involved in the calculations. If still these conditions are not met, calculations can more hectic
or impossible.
8. We use the method of joint to find the net force acting over the entire structure.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: We use this method for the simplification of the forces in the sections of the structure. Not
the entire structure. This means that the statement given is wrong. It should be the joints not the whole
structure.
9. The magnitude of the unknown force can’t be known. But the direction can be founded out.
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The first part is wrong. We can determine the magnitude of the unknown force. It can be
done by using the equilibrium equations. That equating the forces zero, of the three different axis. Thus
making the components of the unknown founded out.
10. What is after taking the assumption of the direction of the force, the direction comes opposite?
a) The assumption made was wrong and the question can’t be solved further
b) The assumptions are not to be taken
c) The direction is in the opposite sense, and hence the direction is known to us
d) The direction will be already given to us, no need of assuming
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The direction is comes opposite, means that the assumption was wrong. But that doesn’t
means that the question can’t be solved further. One needs to change the sign of the direction and the
question is solved. Thus the calculations of the force direction.
11. Find the force in the member PQ.

a) 750N
b) 450N
c) 250N
d) 200N
View Answer
Answer: c
the joints.
12. The magnitude of the resultant of the two vectors is always:
View Answer
Answer: c
does depends upon the angle between them.
13. Find the force in the member PR.
a) 750N
b) 450N
c) 250N
d) 200N
View Answer

Answer: a
force we take the assumption of it. That is we assume that the particular direction might be the
direction of the force and then we do the calculations accordingly. And then we apply the equilibrium
equations to the joints.
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Journal Bearings Frictional Forces Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Frictional Forces on Journal Bearings
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Forces on Journal Bearings”.
1. The journal bearings are generally used in __________
a) Belts
b) Columns
c) Beams
d) Supports
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The journal bearings are being used in the supports. They are used as to support the
loadings. This means that the more the bearings the more is the stable the structure. Thus the use of
journal bearings.
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2. At what conditions does the Coulomb friction occur between the surfaces in contact of journal bearing?
View Answer
Answer: a
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a) -98.6kN
b) 98.6kN

c) -98.6iN
d) -98.6jN
View Answer
Answer: a
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4. We first make equilibrium equations of the sections involving the journal bearings by considering all the
three dimensional forces acting on the section chosen and then the free body diagram is made and
solved.
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: We first make the free body diagram of journal bearings and then we make the
equilibrium equations to satisfy the given conditions. This helps us to solve the question easily. As this
reduces the part of imagination and increases accuracy too.

5. To know the rotations involved in the journal bearings we use right handed coordinate system, in that
system which of the following is followed (consider the mentioned axis to be positive)?
View Answer
Answer: a
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6. The moment is the cross product of which two vectors in the calculations of the journal bearings?
View Answer
Answer: b

7. The basic type of motion of a body is not the translation motion only.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The basic types of the motion of the body are translation and rotational. In which
translation means the motion is a straight motion while the in the rotational motion the body is moving
of the body along the axis. The pivots do a circular motion.
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a) 460Nm
b) 500Nm

c) 705Nm
d) 0Nm
View Answer
Answer: a
9. Sometime the principle of transmissibility is somehow applied to journal bearings. It states that:
View Answer
Answer: a
10. Coplanar forces are not easily simplified in the simplification of the force and couple system in the
calculations of forces in the journal bearings.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
11. There are some of the applications of the two force and three force members in the journal bearings.
The difference between the two and the three force members is:
View Answer

Answer: d
12. Which of the following is true for the determination of the rotational effect of the bearings?
View Answer
Answer: a
is positive then the counter clockwise is to be negative. Also such an assumption are very useful in the
2D calculation of the moments caused by various forces on the body.
13. The doors are having hinges to support them. This hinge is too a type of bearing or is a Device which
is using the effect like bearing to support. So, if you are opening the door, then the force you apply is
greater if you open it from the part closer to the hinges.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the moment is the product of the force and the perpendicular distance of the point of
action and the axis, thus more the distance more will be the moment. And hence to overcome that you
have to apply more energy. Thus the answer.
14. Which of the following is true for the bearing’s body?
a) Total moment of various forces acting on the body is the vector sum of all moments in 3D
b) Total moment of various forces acting on the body is the algebraic sum of all moments in 3D
c) Total moment of various forces acting on the body is always zero in any dimension
perpendicular to each other forces whatever be the dimensions
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: When we consider about the dimensions we need to be careful. The moment is the vector
quantity. Thus the value of the total moment caused by various forces acting on the body is the vector
sum of all the vectors. Also, the moments are not perpendicular to each other unless it is specified.
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Levelling Methods - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Methods of Levelling
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Methods of
Levelling”.
1. How many methods are used in levelling?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The 2 methods are the height of instrument method and rise and fall method. These are
used to evaluate heights of various points.
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2. How many types of levelling are there?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are 4 ways to perform levelling. They are direct levelling, trigonometric levelling,
barometric levelling and stadia levelling.
3. Trigonometric levelling is also called:
a) Indirect levelling
b) Differential levelling
c) Fly levelling
d) Profile levelling
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In trigonometric levelling, the horizontal distance and vertical angle are measured from
the station to the object. It uses trigonometric relations to compute the vertical height of a point.
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4. In _________ levelling, the first and last point are at a far distance.
a) Fly
b) Differential
c) Profile
d) Reciprocal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In differential levelling, a number of inter-stations are located and then the instrument is
shifted to each station and the elevation is observed.
5. Stadia levelling is a modified form of:
a) Fly levelling
b) Differential levelling
c) Simple levelling
d) Trigonometric levelling
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Tacheometer principle is used to determine the elevation of points. Line of sight is inclined
and it is more suitable for surveying in hilly terrains.
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6. The last reading taken from the instrument is called:

a) End sight
b) Free sight
c) Fore sight
d) Back sight
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fore sight (FS) is noted as last reading and back sight (BS) is noted as first reading taken
from the instrument. Any intermediate points are noted down as intermediate sight (IS).
7. Reciprocal levelling is used when,
a) Flat terrain
b) Obstacles are there
c) BM not visible
d) Highway construction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If the points to surveyed lie on opposite banks of a river, reciprocal levelling can be used.
It is done from both sides to eliminate chances of error.
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8. In a hilly terrain, staff reading is more at:
a) Lower point
b) Higher point
c) First point
d) Last point
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In hilly terrain, the lowest point will give the highest staff reading. It is at a lower level
compared to others and hence has more height.
9. Which is the arithmetic check for the height of instrument method?
a) ∑FS + ∑BS = First RL + Last [email protected]
b) ∑BS – ∑FS = Last RL – First [email protected]
c) ∑FS + ∑BS = Last RL + First [email protected]
d) ∑BS – ∑FS = First RL – Last [email protected]
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: To check if the readings are written properly, an arithmetic check is done. The sum of
back sight (BS) and Fore sight (FS) are subtracted. It should be equal to the difference of the last and
first reduced level (RL).
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10. Which instrument is used in trigonometric levelling?
a) Wye level
b) Compass
c) Theodolite
d) Dumpy level
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Trigonometric levelling involves measurements that are angular and hence requires an
angle measuring instrument, like theodolite.
11. In levelling, error due to earth’s curvature is to be corrected using:
a) Cc=0.0673D2
b) Cc=0.0112D2
c) Cc=0.0136D2
d) Cc=0.0785D2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Correction for earth’s curvature and refraction is to be applied. Cc is given by 0.0785D2.
Combined correction Cc – Cr is given by 0.0673D2.
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Manufacture of Concrete - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Manufacture of Concrete
« Prev Next »
“Manufacture of Concrete”.
1. Which process comes after batching in manufacture process?
a) Transportation
b) Placing
c) Mixing
d) Compacting
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Batching involves measuring the amount of raw materials required for the manufacture of
concrete. The next step is to mix all these ingredients together.
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2. Ready mix plant and central mix plant differ in:
a) Transportation
b) Setting time
c) Properties
d) Water addition
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In ready mix plants, all the other ingredients are mixed, except water. While in central mix
plants, water is also mixed along with other ingredients.
3. How many methods of batching are there?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are 2 types of batching – weigh and volume batching. In volume batching,
volumetric measure of materials is taken (1 bag cement-35 litre). In weigh batching, measurement is in
terms of weight (1 bag cement-50 kg).
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4. What is the maximum height through which concrete can be poured?
a) 0.1-0.6 m
b) 0.8-1 m
c) 0.5 m
d) 2 m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Concrete consists of coarse aggregates. If it is placed or poured from a height above 1 m,
segregation of coarse aggregate will take place, leading to improper distribution. It affects the strength
parameter.
5. How many types of machine mixers are available?
a) 2
b) 5
c) 6
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Based on the technique of discharging mixed concrete, there are 3 types of mixers
available. They are tilting type, non-tilting type and pan type mixers.
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6. In small works, concrete is transported using:
a) Conveyer belts
b) Pumps
c) Pans
d) Buckets
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In small works, less quantity of concrete is required. So, workers carry it in a pan atop
their heads. Conveyer belts and pumps are used for large construction works.
7. Compacting is done to:
a) Place concrete on flat surface
b) Remove air bubbles
c) Place concrete on sloping surface
d) Introduce air bubbles
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: While mixing of concrete, sometimes air gets trapped in it in the form of bubbles. These
have to be removed to ensure strength parameters are met with.
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8. Concrete is generally placed on a:
a) Form work
b) Stand
c) Mould
d) Platform
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Form work is a mould in which concrete is poured and allowed to set. It should be
properly oiled and cleaned before pouring concrete. It can be used to cast beams, slabs, columns, etc.
9. Which is the best method for curing flat surfaces?
a) Spraying water
b) Placing wet gunny bags
c) Applying curing compounds
d) Stagnating water
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Curing is the process of maintaining moisture in freshly laid concrete to strengthen it. For
flat surfaces like floors and slabs, ponding or stagnating water is the best method. Temporary bund can
be made with mortar and filled with water to cure.
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10. Excess vibration during compacting can lead to:
a) Bleeding
b) Segregation
c) High strength
d) Air bubbles
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Over vibration may lead to a problem called segregation. The coarse aggregate is
separated from the cement matrix. This leads to low strength.
11. Steam curing is adopted for:
a) Precast structures
b) Columns
c) Beams
d) Walls
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The precast structures are placed in enclosed chambers. Then the steam is pumped into
the chamber. It accelerates the hydration of concrete and it is left for the curing period.
12. A gap of 0.3m is to maintained between cement bag and wall, while storing cement.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The storage of cement is important. It should not be placed too close to the wall or other
cement bags to avoid air circulation around bags. It may dampen the cement and make it useless.
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Manufacture of Tiles - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry
Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers –

Manufacture of Tiles
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Manufacture of
Tiles”.
1. How many operations are involved in the manufacturing of tiles?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 10
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main 6 operations are a selection of suitable clay, preparation of clay, moulding, drying and
shaping, burning and cooling.
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2. What type of clay is selected for tile manufacture?
a) Slightly wet
b) Sticky
c) Dry
file:///E:/Manufacture of Tiles - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry.html 1/7
d) Rich
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Clay is cleaned and mixed with other additives. It is stirred in water and allowed to settle. Then
slightly wet form is taken.
3. Secondary crushing of small lumps of clay to particles is carried out in:
a) Jaw crusher
b) Ball mill
c) Muller mill
d) Gyratory crusher
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Primary crushing of clay to small lumps is carried out in jaw crusher or gyratory crusher. A third
particle reduction is carried out using ball mill.
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4. At what point is a glaze applied to a tile?
a) Finished tile
b) Drying
c) Placing
d) Firing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Glaze is a glass material designed to melt on to the surface during the firing process. It then
adheres to tile while cooling.
5. Which of the following is matched properly?
a) Ribbon mixer-helical vanes
b) Shell mixer-revolving plows
c) Intensive mixer-two cylinders joined into a V
d) Pack mixer-uses water
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: These are used for mixing the batched raw material. Shell mixer is the one that consists of 2
cylinders joined into a V. Intensive mixer uses rapidly revolving plows.
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6. What is the meaning of slip?
a) Dry mixture
b) Impurities in mixture
c) Water filled mixture
d) Different sized mixture
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For fine grinding, water is added to the ball mill, where clay particles are obtained as wet mixture. It
is called wet milling. Then it is followed by dry milling.
7. How is water content in the slip or slurry removed?
a) Filter pressing
b) Spray drying
c) Sun drying
d) Vacuum pressing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If wet milling is carried out, excess water is removed by spray drying. If dry milling is carried out after
wet milling, filter pressing is used. It removes 40-50% of moisture.
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8. Which method of forming is used for heavily profiled tiles?
a) Dry pressing
b) Ram pressing
c) Pressure glazing
d) Extrusion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In Ram pressing, extruded slugs are pressed between 2 halves of hard mould mounted in a
hydraulic press.
9. Which of the following is not a method of drying?
a) Impulse drying
b) Infrared drying
c) Kiln drying
d) Tunnel driers
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Impulse drying uses pulses of hot air flowing in the transverse direction. Tunnel driers use gas, oil,
infrared lamps or microwave energy. Infrared drying is used for thin tiles.
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10. In waterfall method of glazing, glaze is fed through rotating disc that flings glaze onto tile.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The above described method is employed in a centrifugal or discing method. In the waterfall or bell
method, a stream of glaze falls onto tiles, moving below on a conveyor belt.
11. Which step removes volatiles from the material during firing?
a) Glost firing
b) Single firing
c) Fly firing
d) Bisque firing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Tile prepared by dry grinding requires 2 step process. In the first step, tile passes through low
temperature firing, called bisque firing.
12. Fluorine emission is a pollutant generated during the manufacturing process.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pollutants released are lead, fluorine, waste water, etc. Fluorine emission can be controlled by using
scrubbers.
To practice all areas of Basic Civil Engineering, here is complete set of 1000+ Multiple Choice Questions and
Answers.
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7/28/2021 Manufacture of Timber - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Manufacture of Timber
« Prev Next »
“Manufacture of Timber”.
1. The felling of the tree is usually carried out in:
a) Winter
b) Summer
c) Rainy season
d) Spring
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In winter season, the productivity of tree decreases due to lack of sun light. The sap and
moisture content is less. During the summer, there is 50% more sap content.
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2. In large forests, trees are felled using:
a) Hammer and chisel
b) Chainsaw
c) Tractor
d) Axe
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Large forest contains a huge number of trees. It will be difficult, time consuming to cut
them using chisel, axe or chainsaw. So specially designed tractor with cutters and grabbers are used to
fell trees.
3. The thickness of veneers varies from:
a) 0.4-0.6 cm
b) 0.1-0.4 cm
c) 0.1-0.4 mm
d) 0.4-0.6 mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Veneers are thin sheets of wood. They are obtained by rotating timber against a sharp
knife. These form starting point of the manufacturing process of plywood.
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4. Which of the following is not a material that forms Particle Board?
a) Shavings
b) Fibres
c) Ribbons
d) Flakes
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fibre board is made of fibres of wood. Chips, flakes, ribbons and shavings are different
sized particles of wood, used in the manufacturing of Particle Board.
5. Debarking is done so as to:
a) Safeguard saws
b) Improve seasoning
c) Expose surface of wood
d) Reduce weight
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Debarking is now being adopted widely. It safeguards saws and equipment from damage
that would otherwise result from stones, metals, etc. present in the bark.
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6. Breaking down is the process of:
a) Felling a tree
b) Conversion of logs
c) Defect in timber
d) Reducing weight
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The logs are cut into the board using circular saws and band saws. This is called
conversion, and first stage of conversion is the process called breaking down. It means rough sawing.
7. How many types of rough sawing are there?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The 2 types of rough sawing are through and through sawn and quarter sawn.
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8. Wood that has not been seasoned is also called:
a) Sap wood
b) Fresh wood
c) Heart wood
d) Green wood
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Green wood usually indicates wood that freshly cut. If not seasoned, it is called green
wood. Very rarely green wood is sold in markets.
9. Before peeling in the production of plywood, what has to be carried out?
a) Conditioning
b) Seasoning
c) Debarking
d) Sorting
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Plywood is made by pressing plys of wood. To peel wood, it must be soft. Conditioning
involves exposing wood to moisture by soaking in hot water or live stream.
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10. Wax or paint is applied to end-grain of lumber to be air dried, in order to seal the ends.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To ensure uniform drying of lumber, end-grains are waxed or painted. They slow down
drying rate of extremities.
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Moment of a Couple - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Moment of a Couple
« Prev Next »
a Couple”.
1. Couple is having a combination of two forces. They are different in magnitude.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The couple is a combination of two forces of the same magnitude. They are acting in the
same sense of rotation. That is they are acting in the opposite direction but giving the body a rotation in
the same direction. Whether it may be in a clockwise direction or anti-clockwise.
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file:///E:/Moment of a Couple - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry.html 1/11

2. Determine the couple moment acting on the beam shown.
a) 500Nm
b) 1500Nm
c) 740Nm
d) 50Nm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As we know that the moment is vector quantity, their summation requires vector math.
The couple moment is also the same. That is they are also the vectors and requires vector math. Thus
the resultant couple moment is the vector sum of the various couples acting in the body.
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3. The distance between the forces acting in the couple is ____________
a) Infinity
b) Zero
c) A finite distance

d) A circular loop
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The distance between the forces acting in the couple is having a finite distance. Couple is
the combination of two forces which are acting in the same sense of rotation. That is they are acting in
the opposite direction to provide the same direction rotation.
4. The resultant force acting in the couple is _________
a) Zero
b) Infinite
c) Twice the magnitude of the single force
d) Half the magnitude of the single force
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The resultant of the force acting on the couple is always zero. As the force are acting in
the opposite directions. So if we add the forces algebraically then the sum is going to be zero. Or in
other words, they cancel each other.
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5. A man is travelling in the car. He is driving the car. If he is taking a turn in the road. He is applying force
to the steering wheel by holding the wheel with his both hands. The steering wheel is facing a moment of
force.
a) True

b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The man is trying to rotate the wheel by applying the force. The force is being applied on
the steering wheel. Which is rotating the wheel, but it is the moment of the couple. Because the man
has holded the wheel with his both hands, hence it is not the moment of the force.
6. Which of the following is correct for the moment of couple M caused by two forces of same magnitude
F and are separated by a distance of r?
a) M = rxF
b) M = r.F
c) M = -(rxF)
d) M = -(r.F)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is M = rxF. The moment id the cross product of the distance and the forces. It
is the direction as directed by the curling of the hand. The thumb representing the direction of the
moment. And the motion of the finger, that is the rotation gives the direction of the rotation caused by
the forces.
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7. A couple moment is a _______ vector.
a) Gradient
b) Scalar

c) Del
d) Free
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A couple moment is a free vector. It can act anywhere between the forces. As the couple
is formed by two forces acting in the opposite directions. These forces are separated by a distance r,
say, then the moment caused by them can act anywhere in between these forces.
8. Determine the couple moment acting on the beam shown.
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a) 20KNm
b) 21KNm
c) 22KNm

d) 19KNm
View Answer
Answer: a
a) The couple moment depends on the axis of rotation
b) The couple moment depends directly on the radius vector of forces
c) The couple moment depends only on the distance vector between the forces
d) The couple moment’s direction is given by the left hand rule
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The couple moment depends only on the distance vector between the forces. The radius
vector of the forces are not making the couple depended over it. But the distance vector is driven by
subtracting the radius vectors of the forces. This means that the moment of the couple doesn’t directly
depend on the radius vector of forces.
10. If the forces acting on the couple are in the same direction, that is they are not in the opposite
direction as always they are, then?
a) The direction of the forces doesn’t determine the moment
b) The couple moment will be maximum
c) The couple is not possible
d) No change occurs
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The forces are always in the opposite direction for the couple moment. But if they don’t
act like the same, that is they change their directions and align themselves in the same direction then
the couple is not possible.
11. Determine the couple moment acting on the pipe shown.

a) -130Nm
b) 130Nm
c) -120Nm
d) 120Nm
View Answer
Answer: a
12. The resultant couple moment is ____________ sum of various couples acting on the body.
a) Vector
b) Scalar
c) Scalar Triple
d) Dot
View Answer
Answer: a
13. Determine the couple moment acting on the triangular plane shown.

a) 1600Nm
b) 100Nm
c) 2600Nm
d) 600Nm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
14. If two forces magnitude F each are acting in the Cartesian coordinate and are acting at the points
A(3,3) and B(-3,3). They are heading towards negative z direction and positive z direction respectively.
The distance between them is given as r. The radius vectors of the force at A and B are Ra and Rb
respectively. Then the moment is given as:
a) (Ra-Rb).F
b) (Rb-Ra).F
c) (Ra-Rb)xF
d) (Rb-Ra)xF
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The moment of a couple as we know is the cross product of the force and the distance
between them. But in this case, we are given the radius vectors of the forces. So when we apply the
vector maths to find the distance between the forces we get that the distance r = Rb-Ra. Now that we
have the distance, we cross it with the force.
15. Determine the couple moment acting on the pipe shown.

a) 108j + 144k Nm
b) -108j + 144k Nm
c) 108j – 144k Nm
d) -108j – 144k Nm
View Answer
Answer: a
The couple moment is also the same. That is they are also the vectors, and requires vector math. Thus
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7/28/2021 Moment of Inertia for Areas Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Moment of Inertia for Areas
« Prev Next »
Inertia for Areas”.
1. Whenever the distributed loading acts perpendicular to an area its intensity varies __________
a) Linearly
b) Non-Linearly
c) Parabolically
d) Cubically
View Answer
Answer: a
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2. Determine the moment of inertia of the area about the y-axis.

file:///E:/Moment of Inertia for Areas Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry.html 1/10
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a) 0.273m2
b) 11m2
c) 0.141m2
d) 0.811m2
View Answer
Answer: a

3. The calculation of the moment of the body due to the loadings involve a quantity called ____________
a) Moment
b) Inertia
d) Rotation
View Answer
Answer: c
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the whole area of the structure.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
much used.

