Sreedhar’s CCE RB I A SST - SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T-87

RB I A SST - SB I CLERK PRELI M S M ODEL TEST-87

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions(1-5): Find out the suitable synonym to the filler in the given below
sentence.

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1. Craig Spencer is an emergency-medicine physician and director of global health
in emergency medicine ________ New York Presbyterian Medical Center.
1) upto 2) at 3) Both 1 & 2 4) Near on 5) None
2. Early on in the pandemic, public-health experts asked everybody to do their part
and _______ home to prevent COVID spread.

3.
1) assist
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2) abet 3) advanced 4) Stay 5) None
On vaccinations, the place where we can have _______ greatest impact is with
the elderly.
1) a 2) a/an 3) the 4) a/the 5) None
4.

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Nursing homes are responsible for 16 percent of the total COVID death ______ to
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date.
1) straight line2) detach 3) toll 4) attainment 5) None
5. Many vaccinated and boosted Americans are rightly worried about the virus’s
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continued spread, _________ for immunocompromised people, and they want to do

their part.
1) broadly 2) especially 3) ordinarily 4) generally 5) None
Directions (6-10): The following questions consists of 6 sentences that form a
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passage. S1 represent the first sentence of a passage respectively. Arrange the
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sentences P, Q, R, S and T to form a complete meaningful passage.

S1: Since the spring of 2020, parents of young children have been on a roller-
coaster ride, and not the Space Mountain kind.
P: Particularly for the many American families in which both parents are employed,
this would be a nightmare scenario.
Q: meaning that case counts could rise in colder months for years to come and
the winter could continue to be an attendance train wreck for schools.
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R: Now mask mandates have begun to lift, and few school districts are operating
under fully remote models,
S: The rickety kind you’re not entirely sure you’ll make it off of in one piece.
T: but students and their families still aren’t in the clear: Many experts believe
that the coronavirus will settle into an endemic seasonal pattern, like the flu,
6. Which one would be the sentence ‘T’ from the following after rearrangement ?
1) P 2) Q 3) R 4) S 5) T
7. Which one would be the sentence ‘S’ from the following after rearrangement ?
1) P 2) Q 3) R 4) S 5) T
8. Which one would be the sentence ‘R’ from the following after rearrangement ?
1) P 2) Q 3) R 4) S 5) T
9. Which one would be the sentence ‘Q’ from the following after rearrangement ?
1) P 2) Q 3) R 4) S 5) T
10. Which one would be the sentence ‘P’ from the following after rearrangement ?
1) P 2) Q 3) R 4) S 5) T

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Sreedhar’s CCE RB I A SST - SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T-87

Direction (11-15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
The general banking scenario in India has become very dynamic now-a-
days. Before prelibarelization era, the picture of Indian Banking was completely
different…(A) as the Government of India initiated measures to play an active
role in the economic life of the nation, and the Industrial Policy Resolution adopted
by the government in 1948 …………..(B) a mixed economy. This resulted into
greater involvement of the state in different segments of the economy including

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banking and finance. The Reserve Bank of India was nationalized on January 1,
1949 under the terms of the Reserve Bank of India (Transfer to Public Ownership)
Act, 1948. In 1949, the Banking Regulation Act was enacted which empowered
the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) “to regulate, control, and inspect the banks in
India.” The Banking Regulation Act also provided that no new bank or branch of
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an existing bank could be opened without a license from the RBI, and no two
banks could have common directors. Dr. K.A. Goyal & Vijay Joshi International
Journal of Business Research and Management (IJBRM), Volume (3) : Issue (1) :

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2012 20 By the 1960s, the Indian banking industry had become an important tool
to facilitate the speed of development of the Indian economy. The Government of
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India issued an ordinance and nationalised the 14 largest commercial banks
with effect from the midnight of July 19, 1969. A second dose of nationalization of
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6 more commercial banks followed in 1980. The stated reason for the
nationalization was to give the government more control of credit delivery. With
the second dose of nationalization, the Government of India controlled around
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91% of the banking business of India. Later on, in the year 1993, the government
merged New Bank of India with Punjab National Bank. It was the only merger
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between nationalized banks and resulted in the reduction of the number of