5. There is perpendicular axis theorem for the area.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
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6. What is parallel axis theorem and to whom it is applied?
View Answer
Answer: a
7. The parallel axis theorem gives the moment of inertia ______________ to the surface of considerance.
a) Linear
b) Non-Linear

c) Perpendicular
d) Parallel
View Answer
Answer: c
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moment of inertia.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
9. The parallel axis theorem uses the ____________ of the distance.
a) Square root
b) Square
c) Cube root

d) Cube
View Answer
Answer: b
square of the distance from the axis of rotation.
10. The distance in the parallel axis theorem is multiplied by ___________
a) Area
b) Volume
c) Linear distance
d) Area/Volume
View Answer
Answer: a
11. One of the uses of the centre of mass or centroid is as in the moment of inertia is that the net force
acts at the ___________ of the loading body.
a) Centroid
b) The centre axis
c) The corner
d) The base
View Answer
Answer: a
12. If the non-Uniform loading is of the type of parabola then for calculating the moment of inertia for
areas?
View Answer

Answer: d
13. If any external force also is applied on the structure and we are determining the moment of inertia
then what should we consider?
external forces
View Answer
Answer: d
14. The body is sometimes acted by two or three force members and we need to find the moment of
inertia for the same. The difference between the two and the three force members is:
View Answer
Answer: d
15. Determine the moment of inertia of the area about the x-axis.

a) 0.111m2
b) 11m2
c) 0.141m2
d) 0.811m2
View Answer
Answer: a
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7/28/2021 Mortar - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Mortar
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Mortar”.
1. Mortar comes from the Latin word:
a) Mortare
b) Mortarum
c) Mortaer
d) Mortarium
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The word Mortarium means crushed. Mortar consists of binding material, fine aggregate
and water.
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2. The first used Mortar was:
a) Lime mortar
file:///E:/Mortar - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry.html 1/8

b) Mud mortar
c) Cement mortar
d) Organic mortar
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In ancient times, mud was extensively used for various purposes. It was also used as
mortar material. Mud was mixed with water and used.
3. Polymer Cement Mortar (PCM) is used primarily for:
a) Repairing concrete structure
b) Stone masonry
c) Tile masonry
d) Brick masonry
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In PCM, a part of cement is replaced by polymer admixtures like latex, emulsion,
monomers, etc. These mortars have low permeability, reduces shrinkage and is suited for repairing
works.
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4. MM 1.5 means:
a) Masonry Mortar of cement content 1.5 bags
b) Mild Mortar of cement content 1.5 bags
c) Masonry Mortar of compressive strength 1.5N/mm2.

d) Mild Mortar of compressive strength 1.5N/mm2.
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: MM stands for Masonry Mortar. The number after that represents the compressive
strength of that mortar mix.
5. For pointing works, the ratio of mortar used is:
a) 1:3 – 1:4
b) 1:2 – 1:3
c) 1:7 – 1:8
d) 1:5 – 1:6
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio 1:2 indicates cement to fine aggregate ratio. For plastering works, 1:3 – 1:4 ratio
is used. For masonry, 1:6 – 1:8 is used.
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6. The guidelines for preparation for mortar is given in:
a) IS 4455
b) IS 2250-1981
c) IS 3350-1981
d) IS 5567
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The method of hand mixing and machine mixing can be employed. First cement is laid on
a flat platform. The required amount of sand is spread on top of it. Finally, water is added slowly till
required consistency is reached.
7. Light weight mortar is prepared by using:
a) Lime
b) Surkhi
c) Wood chips
d) Flyash
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Wood chips, powder or sawdust is added to lime or cement and mixed with water. This
results in lightweight mortar. It is used in heat and sound proof construction.
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8. Packing mortars are used to pack:
a) Oil wells
b) Retaining walls
c) Bricks
d) Cracks in masonry
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is prepared by mixing loam instead of sand. It has properties of water resistant, water

pressure resistant, high homogeneity, etc.
9. The bulk density of X-ray shielding mortar is:
a) 6-12 kN/m3
b) 5 kN/m3 and above
c) 22 kN/m3 and above
d) 10-20 kN/m3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: X-ray shielding mortar is prepared using heavy rocks and suitable admixtures. It’s aheavy
mortar with bulk density above 22 kN/m3. It is used in plastering coats to walls and ceiling of X-ray
cabinets.
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10. Which of the below is added to make mortar fire proof?
a) Gypsum
b) Asbestos cement
c) Powdered glass
d) Aluminous cement
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: This mortar is prepared by adding one part of aluminous cement to 2 parts of powder of
fire bricks. It can be used to line furnaces, ovens, fire places, etc.

11. The setting speed of mortar can be increased using:
a) Lime
b) Sulphur
c) Pozzolana
d) Gypsum
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Lime (hydraulic lime) mortar sets on contact with water. It results in speedy work. It does
not offer flexibility as in case of cement mortar.
12. Which of the below mortar can settle under water?
a) Hydrolytic
b) Pozzolana
c) Lime
d) Flyash
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Finely powdered Pozzolana is added to lime or cement mortar can rapidly set the mortar.
It can be used under water as it allows quick setting.
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Painting - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Painting
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Painting”.
1. In a white wash, after how many hours is dissolved gum added to the solution?
a) 24 hours
b) 12 hours
c) 6 hours
d) 1 hour
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: White wash is prepared from a fat lime. Fat lime is dissolved in a big drum and it is stirred
well. Then, after 24 hours dissolved gum is added to the drum.
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2._________ are cheaper varieties of paint.
a) Colour wash
file:///E:/Painting - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry.html 1/8

b) Pointing
c) Distempers
d) Acrylics
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Distempers have chalk as a base, water as a carrier and emulsifying agents like glue or
casein. To impart colour, pigments are added.
3. A paint normally consists of _________ components.
a) 3
b) 5
c) 4
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The six components that comprise paint are base, vehicle, solvent, pigment, filler and
drier. Out of these, the base, vehicle and solvent are the important ones.
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4. _________ paint gets deteriorated when exposed to sun.
a) Asbestos
b) Bituminous
c) Oil

d) Aluminium
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bituminous paint is applied on to iron works under water. It is made by dissolving asphalt
or bitumen in oil or petroleum. It has a characteristic black colour.
5. The appearance of glossy patches on the painted surface is called:
a) Flashing
b) Blooming
c) Running
d) Blistering
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flashing is a defect developed on the painted surface. It is identified as glossy patches on
the surface. It is caused due to poor quality of paint or of workmanship.
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6. Which of the below is a pigment imparting brown colour?
a) Raw sienna
b) Soot
c) Burnt sienna
d) Ultramarine
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Raw sienna imparts yellow colour to paint. To get black colour, soot is added. Blue colour
can be obtained by adding ultramarine pigment.
7. The component filler in paint does the function of:
a) Absorbing oxygen
b) Reducing cost
c) Consistency
d) Smooth spreading
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fillers are added to reduce the cost of paint. Too much addition of it may weaken the
paint. Commonly used ones are alumina, magnesia, barite, charcoal, etc.
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8. Saponification is a defect on the painted surface and it is identified by the appearance of:
a) Wrinkles
b) Dull patches
c) Bubbles
d) Soapy patches
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Saponification leads to the appearance of soapy patches. It occurs due to the chemical

reaction of alkalis. To avoid this, surface must be cleaned and paint should be kept away from strong
alkalis.
9. Which of the below is not an example of a base?
a) White lead
b) Cobalt
c) Zinc oxide
d) Red lead
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cobalt is used as a drier. It absorbs oxygen from surroundings and hardens the paints.
White lead, zinc oxide and red lead are all examples of a base. They have binding properties and form
an opaque coat.
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10. Which paint contains polystyrene as a base?
a) Synthetic rubber
b) Enamel
c) Aluminium
d) Emulsion
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Emulsion paint contains polystyrene and polyvinyl acetate as a base. They are durable
and retain their colour for long. They dry within 15 minutes and hard dry within 2 hours.

11. Which defect occurs if a paint is applied excessively thick?
a) Grinning
b) Running
c) Wrinkling
d) Flaking
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Grinning occurs when under coat and final coat are of different colours. The opacity is
insufficient and background colour is visible. Running occurs if the surface is too smooth; paint run off
from such parts. Flaking occurs due to poor adhesion, leading to peeling off of paint.
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Pappus & Guldinus Theorem - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Theorem of Pappus and Guldinus
« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Theorem
of Pappus and Guldinus”.
1. The theorem of Pappus and Guldinus is used to find the ____________
a) Surface area of the body
b) Surface area of the body of revolution
c) Surface area of the body of linear motion
d) Surface area of the body of rectangular motion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The theorem is used to find the surface area and the volume of the revolving body. This is
done by using simple integration. Thus the surface area and the volume of any 2D curve being rotated
can be made to be calculated from this theorem.
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2. The theorem of Pappus and Guldinus states that the area of the revolving curve is ______________
a) Product of the area, length of the generated curve and the radius vector
b) Product of the area, length of the generated curve and the perpendicular distance from axis
c) Product of the volume, length of the generated curve and the radius vector
d) Product of the volume, length of the generated curve and the perpendicular distance from axis
View Answer
Answer: b
done by using simple integration. Thus the surface area and the volume of any 2D curve. It is just the
product of the area, length of generated curve and the perpendicular distance from axis.
3. Product of the area, ______________________ and the perpendicular distance from axis are being
used in the theorem to find the area of the revolution.
a) Length of generated curve
b) Length of generated radius
c) Length of generated length vector
d) Length of generated area vector
View Answer
Answer: a
product of the area, length of the generated curve and the perpendicular distance from the axis.
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4. Determine the surface area of the structure when rotated about the ray P.
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a) 134m2
b) 143m2
c) 154m2
d) 169m2
View Answer
Answer: a
product of the area, length of the generated curve and the perpendicular distance from the axis.
5. The distance used in the theorem is the distance travelled by ______________
a) Body
b) Body’s centroid
c) Body’s length vector
d) Body’s radius vector
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The theorem is used to find the surface area and the volume of the revolving body. Thus
the surface area and the volume of any 2D curve. It is just the product of the area, length of generated
curve and the perpendicular distance from axis. The distance being the distance travelled by the
centroid.
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6. Product of the Volume, ______________________ and the perpendicular distance from axis are being
used in the theorem to find the volume of the revolution.
a) Area of generated curve
b) Area of generated radius
c) Area of generated length vector
d) Area of generated area vector
View Answer
Answer: a
product of the volume, area of generated curve and the perpendicular distance from axis.
7. The maximum value of the frictional force that can be applied to the composite body under which the
theorem of the Pappus and Guldinus is going to be applied is called _________
View Answer
Answer: a
resisting the motion of the surface. Thus the maximum values is called as limiting friction.
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8. When the body which is applied forces come in the stage of the limiting friction then the body over
which this theorem is to be applied is termed as to come in ___________ equilibrium.
a) Unstable
b) Stable
c) Non-stable
d) Improper Stable
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the limiting friction is the maximum value of the frictional forces. Thus if more force is
applied to the body then the body is going to move forward. Because the two surfaces are in contact
and the friction applies at that surface only, resisting the motion of the surface. Thus the name unstable
equilibrium.
9. Determine the volume of the structure when rotated about the ray P.
a) 47.6m3
b) 43m3
c) 14m3
d) 19m3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
coordinate system. Which is right about it for the bodies over which this theorem is going to be applied
(consider the mentioned axis to be positive)?
View Answer
Answer: a
11. What is not the condition for the equilibrium in three dimensional system of axis for the bodies for
which this theorem is going to be applied?
a) ∑Fx=0
b) ∑Fy=0
c) ∑Fz=0
d) ∑F≠0
View Answer
Answer: d
non-zero value.
12. What is a collinear system of forces for the bodies over which this theorem is to apply?
View Answer
Answer: c
13. The system of the collinear and the parallel force for the bodies over which this theorem is to be
applied are simplified as:
View Answer
Answer: a
14. If solving the question in 3D calculations is difficult, then use the 2D system to make the use of the
theorem.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Plane Table Surveying - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Plane Table Surveying
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Plane
Table Surveying”.
1. __________ instrument is used to sight to an object.
a) Compass
b) U-frame
c) Plumbing fork
d) Alidade
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Alidade is a straight edge with some form of sighting device. It can be plain (with slits) or
telescopic. It is kept on a plane table and objects are sighted.
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file:///E:/Plane Table Surveying - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry.html 1/8
2. How many methods of plane table surveying are there?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 1
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are four ways to perform plane table surveying. They are radiation, inter-section,
traversing and resection. First two are employed for locating details and other two for locating plane
table stations.
3. Plane table (PT) surveying is a __________ method.
a) Graphical
b) Linear
c) Circular
d) Angular
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the graphical method of surveying, objects are sighted and taken down as drawings
(lines) on a paper. The line gives angle, distance of the object from the station.
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4. Plane table is made of:
a) Metal
b) Rubber
c) Wood
d) Plastic
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Plane table is a well-seasoned wooden piece. It is polished and a smooth surface is given
on top. The middle bottom portion is threaded to attach a tripod.
5. Which of the below is used for levelling a plane table?
a) Plumb bob
b) Spirit level
c) Compass
d) U-frame
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A spirit level is a rectangular box, containing a small bubble inside it. It is placed on the
table, table is moved and fixed when the bubble is centralised.
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6. Which of the below is not an advantage of PT survey?
a) Used for accurate works
b) Less costly
c) Field book is not required
d) Rapid method
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is used only to locate a certain local object. It doesn’t give accurate results and can’t be
used for high precision works.
7. How many ways are there to orient a plane table?
a) 1
b) 3
c) 2
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Orientation refers to the process of keeping the table to the position which is occupied at
first station. The point on paper and ground should match. It can be done by using through compass
and back sighting.
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8. Plan table surveying uses the methodology of:
a) Triangulation
b) Contouring
c) Ranging
d) Traversing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Traversing is a methodology where the number of connected lines are there whose length
is measured using tape/chain and angle using any angle measuring instrument. PT survey uses this
methodology.
9. A plumbing fork is used to __________ the plane table.
a) Focus
b) Centre
c) Orient
d) Level
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Plumbing fork is also called U-fame. It has a U-shaped frame which can be clamped onto
the plane table. The lower end has provision for suspending a plumb bob. It is used to centre the table
w.r.t station.
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10. In the method of an intersection, only one linear measurement is made.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Only one linear measurement is made in the intersection method. Base line is the line
showing distance between two instrument stations. This method is also called graphical triangulation.
11. Which of the below is not a method of doing resection?
a) Back sighting
b) Solving two-point problem
c) Solving three-point problem
d) Solving four-point problem
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are four methods to perform the resection. They are using a compass, by back
sighting, solving two-point and three-point problem. There is no method as solving four point problem.
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7/28/2021 Plastering - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Plastering
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Plastering”.
1. Plastering is also called:
a) Pre-casting
b) Pargeting
c) Porting
d) Polishing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pargeting is decorative or water proof plastering that is applied on the walls.
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2. __________ is used to ensure that the thickness of plastering is uniform.
a) Bull point
b) Pivot point
file:///E:/Plastering - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry.html 1/8

c) Bull mark
d) Bench mark
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is provided at a specific distance to make sure that the required thickness of plastering
is even throughout. It is a small rectangular or hexagonal mark.
3. Before plastering, the surface has to be:
a) Rough
b) Smooth
c) Cemented
d) Watered
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: All the mortar joints and the brick surface has to be slightly scraped so as to obtain a
rough surface. Plastering will be able to bond better on to a rough surface.
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4. Which IS code gives specifications about cement plaster?
a) IS 1500
b) IS 1221
c) IS 1400
d) IS 1661
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: IS code 1661 deals with the code of practice for the application of cement and cement-
lime plastering on buildings.
5. Which of the below is not a plaster type based on the material?
a) Cement
b) Gypsum
c) Pozzolana
d) Lime
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Plastering requires a binding material and aggregates. The binding material is
cementitious-cement, lime and gypsum. Pozzolana are siliceous compounds and possess no
cementitious nature as such. When mixed with water, they can act as a cementitious material. But are
generally not used in plastering.
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6. In plastering, the 1st coat is called ___________ and its thickness should be _______ mm.
a) Undercoat, 6-9
b) Floating coat, 6-9
c) Floating coat, 10-15
d) Undercoat, 10-15
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Plastering can either be done in single, 2 or 3 coats. The 1st coat is undercoat of
thickness of 10-15mm. 2nd coat is floating coat of 6-9mm thickness. The last coat is the finishing coat
of 2-3mm thickness.
7. ___________ are used to press mortar and spread it uniformly.
a) Trowel
b) Aluminium rod
c) Floats
d) Brush
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Trowel is used for gauging and applying mortar to surface. Aluminium rod is used to strike
off excess mortar. Brush is used to clean it.
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8. Wood surface requires _________ coats of plastering.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 1
d) None
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Wood and metal surface require 3 coats of plastering so that the surface is completely

safe and sealed. Stone and brick masonry generally require 2 coats and a single coat is done for low
cost construction.
9. In a lime-cement plaster, ratio 1:1:6 corresponds to:
a) Lime:cement:sand
b) Cement:Lime:sand
c) Lime:sand:gravel
d) Cement:sand:gravel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In plastering, a binding material and fine aggregate are used. Since in lime-cement
plaster, 2 binding materials are present, a ratio of both material and sand is taken.
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10. Which of the below is not a plaster finish?
a) Rough-cast
b) Pebble dash
c) Sand faced
d) Wooden
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There is no wooden plaster finish available. Rough-cast is provided to the external
surface using 1:1:3 mortar (cement:sand:coarse aggregates). Pebble or flint dash finish involves

embedding 10-20mm sized pebbles or flints in 12mm thick plaster. Sand faced finish is provided with
1:1 mortar.
11. Mud plastering does not require curing.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In mud plastering, after 2 coats of plastering, a wash of earth, cow dung and cement in
3:2:1 proportion is done. It does not require curing, but should be allowed to dry in shade for 3-4 days.
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Port & Harbour Engineering - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Port and Harbour Engineering
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Port and
Harbour Engineering”.
1. Every port is a harbour.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Harbour is an enclosed area where there is storage, refuelling, loading and unloading of
cargo facilities. A port is a harbour which provides all facilities for the transfer of cargo as well as
passengers. So, all the ports are harbours.
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2. How many components does a harbour comprise of?
a) 5
file:///E:/Port & Harbour Engineering - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry.html 1/7
b) 10
c) 15
d) 20
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The various components of a harbour are entrance channel, break water, turning basin,
shelter basin, pier, wharf, quay, dry dock, wet dock and jetty.
3. The entrance channel ranges from:
a) 100-160m
b) 100-500m
c) 0-400m
d) 100-260m
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The ships enter the harbour from a wide water area, which is called an entrance channel.
The width is 100m for a small harbour, 100-160m for medium and 160-260 for large harbour.
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4. The solid parallel platform in a harbour with berthing facility on one side only is:
a) Pier
b) Quay
c) Wharf
d) Jetty
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A pier is the platform parallel to the shore with berthing possible on both sides, a quay
provides berthing on one side and retains earth on other side. A jetty is a platform that is perpendicular
to shoreline.
5. ____________ is a type of utility based harbour.
a) River harbour
b) Artificial harbour
c) Commercial harbour
d) Canal harbour
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The commercial harbour provides facilities for loading/unloading of cargo. An artificial
harbour is based on the protection needed. (Manmade to protect from storms/waves). River and canal
harbours are based on the location of these.
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6. The open type of wharves are made of:
a) Timber
b) R.C.C.
c) Timber, R.C.C. or both
d) Earth or rock fill
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: These have high level decks which are supported by piles and are made of timber, R.C.C
or both together. Sometimes stressed slab or beam is also used. The solid type wharves are made of
earth or rock fill with the bottom made of structures like steel pile cells.
7. The marine structure located alongside or at the entrance of a pier or a wharf is:
a) Pier heads
b) Dolphins
c) Breakwater
d) Fenders
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: These structures provide mooring facilities for ships, absorb impact force and shorten the
length of a pier or a wharf.
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8. The ferry designs are dependent on:
a) Aesthetics
b) Length of route
c) Country where it is used
d) Weather conditions
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ferry designs depend on factors like passenger capacity, speed, water conditions and
length of route; ex- a double ended ferry used in States Island, Washington, which has interchangeable
sterns & bows to shuttle the route without turning around.
9. The alignment of breakwater should be:
a) Horizontal
b) Straight
c) Perpendicular
d) Diagonal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Breakwater is a protection barrier constructed to protect the harbour from the effect of sea
waves. Its alignment should be straight with an intersection angle within 60o & sometimes curved in
the open sea to reduce the effect of waves.
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7/28/2021 Potential Energy - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Potential Energy
« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Potential
Energy”.
1. Potential energy is stored in the body if some work is done on it. Work done is best given by:
a) dU = Fdrcosθ
b) dU = Fdrsinθ
c) dU = Fdrcotθ
d) dU = Fdrdθ
View Answer
Answer: a
work is done does depends upon the angle of the force. That is the angle which is being made by the
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2. Which of the following is correct for the forces which are considered in the potential energy
calculations?
a) The application of the conditions of the equilibrium of the body is valid only if the forces are collinear
b) The application of the conditions of the equilibrium of the body is valid only if the forces are parallel
c) The application of the conditions of the equilibrium of the body is valid only if the forces are
perpendicular
View Answer
Answer: d
means that the conditions are irrespective of the types of forces. The conditions are the basic rules that
defines the equilibrium of the body and thus are applicable in any type of forces of the real axis.
equilibrium. And the support reactions only cancels out the rotation part of the body and thus the potential
energy of the body is stored in it.
View Answer
Answer: c
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4. For equilibrium, the net moment acting on the body by various forces is zero, in any of the body in the
space, as in the space it is acted by various forces, like gravity.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Thus the moments caused by different forces cancels out. If this happens there is no motion of the
body along any direction and hence the body is said to be in equilibrium. The body here is a rigid body.
5. We use sometimes the measures to know the direction of moment in the calculations of the moments
caused by the gravitational forces over the body above the ground level. Which one is right about
it(consider the mentioned axis to be positive)?
View Answer
Answer: a
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a) 155N
b) 257.1N
c) 200N
d) 175N
View Answer
Answer: b
7. Which statement is correct about the vector F in the showing the gravitational nature of the forces?

View Answer
Answer: a
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8. What is the value of θ in the figure given below?
a) 69˚
b) 60˚
c) 55˚

d) 90˚
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fab= -(3/5)j + (4/5)k ; F= (4/5)i – (3/5)j ; θ = cos-1(Fab.F) = 69˚. This is the application of
the triangle over the figure. Try to resolve the components of the given force. It will be easy.
9. Air also resist the body in the motion. The maximum value of the frictional force is called _________
View Answer
Answer: a
resisting the motion of the surface. Thus the maximum values is called as limiting friction.
10. The coefficient of kinetic friction when a body is moving from a height above the ground level to a
smaller height is ____________ than coefficient of static friction.
a) Smaller
b) Larger
c) Significantly larger
d) Highly larger
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The coefficient of kinetic friction is smaller than coefficient of static friction. The main thing
about the kinetic one is that it is applied by the surface when the body is in motion. The static one is
applied to the body when the body is static and is about to move.
11. Free body diagrams doesn’t play any role in making the calculations on the conditions of the
equilibrium of the body when there is the involvement of the potential energy.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b

12. The net forces of acting on the body need to be zero. This is also applicable for the bodies having
some potential energy. This means that the work done over it is saved in the form of potential energy.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
body. Hence one needs to take care of the support reactions of the beam too.
13. Virtual Work done is saved in the form of potential energy. It is best given by ___________
a) δU = Fδrcosθ
b) δU = Fδrsinθ
c) δU = Fδrcotθ
d) δU = Fδrδθ
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The work is defined as the dot product of the δ force and the δ distance. This means that
the work is done does depends upon the angle of the force. That is the angle which is being made by
the force vector to the surface of action of the force.
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7/28/2021 PVC - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– PVC
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “PVC”.
1. Modifying properties of PVC is called:
a) Reformation
b) Recasting
c) Compounding
d) Curing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Properties of PVC resins can be altered by adding certain additives to it. This process is
called compounding. It is thus possible to attain rigid PVC products.
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2. PVC is widely used to make pipes because:
a) Cost effective
file:///E:/PVC - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry.html 1/8

b) Does not react to chemicals
c) Easily available
d) Easy to transport
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: PVC is resistant to attack by kerosene oil, acid and chemicals. It is water proof too. Hence
it is widely used for pipe manufacture for carrying sewage and rain water.
3. In how many forms does PVC come?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The 2 forms are rigid (RPVC) and flexible PVC. RPVC is used in the construction of
pipes, bottles, cards, etc. Flexible PVC is used in cables, wires, inflatable products, etc.
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4. RPVC can be made softer and more flexible using:
a) Reducers
b) Conditioners
c) Oils

d) Plasticizers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Addition of plasticizers makes RPVC softer and more flexible. Most commonly used form
is phthalates.
5. What is the Limiting Oxygen Index (LOI) of PVC?
a) 45 or more
b) 20 or more
c) 45 or less
d) 20 or less
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Limiting Oxygen Index is a minimum concentration of oxygen that will support combustion
of a polymer. It is expressed as a percentage. PVC has good flame retardancy. Air has 20% oxygen,
PVC has LOI of 45% or more.
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6. Flexible PVC is used for:
a) Pipes
b) Partition walls
c) Flooring
d) Door frames
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is inexpensive, attractive and durable as a flooring material. It is possible to print 3D

designs on to this and protect it using a clear wear coat. The tough surface prevents microbes from
breeding and keeps the floor sterile.
7. Which of the following PVC product is not there in the market?
a) PVC brick decor
b) PVC door
c) PVC cement
d) PVC plaster
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: PVC brick wallpapers are available, with an adhesive at the back. PVC cement is used to
attach 2 PVC pipes. PVC doors are also common. PVC plastering accessories are available, not PVC
plaster.
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8. What does the below PVC pipe fitting represent?
a) Reducer
b) Coupler
c) End cap

d) Saddle
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Coupler has threaded or plain ends. It is a small piece used to connect 2 PVC pipes in a
pipe line.
9. PVC plug is used to:
a) Connect pipes of varying diameter
b) Connect 2 pipe lines
c) Seal pipes of less diameter
d) Seal end of pipe line
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: PVC plug and cap are used to seal the end of a pipeline. They have a threaded end and
the other end is closed.
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10. How is PVC recycled commonly?
a) Feedstock process
b) VinyLoop process
c) Mechanical process
d) Chemical process
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: VinyLoop process is most commonly employed. It involves filtering out composite
materials and grinding it down to PVC granules.
11. Which additive in PVC pipe leads to the contamination of potable water?
a) Lead
b) VCM
c) Phthalates
d) Sulphur
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Lead is added to increase stability and work ability of PVC pipes. It is found to leach into
potable water from the surface of PVC pipes, hence, contaminating it.
12. Pure PVC is ____________ in colour.
a) Grey
b) Blue
c) White
d) Black
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pure PVC is white in colour. It can be coloured according to colour scheme followed in
various countries for electrical usage, plumbing, etc.
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7/28/2021 Railway Engineering - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Railway Engineering
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Railway
Engineering”.
1. The first passenger train was introduced in India in:
a) 1851
b) 1853
c) 1835
d) 1815
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The first passenger train in India started in 1853 with around 400 passengers, 3 coaches
between Boribundar and Thane.
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2. Name the organization which is the research and development wing of Indian Railways.
a) CRIS
b) RDSO
c) RSDO
d) IRCTC
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The RDSO (Research, Designs and Standards Organization) acts as the technical
advisor and consultant to the Ministry of Railways and their production units.
3. The Railways has a _________ degree of freedom for its movement.
a) Single
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Degree of freedom refers to the number of directions in which a vehicle can move. Since
trains have to run on the provided tracks, their movement is restricted to one direction only, compared
to road transport which can move in x, y and z directions.
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4. Track modulus is defined as:
a) Load/unit length of sleeper
b) Load/unit length of sleeper to produce depression in rail
c) Load/unit length of rail to produce depression in sleeper
d) Load/unit length of rail to produce unit depression/deflection in track
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The track modulus defines the stiffness of track or its load bearing capacity. It is based on
the elastic theory. When a load causes a deflection on the top of the rail, the deformation comes on the
sleeper, below the rail.
5. The track modulus is not affected by gauges.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the three gauges (narrow-NG, metre –MG and broad-BG) increases, the components
of the permanent part (like ballast and sleeper) also increases in size. As a result track modulus also
increases. The recommended track modulus is: BG = 70 to 90kg/cm2, MG=42-54kg/cm2 and
NG=30kg/cm2.
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6. Which of the following causes stresses in Sleepers?
a) Eccentric vertical loads
b) Contact shear stress of wheel and rail
c) Lateral deflection of sleepers
d) Track components
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The track components like the track modulus, the stiffness of rail, design of the sleeper,
sleeper density (number of sleepers provided) and their load bearing capacity are factors which cause
stresses in sleepers. The other 3 options are responsible for stresses in rails.
7. There are __________ types of rail sections.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The three types of rail sections are Double Headed Rail (Shaped like a dumbbell), Bull
Headed Rail (Head thicker/stronger than lower part) and Flat Footed Rail.
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8. How does the depth of ballast cushion affect rail section?
a) Higher the depth bigger the rail section
b) Depth is less, bigger the rail section
c) Depth is less, smaller the rail section
d) Depth and Rail section same
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The selection of the rail section depends on many factors like heaviest axle loads,
maximum permissible speed, type of sleepers and depth of ballast cushion. If the depth of the ballast
cushion is less, then a bigger rail section has to be provided.
9. The mountain alignment can be classified into _________ types.
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: They are the zig-zag development and the switch back development. In the zig-zag
developments, the alignments try to follow the contours of the region to an extent. In the switch back,
certain contours like steep slopes have to be negotiated and may use buffer stops.
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10. What must be done to wooden sleepers before use?
a) Seasoning
b) Washing
c) Painting
d) Hydrating
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The wood for the sleepers is taken directly from the trees and they contain moisture. In
order to reduce the moisture content, seasoning is adopted. In India, air seasoning is the most
commonly used method.
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7/28/2021 Rigid Body Equilibrium Conditions Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Conditions for a Rigid-Body Equilibrium – 1
« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Conditions
for a Rigid-Body Equilibrium – 1”.
1. The main condition for the rigid body is that the distance between various particles of the body does
change.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main condition for the rigid body is that the distance between various particles of the
body does not change. If the distance does change the body is not to be called as rigid. Thus the fix
distance of the particles is very much required for the equilibrium of the rigid body.
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2. The shown here has a mass of 100kg. What is missing here in the diagram?
a) The weight of the body is not shown
b) The moment of the force is not shown
c) The body cant be held like this
d) The body diagonal is not shown
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
3. What does Newton’s third law states?
b) For every reaction, there is an opposite reaction
c) The body tends to be rotated if the force is applied tangentially
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The requirement of the third law is important in the equilibrium of the body. Especially the
the equilibrium they also react and apply the opposite force and thus the third law of Newton.
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4. Determine the horizontal components of the reaction on the beam caused by the pin at P. The force
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a) 424N
b) 24N
c) 44N
d) 441N
View Answer
Answer: a
particular angles, must be needed to be equal to zero. The basic need of the forces to make the body
in equilibrium.

5. For equilibrium, the net force acting on the body is zero.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Thus the forces cancel out. If this happens there is no motion of the body along with any direction and
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6. For equilibrium, the net moment acting on the body by various forces is zero.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Thus the moments caused by different forces cancel out. If this happens there is no motion of the body
along with any direction and hence the body is said to be in equilibrium. The body here is a rigid body.
7. Determine the vertical components of the reaction on the beam caused by the pin at Q. The force 60N
is multiplied by 10 and then is applied.
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a) 319N
b) 445N
c) 45N
d) 40N
View Answer
Answer: a
equilibrium.
8. The net moment of the body is zero that means the distance between the force and the rotational axis
is zero.
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The net moment of the body is zero that doesn’t mean that the distance between the force

and the rotational axis is zero. This means moments caused by different forces cancels out. If this
happens there is no motion of the body along with any direction and hence the body is said to be in
equilibrium.
9. Determine the horizontal components of the reaction on the beam caused by the roller at P.
a) 536N
b) 536cos30N
c) 536sin30N
d) 536tan30N
View Answer
Answer: c
particular angles, must need to be equal to zero. The basic need of the forces to make the body in
equilibrium.
10. The net force of the body is zero that means the force are not being applied to the body at all and
hence the body is in equilibrium.
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The net force of the body is zero that doesn’t mean that the force are not being applied to
the body at all and hence the body is in equilibrium. The equilibrium is only attained if the net force on
the body tends to be equal to zero. Thus the forces cancels out. If this happens there is no motion of
the body along any direction and hence the body is said to be in equilibrium.

View Answer
Answer: d
define the equilibrium of the body and thus are applicable in any dimension of the real axis.
12. Determine the vertical components of the reaction on the beam caused by the roller at P.
a) 536N
b) 536cos30N
c) 536sin30N
d) 536tan30N
View Answer
Answer: b
equilibrium.
equilibrium. Because the internal forces cancels out so not to be considered.
View Answer

Answer: c
out.
14. Which of the following needs to zero for the perfect equilibrium?
a) ∑F=0, ∑M=0 and ∑θ = 0
b) ∑F=0, ∑M≠0 and ∑θ = 0
c) ∑F≠0, ∑M=0 and ∑θ = 0
d) ∑F=0, ∑M=0 and ∑θ≠0
View Answer
Answer: d
equilibrium.
15. Determine the vertical components of the reaction on the beam caused by the pin at P. The force 60N
is multiplied by 10 and then is applied.
a) 405N
b) 445N
c) 45N
d) 40N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
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7/28/2021 Rolling Resistance - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Rolling Resistance
« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Rolling
Resistance”.
1. What does the moment of the force measured in the rolling of the body?
a) The tendency of rotation of the body along any axis
d) The total work done on the body by the force
View Answer
Answer: a
axis, whether it be the centroid axis of the body, or any of the outside axis. The couple moment is
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a) 236N
b) 600n
c) 403N
d) 830N
View Answer
Answer: a
3. If a car is moving forward, what is the direction of the moment of the moment caused by the rolling of
the tires, assume non slippery surface?
a) It is heading inwards, i.e. the direction is towards inside of the car
b) It is heading outwards, i.e. the direction is towards outside of the car
c) It is heading forward, i.e. the direction is towards the forward direction of the motion of the car

d) It is heading backward, i.e. the direction is towards back side of the motion of the car
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When you curl your wrist in the direction in which the tires are moving then you will find
that the thumb is pointing outwards. That is outwards the body of the car. This phenomenon is also
observed in rainy seasons. When cars travel on the roads, the water is thrown outside from the tires,
due to moment.
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4. The moment of the force is the product of the force and the perpendicular distance of the axis and the
point of action of the force. Is this also true for rolling?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Yes, this is also true for rolling.
5. For the rolling of the body the calculation of the moment of the force about the axis of rolling, the cross
product table, i.e. the 3X3 matrix which is made for doing the cross product having 3 rows, contains three
elements. Which are they from top to bottom?
a) Axis coordinates, point coordinates, and the force coordinates

b) Point coordinates, axis coordinates, and the force coordinates
c) Axis coordinates, force coordinates, and the point coordinates
d) Force coordinates, point coordinates, and the axis coordinates
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The 3X3 matrix which is being made is having axis coordinates, point coordinates and the
force coordinates. They are from top to bottom place. The order cannot be changed. Or if changed
then one needs to apply the negative sign appropriately. Negative because the directions get reversed.
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a) 5000Nm
b) 5550Nm
c) 6000Nm
d) 7000Nm
View Answer
Answer: a
7. In rolling, there is the involvement of the vector math. So for rolling which of the following is correct?
(For A representing the vector representation of the axis of rotation, r the radius vector and F the force
vector)
a) A.(rxF)
b) Ax(rxF)
c) A.(r.F)
d) Fx(r.F)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct form of the equation is given by A.(rxF). Where A represents the vector
representation of the axis of rotation, r the radius vector and F the force vector. This is usually done for
determining the moment of the force about the axis. That is if the body is being rotated by the force
about an axis.
8. The ___________ forces do not cause the rotation/rolling of the body if the rotation is considered in
about the axis of the body or the centroid axis of the body.
a) Non-concurrent

b) Concurrent
c) Parallel
d) Non-Parallel
View Answer
Answer: b
force is concurrent then the perpendicular distance of the force from the line of axis is zero, thus no
9. For the rolling of the body right handed coordinate system means (consider the mentioned axis to be
positive)?
View Answer
Answer: a
visualizing the same and knowing the basic members of axis will not create many problems. The right
handed coordinate system is universal throughout.
10. In the equation Wa/r generally used in the rolling frictional calculations, what does each stands for?
a) P is the force, W is weight of the body, r radius and a coefficient of rolling friction all in normal powers
b) P is the force in nano Newton, W is weight of the body, r radius and a coefficient of rolling friction
c) P is the force, W is weight of the body in kg, r radius and a coefficient of rolling friction
d) P is the force, W is weight of the body, r radius cm and a coefficient of rolling friction
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The rolling of the cylinder is termed as perfect rolling only when the cylinder is rolling at a
constant velocity. Also, the rolling should be along the rigid surface. The normal forces are acting
perpendicular to the surface of the rolling. And for rolling equation, Wa/r is generally used.
11. Which statement is correct about the vector F acting parallel to the direction of the motion of the
rolling body?

View Answer
Answer: a
resultant of all its axis’ components. The force driving the rolling motion of the body can be divided like
this.
12. What if the moment of the force calculated about the axis of rolling is negative?
a) It means that the force is applied in the opposite direction as imagined
b) It means that the direction of the motion is in the opposite sense as imagined
c) It means that the radius vector is in the opposite sense as imagined
d) Such calculation means that the calculations are wrongly done
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It means that the direction of the rolling is in the opposite sense as imagined. We can’t
say about the direction of the force or the direction of the radius vector. But yes we can say about the
direction of the rolling as it is the thing which is going to be calculated. Rest all the parts are fixed. They
can’t be altered.
13. In the equation A.(rxF) the r is heading from ______________ and ending at _____________
a) Axis of rolling, Force vector
b) Axis of rolling, Force vector’s point of action on the body
c) Force vector, Axis of rolling
d) Force vector’s point of action on the body, Axis of rolling
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is the radius vector. The radius vector is always from the axis of rolling to the point of
action of the force on the body. Which means that the radius vector is not on any point on the force
vector. Rather it ending at the point on the force vector, where it is being in contact of the body.
14. Rotation is termed as rolling when _______
a) Constant velocity of rolling
b) Variable velocity of rolling
c) Constant speed of rolling

d) Variable speed of rolling
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The rolling of the cylinder is termed as perfect rolling only when the cylinder is rolling at a
constant velocity. Also, the rolling should be along the rigid surface. The normal forces are acting
perpendicular to the surface of the rolling.
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Roof Coverings - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Roof Coverings
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Roof
Coverings”.
1. Thin pieces of split or sawn wood are called:
a) Thatch
b) Ribbon
c) Shingles
d) Ply
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Shingles are commonly used in hilly areas and for building low cost houses. They are
nailed to supporting structure to make roof covering.
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2. EPDM Rubber is generally used for:
a) 3-in-12 pitch
b) 4-in-12 slope
c) 2-in-12 slope
d) Flat roofs
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: EPDM Rubber is ethylene propylene diene monomer. It is used to create a single-ply
rubberized roof for a flat or a very low slope roof. It is UV resistant.
3. How many types of composition shingles are there?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The two types of composition shingles are organic and fibreglass. It is used to cover
pitched or sloping roofs.
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4. Synthetic slate is made from:
a) Isoprene
b) Fibre cement
c) Plastic fibres
d) Resin
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The fibres in fibre cement are usually wood or cellulose. These cannot be used in freeze-
thaw climates, as the fibres may absorb water.
5. Mission or barrel roof tiles are:
a) Flat
b) Semi-cylindrical
c) Curved
d) Semi-circular
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The barrel tiles are semi-cylindrical in shape. They are laid in alternating columns of
convex and concave tiles. They can be produced from clay, metal, concrete or plastic.
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6. ________ coating is applied on a metal roof to improve heat – reflective properties.

a) Paint
b) Oil
c) Ceramic
d) Zinc
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Paint and Zinc is applied to give a good appearance and to prevent corrosion. Oils are
used to enhance appearance by bringing out the colour and lustre. It also excludes moisture from
copper roofs.
7. The simplest form of wood shingle is:
a) Split
b) Straight
c) Rectangular
d) Tapered
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There can be different shapes of wood shingles and shakes. They can be tapered,
straight, split or sawn and any two of the above can be combined, except straight-tapered. Rectangular
shingles of 14cm length is the simplest form.
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8. Liquid roofing is the process of:
a) Water proofing roofs
b) Painting roofs
c) Using glass for roofing
d) Curving R.C.C. roofs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It refers to the application of a special liquid coating to any type of roofs. The coating then
cures and forms a rubber like water proof membrane. It is cost effective, safe, easy to apply and highly
reliable.
9. The CGI sheets produced today, have the pitch of:
a) 1 inch
b) 3 inches
c) 5 inches
d) 7 inches
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pitch is the distance between two crests in a corrugated sheet. In corrugated galvanized
Iron (CGI) sheets, pitch can range from 1-5 inches. Commonly produced one these days is 3 inch one.
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10. Straw thatch roof may last for 50-60 years.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Straw thatch and reed thatch are both used after dipping them in fire resistant solutions.
Straw thatch is more likely to catch fire, absorb more moisture than reed thatch. Straw thatch can last
for 20-25 years while reed thatch can last for 50-60 years.
11. Which of the below ratio is used for R.C.C. roofing?
a) 1:1:2
b) 1.5:1:3
c) 1:2:4
d) 1:1.5:3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The R.C.C. is used for flat roofs. The most commonly used ratio is 1:1.5:3.
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7/28/2021 Roof Types - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Roof Types
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Roof
Types”.
1. Roof may be broadly classified into:
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The three types are sloping roofs, flat roofs and shell roofs. They can be used according
to the place of construction and requirements.
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2. The lowest edge of the sloping surface of roof is called:
a) Ridge
b) Rafters
c) Pitch
d) Eves
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Ridge is the apex line of a sloping roof. Rafters are wooden members extending from
ridge to eves. Pitch is the inclination of the sloping roof to horizontal.
3. _________ Roof has four sloping sides with zero vertical roof lines.
a) Gable
b) Gambrel
c) Hip
d) Shed
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hip roof is difficult to construct compared to flat and gable roof because these have
complicated truss and rafter structure.
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4. The figure below represents a __________ roof.
a) Butterfly
b) Bat
c) Prismatic
d) Conoid
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is type of shell roof. The two sides are shaped like wings of a butterfly, hence the name.
It is not commonly used because it does not provide drainage facility.
5. Ridge piece in a sloping roof is usually a:
a) Metal
b) Wood
c) Polymer
d) PVC
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Ridge piece runs horizontally at the apex. Rafters are then affixed on to this. It is usually a
wooden piece or board.
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6. How many types of sloping roofs are available?

a) 2
b) 10
c) 5
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are 6 types of sloping roofs available. They are steel sloping roofs, lean-to-roofs,
couple roofs, couple close roofs, collar beam roofs and trussed roofs.
7. Timber trusses can be built for long spans.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Steel trusses are mostly used for longer spans. These are easy to fabricate, install and
maintain. They have higher resistance to fire, corrosion (painting) etc….
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8. A finishing coat with ________ ratio is provided in Punjab terrace roofs.
a) 1:4
b) 1:2
c) 4:1
d) 2:1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The finishing coat primarily consists of cow dung and cement mixed together. They are
taken in 4:1 ratio, that is 4 parts cow dung to 1 part cement.
9. Which of the below roof types can be used for a span of 4.5 m?
a) Couple close roof
b) Lean-to-roof
c) Couple roof
d) Collar beam roof
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Lean-to-roof is usually employed for a span of 2.5m. Couple roof is provided where a
span of 3.5m is required. Collar beam roof can be used up to the span of 4-6m.
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10. A gable roof slopes in ________ direction.
a) 1
b) 3
c) 2
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A gable roof slopes in two directions in such a way that the end formed by the intersection
of slopes is a sloped triangle. It is commonly used in houses, workshops, etc.
11. How many layers of flat tiles are placed in Madras terrace roofs?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 0
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In Madras terrace roof, firstly wooden joists are placed over steel joists or walls. Then, a
course of well burnt bricks is placed in the lime mortar, followed by a layer of brick bat concrete. Then 3
layers of flat tiles in the lime mortar (1:2) is provided and the roof is finished with 3 coats of plaster.
12. Which of the below is the type of folded plate roof?
a) Prismatic
b) Cylindrical
c) Corrugated shell
d) Ellipsoidal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Folded plate roofs may be defined as slabs with folds. These folds reduce bending
moment and shear force considerably. Cylindrical, Corrugated shell and Ellipsoidal are types of shell
roofs.
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Rubber - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Rubber
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Rubber”.
1. Natural rubber contains polymers of an organic compound:
a) Polyprene
b) Neoprene
c) Thiokol
d) Isoprene
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Rubber primarily consists of Isoprene. It may contain certain impurities like organic
compounds and water.
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2. Rubber is extremely water-proof.
a) True
file:///E:/Rubber - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry.html 1/7

b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Rubber consists of mainly hydrocarbons. It also contains resins, fatty acids and sterols.
These provide water proofing quality to rubber.
3. What is added to rubber to make it a thermosetting polymer?
a) Potassium
b) Sulphur
c) Sodium
d) Phosphorous
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The process of vulcanization makes rubber get converted into a heavily cross-linked,
insoluble and infusible compound. It is done by adding sulphur and litharge (PbO).
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4. Rubber latex is used for:
a) Bonding wood plys
b) Bonding rubber to walls
c) Bonding rubber to wood
d) Bonding tools
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: It is a solution of rubber hydrochloride. It has a sticky texture and has excellent adhesive
property.
5. Rubber seed oil can be used in:
a) Paint
b) Medicine
c) Varnish
d) Fuel
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It can be used as a semi-drying oil in paints. It partially hardens when exposed to air
unlike other drying oils in the paint.
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6. Recycled crumb rubber can be used in:
a) Plastering
b) Mortar
c) Paints
d) Concrete
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Good compressive strength results were obtained when 25% of sand was replaced by
rubber. It is economical and conserves sand usage.