nationalised banks from 20 to 19. After this, until the 1990s, the nationalised
banks grew at a pace of around 4%, closer to the average growth rate of the
Indian economy. In the early 1990s, the then Narasimha Rao government embarked
on a policy of liberalization, licensing a small number of private banks.
11. According to the passage given above, which banks are got merge by the
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government?
1) New bank of india with Punjab national bank
2) SBI with cenara bank
3) Bank of Bombay with bank of madras 4) Above all 5) None
12. In the passage given, a sentence (A) given in bold. There may or may not be an
error in one part of the sentence. Choose the part which has an error in it as your
answer. If there is no error then choose option (5) as your answer.
1) The general banking scenario in
2) India has become very dynamic now-a-days
3) Before prelibarelization era,
4) the picture of Indian Banking was completely different 5) None
13. Which of the following words should fill the blank given in (B) to make it contextually
correct and meaningful?
1) Aborted 2) Envisaged 3) Missed 4) Ruined 5)None

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Sreedhar’s CCE RB I A SST - SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T-87

14. According to the passage given above, according to banking regulation act 1949,
what are the rule/rules of RBI?
1) No new bank or branch of an existing bank could be opened without a license
from the RBI
2) No two banks could have common directors 3) only 1
4) Above all 5) None
15. According to the passage given above, what is the theme of the passage?
1) General banking scenario of india 2) World banking
3) Problems of Indian banking 4) Above all 5)None

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Directions (16-20): In the following questions two columns are given containing
three sentences/phrases each. In first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and
C and in the second column the sentences/Phrases are D, E, and F. A sentence/
phrase from the first column may or may not connect with another sentence/
phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct
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sentence. Each question has five options which display the sequence(s) in which
the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually
correct sentence.
16. Column (1)

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(A) Next winter, teachers may find themselves once again masked up, juggling
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the needs of students isolating at home
(B) Many of them may get sick themselves, worsening an ongoing teacher shortage
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(C) Children who can’t be physically present in classrooms will experience 

academic setbacks
Column (2)
C
(D) Market dynamics, not overzealous regulations, have imprisoned the industry.
(E) especially those from low-income families, which could widen the achievement
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gap.
(F) with those of an IRL class, and standing at the ready to pivot to remote education
on a moment’s notice.
1) A-F, C-E 2) B-F , A-E , C-D3) A-F, B-D
4) B-F , A-E 5) None of the above
17. Column (1)
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(A) Private-sector employees in the United States receive an average of three to
four weeks of paid leave annually, whereas even before the pandemic,
(B) Virus-related disruption—not just an actual case of COVID, mind you, but
exposure-related isolation, or the odd scratchy throat that can now keep a kid
home
(C) Shifting vacation to the time when we expect virus-related disruption to be at
its worst would mean
Column (2)
(D) threatens to add not merely a few days, but weeks, to that total.
(E) their children spent roughly 83 days out of school each year between seasonal
breaks, federal holidays, and closures for staff training.
(F) and American officials cannot assert this independence in any meaningful
way
1) A-F 2) A-E , B-D 3) B-F, C-D 4) B-F , A-E 5) None of the above

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Sreedhar’s CCE RB I A SST - SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T-87

18. Column (1)

(A) Families that use group child-care resources during the school break might
still have
(B) Only about a quarter of children ages 4 to 14 attend any day camps (or day
care) at all in the course of a typical pre-COVID summer vacation; the majority
are cared for
(C) In rural areas, the norm was to provide a summer term and a winter term,
and children were off
Column (2)
(D) by a parent or other relative, or left home alone.

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(E) in the spring and fall when their help was needed with planting and harvest.
(F) to deal with virus-related closures and absences
1) A-D, B-F 2) A-E, B-D 3) A-F, B-D, C-E 4) C-D, B-F 5) None of the above
19. Column (1)
(A) Sometime after the Civil War,
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(B) In December, in a ballet of global logistics, more than 30 tankers ferrying
liquid natural gas from the United States to various destinations around the
globe
(C) Since 2018, the United States has been the world’s largest producer
Column (2)

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(D) paper, American consumers have won no benefits from this independence,
(E) cancelled their trips and set a new course for the European Union.
(F) city schools began to give children a break during the summer months.
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1) A-E 2) B-F , A-E , C-D 3) A-F, B-E