7. What is resilience?
a) Strength
b) Elasticity
c) Soundness
d) Durability
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When rubber is subjected to a load, it deforms. On removal of the load, it returns back to
its original shape and size. This property is resilience.
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8. Rubber bricks are generally used for:
a) Roofing
b) Walls
c) Floorings
d) Lining pizza ovens
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Rubber bricks are manufactured from recycles tyres. They are resistant to water and don’t
become slippery when wet. They are extensively used as flooring in toilets, pavements and horse
stables.
9. Hardness of rubber is measured on which scale?
a) Rockwell scale

b) Shore scale
c) Mohr’s scale
d) Vicker’s scale
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hardness is measured in terms of durometer on a shore scale. Shore A is used for soft to
medium-hard rubber. Solid rubber has a hardness of 40 duro.
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10. Rubber wood is eco-friendly and easily available.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Unlike other trees have grown solely for timber purpose, rubber tree provides latex also.
After 25-30 years, its latex yields become lower and they are felled. They are replanted after that.
11. Synthetic rubber is also called:
a) Gum rubber
b) Caoutchouc
c) Buna-S
d) Gum elastic
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: It is sold under different names. Some of them are neoprene, buna-s, hypalon, silastic,
etc. Gum rubber, caoutchouc and gum elastic are names used for natural rubber.
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Sand Bulking - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Bulking of Sand
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Bulking of
Sand”.
1. What is the meaning of bulking of sand?
a) Increase in volume of sand due to moisture absorption
b) Increase in weight of sand due to moisture absorption
c) Increase in mass of sand due to moisture absorption
d) Increase in strength of sand due to moisture absorption
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When water is added to sand, a thin film of water is formed around the sand particles. The
film exerts surface tension on particles, making them move apart. This leads to an increase in volume
because there is no direct contact among particles.
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2. How is bulking related to moisture content?
a) Keeps on increasing with moisture content
b) Increases to a certain point and then decreases
c) Keeps on decreasing with moisture content
d) Decreases to a certain point and then increases
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The volume i.e. bulking increases as sand absorbs moisture. At about 6- 10%, the film
starts breaking and the volume reduces. If sand absorbs further moisture, no bulking takes place.
3. a, b, c in the figure below in order are:
a) coarse, fine, medium grained sand
b) fine, coarse, medium grained sand
c) medium, fine, coarse grained sand
d) fine, medium, coarse grained sand
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As fine grained sands have higher voids than medium and coarse grained sands, the
percentage of moisture absorbed and the percentage volume increase is the highest.
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4. What happens if bulking is not accounted for while preparing concrete?
a) Concrete gets hardened
b) Concrete is not affected
c) Concrete gets softened
d) Concrete becomes watery
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If care is not taken while volume batching, concrete is likely to be undersanded and gets
hard eventually.
5. By how much percentage does the volume increase when the moisture content is 5-10%?
a) 10-20%
b) 20-40%
c) 30-40%
d) 20-30%
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The studies on bulking have shown this result. It is visible in the graphical representation
of bulking also.
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6. How is particle size of sand related to bulking?
a) Not related
b) Directly proportional
c) Inversely proportional
d) Shows variable relation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Finer particle size will have more voids compared to coarser once. They tend to absorb
more water and hence exhibit more bulking.
7. What does ‘h’ represents in the formula used to calculate the bulking factor?
a) Height of jar
b) Height of saturated sample
c) Height of dry sample
d) Height of water
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The formula used to calculate bulking factor is (H-h/h) x 100%. ‘H’ represents height to
which dry sand sample is filled in jar and ‘h’ represents the height of the saturated sample.
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8. Bulking is the phenomenon applicable to both fine and coarse aggregates.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bulking is possible only in fine aggregates. In coarse aggregate, size of particle is large,
void space is less and so water absorption is not possible up to the extent of fine aggregates.
9. Sand does not show any bulking when:
a) Completely saturated
b) Partially saturated
c) Contains small amount of impurities
d) Voids are partially filled with air
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A completely saturated sand has no void space left to absorb any more water and
undergo bulking.
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10. What effect does bulking have on fresh concrete?
a) Strength reduces
b) Shrinkage increases
c) Volume reduces
d) Workability increases
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The excess water in the sand can be used to maintain water-cement ratio. It improves
workability and hence it is easier to place fresh concrete. Strength is a property of hardened concrete.
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7/28/2021 Sand Properties - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Properties of Sand
« Prev Next »
of Sand”.
1. The fineness modulus of sand lies in the range:
a) 1-2
b) 0.5-1
c) 2-3
d) 2.5-3.5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fineness modulus is an index number which represents average size of sand particles. It
is calculated after conducting sieve analysis.
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2. An ideal sand should comprise of which of the following grain types?
a) Cubical, fine
b) Angular, coarse
c) Round, coarse
d) Irregular, fine
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For sand to be used in every type of construction, the grains must suit all requirements.
Angular, coarse grained sand is the one suitable for all work.
3. Sand in mortar helps in adjusting the strength requirements:
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The grade and amount of sane used in making mortar help in adjusting the strength
parameter. It also helps in increasing resistance against crushing.
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4. A sand is not said to be ideal if:
a) Chemically inert
b) Free from organic salts
c) Is soft
d) Contains silicon dioxide
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An ideal sand should be hard and not soft. It will be difficult to work with if it is soft.
5. Sands should pass through:
a) BIS 480 sieve
b) BIS 8 sieve
c) BIS 5 sieve
d) BIS 6 sieve
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The particle size of sand is between 4.75mm and 75 microns. BIS 480 sieve represents
4.75mm sieve opening.
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6. Bulking of sand increase the strength of the mortar.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bulking increases volume of mortar and not the strength. In fact, it decreases the
strength, leading to future cracks in the structure.
7. The solution used to test impurities in the sand in field is:
a) Sodium sulphate
b) Sodium hydroxide
c) Sodium nitrate
d) Sodium chloride
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A small amount of sand is added to a solution of sodium hydroxide and stirred. If colour
changes to brown, presence of impurity is detected.
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8. What is the maximum percentage of silt allowed in sand to be used in concrete?
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 8%
d) 2%
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If more silt content is present, it will lead to the improper measurement of volume or
weight. It should be washed off to bring it to the allowable limit.
9. Which one of the below cannot to be used as a substitute of sand?
a) Surkhi
b) Quarry dust
c) Glass
d) M-sand
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Surkhi is pieces of burned clay, M-sand is manufactured sand, glass can be powdered
and these form excellent substitutes for sand. Quarry dust has flaky grains and is not recommended to
use in concrete or masonry works, though it can be used for low strength works.
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10. The density of wet sand is:
a) 1922 kg/m3
b) 1682 kg/m3
c) 1281 kg/m3
d) 1522 kg/m3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 1682 kg/m3 is density of rammed sand, 1281 kg/m3 is density of dry sand and 1522 kg/m3
is of silica sand.
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7/28/2021 Screws Frictional Forces - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Frictional Forces on Screws
« Prev Next »
Forces on Screws”.
1. In general cases the screws are used as __________
a) Fasteners
b) Main components
c) Simpler
d) Upstreamers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The screws are generally used as the fasteners. The main thing about the screws is that
the friction helps the holding of the structures. Also, screws help make the structure join fast and
efficiently. Thus the name fasteners.
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2. Which type of the screws are used in the machines?
a) Square-threaded
b) Round-threaded
c) Helical-threaded
d) Rectangle-threaded
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The square threaded screws are used in the machines. As the screws are generally used
as the fasteners. The main thing about the screws is that the friction helps the holding of the structures.
Also, screws help make the structure join fast and efficiently.
3. Why are square threaded screws are used in the machines?
a) Large forces act along the axis of the screws
b) Small forces act along the axis of the screws
c) Large forces act perpendicular the axis of the screws
d) Small forces act perpendicular the axis of the screws
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The square threaded screws are used in the machines. As these screws are generally
used as the fasteners. The main thing about these screws is that the friction helps the holding of the
structures. Also, screws help make the structure join fast and efficiently. And in these screws forces act
along the axis of screws.
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4. The angle of the threading in the screw is determined by which of the following trigonometric function?
a) Tangent Inverse
b) Sine
c) Cosine
d) Secant
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The angle of the threading in the screw is determined by inverse tangent trigonometric
function. This is the generalized form of the function which is being used so as to get the value of the
angle. In wedges, the same function is used so as to find the angle of a wedge.
5. In the determination of the angle of the screw, the ratio kept in the inverse tangent function is the ratio
of ________
a) Vertical and Horizontal distance of the screw
b) Horizontal and Vertical distance of the screw
c) Vertical and Linear distance of the screw
d) Linear and Horizontal distance of the screw
View Answer
Answer: a
function. This is the generalised form of the function which is being used so as to get the value of the
angle. In wedges, the same function is used so as to find the angle of a wedge. And in both, the case
the ratio is vertical is to horizontal.
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6. The horizontal distance used in the inverse trigonometry function is called as _____________
a) Lead
b) Un-lead
c) Major
d) Cut-off
View Answer
Answer: a
function. This is the generalized form of the function which is being used so as to get the value of the
angle. In wedges, the same function is used so as to find the angle of a wedge. And thus the horizontal
distance is called as lead.
7. In screws there is an application of two and three force members. The basic difference between the
two and the three force members used is ___________
View Answer
Answer: d
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8. Determine the moment of the force along point P (There is screw present at P, about which the rotation
is there).
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a) 110Nm
b) 112.5Nm
c) 60Nm
d) 0Nm
View Answer
Answer: b
to apply the same here. We see that the perpendicular distance is 1.5 (3cos60). Thus we get the
distance. And hence multiply it with the force, 75×1.5. Because the force component perpendicular to
the distance needs to be taken.
9. When we apply the equilibrium equations in the free body diagram of the screw, for two force members
to be in equilibrium then _________
a) They both must not be collinear
b) They must be of different magnitude
c) They must be in the same direction
d) They must be in the opposite direction cancelling each other
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Simply, for the equilibrium the net force must be zero. That is the forces must be collinear
if equilibrium is to be established. And they must be in the opposite directions. They also must be of
the same magnitude, cancelling each other.
10. Which of the following statement for the three force system applied in the screws is true?
a) The moment need not to be seen for the equilibrium, they are always in equilibrium
b) The forces are not always in the equilibrium
c) The forces are always in equilibrium
d) The moments are always in equilibrium
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The forces in the three force system are not always in the equilibrium. The equilibrium is
established when the forces cancel out each other. Also when the net moment is zero. Then only the
equilibrium is established in the three force system.
11. Which of the following is correct for a screw being rotated?
a) The couple moment depends on the axis of rotation
b) The couple moment depends directly on the radius vector of forces
c) The couple moment depends only on the distance vector between the forces
d) The couple moment’s direction is given by the left hand rule
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The couple moment depends only on the distance vector between the forces. The radius
vector of the forces are not making the couple depended over it. But the distance vector is driven by
subtracting the radius vectors of the forces. This means that moment of the couple doesn’t directly
depend on the radius vector of forces.
12. If the forces acting on the couple acting on the screw are in the same direction, that is they are not in
the opposite direction as always they are, then?
a) The direction of the forces doesn’t determine the moment
b) The couple moment will be maximum
c) The couple is not possible
d) No change occurs
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The forces are always in the opposite direction for the couple moment. But if they don’t
act like the same that is they change their directions and align themselves in the same direction then
the couple is not possible.
13. For equilibrium, the net force acting on the screw is zero.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Thus the forces cancel out. If this happens there is no motion of the body along with any direction and
14. In the screw collinear forces act, what is a collinear system of forces?
View Answer
Answer: c
15. Determine the smallest force applied at R which creates the same moment about P as by 75N.
(There is a presence of screw at P, about which the rotation is being there)
a) 37.5N
b) 112.5N
c) 60N
d) 0N
View Answer
Answer: a
hence multiply it with the force, the moment = 112.5Nm. Because the force component perpendicular
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7/28/2021 Sections Method - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Method of Sections
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This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Method of
Sections”.
1. We use the method of joints when the members on which the force to be found are few in number.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For few members we use method of joints to find the unknown force. It defines as if the
whole truss is in equilibrium then all the joints which are connected to that truss is in equilibrium. This is
known as method of joints. But when the system becomes complex, method of section comes into the
picture.
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2. The method of section cuts the whole structure of trusses into section and then uses the cut out portion
for the calculations.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The method of section cuts the whole structure of trusses into section and then uses the
cut out portion for the calculations. In which the net force equals zero equation is used. The net
moment is made to be zero, etc. All these conditions of equilibrium is applied.
3. The method of joints helps us to find out the unknown force in the trusses joint. And the method of
section helps us to make the calculation of the direction of the zero members.
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Method of joints defines as if the whole truss is in equilibrium then all the joints which are
connected to that truss is in equilibrium. While the method of section cuts the whole structure of
trusses into section and then uses the cut out portion for the calculations of the unknown forces. Thus
both the methods are used for the same purpose.
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4. Method of section cuts the whole structure of trusses into a section and then uses the cut out portion
for the calculations of the unknown forces. For this method, at most two forces must be collinear.
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Method of section cuts the whole structure of trusses into a section and then uses the cut
out portion for the calculations of the unknown forces. For this method, we don’t require two forces to
be collinear. But if the forces are collinear than the task of determining the unknown forces is very
easy.
5. The determination of the truss’s support reaction is done first and then the section is isolated for the
method of the section.
a) The first step is right but the second one is wrong
b) The first step is wrong and the second one is wrong too
c) The first step is right and the second one is right too
d) The first step is wrong but the second one is right
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The determination of the force of the unknown element is done by the method of the
section. For this the section is isolated from the main structure and then the calculation is done after.
But before that the determination of the support reaction needs to be done.
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6. Why the determination of the support reaction needs to be done before isolating the section?
a) This reduces the calculation and also the labour
b) This makes the isolated section more complicated
c) This results in reduction on the formulas used
d) This procedure is not done at all, it of no need
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The determination of the force of the unknown element is done by the method of section.
For this the section is isolated from the main structure and then calculation is done after. But before
that the determination of the support reaction needs to be done.
7. The free diagram of the section of the truss is made for the section having the least number of the
forces. This is done as to make the calculations easy.
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The part of the calculation is made easier if the flow diagram of that section is made which
is having the least number of forces. Thus for the sake of the calculation this is done. Or one can say
that for getting the unknown force we use this method.
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8. We have three method to solve for the unknown force in the trusses. They are method of section,
method of joints and rotational vector method.
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main methods for the solving for the unknown force on the truss are method of
section and the method of joints. The other method is just given for the sake of confusion. This means
that only two main methods are to applied for solving the unknown force on a truss.
9. The free body diagram of which part of the section of the truss is made to make use of the method of
sections?
a) Joints
b) Truss
d) Any section can be used
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The free body diagram of any part of the section of the truss is made to make use of the
method of sections. Various equations of equilibrium are made to do the calculations. The net force
acting on the vertical direction is made zero. Also, horizontal direction forces are made to be zero.
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10. Determine the force in members UT.
a) 1980N
b) 800N
c) 2200N
d) 1100N
View Answer
Answer: b
equilibrium.
11. Determine the force in members UR.
a) 1980N
b) 800N
c) 2200N
d) 1100N
View Answer
Answer: a

equilibrium.
12. Determine the force in members QR.
a) 1980N
b) 800N
c) 2200N
d) 1100N
View Answer
Answer: c
equilibrium.
13. The system of the collinear and the parallel force are simplified as:
View Answer
Answer: a
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Shear & Moment Equations & Diagrams Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Shear and Moment Equations and Diagrams
« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Shear and
Moment Equations and Diagrams”.
1. ___________ are the structures that are being made to support the loadings applied perpendicular to
the axis of that structures.
a) Pillar
b) Box
c) Beam
d) Statues
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The beams are the structures which are being made so as to support the loadings which
are perpendicular to the axis of that structure. This means that the beams can support that weight or
that types of weight which are applying the load perpendicular to the axis of the beam.
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2. Beams are long and ________ structures that are being made to support the loadings.
a) Straight
b) Vertical
c) Rounded
d) Curled
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Beams are long and straight structures that are being made to support the loadings. They
are being made so as to support the loadings which are perpendicular to the axis of that structure. This
means that the beams can support that weight or that types of weight which are applying the load
perpendicular to the axis of the beam.
3. Beams have a _________ cross sectional area.
a) Non-uniform
b) Rounded
c) Helical
d) Uniform
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Beams have a uniform cross sectional area. This is because beams are the structures
which are being made so as to support the loadings which are perpendicular to the axis of that
structure. And to support properly the area must be uniform.
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4. Simply supported beams are pinned at both the ends.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The simply supported beams are supported only at one side by the pin. This means the
other side is having the roller. The beams are such designed because they are the structures which are
being made so as to support the loadings which are perpendicular to the axis of that structure. Thus
not pinned both sides.
5. The other side of the simply supported beam is having pin support, what is the support this side?
a) Roller
b) Pin
c) Hinge
d) Rolling hinge
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The simply supported beams are supported only at one side the pin. This means the other
side is having the roller. The beams are such designed because they are the structures which are
being made so as to support the loadings which are perpendicular to the axis of that structure. Thus
not pinned both sides.
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6. The cantilever beam is having pin supports both sides of it.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The one end of the cantilever beam is fixed and the other one is having its end as free.
This is the other type of the beam which is being designed to support the loadings which are
perpendicular to the support. Thus the cantilever is free from one end and fixed at another.
7. The cantilever is having one side of it as fixed while the other one is _________
a) Hinged
b) Roller supported
c) Pinned
d) Free
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The one end of the cantilever beam is fixed and the other one is having its end as free.
This is the other type of the beam which is being designed to support the loadings which are
perpendicular to the support. Thus the cantilever is free from one end and fixed at another.
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8. The design of the beam requires the knowledge of the variation of the ____________
a) Internal shear force
b) Rolling forces
c) Rotational forces
d) External forces
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The design of the beam requires the knowledge of the variation of the internal shear
force. Because beams are the structures which are being made so as to support the loadings which
are perpendicular to the axis of that structure. And to support properly the area must be uniform.
9. The design of the beam requires the knowledge of the variation of the ____________
a) Bending moment
b) Rolling forces
c) Rotational forces
d) External forces
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The design of the beam requires the knowledge of the variation of the bending moment.
Because beams are the structures which are being made so as to support the loadings which are
perpendicular to the axis of that structure. And to support properly the variation of the bending
moments must be known for each of the section.
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10. The bending moment and the shearing stress can be obtained by which method?
a) Bending moment
b) Rolling method
c) Section method
d) Method of section
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The design of the beam requires the knowledge of the variation of the bending moment.
Because beams are the structures which are being made so as to support the loadings which are
perpendicular to the axis of that structure. Thus to know these quantities we apply the method of
sections so as to determine these values easily.
11. We can make the graph of shear force acting on the beam. But not for the bending moment.
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Both of them can be plotted on the graph as the main things are the distance variation of
the force, which can be made by simple calculation. The main motto of the calculations are to design
the graph and know where the maximum force and the moment are. Thus the graph of both the
quantities are possible.
12. We apply the equations of ________ to determine various forces acting on the beams.
a) Equilibrium
b) Rotation moment
c) Linear moment
d) Translation
View Answer
Answer: a
This is the basic condition for the equilibrium of the forces in any dimension. And many other are
applied at the points where the forces are to be determined. Thus equilibrium equations are being
applied at the points where the main forces are to be determined.
13. Which of the following is true for a beam having various forces acting over it?
View Answer
Answer: a
is positive then the counter clockwise is to be negative. Also such assumption are very useful in 2D
calculation of the moments caused by various forces on the body.
14. Determine the shear force generated.
a) 1.35KN
b) 25KN
c) 22KN
d) 23KN
View Answer
Answer: a
15. Determine the moment generated at R.
a) 18.75KNm
b) 8.75KNm
c) 1.75KNm
d) 175KNm
View Answer
Answer: a
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7/28/2021 Shear Stress Diagram - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Shear Stress Diagram
« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Shear
Stress Diagram”.
1. The determination of the internal loading in the beams for shear stress diagrams is usually done so as
to:
a) Break the beam
b) Know the length
d) Design the beam
View Answer
Answer: d
them. For this another method is the distribution load method.
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2. The change in moment in shear stress diagrams is equal to _________
b) Bending moment
c) Total weight
d) Area under shear diagram
View Answer
Answer: d
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a) 450N
b) 50N
c) 40N
d) 45N
View Answer
Answer: a
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4. The couple moment and the force in shear stress diagrams are divided to get the distance of the axis
from the point of action of the force.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
the distance.
5. The equation of change in a moment in shear stress diagrams equals area under shear diagram is not
applied when?
b) Bending moment
c) Total weight
d) A concentrated force acts
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As this is done with the help of distributed load method thus when a concentrated load is
applied this equation is not valid. This is done on the very small part of the beam. That is the minimal
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6. Change in the shear in shear stress diagrams is equal to ____________
b) Bending moment
c) Total weight
d) Area under loading curve
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
7. The couple in the beam is simplified easily by the help of right hand rule in shear stress diagrams. But
the forces simplification is not possible as there is no such system of rules so that the forces can be
simplified.
View Answer
Answer: c
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8. Determine the normal force of the beam shown.
a) 0N
b) 50N
c) 40N
d) 45N
View Answer
Answer: a
9. The internal loading in shear stress diagrams can be found by ___________
a) Distributed load method
b) Method of area
c) Method of line
d) Method of volume
View Answer
Answer: a
distribution of load method is the one. Also, we have a method of joints, which is done so as to
determine the internal forces which are being developed in the trusses or the frames. This is done as
to design them. In this method the loading acting upward is considered to be positive.
10. In the making of the shear force diagram or the bending moment diagrams, one method is used,
distributed load. In this the distributed load will be considered positive if?
a) Loading acts upward
b) Loading acts downward
c) Loading acts rightward
d) Loading acts leftward
View Answer
Answer: a
11. The shear diagram will jump downward if _________
b) Bending moment
c) Total weight
d) Force will act downwards
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
12. The shear diagram will jump upwards if_____________
b) Bending moment
c) Total weight
d) Change in shear is positive
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
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7/28/2021 Sieve Analysis - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Sieve Analysis
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Sieve
Analysis”.
1. The sieve sets for coarse aggregate ranges from:
a) 40-4.75mm
b) 20-4.75mm
c) 80-4.75mm
d) 100-4.75mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: According to IS 565, the sieve sets are 80mm, 40mm, 20mm, 10mm, 4.75mm for coarse
aggregates.
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2. The aggregate sample for the sieve analysis is placed on:
a) Largest sieve
b) Smallest sieve
c) 40mm IS sieve
d) 4.75mm IS sieve
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Only if the sample is placed on largest sieve size, it can be sorted, according to each
smaller sieve size below.
3. What is a receiver in a sieve analyser?
a) Round pan on top
b) First sieve
c) Last sieve
d) Round pan at base
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: At the base of all the sieve sets, round pan is placed to collect the particles finer than the
last sieve size. It is called the receiver.
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4. How is percentage retained on each sieve calculated?
a) wsample/wsieve
b) wsieve/wsample
c) wsieve-wsample
d) wsample-wsieve
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The percentage retained is calculated by dividing weight of sample retained by the weight
of the total sample, taken in beginning of test.
5. In how many ways can sieve analysis be carried out?
a) 5
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The 5 methods are throw-action, horizontal, tapping, wet and air circular jet.
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6. Under what circumstance is a wet sieve analysis carried out?
a) Sample is washed
b) Moisture content is high in sample
c) Sample contains organic matter
d) Very fine powdered sample
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Sometimes samples contain very fine powders which tend to agglomerate. In dry sieve
analysis, it would lead to clogging of meshes and it makes analysis difficult.
7. Which of the below is a limitation of performing sieve analysis?
a) Time consuming
b) Costly
c) Particle shape
d) Particle size
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The shape of particles is assumed to be nearly round or spherical so that they pass
through the square opening. For elongated, flaky particles it will be difficult.
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8. A narrow gradation is also called:
a) Gap gradation
b) Uniform gradation
c) Rich gradation
d) Open gradation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A graph is plotted after performing sieve analysis. It shows different curves. A narrow
gradation is also called uniform gradation. It shows that the aggregate is of approximately the same
size.
9. For how long is the mechanical vibrator shaked?
a) 15-20 minutes
b) 5 minutes
c) 10-15 minutes
d) 30 minutes
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As per IS code 2720 Part 4. Mechanical vibrator is switched on and allowed to vibrate for
15-20 minutes. It ensures proper grading of particles.
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10. For fine aggregates that is, sample passing through 4.75mm IS sieve, how much sample should be
taken?
a) 5 kg
b) 1 kg
c) 2 kg
d) .5 kg
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: IS 2720 gives the specifications. It requires using sample weighing 5 kg for coarse
aggregates and 1 kg for fine aggregates.
11. Gradation affects the properties of an aggregate.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gradation affects properties like bulk density, physical stability and permeability. With
careful selection of the gradation, desired properties can be achieved.
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7/28/2021 Simple Distributed Loading Reduction Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Reduction of a Simple Distributed Loading
« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Reduction
of a Simple Distributed Loading”.
1. The uniformly distributed load is having two different values of load per unit length on the ends of the
distribution.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is no. The uniform distributed load is not having two different values of the
load per unit meter on the corner. Rather the distribution is uniform. That is it is having the same value
of the same on both of the corners.
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2. There are two types of loading. The uniformly distributed and the non-uniformly distributed that is the
one having two different values at corners.
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The two forms of the loading are the uniformly distributed and the non-uniformly
distributed that is the one having two different values at corners. The uniform distributed load is not
having two different values of the load per unit meter on the corner.
3. The type of reduction of the loading is different for the uniformly distributed and the non-uniformly.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The methods for the reduction of the loadings are different for both uniformly distributed
and the non-uniformly. In the latter, the simplification uses the quadratic equation. The latter also uses
the integration for the same purpose.
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4. Determine the magnitude of the resultant force acting on the shaft shown from left.

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a) 640N
b) 675N
c) 620N
d) 610N
View Answer
Answer: b
force.
5. In the simplification of the loading system, the net force acts at the ___________ of the loading body.
a) Centroid
b) The centre axis
c) The corner
d) The base
View Answer

Answer: a
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6. In triangle distributed loading, the loading at any distance can be easily found by using which of the
following trigonometry function?
a) Tangent
b) Sine
c) Cosine
d) Sine inverse
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In triangle distributed loading, the loading at any distance can be easily found by using
Tangent trigonometry function. That is because the linear distance only determines the vertical loading.
That is the loading is uniform along the linear distance. Is the linear distance is more the loading is
more.
7. Determine the magnitude of the resultant force acting on the shaft shown. The length is 2m.
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a) 160N
b) 16N
c) 169N
d) 111N
View Answer
Answer: a
force.
8. If the non-Uniform loading is of the type of parabola then?
View Answer
Answer: d

force.
9. If any external force also is applied on the distributed loading then?
external forces
View Answer
Answer: d
Depending on the external forces.
10. The resultant force acting, of the uniformly distributed loading, is dependent on:
a) Area
b) Vertical distance
c) Length of the supports
d) The distance of the supports between them
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The resultant force acting, of the uniformly distributed loading, is dependent on the area
that the distribution is covering. The more the area the more is the force. That is the more is the
tension created over the structure on which loading is kept. Hence the answer.
11. The difference between the two types of loading namely uniformly distributed and the non-uniformly
distributed loading is that:
a) The latter has the involvement of the integration for the calculation of the net force
b) The former has the involvement of the integration for the calculation of the net force
c) The latter has the involvement of the differentiation for the calculation of the net force
d) The former has the involvement of the differentiation for the calculation of the net force
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The non-uniformly distributed loading is using the integration for getting the net force
given by it. And the former only need the area or the linear distance of the loading. That is when the
distance is multiplied by the uniformly distributed load the net force is obtained. But that is not so with
the non-uniform one.

12. Determine the location of the resultant force acting on the shaft shown from left. The length is 2m.
a) 1.5m
b) 0.5m
c) 0.7m
d) 1.8m
View Answer
Answer: a
force.
13. Determine the location of the resultant force acting on the shaft shown from left.
a) 4.5m
b) 4m
c) 3.5m
d) 2m
View Answer
Answer: b
force.

15. Determine the magnitude of the resultant force acting on the shaft shown from left.
a) 1650N
b) 150N
c) 1250N
d) 1450N
View Answer
Answer: a
force.
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Simple Trusses - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Simple Trusses – 1
« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Simple
Trusses – 1”
1. __________ is a structure made of slender members which are joined together at their end points.
a) Truss
b) Beam
c) Pillar
d) Support
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The truss is a structure made of slender members which are joined together at their end
points. They can be of wooden or steel. But most probably they are made from stainless steel. As they
need to support the loadings in various climates.
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2. _________ trusses lie on a plane.
a) Planar
b) 2D
c) Linear
d) 3D
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The planar trusses lie on a plane. Like for e.g. the trusses in the bridges. These trusses
are the main supports of the bridge. They are extended straight vertical and are strong enough to resist
various changes in the weather.
3. In a roof supporting truss the load is transmitted when ________
a) First to the truss then the joints through purlins
b) First to the purlins then the joints through trusses
c) First to the truss then the purlins through joints
d) First to the joints then the trusses through purlins
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The roof load is transmitted to the truss first. It is then transmitted to the joints. This
transmission of the force or the load from trusses to the joints is achieved by the purlins. Thus the
distribution of the load.
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4. As the loading is acting in the two dimensions, that is in a single plane. Thus the calculations involved
in the trusses are in 2D.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The loading is acting in a plane. Thus the calculations are done in 2D only. As the
equations for 3D are different. Although the use of vectors can make our task easy but still 2D
calculations are done for the trusses, as they are acting in a same plane.
5. In case of bridge the load is transferred when __________
a) Stringers > floor beams > joints
b) Floor beams > stringers > joints
c) Joints > floor beams > stringers
d) Stringers > joints > floor beams
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The bridge load is transmitted to the stringers first. It is then transmitted to the floor
beams. The load from beams is then transmitted to the joints. Thus the transmission of the load of the
bridge.
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6. As the loading in bridge different from the simple trusses the calculations involved in the bridges are all
2D calculations.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The loading in the bridge is acting in a plane. Thus the calculations are done in 2D only.
As the equations for 3D are different. Although the use of vectors can make our task easy but still 2D
calculations are done for the trusses, as they are acting in the same plane. But the thing is that the
loading in bridge and trusses are same.
7. When the bridges are extended over long routes or distance then _________
a) A rocker or a roller is used at the joints
b) They are not extended to such a long distance
c) The bridges are painted
d) The roads are made narrow
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When the bridges are extended over long routes or distance then a rocker or a roller is
used at the joints. This allows the bridge joints to move around. That is when the temperature is raised.
The elongations and the contractions of the joints part are not much affected if the rollers and rockers
are used.
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8. Find the force in the member RP of the frame shown below.

a) 707.1N
b) 500N
c) 505N
d) 784N
View Answer
Answer: b
the joints.
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9. To design the trusses which of the following rules is followed?
a) All the loads are applied by the use of cables
b) The loads are applied at the joints
c) All the loads are not applied at the joints

d) The loads are not applied at all to the joints
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The set of rules which are used to design the trusses are having various rules. To them,
one is that the loads are applied at the joints. This is done with the neglecting of the weight of the
trusses section.
10. The rules which are used to design the trusses are having various rules. Of them one is that the
smooth pins are not used to join the members.
a) Statement is correct
b) Statement is incorrect
c) Statement is incorrect because there are no rules
d) Statement is incorrect as the rolling pins are used
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The set of rules used to design the trusses are having various rules. Of them one is that
the smooth pins are used to join the members. The joint are generally formed by welding the materials
at the ends of the trusses. Which gives strength to the design.
a) 566N
b) 400N
c) 773N
d) 1090N
View Answer

Answer: d
the joints.
12. Find the force in the member QS of the frame shown below.
a) 566N
b) 400N
c) 773N
d) 1090N
View Answer
Answer: a
the joints.
13. A _________ truss is in triangular section.
a) Equilateral
b) Simple
c) Complex
d) Lateral
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A simple truss in the shape of a triangle. It is the equilateral triangle. That is the angle

between the legs are 60. This means the load is divided according and are equal in all the legs of the
truss. Hence the simple truss.
14. Find the force in the member PQ of the frame shown below.
a) 566N
b) 546N
c) 773N
d) 1090N
View Answer
Answer: b
the joints.
a) To know the direction of the unknown force we take the assumption of it
b) The direction of the unknown force is known to us already
c) The direction of the unknown can’t be determined
d) The direction of the unknown is of no use, it is not founded
View Answer
Answer: a
direction of the force and then we do the calculations accordingly.

and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Soil Properties - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Soil Properties
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Soil
Properties”.
1. Most soils have a particle density of about:
a) 2.6 g/cc
b) 2.9 g/cc
c) 2.5 g/cc
d) 2.7 g/cc
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Particle density is mass per unit volume of soil particles. It is expressed in g/cc and most
soils have 2.6 g/cc as particle density.
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2. Soil exists in how many states?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Soil can exist in four states based on the amount of water content. They are liquid, plastic,
semi solid and solid state. Water content decreases with each state.
3. In oven drying method for determination of water content, temperature maintained is:
a) 100-105oC
b) 150-160oC
c) 105-110oC
d) 110-120oC
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An optimum and constant temperature of 105-110oC is to be maintained in the oven. The
specimen is kept for about 24 hours to ensure proper drying.
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4. A soil generally consists of combination of __________ separates.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The mineral components of soil are termed as separates. These are three of them – clay,
silt and sand. Various soils are designated based on the proportion of separates.
5. Loose soil has a relative density within a range of:
a) 60-85
b) 85-100
c) 10-35
d) 35-60
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Relative density is used to express relative compactness of cohesionless soil. It ranges
from <10 to 100 (very loose to very dense). Loose soil has a relative density between 10 and 35.
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6. _________ apparatus is used to test liquid limit of a soil.
a) Mohr
b) Casagrande
c) Otto
d) Terzaghi
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The water content at which soil changes from liquid to plastic state is liquid limit.
Casagrande apparatus consists of a rubber base and brass cup. Sample is filled in a cup, subjected to
blows by rotating handle at 2 revolutions per second. Water content corresponding to 25 blows is the
liquid limit.
7. How many tests in the lab can be performed to get permeability of soil?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The two tests are constant head permeability test and variable head permeability test.
The constant head permeability test is done for highly permeable soil and the other one for fine grained
soil.
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8. Soil with higher Ic (consistency index) is a better foundation material.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If two soils are to be compared, based on Ic, then higher value one is better foundation
material. If Ic < 0, natural water content < liquid limit and soil would behave like liquid. This is not a
desired property for foundation material.
9. How many types of pores are present in a soil mass?
a) 6
b) 3
c) 5
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The five types are macropore (too large, >75μm), mesopore (30-75μm), micropore (5-
30μm), ultramicropore (0.1-30μm) and cryptopore (smallest, < 0.1 μm).
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10. How many grades of soil are there?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 7
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Based on the degree of distinctness of peds (natural aggregates of soil particles), there
are 4 grades of soil. They are structureless, weak, moderate and strong.
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Solid Waste Management - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Solid Waste Management
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Solid
Waste Management”.
1. How many major sources of solid waste are there based on their origin?
a) 10
b) 5
c) 9
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are broadly 9 sources of solid waste. They are residential, industrial, commercial,
institutional, construction & demolition areas, municipal services, treatment plants, agriculture and
biomedical.
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2. Which of the below is not an idea behind solid waste management?
a) Control of waste generation
b) Storage and collection
c) Disposal
d) Stop waste generation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The generation of solid waste cannot be stopped. The idea behind solid waste
management is to reduce and eliminate the adverse effects of these on the environment and human
health.
3. The number of functional components of solid waste management is:
a) 5
b) 3
c) 6
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The six functional components in order are waste generation (identification of waste),
onsite handling & storage (at site of waste), waste collection (collecting from different sources), waste
transfer (local to regional site), waste processing (sorting of reusable/recyclable) and disposal (at
landfills/waste to energy).
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4. The term ISWM refers to:
a) International Solid Waste Management
b) Integrated Solid Waste Management
c) Integrated Solid Waste Machine
d) International Solid Waste Mechanism
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It stands for Integrated Solid Waste Management. It refers to the selection and use of
appropriate techniques for the disposal of solid waste.
5. Under which rule of Government, guidelines for solid waste management are followed today?
a) Municipal Solid Waste Rules, 2000
b) Municipal Solid Waste Rules, 2016
c) Solid Waste Rules, 2000
d) Solid Waste Rules, 2016
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: At present, we have to follow the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016. This new rule
was notified on 8th April 2016 and it supersedes the Municipal Solid Waste Rules, 2000. This new sets
of rules have been extended to all Indian local bodies.
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6. The average composition of Municipal solid waste is:
a) 41% organic, 40% inert & 19% recyclable
b) 20% organic, 60% inert & 20% recyclable
c) 30% organic, 20% inert & 50% recyclable
d) 19% organic, 41% inert & 40% recyclable
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The bulk of organic waste arrives from households and agriculture. The inert waste is
generated from construction sites, demolitions, public places, etc.
7. There are __________ ways to treat waste thermally.
a) 5
b) 3
c) 2
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The process which use heat to treat the waste are referred to as a thermal treatment.
These include incineration (combustion of waste & recover energy for electricity/heating), pyrolysis
(decomposition of organic waste with low oxygen and high temperature), and open burning
(environmentally harmful and mostly practical).
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8. How many types of landfills are there?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 5
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: They are sanitary landfills, controlled dumps and bioreactor landfills. Sanitary landfills are
the most common and are situated where the land features aid in decomposition. Controlled dumps
are well planned sites and bioreactor landfills use a superior microbiological process for
decomposition.
9. Bio-medical waste can be effectively managed by the thermal process.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The thermal process uses heat in varying temperatures to disinfect the pathogens
present. Autoclave & microwave process uses low heat whereas incinerator and hydroclaring use high
heat to render the waste pathogen free.
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10. The WHO has classified the bio-medical waste into ___________ categories.
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The WHO has classified these into 4 categories- infectious (waste from surgeries and any
material containing pathogens), pathological (tissues/organs/drugs, etc which are not required),
radioactive (contaminated with a radioactive substance) and others (waste from hospital
housekeeping/kitchen).
11. Which gas produced in open dumps from the decomposition of biodegradable waste?
a) Ethane
b) Methane
c) Propene
d) Ethene
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Methane is released by the decomposition under anaerobic conditions. This can cause
fires and explosions and promote global warming too.
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Source & Classification of Sand - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Source and Classification of Sand
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Source
and Classification of Sand”.
1. What is sand composed of?
a) Silica
b) Silicon
c) Silicon oxide
d) Quartz
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sand is composed of small grains of silica (SiO2). It’s also called silicon dioxide.
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2. Which of the following sand type is excellent for use in mortar and concrete work?
a) Sea sand
file:///E:/Source & Classification of Sand - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry.html 1/7
b) Clayey sand
c) Pit sand
d) River sand
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pit sand doesn’t contain any salts and has sharp, angular grains. These are the desired
properties for a sand to be used for mortar and concrete.
3. At what depth should pit sand be excavated from?
a) 1 – 2 m from bed of water body
b) 1 – 2 m from ground surface
c) 1 – 2 cm from bed of water body
d) 1 – 2 cm from ground surface
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pit sand is found in Earth in deposits. It is obtained by forming pits in the soil. At a depth
of 1 – 2 m from the ground surface, angular grained pit sand is obtained.
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4. Which IS code gives the grading of sand?
a) IS 456
b) IS 383
c) IS 2368
d) IS 1542
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: IS code 383-1970 gives the classification of sand based on the grading. There are 4
grading zones. For each sieve size, there is a specific % of particle passing through that sieve,
denoted in the respective zone.
5. What type of grains constitutes river sand?
a) Angular
b) Flaky
c) Irregular
d) Rounded
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: River sand is constituted of fine round grains. These are the result of mutual attrition
under the effect of water current. It is naturally occurring, clean and mostly white in colour.
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6. Sand is a fine grained component in soil.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sand size lies in the range 4.75 mm to 75 microns. A fine grained component of a soil has
a size less than 75 microns.
7. How many classifications are there for sand based on the grain size distribution?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 5
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are three types of sands based on grain size distribution. They are fine (passes
through 1.5875 mm sieve), coarse (passes through 3.175 mm sieve) and gravelly sand (passes
through 7.62 mm sieve).
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8. Fine sand is generally used for which of the following works?
a) Masonry
b) Concrete structures
c) Plastering
d) Grinding and polishing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Plastering is the act of applying a layer of plaster over a wall. It gives the wall a smooth
and decorative appearance. Hence, for achieving the smoothness, fine grained sand is employed.
9. How is M-sand produced?
a) Crushing bricks
b) Quarrying
c) Reusing the debris of demolished building
d) Crushing granite stones
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: M-sand stands for Manufactured sand and contains cubical grains with grounded edges.
These are the perfect replacement for sand to be used in construction works.
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10. Which one of the following is not an advantage of using M-sand?
a) Cost effective
b) Available in single size
c) Dust and impurity free
d) Can be obtained from hard rock
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: M-sand is obtained by crushing specific hard rock and since it’s manufactured in factories,
any size can be manufactured depending on the need.
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Source & Classification of Stones Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Source and Classification of Stones
Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Source
and Classification of Stones”.
1. Stones are obtained from rocks that are made up of:
a) Ores
b) Minerals
c) Chemical compounds
d) Crystals
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Rocks are made up of minerals. They can be monomineralic (single mineral) or
polymineralic (more than one mineral).
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2. Which one of the following is not a classification of stones?
a) Physical Classification
b) Mineralogical Classification
c) Chemical Classification
d) Practical Classification
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The classifications of stones are physical (based on structure), chemical (based on
chemical composition), practical (based on usage) and geological (based on the mode of origin).
Mineralogical classification is not a means of classifying stones in general. It’s called chemical
classification.
3. The hot molten material occurring naturally below the surface of the Earth is called:
a) Lava
b) Slag
c) Magma
d) Tuff
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hot molten material is called Lava when it erupts from a volcano and reaches the surface.
Slag is waste material from the smelting of ore. Tuff is a porous rock formed by a consolidation of
volcanic ash.
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4. At what depth and rate is a hypabyssal rock formed?
a) Slow cooling of magma at considerable depth
b) Quick cooling of magma at a shallow depth
c) Rapid cooling of magma at Earth’s surface
d) Rapid cooling of magma at a shallow depth
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Plutonic rocks are formed by slow cooling of magma at considerable depth. Volcanic
rocks are formed near the surface of Earth by rapid cooling of magma. Hypabyssal rocks are formed at
a quick rate of cooling of magma at considerably shallow depths.
5. What is a sedimentary deposit?
a) Weathered product remains at site
b) Weathered product carried away in solution
c) Weathered product gets carried away agents
d) Insoluble weathered product is carried away in suspension
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Weathered product remains at site is called residual deposit. Weathered product carried
away in solution is chemical deposit and Weathered product gets carried away agents is organic
deposit.
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6. Which factor disturbs the equilibrium of rocks, commencing metamorphism?
a) Increase in temperature
b) Decrease in temperature and pressure
c) Increase in temperature and pressure
d) Decrease in pressure
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Rocks are stable at a temperature below 200°C and at the pressure existing. Any
increase in above two factors can initiate the process of metamorphism. One factor alone is not
sufficient to start metamorphism.
7. Which of the following is not a metamorphic change?
a) Calcite to schist
b) Limestone to marble
c) Shale to slate
d) Granite to gneisses
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Calcite is a carbonate mineral whereas schist is a metamorphic rock formed by

metamorphosis of mudstone/shale to the higher degree than slate.
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8. Which of the following rocks are hard and durable?
a) Argillaceous rocks

b) Siliceous rocks
c) Calcareous rocks
d) Carbonaceous rocks
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Silica predominates in siliceous rock and is less affected by weathering
and hence are hard and durable compared to argillaceous (clay), calcareous (calcium carbonate) or
carbonaceous (carbon).
9. Foliated structure is very common in case of:
a) Sedimentary rocks
b) Plutonic rocks
c) Igneous rocks
d) Metamorphic rocks
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Foliated rocks can split up into layers along a definite direction only. Sedimentary rocks
are generally stratified and igneous rocks are unstratified.
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10. Granite is a type of:
a) Plutonic rock
b) Metamorphic rock
c) Hypabyssal rock

d) Volcanic rock
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Granite is formed at a slow rate of cooling of magma at considerable depths and so is a
type of plutonic rock.
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7/28/2021 Space Trusses - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Space Trusses
« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Space
Trusses”.
1. __________ is a structure made of slender members which are joined together at their end points.
a) Space Truss
b) Pillar
c) Beam
d) Support
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The space truss is a structure made of slender members which are joined together at their
end points. They can be of wooden or steel. But most probably they are made from stainless steel. As
they need to support the loadings in various climates.
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2. As the loading is acting in the three dimensions, that is in multi planes. Thus the calculations involved
in the trusses are in 3D.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The loading is acting in a 3D plane. Thus the calculations are done in 3D only. As the
equations for 3D are different. The use of vectors can make our task easy. Using 2D can make the
calculations but it’s a hectic job. Thus a 3D problem requires using the 3D equations to find the
necessary data.
3. Which of the following is correct for space trusses?
a) To know the direction of the unknown force we take assumption of it
b) The direction of the unknown force is known to us already
c) The direction of the unknown can’t be determined
d) The direction of the unknown is of no use, it is not founded
View Answer
Answer: a
the force and then we do the calculations accordingly.
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4. Find the force in the member RQ.