4) B-F , A-E 5) None of the above
20. Column (1)
(A) As recently as the mid-2000s, energy companies
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(B) In 1973, President Richard Nixon announced Project Independence, a campaign
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(C) Energy independence has neither insulated the economy from geopolitics nor
provided the U.S. with more industrial capacity in an emergency
Column (2)
(D) fretted that the U.S. would soon run out of natural gas.
(E) This means that although America may be “energy independent” on
(F) to wean America off foreign oil by 1980.
1) A-D 2) B-F , A-E , C-D 3) B-F, C-E
4) B-F , A-D 5) None of the above
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Directions(21-25): In each of the questions, there are four sentences or parts of
sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence/s or part/s that is/are
incorrect in terms of grammar and usage and choose the answer accordingly:
21. I. He has to return the
II. property back under the
III. terms of an agreement he has
IV. to the original owner
1) Only I and II 2) Only II and IV 3) Only II and IV
4) Only I, III and IV 5) No error
22. I. Additives are used
II. to prolong the
III. shelf life of
IV. package food.
1) Only I and II 2) Only II and IV 3) Only IV
4) Only I, III and IV 5) No error

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Sreedhar’s CCE RB I A SST - SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T-87

23. I. The initial training of future

II. verification officers now 
III. comprises of three blocks
IV. of two to three weeks.
1) Only III 2) Only II and IV 3) Only II 4) Only I, III and IV 5) No error
24. I. The company has
II. a fleet of trucks
III. that are used
IV. to haul freight
1) Only I and II 2) Only II and IV 3) Only II

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4) Only I, III and IV 5) No error
25. I. However the Premier and a
II. number of other Members wished
III. to attend the funeral service
IV. of a prominent Yukoner on that day.
1) Only I and II 2) Only II and IV 3) Only III
4) Only I, III and IV
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Directions (26-30): Below given sentence/s has a bolded part in each of them.
Choose the meaning of that part from the following options and also choose the
option “ None ” if no meaning found.
26.

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Raman never backs down and wins almost all cases.
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1) criticize, reprimand 2) have to do with
3) stop defending your opinion in a debate 4) Withstand 5) None.
27. The minister bawled him out for arriving late.
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1) have to do with 2) criticize, reprimand

3) stop defending your opinion in a debate 4) Withstand 5) None.
28. Those facts do not bear on this matter at all.
1) have to do with 2) criticize, reprimand
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3) stop defending your opinion in a debate
4) Improve or make more substantial. 5) None.
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29. I did not know that Karan would bear up so well in that hard situation.
1) stop defending your opinion in a debate 2) Withstand
3) criticize, reprimand 4) have to do with 5) None.
30. He beefed up his presentation with diagrams and statistics.
1) Improve or make more substantial. 2) have to do with
3) criticize, reprimand
4) stop defending your opinion in a debate 5) None.
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
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Direction (31-35) : Study the following information carefully to answer the
question :
Organisation ‘X’ decided to refurnish the entire office by replacing furniture
and ACs and also replace the desktops of employees with laptops The furniture
includes tables, chairs, cabinets and sofa sets The cost of each cabinet is three
times the cost of a chair, cost of each table is 80% of the cost of a laptop Cost of a
table is 120% of the cost of an AC Cost of sofa set is twice that of a laptop Cost of
table is Rs.21.000 Cost of chair is 60% that of laptop.
31. In order to furnish a hall, it has to be provided with 4 tables. 4 chairs and one AC.
What will be the cost of furnishing the hall ?
1) Rs. 1,64,500 2) Rs. 1,42,600
3) Rs. 1,44,650 4) Rs. 1,48,400 5) Rs. 1,45,200
32. In hall 1. 4 cabinets. 8 tables 22 chairs and 2 ACs are to be provided If in the deal
the organisation got 8% discount what was the total cost incurred ?
1) Rs.7,38,500 2) Rs.5,98,850 3) Rs.6,79,420 4) Rs.6,38,450 5) Rs.7,65,600
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Sreedhar’s CCE RB I A SST - SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T-87

33. If cabin A is to be provided one table one chair and one laptop and cabin B is to be
provided a cabinet and an AC. What is the ratio between cost of furnishing cabins
A & B respectively ?
1) 14 : 23 2) 23 : 24 3) 32 : 63 4) 28 : 53 5) 36 : 37
34. If desktops of 27 employees are to be replaced with laptops and in exchange offer
a discount of Rs. 2500 in exchange of a desktop was given, what was the net cost
of laptops ?
1) Rs.6,41,250 2) Rs.6,48,000 3) Rs.6,93,750 4) Rs.5,88,650 5) Rs.5,93,750
35. If the cost of table, chair and cabinet is increased by 25%, 20% and 30% respectively,
what will be the total cost of one table. 2 chairs and one cabinet together ?