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a) 750N
b) 450N
c) 250N
d) 200N
View Answer
Answer: b
the joints.
5. _________ trusses lie on a 3D volume.
a) Planar
b) 2D

c) Linear
d) 3D
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The planar trusses lie on a plane while the space truss in 3D volume. Like for e.g. the
trusses in the bridges. These trusses are the main supports of the bridge. They are extended straight
vertical and are strong enough to resist various changes in the weather.
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6. In case of bridge the load is transferred as:

a) Stringers > floor beams > joints
b) Floor beams > stringers > joints
c) Joints > floor beams > stringers
d) Stringers > joints > floor beams
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The bridge load is transmitted to the stringers first. It is then transmitted to the floor
beams. The load from beams is then transmitted to the joints. Thus the transmission of the load of the
bridge.
7. To design the space trusses which of the following rules is followed?
a) All the loads are applied by the use of cables
b) The loads are applied at the joints
c) All the loads are not applied at the joints

d) The loads are not applied at all to the joints
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The set of rules which are used to design the trusses are having various rules. To them,
one is that the loads are applied at the joints. This is done with the neglecting of the weight of the
trusses section.
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8. The rules which are used to design the space trusses are having various rules. Of them, one is that the
smooth pins are not used to join the members.
a) Statement is correct
b) Statement is incorrect
c) Statement is incorrect because there are no rules
d) Statement is incorrect as the rolling pins are used
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The set of rules used to design the trusses are having various rules. Of them one is that
the smooth pins are used to join the members. The joint is generally formed by welding the materials at
the ends of the trusses. Which gives strength to the design.
9. In a roof supporting space truss, the load is transmitted as:
a) First to the truss then the joints through purlins
b) First to the purlins then the joints through trusses
c) First to the truss then the purlins through joints

d) First to the joints then the trusses through purlins
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The roof load is transmitted to the truss first. It is then transmitted to the joints. This
transmission of the force or the load from trusses to the joints is achieved by the purlins. Thus the
distribution of the load.
10. The free body diagram of which part of the section of the space truss is made to make use of the
method of joints?
a) Joints
b) Truss
d) The combination of joint and the whole structure
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The free body diagram of joints part of the section of the truss is made to make use of
method of joints. Various equations of equilibrium are made to do the calculations. The net force acting
on the vertical direction is made zero. Also horizontal direction forces are made to be zero.
a) 566N
b) 400N
c) 773N
d) 1090N
View Answer

Answer: d
12. We use the method of a joint to find the forces acting over the joints in the space trusses. In this we
start from the joint having at least one known force and at the most two unknown forces.
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: This makes the calculations easy. Also for the solving of any equation one requires equal
number of variables as that of equal number of an equation. So to do the calculations easily the above
mentioned conditions are followed.
13. As space trusses are used in bridges. When the bridges are extended over long routes or distance
then:
a) A rocker or a roller is used at the joints
b) They are not extended to such a long distance
c) The bridges are painted
d) The roads are made narrow
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When the bridges are extended over long routes or distance then a rocker or a roller is
used at the joints. This allows the bridge joints to move around. That is when the temperature is raised.
The elongations and the contractions of the joints part are not much affected if the rollers and rockers
are used.
14. What is after taking the assumption of the direction of the force in space trusses, the direction comes
opposite?
a) The assumption made was wrong and the question can’t be solved further
b) The assumptions are not to be taken
c) The direction is in the opposite sense, and hence the direction is known to us
d) The direction will be already given to us, no need of assuming
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The direction is comes opposite, means that the assumption was wrong. But that doesn’t
means that the question can’t be solved further. One needs to change the sign of the direction and the
question is solved. Thus the calculations of the force direction.
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7/28/2021 Stairs - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Stairs
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Stairs”.
1. The vertical portion between each tread on the stair is called:
a) Going
b) Nosing
c) Winder
d) Riser
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Tread is the place where we step on. It is the horizontal portion. The vertical distance
between consecutive treads is called the riser. It may or may not be present (open stair effect).
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a) Dog-legged stairs
b) Turning stairs
c) Straight stairs
d) Well stairs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is the most common stairs in schools, houses, other buildings. The flights are at right
angles.
3. Baluster in a stair is the _________ member supporting _________
a) Horizontal, handrail
b) Vertical, landing
c) Vertical, handrail
d) Horizontal, landing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The baluster is usually wooden or metallic. It is a vertical member provided at specific
intervals and is used to support the handrail.
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4. How many types of stairs are there based on the material?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 8
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The five materials used in stairs are stone, metal, wood, R.C.C. and brick.
5. Speed of an escalator is usually:
a) 10-20m/min
b) 30-45m/min
c) 40-50m/min
d) 25-30m/min
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Escalators are electronically moving stairs. They can carry heavy traffic of people. The
speed is kept at a minimal of 25-30m/min so that people of all age groups can access it.
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6. The space housing the stairs is called:
a) Staircase

b) Stair room
c) Stair head
d) Stair space
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Staircase is also used to refer to the stairs, handrail, balusters, other structures as a
whole. The space housing and all these are also called staircase.
7. Which IS code gives details about wooden stairs?
a) IS 2634
b) IS 2643
c) IS 1634
d) IS 1643
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: IS 1634 gives the code of practice for the design and construction of wooden stairs for
houses.
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8. __________ stairs are a variation of L shaped stairs.
a) Winder
b) Spiral
c) Half turn

d) Switch back
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: L shaped stairs have a bend, at 90o usually. The bend is achieved by adding a flat
landing at the bend transition point. In winder stairs, instead of a flat landing, triangle steps are
provided.
9. The decorative cap to the top of a newel post is called:
a) Finial
b) Fillet
c) Easing
d) Apron
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Newel post is a large baluster used to anchor the handrail. It is usually given a decorative
cap to hold on to and is called a Finial.
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10. How many types of stone stairs are used?
a) 2
b) 5
c) 4
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: These stairs are used in places where durable and hard stones are available locally. The
five types are rectangular, spandril, tread and riser, cantilevered tread and built up steps.
11. After how many stairs is a landing provided in public, residential places?
a) 18
b) 20
c) 12
d) 16
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Generally, after 10 to 12 steps a landing is to be provided. A person can comfortably walk
10-12 steps without getting exhausted. A landing can be given after a maximum of 16 steps and not
more than that. A floor requires 2 flights.
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Stone Masonry - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Stone Masonry
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Stone
Masonry”.
1. Which stone is used for buildings situated in industrial towns?
a) Marble slab
b) Compact sandstone
c) Gneiss
d) Slate
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Granite and compact sandstone are generally used for buildings situated in
industrial towns. Marble slab and slate are used for electrical switch boards and gneiss is used for
heavy engineering works.
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2. Rubble masonry is sub-divided into:
a) 4
b) 2
c) 6
d) 10
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Rubble masonry uses stones of irregular size. The sub groups are coursed, uncoursed,
random rubble, dry rubble, polygonal and flint rubble.
a) Coursed rubble masonry I
b) Coursed rubble masonry II
c) Coursed rubble masonry III
d) Coursed rubble masonry IV
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In type I, stones of the same height are to be used and courses are of the same height. In
type III, stones are to be of different height, course height need not be equal. In type II, as the figure
indicates, stones are of different height, course is of equal height.
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4. In random rubble masonry sort I, face stones are:
a) Chisel dressed
b) Hammer dressed
c) Axe dressed
d) Plain dressed
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In random rubble masonry sort I, face stones are chisel dressed and thickness of mortar
joints does not exceed 6mm.
5. Flints used in flint rubble masonry are:
a) Nodules of fly ash
b) Nodules of feldspar
c) Nodules of mica
d) Nodules of silica
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Flints are irregularly shaped nodules of silica. The width and thickness varies from 80-
15cm and length from 15-30cm.
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6. Which of the below joints is used for masonry in arches?
a) Butt
b) Table
c) Rebated
d) Dowel
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The rebated joints involves a double L shape ( |—-| )of 2 stone blocks. It ensures proper
grip and is used in arches, stones laid on slopes.
7. Which ratio of cement mortar is used for stone masonry?
a) 1:6
b) 1:3
c) 1:8
d) 1:4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Generally, 1:3 is the ratio used for cement mortar to be used in stone masonry. 15% of
cement can be replaced by lime to improve workability.
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8. Ashlar masonry uses:
a) Dimension stones
b) Polygonal stones
c) Quarry dressed stones
d) Square stones
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ashlar masonry uses dressed and faced stones. These are cut into proper dimensions
and called dimension stones. It can be of any size, shape as per requirements.
9. __________ masonry occupies an intermediate position between rubble masonry and ashlar masonry.
a) Rubble block in a course
b) Ashlar rubble in course
c) Ashlar block in a course
d) Rubble ashlar in course
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The stones are hammer dressed and thickness of mortar joints does not exceed 6mm.
Depth of course may vary from 20-30cm. It is used for heavy engineering works.
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10. Great skill and skilled labour are required for laying:
a) Coursed rubble masonry
b) Ashlar fine masonry
c) Ashlar chamfered masonry
d) Dry rubble masonry
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In dry rubble masonry, mortar is not used. Great skill is required to arrange different sized
and shaped stones in such a way that they don’t roll down or fall down after a while.
11. Which of the below is not to be followed for stone masonry construction?
a) Header stones are dumb-bell shaped
b) Properly cured for 2-3 weeks
c) Construction to be raised uniformly
d) Wetted stones to be used
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The header and bond stones in stone masonry are not to be of dumb-bell shape. IS code
1597 gives the general guidelines to be followed by laying the stone in stone masonry.
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7/28/2021 Stones Properties - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Properties of Stones
« Prev Next »
of Stones”.
1. For a good building stone how much is the required crushing strength?
a) Less than 50 N/mm2
b) Greater than 100 N/mm2
c) 155 N/mm2
d) 10 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Crushing strength or compressive strength of a stone is the load per unit area at which
the stone starts cracking. It should be greater than 100 N/mm2 to ensure sufficient strength for use in
construction.
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2. Which of the following is a good fire-resistant stone?
a) Clay
b) Granite
c) Quartz
d) Limestone
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Granite and Quartz undergo sudden expansion and flies into splinters. Limestone gets
easily crumbled. Clay can withstand higher temperature and is used in pizza ovens, fireplaces, etc…
3. What is a freestone?
a) Stone free from impurities
b) Stone that doesn’t require dressing
c) Metamorphic stone
d) Stone free from veins and planes of cleavage
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: For the ease of quarrying a stone must be soft, compact-grained, homogeneous, free
from veins and planes of cleavage.
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4. Why are stones with lighter shades of colour preferred?
a) Easy to clean
b) Easily available
c) Don’t spoil the appearance
d) Darker shades are heavier
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Even if the stone fades a little bit it will not show a striking difference and doesn’t spoil the
look of it. They don’t need to be painted or maintained much compared to darker shades.
5. Hardness is an important parameter considered in the construction of:
a) Slabs
b) Walls
c) Bridges
d) Arches
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It’s required in structures subjected to heavy loading. Bridge is one such structure. Slabs,
walls and arches are not subjected to heavy loadings as a bridge.
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6. What is the required specific gravity for a good building stone?
a) Greater than 2.7
b) Less than 3
c) Greater than 3
d) Less than 2.7
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As per IS standards. Heavy stones are used in the construction of abutments, dams,
docks. Lighter ones are used in building construction.
7. The percentage absorption by weight of a good stone, after how many hours should not exceed .6?
a) 6 hrs
b) 12 hrs
c) 48 hrs
d) 24 hrs
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As per IS standards, 24 hrs is the time a stone has to be immersed in water to check for
water absorption. Time less or more than this would not result in providing the appropriate data.
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8. What texture should a building stone possess?
a) Loose grains
b) Crystalline structure
c) Cavities
d) Cracks
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Texture is the grains composing the stone in the strata. Crystalline structure is the
required texture. Other options are undesired textures.
9. Seasoning is required for stones.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A stone should be properly dried before using for structural works. The sap contained in
freshly quarried stones will make them soft and lead to decay eventually.
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10. Toughness index of a good stone should be more than:
a) 17
b) 18
c) 13
d) 19
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Toughness is the ability to resist impact forces. A good building stone should have high
toughness index to resist vibrations from machinery, moving loads, etc…
11. A percentage wear of 3% indicates a good stone.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A percentage wear of less than 3% indicates a non-satisfactory stone. A percentage wear
of 3% indicates a tolerable stone and greater than 3% indicates a good quality stone.
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7/28/2021 Structures Types - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Types of Structures
« Prev Next »
Structures”.
1. Pyramid is a type of ___________ structure.
a) Triangulated
b) Massive
c) Pneumatic
d) Framed
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Massive or lintelled structure is built with a large amount of materials. It can take up
compression efficiently and has very few spaces.
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2. Pneumatic structure contains:
a) Metal
b) Water
c) Wood
d) Compressed air
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Compressed air is filled inside a pneumatic structure. It is light and can be deflated and
dismantled easily. It is used in fun, activity area for kids.
3. Vault is an architectural term for:
a) Cable
b) Bridges
c) Arch
d) Dam
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Vault is an arched form used to provide high ceiling spaces. There can be barrel vault or
continuous vaults.
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4. How many types of frame structures are there?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The 2 main types are rigid frame structure and braced frame structure. Both of these are
further sub-divided into two.
5. Which of the below is a disadvantage of frame structure?
a) Ease of construction
b) Economy
c) Speed of construction
d) Span length
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Span length is usually restricted to 40ft when normal R.C.C. is used. Spans greater than
this can cause lateral deflections.
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6. In frame structure, what transfers the load to columns?
a) Foundation
b) Beams
c) Slabs
d) Roofs
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The load bearing action in a framed structure is as follows- slab to a beam, beam to
column, column to foundation.
7. In a truss structure, _________ bear tension.
a) Joints
b) Base
c) Bottom chords
d) Top chords
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The bottom beams are called bottom chords and are capable of bearing tension. The top
chords bear compression.
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a) Warren truss
b) Pratt truss
c) King post truss
d) Lattice truss
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Warren truss consists of series of equilateral triangles, alternating up and down as shown
in the figure.
9. Shell structure does not have any:
a) Bending moment
b) Shear stress
c) Tensile stress
d) Compressive stress
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is a thin structure. It resists and transfers loads within its minimal thickness. Loads
applied to it are carried to ground by tensile, shear and compressive forces.
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10. ___________ structure is a space truss geometry inspired.
a) Quadric
b) Quadron
c) Quadror
d) Quadrangle
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This structure uses 4 identical L-shaped pieces which results in a trestle structure and
allows flexible and versatile design. It allows for rapid assembly. It can be used as road barriers,
interior column, interior partitions, etc.
11. Triangulated structure is used for:
a) Wall
b) Bridges
c) Arch
d) High rise buildings
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Triangulated structure is also referred to as truss. It is widely used in roofing. It is also
employed in bridges.
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Sustainable Engineering - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Sustainable Engineering
« Prev Next »
“Sustainable Engineering”.
1. Carbon footprint can be measured by:
a) Carbon dating
b) Instruments
c) Carbon accounting
d) Formula
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Carbon footprint is the total set of greenhouse gas emissions caused by an individual,
event, organisation or product. It is expressed as carbon dioxide equivalent. It can be measured by
assessment of GHG (greenhouse gas) levels or activities like carbon accounting.
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2. How many types of ecological pyramids are there?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ecological pyramid is a graphical representation used to show bio productivity at each
trophic level. The three types are the pyramid of energy, pyramid of numbers and pyramid of biomass.
3. A legally binding agreement between 2 or more nation states relating to environment is:
a) BEA
b) BA
c) MA
d) MEA
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: MEA stand for Multilateral Environmental Agreement. When it is between 2 nation states,
it is BEA – Bilateral Environmental Agreement. These are predominantly produced by the United
Nations.
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4. _________ is a programme run by UN related to sustainable development.
a) GHG indicator
b) Agenda 21
c) IPCC
d) UNEP
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Agenda 21 is a comprehensive blueprint of action to be taken globally, nationally and

locally by governments of member nations of UN and those major groups in every area in which
humans impact on the environment.
5. For a gold LEED certification, how many points are required?
a) 40-49
b) 60-79
c) 50-59
d) 80-110
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: LEED is Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design. It has four levels – certified
(40-49 points), silver (50-59), gold (60-79) and platinum (80-110 points).
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6. Which of the below green building in India has received a platinum LEED certification?
a) Dabur India, Chandigarh
b) Logix Cyber Park, UP
c) Unitech Commercial Tower, Chandigarh
d) Suzlon One Earth, Pune
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: This building can accommodate 2300 people, has used low energy materials, thus
reducing carbon footprint. 90% of occupied space has access to natural daylight.
7. ________ is the conventional source for hydel power.
a) Tidal wave
b) Currents
c) Water
d) Ripples
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydel power is obtained from a high velocity of running water. It is abundantly present. It
is used for a longer period of time. It is an exceptional case of conventional energy.
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8. The first academic publication about ecological footprints was in:
a) 1992
b) 1990
c) 1993
d) 1994
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: William Rees published the first ecological footprint in 1992. The concept and calculation
was developed as the PhD dissertation of Mathis Wackernagel under Rees’ supervision from 1990-
1994.
9. Which of the below is a global scale environmental issue?
a) Eutrophication
b) Regional ozone
c) Climate change
d) Pollution
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: These are three scales of environmental issues – local, regional and global. Climate
change, global warming, stratospheric ozone less, etc. are all issues at a global level.
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10. Carbon can be stored in organic matter in the form of:
a) Biomass
b) Biofuel
c) Bioenergy
d) Bio carbon
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is stored in the roots of trees and organic matter for decades in the form of biomass.
The carbon from these are released into the atmosphere on decomposition.
11. The ‘Miracle Material’ that can turn CO2 into liquid fuel is:
a) Propene
b) Copper
c) Graphene
d) Potassium
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Graphene quantum dots can recycle waste CO2 to fuel. Scientist Pulickel Ajayan has
shown the conversion of CO2 into ethylene and ethanol using electro catalysis in lab conditions.
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Three Dimensional Force System - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Three Dimensional Force System
« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Three
Dimensional Force System”.
1. What is not the condition for the equilibrium in three dimensional system of axis?
a) ∑Fx=0
b) ∑Fy=0
c) ∑Fz=0
d) ∑F≠0
View Answer
Answer: d
non-zero value.
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2. We first make equilibrium equations and then the free body diagram and then solve the question.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
region is the cables holding the weight of 600N at the origin. Find the tension in the AD section.
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a) 900N
b) 693N
c) 646N
d) 0N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the system is in equilibrium so we need to balance the forces. So when applying the
AD be 900N.
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region is the cables holding the weight of 600N at origin. Find the tension in the AB section.
a) 900N
b) 693N
c) 646N
d) 0N
View Answer
Answer: b
condition of net force to be zero in the y direction, we get FAB cos30 = (2/3)*900. This gives us force
along AB be 693N.
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a) 23.6N
b) 55N
c) 89N
d) -29N
View Answer
Answer: a
23.6N.
6. Determine the value of the q, parallel to the z-axis. That is the point of intersection of the projections of
the points A, B and C parallel to the xy plane. With the distance between the tri-section point and the
a) 51.9cm
b) 51.9mm
c) 51.9m
d) 5.19mm
View Answer
Answer: a
7. ∑Fx=0, ∑Fy=0 and ∑Fz=0 are vector equations.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
8. When the body is in equilibrium then which of the following is true?
a) We equate all the components of the forces acting on the body equal to their resultant vector’s
magnitude
b) We equate all the components of the forces acting on the body equal to their resultant vector’s
magnitude square
c) We equate all the components of the forces acting on the body equal to their resultant vector’s
magnitude square root
d) We equate all the components of the forces acting on the body equal to zero
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Yes, we equate all the components of the three axis equal to zero. That is the resultant of
the forces along the three axis are being equated to zero. This brings in that there is no net force in any
direction. Hence equilibrium.
net force to zero.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
View Answer
Answer: a
11. An electromagnet crane is carrying the electromagnet with the help of the three cables. But the
electromagnet is not stable because of the wind. What is science behind the cause?
a) The wind is making the net force of the body equal to a non-zero value
b) The wind is making the net force of the body equal to zero value
c) The wind is making the net force of the body equal to a non-zero value but is supporting the
equilibrium
d) The wind is making the net force of the body equal to zero value and supporting equilibrium
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Anybody is in equilibrium only if the net force along the three axis is zero. But in this case,
the wind is not helping the body to do so. The science behind this is that the resultant forces are being
equated to a non-zero value by the wind. Hence unstable.
12. If anybody is tied to three or more ropes, and then is allowed to achieve its equilibrium. Then the
equilibrium achieved is achieved w.r.t what?
a) The three axis of the body
b) The ground
c) The ropes direction
d) The weight direction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Yes, the equilibrium is being achieved w.r.t the ground. Like the motion, w.r.t ground need
be zero. That is the relative velocity of the object or the body must be zero w.r.t the ground. This means
motion is in equilibrium.
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7/28/2021 Three Dimensions Equilibrium - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Equilibrium in Three Dimensions
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“Equilibrium in Three Dimensions”.
1. A force is developed by a support that not allows the ________ of its attached member.
a) Translation
b) Rotation
c) Addition
d) Subtraction
View Answer
Answer: a
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region is the cables holding the weight of 600N at the origin. Find the tension in the AD section.
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a) 900N
b) 693N
c) 646N
d) 0N
View Answer
Answer: a
AD be 900N.
3. A couple moment is developed when _______ of the attached member is prevented.
a) Translation
b) Rotation
c) Addition
d) Subtraction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The development of the couple moment is when there is a prevention of the rotation of the
of the body.
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then the free body diagram is made and solved.
View Answer
Answer: d
body is achieved its state of equilibrium.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
but still the result is a scalar, hence the equations are scalar.
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6. The supports in the 3D are having more than three reaction forces. Because they are having three axis
on which the components of the forces need to be zero.
View Answer
Answer: d
the forces.
7. The single pin, single bearing and single hinge resist _______
a) Force
b) Couple moments
c) Both force and couple moments
d) Inertia
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The experiments have founded that the single pin, single bearing and single hinge resist
both force and couple moments. This does helps in attaining the equilibrium of the body. Thus proper
guiding must be taken during solving the question on the same.
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8. If the supports are properly aligned then the reaction forces developed are adequate to support the
body.
c) Statement is true throughout
View Answer
Answer: c
equilibrium. It is achieved by equating the net force equal to zero.
a) 23.6N
b) 55N
c) 89N
d) -29N
View Answer
Answer: a
23.6N.
10. Determine the value of the q, parallel to the z axis. That is the point of intersection of the projections
of the points A, B and C parallel to the xy plane. With the distance between the tri-section point and the
a) 51.9cm
b) 51.9mm
c) 51.9m
d) 5.19mm
View Answer
Answer: a
11. If the supports are not properly aligned then the reaction forces developed are adequate to support
the body.
c) Statement is false throughout
View Answer
Answer: c
equilibrium. It is achieved by equating the net force equal to zero. But here the system is not properly
aligned.
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7/28/2021 Tiles Types - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Types of Tiles
« Prev Next »
Tiles”.
1. Quarry tile is also called:
a) Granite tile
b) Unglazed ceramic tile
c) Stone tile
d) Workshop tiles
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Ceramic tile can be glazed or unglazed. Quarry tile is another name for unglazed ceramic
tile. It is durable, cheap and natural.
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2. Which tile is the most versatile?
a) Porcelain
b) Shale
c) Slate
d) Granite
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Slate can be used as roofing shingles, it can be used indoors as well as outdoors,
because of its natural looks and range of colours.
3. _________ is used for skirting around bathtubs and mosaics?
a) Sandstone
b) Travertine
c) Granite
d) Onyx
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Onyx has a creamy, pearl like look. It is not commonly used for flooring but can be
employed for skirting around bathtubs and mosaics.
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4. Drain tiles are suitable for laying in waterlogged areas because:
a) Porous nature
b) Waterproof
c) Economic
d) Easy installation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: These are prepared in such a way that even after burning, they are able to retain their
porous nature.
5. Which type of tile is suitable for air-conditioned rooms, gymnasiums and skating rinks?
a) Wood tiles
b) Cork tiles
c) Ceramic tiles
d) Concrete tiles
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wooden tiles are widely used in such places. They are given a protective coating of
varnish. They provide thermal comfort and are durable.
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6. How many layers is the encaustic tile made up of?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The body is made of coarser clay, face of finer clay and colouring material and back of
thin coat of clay to prevent warping.
7. The lower tile in Allahabad tiles is:
a) Round
b) Flat
c) Rectangular
d) Curved
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Allahabad tiles consist of 2 sets of tiles. Upper one is half round in section and the lower
one is flat.
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8. How many Mangalore tiles are required to cover 1 square metre of roof?
a) 20
b) 18
c) 10
d) 16
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The size of conventional Mangalore tile is either of the following:- 410x235mm or
420x250mm or 425x260mm. Approximately 16 tiles can be used in one meter square of a roof.
9. Which IS code gives classifications of ceramic tile?
a) IS 13712
b) IS 13630
c) IS 2248
d) IS 654
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: IS 13712 gives details regarding definitions, classifications, characteristics and marking of
ceramic tile.
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10. Pan tiles are semi-circular in section.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pan tiles are curved in section. Pot tiles are semi-circular in section and taper along the
length.
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Timber Classification - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Classification of Timber
« Prev Next »
“Classification of Timber”.
1. Trees are generally classified, based on the mode of growth into:
a) 2
b) 6
c) 4
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The two types are endogenous (inward growth) and exogenous (outward growth).
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2. What is the life time of a moderately durable timber?
a) 10-20 years
file:///E:/Timber Classification - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry.html 1/7
b) 1-5 years
c) 10-15 years
d) 5-10 years
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The life time of high durability timber is more than 10 years, for moderately it is between
5-10 years and for low, it is less than 5 years.
3. Which of the following is an example of soft wood?
a) Sal
b) Oak
c) Deodar
d) Mahogany
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sal, Oak and Mahogany are all examples of hard wood.
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4. Which IS Code gives a classification of commercial timbers and their zonal distribution?
a) IS 620
b) IS 399
c) IS 401
d) IS 190
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: IS 620 gives details about wooden tools handles. IS 401 specifies about the preservation
of timber and IS 190 about coniferous sawn timber.
5. IS 3629-1966 classifies timber into 3 classes based on:
a) Availability
b) Average life
c) Durability
d) Density
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are 3 classes-class I, class II and class III. Class I timber has an average life of 120
months or more, Class II of 60 months or over, but less than 120 months. Class III has an average life
of less than 60 months.
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6. Which of the following is a type of non-refractory timber?

a) Semul
b) Teak
c) Sheesham
d) Sal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bases on seasoning, timber has been classified into non-refractory, moderately refractory
and eminent refractory timber. Teak and Sheesham are examples of moderately refractory and Sal of
eminent refractory timber.
7. Which of the below type of timber has Young’s Modulus greater than 9800 N/mm2, but less than 12600
N/mm2?
a) Average timber
b) Very good timber
c) Good timber
d) Light timber
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Average timber has Young’s Modulus (E) varying between 6600 N/mm2 and 9800 N/mm2.
Very good timber has E greater than 12600 N/mm2. There is no classification as light timber based on
E.
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8. What is the density of a light timber?
a) 5.5 kN/m3
b) Less than 2.5 kN/m3
c) 2.5 kN/m3
d) Less than 5.5 kN/m3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Density of light to very light timber is less than 5.5 kN/m3. Moderate timber has density
between 5.5 and 7.5 kN/m3 and heavy to very heavy timber has density greater than 7.5 kN/m3.
9. Hard wood is strong in tension and weak in compression.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Soft wood is strong in tension and weak in compression. Hard wood is equally strong in
tension and compression.
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10. Exogenous trees are further divided into:
a) 3
b) 4
c) 2
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Exogenous trees are those in which trees grow outward. The 2 types are coniferous
(evergreens) and deciduous (broad leaf) trees.
11. Which of the below is a property of soft wood?
a) Medullary rays are less distinct
b) Annual rings are less distinct
c) Dark in colour
d) Close grained structure
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The other 3 options are properties of hard wood. Soft wood is light in colour, annual rings
are clearly visible and it has resinous structure.
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Timber Qualities - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Qualities of Timber
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Qualities of
Timber”.
1. The surface of freshly cut timber should be:
a) Soft and shining
b) Hard and shining
c) Perfectly round
d) Light in colour
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Dull appearance is a sign of defective timber. Soft surface is prone to attack by insects,
fungus and is not a good quality.
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2. The quality of timber does not depend upon:
a) Maturity of tree
b) Time of felling
c) Type of tree
d) Size of tree
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The size of a tree is not of much importance. The weight, maturity of tree matters and not
length.
3. How should the smell of a freshly cut timber be?
a) Sweet
b) Pungent
c) Unpleasant
d) Odourless
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: One can detect the quality of a timber by smelling freshly cut timber. Ideally, it should be
sweet. Unpleasant smell indicates decay of timber.
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4. Where is the property of shock resistance an important parameter?
a) Furniture
b) Utensils
c) Tool handles
d) Doors
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A good timber should be capable of resisting shocks. Tool handles, parts of motor cars,
aeroplanes should use timber that has good shock resistance.
5. Timbers with ___________ annular rings are generally the strongest.
a) Narrow
b) Wide
c) Distinct
d) Indistinct
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Annular rings are formed every year and they consist of innumerable cells of fibres and
tissues. Total number of annular rings indicate an age of tree. Narrow annular rings indicate the
strength of tree.
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6. How can the quality of timber be checked via sound?
a) Timber struck by hammer
b) Timber tapped by hand
c) Timber knocked by chisel
d) Two timber pieces struck together
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Just as in the case of bricks, two timber pieces are taken and struck against each other. A
good quality timber should make a clear ringing sound.
7. How should be the colour of good quality timber?
a) Light
b) Gradient
c) Dark
d) Brown
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Heart wood consists of dead cells which are free from sap, hard, dark in colour. Hence,
dark coloured wood is preferred. Light colour indicates low strength.
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8. Timber should be light weight.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Heavy and dense timber is the one used for all purposes. Light weight wood results in
weak, unsound structure.
9. Which of the below is true about good timber?
a) Elastic
b) Round fibres
c) Less cost
d) Less density
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Timber should be elastic i.e., it should retain shape when load causing deformation is
removed. A good timber should have straight, compact fibres, moderate cost and high density.
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10. The water permeability of timber is greater:
a) Along centre
b) Along Fibres
c) Along annual rings
d) Along bark
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Water permeability of timber should essentially be zero. If it absorbs water, it is prone to
decay. Fibres are most porous.
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7/28/2021 Timber Seasoning - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Seasoning of Timber
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Seasoning
of Timber”.
1. Seasoning of timber is the process of:
a) Burning timber
b) Adding preservatives
c) Removing water
d) Adding glaze
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Tree when felled contains sap and high moisture content. To use it for engineering
purpose, it has to be dried. The process of drying timber to remove water is called seasoning.
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2. Which of the below changes do not occur after seasoning?
a) Increase durability
b) Decrease stiffness
c) Workable timber
d) Reduction in weight
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Seasoning increases the stiffness of timber. It takes away sap and moisture content and
imparts stiffness to timber.
3. Kiln seasoning gives stronger timber.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Natural seasoning is the one that gives stronger timber. Kiln seasoning results in weaker,
lighter timber.
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4. How much time does natural seasoning takes for timber to be properly seasoned?
a) 1-4 years
b) 6-12 months
c) 5-10 months
d) 5-7 years
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Natural seasoning is a very slow process, as timber is stacked and blowing natural wind
seasons it. It may take anywhere from 1-4 years for obtaining properly seasoned timber.
5. Which of the below is a disadvantage of air seasoning?
a) Power requirement
b) Skilled supervision
c) Elaborate equipment
d) Uniformity of seasoning
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Air or natural seasoning does not require power, skilled supervision and elaborate
equipment. These are all advantage of air seasoning. It might not give uniformly seasoned timber.
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6. How many methods of artificial seasoning are there?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The 5 types are water seasoning, boiling, chemical seasoning, electrical seasoning and
kiln seasoning.
7. Which method leaves the timber brittle after seasoning?
a) Water seasoning
b) Kiln seasoning
c) Electric seasoning
d) Boiling
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Timber pieces are totally immersed in running water for 2-4 weeks. The sap, organic
matter is carried away by water in water seasoning. It renders the timber brittle.
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8. Which of the below chemicals is not used in chemical seasoning?
a) Sodium chloride
b) Urea
c) Sodium hypochlorite
d) Sodium nitrate
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Chemicals used are dehydrating agents. Timber is immersed in such salt solutions and
allowed to reduce water content. Sodium hypochlorite is a disinfectant.
9. Which is the most rapid and effective method of seasoning?
a) Chemical seasoning
b) Electric seasoning
c) Kiln seasoning
d) Natural seasoning
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Electric seasoning involves passing high electricity through timber. Since it is a bad
conductor of electricity, it gets heated up. It results in rapid seasoning and it is effective as it provides
uniform seasoning.
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10. In kiln seasoning, the temperature of air inside chamber and humidity is high.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Seasoning starts at low temperature and high humidity. As it proceeds, conditions are
gradually altered. At the end, in the chamber, temperature is high and the humidity is low.
11. For how long is timber boiled in water in the seasoning method of boiling?
a) 3-4 hours
b) 1-2 hours
c) 5-6 hours
d) 10-12 hours
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Timber is immersed in water and allowed to boil for 3-4 hours. Then it is taken into shed
and dried very slowly.
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7/28/2021 Tough Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Moment of Inertia for Composite Areas
« Prev Next »
This set of Tough Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers focuses on “Moment of Inertia for
Composite Areas”.
1. Composite materials are of no use for any engineers.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The composite materials are of much importance to the chemical engineer. This means
that the composite materials are variedly used in the chemical industries. It can be used in the bridges
made for the pipelines, etc.
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2. What is not the condition for the equilibrium in three dimensional system of axis for the composite
bodies if we are determining the moment of inertia for them?
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a) ∑Fx=0
b) ∑Fy=0
c) ∑Fz=0
d) ∑F≠0
View Answer
Answer: d
non-zero value.
3. We sometimes use the moment caused by the force so as to determine the moment of inertia of the
body. The moment is the cross product of which two vectors?
View Answer
Answer: b
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4. Determine the moment of area of the area below about x-axis.
a) 101 x 106 mm4
b) 1 x 106 mm4
c) 10 x 106 mm4
d) 15 x 106 mm4
View Answer
Answer: a
the centre of mass.
5. Composite materials can be of __________ shapes for the determination of the moment of composite
areas.
a) Any
b) Circular only
c) Rectangular only
d) Oval only
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The composite materials can be of any shape. This means that the shape of the material
can be varied. Thus any shape can be imparted to the composite materials and then be used in the
industries variedly.
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6. If any external force also is applied on the distributed loading on which the moment of inertia is to be
determined on the composite body then?
d) The net force will not be considered, there would be a net force of the distribution, and rest will be the
external forces
View Answer
Answer: d
7. Determine the moment of area of the area below its centroid axis.
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a) 28.125 x 106 mm4
b) 1 x 106 mm4
c) 10 x 106 mm4
d) 17 x 106 mm4
View Answer
Answer: a
the centre of mass.
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8. Two of the things of the composite materials are to be known so that their moment of inertia can be
varied. Which of the following is one of them?
b) Weight of the body
c) Location of the centroid of gravity

View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The centre of the gravity’s location and the weight of the composite body is needed to be
known. This means that if both of the quantities of the composite body is known then the moment of
inertia of the body can be altered. Thus both are very important things to be known about the
composite bodies.
9. The number of a particle does affect the moment of inertia. A composite body is consisted of
__________ number of particles.
a) Infinite
b) Finite
c) Hundreds
d) Thousands
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The various bodies are composed of an infinite number of particles. They are very small
in size. They can’t be seen by our naked eyes. Thus the number of particles is not thousands nor
10. We use sometimes the measures to know the direction of moment of inertia. It is done by right
handed coordinate system. Which is right about it for the composite bodies (consider the mentioned axis
to be positive)?
View Answer
Answer: a
11. We often use the centre of mass of the composite area to calculate the moment of inertia. The centre
of mass for these composite body is the ratio of ________ to _________

View Answer
Answer: d
the centre of mass.
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7/28/2021 Tricky Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Mohr’s Circle for Moments of Inertia
« Prev Next »
This set of Tricky Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers focuses on “Mohr’s Circle for Moments
of Inertia”.
1. Which of the following is the equation which we get for the graphical solution of the moment of inertia?
a)
b)
c)
d)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the graphical method of solving the moment of inertia of the structures, we have the
answer as the driven equation. Thus this equation is used so as to ease the calculations. This equation
is derived from the equations of the product of area inertia. Thus the equation.
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2. What is the radius of the Mohr circle of the structure given below?
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a) 3.29
b) 0.29
c) 3.9
d) 2.9
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the above question, Ix, Iy and Ixy are meant to be calculated. This is because they are
the derived quantity. It is dependent on the values of the structure which is constant. It means they are
derived from constant values of the structure, thus they become a constant value.

3. The tendency of rotation of the body along with axis is also called ___________ As used for the
construction of the Mohr circle.
b) Moment of couple
c) Torque
d) Force
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The tendency of rotation of the body along with axis also called the torque. It is the
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4. The body is sometimes acted by two or three force members and we need to find the Mohr‘s circle for
inertia for the same. The difference between the two and the three force members is:
View Answer
Answer: d

5. Which of the following is the equation which we get for the graphical solution of the moment of inertia?
a) (Iv – a)2 + I2uv = R2
b) (Iu + a)2 + I2uv = R2
c) (Iv – a)2 + I2uv = R2
d) (Iv + a)2 + I2uv = R2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the graphical method of solving the moment of inertia of the structures, we have the
answer as the driven equation. Thus this equation is used so as to ease the calculations. This equation
is derived from the equations of the product of area inertia. Thus the equation.
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6. What are Ix, Iy and Ixy in the equation?
a) Variables
b) Constants
c) Alphanumeric
d) Gauss numbers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

determination of the Mohr’s circle for inertia.
a) Linearly
b) Non-Linearly
c) Parabolically
d) Cubically
View Answer
Answer: a
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8. Given equation is wrong for the calculations of the moments.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The above equation is true for the calculation of the moments. , here Ix , Iy and Ixy are
constants. This is because they are the derived quantity from the constants itself. This is the graphical
method of solving the moment of inertia of the structures.
9. What is the Imax of the Mohr circle of the structure given below?

a) 7.54 x 109mm4
b) 0.54 x 109mm4
c) 7.4 x 109mm4
d) 5.4 x 109mm4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. What does the moment of the force measure in the calculation of the Mohr circle’s data for the
moments of inertia?
a) The tendency of rotation of the body along with any axis
d) The total work is done on the body by the force
View Answer
Answer: a
axis, whether it be the centroid axis of the body, or any of the outside axis. The couple moment is
distance not the cross. A use of Mohr circle can also help in determining the direction.
11. (Iu – a)2 + I2uv = R2; this equation is wrong for the calculations of the moments.
a) False
b) True
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The above equation is true for the calculation of the moments. Here Iu and Iuv are not
constants. This is because they are the derived quantity from the variables. This is the graphical
method of solving the moment of inertia of the structures.
12. The Mohr’s circle for an area is helpful so as to________

a) Determine Minimum moments of inertia for an Area
c) Determine Minimum moments of inertia for a Volume
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Mohr’s circle is important as to know what is the maximum and the minimum moment
of inertia of an area. This data is required to design the structure of the body. This means that the
designing of the body is majorly done by the help of the determination of the product of the moment of
Inertia.
13. If the non-Uniform loading is of the type of parabola then for calculating the Mohr’s circle for the
inertia for areas?
View Answer
Answer: d
14. If any external force also is applied on the structure and we are determining the Mohr’s circle for the
external forces
View Answer

Answer: d
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7/28/2021 Two & Three Force Members - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Two and Three Force Members
« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Two and
Three Force Members”.
1. The difference between the two and the three force members is:
View Answer
Answer: d
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a) 4kN
b) 3kN
c) 2kN
d) 1kN
View Answer
Answer: a
equilibrium.
a) The two force members doesn’t apply the moments to the body
b) The three force members doesn’t apply the moments to the body
c) Only the two force members apply the moments to the body
d) Both the three and two force members apply the moments to the body
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The force members doesn’t define whether the moment will be applied or not. They are
basically the forces only. Thus if there is a force applied on the body, there will be a moment produced
by them. If not then probably the forces might be collinear.
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4. The three member forces are greatly influencing the moment than the two force members.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The influence of the moment on the body is determined by the number of the forces
acting on the body. It depend on the magnitude of the force. It also depends whether the forces are
collinear or not. Thus the number of forces are not the only parameter for the determination of the
moment.
5. The three member forces apply three different moments and the two members apply two different
moments on the body.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Never judge the application of the moment of the force applied on the body by the number
of the forces being acted on the body. What is two of the forces becomes collinear and are having a
zero distance from the axis of rotation. Thus the three and two force member apply moments according
to the situation, whether the distance is zero or not.
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6. For two force members to be in equilibrium when _____________
a) They both must not be collinear
b) They must be of different magnitude
c) They must be in the same direction
d) They must be in the opposite direction cancelling each other
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Simply, for the equilibrium the net force must be zero. That is the forces must be collinear
if equilibrium is to be established. And they must be in the opposite directions. They also must be of
same magnitude, cancelling each other.
7. Determine the force in section RS.
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a) 11.3N
b) 3kN
c) 2kN
d) 1kN
View Answer
Answer: a
equilibrium.
8. Moment equilibrium for the three force members will only be satisfied if_____________
a) Three forces are in different dimensions
b) The forces are in the same direction
c) The forces are concurrent
d) The forces are perpendicular
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The moment equilibrium for the three force members is satisfied only when the three
forces are concurrent. That is the forces form a parallel system. That is the net force on the three axis
turns out to be zero. This will only happen if the forces are in the same plane.
9. Which of the following statement for the three force system is true?
a) The moment need not be seen for the equilibrium, they are always in equilibrium
b) The forces are not always in the equilibrium
c) The forces are always in equilibrium
d) The moments are always in equilibrium
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The forces in the three force system is not always in the equilibrium. The equilibrium is
established when the forces cancel out each other. Also when the net moment is zero. Then only the
equilibrium is established in the three force system.
10. Determine the horizontal components of the reaction on the beam at pin Q.
a) 8kN
b) 3kN
c) 2kN
d) 1kN
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
a) 155N
b) 257.1N
c) 200N
d) 175N
View Answer
Answer: b
12. All the forces need to be collinear in the three force system. Then only they will for the equilibrium
state.
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The forces need to be collinear. If they are not so then the equilibrium is not possible. If
they are parallel too, then it is assumed that they are meeting in the infinity. And hence the equilibrium
is established between the forces. Thus the forces must be collinear.
a) 4kN
b) 3kN
c) 2kN
d) 1kN
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
14. The three force system can also be in the equilibrium if_________
a) All the forces are parallel to each other heading towards the same direction
b) The force components cancel each other
c) The forces are very small in magnitude
d) The forces are very huge in magnitude
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Even if the forces components cancels each other than the body is said to be in
equilibrium. Also, it should satisfy whether the moments caused by the forces are equal to zero or not.
This means if the moment caused and the net force is zero the body is in equilibrium.
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Types & Uses of Paints - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Types and Uses of Paints
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Types and
Uses of Paints”.
1. In how many layers is oil paint applied to a surface?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 2
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Three layers of varying compositions are applied. They are primers, undercoats and
finishing coats.
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2. Emulsion Paints contain:
a) Nitro cotton
b) Zinc white
c) White lead
d) Polyvinyl acetate
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Nitro cotton is an element contained in cellulose paints, zinc white and white lead are
components of enamel paints.
3. Anticorrosive paint is ___________ in colour
a) Blue
b) White
c) Black
d) Yellow
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It consists of pigments like chromium oxide, lead or zinc chrome. It is mixed with sand and
added to the paint. These pigments make the paint blackish in colour.
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4. In which of the below, it is not necessary to remove existing paint to apply a new one?
a) Aluminium paints
b) Cement paints
c) Oil paints
d) Enamel paints
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: They are suitable for painting fresh plasters having high alkalinity. They can be directly
applied on existing paint, hence they are economic.
5. Synthetic rubber paints are prepared from:
a) Resin
b) Rubber
c) Synthetic fibres
d) Polyvinyl Chloride
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Synthetic rubber paint is prepared from resins. These are chemically resistant and offer
protection against heavy rain, sunlight.
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6. Cement paints require a smooth surface to be applied on.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cement requires a rough surface for its application. It can adhere better onto rough
surfaces than smoother ones.
7. What is used to make paints odourless to an extent?
a) Flat latex
b) Celluloid sheets
c) Acrylic compound
d) Plioway resins
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: These eliminate the odour present in alkyd, stain blocking primers. It also aims to reduce
VOC content (volatile organic compound), which is harmful.
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8. Spray painting is used to:
a) Apply paint without touching surface
b) Apply large amount of paint
c) Reach high areas
d) Get textured paint
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Spray painting delivers a small amount of paint and gives the surface a smooth finish.
Rollers are used to reach high areas.
9. The open-time of paint can be extended by adding white spirit.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Open-time is the time interval, after the application of liquid paint, during which other paint
can be applied to give artistic effect. White spirit, Dowanol can be used. These allow different layers of
wet paints to mix together and give a textured appearance.
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10. Which of the below has a sheen and is highly washable?
a) Acrylic flat
b) Acrylic eggshell
c) Acrylic satin
d) Acrylic gloss
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It has a satin finish. Compared to other types, it is more durable and washable.
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7/28/2021 Urban Engineering - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Urban Engineering
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Urban
Engineering”.
1. How many types of land use patterns are there?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 15
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The land use pattern shows how the land is used for various purposes in the development
of housing/commercial/industrial areas. There are widely 10 land use patterns; radio centric (a large
circle with development starting from centre), rectilinear (2 areas crossing centre), star (open spaces in
star shape), ring (areas in circle with open space in centre), linear (along topography contours), branch
(with connecting areas), sheet (spread out), articulated sheet (central and sub clusters), constellation
(equal size areas nearby) and satellite (constellation around main area).
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2. General land use planning deals with:
a) Residential
b) Institutional
c) Forests
d) Commercial
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The general land use planning deals with the non-urban large scale areas like forests,
croplands, swamplands, etc. and they are used primarily for agriculture, forest or special uses. The
other 3 options come under urban land use planning.
3. The land supply for urban expansion can be determined by:
a) TLA – (PCA+BU)
b) PCA – (TLA+BU)
c) BU – (PCA+TLA)
d) BU – (TLA-PCA)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The total land area of a city (TLA) which is available for expansion is found out by
deducting the total area of protected/conservation areas (PCA) and the existing built-up areas (BU). All
these are taken in hectares.
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4. Urbanisation and occupation of river banks and flood plains lead to:
a) Periodic exposure to inundation
b) Greater flow velocity
c) High run off
d) Increased soil erosion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The population of town on river banks are periodically exposed to inundation from the
rivers. Then slowly these extensions increase as there is less space for water to flow. Removal of
natural vegetation leads to the other 3 options.
5. A non-structural measure in flood control management is:
a) Canalisation
b) Polders and dikes
c) Flood proofing construction
d) Retention ponds
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The aim of a non-structural flood control management is to reduce the population and
properties exposure to the floods. Use of flood proofing in construction is one of the ways.
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6. Which of the following is not a flood proofing measures for houses?
a) Elevation
b) Floodwalls
c) Dry flood proofing
d) Detention basin
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The buildings which are in flood prone areas can be flood proofed by elevation (raise a
building), floodwalls (a wall built to keep water away) and dry flood proofing (making walls of building
watertight).
7. Noise map is an excellent tool for urban planning.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: These maps help to quantify the noise of a region and evaluate the population exposed to
it. They help to create a database for the planning of zones accordingly (noisy activities/sensible, etc)
and to predict the impact of noise in the predicted urban infrastructure.
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8. How many number of source types of noise are there?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are 3 sources type noise propagation. They are point source (loudspeakers,
vehicles, industrial equipment, etc.), line source (road, railways, etc) and area source (parking lot,
functions, opening of tunnels, etc).
9. Optimization of urban mobility can be intervened at the infrastructure level by use of:
a) SUV lanes
b) HOV lanes
c) Toll free lanes
d) Slow lanes
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The HOV (High Occupancy Vehicles) lane optimizes the existing roads by allowing
vehicles with 2,3 or more occupants to use these lanes exclusively. So, it promotes people to use car
pools to reach the destination faster, reducing the number of vehicles on road.
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and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Varnish - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Varnish
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Varnish”.
1. How many ingredients are varnish composed of?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The three components of varnish are resins, driers and solvents.
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2. Which of the below is not an artificial resin?
a) Vinyl
b) Alkyl
file:///E:/Varnish - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry.html 1/7

c) Phenolic
d) Shellac
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Shellac is a natural resin obtained from the secretion of the female lac bug. All other
options are artificially obtained.
3. Driers in varnish are used as:
a) Reducers
b) Retarders
c) Accelerators
d) Oxidisers
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Drier is the ingredient in varnish which accelerators the process of drying of applied
varnish.
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4. Wood naphtha, a cheap variety of resin, is also called:
a) Methyl alcohol
b) Synthetic rubber
c) Acetylene
d) Ethanol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Methyl alcohol was produced chiefly as a by-product of the destructive distillation of wood.
Hence, the name wood naphtha.
5. The word varnish is derived from the word:
a) Latin varne
b) Latin Vernix
c) Greek Vernix
d) Green varne
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Varnish comes from Latin word vernix, which means odorous resin.
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6. Which of the below is an oil based varnish?
a) Urethane
b) Acrylic
c) Polyurethane
d) Urea
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Urethane and Acrylic are water based resins.