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1) Rs.1,14,750 2) Rs.99,750 3) Rs.98,250 4) Rs. 1,24,425 5) Rs.1,25,475
Direction (36-40) :In this question, a number series is given in which one number
is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
36. 11 5 4 4.5 7 14 42
1) 14 2) 4 3) 5 4) 7 5) 4.5
37. 11.5
1) 31
13 17.5
2) 192.5
31
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71.5 192.5 557.5
3) 13 4) 71.5 5) 17.5
38. 179 177 171 159 139 108
1) 171
39. 400 371
2) 159
348 329
3) 139
311 299

E 4) 177 5) 108
d
1) 371 2) 299 3) 311 4) 329 5) 348
40. 130 66 36 18 10 6
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1) 136 2) 10 3) 18 4) 6 5) 66
Direction (41-45) : Refer to the graph and answer the given question :
Data related to number of shirts sold by two stores (A and B) during 5 Months
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A B
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400
350

300
Number of shirts sold

250
200
150
C
100
50
0
March April May June July
Months
41. What is the respective ratio between total number of shirts sold by stores A and B
together in May and that in July ?
1) 10:11 2) 9: 11 3) 3:4 4) 5:6 5) 9:10
42. If the total number of shirts sold by stores A and B together in August is 15% less
than that in June, what is the total number of shirts sold by stores A and B
together in August ?
1) 459 2) 463 3) 451 4) 431 5) 455
43. It the total number of shirts sold by stores A and B together in November is 210
more than that sold in April, what was the total number of shirts sold by stores A
and B together in November ?
1) 660 2) 640 3) 600 4) 620 5) 680

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Sreedhar’s CCE RB I A SST - SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T-87

44. What is the average number of shirts sold by store B in March, April and May ?
1) 280 2) 290 3) 320 4) 310 5) 300
45. Number of shirts sold by store A increased by what percent from March to May ?
3 3 3 1 1
1) 43 4 2) 38 3) 48 4) 45 5) 41
4 4 4 4
46. In an examination, a student scores 9 marks for every correct answer and loses 4
marks for every wrong answer. If he attempts in all 130 questions and secures
533 marks, what is the number of questions attempted correctly ?
1) 72 2) 81 3) 91 4) 63 5) 87

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47. A and B started a business with initial investments in the ratio 7 :12 respectively
and their annual profits were in the ratio 7 : 9 respectively. If A invested the
money for 8 months, for how many months did B invested his money ?
1) 5 2) 7 3) 9 4) 8 5) 6
48. A watch dealer sells watches for Rs. 2400 per watch. Once he gave two successive
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discounts of 25% and 30% respectively to a customer. However, he could recover
the sales tax on net sale price from the customer at 11 % of the net price. What
was his approximate loss percent ?
1) 53 2) 34 3) 42 4) 49 5) 38
49.

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A and B are two stations 824 km apart. A train starts from A at 7 a.m. and travels
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towards B at 84 kmph. Another train starts from B at 8 a.m. and travels towards
A at 64 kmph. At what time do they meet ?
1) 2.30 p.m. 2) 1 p.m. 3) 12.30 p.m. 4) 4 p.m. 5) 3 p.m.
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50. A contractor undertook a project of constructing a wall in 30 days. He employs 28

people for the same. However, after 16 days he finds that only 40% work has been
completed. How many more men should he employ to complete the work in time ?
1) 31 2) 23 3) 18 4) 26 5) 20
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51. The surface areas of Cube A and Cube B are 384 sq m and 864 sq m respectively.
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What is the difference between the volume of Cube A and Cube B (in m3) ?
1) 1186 2) 1162 3) 1216 4) 1336 5) 1064
52. A person saves 12% of his income. After two years his income increased by 34%
but his savings remain the same His expenditure has increased (approximately)
by what percent ?
1) 28 2) 41 3) 32 4) 34 5) 39
53. The respective ratio between the present ages of a man and his wife is 8 : 9. After
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twelve years this ratio will be 11 : 12 respectively. If at the time of marriage the
ratio was 6 : 7. then how many years ago their marriage took place ?
1) 8 2) 15 3) 12 4) 6 5) 10
54. On a sum of money, the simple interest for two years is Rs. 1,992. while the
compound interest is Rs. 2,051.76. the rate of interest and period being same in
both the cases. What is the rate of interest (p.c.p.a.) ?
1) 8 2) 6 3) 4 4) 9 5) 7
55. Juice and water in two vessels M and N are in the ratios 3 : 4 and 1 : 4 respectively.
In what ratio the liquids in both the vessels should be mixed to obtain a new
mixture in vessel P containing Juice and water in the ratio of 3 : 7 respectively ?
1) 5 : 7 2) 9 : 11 3) 7 : 9 4) 9 : 13 5) 4 : 7
Directions (56-62): What exact value will come in place of the question mark (?)
in the following questions?
56. 10000 – 612 = 4758 +?
1) 1369 2) 1444 3) 1521 4) 1600 5) 1641

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Sreedhar’s CCE RB I A SST - SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T-87

57. 200 × 198% + 455 × 60% + 750 × 48% = ?

1) 729 2) 1029 3) 1089 4) 1156 5) 1225
58. 7320 – 3719 – 2073 – 732 = ?
1) 766 2) 776 3) 786 4) 796 5) 806
59. 729 ÷ 3 ÷3 × 343 ÷ 7 ÷ 7 + 7 = ?2
2

1) 4 2) 6 3) 14 4) 16 5) 24

60.  96  
49 / 
36  196  46  2  ?

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1) 10 2) 12 3) 14 4) 15 5) 16
61. 138% of 3750 + 38% of 1450 = ?
1) 5274 2) 5726 3) 5774 4) 5854 5) 5114
62. 640 × 40% + 390 × 30% - 250 × 25% =?
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1) 185.5 2) 195.5 3) 290.5 4) 310.5 5) 201.5
Direction(Q.No:63-65) : The question consists of a question and two statements I
and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements
are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the
appropriate option :

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63. What is the respective ratio of initial investments of M and N ?
(I) M started the business by investing a certain amount and he invested for the
whole year. N joined M after 3 months from the start of the business and invested
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for the rest of the year.

(II) The profit earned by M and N are in the respective ratio of 28 : 33.
1) The data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
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2) The data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
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data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

3) The data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.
4) The data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question.
5) The data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
64. An item was sold after giving a certain discount on the marked price. What was
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the percentage of discount given ?
(I) Had the selling price been Rs. 54/- less the profit earned would have been
10%.
(II) The marked price of the item is 40% above the cost price. Had the percentage
of discount been doubled the loss incurred would have been 2%.
1) The data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
2) The data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.
3) The data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question.
4) The data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
5) The data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

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Sreedhar’s CCE RB I A SST - SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T-87

65. There are two cylindrical rollers - bigger and smaller. How many rotations will
the bigger roller take to flatten a stretch of land (X) ?
(I) The respective ratio of the radii of the bigger and the smaller roller is 9 : 5. The
length of the bigger roller is 5m more than the length of the smaller roller.
(II) The smaller roller takes 189 rotations to flatten the stretch of land (X).
1) The data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.
2) The data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) The data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to

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answer the question.
4) The data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question.
5) The data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question

66.
ha REASONING
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word using the third, the
fourth, the eighth and the ninth letters (when counted from left to right) of the

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word DIALOGUES (using each letter only once), then which of the following will
be the third letter from the left of the word thus formed ?
d
1)S 2) More than one such word can be formed 3) E
4) No such word can be formed 5) L
Direction(67-71): This question is based on the 5 three digit numbers given below:
ee

638 831 746 543 372

67. What will be the sum if all the digits of the highest number and those of the third
lowest number are added ?
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1) 35 2) 42 3) 27 4) 29 5) 22
68. If all the digits of the given numbers are rearranged in ascending order within
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the number, the second digit of how many numbers thus formed will be greater
than 5 ?
1) One 2) Three 3) None 4) More than three 5) Two
69. If in all the numbers, the third digit is subtracted from the sum of the first and
the second digits, the resultant for which of the given numbers will be the highest
?
1) 831 2) 638 3) 746 4) 372 5) 543
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70. What will be the product if the third digit of the second lowest number is multiplied
by the second digit of the second highest number ?
1) 32 2) 24 3) 6 4) 12 5) 8
71. If the position of first and third digits in each of the given numbers are interchanged,
how many of them will form odd numbers ?
1) More than three 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) None
Direction(72-73): In this question, relationship between different elements is
shown in the statement/s. The statement/s are followed by conclusions. Study
the conclusions based on the given statement/s and select the appropriate answer.
72. Statements: S  T  O  K; T  R
Conclusion (I) : K  S Conclusion (II) :O  R
1) Both Conclusions I and II are true
2) Only Conclusion I is true 3) Only Conclusion II is true
4) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true
5) Either Conclusion I or II is true