7. Which of the below is most commonly used resin in commercial varnishes?
a) Alkyd
b) Phenolic
c) Polyurethane
d) Satin Gloss
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Alkyd resin is less expensive. It is a type of polyester resin and its combined with alcohol
and acid. It is cooked with oil to create varnish.
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8. ________ Varnish is also called French varnish and used for furniture.
a) Oil
b) Water
c) Acrylic
d) Spirit
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Spirit varnish is quick drying. It is not very resistant to weathering and is generally used
for furniture.
9. Water based finishes have a blue tint to it.
a) True

b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The water based vanishes have a blue tint and when applied to wood, it looks pale, cold
and washed out.
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10. Solvents contain high levels of polyunsaturated fatty acids.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Drying oils are the ones that contain high levels of polyunsaturated fatty acids. These
include linseed oil, tung oil and walnut oil.
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7/28/2021 Wastewater Management - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Wastewater Management
« Prev Next »
“Wastewater Management”.
1. The term ‘Sullage’ refers to:
a) Fresh wastewater
b) Septic wastewater
c) Wastewater from kitchen, laundry
d) Toxic wastewater
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The domestic wastewater generated from household laundry, preparation of food,
cleaning of utensils and personal washing is called sullage.
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2. Wastewater can become septic by the loss of:
a) Dissolved oxygen content
b) Carbon content
c) Organic compounds
d) Water content
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In conditions of warm weather, the dissolved oxygen content of the wastewater loses and
it becomes septic. It has an offensive odour of hydrogen sulphide.
3. Which one of the below is not an attribute of drinking water?
a) Aesthetics
b) Economic
c) Safety
d) Source
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Aesthetics refers that the water should be colourless, odourless and pleasing to taste.
Safety means it should be free from any chemicals or pathogens. And it should be economic for
everyone.
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4. The extent of water treatment depends on how many factors?
a) 5
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The extent of treatment depends on 2 factors- the quality of water (depends on the
source) and the beneficial uses (high quality for domestic, production sector, low quality for
housekeeping, a germ free for recreational and for agricultural purposes having low TDS, Na ratio,
etc.).
5. One of the major objectives of water treatment plants is the removal of turbidity.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Turbidity is the presence of solid particles in water. The removal of it removes the colour,
taste, odour producing components and makes water pleasant and safe to drink.
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6. What is added to the water treatment tank to settle the colloidal particles?
a) Alum
b) Alum and lime
c) Lime
d) Potash
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Chemicals like alum and lime are added to the raw water. Then a rapid mix is done to mix
the chemicals with the water. After this, it goes into the coagulation unit, where the colloidal particles
combine to form a flock.
7. Disinfection of water in our country is mainly done by ____________
a) Oxygenation
b) Hydration
c) Chlorination
d) Filtration
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Disinfection is the most inexpensive way of killing the microorganisms present in the
water. The water is chlorinated and some residual chlorine of 0.5mg/litre is left so that contamination in
the distribution system is taken care of.
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8. Which minerals and in what form are present in ground water?
a) Fe & Mn in Ferrous and Manganous
b) Fe & Cu in Ferric and Cupric
c) Fe & Mn in Ferric and manganous
d) Cu & Mn in Cuprous and manganous
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Both these are present in their reduced forms. If the ground water has more than the
permissible amounts (Fe less than or equal to 0.3mg/litre and Mn≤ 0.05mg/ltr) then it should be
treated.
9. How many types of wastewater treatment plants are there based on the type of wastewater?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are 3 types- Sewage, Industrial and Agricultural.
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10. On how many conditions does the intervention of wastewater depend on?
a) 5
b) 7
c) 6
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The seven factors are ground conditions, ground water level, location and type of water
source, topography, quantity and quality of wastewater produced, climatic, socio-cultural factors.
and Answers.
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7/28/2021 Wedges - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Wedges
« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Wedges”.
1. A ____________ is a simple machine that is used as to transfer applied forces into much larger forces.
a) Wedge
b) Beam
c) Pillar
d) Bridges
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The main thing about the wedges is that a wedge is a simple machine that is used as to
transfer applied forces into much larger forces. This means that the wedges are the means of force
transfer. This machine is very useful in the industries, and it has a wide application.
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2. Wedges are used to transfer heavy loads.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The main thing about the wedges is that a wedge is a simple machine that is used as to
3. The blocks of heavy weights are being able to lift from the help of the wedges.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The main thing about the wedges is that the wedge is a simple machine that is used as to
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4. The normal force exerted by the surface of the wedge is normal to the surface of the ________
a) Base of the wedge
b) Base of the body residing over it
c) Base of the body just neighbour to the wedge

d) Earth’s surface
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As we know the normal forces act perpendicular to the surfaces of the body kept over the
wedges. Thus the normal force exerted by the surface of the wedge is normal to the surface of the
base of the body kept over the wedge. The wedges are very useful in the industries, and it has a wide
application.
5. Which one is not the condition for the equilibrium in free body diagram for calculation of the normal
forces along the body kept over the wedge, consider all forces to be straight and linear?
a) ∑Fx=0
b) ∑Fy=0
c) ∑Fz=0
d) ∑F≠0
View Answer
Answer: d
non-zero value.
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6. The coefficient of friction between the body being slided over the wedge and the wedge surface is
generally determined by ____________
a) Written over the Body

b) Experiments
c) Weighing the body
d) Measuring length of the body
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The coefficient of the friction is generally determined by the help of experiments. Many
experiments are done on the body. Try and error methods are involved. And the final observations are
being taken out. Then average of all the final answers resulted in the experiments is done.
7. When does the two wedge system is termed as self-locking system?
a) If friction forces hold the block in plane
b) If friction forces doesn’t hold the block in plane
c) If friction forces hold the block in phase
d) If friction forces doesn’t hold the block in phase
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If friction forces hold the block in plane the two wedge system is termed as self-locking
system. This is generally the concept used to lift up the boxes and then it is also used to make the very
heavy works easy. Thus the wedges are very useful in the industries, and it has a wide application.
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8. Determine the normal force at B in the wedge shown. Take the value of the coefficient of friction to be
0.3. Assume that the block doesn’t slip at C.

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a) 2452 N
b) 215 KN
c) 3150 N
d) 415 KN
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The normal force at A is 2381 N. The normal force at B is 2452.5 N. The angle of the
wedge over which the block is being slided is generally taken out by the help of the tangent inverse
trigonometric function. Thus the answer.
9. In the free body diagrams involving the wedges we have use of vector math, so for two vectors A and
B, what is A.B (if they have angle α between them)?
a) |A||B| cosα
b) |A||B|
c) √(|A||B|) cosα

d) |A||B| sinα
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The dot product of the two vectors is always the product of the magnitudes of the two
forces and the cosine of the angle between them. We need to consider the triangle and then
accordingly apply the trigonometry. This is one of the ways of resolving the components.
10. What is j.j?
a) 0
b) 1
c) -1
d) ∞
View Answer
Answer: b
always give zero. And dot product of the same plane vector gives a scalar quantity.
11. Sometimes in the calculations involving the wedges, there are situations when there is a toppling
effect on the body. In that, if the net moment of the body is zero that means the distance between the
force and the rotational axis is zero.
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The net moment of the body is zero that doesn’t means that the distance between the
force and the rotational axis is zero. This means moments caused by different forces cancels out. If
this happens there is no motion of the body along with any direction and hence the body is said to be in
equilibrium.
12. In the simplification of the forces applied in the wedges net force acts at the ___________ of the
loading body.
a) Centroid
b) The centre axis
c) The corner

d) The base
View Answer
Answer: a
body. That is if the loading system is in the form of the triangle then at the distance 2 by 3 of the base
the net force of the loading will act. And the load will be half the area of the loading.
13. Determine the minimum amount of the force P required to remove the wedge shown. Take the value
of the coefficient of friction to be 0.3. Assume that the block doesn’t slip at C.
a) 1.15 KN
b) 2.15 KN
c) 3.15 KN
d) 4.15 KN
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The normal force at A is 2381 N. The normal force at B is 2452.5 N. The angle of the
wedge over which the block is being slided is generally taken out by the help of the tangent inverse
trigonometric function. Thus the answer.
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7/28/2021 Weirs - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Weirs
« Prev Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Weirs”.
1. How many types of weirs are there based on the shape of the crest?
a) 6
b) 4
c) 5
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The four types are sharp-crested, broad-crested, narrow-crested and ogee-shaped weir.
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2. _________ weir comprises several designs into one structure.
a) All-in-one
b) Open
file:///E:/Weirs - Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry.html 1/8

c) Mixed
d) Compound
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Compound weirs are commonly seen in locations where a river has multiple users who
may need to bypass the structure. Common design includes a broad-crested weir.
3. Triangular weir is also called:
a) Trigonometric
b) Ogee
c) V-notch
d) Isolated
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Triangular weir is shaped like a reverse triangle that is the shape of V. Hence, it is also
called V-notch weir. These can be used to measure discharge over small flows with greater accuracy.
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4. Head loss will be small in case of:
a) Ogee shaped
b) Broad crested
c) Sharp crested
d) Narrow crested
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Broad crested weirs are constructed in rectangular shape only and are suitable for larger
flows. Hence, head loss is less.
5. In trapezoidal weir, sides are inclined outward with a slope of:
a) 1:4
b) 1:5
c) 1:6
d) 1:3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In trapezoidal weir, the sides are sloping outward at a specific inclination of 1:4
(horizontal: vertical). It is a modification of rectangular weir with slightly higher capacity.
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6. Weirs are normally used to calculate:
a) Volume
b) Head loss
c) Discharge
d) Velocity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Discharge or flow rate is measured and calculated by analysing a weir. It is given by

Q=CLHn, where C is flow coefficient, L is width of crest, H is height of head, n is different for different
structures.
7. ________ is the standard shape of a weir.
a) Rectangular
b) Triangular
c) Square
d) Trapezoidal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Rectangular is the standard shape of a weir. Triangular and trapezoidal weirs are
modifications of it. They are generally suitable for larger flowing channels.
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8. Cippoletti weir has ___________ slope:
a) Different
b) Proportionate
c) Disproportionate
d) Equal
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Cippoletti weir is a special case of a trapezoidal weir. In this, the side slope on either sides
are equal. So, trapezoid can be divided into rectangular and triangular portion and hence analysed
easily.

9. The overflowing sheet of water is called:
a) Head
b) Nappe
c) Upstream
d) Crest
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Nappe represents the overflowing sheet of water. If it discharges into air, it is free
discharge. If discharge is partly under water, it is submerged/drowned discharge.
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10. For a discharge of triangular weirs with notch angle __________ the formula is 0.685 h2.45.
a) 90o
b) 60o
c) 30o
d) 45o
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For 30o angle, the formula is 0.685 h2.45. For 60o angle, it is 1.45 h2.47 and for 90o angle, it
is 2.49 h2.48.
11. Which of the below is suitable for soft sandy foundation?
a) Dry stone slope weir
b) Vertical drop weir

c) Parabolic weir
d) Masonry slope weir
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Masonry or concrete slope weir is the one suitable for soft sandy foundation. It is used
where difference in weir crest and downstream river is limited to 3m.
12. Weirs can be used to power water wheels and power sawmills.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Mill ponds are created by a weir. It impounds water and then it flows over the structure.
The energy created by this change in height of the water is used to power watermills and sawmills.
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7/28/2021 Work - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Work – 1
« Prev Next »
This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Work – 1”.
1. The principle of work was proposed by________________
a) Mathematician Jean Bernoulli
b) Physios Jean Bernoulli
c) Chemist Jean Bernoulli
d) John Jean Bernoulli
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The concept of work was proposed by Jean Bernoulli. He was a mathematician. It was
proposed in 18th century. It gave us various alternative methods to calculate the work done. Thus the
answer.
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2. Determine the horizontal force acting in the given figure.

file:///E:/Work - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry.html 1/9
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a) 80cos30
b) 60cos30
c) 40cos30
d) 8cos30
View Answer
Answer: a
a) Work done is of one type only
b) Work done is of two type only
c) Work done is of three type only
d) Work done is of infinite type
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The work done is of many types. They are countless. For example, the work can be done
by moving, pushing or pulling. Or can be done by car, bus, truck or any other vehicle. This work can be
done in many ways.
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collinear, then_____________
a) The net force acting on the body is zero and the net work done is also zero
c) The net force acting on the body is vertical but net work done is non-zero
View Answer
Answer: a
equilibrium.
net force to zero, thus the method for solving the work done.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
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6. If the body is in equilibrium, but it having a rotational curled ray shown in the free body diagram then:
d) The body is said to be in equilibrium only, as the other forces will cancel out that rotation and the
network done will be zero
View Answer
Answer: d

View Answer
Answer: a
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a) 236N
b) 600n
c) 403N
d) 830N
View Answer
Answer: a

9. What does Newton’s third law states for the work done?
b) For every reaction there is an opposite reaction

View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The requirement of the third law is important in the equilibrium of the body. Specially the
the equilibrium they also react and apply the opposite force and thus the third law of Newton.
10. The net moment of the body is zero that means the work done by the force and the rotational axis is
zero.
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The net moment of the body is zero that doesn’t mean that the work done by the force
and the rotational axis is zero. Work done is something different. It does not depend on the rotational
axis. It only depends on the distance. And the forces.
body is achieved its state of equilibrium, and then the work done is calculated.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
12. Which of the following needs to zero for the perfect equilibrium for the calculation of the work?
a) ∑F=0, ∑M=0 and ∑θ = 0

b) ∑F=0, ∑M≠0 and ∑θ = 0
c) ∑F≠0, ∑M=0 and ∑θ = 0
d) ∑F=0, ∑M=0 and ∑θ≠0
View Answer
Answer: d
equilibrium.
13. What is Newton’s second law for work?
b) The rate of change of distance is equal to the force applied
c) The rate of change of momentum is equal to the moment applied
d) The rate of change of momentum is equal to the work applied
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The rate of change of momentum is equal to the force applied to the body. This is the
second law which is used to calculate the work done in the body by the forces. This has a very vast
application on the industrial sector and engineering sector.
14. The supports in the 3D are having more than three reaction forces. Because they are having three
axis on which the components of the work done need to be zero.
View Answer
Answer: d
the forces.
and Answers.

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7/28/2021 Zero Force Member - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

– Zero Force Member
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This set of Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Zero Force
Member”.
1. Zero force members has _______ loadings.
a) Infinite
b) No
c) Minimum
d) Maximum
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The zero member force are having no loadings. They doesn’t involve in the loading part of
the story in the trusses. They doesn’t provide the stress nor the strain to the body of the structure.
Hence they have no load associated with them.
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file:///E:/Zero Force Member - Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry.html 1/10
2. The zero forces are used to improve__________ of the structure.
a) Stability
b) Ductility
c) Malleability
d) Toughness
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The zero forces increase the stability of the structures. That the frames of the structures,
which are there present in the structure. The stability of the joints, making them be in rotational as well
as translational equilibrium.
3. Find the force in the member UR.
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a) 300N
b) 800N
c) 500N
d) 400N
View Answer
Answer: c
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4. We find the zero force members by inspections.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is yes. We find the zero force members by inspection. We do not have a
special function or any special method for finding the zero force members of the structure. But yes the
zero force members are founded by inspections only.
5. If two members of the structure (trusses) form a truss joint and there is no external force acting on that
joint then the two members are called___________
a) Scalar form of the force vector
b) The equivalent vector of truss
c) Zero moment member
d) Zero force member
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If two members of the structure (trusses) forms a truss joint and there is no external force
acting on that joint then the two members are called as zero force members. This is again came from
inspection. If we imagine the same, we see that there are no movements, thus they are zero force
members.
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6. Find the horizontal support reactions at A.
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a) 300N
b) 0N
c) 500N
d) 400N
View Answer
Answer: d
7. If two members of the structure (trusses) forms a truss joint and there is an external force acting on
that joint then the two members are called as zero force members.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If two members of the structure (trusses) forms a truss joint and there is no external force
acting on that joint then the two members are called as zero force members. This is again came from
inspection. If we imagine the same, we see that there are no movements, thus they are zero force
members.
8. Which of following is not considered as the true condition for the three members to be zero force
members?
a) Any two of the three members must be collinear
b) There must be no external forces acting
c) They should be joined by a joint
d) Any two of the three members must be perpendicular
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The three members to be having a zero member must have any two of the three
members collinear. There must be no external forces acting on the section or the joint which is being
selected. And obviously all the members must be attached.
9. In three members having one as zero force member in truss, what if there is an external force applied?
a) The zero force member will be unaltered
b) The zero member needs to be changed or rotated
c) There will be no zero member
d) There will be two zero members formed
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For making any one of the member of the truss to be as a zero member all the conditions
are to be followed. Like any two of the three members collinear. There must be no external forces
acting on the section or the joint which is being selected.
10. What will happen if the collinearity of the two members is affected?
a) The zero force member will be unaltered
b) The zero member needs to be changed or rotated
c) There will be no zero member
d) There will be two zero members formed
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For making any one of the member of the truss to be as a zero member all the conditions
are to be followed. Like any two of the three members collinear. There must be no external forces
acting on the section or the joint which is being selected.
11. Find the force in the member QR.
a) 300N
b) 800N
c) 500N
d) 400N
View Answer
Answer: b
12. What will happen if the three members are all perpendicular to each other? No external force is
applied to them.
a) There will be a formation of one zero force member
b) There will be a formation of two zero force member
c) There will be a formation of three zero force member
d) There will be no formation of zero force member
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As far as the conditions are required for the equilibrium and for the zero force members,
this joint explained will be having a zero force member. Which will be unaffected to shear stress and
shear strain. Thus the zero member formation.
13. Find the force in the member UT.
a) 300N
b) 800N
c) 500N
d) 400N
View Answer
Answer: b
14. Find the vertical support reactions at A.
a) 300N
b) 800N
c) 500N
d) 400N
View Answer
Answer: a
and Answers.
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Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers

1. Which of the below adhesive is not attacked by water?

2. The process of applying an adhesive is:

3. Nitrocellulose glue is prepared from:

4. Which of the following glues is used to join light metals?

5. Epoxy adhesives are used in the manufacturing of:

6. Which IS code gives details about tile adhesives?

7. Which of the below glue can be made plastic again by re-heating?

c) Animal protein glue

8. Which glue can bond a metal to wood?

9. Gorilla glue is made up of:

10. The word adhesive has its origin from:

11. Vegetable glue is used for:

12. Adhesive becomes strong immediately after its application.

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Engineering Mechanics Questions and Answers

a) Greater than one of the vector’s magnitude

b) Smaller than one of the vector’s magnitude

c) Depends on the angle between them

d) Axis we choose to calculate the magnitude

d) Point at which the shear stress is zero

a) Parallelogram law of addition

b) Parallelogram law of multiplication

c) Parallelogram law of addition of square root of their magnitudes

d) Parallelogram law of addition of square of their magnitudes

called as component vectors) are added to form a resultant vector. R = A+B.

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professionals in Linux Kernel, Linux Debugging, Linux Device Drivers, Linux

Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers

1. Airports can be classified on how many basis?

2. ICAO classification system considers how many things?

3. The FAA classification of the airport is based on:

c) Airport approach speed

a) Passengers, cargo routed centrally

b) Passenger facilities in small units

c) Walking distance to aircraft < 200m

d) Common facilities for different gate positions

b) Air traffic potential

d) Number of ground staff

6. Runways are oriented in a direction against the prevailing wind.

7. The wind intensity during a calm period in runways should be:

c) Between 5-10 km/hr

10. How many types of Fly Rules are there?

Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Series – Basic Civil Engineering.

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10. Aircraft Performance MCQ (Multiple Choice Questions)

Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers

1. Aluminium is commercially produced from:

2. By which of the below process is Aluminium manufactured?

3. Which is the most important and useful alloy of Aluminium?

4. Aluminium has a higher maintenance cost.

5. Which of the following is a property of aluminium?

Explanation: Aluminium is an excellent reflector of electromagnetic and sound waves. Therefore, it is

6. Aluminium appears greyish in colour in pure form.

7. Aluminium finds its application in:

8. What is the melting point of Aluminium?

9. Recycled Aluminium is called:

Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Series – Basic Civil Engineering.

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Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers –

7. _ divided methodologies for EIA into ___ categories.