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Sreedhar’s CCE RB I A SST - SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T-87

73. Statement : P  A > R = K  E < D

Conclusion (I) : R < D Conclusion (II) : P > K
1) Either Conclusion I or II is true 2) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true
3) Only Conclusion I is true 4) Both Conclusions I and II are true
5) Only Conclusion II is true
Direction(74-78): Study the given information carefully and answer the given
question:
Eight people are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.
B sits third to the right of A. E is an immediate neighbour of B. C sits second
to the right of E. D sits third to the right of F. B is not an immediate neighbour of

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F. Only three people sit between G and H. E is an immediate neighbour of H.
74. Who sits second to the right of H ?
1) D 2) F 3) A 4C 5) B
75. Which of the following statements is TRUE with respect to the given information ?
(i) B sits second to the right of G
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(ii) Only three people sit between A and E
(iii) D sits to the immediate left of E
1) Only (i) 2) Both (ii) and (iii) 3) Both (i) and (ii)

76.
4) Only (ii)

E
5) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
As per the given arrangement A is related to F in the same way as D is related to
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G following a certain pattern. Following the same pattern, to whom is H related ?
1) D 2) B 3) E 4) C 5) None of the given options
77. As per the given arrangement sit/s exactly between E and F, when counted from
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the right of E.
1) Both H and C 2) Only D 3) Only B 4) Both A and C 5) Only G
78. How many people sit between G and E, when counted from the right of G ?
1) Two 2) None 3) More than three
C
4) One 5) Three
Sr

Direction(79-82): In this question two/three statements followed by two

conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known
facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
given statements.
79. Statements: All caps are hats. Only a few hats are umbrellas
Conclusions (I) : Some caps are umbrellas
Conclusions (II): No cap is an umbrella
C
1) Only Conclusion I follows 2) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
3) Both Conclusions I and II follow
4) Either Conclusion I or II follows 5) Only Conclusion II follows
80. Statements: All pins are clips. No clip is a band. Only a few bands are metals.
Conclusions (I) : All metals can never be clips
Conclusions (II): Atleast some pins are bands
1) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows 2) Both Conclusions I and II follow
3) Only Conclusion II follows
4) Either Conclusion I or II follows 5) Only Conclusion I follows
81. Statements : Only a few germs are Insects. All insects are crows.
Conclusions (I) : Some germs are crows.
Conclusions (II): All germs are crows
1) Only Conclusion II follows 2) Both Conclusions I and II follow
3) Either Conclusion I or II follows
4) Only Conclusion I follows 5) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

10
Sreedhar’s CCE RB I A SST - SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T-87

82. Statements: Only a few dogs are wolves. Only a few wolves are packs. All packs
are tribes.
Conclusions (I): All dogs can never be packs
Conclusions (II) : Atleast some wolves are tribes
1) Either Conclusion I or II follows 2) Both Conclusions I and II follow
3) Only Conclusion I follows
4) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows 5) Only Conclusion II follows
Direction(83-87): Study the given information carefully and answer the given
question:

r’s
Eight people viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H live on eight different floors of a
building. The ground floor is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two
and so on till the topmost floor is numbered eight.
D lives on floor number five. Only two people live between C and D. As many
people live above A as below C. Only two people live between A and G. H lives
ha
immediately above B but not on floor number seven. E lives on one of the floors
above F.
83. If all the people are made to live in alphabetical order from bottom to top, then
the floor/s of stay of how many people will remain unchanged ?
1) Three 2) Two

E 3) One 4) None 5) More than three

d
84. Who live/s exactly between E and D ?
1) Only G 2) Only F 3) Both B and F 4) No one 5) Both C and G
85. Which of the following statements is TRUE with respect to the given arrangement
ee

?
(i) C lives on floor number eight.
(ii) Only three people live between E and B
C
(ill) G lives on one of the floors above C
1) All the given statements are true
Sr

2) Only (i) 3) Only (iii) 4) Both (i) and (ii) 5) Both (ii) and (iii)
86. On which floor number does F live ?
1) Five 2) Four 3) Six 4) Eight 5) TWO
87. How many people live between A and H?
1) Three 2) Two 3) One 4) None 5) More than three
88. In a certain code language SCOT is coded as M4$9, LATE is coded as #597 and
KINE is coded as 2@%7. How will CAKE be coded in the same code language ?
C
1) 4527 2) 279* 3) %#*$ 4) 475% 5) 942@
Direction(89-93): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question:
Eight people - E, F, G, P, Q, R, S and T gave a lecture in either of the four
months viz. March, May, June and November of the same year. In each month the
lecture was given only on one of the two dates - 10th and 25th of the month.
Only one of the given persons gave the lecture on each date. It is assumed that
no other person gave a lecture on any other date of the given year.
E gave a lecture on 10th of a month having only 30 days. Only three people
gave a lecture between E and F. As many people gave a lecture after F as before
P. Only four people gave a lecture between G and P. More than three people gave
a lecture between G and Q. R gave a lecture immediately before S.
89. How many people gave a lecture between S and T ?
1) Three 2) Two 3) One 4) None 5) More than three

11
Sreedhar’s CCE RB I A SST - SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T-87

90. As per the given arrangement, four of the following five are alike in a certain way
and hence form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group ?
1) QS 2) TE 3) ER 4)RG 5)ST
91. On which of the following dates did G give a lecture ?
1) 25th November 2) 10th June 3) 10th May
4)10th March 5) 25th March
92. As per the given arrangement, as many people gave a lecture before R as after_.
1) S 2) T 3) E 4) Q 5) P
93. Who amongst the following gave a lecture on 25th June ?

r’s
1) T 2) Q 3) S 4) P 5) F
Direction(94-96):Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question:
A is the sibling of T. M is the only son of T. M is unmarried. J is the mother of
M. J is the mother-in-law of S. P is the son of S. A is unmarried. T has only two
children. B is the mother of J.
94. How is S related to T ?
1) Niece
ha
2) Sister-in-law 3) Nephew
4) Daughter-in-law 5) Son-in-law
95. How is P related to M ?
1) Nephew

E
2) Grandson 3) Cousin 4) Son-in-law 5) Brother-in-law
d
96. If X is the grandmother of M, how is T related to X ?
1) Daughter 2) Grandson 3) Sister-in-law 4) Son-in-law 5) Son
Direction(97-100): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
ee

question:
A certain number of people are sitting in a straight line facing North. R sits
sixth from one of the extreme ends of the line. J sits fourth to the right of R. T sits
C
ninth to the left of J. T sits second to the left of F. Only five people sit to the left of
F. As many people sit between R and F as between J and M. No one sits between
Sr

M and V. The number of people sitting to the right of V is half the number of
people sitting to the left of S.
97. How many people sit to the right of S ?
1) Three 2) Seven 3) None 4) Eight 5) Five
98. As per the given arrangement, as many people sit between J and F as between T
and____.
1) M 2) R 3) S 4) J 5) V
C
99. How many people are sitting in the given line ?
1) l6 2) 20 3) l4 4) 22 5) l8
100. What is the position of V from the right end of the line ?
1) Eighth 2) Fourth 3) Seventh 4) Sixth 5) Tenth

KEY
1.3 2.4 3.3 4.3 5.2 6.1 7.2 8.5 9.3 10.4 11.1 12.3 13.2
14.4 15.1 16.1 17.2 18.3 19.3 20.4 21.3 22.3 23.1 24.5 25.3 26.3
27.2 28.1 29.2 30.1 31.1 32.3 33.5 34.1 35.5 36.1 37.2 38.5 39.3
40.1 41.1 42.1 43.2 44.4 45.1 46.2 47.5 48.3 49.2 50.5 51.3 52.5
53.1 54.2 55.3 56.3 57.2 58.4 59.3 60.1 61.2 62.4 63.3 64.5 65.4
66.2 67.4 68.5 69.1 70.4 71.4 72.1 73.5 74.2 75.3 76.3 77.1 78.1
79.4 80.5 81.4 82.5 83.1 84.2 85.2 86.3 87.3 88.1 89.2 90.2 91.4
92.1 93.4 94.5 95.1 96.5 97.2 98.5 99.3 100.2

12